Mock Test - 1: (Physics)

Mock Test-1 (Code A) CBT for AIIMS-2017
Time : 3:30 Hrs. Mock Test – 1 MM : 200
[ PHYSICS]
Choose the correct answer :
1. The numbers 2.135 and 2.145 on rounding off to 5. A particle is projected vertically upward with velocity
3 significant figures will be u from a point P. If it comes back to the same point
(1) 2.14 and 2.15 (2) 2.13 and 2.14 after time , choose incorrect option.
(3) 2.14 and 2.14 (4) 2.13 and 2.15 (1) Its average velocity is zero
2. The dimensions of LC is same as {L = Inductance, u

(2) Its average speed is
R = Resistance, C = Capacitance} 2
R R 
(1) (2) (3) Its time of flight is
C L 2
L C (4) Its displacement is zero
(3) (4)
R R
6. A particle of small mass m is joined to a very heavy

3. The resultant of A and B makes an angle  with A body by a light string passing over a light pulley.
Both bodies are free to move. The total downward
and  with B .
force on the pulley is
(1)    if A  B (2)    if A  B
(1) mg
(3)    if A = B (4)    if A = B = 0
(2) mg < F < 2 mg
4. The graph shows the variation of the velocity of a
rocket with time. The maximum height attained by (3) 2 mg < F < 3 mg
rocket is
(4) 4 mg
–1
v (kms )
7. A car drives along a straight level frictionless road by
1 an engine delivering constant power. The distance
moved by the car in time t is proportional to (U = 0)
(1) t1/2
20 120 Time (s) (2) t –1/2
(1) 10 km (2) 55 km (3) t 3/2
(3) 60 km (4) None of these (4) t – 3/2

Space for Rough Work
1/20
CBT for AIIMS-2017 Mock Test-1 (Code A)
13. The coefficient of volume expansion of liquid is . The
8. Let F be the force acting on a particle having
fractional change in its density for T fall in
position vector r . Let  be the torque of this force
temperature is
about the origin, then
T
(1) r .  = 0 and F .  = 0 (2) r .  = 0 and F .   0 (1) T (2)


(3) r .   0 and F .  = 0 (4) r .   0 and F .   0 (3) 1 + T (4) 1 – T
9. In non-inertial frames (if L is angular momentum, I is 14. A body is cooled in 2 minutes in a room at
moment of inertia,  is angular velocity and  is temperature 30°C from 75°C to 65°C. If the same
torque) body is cooled from 65°C to 55°C in the same room
(1) L = I  is valid time taken will be
(1) Less than 2 minutes
dL
(2)  = is valid (2) Equal to 2 minutes
dt
(3) More than 2 minutes
(3) Both (1) & (2) are true
(4) None of these
(4) None of these
15. If the mean free path of a gas is doubled then the
10. A drop of radius R is divided into eight equal
droplets. If the surface tension is T, then work done pressure of gas will become (Temperature is
in this process will be constant)
(1) 2R2T (2) 3R2T (1) Half
(3) 4R2T (4) 6R2T (2) Remain same

11. A sphere of solid is shifted to a depth of 100 m in (3) Double
a lake. The change in radius is 0.033%. The bulk
(4) Four times
modulus of the material is nearly
16. A particle executing SHM of amplitude ‘A’ has
(1) 10 Pa (2) 104 Pa
A T
(3) 109 Pa (4) 1010 Pa displacement at t = and a negative velocity.
2 4
12. If radius of earth decreases by 10%, the mass
The initial phase constant of the particle is
remains unchanged, the acceleration due to gravity
(1) Decreases by 19%  2
(1) (2)
3 3
(2) Decreases by more than 19%
(3) Increases by 19% 4
(3)  (4)
(4) Increases by more than 19% 3
2/20
17. Two simple harmonic motions are y1 = A sint and 21. Three charges (each of q) are placed at the vertices
y2 = Acost are superimposed on a particle of of an equilateral triangle. A fourth charge q0 is placed
mass m. The total mechanical energy of the particle q0
is at the center of triangle. The ratio of required to
q
make the system in equilibrium
1 1
(1) m  2 A2 (2) m  2 A2
4 2 (1) 1: 3 (2) 3 :1
(3) m  2 A2 (4) Zero (3) 1 : 3 (4) 3:2

18. A string is under tension so that its length is 22. A cube of side 10 cm encloses a charge of 0.1 C
increased by 1/n times its original length. The ratio at its center. Calculate the number of lines of force
of fundamental frequency of longitudinal and through each face of the cube.
transverse vibrations will be
(1) 1.113 × 104 (2) 1.113 × 109
(1) 1 : n (2) n :1 (3) 1.883 × 103 (4) 1.883 × 109
(3) n : 1 (4) n2 : 1 23. A spherical shell of radius R = 1.5 cm has a charge
19. A source of sound producing wavelength 50 cm is q = 20 C uniformly distributed over it. The force
exerted by one half over the other half is
th
⎛ 1⎞ (1) Zero (2) 10–2 N
moving away from a stationary observer with ⎜ ⎟
⎝ 10 ⎠
(3) 500 N (4) 2000 N
speed of sound. Then what is the wavelength of
sound received by observer? 24. The potential V is varying with position as
(1) 50 cm (2) 55 cm 1 2
V= ( y – 4 x ) volts. The field at x = 1 m, y = 1 m,
(3) 60 cm (4) 65 cm 2
is
20. A spring-mass system is shown in figure. A uniform
electric field E is switched on then the maximum (1) 2iˆ + ˆj V/m (2) – 2iˆ + ˆj V/m
expansion of spring, is
(3) 2iˆ – ˆj V/m (4) –2iˆ + 2 jˆ V/m
E
+q 25. A parallel plate capacitor has plates of area, A and
separation d and is charged to a potential difference,
m V. The charging battery is then disconnected and
the plates are pulled apart until their separation is 2d.
What is the work required to separate the plates?
qE qE
(1) (2)
k k (1) 2 0 AV 2 /d (2)  0 AV 2 / d
2q E
(3)
k
(4) Zero (3) 30 AV 2 /2d (4) 0 AV 2 /2d
3/20
26. Effective capacitance between A and B is 31. The translational degree of freedom for H2 gas is
equal to
C C C (1) 3 (2) 5
A
B
(3) 7 (4) 9
32. A direct current of 10 A is superimposed on an

C
(1) (2) 3C alternating current I = 40cost(A) flowing through
3
wire. The effective value of resulting current will be
(3) Zero (4) None of these
27. What is the value of shunt that passes 10% of the (1) 10 2 A
main current through galvanometer of 99 ?
(1) 9  (2) 11  (2) 20 2 A
(3) 110  (4) 90 

