GATE Solved Question Papers For Engineering Sciences XE by AglaSem Com PDF

SOLVED PAPERS
GATE ENGINEERING SCIENCES (XE)
A comprehensive study guide for GATE

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CONTENTS
• Introduction
• Question Paper Pattern
• Design of Questions
• Marking Scheme
• Syllabus
• Previous Year Solved Papers
o Solved Question Paper 2014
o Answer Key 2014
o Answer Key 2013
o Answer Key 2012
Introduction
The Graduate Aptitude Test in Engineering (GATE) is the all India level examination
conducted by the Indian Institute of Science and seven Indian Institutes of Technology
(IITs).
A crucial part of GATE preparation is to solve and practice using previous year GATE
papers. Solving previous year GATE papers help the candidate in understanding the exam
pattern, knowing the level of difficulty of questions, and analyzing preparation.
While attempting to solve any previous year GATE paper, it is advisable that it is done in a
simulated test environment. This means, that the candidate sets a timer to countdown to
test time, makes sure there is no other distraction, and then sits down to take the test as if
he / she is in the exam hall. After attempting the paper, check how many questions you
could get right in the first attempt. Analyse the strong and weak areas of preparation, and
accordingly devise a study schedule or revision pattern. After going through those areas
where in the first attempt could not do well, try the next paper.
Almost all of the engineering colleges in India take admission in M.Tech courses on the
basis of GATE scores. Apart from that, PSUs also recruit students directly on this basis.
To score high in this elite examination is tough, but quite achievable.
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GATE Previous Year Solved Papers by
Question Paper Pattern
In all the papers, there will be a total of 65 questions carrying 100 marks, out of which 10
questions carrying a total of 15 marks are in General Aptitude (GA).
In the papers bearing the codes AE, AG, BT, CE, CH, CS, EC, EE, IN, ME, MN, MT, PI, TF and
XE, the Engineering Mathematics will carry around 13% of the total marks, the General
Aptitude section will carry 15% of the total marks and the remaining percentage of the
total marks is devoted to the subject of the paper.
In the papers bearing the codes AR, CY, EY, GG, MA, PH and XL, the General Aptitude
section will carry 15% of the total marks and the remaining 85% of the total marks is
devoted to the subject of the paper.
GATE would contain questions of two different types in various papers:
(i) Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ) carrying 1 or 2 marks each in all papers and
sections. These questions are objective in nature, and each will have a choice of four
answers, out of which the candidate has to mark the correct answer(s).
(ii) Numerical Answer Questions of 1 or 2 marks each in all papers and sections. For
these questions the answer is a real number, to be entered by the candidate using the
virtual keypad. No choices will be shown for this type of questions.
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Design of Questions
The questions in a paper may be designed to test the following abilities:
(i) Recall: These are based on facts, principles, formulae or laws of the discipline of the
paper. The candidate is expected to be able to obtain the answer either from his/her
memory of the subject or at most from a one-line computation.
(ii) Comprehension: These questions will test the candidate's understanding of the
basics of his/her field, by requiring him/her to draw simple conclusions from fundamental
ideas.
(iii) Application: In these questions, the candidate is expected to apply his/her

knowledge either through computation or by logical reasoning.
(iv) Analysis and Synthesis: In these questions, the candidate is presented with data,
diagrams, images etc. that require analysis before a question can be answered. A Synthesis
question might require the candidate to compare two or more pieces of information.
Questions in this category could, for example, involve candidates in recognising unstated
assumptions, or separating useful information from irrelevant information.
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Marking Scheme
For 1-mark multiple-choice questions, 1/3 marks will be deducted for a wrong answer.
Likewise, for2-marks multiple-choice questions, 2/3 marks will be deducted for a wrong
answer. There is no negative marking for numerical answer type questions.
General Aptitude (GA) Questions
In all papers, GA questions carry a total of 15 marks. The GA section includes 5 questions
carrying 1 mark each (sub-total 5 marks) and 5 questions carrying 2 marks each (sub-total
10 marks).
Question Papers other than GG, XE and XL
These papers would contain 25 questions carrying 1 mark each (sub-total 25 marks) and
30 questions carrying 2 marks each (sub-total 60 marks). The question paper will consist of
questions of multiple choice and numerical answer type. For numerical answer questions,
choices will not be given. Candidates have to enter the answer (which will be a real
number, signed or unsigned, e.g. 25.06, -25.06, 25, -25 etc.) using a virtual keypad. An
appropriate range will be considered while evaluating the numerical answer type
questions so that the candidate is not penalized due to the usual round-off errors.
GG (Geology and Geophysics) Paper
Apart from the General Aptitude (GA) section, the GG question paper consists of two parts:
Part A and Part B. Part A is common for all candidates. Part B contains two sections: Section
1 (Geology) and Section 2 (Geo-physics). Candidates will have to attempt questions in Part
A and either Section 1 or Section 2 in Part B.
Part A consists of 25 multiple-choice questions carrying 1-mark each (sub-total 25 marks

and some of these may be numerical answer type questions). Each section in Part B
(Section 1 and Section 2) consists of 30 multiple choice questions carrying 2 marks each
(sub-total 60 marks and some of these may be numerical answer type questions).
XE Paper (Engineering Sciences)
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In XE paper, Engineering Mathematics section (Section A) is compulsory. This section
contains 11 questions carrying a total of 15 marks: 7 questions carrying 1 mark each (sub-
total 7 marks), and 4 questions carrying 2 marks each (sub-total 8 marks). Some questions
may be of numerical answer type questions.
Each of the other sections of the XE paper (Sections B through G) contains 22 questions
carrying a total of 35 marks: 9 questions carrying 1 mark each (sub-total 9 marks) and 13
questions carrying 2 marks each (sub-total 26 marks). Some questions may be of
numerical answer type.
XL Paper (Life Sciences)
In XL paper, Chemistry section (Section H) is compulsory. This section contains 15

questions carrying a total of 25 marks: 5 questions carrying 1 mark each (sub-total 5 marks)
and 10 questions carrying 2-marks each (sub-total 20 marks). Some questions may be of
Each of the other sections of the XL paper (Sections I through M) contains 20 questions
carrying a total of 30 marks: 10 questions carrying 1 mark each (sub-total 10 marks) and 10
questions carrying 2 marks each (sub-total 20 marks). Some questions may be of
Note on Negative Marking for Wrong Answers
For a wrong answer chosen for the multiple choice questions, there would be negative
marking. For1-mark multiple choice questions, 1/3 mark will be deducted for a wrong
answer. Likewise, for 2-mark multiple choice questions, 2/3 mark will be deducted for a
wrong answer. However, there is no negative marking for a wrong answer in numerical
answer type questions.
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Syllabus for General Aptitude (GA)
Verbal Ability: English grammar, sentence completion, verbal analogies, word groups,
instructions, critical reasoning and verbal deduction.
Numerical Ability: Numerical computation, numerical estimation, numerical reasoning

and data interpretation.
Syllabus for Engineering Sciences (XE)
Section A: Engineering Mathematics (Compulsory)
Linear Algebra: Algebra of matrices, inverse, rank, system of linear equations, symmetric,
skew-symmetric and orthogonal matrices. Hermitian, skew-Hermitian and unitary
matrices.eigenvalues and eigenvectors, diagonalisation of matrices, Cayley-Hamilton
Theorem.
Calculus: Functions of single variable, limit, continuity and differentiability, Mean value
theorems, Indeterminate forms and L’Hospital rule, Maxima and minima,Taylor’s series,
Fundamental and mean value-theorems of integral calculus. Evaluation of definite and
improper integrals, Beta and Gamma functions, Functions of two variables, limit,
continuity, partial derivatives, Euler’s theorem for homogeneous functions, total
derivatives, maxima and minima, Lagrange method of multipliers, double and triple
integrals and their applications, sequence and series, tests for convergence, power series,
Fourier Series, Half range sine and cosine series.
Complex variable: Analytic functions, Cauchy-Riemann equations, Application in solving

potential problems, Line integral, Cauchy’s integral theorem and integral formula (without
proof), Taylor’s and Laurent’ series, Residue theorem (without proof) and its applications.
Vector Calculus: Gradient, divergence and curl, vector identities, directional derivatives,
line, surface and volume integrals, Stokes, Gauss and Green’s theorems (without proofs)
applications.
Ordinary Differential Equations: First order equation (linear and nonlinear), Second
order linear differential equations with variable coefficients, Variation of parameters
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method, higher order linear differential equations with constant coefficients, Cauchy-
Euler’s equations, power series solutions, Legendre polynomials and Bessel’s functions of
the first kind and their properties.
Partial Differential Equations: Separation of variables method,Laplace equation,

solutions of one dimensional heat and wave equations.
Probability and Statistics: Definitions of probability and simple theorems, conditional

probability, Bayes Theorem, random variables, discrete and continuous distributions,
Binomial, Poisson, and normal distributions, correlation and linear regression.
Numerical Methods: Solution of a system of linear equations by L-U decomposition,

Gauss-Jordan and Gauss-Seidel Methods, Newton’s interpolation formulae, Solution of a
polynomial and a transcendental equation by Newton-Raphson method, numerical
integration by trapezoidal rule, Simpson’s rule and Gaussian quadrature, numerical
solutions of first order differential equation by Euler’s method and 4 th order Runge-Kutta
method.
Section B: Fluid Mechanics
Fluid Properties: Relation between stress and strain rate for Newtonian fluids.
Hydrostatics: Buoyancy, manometry, forces on submerged bodies.
Eulerian and Lagrangian description of fluid motion, concept of local and convective
accelerations, steady and unsteady flows, control volume analysis for mass, momentum
and energy.
Differential equations of mass and momentum (Euler equation), Bernoulli’s equation and
its applications.
Concept of fluid rotation, vorticity, stream function and potential function.
Potential flow: elementary flow fields and principle of superposition, potential flow past a
circular cylinder.
Dimensional analysis: Concept of geometric, kinematic and dynamic similarity,

importance of non-dimensional numbers.
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Fully-developed pipe flow, laminar and turbulent flows, friction factor, Darcy-Weisbach
relation.
Qualitative ideas of boundary layer and separation, streamlined and bluff bodies, drag and
lift forces.
Basic ideas of flow measurement using venturimeter, pitot-static tube and orifice plate.
Section C: Materials Science
Structure: Atomic structure and bonding in materials. Crystal structure of materials,

crystal systems, unit cells and space lattices, determination of structures of simple crystals
by x-ray diffraction, miller indices of planes and directions, packing geometry in metallic,
ionic and covalent solids. Concept of amorphous, single and polycrystalline structures and
their effect on properties of materials.Crystal growth techniques.Imperfections in
crystalline solids and their role in influencing various properties.
Diffusion: Fick’s laws and application of diffusion in sintering, doping of semiconductors

and surface hardening of metals.
Metals and Alloys: Solid solutions, solubility limit, phase rule, binary phase diagrams,
intermediate phases, intermetallic compounds, iron-iron carbide phase diagram, heat
treatment of steels, cold, hot working of metals, recovery, recrystallization and grain
growth. Microstrcture, properties and applications of ferrous and non-ferrous alloys.
Ceramics: Structure, properties, processing and applications of traditional and advanced

ceramics.
Polymers: Classification, polymerization, structure and properties, additives for polymer

products, processing and applications.
Composites: Properties and applications of various composites.
Advanced Materials and Tools: Smart materials, exhibiting ferroelectric, piezoelectric,

optoelectric, semiconducting behavior, lasers and optical fibers, photoconductivity and
superconductivity, nanomaterials – synthesis, properties and applications, biomaterials,
superalloys, shape memory alloys. Materials characterization techniques such as, scanning
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electron microscopy, transmission electron microscopy, atomic force microscopy,
scanning tunneling microscopy, atomic absorption spectroscopy, differential scanning
calorimetry.
Mechanical Properties: stress-strain diagrams of metallic, ceramic and polymeric

materials, modulus of elasticity, yield strength, tensile strength, toughness, elongation,
plastic deformation, viscoelasticity, hardness, impact strength, creep, fatigue, ductile and
brittle fracture.
Thermal Properties: Heat capacity, thermal conductivity, thermal expansion of materials.
Electronic Properties: Concept of energy band diagram for materials – conductors,

semiconductors and insulators, electrical conductivity – effect of temperature on
conductility, intrinsic and extrinsic semiconductors, dielectric properties.
Optical Properties: Reflection, refraction, absorption and transmission of electromagnetic

radiation in solids.
Magnetic Properties: Origin of magnetism in metallic and ceramic materials,

paramagnetism, diamagnetism, antiferro magnetism, ferromagnetism, ferrimagnetism,
magnetic hysterisis.
Environmental Degradation: Corrosion and oxidation of materials, prevention.
Section D: Solid Mechanics
Equivalent force systems; free-body diagrams; equilibrium equations; analysis of

determinate trusses and frames; friction; simple relative motion of particles; force as
function of position, time and speed; force acting on a body in motion; laws of motion; law
of conservation of energy; law of conservation of momentum.
Stresses and strains; principal stresses and strains; Mohr’s circle; generalized Hooke’s Law;
thermal strain; theories of failure.
Axial, shear and bending moment diagrams; axial, shear and bending stresses; deflection
(for symmetric bending); torsion in circular shafts; thin cylinders; energy methods
(Castigliano’s Theorems); Euler buckling.
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Free vibration of single degree of freedom systems.
Section E: Thermodynamics
Basic Concepts: Continuum, macroscopic approach, thermodynamic system (closed and

open or control volume); thermodynamic properties and equilibrium; state of a system,
state diagram, path and process; different modes of work; Zeroth law of thermodynamics;
concept of temperature; heat.
First Law of Thermodynamics: Energy, enthalpy, specific heats, first law applied to
systems and control volumes, steady and unsteady flow analysis.
Second Law of Thermodynamics: Kelvin-Planck and Clausius statements, reversible and

irreversible processes, Carnot theorems, thermodynamic temperature scale, Clausius
inequality and concept of entropy, principle of increase of entropy; availability and
irreversibility.
Properties of Pure Substances: Thermodynamic properties of pure substances in solid,

liquid and vapor phases, P-V-T behaviour of simple compressible substances, phase rule,
thermodynamic property tables and charts, ideal and real gases, equations of state,
compressibility chart.
Thermodynamic Relations: T-ds relations, Maxwell equations, Joule-Thomson

coefficient, coefficient of volume expansion, adiabatic and isothermal compressibilities,
Clapeyron equation.
Thermodynamic cycles: Carnot vapor power cycle, Ideal Rankine cycle, Rankine Reheat
cycle, Air standard Otto cycle, Air standard Diesel cycle, Air-standard Brayton cycle, Vapor-
compression refrigeration cycle.
Ideal Gas Mixtures:Dalton’s and Amagat’s laws, calculations of properties, air-water vapor
mixtures and simple thermodynamic processes involving them.
Section F: Polymer Science and Engineering
Chemistry of high polymers: Monomers, functionality, degree of polymerizations,

classification of polymers, glass transition, melting transition, criteria for rubberiness,
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polymerization methods: addition and condensation; their kinetics, metallocene polymers
and other newer techniques of polymerization, copolymerization, monomer reactivity
ratios and its significance, kinetics, different copolymers, random, alternating, azeotropic
copolymerization, block and graft copolymers, techniques for copolymerization-bulk,
solution, suspension, emulsion.
Polymer Characterization: Solubility and swelling, concept of average molecular weight,

determination of number average, weight average, viscosity average and Z-average
molecular weights, polymer crystallinity, analysis of polymers using IR, XRD, thermal (DSC,
DMTA, TGA), microscopic (optical and electronic) techniques.
Synthesis and properties: Commodity and general purpose thermoplastics: PE, PP, PS,
PVC, Polyesters, Acrylic, PU polymers. Engineering Plastics: Nylon, PC, PBT, PSU, PPO, ABS,
Fluoropolymers Thermosetting polymers: PF, MF, UF, Epoxy, Unsaturated polyester,
Alkyds. Natural and synthetic rubbers: Recovery of NR hydrocarbon from latex, SBR, Nitrile,
CR, CSM, EPDM, IIR, BR, Silicone, TPE.
Polymer blends and composites: Difference between blends and composites, their
significance, choice of polymers for blending, blend miscibility-miscible and immiscible
blends, thermodynamics, phase morphology, polymer alloys, polymer eutectics, plastic-
plastic, rubber-plastic and rubber-rubber blends, FRP, particulate, long and short fibre
reinforced composites.
Polymer Technology: Polymer compounding-need and significance, different

compounding ingredients for rubber and plastics, crosslinking and vulcanization,
vulcanization kinetics.
Polymer rheology: Flow of Newtonian and non-Newtonian fluids, different flow

equations, dependence of shear modulus on temperature, molecular/segmental
deformations at different zones and transitions. Measurements of rheological parameters
by capillary rotating, parallel plate, cone-plate rheometer. viscoelasticity-creep and stress
relaxations, mechanical models, control of rheological characteristics through
compounding, rubber curing in parallel plate viscometer, ODR and MDR.
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Polymer processing: Compression molding, transfer molding, injection molding, blow
molding, reaction injection molding, extrusion, pultrusion, calendaring, rotational
molding, thermoforming, rubber processing in two-roll mill, internal mixer.
Polymer testing: Mechanical-static and dynamic tensile, flexural, compressive, abrasion,

endurance, fatigue, hardness, tear, resilience, impact, toughness. Conductivity-thermal
and electrical, dielectric constant, dissipation factor, power factor, electric resistance,
surface resistivity, volume resistivity, swelling, ageing resistance, environmental stress
cracking resistance.
Section G: Food Technology
Food Chemistry and Nutrition: Carbohydrates: Structure and functional properties of

mono- oligo-polysaccharides including starch, cellulose, pectic substances and dietary
fibre; Proteins: Classification and structure of proteins in food; Lipids: Classification and
structure of lipids, Rancidity of fats, Polymerization and polymorphism; Pigments:
Carotenoids, chlorophylls, anthocyanins, tannins and myoglobin; Food flavours: Terpenes,
esters, ketones and quinones; Enzymes: Specificity, Kinetics and inhibition, Coenzymes,
Enzymatic and non-enzymatic browning; Nutrition: Balanced diet, Essential amino acids
and fatty acids, PER, Water soluble and fat soluble vitamins, Role of minerals in nutrition,
Antinutrients, Nutrition deficiency diseases.
Food Microbiology: Characteristics of microorganisms: Morphology, structure and

detection of bacteria, yeast and mold in food, Spores and vegetative cells; Microbial
growth in food: Intrinsic and extrinsic factors, Growth and death kinetics, serial dilution
method for quantification; Food spoilage: Contributing factors, Spoilage bacteria,
Microbial spoilage of milk and milk products, meat and meat products; Foodborne
disease: Toxins produced by Staphylococcus, Clostridium and Aspergillus; Bacterial
pathogens: Salmonella, Bacillus, Listeria, Escherichia coli, Shigella, Campylobacter;
Fermented food: Buttermilk, yoghurt, cheese, sausage, alcoholic beverage, vinegar,
sauerkraut and soya sauce.
Food Products Technology: Processing principles: Canning, chilling, freezing,

dehydration, control of water activity, CA and MA storage, fermentation, hurdle
technology, addition of preservatives and food additives, Food packaging, cleaning in
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place and food laws.; Grain products processing: Milling of rice, wheat, and maize,
parboiling of paddy, production of bread, biscuits, extruded products and breakfast
cereals, Solvent extraction, refining and hydrogenation of oil; Fruits, vegetables and
plantation products processing: Extraction, clarification concentration and packaging of
fruit juice, Production of jam, jelly, marmalade, squash, candies, and pickles, pectin from
fruit waste, tea, coffee, chocolate and essential oils from spices; Milk and milk products
processing: Pasteurized and sterilized milk, cream, butter, ghee, ice-cream, cheese and
milk powder; Animal products processing: Drying and canning of fish, post mortem
changes, tenderization and freezing of meat, egg powder.
Food Engineering: Mass and energy balance; Momentum transfer: Flow rate and
pressure drop relationships for Newtonian fluids flowing through pipe, Characteristics of
non-Newtonian fluids – generalized viscosity coefficient and Reynolds number, Flow of
compressible fluid, Flow measurement, Pumps and compressors; Heat transfer: Heat
transfer by conduction, convection, radiation, boiling and condensation, Unsteady state
heat transfer in simple geometry, NTU- effectiveness relationship of co-current and
counter current double pipe heat exchanger; Mass transfer: Molecular diffusion and Fick’s
Law, Steady state mass transfer, Convective mass transfer, Permeability of films and
laminates; Mechanical operations: Energy requirement and rate of operations involved in
size reduction of solids, high pressure homogenization, filtration, centrifugation, settling,
sieving, flow through porous bed, agitation of liquid, solid-solid mixing, and single screw
extrusion; Thermal operations: Energy requirement and rate of operations involved in
process time evaluation in batch and continuous sterilization, evaporation of liquid foods,
hot air drying of solids, spray and freeze-drying, freezing and crystallization; Mass transfer
operations: Properties of air-water vapor mixture; Humidification and dehumidification
operations.
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GATE
Previous Year Solved Papers
Engineering Sciences - XE
2012 - 14
______________________________________________________________
GATE 2014 Solved Paper
XE: Engineering Sciences
Duration: 180 minutes Maximum Marks: 100
Read the following instructions carefully.
1. To login, enter your Registration Number and password provided to you. Kindly go through the various
symbols used in the test and understand their meaning before you start the examination.
2. Once you login and after the start of the examination, you can view all the questions in the question
paper, by clicking on the View All Questions button in the screen.
3. This paper consists of 8sections: GA (General Aptitude), A (Engineering Mathematics), B (Fluid
Mechanics), C (Materials Science), D (Solid Mechanics), E (Thermodynamics), F (Polymer Science &
Engineering) and G (Food Technology).
Section GA (General Aptitude) and Section A (Engineering Mathematics) are compulsory.
Attempt any 2 sections out of the 6 optional Sections B through G.
There are 10 questions carrying 15 marks in the compulsory General Aptitude (GA) section.
Question numbers 1 to 5 of this section carry 1 mark each, and question numbers 6 to 10 carry 2 marks
each.
There are 11 questions carrying 15 marks in Section A(Engineering Mathematics).
Question numbers 1 to 7 of this section carry 1 mark each, and question numbers 8 to 11 carry 2 marks
each.
Each of the other sections (Sections B through G) contains 22 questions carrying 35 marks.
In each of these sections, question numbers 1 to 9 carry 1 mark each and question numbers 10 to 22
carry 2 marks each.
4. Depending upon the GATE paper, there may be useful common data that may be required for
answering the questions. If this paper has such useful data, the same can be viewed by clicking on the
Useful Common Data button that appears at the top, right hand side of the screen.
5. The computer allotted to you at the examination center runs specialized software that permits only one
answer to be selected for multiple-choice questions using a mouse and to enter a suitable number for
the numerical answer type questions using the virtual keyboard and mouse.
6. Your answers shall be updated and saved on a server periodically and also at the end of the
examination. The examination will stop automatically at the end of 180 minutes.
7. In each paper a candidate can answer a total of 65 questions carrying 100 marks.
8. The question paper may consist of questions of multiple choice type (MCQ) and numerical answer
type.
9. Multiple choice type questions will have four choices against A, B, C, D, out of which only ONE is the
correct answer. The candidate has to choose the correct answer by clicking on the bubble (⃝) placed
before the choice.
10. For numerical answer type questions, each question will have a numerical answer and there will not be
any choices. For these questions, the answer should be entered by using the virtual keyboard that
appears on the monitor and the mouse.
11. All questions that are not attempted will result in zero marks. However, wrong answers for multiple
choice type questions (MCQ) will result in NEGATIVE marks. For all MCQ questions a wrong
answer will result in deduction of⅓ marks for a 1-mark question and ⅔ marks for a 2-mark question.
12. There is NO NEGATIVE MARKING for questions of NUMERICAL ANSWER TYPE.
13. Non-programmable type Calculator is allowed. Charts, graph sheets, and mathematical tables are NOT
allowed in the Examination Hall. You must use the Scribble pad provided to you at the examination
centre for all your rough work. The Scribble Pad has to be returned at the end of the examination.
Declaration by the candidate:
“I have read and understood all the above instructions. I have also read and understood clearly the
instructions given on the admit card and shall follow the same. I also understand that in case I am found to
violate any of these instructions, my candidature is liable to be cancelled. I also confirm that at the start of
the examination all the computer hardware allotted to me is in proper working condition”.
_______________________________________________________________
GATE 2014 General Aptitude - GA
Q. 1 – Q. 5 carry one mark each.

