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- 363092227-Chemical-Engineering-Board-Exam.pdf
- Sample Che Board Exam Questions
- Answers PracProb Revised 2nd Ed
- Day1 From Gelo
- Gupta Chemical Engineering Mcqs
- Scientific Trivia (Chemical Engineering)
- GAS-ABSORPTION.pdf
- Design of a Thickener
- Chemical Engineering Thermodynamics Review
- STIOCHIOMETYRY
- Appendix Computation
- CHE112P Lecture 6
- Analytical Chemistry Topics Lecture (Adamson University)
- Reviewer Key for comprehensive exam
- PHYSICAL CHEMISTRY EXAM
- Chemical Engineering Day 1
- Problems CSTRs
- Sedimentation (Lifted From Foust, Geankoplis, And McCabe)
- Crystallization Notes (1)
- Biochem Enzyme Kinetics

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a. Cytosine

b. Uracil

c. Adenine

d. Guanine

2. To what temperature must a neon gas be heated to double its pressure if the initial

volume of gas at 75C is decreased by 15%?

a. 592 K

b. 104 C

c. 148 C

d. 299 K

boils at 1 atm. What is the molecular weight of the solute? Kb of water is 0.52.

BPE=0.13

a. 100 g/mol

b. 57 g/mol

c. 77 g/mol

d. 65 g/mol

system. It is used in the fire retardants in polymer resins because its high nitrogen

content released as flame stifling nitrogen gas when compound is burned or charred.

What is the chemical formula for the melamine?

a. C3H6N3

b. C3H6N4

c. C3H6N5

d. C3H6N6

under high pressure and at high temperature.

a. Substitution

b. Alkyation

c. Hydrogenation

d. Bromination

1

6. A sample of polystyrene prepared by heating styrene with tribromobenzoyl

peroxide in the absence of air has the formula Br3C6H3(C8H8)n where n varies with

the preparation. If a certain sample of polystyrene is found to contain 20.01% Br,

what is the value of n?

a. 8

b. 10

c. 20

d. 15

a. Phages

b. Bacteriophages

c. Virulent bacteria

d. Temperate viruses

8. For the reaction 3A(g) + 3B(g) 2C(s) + 3D(g), the equilibrium concentration

are 0.3M A, 0.5M B, 0.2M C, 0.5M D. Find the equilibrium constant.

a. 37.04

b. 0.74

c. 12.3

d. 0.075

a. Phytoxicity

b. Lethal dose concentration

c. Biotoxicity

d. BOD

temperature. An analysis of the mixture at equilibrium contained 2 mol N 2, 3 mol

H2 and 2.5 mol NH3. How many moles of H2 present at the beginning of the

reaction?

a. 3.5

b. 5.3

c. 7.5

d. 6.7

in which the enzyme precipitates, the enzyme is known to be what?

2

a. Inhibited

b. Modulator

c. Allosteric

d. Zymogen

a. Water

b. Acid

c. Alcohol

d. Base

Find the molecular weight of the solute.

a. 110

b. 6.86

c. 180

d. 56.2

14. How many additional chemicals were added last May 2009 to the original list of

POP’s prohibited by the Stockholm Convention?

a. 10

b. 9

c. 5

d. 12

15. What mass in grams of NaC2H3O2 must be dissolved with 500ml of 0.100M acetic

acid to make 2L of buffer solution of pH 5? Ka=1.8x10-5

a. 2.28g

b. 7.19g

c. 7.38g

d. 2.12g

16. What is the pH of the resulting solution made by making 5ml of 0.2178M HCl and

15ml of 0.1156M NH3? KNH3=1.8x10-5

a. 9.49

b. 9.90

c. 9.02

d. 12.74

3

17. Baker’s yeast is to be grown in a continuous fermentation system using a fermenter

volume of 20m3 in which the flow residence time is 16h. A 2% inoculum

containing 1.2% of yeast cells is included in the growth medium. This is then passed

to the fermenter in which the yeast grows with a steady doubling time of 2.9h. The

broth leaving the fermenter then passes to a continuous centrifuge which produces

a yeast cream containing 7% yeast, 97% of the total yeast in the broth. Calculate

the rate of flow of the yeast cream.

a. 1235 kg/hr

b. 2639 kg/hr

c. 1114 kg/hr

d. 315.67 kg/hr

a. Debye and Huckel

b. Arrhenius

c. Faraday

d. Kohlrausch

19. Calculate the molarity of NaOH solution if 18.25 ml was used to titrate 0.4815 gram

of primary standard KHP.

a. 0.18

b. 0.13

c. 0.26

d. 0.16

20. How many alpha amino acids commonly make up the different proteins found in

humans?

a. 4

b. 32

c. 20

d. Millions

HCN=4.9x10-10

a. 0.74

b. 2.93

c. 11.07

d. 13.26

4

22. Calculate the pH of a solution made by dissolving 1.87g of sodium caproate

(NaC6H11O2) in water and diluting to a total volume of 500 ml. For the caproate

ion, Kb-7.58x10-10

a. 5.344

b. 5.494

c. 8.505

d. 8.656

a. 317

b. 58.3

c. 586

d. 993

a. 8

b. 10

c. 12

d. 16

prepared by dissolving 0.020 moles of HX in 115g water freezes at -0.74 degC.

a. 0.044

b. 0.30

c. 0.45

d. 1.45

26. What is the IUPAC name for the molecule having a methyl group attached to an 8-

carbon alkane ring?

a. Cyclooctanol

b. Methylcyclooctane

c. Cyclooctane

d. Boric acid

27. Which of the following best explains the relative stabilities of the eclipsed and

staggered forms of ethane? The ____ form has the most _____ strain.

a. Eclipsed; steric

b. Eclipsed; torsional

c. Staggered; steric

d. Staggered; torsional

5

28. Which of the following is the strongest interaction?

a. A covalent bond

b. Induced dipole-induced dipole interactions

c. Dipole-dipole interactions

d. Hydrogen bonding

e. Van der waals

29. A sample containing Na2CO3, NaOH and inert matter weighs 1.179g. It is titrated

with 0.2239M HCl with phenolphthalein as the indicator, and the solution became

colorless after the addition of 46.25 ml. Methyl orange is then added and 12.85 ml

more of the acid is needed for the color change. What is the percentage of Na 2CO3

in the sample?

a. 24.89%

b. 64.95%

c. 76.12%

d. 25.87%

30. Histamine, an organic nitrogenous compound which can cause allergic rhinitis can

be produced in our body through the decarboxylation of the amino acid histamine.

Given that 18mM of the decarboxylase is used and 5mM of histidine forms.

Calculate the Michaelis-Menten constant if the reaction velocity and the TON are

6mM/s and 37/s respectively.

a. 0.330 M

b. 0.440 M

c. 0.550 M

d. 0.660 M

6

PRETEST- CHEMICAL ENGINEERING

connected to the container and the other side is open to the atmosphere. The

manometer contains oil of density of density = 750 kg/m3 and the head is 50mm.

Calculate the gauge pressure of the gas in the container.

a. 104.9 Pa 94.2 Pa c. 12.5 Pa d. 367.9 Pa

2. Cold air at 10 degF is forced to flow over a fluid plate maintained at 40 deg C. the

mean heat transfer coefficient is 30 W/m2-K. Find the heat flow rate from the plate

to the air through a plate area of 2m2. Assume radiation is negligible.

a. 1.8kW b. 2.0kW c. 2.2kW d. 2.4kW

3. The weight rate of flow of fluid stream per unit of cross section perpendicular to the

direction of flow is the

a. Mean linear velocity c. Velocity Head

b. Acoustic velocity d. Mean mass velocity of the stream

4. In a reciprocating pump, the ratio of the quantity of liquid actually pumped to that

which corresponds to the piston displacement is called

a. Hydraulic efficiency c. Volumetric efficiency

b. Mechanical efficiency d. Suction lift

Dry gas containing 75% air and 25% ammonia vapor enters the bottom of a

cylindrical packed absorption tower that is 2 ft in diameter. Nozzles in the top of the

tower distribute water over the packing. A solution of ammonia in water is drawn

from the bottom of the column, and the scrubbed gas leaves the top. The gas enters

at 80 deg F and 760 mmHg pressure. It leaves at 60 deg F and 730mm. The leaving

gas contains, on a dry basis, 1.0 percent ammonia.

5. If the entering gas flows through the empty bottom of the column at an average

velocity (upward) of 1.5 ft/s, how many cubic feet of entering gas are treated per

hour?

a. 400 b. 300 c. 200 d. 100

a. 234 b. 432 c. 711 d. 177

7. Solve for the diffusivity of the following material using diffusivity formula: Argon

in N2 at 1 atm and 20 oC.

a. 0.4542 cm2/s b. 0.1935 cm2/s c. 0.2435 cm2/s d.0.7456 cm2/s

7

8. A furnace wall is constructed of firebrick 6 in thick. The temperature of the inside of

the wall is 977K, and the temperature of the outside wall is 175 oF. If the mean

thermal conductivity under these conditions is 0.17 BTU/h-ft-oF. What is the rate of

heat loss through 1m 2 of wall surface? Express your answer in BTU/hr.

a. 2624.34 b. 1324.65 c. 4112.77 d.3312.12

a. Chlorinated polyether c. Polypropylene

b. Polyethylene d. Cellulose acetate butyrate

10. The ratio of moles of a reactant converted into the desired product to that converted

into unwanted product is called

a. operational yield b. selectivity

c. relative yield d. none of the above

a. increasing viscosity b. decreasing velocity

c. decreasing viscosity d. increasing velocity

12. All of the following biogeochemical cycles involve the atmosphere as either sink

or reservoir except

a. Water b. Carbon c. Nitrogen d. Phosporus

13. At 378.5oC the half-life for the first-order decomposition of ethylene oxide is 363

minutes, and E = 52,000 cal/mole. If the temperature is increased to 450 oC, find the

time for ethylene oxide to be 75% decomposed.

a. 13.8 min. b. 23.1 min. c. 37.2 min. d. 45.8 min.

14. A certain substance A is mixed with equal amount of B and C. After 10 minutes,

half of A has reacted. What will be the conversion after 20 minutes if the reaction is

second-order with respect to A?

a. 25% b. 33% c. 67% d. 75%

15. The moisture content of a solid is given as 50% wet basis. What is the moisture

content, dry basis?

a. 0.5 b. 1 c. 2 d. 50

16. A furnace is fired with coal containing 6% moisture, 18% VCM, 67% FC and 9%

ash. The refuse analysis shows 5% VCM, 23% FC and 62% ash. The higher heating

8

value of the coal as fired is 14,300 Btu/lb. Calculate the percentage of the heating

value of the coal that is lost in the refuse. Assume that the moisture in the refuse is

due to the ‘wetting down’ go prevent dusting and not moisture from the original

coal.

a. 4.68% b. 7.02% c. 9.36% d. 15.0%

a. 107 grams b. 112 grams c. 120 grams d. 170 grams

For. Nos. 18-19. A solution composed 50% ethanol, 10% methanol and 40% water

is fed at the rate of 100 kg/hr into a separator that produces one stream at the rate of

60 kg/hr with the composition of 80% ethanol, 15% methanol & 5% water, and a

second stream of unknown composition.

18. The mass flow rate of the second unknown stream in kg/hr is

a. 60 b. 40 c. 20 d. 50

a. 0.05 b. 0.025 c. 0.925 d. 0.5

20. You are asked what size of containers to use 1,000 lbs of cottonseed oil (SG =

0.926). What would be the minimum size of drum expressed in gallons?

a. 129.5 b. 254.2 c. 103.9 d. 85.6

21. A pure formic acid at 30oC flowing at 0.015 m3/s is pumped through a 75 mm

horizontal pipe 38 m long. The roughness of the pipe is 6x10-5m. What will be the

pressure drop in pipe?

a. 71 kPa b. 35 kPa c. 21 kPa d. 42 kPa

22. The venture meter is to be installed in a schedule 40-4in (ID=4.026 in) line to

measure the flowrate of water. The maximum flowrate is expected to be 325gpm at

60oF. The 50-in manometer is used to measure the differential pressure is to be filled

with mercury and water is to fill the leads above the mercury surfaces. The water

temperature is to be 60oF throughout. What throat diameter should be specified for

the venture meter?

a. 4.2 in b. 1.5 in c. 2 in d. 1.8 in

the pressure drop through duct, the equivalent diameter in ft. which may be used in

this case is _________.

a. 2.42 ft b. 2.97 ft c. 4.05 ft d. 5.84 ft

9

24. The function of manholes provided in the shell of a distillation column is to

a. keep a check on the liquid gradient over the plate by direct visual observation.

b. give access to the individual trays for cleaning, maintenance and installation.

c. guard against foaming & entrainment by dumping antifoaming agent through it.

d. all (a), (b) and (c).

25. Of the pressure vessels, with same thickness but different diameters, which one

withstands higher pressure?

a. Larger dia vessel. c. Larger dia long vessel.

b. Smaller dia vessel. d. Strength of the vessel is same irrespective

of the diameter.

26. In a laminar fluid flow, the average velocity is _____ of the maximum velocity.

a. one-half b. one-fourth c. twice d. four times

m; pipe roughness e = 0.000045 m; frictional pressure drop ∆P = 15720 N/m2; liquid

dynamic viscosity µ = 0.01 Pa-s; liquid density = 1200 kg/m3. Calculate:

a. 7138 b. 15000 c. 8273 d. 9569

a. 0.00884 b. 0.00727 c. 0.00990 d. 0.00698

29. 1000 cfm of air at 95oF dry bulb and 70oF wet bulb is mixed with 2000 cfm of air

at 65oF dry bulb and 50oF wet bulb. What is the dry bulb temperature of the mixed

stream?

a. 80degF b. 78degF c. 75degF d. 63degF

30. A first order reaction with respect to a takes place in a PFR. If equal moles of B &

C are mixed with A and allowed to react for 1.5hr after which time half of A had

been consumed, how much of A is left unreacted after 3hrs?

a.18% b. 13% c. 35% d. 25%

If the process is non-flow and if no work is done on the gas except by a moving

piston, how much heat is added to or removed from the gas during the process?

a. +30.27 BTU b. -30.27 BTU c. +28.54 BTU d. -26.07 BTU

10

32. Solubility of a substance which dissolves with an increase in volume and liberation

of heat will be favoured by the

a. low pressure and high temperature. b. low pressure and low temperature.

c. high pressure and low temperature. d.high pressure and high temperature.

For #s 33-34. The analysis of flue gas from a fuel gas containing no nitrogen is

4.62% CO2, 3.08% CO, 8.91% O2, and 83.39% N2.

33. Moles of water (H2O) formed

a. 7.04 moles b. 14.08 moles c. 15.07 moles d. 22.11 moles

34. Moles of air supplied per 100 moles of dry flue gas

a. 1.055 b. 1.087 c. 1.124 d. 1.148

35. Which of the following increases the degree of separation process between that of

a more volatile component and less volatile component through distillation?

a. increasing the feed temperature b. increasing the column pressure

c. increasing the boiler temperature d. decreasing the column pressure

36. A counter – current extraction column is designed to removed 99% of solute C from

a solution of solvent A and solute C using pure solvent B. The initial concentration

of solute in the solution of A + C is 20 wt%, and the total flow of solution is 1000

kg/hr. If the equilibrium relationship is Y = 2X, where Y = mass of C/mass of A &

X = mass of C/mass of B.

a. 1454 b. 1584 c. 1676 d. 1874

37. Design a multiple-contact extraction system to treat 1.25 tones (2500 lb) per hour

of dry black ash, containing 40% Na2CO3 remains unextracted, calculate the number

of ideal stages by the absorption factor method. Note: The mass ratio of insoluble

matter to solvent in the underflow from the stage is 1:2.

a. 2 b. 1 c. 4 d. 3

38. Particles of quartz having a diameter of 0.127mm and a sg of 2.65 are setting in

water at 293.2 K. At this temp., the viscosity and density of water are 1.005x10^-3

Pa and 998 kg/m3 respectively. The volume fraction of the particles in the slurry

mixture of quartz and water is 0.25 the. hindered settling velocity is

a. 0.285 m/s b. 8.52x10^-2 m/s c. 2.74X10^-3 m/s d. 2.85x10^-6

m/s

11

39. A batch centrifugal filler has a bowl height b = 0.457 m and r 2 = 0.381 m and

operates a 33.33 rev/s at 25oC.Thefiltrate is essentially water. At a given time in the

cycle the slurry and cake formed have the following properties: Cs =60 kg solids/m 3,

filtrate, 𝜀 = 0.8, Pp = 2002 kg solid/m3, cake thickness = 0.152 m, ∝ = 6.38 x 1010

m/kg, Rm = 8.53 x 1014/m, r1 = 0.2032 m. The rate of filtrate flow is

a. 6.11 x 10-4m3/s b. 5.55 x 10-4m3/s c. 3.11 x 10-4m3/s d. 7 x 10-4m3/s

40. A straight line is obtained if the boiling point of a solution is plotted against the

boiling point of pure water at the same pressure for a given concentration at different

pressures. This empirical law is known as

a. BPR law b. Duhring’s Rule c. Colligative Law d. All of the

above

12

PRETEST- GENERAL ENGINEERING

A. (AT)T=A C. A+(B+C)=(A+B)+C

B. A(B+C)=AB+AC D. (AB)-1=A-1B-1

2. The sides of a triangle have a total length of 100 inches. The angles are in the

continued proportion 1:2:4. Find the side opposite the smallest triangle.

A. 20.80 in B. 35.69 in C. 19.80 in D. 17.21 in

3. One of the most popular arithmetic books of all time (The Scholar’s Guide to

Arithmetic by Bonniecastle, 6th edition 1795) contains the exercise. If a cardinal

can pray a soul in purgatory, by himself, in an hour, a bishop in three hours, a priest

in five and a friar in seven, how long will it take then to pray out three souls from

purgatory, all praying together? Which of these is nearest to the expected answer?

A. 1 h 41.5 min B. 1 h 46 min C. 1 h 47.5 min D. an eternity

4. There is 30% chance to rain today. If it does not rain today, there is a 20% chance

of rain tomorrow. If it rains today, there is a 50% chance of rain tomorrow. What

is the probability that it rains tomorrow?

A. 0.27 B. 0.28 C. 0.29 D. 0.26

5. A road run 1200 m from A to B and then makes a right triangle going to C, a

distance of 500 m. A new road is being built directly from A to C. How much

shorter will the new road be?

A. 600 m B.400 m C. 500 m D. 300 m

6. A dam was constructed for P 200,000. The annual maintenance cost P 5000. If

interest is 5% the capitalized cost of the dam, including depreciation is

A. P100,000 B. 215,000 C. 250,000 D. P300,000

7. An investment of x pesos is made at the end of each year for three years, at an

interest rate of 9% per year compounded annually. What will the peso value of the

total investment be upon the deposit of the third payment?

A. 0.772x B. 1.295x C. 2.27x D. 3.278x

8. A store gives discount at less 26%/ less 5% of its tag price of a certain item. The

store wants to increase its discounted sales price by decreasing the discount to less

20 %/ less 5%. What is the effective increase in the discounted sales price?

A. 8.1% B. 5.7% C. 12.2% D. 15.5%

9. A train, an hour after starting, meets with an accident which detains it an hour, after

which it proceeds at 3/5 of its former rate and arrives three hour after time; but had

the accident happened 50 miles farther on the line it would have arrived one and

one-half hour sooner. Find the length of the journey.

A. 910/9 miles B. 800/9 miles C. 920/9 miles D. 850/9 miles

13

10. Japee left his home at past 3 o’clock PM as indicated in his wall clock, between 2-

3 hours after, Japee returns home and noticed that hands of the clock interchanged.

At what time did Japee leave his home?

A. 3:31.47 B. 3:21.45 C. 3:46.10 D.3:36.50

11. From the time 6:15 PM to the time 7:45 PM of the same day, the minute hand of a

standard clock describes an arc of?

A. 60o B. 90o C. 180o D.540o

12. A rubber ball is made to fall from a height of 50 feet and is observed to rebound

2/3 of the distance it falls. How far will the ball travel before coming to rest if the

ball continues to fall in this manner?

A. 200 feet B. 225 feet C. 250 feet D. 275 feet

13. An express train goes past a station platform at high speed. A person standing the

edge of the platform tends to be

A. Attracted to the train

B. Repelled from the train

C. Attracted or repelled; depending on the ratio between the speed of the train and

the speed of sound

D. Unaffected by the train’s passage

14. A company which manufactures electric motors has a production capacity of 200

motors a month. The variable cost are 150.00 per motor. The average selling price

of motors is P275.00. Fixed costs of the company amount to P 20,000 per month

which includes taxes. The number of motors that must be sold each month to break

even is closest to:

A. 40 B. 150 C. 80 D. 160

15. A diagonal of a parallelogram is 56.38 ft long and makes an angle of 27 o 13’ and

16o 24’ respectively with the sides. Find the area of the parallelogram.

A. 595 ft2 B. 585 ft2 C. 575 ft2 D. 565 ft2

16. If the diameter of a sphere is increased by 40 percent, by what percent is the volume

increased?

A. 144.7% B. 147.4% C.177.4% D. 174.4%

17. The sequence of numbers 1,8,27,64… is called

A. square numbers B. pentagonal numbers C. oblong numbers D. cubic

numbers

18. If (0, 4) and (1, 6) are critical points of y=a+bx+cx3, find the value of c.

A. 1 B. 2 C. -1 D. -2

A. Its mass increases

B. Its weight increases

14

C. Its mass decreases

D. Its weight decreases

20. When a horse pulls a wagon, the force that causes the horse to move forward is the

force

A. He exerts on the wagon

B. He exerts on the ground

C. The wagon exerts on him

D. The ground exerts on him

21. The action and reaction forces referred to in Newton’s third law of motion

A. Act on the same object

B. Act on different object

C. Need not be equal in magnitude and need not have the same line of action

D. Must be equal in magnitude but need not have the same line of action

A. piracy B. plagiarism C. infringement D. xerox

23. The moment of inertia of any plane figure can be expressed in units of length to the

__ power.

A. second B. third C. first D. fourth

24. What is the height of the parabolic arch which has a span of 48 feet and having a

height of 20 feet at a distance from the center of the span?

A. 30 ft B. 40 ft C. 36 ft

D. 34 ft

25. A circle whose center is at (6, 8) passes through the origin. Which of the following

points is not on the circle?

A. (12, 0) B. (6, -2) C. (16, 8) D. (-2, 8)

A. 3x2-4x-8

B. 3x2+4x-8

C. 3x2-6x-8

D. 3x2+6x+8

27. How far does an automobile move while its speed increases uniformly from 15kph

to 45kph in 20 seconds?

A. 167 m

B. 185 m

C. 190 m

D. 200 m

15

28. At time t=0 a car has a velocity of 16 m/s. It slows down with an acceleration given

by -0.50t, in m/s2 for t in seconds. It stops at t=__

A. 64 s B. 32 s C. 16 s D. 8.0 s

29. An object is thrown straight up from ground level with a speed of 50 m/s. If g = 10

m/s2 its distance above ground level 1.0 s later is:

A. 40 m B. 45 m C. 50 m D. 55 m

A. Order one, degree two, and non linear

B. Order two, degree one, and linear

C. Order one, degree one, and non linear

D. Order two, degree two, and non linear

16

ANSWER KEY:

PCP ChE GE

1. B 1. D 1. D

2. A 2. A 2. C

3. D 3. D 3. C

4. D 4. C 4. C

5. C 5. A 5. B

6. A 6. D 6. D

7. B 7. B 7. D

8. A 8. C 8. A

9. B 9. B 9. B

10. D 10. C 10. A

11. C 11. D 11. D

12. B 12. D 12. C

13. B 13. A 13. A

14. B 14. B. 14. D

15. C 15. B 15. A

16. C 16. A 16. D

17. A 17. A 17. D

18. B 18. B 18. C

19. B 19. A 19. D

20. C 20. A 20. D

21. C 21. A 21. B

22. D 22. B 22. C

23. C 23. A 23. D

24. B 24. B 24. C

25. C 25. B 25. D

26. B 26. A 26. D

27. B 27. A 27. A

28. A 28. A 28. D

29. D 29. C 29. B

30. C 30. D 30. C

31. D

32. B

33. B

34. A

35. D

36. B

37. A

38. C

39. B

40. B

17

18

GENERAL CHEMISTRY

containing 7.50 g CaCl2?

a. 0.0676 M c. 0.248 M

b. 0.193 M d. 0.535 M

a. 1 b. 2

c. 3 d. 4

3. What is the orbital angular momentum quantum number, l, of the electron that is

most easily removed when ground-state aluminum is ionized?

a. 3 b. 2

c. 1 d. 0

a. CH3CH2COOH b. CH3COOH

c. CH3CH2 CH2OH d. HCOOCH2CH3

a. Ca+2 b. K+

c. Ar d. Cl- e.S-2

a. Density b. temperature

c. Color d. Volume

a. Cl b. Na

c. B d. P

a.33.3% Ca and 66.7% Cl c. 36.1% Ca and 63.9% Cl

b.53.1% Ca and 46.9% Cl d. 69.3% Ca and 30.7% Cl

9. 0.1 M aqueous solutions of each of the following, which solution has the lowest

pH?

a. Na2CO3 b. Na3PO4

c. Na2S d. NaCl

19

10. How many protons (p), neutrons (n) and electrons (e) are there, respectively, in

an atom of the chlorine-39 isotope? Atomic number of Cl=17

a.17 p, 17 n, 22 e b. 22 p, 17 n, 17 e

c. 17 p, 39 n, 17 e d.17 p, 22 n, 17 e

a. HCl / NaOH b. H3O+ / H2O

c. O2 / H2O d. H+/Cl- e. NaCl/ OH-

a. The process is exothermic

b. The entropy of the system increases

c. The internal energy of the system decreases

d. The total entropy of the system plus the surrounding increases

13. 0.100 M solution of a weak monoprotic acid HX is 3.5% ionized. What is the pH

of a 0.500 M solution of HX?

a. 0.30 b. 1.76

c. 2.10 d. 2.46

a. NH3 b. F-

c. H2O d. Zn2+

a. -3 b. -2

c. +3 d. +5

16. A system expands in volume from 2.0L to 24.5L at constant temperature. Calculate

the work (w), in kJ, if the expansion occurs against a constant pressure of 5.00 atm.

a. -11.4 kJ b. 11.4 kJ

c. -4.14 kJ d.-1.14 kJ

17. Which of the following diatomic molecule has the longest bond length?

a.N2 b. Cl2

c. O2 d. I2

a. 6 b. 4

c. 5 d. 7

20

19. For the following molecule, what is the hybridization for

each carbon?

a. sp c. sp4

2

b. sp d. sp3

20. Consider the molecular substances I2, H2O, and C8H18. Which of them is/are

soluble in CCl4?

a. only I2 b. only H2O

c. only C8H18 d. I2 and C8H18

e. H2O and C8H18

21. Which change will increase the number of moles of PCl 5(g) present at equilibrium?

PCl3(g) + Cl2(g) → PCl5(g) + heat

a. The volume of the reaction is tripled c. Some of the Cl 2(g) is removed

b. The reaction vessel is cooled d. Krypton gas is added to the reaction vessel

22. A gaseous compound is composed of 85.7% C and 14.3%H. Its density is 2.28 g/L

at 300K and 1.00 atm pressure. Determine the molecular formula of the compound.

C=12.01, H=1.01

a. C2H4 b. C3H6

c. C4H8 d. C5H10

1.251𝑔⁄𝑐𝑚3.What is the molarity of the solution? H=1.01, Cl=35.45, O=15.99

a. 4.36 M b. 3.46 M

c. 6.43 M d. 2.46 M

24. A current of 15.0 A is passed through a solution of CrCl 2 for 45 min. How many

gram of Cr is deposited on the cathode? Cr=52.00, Cl=35.45

a. 9.10 g Cr b. 11.9 g Cr

c. 10.9 g Cr d. 8.9 g Cr

25. A 1.500 g sample of a compound containing only C,H, and O was burned

completely. The only combustion products were 1.738 g CO 2 and 0.711 g H2O.

What is the empirical formula of the compound? C=12.01, H=1.01, O=15.99

a. C2H4O3 b. C2H3O2

c. C3H4O2 d. C3H4O3

26. A certain public water supply contained 0.10 ppb (parts per billion) of chloroform,

CHCl3. How many molecules of CHCl3 would be contained in a 0.050 mL drop of

this water? C=12.01, H=1.01, O=15.99

a. 5.2 x10-10 molecules b. 3.5 x1010 molecules

-10

c. 2.5 x10 molecules d. 2.5 x1010 molecules

21

27. According to EPA guidelines the permissible level for lead in drinking water is 15

parts per billion (ppb). What is the maximum allowable mass of lead that could be

present in 1.00 L of H2O?

a. 0.015 ng b. 0.015mg

c. 0.015µg d. 0.015g

28. According to the Tyndall effect, a beam of light becomes visible when passed

through all of the following except a/an

a. aerosol b. emulsion

c. colloid d. solution

a. boiling point b. vapor pressure

c. enthalpy of vaporization d.viscosity

30. The rate constant of a first-order reaction is 3.68 x10-2s-1 at 150 oC, and the

activation energy is 71 kJ/mol. What is the value of the rate constant at 170 oC?

a. 9.2 x10-2s-1 b. 3.7 x10-2s-1

c. 2.49 s-1 d. 4.0 x10-2s-1

22

ANSWER KEY

General Chemistry

1) B. 0.193 M

2) B. 2

3) C.1

4) A. CH3CH2COOH

5) E. S-2

6) D.Volume

7) A. Cl

8) C. 36.1% Ca and 63.9% Cl

9) D. NaCl

10) D.17 p, 22 n, 17 e

11) B. H3O+ / H2O

12) D. The total entropy of the system plus the surrounding increases

13) C. 2.10

14) D. Zn2+

15) A. -3

16) A. -11.4 kJ

17) D. I2

18) A. 6

19) D. sp3

20) D. I2 and C8H18

21) B. The reaction vessel is cooled

22) C. C4H8

23) A. 4.36 M

24) C. 10.9 g Cr

25) A. C2H4O3

26) D. 2.5 x1010 molecules

27) B. 0.015 mg

28) B. emulsion

29) B. Vapor pressure

30) A. 9.2 x 10-2 s-1

23

SOLUTIONS

Required: Concentration of Calcium ion

Solution:

1𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝐶𝑎𝐶𝑙2) 1𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝐶𝑎

7.50𝑔 𝐶𝑎𝐶𝑙2 ( )( )

2+ 110.98 𝑔 𝐶𝑎𝐶𝑙2) 1 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝐶𝑎𝐶𝑙2

Concentration Ca = 0.35 𝐿

Concentration Ca2+ = 0.193 M

Solution:

𝑔

𝑀𝑜𝑙𝑒𝑐𝑢𝑙𝑎𝑟 𝑊𝑒𝑖𝑔ℎ𝑡 𝐶𝑎𝑙𝑐𝑖𝑢𝑚 40.08

𝑚𝑜𝑙

% Ca = = 𝑔 x 100%

𝑀𝑜𝑙𝑒𝑐𝑢𝑙𝑎𝑟 𝑊𝑒𝑖𝑔ℎ𝑡 𝐶𝑎𝐶𝑙2 110.98

𝑚𝑜𝑙

% Ca = 36.11%

𝑔

𝑀𝑜𝑙𝑒𝑐𝑢𝑙𝑎𝑟 𝑊𝑒𝑖𝑔ℎ𝑡 𝐶ℎ𝑙𝑜𝑟𝑖𝑛𝑒 2 𝐶𝑙 70.9

𝑚𝑜𝑙

% Cl = = 1 𝐶𝑎𝐶𝑙2 = 𝑔 x 100%

𝑀𝑜𝑙𝑒𝑐𝑢𝑙𝑎𝑟 𝑊𝑒𝑖𝑔ℎ𝑡 𝐶𝑎𝐶𝑙2 110.98

𝑚𝑜𝑙

% Cl = 63.89%

Required: pH of 0.5 M HX

Solution

HX → H + X

i 0.10 0 0

c 3.5x10-3 3.5x10 3.5x10-3

-3

[H][X]

K= [HX]

(3.5𝑥10−3)2

= 0.0965

K = 1.2694 x10-4

HX → H + X

i 0.50 0 0

c x x x

e 0.50-x x x

[H][X]

K=

[HX]

(𝑥)2

1.2694 x10-4 = 0.5−𝑥

24

X= 8.0306 x 10-3 = [H]

pH= -log [H] =-log(8.0306 x 10-3)

pH = 2.10

V1= 2.0L V2= 24.5 L

Required: work (w) in kJ

Solution

W= - PdV

W = -5 atm ( 24.5 – 2.0) L

101.3 J 1kJ

=-112.5(L−atm)(1000 J)

W = -11.4 kJ

Density = 2.28 g/L

T = 300K P= 1 atm

Required : molecular formula of the compound

Solution:

PM ρRT

ρ= ; M=

RT P

g L−atm

2.2 (0.08206 )(300K)

l mol−K

Mw = 1 atm

MW of C

% C = Mw compound ( X mol C) x 100%

12.01𝑔

𝑚𝑜𝑙

85.7% = 𝑔 (X mol of C) (100)

56.1290

𝑚𝑜𝑙

X = 4.005 mole Carbon

MW of H

% H = Mw compound ( Y mol H) x 100%

1.01g

mol

14.3% = g (Y mol of H) (100)

56.1290

mol

Y= 7.95 mole Hydrogen

25

23. Given: 35.0 % HClO4 (w/w)

Density= 1.251 g/cm3

Solution:

35 𝑔 HClO4 1.251 𝑔 𝑠𝑜𝑙𝑢𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛 𝑚𝑜𝑙 1000 cm3

Molarity = 100 𝑔 solution ( ) (100.42 𝑔 HClO4)( 1L )

𝑐𝑚3

Molarity = 4.360 M

1.738 g CO2 and 0.711 g H2O

Required: Empirical formula of the compound

Solution:

CxHyOz + O2 → CO2 + H2O

12

mass of C in CO2 = 1.738 (44) = 0.474 g of C

2

mass of H in H2O = 0.711 (18) = 0.079 g of H

mass of O is the remainder = 1.500 - ( .474 + .079) = 0.947 g of O

0.474

moles of C in CxHyOz = 12 = 0.0395 moles

moles of H = .079 moles

0.947

moles of O = 16 = 0.0592

dividing by the smallest number we have 1:2:1.5

multiply by 2 to get whole numbers ..

C:H:O = 2:4:3

Therefore the empirical formula is C2H4O3.

0.05 ml drop H2O

Solution

Molecules of CHCl3

1mL 1g 1 mol 6.022 × 1023 molecules

= 1 drop H20( )( H2O)(0.10 x10−9 )( CHCl3)( )

20 drop mL 119.3776 g mol CHCl3

Molecules of CHCl3 = 𝟐. 𝟓 × 𝟏𝟎𝟏𝟎𝐦𝐨𝐥𝐞𝐜𝐮𝐥𝐞𝐬

27. Solution

15 μg Pb

Maximum Pb allowed = 1L H2O × L H2O

𝐌𝐚𝐱𝐢𝐦𝐮𝐦 𝐏𝐛 𝐚𝐥𝐥𝐨𝐰𝐞𝐝 = 𝟎. 𝟎𝟏𝟓 𝐦𝐠

26

30. Given: k1= 3.68 x10-2 s-1 ; T1= 150 oC

Ea = 71 kJ/mol ; T2 = 170 oC

Required: rate constant, k2

Solution

k1 Ea 1 1

ln k2 = R (T2 − T1) ;

0.0368 71 1 1

ln =( )( − )

k2 0.008314 443.15 423.15

27

ENVIRONMENTAL ENGINEERING

a. BOD is a characteristic and not a constituent of water

b. BOD is a measure of the amount of oxygen which will be demanded & used in 5

days by the biological decomposition of the organic matter present in water stream

present as food for the living organism

c. BOD is expressed in mg/L

d. None of these

2. COD is a good

estimate of

a 20-day BOD b. cBOD c. nBOD d. Ultimate BOD

a. The waves used in the long distance radio communication are reflected back to

earth by stratosphere,

b. The concentric atmosphere layer just above troposphere is called stratosphere,

which is rich in ozone.

c. Mesosphere is characterized by very low atmospheric pressure and low

temperature,

d. Troposphere is a dusty zone containing water vapour and clouds.

a. Several grab samples at various flows

b. A grab sample of the effluent at high flow

c. A grab sample of the effluent at low flow

d. A 24-hour composite sample of the effluent

a. TOD > BOD > COD c.BOD > COD > TOD

b. TOD > COD > BOD d.COD > BOD > TOD

6 Pick out the correct statement

a. BOD5 is the ultimate BOD

b. BOD5 is greater than BOD4 keeping other conditions same

c. BOD5 is less than BOD4 keeping other conditions same

d. BOD5 is equal to BOD4 keeping other conditions same

28

7. The rate of BOD exerted at any time is

a. Directly proportional to BOD satisfied

b. Directly proportional to BOD remaining

c. Inversely proportional to BOD satisfied

d. Inversely proportional to BOD remaining

a. 1/3 b. 2/3 c. ¼ d. ¾

9. What would be the effect on a BOD determination if the dilution water used

contained either copper or chloride?

a. BOD would be higher c. DO level would increase

b. BOD would be lower d. DO level would decrease

Reason (R) : The efficiency of certain treatment methods depends upon availability of

pH value.

a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation Of A

b. Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A

c. A is true but R is false

d. A is false but R is true

11. In sampling waste water for a BOD test, the best results are obtained from

a. A grab sample

b. A 24-hour composite sample

c. A sample made of 2 to 4 portions taken at time of high flow

d. A sample taken at time of low flow

12. The three measurements that are essential in calculating the solids and organics on

a waste water treatment plant are

a. Flow, BOD, DO

b. Flow, BOD, SS

c. BOD, SS, DO

d. BOD, SS, pH

29

13, The following data are given for an SS determination: filtered 100 mL sample;

tare weight= 14.9913 g ; SS= 1312 mg/L. The final weight after drying in grams was

a. 14.8601 b. 14.7289 c. 15.1225

d.15.2537

14. This disease is caused by poisoning of a certain chronic chemical that impairs

kidney function and progressively causes osteomalacia, a calcium deficiency. What is

disease and what heavy metal causes it?

b. Cadmium- Itai-ltai disease

C. Silver- Argyria

d. Chromium - Chromium toxicity

15. The best procedure for determining the SS of a plant effluent is to analyze

a. A series of grab samples taken at different times during the day

b. A grab sample of the effluent at high flow

c. A grab sample of the effluent at low flow

d. A 24-hour composite sample of the effluent

16. .A five day B.O.D at 150C of the sewage of a town is 100 kg/day. If the 5 day B.O

D, per head at 150C for standard sewage is 0.01 kg/day, the population equivalent is

a. 500

b. 1000

c. 5000

d. 10000

17. The following data are given for a BOD test: 1, 0.5 and 0.1 percent samples were

set up. Initial DO for all samples was 7.6 mg/L. Final DO was 0 mg/L for all samples.

The seed correction was 0.6 mg/L. From the results of this test we conclude

a. The BOD is less than 700 c. The BOD is than 7000

b. The BOD is greater than 700 d. The BOD is greater than 7000

30

18. In a lab measurement of BOD, 10 mL of waste water is diluted to 300 mL. The

initial D.O. level (after dilution) Is 10 mg/L. The test bottle is incubated at 20 degC,

but after 3 days the incubator malfunctions and the temperature changes to degC.

After 5 days a D.O. level of 4 mg/L is measured. If the 20 degC rate constant (k) is

0.2/day and 9 = 1.05, find the correct BOD5 of the waste water.

a. 160 mg/L

b. 170 mg/L

c. 180 mg/L

d. 190 mg/L

19.200 mL of Genesee river water was collected from just below the brewery, Sample

A, 2 mL of river water diluted to ml, aerated and seeded. The dissolved oxygen

content was 7.6 mg/L initially. After 5 days, the dissolved oxygen cont had dropped

to 5.7 mg/L. A second sample, sample B was obtained 60 days later and retested in

identical fashion, initial dissolved oxygen was 7.5 mg/L and, after 5 days, dropped to

5.3 mg/L. Which water sample was cleaner?

a. Sample A

b. Sample B

c. Both samples are the same

d. Cannot be determined

20. A midnight dumper discharged a tank truck full of industrial waste in a gravel pit.

The truck was spotted there 3 days and a pool of pure waste remains, A laboratory

technician determined that the waste has a 5-day BOD of 80 mg/L rate constant of 0.1

per day. Three factories in the vicinity generate organic wastes: a winery (ultimate

BOD=275 mg vinegar manufacturer (ultimate BOD=80 mg/L) and a pharmaceutical

company (ultimate BOD=200 mg/L). Determine the source of the waste

a. Winery

b. Vinegar Manufacturer

c. Pharmaceutical company

d. Cannot be determined

31

21. A waste having an ultimate CBOD of 1,000 mg/L is discharged into a river at a

rate of 2 m3/s. The river has an ultimate CBOD of 10 mg/L and is flowing at a rate of

8 m3/s, Assuming a reaction rate coefficient of 0.1/day, calculate the CBOD the waste

at 20 km downstream. The river is flowing at a velocity of 10 km/day.

a. 36.6 mg/L

b. 37.7 mg/L

c. 38.8 mg/L

d. 39.9mg/L

22. Assume that the BOD of a sample to be tested is about 200 mg/L and the DO

is zero.

DO of dilution water to be used

is known to be 8 mg/L. Which of the following ratios of dilution water to waste

water sample would most logically be used in setting up a BOD bottle for

incubation and testing?

a. 50:1

b 40:1

c. 30:1

d. 20:1

23 Calculate the total hardness of water containing the following per titer

NazCOs= 14.6 Mg(HCO3)2= 7.3mg Ca(HCO3)2 = 16.2

MgCl2 = 9.5 mg CaCl2 = 11.1 mg Na2SO4 =4.9 mg

CaSO4 = 13.6 mg HCO3 =8.7 mg MgSO4 = 12 mg

a. 44 mg/L

b. 55 mg/L

c. 66 mg/L

d. 77 m/L

24. The tannery with a waste water flow of 0.011 m3/s and a BOD5 of 590 mg/L

discharges into the creek. The creek has a 10 year, 7 day low flow of 1.7 m 3/s.

Upstream of the tannery, the BODs of the creek is 0.6 mg/L. The BOD rate

constant for the tannery and creek are 0.115 day-1 and 3.7 day-1 respectively.

Calculate the ultimate BOD after mixing.

a. 8.3 mg/L

b. 9.3 mg/L

c. 10.3 mg/L

d. 11.3 mg/L

32

25. A solid analysis is to be performed on a waste water sample. The abbreviated

procedure is outlined as follows:

i. A gooch crucible and filter pad are dried at 105 degC to a constant mass of

25.439g.

ii. 200 mL of a well-mixed sample is passed through the filter pad.

iii. It is then dried at 105 degC to a constant mass of 25. 645 g.

iv. 100 mL of the filtrate that passes through the filter pad in step ii above is

placed in an evaporation dish that had been pre-weighed at 275.410 g.

v. The sample in Sted iv is evaporated to dryness at 105 degC and the dish

and residue are weighed at 276. 227 g.

vi. Both the crucible from step ill and the evaporation dish from step v are

placed in a furnace at 550 degC for an hour. After cooling in desiccators, the

mass of the crucible is 25.501 g and the mass of the dish is 275.944 g.

