1- Roof of posterior cranial fossa is formed by:

a. Posterior component of falx cerebri

b. Falx cerebelli
c. Tentorium cerebelli
d. None of the above

2- Sigmoid sinus continues as:

a. Transverse sinus
b. Straight sinus
c. Superior bulb of IJV
d. None of the above

3- The cranial nerves which are part of parasympathetic system:

a. III, IV, V, VII
b. III, VII, VIII, IX
c. III, VII, IX, X
d. VII, IX, X, XI

4- Following nuclei are associated with trigeminal nerve:

a. Mesencephalic, motor, sensory
b. Mesencephalic, principal sensory, motor and spinal
c. Sensory, motor and spinal
d. Principal, sensory, mesencephalic and spinal

5- The trigeminal ganglion lies on:

a. Anterior surface of petrous temporal bone near its apex in
Meckel's cave, which is a depression in the bone
b. Posterior surface of petrous temporal bone near its apex in
Meckel's cave which is a depression in the bone
c. Anterior surface of petrous temporal bone near its apex in
Meckel's cave which is a space of dura mater
d. Petrous temporal bone in posterior cranial fossa

6- The proprioceptive fibres of mandibular nerve travel through:

a. Sensory root
b. Motor root
c. Special root-mesencephalic root
d. B and C

7- Skin over the prominence of the cheek is supplied by:

a. Zygomaticofacial
b. Zygomaticotemporal
c. Auriculotemporal
d. Infra trochlear

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8- Facial nerve has:
a. Motor root only
b. Motor and sensory root
c. Motor and sympathetic root
d. Motor, sympathetic and para sympathetic fibres

9- Pterygoid plexus of veins lies on:

a. Lateral surface of medial pterygoid and medial surface of
masseter in infratemporal fossa
b. On lateral surface of medial pterygoid and around lateral
pterygoid in infratemporal fossa
c. On medial surface of medial pterygoid in pterygopalatine
fossa
d. None of the above

10- Soft palate is supplied by:

a. Ascending palatine artery, branch of maxillary artery
b. Ascending palatine artery, branch of facial artery
c. Greater palatine branch of maxillary artery
d. B and C

11- Haematocrit is defined as:

a. Percentage of blood volume that is haemoglobin
b. Percentage of blood volume that is erythrocytes
c. Percentage of blood volume that is corpuscles
d. Percentage of blood volume that is platelets

12- Serum is:

a. Blood minus corpuscles
b. Plasma minus fibrinogen and other clotting proteins
c. Blood minus platelets
d. Plasma minus electrolytes

13- The receptor on cardiac muscle for acetylcholine are:

a. Nicotinic
b. Muscarinic
c. α type
d. β type

14- The plasma calcium concentration is increased by kidneys by:

a. Increased synthesis of 1,25 dihydroxy vitamin D 3 and
excretion of phosphate
b. Increased parathormone stimulation by kidneys in response
to low renal Ca+2
c. Increased Ca+2 reabsorption with increased PO2-3
reabsorption
d. None of the above

15- Macrophages are derived from:

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 a. T-lymphocytes
b. B- lymphocytes
c. Monocytes
d. They are formed as macrophages only

16- The alternate complement sequence is initiated by:

a. Antibodies, which activate first proteinC1
b. Nonspecifically by certain carbohydrates on the microbial
surface
c. Both A+B
d. None of the above

17- The cell mediated response is responsible for major defences

against:
a. Bacteria, viruses in extracellular fluid
b. Other microbes in extracellular fluid
c. Viruses and cancer infected cells
d. All of the above

18- Proteins causing inhibition of platelet aggregation are:

a. Thromboxane A2
b. Prostacyclin
c. Prostaglandin 12
d. B + C

19- The primary physiological effects of growth hormone are:

a. Stimulate both growth and protein anabolism
b. Stimulates lipolysis in adipose tissue
c. Increases gluconeogenesis by the liver
d. Decreased glucose uptake by peripheral tissues

