CHAPTER 2- VIROLOGY

A mature virus particle containing a nucleic acid core

surrounded by a protein coat, with or without envelope, is VIRION
called:
Viruses are characterized by the presence of: DNA AND RNA
What is the largest DNA virus? POXVIRUS
Which is the smallest RNA virus? ENTEROVIRUS
What is the first step in the replication cycle of a virus? ATTACHMENT AND PENETRATION
The virus capsid morphology is: HELICAL OR ICOSAHEDRAL
From what part of the virus is the envelop acquired? NUCLEAR OR CYTOPLASMIC MEMBRANE
Where is the site of virion assembly? NUCLEUS OR CYTOPLASM
Which of the following is a DNA virus? HERPESVIRIDAE
Which of the following is an RNA virus? PSEUDOMYXOVIRIDAE
Specimens collected for virus isolation should be kept at: 4C

At what temperature should clinical specimens suspected of -70C

containing viruses kept for transport that takes days?

In what family of viruses, after primary infection, does an HERPESVIRIDAE

individual become latently infected and then the infection
can be reactivated?
Cytomegalovirus isolation is best accomplished using: HUMAN EMBRYONIC FIBROBLASTS
Which of the following viruses causes acute central nervous RABIES
system disease in humans and animals?
What specimen/s should be collected from a patient with STOOL, THROAT SWAB, CSF
suspected enteroviral meningitis?
Influenza A viruses can be detected in cell cultures by: HEMADSORPTION ASSAY
The best host systems for influenza virus isolation are: MONKEY KIDNEY CELLS AND EMBRYONATED HEN’S EGGS

What common antigen is cross-reactive in all human HEXON

adenoviruses?
The following characteristics are similar in both influenza and HELICAL SYMMETRY, LIPID ENVELOPE, BUDDNG AND
parainfluenza viruses CYTOPLASMIC MEMBRANE
Myxoviridae virus envelope contains both: NEURAMINIDASE AND HEMAGGLUTININ
Eosinophilic cytoplasmic inclusions are elemtary bodies of POXVIRUS
the:
German measles is caused by: RUBELLA VIRUS
What is an alastrim infection? MILD FORM OF SMALLPOX
Which of the following procedure is routinely used for the SOLID-PHASE RIA AND ELISA
detection of Hepatitis B virus (HBV) in blood donors?

Which of the following laboratory procedures is the most DIRECT ELECTRON MICROSCOPY
rapid method for diagnosis of a virus infection?
What specimens should be collected from a patient with THROAT SWAB
suspected influenza?
What virus group contains a double stranded, segmented REOVIRUS
RNA genome?
Enterovirus can be differentiated from rhinoviruses by: ACID RESISTANCE
What virus is the most frequent cause of gastroenteritis in ROTAVIRUS
children during the winter months?
All of the following groups of viruses are resistant to ether HERPESVIRUSES
treatment except:

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 The most common method for rapid electron microscopy NEGATIVE STAINING
examination is:
Various virus groups can be differentiated in negative stained MORPHOLOGY
specimens by their:
PARASITOLOGY QUESTIONS

The motile, reproducing stage, feeding stage of the Protozoa is: TROPHOZOITE
Which of the following amoeba has chromatoid bodies in the ENTAMOEBA
cyst stage?
Amebiasis is caused by E. HISTOLYTICA
Which of the following organs of the body is most often involved LIVER
in extraintestinal amebiasis?
Which of the following is characteristic of true amebiasis? - PERIPHERAL CHROMATIN ON THE NUCLEAR BODY
- CHROMATIN BODIES IN THE CYST
- INCLUDE PATHOGENS AND NONPATHOGENS
Which of the following is a true ameba? E. HARTMANNI
Amebae that inhabits the gastrointestinal tract of man are CYST
nonmotile, nonfeeding, and infective during which stage?
Mature cysts of E. polecki have how many nuclei? 1
Which of the following has cysts with chromatoid bodies that E. COLI
have two pointed ends or that can be round, triangular or oval?
Trophozoites of Entameoba histolytica have the following - SMALLL, DELICATE NUCLEAR CHROMATIN
characteristics: - FINE, EVEN, PERIPHERAL CHROMATIN
- PROGRESSIVE MOTILITY WITH HYALINE, FINGER-LIKE
PSEUDOPODS
Which of these trophozoites, when acting as a pathogen, is likely E. HISTOLYTICA
to ingest red blood cells of the host?
The point of differentiation between Entamoeba histolytica and SIZE
Entamoeba hartmanni is?
The mature cyst of Entamoeba histolytica has how many nuclei? FOUR
Failure to find bacteria in purulent spinal fluid should alert one AMEBAE
to find the possibility of an infection with?
Which trophozoite is distinguished by the possession of I. BUTSCHLII
achromatic granules surrounding its karyosomal chromatin?
Which of the following would have double-walled, wrinkled cyst A. CASTELLANII
form?
A cyst that possesses a single nucleus and a large glycogen I. BUTSCHLII
vacuole that stains deeply with iodine belong to:
Some amebae have spiny, hyaline extensions called: ACANTHOPODS
Which are the best staining procedures for species of Naegleria H&E AND WRIGHT’S STAIN
and Acanthamoeba?
Amebae inhabiting the central nervous system enter the body NASAL MUCOSA
through?
In which specimen are Acanthamoeba and Naegleria usually CEREBROSPINAL FLUID
found?
Naegleria has which of the following characteristics - FOUND IN THE BRAIN
- TROPHOZOITE CAN ASSUME A LIMAX FORM
- TROPHOZOITE CAN BECOME AN AMEBA FLAGELLATE
The trophozoite whose karyosomal chromatin appears as a N. FOWLERI
rosette of 4-6 granules is identified as:
Which of the following are often mistaken for cysts of amebae? BLASTOCYSTIS HOMINIS
Intestinal flagellates are usually which shape in the trophozoite PEAR-SHAPED
stage?
Which of the following is pathognomonic for G. lamblia and the VENTRAL SUCKING DISK- TROPHOZOITE