Determine the Total Solid of the waste water sample.

a. 9200 mg/L

b. 9300 mg/L

c. 9400 mg/L

d. 9500 mg/L

33

ANSWER KEY

Environmental Engineering

1. D. None of these

2. A. 20-day BOD

3. A. The radio waves used in long distance radio communication are

reflected back to earth by stratosphere

4. A. Several grab samples at various flow

5. B. TOD > COD >BOD

6. C. BOD5 is lless than BOD4 keeping other conditions same

7. B. Directly proportional to BOD remaining

8. B. 2/3

9. B. BOD would be lower

10. A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

11. B. A 24-hour composite sample

12. B. Flow, BOD, SS

13. C. 15.1225

14. B. Cadmium- Itai-itai disease

15. D. A 24-hour composite sample of the effluent

16. D. 10000

17. D. The BOD is greater than 7000

18. B. 170 mg/L

19. B. Sample B

20. C. Pharmaceutical company

21. B. 37.7 mg/L

22. A. 50:1

23. B. 55 mg/L

24. B. 9.3 mg/L

25. A. 9200 mg/L

34

SOLUTIONS

13. SS (mg/L)= 𝑠𝑎𝑚𝑝𝑙𝑒 𝑣𝑜𝑙𝑢𝑚𝑒

𝑋−14.9913𝑥103

1312 (mg/L)= 100

1000

X= 15.1225 g

16. Population Equivalent (PE)= 𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑑𝑎𝑟𝑑 𝑠𝑒𝑤𝑎𝑔𝑒

100 𝑘𝑔/𝑑𝑎𝑦

Population Equivalent (PE)= 0.01 𝑘𝑔/𝑑𝑎𝑦

PE= 10000

𝑚𝑔

7.6 −5.7 𝑚𝑔/𝐿

𝐿

19. BOD5,1= 2𝑚𝐿 =238 mg/L

250 𝑚𝐿

𝑚𝑔

7.5 −5.3 𝑚𝑔/𝐿

𝐿

BOD5,2= 2𝑚𝐿 =275mg/L

1000𝑚𝐿

* BOD5,1=𝐿𝑜(1 − e−𝑘𝑡 )

238 mg/L=𝐿𝑜(1 − e−0.23𝑥5 )

Lo=348 mg/L

* BOD5,2=𝐿𝑜(1 − e−𝑘𝑡 )

275 mg/L=𝐿𝑜(1 − e−0.23𝑥5 )

Lo=402 mg/L

(pharmaceutical)

35

21. cBOD = 1000 mg/L (2m3/s)

K=0.1/day

v= 10 km/day

𝑚𝑔 2000𝐿 8000𝐿

1000 ( )+10 𝑚𝑔/𝐿( )

𝐿 𝑠 𝑠

Lo=

2000+8000

BOD=𝐿𝑜(1 − e−𝑘𝑡 )

20 𝑘𝑚

t=10 𝑘𝑚/𝑑𝑎𝑦=2 days

= 37.7 mg/L

1 𝑚𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝑐𝑎𝑆𝑂4 1𝑚𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝐶𝑎 1𝑚𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝐶𝑎𝐶𝑂3

23. CaSO4= 13.6 mg x 136.08 𝑚𝑔 𝑐𝑎𝑆𝑂4 𝑥 1𝑚𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝐶𝑎𝑆𝑂4

𝑥

1𝑚𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝐶𝑎

𝑥 100 𝑚𝑔 =9.99 mg

1 𝑚𝑚𝑜𝑙 MgCl2 1𝑚𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝑀𝑔 1𝑚𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝑀𝑔𝐶𝑂3

MgCl2= 9.5 mg x 𝑥 𝑥 𝑥 100 𝑚𝑔 =10 mg

94.9 𝑚𝑔 MgCl2 1𝑚𝑚𝑜𝑙 MgCl2 1𝑚𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝑀𝑔

Mg(HCO3)2= 7.3mg x

1 𝑚𝑚𝑜𝑙 Mg(HCO3)2 1𝑚𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝑀𝑔 1𝑚𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝑀𝑔𝐶𝑂3

𝑥 𝑥 𝑥 100 𝑚𝑔 =5 mg

146 𝑚𝑔 Mg(HCO3)2 1𝑚𝑚𝑜𝑙 Mg(HCO3)2 1𝑚𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝑀𝑔

CaCl2= 11.1 mg x 𝑥 𝑥 𝑥 100 𝑚𝑔 =10 mg

140.9 𝑚𝑔 CaCl2 1𝑚𝑚𝑜𝑙 CaCl2 1𝑚𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝐶𝑎

MgSO4= 12 mg x 𝑥 𝑥 𝑥 100 𝑚𝑔 =10 mg

120.08 𝑚𝑔 𝑀𝑔𝑆𝑂4 1𝑚𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑀𝑔𝑆𝑂4 1𝑚𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝑀𝑔

Ca(HCO3)2=16.2mg x

1 𝑚𝑚𝑜𝑙 Ca(HCO3)2 1𝑚𝑚𝑜𝑙 Ca 1𝑚𝑚𝑜𝑙 Ca𝐶𝑂3

𝑥 1𝑚𝑚𝑜𝑙 Ca(HCO3)2 𝑥 𝑥 100 𝑚𝑔 =10 mg

162 𝑚𝑔 Ca(HCO3)2 1𝑚𝑚𝑜𝑙 Ca

BODp=590 mg/L

Qs=1.7 m3/s

BODs=0.6 mg/L

36

BOD=𝐿𝑜(1 − e−𝑘𝑡 )

590 mg/L=𝐿𝑜(1 − e−0.115𝑥5 )=1349.20 mg/L

0.6 mg/L=𝐿𝑜(1 − e−3.7𝑥5)=0.6 mg/L

0.011𝑚3 𝑚𝑔 𝑚3 𝑚𝑔

( )(1349.20 )+(1.7 )(0.6 )

𝑠 𝐿 𝑠 𝐿

Lo= 0.011+1.7

Lo=9.27 mg/L

(25.645𝑔−25.439𝑔)(1000𝑚𝑔)

25. FS = 1𝐿

200 𝑚𝐿𝑥( )

1000 𝑚𝐿

= 1030 mg/L

(276.227𝑔−275.410𝑔)(1000𝑚𝑔)

VS= 1𝐿

200 𝑚𝐿𝑥( )

1000 𝑚𝐿

= 8170 mg/L

37

BIOCHEMICAL ENGINEERING

1. A biological agent that accelerates the rate of chemical reaction but whose quantity or

concentration and chemical identity remains theoretically unchanged at the end of reaction.

A. Catalyst B. Enzyme C. Substrate D. Inhibitor

t1/2=0.001/[proflavin]0, then the most feasible chemical equation that will represent the

equation is:

A. 2(proflavin) –k(Proflavin)2 C. proflavin + enzyme –k(proflavin)2

B. Proflavine –kiso-proflavin D. proflavin + enzyme –kiso-proflavin

3. A widely accepted model for enzyme-substrate complex formation which suggests that

enzymes are flexible structures in which the active site continually reshapes by its

interaction with the substrate until the time the substrate is completely bound to it.

A. Lock-and-key model C. Induced-fit model

B. Michaelis-Menten model D. Pseudoplastic model

4. In enzyme-catalyzed reactions, the molecules acted upon by the enzymes (i.e., reactant

molecules) are called

A. Substrate B. Inhibitors C. Ligands D. Catalysts

enzyme-substrate complex is favored when

A. KM is low

B. KM is high

C. Vmax is 0

D. Vmax is large

6. Turnover number is the number of _______ that can be covered per unit time per

active site on the enzyme.

A. Inhibitor molecules C. Substrate molecules

B. Enzyme-substrate molecules D. Enzyme-substrate-inhibitor molecule

A. The reaction rate is proportional to the substrate concentration (that is, first-order

reaction) when the substrate concentration is in the low range.

B. The reaction rate does not depend on the substrate concentration when the substrate

concentration is high, since the reaction rate changes gradually from first order to zero

order as the substrate concentration is increased.

C. The Michaelis-Menten constant KM is proportional to the enzyme concentration within

the range of the enzyme tested.

D. All choices are true.

38

8. A nonprotein compound which combines with an otherwise inactive protein

(apoenzyme) to give a catalytically active complex.

A. Haloenzyme B. Cofactor C. Inhibitor D. Ligand

A. Haloenzyme B. Cofactor C. Inhibitor D. Ligand

10. In ______, the inhibitor has some degree of similarity with the substrate.

A. Competitive inhibition C. Uncompetitive inhibition

B. Noncompetitive inhibition D. Substrate inhibition

11. In _____, the inhibitor does not affect the value of Vmax but affects the value of KM.

A. Competitive inhibition C. Uncompetitive inhibition

B. Noncompetitive inhibition D. Substrate inhibition

A. Increases, decreases C. Increases, increases

B. Decreases, increases D. Decreases, decreases

A. Transferases C. Allosteric enzymes

B. Hydrases D. Oxidoreductases

14. Confinement of enzyme in a phase (matrix or support) over which the substrate is

passed and converted to products (carrier-binding method)

A. Inhibition C. Encapsulation

B. Immobilization D. Allosteric regulation

A. Physical D. Entrapment

B. Chemical E. All are immobilization techniques

C. Surface immobilization

A. Zero order C. Second order

B. First order D. Pseudo-first order

17. In this type of reactor, the liquid volume is kept constant by setting the outlet flow

rate equal to the inlet flow rate. However, the inlet flow rate is adjusted to keep the

biomass concentration constant.

A. Batch reactor B. PFR C. Chemostat D. Turbidostat

39

For questions 18-20:

Aspergillus niger is used to produce gluconic acid. Product synthesis is monitored in a

fermenter; gluconic acid concentration is measured as a function of time for the first 39 h

of culture.

0 3.6

16 22

24 51

28 66

32 97

39 167

18. Determine the order of reaction

A. Zero order C. Second order

B. First order D. It follows Michaelis-Menten kinetics

A. 3.85 g/L-h B. 0.10 h-1 C. 0.007 L/g-h D. 2.76 L2/g2-h

A. 5.6 g/L B. 29.49 g/L C. 11.1 g/L D. 34.7 g/L

Amylglucosidase from Endomycopsis bispora is immobilized in a very small

polyacrylamide gel beads. The activities of immobilized and soluble enzymes are

compared at 80OC. Initial rate data are measured at a fixed substrate concentration with

the following results:

Enzyme Activity

Immobilized

Time, min Soluble Enzyme

Enzyme

0 0.86 0.45

3 0.79 0.44

6 0.70 0.43

9 0.65 0.43

15 0.58 0.41

20 0.46 0.40

25 0.41 0.39

30 --- 0.38

40 --- 0.37

21. What is the half-life for the soluble enzyme?

A. 23.46 min B. 38.97 min C. 137 min D. 336.1 min

A. 23.46 min B. 38.97 min C. 137 min D. 336.1 min

40

For problems 23 and 24:

A substrate is converted to a product by the catalytic action of an enzyme. Assume that

the Michaelis-Menten kinetics parameters for this enzyme are: KM=0.04 mol/L and

Vmax=12.5 mol/L-min.

23. What should be the size of a steady state CSTR to convert 98% of the incoming

substrate (CSO=15 mol/L) with a flow rate of 10 L/h?

A. 0.11 L B. 0.22 L C. 0.33 L D. 0.44 L

24. If a PFR of size equal to that of the CSTR in item 23 is used, what would be the

substrate conversion?

A. 0.245 B. 0.896 C. 0.989 D. 0.999

Eadie (1942) measured the initial reaction rate of hydrolysis of acetylcholine (substrate)

by dog serum (source of enzyme) in the absence and presence of prostigmine (inhibitor),

1.5x10-7 mol/L and obtained the following data:

Substrate Concentration Initial reaction rate (mol/L-min)

(mol/L) Absence of Prostigmine Presence of Prostigmine

0.0032 0.111 0.059

0.0049 0.148 0.071

0.0062 0.143 0.091

0.0080 0.166 0.111

0.0095 0.200 0.125

25. What type of inhibitor is prostigmine?

A. Competitive C. Uncompetitive

B. Noncompetitive D. Substrate

A. 0.001 B. 0.002 C. 0.003 D. 0.004

Zymoonas mobilis is used to convert glucose to ethanol in a batch fermenter under

anaerobic conditions. The yield of biomass from substrate is 0.06 g/g; YPX=7.7 g/g. The

maintenance coefficient is 2.2 g/g-h; the specific rate of product formation due to

maintenance is 1.1/h. The maximum specific growth rate of Z. mobilis is approximately

0.3/h. Five grams of bacteria are inoculated into 50 L of medium containing 12 g/L

glucose. Determine the batch culture time required to:

27. Produce 10 g of biomass.

A. 3.4 h B. 3.7 h C. 5.4 h D. 5.7 h

A. 3.4 h B. 3.7 h C. 5.4 h D. 5.7 h

A. 3.4 h B. 3.7 h C. 5.4 h D. 5.7 h

41

30. Which of the following statements is false?

A. In fermentation broths, the desired product is present within a complex mixture of

many components.

B. Any treatment of the culture broth of fermentation to concentrate and purify the

product is known as downstream processing.

C. In most cases, downstream processing requires only physical modifications.

D. Harvested fermentation broths are not susceptible to contamination.

ANSWER KEY

Biochemical Engineering

1. B. Enzyme

2. A. 2(proflavin) –k(Proflavin)2

3. C. Induced-fit model

4. A. Substrate

5. A. KM is low

6. C. Substrate molecules

7. C. The Michaelis-Menten constant KM is proportional to the enzyme

concentration within the range of the enzyme tested.

8. B. Cofactor

9. C. Inhibitor

10. A. Competitive inhibition

11. A. Competitive inhibition

12. D. Decreases, decreases

13. C. Allosteric enzymes

14. B. Immobilization

15. E. All are immobilization techniques

16. B. First order

17. D. Turbidostat

18. B. First order

19. B. 0.10 h-1

20. B. 29.49 g/L

21. A. 23.46 min

22. C. 137 min

23. B. 0.22 L

24. D. 0.999

25. C. Uncompetitive

26. A. 0.001

27. B. 3.7 h

28. D. 5.7 h

29. A. 3.4 h

30. D. Harvested fermentation broths are not susceptible to contamination.

42

SOLUTIONS

𝑑𝐶

𝑟𝐴 = 𝑑𝑡𝐴 = 𝑘1 𝐶𝐴 where A denotes gluconic acid. Integrating this equation and taking

natural logarithm gives:

𝑙𝑛𝐶𝐴 = 𝑙𝑛𝐶𝐴0 + 𝑘1 𝑡

Therefore, a semi-log plot of gluconic acid concentration versus time will give a straight

line with slope k1 as shown in the figure. The first-order model fits the data as well.

Plugging in the values for t and CA in the equation 𝑙𝑛𝐶𝐴 = 𝑙𝑛𝐶𝐴0 + 𝑘1 𝑡 gives:

𝟎.𝟏𝟎 𝑔

𝒌𝟏 = 𝒉 and 𝐶𝐴0 = 4.1 𝐿

The kinetic equation is:

𝐶𝐴 = 𝐶𝐴0 𝑒 𝑘𝑡

𝐶𝐴 = 4.1𝑒 0.1𝑡

At t = 20:

𝒈

𝐶𝐴 = 4.1𝑒 0.1(20) = 𝟑𝟎. 𝟐𝟗𝟓𝟏

𝑳

Let: E0 = initial amount of enzyme; E0(t) = amount of active enzyme after time (t)

𝑉𝑚𝑎𝑥 = 𝑘2 [𝐸0 ]

Assuming a first order degradation kinetics:

[𝐸0 (𝑡)] = [𝐸0 ](𝑒 −𝑘𝑑 𝑡 )

Then, the maximum reaction rate at different times can be written as:

𝑉𝑚𝑎𝑥 (𝑡) = 𝑘2 [𝐸0 (𝑡)] = 𝑘2 [𝐸0 ](𝑒 −𝑘𝑑 𝑡 ) = 𝑉𝑚𝑎𝑥 (𝑒 −𝑘𝑑 𝑡 )

Recalling the Michaelis-Menten equation:

𝑉𝑚𝑎𝑥 [𝑆] 𝑘2 [𝐸0 ][𝑆]

𝑉= =

𝑘𝑚 + [𝑆] 𝑘𝑚 + [𝑆]

At constant substrate concentration [S], the reaction rate is directly proportional to v max, we

can use v instead of vmax:

𝑉(𝑡) = 𝑉0 (𝑒 −𝑘𝑑𝑡 ) ⟹ ln(𝑉(𝑡)) = ln(𝑉0 ) − 𝑘𝑑 𝑡

Plugging in the values in the above equation, we can obtain:

𝑘𝑑 = 0.0295 ⇒ 𝑓𝑜𝑟 𝑓𝑟𝑒𝑒 − 𝑠𝑜𝑙𝑢𝑏𝑙𝑒 𝑒𝑛𝑧𝑦𝑚𝑒

𝑘𝑑 = 5.0595𝑥10−3 ⇒ 𝑓𝑜𝑟 𝑖𝑚𝑚𝑜𝑏𝑖𝑙𝑖𝑧𝑒𝑑 𝑒𝑛𝑧𝑦𝑚𝑒

The half-life time is calculated as:

43

ln 2

𝑡1⁄ =

2 𝑘𝑑

𝒕𝟏⁄ = 𝟐𝟑. 𝟒𝟔 ⇒ 𝒇𝒐𝒓 𝒇𝒓𝒆𝒆 − 𝒔𝒐𝒍𝒖𝒃𝒍𝒆 𝒆𝒏𝒛𝒚𝒎𝒆

𝟐

𝒕𝟏⁄ = 𝟏𝟑𝟕 ⇒ 𝒇𝒐𝒓 𝒊𝒎𝒎𝒐𝒃𝒊𝒍𝒊𝒛𝒆𝒅 𝒆𝒏𝒛𝒚𝒎𝒆

𝟐

𝑉𝑚𝑎𝑥 [𝑆]

𝑉= ⇒ 𝑀𝑖𝑐ℎ𝑎𝑒𝑙𝑖𝑠 − 𝑀𝑒𝑛𝑡𝑒𝑛 𝑒𝑞𝑢𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛

𝑘𝑚 + [𝑆]

𝑉𝐾𝑚

𝑉𝑚𝑎𝑥 = + 𝑉 ⇒ 𝑙𝑖𝑛𝑒𝑎𝑟𝑖𝑧𝑒𝑑 𝐸𝑎𝑑𝑖𝑒 𝑒𝑞𝑢𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛

𝐶𝑆

Plugging in the values, there is a decrease in the values of Km and CS. Therefore,

prostigmine is uncompetitive inhibitor.

Plugging in the values in the Langmuir equation, we will obtain Km = 0.001

If 10 g biomass are produced by reaction, the final amount of biomass present is

15 𝑔 𝑔

(10+5) g = 15 g. Therefore, 𝑥𝑓 = 50 𝐿 = 0.3 𝐿

1 0.3𝑔 𝐿−1

𝑡𝑏 = 𝑙𝑛 = 𝟑. 𝟕 𝒉

0.3 ℎ−1 0.1𝑔 𝐿−1

𝑡𝑏 = ln [1 + ] = 𝟓. 𝟕 𝒉

0.3 ℎ−1 1 2.2𝑔 𝑔−1 ℎ−1 −1 )

( + ) ( 0.1𝑔 𝐿

0.06 𝑔 𝑔−1 0.3ℎ−1

𝑞𝑝 = 7.7𝑔 𝑔−1 (0.3ℎ−1 ) + 1.1ℎ−1 = 3.4ℎ−1

As no product is present initially, p0 = 0. Production of 100 g of ethanol corresponds to

100 𝑔 𝑔

= 2 = 𝑝𝑓

50 𝐿 𝐿

1 0.3 ℎ−1

𝑡𝑏 = ln [1 + (2 𝑔 𝐿−1 )] = 𝟑. 𝟒 𝒉

0.3 ℎ−1 (0.1𝑔 𝐿−1 )(3.4 ℎ−1 )

44

ORGANIC CHEMISTRY

Ethyne + 1) excess NaNH2 2) excess I-CH2-(CH2)2-CH3--

a. 6-iodo-1-hexyne b. 1-hexyne c. 5-decyne d. 1-iodo-1-hexene

2. The metal-catalyzed addition of hydrogen to an alkene occurs in what fashion?

a. Syn b. Anti c. Mixture of syn and anti d. neither syn nor anti

3. Pyridinium chlorochromate (PCC) ia a commercially available reagent that provides Cr

6+

( as CrO3), and does not contain water. It is useful for oxidizing primary alcohols to

aldehydes, and secondary alcohols to ketones. Which of the following compounds does

not give an aldehyde upon reaction with PCC?

a. benzyl alcohol b. cyclopentylmethanol

c. 2,2-dimethyl-1-butanol d. 3-methyl-3-pentanol

4. Which of the following statements best describes the most stable conformation of trans

1,3-dimethylcyclohexane?

a. Both methyl groups are axial c. one methyl group is axial, the other is

equatorial

b. Both methyl group are equatorial d. The molecule is severely strained and

cannot exist

5. Upon hydrogenation, which of the following alkenes releases the least heat per mole

a. 3,4-dimethyl-1-hexene

b. (Z)-3,4-dimethyl-2-hexene

c. (E)-3,4-dimethyl-2-hexene

d. (Z)-3,4-dimethyl-3-hexene

e. . (E)-3,4-dimethyl-3-hexene

bonds. The reason is that

a. the double bond is much stronger and thus more difficult to rotate

b. overlap of the sp2 orbitals of the carbon-carbon sigma bond would be lost

c. overlap of the p orbitals of the carbon-carbon pi bond would be lost

d. The shorter bond length of the double bond makes it more difficult for the attached

groups to pass one another

e. The statement is incorrect-rotation around double bonds does occur

45

7. What is the major product from the acid-catalyzed hydration of 2-methyl-2-pentene?

a. 2-methylpentane c. 2-methyl-2-pentanol e. 1- methoxypentane

b. 2-methyl-1-pentanol d. 2-methyl-3-pentanol

8. How many electrons are involved in a carbon-carbon triple bond?

a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 e. 6

9. Which of the following is a correct statement about the carbon-carbon triple bond in an

alkyne?

a. composed of one sigma bond and one pi bond

b. composed of two sigma bond and one pi bond

c. composed of one sigma bond and two pi bond

d. composed of two sigma bond and two pi bond

e. composed of one sigma bond, one pi bond and one delta bond

10. Which of the following is not used as primary standard for sodium hydroxide

solutions?

a. KHP b. Benzoic Acid c. Sulfuric Acid d. Potassium biodate

11. Which of the following nonpolar molecules should have the highest boiling point?

a. SF1 b. CH4 c. CO2 d. N2

12. The least reactive towards electrophilic

aromatic substitution

14. Which of the following reactions is associated with the inversion of configuration of

a chiral substrate?

a. Nucleophilic Substitution Bimolecular c. Nucleophilic Acyl Substitution

b. Elimination Unimolecular d. Free radical Addition

15. Which of the following is an essential fatty acid

a. palmitic acid b. stearic acid c. lauric acid d. linolenic acid

46

16. Which of the following can possibly give rise to meso compound?

17. Which of the following is the strongest Brønsted base?

18. Which of the following reactions would not be useful for converting 4,4-

diethylcyclohexanone into 1,1-diethylcyclohexane?

a. Wolff-Kischner reduction (N2H4, strong base & heat)

b. Clemmensen reduction (Zn/Hg, acid & heat)

c. Thioacetal reduction (i HSCH2CH2SH & BF3; ii H2 + Raney Ni)

d. LiAlH4 in THF & heat

19. A C5H8 hydrocarbon is reacted with BH3 in THF, followed by oxidation with alkaline

hydrogen peroxide. Treatment of the resulting product with PCC in CH2Cl2 produces a

chiral ketone, formula C5H8O. What hydrocarbon best fits these facts?

a. 1-methylcyclobutene

b. methylenecyclobutane

c. vinylcyclopropane

d. cyclopentene

20. . Determine the double bond stereochemistry (E or Z) for the following molecules.

a. A: E, B: E

b. A: Z, B: Z

c. A: E, B: Z

d. A: Z, B:E

a. 1,2 and 3

b. 1 and 2

c. Only 1

d. Only 2

a. 2

b. 3

c. 4

d. 1

47

23. What is the stereochemistry of the following compound?

a. R

b. S

c. E

d. Z

a. 1 gauche

b. 2 gauche

c. 3 gauche

d. 4 gauche

a. b. c. d. all of these

26. Conjugated alkenes are characterized by

a. Alternating and bonds.

b. Adjacent bonds.

c. bonds separated by two or more bonds.

d. A cyclic system containing 6 bonds.

27. Aryl ketones are prepared by the following reaction. This reaction is called _____ .

CO - CH3

AlCl3 / heat

+ CH3-CO Cl

c. Wolff-Kishner reaction d. Hofmann rearrangement

28. Which of the following does not have a net dipole moment?

a. H2O

b. NH3

c. BF3

d. BrF5\

48

29. Aldehydes and ketones are reduced by NaBH4 or LiAlH4 to yield ___ and ___

alcohols.

a. 10 and 20 b. 20 and 10 c. 10 and 30 d. 20 and 30

30. -bromination of carboxylic acid by a mixture of Br2 and PBr3 is called

____________.

a. Hell-Volhard Zelinskii (HVZ) reaction c. Claisen- condensation reaction

b. Robinson annulation d. Michael reaction

49

ANSWER KEY

Organic Chemistry

1. B. 1-hexyne

2 .D. neither syn nor anti

3. D. 3-methyl-3-pentanol

4. C. one methyl group is axial, the other is equatorial

5. E. (E)-3,4-dimethyl-3-hexene

6. C. overlap of the p orbitals of the carbon-carbon pi bond would be lost

7. C. 2-methyl-2-pentanol

8. E. 6

9. C. composed of one sigma bond and two pi bond

10. C. Sulfuric Acid

11. A. SF1

12. A

13. D

14. A. Nucleophilic Substitution Bimolecular

15. D. linolenic acid

16. B

17. C

18. D. LiAlH4 in THF & heat

19. A. 1-methylcyclobutene

20. D. A: Z, B:E

21. B. 1 and 2

22. A. 2

23. E

24. B. 2 gauche

25. A

26. A. Alternating and bonds.

27. B. Friedel-Crafts Acylation

28. C. BF3

29. A. 10 and 20

30. A. Hell-Volhard Zelinskii (HVZ) reaction

50

ANALYTICAL CHEMISTRY

A. States that transmittance is linearly related to concentration.

B. Requires that the product of absorptivity and pathlength be known before

absorbance can be related to concentration

C. Requires that absorptivity be independent of wavelength

D. Cannot be used if more than one absorbing species is present in a sample

Problem 2-4. A mixture containing MgCl2 (95.21 g/mol) and AlCl3 (133.33 g/mol)

weighs 3.1416g. The chlorides were precipitated using ammonia and ignited to MgO

(40.31 g/mol) and AlO3 (101.96), respectively. The oxide mixture weighs 1.2121 g.

2. Calculate %Mg in the sample?

A.2.2% B. 4.4% C. 95.6% D. 97.8%

3. How many grams of AgCl3 were in the sample?

A. 0.88 g B. 1.22 g C. 1.82 g D. 2.88 g

4. How many grams of MgO were produces after ignition?

A. 0.11 g B. 0.22 g C. 1.1 g D. 2.2 g

5. The aluminum in a 0.910 g-sample of impure ammonium aluminum sulfate was

precipitated with aqueous ammonia as the hydrous Al2O3xH2O. The precipitate was

filtered and ignited at 1000°C to give anhydrous Al2O3 which weighed 0.2001 g.

Express the result of this analysis in terms of %NH4Al(SO4)2.

A. 102.18 B. 98.12 C. 89.23 D. 108.60

Problem 6-7, A 0.2356-g sample containing only NaCl and BaCl2 yielded 0.4637 g of

dried AgCl

6. Calculate the % of each halogen compound in the sample

A. 35% NaCl, 65% BaCl2 C. 45% NaCl, 55% BaCl2

B. 65% NaCl, 35% BaCl2 D. 55% NaCl, 45% BaCl2

7. What weight of impure NaCl sample must be taken for analysis so that the weight

of AgCl precipitate obtained in mg will be equal to the %Cl in the sample?

A. 24.7 B. 35.45 C. 12.32 D. 20.12

8. In a titration experiment, a student finds that 23.48 ml of NaOH solution are needed

to neutralize 0.5468 g of KHP (MW: 204.2). What is the conc (in molarity) of the

NaOH solution?

51

A. 0.15 M B. 0.13 M C. 0.11 M D. 0.09 M

9. A 50.00 ml portion of an HCl solution required 29.71 ml of 0.01963 M Ba(OH)2 to

reach an endpoint with bromocresol green indicator. Calculate the molarity of the HCl.

A. 0.01 M B. 0.02 M C. 0.03 M D. 0.04 M

Problem 10-12. Calculate the pH in the titration of 25 ml of 0.1 M HCl by NaOH after

the addition to the acid solution of 10 ml, 25 ml, and 35 ml of 0.1 M NaOH.

10. 10 ml of 0.1 M NaOH

A. 1.37 B. 1.73 C. 1.48 D. 1.84

11. 25 ml of 0.1 M NaOH

A. 7 B. 14 C. 4 D. 1

12. 35 ml of 0.1 M NaOH

A. 13.12 B. 10.12 C. 11.34 D. 12.22

13. Ksp of AgCl at room temperature is 1x10-10. Calculate the Ag+ ion concentration

in ppm in a 0.01 M NaCl solution.

A. 0.001079 B. 0.0024 C. 0.0035 D. 0.0042

14. In an acidic solution, 25 ml of 0.021 M KMnO4 oxidize Fe2+ to Fe3+. Calculate

the mass of Fe2+ (55.85g) oxidized

A. 14.66mg B. 25.32mg C. 2.55mg D. 146.6mg

15. The presence of the following cations od solutions maybe confirmed by

conducting flame tests, except:

A. Ba+2 B. Na+1 C. Ca+2 D. Ni+2

16. A small amount of KI is added to solution of NaCN. 35 mL of 0.1200 M AgNO3

is required to produce a precipitate of AgI. Find the milligrams of NaCN present.

A. 245.6 mg B. 378.6 mg C. 397.5 mg D. 411.8 mg

17. A 0.7500 g sample of an alloy steel yielded on electrolysis 0.1532 g of a mixed

deposit of Co and Ni. This is dissolved, and the precipitated nickel dimethylglyoxime

(NiC8H14N4O4) weighs 0.3560 g. What is the percentage of the Ni in the alloy?

A. 9.64% Ni B. 10.79%Ni C. 12.43 D. 13.79% Ni

18. In the titration of a water sample using double indicator, the volume of standard

acid required for the methyl orange endpoint is equal to the volume required for the

phenolphthalein endpoint. The impurity (ies) is/are:

52

A. NaOH only B. Na2CO3 only C. NaHCO3 only D. Na2CO3

and NaOH

19. The pH value at equivalence point when titrating a weak acid against a strong base

is

A. at exactly 7 B. greater than 7 C. less than 7 D. neutral

20. EDTA is

A. not useful as a chelating agent

B. an effective antidote for heavy metal poisoning

C. known to form unstable complex ions with Fe3+, Hg2+, and Zn2+

D. a monodentate ligand

21. Which response gives the products of hydrolysis of KF?

A. KOH and HF B. OH- and HF C. KOH, H+ and F- D. no hydrolysis

22. A grain sample as received contains 10% moisture. If after drying, the dried sample

contains 15% N, then the %N in the as received sample is

A. 13.5 B. 16.67 C. 15 D. 5

23. Calculate the molarity of NaOH solution if 12.25 ml was used to titrate 0.2615

grams of primary standard KHP

A. 0.2118 B. 0.1354 C. 0.1045 D. 0.1697

24. What weight of Mn ore should be taken so that the percentage of MnO2 in the ore

can be found by multiplying by 5 the number of centigrams of Mn3O4 obtained?

A. 2.28 g B. 2.28 cg C. 228 g D. 0.228 g

25. A 10.0 ml solution containing Cl- was treated with excess AgNO3 to precipitate

00.4368 g of AgCl. What was the concentration of Cl- in the unknown? (AgCl =

143.321 g/mol)

A. 0.0384 M B. 0.8048 M C. 0.3048 M D. 0.4038 M

26. When a sample of impure potassium chloride (0.4500 g) was dissolved in water

and treated with an excess of silver nitrate, 0.8402 g of silver chloride was precipitated.

Calculate the percentage KCl in the original sample.

A. 96.27% B. 92.16% C. 96.12% D. 97.12%

27. The precipitant commonly used for the determination of calcium in gravimetric

analysis is ___.

A. NH3 B. H2C2O4 C. H2PtCl6 D. HF

53

28. Which of the following is a bidentate ligand?

A. CN- B. NH3 C. CO D. H2NCH2CH2NH2

29. Which gas is formed in the Kjeldahl analysis of nitrogen in the sample?

A. NH3 B. H2 C. N2 D. NH4Cl

30. When KMnO4 is reacted with Fe2+ in acid medium, Mn2+ and Fe3+ are formed.

The equivalent weight of KMnO4 in this reaction is equal to

A. FM/2 B. FM/4 C. FM/5 D. FM/7

ANSWER KEY

Analytical Chemistry

1. B. Requires that the product of absorptivity and path length be known before

absorbance can be related to concentration

2. A. 2.2%

3. D. 2.88 g

4. A. 0.11 g

5. A. 102.18

6. D. 55% NaCl, 45% BaCl2

7. A. 24.7

8. C. 0.11 M

9. B. 0.02 M

10. A. 1.37

11. A. 7

12. D. 12.22

13. A. 0.001079

14. D. 146.6 mg

15. D. Ni+2

16. D. 411.8 mg

17. A. 9.64% Ni

18. B. Na2CO3 only

19. B. greater than 7

20. B. an effective antidote for heavy metal poisoning

21. D. no hydrolysis

22. A. 13.5

23. C. 0.1045

24. D. 0.228 g

25. C. 0.3048 M

26. D. 97.12%

27. A. NH3

28. D. H2NCH2CH2NH2

29. A. NH3

30. C. FM/5

54

SOLUTIONS

Problem 2-4. A mixture containing MgCl2 (95.21 g/mol) and AlCl3 (133.33 g/mol) weighs

3.1416g. The chlorides were precipitated using ammonia and ignited to MgO (40.31 g/mol)

and AlO3 (101.96), respectively. The oxide mixture weighs 1.2121 g.

Calculate %Mg in the sample?

A.2.2% B. 4.4% C. 95.6% D. 97.8%

Solutions:

Let: x = mass of MgCl2

y = mass of AlCl3

𝑥 + 𝑦 = 3.1416

1 𝑀𝑔𝑂 40.31𝑔 𝑀𝑔𝑂 1 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝑀𝑔𝐶𝑙2

𝑥 𝑔 𝑀𝑔𝐶𝑙2 ( )( )( )

1 𝑀𝑔𝐶𝑙2 1 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝑀𝑔𝑂 95.21 𝑔 𝑀𝑔𝐶𝑙2

1 𝐴𝑙2𝑂3 101.96 𝑔 𝐴𝑙2𝑂3 1 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝐴𝑙𝐶𝑙3

+ 𝑦 𝑔 𝐴𝑙𝐶𝑙3 ( )( )( )

1 𝐴𝑙𝐶𝑙3 1 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝐴𝑙2𝑂3 133.33 𝑔 𝐴𝑙𝐶𝑙3

= 1.2121 𝑔

Solving for x and y:

𝑥 = 0.2652 𝑔

𝑦 = 2.8764 𝑔

1 𝑀𝑔 24.31

0.2652 𝑔 𝑀𝑔𝐶𝑙2 (1 𝑀𝑔𝐶𝑙2)(95.21)

% 𝑀𝑔 = 𝑥 100 = 𝟐. 𝟏𝟓𝟓𝟒%

3.1416

A. 0.88 g B. 1.22 g C. 1.82 g D. 2.88 g

Solutions:

Let: x = mass of MgCl2

y = mass of AlCl3

𝑥 + 𝑦 = 3.1416

55

1 𝑀𝑔𝑂 40.31𝑔 𝑀𝑔𝑂 1 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝑀𝑔𝐶𝑙2

𝑥 𝑔 𝑀𝑔𝐶𝑙2 ( )( )( )

1 𝑀𝑔𝐶𝑙2 1 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝑀𝑔𝑂 95.21 𝑔 𝑀𝑔𝐶𝑙2

1 𝐴𝑙2𝑂3 101.96 𝑔 𝐴𝑙2𝑂3 1 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝐴𝑙𝐶𝑙3

+ 𝑦 𝑔 𝐴𝑙𝐶𝑙3 ( )( )( )

1 𝐴𝑙𝐶𝑙3 1 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝐴𝑙2𝑂3 133.33 𝑔 𝐴𝑙𝐶𝑙3

= 1.2121 𝑔

Solving for x and y:

𝑥 = 0.2652 𝑔

𝑦 = 𝟐. 𝟖𝟕𝟔𝟒 𝒈

4. How many grams of MgO were produces after ignition?

A. 0.11 g B. 0.22 g C. 1.1 g D. 2.2 g

Solutions:

1 𝑀𝑔 24.31

0.2652 𝑔 𝑀𝑔𝐶𝑙2 ( )( ) = 𝟎. 𝟏𝟏𝟐𝟑 𝒈

1 𝑀𝑔𝐶𝑙2 95.21

5. The aluminum in a 0.910 g-sample of impure ammonium aluminum sulfate was

precipitated with aqueous ammonia as the hydrous Al2O3xH2O. The precipitate was

filtered and ignited at 1000°C to give anhydrous Al2O3 which weighed 0.2001 g. Express

the result of this analysis in terms of %NH4Al(SO4)2.

A. 102.18 B. 98.12 C. 89.23 D. 108.60

Solutions:

2 𝑁𝐻4𝐴𝑙 (𝑆𝑂4)2 237 𝑔 𝑁𝐻4𝐴𝑙 (𝑆𝑂4)2 1 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝐴𝑙2𝑂3

0.2001 𝑔 𝐴𝑙2𝑂3 ( )( )( )

1 𝐴𝑙2𝑂3 1 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝑁𝐻4𝐴𝑙 (𝑆𝑂4)2 101.96 𝑔 𝐴𝑙2𝑂3

𝑥 100

0.910 𝑔

= 𝟏𝟎𝟐. 𝟐𝟔%

Problem 6-7, A 0.2356-g sample containing only NaCl and BaCl2 yielded 0.4637 g of dried

AgCl

6. Calculate the % of each halogen compound in the sample

A. 35% NaCl, 65% BaCl2 C. 45% NaCl, 55% BaCl2

B. 65% NaCl, 35% BaCl2 D. 55% NaCl, 45% BaCl2

Solutions:

Let: x = mass of NaCl

y = mass of BaCl2

𝑥 + 𝑦 = 0.2356

56

1 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝑁𝑎𝐶𝑙) 1 𝐴𝑔𝐶𝑙 143.32 𝑔

𝑥 𝑔 𝑁𝑎𝐶𝑙 ( )( )( )

58.44 𝑔 1 𝑁𝑎𝐶𝑙 1 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝐴𝑔𝐶𝑙

1 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝐵𝑎𝐶𝑙2 2 𝐴𝑔𝐶𝑙 143.22 𝑔

+ 𝑦 𝐵𝑎𝐶𝑙2 ( )( )( ) = 0.4637

208.23 𝑔 1 𝐵𝑎𝐶𝑙2 1 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝐴𝑔𝐶𝑙

Solving for x and y :

𝑥 = 0.1296 𝑔

𝑦 = 0.1060 𝑔

0.1296

% 𝑁𝑎𝐶𝑙 = 𝑥100 = 𝟓𝟓%

0.2356

0.1060

% 𝐵𝑎𝐶𝑙2 = 𝑥100 = 𝟒𝟓%

0.2356

7. What weight of impure NaCl sample must be taken for analysis so that the weight of

AgCl precipitate obtained in mg will be equal to the %Cl in the sample?

A. 24.7 B. 35.45 C. 12.32 D. 20.12

Solutions:

1 𝐶𝑙 35.45

𝑥 𝑁𝑎𝐶𝑙 ( )( ) 100 1 𝐴𝑔𝐶𝑙 143.32 𝑔

1 𝑁𝑎𝐶𝑙 58.44 = 𝑥 𝑁𝑎𝐶𝑙 ( )( )

𝑥 1 𝑁𝑎𝐶𝑙 58.44 𝑔

𝒙 = 𝟐𝟒. 𝟕𝟑𝟒𝟗 𝒈

8. In a titration experiment, a student finds that 23.48 ml of NaOH solution are needed to

neutralize 0.5468 g of KHP (MW: 204.2). What is the conc (in molarity) of the NaOH

solution?

A. 0.15 M B. 0.13 M C. 0.11 M D. 0.09 M

Solutions:

1 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝐾𝐻𝑃 1 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝑁𝑎𝑂𝐻

0.5468 𝑔 𝐾𝐻𝑃( 204.2 𝑔 )( )

1 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝐾𝐻𝑃

= 𝟎. 𝟏𝟏𝟒𝟎 𝑴

0. 02348 𝐿

9. A 50.00 ml portion of an HCl solution required 29.71 ml of 0.01963 M Ba(OH)2 to

reach an endpoint with bromocresol green indicator. Calculate the molarity of the HCl.

A. 0.01 M B. 0.02 M C. 0.03 M D. 0.04 M

Solutions:

𝑚𝑚𝑜𝑙 2 𝐻𝐶𝑙

29.71 𝑚𝑙(0.01963 𝐵𝑎(𝑂𝐻 )2)( )

𝑚𝑙 1 𝐵𝑎(𝑂𝐻 )2

= 𝟎. 𝟎𝟐𝟑𝟑 𝑴

50 𝑚𝑙

57

Problem 10-12. Calculate the pH in the titration of 25 ml of 0.1 M HCl by NaOH after the

addition to the acid solution of 10 ml, 25 ml, and 35 ml of 0.1 M NaOH.

10. 10 ml of 0.1 M NaOH

A. 1.37 B. 1.73 C. 1.48 D. 1.84

Solutions:

25 (0.1) − 10(0.10)

𝑝𝐻 = − log ( ) = 𝟏. 𝟑𝟔𝟖𝟎

35

A. 7 B. 14 C. 4 D. 1

12. 35 ml of 0.1 M NaOH

A. 13.12 B. 10.12 C. 11.34 D. 12.22

Solutions:

25 (0.1) − 25(0.10)

𝑝𝐻 = 14 + log ( ) = 𝟏𝟐. 𝟐𝟐𝟏𝟖

60

13. Ksp of AgCl at room temperature is 1x10-10. Calculate the Ag+ ion concentration in

ppm in a 0.01 M NaCl solution.

A. 0.001079 B. 0.0024 C. 0.0035 D. 0.0042

Solutions:

𝐾𝑠𝑝 = 1𝑥10−10

𝐴𝑔𝐶𝑙 → 𝐴𝑔 + + 𝐶𝑙 −

1𝑥10−10 = [𝐴𝑔 +][𝐴𝑔 + +0.01]

[𝐴𝑔 +] = 9.99999𝑥10−9 𝑀

𝑚𝑜𝑙 1000 𝑚𝑚𝑜𝑙 107.87 𝑚𝑔

9.99999𝑥10−9 𝐴𝑔 ( ) (1𝑚𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝐴𝑔) = 1.0787𝑥10−3 = 𝟎. 𝟎𝟎𝟏𝟎𝟕𝟗 𝒑𝒑𝒎

𝐿 1 𝑚𝑜𝑙

14. In an acidic solution, 25 ml of 0.021 M KMnO4 oxidize Fe2+ to Fe3+. Calculate the

mass of Fe2+ (55.85g) oxidized

A. 14.66mg B. 25.32mg C. 2.55mg D. 146.6mg

Solutions:

𝑚𝑚𝑜𝑙 5 𝑚𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝐹𝑒2 + 55.85 𝑚𝑔

0.021 𝐾𝑀𝑛𝑂4 ( ) 25𝑚𝑙 ( ) = 𝟏𝟒𝟔. 𝟔𝟎𝟔𝟑 𝒎𝒈 𝑭𝒆𝟐 +

𝑚𝑙 1𝑚𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝑀𝑛𝑂4 − 𝑚𝑚𝑜𝑙

58

16. A small amount of KI is added to solution of NaCN. 35 mL of 0.1200 M AgNO3 is

required to produce a precipitate of AgI. Find the milligrams of NaCN present.

A. 245.6 mg B. 378.6 mg C. 397.5 mg D. 411.8 mg

Solutions:

𝑚𝑜𝑙 2𝑁𝑎𝐶𝑁 48.99𝑔

12 (0.035𝐿 𝐴𝑔𝑁𝑂3) ( )( ) = 𝟒𝟏𝟏. 𝟓𝟏𝟔 𝒎𝒈

𝐿 1 𝐴𝑔𝑁𝑂3 1𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝑁𝑎𝐶𝑁

17. A 0.7500 g sample of an alloy steel yielded on electrolysis 0.1532 g of a mixed deposit

of Co and Ni. This is dissolved, and the precipitated nickel dimethylglyoxime

(NiC8H14N4O4) weighs 0.3560 g. What is the percentage of the Ni in the alloy?

A. 9.64% Ni B. 10.79%Ni C. 12.43 D. 13.79% Ni

Solutions:

𝑔

58.69 1 𝑚𝑜𝑙

0.3560 𝑔 NiC8H14N4O4( 𝑚𝑜𝑙

𝑔 )(1 𝑚𝑜𝑙 )

288.69

𝑚𝑜𝑙 = 𝟗. 𝟔𝟒𝟗𝟗% 𝑵𝒊

0.75 𝑔

22. A grain sample as received contains 10% moisture. If after drying, the dried sample

contains 15% N, then the %N in the as received sample is

A. 13.5 B. 16.67 C. 15 D. 5

Solutions:

%𝑁 = 90 𝑥 0.15 = 𝟏𝟑. 𝟓%

23. Calculate the molarity of NaOH solution if 12.25 ml was used to titrate 0.2615 grams

of primary standard KHP

A. 0.2118 B. 0.1354 C. 0.1045 D. 0.1697

Solutions:

1 𝑚𝑜𝑙 1 𝑁𝑎𝑂𝐻

0.2615 𝑔 𝐾𝐻𝑃(204.2 𝑔)( 1 𝐾𝐻𝑃 )

= 𝟎. 𝟏𝟎𝟒𝟓 𝑴 𝑵𝒂𝑶𝑯

0.01225 𝐿

24. What weight of Mn ore should be taken so that the percentage of MnO2 in the ore can

be found by multiplying by 5 the number of centigrams of Mn3O4 obtained?

A. 2.28 g B. 2.28 cg C. 228 g D. 0.228 g

Solutions:

86.94 𝑔 𝑀𝑛𝑂2 1𝑀𝑛𝑂2 228.82 𝑔 𝑀𝑛3𝑂4 1 𝑀𝑛3𝑂4

𝑥 𝑀𝑛 ( )( ) = 5𝑥𝑀𝑛( )(

54.94 𝑔 𝑀𝑛 1 𝑀𝑛 54. 94 𝑔 𝑀𝑛 3 𝑀𝑛)

59

𝒙 = 𝟎. 𝟐𝟐𝟖 𝒈 𝑴𝒏

25. A 10.0 ml solution containing Cl- was treated with excess AgNO3 to precipitate

00.4368 g of AgCl. What was the concentration of Cl- in the unknown? (AgCl = 143.321

g/mol)

A. 0.0384 M B. 0.8048 M C. 0.3048 M D. 0.4038 M

Solutions:

1 𝑚𝑜𝑙 1 𝐶𝑙

0.4368 𝑔 𝐴𝑔𝐶𝑙(143.32 𝑔)(1 𝐴𝑔𝐶𝑙 )

= 𝟎. 𝟑𝟎𝟒𝟖 𝑴

0.01 𝐿

26. When a sample of impure potassium chloride (0.4500 g) was dissolved in water and

treated with an excess of silver nitrate, 0.8402 g of silver chloride was precipitated.

Calculate the percentage KCl in the original sample.

A. 96.27% B. 92.16% C. 96.12% D. 97.12%

Solutions:

1 𝑚𝑜𝑙 1 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝐾𝐶𝑙 74.55 𝑔

0.8402 𝑔 𝐴𝑔𝐶𝑙(143.32 𝑔)(1 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝐴𝑔𝐶𝑙 )(1 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝐾𝐶𝑙 )

= 𝟗𝟕. 𝟏𝟐𝟎𝟓%

0.45 𝑔

60

PHYSICAL CHEMISTRY

because molecular disorder in the gaseous state is _____ than in the liquid or solid

states.

a. Higher, lower

b. lower, higher

c. lower, minimum

d. higher, minimum

between inert electrodes b) AgNO3 between Ag electrodes c) Sufuric acid between inert

electrodes d) KOH between inert electrodes. Ten liters of H2 measured at STP are

produced at the cathode in the 3rd solution. The amount of substance liberated at the

positive electrode in the 3rd cell is

a. 0.89g H2

b. 0.89g Cl2

c. 7.12g O2

d. 31.6g Cl2

attractive forces thus ionic crystals have a _____ vapor pressure.

a. High

b. Low

c. Constant

d. None of these

ether (CH3CH2OCH2CH3) has a vapour pressure of 426 mmHg at 20C. If the vapor

pressure of the pure diethyl ether is 442.2 mmHg at the same temperature, what is the

molecular weight of solute?

a. 149.6 g/mol

b. 164.8 g/mol

c. 186.4 g/mol

d. 194.8 g/mol

61

5. A salt bridge is a tube filled with a concentrated solution of a salt which permits _____

to flow between the half cells but prevent mixing of a solution of the half cells.

a. Ions

b. Current

c. Anion

d. Cation

substances which are

a. Solid at room temperature

b. Fluid at room temperature

c. Gaseous at room temperature

d. Liquid at room temperature

7. The time of outflow of 250 ml methane in a porous opening is 16 seconds. Under the

save condition of T and P, how long would it take 1500 ml of sulfur dioxide to diffuse

through the same opening?

a. 129 sec

b. 192 sec

c. 229 sec

d. 291 sec

I. For aqueous solutions, the equivalent conductance increases with

temperature

II. For non-aqueous solutions at a certain temperature, the higher the dielectric

constant of the solvent, the lower is the conductance.

a. I only

b. II only

c. I and II

d. None

III. Colligative properties depend on the number of solute molecules not on the

nature of the solute molecules.