(3) 10 17 A
28. If the current in an electric bulb decreases by 0.5%,
the power in the bulb decreases by approximately (4) 30 A
(1) 1% (2) 2%
33. Consider an equiconvex lens of radius of curvature R
(3) 3% (4) 4% and focal length f. If f > R, the refractive index  of
29. A charged particle moves along a circle under the the material of lens
action of possible constant electric field (E) and
(1) Is greater than zero but less than 1.5
magnetic field (B). Which of the following is true
(possible)? (2) Is greater than 1.5 but less than 2.0
(1) E = 0 and B = 0 (2) E = 0 and B  0 (3) Is greater than 1.0 but less than 1.5
(3) E  0 and B = 0 (4) E  0 and B  0
(4) None of these
30. The magnetic field at center O of the arc is
34. Two wavelengths of light 1 and 2 are sent through
I
Young’s double slit apparatus simultaneously. If the
I
third order bright fringe of one coincides with the
90° r 1
fourth order bright fringe of other, then is
2
O
0 I 0 I ⎡  ⎤ 4 5
(1) ⎡⎣ 2 +  ⎤⎦ (2) + 2 – 1⎥ (1) (2)
4 r 2 r ⎢⎣ 4 ⎦ 3 3
0 I 0 I ⎡ ⎤ 4 5
(3) ⎡⎣ 2 –  ⎤⎦ (4) 2+ ⎥ (3) (4)
4 r 4 r ⎢⎣ 4⎦ 5 4
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35. In a photocell, with excitation wavelength , the 39. Long distance short wave radio broadcasting uses
faster electron has speed v. If the excitation
(1) Ground wave
3
wavelength is changed to , the speed of the (2) Sky wave
4
fastest electron will be
(3) Direct wave
1 1 (4) Space wave
⎛ 3⎞ 2 ⎛ 4⎞ 2
(1) v ⎜ ⎟ (2) v ⎜ ⎟ 40. A transistor is being used as an audio amplifier, it is
⎝ 4⎠ ⎝ 3⎠
preferably in
1 1 (1) Common base configuration

⎛ 4⎞ 2 ⎛ 4⎞ 2
(3) Less than v ⎜ ⎟ (4) More than v ⎜ ⎟ (2) Common emitter configuration
⎝ 3⎠ ⎝ 3⎠
(3) Common collector configuration
36. K series characteristic wavelength emitted by an
(4) None of these
atom of atomic number Z = 11 is . The atomic
number for an atom that emits K  series In the following questions (41 to 60), a statement of
characteristics radiation with wavelength 4 is assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R).
(1) 4 (2) 6 (1) If both Assertion & Reason are true and the
reason is the correct explanation of the
(3) 11 (4) 44
assertion, then mark (1).
37. A newly prepared radioactive nuclide has a decay
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are true but the
constant of 10–6s–1. What is the approximate half life
reason is not the correct explanation of the
of the nuclide?
(1) 1 hour
(3) If Assertion is true statement but Reason is
(2) 1 day false, then mark (3).
(3) 1 week (4) If both Assertion and Reason are false
(4) 1 month statements, then mark (4).
38. The force acting on the electron in a hydrogen atom 41. A : The time of flight of a body becomes n times the
depends on the principal quantum number as original value if its speed is made n times.
R : This is due to the range of the projectile which
1
(1) F  n2 (2) F  becomes n times.
n2
42. A : The work done by the spring force in a cyclic
process is zero.
1
(3) F  n4 (4) F 
n4 R : Spring force is a conservative force.
5/20
43. A : When a spinning ball is thrown it deviates from 51. A : When a magnetic dipole is placed in a non
usual path in flight. uniform magnetic field, only a torque acts on the
dipole.
R : Streamline around the ball experiences a
pressure difference due to the spin of ball. R : Force would also act on dipole if magnetic field
was uniform.
44. A : The value of acceleration due to gravity does not
52. A : Cyclotron does not accelerate electrons.
depend upon the mass of the body.
R : Mass of electrons is very small.
R : Acceleration due to gravity is a constant
quantity. 53. A : EM waves exert radiation pressure.
R : EM waves carry energy.
45. A : Finer the capillary, greater is the height to which
the liquid rises in the tube. 54. A : A beam of white light shows no dispersion on
emerging from a glass slab.
R : This is in accordance with the ascent formula.
R : Dispersion in glass slab is zero.
46. A : Thermodynamic process in nature is irreversible.
55. A : All bright interference bands have same intensity.
R : Dissipative effects cannot be eliminated.
R : All bands receive same light from two sources.
47. A : In a stationary wave, no energy transfer takes
56. A : Photoelectric effect supports the quantum nature
place.
of light.
R : The distance between two consecutive nodes or
R : Photoelectric emission is instantaneous.

antinodes is . 57. A : In exothermic reactions energy is released by a
2
nuclear reaction.
48. A : In a region where uniform electric field exists,
the net charge within volume of any size is zero. R : In these reactions some mass is converted in to
the energy.
R : The electric flux within any closed surface in
58. A : The resistivity of a pure semiconductor
region of uniform electric field is zero.
decreases on doping.
49. A : The lightning conductor at the top of a high
R : Doping causes the reduction in bond strength.
building has sharp pointed ends.
59. A : Amplifiers are used in repeaters.
R : The surface density of charge at a sharp ends
R : Amplifier boosts the signal level which is
is very high resulting in setting up of electric
attenuated over the long distance communication.
wind.
60. A : Each point of wavefront is a source of secondary
50. A : The wire supplying current to an electric heater
disturbance.
is not heated appreciably.
R : Wavefront is the locus of the points which are in
R : Resistance of conducting wires is very high. same phase.
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[ CHEMISTRY]
61. How many g-atoms of oxygen are present in 24.5 g 67. Which of the following species has one unpaired
of oil of vitriol? electron in antibonding orbital?
(1) 1 (2) 2 (1) O2 (2) CO+
(3) 3 (4) 4 (3) NO– (4) N2
62. Which of the following have the same empirical 68. Which of the following is intensive property?
formula as benzene?
(1) Enthalpy
(1) Toluene (2) Ethylene
(2) Molar heat capacity
(3) Acetylene (4) Mesitylene
(3) Entropy
63. The approximate diameter of the nucleus of a copper
atom is (4) Heat capacity
(1) 2.8 × 10–11 m (2) 5.32 × 10–15 m 69. The volume of 1 mole of CH4 at NTP is 22.4 L if it
(3) 8.32 × 10–15 m (4) 6.2 × 10–14 m is considered to be an ideal gas. But if CH4 is a real
gas, then its volume at same conditions may be
64. If KE of an electron in a shell of H-atom is 3.4 eV
and 1.89 eV is given to it, then what will be its new (1) 22.1 L
shell?
(2) 22.5 L
(1) 4 (2) 2
(3) 22.7 L
(3) 1 (4) 3
(4) 23.2 L
65. If 3.01 × 1020 gaseous atoms of Na need 0.218 kJ
energy to make them Na+(g) ions, then the value of 70. The ratio of critical volume, co-volume, and volume of
HIE of sodium in kJ is a molecule of a real gas is
(1) 43.6 (2) 436 (1) 12 : 4 : 1 (2) 1 : 4 : 12
(3) 218 (4) 2.18 (3) 12 : 1 : 4 (4) 4 : 12 : 1
66. Geometry of XeF4 is 71. What will be the value of CP if 1 mole of He is mixed
with 1 mole of O2?
(1) Square planar
(2) Octahedral 5 3
(1) R (2) R
(3) Tetrahedral 2 2
(4) See saw (3) 2R (4) 3R

7/20
72. For the reaction A (g) B(g) + C(g) + D(g) the total 78. Most stable carbanion is
pressure is 500 mm Hg at equilibrium. If the initial

pressure was 200 torr, then the value of KP will be
(a)
(1) 1850 (2) 15200
(3) 67500 (4) 32500

(b) CH2 — CH2 — O — CH3
73. The concentration of RCOO– in aqueous solution is
10–6 M at equilibrium. If the initial concentration of
(c) CCl3
RCOOH is 0.01 M, then what will be the value of Ka
of RCOOH?
(d) CF3
(1) 10–5 (2) 10–8
(1) (a) (2) (b)
(3) 10–10 (4) 10–9
(3) (c) (4) (d)
74. Equivalent mass of HClO3 in the following reaction is
79. The complex formed in the qualitative analysis if
HClO3  HClO + HClO4 S and N both are present in organic compound
(1) 0.25 M (2) 0.75 M (1) Fe(SCN)3 (2) K2SO4· KNO3
(3) 0.5 M (4) M (3) [Fe(SCN)4]2– (4) Fe(CSN)3
75. The half life of 13 H is 80. Markovnikov’s rule is not valid for
(1) 12.32 yrs (2) 1.23 yrs