20- Following hormones are responsible for growth except:

a. Growth hormone
b. Thyroid hormone
c. Insulin
d. Cortisol

21- Malignant neoplasms which arise from mesenchymal tissue are

known as:
a. Carcinomas
b. Papillomas
c. Sarcomas
d. None of the above

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22- Metastasis of sarcomas usually occurs via:
a. Lymphatic spread
b. Haematogenous spread
c. Local invasiveness
d. None of the above

23- The most common skin cancer is:

a. Squamous cell carcinomas
b. Basal cell carcinomas
c. Melanocarcinomas
d. Epidermoid carcinomas

24- Epstein Barr virus is associated with:

a. Burkitts lymphoma
b. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
c. Infectious mononucleosis
d. All of the above

25- In sickle cell anemia there is defective β-globin chain of hemoglobin

because of:
a. Substitution of glutamic acid at sixth position of the B-chain
for valine
b. Substitution of aniline for valine at sixth position of the B-
chain
c. Substitution of valine for glutamic acid at the sixth position
of the B-chain
d. None of the above

26- Glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency leads to:

a. Erythrocytic damage due to defective structure of its cell
membrane
b. Erythrocytic damage due to endogenous and exogenous
oxidants
c. Erythrocytic damage due to structural change of RBC
d. Erythrocytic damage due to hydrolysis

27- In Fe deficiency anemia the peripheral blood picture depicts RBCs

as:
a. Microcytic, hypochromic and reduced MCHC
b. Macrocytic, hypochromic and increased MCHC
c. Microcytic, hypochromic and increased MCHC
d. None of the above

28- Examples of Megaloblastic anemia:

a. Fe deficiency anemia
b. Vitamin B12 deficiency anemia
c. Folate deficiency anemia
d. B and C

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29- Hodgkin's disease can be distinguished from non-Hodgkin's
lymphomas based on:
a. Reed-Sternberg cells
b. Systemic manifestations such as fever
c. Occurs in young adults
d. All of the above

30- The clinical features of bone pain and bleeding from gums is
characteristically seen in AML (acute myeloid leukemias) this is due
to:
a. Osteoporosis and fragility of vessels
b. Bone marrow expansion and subperiosteal infiltration and
fragility of vessels
c. Bone marrow expansion and subperiosteal infiltration nad
thrombocytopenia
d. Bone marrow expansion and subperiosteal infiltration and
supervening infection

31- According to Koch's postulates a microorganism can be accepted

as causative organism only when:
a. It can be isolated in pure culture from lesions
b. It is constantly associated with the lesion of the disease
c. When inoculated from culture into experimental animal, it
produces the lesion of the disease
d. All of the above

32- The microorganisms which characteristically occur in grape-like

clusters and produce golden yellow colonies:
a. Staphylococcus aureus
b. Staphylococcus albus
c. Streptococcus
d. α-streptococci
e. Hemolytic streptococci

33- The causative organism in SABE is:

a. α-streptococci
b. β-streptococci
c. Streptococci viridans
d. A and C

34- Streptococcus salivarius and Streptococcus mutans belong to:

a. Hemolytic streptococci
b. Enterococcus group
c. Viridans group
d. Β-hemolyticus

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35- Mantoux test if positive indicates:
a. Patient had prior infection with tuberculosis
b. Patient is sensitive to tuberculosis
c. Patient is not suffering from tuberculosis
d. None of the above

36- ANUG is caused by:

a. Borrelia vincenti which is gram-positive
b. Treponema vincenti which is gram-negative
c. Borrelia vincenti which is pathogen of mouth
d. None of the above

37- Treponema pallidum is best identified by:

a. Direct light microscopy
b. Negative staining
c. Gram-staining
d. Acid fast technique

38- All the following are DNA viruses except:

a. Herpes virus
b. Polio virus
c. Pox virus
d. Papilloma virus

39- Herpetic infections can be diagnosed in laboratory by microscopy

by:
a. Direct technique
b. Tzanck smear
c. Identifying type B inclusion bodies
d. Identifying Negri bodies