IV. When two solutions of different concentrations are separated by a semi-

permeable membrane, osmosis allows the only solvent molecules to pass

through the membrane.

e. I only

f. II only

62

g. I and II

h. None

10. Barium has a body centered cubic unit cell and a density of 3.62 g/cm3. What is the

atomic radius of Barium?

a. 1.92 angstroms

b. 2.2 angstroms

c. 2.7 angstroms

d. 3.5 angstroms

11. At 140C the vapor pressure of C6H5Cl is 939.4 mmHg and that of C6H5Br is 495.8

mmHg. Assuming that these liquids form an ideal solution, what should be the molar

composition of the liquid solution so that the vapor pressure above the solution at 140

is at 1 atm?

a. 0.596 C6H5Cl; 0.404 C6H5Br

b. 0.707 C6H5Cl; 0.293 C6H5Br

c. 0.698 C6H5Cl; 0.302 C6H5Br

d. 0.803 C6H5Cl; 0.197 C6H5Br

12. Suppose that you work for a company that designs the drive mechanisms for large

ships. The materials in this mechanism will obviously come into contact with

environments that enhance corrosion. To estimate the difficulties that corrosion might

cause, you decide to build a model electrochemical cell using electrolyte concentrations

that might be present in your system when it is in your service. Assume that you have

a cell that has an iron (III) concentration of 0.015Mand an H+ concentration of 1.0 x10 -

3

M. the cell temperature is 38C and the pressure of hydrogen gas is maintained at 0.04

atm. What would be the cell potential be under these conditions?

a. 0.35V

b. 0.53V

c. 0.46V

d. 0.64V

13. Calculate the density of a natural gas mixture containing 32.1% methane, 41.2%

ethane, 17.5% propane and 9.2% nitrogen (mole basis) at 500 psig and 394K. Assume

ideal gas law applies.

a. 44.1 kg/m3

b. 30.1 kg/m3

c. 20.9 kg/m3

d. 13.6 kg/m3

63

14. The osmotic pressure of an aqueous solution of a certain protein was measured in order

to determine its molar mass. The solution contained 3.50mg of protein dissolved in

sufficient water to form 5ml solution. The osmotic pressure of the solution at 25C was

found to be 1.54 torr. Calculate the molar mass of the protein.

a. 6.2 x103 g/mol

b. 5.5 x105 g/mol

c. 17.9x104 g/mol

d. 8.5 x103 g/mol

I. Temperature

II. Pressure

III. Composition

IV. Mass

a. I only

b. IV only

c. I and II

d. I, II and III

16. How much heat is given up when 20g of steam at 100C is condensed and cooled at

20C?

a. 74 kcal

b. -74 kcal

c. 12 kcal

d. -12 kcal

17. What is the number of photons of light with a wavelength of 4000 pm that provide 1J

of energy?

a. 3.0 x108 photons

b. 5.0 x107 photons

c. 3.0 x108 photons

d. 6.0 x108 photons

18. At what temperature will the velocity of CO2 molecules equalthe velocity of oxygen

molecules at 0 °C?

a. 132 ºC

b. 102 ºC

c. 623 ºC

d. 293 ºC

64

19. One mole of H2O and one mole of CO are taken in a 10 liter vessel and heated to 725K.

at equilibrium 49% of water (by mass) reacts with CO according to the equation;

H2O(g) + CO(g) – H2(g) + CO2(g)

Calculate the equilibrium constant for the reaction.

a. 1.44

b. 0.44

c. 0.66

d. 14.4

20. Ethanol boils at 78.4C and the enthalpy of vaporization of ethanol is 42.4 kJ/mol.

Calculate the entropy of vaporization of ethanol.

a. 0.54 J/mol-K

b. 54.08 J/mol-K

c. 120.66 J/mol-K

d. 5.55 J/mol-K

a. Low temperatures and high pressures

b. High temperatures and low pressures

c. Low temperatures and low pressures

d. High temperatures and high pressure

a. 510

b. 490

c. 470

d. 440

23. In the previous problem, what is the mean free path of the N2 molecule at 20C and 1

atm? The molecular diameter of N2 molecule is 3.7 x10-10 m.

a. 4.64 x10-8 m

b. 5.80 x10-8 m

c. 6.60 x10-8 m

d. 9.10 x10-8 m

a. 0.52

b. 0.65

c. 0.74

d. 0.83

65

25. A solution of 0.6M MgSO4, 0.1M AlCl3 and 0.1M (NH4)2SO4. What is the total ionic

strength?

a. 3.2

b. b. 3.3

c. c. 6.4

d. d. 6.6

ANSWER KEY

Physical Chemistry

1. B. lower, higher

2. C. 7.12 g O2

3. B. Low

4. D. 194.8 g/mol

5. B. Current

6. C. Gaseous at room temperature

7. B. 192 sec

8. A. I only

9. C. I and II

10. B. 2.2 angstroms

11. A. 0.596 C6H5Cl; 0.404 C6H5Br

12. A. 0.35V

13. B. 30.1 kg/m3

14. D. 8.5 x 103 g/mol

15. D. I, II and III

16. D. -12 kcal

17. B. 5x107 photons

18. B. 102oC

19. B. 0.44

20. C. 120.66 J/mol-K

21. B. High temperatures and low pressures

22. C. 470

23. C. 6.60 x 10-8 m

24. C. 0.74

25. B. 3.3

66

SOLUTIONS

1 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝐻2 1 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝑂2 32 𝑔

2. 10 𝐿 𝐻2 ( )( )( ) = 7.1429 𝑔 𝑂2

22.4 𝐿 2 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝐻2 1 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝑂2

Answer: 7.1429 g O2

4. 𝑃𝐴 = 𝑥𝐴 𝑃𝐴º

100 𝑔

74.14 426

100 𝑔 10 =

+ 442.2

74.14 𝑀𝑊

𝑔

𝑀𝑊 = 194.9607 𝑚𝑜𝑙

Answer: 194.9607 g/mol

𝑟1 𝑀1

7. 𝑟2

= √𝑀2

250

16 64.06

1500 =√

16

𝑥

𝑥 = 192.09 𝑠𝑒𝑐𝑜𝑛𝑑𝑠

Answer: 192.09 seconds

𝑔 1 𝑚𝑜𝑙 1 𝑐𝑚3

10. 137.33 𝑚𝑜𝑙 ( ) (3.62 𝑔) (2 𝑎𝑡𝑜𝑚𝑠) = 1.2599𝑥 10−22 𝑐𝑚3

𝑁𝐴

3

𝐿 = √𝑌 = 5.0132 𝑥10−8 𝑐𝑚

𝑅 = √𝐿2 + 𝐿2 = 7.0897 𝑥 10−8 𝑐𝑚

4𝑟 = √𝑅2 + 𝐿2

1𝑚 1010𝐴°

𝑟 = 2.17 𝑥10−8 𝑐𝑚 (100 𝑐𝑚) ( 1𝑚

) = 2.17 𝐴°

Answer: 2.17 A°

11. 𝑥+𝑦 =1

939.4 495.8

𝑥+ 𝑦=1

760 760

C6H5Cl= 0.5956

C6H5Br= 0.4044

Answer: C6H5Cl= 0.5956, C6H5Br= 0.4044

𝑅𝑇

12. 𝜀 = 𝜀° − ln 𝑄

𝑛𝐹

(8.3145)(38+273.15) (0.015)(0.04)

𝜀 = 0.44 − ln( )

2(96485) (1.0𝑥10−3 )−2

𝜀 = 0.35 𝑉

Answer: 0.35 V

67

𝑃𝑀

13. 𝜌= P= 514.7 psia = 3547753.571 Pa

𝑅𝑇

3547753.571(16)

CH4: 𝜌= (0.321) = 5.5622

83145(394 𝐾)

3547753.571(30)

C2H6: 𝜌 = (0.412) = 13.3857

83145(394 𝐾)

3547753.571(44)

C3H8: 𝜌 = (0.175) = 8.3390

83145(394 𝐾)

3547753.571(28)

N2: 𝜌= (0.092) = 2.7898

83145(394 𝐾)

𝑇𝑜𝑡𝑎𝑙 = 30.0767 𝑔/𝑚𝑜𝑙

Answer: 30.0767 g/mol

14. 𝜋 = 𝐶𝑅𝑇

𝑚𝑎𝑠𝑠 𝑠𝑜𝑙𝑢𝑡𝑒(𝑅𝑇)

𝜋=

𝑀𝑀(𝑉)

1.54 3.50 𝑚𝑔(0.08206)(298.15)

=

760 𝑀𝑀(5 𝑚𝑙)

𝑥103 𝑔

𝑀𝑀 = 8451.9562 = 8.5 𝑚𝑜𝑙

Answer: 8.5 x108 g/mol

𝑐𝑎𝑙 𝑐𝑎𝑙

16. 𝑄 = −540 (20 𝑔) − (1 )(20 𝑔)(80 𝐶)

𝑔 𝑔𝐶

𝑄 = −12400 𝑐𝑎𝑙 = −12.4 𝑘𝑐𝑎𝑙

Answer: -12.4 kcal

ℎ𝑐𝑁

17. 𝐸 = ℎ𝑓 = 𝛿

ℎ𝑐𝑁

1 𝐽 = 4000𝑥10−12 𝑚

𝑁 = 2.0136𝑥 1016 𝑝ℎ𝑜𝑡𝑜𝑛𝑠

Answer: 2.0136 x1016 photons

3𝑅𝑇(𝑂2) 3𝑅𝑇(𝐶𝑂2)

18. √ =√

𝑀 𝑀

273.15 𝑇(𝐶𝑂2)

√ =√

32 44

𝑇(𝐶𝑂2) = 375.5813 𝐾 = 102.43 °𝐶

Answer: 102.43 °C

0.1 0.1 0 0

-0.04 -0.04 0.04 0.04

0.06 0.06 0.04 0.04

68

(0.04)(0.04)

𝐾𝑐 = = 0.44

(0.06)(0.06)

Answer: Kc=0.44

𝐽

𝑄 42400 𝐽

𝑚𝑜𝑙

20. 𝑠= = 78.4+273.15 𝐾 = 120.6087 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝐾

𝑇

Answer: 120.6087 J/mol-K

3𝑅𝑇 3(8314.5)(293.15)

22. 𝑉 𝑎𝑣𝑒𝑟𝑎𝑔𝑒 = 0.92√ = 0.92√

𝑀 28.02

𝑉 𝑎𝑣𝑒𝑟𝑎𝑔𝑒 = 469.9779

Answer: Vave= 469.9779

𝑅𝑇

23. 𝑚𝑒𝑎𝑛 𝑓𝑟𝑒𝑒 𝑝𝑎𝑡ℎ = 𝜋(√2)(𝐷 2)(𝑃)(𝑁𝑎)

8.3145(293.15)

𝑚𝑒𝑎𝑛 𝑓𝑟𝑒𝑒 𝑝𝑎𝑡ℎ =

𝜋(√2)(3.7𝑥 10−10 )2 (101325)(𝑁𝑎)

−8

𝑚𝑒𝑎𝑛 𝑓𝑟𝑒𝑒 𝑝𝑎𝑡ℎ = 6.5673 𝑥10 𝑚

Answer: 6.5673 x10-8 m

1

(0.1)(12 )(2) + (0.1)(22 ))

2

Answer: 3.3

69

70

CHE CALCULATIONS AND HEAT TRANSFER

A. Flow rates & composition both are time dependent D. All of these

B. Inventory changes do not take place E. None of these

C. Ratio of streams entering/leaving are independent of time

chamber is cylindrical, 85 cm long and 50 cm in diameter, and the combustion

process produces 108 kg/s of exhaust gases. If combustion is complete, find the rate

of reaction of oxygen.

A. 3.5950 x 104 C. 7.1901 x 104

4

B. 1.7975 x 10 D. 0.8988 x 104

A. Bituminous, Anthracite, Sub-bituminous, Lignite

B. Anthracite, Bituminous, Sub-bituminous, Lignite

C. Anthracite, Bituminous, Lignite, Sub-bituminous

D. Lignite, Anthracite, Bituminous, Sub-bituminous

4. A petroleum distillate having flash point not below 22.8 oC as determined by the

Abel Tester.

A. Kerosene B. Gasoline C. Diesel D. LPG

5. The boiling points for pure water and pure toluene are 100 oC and 110.6oC

respectively. Toluene and water are completely immiscible in each other. A well

agitated equimolar mixture of toluene and water are prepared. The temperature at

which the above mixture will exert a pressure of one standard atm is

A. Less than 100oC D. 110oC

o

B. 100 C E. More than 110oC

C. Between 100 and 110oC

number of balances (material) that can be made around the reactor are

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

For number 7 and 8,

The reactor A 2B + C takes place in a catalytic reactor. The reactor effluent

is sent to a separator. The overall conversion of A is 95%. Leaving the separator is

71

the product and the recycle stream. The product from the separator consists of B, C

and 0.5% of A entering the separator, while the recycle stream consists of the

remainder of the unreacted A and 1% of B entering the separator.

7. Calculate the Single Pass conversion of A

A. 8.77 B. 7.88 C. 5.66 D. 6.55

8. Molal ratio of recycle to feed

A. 8.77 B. 7.88 C. 5.66 D. 6.55

9. A solvent recovery system delivers a gas saturated with benzene vapor that analyzes

on a benzene free basis as follows: 15% CO2, 4% O2, 81% N2. This gas is at 21oC

and 750 mmHg. It is compressed to 5 atm and cooled to 21 oC after compression.

How many kg of benzene are condensed by this process per 1000 m 3 of the original

mixture? VP of benzene at 21oC is 75 mmHg.

A. 361.4 kg B. 341.6 kg C. 314.6 kg D. 413.6 kg

Calcium hypochlorite is produced by absorbing chlorine in a milk of lime. A gas

produced by the deacon process is fed to an absorption column at 100 kPa and 20oC.

The partial pressure of chlorine is 8.266 kPa, the remainder being inert gases. The

gas leaves the column at 29.5oC and 99.3 kPa with chlorine partial pressure of 0.093

kPa.

10. Calculate the volume (m3) of gases leaving the absorption column per 100 m3

entering

A. 55.91 B. 59.51 C. 55.19 D. 51.95

A. 55.91 B. 59.51 C. 55.19 D. 51.95

12. The ratio of % total carbon obtained in the ultimate analysis of coke and % fixed

carbon obtained in the proximate analysis is always

A. 1 B. < 1 C. > 1 D. Unpredictable

13. The vapor pressure of the solvent decreased by 10 mmHg, when a non-volatile

solute was added to the solvent. The mole fraction of the solute in the solution is

0.2. What should be the mole fraction of the solvent if the decrease in vapor

pressure of the solvent is required to be 20 mmHg?

A. 0.1 B. 0.2 C. 0.4 D. 0.6

A. To make 100 kg of a solution containing 40% salt by mixing solution A

(containing 50% salt), the amount of solution A required is 40 kg.

72

B. 1.2 g atoms of carbon and 1.5 g moles of oxygen are reacted to give 1 g mole

of carbon dioxide. The limiting reactant is carbon. The percent excess supplied

is 25.

C. A gas bubble at a pressure of Pg is passed through a solvent with a saturation

vapor pressure of Ps. If the time of passage of the bubble is long and air is

insoluble in the solvent, the mole fraction of solvent in the bubble will be equal

to Ps/Pg.

D. A supersaturated solution of a sparingly soluble solute, at a concentration of C,

is being fed to a crystallizer at a volumetric flow rate of V. The solubility of the

solute is C1. The output rate of solids from an efficient crystallizer is (C + C1)

V.

15. N2 content in a urea sample was found to be only 42%. What is the actual urea

content of the sample?

A. 80% B. 90% C. 95% D. 98%

A. Facilitates better control of the process D. All of these

B. Improves the conversion E. None of these

C. Increases the yield of products

17. The wall of a furnace is constructed from a 0.15 m thick brick having a thermal

conductivity of 1.7 W/m-K. At steady state, the temperatures of the inner and the

outer surfaces are 2060oF and 1610oF respectively. What is the rate of heat loss

through a wall that is 0.5 by 1.2 m on a side?

A. 1700 W B. 2833 W C. 3060 W D. 5508 W

18. If the critical radius of insulation is greater than the pipe radius, then adding more

layers of insulation

A. Will not have any further on the heat transfer rate

B. Will increase heat transfer rate

C. Will decrease heat transfer rate

D. Will stop heat transfer

19. Important in unsteady state heat transfer, this dimensionless number is defined as

the ratio of boundary layer surface resistance to convection and internal resistance

to conduction.

A. Biot Number B. Fourier Number C. Stanton Number D. Prandtl Number

The temperature of a 0.012 m thick slab made of a hard rubbery material and

originally at 26.7oC is to be raised to 132.2oC. The thermal diffusivity of the slab

73

𝛼 = 3.0 x 10-7 m2/s, k = 0.20 W/m-K, and h = 5.7 W/m2-K. The surrounding fluid

temperature is 141.7oC.

20. Determine the Biot number

A. 0.171 B. 0.342 C. 0.581 D. 1.162

A. 12.67 B. 14.68 C. 17.28 D. 19.05

22. Determine the time needed to achieve the temperature change needed.

A. 9.9 s B. 59.3 s C. 29.2 min D. 1.94 h

23. A large block of steel with k = 45 W/m-K and α = 4 x 10-5 m2/s is initially at a

uniform temperature of 35oC. The surface is exposed to a heat flux by suddenly

raising the temperature to 200oC. Calculate the temperature at a depth of 3 cm after

20 s.

A. 130oC B. 90oC C. 110oC D. 70oC

X erf x

0.3 0.329

0.4 0.428

0.5 0.520

0.6 0.604

A. Absorptivity is a function of wavelength and is less than 1.

B. Absorptivity is a function of wavelength and is equal to 1.

C. Absorptivity is not a function of wavelength and is equal to 1.

D. Absorptivity is not a function of wavelength and is less than 1.

25. One radiation shield is placed between two very large parallel planes having

identical emissivities, both of which are less than 1. What is the fractional decrease

in radiation loss?

A. 0 B. ½ C. 1/3 D. cannot tell due to insufficient data

A spherical automobile component of 6 in diameter, initially at 8oF is placed in a

cubical oven of side 5ft which is at temperature of 560oF. Both sides are black

bodies.

26. Calculate the view factor from the oven to the component.

A. 0.031 B. 0.00524 C. 1 D. 0.00996

27. Estimate the net heat transfer from the oven to the component.

A. 2.564 x 105 B. 8498 C. 1344 D. 4.526 x105

74

28. Fins are added to heat exchangers in order to provide additional area for heat

transfer. For a shell-and-tube heat exchanger, fins should be added on the:

A. Tube side C. Side with fluid of higher resistance to heat transfer

B. Shell side D. Side with fluid of lower resistance to heat transfer

A steel pipe (thickness = 0.5 cm, OD = 0.051m) is insulated with 0.0064 m thick

asbestos (k = 0.166 W/m-K) followed by a 0.00254 m layer of fiber glass (k =

0.0485 W/m-K). The fluid inside the pipe is at 315.6 K; at this condition h = 500

W/m2-K. Outside, the temperature of air is 265 K, where h = 100 W/m2-K. The

resistance of the steel pipe is negligible.

29. Neglecting the radiation, the heat loss is

A. 64.5 W B. 76.8 W C. 95.86 W D. 189 W

30. The overall hear transfer coefficient (W/m2-K) based on the outside surface area

A. 33.6 B. 21.8 C. 11.7 D. 8.75

75

ANSWER KEY

2. B. 1.7975 x 104

3. B. Anthracite, Bituminous, Sub-bituminous, Lignite

4. A. Kerosene

5. C. Between 100 and 110oC

6. C. 3

7. E.

8. E.

9. E.

10. E.

11. E.

12. C. > 1

13. D. 0.6

14. D. A supersaturated solution of a sparingly soluble solute, at a concentration of

C, is being fed to a crystallizer at a volumetric flow rate of V. The solubility of

the solute is C1. The output rate of solids from an efficient crystallizer is (C +

C1) V.

15. B. 90%

16. A. Facilitates better control

17. A. 1700 W

18. B. Will increase the heat transfer

19. A. Biot number

20. B. 0.342

21. E.

22. B. 59.3

23. C. 110oC

24. D. Absorptivity is not a function of wavelength and is less than 1.

25. B. ½

26. B. 0.00524

27. C. 1344

28. C. Side with fluid of higher resistance to heat transfer

29. C. 95.86 W

30. D. 8.75

76

SOLUTIONS

2. Given: Length = 85 cm

Diameter = 50 cm

Mass Flow Rate = 108 kg/s

Required: 𝑟𝑂2 (reaction rate of oxygen)

Solution:

1 dNO2

Reaction Rate: −rO2 = V dt

𝑑2 (0.5 m)2

where V = π 4 ∙ 𝐿 ; V= π ∙ 0.85 m V = 0.166897 m3

4

1

Reaction: H2 + O2 → H2 O

2

kg kmol 1000 mol mol

H2O produced = 108 ( 18kg ) ( ) = 6000

s 1 kmol s

1

mol mol O2 mol

2

O2 used = 6000 ( ) = 3000

s 1 mol H2O s

1 dNO2

Solving for reaction rate of O2 : −rO2 = V dt

1 mol mol

−rO2 = 0.166897 m3 (3000 ) = 17975.158 m3s

s

𝐦𝐨𝐥

Ans. 1.7975 x 104 𝐦𝟑 𝐬

Required: Single Pass Conversion of A

Solution:

Material Balance:

Overall conversion is 95%. Therefore, 1 mole of feed A will produce

77

Product stream contains:

Mole of A = 1 mole – (1 mole x 0.95) = 0.05 mole

Mole of B = (1 mole A x 0.95) (2 moles B /1 mole A) = 1.9 moles

Mole of C = (1 mole A x 0.95) (1 mole C /1 mole A) = 0.95 mole

Material Balance for B:

B in the recycle = 1% of B entering the separator

B in the product = 99% of B entering the separator = 1.9 mole

Total B entering the separator = 1.9/0.99 = 1.919 mole

B in the recycle = 1.919 x 0.01 = 0.019 mole.

A in the product = 0.5% of A entering the separator

A in the product stream = 0.5% of A entering the separator = 0.05 mole.

A entering the separator = 0.05/0.005 = 10 mole.

A in the recycle stream = A entering the separator - A in the product stream

= 10 - 0.05 = 9.95 mole.

A entering the reactor = fresh A + recycle A = 1 + 9.95 = 10.95 mole.

A converted in the reactor = A entering the reactor - A entering separator

= 10.95 - 10 = 0.95 mole

= (A converted in the reactor /A entering the reactor) x 100

= (0.95/10.95) x 100 = 8.676%

Ans. 8.676%

Total moles in recycle stream = A in recycle stream + B in recycle stream

= 9.95 + 0.019 = 9.969 mole

Molar ratio of recycle to feed = 9.969/1 = 9.696

Ans. 9.696

Pi = 8.266 kPa; Gas leaving: 29.5oC, 99.3 kPa; Pi = 0.093 kPa

Required: Volume in m3 of gases leaving the column

Solution:

𝑘𝑚𝑜𝑙 273.15𝐾 100−8.266 𝑘𝑃𝑎

mol inert = 100 𝑚3 ( )( )( ) = 3.765 𝑘𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑒

22.4 𝑚3 293.15𝐾 101.325 𝑘𝑃𝑎

mole of Chlorine in the leaving gas

𝑋 0.093 𝑘𝑃𝑎

𝑋+3.765

= 99.3 𝑘𝑃𝑎

; 𝑥 = 3.529𝑥10−3 kmole

= 3.529𝑥10−3 + 3.765 = 3.7685 𝑘𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑒𝑠

78

Volume of gas leaving the column:

22.4 𝑚3 302.65𝐾 101.325 𝑘𝑃𝑎

= 3.7685 𝑘𝑚𝑜𝑙 ( 𝑘𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑒 ) (273.15𝐾) (99.3−0.093 𝑘𝑃𝑎)

= 95.53 m3

Ans. 95.53 m3

11. Required: Weight (in kg) of chlorine gas absorbed per 100 m3 entering

Solution:

mole of chlorine in entering gas

𝑋 8.266 𝑘𝑃𝑎

= ; 𝑥 = 0.3393 kmol

𝑋+3.765 100 𝑘𝑃𝑎

Mole of chlorine gas absorbed = mole chlorine entering – mole chlorine leaving

= 0.3393 -3.529𝑥10−3 = 0.33577 kmole Cl2

Weight Cl2= 0.33577 kmol (70.90kg/kmol)

Weight Cl2 = 23.81 kg

Ans. 23.81 kg

Required: mole fraction of solvent when decreased is 20 mmHg.

Solution:

∆P = xi P o ; 10 mmHg = 0.2P o

P o = 50 mmHg

When ∆P = 20 mmHg

20 mmHg = xi (50 mmHg) ; xi = 0.4

Mole fraction of solvent = 1 – 0.4 = 0.6

Ans. 0.6

T2 = 2060oF; T1 = 1610oF; A = 0.5 by 1.2 m

Required: Rate of heat loss (Q)

Solution:

T2 = 2060oF = 1399.82K; T1 = 1610oF = 1149.82K

dT W (1399.82−1149.82)K

Q = −kA dx = − (1.7 m ∙ K) (0.5x1.2)m2 0.015

Q = 1700 W

Ans. 1700

𝛼 = 3.0 x 10- ll7 m2/s, k = 0.20 W/m-K, and h = 5.7 W/m2-K

Required: Biot number

79

Solution:

W

hR 5.7 x0.012m

m2 ∙K

Fo = = W = 0.342

k 0.20

m∙K

Ans. 0.342

Required: Temperature at x = 3 cm; t = 20s

Solution:

Tx −T2 x Tx −200 3/100

= erf( )= = erf( )

T1 −T2 2√αt 35−200 2√4x10−5 x20

3/100

x= = 0.5303

2√4x10−5 x20

Through linear regression using the table below:

X erf x

0.5 0.520

0.6 0.604

erf x = 0.5455

Solving for Tx :

Tx −200

= 0.5455; Tx = 109.99o C

35−200

Ans. 110oC

Cubical oven: Side = 5ft at 560oF

Required: View factor from oven to the component, F21

Solution:

𝐴1 𝐹12 = 𝐴2 𝐹21

πd2 π(6in)2

4 ( 4 ) x 1 = 6s 2 x F21 ; 4 ( ) x 1 = 6(5x12in)2 x F21

4

F21 = 0.00524

Ans. 0.00524

Solution:

𝑇1 4 𝑇2 4

Q21 = 0.1713𝐴2 𝐹21 ((100 ) − (100 ) )

293.33𝑜 𝐶 4 26.67𝑜 𝐶 4

Q21 = 0.1713𝑥6x(60in)2 x 0.00524 x (( ) −( ) )

100 100

Q21 = 1435.29 W

Ans. 1435.29 W

Asbestos: t = 0.0064 m; k2 = 0.166 W/m-K

80

Fiber glass: t = 0.00254 m; k3 = 0.0485 W/m-K

Required: Heat Loss

Solution:

𝑇2−𝑇1

Q= 𝑟2 𝑟3 𝑟4

1 ln(𝑟1) ln(𝑟2) ln(𝑟3) 1

+ + + +

2𝜋𝑟1 𝐿ℎ1 2𝜋𝑘1𝐿 2𝜋𝑘2𝐿 2𝜋𝑘3𝐿 2𝜋𝑟4 𝐿ℎ2

Length: 1 m pipe

r1 = 0.0205 m h1 = 500 W/m2-K

r2 = 0.0255 m h2 = 100 W/m2-K

r3 = 0.0319 m

r4 = 0.0344 m

(315.6−265)𝐾

Q= 0.0319 0.0344

1 ln(0.0255) ln(0.0319) 1

+ + +

2𝜋𝑥0.0205𝑥500 2𝜋𝑥0.166 2𝜋𝑥0.0485 2𝜋𝑥0.0344𝑥100

Q = 95.86 W

Ans. 95.86 W

30. Required: Overall heat transfer coefficient based on outside surface area

Solution:

Q = UA∆𝑇

95.86 W

U=

2π x 0.03444 m x 1m x (315.6−265)K

U = 8.75 W/m

Ans. 8.75 W/m2-K

81

EVAPORATION, HUMIDIFICATION,

CRYSTALLIZATION

1. Rebelen was assigned to maintain the equipment by cleaning it. She was scolded

by her boss since she could not clean the inside of the heat exchanger. But Reb said

she would’ve cleaned it if she could. What do you think is the reason behind this?

A. The boss has a high standard in cleaning.

B. The equipment might have been blocked by foreign matters.

C. Their company uses a hairpin type which offers only surface cleaning.

D. Their company uses a Multitubular heat exchanger which does not allow tube

bundles disassembly.

2. You were asked to select a type of heat exchanger but only a double pipe. Your

boss will be happier if you could save more money. What would you recommend?

A. Finned type

B. Multitubular

C. Shell and Tube

D. Plat heat exchangers

3. With your knowledge in heat exchanger that at minimum temperature cross, the

effectiveness of a heat exchanger is observed to be dependent, what is your

conclusion in relation to the effectiveness of double-pipe heat exchangers?

A. Larger temperature cross provides higher efficiency. Shell and Tube is generally

more efficient than double-pipe.

B. Minimal temperature cross varies inversely with efficiency, thus double-pipe is

more efficient.

C. For smaller volumes, shell and tube is still affected by fouling factor and thus

unsuited for smaller volumes making double-pipe more efficient.

D. Both A and C

4. In a counterflow heat exchanger, the hot stream is cooled from 120 to 30 oC while

the cold stream temperature changes from 20 to 60 oC. If the same exchanger were

operated with parallel flow, what would be the exit temperatures of the two

streams?

A. 51.5oC: 50.4oC

B. 61.4oC: 20.8oC

C. 88.2oC: 54.9oC

D. 73.4oC: 44.9oC

5. Oil at 50oF is heated in a horizontal 2-in. Schedule 40 steel pipe 60 ft long having

a surface temperature at 120oF. The oil flow rate is 150 gal/h at inlet temperature.

What will be the oil temperature as it leaves the pipe and after mixing?

A. 77.9oF

B. 63.8oF

82

C. 99.4oF

D. 11.4 oF

A. 1.23 Btu/h·ft2·oF

B. 9.99 Btu/h·ft2·oF

C. 2.94 Btu/h·ft2·oF

D. 8.08 Btu/h·ft2·oF

A. the temperature in the steam chest is higher in the first than in the second effect.

B. the temperature in the steam chest is lower in the first than in the second effect.

C. The pressure in the second effect must be reduced below that in the first.

D. In some cases, the first effect may be at a pressure above atmospheric

8–10. Compute the heat required to vaporize 1 lb of water in an evaporator producing

caustic solution containing 40% NaOH by weight, at a pressure of 3.716 psia, when

feeding 20% NaOH solution to the evaporator at the boiling temperature in the

evaporator. What is the boiling point elevation?

8. What is the boiling point of Water?

A. 212oF B. 180oF C. 165oF D. 150oF

9. The boiling point elevation

A. 20oF B. 35oF C. 50oF D. 12oF

A. 1008 BTU B. 1038 BTU C. 1080 BTU D. 1178 BTU

vertical tube evaporator. The solution has a negligible elevation in the boiling point,

and the specific heat of the feed is 0.93. Saturated steam is available at 0.8 atm abs,

and the coefficient is 1700 W/m2oC. The evaporator must evaporate 25,000 kg of

water per hour.

How many square meters of surface area required, and

A. 247 m2 B. 431 m2 C. 258 m2 D. 693 m2

12. What is the steam consumption in kilograms per hour?

A. 74632 kg/h B. 28340 kg/h C. 85214 kg/h D. 96321 kg/h

13. Humidification involves mass transfer between a pure liquid phase and a fixed gas

which is:

A. insoluble in the liquid

B. soluble in the liquid

C. non-ideal in nature

D. at a fixed temperature

83

14. At a fixed total pressure, humidity depends only on the

A. partial pressure of vapor in the mixture

B. heat capacity of the vapor

C. density of the vapor

D. none of these

A. vapor is in equilibrium with the liquid at the gas temperature

B. vapor is in equilibrium with the liquid at the room temperature

C. partial pressure of vapor equals the vapor pressure of the liquid at room temperature

D. none of these

16. In an air-conditioning system, 1 kg/s air at 350 K and 10 per cent humidity is mixed

with 5 kg/s air at 300 K and 30 per cent humidity. What is the humidity of the

resultant stream?

A. enthalpy = 76 kJ/kg

B. enthalpy = 67 kJ/kg

C. enthalpy = 87 kJ/kg

D. enthalpy = 57 kJ/kg

17. 0.08 m3/s of air at 305 K and 60% humidity is to be cooled to 275 K. Calculate,

using a psychrometric chart, the amount of heat to be removed for each 10 deg K

interval of the cooling process. What total mass of moisture will be deposited?

A. 0.0009 kg/s

B. 0.0010 kg/s

C. 0.00011 kg/s

D. 0.0012 kg/s

18. Which of the following psychrometric processes is followed by water vapour laden

unsaturated air, when it is passed through solid or liquid adsorbent?

A. Cooling and dehumidification.

B. Heating and dehumidification at almost constant wet bulb temperature.

C. Dehumidification with dry bulb temperature remaining constant.

D. None of these.

19. A _______ temperature is the steady state temperature attained by a small amount

of liquid evaporating into a large quantity of unsaturated gas-vapor mixture.

A. Dry bulb

B. Wet bulb

C. Dew point

D. none of these

A. Drum drier

84

B. Spray drier

C. Tunnel drier

D. Tray drier

21. During constant rate period, the rate of drying decreases with the

A. Decrease in air temperature

B. Increase in air humidity

C. both (a) and (b)

D. dehumidified

22. The term “approach” in a cooling tower refers to the difference in the temperature

of the

A. cold water leaving the tower and the wet bulb temperature of the surrounding air

B. hot water entering the lower and the wet bulb temperature of the surrounding air

C. hot water entering and the cooled water leaving the cooling tower.

D. none of these

23. Unsaturated air (with dry and wet bulb temperatures being 35 and 25 oC

respectively) is passed through water spray chamber maintained at 35 oC. The air

will be

A. cooled

B. humidified

C. both (a) & (b)

D. dehumidified

24. The solubility of a substance A at 25oC is 25g/L and at 50oC it solubility is 75g/L.

If 500 mL of a saturated solution of A is cooled from 50 oC to 25oC, how many

grams of solute A will be crystallized? Assume volume of solute in the solution is

negligible.

A. 12.5 g B. 37.5 g C. 25 g D. 32.5 g

section (one section is 10 ft in length) Swenson Walker Crystallizer. It is fed to the

unit at 120oF and cooled to 60oF using cooling water which enters at 50oF and

leaves at 70oF. The crystallizer has a cooling surface of 3 ft 2 per foot of length. The

feed rate is 500 lb/hr and the crystallizer is seeded with 50 lb/hr of 65 mesh crystals,

19. The amount of the crystalline crop (C) produced in lb per hour is ___.

A. 285.3

B. 249.3

C. 255.65

D. 214.65

85

ANSWER KEY

1.) C. Their company uses a hairpin type which offers only surface cleaning

2.) A. Finned type

3.) D. Both A and C

4.) A. 51.5oC : 50.4oC

5.) A. 77.9oF

6.) D. 8.08 Btu/h·ft2·oF

7.) B. the temperature in the steam chest is lower in the first than in the second effect

8.) D. 150oF

9.) C. 50oF

10.) C. 1080 BTU

11.) A. 247 m2

12.) B. 28340 kg/h

13.) A. insoluble in the liquid

14.) A. partial pressure of vapor in the mixture

15.) A. vapor is in equilibrium with the liquid at the gas temperature

16.) B. enthalpy = 67kJ/kg

17.) D. 0.0012 kg/s

18.) B. Heating and dehumidification at almost constant wet bulb temperature

19.) B. Wet bulb

20.) D. Tray drier

21.) C. both (a) and (b)

22.) A. cold water leaving the tower and the wet bulb temperature of the surrounding

air

23.) B. humidified

24.) C. 25 g

25.) B. 249.3

86

SOLUTIONS

4. For the countercurrent operation:

Thi =120°C Tci =20°C

Tho = 30°C Tco = 60°C

LMTD = [(Thi-Tco)-(Tho-Tci)]/ln[(Thi-Tco)/(Tho-Tci)] LMTD = 27.9055°C

Because the same heat exchanger would be used, the only meaningful assumption

is to use the same LMTD for the new exit temperatures. Thus, LMTD Countercurrent =

LMTDParallel Also, Thi and Tci will remain the same. We need to find Tho and Tco.

27.9055 = [(120-20)- )-(Tho-Tco)]/ln[(120-20)/(Tho-Tco)]

The correct answer would be the one with a temperature difference of 3.1047°C.

5. At 120°F: At 50°F

ρ = 56.2 lb/ft3 μ = 100 cp (0.067197 lbm/ft-s)

cp = 0.465 BTU/lb°F

k = 0.070 BTU/hr-ft-°F (1.9444 x 10-5 BTU/s-ft-°F) μ = 20 cp (0.0134394 lb/ft-s)

NPr = cpμ/k

NPr = 0.465(0.0134394)/(1.94444 x 10-5)

NPr = 321.3944

87

From the Reynolds Number, we can tell that its flow is laminar. Thus, we use 5-

47 Perry or 4.5-4 by Geankoplis, else we use the turbulent one. NNu =

1.86[D(NReNPr)/L]1/3(μb/μ w)0.14

Substituting:

NNu = 1.86[0.17225(172.0467)(321.3944)/60]1/3(100/20)0.14

NNu = 12.6163

Since NNu = hD/k, h(0.17225)/0.070 = 12.6163

h = 5.1271 BTU/hr-ft2-°F

A of contact = πDL =

q = AhΔT where ΔT = [(Tw-Tbi)+(Tw-Tbo)]/2 32.46836 ft2

m (mass flow rate) =

Also, q = mcp(Tbo-Tbi) 0.31281 lbm/s

Tbo = 69.2012°F

0.31281(0.465)(Tbo – 50) = 32.46836(X){[(120-50)+(120-Tbo)]/2}(1/3600)

Let us substitute the choices, using X and find T bo. Whichever matches, then it’s

the correct answer. Note that X here means the heat transfer coefficient.

hv = 1125.7072 BTU/lb

1. This temperature of 150°F is the vapor chest pressure which is the boiling

point of water. How about the solution? The boiling point of solution is higher

since it has BPE, of course.

Thus, we will round it up to 50°F to obtain an answer.

3. This time it needs the typical problem solving.

OMB: F = L+V; F = L + 1

Solute: FXF = LXL; F(0.20) = L(0.40) Thus: L = 1 lb, F = 2 lb

88

Enthalpy balance: FhF + SHS = LhL + VhV + ShS; SλS = LhL + VhV - FhF

Where SλS = q

From NaOH-enthalpy chart:

hF = 100 BTU/lb (150°F) [Since it is stated that it is fed at boiling point. Thus TV = TF]

hL = 170 BTU/lb (200°F) [This is the solution temperature.]

Substitute:

LhL + V(hV + 0.45BPE) - FhF = q 1(170) + 1[1125.7072 + 0.45(50)] – 2(100) = q

q = 1118.7072 BTU (Closest is 1080 BTU)

11.

Make a figure yourself. Feed is concentrated from 15% to 50%.

V = 25 000 kg/hr Saturated steam is fed at 0.8 atm.

No BPE! (TL = TV) Data Gathered from Steam Table (app).

cPF = 0.93 cal/g-K TS = 367 K

U = 1700 W/m2-K λS = 2272.6169 kJ/kg-K

Solve:

OMB: F = L+V = L+25000

Solute: F(0.15) = L(0.50) F = 35714.2857 kg/hr

L = 10714.2857 kg/hr

Heat Balance:

q = FcpF(TL-TF) + VλV

BPE q =1700(1/1000)(A)(367-TV)(3600)

S = 28340 kg/hr

An increase in Area, provides lower temperature difference from the steam and

the vapor chest. Either way, practically speaking, an area of 693 m 2 is too big for an

89

evaporator so in essence, the area that must be selected must be at least the industrially

correct and conceivable, so we would go for for 247 m2 since it would provide highest

temperature gradient

Stream 2 (S2): 5 kg/s air, Tdb2 = 300 K, %abs H = 30%

Resultant H=?

At 350 K, pA° = 0.41137 atm

At 300 K, pA° = 0.034903 atm

From the formula Hs = [pA°/(PT - pA°)](MWA/MWB)

HS1 = 0.43378 kg H2O/kg d.a.

HS2 = 0.022447 kg H2O/kg d.a.

And since %abs H = (H/HS)(100%),

H1 = 0.043378 kg H2O/kg d.a.

H2 = 6.7341 X 10-3 kg H2O/kg d.a.

We can modify the humidity by expressing it in terms of kg H2O/kg air.

H1’ = 0.043378/(1+0.043378) = 0.0415746 kg H2O/kg air

H2’ = 6.7341 X 10-3/(1+6.7341 X 10-3) = 6.6891 X 10-3 kg H2O/kg air

Using the given streams:

S1(H1’) = 0.0415746(1) = 0.0415746 kg H2O/s (water from stream 1)

S2(H2’) = 6.6891 X 10-3(5) = 0.033445 kg H2O/s (water from stream 2)

Total stream = S1 + S2 = 1 + 5 = 6 kg air/s

Thus, total outlet humidity = Total water/Total dry air

Total water = 0.0750196 kg H2O

H = 0.0750196/(6-0.0750196)

H = 0.012662 kg H2O/kg d.a.

90

find the outlet temperature by sensible heat balance.

mDAcs1(T1-T)=mDAcs2(T-T2)

From the previous values, mDA1 = 0.958426 kg da/s, mDA2 = 4.966514 kg da/s

And to find cs, cs = 1.01 + 1.88H: cs1 = 1.09155 kJ/kg-K, c s2 = 1.02266 kJ/kg-K

0.958426(1.09155)(350-T) = (4.966514)(1.02266)(T-300)

T = 308.5398

From Perry’s Handbook, the equation to find the enthalpy is given by:

h = [cpg + cpv(H)](T-TRef) + λRef(H) = [1.01 + 1.88H](T-273.15K) + 2501H in

kJ/kg h = [1.01 + 1.88(0.012662)](308.5398-273.15) + 2501(0.012662)

h = 68.25380 kJ/kg

Ans. 67kJ/kg

Tdb1 = 305 K Tdb2 = 275 %abs H = 60%

The required amount is the moisture deposited (E). E = m DA(H1-H2)

Thus, we need to find the mass of dry air, as well as the humidities for both inlet and

outlet. At 305 K, pA° = 0.046573 atm

At 275 K, pA° = 6.8932 X 10-3 atm

Thus, using the equations before to find the humidity: HS1 = 0.030319 kg H2O/kg d.a.

HS2 = 4.308235 X 10-3 kg H2O/kg d.a.

Using the % abs Humidity, H1 = 0.018192 kg H2O/kg d.a.

Now, this is a critical assumption. Since the cooling process did not exactly say

what the condition of the outlet is, the best assumption is to consider that the outlet is

saturated.

Thus, H2 = HS2 = 4.308235 X 10-3 kg H2O/kg d.a.

To find the mass of dry air given the volume of air, we need to find the inlet

humid volume. VH1 = 0.8883156 m3/kg d.a.

Thus, mDA = 0.08/0.8883156 = 0.09005808 kg d.a./s

Using E = mDA(H1-H2)

91

E = 0.09005808(0.018192-4.308235 X 10-3)

E = 0.0012503 kg H2O

Ans. 0.0012 kg/s

V = 500 mL of saturated solution at 50°C is cooled to 25°C.

From the volume of solution, msolute = 500(75)/1000 = 37.5 g

Thus, for every 500 mL, there are 37.5 g of solute on it.

Lowering the temperature, the same volume of solution is present since the volume

of solute is negligible and no expansion or contraction is assumed from this process.

msolute = 500(25)/1000 = 12.5 g

The difference from the masses of the solute is the amount of crystals that will

precipitate from the supersaturated solution.

C = 37.5 g – 12.5 g

C = 25 g

Ans. 25

25. XF = 0.28 (at 120°F)

XC = 142.04/322.186 = 0.44086 (Na2SO4/Na2SO4∙10H2O)

XL = 0.12875 (Perry’s Handbook interpolated) (60°F)

F = 500 lb/hr

MS = 50 lb/hr (65 Mesh)

Water is fed at 50°F to 70°F

OMB: F = L + C

Solute: FXF = LXL + CXC

500 = L + C

500(0.28) = L(0.12875) + C(0.44086) L = 257.6986 kg/hr

C = 242.3024 kg/hr

Ans. 249.3

92

REACTION KINETICS, GAS ABSORPTION, DRYING

plotted in an x-y Cartesian plane. Determine the y-intercept.

A. CAO B.1/CAO C. 1/CAO^2 D.

1/2CAO

2. Discuss the following overall reaction with respect to order, catalysts, etc.

A. First order in A, second order in B, first order in C, product is inhibitor, fourth order

overall

B. First order in A, second order in B, first order in C, product is catalyst, fourth order

overall

C. First order in A, second order in B, first order in C, reactant is catalyst, fourth order

overall

D. First order in A, second order in B, first order in C, reactant is inhibitor, fourth order

overall

3. The half life for the given reaction was doubled as the initial concentration of a

reactant is doubled. What is the order of the reaction?