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 stage it is found in?
Which of the following protozoa have an undulating membrane? TRICHOMONAS, TRYPANOSOMA
Infections with D. fragilis can show which of the following DIARRHEA
symptoms? ABDOMINAL DISCOMFORT WITHOUT DIARRHEA
ASYMPTOMATIC
What does D. fragilis have in common with T. vaginalis? NEITHER HAS CYST FOR
Which flagellate can be a pathogen of small intestines? GIARDIA
Which intestinal flagellate trophozoite has a sucking disk, 2 G. LAMBLIA
nucleo, 8 flagella and an axostyle?
Red and white blood cells in stool specimens are characteristic BACILLARY DYSENTERY
of?
A pear-shaped flagellate with jerky motility that is found in a T. VAGINALIS
urine specimen is identified as?
Eighty percent of the trophozoites of D. fragilis have? 2 NUCLEI
The only bilaterally symmetrical protozoan is? GIARDIA
Whoch of the following is the intracellular form of blood and LEISHMANIAL
tissue flagellates?
Which of the following is the cause of African sleeping sickness? TRYPANOSOMA
Which of the following is the vector of African sleeping sickness? TSETSE FLY
Which species of Trypanosoma is the cause of Chagas disease? CRUZI
Which of the following is characteristic of the trypanosome form PROMINENT KINETOPLAST
of Trypanosoma cruzi? C-SHAPED
THICK ORGANISM
Which specimen would be suitable for a demonstration of the BLOOD
trypanosomes of sleeping sickness? FLUID FROM LYMPH NODE
CSF
The extracellular form of Trypanosoma is a slender organism POSTERIORLY FROM THE KINETOPLAST
characterized by an undulating membrane and a free flagellum
that arises:
Which of the following is found within the reticuloendothelial L. DONOVANI
cells? H. CAPSULATUM
T. GONDII
How is the Trypanosoma cruzi transmitted? BITE OF REDUVIID BUG
A chagoma is a lesion deen in infections with: TRYPANOSOME CRUZI
Which organism is the cause of kala-azar? L. DONOVANI
In the laboratory diagnosis of L. donovani, which is the preferred BONE MARROW
specimen in which to find Leihman-Donovan bodies?
Which of the following is the only ciliate that is pathogenic in B COLI
humans?
A very large cyst whose double wall encloses a ciliated organism ACQUIRED BY ACCIDENT BY MAN, SINCE IT CUSTOMARILY
with one visible nuclei would be: INFECTS SWINE
Which of the following structures are used for the motility of CILIA
Balantidium coli?
Which nucleus in the trophozoite of Balantidium coli is the MICRONUCLEUS
reproductive one?
Conjugation of trophozoites of Balantidium coli never occurs SAME SIZE ORGANISMS
between:
The definitive host (vector) to Plasmodium is the: FEMALE ANOPHELES MOSQUITO
Which of the malarial organisms presents as pale, very ameboid P. VIVAX
ring trophozoites, infecting a large pale red blood cell with dots
of hemoglobin?
Which of the malarial organisms preferentially invades P. VIVAX
reticulocytes?
The malarial organism whose schizont resembles a “fruit pie” in MALARIAE
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which the merozoite form a rosette around the malarial pigment
is:
The malarial organism characteristically has a band form P. MALARIAE
trophozoite stretching across the red blood cell?
The gametocyte of Plasmodium falciparum can be differentiated SHAPE
from that of other malarial species by?
In which type of malaria can Ziemann’s stippling be found? MALARIAE
In which type of malaria can Maurer’s dots be found? P. FALCIPARUM
Which malarial organism has large, coarse, red dots with a large, P. OVALE
pale red blood cell with fimbriated edges?
The sexual reproduction cycle in Plasmodiu, and Coccidia is SPOROGONY
referred to as:
What is the infective stage of the malarial parasite to the vector? GAMETOCYTE
What is the infective stage of the malarial parasite to humans? SPOROZOITES
In which type of malaria is there synchronized rupture of the red MALARIAE
blood cells every 72 hours?
In falciparum malaria, there may be a sudden massive BLACKWATER FEVER
intravascular hemolysis producing hemoglobinuria. This is called:
Which hemoglobin is incompatible with malarial parasite HB-SS
survival?