(1)
(3) 6550 yrs (4) 21 second
76. The ratio of boron atom which are sp 2 and sp 3

(2) CH 3 — CH CH2
hybridized in borax is
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 2 : 1 O
(3) 1 : 2 (4) 3 : 2 (3) H — C — CH CH2

77. Correct formula of pyrosilicate is
(4) Both (1) & (3)
6– 4– 81. Which one of the following is not a greenhouse gas?
(1) Si2O7 (2) Si2O7
(1) Water vapour (2) CO2
(3) Si2O56 – (4) Si2O32 – (3) CH4 (4) NH3
8/20
82. Atoms of “B” forms CCP lattice and that of “A” 89. Hydraulic washing is used for
occupies all the octahedral void. If half of “B” atoms (1) Ag2S (2) ZnS
present at corner and one-fourth of “A” present at
(3) SnO2 (4) PbS
edge centre are missing then, the new formula is
90. Which of the following can exist in ionic form?
(1) A3.5B3.75 (2) A3.25B3.5
(1) PF5 (2) PCl5
(3) A3.5B4 (4) A13B14
(3) PBr5 (4) Both (2) & (3)
83. In hcp unit cell the perimeter of hexagonal face is
91. Which of the following is radioactive lanthanoid?
12 3 , then the distance between “A” layer and “B” (1) Th (2) U
is
(3) Pm (4) Sm
(1) 2 (2) 3 92. Complex which can show maximum number of
isomers is
(3) 2 2 (4) 3 2
(1) Cr Cl2 Br2 (CN)2 3–
84. Mole fraction of 3 m aqueous solution of urea is
(1) 0.041 (2) 0.051 (2)  Cr Cl4 Br2 3–
(3) 0.031 (4) 0.021 (3)  Cr F2 Cl2Br2 3–
85. Van’t Hoff factor of 50% dissociated K2SO4 will be
(4) All have same number of isomer
(1) 1 (2) 3 93. Thionyl chloride on reaction with ROH in absence of
(3) 1.5 (4) 2 pyridine follows
86. Which of the following will have highest pH after (1) SN1 (2) SN2
electrolysis? (3) E1 (4) SNi
(1) NaCl(aq) (2) CuSO4 94. In which of the following reaction the intermediate is
neutral?
(3) AgNO3(aq) (4) Both (2) & (3)
(1) Markovnikov’s reaction
87. The percentage amount remaining after three half
lives in a first order reaction is (2) Claisen condensation
(3) Aldol condensation
(1) 25% (2) 75%
(4) Carbylamine reaction
(3) 12.5% (4) 6.25%
95. Hofmann bromamide reaction follows the mechanism
88. Which is most powerful coagulating agent for in which a rearrangement takes place. Same type of
As2S3? rearrangement takes place in
(1) NaCl (2) MgCl2 (1) Wittig reaction (2) Perkin reaction
(3) AlCl3 (4) Na3PO4 (3) Stephen’s reaction (4) Curtius reaction
9/20
96. Nitrobenzene on electrolytic reduction gives different 100. Which of the following is sweetest sugar?
products. The products formed in strongly acidic and
(1) Saccharin (2) Aspartame
weakly acidic medium respectively.
(3) Barbutrate (4) Sucralose
NH2 NH2 NH2 NH2
In the following questions (101 to 120), a statement of
assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R).
(1) (2)
, , (1) If both Assertion & Reason are true and the
reason is the correct explanation of the
OH OH assertion, then mark (1).
NHOH NHOH NH2 NH2 (2) If both Assertion & Reason are true but the
(3) (4)
, ,
OH (3) If Assertion is true statement but Reason is
NH2
false, then mark (3).
OH
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false
97. Final product (D) of the following reaction is
statements, then mark (4).
Cl
HNO3/
101. A : Minimum five C-atoms in alkane is required to
Dow's
process Zn/ H2SO4 LiAlH4 form a chiral compound.
A B C D
R : The terminal C-atom is chiral carbon
O CH3
(1) Aniline (2) Toluidine
18
(3) Azobenzene (4) p-hydroxy aniline 102. A : On hydrolysis of CH3 — C — O — C — CH3 in
98. Functional groups present in lactose can be named CH3

as 18
acidic medium we get (CH3)3OH
(1) Alcohol only (2) Alcohol, ether, acetal R : CH3COOH is less acidic than (CH3)3COH.
(3) Acetal only (4) Ether and alcohol 103. A : Glucose have aldehydic group, so it can be
99. Monomer of a polymer have same functional group purified by the reaction of NaHSO3.
as present in ligand (en) and other monomer has R : Glucose does not give Tollen’s reagent test.
same functional groups which are present in oxalic
104. A : It is very difficult to find the exact location and
acid. The polymer should be
momentum of an electron simultaneously.
(1) Glyptal (2) Nylon 6, 6
R : We can find exact location and momentum of
(3) Nylon 6 (4) Dacron electron with 100% accuracy separately.
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105. A : Geometry of NH3 is tetrahedral. 113. A : Simonini reaction involves I2 in place of Br2.
R : Geometry of H2O is tetrahedral. R : Simonini reaction involves the formation of ester.
106. A : When a real gas is taken and its pressure 114. A : In Reimer-Tiemann reaction the product always
becomes double then its volume will not be
contain –OH and CHO group.
exactly half.
R : In Reimer-Tiemann reaction free radical is
R : On doubling the pressure volume can be more or
formed.
less than half depending on nature of gas.
107. A : If in a reaction which is in equilibrium, the 115. A : White phosphorus is more reactive than red
concentration of reactants is increased it moves phosphorus.
forward but the value of Keq remains same.
R : Red phosphorus is more reactive than black
R : The value of Keq is independent of initial and final phosphorus.
concentrations in above case.
116. A : Cl 2 bleaches by oxidation in presence of
108. A : CH 2 CH2 on reduction with LiAlH4 does not moisture.
give CH3 — CH3
R : It forms HOCl on reaction with H2O and gives
R : LiAlH4 is strong reducing agent. nascent oxygen.
109. A : Boron nitride is also called inorganic graphite. 117. A : CO is a strong field ligand.
R : Graphite is aromatic in nature.
R : CO exhibits synergic bonding.

110. A : CH3 — CH2 — O — CH — CH3 is more stable 1
118. A : For first order reaction t1/2  t3/4 .
 2
than CH3 — CH2 — CH — CH3
R : t1/2 is independent of initial concentration in first