A. 0 B.1 C. 1/2 D. 2

A. Linearly with time C. Very abruptly toward the end of the

reaction

B. Exponentially with time D. Logarithmically with time

A. increases in the presence of catalyst C. remains unaffected in the presence of

catalyst

B. decreases in the presence of catalyst D. can either increase or decrease; depends

on the type of catalyst

A. very temperature sensitive C. always irreversible

B. temperature sensitive D. always irreversible

7. A second order reaction of the from A+B C is called a pseudo-first order reaction

when

93

8. A first order irreversible reaction A B is carried separately in a constant volume

as well as in a variable volume reactor for a particular period. It signifies that

A. both conversion as well as concentration are the same in the two reactors

B. conversion in both will be the same but concentrations will be different in the two

reactors

C. both the conversion as well as concentrations will be different in the two reactors

D. none of these.

A. A reaction involving only atoms is an elementary process.

B. A reaction that proceeds in only one step is an elementary process.

C. A reaction with zero order rate law is an elementary process.

D. All chemical reactions are elementary process.

10. If a catalyst increases the rate of a reaction what happens to k(forward), the rate

constant for the forward reaction, and to k(reverse), the rate constant of the reverse

reaction?

A. k(forward) increases and k(reverse) increases

B. k(forward) increases and k(reverse) decreases

C. k(forward) increases and k(reverse) remains unchanged

D. k(forward) remains unchanged and k(reverse) decreases

11. A liquid phase reaction: A+B < -- > R+S, where k1=7 L/mol-min and k2=3 L/mol-

min is to take place in a 120-L CSTR. Two feed streams, one contaiming 2.8 mols

A/L, and the other containing 1.6 mols B/L are to introduced in equal volumes into

the reactor and 75% conversion of the limiting reactant is desired. What should be

the flow rate of each stream? Assume a constant density throughout.

A. 8 L/min B. 2 L/min C. 16 L/min D. 4 L/min

12-15. A liquid feed of pure A (1 mol/L) is treated in two reactors of two-liter volume

each and reacts with the rate of rA=0.05 Ca2, mol/L-s. find what feed rate in L/min that

will give a final outlet concentration of Ca=0.5 mol/L if

12. Two CSTRs in series are used

A. 8.49 B. 12 C. 10.23 D. 10.67

A. 3 B. 6 C. 8 D. 9

A. 12 B. 9 C. 8 D. 6

A. 12 B. 9 C. 8 D. 6

16. A liquid reactant stream (1 mol/L) passes through mixed-flow reactors in a series.

The concentration of A in the exit of the first reactor is 0.5 mol/L. Find the

94

concentration in the exit stream of the second reactor. The reaction is second order

with respect to A and V2/V1=2.

A. 0.25 mol/L B. 0.5 mol/L C. 0.75 mol/L D. 0.87 mol/L

17. An aqueous reactant stream (4 A/L) passes through a mixed-flow reactor followed

by a plug-flow reactor. Find the concentration at the exit of the plug-flow reactor.

If in the mixed-flow reactor Ca = 1 mol/L. the reaction is second order with

respect to A, and the volume of the plug-flow reactor is three times that of the

mixed flow reactor.

A. 0.05 mol/L B. 0.01 mol/L C. 0.1 mol/L D. 0.5 mol/L

18. In general, operating pressure should be ___ and temperature ___ for an absorber,

to minimize stage requirements and/or absorbent flow rate to lower the equipment

volume required to accommodate the gas flow.

A. high, low B. low, high C. maximum, low D. minimum,

high

19. The reverse is true for stripping. However, the operating pressure should not be too

high and operating temperature should not be too low as to ___ the feed gas.

A. Vaporize B. condense C. compress D. none of these

20. CO2 is to be absorbed from air using pure water in a countercurrent column. The

ratio of mass fraction of CO2 in inlet air to that in exit air is 5 and the absorption

factor 1.25. What is the theoretical number stages needed if the equilibrium line has

a slope of 2?

A. 2. 63 B. 3.11 C. 2.18 D. 1.98

21. If the liquid flow rate in the preceding item is 20 mol/s, what is the gas flow rate?

A. 10 mol/s B. 8 mol/s C. 16 mol/s D. 12 mol/s

A. Excessive entrainment, increase in pressure drop, increase in efficiency

B. Excessive entrainment, decrease in pressure drop, increase in efficiency

C. Excessive entrainment, decrease in pressure drop, decrease in efficiency

D. Excessive entrainment, increase in pressure drop, decrease in efficiency

23. The initial moisture content of a food product is 77% (wet basis), and the critical

moisture content is 30% (wet basis). If the constant drying rate is 0.1 kg H2O/ m2.s,

compute the time required for the product to begin the falling rate drying period.

The product has a cube shape with 5-cm sides, and the initial product density is 950

kg/m3.

A. 23.4 s B. 34.6 s C. 48.5 s D. 53.2 s

95

24. A cabinet dryer is being used to dry a feed product from 68% moisture content (wet

basis) to 5.5% moisture content (wet basis). The drying air enters the system at 54

degC and 10% RH. The product temperature is 25 degC throughout drying.

Compute the quantity of air required for drying on the basis of 1 kg of product solid.

A. 224.65 kg dry air/kg solids C. 302.27 kg dry air/kg solids

B. 268.4 kg dry air/kg solids D. 412.36 kg dry air/kg solids

25. An wet slab in a tray with a moisture content of 3.5 lbH2O/lb DS is to be dried until

the moisture is down to 1.5 lb H2O/lbDS of product. The dimensions of the slab is

4’x2’x3” and the density of the wet slab is 45 lb/ft3. How many trays are needed to

be dried to produce a ton of product? Assume that the slab does not warp during

drying.

A. 54 trays B. 44 trays C. 200 trays D. 20 trays

ANSWER KEY

1. B. 1/CAO

2. A. First order in A, second order in B, first order in C, product is catalyst,

fourth order overall

3. A. 0

4. B. Exponentially with time

5. C. remains unaffected in the presence of catalyst

6. A. very temperature sensitive

7. D. CBO>CAO

8. B. conversion in both will be the same but concentrations will be different in the

two reactors

9. B. A reaction that proceeds in only one step is an elementary process.

10. A. k(forward) increases and k(reverse) increases

11. D. 4 L/min

12. A. 8.49

13. B. 6

14. A. 12

15. B. 9

16. A. 0.25 mol/L

17. C. 0.1 mol/L

18. A. high, low

19. B. condense

20. A. 2.63

21. B. 8 mole/s

22. D. Excessive entrainment, increase in pressure drop, decrease in efficiency

23. D. 53.2 s

24. A. 224.65 kg dry air/kg solids

25. B. 44 trays

96

SOLUTIONS

Cao = 1.4 moles/liter

Cbo = 0.8 mole/liter

Cro = Cbo = 0

For 75% conversion of B the composition within the reactor and in the exit

stream, for X= 0, is

Cao = 1.4 – 0.6 = 0.8 mole/liter

Cbo = 0.8 – 0.6 = 0.02 mole/liter

Crs = 0.6 mole/liter

Cs = 0.6 mole/liter

Now the rate of reaction at the conditions within the reactor is

-rA = -rB = k1CACB – k2CRCS

(

= 7 (𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑒)(min) )( 0.8 (𝑙𝑖𝑡𝑒𝑟) )( 0.2 (𝑙𝑖𝑡𝑒𝑟) )-

(3 𝑙𝑖𝑡𝑒𝑟𝑠

(𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑒)(min) )( 0.6 𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑒

(𝑙𝑖𝑡𝑒𝑟) )2

𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑒 𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑒

= (1.12 – 1.08) = 0.04

(𝑙𝑖𝑡𝑒𝑟)(𝑚𝑖𝑛) (𝑙𝑖𝑡𝑒𝑟)(𝑚𝑖𝑛)

𝑉 𝐶𝑎𝑜−𝐶𝑎 𝐶𝑏𝑜−𝐶𝑏

τ = = =

ⱴ −𝑟𝐴 −𝑟𝐵

Hence the volumetric flow rate into and out of the reactor, is

𝑉(−𝑟𝐴) 𝑉(−𝑟𝐵)

ⱴ = 𝐶𝑎𝑜−𝐶𝑎 = 𝐶𝑏𝑜−𝐶𝑏

= 𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑒 =8

(0.6 ) 𝑚𝑖𝑛

𝑙𝑖𝑡𝑒𝑟

97

or 4 liters/min of each of the two feed streams.

1 mol/L

2L

2L

0.5 mol/L

2 1−Ca

=

Vo 0.05 Ca2

2 Ca−0.5 Ca−0.5

= ;

Vo 0.05 (0.5)2 1/80

2 Ca−0.5 1

= = 40 Vo = Ca - 0.5

Vo 1/80

1

+ 0.5 = Ca

40 𝑉𝑜

1

2 1− 40 Vo + 0.5

Vo

= 1 2 = Vo = 0.1416 L/sec or 8.4935 L/min

0.05 ( + 0.5)

40 Vo

Ans. 8.4935 L/min

13.

1mol/L

2L

0.5 mol/L

2L 0.5 mol/L

98

𝑉 𝐶𝑎𝑜−𝐶𝑎

= ; -rA = 0.05CA2

𝑉𝑜 −𝑟𝐴

𝑉 𝐶𝑎𝑜−𝐶𝑎 4 1−0.05

= 2 =

𝑉𝑜 0.05Ca 𝑉𝑜 0.05(0.5)2

Ans. 6 L/min

14.

𝐶𝑎𝑜 𝑑𝐶𝑎

τ = Cao ∫𝐶𝑎

−𝑟𝐴

1 𝑑𝐶𝑎 4

τ = ∫0.5 ; τ = 20 𝑉𝑜 = 20

0.05𝐶𝑎2

Ans. 12 L/min

2 1−0.5

15. = = 0.05

𝑉𝑜 0.05(0.52 )

2 1 𝑑𝐶𝑎

= ∫0.5 0.05𝐶𝑎2

𝑉𝑜

2 1 0.5

= ∫0.5 = 0.1

𝑉𝑜 0.05(0.5)2

Vo = 9 L/min

Ans. 9 L/min

𝐶𝑎𝑜−𝐶𝑎

16. For second order reaction: kτ =

𝐶𝑎2

; so for the two reactors

𝑉2 kτ2 (𝐶𝑎1−𝐶𝑎2)/𝐶𝑎2 2 (0.5−𝐶𝑎2)/𝐶𝑎2 2

=2= = 2 = or

𝑉1 kτ2 (𝐶𝑎𝑜−𝐶𝑎1)/𝐶𝑎1 (1−0.5)/0.52

Ans. 0.25 mol/L

99

17. For the second order reaction

(𝐶𝑎𝑜−𝐶𝑎1 ) 4−1

For the mixed flow reactor: kτm = 2 = =3

𝐶𝑎1 1

𝐶𝑎2 1 1

And = 1+ kτp 𝐶𝑎 = 1+9(1) = 0.1

𝐶𝑎1 1

Ans. 0.1 mol/L

𝑦1−𝑚𝑥2 1 1

ln[(𝑦2−𝑚𝑥2)(1−𝐴)+𝐴]

20. N =

𝑙𝑛𝐴

1 1

ln[(5)(1− )+ ]

1.25 1.25

N=

𝑙𝑛1.25

N = 2.63

Ans. 2.63

21. m=2 , L=20 mol/s

A = L/mV

1.25 = (20mol/s)/2V

V = 8 mol/s

Ans. 8 mol/s

23. Initial moisture content =77% wet basis

Critical moisture content =30% wet basis

Drying rate for constant rate period =0.1 kg H2O/(m2 s)

Product size cube with 5-cm sides

Initial product density = 950 kg/m3

Approach

The time for constant-rate drying will depend on mass of water removed and the rate

of water removal. Mass of water removed must be expressed on dry basis, and rate of

water removal must account for product surface area.

The initial moisture content is 0.77 kg H2O/kg product= 3.35 kg H2O/kg solids X=1/(1-

X)

1-0.77 kg H2O/kg product = .23 kg solid/kg product

The critical moisture content is 0.3 kg H2O/kg product= 0.43 kg H2O/kg solids

100

The amount of moisture to be removed from product during constant-rate drying will

be

3.35 – 0.43 = 2.92 kg H2O/kg solids

The surface area of the product during drying will be

0.05 m x 0.05 m =2.5 x 10-3 m2/side

2.5 x 10-3 x 6 sides = 0.015 m2

The drying rate becomes

0.1 kgH2O/(m2s)x0.015m2 = 1.5x10-3 kgH2O/s

Using the product density, the initial product mass can be established.

950 kg/m3x(0.05)3m3 = 0.11875 kg product

0.11875 kg product x 0.23 kg solid/kg product = 0.0273 kg solid

The total amount of water to be removed becomes

2.92 kgH2O/kg solids x 0.0273 kg solids = 0.07975 kg H2O

Using the drying rate, the time for constant-rate drying becomes

0.07975 kg H2O

= 53.2 s

1.5x10−3 kgH2O/s

Ans. 53.2 s

24. Using the Psychrometric chart from HB

W1 = 0.0186 kgH2O/kg dry air (using 30degC and 70% RH)

W2 = 0.0094 kgH2O/kg dry air (using 54degC and 10% RH)

(ṁa /ṁp)(0.0094 kgH2O/kg dry air) + 2.125 kgH2O/kg solids = (ṁa /ṁp)(0.0186

kgH2O/kg dry air) + 0.0582 kgH2O/kg solids

0.0092(ṁa /ṁp) = 2.067

(ṁa /ṁp) = 224.65 kg dry air/ kg solids

Ans. 224.65 kg dry air/ kg solids

101

SEPARATION PROCESS

volatility (α) is ______.

a. α >>1

b. α <<1

c. α =1

d. none of these

2. In a binary distillation column, if the feed contains 40% mole vapour, the q line

will have a slope of ______. (solution required)

a. 1.5

b. -0.6

c. -1.5

d. 0.6

3. For a fixed number of ideal stages in a distillation column, as the reflux ratio is

increased, the difference in composition between the top and the bottom product

streams _____.

a. Increases

b. Decreases

c. Remains unaffected

d. Passes through a maximum

Ponchon-Savarit procedure is needed when______.

a. Saturated feed is not used

b. An azeotrope forms

c. The latent heats of vapourization of the more and less volatile components are

greatly different

d. A total condenser is used

the mixture contains 0.682 mole fraction toluene?

a. 100 degC

b. 95 degC

c. 89 degC

d. 98 degC

6. In the above question, when the resulting vapor ids condensed, the liquid

composition contains how much benzene (mole fraction)?

102

a. 0.532

b. 0.83

c. 0.425

d. 0.18

a. Its exact temperature

b. Temperature slightly above its normal boiling point

c. A temperature below its normal boiling point

d. Under high pressure

degC.

a. 9.5 kPa

b. 8.5 kPa

c. 6.5 kPa

d. 10.5 kPa

a. 4.02

b. 3.35

c. 6.9

d. 11.16

10. The estimated minimum number of stages for a binary distillation system with

relative volatility of 2.35, having the lighter component at 0.98 in the distillate and

0.045 in the bottoms is _____.

a. 9

b. 6

c. 7

d. 5

11. A filtration is carried out for 10 minutes at a constant rate in a leaf filter and

thereafter it is continued at constant pressure. This pressure is attained at the end of

the constant rate period. If one quarter of the total volume of the filtrate is collected

during the constant rate period, what is the total filtration rate time? Assume the

cake is incompressible and the filter medium resistance is negligible.

a. 80 min

b. 85 min

c. 95 min

d. 60 min

12. What is the fraction of the volume of voids over the total volume of the filter cake?

103

a. Permeability

b. Filterability

c. Sedimentation factor

d. Porosity

13. Volume of the filtrate collected is 1 gal when the filtration rate is 1.5gpm and it is

5 gal when the filtration rate is 0.6gpm. Calculate the volume collected when the

filtration rate is 0.55 gpm. Assume constant-pressure filtration.

a. 3.67

b. 4.22

c. 5.59

d. 5.18

14. In the problem above, what is the total volume of the filtrate collected in 15 min?

a. 4.45

b. 6.96

c. 10.85

d. 5.73

15. A plate and frame press delivers 50 liters of filtrate in an hour at constant pressure

of 50 psig. The washing time using 50 L of wash water is _____.

a. 1h

b. 2.5h

c. 4h

d. 3h

a. 0.779

b. 0.705

c. 0.755

d. 0.80

17. Find the sphericity of a cube of Vp=a3, Ap= 6a2 and c= a3.

a. 0.790

b. 0.830

c. 0.853

d. 0.806

a. Recovery and separation of pharmaceuticals

b. Purification and recovery processes for gases and liquids

c. Activated carbon-based applications

d. Nitrogen from air by PSA using carbon molecular sieve

104

19. What is false about sedimentation of particles in a concentrated suspension?

a. If a significant size range of particles is present, the large particles are settling

to a suspension of smaller ones so that the effective density and viscosity of the

fluid are increased.

b. The upward velocity of the fluid displaced during settling is appreciable in a

concentrated suspension.

c. The apparent settling velocity is more than the actual velocity to the fluid.

d. The velocity gradients in the fluid close to the particles are increased as a result

of the change in the area and shape of the flow spaces.

20. Square plates with 0.0123 cm thickness and 0.0645 square cm are randomly falling

through a liquid with a density of 55 lb/ft3 with a μ=15 centipoise. The SG of plates

is 3.0, what is its settling velocity?

a. 5.5cm/s

b. 7.2 cm/s

c. 3.9 cm/s

d. 6.8 cm/s

21. How many “g” can be obtained in a centrifuge which can spin a liquid at 2000

rev/min at a maximum radius of 10 cm?

a. 440

b. 450

c. 460

d. 470

22. A particle “A” of diameter 10 microns settles in an oil of SG 0.9 and viscosity of

10 poise under Stokes Law. A particle “B” with diameter 20 microns settling in the

same oil will have a settling velocity of _____.

a. Same as that of A

b. ¼ as that of A

c. Twice as that of A

d. Four times as that of A

23. The US Standard Sieve series is equivalent to a 24 mesh Tyler Standard is _____

microns.

a. 600

b. 100

c. 805

d. 707

24. A random handful of silica particles ranging in size from 28 mesh to 200 mesh is

thrown to a very deep body of water (without tides or turbulence).

105

Data: Viscosity of water= 0.01 poise mesh= 0.0589 cm

3

Density of silica= 2.65 g/cm 200 mesh= 0.0074 cm

The distance between the largest and the smallest particles after 10 min is _____.

a. 4700 cm

b. 4900 cm

c. 5000 cm

d. 4000 cm

25. An available crusher has been accepting hard rock with a volume surface mean

diameter of 0.069 m and providing a product with a surface mean diameter of 5x10 -

3

m. The power required for crushing 10000 kg/h of this specified rock is 6.35 kW.

Assume that the mechanical efficiency of the unit will remain unchanged. The

power consumption if the capacity were reduced to 9000 kg/h with the same feed

characteristics but with a reduction in the volume surface mean diameter of the

product is 4 x10-3 m.

a. 7.35 kW

b. 7.00 kW

c. 6.64 kW

d. 8.64 kW

26. What will be the power required for the same feed at 100 tons/hr to be crushed to a

product such that 80% is to passed through a 1.6 mm screen?

a. 280 kW

b. 260 kW

c. 270 kW

d. 290 kW

27. For low-porosity cakes, if the fraction of solute remaining is 0.3, the corresponding

wash ratio is _____.

a. 1.90

b. 0.75

c. 0.98

d. None

28. What filter media should be used when high resistance to oxidizing agents and high

breaking tenacity are both required?

a. Fluorocarbon

b. Nylon

c. Glass

d. Acetate

components of the mixture for fractional distillation, it is the difference in 1) _____

106

for gas absorption, it is the difference in the 2) _____ in a solubility adsorbent and

for liquid-liquid extraction it is based on the 3) _____ of a particular component in

an immiscible solvent.

a. 1) volatility 2) solubility 3) solubility

b. 1) selectivity 2) diffusivity 3) volatility

c. 1) volatility 2) diffusivity 3) solubility

d. 1) selectivity 2) volatility 3) solubility

30. Calculate the equilibrium composition of the liquid and the vapour phases for the

mixture of methyl alcohol in water at a temperature of 50 C and under a pressure

of 40 kPa. Assume that both the liquid and the vapour behave ideally. At 50 C, the

vapour pressure of methyl alcohol is 53.32 kPa and that of water is 12.33 kPa.

a. Liquid 65.5% methyl alcohol; Vapour 85.95% methyl alcohol

b. Liquid 67.5% methyl alcohol; Vapour 89.98% methyl alcohol

c. Liquid 57.5% methyl alcohol; Vapour 79.80% methyl alcohol

d. Liquid 47.5% methyl alcohol; Vapour 69.16% methyl alcohol

107

ANSWER KEY

Separation Process

1. A. α >>1

2. C. -1.5

3. A. Increases

4. D. A total condenser is used

5. D. 98oC

6. A. 0.532

7. C. A temperature below its normal boiling point

8. A. 9.5 kPa

9. B. 3.35

10. A. 9

11. B. 85 min

12. D. Porosity

13. C. 5.59

14. B. 6.96

15. C. 4h

16. A. 0.779

17. D. 0.806

18. A. Recovery and separation of pharmaceuticals

19. C. The apparent settling velocity is more than the actual velocity to the fluid

20. B. 7.2 cm/s

21. B. 450

22. D. Four times as that of A

23. D. 707

24. A. 4700 cm

25. C. 6.64 kW

26. A. 280 kW

27. B. 0.75

28. C. Glass

29. A. 1) volatility 2) solubility 3) solubility

30. B. Liquid 67.5% methyl alcohol; Vapour 89.98% methyl alcohol

108

SOLUTIONS

2. 𝑦 = 𝑚𝑥 + 𝑏

𝑞 1

𝑦=− 𝑥+ 𝑥𝐹

1−𝑞 1−𝑞

𝑞 0.6

𝑚 = − 1−𝑞 = − 1−0.6

𝑚 = −1.5 Answer: -1.5

5.

𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝑓𝑟𝑎𝑐𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛 𝑏𝑒𝑛𝑧𝑒𝑛𝑒 = 1 − 0.682 = 0.318

98

Answer: 98 degC

6.

109

0.532 Answer: 0.532

74 𝑔

8. 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝐶6𝐻6 = 𝑔 = 0.94734 𝑚𝑜𝑙

78.1134

𝑚𝑜𝑙

48.8 𝑔

𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝐶8𝐻10 = 𝑔 = 0.52963 𝑚𝑜𝑙

92.1402

𝑚𝑜𝑙

0.94734

𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑒 𝑓𝑟𝑎𝑐𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛 𝐶6𝐻6 = = 0.6414

0.94734+0.52963

0.52963

𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑒 𝑓𝑟𝑎𝑐𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛 𝐶8𝐻10 = = 0.3586

0.94734+0.52963

𝑃𝑡𝑜𝑡𝑎𝑙 = ((𝑃°)(𝑥))𝐶6𝐻6 + ((𝑃°)(𝑥))𝐶8𝐻10

𝑃𝑡𝑜𝑡𝑎𝑙 = 95.1(0.6414) + (28.4)(0.3586)

𝑃𝑡𝑜𝑡𝑎𝑙 = 71.2𝑡𝑜𝑟𝑟 = 9492.5526 𝑃𝑎 = 9.5 𝑘𝑃𝑎

Answer: 9.5 kPa

𝑃𝐴 𝑥𝐵

9. 𝛼 (𝐴𝐵) = ( )

𝑥𝐴 𝑃𝐵

𝑃𝐴 = 𝑥𝐴 (𝑃𝐴°) = (0.6414)(95.1) = 60.9971 𝑡𝑜𝑟𝑟

𝑃𝐵 = 𝑥𝐵 (𝑃𝐵 °) = (0.3586)(28.4) = 10.1842 𝑡𝑜𝑟𝑟

60.9971 0.3586

𝛼 (𝐴𝐵) = (10.1842)

0.6414

𝛼 (𝐴𝐵) = 3.3486

Answer: 3.3486

𝑋 𝑋

𝑙𝑜𝑔( 𝐿𝐷 )( 𝐿𝐵 )

𝑋𝐻𝐷 𝑋𝐻𝐵

10. 𝑁=

log(𝛼)

0.98 1−0.045

𝑙𝑜𝑔( )( )

1−0.98 0.045

𝑁= log(2.35)

𝑁 = 8.1306 = 9 𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑔𝑒𝑠

Answer: 9 stages

110

𝑑𝑄 2𝑉 2𝑉𝑓

11. = +

𝑑𝑉 𝐶 𝐶

where C is a function of DP and mean specific cake resistance (a).If filter medium

resistance is negligible, then Vf = 0.Now the equation can be written in the form,

𝑑𝑄 2𝑉 2𝑉

= =

𝑑𝑉 𝐶 𝐶2 (𝑑𝑃)

Where Vt = total volume of filtrate (filtrate collected in constant rate operation and

constant pressure operation)

2𝑉 10 40

= =

𝐶2 (𝑑𝑃) 0.25 𝑉𝑡 𝑉𝑡

2

𝑑𝑄 = (𝑉𝑑𝑉)

0.0125 𝑉𝑡 2

80

𝑄𝑡 − 10 = (𝑉𝑡 2 − (0.25 𝑉𝑡)2 )

𝑉𝑡 2

80

𝑄𝑡 = 10 + (0.9375 𝑉𝑡 2 )

𝑉𝑡 2

Answer: 85 minutes

𝑘

𝑟𝑓 =

2(𝑉+𝑉𝑐)

𝑘

1.5 = 2(1+𝑉𝑐)

3 + 3 𝑉𝑐 = 𝑘 equation 1

𝑘

0.6 =

2(5+𝑉𝑐)

111

6 + 1.2 𝑉𝑐 = 𝑘 equation 2

Solve for Vc and k:

5

𝑉𝑐 = = 1.67 𝑔𝑎𝑙

3

𝑔𝑎𝑙2

𝑘=8 𝑚𝑖𝑛

V= ?, r= 0.55 gpm

8

0.55 = 2(𝑉+1.67)

𝑉 = 5.60 𝑔𝑎𝑙

Answer: 5.60 gal

𝑉2 2𝑉𝑐𝑉

ɵ= +

𝑘 𝑘

𝑉2 2(1.67)(𝑉)

15 = +

8 8

𝑉 = 6.96 𝑔𝑎𝑙

Answer: 6.96 gal

15.

1 2

𝜋3 (6𝑉𝑝)3

16. 𝛹= diameter= 1 cm height= 3 cm

𝐴𝑝

1 2

𝜋3 (6𝜋(0.5)2(3))3

𝛹 = 2𝜋(0.5)(3)+2𝜋(0.5)2

𝛹 = 0.779

Answer: 0.779

1 2

𝜋3 (6𝑉𝑝)3

17. 𝛹= Vp = a3 Ap = 6a2

𝐴𝑝

1 2

𝜋3 (6𝑎3 )3

𝛹= 6𝑎2

1 2

𝜋3 (6)3

𝛹= 6

𝛹 = 0.8060

Answer: 0.806

𝐹𝑔 = 𝑚𝑔

𝐹𝑐 0.011 𝑟𝑁 2

=

𝐹𝑔 𝑔

112

𝐹𝑐 0.011 (0.1)(2000)2

=

𝐹𝑔 9.81

𝐹𝑐

= 450

𝐹𝑔

Answer: 450

𝑃 1 1

25. = 0.3162𝐸( − ) T1= 10000 kg/hr= 10 tons/hr

𝑇 √𝑥1 √𝑥2

6.35 1 1

= 0.3162𝐸( − √5𝑥10=3 )

10 √0.069

𝐸 = −0.1943

𝑃 1 1

= 0.3162𝐸( − ) T2= 9000 kg/hr= 9 tons/hr

𝑇 √𝑥1 √𝑥2

𝑃 1 1

= 0.3162(−0.1943(( − √4𝑥10=3 )

9 √0.069

𝑃 = 6.6380 𝑘𝑊

Answer: 6.6380 kW

𝑃 1 1

26. = 0.3162𝐸( − ) T= 100 tons/hr

𝑇 √𝑥1 √𝑥2

𝑃 1 1

= 0.3162(−0.1943)( − √1.6𝑥10−3 )

100 √0.069

𝑃 = 130.2052 𝑘𝑊

Answer: 130.2052 kW

𝑃−𝑃𝐵

30. 𝐿𝑖𝑞𝑢𝑖𝑑: 𝑥𝐴 = 𝑃𝐴 −𝑃𝐵

40−12.33

𝑥𝐴 = 53.32−12.33

𝑥𝐴 = 0.6750

𝑥𝐴 = 0.6750 𝑥 100 = 67.50%

𝑥𝐴 𝑃𝐴

𝑉𝑎𝑝𝑜𝑢𝑟: 𝑦𝐴 = 𝑃

0.675(53.32)

𝑦𝐴 = 40

𝑦𝐴 = 0.8998𝑥 100 = 89.98%

Answer: Liquid 67.50%, Vapour 89.98%

113

FLUID FLOW AND THERMODYNAMICS

a. compressible c. incompressible and viscous

b. incompressible d. compressible and inviscid

2. The requirement by which the pressure of the liquid at the suction of the pump must

exceed the vapor pressure of the liquid to avoid cavitation of pump is

a. Net Positive Suction Head c. Cavitational Limit

3. Orifice has the highest permanent pressure loss among all meters. Which of the

following increases the pressure drop across an orifice for a given flow rate?

b. Decrease in orifice thickness d. Neither a nor b

4. Which of the following fittings exhibits the highest pressure drop for the same flow

conditions?

a. 90-degree long radius elbow c. 45-degree standard elbow

b. 90-degree standard elbow d. square-corner elbow

5. A dimensionless group that is used to analyze transport phenomena and shows the

ratio of interial forces to gravitational forces

a. Euler number b. Froude number

6. The laminar flow regime can be characterized by

a. parabolic profile b. exponential profile

7. Hydraulic radius is the ratio of

a. wetted perimeter to flow area c. flow area to wetted perimeter

b. flow area to square of wetted perimeter d. square root of flow area to wetted

perimeter

8. Which of the following factors does not contribute to the pressure drop in a pipeline

114

a. velocity of fluid c. length of pipe and number of bends

b. size of pipe d. none of these

increases rate of shear. Examples are solutions of high polymers, paper pulp, and

mayonnaise.

c. rheopectic fluids d. pseudoplastic fluids

10. Ninety-eight percent sulfuric acid (viscosity = 25 x 10 -3 Ns/m2, density =

1840kg/m3) is pumped at 1.25kg/s through a 25mm diameter pipe, 30m long, to a

reservoir 12m higher than the feed point. Calculate the pressure drop in the pipeline.

Use mild steel pipe as the pipe.

a. 320kPa b.240kPa

c. 480kPa d. 560kPa

11. Natural gas which is essentially methane is being pumped through a 1.016m ID

wrought iron pipeline for a distance of 1.609 x 10 5 m at a rate of 2.077kmol/s. It

can be assumed that the line is isothermal at 288.8K. The pressure P2 at the

discharge end of the line is 170.3 x 10 3 Pa absolute. Calculate the pressure P1 at

the inlet of the line.

a. 694 x10 3 Pa b.680 x 10 3 Pa

c. 724 x 10 3 Pa d. 433 x 10 3 Pa

12. The rate of flow of water in a 150mm diameter pipe is measured with a venturi

meter with a 50mm diameter throat. When the pressure drop over the converging

section is 121mm of water, the flow rate is 2.91kg/s. What is the coefficient for the

converging cone of the meter at this flow rate?

a. 0.895 b. 0.598 c. 0.859 d. 0.985

13. Water flows 10ft/s through a pipe 1000ft long with a diameter of 1in the inlet

pressure P1 = 200psig, and the exit section is 100ft higher than the inlet. What is

the exit pressure P2 if the friction head loss is 350ft?

14. Six thousand liters per second (6000L/s) of waer at 320K is pumped in a 40mm

inside diameter pipe through a length of 150m in a horizontal direction and up

through a vertical height of 10m. In the pipe there is a control valve which may be

taken as equivalent to 200 pipe diameters and other pipe fittings equivalents to 60

115

pipe diameters. Also in the line there is a heat exchanger across which there is a

loss in head of 1.5m of water. If the main pipe has a roughness of 0.0002m, what

power must be delivered to the pump of the unit is 60% efficient?

a. 218W b.128W c. 521W d. 512W

15. A centrifugal pump is to be used to extract water from a condenser in which the

vacuum is 640mmHg. At the rated discharge, the net positive suction head must be

at least 3 above the cavitation vapor pressure of 710mmHg vacuum. If losses in the

suction pipe account for a head of 1.5m, what must be the least height of the liquid

level in the condenser above the pump inlet?

a. 3.55m b.5.33m c. 1.77m d. 7.17m

16. For an isothermal process the internal energy of a gas

a. Increases b. decreases

c. remains unchanged d. data insufficient can’t be predicted

17. During Joule-Thomson expansion of gases

b. entropy remains constant d. none of these

18. Which of the following is not a intensive property

19. Entropy of an ideal gas depends upon its

a. pressure b. temperature c. both (a) & (b) d. neither (a) nor (b)

20. Coefficient of Performance (COP) of refrigerator is the ratio of

a. work required to refrigeration obtained

c. lower to higher temperature

d. higher to lower temperature

21. 21.Work in the amount of 12kJ is done on a closed system, and its internal energy

decreases by 25kJ. How much heat is removed from the system?

a. 12 kJ b. 20 kJ c. 13 kJ d. 37 kJ

22. An ideal gas with CV = (7/2)R enters a process at 300K and 2 bar and leaves the

process at 600K and 9 bar. Calculate its entropy change.

116

a. 5.4 J/mol-K b. 8.4 J/mol-K

c. 10.4 J/mol-K d. 13.4 J/mol-K

23. Calculate the work necessary to compress air in an insulated cylinder from a volume

of 6 ft 3 to a volume of 1.2 ft 3. The initial temperature and pressure are 50⁰F and

30psia, respectively.

24. Saturated steam at 630K is throttled to a pressure of 15bar. What is the quality of

the stea after the throttling process?

25. Wet steam at 400K has an enthalpy of 39kJ/mol. What is the quality of the steam?

a. 0.589 b. 0.655 c. 0.748 d. 0.875

26. Two Carnot engines operate in series between two reservoirs maintained at 600⁰F

and 100⁰F respectively. The energy rejected by the first engine is input into the

second engine. If the first engine’s efficiency is 20% greater than the second

engine’s efficiency, calculate the intermediate temperature.

27. A refrigerator with a power consumption of 1.8KW has a refrigeration rate of 4KW.

If heat is rejected from the condenser at 40⁰C, what is the lowest possible

temperature that the refrigerator can maintain?

28. Nitrogen gas expands adiabatically from 9 bar and 100⁰C to 2 bar, at a flowrate of

100mol/s. If the turbine efficiency is 0.80, calculate the power output of the turbine.

Assume that nitrogen is an ideal gas with Cp = (7/2)R.

a. 504kW b.630kW c. 379kW d. 303kW

29. Nitrogen gas enters a nozzle at 1000kPa and 200⁰C with a negligible initial velocity

and discharges at a pressure of 500kPa. Assuming isentropic expansion of the

nitrogen in the nozzle, determine the exit velocity. Assume nitrogen to be ideal gas

with Cp = (7/2)R.

30. Water at 200⁰F is pumped from a storage tank at the rate of 50gpm. The motor for

the pump supplies work at the rate of 2hp. The water goes through a heat exchanger,

giving up heat at the rate of 40000BTU/min and is delivered to a second storage

117

tank at an elevation 50ft above the second tank. What is the temperature of water

delivered to the second tank?

ANSWER KEY

1. D. Incompressible & Inviscid

2. A. Net Positive Suction Head

3. C. Both a & b

4. D. Square-corner elbow

5. B. Froude Number

6. A. Parabolic profile

7. C. Flow area to wetted perimeter

8. D. None of these

9. D. Pseudo plastic fluids

10. A. 320kPa

11. B. 680 x 10 ^ 3 Pa

12. D. 0.985

13. B. 5 psig

14. B. 128 W

15. A. 3.55m

16. C. remains unchanged

17. A. Enthalpy remains constant

18. A. Volume

19. C. both (a) & (b)

20. B. Refrigeration obtained to the work required

21. D. 37kJ

22. D. 13.4 J/mol-K

23. D. -75BTU

24. B. 0.856

25. C. 0.748

26. B. 285⁰F

27. B. -30.2⁰C

28. D. 303kW

29. D. 420 m/s

30. A. 101.75⁰F

118

SOLUTIONS

2𝑓𝑣²𝐿𝜌

10. ∆𝑃 = 𝐷

𝐷𝑣𝜌

𝑁𝑅𝑒 =

𝜇

𝜋

𝐴𝑟𝑒𝑎 = (0.025)2 = 4.91 𝑥 10−4 𝑚2

4

𝑚 1.25𝑘𝑔/𝑠

𝑉𝑜𝑙 = = = 6.7934 𝑥 10−4 𝑚3 /𝑠

𝜌 1840 𝑘𝑔/𝑚3

𝑉𝑒𝑙𝑜𝑐𝑖𝑡𝑦 = = = 1.38360𝑚/𝑠

𝑎𝑟𝑒𝑎 4.91 𝑥 10−4 𝑚2

1.38360𝑚 𝑘𝑔

𝐷𝑣𝜌 (0.025)( )(1840 3 )

𝑠 𝑚

𝑁𝑅𝑒 = = = 2545.824

𝜇 25𝑥 10−3 𝑃𝑎−𝑠

0.079 0.079

𝑓= 0.25 = 0.25 = .0111

𝑁𝑅𝑒 2545.824

1.38360𝑚 𝑘𝑔

2𝑓𝑣²𝐿𝜌 2(.0111)( 𝑠 )²(30𝑚)(1840 3 )

𝑚 = 93836.79 𝑃𝑎

∆𝑃 = =

𝐷 0.025𝑚

11.

𝑘𝑚𝑜𝑙 16 𝑘𝑔

2.077 𝑠 ( )

𝐺= 𝑘𝑚𝑜𝑙 = 40.99

𝜋

4 (1.016𝑚)²

𝐷𝐺 1.016 (40.99)

𝑁𝑅𝑒 = = = 3820719.266

𝜇 1.09 𝑥 10−5

0.9

1 . 27(4.57𝑥10−5 7

= −4 log( +( ) )

√𝑓 1.016 3820719.266

𝑓 = 2.8042 𝑥 10−3

119

𝑅𝑇 4𝑓𝐿 𝑃1

𝑃1 2 − 𝑃2 2 = 𝐺 2 ( + 2𝑙𝑛 )

𝑀𝑊 𝐷 𝑃2

𝑃1 2 − (170.3 𝑥 103 )2

8.314(288.8) 4(2.8042 𝑥 10−3 )(1.609𝑥105

= 40.992 (

16/1000 1.016

𝑃1

+ 2𝑙𝑛 )

170.3 𝑥 103

𝑃1 = 𝟔𝟕𝟒, 𝟐𝟓𝟖. 𝟔𝟐𝟒𝟐 𝑷𝒂

12.

C = 0.98 is commonly used for 𝑁𝑅𝑒 > 10,000

𝑃1−𝑃2

15.𝑁𝑃𝑆𝐻 = + ∆𝑧 − ℎ𝑓

𝑔𝜌

15998.6842 − 6666.1184

3𝑚 = + ∆𝑧 − 1.5

(999)(9.81)

∆𝑧 = 𝟑. 𝟓𝟓𝒎

21. ∆𝑈 = 𝑄 − 𝑊

−25 = 12 − 𝑊

𝑊 = 37kJ

𝑇2 𝑃1

22.∆𝑆 = 𝑛𝐶𝑝 ln 𝑇1 + 𝑛𝑅𝑙𝑛 𝑃2

9 600 2

∆𝑆 = (8.3145) ln + 8.3145𝑙𝑛

2 300 9

𝑱

∆𝑆 = 𝟏𝟑. 𝟒𝟑

𝒎𝒐𝒍 𝑲

120

23. 𝑄 = ∆𝑈 + 𝑊

0 = ∆𝑈 + 𝑊

∆𝑈 = −𝑊

−𝑊 = 𝑚𝐶𝑣 ∆𝑇

𝑉1 1.4−1

𝑇2 = 𝑇1 ( )

𝑉2

0.17 1.4−1

𝑇2 = 283.15 ( )

0.0340

𝑇2 = 539.0196 𝐾

𝑊 0.717𝐾𝐽 𝐾𝐽

− =( ) (539.0196 − 283.15)𝐾 = −183.4585 = −𝟕𝟖. 𝟖𝟕 𝑩𝑻𝑼

𝑚 𝑘𝑔 − 𝐾 𝑘𝑔

@ 15 𝑏𝑎𝑟

𝑆𝑓 = 3.697023125

𝑆𝑓𝑔 = 3.697023125

X = 0.88

26.

𝑇1 − 𝑇2 𝑊

𝑛1 = =

𝑇1 𝑄2 + 𝑊

𝑇2 − 𝑇3 𝑊

𝑛2 = =

𝑇2 𝑄3 + 𝑊

𝑇1 − 𝑇2 = 𝑇2 − 𝑇3

600 − 𝑇2 = 𝑇2 − 100

121

27.

4 40

= 1−

1.8 𝑥

x = -32.72 ⁰C

28.

𝑃2 1.4−1

𝑇2 = 𝑇1 ( ) 1.4

𝑃1

2 1.4−1

𝑇2 = 373.15 ( ) 1.4

9

𝑇2 = 242.8014 𝐾

∆𝑈 = 𝑊 = 𝑚𝐶𝑝 ∆𝑇

7

𝑊 = (100) ( ) (8.314)(373.15 − 242.8014) = 379301.3911 𝑊 = 379.301 𝐾𝑊

2

𝑊 = 379.301 ∗ .80 = 𝟑𝟎𝟑. 𝟒𝟒𝟎𝟖 𝑲𝑾

29.

𝑉12 𝑉22

𝐻1 + = 𝐻2 +

2 2

1.4(𝑅)

𝑉2 = √𝑉12 + 2 (𝑇1 − 𝑇2)

1.4 − 1

500 1.4−1

𝑇2 = (200 + 273.15) ( ) 1.4

1000

𝑇2 = 388.1416 𝐾

R = 287 J/kg-K

1.4(287)

𝑉2 = √0 + 2 (473.15 − 388.1416)

1.4 − 1

𝑽𝟐 = 𝟒𝟏𝟑𝒎/𝒔

122

30.

Water @ 200F = 366.48 K

Z150ft = 15.24m

Density = 963.24 kg/m3

50 gpm = 3.15451 x 10 ^ -3 m3/s

1

𝑊 = 1492 W ( ) = 491.02J /kg

3.0386 kg/s

HEAT EXCHANGER: -40000 BTU/min = -703370.8 Watts

1

𝑄 = −703370.8W ( ) = −231478.5757 J/kg

kg

3.0386 s

𝑉22 − 𝑉12

𝐻2 − 𝐻1 + 𝑔∆𝑧 + =𝑄−𝑊

2

𝐻2 − 390 𝑥 103 + (9.81)(15.24) + 0 = −231478.5757 − (−491.02)

𝐽 158.8629𝐾𝐽

𝐻2 = 158862.9256 = = 2.8627 𝐾𝐽/𝑚𝑜𝑙

𝑘𝑔 𝑘𝑔

By interpolation

Enthaply Temp.

2.7810 310K

3.5340 320K

T = 311.08 K = 100.274⁰F

123

LEACHING AND LIQUID-LIQUID EXTRACTION

beets with fresh water as the solvent. The beets have the following analysis:

Components Mass fraction

water 0.48

pulp 0.40

sugar 0.12

The strong solution leaving the system is to contain 0.15 mass fraction sugar, 97%

of the sugar in the sliced beets is to be recovered. Determine the number of

extraction cells required, assuming equilibrium between the underflow and

overflow in each cell.

If each ton of dry pulp retains 3 tons of solution.

If each ton of dry pulp retains 3 tons of water.

composed of malachite (CuCO3 Cu(OH)2) and gangue. Copper is extracted by

crushing the ore to – 20 mash., agitating with a diute solution of sulfuric acid,

followed by multiple-contact counter current washing to wash the gangue free of

the copper-bearing solution. The rich solution from the washing system is treated

for removal of dissolved iron and aluminum and then sent to the electroytic cells

for precipitation of the copper. The dilute acid solution from the cells is recycled to

the agitators for treatment of more raw ore.

The counter current washing operation uses Dorr thickeners for the recovery of the

rrich solution. The slurry from the agitators, with the copper in the solution as

copper sulphate, is fed to the thickeners at the rate of 300 tons per hour.

According to operating records, the underflow from each thickener retains 1.22 tons

of solution per ton of gangue,and the streams have the following compositions in

mass percent.

Underflow

Feed to Strong Leaving

Thickener, Solution System

% % mass %

124

Determine the number of equilibrium stages.

batch arrangement using ether as the solvent. The solids charge contains 0.35 kg

oil/kg exhausted livers and it is desired to obtain a 90 per cent oil recovery. a). How

many theoretical stages are required if 50 kg ether is used/100 kg untreated solids?

The entrainment data are:

Concentration of overflow(kg oil/kg solution)

0 0.1 0.2 0.3 0.4 0.5 0.6 0.670

Entrainment (kg solution/kg extracted livers)

0.28 0.34 0.40 0.47 0.55 0.66 0.80 0.96

c. The mass of liver fed per 100 kg of untreated solids

4. 4. Coconut oil is to be produced from dry copra in two stages. First, through

expellers to squeeze out part of the coconut oil and then through a countercurrent

multistage extraction process. After expelling, the dry copra cake contains 20%

residual oil. In the extraction operation, 90% of the residual oil in the expeller cake

is extracted as a solution containing 50% by weights oil. If fresh solvent is used and

one kg of solution with every two kg of insoluble cake is removed with the

underflow, how many number of ideal stage is required?

5. 5. A plant produces 8640 tonnes per day (100 kg/s) of titanium dioxide pigment

which must be 99.9 per cent pure when dried. The pigment is produced by

precipitation and the material, as prepared, is contaminated with 1 kg of salt

solution, containing 0.55 kg of salt/kg of pigment. The material is washed

countercurrently with water in a number of thickeners arranged in series. How

many thickeners will be required if water is added at the rate of 17,400 tonnes per

day (200 kg/s) and the solid discharged from each thickener removes 0.5 kg of

solvent/kg of pigment? What will be the required number of thickeners if the

amount of solution removed in association with the pigment varies with the

concentration of the solution in the thickener, as follows? The concentrated wash

liquor is mixed with the material fed to the first thickener.