What is the name of the laboratory test that allows laboratory XENODIAGNOSIS
bred reduviid bugs to feed on patients suspected of having
Chagas’ disease?
Human are infected with Babesia by: BITE OF TICKS
BLOOD TRANSFUSION
If immature oocysts of Isospora belli are found in stool LEAVE AT ROOM TEMPERATURE
specimens from infected humans, what should be done with the
specimen for identification?
What stage of Isospora is infective to humans? OOCYSTS
Isospora belli immature oocysts contain/s: SPOROBLAST
Infective oocysts of Isospora belli contain: SPOROZOITES
The demonstration of retinochoroiditis and cerebral TITER OF TOXOPLASMA ANTIBODIES
calcifications in a newborn would result in which of these
laboratory requests:
What is both the definitive and intermediate host of Toxoplasma CAT
gondii:
What is the appearance of Toxoplasma gondii in tissue fluids of CRESCENT
man?
What constitutes a positive result in the Sabin-Feldman dye test? TOXOPLASMA LOSES ITS AFFINITY FOR METHYLENE BLUE DYE
Which of the following tests is used for the detection of SHEATHER’S SUGAR FLOATATION
Cryptosporidium?
Which of the following parasites poses a particular hazard for CRYPTOSPORIDIUM, GIARDIA, STRONGYLOIDES
immunodeficient or immunosuppressed individuals?
Which of the followi0ng parasites is associated with AIDS? CRYPTOSPORIDIUM
Which operculated ovum contains a miracidium and can appear PARAGONIMUS WESTERMANI
in sputum, often accompanied by blood and Charcot-Leyden
crystals?
Which of the schistosomes may be recovered in rectal biopsy? SCHISTOSOMA MANSONI AND SCHISTOSOMA JAPONICUM
The scientific name of the head of a tapeworm is: SCOLEX
Which of the following worms have an oral and ventral shaped TREMATODES
sucker in the adult stage?
Which of the following are hermaphroditic? FLUKES AND ROUNDWORMS
Which of the following is the first intermediate host of the SNAIL
flukes?
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 The common names for the schostosomes is: BLOOD FLUKES
What is the common name for Clonorchis sinensis? CHINESE LIVER FLUKE
What is a schistosomule? CERCARIAE MINUS TAIL
The beef tapeworm is the common name for? T. SAGINATA
Which tapeworm proglottid makes its way across the fecal T. SAGINATA
specimen by doubling movements, and is seen under the
microscope to have numerous regular uterine branches (more
that 15) resembling those of a tree?
Which of the following has an unarmed scolex? BEEF TAPEWORM
Which species of Taenia has 7 to 12 uterine branches? T. SOLIUM
A hexacanth embryo enclosed in a radially striated shell belongs TAENIA
to the genus
Which tapeworm infection has to be treated with great care so TAENIASIS SOLIUM
that man does not acquire the larval infection:
A bile stained egg that is 75 microns at its greatest diameter and H. DIMINUTA
contains a hexacanth embryo that lacks polar knobs or filaments
is that of:
The “dwarf” tapeworm is another name for: H. NANA
The eggs of Echinococcus granulosus are found in the feces of: DOGS
Which of the following is found in the intermediate host of HYDATID CYST
Echonococcus granulosus?
Hydatid cyst infection of man is due to a larva of the tapeworm: E. GRANULOSUS
The first intermediate host of Diphylloborhrium latum is: COPEPOD
The second intermediate host of Diphylloborhrium latum is: FRESHWATER FISH
What is the infective stage of the broad fish tapeworm to PLEROCERCOID
humans?
The eggs of this tapeworm are developed and have an D. LATUM
operculum at one end and a small abopercular knob at the other
end. The tapeworm is:
In some individuals, particularly those of Scandinavian D. LATUM
extraction, this worm can cause megaloblastic anemia.
Which of the following worms have separate sexes BLOOD FLUKES
The male roundworm is differentiated from the female DORSALLY CURVED POSTERIOR
roundworm by its:
The best way to demonstrate a pinworm infection is by which of CELLOPHANE TAPE PREPARATION
the following techniques?
The gravid female of Enterobius vermicularis deposits her ON THE PERIANAL SKIN
embryonated eggs:
Eggs that average 60 microns in lenghth, are oval with one E. VERMICULARIS
