FIELD OF SPECIALIZATION – 150 ITEMS

(BIOLOGICAL SCIENCE)
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS:
1. This test booklet contains 150 test questions. Examinees shall manage to use three and one-half
(3 1/2) hour.
2. Read INSTRUCTIONS TO EXAMINEES printed on your answer sheet.
3. Shade only one (1) box for each question on your answer sheets. Two or more boxes shaded will
Invalidate your answer.
4. AVOID ERASURES.
5. This is PRC Property. Unauthorized possession, reproduction, and/or sale of this test booklet is
punishable by law. (R.A. 8981)
INSTRUCTIONS:
1. Detach one (1) answer sheet from the bottom of your Examinee ID/Answer Sheet Set.
2. Write the subject title “BIOLOGICAL SCIENCE” on the box provided.
3. Shade Set Box “A” on your answer sheet if your test booklet is Set A; Set Box “B” if your test booklet is

FINAL COACHING

(This exam are all PRC related questions. It covers 2010-2016)

GOD BLESS!

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. Which type of cytoskeletal structure is involved in flagella formation and in the amniotic apparatus?
A. Microtrabecule C. Microfilament
B. Intermediate filament D. Microtubules

2. Compounds with the same chemical formula but with different structural formula are called
________.
A. polymers C. isomers
B. double-stranded D. helices

3. Which are small, irregularly-shaped cells without nuclei are but rich in ATP?

A. Leukocytes C. Lymphocytes
B. Thrombocytes D. Erythrocytes

4. Why can an eighty-seven percent (87%) salt solution keep a frog tissue alive for observation? Because
its osmotic pressure is _______.
A. less than that of the cell C. varied
B. equal to that of the cell D. greater than that of the cell
5. What type of muscle tissue lines hollow structures like ducts and blood vessels that contracts
involuntarily?
A. Skeletal C. Striated
B. Cardiac D. Smooth

6. Which characteristic of cancer cells differentiates them from normal cells?

A. Cancer cells continue to divide even when they are tightly packed.
B. Cancer cells are unable to synthesize DNA.
C. Cancer cells undergo indirect cell division.
D. The cell cycle of cancer cells is arrested in the S phase.

7. Studying the characteristic structure and functions of all kinds of cells entails investigations in
_______.
A. cytology C. embryology
B. morphology D. histology

8. How many ATP molecules are produced via oxidative phosphorylation when 1 mole of glucose is
degraded
into carbon dioxide and water?
A. 4 C. 34
B. 24 D. 6

9. Which of the following exemplifies phagocytic feeding?

A. Red blood cells C. Platelets
B. Virus D. White blood cells

10. Which tissue in all vascular plants has food transport as its main function?
A. Schelrenchyma C. Phloem
B. Palisade D. Xylem

11. Which is the 3-carbon sugar formed during the dark-reaction phase of photosynthesis?
A. PGAL C. ATP
B. ADP D. NADPH

12. A leaf could be identified either as dicot or monocot by _______.

A. pressing whether soft or hard
B. looking at the shape and size
C. examining its venation
D. looking for the stomata
13. Which hormone stimulates the growth of buds and sprouts on branches of trees?
A. Cytokinin C. Abscissic acid
B. Auxin D. Gibberelin

14. “Leaf fall” which regularly occurs during winter months, resulting in the separation of layers near the
base
of the petiole is a condition called ______.

A. annual sheds C. abscission

B. senescence D. dormancy

15. Which part of a seed appears as a scar which marks the entry of the pollen tube during fertilization?
A. Epicotyl C. Testa
B. Tegmen D. Hilum

16. Which of the following is a part of the process of chemiosmosis?

A. Build up of hydrogen ion concentration
B. Absorption of light energy by chloroplasts
C. Movement of electrons through membranes
D. Splitting of water molecules

17. During the light-reaction phase of photosynthesis, the addition of the phosphate group with the aid
of sunlight is called _______.
A. photophosphorylation C. ribulose formation
B. carbohydrate synthesis D. electron transfer

18. Common shrubs like gumamelas and bougainvillas reproduce asexually by _____.
A. spore formation C. fertilization
B. fission D. vegetative propagation

19. In vascular plants, which type of tissue is responsible for the secondary growth in stems and roots?
A. Cytomembrane C. Palisade layer
B. Cambium D. Dermal layer