(kg solute/kg solution) (kg solution/kg pigment)

125

0 0.30

0.1 0.32

0.2 0.34

0.3 0.36

0.4 0.38

0.5 0.40

6. In a pilot scale test using a vessel 1 m3 in volume, a solute was leached from an

inert solid and the water was 75 per cent saturated in 100 s. If, in a full-scale unit,

500 kg of the inert solid containing, as before, 28 per cent by mass of the water-

soluble component, is agitated with 100 m3 of water, how long will it take for all

the solute to dissolve, assuming conditions are equivalent to those in the pilot scale

vessel? Water is saturated with the solute at a concentration of 2.5 kg/m3.

7. Seeds, containing 20 per cent by mass of oil, are extracted in a countercurrent plant,

and 90 percent of the oil is recovered in a solution containing 50 per cent by mass

of oil. If the seeds are extracted with fresh solvent and 1 kg of solution is removed

in the underflow in association with every 2 kg of insoluble matter, a). what is the

mass fraction of insoluble material in the underflow ? b). how many ideal stages

are required?

from 20% w to 5% w in a single batch extraction using chloro-benzene as solvent.

Equilibrium compositions (end points of the tie line ) in terms of weight percent of

pyridine – water-chlorobenzene are (5, 95, 0) and (11, 0, 80)

a. The amount of raffinate is ___.

b. The amount of pure solvent required for the extractions is ____.

9. It is desired to extract acetone from a feed containing acetone and water, using

chloroform as the solvent, in two cross current extraction stage as shown below.

Assume that water and chloroform are immiscible. The ffg. are given for the

process. The feed is equimolar mixture of acetone and water. The quantities of

chloroform used in 2 stages are equal. 60mole % of the acetone in the feed is

extracted in stage I. The extract and raffinate phases existing from each stage are in

equilibrium. The equilibrium relation for the distribution of acetone is given by:

(moles of acetone in water rich phase)/ (moles of water in water rich phase) = 2.0

x (moles of acetone in chloroform rich phase)/ (moles of chloroform in chloroform

rich phase)

a. Determine the quantity of chloroform used in each per mole of feed.

b. Determine the mole fraction of acetone (product) after stage I

126

c. Determine the mole fraction of acetone (final product)

10. A feed containing a solute is contacted with a solvent (S) in an ideal stage as shown

in the diagram below. Only the solute transfers into the solvent. The flow rates of

all the streams are shown on a solute free basis and indicated by the subscript S.

The compositions of the streams are expressed on a mole ratio basis. The extract

leaving the contactor is divided into two equal parts, one part collected as the

product (P) and the other stream is recycled to join the solvent. The equilibrium

relationship is Y* = 2X.

a. The product flow rate (Ps)

b. The composition (Y out)

c. The composition of raffinate (X out)

ANSWER KEY

b.) 17 extraction cells

2.) 4 stages

3.) a.) 3 stages

b.) 27.33 kg ether

4.) 5 stages

5.) 4.36 𝑥 5 thickeners

6.) 98.70 mins

7.) a.) 0.66 inert

b.) 5 stages

8.) 421.05 kg raffinate

638.76 kg pure solvent

9.) 1.50 mol Chloroform

0.29 acetone

10.) a.) 100 mol/s

b.) 0.22

c.) 0.11

127

SOLUTIONS:

1. Required: No. of Exraction Cells

Water

97 % r V2 Vn+1

0.15 sugar Y2 Yn+1

Lo = 50 tons/hr L1 Ln

0.048 water X1 Xn = 0.03x1

0.40 pulp

0.12 sugar

Ln = Lsoln = 50(0.4 pulp) ∗ = 60

dry pulp hr

0.03(50 (0.12 sugar))

Xn = = 0.003

60

0.97 (0.12 (50))

Y1 = 0.15 =

V1

V1 = 38.8 tons /hr

(50-0.4(50)) + Vn+1 = 60 + 38.8

Vn+1 = 68.8 tons/hr

X1 = Y1 = 0.15

Vn+1 (Y2 – Yn+1) = Ln ( X1-Xn)

Y2 = 0.1282

128

a.

0.15 − 0.1292

log

N= 0.003 + 1 = 15.49

0.15 − 0.003

log 0.1282

N = 16 extraction cells

b.

3 tons water

If R = dry pulp

Ln = 60 tons/ hr

V1 = 38.8 tons/hr

Vn+1 = 62.98

X1 = 0.1764 , Xn = 0.003

60

𝑌2 = (0.1764 − 0.003) = 0.150888

62.98

0.1764 − 0.150888

log

N= 0.003 +1

0.1764 − 0.003

log 0.150888

Vo

6.69% CuSo4 Vn

93.31 % Water Water

Lo = 300 tons/ hr

6.10% CusSo4

14.92 Gangue

78.98% Water

129

Ln

R = 1.22 tons of solution / 1% CuSO4

tons gangue 99% Water +

Gangue

= 44.76 tons/ hr

CuSO4 + Water at Ln = 1.22 tons of sol’n / tons gangue ( 44.76 tons / hr)

= 54.6072 tons of sol’n / hr

CuSO4 Balance: (0.0610) (300 tons/hr) = 0.01 Ln + 0.01 Ln + 0.0669Vo

Water Balance: (0.7898) (300 tons /hr) = WaterLn + 0.9331Vo – Vn

Vn = 58.0567

Gangue Balance: 0.1492 (300 tons/hr) = GangueLn

GangueLn = 44.76 tons/hr

In Ln:

GangueLn + WaterLn

0.99 =

Gangue Ln + WaterLn + CuSO4Ln

44.76 + 54.6072 − CuSO4Ln

0.99 =

44.76 + 54.6072 − CuSO4Ln + CuSO4Ln

CuSO4Ln = 0.993672 tons/hr = 0.01Ln ; Ln = 99.33672 tons/hr

CuSO4 Balance : 0.0610 (300 tons/hr) = 0.993672 tons/hr + 0.0669Vo

Vo = 258.6895 tons/hr

Ya = 0.993672 / 54.6072 = 0.0182

Yb* = (54.6072 / 58.0567) (0.0669 – 0.0182)) = 0.0458

0.0669 − 0.0458

ln

𝑁−1= 0.0182

0.0669 − 0.0182

ln 0.0458

N = 3.41 = 4 stages

130

3. Required: Number of stages , mass of ether at overflow

r = 90%

Y1

23.33 kg oil 50 = Vn+1

50-e kg ether Y2 Yn+1 = 0

100 kg X1

74 kg live Ln

26 kg oil Yn

e(ether)

Solution:

Ratio

Overflow Concentration Entrainment

Oil Ether

0 0.28 0 0.280

Mass of livers fed (1+0.35) = 100

M livers fed = 74.0741 kg exhausted liver

100 – 74.0741 = 25.9259 kg oil

131

b. M ether underflow = 0.306 kg ether / kg ex liver (74.0741 kg ex liver) = 26.67 kg

ether

M ether overflow = 50 – 22.67 = 27.33 kg ether

X1 = Y1 = 23.33 kg oil / 27.33 kg ether = 0.8536

Xn = 2.5926 kg oil / 22. 67 kg ether underflow = 0.1144

Ln (X1 – Xn ) = Vn+1 ( Y2 – Yn+1)

22.67 (0.8536 – 0.1144 ) = 50(Y2 – 0)

Y2 = 0.3352

a. No. of Stages

0.8536 − 0.3352

log

𝑁−1= 0.1144 − 0

0.8536 − 0.1144

log 0.3352 − 0

N = 2.91 = 3 stages

V1

Vn+1

y1=0.50 y2

Yn+1 = 0

Ln

1 kg sol’n / kg solids

Lo x1

Xn

Xo = 0.2

Assuming 2 kg solids

At Ln: Msolution = 1kg sol’n / 2 kg solids (2 kg solids) = 1kg solution

y1 = x1 = 0.50

yn+1 = 0

Oil in Lo = 2 kg / 0.8 (0.2) = 0.5 kg

Oil in Ln = 0.5 kg (0.1) = 0.05 kg

132

Oil in V1 = 0.5 kg -0.05kg = 0.45 kg

V1 = 0.45 kg / 0.50 = 0.90 kg

Vn+1 + 0.50kg = 0.90kg + 1kg

Vn+1 = 1.4 kg

Xn = 0.05kg / 1 kg = 0.05

y2 = 1kg / 1.4kg (0.50 – 0.05) = 0.3214

0.50 − 0.3214

ln

N−1= 0.05

0.50 − 0.05

ln

0.3214

N = 4.7833 = 5 stages

5.

Y1 Y2 𝑘𝑔

54.9 kg salt 200 H2O

𝑠

Yn+1

𝑘𝑔

100 𝑠

TiO2

𝑘𝑔 X1

100 TiO2 Xn 0.1 kg salt

𝑠 0.5 𝑘𝑔 𝑠𝑜𝑙𝑣𝑒𝑛𝑡

removed = 𝑘𝑔 𝑝𝑖𝑔𝑚𝑒𝑛𝑡

SOLN:

H2O Bal: (45 + 200) = 50 + X

X = 195 kg H2O

𝑘𝑔 𝑠𝑎𝑙𝑡

1 kg salt solution = 0.55 = 55 kg salt

𝑘𝑔 𝑝𝑖𝑔𝑚𝑒𝑛𝑡

54.9

Y1=X1 = = 0.2815

195

0.1

Xn = = 0.002

50

50 (X1-Xn) = 200 (Y2-Yn+1)

133

50 (0.2815-0,002) = 200 (Y2-0)

Y2 = 0.0699

0.2815−0.0699

𝑙𝑜𝑔

0.002

N= 0.2815−0.002

𝑙𝑜𝑔

0.0699

N = 4.36 𝑥 5 thickeners

6. PILOT SCALE:

Cs = 2.5 kg/m3

V = 1.0 m3

t = 100s

C = 2.5 kg/m3 (o.75) = 1.875 kg/m3

C = Cs (1-𝑒 −(𝑘′𝐴⁄𝐵𝑉)𝑡 )

1.875 = 2.5 (1-𝑒 −(𝐾′𝐴⁄𝐵)(100𝑠) )

𝑘′𝐴 3

= 0.013863 𝑚 ⁄𝑠

𝐵

FULL SCALE:

Cs = 2.5 kg/m3

V = 100 m3

0.28 (500𝑔)

C= = 1.40 kg/m3

100𝑚3

C = Cs 1-𝑒 −(𝐾′𝐴⁄𝐵)𝑡 )

1.40 2.5 (1-𝑒 −(0.013863⁄100)𝑡 )

t = 5922.10 s

t = 98.70 mins

7.

Y2 Un+1

Yn+1

N

Lo

Ln

20% oil X1 Xn

80% inert

90% r 1𝑘𝑔 𝑠𝑜𝑙𝑛

50% oil

Y= 0.5

2𝑘𝑔 𝑖𝑛𝑠𝑜𝑙𝑢𝑏𝑙𝑒

REQD: a. Xinert

134

b. Ideal Stages, N

SOLN:

Basis: 100g Lo

0.2 (100) kg oil (0.9) = moil V1 = 0.5 V1

V1 = 36 kg

1𝑘𝑔 𝑠𝑜𝑙𝑛

0.80 (100) kg inert (2 𝑘𝑔 𝑖𝑛𝑒𝑟𝑡) = 40 kg soln = Ln

Vn+1 = 56 kg

0.1 (20)

Xn = = 0.05

40

X1 = Y1 = 0.5

Ln (X1-Yn) = Vn+1 (Y2-Yn+1)

40 (0.5-0.05) = 56 (Y2-0)

Y2 = 0.3214

80

a. Xinert =

40 + 80 + 2

Xinert = 0.66

𝑋1−𝑌2

log𝑋𝑛−𝑌𝑛+1

b. N-1 = 𝑋1−𝑋𝑛

log

𝑌2−𝑌𝑛+1

0.5−0.3214

log

0.05−0

N= 0.5−0.05 +1

log0.3214−0

N = 4.78 ≈ 5 stages

8.

V1 Vo

11% pyridine Pure chlorobenzene

89% chlorobenzene

EXTRACTOR

Lo = 500 kg L1

20% pyridine 5% pyridine

80% H2O 95% H2O

OMB:

Lo + Vo = L1 + V1

135

Pyridine Balance:

0.20 (500 kg) = 0.05 L1 + 0.11 V1

Chlorobenzene Balance:

Vo = 0.89 V1

H2O Balance:

0.80 (500kg) = 0.95 L1

L1 = 421.05 kg (raffinate)

0.20 (500kg) = 0.05 (421.0526 kg) + 0.11 V1

V1 = 717.7034 kg

Vo = 0.89 V1

Vo = 0.89 (717.7034 kg)

Vo = 638.76 kg pure solvent

9.

chloroform chloroform

S1 S2

H2O P1 P2

F = 1mol 0.5mol H2O

50% acetone E1 0.5-0.3 = 0.5mol H2O

50% H2O 0.2 mol acetone E2 0.2-x mol acetone

60%x acetone feed 1.5 mol chloroform

0.6 (0.5) = 0.3 mol acetone xacetone = ?

b. mol acetone after stage 1 , Xacet1

c. mol acetone final pdt , Xacet2

SOL’N:

in feed, F:

acetone = 0.5 mol

H2O = 0.5 mol

136

in E1:

acetone = 0.6(0.5) = 0.3 mol acetone

c. Using the relationship:

𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝑎𝑐𝑒𝑡𝑜𝑛𝑒𝐻2𝑂 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝑎𝑐𝑒𝑡𝑜𝑛𝑒(𝑐ℎ𝑙𝑜𝑟𝑜𝑓𝑜𝑟𝑚)

= 2 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝑐ℎ𝑙𝑜𝑟𝑜𝑓𝑜𝑟𝑚 (𝑐ℎ𝑙𝑜𝑟𝑜𝑓𝑜𝑟𝑚)

𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝐻2 𝑂(𝐻2𝑂)

0.2 0.3

=2

0.5 𝑆

S = 1.50 mol Chloroform

in P1:

acetone = 0.5 – 0.3 = 0.2 mol acetone

H2O = 0.5 mol H2O

0.2

d. = Xacet1

0.5+0.2

Xacet1 = 0.29

E2 = acetone + S2

S2 = 1.5

Acetone = 0.2-X

P2 = acetone + H2O

acetone = X

H2O = 0.5

e. using the relationship:

𝑋 0.2−𝑋

=2

0.5 1.5

x = 0.08 mol acetone

0.08

Xacet2 = ; Xacet1 = 0.14

0.08+0.5

10.

Xin = 0.3 Xout

EXTRACTOR

E Product (P)

Solvent (S) = 100 𝑚𝑜𝑙⁄𝑠 Yout

Yin = 0 Extracted Recycle

A

𝟏𝟎𝟎 𝒎𝒐𝒍

Total Feed = = 142.8571

𝟎.𝟕 𝑺

137

OMB: 142.8571 + 100 = R + P

Solute Balance: 0.3 (142.8571) = Xout R + Yout P

P = 100/(1-2Xout)

242.8571 = R + 100/(1-2Xout)

242.8571-485.7142 Xout = R + 100 – 2R Xout

142.8571 - 485.7142 Xout = R (1-2Xout)

142.8571−485.7142 Xout

R=

1−2 Xout

42.8571 = R Xout + 2Xout (1-2Xout)

42.8571-85.7142 Xout = (R Xout -2RX2out + 200 Xout

42.8571-285.7142 Xout = R (Xout - X2out)

42.8571−285.7142 Xout

R=

Xout−X2 out

Using 1 & 2:

R=R

142.8571−485.7142 Xout 42.8571−285.7142 Xout

=

1−2 Xout Xout−X2 out

100

a. Ps = (0.78)

1−2 (0.11)

Ps = 100 mol/s

b. Yout = 2Xout

Yout = 2(0.11)

Yout = 0.22

c. Xout = 0.11

138

PHYSICS, STATICS, DYNAMICS, CHE LAWS & ETHICS

1. A projectile is fired with a horizontal velocity of 30 m/s from the top of a cliff 80

m high. How far from the foot of the cliff will it strike?

a. 112m b. 230 m c. 121 m d. 151m

straight upward on it. What must be the tension in the rope?

a. 65.4 N b. 45.2 N c. 50.5 N d. 38.7 N

3. An object is dropped from rest from a height of 49 meters. What is the speed of the

object as it hits the ground?

a. 35 m/s b. 31 m/s c. 28 m/s d. 19 m/s

4. An 8-gram bullet is fired horizontally into a 9-kg block of wood and sticks in it.

The block, which is free to move, has velocity of 40 cm/s after impact. Find the

initial velocity of the bullet.

a. 450 m/s b. 350 m/s c. 220 m/s d. 510 m/s

5. An object travelling a circular path makes 1200 revolutions in 1 hour. If the radius

of the path is 10 m, calculate the speed of the object.

a. 19 m/s b. 21 m/s c. 20 m/s d. 22 m/s

6. A stone is thrown straight upward and it rises to a height of 20 m. with hat speed

was it thrown?

a. 12.6 m/s b. 19.8 m/s c. 17.7 m/s d. 23.8 m/s

2000 f. what is the time required for the train to stop?

a. 50 s b. 35 s c. 46 s d. 60 s

8. A 0.25 hp motor is used to lift a load at the rate of 5.00 cm/s. how great a load can

lift at this constant speed?

a. 381 kg b. 350 kg c. 421 kg d. 400 kg

9. By the use of the pulley, a man raises a load 120 lb to a height of 40 ft in 65 seconds.

Find the average horsepower required.

a. 0.18 hp b. 0.19 hp c. 0.13 hp d. 0.04 hp

10. A certain cable is suspended between two supports at the same elevation and 50 m

apart. The load is 50 N/m horizontal length including the weight of the cable. If the

sag of the cable is 3m, calculate the total length of the cable.

a. 40.12 m b. 25.40 m c. 50.48 m d. 60.24 m

139

11. A 10-kg block of copper at 60oC is placed in contact with the identical 10-kg block

of copper at 20oC. What is the equilibrium temperature of both blocks? (for copper

c=0.24 kJ/kg-oC)

a. 55 deg C b. 45 deg C c. 50 deg C d. 40 deg C

12. A certain 1200-kg car can accelerate from rest to a speed of 25 m/s in a time of 8.00

s. What is the average power must the motor produce to cause this acceleration?

Ignore friction losses.

a. 62.8 hp b. 50.2 hp c. 52.8 hp d. 60.2 hp

13. Two forces vector A and B act on the same point. If A = 50N, 30 degrees and B =

40N, 120 degrees, what is the resultant force?

a. 64 N b. 46 N c. 106 N d. 94 N

minutes. Find the average horsepower required/

a. 1.0 HP b. 0.0438 HP c. 0.6 HP d. 0.5 HP

15. What average force is necessary to stop a bullet of mass 10 g and speed of 200

cm/sec as it penetrates wood 15 cm thick?

a. 1512 N b. 1411 N c. 1333 N d. 1443 N

when the force of 80 N is applied by a rope making an angle of 30 degrees with the

horizontal ground?

a. 693 N-m b. 639 J c. 1386 N-m d. 936 J

17. A block weighing 500 kN rests on a ramp inclined at 39 degrees with the horizontal.

What is the force that tends to move the block down the ramp?

a. 389 kN b. 315 kN c. 351 kN d. 242 kN

18. A ball was thrown upward with an initial velocity of 50 ft/s. how high does it go?

a. 39 ft b. 30 ft c.20 ft d. 45 ft

19. If the absolute pressure at the bottom of the ocean is 120 kPa, how deep is the water

at this point?

a. 1.90 m b. 1.85 m c. 1.78 m d. 1.82 m

20. A DC-9 jet with a takeoff mass of 120 tons has two engines producing average

force of 80,000 N during takeoff. Determine the plane’s acceleration down the

runway if the takeoff time is 10 seconds.

a. 1.42 m/s2 b. 1.33 m/s2 c. 2.02 m/s2 d. 1.67 m/s2

140

21. What is the resultant of a displacement of 6 miles north and 9 miles east?

a. 11 miles, N 56oE b. 11 miles, N 54oE c. 10 miles, N 56oE d. 10 miles, N 54oE

a. 8.33 x 105 N/m2 b. 8.33 x 104 N/m2 c. 8.33 x 106 N/m2 d. 8.33 x 103

2

N/m

23. A 200 gram apple is thrown from the edge of a tall building with an initial speed of

20 m/s. What is the change in kinetic energy of the apple if it strikes the ground at

50 m/s?

a. 130 joules b. 210 joules c. 100 joules d. 81 joules

a. 7.00 b. 8.75 c. 6.00 d. 5.18

25. The horsepower required to raise a 150 kg drum to a height of 20m over a period

of one minute is:

a. 0.41 hp b. 0.81 hp c. 0.66 hp d. 1.12 hp

26. According to the Chemiccal Engineering Law of 2004, who appoints the members

of the ChE Regulatory Board?

a. Professional Regulation Commission

b. President of the Country

c. President of PIChE

d. Commission on Higher Education

a. PD 894 b. PD 984 c. PD 349 d. PD 232

28. Includes individual names and surnames, firm names, devices or words used by one

to identify in his business, vocations or occupations.

a. Trademark b. service mark c. trade name d. brand name

29. A chemical engineer who violates the provisions of the ChE law, upon conviction,

shall be sentenced to a fine or imprisonment, upon the discretion of the court, of

not more than

a. 5 years b. 6 months c. 10 years d. 20 years

a. May 13, 2004 b. May 11, 2004 c. May 10, 2004 d. May 12, 2004

141

ANSWER KEY

1. C. 121 m

2. C. 50.5 N

3. B. 31 m/s

4. A. 450 m/s

5. B. 21 m/s

6. B. 19.8 m/s

7. C. 46 s

8. A. 381 kg

9. C. 0.13 hp

10. C. 50.48 m

11. D. 40oC

12. A. 62.8 hp

13. A. 64 N

14. B. 0.0438 hp

15. C. 1333 N

16. C. 1386 N-m

17. B. 315 kN

18. A. 39 ft

19. A. 1.90 m

20. B. 1.33 m/s2

21. A. 11 miles

22. A. 8.33 x 105 N/m2

23. B. 210 joules

24. C. 6

25. C. 0.66 hp

26. B. President of the country

27. B. PD 984

28. C. Trade Name

29. A. 5 years

30. A. May 13, 2004

142

SOLUTIONS

1. Sy = 80 m

Vo = 30 m/s

Sx = ?

Sy = Vot + ½ gt2

80 = vo sin θt + ½ gt2

80 = 0.30(0)t + ½ (9.81)t2

t = 4.039 s

Sx = vo cosθt

Sx = 30 cos (0) (4.039)

Sx = 121.17 m

2. F = ma

= 5.00 (0.3)

F = 1.5 kg m/s2

W = mg

= 5.00 (9.81)

W = 49.05 kg m/s2

F = T-W

1.5 = T – 49.05

T = 50.55 N

3. Y = 49 meters

y = vot + ½ gt2

49 = 0 + ½ gt2

t = 3.16 s

v = vo + αt

v = 0 + 9.81(3.16s)

v = 30.9996 m/s = 31 m/s

4. m = 80 g

v =?

m1v1= m2v2

8g (v1) = (9000 g)(40 cm/s)

v1 = 45000 cm/s = 450 m/s

143

5. S = rθ

1200 𝑟𝑒𝑣 1 ℎ𝑟 2𝜋

= (10 m)( ℎ𝑟 )(3600 𝑠)(1 𝑟𝑒𝑣)

= 21 m/s

6. S = 20 m

vo = 0

v=?

v2 = vo2 +2as

v = √0 + 2(9.81)(20)

v = 19.81 m/s

60 𝑚𝑖 1.609 𝑘𝑚 1 000 𝑚 1 ℎ𝑟 𝑚

7. v0 = ℎ𝑟 ( 1 𝑚𝑖 ) ( 1 𝑘𝑚 ) (3600 𝑠) = 26.82 𝑠

S = 2000 ft = 609.6 m

v=0

v2 = vo2 + 2as

02 = (26.82 m/s)2 + 2a(609.6 m)

a = -0.59

v = vo + at

0 = 26.82 + (-0.59)(t)

t = 45.45 s = 46 s

746 𝑊

8. 0.25 hp ( ) = 186.5 𝑊

1 ℎ𝑝

W = Fd

𝑊 186.5 𝐽/𝑠

F= 𝑑 = 𝑚 = 380.224 kg

0.05 𝑚 (9.81 2 )

𝑠

9. = = = = 99.8332 𝑊 = 𝟎. 𝟏𝟑 𝒉𝒑

𝑡 𝑡 𝑡 65 𝑠

8 𝑑2 32𝑑4

10. S = L + −

3𝐿 5 𝐿3

8(3)2 32 (3)4

S = 50 N/m + − = 𝟓𝟎. 𝟒𝟖 𝒎

3(50) 5(50)3

60 - X = X - 20

X = 40 oC

12. m = 1200 kg

vo = 0

144

vf = 25 m/s

t = 8.0 s

1 25𝑚 2

(1200 𝑘𝑔)( )

2 𝑠

P= = 46875 𝑊 = 𝟔𝟐. 𝟖𝟔𝟎𝟒 𝒉𝒑

8𝑠

ΣFx = -20 + 25√3

ΣFy = 25 + 20√3

14. m = 40 kg

h = 15 m

t = 3 min

𝑚

𝑊 𝑚𝑔ℎ (40 𝑘𝑔)(9.81 2 )(15 𝑚)

𝑠

P= = = 60 𝑠 = 32.7 𝑊

𝑡 𝑡 3 min( )

1 𝑚𝑖𝑛

1 ℎ𝑝

32.7 W (746 𝑊) = 𝟎. 𝟎𝟒𝟑𝟖 𝒉𝒑

15. m = 10 g = 0.010 kg

v = 200 m/s

½ mv2 = Fd

1𝑚

½ (0.010 kg)(200 m/s) = F (15 cm) (100 𝑐𝑚)

F = 1333.33 N

16. d = 20 m

F = 80 N

W = Fd

= F cos 30o d

= 80 (cos 30) (20)

W = 1385.6406 Nm

F = Wsin39

= 500 kN sin 39

F = 315 kN

18. Vo = 50 ft/s

V=0

V2 = v02 - 2as

0 = 502 – 2 (32.2) s

S = 38.82 ft = 39 ft

145

19. Pabs = Patm + Pgauge

Pabs – P atm = Pgauge

Pgauge = pgh

(120,000 Pa – 101325 Pa) = 1000 kg/m3 (9.81m/s2) (h)

h = 1.9037 m

= (1000 kg/m3) (9.81 kgm/s2)(85m)

Pgauge = 8.34 x 105 N/m3 1

23. m = 200 g

vo = 20 m/s

v = 50 m/s

KE = ½ m( v2 – vo2)

1 𝑘𝑔

= ½ (200 g) (1000 𝑔)(502 -202 )

KE = 200 J

24. 𝐿 = √22 + 42 + 42 = 𝟔

25. m = 150 kg

h= 20 m

t = 1 min

9.81𝑚

𝑊 𝑃𝐸 𝑚𝑔ℎ (150 𝑘𝑔)( )(20 𝑚)

𝑠2

P= = = = 60 𝑠

𝑡 𝑡 𝑡 1 min( )

1 𝑚𝑖𝑛

1 ℎ𝑝

P = 490.5 W (746 𝑊) = 0.67 hp

146

DIFFERENTIAL CALCULUS

1. Differentiate: y = sin ( √𝑥 − 1 )

2. Differentiate: y = x2cos2x

3. Differentiate: y = √3 − 2𝑥2

4. Differentiate: y = arctan3x

5. Differentiate: y = (arcsin4x)2

6. Find the radius of the largest right circular cylinder inscribed on a sphere of radius 5.

7. A rectangular box open at the top is to be formed from a rectangular piece of cardboard

3 inches by 8 inches. What size square should be cut from each corner to form the box

with maximum volume?

8. A painting of height 3 feet hangs on the wall of a museum, with the bottom of the

painting 6 feet above the floor. If the eyes of an observer are 5 feet above the floor,

how far from the base of the wall should the observer stand to maximize his angle of

vision?

9. Find the dimension of the rectangle of largest area whose base is on the x axis and

whose upper two vertices lie on the parabola y = 12 - x2. What is the maximum area?

10. A cylinder is inscribed in a sphere with a radius of 10cm. what is the radius and height

of the cylinder which yield a maximum volume?

INTEGRAL CALCULUS

5 2

1. Evaluate: ∫4 ( − 𝑥 ) 𝑑𝑥

√𝑥

𝛱/2

2. Evaluate: ∫0 (𝑠𝑖𝑛5 Ө)(𝑐𝑜𝑠 5 Ө)𝑑 Ө

1 𝛱

3. Evaluate: ∫0 ∫0 (𝑥𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑦)𝑑𝑥𝑑𝑦

2 𝑦

4. Evaluate: ∫0 ∫0 ( 3𝑥 2 + 9𝑦 2 )𝑑𝑥𝑑𝑦

5. Find the area bounded by the curves y2 = 4x and y + 2x = 12.

6. Find the area of the region above the x-axis bounded by the function y = 4x - x – 3.

7. Find the area bounded by the line x – 2y + 10 = 0, the coordinate axis in the first

quadrant and line x = 10.

8. What is the area of the region bounded by the curve x2 + 2x = 8 – y and the x axis.

9. Find the area bounded by the parabolas y2 = 4x and x2 = 4y

10. Find the area bounded by the curves x2 + y2 = 9 and 4x2 + 9y2 = 36 on the first

quadrant.

147

DIFFERENTIAL EQUATION

5. Obtain the differential equation of the family of straight lines with slope and y- intercept

equal.

6. Write a differential equation for the family of circles with center on the x – axis.

=0

9. Obtain a particular solution for the following differential equation 2xyy’ = 1 + y 2, given

x = 2 and y = 3.

10. Solve for the general solution of the following differential equation: 3( 3x 2 + y2)dx –

2xydy = 0

11. Determine the integrating factor for the following differential equation: y’ – 3y = 6

14. Solve (D2 + 3D – 10) y= 0, when x=0, y=0 and x=2, y=1.

148

DIFFERENTIAL EQUATION

16. Determine the differential equation of the family of circles with center on the y – axis.

dy

17. Given 2

dx

18. The form of the exact solution to 2 3 y e x , y 0 5 is

dy

dx

19. The following nonlinear differential equation can be solved exactly by separation of

variables. d 10 6 2 81, 0 1000. The value of 100 most nearly is

dt

20. It has been identified that in chemical reaction, the time rate change (conversion) of the

unconverted substance is proportional to the amount of the unconverted substance. If half

of the substance has been converted after 10 s, find when the 9/10 of the substance will

have been converted?

21. The radioactive isotope of Pb-209 decays at a rate proportional to the amount present

at that time and has a half -life of 3.3 hours, if 1 gram of Pb is present initially, how long

will it take for 90% of the lead to decay?

22. A tank initially holds 100 gallons salt solution in which 50 lbs of salt has been

dissolved. A pipe fills the tank with brine at the rate of 3 gpm, containing 2 lbs of dissolved

salt per gallon. Assuming that the mixture is kept uniform by stirring, a drain pipe draws

out of the tank of a mixture at 2 gpm. Find the amount of salt in the tank at the end of 30

minutes.

149

ANSWER KEY

Differential Calculus

cos(√x−1)

1.y′ = 2. y’=−2x [x sin(2x) − cos(2x)]

2√x

2𝑥 3

3.y′ = − 4. 𝑦′ = 9𝑥2+1

√3−2x2

8 (sin−1 4x)

5. y′ = √1−16x2 6. 4.08 units

7. 0.67 in 8. 2 units

9. 32 units 10. x = 8.165 cm ; h= 11.55 cm

Integral Calculus

1. -3.56 6. 1.33 sq.units

2. 1/60 7. 75 sq.units

3. 1 8. 36 sq.units

4. 40 9. 5.33 sq.units

5. 41.67 sq.units 10. 2.36 units

Differential Equation

1. 3x + xy – y = C

2 2 3

2. dy/dx + (-3/x)y = x4

3. xdx-2ydx-xdy=0

4. y’’-y’-6y =0

5. ydx - (x+1)dy =0

6. 1 + yy” +(y’)2 =0

7. ln(xy)=x+2y+C

8. Arc tan(x) + Arc tan(y) + C=0

9. 𝑦 = √5𝑥 − 1

10. 9x2 - y2 = Cx

11. e−3x

12. y = (C1 + C2x + C3x2)ex

3 1

13. y = C1 e−x + C2 e−2x + C3 e(2)x + C4e(2)x

1

14. 𝑦 = 𝑒4 −𝑒10 (𝑒 2𝑥 − 𝑒 −5𝑥 )

dy −x

15. dx = 2y

16. xy”-(y’)3 – y’ = 0

17. 0.32

x 3x

18. y = (e2 + 4)e− 2

−6𝑡

19. 8.1 + 𝐶𝑒 −10

20. 33.23 s

21. 10.96 hours

22. 171.24 lbs.

150

SOLUTIONS

Differential Calculus

1. 𝑦 = sin(√𝑥 − 1)

Solution:

𝑑𝑦 𝑑

= [sin(√𝑥 − 1)]

𝑑𝑥 𝑑𝑥

𝑑

𝑦′ = cos(√𝑥 − 1) (√𝑥 − 1)

𝑑𝑥

1

𝑦′ = cos(√𝑥 − 1)( )

2√𝑥

𝐜𝐨𝐬(√𝐱 − 𝟏)

𝐲′ =

𝟐√𝐱

2. y = x 2 cos2x

Solution:

dy d

= [x2 cos(2x)]

dx dx

d 2 d

y= [x ⋅ cos(2x) + x 2 ⋅ cos(2x)]

dx dx

d

y’= 2x cos(2x) + (−sin(2x))⋅ dx (2x)⋅ x2

d

y’= 2xcos(2x) – 2 ⋅ dx

(x) ⋅ x2sin(2x)

y’= 2xcos(2x)−2x2sin(2x)

Simplifying:

y’=−2x [x sin(2x) − cos(2x)]

3. y = √3 − 2𝑥 2

Solution:

d 1

y= [(3 − 2x 2 )2 ]

dx

151

1

1 −2 d

y′ = 2

(3 − 2x2 ) . dx

(3 − 2x2 )

1

1 −2

y′ = 2 (3 − 2x2 ) (-4x)

𝟐𝒙

𝐲′ = −

√𝟑 − 𝟐𝐱𝟐

4. y = arc tan3x

d

y= [arc tan(3x)]

dx

dy 1 d

= 2 . (3x)

dx (3𝑥) + 1 dx

𝑑

3. (𝑥)

y′ = 𝑑𝑥

9𝑥 2 + 1

(3) (1)

𝑦′ =

9𝑥 2 + 1

𝟑

𝐲′ =

𝟗𝐱 𝟐 +𝟏

5. y = (arcsin4x)2

d

[y = arc sin(4x)2 ]

dx

dy d

= [arc sin(4x)]2

dx dx

d

y ′ = 2 (arcsin 4x) (arc sin4x)

dx

1 d

y ′ = 2 (arcsin 4x) . . (4x)

√1 − (4x)2 dx

𝟖 (𝐬𝐢𝐧−𝟏 𝟒𝐱)

𝐲′ =

√𝟏 − 𝟏𝟔𝐱 𝟐

6. Given: R = 5cm

let R = radius of sphere

r = radius of cylinder

h = height of cylinder

Solution:

152

Volume of cylinder: V = πr²h

𝑉

𝑟² = 𝜋ℎ → equation 1

h h²

R² = r² + (2 )² = r² + 4

h²

r² = R² - 4

ℎ2

𝑟 = √(𝑅 2 − ) → equation 2

4

V h²

πh

= R² - 4

h³

V = πR²h - 4

Take the derivative with respect to h and set it equal to zero to find the critical point(s).

𝜋𝑅² = 3𝜋ℎ²/4

4𝑅²/3 = ℎ²

ℎ = 2𝑅/√3

h²

Solve for r ; r = √(R² − )

4

2R

r = √(R² − ((4) 3)²

√

2

r =√3 R²

When R= 5

2

r = √3 (52 )

r = 4.08 units

7) V = L × W × H

V = (8 − 2x)(3 − 2x)(x)

V = 24x − 22x2 + 4𝑥 3

V ′ = 24 − 44x + 12x2

0 = 4 (6 − 11x + 3x2 )

153

0 = 4(3x − 2)(x − 3)

2

x=3;x=3

𝟐

if x= 𝟑 𝒊𝒏 ; V= 7.4074 in3

x= 3 ; V = -13

Therefore to form a box with maximum volume, 2/3 in (0.67 in) should be cut from each

corner.

8. 𝜃 = 𝛽 − 𝛼

𝑑𝜃 = 𝑑𝛽 − 𝑑𝛼

4 1

tan 𝛽 = 𝑥 ; xtan 𝛽 = 1 tan 𝛼 = 𝑥 ; xtan 𝛼 = 1

−xsec2 βdβ −𝑥𝑠𝑒𝑐 2 α𝑑α

dx = 𝑑𝑥 =

tanβ 𝑡𝑎𝑛α

Solve for x:

−𝑡𝑎𝑛β𝑑x

𝑥=

sec2 βdβ

−𝑡𝑎𝑛β(−xsec2α𝑑α)

𝑥=

sec2 βdβtanα

sec2 βtanα = tanβsec2 α

(1 + tan2 β) tanα = tanβ(1 + tan2 α)

[1 + (4/𝑥)2 ](1/x) = (4/x) [1+(1/x)2]

X2 + 16 = 4x2 + 4

X2 – 4x2 +12 = 0

(x+6) (x-2) = 0

x= 2 units

9. y = 12 – x2

x2 = 12 – y

(x-h)2 = -4a (y-k)

(x-0)2 = -1 (y -12)

154

V (0,12)

A rectangle = L x W L= 2x = 2(2) =4

A = x (12-x2) W = y = 12-x2

A= 12x – x3 W=y =12 – 22 = 8

dA =0= 12 – 3x2

12 = 3x2 Area rectangle = LW

X2= 4 A = 4 (8)

x = ±2 A = 32 units

10. Given: r = 10cm

let x = radius of cylinder

h = height of cylinder

r = radius of sphere

dV dh

= π (x2 + 2xh) →equation 2

dx dx

h h²

r² = x² + ( )² = x² + →equation 3

2 4

h²

r² = x² - 4

h dh

2x + =0 → equation 4

2 dx

dV

= π(2𝑟h − 3h3/4)

dx

0 = π(2𝑟h − 4ℎ3)

2𝑟h = 3ℎ3

4 20√3

h = √ (10cm) = 𝑐𝑚 or 11.55 cm

3 3

h² (√2x) ²

10² = x² + = x² +

4 4

x = 8.165 cm

155

SOLUTIONS

Integral Calculus

5 5 1

2

1. ∫4 ( − x) dx = ∫4 (2x −2 − x)dx

√x

1

2(𝑥)2 𝑥2 5

= 1 − |

2 4

2

𝟓

𝟐

∫ ( − 𝒙) 𝒅𝒙 = −𝟑. 𝟓𝟔

𝟒 √𝒙

𝜋

2. ∫02 𝑐𝑜𝑠5 𝜃𝑠𝑖𝑛5 𝜃 𝑑𝜃

∫ 𝑐𝑜𝑠 5 𝜃𝑠𝑖𝑛5 𝜃 𝑑𝜃 = ∫ cosx ∙ sin5 x (sin2 x − 1)2 dx

du

Let u = sinx ; = cosx

dx

𝜋

∫02 𝑠𝑖𝑛5 𝜃𝑐𝑜𝑠 5 𝜃𝑑𝜃 = ∫ u5 (u2 -1)2du

= ∫(𝑢9 − 2 𝑢7 + 𝑢5 ) 𝑑𝑢

𝑢10 𝑢8 𝑢6

= − + ; u = sin x

10 4 6

= − + +C

10 4 6

= +C

60

𝜋 𝜋 𝜋

𝑠𝑖𝑛6 ( 2 )(6 𝑠𝑖𝑛4 ( 2 )−15𝑠𝑖𝑛2 ( 2 )+10−0

=

60

𝝅

𝟐 𝟏

∫ 𝒔𝒊𝒏𝟓 𝜽𝒄𝒐𝒔𝟓 𝜽 𝒅𝜽 =

𝟎 𝟔𝟎

1 𝜋 1 1

3. ∫0 ∫0 𝑥𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑦𝑑𝑥𝑑𝑦 = ∫0 − cos 𝑦 |𝜋0 𝑥𝑑𝑥 = ∫0 (− cos 𝜋 − cos(0) 𝑥𝑑𝑥

1 1

= ∫0 (1 + 1)𝑥𝑑𝑥 = ∫0 2𝑥𝑑𝑥

𝟏 𝝅

∫𝟎 ∫𝟎 𝒙𝒔𝒊𝒏𝒚𝒅𝒙𝒅𝒚 = 𝟏

2 𝑦 2 3𝑥 3

4.∫0 ∫0 3𝑥 2 + 9𝑦 2 𝑑𝑥𝑑𝑦 = ∫0 + 9𝑦 2 |𝑦0 𝑑𝑦

3

156

2

= ∫0 (𝑦 3 + 9𝑦 3 )𝑑𝑦

2

= ∫0 10𝑦 3 𝑑𝑦

2

= ∫0 10𝑦 4 |20

𝟐 𝒚

∫ ∫ 𝟑𝒙𝟐 + 𝟗𝒚𝟐 𝒅𝒙𝒅𝒚 = 𝟒𝟎

𝟎 𝟎

9

5. A1 = ∫4 [(12 − 2x) + 2√x)]dx

61

𝐴1 = 𝑠𝑞. 𝑢𝑛𝑖𝑡𝑠

3

4

A2 = 2 ∫ 2√x dx

0

3

4(𝑥)2 4

𝐴2 = |

3/2 0

A2 = 64/3 sq. units

Atotal = A1 +A2

= 61/3 + 64/3

Atotal =41.67 sq. units

6. y= 4x-x2-3

(x-3)(x-1)=0

3

A= ∫1 (4x − x 2 − 3)dx

4𝑥 2 𝑥3

A= − − 3𝑥|31

2 3

𝟒

A= 𝟑 = 𝟏. 𝟑𝟑 𝒔𝒒 𝒖𝒏𝒊𝒕𝒔

7. dA= (y1-y2)dx

10

A= ∫0 ydx

10 x

A =∫0 (5 + ) dx

2

157

𝑥2 (10)2

A= 5x +2(2) |10

0

= 5(10) + − 0

4

A = 75 sq. units

8. x2+2x=8-y

y= -x2-2x+8

(x-2) (x+4) =0

dA= y1-y2 dx

2

A=∫−4(−x 2 − 2x + 8) dx

−𝑥 3 2

A= − 𝑥 2 + 8𝑥|−4

3

A= 36 sq units

point of intersection (0,0) and (4,4)

4 x2

A=∫0 (2√x − ) dx

4

3

2(𝑥)2 𝑥3

= 3 − |4

4(3) 0

2

𝟏𝟔

A= or 5.33 sq. units

𝟑

158

SOLUTIONS

Differential Equation

∑ ∫ DI + NDI = C

DI = 6xdx, -3y2dy

NDI = y2dx, 2xydy

∫(6xdx – 3 y2dy) + ∫y2∂x = C

6 (x2/2) – 3(y3/3) + xy2 = C

3x2 + xy2 – y3 = C

2. v (x) = e∫P(x)dx

y-v(x) = ∫v(x).Q(x)dx + C (since v≠0)

y = v-1(x)∫v(x).Q(x)dx + cv-1(x)

dydx + P(x)y = Q (x)

(x5+ 3y) dx – x dy = 0

-x(dy) = - (x5+3y)dx

dy/dx + (-3/x)y = x4

𝑑

3. [ 𝑥 3 − 3𝑥 3 𝑦 = 𝐶] 𝑑𝑥

3𝑥 2 − 3𝑥 2 𝑑𝑦 − 3𝑦(2𝑥 )𝑑𝑥 = 0

3𝑥 2 −6𝑥𝑦𝑑𝑥−3𝑥 2 𝑑𝑦=0

3𝑥

𝐱𝐝𝐱 − 𝟐𝐲𝐝𝐱 − 𝐱𝐝𝐲 = 𝟎

159

4. y = c1e-2x + c2e3 ← (1)

y’ + 2y = 5C2e3x ← (3)

y'' + 2y’=5C2e3x (3) ← (4)

y'' + 2y’= (y’+2y) (3)

y'' + y’ - 6y = 0

5. 𝑦 = 𝑚𝑥 + 𝑏 ; m = b

𝑦 = 𝑚𝑥 + 𝑚 y

𝑑

Slope = y-int.

[𝑦 = 𝑚(𝑥 + 1)]

𝑑𝑥

𝑑

𝑑𝑥

= 𝑚

𝑑𝑦 𝑑𝑦 m=b x

𝑦= (𝑥 ) +

𝑑𝑥 𝑑𝑥

𝑑𝑦

𝑦= (𝑥 + 1)

𝑑𝑥

𝑦𝑑𝑥 = 𝑥𝑑𝑦 + 𝑑𝑦

𝐲𝐝𝐱 − (𝐱 + 𝟏)𝐝𝐲 =

160

6. x2 + y2 + Ax + By + C =0

x2 + y2 + Ax + C =0

2xdx + 2ydy + Adx = 0

y2 = C – Ax – x2

2yy’ = -A – 2x

Y’ = (-A – 2x)/ 2y

2yy’’/2 + y’(2y)/2 = -1

yy’’ + (y’)2 = -1

(y’)2 + yy” + 1 = 0

dy

x (2y − 1) = y(1 − x)

dx

x(2y-1) dy = y(1-x) dx

2y−1 1−x

dy − dx=0

y x

dy dx

2 ∫ dy − ∫ −∫ + ∫ dx = C

y x

2y-lny-lnx+x=C

2y+x+C=lnx+lny

ln(xy)=2y+x+C

8. ( 1 + y2) dx + ( 1 + x2)dy = 0

∫(1/(1+x2))dx = ∫(1/(1+y2))dy

Arc tan(x) + Arc tan(y) + C =0

161

9. 2xy(dy/dx) = 1 + y2

𝑑𝑥 2𝑦(𝑑𝑦)

=

𝑥 1+ 𝑦 2

when x = 2 and y = 3

2 = C (1+ 32)

C = 1/5

𝒚 = √𝟓𝒙 − 𝟏

162

10. We cannot separate the variables, but M(x, y) and N(x, y) are homogeneous

functions of degree 2.