Q.1 A student is required to demonstrate a high level of comprehension of the subject, especially in the
social sciences.
The word closest in meaning to comprehension is

(A) understanding (B) meaning (C) concentration (D) stability
Q.2 Choose the most appropriate word from the options given below to complete the following
sentence.
One of his biggest ______ was his ability to forgive.

(A) vice (B) virtues (C) choices (D) strength
Q.3 Rajan was not happy that Sajan decided to do the project on his own. On observing his
unhappiness, Sajan explained to Rajan that he preferred to work independently.
Which one of the statements below is logically valid and can be inferred from the above sentences?
(A) Rajan has decided to work only in a group.
(B) Rajan and Sajan were formed into a group against their wishes.
(C) Sajan had decided to give in to Rajan’s request to work with him.
(D) Rajan had believed that Sajan and he would be working together.
Q.4 If y = 5x2 + 3, then the tangent at x = 0, y = 3

(A) passes through x = 0, y = 0 (B) has a slope of +1
(C) is parallel to the x-axis (D) has a slope of −1
Q.5 A foundry has a fixed daily cost of Rs 50,000 whenever it operates and a variable cost of Rs 800Q,
where Q is the daily production in tonnes. What is the cost of production in Rs per tonne for a daily
production of 100 tonnes?
Q. 6 – Q. 10 carry two marks each.
Q.6 Find the odd one in the following group: ALRVX, EPVZB, ITZDF, OYEIK
(A) ALRVX (B) EPVZB (C) ITZDF (D) OYEIK
Q.7 Anuj, Bhola, Chandan, Dilip, Eswar and Faisal live on different floors in a six-storeyed building
(the ground floor is numbered 1, the floor above it 2, and so on). Anuj lives on an even-numbered
floor. Bhola does not live on an odd numbered floor. Chandan does not live on any of the floors
below Faisal’s floor. Dilip does not live on floor number 2. Eswar does not live on a floor
immediately above or immediately below Bhola. Faisal lives three floors above Dilip. Which of the
following floor-person combinations is correct?
Anuj Bhola Chandan Dilip Eswar Faisal

(A) 6 2 5 1 3 4
(B) 2 6 5 1 3 4
(C) 4 2 6 3 1 5
(D) 2 4 6 1 3 5

Q.8 The smallest angle of a triangle is equal to two thirds of the smallest angle of a quadrilateral. The
ratio between the angles of the quadrilateral is 3:4:5:6. The largest angle of the triangle is twice its
smallest angle. What is the sum, in degrees, of the second largest angle of the triangle and the
largest angle of the quadrilateral?
Q.9 One percent of the people of country X are taller than 6 ft. Two percent of the people of country Y
are taller than 6 ft. There are thrice as many people in country X as in country Y. Taking both
countries together, what is the percentage of people taller than 6 ft?
(A) 3.0 (B) 2.5 (C) 1.5 (D) 1.25
Q.10 The monthly rainfall chart based on 50 years of rainfall in Agra is shown in the following figure.
Which of the following are true? (k percentile is the value such that k percent of the data fall below
that value)
(i) On average, it rains more in July than in December

(ii) Every year, the amount of rainfall in August is more than that in January
(iii) July rainfall can be estimated with better confidence than February rainfall
(iv) In August, there is at least 500 mm of rainfall
(A) (i) and (ii) (B) (i) and (iii)
(C) (ii) and (iii) (D) (iii) and (iv)
END OF THE QUESTION PAPER

GATE 2014 Engineering Sciences - XE
A : ENGINEERING MATHEMATICS ( COMPULSORY)
Q.1 If 1, 0, and -1 are the eigenvalues of a 3 3 matrix A, then the trace of A 2 + 5 A is equal to
______________.
Q.2 Which of the following is a solution of the differential equation

x 2 y ' ' + xy ' + y = 4 sin(ln x), x > 0 ?
(A) y = 2 x sin(ln x )
(B) y = − 2 x sin(ln x )
(C) y = − 2 ln x cos(ln x )
(D) y = 2 ln x cos(ln x)
Q.3 At z = 0 , the complex function f ( z ) = z | z | 2
(A) satisfies the Cauchy-Riemann equations and is differentiable

(B) satisfies the Cauchy-Riemann equations but is not differentiable.
(C) does not satisfy the Cauchy-Riemann equations but is differentiable.
(D) does not satisfy the Cauchy-Riemann equations and is not differentiable.
Q.4 Ten chocolates are distributed randomly among three children standing in a row. The probability
that the first child receives exactly three chocolates is
5 211
(A)
39
5 210
(B)
39
1
(C) 9
3
1
(D)
3
Q.5 Let the function f : [0, 5]  R be defined by


 2 x + 5, 0  x 1

f (x ) =  2 x 2 + 5, 1 x  2
 2 3 23
3 x + 3 , 2  x  5.

The number of points where f is not differentiable in (0, 5) , is ___________.

Q.6 An integrating factor of the differential equation (3 x 2 y 3e y + y 3 + y 2 ) dx + ( x 3 y 3e y − xy ) dy = 0 is
1
(A)
y
1
(B) 2
y
1
(C) 3
y
(D) ln y
Q.7 If a cubic polynomial passes through the points (0, 1), (1, 0), (2, 1) and (3, 10), then it also passes
through the point
(A) ( −2, − 11)
(B) ( −1, − 2)
(C) ( −1, − 4)
(D) ( −2, − 23)
Q.8 8
Let the function f : [0, )  R be such that f ( x) = for x > 0 and f (0) = 1. Then
x + 3x + 4
2
f (1) lies in the interval

(A) [0, 1]
(B) [2, 3]
(C) [4, 5]
(D) [6, 7]
Q.9 The perimeter of a rectangle having the largest area that can be inscribed in the ellipse
x2 y2
+ = 1 , is ________.
8 32
Q.10 If the work done in moving a particle once around a circle x 2 + y 2 = 4 under the force field
  
F ( x, y) = (2 x − ay) i + (2 y + ax) j is 16 , then a is equal to _________.

Q.11  1 2 0  1 
   
Let r and s be real numbers. If A =  2 0 3  and b =  1  , then the system of linear
 r s 0  s − 1
   
equations AX = b has
(A) no solutions for s  2r .

(B) infinitely many solutions for s = 2 r  2 .
(C) a unique solution for s = 2r = 2 .
(D) infinitely many solutions for s = 2r = 2 .

B : FLUID MECHANICS
Q.1 A dam with a curved shape is shown in the figure. The cross sectional area of the dam (shaded
portion) is 100 m2 and its centroid is at x = 10 m. The vertical component of the hydrostatic force,
Fz , is acting at a distance x p . The value of x p is ____ m.
z
Fz
xp
40 m
O x
x
15 m

Q.2 ( )
For an unsteady incompressible fluid flow, the velocity field is V = 3 x 2 + 3 t iˆ − 6 xyt ˆj , where
x , y are in meters and t is in seconds. Acceleration in m/s2 at the point x = 10 m and y = 0 , as
measured by a stationary observer is
(A) 303 (B) 162 (C) 43 (D) 13
Q.3 For an incompressible flow, the existence of components of acceleration for different types of flow
is described in the table below.
Type of Flow Components of Acceleration

P: Steady and uniform 1: Local exists, convective does not exist
Q: Steady and non-uniform 2: Both exist
R: Unsteady and uniform 3: Both do not exist
S: Unsteady and non-uniform 4: Local does not exist, convective exists
Which one of the following options connecting the left column with the right column is correct?
(A) P – 1; Q – 4; R – 3; S – 2
(B) P – 4; Q – 1; R – 2; S – 3
(C) P – 3; Q – 2; R – 1; S – 4
(D) P – 3; Q – 4; R – 1; S – 2

Q.4 Velocity in a two-dimensional flow field is specified as: u = x 2 y ; v = − y 2 x . The magnitude of

the rate of angular deformation at a location ( x = 2 m and y = 1 m) is ____ s-1.
Q.5 For a plane irrotational flow, equi-potential lines and streamlines are
(A) parallel to each other. (B) at an angle of 90o to each other.

(C) at an angle of 45o to each other. (D) at an angle of 60o to each other.
Q.6 Flow around a Rankine half-body is represented by the superposition of
(A) source and vortex flows. (B) source and uniform flows.
(C) vortex and uniform flows. (D) source, vortex and uniform flows.
Q.7 It is required to carry out model studies on a boat having a characteristic length of 3.6 m and
travelling at a speed of 3 m/s. Assume the acceleration due to gravity as 10 m/s2 and neglect the
effects due to viscous and surface tension forces. The value of appropriate non-dimensional number
is ____.
Q.8 Which one of the following velocity profiles typically represents a fully developed incompressible,
turbulent flow in a pipe?
(A) (B) (C) (D)

Q.9 Consider an incompressible, laminar flow past a circular cylinder of diameter d . The flow is
uniform at the far upstream. Which one of the following figures typically represents the wake
velocity profile just downstream of the cylinder?
d d
(A) (B)
d d
(C) (D)

Q.10 A container of square cross-section is partially filled with a liquid of density ρ1 . The cylinder is
intended to float in another liquid of density ρ 2 as shown in the figure. The distance between
I
metacentre and centre of buoyancy is , where I and Vsub are area moment of inertia of the
Vsub
cross-section and submerged volume, respectively. Neglect the weight of the container.
b
Which one of the following is the correct condition for stability?
ρ2 b h ρ  ρ2 b h ρ 
(A) − 1 − 1  > 0 (B) − 1 + 1  > 0
6 ρ1 h b  ρ2  6 ρ1 h b  ρ2 
ρ2 b h ρ  ρ2 b h ρ 
(C) + 1 − 1  > 0 (D) + 1 + 1  > 0
6 ρ1 h b  ρ2  6 ρ1 h b  ρ2 
Q.11 In a steady state two-dimensional potential flow field due to a point source, the acceleration of a
particle at a distance r from the point source is
(A) proportional to r −1 . (B) proportional to r .

(C) a constant. (D) proportional to r −3 .
Q.12 Velocity in a two-dimensional flow at time t and location ( x, y ) is described as:


V= 3t 2 iˆ + ( x − 1) ˆj . The equation for the path line of a particle passing through the point (1,0) at
t = 0 is
( x − 1)
3
(A) x 4 − 4 y 3 =
0 (B) − 2 y4 =
0
( x − 1) ( x + 1)
4 4
(C) − 64 y 3 =
0 (D) − 16 y 3 =
0

Q.13 The gravity driven flow over a hump of height h in a canal is shown in the figure. The height of
the free surface from the canal bed at upstream of the hump is H . The free surface height reduces
to H1 above the hump.
H1
H
h
Assuming the canal bed to be horizontal, the discharge per unit width is given by
(A) (B)
2�(� − �1 − ℎ) 2�ℎ
� 1 1 � 1 1
− −
�12 � 2 (�1 + ℎ)2 � 2
(C) (D)
2�(� − �1 ) 2�(� − �1 )
� 1 1 � 1 1
− −
(�1 + ℎ)2 � 2 �12 � 2
Q.14 Steady state incompressible flow through a pipe network is shown in the figure. Inlets marked as
(1), (2) and (3) and exit marked as (4), are shown with their respective diameters. The exit flow rate
at (4) is 0.1 m3/s. A 20% increase in flow rate through (3) results in a 10% increase in flow rate
through (4). The original velocity through inlet (3) is _____ m/s.
(3)
(2) (4)
5 cm 10 cm
(1)

Q.15 A reducing elbow is used to deflect water upward by 30o as shown in the figure. The mass flow rate
at the inlet is 14 kg/s. Water is entering at a gauge pressure of 200 kPa and exits to the atmosphere.
The cross-sectional area is 113 cm2 at the inlet and 7 cm2 at the exit. Density of water and
acceleration due to gravity are 1000 kg/m3 and 10 m/s2, respectively. Magnitude of x - component
of the water force on the elbow is ____ N.
Q.16 A source with a strength of k1 and a vortex with a strength of k2 are located at the origin. The
resultant velocity at a radial distance r from the origin due to the superposition of the source and
vortex is expressed as
k1 + k2 k12 + k22 k12 − k22 k1 − k2

(A) (B) (C) (D)
r r r r
Q.17 ( )
Velocity potential for an incompressible fluid flow is given as: φ= 2 x 2 + 2 y − y 2 . Assume the
value of stream function at the origin to be zero. The value of stream function at [ ( x, y ) ≡ ( 2, 2 ) ]
is ____.
Q.18 The model of a conduit is scaled to 1/100 of the actual size. Seawater is used in the prototype and
fresh water is used in the model. Velocity in the prototype is 0.5 m/s. Density and dynamic
viscosity of the seawater are 1025 kg/m3 and 1.07 × 10-3 kg/m-s, respectively. Density and
dynamic viscosity of fresh water are 1000 kg/m3 and 1 × 10-3 kg/m-s, respectively. Assume the
viscous forces to be dominant. The velocity to be maintained in the model to ensure dynamic
similarity is____ m/s.
Q.19 A fluid is flowing through a pipe of circular cross-section. Reynolds number of the flow is 1600.
The head loss over a 45 m length of the pipe is 0.6 m. The average flow velocity of the fluid is
1 m/s and the acceleration due to gravity is 10 m/s2. The diameter of the pipe is ____ m.

Q.20 Consider a laminar flow over a flat plate of width w . At Section 1-1, the velocity profile is uniform
as shown in the figure. The x -direction velocity profile at Section 2-2 is given by
2
u y  y
= 2 −   , where δ is the boundary layer thickness.
U δ δ 
1 U 2 U
y u ( y) δ
1 2
x
The volume flow rate through Section 2-2 is given by
1 1 2
(A) U wδ (B) U wδ (C) U w δ (D) U wδ
2 3 3
Q.21 A cube of weight W and side a falls at a constant speed in a medium as shown in the figure. If the
medium is air (mass density =�air ) let U air be the velocity of the cube. If the medium is water
(mass density =�water ) let U water be the velocity of the cube.
Neglecting the buoyancy force and assuming drag coefficient to be same for both cases, the ratio of
 U air 
velocities,   is given by
 U water 
ρair ρair ρ water

(A) (B) (C) (D) 1
ρ water ρ water ρair

Q.22 Water is flowing through a venturimeter having a diameter of 0.25 m at the entrance (Station 1) and
0.125 m at the throat (Station 2) as shown in the figure. A mercury manometer measures the
piezometric head difference between Stations 1 and 2 as 1.3505 m. The loss of head between these
two stations, is 1/7 times the velocity head at the Station 2. Assume the acceleration due to gravity
to be 10 m/s2. The velocity of water at the throat is ____ m/s.
diameter 0.25 m
diameter 0.125 m
1• 2•
Mercury
Manometer

C : MATERIALS SCIENCE
Useful constants
Avogadro’s Number : 6.023 x 1023 mol-1
Boltzmann’s constant, k : 1.38 x 10-23 J.K-1
Electron Charge, e : 1.6 x 10-19 C
Electron rest mass, mo : 9.1 x 10-31 kg
Universal gas constant, R : 8.314 J.mol-1.K-1
Speed of light, c : 3 x 108 m.s-1
Planck’s constant, h : 6.63 x 10-34 J.s
1 eV = 1.6 x 10-19 J

Q.1 Neoprene is rendered non-inflammable because
(A) it has a highly cross-linked structure
(B) it has a highly linear chain structure
(C) of the presence of chlorine atom in the structure
(D) of the absence of chlorine atom in the structure
Q.2 Nylon-6 is manufactured from

(A) caprolactum
(B) adipic acid and hexamethylene diamine
(C) maleic anhydride and hexamethylene diamine
(D) sebasic acid and hexamethylene diamine
Q.3 At room temperature, the typical barrier potential for silicon p-n junction in Volt (V) is
(A) 0.7x10-23 (B) 0.07 (C) 0.70 (D) 7.0
Q.4 Quantitative measurement of the roughness of a polysilicon wafer can be performed with
(A) scanning tunneling microscopy (B) scanning electron microscopy
(C) transmission electron microscopy (D) atomic force microscopy
Q.5 The temperature of the antiferromagnetic-to-paramagnetic transition is called

(A) Curie temperature (B) Curie-Weiss temperature
(C) Neel temperature (D) Debye temperature
Q.6 At low injection level, a forward biased p-n junction would have
(A) no charge carriers
(B) minority carrier concentration much more than majority carrier concentration
(C) minority carrier concentration equal to majority carrier concentration
(D) minority carrier concentration much less than majority carrier concentration
Q.7 Which of the following mechanical properties of a material depend on the mobile dislocation
density in it.
(P) Young’s modulus (Q) yield strength (R) ductility (S) fracture toughness
(A) P, Q, R (B) Q, R, S (C) P, R, S (D) S, P, Q
Q.8 The equilibrium concentration of vacancies in a pure metal

(A) increases exponentially with temperature (B) decreases exponentially with temperature
(C) varies linearly with temperature (D) is independent of temperature

Q.9 The materials belonging to which one of the following crystal classes would be both piezoelectric
and ferroelectric
(A) 222 (B) 4mm (C) 1� (D) 2/m
Q.10 Polymerized isotactic polybutadiene has a molecular weight of 3 x 105 g/mol. The degree of
polymerization is _______________.
Q.11 A bar of Ti with Young’s modulus of 110 GPa and yield strength of 880 MPa is tested in tension. It
is noticed that the alloy does not exhibit any strain hardening and fails at a total strain of 0.108. The
mechanical energy that is necessary to break the material in MJ/m3 is ____________.
Q.12 A copper cup weighing 140 g contains 80 g of water at 4 °C. Specific heats of water and copper are
4.18 and 0.385 J/g °C, respectively. If 100 g of water that is at 90 °C is added to the cup, the final
temperature of water in °C is ______________.
Q.13 Match the reaction in Column I with its name in Column II.
L – liquid, α, β, γ – different solid solution phases

Column I Column II
�� (1) peritectic
(P) L �⎯⎯⎯⎯� α + β
�� (2) eutectic
(Q) L + β �⎯⎯⎯⎯� γ (3) monotectic
��
(R) α �⎯⎯⎯⎯� β + γ (4) eutectoid
(A) P-1, Q-4, R-3 (B) P-2, Q-1, R-4

(C) P-2, Q-3, R-1 (D) P-4, Q-2, R-3
Q.14 The Young’s modulus of a unidirectional SiC fiber reinforced Ti matrix composite is 185 GPa. If
the Young’s moduli of Ti and SiC are 110 and 360 GPa respectively, the volume fraction of fibers
in the composite is _________.
Q.15 Match the composite in Column I with the most suitable application in Column II.
Column I Column II
(P) Glass fibre reinforced plastic (1) Missile cone heads
(Q) SiC particle reinforced Al alloy (2) Commercial automobile chasis
(R) Carbon-carbon composite (3) Airplane wheel tyres
(S) Metal fibre reinforced rubber (4) Car piston rings
(5) High performance skate boards
(A) P-4, Q-5, R-1, S-2 (B) P-3, Q-5, R-2, S-4
(C) P-5, Q-4, R-1, S-3 (D) P-4, Q-2, R-3, S-1

Q.16 Which among the following rules need to be satisfied for obtaining an isomorphous phase diagram
in a binary alloy system?
(P) The atomic size difference should be less than 15%.

(Q) Both the end components should have the same crystal structure
(R) The valency of the end components should be the same.
(S) The end components should have dissimilar electronegativities
(A) P, Q, R (B) Q, R, S (C) R, S, P (D) S, P, Q
Q.17 The energy in eV and the wavelength in µm, respectively, of the photon emitted when an electron
in a hydrogen atom falls from n = 4 to n = 2 state is
(A) 3.0, 0.413 (B) 2.55, 0.365 (C) 2.75, 0.451 (D) 2.55, 0.487
Q.18 The weight in kg of gallium (Ga) to be mixed with arsenic (As) for obtaining 1.0 kg of gallium
arsenide (GaAs) is ______________. (MGa = 69.72 g/mol; MAs = 74.92 g/mol)
Q.19 Match the material in Column I with the property in Column II
Column I Column II
(P) Pb(Zr,Ti)O3 (1) Shape memory alloy
(Q) Ni50Ti50 (2) Piezoelectric ceramic
(R) GaAs (3) High temperature superconductor
(S) YBa2Cu3O7 (4) Optoelectronic semiconductor
(A) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4 (B) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1
(C) P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3 (D) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3
Q.20 Relevant portion of a binary phase diagram of elements A and B is shown below. The mass fraction
of liquid phase at 1000 °C for an alloy with 15 wt.% B is ___________.
Q.21 The expected diffraction angle (in degrees) for the first order reflection from the (113) set of planes
for face centered cubic Pt (lattice parameter = 0.392 nm) using monochromatic radiation of
wavelength 0.1542 nm is ___________.

Q.22 The diffusion coefficients of Mg in Al at 500 and 550 °C are 1.9x10-13 and 5.8x10-13 m2/s
respectively. The activation energy for diffusion of Mg in Al in kJ/mol is ___________.

D: SOLID MECHANICS

Q.1 A steel wire of diameter 5 mm is bent around a cylindrical drum of radius 0.5 m. The steel wire has
modulus of elasticity of 200 GPa. Find the bending moment in the wire in N-m.
R = 0.5 m d = 5 mm
Q.2 A compressed air tank having an inner diameter of 480 mm and a wall thickness of 8 mm is formed
by welding two steel hemispheres. If the allowable shear stress in the steel is 40 MPa, find the
maximum permissible pressure (in MPa) inside the tank.
Q.3 The Euler’s buckling load of a column fixed at both the ends is P. If one of the ends is made free,
the buckling load shall change to
(A) P/16 (B) P/8
(C) P/4 (D) P/2
Q.4 A point in a body is subjected to a bi-axial state of stress, equal in magnitude but opposite in nature.
On a plane inclined at an angle 45° with respect to x-axis (passing through the point), the
(A) shear and normal stresses are zero
(B) normal stress is maximum and shear stress is zero
(C) shear stress is maximum and normal stress is zero
(D) shear stress is maximum and normal stress is non-zero

Q.5 A weightless beam subjected to two point loads is shown in the figure below.
10 kN
1m 2m 1m
10 kN
The shear force diagram of the beam is
10 kN
(A)
10 kN
10 kN
(B)
10 kN
5 kN
(C) 5 kN
5 kN
10 kN
(D)
Q.6 For the pin jointed truss, find the axial force (in kN) in the member 2-5.