20. What type of root system is found among grass and other low plants?
A. Primary C. Tap
B. Fibrous D. Branched

21. Which biome grows tropical grassland with scattered individual trees and large herbivores?
A. Tundra C. Taiga
B. Desert D. Savanna
22. Which are correctly paired according to their functions?
A. Xylem and cambium C. Lenticels and stomata
B. Root hairs and meristem D. Phloem and vascular ray

23. The stems/trunks of dicotyledonous plants grow wide in diameter due to the presence of the
______.
A. dermal layer C. mesophyl
B. schlerenchyma D. cambium layer

24. What are the usual reactions of the leaves and roots of plants to conditions in the environment?
I. Phototropism
II. Thigmotropism
III. Geotropism
IV. Chemotropism
A. II and IV C. II and III
B. I and III D. I and IV

25. Who experimented on the gas released during photosynthesis and what gas did he find out?
A. Robert Meyer, nitrogen C. Joseph Priestly, oxygen
B. Jan Helmont, oxygen D. Jean Senebier, hydrogen

26. By what type of reproduction and through what process does a severed portion of a starfish grow
into a
full starfish?
A. Sexual reproduction; through sex cells
B. Asexual reproduction; bud formation
C. Asexual reproduction; vegetative propagation
D. Asexual reproduction; regeneration

27. What is the common reaction of protozoans to an acidic substance like vinegar?
A. Slight C. No reaction
B. Positive D. Negative

37. Which of the following is NOT thought to be an ancestor of humans?

A. Fish C. Snake
B. Bird D. Monkey

38. What organ assists the fish to float in their habitat?

A. Air sacs C. Gall bladder
B. Air bladder D. Dorsal aerators

39. What chemical controls metamorphosis among insects?

A. Pheromones C. Enzymes
B. Estradol D. Hormones
40. Mammals experience a very minimal change in their body temperature as they move from a warm
location to an extremely cold place because they are _______.
A. crytophilic C. thermophilic
B. polkolothermic D. homiothermic

41. What emergency hormone increases the supply of sugar and oxygen in the blood for more energy?
A. Insulin C. Thyroxin
B. Pituitrin D. Adrenalin

42. If bone has osteocytes, skin has _____.

A. chondriocytes C. melanocytes
B. fibrocytes D. osteoblasts

43. What is a recent technology being used now in the surgery of the retina?
A. CT scan C. Grafts
B. Laser D. X-ray

44. What may happen with the carbon dioxide concentration in the blood if you hold your breath for
half a minute? The carbon dioxide concentration will _______.
A. fluctuate C. remains the same
B. decrease D. increase

45. Which of the following vitamins is needed for the clotting factor synthesis?
A. E C. K
B. D D. B

46. Damaged blood vessels are repaired by _____.

A. thrombocytes C. leukocytes
B. erythrocytes D. phagocytes

47. Which muscle disorder accounts for skeletal muscle tissue degeneration that causes a person to
experience progressive weakness?
A. Atrophy C. Cramps
B. Dystrophy D. Hypertrophy

48. Which of the following vitamins is needed for erythrocyte production?

A. B12 C. E
B. D D. A

49. When erythrocytes are found in the urine, the condition is diagnosed as _____.
A. hematuria C. glomerulonephritis
B. cytitis D. hemophilia
50. Which part of our body serves as a lever, a kind of simple machine?
A. Ligament C. Bone
B. Spinal cord D. Tendon

51. Now, artificial sheets of skins composed of epidermis grown from cells of human donors for the
treatment
of burns are called _______.
A. dermagrafts C. epithelial grafts
B. keratinocytes D. cutaneous extensions

52. Complete this analogy.

Lower arm : radius-ulna
Legs : ______
A. femur and tibia C. femur and fibula
B. tibia and fibula D. sacral and lumbar

53. When you enter suddenly a well-lighted room after coming from a dark room, you experience not
seeing
things clearly for some seconds. This is because _____.
A. the pupils are not adapted to the dark.
B. the eyes are adapted to light only.
C. the pupils are not dilated yet.
D. light had caused temporary blindness.