flattened side, and contain a motile larva, are those of:
Eggs that are bile-stained and have clear polar plugs belong to WHIPWORM
the:
Which of the following nematodes does NOT have a free-living E. VERMICULARIS
state:
Whicj stage of Trichuris trichiura is infective to humans? EMBRYONATED EGG
Where does the larva of Ascaris lumbricoides go after it hatches MIGRATES THROUGH THE BLOOD, LIVER, LUNGS, PHARYNX, AND
In the small intestines? THEN BACK TO THE SMALL INTESTINES
If an Ascaris egg lacks its bile-stained mamillated coat, we refer DECORTICATED
to the egg as:
Trichuris trichiura, hookworm and ____ form the “unholy three” A. LUMBRICOIDES
of roundworms:
Which of the following organisms caused infections where the N. AMERICANUS,
larvae migrate into the lymphatics and blood, lung, alveoli, A. DUODENALE
bronchiolus, pharynx, and then the small intestines: S. STERCOLARIS
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 Which of the following is characteristic of the eggs of AN EMBRYO I0N THE TWO-TO-EIGHT CELL STAGE OF CLEAVAGE
hookworms? OVA, THIN SHELL
CLEAR SPACE BETWEEN SHELL AND EMBRYO
The helminth that induces a hypochromic microcytic anemia in HOOKWORM
its host is the:
The rhabtidiform larva of the hookworm has a: LONG BUCCAL CAVITY EQUAL TO THE WIDTH OF THE BODY
Which of the following larval worms enters the host by S. STERCORALIS; A. DUODENALE; N. AMERICANUS
penetration of the skin?
A roundworm that ingabits the small intestine and usually is THREADWORM
demonstrated as rhabditiform larvae in the fecal specimen is
the:
Muscle biopsy is a diagnostic technique employed to detect: TRICHINOSIS
Which of the following roundworms give birth to her young: WUCHERERIA; MANSONELLA; BRUGIA
A viviparous female nematode: PRODICE LIVING LARVAE
One of the differential characteristics of the microfilariae is the A SHEATH
presence or absence of:
Adults of filarial worms live in: LYMPHATICS AND SUBCUTANEOUS TISSUE
One of the pathological findings in infestations of Wuchereria is: ELEPHANTIASIS
The intermediate host of the guinea worm is the: COPEPOD
Dirofilaria immitis is the: DOG HEARTWORM
Dracunculus infections cause ulcers that: ON CONTACT WITH WATER, RELEASE LARVAE
Which of the following microfilariae does NOT have a sheath MANSONELLA
Which of the following is the eye worm LOA
Cutaneous larva migrans or creeping eruption is caused by: FILARIFORM LARVAE OF DOG HOOKWORM
Which of the following causes a chronic cough, pulmonary and DIROFILARIA IMMITIS
artery obstruction but no invasion of the heart in humans?
Which of the following is caused by the ingestion of snails by RAT LUNGWORM
humans?
Cercarial dermatitis, commonly known as swimmer’s itch, is CERCARIAE OF SCHISTOSOMES
caused by:
What is the scientific name of the body of a tapeworm STROBILA
The gravid segments of a tapeworm are filled with: EGGS
A six-hooked embryo is known as: HEXACANTH
“Ground itch” occurs in infections of hookworms ate the: SITE OF LARVAL PENETRATION OF THE SKIN
Direct examination of stool specimens stained with iodine makes TROPHOZOITES ARE DESTROYED BY IODINE
the trophozoite of the Protozoa stain what color?
What color does the cytoplasm of protozoan cysts stain in an YELLOW-BROWN
iodine wet stool preparation:
What color do chromatin bodies of protozoan cysts stain in an DO NOT STAIN
iodine wet stool preparation:
What is the advantage of the sedimentation method of ALL EGGS WILL SEDIMENT
concentrating stool specimens? RECOVERS OPERCULATED EGGS
FECAL DEVRIS AND SOLUBLE MATERIAL CAN BE REMOVED
Trophozoite structures of protozoans, when stained with GLYCOGEN- COLORLESS
trichrome stain, appear: NUCLEUS- RED PURPLE
CHARCOT-LEYDEN CRYSTALS- BRIGHT RED
Whem stained with Trichrome stain, chromatiod bodies appear BRIGHT TO RED
what color?
The preservative to be employed with the trichrome stain is: POLYVINYL ALCOHOL
The ideal temperature at which to hold a fecal specimen for REFRIGERATOR TEMPERATURE
more that 1 hour is:
The preferred specific gravity of zinc sulfate solution for the 1.18
floatation method:

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What type of blood specimen is preferred for preparing blood FINGER PUNCTURE
smears for protozoa
What will happen if the blood from a finger stick mixes with the “FIXES” RBCS
alcohol used to clean the area?
Thick blood films become unsuitable for staining MALARIA, BABESIA, HEMOFLAGELLATES
To detect stippling, prepare blood films venipuncture within 30 MINUTES TO 1 HOUR AFTER BEING DRAWN

MYCOLOGY QUESTIONS

Charasterictically, fungi ARE MEMBERS OF THE PLANT KINGDOM

LACK ROOTS AND STEMS
LACH CHLOROPHYLL
Coenocytic hyphae is a synonym forL ASEPTATE HYPHAE
Which type of mycoses produce no cellular response by the host SUPERFICIAL MYCOSES
Arthroconidia on the outside of the hair as well as hyphae within ECTOTHRIX
the hair shaft is called:
True yeast produce which of the following in the asexual stage BLASTOCONIDIA
Septate hyphae have DIVISIONS
Molds with aseptate hyphae produce a specialized hyphal SPORANGIOPHORE
structure called a
The basis, branching, intertwining structures of molds are MYCELIUM
referred to as:
Arthroconidia are formed: DIRECTLY FROM THE HYPHAE BY FRAGMENTATION
Mycelia within the colony that grow into the substrate are VEGETATAIVE HYPHAE
called:
Chlamydospores that grow within the hyphae are referred to as: INTERCALARY
Budding forms in which the daughter cell forms as a bud from a BLASTOSPHORE
single mother cell or forms laterally from a mycelium of
pseudomycelium are called:
Which of the following are the result of asexual reproduction: ASCOSPORE
Conidia are: ASEXUAL SPORES
Macroconidia are usually: MULTICELLULAR
The swollen portion of the conidiophores is called the: VESICLE
Which of the following statements does not apply to true yeasts: THE EXHIBIT THERMAL DIMORPHISM
Conidia with rough or spiny surfaces are described as: ECHINULATE
Conidia in chains are said to be: CATERNATE
When preparing temporary mounts of fungal elements, why is INCREASES THE RATE OF CLEARING
the slide gently heated?
Which of the following acts as a clearing agent to eliminate 10% KOH
devris and make fungal elements more prominent in skin, hair
and nails?
What is the stain in Aman medium? COTTON BLUE
Which of the following is negative stain? INDIA INK STAIN
In the Periodic Acid Schiff (PAS), what colors denote the RED TO VIOLET
presence of glycogen?
Which of the following stains us ised for sharp delineation of CALCOFLUOR WHITE
fungal elements by fluorescent microscopy?
When the fungus wall is invisible with the hematoxylin and eosin PERIODIC ACID-SCHIFF STAIN
stain, which of the following may be used to restain the slide?
Fungal elements in the acridine orange staining procedure: FLUORESCES A GREEN COLOR
How does MYCOSESL medium differ from Sabouraud dextrose CONTAINS CHLORAMPHENICOL AND CYCLOHEXIMIDE
agar?