Q.7 The supporting structure of a water tank is made of reinforced concrete (RC) with a tubular cross
section of inner diameter di, outer diameter do, height l, and Young’s modulus E. The mass of the
tank is m. If mass of the supporting structure is neglected, then the natural frequency of the water
tank in transverse direction is
3�� 4 − � �4 � �� 4 − � �4 �
(A) � (B) �
64� 3 � 8� 3 �
384�� 4 − � �4 � �� 4 − � �4 �
(C) ) � (D) �
360� 3 � 64� 3 �
Q.8 A mass is attached to a spring and placed horizontally in a frictionless surface. A simple pendulum
has been pivoted to the mass. The degree of freedom of this system is
l y
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

Q.9 Consider the following two statements
Statement 1: A body of weight W falls from a height h and strikes the ground. If the body starts
from rest, the velocity with which it strikes the ground is �2�ℎ , where g is the acceleration due to
gravity.
Statement 2: If the same body (initially at rest) slides without friction along an inclined plane PQ
(angle of inclination α) starting from an elevation h above point Q, then its velocity at point Q is
�2�ℎ
h W
The correct option is

(A) Both statements 1 and 2 are true
(B) Statement 1 is true and 2 is false
(C) Statement 1 is false and 2 is true
(D) Both statements 1 and 2 are false

Q.10 A composite bar of length ‘L’ is made of a centrally placed steel plate (50 mm wide x 10 mm thick)
with two copper plates (each 30 mm wide x 5 mm thick) connected rigidly on each side. If the
temperature of the composite bar is raised by 50°C, find the stress developed in each copper plate in
MPa.
(For Steel: Es = 2x105 MPa and αs= 12x10-6 /°C; For Copper: Ec = 1x105 MPa and αc= 17x10-6 /°C)
Copper plate 5 mm
Steel plate 10 mm
Copper plate 5 mm
L
Q.11 The vertical deflection at the free end of the cantilever beam as shown in figure is
100 kN
EI = flexural rigidity
2m 1m
(A) 1400/EI (B) 1400/3EI (C) 200/EI (D) 100/EI
Q.12 A hollow shaft and a solid shaft have the same length and the same outer radius R. The inner radius
of the hollow shaft is 0.6 R. Assuming that both the shafts are made of same material and are
subjected to the same torque, find the ratio of shear stress in hollow shaft to that in solid shaft.
Q.13 A beam with overhangs carries one point load acting downwards and the other upward. The
clockwise moment Pb is applied at each support. The bending moment at the midpoint of the beam
is
P Pb Pb P
b L b
(A) 0 (B) PL/2 (C) PL (D) PbL

Q.14 A cantilever beam of length L supports a concentrated load P at the free end. The cross section of
the beam is rectangular with constant width b and varying depth h. The depth h of this idealized
cantilever beam varies in such a way that the maximum normal stress at every cross section remains
equal to the allowable bending stress. Considering only the bending stresses, the depth hx of the
fully stressed beam at any distance x from the free end shall vary
(A) with square of x (B) with square root of x
(C) linearly with x (D) with cube of x
Q.15 A cantilever beam is subjected to following three different loading conditions:

(a) a concentrated load P at its free end,
(b) a couple Mo at its free end and
(c) both loads acting simultaneously
L
(a)
Mo
L
(b)
P
Mo
L
(c)
The flexural rigidity of the beam may be assumed as EI. The strain energy due to bending when
both loads act simultaneously
(A) can be determined by applying the principle of superposition and the strain energy is
� 2 �3 �� 2 �
+
6�� 2��
(B) can be determined by applying the principle of superposition and the strain energy is
� 2 �2 �� 3
+
6�� 2��
(C) cannot be determined by applying the principle of superposition and the strain energy is
� 2 �3 �� 2 � �� 2
6��
+ 2��
+ 2��
(D) cannot be determined by applying the principle of superposition and the strain energy is
� 2 �2 �� 3 �� 2
+ +
6�� 2�� 2��

Q.16 A tapered rod has diameter d1 at one end which reduces uniformly to a diameter d2 over the length
(L). If the modulus of elasticity of the material is E, the change in the length of the rod due to the
application of axial force (P) is
4�� 4�� 2��

(A) (B) (C) (D)
�� 1 � 2 �� 12 −� 22 � �� 1 � 2 �� 12 −� 22 �
Q.17 For a point in a body subjected to a plane stress condition (σx= 100 MPa, σy= 50 MPa and
τxy = τyx = 25 MPa), the maximum principal stress in MPa is_____________
Q.18 An isotropic body is subjected to a state of stress given by: σx= 10 MPa and τxy = τyx = −20 MPa.
Assuming G = 0.4E, the volumetric strain is
(A) 5/E (B) 7.5/E (C) 10/E (D) 15/E
Q.19 A block of weight Q rests on an inclined plane and it is attached to a string which runs over a
frictionless pulley to carry a block of weight P at its other end. The coefficient of friction between
the block of weight Q and the inclined plane is µ. Consider the following cases:
Case I: weight Q starts moving down the inclined plane
Case II: weight P starts falling down
The limiting values of ratio P/Q for Case I and Case II respectively are
(A) (sin � − � cos �) and (sin � + � cos �)

(B) (�sin � − cos �) and (�sin � + cos �)
(C) (sin � + � cos �) and (sin � − � cos �)
(D) (�sin � + cos �) and �(sin � − cos �)

Q.20 To unload an item from a truck a crane boom is raised with a constant angular velocity of 1 rad/s
relative to the cab and then the cab is rotated about a vertical axis with constant angular velocity of
0.5 rad/s.
Z
Boom
P
Cab 45°
O Y
If the length of the boom (OP) is 10 m, the velocity of the tip (P) of the boom in m/s is
√2 √2
(A) �−2�� − �̂ + 2�� (B) �−�� − 2�̂ + ��
5 5
− �̂ + 2�� − 2 �̂ + 2��
5 5
(C) �−2�� (D) �−��
√2 √2
Q.21 A block of mass 5 kg moves up on a smooth inclined plane with a velocity of 10 m/s in the
direction shown. A bullet of mass 60 g travelling at 500 m/s strikes the block centrally and gets
embedded in it. The velocity of the block and embedded bullet in m/s immediately after the impact
is
y 10 m/s
30°
x
500 m/s
(A) 12.54 at 30° (B) 13.84 at 51.78° (C) 13.84 at 30° (D) 15.62 at 51.78°

Q.22 A balloon with ballast (weight) inside it has a gross weight of 500 N. It is falling vertically with a
constant acceleration of 2 m/s2. If air resistance is negligible, find the weight of ballast (in N) that
must be thrown out in order to give the balloon an upward acceleration of 2 m/s2. (Acceleration due
to gravity, g = 9.81 m/s2)
500 N

E : THERMODYNAMICS
Notations used:
P-pressure, V-volume, T-temperature, S-entropy, H-enthalpy, U-internal energy, cp-specific heat at constant
pressure, cv-specific heat at constant volume; specific properties are designated by lower case symbols.
Subscripts: R-reduced, C-critical, f-saturated liquid, g-saturated vapor,
Properties of air: cp = 1.005 kJ/(kg.K), specific heat ratio γ = 1.4, Gas constant = 0.287 kJ/(kg.K), Molecular
weight = 29 gm/mol.
Universal gas constant = 8.314 kJ/(kmol.K).
Q.1 Entropy is a
(A) Path function (B) Point function
(C) Property independent function (D) Neither path nor point function
Q.2 A small container has gas at high pressure. It is placed in an evacuated space. If the container is
punctured, work done by the gas is
(A) Positive (B) Negative (C) Zero (D) ∞
Q.3 The molecular weight of a mixture is 38.4 gm/mol. The mixture is composed of methane and
carbon-dioxide gases. The atomic weights of the elements C, H, and O are 12, 1, and 16 gm/mol,
respectively. The mole fraction of methane (Xmethane) is ____________ and that of carbon-dioxide
(X carbon-dioxide) is _______.
(A) Xmethane = 0.2; X carbon-dioxide = 0.8
(B) Xmethane = 0.8; X carbon-dioxide = 0.2
(C) Xmethane = 0.3; X carbon-dioxide = 0.7
(D) Xmethane= 0.7; X carbon-dioxide = 0.3
Q.4 A system undergoes a change from state 1 to state 2. During this process, the change in the internal
energy is ∆U. The change in internal energy of the system when executing the cycle 1-2-1 is equal
to
(A) ∆U (B) 2∆U (C) Zero (D) −2∆U

Q.5 Which among the following plots represents a line joining two states with the same dew point
temperature on a standard psychrometric chart, with the dry bulb temperature on the X-axis and the
humidity ratio on the Y-axis?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
Q.6 The efficiency of a reversible engine operating between two temperatures is 40 % . The COP of a
reversible refrigerator operating between the same temperatures is
(A) 1.5 (B) 2.5 (C) 0.4 (D) 3.5
Q.7 For a superheated vapor that cannot be approximated as an ideal gas, the expression determining a
small change in the specific internal energy is
∂u
(A) du = c p dT + dv
∂v T
∂u
(B) du = c p dT + dP
∂P T
∂u
(C) du = cv dT + dv
∂v T
(D) du = cv dT
Q.8 The minimum and maximum volumes in an air standard Otto cycle are 100 and 800 cm3. Its
thermal efficiency (%) is
(A) 56.47 (B) 94.55 (C) 54.08 (D) 87.50
Q.9 At a saturation temperature Tsat, the difference between the entropy of saturated vapor and entropy
of saturated liquid can be expressed as
(
(A) h f − hg Tsat ) (
(B) hg − h f )T sat
(C) (u g −uf )T
sat (D) (u f −u ) T
g sat
Q.10 A gas in a closed system is compressed reversibly from an initial volume of 0.2 m3 to 0.1 m3 at a
constant pressure of 3 bar. During this process, there was a heat transfer of 50 kJ from the gas. The
change in internal energy of the gas during this process in kJ is
(A) 20 (B) −80 (C) 80 (D) −20

Q.11 In a closed rigid vessel, air is initially at a pressure of 0.3 MPa and volume of 0.1 m3 at 300 K. A
stirrer supplies 100 kJ of work to the air, while 20 kJ of heat is lost to the atmosphere across the
container walls. After these processes, the temperature of air changes to _________K.
(A) 321.9 (B) 702.4 (C) 782.4 (D) 620.2
Q.12 A reversible heat engine (E) operates using three thermal reservoirs with temperatures as shown in
the following figure. If Q1=Q2, the efficiency of the engine is ___________.
Reservoir 1 Reservoir 2
T1 = 1200K T2 = 600 K
W
Q1 Q2
E
Q3
Reservoir 3
T3 = 300 K
(A) 0.25 (B) 0.125 (C) 0.625 (D) 0.75
Q.13 A metal block of mass 25 kg at 300 K is immersed in an infinitely large liquid nitrogen bath
maintained at 77 K. The system comprising of the block and liquid nitrogen attains thermal
equilibrium. The average specific heat of the metal is 0.45 kJ/(kg.K). The entropy generated during
the process is ___________kJ/K.
(A) 17.28 (B) 32.5 (C) 47.8 (D) −47.8
Q.14  a
For a gas obeying the equation of state given by  P + v = RT , the values of the critical
 v2 
volume and the critical temperature are 0.004 m3/kg and 100 °C, respectively. If the value of the
gas constant is 250 J/(kg.K), then the value of the constant ‘a’ is _____________ (N.m4/kg2). Note
that the critical point is the point of inflection on the critical isotherm.
(A) 124.3 (B) 0.75 (C) 186.58 (D) 248.67

Q.15 A rigid closed vessel is initially filled with 2 kg of water which is a mixture of saturated liquid and
saturated vapor states at 2 bar. The vessel is placed in an oven which heats the mixture to the
critical state. Using the saturated and critical property values from the table given below, the heat
transferred from the oven to the vessel is __________kJ.
Pressure = 2 bar
3
vf (m /kg) vg (m3/kg) uf (kJ/kg) ug (kJ/kg)
0.0010605 0.8857 504.49 2529.5
Critical pressure
vc (m3/kg) uc (kJ/kg)
0.003155 2029.6
(A) 3035.8 (B) 3040.6 (C) 3036.2 (D) 3044.9
Q.16 The equation of state for a certain gas is given by v = RT / P − C1 / T + C2 , where C1 is 50,000
2
∂h ∂v
(K2.m3)/kg and C2 is 0.8 m3/kg. The relation = v −T is known for the gas. The inversion
∂P T ∂T P
 ∂h 
temperature, given by the condition,  = 0 is _________K.
 ∂P T 
(A) 500.0 (B) 433.0 (C) 353.6 (D) 250.0
Q.17 The maximum pressure and temperature in an air standard diesel cycle are 44 bar and 1600 K,
respectively. If the minimum pressure and temperature are 1 bar and 300 K, respectively, then the
cut-off ratio (the ratio of the volume at the end of the heat addition process to that at the beginning
of the heat addition process) is
(A) 1.000 (B) 14.920 (C) 2.809 (D) 1.809
Q.18 The thermal efficiency of an air standard Brayton cycle 0.35. The pressure ratio across the turbine
is
(A) 4.516 (B) 5.232 (C) 7.535 (D) 8.234
Q.19 Steam is isentropically expanded in a turbine from 80 bar to 7 bar. At the inlet of the turbine (state
1) h1 is 3246 kJ/kg and s1 is 6.52 kJ/(kg.K).
Pressure = 7 bar
hf (kJ/kg) hg (kJ/kg) sf [kJ/(kg.K)] sg [kJ/(kg.K)]
697 2763 2.0 6.7
The enthalpy of the steam exiting the turbine (state 2) in kJ/kg is

(A) 2683.87 (B) 2657.17 (C) 1986.87 (D) 3354.17

Q.20 A thin insulating membrane separates two tanks initially filled with nitrogen [mean cv = 21.6
J/(mol.K)] and carbon-dioxide [mean cv = 11.6 J/(mol.K)] as shown below.
Perfect
insulation
0.8 moles of N2 at 0.2 moles of CO2 at

2 bar and 350 K 1 bar and 300 K
The membrane is ruptured and the gases are allowed to mix to form a homogeneous mixture at
equilibrium. During this process there are no heat or work interactions between the tank contents
and the surroundings. The final temperature at the equilibrium state in Kelvin is
(A) 344.1 (B) 306.3 (C) 325.0 (D) 346.1
Q.21 Two moist air streams MAS1 and MAS2 are mixed adiabatically. The details of MAS1 and MAS2
are given below in the table.
MAS1 MAS2
h (kJ/kg of dry air) 42 80
v (m3/kg of dry air) 0.85 0.9
Flow rate (m3/min) 85 90
With pressure remaining same and with no work interactions during the mixing process, the
enthalpy of the mixed stream is ________________ kJ/kg of dry air.
(A) 122 (B) 61 (C) 81 (D) 108
Q.22 Consider the steady flow of air through an insulated nozzle. The pressure and temperature at the
inlet are 120 kPa and 320 K, respectively. The outlet pressure is 1 bar. The inlet velocity is very
small and the air undergoes a reversible adiabatic process. The outlet velocity, in m/s, is
(A) 303.7 (B) 180.7 (C) 5.7 (D) 127.3

F : POLYMER SCIENCE AND ENGINEERING

Q.1 The estimation of the molecular weight of a polymer by gel permeation chromatography (GPC) is
based on its
(A) polarity (B) size
(C) adsorption to stationary phase (D) crystallinity
Q.2 Elastomers are characterized by

(A) high modulus and high elongation at break
(B) high modulus and low elongation at break
(C) low modulus and high elongation at break
(D) low modulus and low elongation at break
Q.3 Thermodynamically, two polymers with enthalpy of mixing (∆H) and entropy of mixing (∆S) form
a miscible blend at temperature T when
∆H ∆H ∆H ∆H
(A) = 0.5T (B) =T (C) = 1.5T (D) = 2T
∆S ∆S ∆S ∆S
Q.4 The tensile strain of a uniformly extending plastic specimen of initial length L0 and extended length
L is
�0 � �0 �−�0
(A) (B) (C) (D)
� �0 �−�0 �0
Q.5 In natural rubber compounding, a peptizer is added

(A) at the beginning of the compounding cycle
(B) after the addition of filler
(C) at the end of the compounding cycle
(D) after the addition of antioxidant
Q.6 A continuous annular product is produced by

(A) compression molding (B) extrusion
(C) blow molding (D) injection molding
Q.7 Relate the three varieties of polyethylene in the left column with their chain structures given in the
right column.
P. HDPE 1. long as well as short branches
Q. LDPE 2. only short branches
R. LLDPE 3. no branches
(A) P-1, Q-3, R-2 (B) P-3, Q-2, R-1 (C) P-2, Q-3, R-1 (D) P-3, Q-1, R-2
Q.8 Match the following changes observed in the calorimetric analysis of a polymer sample when heat
flow (y-axis) is plotted against temperature (x-axis):
P. step increase in heat flow 1. crystallization
Q. exothermic peak 2. melting
R. endothermic peak 3. glass transition
(A) P-1, Q-2, R-3 (B) P-2, Q-1, R-3 (C) P-3, Q-1, R-2 (D) P-3, Q-2, R-1

Q.9 A Bingham plastic fluid is flowing under gravity, down a vertical plate, as a film. Find the
appropriate match for the fully developed velocity profile of the fluid in the film, from among those
shown below.
(A) (B)
x x
y film air y film air

�� =0 �� =0
��
(C) (D)
x x
air air
y film y film
�� =0 �� =0
��
Q.10 Calculate the mass percent of the crystalline phase in a polymer sample of density 975 kg/m3. The
density of amorphous phase is 866 kg/m3 and that of the crystalline phase is 996 kg/m3.
Q.11 Find the rate of initiation (molL-1s-1) of a polymerization reaction using a peroxide initiator with a
half life of 0.1 s and efficiency of 70%, if the concentration of the initiator is 0.05 molL-1.
Q.12 The constitutive equation of a shear thinning polymeric fluid is given by
�0 �̇
�=
1 + (�̇ ⁄�̇ 0 )
where � represents shear stress (Pa), and �̇ , the corresponding shear rate (s-1). The quantities �0 =
20 Pas and �̇ 0 = 10 s −1 are constants. Find the apparent viscosity of the sample (Pas) when the
applied shear rate is 40 s-1.

Q.13 Identify the monomer for the polymer shown below prepared by ring opening metathesis
polymerization.
(A) (B)
(D)
(C)
Q.14 The most appropriate order of toughness of nylon based materials is

(A) talc filled nylon < dry nylon < wet nylon
(B) dry nylon < wet nylon < talc filled nylon
(C) wet nylon < dry nylon < talc filled nylon
(D) wet nylon < talc filled nylon < dry nylon
Q.15 The shear rates involved in calendering (γ̇ cal), compression molding (γ̇ comp), extrusion (γ̇ ext), and
injection molding (γ̇ inj) processes follow the order
(A) γ̇ inj < γ̇ cal < γ̇ ext < γ̇ comp (B) γ̇ comp < γ̇ ext < γ̇ cal < γ̇ inj
(C) γ̇ comp < γ̇ inj < γ̇ ext < γ̇ cal (D) γ̇ comp < γ̇ cal < γ̇ ext < γ̇ inj
Q.16 The dynamic mechanical response of a thermoplastic automotive component has shown a loss
angle of 45° and storage modulus of 3500 MPa. Calculate the loss modulus (MPa) of the
component.
Q.17 Match the terms in Column A with the appropriate terms in Column B:
Column A Column B
P. processability 1. Rockwell scale
Q. moisture permeation 2. rubber modification
R. hardness 3. melt flow index
S. fracture toughening 4. Fick's law
(A) P-3; Q-4; R-2; S-1 (B) P-3; Q-4; R-1; S-2
(C) P-4; Q-3; R-1; S-2 (D) P-4; Q-3; R-2; S-1

Q.18 Match the following additives for plastics with their respective functions:
Additive Function 3/4

P. dilaurylthiodipropionate 1. solid layer lubricant
Q. graphite 2. flame retardant
R. antimony trioxide 3. reinforcement
S. carbon fibre 4. antioxidant
(A) P-4; Q-1; R-2; S-3 (B) P-1; Q-4; R-2; S-3
(C) P-4; Q-1; R-3; S-2 (D) P-1; Q-4; R-3; S-2
Q.19 Match the following catalyst/initiator with the type of polymerization reaction:
Catalyst/initiator Polymerization reaction

P. butyl lithium 1. Ziegler-Natta
Q. TiCl4 + Et3Al 2. cationic
R. CuBr 3. anionic
S. H2SO4 4. atom transfer radical polymerization
(A) P-2; Q-1; R-4; S-3 (B) P-2; Q-4; R-1; S-3
(C) P-3; Q-1; R-4; S-2 (D) P-3; Q-4; R-1; S-2
Q.20 For AIBN (mol. wt. = 164 gmol-1) initiated free radical polymerization of methyl methacrylate
��
(mol. wt. = 100 gmol-1), where the termination is only by radical coupling, the � � of PMMA is
-1
found to be 4636 gmol . Calculate the degree of polymerization.
Q.21 A polymer solution is made by dissolving 5 g of polymer in 1000 ml of solvent. The flow time of
the solvent and that of the polymer solution between two appropriate marks in a viscometer are 40 s
and 60 s, respectively. The reduced viscosity (in dLg-1) of the polymer solution is:
(A) 0.25 (B) 0.50 (C) 1.0 (D) 1.5
Q.22 The volume resistivity of a polymeric material is 107 Ωm. Find the resistance (in MΩ) of a cube of
the material of side 1 cm. The direction of current flow is as shown in the figure below.