54. What is the most common cause of a cardiovascular disease?

A. Fatty deposits in the arteries
B. Inadequate supply of red blood cells
C. Lack of sodium in the diet
D. Increased heartbeat

55. Which of the following criterion is used to distinguish between two species?
A. Reproduction C. Time
B. Physical traits D. Geography

56. Which region of a vertebrate forebrain is concerned with the neutral-endocrine control of visceral
activities?
A. Cerebellum C. Hypothalamus
B. Thalamus D. Pituitary

57. Why is it not advisable to remove the tonsils of children even if they become inflamed occasionally?
A. They contain lymphocytes that fight bacteria.
B. They are needed in sensing the taste of foods.
C. They help in swallowing food easily.
D. They contain blood platelets.
58. What strong connective tissue attaches a skeletal muscle to a bone?
A. Myofibril C. Ligament
B. Tendon D. Cartilage

59. Doctors can now ask the pathologists to help them diagnose diseases from far away places through
special computer hardware. They can view slides of tissue samples as they are hooked to the internet.
The method is termed ________.
A. micropathology C. telepathology
B. histopathology D. pathological diagnosis

60. We are warned to stay away from a place that can generate sound a a hundred decibels in order to
____.
A. balance the semi-circular canal
B. keep the stirrup safe
C. protect the Eustachian tube
D. protect the tympanic membrane

61. Which condition may result in high blood pressure?

A. Relaxed phase of heartbeat C. Constriction of the blood vessels
B. Decreased blood volume D. Increased blood volume

62. Is the bone tissue classified living or nonliving?

I. Nonliving, it does not grow in size.
II. Living, capable of producing new bone tissue.
III. Living is supplied with blood vessels.
IV. Nonliving does not contain ATP for energy.
A. I and IV C. IV only
B. I only D. II and III

63. What is the function of parathyroid hormone?

A. Lowers blood calcium level
B. Regulates the activity of the thyroid gland
C. Raises blood calcium level
D. Controls physical and mental growth

64. The number of red blood cells per cubic millimeter of blood is 500,000,000 in men and 4,500,000 in
women. What is the advantage of this for men?
A. Man do strenuous activities and need more energy.
B. They have bigger physique and need more blood.
C. men waste more blood cells and need extra.
D. They are more proned to anemia disorder.
65. What part of the brain assists in recalling important information learned?
A. Medulla C. Midbrain
B. Cerebrum D. Cerebellum

66. Why are our lips “redder” than our palm?

A. There is increased blood flow in the lips.
B. Lips are heavily keratinized.
C. Lip epidermis is thinner.
D. Many blood vessels are located around the lips.

67. Which is a carnivorous plant?

A. Pitcher plant C. Cactus
B. Kataka-taka D. Fire tree

68. The hormone that assists liver cells to convert glycogen into glucose is _______.
A. insulin C. glucagon
B. glycerine D. glycerol

69. Which of the following pancreatic fluids is responsible for the breakdown of fat?
A. Lipase C. Chymotrypsin
B. Amylase D. Trypsin

70. A female who is heterozygous for colorblindness marries a normal male. What is the probability that
their child will be colorblind?
A. 25% C. 100%
B. 75% D. 50%

71. In mammalian cloning, the organism resulting from the technology is similar to the ______.
A. owner of the somatic cell C. owner of the embryonic cell
B. surrogate mother D. location of the somatic cell

72. Mutation that is brought about by the earth’s natural radioactivity is referred to as _______.
A. continuous C. spontaneous
B. induced D. controlled

73. In a double-stranded DNA, which of the following are complementary to each other?
A. Thymine and cytosine C. Adenine and Guanine
B. Members of a base pair D. Ribose and organic base

74. What microbial organisms are used in the creation of genetically modified organisms?
A. Pseudomonas vulgaris
B. Agro bacterium tumalaciens
C. Bacillus thuringensis
D. Escherichia coli
75. The technique that involves finding the exact location of a gene in the 46 chromosomes of a human
cell is
called _____.
A. DNA sequencing C. gene cloning
B. gene mapping D. recombinant maps

76. What substance in the chromosomes is responsible for the chemical properties of genes?
A. Nitrogenous base C. Nucleotide
B. Deoxyribose nucleic acid D. Ribonucleic acid

77. Mad cow’s disease is caused by _____.

A. viroids C. phages
B. prion D. virus

78. What microbial organisms are used in the creation of genetically modified organisms such as Bt
corn?
A. Pseudomonas vulgaris C. Bacillus thuringiensis
B. E. coli D. Bacterium tumafaciens