Substituting: y = vx and dy = v dx + x dv

we get

(9 + v2)dx – 2v(v dx + x dv) = 0

Separating variables

9(dx) + v2(dx) – 2v2(dx) + 2vx(dv) = 0

9(dx) - v2(dx) + 2xv(dv) = 0

(9- v2)(dx) + 2xv(dv) = 0

𝑑𝑥 2𝑣(𝑑𝑣)

− =

𝑥 9−𝑣 2

Integrating

ln (9-v2) = - ln x + ln C

Taking exponentials

x(9-v2) = C

since v = y/x

9x2 - y2 = Cx

11. 𝑦 ′ − 3𝑦 = 6

𝑑𝑦

− 3𝑦 = 6

𝑑𝑥

𝑃 (𝑥 ) = −3

𝑄(𝑥) = 6

𝐼𝑛𝑡𝑒𝑔𝑟𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑛𝑔 𝐹𝑎𝑐𝑡𝑜𝑟: 𝑒 ∫ 𝑃(𝑥)𝑑𝑥 = 𝑒 ∫ 𝑃(−3)𝑑𝑥

𝐞∫ 𝐏(𝐱)𝐝𝐱 = 𝐞−𝟑𝐱

x3 – 3x2 + 3x – 1 = 0

(x-1)(x-1) (x-1) = 0

x = 1 ;occuring 3 times

y = (C1 + C2x + C3x2)ex

4m4 + 4m3 – 13m2 – 7m + 6 = 0

(m+1)(4m3-13m+6) = 0

(m+1)(m+2)(4m2-8m+3) = 0

(m+1)(m+2)(2m-1)(2m-3) = 0

Roots: m = -1, -2, ½, 3/2

14. D2 + 3D – 10 = 0

(D + 5) (D – 2) = 0

D = -5 ; D =2

y = C1e-5x + C2e2x

163

when y=0 ; x=0

0= C1e-5(0) + C2e2(0)

0= C1+ C2

When x=2 ; y=1

1= C1e-5(2) + C2e2(2)

1 −1

C2= e4 −e10 ; C1= e4 −e10

𝟏

y= 𝐞𝟒 −𝐞𝟏𝟎 (𝐞𝟐𝐱 − 𝐞−𝟓𝐱 )

15. 𝑦 = 𝐶𝑥 2

𝑦

=𝐶

𝑥2

𝑥 2 𝑑𝑦−𝑦(2𝑥)𝑑𝑥

=0

(𝑥 2 )2

𝑥 2 𝑑𝑦−(2𝑥𝑦)𝑑𝑥

=0

(𝑥)4

𝑥 2 𝑑𝑦 − (2𝑥𝑦)𝑑𝑥 = 0

𝑑𝑦 2𝑥𝑦

=

𝑑𝑥 2𝑥 2

𝑑𝑦 2𝑦

= 2𝑥

𝑑𝑥

𝐝𝐲 −𝐱

Orthogonal trajectories: 𝐝𝐱 = 𝟐𝐲

164

16. x2 + (y-k)2 = r2

Differentiate:

2x+2(y-k)y’ = 0

x+yy’ – ky’ = 0

k = x/y + y

𝑦 ′ (1)−𝑥𝑦"

0= + 𝑦′

(𝑦′)2

y'-xy”+(y‘)3 = 0

xy”-(y’)3 – y’ = 0

2r + 3 = 0

r = -1.5, Yn = Ce-1.5x,Yp = A sin2x + B cos2x

2(2Acos2x − Bsin2x) + 3(Asin2x + Bcos2x) = sin2x

(4A + 3B)cos2x + (−4B + 3A)sin2x = sin2x

-4B+3A=1 3B+4A=0

A = 0.12 B = -0.16

Y = Yn + Yp = Ce-1.5x + 0.12 sin2x – 0.16 cos2x

y (0) = 6

y = Ce-1.5(0) + 0.12sin2 (0) – 0.16 cos2 (0)

6 = C – 0.16

C = 1.16

y(2) = 0.32

𝑑 2

19. = −10−6 ( - 81)

𝑑𝑡

𝑑 2

+ 10−6 = (8.1 × 10−5

𝑑𝑡

165

−6 𝑑𝑡 −6 𝑡

𝐼. 𝐹. = 𝑒 ∫ 10 = 𝑒 10

= ∫ 8.1 × 10−5(𝑒10

−6 𝑡 −6 𝑡

𝑒 10 )𝑑𝑡

= 8.1 × 10−5𝑒10 𝑡 (106 )

−6 𝑡 −6

𝑒 10

−𝟔𝒕

= 𝟖. 𝟏 + 𝑪𝒆−𝟏𝟎

dx

20. = -kx

dt

At t=0 ; x= xo; C=xo

x = Ce-kt

1

xo = xo(e−kt )

2

k= 0.693

at x= 9/10 ; t=?

1

xo = xo(e−0.693t )

10

t=33.23 s

t = 0, n (t) = 1

1 = e-k (0)

C=1

At t = 3.3, n (t) = 0.5

n (t) = Ce-kt

0.5 = e-k (3.3)

ln 0.5 = - 3.3 k

𝑙𝑛0.5

𝑘= −3.3

𝑘 = 0.21

n (t) = Ce-kt

0.1 = e-0.21t

ln 0.1 = - 0.21t

𝑙𝑛0.21

𝑡=

−0.2

𝒕 = 𝟏𝟎. 𝟗𝟔𝒉𝒓𝒔

166

22. . Let Q= amount of salt in the mixture

100 + (3-2)t = 100+ t = Volume of mixture at any time t

Q

= Concentration of salt

100+t

dQ

= rate gain − rate loss

dt

dQ Q

= 3(2) − 2( )

dt 100 + t

dQ 2

+ Q( )=6

dt 100 + t

2

i. f. = e∫ P(t)dt ;where P(t)=100+t ; A(t)= 6

2

i. f. = e∫ P(t)dt = e∫100+t = e2ln(100+𝑡) = (100 + t)2

Substitute:

Q(100+t)2=∫ 6(100 + t)2 dt + C = 2(100 + t)3 + C

When t=0 ; Q=50

50(100)2=2(100+t)3 +C

C= -1.5x106

When t= 30 min ; Q= ?

Q(100+30)2=2(100+30)3 -1.5x106

Q = 171.24 lbs.

167

ENGINEERING ECONOMY

1. What is the effective rate corresponding to 18% compounded daily? Take 1 year is

equal to 360 days.

2. What nominal rate compounded semi-annually, yields the same amount as 16%

compounded quarterly?

3. The amount of P50,000 was deposited in the bank earning an interest of 7.5% per

annum. Determine the total amount at the end of 5 years, if the principal and interest

were not withdrawn during the period.

4. The sum of P20,000 is left to Robert as a will, however, with a condition that the

sum will be held in a trust fund until it amounts to P50,000. When will Robert

receive the money if the fund is invested at 8% compounded quarterly?

5. A sum of P1,000 is invested now and left for 8 years, at which time the principal is

withdrawn. The interest has accrued is left for another 8 years. If the effective

annual interest is 5%, what will be the withdrawal amount at the end of 16th year?

quarters. If the interest rate is 10% compounded quarterly and the quarterly

payment is P2,000, how much did he borrow?

7. Mr. Ayala borrows P100,000 at 10% effective annual interest. He must pay back

the loan over 30 years with uniform monthly payments due on the first day of each

month. What does Mr. Ayala pay each month?

8. A person buys a piece of lot for P100,000 down payment and 10 deferred semi-

annual payments of P8,000 each, starting 3 years from now. What is the present

value of the investment if the rate of interest is 12% compounded semi-annually?

9. At 6%, find the capitalized cost of a bridge whose cost is P250M and life is 20

years, if the bridge must be partially rebuilt at a cost of P100M at the end of each

20 years.

10. A man wants to make 14% nominal interest compounded semi-annually on a bond

investment. How much should he be willing to pay now for a 12%, P10,000-bond

that will mature in 10 year; and pays interest semi-annually?

168

11. What is the maximum amount an investor should pay for a 25-year bond with a

P20,000 face value and 8% coupon rate (interest only paid semi-annuaily)? The

bond will be kept to maturity. The investor's effective annual interest rate for

economic decisions is 10%.

12. A manufacturer produces certain items at a labor cost per unit of P315, material

cost per unit of P100 and a variable cost per unit of P3. If the item has a selling

price of P995, how many units must be manufactured each month for the

manufacturer to break even if the monthly overhead is P461,600.

13. ABC Corporation manufactures bookcases that it sells for P65 each. It costs ABC

P35000/yr to operate it: plant. This sum includes rent, depreciation charges on

equipment, and salary payments. If the cost to produce one bookcase is P50, how

many bookcases must be sold each year for AbC to avoid taking a loss?

14. The volatility of a stock is found to be 1.5times the stock market average. If the risk

premium for buying stocks averages 8.3% and the present treasury bill rate

(assumed to be risk free) is 7%, what is most nearly the expected return (ER) on

the stock?

15. A manufacturer of sports equipment produces tennis rackets for w/c there is a

demand of 200/month. The production setup cost for each batch of rackets is P300.

In addition, the inventory carrying cost for each racket is P24/year. Using the EOQ

model, w/c is most nearly the best production batch size for the rackets?

16. . A student needs P4000/year for 4 years to attend college. Her father invested

P5000 in a 7% account for her education when she was born. If the student

withdraws P4000 at the end of her 17th, 18th, 19th and 20th years, how much

money will be left in the account at the end of her 21st year?

169

ANSWER KEY

Engineering Economy

1. Ans. 19.72 %

2. Ans. 16.32%

3. Ans. P71781.47

4. Ans. 11.5678 years

5. Ans. P705.42

6. Ans. P17504.12786

7. Ans. P839.1989

8. Ans. P143999.08162

9. Ans. P 295.3076 M

10. Ans. 600

11. Ans. P16,723.57

12. Ans. 800 units

13. Ans. 2334/yr

14. Ans. 19.45%

15. Ans. 245 units

16. Ans. P1700.01

170

SOLUTIONS

0.18

1. ER = (1+ 360 )3 6 0 -1

= 0.1972 x 100

ER = 19.72 %

Ans. 19.72 %

0.16 𝑖

2. (1+ 4 )4 = (1+ 2)2

= 0.1632x100

i = 16.32%

Ans. 16.32%

3. F = P(1+i) n

F = P 50000 (1+0.075) 5

F = P71781.47

Ans. P71781.47

0.08 4 n

4. 50000 = 20000(1 + )

4

N= 11.5678 years

Ans. 11.5678 years

5. F = 1000(1+0.05) 8

F = P1477.4554 – P1000

F = P477.4554

F = 477.4554(1+0.05) 8

F = P705.42

Ans. P705.42

2000 0.1 -1 0

6. P = [1- (1+ ) ]

0.1 4

P = P17504.12786

Ans. P17504.12786

𝑖

7. 1+0.10 = (1+ 12)1 2

i = 0.0956 or 9.57% (monthly)

Annuity:

𝐴 0.0956

100000 = 0.0956 [1-(1+ 12 ) -(30(12)-1 ) ]+A

12

A = P839.1989

Ans. P839.1989

171

8.

x y

1 8000 (1+(0.12/2) -1

2 6000 (1+(0.12/2) -2

⅀xý, 1,10

P = 58880.69641

PF = 58880.69641 (1+(0.12/2)) -5

P 1 = 43999.08162 + 100000

P 1 = P143999.08162

Ans. P143999.08162

9. C a p C = PC+[(FC-SV)/(1+i) n -1]+(AC/i)

100

= 250 + 1.0620 −1 + 0

CapC = P 295.3076 M

Ans. P 295.3076 M

𝐹𝑟

10. P = (1+(1+i) -n )

𝑖

∑20 -x

𝑥=1 1.07 = 10.5940; r=0.07

I = (0.12/2)(10000) = 600

Ans. 600

𝑥

11. 0.10 = (1+ 2) 2 -1

x = 0.097618 or 9.7618%

I = 20000(0.08/2)

= 800

0.097618 -x

∑50

𝑥=1(1 + ) = 18.597076

2

0.097618 -5 0

P = 800 (18.597076) + 20000 (1+ )

2

P = P16,723.57

Ans. P16,723.57

x = 800 units

Ans. 800 units

x = 2333.3333 bookcases/yr

x = 2334/yr bookcases to avoid taking a loss

Ans. 2334/yr

172

14. V = 1.5 (SMA)

Risk = 8.3%

T. bill rate = 7%

ER = (V)(SMA) + T

= 1.5 (8.3) + 7

ER = 19.45%

Ans. 19.45%

Purchase cost = P300/batch

Inventory cost = P24/yr

2(200)(300)

EOQ = √ 24/12

EOQ = 244.95 units or 245 units

Ans. 245 units

16. F = F 1 – F 2

F 1 = 5000 ( 1.07) 2 1 = 20702.81187

∑4𝑥=1(1.07)x = 4.7507

F 2 = 4.7507(4000) = 19002.8

F = 20702.81187 - 19002.8

F = P1700.01

Ans. P1700.01

173

STRENGTH OF MATERIALS

A rod 200cm long and of diameter 3.0cm is subjected to an axial pull of 30kN.

If the Young's modulus of the material of the rod is 200GPa.

1. Determine the stress.

2. Determine the strain.

3. Determine the elongation of the rod.

Assuming that the bars are prevented from buckling sideways, calculate the

magnitude of P, that will cause the total length of the member to decrease 0.30mm.

The values of elastic modulus for steel and aluminium are 200GPa and 65GPa

respectively.

The bar shown in the figure is subjected to a tensile load of 150kN. If the

stress in the middle portion is limited to 160MPa. Young's modulus given

as 200GPa.

6. Find the length of the middle portion if the total elongation of the bar is to be 0.25mm.

as shown below. Find the elongation of the bar. Take E= 105GPa.

174

For problems 8 to 13

Three bars made of copper, zinc and aluminium are of equal length and have cross-

section 500, 750 and 1000 mm2 respectively. They are rigidly connected at their

ends. If this compound member is subjected to a longitudinal pull of 250kN.

Take the value of E for copper = 130GPa, zinc = 100GPa and aluminium = 80GPa.

9. Determine the stress through the zinc bar.

10. Determine the stress through the copper bar.

11. Determine the proportional load experienced through the copper bar.

12. Determine the proportional load experienced through the zinc bar.

13. Determine the proportional load experienced through the aluminium bar.

For problems 14 to 17

A steel rod 5cm diameter and 6m long is connected to two grips and the rod is

maintained at a temperature of 100degC.

14. Determine the stress exerted when the temperature falls to 20degC if the ends do not

yield.

15. Determine the pull exerted when the temperature falls to 20degC if the ends do not

yield.

16. Determine the stress exerted when the temperature falls to 20degC if the ends yield by

0.15cm.

17. Determine the pull exerted when the temperature falls to 20degC if the ends yield by

0.15cm.

For problems 18 to 19

A metallic bar of length 30cm, breadth 4cm and depth 4cm when the bar is subjected

to an axial compressive load of 400kN. The decrease in length is given as 0.075cm

and increase in breadth is 0.003cm.

175

18. Determine the value of Young's modulus.

19. Determine the value of Poisson's ratio.

20. A steel bar 300mm long, 50mm wide and 40mm thick is subjected to a pull of 300kN

in direction of its length. E = 200GPa and Poisson's ratio = 0.25.

6kN(tensile) and 4kN(tensile) along x,y and z directions respectively. Determine the

change in the volume of the block. Take E = 200GPa and Poisson's ratio = 0.25.

For problems 22 to 23

A metallic bar 250mm x 100mm x 50mm is loaded as shown in the figure

below. Take E = 200GPa and u = 0.25.

23. Find the change that should be made in the 4MN load in order that there should

be no change in the volume of the bar.

For problems 24 to 26

A bar of 30mm diameter is subjected to a pull of 60kN. The measured extension on

gauge length of 200mm is 0.1mm and change in diameter is 0.004mm.

24. Calculate the Young’s modulus.

25. Calculate the Poisson’s ratio.

26. Calculate the Bulk’s modulus.

176

ANSWER KEY

Strength of Materials

1. Ans. 42.44 MPa

2. Ans. 0.000212205

3. Ans. 0.00042 m

4. Ans. 405.7803 kN

5. Ans. 0.03 m

6. Ans. 𝟐𝟗.375 cm

7. Ans. -1.14x10 -4

8. Ans. 147.72 MPa

9. Ans. 113.64 MPa

10. Ans. 90.90 MPa

11. Ans. 73 863.64 N

12. Ans. 85.2272 kN

13. Ans. 90909.09 N

14. Ans. 192 MPa

15. Ans. 376,991.12 N

16. Ans. 242 MPa

17. Ans. 475165.89 N

18. Ans. 100 GPa

19. Ans. 0.3

20. Ans. 225 mm3

21. Ans. 5.65mm3

22. Ans. 250 mm3

23. Ans. 2MN must be applied

24. Ans. 169.7653 GPa

25. Ans. 0.27

26. Ans. 123. 0183 GPa

177

SOLUTIONS

𝜋(0.03 𝑚)2

1. A = 4

= 7.068583x10 -4 m 2

𝑎𝑥𝑖𝑎𝑙 𝑝𝑢𝑙𝑙

Stress = 𝑎𝑟𝑒𝑎

30000

= 7.068583x10−4

Stress = 42,411,320.98 Pa or 42.44 MPa

Ans. 42.44 MPa

2. Strain = /E

42.441𝑥106

=

200𝑥109

Strain = 0.000212205

Ans. 0.000212205

𝑃𝐿

3. Elongation of the rod =

𝐴𝐸

30000(2𝑚)

= 7.068583x10−4 ( 200x109 )

Elongation of the rod = 0.00042 m

Ans. 0.00042 m

4. x = 0.30 mm

Est = 200GPa

E L = 65 GPa

𝑃𝐿𝑠𝑡 𝑃𝐿L

δT = +

𝐴𝑠𝑡𝐸𝑠𝑡 alEl

0.30 20/100 30/100

=P[ + ]

1000 36/1002 (200𝑥109 ) 100/1002 (65𝑥109 )

P L = 405.7803 kN

Ans. 405.7803 kN

5. 160x10 6 Pa = 150x10 3 /A

A = 9.375x10 -4

𝜋(𝐷)2

9.375x10 -4 =

4

D = 0.03 m

Ans. 0.03 m

𝑃𝐿

6. δ = = L/E

𝐴𝐸

0.25 160𝑥106 (𝐿)

=

1000 (200𝑥109 )

178

𝑥 = 45 – (31.25/2)

𝒙 = 𝟐𝟗.375 cm

Ans. 𝟐𝟗.375 cm

( 50x103 )(0.6 𝑚)

7. E 1 = 1𝑚

1000 mm (1000 𝑚𝑚 )2(105x9 )

( 30x103 )(1 𝑚)

E2 = 1𝑚

1000 mm (1000 𝑚𝑚 )2(105x9 )

E 2 = 2.8571x10 -4 m increase (+)

( 10x103 )(1.2 𝑚)

E3 = 1𝑚

1000 mm (1000 𝑚𝑚 )2(105x9 )

E 3 = -1.1429x10 -4 m decrease (-)

E T = -1.14x10 -4

Ans. -1.14x10 -4

8. 250 kN = FCu + 15/13 FCu + 16/13 FCu

FCu = 73.8636 kN

Cu = 73.8636 kN/500

Cu = 147.72 MPa

Ans. 147.72 MPa

Copper 500 5x10 -4 130x10 9

Zinc 750 7.5x10 -4 100x10 9

Aluminum 1000 1x10 -3 80x10 9

9.

P = 250 kN

Total Load (P) = Load C + Load Z+Load A

130𝑥109 100𝑥109

250x103 N = ( -4

A)(5x10 ) + ( A)(7.5x10

-4

)+( A)(1x10

-3

)

80𝑥109 80𝑥109

A = 90909090.91Pa

100𝑥109

2= (90909090.91 Pa)

80𝑥109

179

2= 113636363.6 Pa or 113.64 MPa

Ans. 113.64 MPa

16

𝐹 (73.8636)(1000)

13

10. = = 1000

𝐴

10002

= 90.90 MPa

Ans. 90.90 MPa

11. Pc = cAc

100𝑥109

(90909090.91) (5x10- 4)

80𝑥109

Pc = 73 863.64 N

Ans. 73 863.64 N

15

12. FL2n = (73.8636)

13

FL2n = 85.2272 kN

Ans. 85.2272 kN

PA = 90909.09 N

Ans. 90909.09 N

14. L = 6 (12x10-6/Co)(100-20)

L = 5.76x10-3 m = δT

5.76x10-3 m = (6)/200x109)

= 192 MPa

Ans. 192 MPa

= 5.76x10-3

5.76𝑥10−3 𝑚 (200𝑥109 )

= = 192 MPa

6𝑚

P= A

𝜋

P = 192x106 Pa 4 (0.05)2

P = 376,991.12 N

Ans. 376,991.12 N

0.15 𝑐𝑚

+ 5.76x10-3 m = (6)/200x109)

100𝑐𝑚/𝑚

= 242 MPa

Ans. 242 MPa

180

17. δ = 5.76x10-3 m + ( 1.5x10-3m) = 7.26x10-3 m

7.26𝑥10−3 𝑚 (200𝑥109 )

= = 242 MPa

6𝑚

PL = A

𝜋

PL = 242x106 Pa (0.05)2

4

P = 475165.89 N

Ans. 475165.89 N

[0.075/100(4)(4)]/100 -1

18. E =( 30 )

400𝑥103 (100)

E = 100 GPa

Ans. 100 GPa

𝛿 0.075 𝑐𝑚 -3

19. Longitude Strain = = = 2.5x10

𝐿 30 𝑐𝑚

μ = b/ L

7.5𝑥10−4

=

2.5𝑥10−3

μ = 0.3

Ans. 0.3

300𝑥103

[1.2 ( 0.25)]

(40𝑥50)/10002

20. Ev =

200𝑥109

Ev = 3.75x10-4

V = 3.75x10-4 (300)(50)(40) = 225 mm3

Ans. 225 mm3

4 5

= (300 x 100 x 40) (1-2(0.25))(1/200x109 Pa)( + 40(300)

300(100)

6

+40(100))

V = 5.65mm3

Ans. 5.65mm3

𝑷

22. EL =

𝒅𝒆𝒍𝒕𝒂𝑬

−4x10𝟔 400x10𝟑 2x10𝟔 𝟏

=[ + (𝟏𝟎𝟎)(𝟓𝟎)/𝟏𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟐 + (𝟓𝟎)(𝟐𝟓𝟎)/𝟏𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟐]( 𝟐𝟎𝟎𝒙𝟏𝟎𝟗)

(𝟏𝟎𝟎)(𝟐𝟓𝟎)/𝟏𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟐

= 4x10-4

EV = 4x10-4 (1-2(0.25))

= 2x10-4

V = 2x10-4 (250)(100)(50)

V = 250 mm3

Ans. 250 mm3

181

𝑃

23. = 0 so that V = 0 ; =𝐴

𝑥 400𝑥103 𝑁 2𝑥106 𝑁

0= + + 0.05 𝑚 (0.25 𝑚)

0.1𝑚 (0.25 𝑚) 0.1 𝑚 (0.05 𝑚)

X = F = 6000 kN compressive

Additional: 6000 kN – 4000 kN = 2000 kN so

Additional 2MN must be applied; compressive load

Ans. 2MN must be applied

24. E = PL/Aδ

60𝑥103 (200)/1000

E= 𝜋

(30/100)2 0.1

4 (1000)

E = 169.7653 GPa

Ans. 169.7653 GPa

25. μ = = = 0.27

𝐿𝑜𝑛𝑔𝑖𝑡𝑢𝑑𝑖𝑛𝑎𝑙 𝑆𝑡𝑟𝑎𝑖𝑛 0.1/200

Ans. 0.27

= [3(1-2(0.27)]-1 (169.7653)

= 123. 0183 GPa

Ans. 123. 0183 GPa

182

PRELIMINARY EXAMINATION

PHYSICAL AND CHEMICAL PRINCIPLES

of the gas into the region of ________ volume and ________ molecular attraction.

a. Rigid, stronger b. small, stronger c. large, smaller d. dynamic, smaller

2. In a small biochemical plant, a 450-L capacity steady state chemostat is being used

to control the growth of microorganisms by adjusting the dilution rate. The Monod

constant and the maximum specific growth rate are 0.83 mol/L and 0.85/h

respectively. Given a limiting exit concentration of 0.74 mol/L, calculate the daily

amount of the substrate that the bioreactor is able to process.

a. 4327 L/d b. 5327 L/d c. 6327 L/d d. 7327 L/d

function. Which woman was responsible for solving the structure of vitamin B12,

the most chemically complex vitamin?

a. Marie curie c. Mary Somerville

b. Dorothy Hodgkin d.Barbara McClintock

a. Emil Fischer c. J.B.S. Haldane

b. Kazimierz Funk d. Friedrich Miescher

5. Supposed the following four salts all have the same numerical value of Ksp which

is much less than one, which will have the highest solubility?

a. AB b. AB2 c. AB3 d. A2B3

For numbers 6-8, choose on the following choices,

a. First statement is true; Second statement is false

b. First statement is false; Second statement is true

c. Both statement is true

d. Both statement is false

6. Enzyme is a protein which consists of amino acid residues. The total enzyme

concentration stays constant during the reaction.

7. The length of the lag period depends on many factors such as age of microorganism

and culture condition. The specific growth rate if the same for each microorganism

and can be affected by several factors.

8. Industrial applications of biochemical processes are to use living cells or cellular

components to effect the desired physical or chemical changes. Biological

processes are prone to contamination.

183

9. An aqueous solution of molasses contains 20% by weight sucrose. The CO2 formed

in the reaction can be considered as having a negligible solubility in the solution.

Determine the % wt ethanol in solution after 98% of the sucrose has been converted

to ethyl alcohol by fermentation.

a. 11.22% b. 22.33% c. 33.44% d. 44.55%

containing sodium fluoride. After the calcium fluoride precipitate has been filtered

and collected, the x’css calcium (II) is titrated with EDTA. The titration requires

24.20 ml of 0.0500 M EDTA. Calculate the % NaF in the sample.

a. 31.38% b. 31.83% c. 33.18% d. 33.81%

11. Limestone (CaCO3) can be decomposed in a furnace to yield CaO(s) and CO2(g).If

the furnace used a water filter as a purification method to trap emitted gases, what

would happen to the pH of the water overtime?

a. Increase b. decrease c. remain the same d. equal to 1

Lactase, also known as B-galactosidase, catalyzes the hydrolysis of lactose to produce and

galactose from milk and whey. Experiments are carried out to determine the kinetic

parameters for enzyme. The initial rate data are as follows.

Lactose Concentration Reaction Velocity

(mol/L) (mol/L-min)

2.500 1.940

2.270 1.910

1.840 1.850

1.850 1.800

1.250 1.780

0.730 1.460

0.460 1.170

0.204 0.779

a. 1.11 mol/l-min

b. 2.22 mol/L-min

c. 3.33 mol/L-min

d. 4.44 mol/L-min

a. 0.18 mol/L

b. 0.28 mol/L

184

c. 0.38 mol/L

d. 0.48 mol/L

a. The open-chain form only

b. The cyclic hemiacetal form only

c. The cyclic acetal form only

d. An equilibrium mixture of the open-chain form and cyclic acetal forms

e. An equilibrium mixture of the open-chain form and cyclic hemiacetal forms.

15. A 550.0 mg sample is analyzed for aluminum (III) by adding 50.00 ml of 0.0510

M EDTA and back-titrating the x’css EDTA with 14.40 ml of 0.0480 M Zinc (II).

Calc. the % aluminum in the sample

a. 19.2 % b. 9.21% c. 12.9% d. 9.12%

a. Structured, Distributed

b. Unstructured, Distributed

c. Structured, Segregated

d. Unstructured, Segregated

17. A 0.3284 g sample of brass (contg. Lead, zinc, copper and tin) was dissolved in

nitric acid. The sparingly soluble SnO2 x 4H2O was removed by filtration, and the

combined filtrate and washings were then diluted to 500.00 ml. A 10.00 ml aliquot

was masked with thiosulfate; the lead and zinc were then titrated with 27.67 ml of

the EDTA sol’n. Cyanide ion was used to mask the copper and zinc in a 100.00 ml

aliquot; 10.80 ml of the EDTA sol’n was needed to titrate the lead ion. Determine

% Cu in the brass sample.

a. 23.92% b. 29.32% c. 50.67% d. 50.76%

a. 23.92% b. 29.32% c. 50.67% d. 50.76%

19. A 1.20 g sample of a mixture of sodium hydroxide and sodium carbonate with inert

impurity is dissolved and titrated cold with 0.50N HCl. With phenolphthalein as

the indicator, the solution turns colorless after the addition of 30.0mL of the acid.

Methyl orange is then added, and 5.0mL more of the acid are required for the color

to change to pink. What is the percentage of sodium carbonate in the sample

a. 22.08% b. 32.11% c. 45.67% d. 41.67%

oxidize 0.30g of sodium oxalate?

a. 0.22 b. 0.06 c. 0.34 d. 0.59

185

21. Beaker A contains 0.1L of a 0.20M KOH solution; beaker B contains 0.1L of a 0.20

M HCl solution. The contents of the two beakers are thoroughly mixed together in

a sufficiently large third beaker. Calculate the molarity of the resulting salt solution.

a. 1M b. 0.001M c. 0.01M d. 0.1M

22. As a consulting engineer, you have been contracted to modify an existing control

device used in fly ash removal. The federal standards for emissions have been

changed to a total number basis.

a. 1.856 x 10-8 gr

b. 2.856 x 10-8 gr

c. 3.856 x 10-8 gr

d. 4.856 x 10-8 gr

23. Does the unit meet the effluent standard of 105.7 particles/ft3

a. The emission meets the standard

b. The emission doesn’t meet the standard

c. The emission conditionally meet the standard

d. There is not enough data

24. A sample of 500 mL of Genesee River was collected from just below the brewery.

Three mL of the river water sample is diluted to 300mL, aerated and seeded. The

DO content was 8.2 mg/L initially. After 5 days, the DO content had dropped to 6.7

mg/L. The second sample was obtained 60 days later and retested in identical

fashion. The initial DO was 8.3 mg/L and after 5 days, dropped to 6.4 mg/L. What

is the difference between the ultimate BOD of the two sample? Use k = 0.23/day.

a. 48.54 mg/L b. 58.54 mg/L c. 68.54 mg/L d. 78.54 mg/L

25. Marijuana is the most commonly used illegal drug in the United States and in the

World, and was a well-established medicine until it was federally criminalized in

1937. What is the chemical responsible for most of marijuana’s psychological

effects?

a. Octanitrocubane c. Cisplatin

b. Tetrahydrocannabinol d. Terapthalic acid

26. What is the percentage of the total acid expressed as acetic acid in a sample of

vinegar if 3.00 g of vinegar require 20.5 mL of 0.115N KOH solution for an

endpoint with phenolphthalein indicator?

a. 3% b. 4.7% c. 4.3% d. 11%

27. Which of the following is the minimum information necessary for calculating the

molality of a solution?

a. The mass of the solute and the volume of the solvent

b. The mass of the solute, the volume of the solvent, and the density of the

solvent

186

c. The mass of the solute, the volume of the solvent, and the molecular mass

of the solute.

d. The mass of the solute, the volume of the solvent, the molecular mass of the

solute, and the density of the solvent

28. A vacuum manifold was calibrated using Boyle’s law. A 0.503-dm^3 flask

containing dry nitrogen at 746 torr was attached to the manifold, which was at 13

mtorr. After the stopcock was opened and the system allowed to reach equilibrium,

the pressure of the combined system was 273 torr. Assuming isothermal conditions,

what is the volume of the manifold?

a. 0.728 dm^3 b. 0.872 dm^3 c. 0.827 dm^3 d. 0.782 dm^3

a. A carbon atom is larger than a hydrogen atom

b. Citric acid cycle is also called as carboxylic acid cycle

c. Cardiolipids are a group of lipids found in heart muscles

d. Sanger dideoxy method uses carbon reactions

30. Sulfuric acid in water dissociates completely into H+ and HSO-4 ions. The HSO-4

ion dissociates to a limited extent into H+ and SO4 -2. The freezing point of 0.1000

m solution of sulfuric acid in water is 272.76 K. Calc. the molality of SO4 -2 in the

solution, assuming ideal solution behavior.

a. 0.0079 b. 0.097 c. 0.0097 d. 0.079

31. The process by which the genetic information encoded in DNA is read and used to

synthesize RNA in the nucleus of the cell

a. Transfer RNA c. Transamination

b. Trasncription d. Translation

a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4

a. It is hydrolysed by water to the free aldehyde

b. It is a ketoe, but is in equilibrium with the aldehyde form

c. Glucose is actually a cyclic aldehyde

d. Its cyclic hemiacetal, the predominant form, is in equilibrium with the free

aldehyde form

e. It can be oxidized with periodic acid.

34. The difference between heat capacity at constant volume and heat capacity at

constant pressure is the heat energy may be supplied (for constant) to increase

a. Internal energy c. pressure changes

b. volume changes d. temperature changes

187

35. Ozonolysis (O3 in CH2Cl2) of compound A under reducing conditions (Zn /acetic

acid) gives formaldehyde, 2-butanone, and compound B. Catalytic hydrogenation

(H2/Pd) of A gives 2,7-dimethylnonane. What is a possible structure for compound

A?

a. 2,7-Dimethyl-2,8-nonadiene c. 2,7-Dimethyl-1,6-nonadiene

b. 2,7-Dimethyl-1,8-nonadiene d. 2,7-Dimethyl-1,7-nonadiene

36. What weight of sample of impure oxalic acid should be taken for titration by 0.50N

NaOH so that the percentage of H2C2O4·2H2O will be twice the burette reading?

a. 1.57 g b. 2.33 g c. 2.11 g d. 1.02 g

37. What is the sequence of reagents that will accomplish the synthesis of the following

aromatic amine from benzene?

a. CH3Cl, AlCl3; HNO3, H2SO4; H2

b. CH3Cl, AlCl3; HNO3, H2SO4; Fe, HCl; NaOH

c. HNO3, H2SO4; Fe, HCl; NaOH; CH3Cl, AlCl3

d. HNO3, H2SO4; CH3Cl, AlCl3; Fe, HCl; NaOH

38. This type of spectroscopy is mainly used to tell functional groups within a

compound. Older versions require special salt plates, but newer technology has

made them obsolete. The “fingerprint region” in the readout is only useful for those

who have studied this method extensively, and isn’t very useful for beginners.

a. Nuclear Magnetic Resonance c. Infrared Spectroscopy

b. X-ray fluorescence d. Gas chromatography-mass spectroscopy

a. 3 b. 1 c. 4 d. 2

40. A “strong water”| as defined from DAO 35 refers to the water whose initial BOD

value before treatment is equal to greater than

a. 500 b. 1000 c. 3000 d. 5000 e. 250

foul smelling product associated with inadequate oxygen.

a. Assimilative capacity

b. Eutropication

c. Phosphorylation

d. Putrefaction

188

42. The Philippine Starch Corporation prepares pharmaceutical glucose from

cornstarch by enzyme hydrolysis. It was observed that when the starch

concentration of the slurry was 5%, the rate of concentration of starch to glucose

was 0.04 kg/s. When the starch concentration was made 10%, the turnover rate was

0.07 kg/s. The maximum production level of glucose that can be reasonably be

obtained per shift of 8 hours is

a. 8064 kg b. 7064 kg c. 6064 kg d. 5064 kg

43. Which of the following statements correctly describes the general reactivity of

alkynes?

a. An alkyne is an electron-rich molecule and therefore reacts as a nucleophile

b. The sigma bonds of alkynes are higher in energy than the pi bonds and are

thus more reactive

c. Unlike alkenes, alkynes fail to undergo electrophilic addition reactions

d. Alkynes are generally more reactive than alkenes

I. The rate of limiting of the reaction involve the alkyl halide and the the

nucleophile

II. The order of reactivity is methyl>1>2>3

III. The rate limiting step of the reaction involves only the alkyl halide

IV. There is an intermediate carbocation

I. CH3CH2CH2CH2OCH3

II. CH3OCH3

III. CH3OCH2CH2OCH3

IV. CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2OH

a. Androsterone

b. Estrone

c. Progesterone

d. Testosterone

47. The Del Factor to reduce the number of cells in a fermenter from 1010 viable

organisms to one is:

a. 21 b. 23 c. 25 d. 27

189

a. 2-butanone + propylmagnesium bromide

b. 3-hexanone + methylmagnesium bromide

c. 2-pentanone + ethylmagnesium bromide

d. 3-pentanone + ethylmagnesium bromide

a. Aspirin b. Naprosyn c. Tylenol d. Kremil-S

a. Possesses a definite geometry

b. Maximum on the potential energy diagram

c. Structure can be determined experimentally

d. Cannot be isolated

a. Carbohydrates b. Lipids c. Nucleic acids d. Amino Acids

a. Penicillin A b. Penicillin G c. Penicillin B d. Penicillin H

a. Reduction of carbonyl group

b. Separation of carbonyl group

c. Oxidation of carbonyl group

d. Hydrogenation of carbonyl group

a. Makes the link between two amino acids planar

b. Restricts free rotation about the bond

c. Is a result of resonance hybridization

d. All of these choices

a. The residue that comes first alphabetically

b. The residue with the largest R-group

c. The C- terminal amino acid residue

d. The N-terminal amino acid residue

56. A balloon has a mass of 0.5 g when completely deflated. When it is filled with an

unknown gas, the mass increase to 1.7 g. You noticed on the canister of that

unknown gas that it occupies a volume of 0.4487 L at a temperature of 50 oC. You

note the temperature in the room is 25 oC. Give the possible name of the unknown

diatomic gas. Assume all the canister contents have been emptied and the condition

is held at 1 atm pressure. Use oC + 273.15 K for all the temperature conversion and

R=0.08206 Latm/Kmol.

a. Br2 b. Cl2 c. O2 d. N2

190

57. A 1.20g sample of a mixture of sodium hydroxide and sodium carbonate with inert

impurity is dissolved and titrated cold with 0.50N HCl. With phenolphthalein as

the indicator, the solution turns colorless after the addition of 30.0mL of the acid.

Methyl orange is then added, and 5.0mL more of the acid are required for the color

to change to pink. What is the percentage of NaOH in the sample?

a. 22.08 % b. 32.11% c. 45.67% d. 41.67%

a. Kolbe’s Synthesis

b. Wurtz’s Synthesis

c. Williamson’s synthesis

d. Grignard’s Synthesis

a. Heptane

b. 2,2,4-trimethylnaphthalene

c. 1-methylnaphthalene

d. n-hexadecane

60. A 1-month-old male showed abnormalities of the nervous system and lactic

acidosis. Enzyme assay for pyruvate dehydrogenase (PDH) activity on extracts of

cultured skin fibroblasts showed 5% of normal activity, with a low concentration

(1 x 10-4 mM) of thiamine pyrophosphate (TPP), but 80% of normal activity when

the assay contained a high (0.4 mM) concentration of TPP. Which one of the

following statements concerning this patient is most correct?

a. Elevated levels of lactate and pyruvate in the blood reliably predict the

presence of PDH deficiency

b. The patient is expected to show disturbances in fatty acid degradation

c. A diet consisting of high carbohydrate intake would be expected to be

beneficial in this patient

d. Alanine concentration in the blood is expected to be less than normal

e. Administration of thiamine is expected to reduce his serum lactate

concentration and improve his clinical symptoms

a. Above the critical temperature, the given substance has a single phase

occupying the entire volume of the container

b. The Tc of O2 is 155 K, this means that it is impossible to prodce O 2 if its T

is above 155K

c. To liquefy a given substance at Tc, high pressure must be applied

d. Liquid and vapor exist at Tc and both phases are distinct

191

62. In 1932, James Chadwick bombarded a thin sheet of beryllium with alpha particles,

and paved way for his discovery of this very small particles. What is this small

particle?

a. Electron b. Proton c. Neutron d. Atom

63. Which of the following is not true about acids?

a. Sour tastes

b. Reacts with metal to produce gas

c. Changes litmus from blue to red

d. Aqueous solutions do not conduct electricity

64. The 5-day BOD of domestic sewage is 200 ppm and its removal rate constant K is

0.23/day. What is the ultimate BOD in ppm?

a. 29.27 ppm b. 60.1 ppm c. 292.7 ppm d. 400 ppm

65. An open chamber rest on the ocean floor in 50 m of sea water (SG=1.03). The air

pressure in kilopascals that must be maintained inside to exclude water is nearest

to

a. 318 b. 431 c. 505 d. 661

66. A small bubble rises from the bottom of a lake, where temperature and pressure are

8 deg C and 6.4 atm, to the water’s surface, where the temperature is 25 deg C and

pressure is 1 atm. Calculate the final volume of the bubble if its initial volume was

2.1mL.

a. 10 ml b. 12 ml c. 14mL d. 16 ml

67. A 7.5 m3 chemostat operating at 75% capacity is producing biomass from a glucose

feed at a volumetric flow rate of 46.9 L/min. The specific growth rate of the

organism is:

a. 0.373/h b. 0.0083/h c. 0.5/h d. 0.006/h

68. Sodium azide is used in some automobiles air bags. The impact collision

decomposes the sodium azide to sodium and nitrogen gas. Calculate the volume of

the nitrogen gas generated during impact at 85 deg C and 812 mmHg from 50.0g

sample of sodium azide.

a. 12L b. 32 L c. 43 L d. 16 L

69. All of the following factors increase the strength of van der Waals forces between

molecules except by an

a. Increase in the molecular weight of the molecules

b. Increase in the number of atoms in the molecules

c. Increase in the number of electrons in the molecules

d. Increase in the ionic strength of the molecule

192

70. Robert Boyle became famous due to his studies in gas collisions. What is the

nationality of Boyle?

a. Polish b. Irish c. English d. American

71. A flammable gas made up only of carbon and hydrogen is found to effuse through

porous barrier in 3.50 min. Under the same conditions of temperature and pressure,

it takes an equal volume of chlorine gas 7.34 mins to effuse through the same

barrier. Calculate the molar mass of the unknown gas.

a. 12 g/mol b. 16 g/mol c. 18 g/mol d. 24 g/mol

a. Anti-histamine drug

b. Anti-inflammatory

c. Anti-cancer drug

d. Antiseptic drug

73. A given amount of electric charge deposits 2.159 gram of silver from an Ag+

solution. What mass of copper from a Cu+2 solution will be deposited by the same

quantity of electric charge? Atomic masses: Ag = 107.87 g/mol; Cu = 63.5 g/mol

a. 0.635 gram b. 0.356 gram c. 0.535 gram d. 0.335 gram

74. Which of the following compounds can undergo the aidol reaction

a. Benzaldehyde

b. 2,2,6,6-tetramethylcyclohexanone

c. Formaldehyde

d. 2,2-dimethylcyclohexanone

a. A carbon atom is larger than a hydrogen atom

b. Citric acid cycle is also called as carboxylic acid cycle

c. Cardiolipids are a group of lipids found in heart muscles

d. Sanger dideoxy method uses carbon reactions

a. Alkyne

b. Alkane

c. Ketone

d. Alcohol

193

77. Glutathione removes potentially harmful oxidants in human body and is a common

whitening agent among Filipinos. How many carbon atoms does glutathione have?

a. 10 b. 12 c. 7 d. 15

a. Glucose b. Fructose c. Ribose d. Sedoheptulose

79. How much money was appropriated for the initial implementation of the Philippine

Clean Air Act of 1999?

a. 500 Million pesos

b. 750 Million pesos

c. 600 Million pesos

d. 1 Billion pesos

a. Ethanol

b. Methanol

c. Butanol

d. Phenol

194

ANSWER KEY

PRELIM EXAMINATION

1. B 41. D

2. A 42. A

3. B 43. A

4. B 44. B

5. D 45. B

6. C 46. C

7. A 47. B

8. C 48. D

9. A 49. D

10. C 50. C

11. B 51. D

12. B 52. B

13. C 53. A

14. E 54. E

15. D 55. D

16. B 56. B

17. A 57. E

18. D 58. C

19. A 59. D

20. B 60. E

21. D 61. D

22. A 62. C

23. B 63. D

24. B 64. C

25. B 65. C

26. B 66. C

27. D 67. C

28. B 68. B

29. C 69. D

30. C 70. C

31. B 71. B

32. C 72. C

33. D 73. A

34. B 74. A

35. C 75. C

36. A 76. D

37. B 77. A

38. C 78. A

39. C 79. B

40. C 80. D

195

PRELIMINARY EXAMINATION SOLUTIONS

(3.970)(2)(41.99)(100)

= = 31.83 % NaF

1000.0

Using calculator, Mode>Stat>A+Bx

Input (x) = 1/Concetration

Input (y) = 1/ velocity

Get Vmax by: 1/A

Vmax = 2.22 mol/L-min

Get Km by: B/A Km = 0.38 mol/L

50

0.051 mol/L EDTA 𝑥 𝐿 = 2.55x10-3mol EDTA

1000

14.40 1𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝑌4−

0.0480 mol/L Zn2+ 𝑥 𝐿 Zn2+ x 1𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝑍𝑛2+ = 6.912x10-4mol EDTA

1000

= 1.8588x10-3 mol EDTA = mol of Al3+

26.98𝑔 1000𝑚𝑔

Mass Al3+ = 1.858x10-3 x x x 50.1504mg

1𝑚𝑜𝑙 1𝑔

50.1504

%Al3+ = 𝑥 100 = 𝟗. 𝟏𝟐%

550

19. 0.5mol/L HCl x 𝐿x 𝑥 = 0.264975g Na2CO3

1000 1𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝐻𝐶𝑙 1𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝑁𝑎2𝐶𝑂3

0.264975

% Na2CO3 = 𝑥 100 = 22.08%

1.2

196

20. KMnO4 + Na2C2O4 NaMnO4 + K2C2O4

1𝑚𝑜𝑙 Na2C2O4 1𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝐾𝑀𝑛𝑂4

0.3g Na2C2O4 𝑥 𝑥 1𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝑁𝑎2𝐶2𝑂4 𝑥 = 2.2388 𝑥10 − 3 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝐾𝑀𝑛𝑂4

134𝑔 Na2C2O4

2.2388𝑥10−3𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝐾𝑀𝑛𝑂4

Molarity = 1𝐿 = 0.0560 𝑀

40𝑚𝑙 𝑥

1000𝑚𝐿

Normality = 0.0560𝑀 𝑥 5 = 𝟎. 𝟐𝟑 𝑵

0.02 mol 0.02 mol 0 0

0 0 0.02 0.02

0.02 𝑚𝑜𝑙

Molarity = (0.1+ 0.1)𝐿 = 𝟎. 𝟏𝑴

Average particle size, dp = µm (assume constant)

Particle specific gravity = 2.3

Inlet loading = 3.0 gr/ft3

Efficient (mass basis) = 99%

m = 1.856 x 10-8 gr

24.