G: FOOD TECHNOLOGY

Q.1 The systematic name of sucrose is
(A) α-D-Fructofuranosyl (1 2) β -D-Glucopyranoside
(B) α-D-Glucopyranosyl (1 2) β-D-Fructofuranoside
(C) α-D-Glucopyranosyl (2 1) β-D-Fructofuranoside
(D) α-D-Fructofuranosyl ((2 1) β-D-Glucopyranoside
Q.2 A non-hydrolyzable lipid is

(A) Lecithin (B) Arachidic acid (C) Tocopherol (D) Tristearin
Q.3 The respiratory quotient (RQ) for the reaction 2 C57H110O6 + 163 O2 114 CO2 + 110 H2O is
(A) 0.70 (B) 1.14 (C) 1.43 (D) 0.14
Q.4 Liver necrosis may be caused by the deficiency of

(A) Vitamin A (B) Vitamin D (C) Vitamin K (D) Vitamin E
Q.5 Which of the following non-nutritive sweeteners contains similar calories per gram as that of
sucrose?
(A) Saccharin (B) Aspartame (C) Sucralose (D) Cyclamate
Q.6 The objective of heating milk to about 65°C before homogenization is to inactivate
(A) Glucose oxidase (B) Lipases (C) Lactases (D) Invertases
Q.7 Make the correct match of the processes in Column I with the suitable materials/products in
Column II
Column I Column II
1) Rendering P) Lecithin
2) Hydrogenation Q) Fullers’ earth
3) Degumming R) Lard
4) Bleaching S) Margarine
(A) 1-R, 2-P, 3-Q, 4-S (B) 1-P, 2-Q, 3-S, 4-R
(C) 1-R, 2-P, 3-S, 4-Q (D) 1-R, 2-S, 3-P, 4-Q

Q.8 A fruit juice of viscosity µ and density ρ is agitated using an impeller of diameter D at a speed of N
P D2 N ρ �2�
revolutions per minute. The terms � = ρ N 3 D 5 , Y = µ
, Z= �
represent three process related
numbers, where P is power imparted by impeller and g is acceleration due to gravity. Which of the
following is correct representation of these numbers?
(A) X = Power, Y= Froude, Z = Reynolds (B) X = Power, Y = Reynolds, Z = Froude

(C) X = Froude, Y= Reynolds, Z = Power (D) X = Reynolds, Y = Power, Z = Froude
Q.9 The energy required to reduce the size of a food material from a mean diameter of 12 mm to 4 mm
is 10 kJ kg-1. From Rittingers’ law, the energy needed to reduce the same material from a diameter
of 1.2 mm to 0.4 mm in kJ kg-1 is __________

Q.10 Saccharomyces cerevisiae (mean doubling time 3.2 h) is grown in a batch fermenter with an
operating volume of 12 m3. A 2% (v/v) inoculum, which contains 5 kg cells per 100 m3 is
mixed with the substrate. The residence time in the fermenter is 24 h and the density of broth is
1010 kg m-3. The mass of S. cerevisiae obtained from the fermenter, in kg, is ________
Q.11 Make the correct combination of operations in Column I with the machines in Column II
Column I Column II
1) Rice milling P) Pin mill
2) Wheat milling Q) Rubber rolls
3) Mustard oil expelling R) Break rolls
4) Pepper grinding S) Screw press
(A) 1-Q, 2-R, 3-S, 4-P (B) 1-R, 2- Q, 3-S, 4-P
(C) 1-Q, 2-P, 3-S, 4-R (D) 1-Q, 2-R, 3- P, 4- S
Q.12 The correct order for D121 values of the spores of food spoilage bacteria in aqueous medium is
(A) B. stearothermophilus > C. sporogenes > C. botulinum type A > B. coagulans
(B) C. sporogenes > B. stearothermophilus > C. botulinum type A > B .coagulans
(C) C. botulinum type A > B. stearothermophilus > C. sporogenes > B. coagulans
(D) B. stearothermophilus > C. botulinum type A > C. sporogenes > B. coagulans
Q.13 Make the correct combination of pigments/microorganisms in Column I with the process/ products
in Column II
Column I Column II
1) Anthocyanin P) Ropiness
2) Chlorophyll Q) Koji
3) Bacillus subtilis R) Glycosides
4) Aspergillus oryzae S) Porphyrins
(A) 1-S, 2- R, 3-P, 4-Q (B) 1-R, 2-S, 3-Q, 4- P
(C) 1-Q, 2-S, 3-P, 4-R (D) 1-R, 2-S, 3-P, 4-Q

Q.14 Make the correct combination of underlying principles in Column I with the processes in
Column II
Column I Column II
1) Carbonyl derivatives react with free amino P) Gelatinization
acids to yield aldehydes
2) Starch aggregates and forms micro-crystals Q) Strecker degradation
3) Starch granules swell and leach amylose R) Caramelization
4) Pyranose or furanose rings open up by S) Retrogradation
pyrolytic reactions to form furfural
derivatives
(A) 1-Q, 2-R, 3-P, 4- S (B) 1-Q, 2-S, 3-P, 4-R
(C) 1-R, 2-S, 3-P, 4- Q (D) 1-Q, 2-P, 3- S, 4-R
Q.15 Which one of the following statements is FASLE?

(A) The peptide bond is planar offering restricted rotation around its axis.
(B) Full range of water activity is 0 ≤ aw ≤ 1 and it has well defined unit.
(C) The autooxidation of lipids proceeds via free radical mechanism.
(D) The carbonyl group of sugar reacts with nucleophilic amino group of amino acids in
Amadori rearrangement.
Q.16 Which one of the following statements is TRUE?

(A) Pectate lyase hydrolyzes methyl ester bond of pectin.
(B) α-Solanine is a non-toxic compound found in solanaceae plants.
(C) Egg proteins have lower digestibility than pea proteins.
(D) Lipoxygenase catalyses the conversion of cis, cis-1,4-pentadiene to hydroperoxides.
Q.17 Fish fillet having 84% moisture (wet basis) is frozen from top using an air blast freezer maintained
at −32°C. The initial temperature of the fillet (density 1050 kg m-3) is −2°C (freezing point).
Convective heat transfer coefficient of air is 25 Wm-2 K-1, thermal conductivity of frozen fish is 1.0
Wm-1K-1 and latent heat of crystallization is 340 kJ kg-1. The freezing time, in min, for a 20 mm
thick block of fish fillet weighing 1 kg is __________
Q.18 Make the correct combination of properties in Column I with their dimensions in Column II
Column I Column II
1) Dynamic viscosity P) m2 s-2 K-1
2) Thermal conductivity Q) kg m s-2
3) Specific heat R) kg m-1 s-1
4) Force S) kg m s-3 K-1
(A) 1-R, 2-S, 3-Q, 4- P (B) 1- Q, 2-S, 3-P, 4- R
(C) 1-R, 2-S, 3-P, 4-Q (D) 1- S, 2-R, 3-P, 4-Q

Q.19 The viscosity and density of a fruit juice at 21°C are 6.3 x 10-3 Pa s and 1029 kg m-3, respectively.
The juice flows at the rate of 0.12 m3 min-1 in a 2.54 cm inner diameter steel pipe. Correct
combination of the Reynolds number (NRe) and the nature of flow of juice is
(A) NRe = 1048, Laminar (B) NRe = 2056, Laminar
(C) NRe = 16375, Turbulent (D) NRe = 28656, Turbulent
Q.20 For a typical food sorption isotherm curve (Figure 1), which one of the following statements is
CORRECT ?
30
Equilibrium moisture content (%)
25 C
20
15
10
B
5 A
0
0.0 0.2 0.4 0.6 0.8 1.0
Water activity
Figure 1: Food sorption isotherm curve
(A) Y-coordinate of A represents monolayer water content of food, A-B represents water
absorbed in the multilayer within the food and B-C represents free water within the
capillary network of the food.
(B) Y-coordinate of B represents monolayer water content of food, A-B represents water
absorbed in the multilayer within the food and B-C represents free water within the
capillary network of the food.
(C) Y-coordinate of A represents monolayer water content of food, Y-coordinate of B

represents water absorbed in the multilayer within the food and B-C represents free water
within the capillary network of the food.
(D) Y-coordinate of A represents monolayer water content of food, A-C represents water
absorbed in the multilayer within the food and Y-coordinate of C represents free water
within the capillary network of the food.

Q.21 10,000 kg milk (7% fat) is passed through a cream separator to obtain cream (40% fat) and skim
milk (0.1 % fat). The cream, thus obtained, is churned to make butter of 80.5% fat. If a loss of 0.5%
of initial milk fat occurs during the manufacturing process, the % overrun is _________________
Q.22 A 50 mm thick pack of farm fresh berries is cooled at one side from 24°C to 7°C. The relevant
properties of berries are: density 1025 kg m-3, specific heat 3.78 kJ kg-1K-1, convective heat transfer
coefficient 30 Wm-2K-1, and thermal conductivity 0.3 Wm-1 K-1. The Fourier number for a cooling
span of 30 min is ________________

GATE 2014 - Answer Keys
General Aptitude - GA
Q. No. Key / Range Q. No. Key / Range Q. No. Key / Range
1 A 5 1300 to 1300 9 D
2 B 6 D 10 B
3 D 7 B
4 C 8 180 to 180
Engineering Sciences – XE (Section - A)

1 2 to 2 5 1 to 1 9 24 to 24
2 C 6 C 10 2 to 2
3 A 7 B 11 D
4 B 8 B
Engineering Sciences – XE (Section - B)

1 7 to 7 9 C 17 8 to 8
2 A 10 A 18 47.52 to
48.50
3 D 11 D 19 0.145 to
0.155
4 3 to 3 12 C 20 D
5 B 13 A 21 C
6 B 14 17.55 to 22 4.8 to 5.2
17.75
7 0.48 to 0.52 15 2033 to 2036
8 C 16 B
________________________________________________________________
Engineering Sciences – XE (Section - C)
1 C 9 B 17 D
2 A 10 5555 to 5556 18 0.47 to 0.49
3 C 11 91 to 92 19 D
4 D 12 48 to 49 20 0.24 to 0.26
5 C 13 B 21 40 to 41
6 D 14 0.29 to 0.31 22 115 to 120
7 B 15 C
8 A 16 A
Engineering Sciences – XE (Section - D)

1 12.20 to 9 A 17 110.3 to
12.22 110.5
2 5.3 to 5.4 10 19.1 to 19.3 18 A
3 A 11 B 19 A
4 C 12 1.14 to 1.16 20 D
5 C 13 A 21 B
6 0 to 0 14 B 22 169.3 to
169.4
7 A 15 C
8 B 16 A
Engineering Sciences – XE (Section - E)

1 B 9 B 17 D
2 C 10 D 18 A
3 A 11 D 19 A
4 C 12 C 20 A
5 D 13 A 21 B
6 A 14 C 22 B
7 C 15 B
8 A 16 B
________________________________________________________________
Engineering Sciences – XE (Section - F)
1 B 9 C 17 B
2 C 10 85.15 to 18 A
86.15
3 A 11 0.48 to 0.50 19 C
4 D 12 4 to 4 20 45 to 45
5 A 13 B 21 C
6 B 14 A 22 1000 to 1000
7 D 15 D
8 C 16 3500 to 3500
Engineering Sciences – XE (Section - G)

1 B 9 100 to 100 17 74 to 76
2 C 10 2.1 to 2.2 18 C
3 A 11 A 19 C
4 D 12 A 20 A
5 B 13 D 21 22.0 to 22.2
6 B 14 B 22 0.055 to
0.057
7 D 15 B
8 B 16 D
________________________________________________________________
GATE 2013 Solved Paper
XE : ENGINEERING SCIENCES
Duration: Three Hours Maximum Marks:100
Paper specific instructions:
1. There are a total of 65 questions carrying 100 marks. The question paper consists of questions of
multiple choice type and numerical answer type. Multiple choice type questions will have four
choices for the answer with only one correct choice. For numerical answer type questions, the answer
is a number and no choices will be given. A number as the answer should be entered using the
virtual keyboard on the monitor.
2. There are Eight sections: GA (General Aptitude), A (Engineering Mathematics), B (Fluid

Mechanics), C (Materials Science), D (Solid Mechanics), E (Thermodynamics), F (Polymer Science
& Engineering) and G (Food Technology).
3. Section GA (General Aptitude) and Section A (Engineering Mathematics) are compulsory. Attempt
any two optional Sections B through G.
4. There are 10 questions carrying 15 marks in General Aptitude (GA) section, which is compulsory.
Questions Q.1 – Q.5 carry 1 mark each, and questions Q.6 – Q.10 carry 2 marks each.
5. There are 11 questions carrying 15 marks in Section A (Engineering Mathematics), which is

compulsory. Questions Q.1 - Q.7 carry 1 mark each and questions Q.8- Q.11 carry 2 marks each.
6. Each of the other sections (Sections B through G) contains 22 questions carrying 35 marks. Questions
Q.1 - Q.9 carry 1 mark each and questions Q.10 - Q.22 carry 2 marks each. The 2 marks questions
include two pairs of common data questions and one pair of linked answer questions. The answer to
the second question of the linked answer questions depends on the answer to the first question of the
pair. If the first question in the linked pair is wrongly answered or is not attempted, then the answer to
the second question in the pair will not be evaluated
7. Questions not attempted will result in zero mark. Wrong answers for multiple choice type questions
will result in NEGATIVE marks. For all 1 mark questions, ⅓ mark will be deducted for each wrong
answer. For all 2 marks questions, ⅔ mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. However, in the
case of the linked answer question pair, there will be negative marks only for wrong answer to the
first question and no negative marks for wrong answer to the second question. There is no negative
marking for questions of numerical answer type.
8. Calculator is allowed. Charts, graph sheets or tables are NOT allowed in the examination hall.
9. Do the rough work in the Scribble Pad provided.

General Aptitude (GA) Questions

Q.1 If 3 ≤ ≤ 5 and 8 ≤ ≤ 11 then which of the following options is TRUE?
(A) ≤ ≤
(B) ≤ ≤
(C) ≤ ≤
(D) ≤ ≤
Q.2 The Headmaster ___________ to speak to you.
Which of the following options is incorrect to complete the above sentence?

(A) is wanting
(B) wants
(C) want
(D) was wanting
Q.3 Mahatama Gandhi was known for his humility as

(A) he played an important role in humiliating exit of British from India.
(B) he worked for humanitarian causes.
(C) he displayed modesty in his interactions.
(D) he was a fine human being.
Q.4 All engineering students should learn mechanics, mathematics and how to do computation.
I II III IV
Which of the above underlined parts of the sentence is not appropriate?
(A) I (B) II (C) III (D) IV
Q.5 Select the pair that best expresses a relationship similar to that expressed in the pair:
water: pipe::
(A) cart: road (B) electricity: wire
(C) sea: beach (D) music: instrument

Q. 6 to Q. 10 carry two marks each.
Q.6 Velocity of an object fired directly in upward direction is given by = 80 − 32 , where (time)
is in seconds. When will the velocity be between 32 m/sec and 64 m/sec?
(A) (1, 3/2) (B) (1/2, 1)
(C) (1/2, 3/2) (D) (1, 3)
Q.7 In a factory, two machines M1 and M2 manufacture 60% and 40% of the autocomponents
respectively. Out of the total production, 2% of M1 and 3% of M2 are found to be defective. If a
randomly drawn autocomponent from the combined lot is found defective, what is the probability
that it was manufactured by M2?
(A) 0.35 (B) 0.45 (C) 0.5 (D) 0.4
Q.8 Following table gives data on tourists from different countries visiting India in the year 2011.
Country Number of
Tourists
USA 2000
England 3500
Germany 1200
Italy 1100
Japan 2400
Australia 2300
France 1000
Which two countries contributed to the one third of the total number of tourists who visited India in
2011?
(A) USA and Japan
(B) USA and Australia
(C) England and France
(D) Japan and Australia
Q.9 If | −2 + 9| = 3 then the possible value of | − | − would be:

(A) 30 (B) -30 (C) -42 (D) 42
Q.10 All professors are researchers

Some scientists are professors
Which of the given conclusions is logically valid and is inferred from the above arguments:
(A) All scientists are researchers
(B) All professors are scientists
(C) Some researchers are scientists
(D) No conclusion follows

A: ENGINEERING MATHEMATICS
Q.1
The value of the integral ∫ (
is
)
√ (B) √ (C) − √ √
(A) (D) −
Q.2 Which one of the following partial differential equations CAN NOT be reduced to two
ordinary differential equations by the method of separation of variables?
(A) − =0 (B) − = 0
(C) + + = 0 (D) + + = 0

Q.3 The Fourier series of the periodic function
( ) = | | , −1 < < 1, ( + 2) = ( ) , Є ℝ
is given by
4 cos( 2 −1 )
− ∑∞= 1
1
2 .
2 ( 2 −1) 2
Using the above, the sum of the infinite series 1 + + + . . . is

2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
4
Q.4
Consider the function ( ) = , Є ℂ. At = 0, the function
(A) does not satisfy the Cauchy-Riemann equations
(B) satisfies the Cauchy-Riemann equations but is not differentiable
(C) is differentiable but not analytic
(D) is analytic

Q.5 ( )
The integral ∮ ( )( )
along the contour : | − ( 1 + ) | = 2, oriented anti-
clockwise, is equal to
(A) 0
(B) (C) − (D)
Q.6
The integral ∫ ∫ /
equals
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Q.7 If the mean and variance of a binomial distribution are 6 and 2 respectively, then the
probability of two failures is
7
(A) 4 23 (B) 4 (C) 17 (D) 17
Q. 8 - Q. 11 carry two marks each.

Q.8 1 0 −1
For the matrix = 0 1 −1 , consider the following statements:
1 1 −2
(P) The characteristic equation of is − = 0.

(Q) does not exist.
(R) The matrix is diagonalizable.
Which of the above statements are true?

(A) P, Q and R (B) P and R but not Q
(C) P and Q but not R (D) Q and R but not P
Q.9 The work done by the force ⃗ = ( + ) ̂ + ( + ) ̂ in moving a particle once
along the triangle with vertices ( 0,0 ) , ( 1,0 ) and ( 0,1) in the anti-clockwise direction is
(A) 0 (B) 1/6 (C) 1/3 (D) 5/3

Q.10 The general solution of the differential equation
+ + − = 0, > 0
is
√ √
(A) + /
cos + sin
√ √
(B) + /
cos + sin
√ √
(C) + /
cos + sin
√ √
(D) + /
cos + sin
Q.11 Using Euler’s method to solve the differential equation
= 2 cos − , ( 0) = 1
with step-size ℎ = 0.25, the value of ( 0.5 ) is
(A) 1.3125 (B) 1.1875 (C) 1.125 (D) 1.0625
END OF SECTION - A

B:FLUID MECHANICS

Q.1 The gauge pressure inside a soap bubble of radius , with denoting the surface tension
between the soap solution and air, is.
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Q.2 Let , and represent respectively the metacentre, centre of buoyancy and the centre of
mass of a floating buoy. Which of the following statements is correct?
(A) is above ; Buoy unstable (B) is above ; Buoy stable

(C) is above ; Buoy stable (D) is above ; Buoy unstable
Q.3 A reservoir connected to a pipe line is being filled with water, as shown in the Figure. At
any time t, the free surface level in the reservoir is h. Find the time in seconds for the
reservoir to get filled up to a height of 1 m, if the initial level is 0.2 m. _________
Q.4 Bernoulli’s equation is valid for the following type of flow:

(A)Compressible, steady, inviscid (B)Incompressible, steady, viscous
(C)Compressible, unsteady, viscous (D)Incompressible, steady, inviscid
Q.5 If is the area of a circle of radius enclosing a plane forced vortex flow, with origin at
the centre of the vortex and if ω is the angular velocity, ζ is the vorticity, ⃗ is the velocity
vector, then the circulation around the contour of the circle is given by
(A) 2 (B) 2ζ (C) 2 ⃗ (D) 0
Q.6 Flow past a circular cylinder can be produced by superposition of the following elementary
potential flows:
(A)Uniform flow, doublet (B)Uniform flow, vortex
(C)Source, vortex (D)Sink, vortex
Q.7 Let δ, δ1 and δ2 denote respectively the boundary-layer thickness, displacement thickness
and the momentum thickness for laminar boundary layer flow of an incompressible fluid
over a flat plate. The correct relation among these quantities is
(A) δ < δ1< δ2 (B) δ > δ1> δ2 (C) δ > δ1< δ2 (D) δ < δ1> δ2

Q.8 In the hydrodynamic entry region of a circular duct, the pressure forces balance the sum of
(A)viscous and buoyancy forces (B)inertia and buoyancy forces
(C)inertia and surface tension forces (D)inertia and viscous forces
Q.9 Bodies with various cross-sectional shapes subjected to cross-flow of air are shown in the
following figures. The characteristic dimension of all the shapes is the same. The cross-
sectional shape with the largest coefficient of drag (i.e. sum of the pressure and skin-
friction drags), at any moderately large Reynolds number, is
(A) (B)
(C) (D)

Q.10 A U-tube of a very small bore, with its limbs in a vertical plane and filled with a liquid of
density ρ, up to a height of h, is rotated about a vertical axis, with an angular velocity of
ω, as shown in the Figure. The radius of each limb from the axis of rotation is R. Let pa be
the atmospheric pressure and g, the gravitational acceleration. The angular velocity at
which the pressure at the point O becomes half of the atmospheric pressure is given by
( )
(A) (B)
(C) (D)

Q.11 An incompressible fluid at a pressure of 150 kPa (absolute) flows steadily through a two-
dimensional channel with a velocity of 5 m/s as shown in the Figure. The channel has a 90o
bend. The fluid leaves the channel with a pressure of 100 kPa (absolute) and linearly-
varying velocity profile. vmax is four times vmin. The density of the fluid is 914.3 kg/m3. The
velocity vmin, in m/s, is
(A) 25 (B) 2.5 (C) 2.0 (D) 0.2
Q.12 The velocity vector corresponding to a flow field is given, with usual notation, by ⃗ =
3 ̂ + 4 ̂. The magnitude of rotation at the point (2,2) in rad/s is
(A) 0.75 (B) 1.33 (C) 2 (D) 4
Q.13 The stream function for a potential flow field is given by ψ = − . The corresponding
potential function, assuming zero potential at the origin, is
(A) + (B) 2 (C) − (D) −
Q.14 Fully developed flow of an oil takes place in a pipe of inner diameter 50 mm. The pressure
drop per metre length of the pipe is 2 kPa. Determine the shear stress, in Pa, at the pipe
wall. __________
Q.15 The Darcy friction factor for a smooth pipe is given by = 64/ Re for laminar flow and
by = 0.3/ Re . for turbulent flow, where Re is the Reynolds number based on the
diameter. For fully developed flow of a fluid of density 1000 kg/m3 and dynamic viscosity
0.001 Pa.s through a smooth pipe of diameter 10 mm with a velocity of 1 m/s, determine
the Darcy friction factor. _________
Q.16 Air flows steadily through a channel. The stagnation and static pressures at a point in the
flow are measured by a Pitot tube and a wall pressure tap, respectively. The pressure
difference is found to be 20 mm Hg. The densities of air, water and mercury, in kg/m3, are
1.18, 1000 and 13600, respectively. The gravitational acceleration is 9.81 m/s2. Determine
the air speed in m/s. _____________

Common Data Questions

Common Data for Questions 17 and 18:
The velocity field within a laminar boundary layer is given by the expression:
⃗= ̂+ ̂
/ 4 /
where = 100 m1/2 and the free stream velocity = 0.1 m/s.
Q.17 Calculate the x-direction component of the acceleration in m/s2 at the point = 0.5 m and
= 50 mm. _________
Q.18 Find the slope of the streamline passing through the point = 0.5 m and = 50mm. ____
The wave and eddy resistance of a sea-going vessel, 96 m in length, driven at a velocity of 12 m/s,
is to be determined. For this purpose, a 1/16 th scale model is employed in fresh water and the
-4
coefficient of resistance w eof the model is found to be 1.47×10 . The quantity w e is defined as
w e/ ( / 2) , where w e is the wave and eddy resistance, is the density, is the velocity and
is the characteristic length. The density of sea water is 1026 kg/m3.
Q.19 The velocity in m/s, at which the model is towed, is
(A)0.75 (B)1.33 (C)3 (D)192
Q.20 The resistance of the prototype, in kN, is

(A) 6 (B) 25 (C) 26.9 (D) 100.1

Linked Answer Questions
Statement for Linked Answer Questions 21 and 22:
Water enters a symmetric forked pipe and discharges into atmosphere through the two branches as
shown in the Figure. The cross-sectional area of section-1 is 0.2 m2 and the velocity across
section-1 is 3 m/s. The density of water may be taken as 1000 kg/m3. The viscous effects and
elevation changes may be neglected.
Q.21 The gauge pressure at section-1, in kPa, is
(A)0.6 (B)13.5 (C)135 (D)600
Q.22 The magnitude of the force, in kN, required to hold the pipe in place, is
(A) 2.7 (B) 5.4 (C) 19 (D) 27
END OF SECTION - B

C:MATERIALS SCIENCE
Useful Data:
Avogadro’s Number : 6.023 x 1023 mol-1

Boltzmann’s constant, k : 1.38 x 10-23 J.K-1
Electron Charge, e : 1.6 x 10-19 C
Electron rest mass, mo : 9.1 x 10-31 kg
Gas Constant, R : 8.314 J.mol-1K-1
Free Space Permittivity, o : 8.854 x 10-12 F.m-1
Free Space magnetic permeability, o : 4 x 10-7 H.m-1
Speed of light, c : 3 x 108 m.s-1
Planck’s constant, h : 6.63 x 10-34 J.s-1
Bohr Magneton, b : 9.27 x 10-24 A m2
1 eV = 1.6 x 10-19 J
1 calorie = 4.2 J
Q.1 As temperature increases, diffusivity of an atom in a solid material,

(A) increases (B) decreases
(C) remains constant (D) depends on the specific material
Q.2 Which of the following is NOT correct?