79. Which fossil bird has marked reptilian characteristics?

A. Archaopteryx C. Lemur
B. Bat D. Pterodactyl

80. The most important on-going project today which involves the mapping of the genes in all of man’s
46 chromosomes is that on
A. stem-cell production C. cloning of organisms
B. genetic engineering D. human genome

81. The number of autosomes and type of sex chromosomes normally present in a human egg cell is
_____.
A. 22+X C. 44+X
B. 44+XY D. 22+Y
82. Comparing the bonding patterns of DNA fragments retrieved at the scene of the crime with those
obtained from a primary suspect is a procedure employed by _______.
A. forensic experts C. DNA technologists
B. gene therapy experts D. transgeny technologists

83. The process of fusing cells wihtout cell walls as in protoplast fusion makes use of facilitating
substances
such as _______.
A. gel electrophoresis C. polyethylene glycol
B. restriction enzymes D. DNA probes
84. The first dinosaur fossil found in USA in 1818 was described to possess ________.
A. a long body and tail
B. a huge mouth and teeth
C. a huge skull but with a small brain
D. large legs and feet

85. Three brothers have blood types A, B and O. What are the chances that the parents of these traits
will produce a fourth child whose blood type is AB?
A. 50% C. 0%
B. 100% D. 25%

86. When the gene pair is heterozygous only one is physically expressed and the other is hidden, which
law is explained?
A. Incomplete-dominance C. Independent assortment
B. Dominance D. Segregation

87. What is the role of decomposers in a nitrogen cycle?

A. Fix nitrogen of the air into ammonia.
B. Convert ammonia into nitric acid.
C. Denitrify nitrogen compounds.
D. Release ammonia to the soil.

88. Lamarck’s theory of evolution proposed that changes occurred as a result of a need for them, hence
the law of ______.
A. survival of the fittest C. acquired characters traits
B. use and disuse D. natural selection

89. A male and a female who both have Rr genotypes at a locus will produce what proportion of rr
children?
A. 75% C. 100%
B. 25% D. 50%

90. What is the organic base found in RNA?

A. Uracil C. Cytosine
B. Guanine D. Thymine

91. Differentiate RNA from DNA.

A. RNA is a single strand and the sugar is deoxyribose.
B. RNA is a single strand and the sugar is ribose.
C. DNA is a single strand and the sugar is deoxyribose.
D. RNA is a double strand and the sugar is ribose.
92. What results when two alleles both appear in the phenotype?
A. Incomplete dominance C. Sex-linked genes
B. Codominance D. Multiple alleles

93. A male and a female with Tt genotype swill produce a zygote with the following ratio _______.
A. 1:2:2 C. 2:1:1
B. 1:2:1 D. 1:1:2

94. The process involved in the production of mRNA using DNA as template is termed ______.
A. transcription C. gene manipulation
B. replication D. reverse transcription

95. A male and female who both have Bb genotypes will produce zygotes in which of the following ratio?
A. 1 BB: 2 Bb: 2 bb C. 1 BB: 2 Bb: 1 bb
B. 1 BB: 1 Bb: 1 Bb D. 2 BB: 1 Bb: 1 bb

96. Fossils may be formed at ocean bottoms in the form of imprints or molds of an organism’s body.
Such formation is called _______.
A. trapped in water C. sedimentation
B. preservation D. petrification

97. The inner lining of the uterus consisting of connective tissues, glands and blood vessels through
which nutrient reach the embryo is called ______.
A. endometrium C. chorion
B. placenta D. uterine

98. Which statement supports Darwin’s theory of evolution?

A. Variation is not essential to species evolution.
B. Few offsprings produced are involved in the evolution process.
C. Unfavorable mutations favor general evolution.
D. Organisms with favorable adaptation tend to survive.