40- Epstein-Barr virus causes:

a. Infectious mononucleosis
b. Burkitt's lymphoma
c. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
d. All of the above

41- The mouth of full term foetus is usually:

a. Sterile
b. Rich in staphylococci
c. Rich in streptococci
d. Full of coliforms

42- Materia alba consists of:

a. Bacteria and food debris
b. Bacteria and glycoproteins
c. Bacteria and squamous cells
d. A and C

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43- Plaque differs from material alba in:
a. Presence of bacteria
b. Presence of glycoproteins
c. Presence of saliva
d. Absence of glycoproteins

44- Pellicle consist of:

a. Bacteria and dead cells
b. Salivary glycoproteins adhere to tooth
c. Bacteria + salivary glycoproteins adhere to tooth
d. A + B + C

45- Plaque after 7 days is characterized by:

a. Increasing streptococcal and filamental colonies
b. Decreasing streptococci and increasing filament colonies
c. Streptococci remain constant even after 7 days
d. There is ever increasing colonies of streptococci but
filaments become constant

46- Spirochetes predominate in:

a. Occlusal margins of mature plaque
b. Apical margins of immature plaque
c. Apical margins of mature plaque
d. Uniformly distributed in mature plaque

47- The microorganism/s which play/s an important role in

calcification of dental plaque:
a. Veillonella
b. Bacterionema matruchotii
c. Bacteroides and haemophilus
d. all of the above

48- Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans is the predominant

organism in:
a. Acute periodontitis
b. Juvenile periodontitis
c. Acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis
d. None of the above

49- Cancrum oris is caused by:

a. Fusospirochetal infection
b. Bacteroides
c. Actinomyces
d. A and B

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50- Herpangina is caused by:
a. Herpes simplex
b. Herpes zoster
c. Coxsackie A virus
d. None of the above

51- Which of the following chemicals can be used for sterilization

except:
a. Glutaraldehyde
b. Formaldehyde
c. Hypochlorites
d. All of the above

52- Chlorhexidine acts by:

a. Adsorbing on tooth surface
b. Adsorbing on plaque only
c. Bactericidal action
d. None of the above

53- The instrument used in hepatitis B patient should be:

a. Sterilized by boiling
b. Sterilized by placing in 2% glutaraldehyde for not less than 1
hour
c. Disinfected by placing in 2% glutaraldehyde for not less than
1 hour
d. Autoclaved only, as chemical disinfection is not effective

54- Which of the following is the chemical of choice for inactivating

HIV?
a. 1% sodium
b. 2% glutaraldehyde
c. 6% H2O2
d. All of the above

55- The best way to disinfect the operatory is to use:

a. Formalin
b. Glutaraldehyde
c. UV light
d. Ethylene oxide gas

56- The first sign of human tooth development is seen during:

a. 10th week of embryonic life
b. 8th week of embryonic life
c. 6th week of embryonic life
d. 4th week of embryonic life

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57- Cementum meets the cervical end of enamel in a relatively sharp
line in:
a. 10% of teeth
b. 20% of teeth
c. 30% of teeth
d. Never

58- Periodontal ligament has as its function:

a. Support
b. Nutrition
c. Synthesis and resorption
d. All of the above

59- Principle fibres of the periodontal ligament attach to:

a. Alveolar bone proper
b. Supporting alveolar bone
c. Cementum
d. Dentin

60- The specialized oral mucosa is present on:

a. Gingiva
b. Cheek
c. Soft palate
d. Dorsum of tongue

61- The width of keratinized gingiva is:

a. The distance between the free gingival groove and
mucogingival junction
b. The distance between the crest of free gingiva and
mucogingival junction
c. The distance from the base of gingival sulcus or periodontal
pocket, along the epithelial surface over the crest of free
gingiva to the mucogingival junction
d. The distance between the mucogingival junction and the
projection on the external surface of the bottom of the sulcus
or the periodontal pocket