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 Which fungus medium is used for the primary isolation and SABOURAUD DEXTROSE AGAR
maintenance of fungal cultures?
What is the indicator in Dermatophyte Test Medium? PHENOL RED
If 1% glucose is added to cornmeal agar, Trichophyton rubrum PIGMENT
can be differentiated from Trichophyton mentagrophytes by the
production of?
Fungi should be incubated at 25-30C
How long should fungus cultures be held before reporting as 30 DAYS
negative?
Which of the following antibiotics can be added to media for the CYCLOHEXIMIDE AND CHLORAMPHENICOL
isolation of pathogenic fungi from contaminated materials?
Which of the following media stimulates the production of CORNMEAL AGAR
chlamydospores
Which of the following media identifies species of Aspergillus? CZAPEK’S AGAR
A positive result for the hair-baiting test is: V-SHAPED PENETRATION OF THE HAIR SHAFT
A tinea infection is commonly referred to as: RINGWORM
Which of these organisms is the usual cause of white piedra? TRICHOSPORON BEIGELI
Tinea unguium is a dermatophyte infection of the: NAIL PLATES
The favus type of tinea capitis is caused by which of the TRICHOPHYTON SCHOENLEINII
following?
Which of the following is/are anthrophilic? MICROSPORUM AUDOUINII
Hairs infected with which of these dermatophytes fluoresce MICROSPORUM CANIS
under Wood’s lamp?
Colonization by dermatophytic fungi of the hari, nails and skin is DERMATOPHYTOSES
called:
Which of the following fungi os/are the cause of EPIDERMOPHYTON; TRICHOPHYTON, MICROSPORUM
dermatophytoses?
Which of the following produces macroconidia that are large, EPIDERMOPHYTON FLOCCOSUM
multicellular and club-shaped with smooth walls?
Which statement is NOT true? TRICHOPHYTON RUBRUM IS NOTED FOR ITS “BALLOON” FORMS
Which of the following produces small, very slow growing TRICHOPHYTON SCHOENLEINII
colonies and has favic chandeliers?
Which of the following is diagnostic for chromoblastomycosis? SCLEROTIC BODY
Which of the following are found in the yeast phase of CIGAR-SHAPED YEAST CELLS
Sporothrix schenckii on culture medium at 37 C
Which of the following is the result of antigen-antibody reaction ASTEROID BODY
in cases of sporotrichosis?
In older mold cultures of Sporothrix schenkii, single conidia SLOEVE
borne aling the sides of the hyphae are referred as:
Which of the following infections is caused by the dematiaceous PHAEOHYPHOMYCOSIS
saprobes that invade organs of immunosuppressed hosts:
The most common cause of mycetoma (maduramycosis) in the PSEUDOALLESCHERIA BOYDII
U.S is:
Dematiaceous fungi have colonies with: SURFACE AND REVERSE SIDE DARK
Which of the following are a dematiaceous fungi: PHIALOPHORA AND CADOSPORIUM
Sclerotic bodies are found in tissue in an infection with: CLADOSPORIUM
Infection of chromoblastomycosis is NOT caused by which of the EXOPHIALA
following fungi?
A fungus that grows as a mold at 35-37 C and a mod at 25 C is MONOMORPHIC
described as
True fungi that produce hyphae and spore forms are known as EUMYCOTIC
Which of the following causes an infection by hyaline saprobes ASPARGILLUS; PENICILLIUM MARNEFFEL; FUSARIUM
that invade most tissues or body fluids of immunosuppressed MONLLIFORME

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 hosts?
If you observe cleistothecia containing ascospores, report the PSEUDOALLESCHERIA BOYDII
organism as
The actinomycetes are vest classified as: FUNGUSLIKE BACTERIA
Which of the following is anaerobic, gram-positive but not acid- ACTINOMYCES ISRAELII
fast, and does not stain with fungal stain?
Which of the following has a capsule? CRYPTOCOCCUS NEOFORMANS
When culturing Cryptococcus on Sabouraud dextrose agar, CYCLOHEXIMIDE
which of the following antibiotics should not be in the medium?
In the direct microscopic examination of cerebrospinal fluid, CRYPTOCOCCUS
which of the following can be mistaken for a lymphocyte?
Why does Cryptococcus neoformans produce a brown color on ASSIMILATES CREATININE
birdseed or staib agar?
Cryptococcus neoformans has the following biochemical UREASE POSITIVE; INOSITOL POSITIVE; NITRATE POSITIVE
reaction/s:
Cryptococcus neoformans latex agglutination test on spinal fluid ANTIGEN
detects cryptococcal:
Candida albicans produces: BLASTOSPORES; CHLAMYDOSPORES; PSEUDOHYPHAE
Which of the following is another name for oral candidiasis? THRUSH
A presumptive identification of Candida albicans can be made by GERM TUBE
checking the ability of the organsm to produce what structure
with serum?
Cornmeal agar plus Tween 80 is used to identify Candida CHLAMYDOSPORES
albicans through the organism’s production of:
Geotrichum candidum colonies appear as: RAPID, YEASTLIKE GROWTH
Laboratory workers are in no danger when handling which form YEAST FORM (TISSUE)
of dimorphic fungi?
Sepedonium produces spiny, tuberculate macroconidia but is a: MONOMORPHIC MOLD
Which of the following are produced by Geotrichum candidum? RECTANGULAR, EVENLY STAINING ARTHROCONIDIA
Which of the following is/are dimorphic fungi? HISTOPLASMA CAPSULATUM
BLASTOMYCES DERMATITIDIS
PARACOCCIDIOIDES BRASILIENSIS
The tissue phase if Histoplasma capsulatum, characteristically YEAST CELLS WITHIN MACROPHAGES
shows:
The characteristic structures of the mycelia phase of TUBERCULATE CHLAMYDOSPORES
Histoplasma capsulatum are:
Leishmania can be differentiated from Histoplasma because CENTRAL NUCLEAR MATERIAL
Leishmania has:
Which of the following tests may be sued instead of conversion EXOANTIGEN TEST
when identifying dimorphic fungi?
In the mycelia form, Blastomyces dermatitidis produces: WIDE, SEPTATE HYPHAE
A yeast form with as ingle broad-based bud would identify an BLASTOMYCES
organism as
The characteristic structures of the mycelia phase of SMALL, PEAR-SHAPED CONIDIA CALLED LOLLIPOPS
blastomycosis are:
Yeastlike forms with multiple buds are characteristic form PARACOCCIDIOIDES BRASILIENSIS
associated with:
Immature spherules of Coccidiodes are differentiated from yeast THEY NEVER BUD
forms of Blastomyces because:
Which of the following fungi is a major biohazard to laboratory COCCIDIOIDES IMMITIS
personnel?
The exoantigen test is a/an MICROSCOPIC IMMUNODIFFUSION TEST
In the exoantigen test for Histoplasma capsulatum, which bands H AND/OR M
are present in a positive result?
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 Which of the bands in the exoantigen test for Blastomyces A
dermatitidis is present in a positive result?
Which of the following fungi produces a spherule that is filled COCCIDIOIDES IMMITIS
with endospores?
Zygomycosis is caused by which of the following genera? MUCOR AND RHIZOPUS
Fungal elements in zygomycosis show hyphae that are: BROAD AND NONSEPTATE