R : CH 3 CH 2 — CH — CH 3 is resonance stabilized. order.
111. A : Fe < Ni < Co is correct order of atomic mass. 119. A : Specific conductivity increases with the
concentration of solution.
R : Atomic mass always increases across the
period. R : Molar conductivity decreases with the increase
in concentration of solution.
112. A : is an aromatic compound. 120. A : Ideal gas equation is also called equation of
states.
R : Above compound is aromatic due to benzene R : There are infinite number of states of a
ring. substance.
11/20
[BIOLOGY]
121. Satellite chromosomes 125. Closely related species having similar habits and
morphologies often do not occur in the same place.
(1) Have secondary constriction
If they co-exist then they use certain adaptations as
(2) Number is five pairs in human diploid cell strategies to reduce competition. Choose correct
(3) Is deficient in thymine option w.r.t. these strategies.
(4) More than one option is correct (1) Use different resources
122. Choose odd one out w.r.t. wheat variety (2) Active at different times
(1) Sonalika (3) Different foraging patterns
(2) Kalyan Sona (4) More than one option is correct
(3) Sonora-64 126. Choose incorrect option w.r.t introns.
(4) Jaya (1) Non coding sections of primary transcript
123. Which of the following have insecticidal properties? (2) Reminiscent of antiquity
(a) Bacillus thuringiensis (3) Amount is less than exons
(b) NPV (4) Regulation of alternative splicing
(c) Glomus 127. In how many of the given organisms, sex is

determined by the genotype of egg and sperm,
(d) Phytophthora palmivora
respectively?
(1) (a) & (b)
Birds, Humans, Grasshopper, Moth, Salix,
(2) (c) & (d) Cockroaches, Reptiles
(3) (b) & (c)
(1) Four, Three (2) Three, Four
(4) (a) & (d)
(3) Two, Three (4) Three, Two
124. Mammals from colder climates generally have large
body size to minimise heat loss. This is called 128. Megasporangium is equivalent to
(1) Allen’s rule (1) Embryo sac
(2) Bergman’s rule (2) Ovule
(3) Rensch's rule (3) Anther
(4) Jordan's rule (4) Stamen
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129. Highly reduced male and female gametophytes are 133. How many of the given below structures are formed
formed in through dedifferentiation?
(1) Selaginella (a) Intrafascicular cambium
(2) Sorghum (b) Lateral meristem

(3) Sequoia (c) Cork cambium
(4) Salvinia (d) Wound cambium
130. Given below is the life cycle pattern, shown by (e) Interfascicular cambium
Juvenile phase  Flowering once  Senescence (f) Intercalary meristem
(1) Four
(1) All annuals, perennials
(2) Five
(2) All biennials and annuals only
(3) Six
(3) All biennials and annuals and few perennials
(4) Three
(4) All monocarpic and polycarpic plants
134. How many bivalents are present in microsporocyte,
131. A unicellular organism with well defined nucleus was
egg and megasporocyte of maize?
collected by a student from a pond. Choose its
correct classification. (1) 20, 10, 10 (2) 10, 0, 10
(3) 20, 0, 10 (4) 10, 10, 20

Linnaeus Haeckel Whittaker
(1) Plantae Monera Protista 135. During plant cytokinesis, vesicles are seen at
equatorial region which are involved in cell wall
(2) Animalia Monera Mychota
synthesis. These vesicles are secreted by
(3) Plantae Mychota Fungi
(1) Endoplasmic reticulum
(4) Plantae Protista Monera
(2) Golgi bodies
132. Tetradynamous condition is seen in (3) Lysosomes

(1) Ocimum, Mustard (4) Nucleus
(2) Ocimum, Salvia 136. Choose odd one out w.r.t. mobile element
(3) Mustard, Salvia (1) N (2) K
(4) Mustard, Turnip (3) Ca (4) P
13/20
137. Growth hormone involved in hydrolysis of reserve food 142. Which of the following is not part of the non-specific
during seed germination is immune defense?
(1) Auxin (1) Histamine and prostaglandins.
(2) Cytokinin (2) Lysozyme and pyrogens
(3) Gibberellins (3) Interleukins and immunoglobulins
(4) Ethylene (4) Interferons and mucous
138. How many ATP and NADPH are required for the 143. Which is false about embryonic development?
synthesis of glucose in maize? (1) Early embryonic development in deuterostomes
is determinant types
(1) 18, 12 (2) 12, 18
(2) The hollow ball like stage is called the blastula
(3) 30, 12 (4) 12, 30
(3) The end of gastrulation is defined by the
139. How many glucose molecules breakdown will occur
formation of primary germ layers
to generate net 56 ATP through aerobic and
anaerobic respiration respectively? (4) The archenteron is the primary gut and its
primary opening is blastopore
(1) 2, 19 (2) 1, 18
144. To isolate ‘Nif ’ gene, which of the following would be
(3) 1.5, 28 (4) 2, 2 needed?
140. Heterospory first originated in (a) Trichoderma culture
(1) Bryophytes (2) Pteridophytes (b) Rhizobium culture
(3) Gymnosperms (4) Angiosperms (c) Chitinase
141. Which of the following is correct about blood type? (d) Lysozyme
(1) Type O blood is the universal donor because it (e) DNase

has no circulating antibodies
(f) RNase
(2) The danger in a transfusion is if the donor has
(g) Protease
antibodies for the recipient
(1) (a), (c), (f) & (g)
(3) A and B antigens are present on the surface of
the red blood cells (2) (b), (d), (e) & (f)
(4) Blood type A has A antibodies circulating in the (3) (b), (d), (f) & (g)
plasma (4) (a), (c), (e) & (f)
14/20
145. Fill the gaps in the pathway showing hepatic blood 148. Which of the following center is not located in the
flow and return to the heart. hypothalamus?
(1) Thermoregulatory center
A from hepatic artery
Liver (2) Satiety center
B
Nutrient rich blood sinusoids
from hepatic portal (3) Appetite center
vein (4) Respiratory rhythm center
Hepatic
C D 149. Middle piece of the sperm contains
vein
A B C D (1) Mitochondria and Golgi body
(1) Deoxygenated Bile Inferior Right (2) Centrioles and Golgi body
blood ducts vene cava atrium (3) Axial filament and Golgi body
(2) Oxygenated Central Inferior Right (4) Nebenkern and axial filament
blood vein vene cava atrium
150. Organisms with different evolutionary history having
(3) Oxygenated Central Superior Right same phenotypic adaptations in response to a
blood vein vena cava atrium common environmental challenge is called
(4) Oxygenated Central Superior Left (1) Adaptive radiation (2) Convergent evolution
blood vein vena cava atrium (3) Divergent evolution (4) Natural selection
146. The following structures in different organisms are 151. An organism which is well camouflaged in its
associated with feeding, except surroundings so that it checks detection by its predator
(1) Aristotle’s lantern (1) Is not favoured by natural selection
(2) Radula (2) Leaves fewer progeny
(3) Halteres (3) Has higher fitness
(4) Chelicerae (4) Faces the danger of extinction
147. Which of the following processes by the kidneys is 152. The steroid hormones
the least selective?
(1) Are produced only by adrenal cortex and are
(1) Filtration water soluble
(2) Secretion (2) Have only cell surface receptors
(3) Reabsorption (3) Act by altering the activity of proteins in the target cell
(4) The target of ADH (4) Act by altering gene expression in the target cell
15/20
153. The adaptive immunity has four key features. Which 156. The support staff in a zoology lab mixed up the
of the following is incorrect? description charts of the following organisms :
(1) Specificity X : Rotifer
(2) The ability to distinguish self from non-self Y : Sea anemone
(3) Interaction of prostaglandins with nerve endings Z : Spider