(A)Dislocations are thermodynamically unstable defects.
(B)Dislocations can move inside a crystal under the action of an applied stress.
(C)Screw dislocations can change the slip plane without climb
(D)Burger’s vector of an edge dislocation is parallel to the dislocation line.
Q.3 At a constant atmospheric pressure, the number of phases, P which coexist in a chosen system at
equilibrium, is related to the number of components, C in the system and the degree of freedom, F
by
(A) P+F=C-2 (B) P+F=C+2
(C) P+F=C+1 (D) P+F=C-1
Q.4 Which one of the following metals is commonly alloyed with iron to improve its corrosion
resistance?
(A) Co (B) Cr (C) Ti (D) Nb
Q.5 The number of slip systems in a metal with FCC crystal structureis
(A) 4 (B) 6 (C) 8 (D) 12
Q.6 Upon recrystallization of a cold worked metal,

(A) strength increases and ductility decreases
(B)strength decreases but ductility increases
(C)both strength and ductility increase
(D)both strength and ductility decrease

Q.7 In carbon fiber reinforced resin composites, for a given fiber volume content, Young’s modulus
depends on the orientation of the fiber with respect to the applied load. Which orientation of the
fibers will give the maximum value of Young’s modulus?
(A)transverse (B)longitudinal
(C)random (D)both transverse and longitudinal
Q.8 Vulcanization is related to

(A)strengthening of rubber (B)extrusion
(C)injection moulding (D)addition polymerisation
Q.9 Which one of the following oxides crystallizes into fluorite structure?
(A) UO2 (B) MgO (C) BaTiO3 (D) MgAl2O4
Q.10 Match the conventional ceramic materials listed in Column I with their respective common
applications in Column II
Column I Column II
P. Lead Zirconate Titanate (PZT) 1. cutting tool
Q. Zinc Oxide (ZnO) 2. thermal barrier coating
R. Silicon Carbide (SiC) 3. actuator
S. Zirconia (ZrO2) 4. varistor
5. super conductor
(A) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-5 (B) P-3, Q-2, R-1, S-5
(C) P-2, Q-1, R-5, S-3 (D)P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2
Q.11 Match the terminologies given in Column Iwith theirrelations listed in Column II
Column I Column II
P. domain wall 1. superconductors
Q. Fick’s law 2. mechanical properties
R. Matthiessen’s rule 3. ferromagnetic materials
S. Hall-Petch relation 4. resistivity of impure metals
T. Meissner effect 5. diffusion
(A) P-1, Q-3, R-5, S-2, T-4 (B) P-3, Q-5, R-2, S-4, T-1
(C) P-3, Q- 5, R-4, S-2, T-1 (D) P-3, Q-4, R-3, S-2, T-4
Q.12 Match the microscopes listed in Column I with their principle of operation listed in Column II
Column I Column II
P. Scanning Electron Microscope (SEM) 1. van der Waals forces between atoms
Q. Transmission Electron Microscope 2. electrons to jump across a potential
(TEM) barrier
R. Scanning Tunnelling Microscope (STM) 3. diffraction of electrons
S. Atomic Force Microscope (AFM) 4. detection of secondary electrons
5. photo emission of electrons
(A) P-2, Q-5, R-3, S-1 (B)P-3, Q-4, R-5, S-2

(C) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1 (D)P-4, Q-3, R-5, S-2

Q.13 X-rays of unknown wavelength are diffracted by an FCC metal with a lattice parameter of 0.352
nm. The measured ‘2’ angle for the {200} peak is 61.08. Calculate the wavelength of the X-
ray used, in nm. ___________
Q.14 A metal with HCP crystal structure has lattice constants a = 0.30 nm and c = 0.56 nm. Determine
the volume of the unit cell of this metal, in nm3. _________
Q.15 The band gap of a semiconducting material used to make an LED is 1.43 eV. What will be the
minimum wavelength ofthe radiation emitted by this LED, in µm? __________
Q.16 For automatic control of household electric water heater a relay switch is activated by thermal
expansion of a brass rod of length 50 cm as shown in the schematic below. The distance
between the rod and the lever, x, is adjusted by moving the base of the rod. As the water gets
heated the rod expands and as soon as the rod touches the lever, the circuit is broken
disconnecting the heater from the power supply. Find the distance, x, in mm, to be set at water
temperature of 20oC such that the circuit is broken at 70oC. The coefficient of linear thermal
expansion of brass is 20 x 10-6 oC-1 ______________
230 V,
AC
x
Brass Rod

From tensile test of a particular alloy the following values were obtained. The material exhibits linear work
hardening as shown in the figure given below.
At Yield At Fracture
Stress, GPa 0.7 0.8
Strain, % 1 4
0.8
Stress, GPa
0.6
0.4
0.2
0
0 1 2 3 4 5
Strain, %
Q.17 If the cylindrical specimen had a dimension of diameter 10 mm and length 50 mm, find the length
of the specimen at the yield point, in mm. ___________
Q.18 Find the toughness of the material, in M J m-3. ____________

An isomorphous alloy system contains 47 wt% of A and 53 wt % of B and is at 1300 C. Referring to the
figure given below, answer the following:
1500
1400 Liquid
Temperature, oC
1300
1200
Solid
1100
1000
0 10 20 30 40 50 60 70 80 90 100
100% A Weight Percentage of B, % 100% B
Q.19 What is the weight percentage of A in solid phase at this temperature? ___________
Q.20 What weight percentage of this alloy is liquid? __________

A stress of 10 MPa is applied to an elastomer to generate a strain of 50%. The strain is held constant at this
value. After 40 days at 20OC, the stress decreases to 5 MPa.
Q.21 What is the relaxation time constant for this material? ___________
Q.22 What will be the stress after 60 days at 20OC? ______________
END OF SECTION - C

D :SOLID MECHANICS

Q.1 At a point in a body subjected to plane stress, the state of stress is as shown in the Figure. One of
the principal stresses is 180 MPa. Find the unknown shear stress τ (in MPa). __________
Q.2 A point in a body is subjected to a hydrostatic pressure of 100 MPa. Find the maximum shear
stress at this point in MPa. ___________
Q.3 A circular shaft of diameter 10 mm and length 3m is subjected to a torque of T = π N-m at a

location 2m away from the fixed end as shown in the Figure. Find out the angle of twist (in radians)
at the free end. Shear modulus of the material of the shaft is 10 GPa. ___________
2m 1m
Q.4 A rigid massless rod ABC is hinged at A and carries a point mass M (in kg) at C. Point B is
connected to a linear spring with spring constant k (in N/m) as shown in the figure. The length AB
and AC area and L, respectively. Neglecting the effect of gravity, the natural frequency of this
spring-mass system in rad/s is
C
M
L
k B
a

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Q.5 A two bar truss is shown in the Figure. The cross-sectional area and Young’s modulus of bar 1 are
0.02 m2 and 200GPa, respectively. The cross-sectional area and Young’s modulus of bar 2 are 0.01
m2and 80GPa, respectively. The force F applied on the truss is 2 N. Find out the stress developed in
bar 2 in Pa. ___________
2
1
0 0
30 60
Q.6 A spring balance reads 10 kg in a lift when the lift is stationary. When the lift starts moving with a
constant acceleration, the new reading is 12.3 kg. If the upward acceleration is considered positive,
what is the acceleration of the lift? Acceleration due to gravity may be taken as 10
m/s2downwards.______________
Q.7 A force F = 2 N is applied on a block of mass M = 0.5 kg as shown in the figure. The block is
constrained to move along the horizontal direction in a guideway. Find out the distance (in meters)
travelled by the block in 2 s starting from rest. Neglect any friction between the block and the
guideway. ____________
0
60
M

Q.8 A man of mass 50 kg is walking on a long wooden board of mass 200 kg (as shown in the Figure).
The wooden board is initially at rest on a frictionless ice surface. If the man walks with a velocityof
V =1 m/s in the positive x direction relative to the wooden board, find the velocity of the board in
m/s. Velocity is positive in the positive x direction. _____________
V
Wooden board
y
x Ice surface
Q.9 A rigid bar AB is hinged at B through a torsional spring with spring constant kt.. For small
rotations of the bar AB about B, the critical load Pcr is given by
kt
B

(A) (B) (C) (D)


Q.10 A disk of mass M= 14kg and radius 1 m is attached to a spring which has a stiffness k = 75 N/m and
an unstretched length of 1m. If the disk is released from rest in the position shown in the Figure and
the disk rolls without slipping, find its angular velocity (in rad/s) at the instant the center of mass is
displaced by 3 m. ______________
K
4m
3m
Q.11 A strain gauge is mounted on the outer surface of a thin cylindrical pressure vessel in the
circumferential direction. The mean diameter and thickness of the cylinder are 4.0 m and 20 mm,
respectively. Young’s modulus and Poisson’s ratio of the material of the cylinder are 200 GPa and
0.25, respectively. Find the pressure in MPa inside the cylindrical vessel when the strain gauge
indicates a strain of 7.0x 10-4. ____________
Q.12 A solid shaft of diameter 100 mm is rotating at a constant angular speed of (10/ π) rad/s. The shaft
carries three rigid pulleys A, B and C as shown in the Figure. Pulley B is connected to a motor
supplying 10kW power. Pulley B and C are connected to two pumps consuming 5kW each. Find
the maximum shear stress (in MPa) in the shaft due to torsion alone. __________
A B C

Q.13 A beam is fixed at the left end and supported by a spring at the other end. The length of the beam is

L and its flexural rigidity is EI. The spring constant of the spring is = . A vertical
downward load P is applied at the right end. The deflection of the point under the load P is
EI
L
k

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Q.14 Find the maximum bending moment (magnitude wise) in kN-m for the beam shown in the Figure.
______
40 kN
20 kN
B
A D
C
2.5 m 3m 2m

Q.15 A projectile is fired with a velocity V= 3√2 m/s from a point at height H = 0.8 m at an angle of 450
with respect to the horizontal direction as shown in the Figure. Find the horizontal distance S in
meters travelled by the projectile when it hits the ground. Take acceleration due to gravity as10 m/
s2. __________
v
o
45
Q.16 A particle P is moving on a circular path of radius r = 1m. The angular location of the particle is
measured as shown in the Figure. The motion of the particle is described by = 2 sin ( ) . Find the
magnitude of the total acceleration (in m/s2) of the particle at time t = π/3 seconds. _________

Arc of a circle
P
Y r
q
x

Common Data for Questions 17 and 18
A frame ABC is shown in the Figure. Members AB and BC both have a length of L, and Young’s modulus
E. Members AB and BC both have a square cross-section of side a. A load P is applied at point C as
shown in the figure.
P
B C
0
90
Q.17 Neglecting the axial compression of member AB, the deflection of point C in the direction of the
load is

(A) (B) (C) (D)

Q.18 The maximum bending stress in the frame is

(A) (B) (C) (D)
Common Data for Questions 19 and 20
At a point in an object subjected to plane stress conditions, the state of stress is as shown in the Figure.
40 M Pa
B 40 M Pa
o
100 M Pa 45 100 M Pa
A
40 M Pa
40 M Pa
Q.19 One of the principal stresses(in MPa) is

(A)40 (B) 80 (C) 120 (D) 140
Q.20 The normal stress on the plane AB (in MPa) is

(A) 30 (B) 70 (C) 100 (D) 110

Statement for linked answer questions 21 and 22
Two rods are joined together and the entire assembly is supported between two rigid walls, as shown in the
Figure. The cross-sectional area and Young’s modulus for both the rods are 0.01 m2 and 10 GPa, respectively.
The coefficients of thermal expansion for the two rods are α1= 4 × 10-6 /0C and α2 = 10-6 /0C, respectively. The
entire assembly is heated by 1000 C. Neglect the effect of Poisson’s ratio.
1 2
2m 1m
Q.21 The stress in rod 1 (in MPa) is
(A) -4.0 (B) -3.0 (C) -2.5 (D) -1.0
Q.22 Considering the displacement to the right as positive, the displacement (in mm) of the interface
between the two rods is
(A)-0.2 (B) -0.1 (C) 0.1 (D) 0.2
END OF SECTION - D

E:THERMODYNAMICS
Notation used:
p-pressure, V- volume, T-temperature, S- entropy, H- enthalpy, U- internal energy G- Gibbs free energy.
Specific properties are designated by lower case symbols.
Useful data:
Universal gas constant (R)= 8.314 J/mol K
Acceleration due to gravity = 9.81 m/s2
Molecular masses in kg/kmol: Mair = 29, Mnitrogen=28, Mwater=18, Mhelium=4
Ratio of ideal gas specific heats :ai=1.4
cpfor water = 4.186 kJ/kg K
Vapour pressure equation for water in the temperature range of5 to100 oC , with p in kPa and T in K
5190
ln( ) = 18.558 −
Q. 1 – Q. 9carry one mark each.

Q.1 The measured temperature of a system is 30oC.Its exact absolute temperature in K is
(A) 303.00 (B)303.10 (C) 303.15 (D) 303.16
Q.2 The fuel air mixture in a pertrol engine is ignited with a spark plug at the end of compression
stroke. This process
(A)increases the entropy of the fuel air mixture but decreases the entropy of the spark plug
(B)decreases the entropy of the fuel air mixture but increases the entropy of the spark plug
(C)decreases the entropy of the fuel air mixture and of the spark plug
(D)increases the entropy of the fuel air mixture and of the spark plug
Q.3 In the van der Waals equation of state given below:

( + )( − ) =
The constant a represents the effect of
(A)attractive forces between molecules
(B) repulsive forces between molecules
(C)deviation from molecules being spherical
(D)finite size of the molecule
Q.4 For a reversible isothermal expansion of an ideal gas from a state 1 to a state 2,
(A)s1=s2 (B) s1>s2 (C) s1<s2 (D)h1>h2
Q.5 For a pure substance the critical isotherm on the p-v plane exhibits
(A) a maximum (B) a minimum
(C) a point of inflection (D) a discontinuity
Q.6 For an ideal gas as a working fluid for a given heat input Q, the process that gives the maximum
work among the following four processes is
(A) isothermal (B) constant volume (C) constant pressure (D) isentropic

Q.7 An air standard Otto cycle has the following shape on a thermodynamic property plane.
The x and y coordinates, respectively, are

(A) v and p (B) s and v (C) v and T (D) s and p
Q.8 The specific volume of steam after expansion in a turbine is 12 m3/kg. At this pressure the saturated
liquid and saturated vapour specific volumes are 0.001 and 15.25 m3/kg respectively. What is the
dryness fraction to second decimal place accuracy? _________
Q.9 Which of the following processes, shown in the figure below, represents the throttling of an ideal
gas?
1 2
T
3
5 4
((A) 1to2 (B) 1to 3 (C) 1to 4 (D) 1to 5

Q.10 On a ln pvsh coordinate system, where ln p is the y-coordinate and h is the x coordinate, the slope of
a constant entropy line is
(A) 1/v (B) v (C) p/v (D) 1/(pv)
Q.11 Starting from the definition of Gibbs free energy function g=h-Ts, the Maxwell relation that can be
derived is
(A) = (B) = (C) = − (D) = −

Q.12 A thermodynamic cycle operates between one source at a temperature of 600 K, another source at
a temperature of 300 K and a sink at a temperature T as shown in the figure below
600 K
1 kJ
1 kJ
300 K
If the First and Second laws of thermodynamics are not violated, what should be the value of T in
K? _____________
Q.13 A closed system containing an ideal gas undergoes a cycle as shown in the figure shown below. For the
process1-2, which one of the following statements is true?
2 3
2p
p 1
v/2 v
(A) Heat added = (B) Heat rejected =
(C) Heat added = (D) Heat rejected =

Q.14 A well-insulated rigid hot water tank receives steady flow of water from two sources as shown in
the figure below
1 kg/ s 5 kg/ s
at 80 oC at 50 oC
Back-up
heater
at 60 oC
There is no accumulation of water in the tank. A back-up heater is provided to ensure a constant
outflow temperature of water at 60 oC from the tank under steady state. What is the required
capacity of the back-up heater to the nearest kW? __________
Q.15 1 kg of air in an insulated rigid tank of volume 1 m3is churned with a friction-less fan (see figure
below) of 600 W capacity for 10 minutes. The fan efficiency is 100 %. Treating air as an ideal gas
and neglecting kinetic and potential energy changes, what is the increase of pressure, to the nearest
kPa? _________
600 W
Q.16 The isothermal compressibility of a liquid is 5 × 10-6 /kPa. If it is compressed at constant

temperature from 5000 to 10000kPa, what is the ratio of final volume to initial volume, to second
decimal place accuracy? ____________

At a location where the atmospheric pressure is 98 kPa and the ambient temperature is 30oC, the humidity
ratio is 0.01 kg/kg of dry air. A high pressure front moves over the location which changes only the
atmospheric pressure to 102kPa,while the humidity ratio remains same.
Q.17 What is the partial pressure of water vapour in kPa to the first decimal place accuracy before the
high pressure front moves in? ____________
Q.18 What is the relative humidity of air under the influence of high pressure front to integer precision in %? _____

A rigid insulated cylinder is divided into two chambers A and B by a thin rigid insulating barrier as
shown in the figure below
Rigid insulating
barrier
Specific Heat Data:
For He
A B cp= 5181 J/kg.K
(0.5 kg N2+0.5 kg He) (1 kg pure N2)
cv= 3102 J/kg.K
For N2
300 K 400 K
cp= 1039 J/kg.K
p 2p
cv= 742 J/kg.K
Initially, chamber A contains a mixture of 0.5 kg nitrogen and 0.5 kg helium at 300 K while chamber B
contains 1 kg of pure nitrogen at 400 K. The pressure in chamber B is twice that in chamber A. The gases and
gas mixtures are assumed to be ideal.
Q.19 What is the ratio of the volumes of chambers A and B, i.e. VA/VB, to first decimal place accuracy?
________
Q.20 If the barrier is removed and the gases are allowed to mix and reach thermodynamic equilibrium,
what is the final temperature of the mixture, to the nearest K? ________

A combined vapour compression-cum-Brayton cycle is shown below
3 2 5
ln
p
1
4
6
241.7 404. 417.2 518. 538.

h (kJ/kg)
1-2: Isentropic compression, 5-6: isentropic expansion.

The refrigeration system has a cooling capacity of 30 kW and the turbine generates a power of 30 kW.
Q.21 What is the mass flow rate of the working fluid through the turbine, in kg/s, to first decimal place
accuracy? __________
Q.22 What is the power required to drive the compressor, to the nearest kW? ________
END OF SECTION - E

F: POLYMER SCIENCE AND ENGINEERING

Q.1 In free radical polymerization, one of the following techniques permits simultaneous increase in
rate of polymerization and polymer molecular weight.
(A) Solution polymerization.
(B) Suspension polymerization.
(C) Bulk polymerization.
(D) Emulsion polymerization.
Q.2 The shear modulus, G, of plastic is related to the elastic modulus, E, and the Poisson ratio, , as
(A) = 2( 1 − ) (B) = 2( 1 + )
(C) = 2( 1 + ) (D) = (1 + )
Q.3 LLDPE is obtained by

(A) Ziegler-Natta polymerization of ethylene.
(B) free-Radical polymerization of ethylene.
(C) free-Radical polymerization of ethylene and alpha-olefins.
(D) Ziegler-Natta copolymerization of ethylene and alpha-olefins.
Q.4 A hindered phenol is added to a polyolefin

(A) to increase ozone resistance (B) to increase foamability
(C) to increase oxidation resistance (D) to increase crosslinkability
Q.5 Stretching of rubber leads to

(A) decrease in alignment of polymer chains
(B) increase in alignment of polymer chains
(C) no change in alignment of polymer chains
(D) decrease in strength of rubber
Q.6 In a cone and plate viscometer, the rate of strain is related to the speed of rotation of the cone,
(radian/second), and the angle between the cone and the plate, (radian), by the following relation
(A)  (B)  cos (C) (D)
Q.7 The tensile breaking strength of polycarbonate (I), low density polyethylene (II), polystyrene (III)
and polypropylene (IV) can be arranged as
(A) IV > II > I > III (B) I > II > IV > III (C) I > III > IV > II (D) III > I > II > IV
Q.8 High molecular weight polymers could be obtained even at low monomer conversion in case of
(A) Step growth polymerization (B) Living polymerization
(C) Chain growth polymerization (D) Solid state polymerization
Q.9 A reinforced polymer composite is made by the incorporation of

(A) elastomers into the polymer.
(B) fibers into the polymer.
(C) plasticizers into the polymer.
(D) gaseous additives into the polymer.