1st BOD testing: After 60 days

Do = 8.2 mg/L Do = 8.3 mg/L

Df = 6.7 mg/L Df = 6.4 mg/L

(8.2−6.7)𝑚𝑔/𝐿 (8.3−6.4)𝑚𝑔/𝐿

BOD5 = = 150 BOD5 = = 190

3/300 3/300

1−𝑒^(−𝑘𝑡) 1−𝑒^(−𝑘𝑡)

Lo = 𝐵𝑂𝐷5

Lo = 𝐵𝑂𝐷5

1−𝑒^(−0.23𝑥5) 1−𝑒^(−0.23𝑥5)

= =

150 190

197

∆Lo = 278.04 mg/L – 219.50 mg/L

∆Lo = 58.54 mg/L

0.115mol/L KOH 𝑥 𝐿𝑥 𝑥 = 0.1416𝑔 𝐶𝐻3𝐶𝑂𝑂𝐻

1000 1𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝐾𝑂𝐻 1𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝐶𝐻3𝐶𝑂𝑂𝐻

0.1416

% CH3COOH = 𝑥 100 = 𝟒. 𝟕𝟐 %

3

(0.503)(746 – 273) = 273 (V2)

V2 = 0.87149 dm3

L(5)= L0 [1-e(-k*5)] = 2000 mg/L= L(0) [1-e(-0.23*5) ]

Ultimate BOD Lo = 292.6 mg/L

P = (1.03)(9.81)(50) = 505 kPa

(6.4atm)(2.1mL)(298.15K) = (1atm)(V2)(281.15K)

V2 = 14.25mL

1 𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑒 𝑁𝑎𝑁3 3 𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑒𝑠 𝑁2

50 g (64.99 𝑔 𝑁𝑎𝑁3) = 0.769 𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑒𝑠 𝑁𝑎𝑁3 (2 𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑒𝑠 𝑁𝑎𝑁3) = 1.1535 moles N2

PV = nRT

198

812 𝑚𝑚ℎ𝑔 𝐿−𝑎𝑡𝑚

(760 𝑚𝑚ℎ𝑔)(𝑉) = 1. 1535 𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑒𝑠 𝑁2 (0.08206 )(85 + 273.15)

𝑚𝑜𝑙−𝐾

V = 31.73 L = 32 L

𝑟1 𝑡 𝑀

71. = 𝑡2 = √𝑀2

𝑟2 1 1

3.50 𝑚𝑖𝑛 𝑀

= √ 𝑔

7.34 𝑚𝑖𝑛 35.43

𝑚𝑜𝑙

𝑀 = 8.06 𝑔/𝑚𝑜𝑙

M = 8.06 g/mol (2) = 16 g/mol

73. Silver moles = given mass / molar mass = 2.158 / 107.9 = 0.0200 moles. of silver.

If you we have 0.02 moles of Ag, we will only get 0.01 moles of Cu

n = 0.01

molar mass = 63.5

0.01 = x / 63.5

x = 0.635 grams of Cu

199

MIDTERM EXAMINATION

CHEMICAL ENGINEERING

1. Particle diameter representation which is defined as the width of the minimum

square aperture through which the particle will pass.

a. Feret’s diameter b. Martin’s diameter

c. Sieve diameter d. Projected area diameter

2. Equivalent diameter of a particle which is referred to the average distance between

pairs of parallel tangents to the projected outline of the particle.

c. Sieve diameter d. Projected area diameter

3. Which of the following is not a standard in a particle size distribution using sieves?

c. US series ATM d. all are standards

4. In Moh’s scale, which is the hardest among the materials given?

a. Apatite b. Quartz

c. Feldspar d. Topaz

5. A crushed material of certain ore has 3’’ – diameter particle and has density of

170lb/ft. If the specific surface area ratio is 10, what is the specific surface in cm²

per g of ore?

6. The energy required to reduce the size of a certain ore from 1cm to 0.3cm is

11kJ/kg. What is the power requirement to reduce the same set of material from

0.1cm to 0.01cm assuming Kick’s law apply?

a. 21 b. 91

c. 423 d. None of the choices

7. What is the sphericity of cylinder assuming that the equivalent length is equivalent

to its height?

a. 0.806 b. 0.857

c. 0.874 d. 1

8. In an analysis of a certain crushed material, the total surface area of a certain

fraction of a 5kg sample that passed through a 7 mesh sieve but was caught on a 9

200

mesh sieve is 7.88m². If the density of the material is 1050 kg/m³ and the shape

factor is 1.75, find the fraction.

9. What is the sphericity of a cylinder with L/D ratio of 1?

a. 0.806 b. 0.857 c. 0.874 d. 1

a. 0.806 b. 0.857 c. 0.874 d. 1

11. Find the width of an apron conveyor without skirts whose capacity is 56tons/hr at

a speed of 50rpm handling solids with density of 50lb/cuft.

a. 36 inches b. 38 inches c. 40 inches d. 52 inches

12. A type of a gas-solid separator employing centrifugal force.

a. elutriator b. cyclones

c. centrifuge d. none of these

13. The energy required per unit mass to grind limestone particles of very large size to

100mm is 12kWh/ton. An estimate (using Bond’s law) of the energy to grind the

particles from a very large size to 50mm is

a. 18kWh/ton b. 10kWh/ton c. 15kWh/ton d.12kWh/ton

14. A material is crush in a Blake Jaw Crusher and the average size of particle reduces

from 50mm to 10mm with the consumption of energy at the rate of 13kW(kg/s).

The consumption of energy needed to crush the same material of an material of an

average size 75mm to an average size 25mm assuming Kick’s Law applies is

a. 8.88kW(kg/s) b. 8.08kW(kg/s)

c. 4.66kW(kg/s) d. 4.33kW(kg/s)

15. Saturated steam at 110⁰C is available and the temperature in the condenser is 43⁰C.

Specific heat of the solutions may be taken is constant at 4 J/g ⁰C. The overall-heat

transfer coefficient is 2840W/m² ⁰C. Determine the steam consumption, in kg/hr.

a. 3400 b. 4700 c. 5800 d. 6500

16. Refer to item no. 15, how many square meters of heating surface are required?

a. 15 b. 13 c. 11 d. 9

For numbers 17 to 18. Determine the boiling point rise for the following solutions

of biological solutions in water.

201

17. A 30 wt% solution of citric acid in water boiling at 220⁰F

18. A 40 wt% solution of sucrose in water boiling at 220⁰F

a. 1.4⁰F b. 2.1⁰F c. 3.2⁰F d. 4.9⁰F

19. The rate of increase of the number of bacteria under certain condition is

proportional to the number of bacteria. If the number doubles in four hours, how

much increase in number of bacteria can be expelled after 12 hours?

a. 2 b. 4 c. 6 d. 8

20. A second order reaction involving reactants initially present at 0.10moles/L is

found to be 20% complete in 40minutes, when the reaction is 25⁰C, and 40%

complete in 35 minutes, when the reaction is 50⁰C. What is the activation energy

for this reaction in cal/mol?

a. 2700 cal/mol b. 8500 cal/mol c. 1020 cal/mol d. 5530

cal/mol

21. In a first order reaction the time required to reduce the concentration of reactant

from 1mol/L to 0.5mol/L will be _____________ that required to reduce it from

10mol/L to 5mol/L in the same volume.

a. more than b. less than c. same d. data sufficient

22. If a first order reversible liquid reaction A ↔ B is conducted in a batch reactor. The

initial concentrations are 𝐶𝐴0 = 0.5gmol/L and 𝐶𝐵0 = 0. After 8 minutes, the

fractional conversion of A is 1/3 and at equilibrium, the fractional conversion of

2/3. Find the equilibrium constant.

a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4

reactor. Starting with gaseous mixture containing 50% A, the ratio of final to initial

volume is found to be 1.6. Calculate the percentage conversion of A.

a. 30 b. 50 c. 60 d. 74

24. Pick the wrong statement pertaining to space velocity of flow reactors.

b. The space velocity of 3 ℎ𝑟 −1 means that the three reactor volumes of feed at

specified conditions are being fed into the reactor every hour.

202

c. The space velocity of 3 ℎ𝑟 −1 means that the one third reactor volume of feed at

specified conditions are being fed into the reactor.

d. None of these.

25. For liquid phase zero order irreversible reaction A → B, the conversion of A in a

CSTR is found to be 0.3 at space velocity of 0.1𝑚𝑖𝑛−1 . What will be the conversion

for PFR with a space velocity of 0.2𝑚𝑖𝑛−1 ? Assume that all the other operating

conditions are the same for CSTR and PFR.

a. 0.15 b. 0.30 c. 0.60 d. 0.90

For numbers 26-28: A homogenous liquid phase, A → R, −𝑟𝐴 = 𝑘𝐶𝐴 ² takes place

with 50% conversion in a mixed reactor.

26. The value of space time

a. 1/(2k𝐶𝐴0 ) b. 2/(𝑘𝐶𝐴0 ) c. 1/(k𝐶𝐴0 ) d. 3/(k𝐶𝐴0 )

27. What is the conversion if the reactor is replaced by one 6 times as large – all

else remaining unchanged?

a. 0.67 b. 0.75 c. 0.70 d. 0.79

28. 28. Calculate the conversion if the original reactor is replaced by a plug flow reactor

of equal size – all else remaining unchanged?

a. 0.67 b. 0.90 c. 0.88 d. 0.92

29. The separation of solid particles into several size fractions based upon the settling

velocities in a medium is called

a. settling b. filtration

c. flotation d. classification

force and are removed as a concentrated slurry.

a. classifier b. thickener c. elutriator d. agitator

a. the same as the bulk fluid velocity

b. the velocity of the surface

c. zero.

d. proportional to the smoothness of the surface

203

32. Which of the following sets of reversible processes describes an ideal Otto cycle?

I. Adiabatic compression, constant volume heat addition, adiabatic expansion,

constant volume heat rejection

II. Isothermal compression, isobaric heat addition, isothermal expansion, isobaric

heat rejection

a. I only

b. II only

c. I and II in succession

d. II and I in succession

33. Which of the following statements regarding Rankine cycles is false?

a. Use of condensable vapor in the cycle increases the efficiency of the cycle

b. The temperatures at which energy is transferred to and from the working liquid

are less separated than in a Carnot cycle

c. Superheating increases the efficiency of a Rankine cycle

key limitation on the operating efficiency.

34. Which of the following is/are representation of a carnot cycle?

a. Irreversible b. Reversible c. Isothermal d. Isobaric

36. The general energy equation for an open system involves the following terms:

II. Net energy transfer by work V. Transfer of energy out by mass flow

204

III. Net energy transfer by heat

a. I = -II + III + IV – V

b. I = II + III + IV + V

c. I = II + III + IV – V

d. I = II – III – IV + V

37. Which of the following flow meters measure/s the average fluid velocity rather than

a point or local velocity in a pipe?

I. Venturi meter IV. Orifice meter

III. Impact tube

a. I and III b. III and V c. I and IV d. II and V

38. Consider the following two flows of water in the figure shown. What is the relation

between the velocity at point 2 in I and II?

a. V2(I) =V2(II)

b. V2(I) =1/2 V2(II)

c. V2(I) =2 V2(II)

d. V2(I) =4 V2(II)

39. Which of the following describes a streamline?

I. It is a mathematical concept

II. It cannot be crossed by the flow

III. It is a line of constant entropy

40. Calculate the terminal velocity of a steel ball, 2mm diameter and of density

7870kg/m³ in an oil of density of 900kg/m³ and viscosity 50mN-s/m².

205

a. 0.189m/s b. 0.289m/s c. 0.389m/s d. 0.489m/s

41. The thermodynamic equilibrium constant is unaffected by the following except:

b. Presence or absence of inerts d. kinetics of the reaction

42. He pioneered the work of the first commercial steam turbine (5hp).

b. Stephen Wilcox d. John Barber

43. Power plants should operate on the following conditions:

a. below 100,000kPa and below 600⁰C c. above 100,000kPa and above 600⁰C

b. below 100,000kPa and above 600⁰C d. above 100,000kPa and below 600⁰C

44. The Diesel engine differs from the Otto engine because

b. lower compression ratio d. high cut-off ratio

45. Air is flowing at a steady rate of 0.0232 lb/sec through a straight tube having an

inside diameter of 0.2 inch. At the first section, the air has a temperature of 70⁰F

and is under an absolute pressure of 0.2atm. The tube is heated and the net input

power, between the first and second section, is 174 watts. The air at the second

section is under an absolute pressure of 0.1atm. The average specific heat of the air

is 0.24BTU/lb ⁰F. Calculate the temperature of the air leaving the second section.

a. 63⁰F b. 73⁰F c. 83⁰F d. 93⁰F

46. A tank of relatively non-volatile oil is to be cooled from 200⁰ to 100⁰C by blowing

cold air at 1 atm and 20⁰C through it. How long will this process take if the air

leaving the tank is always in thermal equilibrium with the oil? Assume that the air

bubbles keep the oil well agitated.

Data: Heat capacity of oil = 0.81 cal/(g ⁰C) Air rate (1 atm and 20⁰C) =

100cfm

Capacity of the oil tank = 1,000 gal Sp. Gr of oil = 0.88

a. 4,550 min b. 5,550 min c. 6,550 min d. 7,550min

47. A very dilute gas mixture of sulfur dioxide in air is contacted with water in a 25

mm ID wetted wall column at 20⁰C and 1 atm. The velocity of gas mixture is

2.2m/s. Determine the friction factor.

206

a. 0.01 b. 0.003 c. 0.006 d. 0.008

48. The rotational speed in RPM that you could recommend for a ball mill, 1200 mm

in diameter charged with 75 mm balls is

a. 30 b. 60 c. 10 d. 50

49. In countercurrent liquid-liquid extraction, the maximum concentration of solute in

extract layer

a. Is that corresponding to equilibrium with the incoming feed

b. Is less that the concentration corresponding to equilibrium with the incoming

feed

c. Can be increased than the obtained in (a) above by using raffinate reflux

d. none of the above

50. An isobaric steam generating process starts with saturated liquid at 143kPa. The

change in entropy is equal to the initial entropy. Not all of the liquid is vaporized.

What is mostly nearly the change in enthalpy during the process?

51. A current of 200A is passed through a stainless steel wire ( k =22.5, SI units) with

a diameter of 5mm and length of 1 m. The electrical resistance of the wire is

0.1ohm. Estimate the temperature at the center of the wire if the outer surface

temperature is held at 114⁰C

52. What is the BPR of a 30% NaOH solution at an evaporator pressure of 3.722psia?

a. 17 degF b. 25 degF c. 29 degF d. 33 degF

53. A system consists of moist air and water inside a closed container. What is this

system’s degree of freedom?

a. 0 b. 1 c. 2 d. 3

54. A newly designed air-conditioning unit has a capacity of 3140 watts and an input

rating of 735 watts. If this machine is operated as heat pump, its COP is

a. 4.27 b. 5.27 c. 4.44 d. 5.44

55. The evidence that the solute does not freeze with the solvent is that

a. the first crystals formed are precipitates of the solute

207

b. the crystals formed could clearly be seen as that of the solution

c. the freezing point of the solution that remains a liquid is getting lower and lower

as freezing proceeds

d. the freezing point asymptotically a constant value.

56. What does the dashed curve in the figure represent?

b. an isotherm

c. the saturated liquid line

57. For the Carnot cycle shown, helium is the gas used with a specific heat ratio, k, of

𝑉 𝑇 𝑃

5/3. Given that 𝑉𝐵 = 2 and 𝑇𝐴 = 1.9, calculate 𝑃𝐶 .

𝐴 𝐷 𝐴

a. 0.0633 c. 0.1800

b. 0.1000 d. 0.2620

a. entering velocity of the liquid in the tubes of natural circulation evaporators is in

the range of 0.3 to 0.9m/s.

208

c. the value of hydrostatic head increases with increase in vacuum in the effect in a

multiple effect evaporator system

total boiling point rise.

59. Which of the following has the minimum absorptivity?

60. To reduce the tube side pressure drop for the same flow rate, the heat exchanger

recommended is

b. 1-2, heat exchanger

c. 2-4, heat exchanger

d. 3-2 heat exchanger

61. Drying operation under vacuum is carried out to

a. reduce drying temperature

b. dry those materials which have very high unbound moisture content

c. dry materials having high bound moisture content

d. increase drying temperature

a. Packed towers are preferred for vacuum operation, because the pressure drop

through the packing is less and they (packings) also lessen the possibility of tower

wall collapse.

b. Packed towers are preferred over plate towers for handling corrosive and foamy

liquids.

c. due to uneven supply and improper distribution of liquid, problem of channeling,

loading & flooding is generally encountered in packed towers.

63. For zero order reaction, the concentration of product increases with the

a. increase of reaction time c. increase in initial concentration

b. total pressure d. decrease in total pressure

209

64. Which of the following curves shows the effect of temperature on the gas-solid

adsorption at a given pressure?

b. Adsorption isobar d. None of these

65. Pick out the wrong statement.

throughout the vessel even in a well agitated system

b. In a continuous flow reactor, both the reactants and products flow out

continuously.

c. In a semi-batch reactor, one reactant is charged otherwise, while the other

reactant is fed continuously.

temperature pressure and composition may vary with time.

66. Which of the following denotes the effect of compressibility in fluid flow?

c. Reynolds number d. Mach number

67. Pick out the wrong statement pertaining to the design of the bubble cap tray of a

distillation column to give stable operation and even vapor distribution.

a. the dimensionless ratio of liquid gradient to pressure drop head caused by the

bubble cap assembly should be less than 0.4.

b. the pressure drop due to the caps and slots and the static submergence should be

as high as practicable for reasonable operation

of the caps, lowering the rate of liquid flow per unit plate width or increasing the

spacing between the caps.

d. none of these

68. It is the procedure in which a fraction of the fees to a process unit is diverted around

the unit and combined with the output stream from the unit.

69. A storage tank of demineralized water has a holding capacity of 1800m3 up to an

overflow point. The DM water having silica content of 0.005mg/L is flowing into

a tank at a rate of 25L/s. The outflow from a tank to the high pressure boiler is

210

25L/s. With time, the quantity of DM water deteriorates and the silica content rose

up to 0.02mg/L. Assuming that the inflow and the outflow remains constant,

determine the time in hrs required for the silica content in the storage tank to

increase to 0.01mg/L.

a. 76.6 b. 6.77 c. 7.66 d. 66.7 e. 8.11

70. One gram of a magnesium-aluminum alloy was reacted with excess muriatic acid

to form magnesium chloride, aluminum chloride and hydrogen gas. Hydrogen gas

collected over mercury at 0⁰C occupied at 2.835L at 39.26kPa. Find the %Al in the

alloy.

a. 44 b. 56 c. 54 d. 46

For numbers 71 and 72,

The fresh feed to the process was 0.5kmol/hr of O2 and an excess methanol. All of

the O2 reacts in the reactor. Formaldehyde and water are removed from the product

stream first, after which H2 is removed from the recycled methanol. The recycle

flow rate of methanol was 1kmol/hr. The ratio of methanol reacting by

decomposition to that by oxidation was 3.

71. Calculate the per pass conversion in % of methanol in the reactor

a. 60 b. 70 c. 80 d. 90

72. Calculate the fresh feed rate (in kmol/hr) of methanol

a. 3 b. 3.5 c. 4 d. 4.5

73. Natural gas containing 80% CH4, 15% C2H6, and 5% C3H8 is burnt with 50%

excess air. Assuming that 90% of the carbon in the hydrocarbons are converted to

CO2 and the rest to CO, determine the %mol of H2O produced in stack gas.

a. 5 b. 5.5 c. 6 d. 6.5 e. 2.25

74. A solid fuel consisting of 90.04% C, 0.79% S, 1.2%N with no ash and moisture

undergoes combustion with excess air. Analysis of stack gas shows 10.83% CO2,

1.08% CO, 0.22%H2, 79.9%N2 and 7.97%O2. Calculate the ultimate H in the solid

fuel.

75. The most matured coal out of the following is

a. Bituminous b. Semi-anthracite c. Sub-bituminous d. Lignite

76. Gross calorific value will be equal to the net calorific value for

211

a. H2 b. C2H2 c. CO d. C2H6

77. A fluid flow (Cp = 4.0kJ/kg-K) flowing at 0.5kg/s is to be heated from 18⁰C to 30⁰C

in a medium sized 2-3 STHE using another fluid (Cp = 1.20kJ/kg-K), which enters

on the shell side of the exchanger at 71⁰C and to leave at 62⁰C. The overall heat

transfer coefficient is 50W/m²-K. What is the flow rate of the other fluid?

78. In the previous problem, what is the surface are for heat transfer?

a. 8.8 b. 6.61 c. 9.72 d. 11.55

79. Because of fouling due to prolonged use, the exit temperature of the cold fluid

becomes 28⁰

a. 0.00669 b. 0.00103 c. 0.000931 d. 0.00483

a. Double-pipe HE b. Shell-and-tube HE

c. Cross-flow HE d. Finned-type HE

81. In a distillation column, the bottom section has the following characteristics,

a. highest temperature b. highest pressure

c. both a and b d. neither a nor b

a. total reflux c. alternate use of tray and packings

b. maximum reboiling d. oversized condenser

83. The overall separation efficiency can be dictated by

a. relative volatilies c. intimate contact on each tray/stage

84. As the temperature of the liquid increases, its vapor pressure tends to

a. decrease b. increase

c. remain the same d. fluctuate relative to the liquid’s density

85. What is the boiling point of a benzene-toluene mixture under atmospheric pressure

if the mixture contains 0.682 mole fraction toluene?

a. 100degC b. 95degC

c. 89degC d. 98degC

212

86. In the above question, when the resulting vapor is condensed, the liquid

composition contains how much benzene (mole fraction)?

a. 0.532 b. 0.83

c. 0.425 d. 0.18

87. What are the advantages of extraction processes compared with other separation

processes?

a. Extraction is a separation process which involves no evaporation; carried out

mostly at ambient temperature and can be used as a separation process for high

temperature sensitive products.

b. All streams are in liquid phase, therefore the system pressures are lower, resulting

in thinner walls needed for the equipments.

d. The treatment of the process products is easier, since all are in liquid phase. There

is no cooling energy needed.

kg of solvent A is brought into contact with 10 kg of solvent B. Solvents A and B

are completely immiscible in each other whereas solute C is soluble in both the

solvents. The extraction process attains equilibrium. The equilibrium relationship

between the two phases is Y* = 0.9X where Y* is kg of C/kg of B and X is kg of

C/kg of A. Choose the correct answer.

a. the entire amount of C is transferred to solvent

b. less than 2 kg but more than 1 kg of C is transferred to solvent B

c. less than 1 kg of C is transferred to B

d. no amount of C is transferred to B

89. Determine the state of water according to the following condition of at 440⁰F with

density of 842.3679kg/m³.

a. saturated liquid

b. saturated vapor

c. sub-saturated

d. superheated

213

90. A utility runs a Rankine Cycle with a water boiler at 3.5MPa and the cycle has the

highest and lowest temperature of 450⁰C and 45⁰C respectively. What is the cycle

efficiency?

a. 0.36

b. 0.84

c. 0.53

d. 0.61

214

ANSWER KEY

MIDTERM EXAMINATION

1. C. Sieve diameter 46. A. 4,550min

2. A. Feret’s diameter 47. D. 008

3. B. API 48. A. 30

4. D. Topaz 49. A. Is that corresponding to equilibrium

5. A. 2.89 with the incoming feed

6. A. 21 50. D. 540KJ/kg

7. C. 0.874 51. C. 128.4deg C

8. B. 38% 52. B. 25 deg F

9. C. 0.874 53. D. 3

10. A. 0.806 54. B. 5.27

11. A. 36 inches 55. C. the freezing point of the solution that

12. B. Cyclones remains a liquid is getting lower and

13. A. 18 kwh/ton lower as freezing proceeds

14. A. 8.88kW(kg/s) 56. D. The saturated vapor line

15. A. 3400 57. B. 0.100

16. C. 11 58. B. duhring’s plot is used for calculating

17. C 2.2⁰F the concentration of solution

18. B. 2.1⁰F 59. B. Aluminum foil

19. D. 8 60. A. 1-1 heat exchanger

20. B. 8500 cal/mol 61. A. reduce drying temperature

21. C. same 62. D. diameter of randomly packed towers is

22. B. 2 normally more than 1.2m

23. C. 60 63. A. increase of reaction time

24. C. The space velocity of 3 ℎ𝑟 −1 means 64. B. Adsorption bar

that the one third reactor volume of feed 65. A. In a continuous flow reactor, uniform

at specified conditions are being fed into concentration can not be maintained

the reactor. throughout the vessel even in a well

25. A. 0.15 agitated system

26. B. 2/(𝑘𝐶𝐴0 ) 66. D. Mach number

27. B. 0.75 67. D. None of these

28. A. 0.67 68. B. Bypass

29. D. Classification 69. E. 8.11

30. B. Thickener 70. C. 54

31. B. The velocity of the surface 71. C. 80

32. A. I only 72. C. 4

33. D. In practical terms, the susceptibility of 73. E. 2.25

the engine materials to corrosion is not a 74. D. 5.39

key limitation on the operating efficiency. 75. B. Semi-anthracite

34. C. II and III 76. C. CO

35. B. Reversible 77. A. 2.2

36. A. I = - II + III + IV – V 78. D. 11.55

37. C. I and IV 79. C. 0.000931

38. A. V2(I) = V2(II) 80. A. Double-pipe HE

39. A. I and II 81. C. Both a and c

215

40. A. 0.189m/s 82. A. Total reflux

41. C. Velocity of the flow 83. D. all of the above

42. C. Gustaf de Laval 84. B. increase

43. A. below 100,000kPa and below 600⁰C 85. D. 98degC

44. A. higher compression ratio 86. A. 0.532

45. B. 73⁰F 87. A. Extraction is a separation process

which involves no evaporation; carried

out mostly at ambient temperature and

can be used as a separation process for

high temperature sensitive products.

88. B. less than 2 kg but more than 1 kg of C

is transferred to solvent B

89. C. Sub-saturated

90. A. 0.36

5.

3inches = 0.7=0762m

170lb/ft3 = 2723.kg/m3

𝜋

𝑉𝑜𝑙𝑢𝑚𝑒 = (0.0762)3 = 2.3167 𝑥 10−4 𝑚3

6

100𝑐𝑚

𝐴 0.0182𝑚2 ( 1𝑚 )²

= = 0.2885 𝑥 10 = 𝟐. 𝟖𝟗

𝑉𝜌 𝑘𝑔 1000𝑔)

2.3167 𝑥 10−4 𝑚3 𝑥2723 3 ( 1𝑘𝑔

𝑚

6.

𝑃 𝐷𝑝𝑎

= 𝑘 𝑙𝑜𝑔

𝑇 𝐷𝑝𝑏

1

11𝑘𝐽/𝑘𝑔 = 𝑘 𝑙𝑜𝑔

0.3

𝑘 = 21.03738

𝑃 1

= 21.03738 𝑙𝑜𝑔

𝑇 0.01

216

𝑃

= 𝟐𝟏. 𝟎𝟑𝟕 𝒌𝑱/𝒌𝒈

𝑇

7. and 9.

4𝜋𝑟³

𝑅𝑎𝑑𝑖𝑢𝑠 𝑜𝑓 𝑠𝑝ℎ𝑒𝑟𝑒 = = 0.7854 𝑚³

3

𝑅 = 0.5724 𝑚

4.11 𝑚²

𝑓= = 𝟎. 𝟖𝟕𝟑

4.71 𝑚²

10.

1 2/3 1

𝜋 3 6(𝑉𝑝 ) 𝜋 3 6(6)2/3

𝑓= = = 𝟎. 𝟖𝟎𝟔

𝐴𝑝 6𝑥6

14.

𝑃 𝐷𝑝𝑎

= 𝑘 𝑙𝑜𝑔

𝑇 𝐷𝑝𝑏

50

13𝑘𝐽/𝑘𝑔 = 𝑘 𝑙𝑜𝑔

100

𝑘 = 18.599

𝑃 75

= 18.599 𝑙𝑜𝑔

𝑇 25

𝑃 𝒌𝒈

= 𝟖. 𝟖𝟖𝒌𝑾 ( )

𝑇 𝒔

15-16.

𝑄 = 𝑆 (𝜆) = 𝑚𝐶𝑝Δ𝑇

217

(𝜆) @383.15𝐾 = 2690.27 − 461.31 = 2228.96 𝑘𝐽/𝑘𝑔

2228.96𝑘𝐽 3400𝑘𝑔 1ℎ𝑟 1000𝐽 𝑊

( )( )( ) = 2840 2 0 (110 − 43)0 𝐶 (𝐴)

𝑘𝑔 ℎ𝑟 3600𝑠 1𝑘𝐽 𝑚 ( 𝐶)

𝐴 = 𝟏𝟏. 𝟎𝟔𝒎²

19.

ln 𝐶𝑎 − ln 𝐶𝑎𝑜 = 𝑘𝑡

ln 2 − ln 1 = 𝑘(4)

𝑘 = 0.1733

ln 𝐶𝑎 − ln 1 = 0.1733(12)

𝐶𝑎 = 𝟖. 𝟎𝟎

20.

1 1

− = −𝑘𝑡

𝐶𝑎𝑜 𝐶𝑎

1 1

− = −𝑘1(40)

0.1 0.1(0.8)

𝑘1 = 0.0625

1 1

− = −𝑘2(35)

0.1 0.1(0.6)

𝑘2 = 0.1905

𝑅𝑇1𝑇2 𝑘1

𝐸𝑎 = 𝑙𝑛

𝑇1 − 𝑇2 𝑘2

(8.314)(298.15)(323.15) 0.0625

𝐸𝑎 = 𝑙𝑛

298.15 − 323.15 0.1905

35709.4747𝐽/𝑚𝑜𝑙

𝐸𝑎 = = 𝟖𝟑𝟑𝟒. 𝟕𝟕 𝒄𝒂𝒍/𝒎𝒐𝒍

4.184𝐽/𝑐𝑎𝑙

22.

218

𝐶𝑏𝑒 𝑚 + 𝑋𝑎 0 + 2/3

𝑘= = = =𝟐

𝐶𝑏𝑎 1 − 𝑋𝑎𝑒 1 − 2/3

23.

𝐼 + 𝐴 → 2𝐵 + 𝐶 + 𝐼

𝑿𝒂 = 𝟎 1 1 0 0 =2

𝑿𝒂 = 𝟏 1 0 2 1 =4

4−2

𝜀= =1

2

𝑉 = 𝑉𝑜( 1 + 𝜀𝑥𝑎)

𝑉

= ( 1 + 𝜀𝑥𝑎)

𝑉𝑜

1.6 = ( 1 + 1𝑥𝑎)

𝑥𝑎 = 0.60 = 𝟔𝟎%

25.

CSTR

Xa = 0.3

1

= 0.1

𝜏

𝜏 = 10

𝐶𝑎𝑜 − 𝐶𝑎

10 =

−𝑅𝑎

0.3 𝐶𝑎𝑜

−𝑅𝑎 =

10

−𝑅𝑎 = 0.03𝐶𝑎𝑜

PFR

Xa = ?

1

= 0.2

𝜏

𝜏=5

219

𝑋𝑎

𝑑𝑋𝑎

5 = 𝐶𝑎𝑜 ∫

0 −𝑅𝑎

𝑋𝑎

𝑑𝑋𝑎

5 = 𝐶𝑎𝑜 ∫

0 −0.03𝐶𝑎𝑜

𝑋𝑎

𝑑𝑋𝑎

5= ∫

0 −0.03

1

5= (𝑋𝑎 − 0)

0.03

𝑿𝒂 = 𝟎. 𝟏𝟓

26.

CSTR

A -> R

-Ra = kCa²

Xa = 0.50

𝑋𝑎

𝑘𝜏 =

𝐶𝑎𝑜 (1 − 𝑋𝑎)²

0.5𝐶𝑎𝑜

𝜏=

𝑘𝐶𝑎𝑜² (1 − 0.50)²

𝟐

𝜏=

𝒌𝑪𝒂𝒐

27.

𝑉1

𝜏1 =

𝑉0

𝑉2

=6

𝑉1

𝜏1

=6

𝜏2

220

𝑋𝑎

𝜏1 𝑘𝐶𝑎𝑜 (1 − 𝑋𝑎)²

=6=

𝜏2 0.5

𝑘𝐶𝑎𝑜(1 − .5)²

𝑋𝑎 = 𝟎. 𝟕𝟓

28.

𝑋𝑎

𝑘𝜏𝐶𝑎𝑜 =

1 − 𝑋𝑎

𝑋𝑎

2=

1 − 𝑋𝑎

𝑿𝒂 = 𝟎. 𝟔𝟕

40.

2

(9.81)(1000)²(7870 − 900)

𝑈𝑡 =

18(50𝑥10−3 )

0.303𝑚

𝑈𝑡 =

𝑠

46.

200degC = 473.15 K

100 degC = 373.15 K

1 atm = 101325 Pa

20 degC = 293.15 K

100ft3/min = 0.047m3/s

0.81 cal/g degC = 3.389 J/g-K

Density of oil = 880kg/m3

Cp of air = 1033 J/g-K (Thermodynamic Property of Air)

𝑀𝑤𝑃 28.84(101325)

𝜌= = = 1.198𝑘𝑔/𝑚3

𝑅𝑇 8.314(293.15)(1000)

221

880𝑘𝑔

𝑚 = 3.785412𝑚3 ( ) = 3331.16 𝑘𝑔

𝑚3

3.389𝐽 1000𝑔

𝑄 = 𝑚𝐶𝑝Δ𝑇 = 3331.16 𝑘𝑔 ( )( )(473.15 − 373.15)𝐾 =

𝑔𝐾 𝑘𝑔

𝑚3 1.198𝑘𝑔

(0.047 )( )(𝑡)(1033)(373.15 − 293.15)K

𝑠 𝑚3

48.

1200mm = 3.936ft

75 mm = 0.246ft

76.65

𝑁= = 39.90

√3.936 − 0.246

51.

𝐼²𝑅 200²(0.1)

𝑞= = = 203718327.2

𝜋(𝑟)²𝐿 𝜋( 5 )²(1)

1000𝑥2

5

𝑞(𝑟)² 203718327.2( )²

𝑇𝑜 = + 𝑇𝑤 = 1000𝑥2 + 114 = 𝟏𝟐𝟖. 𝟏𝟒𝟕 𝐝𝐞𝐠 𝑪

4𝑘 4(22.5)

53.

DOF

F = C-P +2

F = 3 – 2 +2

F=3

71-72.

222

CH3OH + 0.5 O2 -> HCHO + H2O ->1

1 0.5 1 1

1 1 1

Total methanol entering the reactor = Methanol reacted by oxidation + methanol reacted

by decomposition + recycle methanol = 1 + 3 + 1 = 5 kmol/hr.

Conversion per pass = 100 x (Total methanol reacted /Total methanol entering the reactor)

= 100 x 4/5 = 80%

Fresh methanol rate = Total methanol entering the reactor - recycle methanol = 5 - 1 = 4

kmol/hr.

73.

At C At H

80% CH4 0.80 3.2

15% C2H6 0.30 0.9

5% C3H8 0.15 0.40

1.25 4.5

77.

𝑚𝐶𝑝∆𝑇 (1) = 𝑚𝐶𝑝∆𝑇 (2)

(0.5)(30 − 18)(4) = 𝑚(71 − 62)(1.2)

223

𝑚 = 𝟐. 𝟐𝒌𝒈/𝒔

78.

(62 − 18) − (71 − 30)

∆𝑇𝑙𝑚 =

62 − 18

𝑙𝑛 71 − 30

𝑄 = 𝑈𝐴∆𝑇𝑙𝑚

𝑨 = 𝟏𝟏. 𝟐𝟗𝟗 𝒎²

78.

Fouling resistance

28degC instead of 30degC

(62 − 18) − (71 − 28)

∆𝑇𝑙𝑚 =

62 − 18

𝑙𝑛 71 − 28

𝑄 = 𝑈𝐴∆𝑇𝑙𝑚

𝑼 = 𝟒𝟕. 𝟕𝟕 𝑾/𝒎²𝑪

1 1

𝑟𝑓 = −

𝑈𝑎𝑐𝑡𝑢𝑎𝑙 𝑈𝑐𝑙𝑒𝑎𝑛

1 1

𝑟𝑓 = −

47.77 50

𝒓𝒇 = 9.336 x 𝟏𝟎−𝟒

90.

1: 45oC , x = 0 => h1 = 188.42 , v1 = 0.00101 , Psat = 9.6 kPa

224

3: 3.5 MPa , 450oC => h3 = 3337.2 , s3 = 7.0051

C.V. Pump Rev adiabatic

-wP = h2 - h1 ; s2 = s1

since incompressible it is easier to find work as

-wp = ∫ v dP = v1 (P2 - P1) = 0.00101 (3500 - 9.6) = 3.525

C.V. Boiler : qh = h3 - h2 = 3337.2 - 191.95 = 3145.3

C.V. Turbine : wt = h3 - h4 ; s4 = s3

=> h4 = 188.42 + 0.8459 (2394.77) = 2214.2

wt = 3337.2 - 2214.2 = 1123 kJ/kg

ηcycle = wnet / qH = (wt + wp) / qH = (1123 - 3.5) / 3145.3 = 0.356

225

SEMI-FINAL EXAMINATION

GENERAL ENGINEERING

1. To be able to pass the ChE Licensure Examination no grades should be lower than 50

for all three examinations and the average should be 70 or higher. A student, after taking

the 1st day (30% weight) and 2nd day (40%) estimated her grades to be 62 and 55

respectively. What grade should she aim on the 3 rd day (30%) to be a chemical engineer?

A. 98 B. 89 C. 95 D. 83

𝑥2

2. ∫ 3 𝑑𝑥 =

𝑒𝑥

1 3 1 3

A. − 3 𝑙𝑛𝑒 𝑥 + 𝐶 D. 3 𝑙𝑛𝑒 𝑥 + 𝐶

3 𝑥3

𝑒𝑥

B. − +𝐶 E. − 3 +𝐶

3 3𝑥

1

C. − 3 +𝐶

3𝑒 𝑥

A. 0 C. 1 E. sec2e

B. 1/e D. 2/e

4. ∫ sin(2𝑥 + 3) 𝑑𝑥 =

A. ½ cos(2x+3) + C C. –cos(2x+3) + C E. -1/5 cos(2x+3) + C

B. cos(2x+3) + C D. -½ cos(2x+3) + C

A. dodecahedron C. octahedron

B. hexahedron D. tetrahedron

A. incenter B. centroid C. circumcenter D. orthocenter

7. A man left his home at past 3 o’clock PM as indicated in his wall clock, between 2-3

hours after, he returns home and noticed that hands of the clock interchanged. At what

time did the man leave his home?

A. 3:31.47 B. 3:21.45 C. 3:46.10 D. 3:36.50

8. Locate the centroid of the plane area bounded by y=x 2 and y=x.

A. 0.4 from the x-axis and 0.5 from the y-axis

B. 0.5 from the x-axis and 0.4 from the y-axis

C. 0.4 from the x-axis and 0.4 from the y-axis

D. 0.5 from the x-axis and 0.5 from the y-axis

9. From the time 6:15 PM to the time 7:45 PM of the same day, the minute hand of a

standard clock describe an arc of?

226

A. 60O B. 90O C. 180O D. 540O

A. -128 B. 128 C. 125 D. 250

11. One of the satellites of Jupiter has an apogee of 40000 km and a perigee of 6600 km

assuming the radius of Jupiter as 6400 km, what will be the eccentricity of the elliptical

path described by the satellite with the center of Jupiter at one of the foci?

A. 0.56 B. 0.20 C. 0.78 D. 0.33

12. If equal spheres are piled in the form of a complete pyramid with an equilateral

triangle as base, find the total number of spheres in the pile if each side of the base

contains 4 spheres.

A. 15 B. 18 C. 20 D. 21

A. 133/666 B. 133/177 C. 133/888 D. 133/999

14. In how many different orders can 7 books be arranged on a shelf if this 3-volume

work is not merely not to be separated but must be kept in the proper order?

A. 120 B. 720 C. 5040 D. 4050

15. Find the equation of the conic with eccentricity 2 and foci at (6, 0) and (-6, 0).

A. 9x2-27y2=243 C. 27x2-9y2=243

B. 8x2-25y2=200 D. 25x2-8y2=20

16. Find a point in the parabola y2=4x at which the rates of change of line ordinate and

abscissa are equal.

A. (4, 4) B. (3, 2) C. (1, 2) D. (0, 0)

C/x2+2x+5.

A. -2 B. 0.5 C. -0.5 D. 2

18. An enterprising engineer purchased a fleet of trucks for Php 780,000.00 payments

were made by an immediate cash payment of Php 50,000.00 and twelve month – end

payments of Php 64,860.00 each. Another deal referred to finance the purchase at an

interest rate of ¾% per month on the unpaid balance. Which offer should the engineer

have accepted?

A. The first offer C. Either of the two offers

B. The second offer D. Neither of the two offers

A. 30O B. 45O C. 60O D. 90O

227

20. At what time after 12:00 noon will the hour hand and the minute hand of the clock

first form an angle of 120O?

A. 12:18.818 B. 12:21.818 C. 12:22.818 D. 12:24.818

21. In the figure, the radius of the circle is 1, what is the perimeter of the shaded part of

the figure?

A. π B. 4π/3 C. 2π/3 D. π/3

the width “b” of the 70 mm long key if they allowable shearing stress is 60 MPa.

A. 14.56 mm B. 15.84 mm C. 16.25 mm D. 17.46 mm

23. A 7/8 inch diameter bolt having a diameter at the root of the threads of 0.731 inch is

used to fasten two timbers together as shown. The nut is tightened to cause a tensile

strength of 18,000 psi in the bolt. Determine the outside diameter of the washers if their

inside diameter is 9/8 inches and the bearing stress is limited to 800 psi.

A. 3.18 in B. 3.65 in C. 4.1 in D. 4.3 in

A. at A B. at B C. at C D. left of C

25. In a pile of logs, each layer contains one more log than the other layer above and the

top contains just one log. If there are 105 logs in the pile, how many layers are there?

A. 11 B. 12 C. 13 D. 14

26. What work is required to lift a 215 kg mass a distance of 5.65 m using a machine that

is 72.5% efficient?

A. 1.46x10-4 J B. 1.64x104 J C. 1.19x104 J D. 1.46x106 J

27. Two forces PQ and PR of magnitudes 5.0 kg and 8.0 kg, respectively, acts at a point

P. The direction of PQ is N20OE, and the direction of PR is N65OE. Approximate the

magnitude and direction of the resultant PS.

A. 11.2 kg, N42OE

B. 12.1 kg, N48OE

C. 14.1 kg, N73OE

D. 15.1 kg, N27OE

28. An electric motor drives a load, taking 18.8 amperes from 230-V source. How much

is the power input of the motor?

A. 2.343 kW B. 3.423 kW C. 4. 323 kW D. 3.343 kW

228

29. A rubber ball is made to fall from a height of 50 feet and is observed to rebound 2/3

of the distance it falls. How far will the ball travel before coming to rest if the ball

continues to fall in this manner?

A. 200 feet B. 225 feet C. 250 feet D. 275 feet

30. A resistor is connected across a voltage E1, dissipating a power P. If R was decreased

to half, how much must E change to dissipate the same power?

A. E must decrease to 0.707E1

B. E must decrease to 0.393E1

C. E must increase to 0.707E1

D. E must increase to 0.393E1

A. 496 C. both A and B

B. 8128 D. none of the choices

A. (-3, -4) B. (3, -4) C. (-3, 4) D. (3, 4)

A. rational C. irrational

B. surd D. transcendental

34. Arjie, aside from being a terrorist, is a boatman who used to row the Tingloy marsh,

4.8 miles, with the stream and back in 14 hours, but finds that he can row 14 miles with

the stream in the same time as 3 miles against the stream. Find the rate of the stream in

mph.

A. 1.5 B. 1 C. 0.8 D. 0.6

35. Let A be a 50x50 matrix and B a 50x20 matrix. Which of the following expression

will have no definite answer?

A. BBT (product of B and B transpose)

B. BTB (product of B transpose and B)

C. ABT (product of A and B transpose)

D. BTA (product of B transpose and A)

36. Find the polar equation of the circle of radius 3 units and center at (3, 0).

A. r=3cosθ B. r=3sinθ C. r=6cosθ D. r=9sinθ

37. Angles are measured from the positive horizontal axis, and the positive direction is

counterclockwise. What are the values of sin B and cos B in the 4 th Quadrant?

A. Sin B>0 and Cos B<0 C. Sin B<0 and Cos B>0

B. none of these D. Sin B<0 and Cos B<0

38. The velocity of the transverse waves produced by an earthquake is 8.9 km/s, and that

of the longitudinal waves is 5.1 km/s. A seismograph records the arrival of the transverse

229

waves 73 s before the arrival of the longitudinal waves. How far away was the

earthquake?

A. 780,000 m B. 110,780 m C. 870,000 m D. 710,800 m

39. The general equation of a conic section is given by the following equation;

Ax2+Bxy+Cy2+Dx+Ey+F=0. A curve may be identified by which of the following

conditions?

A. B2-4AC<0 B. B2-4AC=0 C. B2-4AC>0 D. B2-4AC<0

40. Ahmed is standing on a 48.5 meter building high, has an eyesight height of 1.5 m

from the top of the building, took a depression reading from the top of another nearby

building and nearest wall, which are 50O and 80O respectively. Find the height of the

nearby building in meters. Ahmed is standing at the edge of the building and both

buildings lie on the same horizontal plane.

A. 39.49 B. 49.39 C. 59.69 D. 69.59

41. If a, b, and c are different numbers such that a3+9a-18, b3+9b-18, c3+9c-18 are all

equal to zero, find the value of 1/a +1/b +a/c.