which is partly responsible for the pain caused
Description charts:
by inflammation
I. Coelomate with segmented body
(4) The ability to respond to an enormous diversity
of non-self molecules II. Pseudocoelomate with alimentary canal and head
having ciliated crown
154. Which of the following statements about ovarian and
uterine cycles is not true? III. Diploblastic with gastrovascular cavity
(1) Fall in estrogen and progesterone levels induce Description charts that match X, Y & Z respectively are:
menstruation (1) I, II & III
(2) Estrogen levels reach highest levels in the (2) II, III & I
follicular phase and progesterone reaches
highest levels in the luteal phase of the ovarian (3) III, I & II
cycle (4) I, III & II
(3) Estrogen is produced by follicle cells 157. By observing the following structure of insulin it is
(4) If fertilization occurs, the corpus luteum is evident that
retained and secretes hCG.
S S
155. If one compares physiology of an elephant and cat A
then S S
S S
(1) The heart beats per minute of a cat will be higher
B
than an elephant
(1) It comprises at least six methionine residues
(2) The total heart beats in the lifetime of an
elephant will be many times that of a cat (2) It comprises at least six cysteine residues
(3) Both cat and elephant will show heart rate (3) It comprises three methionine and three cystine
greater than a chicken residues
(4) Elephant will show greater surface area to (4) It comprises two polypeptide chains of 51 amino
volume ratio as compared to a cat acids in each
16/20
158. The body cells in cockroach discharge their nitrogenous In the following questions (161 to 180), a statement of
wastes in the haemolymph mainly in the form of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason (R).
(1) Calcium carbonate (1) If both Assertion & Reason are true and the
(2) Ammonia reason is the correct explanation of the
(3) Potassium urate
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are true but the
(4) Urea
159. Choose the false statement. assertion, then mark (2).
(1) Inhibition of succinic dehydrogenase by malonate can (3) If Assertion is true statement but Reason is
be reversed by increasing the concentration of
false, then mark (3).
succinate
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false
(2) Non-competitive inhibition occurs when the inhibitor
statements, then mark (4).
and substrate bind at different sites on the enzyme
(3) Inhibition of acetyl cholinesterase by nerve gas 161. A : ‘Bad’ ozone is formed in the lower atmosphere.
can be overcome by increasing the concentration R : Ozone is a greenhouse gas.
of acetylcholine
162. A : Tropics show niche specialisation.
(4) A competitive inhibitor of an enzyme increases Km
without affecting Vmax. R : Environment of tropics is less seasonal,
160. Identify the hormone which is correctly matched with relatively more constant and predictable.
its source and its mechanism of action. 163. A : Succession begins with invasion of a bare
Hormone Source Mode of action lifeless area by pioneers.
(1) Progesterone Ovary Activates R : Climax community remains stable as long as

secondary environment remains unchanged.
messenger in
endometrium 164. A : Test cross is done to determine linkage.
(2) Oxytocin Posterior Activates
pituitary secondary R : Genes of wing type and eye colour in Drosophila
messenger in show complete linkage.
myometrium
165. A : Lac operon codes for polycistronic RNA.
(3) Cortisol Zona Alters gene
fasciculata expression R : Each operon has its specific operator.
in target cells
(4) Secretin Small Alters gene 166. A : Flower is a condensed reproductive shoot
intestine expression in
target cells R : Hypogynous flowers have inferior ovary.
17/20
167. A : Xylem channels of heart wood are plugged by 175. A : The immediate source of energy for a muscle
tyloses. contraction is ATP.
R : Tyloses are formed by xylem parenchyma. R : ATP is present in very small amounts which
exhausts in 2-4 seconds during a sprint at top
168. A : P680 is reaction center of PS II.
speed and needs to be rapidly replenished.
R : It is involved in quantum conversion.
176. A : High doses of alcohol induce liver to form too
169. A : Polycistronic structural gene is common in many fat droplets, leading to the disease called
bacteria. cirrhosis.
R : DNA polymerase I has more than one function. R : A cirrhotic liver is less able to stop poisonous
substances in the intestinal blood from reaching
170. A : Consciousness is a defining feature of living
the general circulation.
organisms.
177. A : RNA interference is a recently discovered
R : It is present in all living organisms from
pathway for endogenous gene regulation.
prokaryotes to eukaryotes.
R : Short dsRNA segments trigger an enzyme
171. A : Arachidonic acid has 20 carbon atoms excluding
complex to degrade a target mRNA.
the carboxyl carbon.
178. A : The cardiac muscle fibres act as functional
R : Arachidonic acid is an unsaturated fatty acid
syncytium.
with three double bonds.
R : There are gap junctions present at intercalated
172. A : RBCs are formed in the red bone marrow in the
discs in between adjacent fibres.
adults.
179. A : The diffusing capacity of the lung for a gas is
R : Stem cells in bone marrow are stimulated to form
directly proportional to the surface area of the
RBCs by erythropoietin hormone.
alveolo-capillary membrane and inversely
173. A : Urea is an important osmotic constituent and not proportional to its thickness.
merely an excretory product in shark.
R : In emphysema, diffusing capacity of the lung
R : In sharks, urea is actively absorbed in the decreases due to increase in thickness of
kidneys so as to retain it in the blood and thus alveolo-capillary membrane.
conserve water.
180. A : The glucose monomers in starch are joined by
174. A : In man the thyroid gland has an important role. (1-4) and (1-6) glycosidic linkages.
R : The thyroid hormones stimulate oxidative R : Amylases in saliva and pancreatic juices
metabolism. hydrolyse (1-4) linkages.
18/20
[ GENERAL KNOWLEDGE ]
181. Who was the first administrator statesman to 185. Which of the following five-year plans recognized
attempt planning as a means for economic human development as the core of all developmental
development? efforts?
(1) Sir CP Ramaswami Aiyyar (1) Eighth five-year plan (2) Seventh five-year plan
(3) Fifth five-year plan (4) Third five-year plan
(2) M. Visvesvaraya
186. Which of the following plans aimed at improving the
(3) V T Krishnamachari
standard of living?
(4) C Rajagopalachari (1) Third plan (2) Fourth plan
182. An economy is at the take off stage on its path to (3) Fifth plan (4) Sixth plan
development when it
187. At which of the following places was the mining of
(1) Becomes stagnant coal started in 1774?
(2) Begins steady growth (1) Chhindwara (2) Dhanbad
(3) Is liberalized (3) Ranchi (4) Raniganj

188. In which of the following years were the cocking
(4) Gets maximum foreign aid
coals and non-cocking coal mines in India
183. Which of the following is the basic characteristic of nationalized?
oligopoly?
(1) 1971 and 1972 respectively
(1) A few sellers, one buyer (2) 1972 and 1973 respectively
(2) A few sellers, many buyers (3) 1973 and 1974 respectively
(3) A few sellers, a few buyers (4) 1970 and 1972 respectively
(4) Many sellers, a few buyers 189. Which Indian state has the largest number of cotton
textile mills?
184. The aim of which of the five-year plans was to
correct the disequilibrium in the economy? (1) Madhya Pradesh (2) Maharashtra
(3) Gujarat (4) West Bengal
(1) First five-year plan
190. Minor ports like Kakinada, Machilipatnam are in
(2) Second five-year plan
which of the following states?
(3) Third five-year plan (1) Tamil Nadu (2) Andhra Pradesh
(4) Fourth five-year plan (3) Maharashtra (4) Karnataka
19/20
[ APTITUDE AND LOGICAL THINKING ]

Directions (Q191 to Q193) : Complete the following 196. a__aab__aabaa__a__
patterns.
(1) baab (2) abab
191. 10, 30, 68, 130, 222, ?
(3) bbaa (4) aabb
(1) 450 (2) 350
Directions (Q197 to Q199) : There are four terms in each
(3) 405 (4) 420 of the following question. The term right to the symbol ::
have same relationship as to the two terms of the left of
192. 7, 3, 11, 12, 19, 48, 31, ?, ?.
symbol :: out of the four terms one term is missing which
(1) 192, 47 (2) 192, 57 is shown by (?) and which is one of the four options given
below. Find the correct options.
(3) 47, 57 (4) 64, 124
197. Congress : USA : : Parliament : ?
193. 11, 23, 49, 827, 1681, ?
(1) Philippines (2) India
(1) 3265 (2) 3363
(3) Argentina (4) Brazil
(3) 32243 (4) 32556
198. 7 : 350 : : 8 : ?
Directions (Q194 to Q196) : Following questions are
based on letter series, in each question some letters are (1) 596 (2) 529
missing shown by (__). The missing letters are given in
(3) 496 (4) 520
a proper sequence as one of the four options given under
each question. Find out the correct options. 199. DMTP : GOWR : : LSOY : ?
194. __ __ B __ T __BA __ LO__A__ (1) OUQR (2) OVQB
(1) LTOBTAL (2) LOAOTBT (3) OURA (4) OTUA
(3) OABTLOA (4) TLOABTL 200. If XYP is code as 325, WXZ is coded as 143, MDN
is coded as 769, PWD is coded as 645 and ZDM is
195. K__PCT__CKPCKTC__TPKTP__ coded as 176 then what is the code for XYZN?
(1) KPTC (2) KPKK (1) 3219 (2) 3259
(3) TPKC (4) TPCK (3) 1239 (4) 1539