Q.10 Match the following for free-radical copolymerization of two monomers with reactivity ratios, r1
and r2.
Reactivity Ratios Copolymer Nature
P. r1 = r2 = 0 1. Random copolymer
Q. r1 = r2 = 1 2. Alternate copolymer
R. r1 >1, r2 > 1 3. Block copolymer
S. 0 < r1r2 < 1 4. Random-Block copolymer
(A) P-2; Q-1; R-3; S-4 (B) P-3; Q-1; R-2; S-4
(C) P-2; Q-4; R-3; S-1 (D) P-2; Q-3; R-1; S-4
Q.11 The relative viscosity of a 1% solution (weight/volume) of a given polymer was found to be 1.1.
The inherent viscosity of this polymer will be
(A) 0.065 dl/g (B) 0.075 dl/g (C) 0.085 dl/g (D) 0.095 dl/g
Q.12 Match the following in case of step-growth polymerization, where A reacts only with B, and B
B
reacts only with A (Note: A A is expressed as A2, and A is expressed as AB2).
B
Monomers Polymer
P. A2 + AB3 1. Hyperbranched Polymer
Q. AB2 2. Crosslinked Polymer
R. AB + B3 3. Star Polymer
S. A2 + B2 4. Linear Polymer
(A) P-2; Q-3; R-1; S-4 (B) P-2; Q-1; R-3; S-4
(C) P-1; Q-2; R-3; S-4 (D) P-2; Q-4; R-1; S-3
Q.13 Match each of the following additives for plastics with its function
Additive Function
P. α-Cellulose 1. Flame retarder
Q. Zinc chromate 2. Plasticizer extender
R. Alumina trihydrate 3. Organic fibrous filler
S. Chlorinated paraffin wax 4. Colorant
(A) P-1; Q-2; R-3; S-4 (B) P-2; Q-3; R-4; S-1
(C) P-3; Q-4; R-1; S-2 (D) P-4; Q-1; R-2; S-3
Q.14 The length of a glass fiber reinforced polymer increased by 0.03mm, from its initial length of
100mm, when the temperature was changed from –30oC to +30oC. The coefficient of linear thermal
expansion is
(A) 1.03 x 10-5 oC-1 (B) 9.82 x 10-6 oC-1 (C) 5.00 x 10-6 oC-1 (D) 14.4 x 10-5 oC-1
Q.15 A 40mm x 40mm square polymer composite sample with 5mm thickness (heat transfer distance)
exhibited a heat flow rate of 60W, when the temperatures of the warm and cold surfaces were 90oC
and 25oC respectively. The thermal conductivity of the sample in W.m-1.K-1is
(A) 5.67 (B) 15.3 (C) 2.88 (D) 0.667
Q.16 An extruder is supplied with 40 kW of power. The mass flow rate of a polymer through the
extruder is 240 kg h-1 and the specific heat capacity of the polymer is 4 kJ kg-1 K-1. The maximum
possible temperature rise in the polymer is
(A) 150 K (B) 100 K (C) 600 K (D) Zero


For a given free-radical polymerization, the only mode of termination is the bimolecular termination and
there is no chain transfer. The final polymer produced was analyzed to contain an average of 1.60 initiator
fragments per polymer chain.
Q.17 Percentage of final polymer chains containing one initiator fragment per chain is
(A) 40 % (B) 50 % (C) 60 % (D) 70 %
Q.18 Percentage of polymer radicals terminated by coupling is

(A) 65 % (B) 75 % (C) 85 % (D) 95 %
For the synthesis of polyester, 1.5 mole of pentaerythritol (tetra-ol) was reacted with 1.0 mole of a
tricarboxylic acid.
Q.19 The extent of reaction when the number average degree of polymerization of the reaction mixture
approaches infinity is
(A) 80.33% (B) 83.33% (C) 84.33% (D) 86.33%
Q.20 The number average degree of polymerization of the reaction mixture when the polymerization was
stopped at 80% conversion, is
(A) 1000 (B) 100 (C) 50 (D) 25

A viscoelastic fluid is modeled as a spring and two dashpots, all connected in series. The spring has elastic
modulus G and the fluids in two dashpots have viscosities and .
Q.21 The constitutive equation (relation between stress and strain in which overdot represents the
time derivative) for the fluid is:
(A) = + ( ) ̇ (B) = + ( − ) ̇
̇ ̇
(C) ̇ = + + (D) ̇ = +
Q.22 For a periodic stress = , the strain is given by
(A) = + + (B) = − +
(C) = [ + ( ) ] (D) = [ −( ) ]
END OF SECTION - F

G:FOOD TECHNOLOGY

Q.1 Kawashiorkor disease is caused due to the deficiency of
(A) lysine (B) unsaturated fatty acids
(C) vitamin K (D) protein
Q.2 Which of the following statements is TRUE in case of oxidative rancidity of vegetable oils and
fats?
(A) It is caused by the reaction of saturated fatty acids and oxygen
(B) It involves polymerization of fatty acids
(C) It is caused by the reaction of unsaturated fatty acids with oxygen
(D) It is caused by oxidative enzymes
Q.3 The food borne disease, Q fever is caused by the organism,

(A) Clostridium perfringens (B) Coxiella burnetti
(C) Bacillus cereus (D) Staphylococcus aureus
Q.4 The primary bacterial spoilage of poultry meat at low temperature, with characteristic sliminess at
outer surface, is caused by
(A) Pseudomonas spp. (B) Aspergillus spp.
(C) Bacillus spp. (D) Candida spp.
Q.5 The weight gain (in gram) per gram protein consumed is called
(A) Net Protein Ratio (NPR) (B) Biological Value (BV)
(C) Protein Efficiency Ratio (PER) (D) Chemical Score (CS)
Q.6 Which of the following carbohydrates is NOT classified as dietary fibre?

(A) Agar (B) Pectin
(C) Sodium alginate (D) Tapioca starch
Q.7 In the extruder barrel, the compression is achieved by back pressure created by the die and by
(A) increasing pitch and decreasing diameter of the screw
(B) using the tapered barrel with constant pitch
(C) increase in the clearance between barrel surface and screw
(D) opening of the die
Q.8 The brown colour of bread crust during baking is due to Maillard reaction between
(A) aldehyde groups of sugars and amino groups of proteins
(B) aldehyde groups of sugars and vitamins
(C) aldehyde groups of sugars and salt
(D) starch and yeast
Q.9 Blanching influences vegetable tissues in terms of

(A) enzymes production
(B) alteration of cytoplasmic membrane
(C) stabilization of cytoplasmic proteins
(D) stabilization of nuclear proteins

Q.10 Match the toxicants of plant foods in Group I with their main plant source given in Group II.
Group I Group II
P) Gossypol 1) Khesari Dahl (Lathyrus sativus)
Q) Vicine 2) Cotton seeds
R) Glucosinolates 3) Fava beans
S) BOAA (beta-N- Oxalyl Amino L-Alanine) 4) Rapeseeds
(A) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1 (B) P-2, Q-4, R-3, S-1
(C) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4 (D) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2
Q.11 Match the products in Group I with the enzymes used for their preparation given in Group II.
Group I Group II
P) Aspartame 1) Lipase
Q) Cocoa butter substitute 2) Glucose isomerase
R) High fructose corn syrup 3) Thermolysin
S) Lactose free milk 4) Invertase
5) Beta galactosidase
(A) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3 (B) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-5
(C) P-1, Q-3, R-2, S-4 (D) P-1, Q-2, R-4, S-5
Q.12 Match the food items in Group I with the type of colloidal dispersion given in Group II.
Group I Group II
P) Mayonnaise 1) Sol
Q) Tomato ketchup 2) Emulsion
R) Cake 3) Gel
S) Curd 4) Solid foam
(A) P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3 (B) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4
(C) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1 (D) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3
Q.13 [a] Assertion: In the presence of sucrose, the temperature and time for gelatinization of starch
increases .
[r] Reason: Sucrose, due to its hygroscopic nature, competes with starch for water needed for
gelatinization.
(A) Both [a] and [r] are true and [r] is the correct reason for [a]
(B) Both [a] and [r] are true but [r] is not the correct reason for [a]
(C) Both [a] and [r] are false
(D) [a] is true but [r] is false
Q.14 Thermal death of viable spores of Bacillus subtilis in a food sample follows a first order kinetics
with a specific death rate constant of 0.23 min-1 at 100 °C. The time (in minutes) required to kill
99% of spores in the food sample at 100 °C will be
(A) 10 (B) 20 (C) 23 (D) 60
Q.15 How much skim milk (in kg) containing 0.1% fat should be added to 500 kg of cream containing
50% fat to produce standardized cream containing 36% fat?.
(A) 140 (B) 165 (C) 195 (D) 210
Q.16 Which of the following statements is NOT CORRECT in relation to muscle proteins ?
(A) Actin and myosin interact to form actomyosin which is responsible for muscle contraction
(B) Collagen contributes to the toughness of muscles due to its abundant presence
(C) Elastin, a constituent of ligaments, is tougher than collagen
(D) Actomyosin is not the main state of actin and myosin in post-mortem muscles

Common Data for Questions 17 and 18: A cold storage plant is used for storing 50 tonnes of apples in
perforated plastic crates. During the storage, apples are cooled down from 28°C to storage temperature of
2°C. (Specific heat of the apple = 0.874 kCal kg-1 °C-1)
Q.17 If the required cooling is attained in 16 hours, the refrigeration plant capacity (in Tons) is
(A) 19 (B) 24 (C) 29 (D) 32
Q.18 If the cooling is to be achieved in 8 hours, the power required (in Horse Power) to operate the plant
having a Coefficient of Performance (COP) of 2.5 will be
(A) 47 (B) 65 (C) 89 (D) 96
Common Data for Questions 19 and 20: An actively growing culture of Acetobacter aceti is added to the
vigorously aerated fermented fruit juice medium containing 10 g l-1 ethanol to produce vinegar. After some
time, the ethanol concentration in the medium is 0.8 g l-1 and acetic acid produced is 8.4 g l-1.
Q.19 What is the conversion efficiency of the process with respect to theoretical yield?
(A) 30 (B) 50 (C) 70 (D) 90
Q.20 The concentration of fermentable sugars (g l-1) required in the fruit juice to produce 10 g l-1 ethanol,
based on 90% fermentation efficiency is
(A) 20.0 (B) 21.7 (C) 22.8 (D) 25.1

Statement for Linked Answer Questions 21 and 22: An enzyme catalyzed reaction (following Michaelis-
Menten kinetics) exhibits maximum reaction velocity (Vm) of 75 nmol l-1 min-1. The enzyme at a substrate
concentration of 1.0x10-4 M shows the initial reaction velocity of 60 nmol l-1min-1.
Q.21 The Km value of the enzyme in molar concentration (M) is
(A) 2.5 x 10-5 (B) 5.0 x 10-5

(C) 2.5 x 10-4 (D) 5.0 x 10-4
Q.22 If the enzyme concentration for the reaction is doubled at a substrate concentration of 5.0 x 10-5 M,
the initial reaction velocity in nmol l-1 min-1 will be
(A) 37.5 (B) 50 (C) 60 (D) 100

1 B 5 B 9 B
2 C 6 C 10 C
3 C 7 C
4 D 8 C

1 B 5 B 9 C
2 D 6 D 10 D
3 C 7 A 11 B
4 C 8 A

1 B 9 C 17 -5
2 C 10 A 18 0.025
3 20 11 C 19 C
4 D 12 D 20 D
5 A 13 B 21 B
6 A 14 25 22 A
7 B 15 0.03
8 D 16 67 to 67.3

1 A 9 A 17 50 to 51
2 D 10 D 18 22 to 28
3 C 11 C 19 41 to 43
4 B 12 C 20 30 to 33
5 D 13 0.178 to 0.18 21 Marks to All
6 B 14 0.04 to 0.045 22 Marks to All
7 B 15 0.85 to 0.89
8 A 16 0.4 to 0.6
_______________________________________________________________
1 C 9 A 17 1.5 to 1.7
2 D 10 D 18 36 to 40
3 A 11 D 19 5.7 to 6.3
4 C 12 399 to 401 20 325 to 330
5 C 13 B 21 1.4 to 1.6
6 A 14 120 to 130 22 20.5 to 22.5
7 B 15 140 to 150
8 0.78 to 0.8 16 0.97 to 0.98

1 D 9 B 17 A
2 C 10 A 18 B
3 D 11 D 19 B
4 C 12 Marks to All 20 D
5 B 13 C 21 C
6 D 14 C 22 B
7 C 15 C
8 C 16 A

1 D 9 B 17 B
2 Marks to All 10 A 18 C
3 B 11 B 19 C
4 A 12 D 20 B
5 C 13 A 21 A
6 D 14 B 22 D
7 B 15 C
8 A 16 D
______________________________________________________________
1 B 9 B 17 A
2 A 10 C 18 D
3 C 11 C 19 D
4 B 12 A 20 A
5 D 13 C 21 B
6 D 14 C 22 A
7 A 15 B
8 C 16 B
______________________________________________________________
GATE 2012 Solved paper
XE : ENGINEERING SCIENCES
Duration: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 100
Read the following instructions carefully.
1. Do not open the seal of the Question Booklet until you are asked to do so by the invigilator.
2. Take out the Optical Response Sheet (ORS) from this Question Booklet without breaking the seal
and read the instructions printed on the ORS carefully.
3. On the right half of the ORS, using ONLY a black ink ball point pen, (i) darken the bubble
corresponding to your test paper code and the appropriate bubble under each digit of your registration
number and (ii) write your registration number, your name and name of the examination centre and
put your signature at the specified location.
4. This Question Booklet contains 36 pages including blank pages for rough work. After you are
permitted to open the seal, please check all pages and report discrepancies, if any, to the invigilator.
5. There are a total of 65 questions carrying 100 marks. All these questions are of objective type. Each
question has only one correct answer. Questions must be answered on the left hand side of the ORS
by darkening the appropriate bubble (marked A, B, C, D) using ONLY a black ink ball point pen
against the question number. For each question darken the bubble of the correct answer. More
than one answer bubbled against a question will be treated as an incorrect response.
6. Since bubbles darkened by the black ink ball point pen cannot be erased, candidates should darken
the bubbles in the ORS very carefully.
7. This Question Booklet contains Eight sections: GA (General Aptitude), A (Engineering Mathematics),
B (Fluid Mechanics), C (Materials Science), D (Solid Mechanics), E (Thermodynamics), F (Polymer
Science & Engineering) and G (Food Technology).
8. Section GA (General Aptitude) and Section A (Engineering Mathematics) are compulsory. Attempt
any two optional sections B through G. Using a black ink ball point pen, mark the sections you have
chosen by darkening the appropriate bubbles provided on the left hand side of the ORS. Also, write
the codes of the optional sections in the boxes provided. In case the candidate does not bubble
section codes corresponding to Optional Section-1 or Optional Section-2 or both, the corresponding
sections will NOT be evaluated.
9. Questions Q.1 – Q.10 belong to Section GA (General Aptitude) and carry a total of 15 marks.
Questions Q.1 – Q.5 carry 1 mark each, and questions Q.6 – Q.10 carry 2 marks each.
10. There are 11 questions carrying 15 marks in Section A (Engineering Mathematics), which is
compulsory. Questions Q.1–Q.7 carry 1 mark each and questions Q.8–Q.11 carry 2 marks each.
11. Each of the other sections (Sections B through G) contains 22 questions carrying 35 marks. Questions
Q.1–Q.9 carry 1 mark each and questions Q.10–Q.22 carry 2 marks each. The 2 marks questions
include two pairs of common data questions and one pair of linked answer questions. The answer to
the second question of the linked answer questions depends on the answer to the first question of the
pair. If the first question in the linked pair is wrongly answered or is unattempted, then the answer to
the second question in the pair will not be evaluated.
12. Unattempted questions will result in zero mark and wrong answers will result in NEGATIVE marks.
For all 1 mark questions, ̃ mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. For all 2 marks questions,
̄ mark will be deducted for each wrong answer. However, in the case of the linked answer question
pair, there will be negative marks only for wrong answer to the first question and no negative marks
for wrong answer to the second question.
13. Calculator is allowed whereas charts, graph sheets or tables are NOT allowed in the examination hall.
14. Before the start of the examination, write your name and registration number in the space provided
below using a black ink ball point pen.
Name
Registration Number XE

General Aptitude (GA) Questions (Compulsory)

Q.1 One of the parts (A, B, C, D) in the sentence given below contains an ERROR. Which one of the
following is INCORRECT?
I requested that he should be given the driving test today instead of tomorrow.
(A) requested that
(B) should be given
(C) the driving test
(D) instead of tomorrow
Q.2 Which one of the following options is the closest in meaning to the word given below?
Latitude
(A) Eligibility (B) Freedom (C) Coercion (D) Meticulousness
Q.3 Choose the most appropriate word from the options given below to complete the following
sentence:
Given the seriousness of the situation that he had to face, his ___ was impressive.
(A) beggary (B) nomenclature (C) jealousy (D) nonchalance
Q.4 Choose the most appropriate alternative from the options given below to complete the following
sentence:
If the tired soldier wanted to lie down, he ___ the mattress out on the balcony.
(A) should take
(B) shall take
(C) should have taken
(D) will have taken
Q.5 If (1.001)1259 = 3.52 and (1.001)2062 = 7.85, then (1.001)3321 =

(A) 2.23 (B) 4.33 (C) 11.37 (D) 27.64

Q.6 A and B are friends. They decide to meet between 1 PM and 2 PM on a given day. There is a
condition that whoever arrives first will not wait for the other for more than 15 minutes. The
probability that they will meet on that day is
(A) 1/4 (B) 1/16 (C) 7/16 (D) 9/16

Q.7 The data given in the following table summarizes the monthly budget of an average household.
Category Amount (Rs.)

Food 4000
Clothing 1200
Rent 2000
Savings 1500
Other expenses 1800
The approximate percentage of the monthly budget NOT spent on savings is

(A) 10% (B) 14% (C) 81% (D) 86%
Q.8 There are eight bags of rice looking alike, seven of which have equal weight and one is slightly
heavier. The weighing balance is of unlimited capacity. Using this balance, the minimum number
of weighings required to identify the heavier bag is
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 8
Q.9 Raju has 14 currency notes in his pocket consisting of only Rs. 20 notes and Rs. 10 notes. The total
money value of the notes is Rs. 230. The number of Rs. 10 notes that Raju has is
(A) 5 (B) 6 (C) 9 (D) 10
Q.10 One of the legacies of the Roman legions was discipline. In the legions, military law prevailed
and discipline was brutal. Discipline on the battlefield kept units obedient, intact and fighting,
even when the odds and conditions were against them.
Which one of the following statements best sums up the meaning of the above passage?
(A) Thorough regimentation was the main reason for the efficiency of the Roman legions even in
adverse circumstances.
(B) The legions were treated inhumanly as if the men were animals.
(C) Discipline was the armies’ inheritance from their seniors.
(D) The harsh discipline to which the legions were subjected to led to the odds and conditions being
against them.

A : ENGINEERING MATHEMATICS (Compulsory)

1 4 5
Q.1 For the matrix M  0 2 6 , consider the following statements:
 
0 0 3
4 4
P: 3 is an eigenvalue of M. Q: 1  is an eigenvector of M. R:  2  is an eigenvector of M.
   
 0   0 
Which of the above statements are TRUE?
(A) P and Q, but not R (B) Q and R, but not P
(C) P and R, but not Q (D) P, Q, and R
1
Q.2 Taylor series of f ( x )  about x  0 is given as TS  1  x  x 2  x 3   . This series can
1 x f
be used to evaluate f (x ) for
(A) x  1 (B) x  1 (C) x  1 (D)  1  x  1
Q.3 Let f (u, v)  u ln(v) and F ( x, y)  f (u( x, y), v( x, y)) , where u  x / y and v  x  y . Then
F / y is
x x x u
(A)  ln ( x  y )  (B)  ln v 
y 2
y ( x  y) y 2
v
x u x x
(C) 2 ln v  (D) 2 ln v 
y v y yv
Q.4 Consider two functions f ( z )  z and g ( z )  z (conjugate of z). Using Cauchy-Riemann

conditions, choose the correct answer
(A) Both f and g are analytic (B) f is analytic but g is not analytic
(C) g is analytic but f is not analytic (D) Neither f nor g is analytic
Q.5 For f  x 4  5 xy 2 , the direction of maximum increase of f ( x, y ) at the point (2, 2) is along
(A) 3iˆ  10 ˆj (B) 12iˆ  40 ˆj (C) 3iˆ  10 ˆj (D) 12iˆ  40 ˆj
Q.6 Suppose 50% of the population of a village like oranges, 70% of the population like apples, and
40% like both. If a person is picked at random who likes at least one of these fruits, what is the
probability that the person likes oranges?
(A) 1/8 (B) 5/12 (C) 1/2 (D) 5/8

Q.7 For the solution of 2u  0 , the domain and boundary conditions are shown below.
y u  20
u  10
2u  0 u  30
u  40 x
Which of the following statements is TRUE?
(A) The solution cannot be obtained using separation of variables because the governing equation
is non-separable.
(B) The solution cannot be obtained using separation of variables because all the boundary values
are non-zero.
(C) The solution cannot be obtained using separation of variables because not all the boundaries
are along constant coordinate lines.
(D) The solution can be obtained by separation of variables.
Q.8 If f ( x)  x sin( x) and g ( x)  x sin( x) , then
(A) g ( x)  f ( x)
(B) g ( x) is an even function
(C) The x-coordinates corresponding to the various local maxima are identical for both f ( x) and
g ( x)
(D) g ( x) is differentiable at x  0
Q.9
d4y d3y d2y dy
The general solution of
4
2 3
2 2
2  y  0 is
dx dx dx dx
(A) c1e x  c2 xe x  c3 cosh( x)  c4 sinh( x) (B) c1e x  c2e x  c3eix  c4eix

(C) c1e x  c2 xe x  c3 cos( x)  c4 sin( x) (D) c1e x  c2 xe x  c3eix  c4eix
Evaluation of  e iˆ  3 y ˆj  z e x kˆ  ˆ dA over a surface S : x 2  y 2  z 2  1 , using Gauss

x
Q.10 n
S
divergence theorem, gives
(A) 0 (B) 4π (C) 4π / 3 (D) 12π
4
Q.11 The exact solution of the integral ( x 2  4) dx is denoted by I E . The same integral evaluated

0
numerically by the trapezoidal rule and the Simpson’s 1/3 rule are denoted by IT and I S ,
respectively. The subinterval used in the numerical methods is h  2 . Then
(A) I E  I S  IT (B) I E  I S  IT (C) I E  I S  IT (D) I E  I S  IT
END OF SECTION - A

B : FLUID MECHANICS
Q.1 In a two-dimensional flow field, the velocities in the x- and y- directions are u and v, respectively.
The shear stress for a Newtonian fluid having dynamic viscosity µ is given by
 v u  v u  v u 
(A)     (B) 2  (C) 2  (D)    
 x y  y x  x y 
Q.2 In a potential flow, the superposition of the stream functions of a uniform flow and a line source
gives rise to a dividing streamline representing
(A) Rankine’s half-body (B) infinite circular cylinder
(C) infinite rotating circular cylinder (D) infinite elliptical cylinder
Q.3 Given that V, L and g are the characteristic velocity, characteristic length and acceleration due to
V
gravity, respectively, the expression represents
Lg
(A) Weber number (B) Euler number (C) Cavitation number (D) Froude number
Q.4 Match the devices in Column I with the characteristics in Column II.
Column I Column II
P. orifice meter 1. high head loss and low cost
Q. venturi meter 2. high head loss and high cost
3. low head loss and high cost
4. low head loss and low cost
(A) P − 2; Q − 4 (B) P − 1; Q − 2 (C) P − 3; Q − 1 (D) P − 1; Q − 3
Q.5 Identify the visualization method that shows a PATHLINE in an unsteady flow, assuming that the
camera covers the required field of view.
(A) A dye is continuously injected and a snap shot is taken
(B) A dye is continuously injected and a long-exposure picture is taken
(C) A blob (or drop) of dye is injected and a snap shot is taken
(D) A blob (or drop) of dye is injected and a long-exposure picture is taken
Q.6 In the case of a fully developed flow through a pipe, the shear stress at the centerline is
(A) a function of the axial distance (B) a function of the centerline velocity
(C) zero (D) infinite
Q.7 The velocity in a one-dimensional unsteady flow is given by (x2 − t), where x is the position and t is
the time. The total acceleration at any x and t is
(A) −1 + x t + x3 (B) −1 + x t + 2 x3 (C) −1 − x t − x3 (D) −1 − 2 x t + 2 x3
Q.8 If  is the stream function, the Laplace’s equation  2  0 is true when the flow is
(A) incompressible (B) incompressible and irrotational