62- The principal cell type present in the oral epithelium is:
a. Melanocyte
b. Non-keratinocyte
c. Keratinocyte
d. Langerhans' cells

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63- Gingival connective tissue contains:
a. Three sets of gingival fibres: alveolar crest group, circular
group and horizontal group
b. A prominent system of reticulin fibres
c. Three sets of gingival fibres: alveolar crest group, horizontal
group and trans-septal group
d. Meissner-type and Krause-type nerve structures

64- The periodontal fibres which are consistent and are reconstructed
even after destruction of alveolar bone is:
a. Alveolar crest group
b. Transseptal group
c. Oblique fibres
d. Apical fibres

65- The thixotropic theory of resistance to the impact of occlusal forces

claims:
a. Periodontal ligament behaves like thixotropic gel
b. That the displacement of the tooth is largely controlled by
fluid movements
c. That is due to elasticity inherent in periodontal tissue
d. All of the above

66- The gingival fluid can be collected by:

a. Absorbing paper strips
b. Microcapillary pipettes
c. Gingival washings
d. Any of the above

67- The 'initial lesion' as described by Page and Schroeder, during

progression of gingival inflammation presents the following
feature:
a. Erythema
b. Leukocyte junctional epithelium comprising mainly of
lymphocytes
c. Vasculitis of vessels subjacent to the junctional epithelium
d. Venous stasis

68- The earliest symptom of gingival inflammation that is of great

value for the early diagnosis and prevention of more advanced
gingivitis is:
a. Pain
b. Increase in gingival fluid production rate
c. Change in color
d. Bleeding from the gingival sulcus on gentle probing

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69- As per the concept of periodontal disease activity:
a. Periodontal disease has an immunologic cause
b. Periodontal disease is a slow but continuously progressive
phenomenon
c. Periodontal disease goes through periods of quiescence
and exacerbation
d. Periodontal destruction occurs with the help of a systemic
predisposing factor

70- Periodontal ligament fibres are arranged to best accommodate the:

a. Vertical occlusal forces
b. Lateral occlusal forces
c. Torque forces
d. All of the above

71- The area of oral cavity most severely affected by gingivitis is:
a. Interproximal, upper arch
b. Interproximal, lower arch
c. Buccal, upper arch
d. Lingual, lower arch

72- The principal inorganic components of the supragingival plaque

matrix are:
a. Calcium and phosphorus
b. Calcium and magnesium
c. Calcium and potassium
d. Phosphorus and magnesium

73- The tooth-attached subgingival plaque:

a. Consist predominantly of gram-negative bacteria
b. Does not extend to junctional epithelium
c. Does not penetrate cementum
d. Is associated with periodontitis

74- Calculus:
a. Per se is the irritated cause to gingiva
b. Is always covered with a non-mineralized layer of plaque
c. Is formed as all plaque undergo mineralization
d. Formation cannot be obtained in germ-free animals

75- Bleeding on probing a periodontal pocket:

a. Is a subjective sign
b. Immediately after removal of probes, is taken as a positive
score
c. Is elicited by holding the probe at a site for minimum 5
seconds
d. None of the above

76- In periodontitis, pain is localized because of present of:

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 a. Free nerve endings
b. End bulb of Krause
c. Pacinian corpuscles
d. Meissner's corpuscles

77- The predominant immunoglobin in gingival fluid is:

a. IgA
b. IgG
c. IgM
d. IgE

78- The predominant organism found in smears of ANUG is:

a. Vibrio
b. Fusobacterium
c. Spirochetes
d. Streptococci

79- The suggested cause of desquamative gingivitis is:

a. Dermatosis
b. Endocrine imbalance
c. Aging, nutritional imbalance
d. All of the above

80- Dextran, a carbohydrate forming the greatest amount of matrix of

supragingival plaque is:
a. A dietary product
b. Comes from saliva
c. Bacteria produced polysaccharide
d. A product of all the above

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