20/20
Hints & Solution of Mock Test-1 (Code A) CBT for AIIMS-2017
Computer Based Test
MOCK TEST - 1 (Code-A)

Test Date : 14-05-2017 ANSWERS
1. (3) 41. (3) 81. (4) 121. (4) 161. (3)
2. (3) 42. (1) 82. (4) 122. (4) 162. (1)
3. (1) 43. (1) 83. (3) 123. (1) 163. (2)
4. (3) 44. (3) 84. (2) 124. (2) 164. (3)
5. (3) 45. (1) 85. (4) 125. (4) 165. (2)
6. (4) 46. (1) 86. (1) 126. (3) 166. (3)
7. (3) 47. (2) 87. (3) 127. (2) 167. (2)
8. (1) 48. (1) 88. (3) 128. (2) 168. (2)
9. (1) 49. (1) 89. (3) 129. (2) 169. (2)
10. (3) 50. (3) 90. (4) 130. (3) 170. (1)
11. (3) 51. (4) 91. (3) 131. (4) 171. (4)
12. (4) 52. (1) 92. (1) 132. (4) 172. (1)
13. (1) 53. (1) 93. (4) 133. (1) 173. (1)
14. (3) 54. (3) 94. (4) 134. (2) 174. (2)
15. (1) 55. (3) 95. (4) 135. (2) 175. (2)
16. (1) 56. (2) 96. (2) 136. (3) 176. (2)
17. (3) 57. (1) 97. (3) 137. (3) 177. (1)
18. (2) 58. (3) 98. (2) 138. (3) 178. (1)
19. (2) 59. (1) 99. (2) 139. (3) 179. (3)
20. (3) 60. (2) 100. (4) 140. (2) 180. (2)
21. (1) 61. (1) 101. (4) 141. (3) 181. (2)
22. (3) 62. (3) 102. (4) 142. (3) 182. (2)
23. (4) 63. (2) 103. (4) 143. (1) 183. (2)
24. (3) 64. (4) 104. (3) 144. (3) 184. (1)
25. (4) 65. (2) 105. (2) 145. (2) 185. (1)
26. (2) 66. (2) 106. (1) 146. (3) 186. (2)
27. (2) 67. (2) 107. (1) 147. (1) 187. (4)
28. (1) 68. (2) 108. (2) 148. (4) 188. (2)
29. (2) 69. (1) 109. (2) 149. (4) 189. (2)
30. (2) 70. (1) 110. (3) 150. (2) 190. (2)
31. (1) 71. (4) 111. (3) 151. (3) 191. (2)
32. (4) 72. (3) 112. (4) 152. (4) 192. (1)
33. (3) 73. (3) 113. (2) 153. (3) 193. (3)
34. (1) 74. (2) 114. (3) 154. (4) 194. (2)
35. (4) 75. (1) 115. (2) 155. (1) 195. (3)
36. (2) 76. (1) 116. (1) 156. (2) 196. (1)
37. (3) 77. (1) 117. (1) 157. (2) 197. (2)
38. (4) 78. (3) 118. (1) 158. (3) 198. (4)
39. (2) 79. (1) 119. (2) 159. (3) 199. (3)
40. (2) 80. (1) 120. (2) 160. (3) 200. (1)
1/9
CBT for AIIMS-2017 Hints & Solution of Mock Test-1 (Code A)
Hints to Selected Questions

[ PHYSICS]
1. Answer (3) 8. Answer (1)
In the 2.135 the digit to be round off is odd (3) Concept
hence it is to increased by 1 while 2.145 contains
9. Answer (1)
the digit to be round off as even (4) so no change
will be there. dL
= is valid in inertial frame only.
2. Answer (3) dt
L 10. Answer (3)

LC and both have dimension [T]
R W = T × Change in surface area
3. Answer (1) ⎡ 2 ⎤
⎛R⎞
Resultant will be more intend towards the vector  T  ⎢8  4 ⎜ ⎟  4R 2 ⎥
⎢⎣ ⎝2⎠ ⎥⎦
with greater magnitude, so angle will be less with
the greater magnitude vector.
4. Answer (3)  4R 2T
11. Answer (3)
1
Area under curve = × 1000 × 120 = 60000 m Pressure on the surface of lake  105 Pa
2
Pressure at a depth of 100 m  10 atm  106 Pa
= 60 km
5. Answer (3) K = P /  V /V 
Time of flight is given . 106

=
6. Answer (4) ⎛ 0.100 ⎞
⎜ ⎟
⎝ 100 ⎠
2 m1 m2 2mM 2 mg 2T = T
T= g= g=
m1 + m2 m+M
1+
m = 109 Pa
M
= 2 mg ⎡ V r ⎤
T T ⎢⎣∵ V = 3 r = 3 × 0.033% = 0.1%⎥⎦
m<<M
T  = 2T = 4 mg 12. Answer (4)
7. Answer (3) GM gRe2

g= =
F·v = k Re2 Re2
dv
m ·v = k 2 2
⎛R ⎞ ⎛ Re ⎞
dt = g⎜ e ⎟ = g⎜ ⎟
R 
⎝ e⎠ ⎝ 0.9 Re ⎠
k
vdv = dt
m
⎛ 1 ⎞
 v2  t = g ⎜⎝ ⎟  1.25g
0.81⎠
v t g – g = 0.25g Increase by 25%
dx 13. Answer (1)
 t
dt

3 =  T
x t2 
2/9
Newton’s law of cooling
Y
V1 =
T1 – T2 ⎛ T + T2 ⎞ 
=k⎜ 1 – T0 ⎟
t ⎝ 2 ⎠
T T
V2 = =
1  s
kt =
4
V1 Y Y 1
= = = = n
1 V2 T /s ⎛ l ⎞ ⎛ l /n ⎞
k = /minute Y⎜ ⎟ ⎜ ⎟
8 ⎝ l ⎠ ⎝ l ⎠
8 f1 V1
t= minute fv = = n
3 f2 V2
1 ⎛ v ⎞
 ,Pn ⎜⎝ v + ⎟
n ⎛ v + vs ⎞ 10 ⎠ 11
 =  0 ⎜ ⎟ = 0 =  = 55 cm
 is doubled  P is halved
⎝ v ⎠ v 10 0

y = asin(t + ) 1 2 2qE
kx = q (Ex ) ⇒ x =
a T 2  2 k
y= ,t = = =
2 4 4 2 21. Answer (1)
v = acos(t + ), is negative Net force F = 0
F2 = 2F1cos30°
 3
< t +  <
2 2 kqq0 kq 2 3 q0 1
=2 · ⇒ =
2 2 2 q 3
a 1 ⎛ a ⎞ a
= asin(t + )  sin(t + ) = ⎜⎝ ⎟
2 2 3⎠
F1 F1
 5 30°
+=
2 6
q