99. Adenosine diphosphate is a molecule involved in molecular energy transfers that is typically formed
by________.
A. accumulation of nucleotides C. hydrolysis of ATP
B. hydrolysis of NADH D. absorption of phosphate

100. Studies show that there are parts of the body that have lost their usefulness and which may late
disappear. What are these parts called?
A. Fossilized parts C. Extinct
B. Residual D. Vestigial organs
101. Sewage and other organic wastes are measured in terms of their ______.
A. bacterial count C. radioactivity
B. fecal coliform D. biological oxygen demand

102. The maximum number of healthy organisms that the resource of an ecosystem can support at a
given
time is referred to as its _______.
A. maintenance capacity C. competing ability
B. resistance ability D. carrying capacity

103. Amphibians are organisms that are capable of swimming and can navigate at will. They are called
____.
A. benthos C. neustons
B. nektons D. planktons

104. Which one CANNOT be classified as an ecosystem?

A. Herbarium C. Aquarium
B. Terrarium D. A rotting log

105. What is the major cause of wildlife depletion?

A. Global warming C. Loss of habitat
B. Less oxygen in the air D. Loss of soil nutrients

106. Which is the BEST soil conversion measure that prevents soil nutrients from being used up?
A. Windbreaks C. Strip cropping
B. Terracing D. Crop rotation

107. Mountain climbers use oxygen equipment at the top of high mountains because there is _______.
A. less nitrogen in the air at great heights
B. no air at the top of high mountains
C. a hole in the ozone layer above
D. less oxygen in the air at great heights

108. On which organisms do all others depend because they can manufacture food?
A. Autotrophs C. Heterotrophs
B. Secondary consumers D. Primary consumers

109. What functional relation evolves in a food pyramid?

A. Energy flow C. Nutrient cycling
B. Food flow D. Food development

110. Which of the following react with water vapor in the atmosphere and form acid rain?
A. SO2 and NO2 C. H2S and NO
B. O3 and CO D. CO and SO2
111. Demographic methods are new applied by ecologists in studying a particular area. What do they
analyze to determine population size?
A. Survivorship pattern in a particular environment.
B. Patterns of birth and death in a population.
C. Patterns of reproduction in an ecosystem.
D. Life table records of birth and death.

112. In an energy pyramid of a marine ecosystem, at what level wo uld the zooplankton be located?
A. Next to the carnivores’ level
B. At the base of the pyramid
C. At the 3rd consumer level
D. Next to the phytoplankton level

113. Which of the following must be present in an ecosystem if it is to be maintained for a long time?
A. Herbivores and carnivores
B. Carnivores and decomposers
C. Producers and carnivores
D. Producers and decomposers

114. When does a temperature inversion occur? When _______.

A. cool air is trapped under warm air
B. warm air is trapped under cool air
C. winds blow fast and slow alternately
D. cool air rises above warm air

115. A tree offers a safe nesting site for birds, while birds eat the insects that cause damage to trees.
Which kind of interspecies relationship exists?
A. Predation C. Mutualism
B. Commensalism D. Cooperation

116. Which is an effective method of preventing soil erosion from a hill?

A. Avoid frequent watering.
B. Avoid planting covercrops.
C. Practice contour plowing.
D. Practice alternate farming.

117. What is the volume of air that is normally being exchanged when we are at rest?
A. 1500 ml C. 500 ml
B. 600 ml D. 6000 ml

118. Which is the direct source of all renewable resources?

A. Photosynthesis C. Sun
B. Sunlight D. Oxygen
119. The increased concentration of organic nutrients in bodies of water which causes the death of
aquatic animals is called _______.
A. pollution C. eutrophication
B. nitrification D. siltation

120. In an energy pyramid of a marine ecosystem, at what level would the zooplankton be located?
A. Next to the carnivores’ level
B. At the base of the pyramid
C. Next to the phytoplankton level
D. At the 3rd consumer level

121. Given a group of organisms, which among them can be considered a population?
A. Birds’ egg that hatches in an aviary
B. Frogs caught in a certain ricefield
C. Ants in an anthill during summer
D. Tilapia being cultured in a pond

122. What do we call the maximum population that the environment can support?
A. Sustainability C. Trophic structure
B. Productivity D. Carrying capacity

123. What BEST characterizes the latitude where most deserts are found?
A. Dry air is rising. C. Air masses are stationary.
B. Dry air is descending. D. Most air is descending.