(C) irrotational (D) compressible
Q.9 A fully developed laminar flow is taking place through a pipe. If the flow velocity is doubled
maintaining the flow laminar, the pressure loss would be
(A) halved (B) unaltered (C) doubled (D) trebled


Q.10 In the following equations, u and v are the velocities in the x- and y- directions, respectively and t is
time. The flow field that CANNOT be termed as incompressible is
(A) u = x3 + x y 2 , v = y 3 + y x 2 (B) u = 10 xt , v =  10 yt
(C) u =  y /   , v = 0   constant  (D) u = 2 y, v = 2 x

1/7
Q.11 A U-tube mercury (Hg) manometer as shown below is employed to measure the pressure of an
oil-filled vessel. The densities of Hg and oil are 13600 kg/m3 and 800 kg/m3, respectively.
The gravitational acceleration may be taken as 10 m/s2. The gauge pressure (in Pa) at point A when
h1 = 0.5 m and h2 = 0.9 m, is approximately
Atmosphere
Hg
h2
h1
(A) 118.4 103 (B) 118.4 (C) 11.84 (D) 1.184
Q.12 Water is supplied to a tank at the rate of 0.02 m3/s, as shown in the figure below. The cross-
sectional area of the tank is 1 m2 and the inner diameter of the outlet pipe is 60 mm. At a time when
the water level in the tank is increasing at the rate of 5 mm/s, the average velocity (in m/s) of water
in the outlet pipe is approximately
Water supply
Tank
water
level
Outlet
pipe
(A) 0.005 (B) 0.06 (C) 5.3 (D) 20

Q.13 The water level in a gas-pressurized tank with a large cross-sectional area is maintained constant as
shown in the figure below. The water level in the tank is 4.2 m above the pipe centerline as
indicated in the figure. The gas pressure is 130 kPa. The atmospheric pressure, gravitational
acceleration and density of water may be taken as 100 kPa, 10 m/s2 and 1000 kg/m3, respectively.
Neglecting losses, the maximum velocity (in m/s) of water at any location in the horizontal portion
of the delivery pipe for the pressure NOT to drop below atmospheric pressure, is
(A) 1.3 (B) 4.2 (C) 10 (D) 12
Q.14 The figure given below shows typical non-dimensional velocity profiles for fully developed laminar
flow between two infinitely long parallel plates separated by a distance a along y-direction. The
upper plate is moving with a constant velocity U in the x-direction and the lower plate is stationary.
1
II
y
a
III I
0
-3 -2 -1 0 1 2 3
u/U
Match the non-dimensional velocity profiles in Column I with the pressure gradients in Column II.
Column I Column II
p
P. profile I 1. 0
x
p
Q. profile II 2. 0
x
p
R. profile III 3. 0
x
(A) P − 2; Q − 3; R − 1 (B) P − 3; Q − 2; R − 1
(C) P − 3; Q − 1; R − 2 (D) P − 1; Q − 2; R − 3

Q.15 Air flows over a spherical storage vessel of diameter 4 m at a speed of 1 m/s. To find the drag force
on the vessel, a test run is to be carried out in water using a sphere of diameter 100 mm. The
density and dynamic viscosity of air are 1.2 kg/m3 and 1.8 ×10-5 Pa.s, respectively. The density and
dynamic viscosity of water are 1000 kg/m3 and 10-3 Pa.s, respectively. The drag force on the model
is 4 N under dynamically similar conditions. The drag force (in N) on the prototype is
approximately
(A) 0.25 (B) 0.93 (C) 1.08 (D) 4
Q.16 The velocity of an air stream is 20 m/s. The densities of mercury and air are 13600 kg/m3 and
1.2 kg/m3, respectively. The gravitational acceleration may be taken as 10 m/s 2. When a Pitot-static
tube is placed in the stream, assuming the flow to be incompressible and frictionless, the difference
between the stagnation and static pressure in the flow field (in mm Hg) would approximately be
(A) 1760 (B) 1.76 (C) 0.57 (D) 0.57 × 10–5
A vessel containing water (density 1000 kg/m3) and oil (density 800 kg/m3), pressurized by gas, is shown
in the figure below. Assume that the gravitational acceleration is 10 m/s2.
Gas (2 bar)
Gate
Water
Q.17 The pressure (in bar) exerted on the bottom wall inside the vessel is approximately
(A) 0.238 (B) 2.38 (C) 23.8 (D) 238
Q.18 The gate is 1 m wide perpendicular to the plane of the paper. The force (in N) exerted on the gate is
approximately
(A) 2.23 ×103 (B) 2.23 ×104 (C) 2.23 ×105 (D) 2.23 ×106

A boat is propelled in still water at a velocity of 5 m/s by taking water at the rate of 1 m3/s from the aft side
and discharging it through the stern using a pump, as shown in the figure below. The velocity of the
discharge jet relative to the boat is 9 m/s. The effect of pressure at the intake and discharge can be
neglected. The density of water may be taken as 1000 kg/m3.
Q.19 The power (in kW) required to propel the boat is
(A) 10 (B) 20 (C) 50 (D) 90
Q.20 The total kinetic energy imparted to the water per second (in kW) by the pump is
(A) 10 (B) 25 (C) 28 (D) 81

The hydrodynamic boundary layer over a flat plate is shown in the figure below. The velocity in the
x-direction is approximated as u  a  by  cy 2 , where a, b and c are constants. U is the free stream
velocity and  is the boundary-layer thickness at any point x on the plate.
U y
 (x)
Q.21 The dimensionless velocity profile is
2 2
u  y  y u  y  y
(A)  2     (B)  2    
U     U    
2 2
u  y  y u  y  y
(C)  1.5    0.5   (D)  1.5    0.5  
U     U    
Q.22 The displacement thickness (in mm) when  = 6 mm, is

(A) 2.25 (B) 2 (C) −2 (D) −2.25
END OF SECTION - B

C : MATERIALS SCIENCE
Useful data
Boltzmann’s constant : 1.38  10–23 J K–1

Charge on an electron : 1.602  10–19 C
Gas Constant : 8.314 J mol–1 K–1
Electron rest mass : 9.1  10–31 kg
Permittivity of vacuum (o) : 8.854  10–12 F m–1
Bohr Magneton : 9.274  10–24 A/m2

Q.1 Which of the following is NOT a Bravais lattice?
(A) Simple tetragonal
(B) Body centred tetragonal
(C) Base centred orthorhombic
(D) Face centred tetragonal
Q.2 A Schottky defect in an ionic crystal is a stochiometric defect of
(A) Cation vacancy
(B) Anion vacancy
(C) Cation and anion vacancy
(D) Cation and anion interstitial
Q.3 Which of the following techniques is NOT used to grow single crystals of semiconductors?
(A) Calendering (B) Czochralski (C) Float zone (D) Bridgman
Q.4 Which of the following signals is produced due to the elastic scattering of electrons by a material?
(A) Secondary electron
(B) Backscattered electron
(C) Auger electron
(D) Photoelectron
Q.5 The best magnetostrictive material is
(A) Nd2Fe14B (B) Fe3O4 (C) Cu2MnAl (D) ZnFe2O4
Q.6 Of the following materials, which is the most suitable for an LED emitting at around 380 nm?
(A) Direct bandgap material with a small bandgap
(B) Indirect bandgap material with a large bandgap
(C) Direct bandgap material with a large bandgap
(D) Indirect bandgap material with a small bandgap
Q.7 Which material has the lowest specific heat capacity at room temperature?
(A) Water (B) Mercury (C) Copper (D) Silver
Q.8 Microstrain can be measured by X-ray diffraction using peak
(A) Area and intensity
(B) Position and area
(C) Broadening and intensity
(D) Position and broadening

Q.9 The Pilling-Bedworth ratio is defined as the ratio of

(A) Volume of oxide to volume of metal
(B) Weight of oxide to weight of metal
(C) Density of oxide to density of metal
(D) Surface area of oxide to surface area of metal

Q.10 Match the properties in Column I with the appropriate units in Column II
Column I Column II
P. Thermal diffusivity 1. Hm–1
Q. Fracture toughness 2. m2s–1
R. Surface energy 3. Fm–1
S. Magnetic permeability 4. Nm–3/2
5. Jm–2
(A) P-2, Q-5, R-4, S-1 (B) P-2, Q-4, R-5, S-1
(C) P-3, Q-5, R-4, S-3 (D) P-5, Q-4, R-2, S-3
Q.11 Match the characterization techniques in Column I with the options in Column II
Column I Column II
P. Scanning tunneling microscopy 1. No vacuum required
Q. Scanning electron microscopy 2. Backscattered electrons
R. Transmission electron microscopy 3. Photoelectrons
S. Atomic force microscopy 4. Atomically sharp tip
5. Sub-Angstrom resolution
(A) P-4, Q-2, R-5, S-1 (B) P-1, Q-3, R-4, S-5
(C) P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-5 (D) P-5, Q-1, R-2, S-4
Q.12 Match the materials in Column I with the applications in Column II

Column I Column II
P. Titanium diboride 1. Photocatalyst
Q. Molybdenum disilicide 2. Furnace heating element
R. Hydroxyapatite 3. Ultra high temperature material
S. Nanocrystalline titanium oxide 4. Tough ceramic
5. Artificial bone implant
(A) P-3, Q-4, R-5, S-1 (B) P-5, Q-3, R-2, S-1
(C) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-5 (D) P-3, Q-2, R-5, S-1
Q.13 Match the properties in Column I with the options in Column II

Column I Column II
P. Toughness 1. Resistance to plastic deformation
Q. Resilience 2. Time dependent permanent deformation under constant load
R. Creep 3. Total elongation at failure
S. Hardness 4. Area under the stress-strain curve
5. Area under the elastic part of the stress-strain curve
(A) P-5, Q-1, R-3, S-2 (B) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1
(C) P-4, Q-5, R-2, S-1 (D) P-5, Q-4, R-3, S-2

Q.14 Determine the mole fraction of vinyl chloride in a copolymer of vinyl chloride (CH 2CHCl) and
vinyl acetate (CH2-CH-OCOCH3) having molecular weight of 10520 g/mol and degree of
polymerization of 160.
(A) 0.14 (B) 0.30 (C) 0.70 (D) 0.86
Q.15 The electron concentration in an n-type semiconductor is 5  1018/m3. If the drift velocity of
electrons is 100 m/s in an electric field of 500 V/m, calculate the conductivity of the semiconductor.
(A) 0.16  10–1 S/m (B) 1.60  10–1 S/m (C) 2.50  10–1 S/m (D) 30.05  10–1 S/m
Q.16 Calculate the saturation magnetization (Msat) for bcc iron of lattice parameter 2.866 Å.
(A) 0.79  106 A/m (B) 1.5  106 A/m (C) 3.15  106 A/m (D) 4.73  106 A/m

Common Data for Questions 17 and 18: A plain 0.45 wt.% carbon steel is cooled slowly from 900°C to
just below the eutectoid temperature (723°C) so that the following reaction occurs:
γ (0.8 wt.% C) ↔ α (0.02 wt.% C) + Fe3C (6.67 wt.% C)
Q.17 During cooling from 900°C to 723°C, the proeutectoid α forms from γ. Find the volume % of
proeutectoid α just below 723°C for the steel.
(A) 44.9% (B) 66.1% (C) 55.1% (D) 34.9%
Q.18 Find the volume % of pearlite for the steel just below 723°C for 0.45 wt.% carbon steel.
(A) 44.9% (B) 55.1% (C) 40.9% (D) 59.1%
Common Data for Questions 19 and 20: A 20 kN tensile load is applied axially to a steel bar of cross-
sectional area 8 cm2 and 1m length. The Young’s modulus of steel (Esteel) is 200 GPa, and of aluminium
(EAl) is 70 GPa. The Poisson’s ratio (ν) can be taken as 0.3.
Q.19 When the same load is applied to an aluminium bar, it is found to give same elastic strain as the
steel. Calculate the cross-sectional area of the aluminium bar.
(A) 11.43 cm2 (B) 14.93 cm2 (C) 18.26 cm2 (D) 22.86 cm2
Q.20 Calculate the final area of the steel bar after the deformation under the applied load of 20 kN.
(A) 7.9 cm2 (B) 9.7 cm2 (C) 7.0 cm2 (D) 8.1 cm2

Statement for Linked Answer Questions 21 and 22: Chromium has the bcc structure with atomic
diameter of 2.494 Å.
Q.21 Calculate the lattice parameter of chromium assuming tight atomic bonding.
(A) 1.442 Å (B) 2.880 Å (C) 4.323 Å (D) 5.764 Å
Q.22 Find the first diffraction peak position (2) for Cu K radiation with a wavelength of 1.54 Å
(A) 21.76o (B) 33.05o (C) 44.43o (D) 66.10o
END OF SECTION - C

D : SOLID MECHANICS
Q.1 The axial force diagram for the weightless beam subjected to the inclined force P = 5 kN is
P = 5 kN
4
A B 3 C
5m 5m
(A) A B C
3 kN
(B) A B C
3 kN
(C) 1.5 kN
A C
B
1.5 kN
(D) B C
A
3 kN
Q.2 A block of weight W, connected to two springs with spring constants k1 and k 2 , rests initially on a
horizontal frictional surface. The coefficient of static friction between the block and the surface
is  . Both springs are initially undeformed. The magnitude of force F, applied to the second
spring, is now gradually increased. The block will start to slide when F becomes
k1 k2
W F
(A) W (B) k1W /(k1  k2 )

(C) k2 W /(k1  k2 ) (D) k2 W / k1

Q.3 Three connected railway coaches A, B and C of masses mA , mB and mC , respectively are being
pulled by a locomotive with force F over a horizontal track. The coaches may be assumed to move
on frictionless wheels with negligible air resistance. The tension in the connector between coaches
A and B is
C B A F
(A) F (B) FmA /(mA  mB  mC )

(C) FmB /(mA  mB  mC ) (D) F (mB  mC ) /(mA  mB  mC )
Q.4 For the beam-column configurations shown in figure, the minimum Euler buckling load is obtained
for the case (Young’s modulus and second moment of cross-sectional area are as indicated)
E, I P
K E, 2.0 I P
0.7L (ii)
L (i)
E, I P
E, I P
0.51 L (iii)
(iv)
L
(A) (i) (B) (ii) (C) (iii) (D) (iv)
Q.5 A disk of mass m  0.25 g and radius r  10 mm is at rest relative to a mass-less horizontal
turntable spinning about a vertical axis at an angular speed of   2 rad / s . The turntable is
assumed to be mounted on frictionless bearings. Another identical, initially non-rotating disk is
dropped onto the spinning disk. Friction causes both disks (and the turntable) to eventually rotate at
the same angular speed. The eventual angular speed of the disks is
(A) 0.15 rad/s (B) 1 rad/s (C) 2 rad/s (D) 4 rad/s
Q.6 A rocket in the atmosphere is accelerating upwards with acceleration a m/s2. The natural
frequency of a spring-mass system (with mass m kg and spring constant k N/m), suspended
vertically inside the rocket, is (take g m/s2 to be the acceleration due to gravity)
k  k 
k k kg k a
(A) ; (B) (C) (D) (1  )
m m ma m g

Q.7 An irregular planar body in space is acted upon by a force F  (2i  j ) N at position
r1  (i  2 j )m and a moment M  3kNm at position r2  (2i )m . The corresponding equivalent
force FO and moment M O at the origin are
(A) FO  (2i  j ) N ; M O  (3k ) Nm

(B) FO  (2i  j ) N ; M O  0 Nm
(C) FO  (2i  j ) N ; M O  (6k ) Nm
(D) FO  (2i  j ) N ; M O  (6k ) Nm
Q.8 A hollow shaft and a solid shaft constructed of the same material have the same length and the
same outer radius R. The inner radius of the hollow shaft is 0.6 R. Assuming that both shafts are
subjected to the same torque, the ratio of the maximum shear stress in the hollow shaft to that in the
solid shaft is
(A) 1.1 (B) 1.2 (C) 1.15 (D) 0.95
Q.9 A point in a beam experiences a tensile stress (due to bending) of 50 N/mm2 and a shear stress of
20 N/mm2. The principal stresses are
(A) 17 N/mm2 tension, 67 N/mm2 compression
(B) 0, 0
(C) 57 N/mm2 tension, 7 N/mm2 compression
(D) 52 N/mm2 compression, 15 N/mm2 tension

Q.10 Consider a simply supported beam loaded either by a uniformly distributed transverse load or by a
concentrated transverse load applied at the center such that the maximum bending stress in both
cases is the same. The ratio of the strain energy for the two cases is
(A) 4/5 (B) 5/8 (C) 8/5 (D) 1
Q.11 A small railway bridge is constructed from identical steel truss members, each of length l , cross-
sectional area A and Young’s modulus E . A train stops on the bridge. The loads applied by the
train on the truss on one side of the bridge may be assumed to act at pins A, B and C, as shown. The
displacement of the support C due to this loading is
Q Q Q
A B C
(A) 0 (B) Ql /( AE )
(C) 3Ql /(4 AE ) (D) Ql /( 3 AE )
Q.12 A vertical pole, cantilevered at the bottom, has a solid circular cross-section of diameter
d = 49.21 mm. It is loaded by a horizontal force P = 6675 N at the top end. The maximum shear
stress in the pole is
(A) 4.25 N/mm2 (B) 5.68 N/mm2 (C) 4.68 N/mm2 (D) 7.50 N/mm2

Q.13 A striker with mass m=20 kg is attached to the end of a mass-less rigid bar of length R=0.3m. The
bar is hinged to support A, and swings down from an initial horizontal position such that the striker
hits mass M= 5kg elastically. The mass M slides (in a straight line) along the table, from point B
towards the spring located at point C, 0.2 m away from B. Assume that the coefficient of friction
in the region BC is d  0.4 ; the region CD frictionless. Let the spring constant of the spring be
k = 4000 N/m. If the striker rises to a maximum height of 0.1m below its starting location, then the
maximum compression of the spring is (let acceleration due to gravity g = 10 m/s2, the dimensions
of the striker and mass are small)
0.3 m
A m
0.3 m
K
M
D C 0.2 m B
(A) 0.000 m (B) 0.100 m (C) 0.089 m (D) 0.109 m

Q.14 A cube, made of aluminum, of dimension 0.1 m  0.1 m  0.1 m, rests against a rigid wall (with
normal in the y-direction), as shown in the figure. Another parallel rigid wall is located at
a clearance of 0.2 mm from the block. Assuming all contacts to be frictionless, if the block
is heated by T  150 C, the normal stress  yy induced in the block is (for aluminum
E  70 GPa ;   0.3 ;   20 106 / C)
Z
Y
X
Wall Aluminum Wall
cube
0.2 mm
(A)  yy  7 MPa
(B)  yy  7 MPa
(C)  yy  70 MPa
(D)  yy  0
Q.15 A thin walled spherical pressure vessel made of a linear elastic isotropic material has inner radius
r and thickness t before pressurization. When subjected to internal pressure p , elements of the
pressure vessel wall experience a state of stress described by a single point ( , )  ( pr /(2t ),0) in
Mohr’s circle. The reduction of the wall thickness due to pressurization
(A) increases with t
(B) remains independent of t
(C) decreases with t
(D) depends on the elastic properties.

Q.16 For small oscillations, the natural frequency of the system in terms of K, a , b and M is (assuming
ideal joints and mass-less rigid rod ABC)
K B
a b
C
A
K Ka Kb 2 Ka 2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
M Mb Ma 2 Mb 2

A steel cylindrical pressure vessel has an inner radius of 1.8 m and a wall thickness of 20 mm.
Q.17 For an internal pressure of 800 kPa the maximum shear stress for the cylindrical part of the vessel is
(A) 16 MPa (B) 18 MPa (C) 20 MPa (D) 0
Q.18 At which of the following internal pressures will the cylindrical vessel yield as per the Tresca
criterion if the yield strength of the material in tension is 320 MPa
(A) 3.55 MPa (B) 7.1 MPa (C) 1.775 MPa (D) 4.0 MPa
A steel beam, of rectangular cross-section 25 mm wide and 75 mm deep, is pinned to supports at points
A and B, where the support B is on rollers. The Young’s modulus of steel may be assumed as
2.0 x 105 N/mm2. The ends of the beam are loaded with 5 kN loads.
5 kN 5 kN
A B
0.3 m 1.5 m 0.3 m
Q.19 The maximum bending stress in the beam is

(A) 0 (B) 64 MN/m2 (C) 128 MN/m2 (D) 32 MN/m2
Q.20 The vertical deflection at the ends is
(A) 4.92 mm (B) 4.58 mm (C) 9.31 mm (D) 9.84 mm


A cantilevered beam of unknown material (which is homogeneous, linearly elastic and isotropic) and an
unknown cross-section (which is uniform and symmetric) is given in the figure. The stiffness of the end
spring is k = 2000 N/m and end load P = 1000 N; length of the beam L = 1m.
A P
E, I M
k
L = 1m
Q.21 If the deflection at the free-end (under load P, with end moment M=0) is measured as  = 5 mm, the
flexural rigidity EI for the beam is (in N m2)
(A) 66,666 (B) 66,000 (C) 67,300 (D) 64,000
Q.22 The value of the additional end moment M (in N.m) required to obtain an upward deflection of
1 mm at the free end, is (moment is positive in counterclockwise direction)
(A) 533.33 (B) 533.33 (C) 528 (D) 528
END OF SECTION - D

E : THERMODYNAMICS
Note: Usual notations have been used for thermodynamic variables.
Useful Data:
Unless otherwise specified, the following data may be assumed.
Universal gas constant, R =8.314 kJ/kmol.K; Acceleration due to gravity, g = 9.81 m/s2
Molecular mass of air, Mair = 29 kg/kmol; Specific heat of air at constant pressure, c p = 1.005 kJ/kg.K
Ratio of specific heats of air,   1.4. Assume air to be a perfect gas unless specified otherwise.
Q.1 Consider a piston-cylinder arrangement containing a gas. This system is heated by placing it on the
top of a burner. The system undergoes
(A) a constant volume process
(B) a constant pressure process
(C) an adiabatic process
(D) an isothermal process
Q.2 For a pure substance, at the triple point
(A) only solid and liquid phases co-exist in equilibrium
(B) only liquid and vapour phases co-exist in equilibrium
(C) only solid and vapour phases co-exist in equilibrium
(D) solid, liquid and vapour phases co-exist in equilibrium
Q.3 In a saturated liquid-vapour mixture, the property quality, x is defined as
mvapour mvapour
(A) x  (B) x 
mliquid  mvapour mliquid
mliquid mliquid
(C) x  (D) x 
mliquid  mvapour mvapour
Q.4 The slope of a Mollier diagram at constant pressure indicates

(A) enthalpy (B) entropy
(C) internal energy (D) temperature
Q.5 If QL represents the magnitude of heat transfer from a low temperature reservoir to a cyclic device
and QH represents the magnitude of heat transfer from a cyclic device to a high temperature
reservoir, then for the same QL and QH , the coefficient performance of a refrigerator  COPR  and
the coefficient performance of a heat pump  COPHP  can be related as
(A) COPR  1  COPHP (B) COPHP  COPR 1

(C) COPR. COPHP 1 (D) COPHP  COPR  1
Q.6 Clausius inequality is written as
(A)  Q  0 (B)  Q  0
Q Q
(C)  T 0 (D)  T 0