 =
3 q0 F2
17. Answer (3) a
q 3 q
y1 = A sint
⎞ 22. Answer (3)

⎛
y2 = A sin ⎜  t + ⎟
⎝ 2⎠ q
face = 6 
ax = A, ay = A 0
0.1× 10 – 6
a= ax2 + ay2 = 2 A =
6 × 8.85 × 10 –12
= 1.883 × 103
E = ma22 = m 2 A 2 = m A2 2
1 1 2
2 2 = 1883
3/9

P = I 2R

E=
20 P I
=2 = 2 × 0.5% = 1%
P I

dF = dq·E =   dA  · 29. Answer (2)
2 0
A charged particle has circular path in the case only
when only magnetic field is present.
dF 2
P= = 30. Answer (2)
dA 20
1 0 I
BCircular = ·
2 4 2r
F = P·A = ·  R2
2 0  I (sin90 – sin 45) 0 I
BStraight = 2 · 0
4 (r cos 45)
=
2 r
 
2 –1
Q2 31. Answer (1)
=
 4 R 
2 2
R 2 =
1 Q 2
32. Answer (4)
2 0 32 0 R 2
40
I1 = Irms = = 20 2 A
= 2000 N 2
24. Answer (3) I2 = 10 A
V  1 2 4 I = I12 + I22 = 30 A
Ex = – =– (y – 4x ) = =2
x (1, 1) x 2 (1, 1) 2
33. Answer (3)
V  1 2 1 ⎡1 1 ⎤
Ey = – =– (y – 4x ) = ( – 1) ⎢ – ⎥
y (1, 1) y 2 (1, 1) f R
⎣ 1 R 2⎦
1 ⎛ 2⎞
1 = ( – 1) ⎜ ⎟
= (–2y ) = –1 f ⎝ R⎠
2 (1, 1)
R
2( – 1) =
E = E x iˆ + E y jˆ = 2 iˆ – jˆ V/m f
25. Answer (4) 2( – 1) < 1
1
Q 2d C12 V 2 1 0 AV
2 –1<
W = F·d = = d= 2
2 A0 20 A 2 d
3
<
26. Answer (2) 2
and  – 1 > 0
>1
A B Ceq = C1 + C2 + C3 = 3C
34. Answer (1)
3 1 D 42D
27. Answer (2) y1 = =
d d
IG G (0.1 I )99 1 4
S= = = 11  =
I – IG I – 0.1 I 2 3
4/9
Sky wave communication
1 4hc 4 ⎛ hc ⎞ W
mv12 = – W0 = ⎜ – W0 ⎟ + 0
2 3 ⎝
3  ⎠ 3 40. Answer (2)
CE configuration is used for audio amplifier.
1 4⎛1 ⎞ W
mv12 = ⎜ mv 2 ⎟ + 0 41. Answer (3)
2 ⎝
3 2 ⎠ 3
42. Answer (1)
4 43. Answer (1)

v1  v
3 44. Answer (3)

46. Answer (1)
1
= a (Z – 1) = 10a 47. Answer (2)

48. Answer (1)
1 10a 49. Answer (1)
 a (Z  – 1) ⇒  a (Z  – 1)
4 2 50. Answer (3)
Z = 6 51. Answer (4)
53. Answer (1)
log2 0.693
1/2 = = –6
= 693 × 103 s  1 week 54. Answer (3)
 10
55. Answer (3)
38. Answer (4)
56. Answer (2)
2
mV 57. Answer (1)
F=
r 58. Answer (3)
1 59. Answer (1)

V and r  n2
n 60. Answer (2)
[ CHEMISTRY]
98 g of H2SO4  4 g atoms of oxygen KE = 3.4 eV is in n = 2
24.5 g of H2SO4  1 g atom of oxygen After giving 1.89 eV, n = 3
C:H=1:1 3.01 × 1020  0.218 kJ
63. Answer (2) 6.02 × 1023  436 kJ
1
66. Answer (2)
r = 1.33 × 10 –15 × (A) 3
1
(63.5) 3 F F
= 1.33 × 10 –15 ×
Xe
 1.33 × 10 –15 × 4 F F
= 5.32 × 10–15 m
5/9
81. Answer (4)
 1s2  1s2  2s2  2Pz2 ⎡⎣  2Px2 
 2Py2 ⎤⎦  2s1
NH2 is not a greenhouse gas.
Fact
1 3
69. Answer (1) A=4–3× = 4 – = 3.25
4 4
Vreal < Videal
1 1
70. Answer (1) B=4– = 4 – = 3.5
2 2
VC = 3b and b = 4 × (Volume of molecule)
M.F. is whole number ratio of A and B.
71. Answer (4)
83. Answer (3)
5 7 12
n1(CP )1 + n2 (CP )2 1× 2 R + 1× 2 R R 2r
CP = = = 2
n1 + n2 1+ 1 2
12r = 12 3, r = 3
= 3R
72. Answer (3)  Distance between A and B layer is
A(g) B(g)  C(g)  D(g) 8 8

d= r= × 3 = 8 =2 2
200 0 0 0 3 3
200  x x x x
84. Answer (2)
Now, (200 – x) + 3x = 500
XB 1000
200 + 2x = 500 m= × =3
1 – XB 18
x = 150
B
0.054 =
150 × 150 × 150 1 – B
 KP = = 67500
50
 0.054 = XB – 0.054 XB
73. Answer (3)
Ka = C2 = 10–2 × (10–4)2 = 10–10 0.054
 XB = = 0.051
74. Answer (2) 1.054
85. Answer (4)
M M 1⎛M ⎞ 3M
E= + = ⎜ + M⎟ =
4 2 2⎝ 2 ⎠ 4 i–1 i–1
=  0.5 = i=2
m–1 3–1
75. Answer (1)
Fact 86. Answer (1)
76. Answer (1) NaOH will be left in solution.
Fact 87. Answer (3)
77. Answer (1) t1 t1 t1

2
100  2
50  2
25  12.5
Fact
Cl-atom has vacant d-orbital. Al3+ has maximum +ve charge.
Fe(SCN)3 gives blood red colour. SnO2 is heavy ore.
6/9
PCl5  [PCl4 ]+ [PCl6] – x and v can’t be zero.
PBr5  [PBr4]+ [Br–] 105. Answer (2)
91. Answer (3) Both are sp3 hybridized.
Pm is radioactive lanthanoid. 106. Answer (1)
92. Answer (1) Boyle’s law is applicable for ideal gases.
CN– is ambidentate ligand. 107. Answer (1)
93. Answer (4) KC is constant.
S Ni is followed in this case. 108. Answer (2)
94. Answer (4) LiAlH4 gives H –.
In this reaction : CCl2 is the intermediate 109. Answer (2)
95. Answer (4) BN and graphite has similar structure.
Rearrangement is 110. Answer (3)
O 
CH3 — CH2 — O — CH — CH3 is more stable due
:
CH3 — C — N CH3 — N C O to resonance.