Bacteriology Questions

Capsules can be used for a : SEROTYPING BY SWELLING

To demonstrate capsules, grow the culture on media containing: ANTIBIOTICS AND MILK
The Quellung test depends on the antigenic specificity of the: CAPSULE
Dark staining granules are called: METACHROMATIC
Organisms that vary in size and shape are referred to as: PLEOMORPHIC
In the bacterial growth cycle, growth ceases because nutrients STATIONARY PHASE
are exhausted or toxic metabolic products have accumulated in
the:
Which genera of bacteria form spores: BACILLUS AND CLOSTRIDIUM
Bacteria that grow in the absence of atmospheric (free) oxygen ANAEROBES
and obtain oxygen from oxygen-containing compounds are
called:
The temperature at which bacteria grow best is known as: OPTIMUM
A slimy colony on blood agar medium indicates which of the ORGANISM HAS CAPSULE
following characteristics may be present:
On blood agar plates a small zone of alpha hemolysis surrounded ALPHA-PRIME
by zone of beta-hemolysis after refrigeration is known as:
When using fractional sterilization the sequence is: HEATING (KILLS VEGETATIVE BACTERIA)
INCUBATION (SPORES GERMINATE)
HEATING (KILLS THE REMAINING VEGETATIVE BACTERIA)
What is the most effective method of sterilization? AUTOCLAVE
Which of the following is used for quality control for the dry heat BACILLUS SUBTILIS
oven?
Which of the following filters can give 100% sterility? MILLIPORE (0.22 UM)
Media that cannot be heated can be sterilized by: FILTRATION
Which of the following is not a disinfectant? 70% ALCOHOL
Iodophores are composed of iodine and? DETERGENT
Quaternary ammonium disinfectants are easily inactivated by: ORGANIC MATERIAL
What is a term that describes a process or treatment that DECONTAMINATION
renders a medical device, instrument, or environmental surface
safe to handle?
What do gram-positive bacteria stain? PURPLE
The mordant used in Ziehl-Neelsen acid fast is: HEAT
How is smear for an acid fast stain fixed? SLIDE WARMER AT 65 C FOR 2 HOURS
Acid fast bacteria appear what color microscopically? RED
Acid fast organisms are best stained by which of the following KINYOUN
methods?
In the Ziehl Neelsen staining method, the decolorizer is: ALCOHOL+HCL
An example of a negative stain is: INDIA INK STAIN
Which of the following is not a gram negative? CAMPYLOBACTER
If a patient is taking antimocrobials, which of the following can THIOL BROTH
neutralize the antimicrobials?
From a bronchial washing, organisms are seen on a Gram stain, INHIBITION BY ANTIBIOTIC THERAPY
but no growth occurs aerobically and anaerobically. This is most

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 likely due to:
Which of the following should be used to remove antimicrobials ANTIMICROBIAL REMOVAL DEVICE
before culturing?
Sodium polyanetholsulfonate may be used as an anticoagulant in PREVENTS PHAGOCYTOSIS
blood culture because it: NEUTRALIZES THE BACTERICIDAL EFFECT OF HUMAN SERUM
What is the most abundant normal flora in throat cultures? ALPHA-HEMOLYTIC STREPTOCOCCUS
Why must blood plates for throat cultures be incubated SOME MAY PRODUCE BETA HEMOLYSIS UNDER AEROBIC
aerobically and anaerobically when beta hemolytic strepotococci CONDITIONS
are suspected?
Nasopharyngeal swabs are recommended for the detection of HAEMOPHILUS INFLUENZA
carriers such as: NEISSERIA
BORDETELLA PERTUSSIS
Todd-Hewitt broth is recommended for: CULTURE OF BETA HEMOLYTIC STREPTOCOCCI FOR
FLUORESCENCE MICROSCOPY
Phenylethyl alcohol is used in media to: INHIBIT GRAM NEGATIVE BACTERIA
Why is a first morning urine specimen preferred for urine SPECIMEN IS MORE CONCENTRATED
culture?
What indicates vaginal or urethral contamination of urine? MANY SQUAMOUS EPITHELIAL CELLS