Q.7 In a Diesel cycle, the ratio of cylinder volumes after and before combustion process is called
(A) cut-off ratio (B) back work ratio (C) pressure ratio (D) compression ratio
Q.8 The exergy (or availability) of a system at a specified state

(A) depends on the conditions of the system alone
(B) depends on the conditions of the environment alone
(C) depends on the conditions of both the system and environment
(D) depends neither on the conditions of the system nor the environment
Q.9 In each of the following choices, there are two expressions given. Select the choice that gives, first,
the defining expression of volume expansivity and second, the expression of volume expansivity
for ideal gases
1  v  1 1  v  1
(A)   , (B)   ,
v  T  P T v  P T T
1  v  1 1  v  1
(C)    , (D)   ,
v  P T P v  T  P P

Q.10 A certain mass of gas at 0oC is expanded to 81 times its original volume under adiabatic conditions.
If ratio of specific heats of the gas,   1.25 , the final temperature of the gas is
(A) – 235 oC (B) – 182 oC (C) – 91 oC (D) 0 oC
Q.11 A sample of gas with initial average kinetic energy, E is heated from 27 oC to 327 oC. The average
kinetic energy after heating is
(A) E (B) 2E (C) 27E (D) 327E
Q.12 Helium in a piston/cylinder assembly at 20oC and 100 kPa is brought to 400 K in a reversible
polytropic process with exponent n = 1.25. Assume helium to be an ideal gas. The molecular mass
of helium is 4.003 kg/kmol. The specific work in the process is approximately
(A) – 800 kJ/kg (B) – 788 kJ/kg (C) 788 kJ/kg (D) – 888 kJ/kg
Q.13 32 kg of oxygen is mixed with 28 kg of nitrogen at the same temperature. The gases are at the same
pressure of 103 kPa before and after mixing. If R is the universal gas constant in kJ/kmol.K, the
change in entropy of the mixture is
(A) 1.38R (B) 0.69R (C) R (D) 0.34R
Q.14 Consider two Carnot heat engines A and B operating in series. Engine A receives heat from a
reservoir at 1750 K and rejects heat to another reservoir at temperature T. Engine B receives an
amount of energy same as that rejected by Engine A from the reservoir at temperature T. Engine B
then rejects heat to another reservoir at 320 K. In both cases, the engines produce some amount of
work. If the thermal efficiencies of both the engines are the same, then the temperature T is
approximately
(A) 848 K (B) 748 K (C) 648 K (D) 548 K

Q.15 Joule-Thomson coefficient for a gas,  j obeying the relation p  v  b   RT is
cp b b cp
(A)  j  (B)  j  (C)  j   (D)  j  
b cp cp b
Q.16 The correct expression representing Z to be a thermodynamic property is

(A) Z  pdv
(B) Z  vdp
(C) Z  pdv  vdp
(D) Z  pdv  vdp

The vapour pressure of liquid ammonia (in atmosphere) in the vicinity of the triple point can be expressed
as
3063
ln p  15.16
T
where temperature T is expressed in K.
In a similar manner, the vapour pressure of solid ammonia can be expressed as
3754
ln p  18.7
T
Take the molecular mass of ammonia to be 17 kg/kmol.
Q.17 The temperature and pressure at the triple point are
(A) 295.2 K, 0.69 atm (B) 295.2 K, 0.59 atm
(C) 195.2 K, 0.69 atm (D) 195.2 K, 0.59 atm
Q.18 The latent heat of vapourization is

(A) 1298 kJ/kg (B) 1398 kJ/kg (C) 1498 kJ/kg (D) 1698 kJ/kg

Consider an ideal reheat cycle utilizing steam. Steam leaves the boiler and enters the turbine at 3 MPa,
400oC (state 3) and then expands to 0.8 MPa (state 4). It is then reheated at constant pressure 0.8 MPa to
400oC (state 5) and expands to 10 kPa in the low pressure turbine (state 6). The entry to the pump
corresponds to saturated liquid state (state 1), and state 2 represents inlet to the boiler. The following data
are given:
h1  191.81 kJ / kg , h3  3230.82 kJ / kg , h4  2891.6 kJ / kg , h5  3267.97 kJ / kg ,
hg  2584.63 kJ / kg , x6  0.92285, v f  0.00101m3 / kg
10 kPa 10 kPa
Q.19 The heat transfer in the boiler is approximately

(A) 4411 kJ/kg (B) 3412 kJ/kg
(C) 3230 kJ/kg (D) 2892 kJ/kg
Q.20 The net workdone in the cycle is approximately

(A) 1004 kJ/kg (B) 1104 kJ/kg
(C) 1204 kJ/kg (D) 2004 kJ/kg


A piston-cylinder arrangement as shown in the figure initially contains air at 150 kPa and 400 oC. The
arrangement is allowed to cool to the ambient temperature of 20oC. The characteristic gas constant for air is
0.287 kJ/kg.K. The cylinder wall has stops of negligible thickness that can prevent the piston from moving
down. The stops are 1 m from the inner side of the base surface of the cylinder. At the initial state, the
piston is resting 1 m above the stops.
piston
Stop
1m
Air
1m
Q.21 The final pressure in the cylinder is

(A) 130.7 kPa (B) 150 kPa
(C) 200.7 kPa (D) 230.7 kPa
Q.22 The specific work done by the air during the process is
(A) –26.67 kJ/kg (B) 26.67 kJ/kg
(C) 49.5 kJ/kg (D) –96.67 kJ/kg
END OF SECTION - E

F : POLYMER SCIENCE AND ENGINEERING

Q.1 The diamine used for the synthesis of nylon 6,4 is
(A) tetramethylene diamine (B) hexamethylene diamine
(C) phenylene diamine (D) cyclohexane-1,4-diamine
Q.2 A small amount of hydroquinone is added to methyl methacrylate monomer in order to

(A) improve its thermal stability
(B) improve its hydrolytic stability
(C) inhibit polymerization
(D) regulate molecular weight
Q.3 Which of the following compounds is used in Zeigler-Natta catalyst?

(A) TiCl3 (B) CaCl2
(C) ZnCl2 (D) NaCl
Q.4 The z-average molecular weight, M z can be estimated using
(A) End group analysis (B) Osmometry

(C) Viscometry (D) Ultracentrifugation
Q.5 The unit of intrinsic viscosity is

(A) dl/g (B) g/dl (C) poise (D) g/mol
Q.6 Heat dissipation is most inefficient in

(A) Emulsion polymerization (B) Solution polymerization
(C) Bulk polymerization (D) Suspension polymerization
Q.7 The crystalline melting temperature of the polymers high density polyethylene (HDPE), isotactic
polypropylene (iPP), nylon 6 (PA6) and poly(ethylene terephthalate) (PET) can be arranged as
(A) THDPE > TPET > TiPP > TPA6
(B) TPET > TPA6 > TiPP > THDPE
(C) TPA6 > THDPE > TPET > TiPP
(D) TiPP > TPA6 > TPET > THDPE
Q.8 Which of the following polymers is sensitive to moisture absorption?

(A) Polyethylene (B) Polystyrene (C) Polyamide 6 (D) Polybutadiene
Q.9 Most engineering polymers have heat distortion temperature (HDT) in excess of
(A) –80C (B) 0C (C) 20C (D) 80C

Q.10 Two miscible polymers A and B are blended in weight ratio of 30:70. If the glass transition
temperature, Tg of polymer A is -50C and that of polymer B is 100C, then the Tg of the blend is
(A) –10.5C (B) 25.0C (C) 37.5C (D) 74.8C

Q.11 If the flow curves of two viscous fluids are represented by
Shear Stress
a
b
Shear Rate
then, the viscosity plots of the fluids will be

(A) (B)
a
Viscosity
Viscosity
b
b
Shear Rate Shear Rate
(C) (D)
b b
Viscosity
Viscosity
a a
Shear Rate Shear Rate
Q.12 Match the following compounding ingredients in plastic technology with their respective
functions:
Compounding ingredients Functions
P. Tricresyl phosphate 1. Filler
Q. Calcium carbonate 2. UV stabilizer
R. Azodicarbonamide 3. Plasticizer
S. o-Hydroxybenzophenone 4. Blowing agent
(A) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2 (B) P-1, Q-4, R-3, S-2
(C) P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3 (D) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2
Q.13 In a three-point bending mode for flexural test of a polymer sample with the following data:
load applied in the mid-span = 80 kg
width of the specimen = 3 cm
depth of the specimen = 2 cm
length of the specimen = 30 cm
the flexural strength will be
(A) 17.5 MPa (B) 29.4 MPa (C) 35.7 MPa (D) 41.3 MPa
Q.14 How many stereo isomers are possible in total on polymerization of butadiene?
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5

Q.15 Match the following processing operations with their respective tools:
Processing operations Tools
P. Injection molding 1. Parison mold
Q. Twin screw extrusion 2. Sprue-runner system
R. Blow molding 3. Mixing head
S. Reaction injection molding 4. Kneading blocks
(A) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4 (B) P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-3
(C) P-2, Q-1, R-4, S-3 (D) P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3
Q.16 If a solid elastomer ball of weight 100 g is allowed to free fall from a height of 10 m and it
rebounds back to a height of 8 m, the hysteresis loss is
(A) 19.60 J (B) 9.80 J (C) 1.96 J (D) 0.98 J

A polymer mixture contains three monodisperse polystyrene samples A, B and C of molecular weights
10000, 20000 and 30000 g mol-1, respectively.
Q.17 If the mixture contains equal number of molecules of A, B and C, the weight average molecular
weight, Mw will be
(A) 1.93  104 g mol–1 (B) 2.13  104 g mol–1
(C) 2.33  104 g mol–1 (D) 2.53  104 g mol–1
Q.18 If the mixture contains equal masses of A, B and C, then the number average molecular weight,
M n will be
(A) 1.64  104 g mol–1 (B) 1.74  104 g mol–1
(C) 1.84  104 g mol–1 (D) 1.94  104 g mol–1

The stress relaxation equation for polymers is given by, = 0 e–t/ , where is the stress at any time instant
t, 0 is the initial stress and is the relaxation time. The relaxation process is temperature dependent and
follows the Arrhenius law. For a rubber sample, the relaxation time is 60 days at 25C.
Q.19 If the above sample is stressed to 2 MPa initially, then the time required to relax the stress to 1 MPa
will be
(A) 31.6 days (B) 41.6 days
(C) 51.6 days (D) 61.6 days
Q.20 If the activation energy for relaxation is 30 KJ/mol, the relaxation time at 35C will be
(A) 30.5 days (B) 35.5 days
(C) 40.5 days (D) 45.5 days


In tensile testing of carbon fiber reinforced epoxy composite samples, the following data were recorded:
gauge length = 4 cm
cross-section = 0.8 cm  0.3 cm
increase in gauge length at the break point = 0.03 cm
breaking load = 50 kg
Q.21 Considering the stress-strain curve to be linear up to the break point, the tensile strength is
(A) 191.2 kg/cm2 (B) 208.3 kg/cm2
(C) 312.1 kg/cm2 (D) 535.5 kg/cm2
Q.22 The Young’s modulus of the composite is

(A) 1.77  104 kg/cm2 (B) 1.99  104 kg/cm2
(C) 2.34  104 kg/cm2 (D) 2.77  104 kg/cm2
END OF SECTION - F

G : FOOD TECHNOLOGY
Q.1 Among the following fatty acids, which group is known as essential fatty acids?
(A) 9,11-Octadecadienoic and 9,11,13-Octadecatrienoic
(B) 9,12-Octadecadienoic and 9,12,15-Octadecatrienoic
(C) 9-Octadecenoic and 9,11-Octadecadienoic
(D) 9,11-Octadecadienoic and 9-Eicosenoic
Q.2 Cellulose, the structural polysaccharide of plant, is a polymer of
(A) -D-Glucose
(B) -D-Glucose
(C) -D-Galactose
(D) -D-Galcturonic acid
Q.3 The important role of carotenoids in the human diet is their ability to serve as precursors of
(A) Vitamin C (B) Vitamin D (C) Vitamin A (D) Vitamin K
Q.4 Which one of the following microorganisms is used in the preparation of bread?
(A) Candida utilis (B) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
(C) Saccharomyces cevarum (D) Aspergilus niger
Q.5 Which one of the microorganisms given below is NOT RESPONSIBLE for ropy or stringy
fermentation of milk?
(A) Alcaligenes viscolactis
(B) Enterobacter aerogenes
(C) Streptococcus cremoris
(D) Streptococcus lactis
Q.6 A mild heat treatment of foods that destroys pathogens and extends its shelf life is called
(A) Baking (B) Blanching
(C) Sterilization (D) Pasteurization
Q.7 The most common and least expensive plastic film used for packaging of solid food materials is
(A) Polyethylene (B) Polystyrene
(C) Polypropylene (D) Polyvinylchloride
Q.8 Reassociation of amylose and formation of crystalline structure upon cooling of cooked starch
solution is termed as
(A) Synersis (B) Gelatinization
(C) Retrogradation (D) Denaturation
Q.9 Thermal destruction of microorganisms follows a kinetics of

(A) Zero order
(B) First order
(C) Second order
(D) Fractional order


Q.10 Which one of the following is NOT A CORRECT statement?
(A) Meatiness is the taste produced by compounds such as glutamate in products like cheese, soy
sauce.
(B) Astringency is a dry mouth feel in the oral cavity that is most associated with phenolic
compounds.
(C) Saltiness is a taste that is mainly produced by chloride ions.
(D) Sourness is related to acidity and is sensed by hydrogen ion channels in the human tongue.
Q.11 The following plot represents the Lineweaver-Burk equation of an enzymatic reaction both in the
presence and the absence of inhibitor. Here, V is the velocity of reaction and S is the substrate
concentration.
V–1 Inhibition
No inhibition
S–1
The nature of inhibition shown in the plot is

(A) Non-competitive
(B) Anti-competitive
(C) Competitive
(D) Mixed type
Q.12 Make the correct match of the food constituents in Group I with their nature given in Group II.
Group I Group II
P) Ascorbic Acid 1) Sugar
Q) Phenyl alanine 2) Chelate
R) Dextrose 3) Amino Acid
S) Haemoglobin 4) Antioxidant
(A) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2 (B) P-4, Q-1, R-3, S-2
(C) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1 (D) P-4, Q-2, R-1, S-3
Q.13 Make the correct match of the fermented food products in Group I with the microorganisms in
Group II.
Group I Group II
P) Yoghurt 1) Lactobacillus acidophilus and Lactobacillus delbrueckii
Q) Cheese 2) Leuconostoc mesenteroides and Lactobacillus plantarum
R) Sauerkraut 3) Lactobacillus delbrueckii and Streptococcus thermophillus
S) Kefir 4) Lactobacillus casei and Streptococcus thermophillus
(A) P-1, Q-4, R-2, S-3 (B) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2
(C) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1 (D) P-3, Q-2, R-4, S-1

Q.14 Match the following between organelle or cellular components of a bacterium cell in Group I with
the constituents and functionalities in Group II.
Group I Group II
P) Cytoplasmic membrane 1) Protein synthesis
Q) Flagellum 2) Peptidoglycan
R) Cell wall 3) Phospholipid bilayer
S) Ribosome 4) Motility of cell
(A) P-3, Q-2, R-4, S-1

(B) P-4, Q-2, R-1, S-3
(C) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1
(D) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1
Q.15 Thermal death time (TDT) of Clostridium botulinum at 121 C is 2.78 min with a z-value of 10 C.
The TDT of the microorganism at 116 C (in min) is
(A) 5.270 (B) 8.791 (C) 1.390 (D) 0.712
Q.16 Make the correct match between specific food processing operations in Group I with their
mechanism of action in Group II.
Group I Group II
P) Ball Mill 1) Compression and shear
Q) Roller Mill 2) Pressure bursting
R) Flash Peeling 3) Friction and shear
S) Abrasive Peeling 4) Impact and shear
(A) P-4, Q-2, R-1, S-3 (B) P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3
(C) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1 (D) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2

650 g of a wet food containing 405 g water is dried in a tray dryer to a final moisture content of 6.8 % (dry
basis). It is observed that the drying process occurs under constant rate period and it takes 8 h.
Q.17 Initial moisture content (in percentage) of the food on wet basis is
(A) 62.31 (B) 70.45 (C) 162.31 (D) 165.31
Q.18 The rate of drying (in kg/h) is

(A) 128.79 (B) 126.35 (C) 77.81 (D) 0.0485


Air at 1 atmospheric pressure (101.325 kPa) and 30 C with absolute humidity of 0.0218 kg/kg of dry air is
flowing in a drying chamber. The saturated vapor pressure of water ( pw0 , in kPa) is related to temperature
(T, in C) as given below
5217.635
ln pw0  18.6556 
T  273
Heat capacities of dry air (average molecular weight 29) and that of water vapor (molecular weight 18) are
1.005 and 1.884 kJ/kg.K, respectively. Latent heat of vaporization of water at reference temperature (0 C)
is 2502.3 kJ/kg.
Q.19 The relative humidity of air (in percentage) is

(A) 62.82 (B) 68.22 (C) 86.62 (D) 81.80
Q.20 The enthalpy (in kJ/kg) of moist air is

(A) 85.93 (B) 54.55 (C) 31.38 (D) 99.38

The total solids content in a milk sample is 18 %. It is desired to produce 1000 kg of sweetened condensed
milk (SCM) having 40 % sugar, 25 % moisture and rest milk solids.
Q.21 What is the ‘Sugar Ratio’ (in percentage) in the SCM in terms of sugar and water content in the
final product?
(A) 48.19 (B) 61.54 (C) 54.16 (D) 56.14
Q.22 If the ‘Concentration Degree’ is 2.5, the amount of sugar added in kg in the milk sample is
(A) 246.16 (B) 216.64 (C) 192.76 (D) 224.56

1 B 5 D 9 A
2 B 6 C 10 A
3 D 7 D
4 A 8 A

1 A 5 C 9 C
2 C 6 D 10 B
3 B 7 C 11 B
4 D 8 D

1 D 9 C 17 B
2 A 10 A 18 C
3 D 11 A 19 B
4 D 12 C 20 C
5 D 13 D 21 A
6 C 14 A 22 B
7 D 15 C
8 B 16 B

1 D 9 A 17 A
2 C 10 B 18 B
3 A 11 A 19 D
4 B 12 D 20 Marks to All
5 A 13 C 21 B
6 C 14 D 22 C
7 B 15 B
8 D 16 C
______________________________________________________________
1 A 9 C 17 Marks to All
2 A 10 C 18 A
3 D 11 D 19 B
4 C 12 C 20 Marks to All
5 B 13 Marks to All 21 B
6 B 14 C 22 A
7 B 15 Marks to All
8 C 16 D

1 B 9 A 17 D
2 D 10 B 18 C
3 A 11 B 19 B
4 D 12 D 20 C
5 B 13 A 21 A
6 C 14 B 22 D
7 A 15 C
8 C 16 C

1 B 9 D 17 C
2 C 10 C 18 A
3 A 11 A 19 B
4 D 12 A 20 C
5 A 13 B 21 B
6 C 14 D 22 D
7 B 15 B
8 C 16 C
______________________________________________________________
1 B 9 B 17 A
2 A 10 C 18 D
3 C 11 C 19 D
4 B 12 A 20 A
5 D 13 C 21 B
6 D 14 C 22 A
7 A 15 B
8 C 16 B
______________________________________________________________

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GATE Solved Question Papers For Engineering Sciences XE by AglaSem Com PDF

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SOLVED PAPERS

GATE ENGINEERING SCIENCES (XE)

A comprehensive study guide for GATE

To score high in this elite examination is tough, but quite achievable.

GATE would contain questions of two different types in various papers:

The questions in a paper may be designed to test the following abilities:

(iii) Application: In these questions, the candidate is expected to apply his/her

General Aptitude (GA) Questions

Question Papers other than GG, XE and XL

GG (Geology and Geophysics) Paper

Part A consists of 25 multiple-choice questions carrying 1-mark each (sub-total 25 marks

XE Paper (Engineering Sciences)

XL Paper (Life Sciences)

In XL paper, Chemistry section (Section H) is compulsory. This section contains 15

Note on Negative Marking for Wrong Answers

Numerical Ability: Numerical computation, numerical estimation, numerical reasoning

Syllabus for Engineering Sciences (XE)

Section A: Engineering Mathematics (Compulsory)

Complex variable: Analytic functions, Cauchy-Riemann equations, Application in solving

Partial Differential Equations: Separation of variables method,Laplace equation,

Probability and Statistics: Definitions of probability and simple theorems, conditional

Numerical Methods: Solution of a system of linear equations by L-U decomposition,

Section B: Fluid Mechanics

Hydrostatics: Buoyancy, manometry, forces on submerged bodies.

Concept of fluid rotation, vorticity, stream function and potential function.

Dimensional analysis: Concept of geometric, kinematic and dynamic similarity,

Section C: Materials Science

Structure: Atomic structure and bonding in materials. Crystal structure of materials,

Diffusion: Fick’s laws and application of diffusion in sintering, doping of semiconductors

Ceramics: Structure, properties, processing and applications of traditional and advanced

Polymers: Classification, polymerization, structure and properties, additives for polymer

Composites: Properties and applications of various composites.

Advanced Materials and Tools: Smart materials, exhibiting ferroelectric, piezoelectric,

Mechanical Properties: stress-strain diagrams of metallic, ceramic and polymeric

Thermal Properties: Heat capacity, thermal conductivity, thermal expansion of materials.

Electronic Properties: Concept of energy band diagram for materials – conductors,

Optical Properties: Reflection, refraction, absorption and transmission of electromagnetic

Magnetic Properties: Origin of magnetism in metallic and ceramic materials,

Environmental Degradation: Corrosion and oxidation of materials, prevention.

Section D: Solid Mechanics

Equivalent force systems; free-body diagrams; equilibrium equations; analysis of

Basic Concepts: Continuum, macroscopic approach, thermodynamic system (closed and

Second Law of Thermodynamics: Kelvin-Planck and Clausius statements, reversible and

Properties of Pure Substances: Thermodynamic properties of pure substances in solid,

Thermodynamic Relations: T-ds relations, Maxwell equations, Joule-Thomson

Section F: Polymer Science and Engineering

Chemistry of high polymers: Monomers, functionality, degree of polymerizations,

Polymer Characterization: Solubility and swelling, concept of average molecular weight,

Polymer Technology: Polymer compounding-need and significance, different

Polymer rheology: Flow of Newtonian and non-Newtonian fluids, different flow

Polymer testing: Mechanical-static and dynamic tensile, flexural, compressive, abrasion,

Section G: Food Technology

Food Chemistry and Nutrition: Carbohydrates: Structure and functional properties of

Food Microbiology: Characteristics of microorganisms: Morphology, structure and

Food Products Technology: Processing principles: Canning, chilling, freezing,

Read the following instructions carefully.

Declaration by the candidate:

Q. 1 – Q. 5 carry one mark each.

The word closest in meaning to comprehension is

One of his biggest ______ was his ability to forgive.

Q.4 If y = 5x2 + 3, then the tangent at x = 0, y = 3

Q. 6 – Q. 10 carry two marks each.

Anuj Bhola Chandan Dilip Eswar Faisal

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