111. Answer (3)
96. Answer (2) Fact.
Fact. 112. Answer (4)
97. Answer (3)
is antiaromatic.
It forms N N
113. Answer (2)
98. Answer (2)
Fact.
Fact.
114. Answer (3)
99. Answer (2)
115. Answer (2)
Monomers are NH2 — (CH2)6 — NH2 and
Fact.
HOOC —(CH2)4— COOH
116. Answer (1)
100. Answer (4)
H2O + Cl2  HCl + HOCl
Fact.
HOCl  HCl + [O]
101. Answer (4)
117. Answer (1)
Fact.
CO is acid ligand.
102. Answer (4)
118. Answer (1)
CH3 Fact
119. Answer (2)
CH3 — C  will form due to stability
K × 1000
CH3 m =
M
103. Answer (4) 120. Answer (2)
NaHSO3 is weak reagent. As state variable changes state also changes.
7/9
[ BIOLOGY ]
121. Answer (4) 141. Answer (3)
13, 14, 15, 21 and 22 chromosomes The transfusion reactions occur when antigens of
122. Answer (4) donor and recipient do not match.
Jaya-Rice variety 142. Answer (3)
123. Answer (1) Interleukins are secreted by T cells and Ig by

B cells.
Glomus: Mycorrhiza
143. Answer (1)
Phytophthora: Herbicide
144. Answer (3)
124. Answer (2)
Nif gene is found in Rhizobium.
125. Answer (4)
145. Answer (2)
Resource partitioning
126. Answer (3) 146. Answer (3)
127. Answer (2) Halteres are modifications of hind wings in dipteran

insects which help in balancing while flying.
Birds, Reptiles, Moth-Egg, Humans, Grasshopper,
Salix, Cockroaches-sperm 147. Answer (1)
128. Answer (2) Filtration is a non-selective process driven by GHP.
129. Answer (2) 148. Answer (4)

Angiosperms 149. Answer (4)
130. Answer (3) Spirally arranged mitochondria in sperm are called
nebenkern.
131. Answer (4)
150. Answer (2)
Prokaryote
151. Answer (3)
132. Answer (4)
Brassicaceae An organism which is well protected from its
predator will have higher reproductive fitness and is
133. Answer (1) selected by nature.
b, c, d, e 152. Answer (4)
134. Answer (2) 153. Answer (3)
2n = 20 Prostaglandins are part of innate immunity.
Bivalents = 10
154. Answer (4)
135. Answer (2)
155. Answer (1)
136. Answer (3)
Heart beat rate and BMR are inversely proportional
Ca is present in middle lamella to the size of the animal.
137. Answer (3) 156. Answer (2)
138. Answer (3) 157. Answer (2)
Maize-C4 158. Answer (3)
139. Answer (3) Fat body synthesized potassium urate and releases
Aerobic one glucose yields 38 ATP it in hemolymph.
Anaerobic one glucose yields 2 ATP 159. Answer (3)
140. Answer (2) Inhibition of AchE by nerve gas is non-competitive.
8/9
160. Answer (3) 169. Answer (2)

Progesterone alters gene expression. Source of 170. Answer (1)
oxytocin is hypothalamus. Secretin activates 171. Answer (4)
secondary messenger.
It has 20 carbons including carboxyl carbon and
161. Answer (3) has 4 double bonds.
162. Answer (1) 172. Answer (1)
163. Answer (2) 173. Answer (1)
164. Answer (3) 174. Answer (2)
Incomplete linkage 175. Answer (2)
165. Answer (2) 176. Answer (2)
166. Answer (3) 177. Answer (1)
Hypogynous flowers have superior ovary 178. Answer (1)
167. Answer (2) 179. Answer (3)
168. Answer (2) 180. Answer (2)
[ GENERAL KNOWLEDGE ]
181. Answer (2) 186. Answer (2)
182. Answer (2) 187. Answer (4)
183. Answer (2) 188. Answer (2)
184. Answer (1) 189. Answer (2)
185. Answer (1) 190. Answer (2)
[ APTITUDE AND LOGICAL THINKING ]

191. Answer (2) 193. Answer (3)
23 + 2, 33 + 3, 43 + 4, 53 + 5, 63 +6 194. Answer (2)
Next term = 73 + 7 = 343 + 7 = 350 195. Answer (3)
192. Answer (1)
KTPC | TPCK | PCKT | CKTP | KTPC|
The series is combination of two sequences, Odd
terms = 7, 7 + 4 = 11, 11 + 8 = 19, 19 + 12 = 31 196. Answer (1)
So, next odd term = 31 + 16 = 47 197. Answer (2)
Even terms = 3, 3 × 4 = 12, 12 × 4 = 48 198. Answer (4)

Next even term = 48 × 4 = 192 199. Answer (3)
Hence, the terms are 192, 47. 200. Answer (1)

9/9

Mock Test - 1: (Physics)

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Mock Test-1 (Code A) CBT for AIIMS-2017

Time : 3:30 Hrs. Mock Test – 1 MM : 200

2. The dimensions of LC is same as {L = Inductance, u

20 120 Time (s) (2) t –1/2

(1) 10 km (2) 55 km (3) t 3/2

(3) 60 km (4) None of these (4) t – 3/2

(1) 2R2T (2) 3R2T (1) Half

(3) 4R2T (4) 6R2T (2) Remain same

(3) m  2 A2 (4) Zero (3) 1 : 3 (4) 3:2

32. A direct current of 10 A is superimposed on an

(3) 110  (4) 90 

1 1 (1) Common base configuration

(1) 43.6 (2) 436 (1) 12 : 4 : 1 (2) 1 : 4 : 12

(3) 218 (4) 2.18 (3) 12 : 1 : 4 (4) 4 : 12 : 1

(4) See saw (3) 2R (4) 3R

pressure is 500 mm Hg at equilibrium. If the initial

(3) 67500 (4) 32500

(1) 12.32 yrs (2) 1.23 yrs

76. The ratio of boron atom which are sp 2 and sp 3

(3) 1 : 2 (4) 3 : 2 (3) H — C — CH CH2

Space for Rough Work

98. Functional groups present in lactose can be named CH3

Space for Rough Work

(1) Sonalika (3) Different foraging patterns

(2) Kalyan Sona (4) More than one option is correct

(3) Sonora-64 126. Choose incorrect option w.r.t introns.

(4) Jaya (1) Non coding sections of primary transcript

(a) Bacillus thuringiensis (3) Amount is less than exons

(b) NPV (4) Regulation of alternative splicing

(c) Glomus 127. In how many of the given organisms, sex is

(1) Allen’s rule (1) Embryo sac

(2) Bergman’s rule (2) Ovule

(3) Rensch's rule (3) Anther

(4) Jordan's rule (4) Stamen

Space for Rough Work

(1) Selaginella (a) Intrafascicular cambium

(2) Sorghum (b) Lateral meristem

Juvenile phase  Flowering once  Senescence (f) Intercalary meristem

(3) 20, 0, 10 (4) 10, 10, 20

132. Tetradynamous condition is seen in (3) Lysosomes

(1) Auxin (1) Histamine and prostaglandins.

(2) Cytokinin (2) Lysozyme and pyrogens

(3) Gibberellins (3) Interleukins and immunoglobulins

(4) Ethylene (4) Interferons and mucous

(1) Type O blood is the universal donor because it (e) DNase

Space for Rough Work

A B C D (1) Mitochondria and Golgi body

(2) Secretion (2) Have only cell surface receptors

Space for Rough Work

(1) Specificity X : Rotifer

(2) The ability to distinguish self from non-self Y : Sea anemone

(3) Interaction of prostaglandins with nerve endings Z : Spider

(1) Progesterone Ovary Activates R : Climax community remains stable as long as

Space for Rough Work

Space for Rough Work

(2) Begins steady growth (1) Chhindwara (2) Dhanbad

(3) Is liberalized (3) Ranchi (4) Raniganj

Space for Rough Work

[ APTITUDE AND LOGICAL THINKING ]

194. __ __ B __ T __BA __ LO__A__ (1) OUQR (2) OVQB

(1) LTOBTAL (2) LOAOTBT (3) OURA (4) OTUA

(1) KPTC (2) KPKK (1) 3219 (2) 3259

(3) TPKC (4) TPCK (3) 1239 (4) 1539

194. B T BA LOA__ (1) OUQR (2) OVQB