On the pour plate method for colony counts, how does the DILUTION IS NOT AFFECTED
amount of agar added affect the dilution?
Smears of cerebrospinal fluid are prepared from: CEREBROSPINAL FLUID SEDIMENT
Smears for CSF are usually stained with: GRAM STAIN AND INDIA INK STAIN
Which of the following tests for bacterial antigen on cultures LATEX AGGLUTINATION TESTS
isolated from CSF is more sensitive and faster?
Staphylococcal protein A coated with antiserum is used in which COAGGLUTINATION TEST
of the following serological tests on CSF?

Which of the following allows viability of acid production

oxidizers in oxidation-fermentation medium?
Which of the following is oxidase positive?
Which of the following is the reagent used for the string test?
Any organism that is indole positive and nitrate reduction
positive is also:
How many tubes of oxidation fermentation media is/are
inoculated and what precautions should be taken?
Whicj of the following is oxidase positive?
Which of the following is part of the normal flora of the skin?
What does PRAS mean?
Why should thioglycollate both be boiled for 10 minutes before
being used?
Nagler agar is a selective medium for?
Peptococcus and Pepetostreptococcus are both:
Propionibacteria are:
A gram negative anaerobic coccus that produces a red
fluorescence under ultraviolet light is:
Which anaerobic, gram positive rods produce terminal “lollipop”
spores?
Which of the following anaerobes causes an antimicrobial
associated diarrhea?
Which of the following clostridia produce a double zone of

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hemolysis around colonies on blood agar?
Mycoplasma pneumonia is incubated
A positive urease test for ureaplasma is indicated by a:
Which of the following organinsms produces no haze in a broth
culture?
What is the cause of primary atypical pneumonia?
Which of the following has both ribonucleic acid and
deoxyribonucleic acid?
Rickettsias are transmitted by:
Which of the following is not caused by Rickettsia?
Which of the following have a bacterial type cell wall?
Which of the following is a small nonmotile, coccobacillus that is
cultured in yolk sac of a chick embryo?
Chlamydia are cultured in:
Genital cultures for sexually transmitted diseases include all of
the following except:
TRIC conjunctivitiss include all of the following:
Which serological test is done for Chlamydia trachomatis on
genital smears?
What is the common tick-borne disease in the U.S?
What is the erythema chronicum migrans (ECM)?
What are broad spectrum antibiotics?
Substances produced by microorganimsms, that in very small
amounts inhibit other microorganisms are called?
Bacteriostatic agents do which of the following?
The time it takes half a dose of antibiotics to disappear from the
bllod is called:
Resistance to an antibiotic can be transferred from a resistant ti
a susceptible organism by:
In the Kirby-Bauer susceptibility test, the 0.5 McFarland standard
is used to:
After inoculating the Mueller-Hinton plates for the Kirby-Bauer
susceptibility test, how long should the plates dry before adding
the disks?
How does one measure the zone of growth for inhibition for the
Kirby-Bauer susceptibility test?
What does the size of the zone of growth inhibition correlate
with if the correct procedure has been used?
If there is too much moisture on the surface of a Mueller-Hinton
plate when performing a Kirby-Bauer susceptibility test, what
will happen to the growth?
Which of the following are the best indicators for poor storage?
In Mueller Hinton agar, what can cause increase resistance of INCREASED CALCIUM AND MAGNESIUM
Pseudomonas aeruginosa to aminoglycosides?
When doing a susceptibility test with sulfonamides, there are MEASURE THE DIAMETER OF THE OUTER ZONE
two concentric zones around the disk. How should the zone be
measured?
The lowest concentration of drug that will kill all but the MINIMUM LETHAL CONCENTRATION
minimum defined proportion of viable organisms after MINIMUM BACTERICIDAL CONCENTRATION
incubation for a fixed time under a given set of conditions is the
definition of:
For quality control when monitoring reagents, how often should WHEN CONTAINER IS FIRST OPENED
reagent disks be checked? ONCE EACH WEEK OF USE

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How often should catalase, oxidase and coagulase reagents be ONCE EACH DAY OF USE
tested? WHEN VIAL IS FIRST OPENED
Record temperatures of incubators, water baths, heating blocks, AT EACH TIME OF USE
refrigerators, freezers and thermometers AT THE BEGINNING OF EACH DAY
AT THE END OF EACH DAY
Check the face velocity of safety cabinets each MONTH
Setting of rpms marked on the face of rheostat control on the MONTHLY
centrifuge should be checked once:

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