124. Which environmental factor can prevent a population from growing to its biotic potential?
A. Extreme weather conditions
B. Rate of reproduction
C. Carrying capacity
D. Reforestation

125. The hot springs in Laguna are believed to have curative power because they _______.
A. release water with dissolved minerals
B. are clean due to its temperature
C. contain dissolved organic nutrients
D. can eject water at great heights

126. Which is the richest type of tropical rain forest in the Philippines?
A. Molave forest C. Mangrove forest
B. Dipterocarp forest D. Pine forest

127. Which would you consider as the most effective measure for controlling population explosion?
A. Circumcise all males C. Ligate the females
B. Population education D. Vasectomize males
128. What characteristics of desert plants serve as their adaptive mechanism?
I. leaves smaller in size
II. long, hard stems
III. xerophytic
IV. presence of hair in stomata
A. II and III only C. II, III and IV
B. I and II only D. I, III and IV

129. Which among the climatic elements has the least effect on the distribution of plants and animals on
land?
A. Temperature C. Wind
B. Surface relief D. Rainfall

130. The breaking of huge rocks into smaller particles due to the action of wind and waves is called
_____.
A. stratification C. erosion
B. conservation D. weathering

131. What do we call to the release of excess heat to nearby bodies of water?
A. Toxic waste C. Acid rain
B. Acid pollution D. Thermal pollution

132. What is the natural feeding relationship that occurs naturally in a community?
A. Food pyramid C. Food chain
B. Food succession D. Food competition

133. We are a part of the carbon and oxygen cycle because we ______.
A. take in carbon dioxide mixed with other gases
B. breathe in oxygen and release carbon dioxide
C. oxidize substances present in the environment
D. burn fuel which releases carbon dioxide

134. Biome is a large region that is characterized by _______.

A. physical environment conditions
B. a pattern of annual temperature
C. changes according to seasons
D. interaction among organisms and environment

135. What realm is created by variation in climate, topography and composition of soil, including the
living
organisms that are adapted to this condition?
A. Geochemical C. Global
B. Biochemical D. biogeographic
136. We feel warmer just before it rains because _______.
A. heat is released by the evaporation of water
B. the clouds prevent heat from escaping the earth
C. there is an increased relative humidity
D. heat is released by the condensation of water vapor

137. Which cause deforestation in the Philippines?

I. Indiscriminate logging
II. Human settlements
III. Forest fires
IV. Conversion of forests agricultural land
A. I and II only C. I, II and III
B. II, III and IV D. I and IV only

138. Which of these statements is correctly describes CO?

A. It is formed from an abundant supply of oxygen.
B. It makes one become fatigued easily.
C. It is a greenhouse gas.
D. It binds strongly with hemoglobin in blood.

139. What should be installed to prevent release of sulfur oxides from industrial factories?
A. Scrubber system C. Vacuum cleaners
B. Catalytic converters D. Chimneys

140. Which of the following is a nonrenewable resource?

A. Metal C. Water
B. Trees D. Air

141. “Development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future
generations to meet their own needs.” The term is the definition of _________.
A. environmental needs C. Sustainable development
B. ecological development D. environmental integrity

142. Which are the MOST common sources of pollutants in our rivers and inland waters?
A. Oil washings C. Garbage and sewage
B. Insecticides D. Fertilizers

143. Acid rain can cause damage to ________.

A. glass doors C. wooden houses
B. cement walls D. lakes and soil
144. What is being established when the status of an organism is examined within a community and
how it fits
in its total environment?
A. Environment habitation C. Ecological niche
B. Ecological succession D. Environment succession

145. Products such as plastics, pesticides and radioactive wastes create significant health problems for
large
groups of people. They are classified as ________.
A. Air and land pollutants
B. Non-biodegradable substances
C. Hazardous substances
D. Lethal substances

146. Which factor is considered in studying the carrying capacity of an environment, especially at a time
when
there is a sudden change in population size?
A. space available
B. Equilibrium growth
C. Sustainable food resources
D. Balanced birth and death

147. Which law declares as illegal the use, possession, or destruction of fish and other aquatic animals
by means of dynamite or other explosives?
A. P.D. No. 706
B. Philippine Environment Code
C. R.A No. 428
D. P.D. No. 1153

148. The beginning of a population growth is a slow period called ______.

A. lag phase C. S-curve
B. exponential phase D. stabilization phase

149. Thermal pollution can cause _______.

A. removal of oxygen from water
B. photochemical smoke fog
C. industrial smoke fog
D. acid precipitation

150. The maximum capacity of a population to increase in number by reproduction under good
condition is
called its _________.
A. competing ability C. carrying capacity
B. survival potential D. biotic potential