A. ½ B. ¼ C. 1/3 D. 1/8

42. Three years ago, Luna got engaged to a foreigner who happens to be a Nobel Prize

winner. After a year, Luna and his husband got married. At present, the sum of Luna and

his husband’s ages is twice the sum of their children’s ages. Five years ago, when his

husband got the Nobel award, the sum of their ages was four times the sum of their

children’s ages. Fifteen years hence, the sum of their ages will be equal to the sum of

their children’s ages. How many children do Luna and his husband have? (On the

assumption that Luna has only one husband)

A. 5 B. 7 C. 12 D. 2

43. Given the area in the first quadrant by x2=8y, the line x=4 and the x-axis. What is the

volume generated by revolving this area about the y-axis?

A. 53.26 B. 52.26 C. 52.26 D. 50.26

44. Evaluate the integral of ln x dx, the limits are 1 and “the first letter of my name”

A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. Undefined

45. The cost per hour of running a motorboat is proportional to the cube of the speed. At

what speed will the boat run against a current of 8 km/hr in order to go a given distance

most economically?

A. 10 kph B. 15 kph C. 12 kph D. 20 kph

46. Water is pouring into a swimming pool. After t hours, there are t+t 1/2 gallons in the

pool. At what rate is the water pouring into the pool when t=9 hours?

A. 7/6 gph B. 1 gph C. ½ gph D. 1/6 gph

230

47. If the average of the seven numbers is 88, then the first number is increased by 12,

second number is increased by 20, the third by 10, the fourth by 15, the fifth by 13, the

sixth by 12 and the seventh by 16. What will be the new average of the seven numbers?

A. 102 B. 89 C. 201 D. 112

48. The total surface of two cubes is 150 sq. m. The total length of their edges is 84 cm.

Find the edge of the larger cube.

A. 4 B. 5.5 C. 6.4 D. 7.2

A. 112 B. 305 C. 204 D. 256

has a length of 2 cm. A smaller square is formed by

joining the midpoints of each side. Then smaller square is

formed using same method but from the previous square

formed and the process repeated indefinitely. What is the

total area of all the squares formed using this process?

A. 4 cm2 C. 12 cm2

B. 8 cm2 D. 16 cm2

51. A tank has 3 inlet pipes, A, B, and C. When all 3 pipes are fully open, the tank is

filled in 3 hours. If only A and B are open, it takes 4 hours to fill the tank. If only A and

C are open, it takes 8 hours to fill the tank. How long would it take pipe A, running alone,

to fill the tank?

A. 12 B. 24 C. 16 D. 32

52. The cost C of a product is a function of the quantity x of the product: C(x)=x 2-

4000x+50. Find the quantity for which the cost is minimum.

A. 1000 B. 1500 C. 2000 D. 3000

53. The integral of a function between certain limits divided by the difference in

abscissas between those limits gives the _____ of the function.

A. constant B. derivative C. average D. domain

54. Find the integrating factor for the equation (x2+y2-x)dx – ydy = 0

A. 1/(x+y) C. 1/(x2+y2) E. 1/y2

2

B. y/(x+y) D. 1/x

55. The equation of a circle on the y-axis and passes through the origin and the point (4,

2) is

A. x2+y2-10y=0 C. x2+y2-10x=0

2 2

B. x +y -10x+10y=0 D. x2+y2+10y=0

231

56. Twelve persons are to sit at a round table. Two particular people insist on sitting

opposite each other. Find the number of ways the twelve can be seated.

A. 2638800 B. 6238800 C. 3826800 D. 3628800

57. A square and a regular hexagon have the same perimeter. If the area of the square is

2.25, what is the area of the hexagon?

A. 2.250 B. 2.598 C. 2.838 D. 3.464

58. If money is worth 8% compounded quarterly, find the present value of a sequence of

payments of $200 each at the end of each 3 months forever.

A. $8620 B. $10,000 C. $10,200 D. 20,000

59. Determine the present value of a sequence of payments of $200 each at the beginning

of each 3 months forever.

A. $8620 B. $10,000 C. $10,200 D. 20,000

60. Determine the present value of a sequence of payments of $200 each at the end of

each 3 months for 25 years.

A. $8620 B. $10,000 C. $10,200 D. 20,000

61. The area of the region bounded by the curve 𝑦 = 𝑒 2𝑥 , the x-axis, the y-axis, and the

line x=2 is equal to

𝑒4 𝑒4 1

A. −𝑒 C. 2 − 2

2

B.

𝑒4

−1 D. 2𝑒 4 − 𝑒

2 E. 2𝑒 4 − 2

A. –tan x C. cot x E. csc x

B. -cot x D. tan x

1 8 1

8( +ℎ) −8( )8

2 2

63. What is lim ?

ℎ→0 ℎ

A. 0 D. The limit does not exist

B. ½ E. It cannot be determined.

C. 1

64. When the area in square units of an expanding circle is increasing twice as fast as its

radius in linear units, the radius is

A. ¼ π B. ¼ C. 1/π D. 1 E. π

65. At t=0, a particle starts at rest and moves along a line in such a way that at time t its

acceleration is 24t2 feet per second. Through how many feet does the particle move

during the first 2 seconds?

A. 32 B. 48 C. 64 D. 96 E. 192

232

66. A solid is formed by rotating the triangle with vertices (0, 0), (2, 0), and (1, 1) about

the x-axis. What is the resulting volume?

A. 2pi/3 B. 3pi C. 3/2 pi D. 1/3 pi E. ½ pi

67. The portion of the curve y=x2 between x=1 and x=4 is rotated about the x-axis. What

volume does the resulting surface enclose?

A. 1320pi/5 B. 1023pi/5 C. 1023pi/4 D. 1230pi/5 E. 1230pi/4

68. Two couples and a single person are seated at random in a row of five chairs. What is

the probability that at least one person is not beside his/her partner?

A. 0.5 B. 0.4 C. 0.33 D. 0.45

4𝑥+3

69. The range of the function 𝑦 = is

2𝑥−3

A. All numbers except 1 C. All numbers except 3

B. All numbers except 2 D. All numbers except 4

70. A used bulldozer with a remaining life of 5 years and $10,000 salvage value can be

purchased for $40,000. The annual maintenance cost is expected to $20,000 per year. In

addition, operating costs are expected to be $25 per hour. Alternatively, a bulldozer can

be rented for $150 per hour. At an interest rate of 10% per year, the minimum number of

hours per year the bulldozer must be utilized to justify its purchase is closest to:

A. 231 hours B. 312 hours C. 322 hours D. 301 hours

71. A new boiler was installed at a cost of Php 1.5 M and projected to have a zero salvage

value at the end of its 10 year life. What is the capitalized cost if interest is 10% per year?

A. Php 2.44 M B. Php 6.02 M C. Php 3.42 M D. Php 1.06 M

72. Cash flow which changes by the same amount each interest period is called a

A. uniform cash flow C. uniform gradient

B. geometric series D. series cash flow

A. cheating B. infringement C. plagiarism D. piracy

A. RA 6969 B. RA 8749 C. RA 9003 D. PD 984

A. Chemical Engineering Law of 2005 C. RA 318

B. Revised Chemical Engineering Law D. Chemical Engineering Law of 2004

76. When equal and opposite forces are exerted on an object along different lines of

action, the object is said to be under

A. tension B. compression C. shear D. elasticity

233

77. Radio waves are electromagnetic waves with wavelengths that range from

A. 1mm-100km C. 1000km-10000km

B. 100km-1000km D. 10000km-10000km

78. What particles can occupy the same space if they have the same energy?

A. ion B. neutron C. boson D. proton

79. A lump of ice falls from an aeroplane as it comes in to land. If the ice hits the ground

with a vertical speed of 85m/s, what was the height of the plane when the ice fell off?

A. 361.25m B. 136.12m C. 231.12m D. 251.63m

80. The degree to which the measured value agrees with correct value for that

measurement

A. precision

B. accuracy

C. percent error

D. error

234

ANSWER KEY

SEMIFINAL EXAMINATION

1. A. 98 41. A. ½

1 42. A. 5

2. C. − 𝑥3 + 𝐶

3𝑒 43. D. 50.26

3. D. 2/e

44. B. 1

4. D. -½ cos(2x+3) + C

45. C. 12 kph

5. A. dodecahedron

46. A. 7/6 gph

6. D. orthocenther

47. A. 102

7. A. 3:31.47

48. A. 4

8. A. 0.4 from the x-axis and 0.5

49. C. 204

from the y-axis

50. B. 8 cm2

9. D. 540O

51. B. 24

10. A. -128

52. C. 2000

11. A. 0.56

53. C. average

12. C. 20

54. C. 1/(x2+y2)

13. D. 133/999

55. A. x2+y2-10y=0

14. A. 120

56. D. 3628800

15. C. 27x2-9y2=243

57. B. 2.598

16. C. (1, 2)

58. B. $ 10,000

17. D. 2

59. C. $ 10,200

18. B. The second offer

60. A. $8620

19. C. 60O 𝑒4 1

20. B. 12:21.818 61. C. 2 − 2

21. B. 4π/3 62. C. cot x

22. D. 17.46 mm 63. B. ½

23. D. 4.3 in 64. C. 1/π

24. B. at B 65. A. 32

25. D. 14 66. A. 2pi/3

26. B. 1.64x104 J 67. B. 1023 pi/5

27. B. 12.1 kg, N48OE 68. B. 0.4

28. C. 4.323 kW 69. B. All numbers except 2

29. C. 250 feet 70. A. 231 hours

30. A. E must decrease to 0.707E1 71. A. Php 2.44 M

31. C. both A and B 72. C. uniform gradient

32. B. (3, -4) 73. C. plagiarism

33. C. irrational 74. C. RA 9003

34. C. 0.8 75. D. Chemical Engineering Law of

35. C. ABT (product of A and B 2004

transpose) 76. C. shear

36. C. r=6cosθ 77. A. 1mm-100km

37. C. Sin B<0 and Cos B>0 78. C. boson

38. C. 870,000 m 79. A. 361.25m

39. A. B2-4AC<0 80. B. accuracy

40. A. 39.49

235

SEMIFINAL EXAMINATION SOLUTIONS

𝑥2 𝟏

2.) ∫ 3 𝑑𝑥 = − 𝟑 +𝑪

𝑒𝑥 𝟑𝒆𝒙

1 1

3.) tan 𝑢 = tan (𝑣 − 𝑣) = tan(ln 𝑥 − ln 𝑥)

𝑑𝑦 1 1 1 1

= 𝑠𝑒𝑐 2 (ln 𝑥 − )[ + ( )]

𝑑𝑥 ln 𝑥 𝑥 (ln 𝑥)2 𝑥

at x = e:

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 𝟐

𝑠𝑒𝑐 2 (ln 𝑒 − )[ + ( )] = ( + ) =

ln 𝑒 𝑒 (ln 𝑒) 2 𝑒 𝑐𝑜𝑠 2 (1 − 1) 𝑒 𝑒 𝒆

𝟏

4.) ∫ sin(2𝑥 + 3) 𝑑𝑥 = − 𝒄𝒐𝒔(𝟐𝒙 + 𝟑) + 𝑪

𝟐

7.)

𝑦 𝑥

𝑥 = 30 + 12 (1) 𝑦 = 15 + 12 (2)

Solving simultaneously, x=31.47 minutes. Therefore, t= 3:31.47

Equate (eqtn. 1) and (eqtn. 2):

𝑥2 = 𝑥

𝑥 = 1; 𝑦 = 1

Thus, the parabola and line intersect at points (0, 0) and (1, 1)

1 1 1

1

𝐴 = ∫ 𝑦𝑑𝑥 = ∫ (𝑦𝐿 − 𝑦𝑃 )𝑑𝑥 = ∫ (𝑥 − 𝑥 2 )𝑑𝑥 =

0 0 0 6

1 1 1

1

𝐴x̅ = ∫ 𝑦𝑑𝑥 ∗ 𝑥 = ∫ (𝑦𝐿 − 𝑦𝑃 )𝑑𝑥 ∗ 𝑥 = ∫ (𝑥 − 𝑥 2 )𝑑𝑥 ∗ 𝑥 =

0 0 0 12

1 1

( )x̅ =

6 12

𝐱̅ = 𝟎. 𝟓

1 1 1

1

𝐴y̅ = ∫ 𝑥𝑑𝑦 ∗ 𝑦 = ∫ (𝑥𝑃 − 𝑥𝐿 )𝑑𝑦 ∗ 𝑦 = ∫ (√𝑦 − 𝑦)𝑑𝑦 ∗ 𝑦 =

0 0 0 15

236

1 1

( )y̅ =

6 15

𝐲̅ = 𝟎. 𝟒

6:15 = 6(60) + 15 = 375 minutes

7:45 = 7(60) +45 = 465 minutes

180°

x = 465-375 = 90 𝑚𝑖𝑛𝑢𝑡𝑒𝑠 (30 𝑚𝑖𝑛𝑢𝑡𝑒𝑠) = 𝟓𝟒𝟎°

(Assuming that there is a typographical error, and A is -28 not -128. The answer is A)

a = 29700

𝑐 16700

𝑒= = = 𝟎. 𝟓𝟔

𝑎 29700

12.)

𝑐

15.) 𝑒 = 𝑎 = 2 ; 𝑐=6

6

2=𝑎 𝑎=3

𝑏 = √62 − 32 = √27

𝑥2 𝑦2

− =1

𝑎2 𝑏 2

𝑥2 𝑦2

− =1

32 √272

𝑥2 𝑦2

− =1

9 27

237

𝟐𝟕𝒙𝟐 − 𝟗𝒚𝟐 = 𝟐𝟒𝟑

17.) (x3+2x2+5x) = 𝑥 + x2+2x+5 + x2+2x+5 = 𝑥(𝑥 2 +2𝑥+5)

2 2

(𝑥2 + 2𝑥2 + 10) 𝐴𝑥 + 2𝐴𝑥 + 5𝐴 + 2𝐵𝑥 + 2𝐵𝑥 + 𝐶𝑥

=

(x3 + 2x2 + 5x) 𝑥 3 + 2𝑥 2 + 5𝑥

By equating constants,

10 = 5A

A=2

180°

20.) 120 𝑚𝑖𝑛𝑢𝑡𝑒𝑠 (30 𝑚𝑖𝑛𝑢𝑡𝑒𝑠) = 20°

𝑥

𝑥 = 20 + 12 = 21.8182 minutes

t = 12:21.818

22.)

T = 0.03F

2.2 = 0.03F

2.2 = 0.03F

F = 73.33kN

V=τAV=τA

Where:

V=F=73.33kN

A=70b

τ=60MPa

Thus, 73.33(1000)=60(70b)

b = 17.46 mm

238

23.)

1 7 2

𝑃 = 𝜎𝐴 = 18 [ 𝜋 ( ) ] = 10.82

4 8

Outside diameter of the washer:

𝑃 = 𝜎𝑏 𝐴𝑏

1 9

10.82(1000) = 800{ 𝜋[𝑑 2 − ( )2 ]}

4 8

𝒅 = 𝟒. 𝟑 𝒊𝒏𝒄𝒉𝒆𝒔

𝑛

25.) 𝑆𝑛 = 2 [2𝐴1 + (𝑛 − 1)𝑑 ]

𝑛

105 = [2(1) + (𝑛 − 1)(1)]

2

𝒏 = 𝟏𝟒

26.) 𝑃𝐸 = 𝜂𝑊

𝑚𝑔ℎ = 0.725𝑊

215(9.81)(5.65) = 0.725𝑊

𝑊 = 16436.8241 𝐽 ≈ 𝟏. 𝟔𝒙𝟏𝟎𝟒 𝑱

∑ 𝐹𝑦 = 5 sin(20°) + 8 sin(65°) = 8.9606

𝐹 = √8.07942 + 8.96062 = 12.0652 ≈ 𝟏𝟐. 𝟏 𝒌𝒈

8.9606

tan−1 ( ) = 47.9602 ≈ 𝟒𝟖°

8.0794

29.)

2 100

𝐴1 = 50 ( ) = ;𝑛 = ∞

3 3

100

𝐴1

𝑆𝑛 = = 3 = 100

1−𝑟 1−2

3

Let: D = total distance traveled by the ball

𝐷 = 50 + 2𝑆𝑛 = 50 + 2(100) = 𝟐𝟓𝟎 𝒇𝒆𝒆𝒕

239

32.) (25𝑥 2 − 150𝑥 ) + (16𝑦 2 + 128𝑦) = −81

25𝑥 2−150𝑥 −6

= 𝑥2 − 6 + ℎ ℎ= = −3

25 2

16𝑦2 −128𝑦 8

= 𝑦2 + 8 + 𝑘 𝑘=2=4

16

(𝑥 − 3)2 = 0 (𝑦 + 4)2 = 0

𝒙=𝟑 𝒚 = −𝟒

V2 = velocity of the stream

4.8 4.8

+ = 14

𝑉1 + 𝑉2 𝑉1 − 𝑉2

4.8(𝑉1 + 𝑉2 ) + 4.8(𝑉1 + 𝑉2 )

= 14

(𝑉1 + 𝑉2 )((𝑉1 − 𝑉2 )

Simplifying the equation, 9.6𝑉1 = 14𝑉12 − 14𝑉22 (eqtn. 1)

14 3

=

𝑉1 + 𝑉2 𝑉1 − 𝑉2

Simplifying the equation, 𝑉1 = 1.545𝑉2 (eqtn. 2)

Substituting (eqtn. 2) in (eqtn. 1):

9.6(1.545𝑉2 ) = 14(1.545𝑉2 )2 − 14𝑉22

𝑉2 = 0.76 ≈ 𝟎. 𝟖 𝒎𝒑𝒉

36.) (𝑥 − ℎ)2 + (𝑦 − 𝑘 )2 = 𝑟 2

Substitute coordinates of center and radius:

(𝑥 − 3)2 + (𝑦 − 0)2 = 32

𝑥 2 − 6𝑥 + 9 + 𝑦 2 = 9

𝑥 2 − 6𝑥 + 𝑦 2 = 0

Note: 𝑥 = 𝑟𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜃

𝑦 = 𝑟𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃

Substitute:

240

(𝑟𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜃)2 − 6(𝑟𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜃) + (𝑟𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃)2 = 0

𝑟 2 𝑐𝑜𝑠 2𝜃 − 6𝑟𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜃 + 𝑟 2 𝑠𝑖𝑛2 𝜃 = 0

𝑟 2 (𝑐𝑜𝑠 2𝜃 + 𝑠𝑖𝑛2 𝜃 ) = 6𝑟𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜃

𝑟 2 = 6𝑟𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜃

𝒓 = 𝟔𝒄𝒐𝒔𝜽

𝑑 𝑑

Transverse waves take 8.9 𝑠. Longitudinal waves take 5.1 𝑠. Difference in arrival

time is

1 1

𝑑(5.1 − 8.9) = 73

73 73(5.1)(8.9)

𝑑= 1 1 = = 871.96 𝑘𝑚 ≈ 𝟖𝟕𝟏, 𝟗𝟔𝟎 𝒎

( − ) 8.9−5.1

5.1 8.9

ℎ1 50

40.) tan(80) = 𝑑

= 𝑑

𝑑 = 8.8163

ℎ2

tan(50) = 8.82 ℎ2 = 10.5069

𝐻𝑒𝑖𝑔ℎ𝑡 𝑜𝑓 𝑡ℎ𝑒 2𝑛𝑑 𝑏𝑢𝑖𝑙𝑑𝑖𝑛𝑔 = 50 − 10.5069 = 𝟑𝟗. 𝟒𝟗 𝒎

41.) 𝑎3 + 9𝑎 − 18 (eqtn. 1)

𝑏3 + 9𝑏 − 18 (eqtn. 2)

3

𝑐 + 9𝑐 − 18 (eqtn. 3)

Solving simultaneously, a = 1.57, b = -0.785+3.2937i, c = -0.785-3.2937i

1 1 1 1 1 1

+ + = + + = 𝟎. 𝟓

𝑎 𝑏 𝑐 1.57 −0.785 + 3.2937i −0.785 − 3.2937i

42.)

Past Present Future

Parents 2x-10 2x 2x+30

Children x-5n x x+15n

2x-10 = 4x-20n x = 15n-30 (eqtn. 2)

2x = 20n-10

x = 10n-5 (eqtn. 1)

15n-30 = 10n-5

n=5

45.) Let: C = cost per hour; x = speed of the motorboat; Ct = total cost

𝑑𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑐𝑒 𝑑

𝑡= = (eqtn. 2)

𝑠𝑝𝑒𝑒𝑑 𝑥−8

𝐶𝑡 = 𝐶𝑡 (eqtn. 3)

Substitute (eqtn. 1) and (eqtn. 2) in (eqtn. 3):

241

𝑑

𝐶𝑡 = 𝑘𝑥 3 ( )

𝑥−8

𝑑𝐶𝑡 (𝑥 − 8)(3𝑘𝑑𝑥 2 ) − 𝑘𝑑𝑥 3 (1)

= =0

𝑑𝑥 (𝑥 − 8)2

(𝑥 − 8)(3𝑥 2 ) = 𝑥 3

3𝑥 3 − 24𝑥 2 = 𝑥 3

2𝑥 3 = 24𝑥 2

𝒙 = 𝟏𝟐 𝒌𝒑𝒉

𝑄 = 𝑡 + √𝑡

𝑑𝑄 1

=1+

𝑑𝑡 2√𝑡

When t = 9 hours,

𝑑𝑄 1 1 𝟕

=1+ = 1 + = 𝒈𝒑𝒉

𝑑𝑡 2√9 6 𝟔

12 + 20 + 10 + 15 + 13 + 12 + 16

∆𝐴 = = 14

7

𝐴2 = 𝐴1 + ∆𝐴 = 88 + 14 = 𝟏𝟎𝟐

6𝑥 2 + 6𝑦 2 = 150 and 8𝑥 + 8𝑦 = 84

Simplifying each equation,

𝑥 2 + 𝑦 2 = 25 and 2𝑥 + 2𝑦 = 21

Solving simultaneously, x = 6.5 and y = 4

49.) There are many more different-sized squares on the chessboard. The complete list of

answers is shown below:

1 8x8 square

4 7x7 squares

9 6x6 squares

16 5x5 squares

25 4x4 squares

36 3x3 squares

49 2x2 squares

64 1x1 squares

Therefore, there are actually 64 + 49 + 36 + 25 + 16 + 9 + 4 + 1 squares on a chessboard

(in total 204).

𝑠 2

50.) ∑𝑛= ∞ 𝑛

𝑛=0 = 2 (2𝑛 ) = 𝟖 𝒄𝒎

𝟐

1 1 1 1

51.) + + = (eqtn. 1)

𝐴 𝐵 𝐶 3

1 1 1

+ = (eqtn. 2)

𝐴 𝐵 4

242

1 1 1

+ 𝐶 = 8 (eqtn. 3)

𝐴

Solving simultaneously,

A = 24, B = 4.8, C = 12

52.) 𝐶 (𝑥 ) = 𝑥 2 − 4000𝑥 + 50

Integrating the equation,

𝐶 (𝑥 ) = 2𝑥 − 4000 = 0

𝒙 = 𝟐𝟎𝟎𝟎

55.) The line thru the origin and (4, 2) is a chord of the circle. So the perpendicular

bisector of it will go thru the center. The intersection of that line and the y-axis will be

the center of the circle.

Find the equation of the line thru (0,0) and (4,2).

𝑦2 − 𝑦1 2 − 0 2 1

𝑠𝑙𝑜𝑝𝑒(𝑚) = = = =

𝑥2 − 𝑥1 4 − 0 4 2

The midpoint of the line is (2, 1).

The slope of the line perpendicular will be the negative inverse, = -2

Find the equation of the line with a slope of -2 thru (2,1)

y - y1 = m(x-x1)

y - 1 = -2(x - 2)

y - 1 = -2x + 4

y = -2x + 5

The y-intercept is 5, so the point (0,5) is the center of the circle (it was stated to be on the

y-axis).

Since the circle also goes thru the origin, the radius is 5.

x2 + (y-5)2 = 25 is the circle or

x2 + y2 - 10y + 25 = 25

x2 + y2 - 10y = 0

57.) The sides of the square are √2.25 = 1.5, so the perimeter of the square is 4(1.5) = 6.

So the hexagon, which also has perimeter 6, will have sides of length 1. To find the area

of a regular hexagon, break it into 6 equilateral triangles:

Each of those can further be broken into 30º-60º-90º triangles, because all the angles in

an equilateral triangle are 60º.

1 1 √3 √3

𝐴𝑟𝑒𝑎 𝑜𝑓 𝑜𝑛𝑒 𝑡𝑟𝑖𝑎𝑛𝑔𝑙𝑒 = 𝑏ℎ = (1) ( ) =

2 2 2 4

243

Remember that there are 6 of those triangles in a hexagon.

√3

𝐴𝑟𝑒𝑎 𝑜𝑓 ℎ𝑒𝑥𝑎𝑔𝑜𝑛 = 6 ( ) = 𝟐. 𝟓𝟗𝟖𝟏

4

𝐴 200

58.) 𝑃 = = 0.08 = 𝟏𝟎, 𝟎𝟎𝟎

𝑖 ( )

4

𝐴 200

59.) 𝑃 = 𝐴 + 𝑖 = 200 + 0.08 = 𝟏𝟎, 𝟐𝟎𝟎

( )

4

0.08 −25(4)

1−(1+𝑖)−𝑛 1−(1+ )

4

60.) 𝑃 = 𝐴 [ ] = 200 [ 0.08 ] = 8619.6703 ≈ 𝟖𝟔𝟐𝟎

𝑖

4

8

1 1

8 (2 + ℎ) − 8(2)8

lim = 𝟎. 𝟓

ℎ→0 ℎ

64.) 𝐴 = 𝜋𝑟 2

𝑑𝐴

= 2𝜋𝑟

𝑑𝑟

𝑑𝑟 𝑑𝑟

2𝜋 =2

𝑑𝑡 𝑑𝑡

𝟏

𝒓=

𝝅

𝑉(𝑡) = ∫ 24𝑡 2 = 8𝑡 3

𝑆(𝑡) = ∫ 8𝑡 3 = 2𝑡 4

When t = 2,

𝑆(𝑡) = 2𝑡 4 = 2(2)4 = 𝟑𝟐

4!(2!)

68.) = 𝟎. 𝟒

5!

𝐴 𝐹𝐶−𝑆𝑉 1.5−0

71.) 𝐶𝐶 = 𝐹𝐶 + 𝑖 + (1+𝑖)𝑘−1 = 1.5 + (1+0.1)10−1 = 𝟐. 𝟒𝟒 𝑴

79.) PE = KE

1

𝑚1 𝑔ℎ = 2 𝑚2 𝑣 2 𝑚1 = 𝑚2

1

𝑔ℎ = 𝑣 2

2

2𝑔ℎ = 𝑣 2

2(9.81)(ℎ) = 852

𝒉 = 𝟑𝟔𝟖. 𝟐𝟒𝟔𝟕

244

FINAL EXAMINATION- PART I

PHYSICAL AND CHEMICAL PRINCIPLES

A. 4𝜋 + 2 rule C. Resonance Hybridization

B. Huckel’s rule D. Hund’s rule

2. Two or more chemical compounds that have the same chemical composition but

different structures (isomers) and can convert easily from one form to another.

A. Hemiacetals B. Acetals C. Tautomers D. none of the given

A. HClO B. HClO2 C. HClO3 D. HClO4

4. A survival mechanism of some bacteria when conditions are not conducive for

growth; a dormant form of the cell capable of resisting heat, radiation and

chemicals.

A. Capsule B. Capsid C. Fimbrae D. Spore

5. In fungal growth, long thin filaments are called ______ while the highly branched

structure is called the _______.

A. Pilli, Aggregate C. Fibres, Fimbrae

B. Pilli, Mycelium D. Hyphae, Mycelium

A. Dilution B. Feed Flow rate C. Either A or B D. None of these

substrate on microbial growth.

A. Michaelis Menten B. Briggs-Haldane C. Monod Equation D. Kinetics

8. The van der Waals constants for Ar are a = 1.345 L2atm/mol2 and b = 0.03219

L/mol. The same constants for O2 are a = 1.360 L2atm/mol2 and b = 0.03183 L/mol.

Which of the following is correct in a comparison between Ar and O2?

A. Attraction between Ar particles are stronger and the effective size of the Ar

particles is greater.

B. Attraction between O2 particles are stronger and the effective size of the O2

particles is greater.

245

C. Attractions between Ar particles are stronger but the effective size of the O2

particle is greater.

D. Attractions between O2 particles are stronger but the effective size of the Ar

particle is greater.

9. Which of the following is the minimum information necessary for calculating the

molality of a solution?

A. The mass of the solute and the volume of the solvent

B. The mass of the solute, volume of the solvent and the density of the solvent

C. The mass of the solute, volume of the solvent and the molecular mass of the

solute

D. The mass of the solute, the volume of the solvent, the molecular mass of the

solute, and the density of the solvent.

10. A vacuum manifold was calibrated using Boyle’s law. A 0.503 dm 3 flask containing

dry nitrogen at 746 torr was attached to the manifold, which was at 12 mtorr. After

the stopcock was opened and the system allowed to reach equilibrium, the pressure

of the combined system was 273 torr. Assuming isothermal conditions, what is the

volume of manifold?

A. 0.872 dm3 B. 0.827 dm3 C. 0.782 dm3 D. 0.728 dm3

11. An ideal gas at 175K contains 5x1020 molecules/m3. What is the pressure of gas?

A. 1.2 Pa B. 1.2 kPa C. 2.1 Pa D. 2.1 kPa

A 0.3284 g sample of brass (contg. Lead, zinc, copper and tin) was dissolved in

nitric acid. The sparingly soluble SnO2∙4H2O was removed by filtration, and the

combined filtrate and washing were then diluted to 500.00 mL. A 10.00 mL aliquot

was suitably buffered; titration of the lead, zinc and copper in this aliquot required

37.56 mL of 0.0025 M EDTA. The copper in a 25.00 mL aliquot was masked with

thiosulfate; the lead and zinc were then titrated with 27.67 ml of EDTA solution.

Cyanide ion was used to mask the copper and zinc in a 100.00 mL aliquot; 10.80

mL of EDTA sol’n was needed to titrate the lead ion.

12. Determine the % Cu in the brass sample.

A. 23.92% B. 29.31% C. 50.67% D. 50.76%

A. 23.92% B. 29.31% C. 50.67% D. 50.76%

14. Benzene is a rotten ideal gas. The van der Waals parameters are a = 18.24

atm∙L2/mol and b = 0.1154 L/mol. Find its compression factor, Z at 100 oC.

246

A. 0.948 B. 0.984 C. 0.995 D. 0.959

acid) gives formaldehyde, 2-butanone, and compound B. Catalytic hydrogenation

(H2/Pd) of A gives 2,7-dimethylnonane. What is a possible structure for compound

A?

A. 2,7-Dimethyl-2,8-nonadiene C. 2,7-Dimethyl-1,6-nonadiene

B. 2,7-Dimethyl-1,8-nonadiene D. 2,7-Dimethyl-1,7-nonadiene

16. What is the sequence of reagents that will accomplish the synthesis of the following

aromatic amine from benzene?

A. CH3Cl, AlCl3, HNO3, H2SO4, H2

B. CH3Cl, AlCl3, HNO3, H2SO4, Fe, HCl, NaOH

C. HNO3, H2SO4, Fe, HCl, NaOH, CH3Cl, AlCl3

D. HNO3, H2SO4, CH3Cl, AlCl3, Fe, HCl, NaOH

17. The calcium and magnesium in a urine sample were pond as oxalates. A mixed ppt.

of CaC2O4 and MgC2O4 resulted and was analyzed by a thermogravimetric

procedure. The ppt. mixture was heated to form CaCO3 (100.0869) and MgO

(43.30). This second mixture weighed 0.0433 g. After ignition to form CaO (56.08)

and MgO, the resulting solid weighed 0.0285 g. What was the mass (mg) of Ca

(40.08) in the original sample?

A. 11.5 B. 12.5 C. 13.5 D. 15.3

18. A 0.4054 g solid organic sample containing covalently bound bromide and no other

halogens was placed in a porcelain crucible with about one gram of fresh sodium

metal. In a process known as sodium fusion, the mixture was heated in a furnace to

450oC which charred and vaporized the organic portion of the molecule and the

converted the covalent bromide into sodium bromide. Excess sodium was

decomposed by adding small portions of water which also dissolved sodium

bromide. The clear solution was quantitatively transferred to a beaker, acidified

with dilute nitric acid and diluted to about 50 mL. A 6 mL quantity of 0.1 M AgNO3

was added to the solution and the mixture heated to about 60 oC for an hour to age

and digest the precipitate. After filtering, the mass of the silver bromide produced

was determined to be 37.8 mg. What is the percentage by mass bromine in the

organic compound?

A. 3.79% B. 9.73% C. 3.97% D. 7.93%

19. To make some starches more soluble, phosphate ester groups are inserted into these

straight-chain molecules. Inserting phosphate ester groups.

A. Disrupts the molecule’s intermolecular forces thereby permitting water to

disperse within the chain more effectively

247

B. Changes the chemical composition of the starches, thereby decreasing the

polarity.

C. Alters their optical reactivity and thus causes their solubility to increase.

D. All of the above are true

A. tetraammine dichloro cobalt (III) chloride

B. dichloro tetraammine cobalt (III) chloride

C. tetraammine dichloro cobalt (IV) chloride

D. tetraammine dichloro cobalt (II) chloride

deposit of Co and Ni. This is dissolved and the precipitated nickel dimethylglyoxine

(NiC8H14N4O4) weighs 0.3560 g. What are the percentages of the two metals in

the alloy?

A. 9.64% Ni; 10.79% Co C. 6.94% Ni; 9.79% Co

B. 9.64% Co; 10.79% Ni D. 19.64% Ni; 11.97% Co

A. Zero order B. third order C. consecutive reaction D. first order

reaction

A. Decreases C. remain unaffected

B. Increases D. decreases linearly with temperature

higher than the boiling point of pure benzene. What is the molecular weight of the

compound? Tf = 5.5oC, Tb = 80.2oC, kf = 5.12oC/m, kb = 2.53oC/m

A. 17 g/mole B. 24.2 g/mole C. 33 g/mole D. 36 g/mole

25. When s and p orbitals are hybridized, how many sp3 hybrid orbitals are formed?

A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

A. σ B. σ* C. 𝜋* D. 𝜋

electric field, a pH of 7, the molecule would most likely:

A. Migrate towards the positive pole C. not migrate at all

B. Migrate towards the positive pole D. not go into solution

248

A. CH3COCH3 B. (CH3)2CHOH C. CH3OCH2CH3 D. CH3CHO

29. The amount of heat absorbed (or evolved) where 1 mole of a substance is formed

is equal to the amount of heat evolved (or absorbed) when 1 mole of the same

substance is decomposed.

A. Hess Law of a Heat Summation C. Law of Lavoisier

B. Law of Lavoisier and Laplace D. Clausius-Clapeyron Equation

A. activating group B. deactivating group C. substituent D. NOTG

31. A 1.1105 g sample of bauxite (the primary ore of aluminum) was analyzed for

aluminum. The sample was pulverized and dissolved in concentrated nitric acid.

The HNO3 was removed by evaporation and solids dissolved in hot water with a

very small quantity of nitric acid added. Insoluble solids were removed by gravity

filtration. The solution was made basic by the slow addition of dilute NH3 at which

point a gelatinous solid precipitated (Al(OH)3 and Al2O3∙H2O). The precipitate was

heated to coagulate it as much as possible then filtered over “fast” filter paper. The

paper and solids were placed in a porcelain crucible and the paper ashed and

precipitate “ignited” at 600oC to convert the precipitate to pure Al2O3. The mass

of Al2O3 isolated was 0.3605 g. The average mass of ash remaining after charring

10 sheets of the identical filter paper was 0.0006 g. What is the percentage

aluminum in the bauxite ore?

A. 17.18% B. 17.15% C. 17.81% D. 17.51%

32. The molar mass of a certain metal carbonate MCO3, can be determined by adding

an excess of HCl to react with all the carbonate and then back-titrating the

remaining acid with NaOH. In a certain experiment, 20 ml of 0.800M HCl were

added to 0.1022 g sample of MCO3. The excess HCl required 5.64 ml of 0.100M

NaOH for neutralization. Calculate the molar mass of the carbonate.

A. 24 g/mol C. 40 g/mol

B. 197 g/mol D. cannot be determined from the given data

33. Based from the previous problem, identify the metal carbonate M.

A. Mg B. Ba C. Ca D. none of the given

34. 3000 MT of 6-10-16 fertilizer was prepared by mixing ammonium sulfate (95%

purity), phosphoric acid (95% purity), muriate of potash (95% purity), and gypsum

(90% purity). Calculate how much of the gypsum was used.

A. 893 MT B. 435.9 MT C. 800.9 MT D. 869.9 MT

35. Find the pH of a solution made by diluting one drop (0.04 mL) of 0.10 N HCl to 10

liters.

249

A. 1 B. 2.40 C. 3.4 D. 6.37

A. Bohr’s Theory C. Planck’s quantum theory

B. Pauli’s Theory D. electromagnetic theory

37. An aqueous solution of CuSO4 was electrolyzed between Cu electrodes. On the

cathode, 0.300 g of Cu was deposited. The solution in the anode compartment

contained 1.43 g of Cu after electrolysis and the same weight of water contained

1.214 g before electrolysis. Calculate the transference number of Cu+2.

A. 0.18 B. 0.23 C. 0.28 D. 0.31

A. alkane B. alkene C. alkyne D. alcohol

39. The fatty acid cycle removes _______ units per cycle, until the fatty acid has been

completely oxidized.

A. one carbon B. one acetyl-CoA C. two carbon D. four acetyl-CoA

40. The Ksp for CaF2 is 3.9 x 10-11 at 25oC. Assuming that CaF2 dissociates

completely upon dissolving and that there are no other important equilibria

affecting its solubility, calculate the solubility of CaF2 in g/L.

A. 0.09 g/L B. 0.03 g/L C. 0.017 g/L D. NOTG

substances which are

A. solid at room temperature C. gases at room temperature

B. fluid at room temperature D. liquid at room temperature

A. Halogens B. Hydride ion C. Proton ion D. alkyl group

A. Phytoplankton B. amoeba C. bloom D. zoo-plankton

44. A urea solution freezes at -2oC. How much glucose should be added to 100 grams

of urea solution to lower the freezing point of solution to -3oC?

A. 16 grams B. 1.6 grams C. 24 grams D. 2.4 grams

the concentration of B, the rate gets doubled. If the concentration of B is increased

250

by nine times without altering the concentration of A, the rate gets tripled. The order

of the reaction is

A. 2 B. 1 C. 3/2 D. 4/3

A. ∆G and ∆H should be negative C. ∆G = ∆S = 0

B. ∆G and ∆H should be positive D. ∆H < ∆G

∆H = -40 kJ the standard entropies at X, Y and Z are 60, 40 and 50 J/K-mole

respectively. The temperature at which the above reaction attains equilibrium is

about.

A. 400 K B. 500 K C. 273 K D. 373 K

48. For preparing a buffer solution of pH = 7.0, which buffer system you will choose?

A. H3PO4, H2PO4- C. HPO42-, PO43-

4- 2-

B. H2PO , HPO4 D. H3PO4, PO43-

49. The insoluble salt AgBr can be dissolved in ammonia solution according to the

equilibrium below. What concentration of NH3 is needed to dissolve 0.010 mole of

AgBr in 1.0 L of solution?

+

50. What is the pH of a buffer which has been prepared by mixing 250 mg NH4Cl and

200 mL of 0.1 M NH3 solution?

A. 8.56 B. 9.85 C. 10.26 D. 11.04

Which one of the following is not affected by the addition of catalyst?

A. Rate of forward reaction C. Time required to reach the equilibrium

B. Rate of backward reaction D. Spontaneity

52. Stomach acid is approximately 0.02 M HCl. What volume of this acid is neutralized

by an antacid tablet that weighs 330 mg and contains 41.0% Mg(OH) 2, 36.2%

NaHCO3, and 22.8% NaCl? Mg(OH)2 + 2H+ → Mg2+ + 2H2O

A. 330 mL B. 303 mL C. 348 mL D. 384 mL

53. Suppose the following four salts all have the same numerical value of Ksp which

is much less than one, which will have the highest solubility?

A. AB B. AB2 C. AB3 D. A2B3

251

54. A given amount of electric charge deposits 2.159 gram of silver from an Ag+

solution. What mass of copper from Cu+2 solution will deposited by the same

quantity of electric charge? Atomic mass: Ag = 107.87 g/mol; Cu = 63.5 g/mol

A. 0.635 gram B. 0.356 gram C. 0.535 gram D. 0.335 gram

55. Beaker A contains 0.1L of a 0.20M KOH solution; beaker B contains 0.1L of a

0.20M HCl solution. The contents of the two beakers are thoroughly mixed together

in as sufficiently large third beaker. Calculate the molarity of the resulting salt

solution.

A. 1M B. 0.001M C. 0.01M D. 0.1M

56. ________ substances are not considered to be true solids but rather highly

supercooled liquids of very high viscosity.

A. Glass B. amorphous C. crystalline D. solid

57. Limestone (CaCO3) can be decomposed in a furnace to yield CaO(s) and CO2(g). If

the furnace used a water filter as a purification method to trap emitted gases, what

would happen to the pH of the water overtime?

A. Increase B. decrease C. remains the same D. equal to 1

58. A sample of 500 mL of Genesee River was collected from just below the brewery.

Three mL of the river water sample is diluted to 300 mL, aerated and seeded. The

DO content was 8.2 mg/L initially. After 5 days, the DO content had dropped to 6.7

mg/L. The second sample was obtained 60 days later and retested in identical

fashion. The initial DO was 8.3 mg/L and after 5 days, dropped to 6.4 mg/L. What

is the difference between the ultimate BOD of the two sample? Use k = 0.23/day

A. 48.54 mg/L B. 58.54 mg/L C. 68.54 mg/L D. 78.54 mg/L

59. Glutamic acid (C5H9O4N) is used as one of the reagents for a standard to check

BOD test. Determine the theoretical oxygen demand of 200 mg/L of glutamic acid.

Assume the following reactions apply:

C5H9O4N + 4.5O2 → 5CO2 + 3H2O + 2O2 → NO3 + H+ + H2O

A. 231 mg/L B. 132 mg/L C. 382 mg/L D. 283 mg/L

filtered, 150 mL of the sample is evaporated from the dish. The weight of the dish

plus the dried residue is found to be 30.324 g. Compute the TDS concentration

A. 140 mg/L B. 104 mg/L C. 150 mg/L D. 130 mg/L

252

61. A sanitary landfill has an available space of 16.2 ha at an average depth of 10 m.

Seven hundred sixty five m3 of solid waste is dumped at the site 5 days a week.

The waste is compacted to twice its delivered density. Estimated the expected life

of the landfill in years.

A. 16.3 yrs. B. 13.6 yrs. C. 12.5 yrs. D. 15.2 yrs.

62. The mass of glucose that should be dissolved in 50 g of water in order to produce

the same lowering of vapour pressure as is produced by dissolving 1 g of urea in

the same quantity of water is

A. 1 g B. 3 g C. 6 g D. 18 g

63. A solution has a pH = 3.0. What is the pH of the solution that is 10 times acidic?

A. 1.0 B. 2.0 C. 8.0 D. 9.0

64. This determines a primary, secondary and tertiary alcohols by observing the

differences in the reaction rates.

A. Benedict’s Test C. Lucas Test

B. Tollens Test D. Bellstein Test

A. Coliform C. streptococci

B. salmonella thyposa D. staphylococcus aureus

A. P.D. 1151 B. P.D. 1152 C. P.D. 1153 D. P.D. 1154

67. _________ is the animal and vegetable waste resulting from the handling,

preparation, cooking, and serving food.

A. Garbage B. Trash C. Rubbish D. Refuse

even serious convulsions that can lead to death.

A. Argyria B. Itai-itai C. Pneumonia D. Minamata

69. This class of fresh surface water is used for the propagation and growth of fish and

other aquatic resources.

A. Class B B. Class C C. Class D D. Class SC

70. A “strong water” as defined from DAO 35 refers to the water whose initial BOD

value before treatment is equal to or greater than _________.

A. 50000 B. 3000 C. 1000 D. 500

253

ANSWER KEY

1. Huckel’s rule 41. C. gases at room temperature

2. C. Tautomers 42. A. Halogens

3. D. HClO4 43. C. bloom

4. D. Spore 44. A. 16 grams

5. D. Hyphae, Mycelium 45. C. 3/2

6. C. Either A or B 46. B. ∆G and ∆H should be positive

7. C. Monod Equation 47. B. 500 K

8. D. Attractions between O2 particles are stronger 48. B. H2PO4-, HPO42-

but the effective size of the Ar particle is greater.

49. C. 3.5 M

9. D. The mass of the solute, the volume of the

50. B. 9.85

solvent, the molecular mass of the solute, and the

51. D. Spontaneity

density of the solvent.

10. A. 0.872 dm3

52. B. 303 mL

11. A. 1.2 Pa 53. D. A2B3

12. E. 54. A. 0.635 gram

13. E. 55. D. 0.1M

14. B. 0.984 56. B. amorphous

15. C. 2,7-Dimethyl-1,6-nonadiene 57. B. decrease

16. B. CH3Cl, AlCl3, HNO3, H2SO4, Fe, HCl, NaOH 58. B. 58.54 mg/L

17. C. 13.5 59. D. 283 mg/L

18. C. 3.97% 60. A. 140 mg/L

19. A. Disrupts the molecule’s intermolecular forces 61. A. 16.3 yrs.

thereby permitting water to disperse within the 62. B. 3 g

chain more effectively 63. B. 2.0

20. A. tetraammine dichloro cobalt (III) chloride 64. C. Lucas Test

21. A. 9.64% Ni; 10.79% Co 65. A. Coliform

22. A. Zero order 66. B. P.D. 1152

23. A. Decreases 67. A. Garbage

24. A. 17 g/mole 68. D. Minamata

25. A. 1 69. B. Class C

26. A. σ

70. B. 3000

27. B. Migrate towards the positive pole

28. A. CH3COCH3

29. B. Law of Lavoisier and Laplace

30. A. activating group

31. B. 17.15%

32. B. 197 g/mol

33. B. Ba

34. D. 869.9 MT

35. D. 6.37

36. C. Planck’s quantum theory

37. C. 0.28

38. C. alkyne

39. C. two carbon

40. C. 0.017 g/L

254

FINAL EXAMINATION- PART I/PCP

SOLUTIONS

10. Given: Vflask = 0.503 dm3 Pflask = 746 torr

Pmanifold = 12 mtorr Pcombined = 273 torr

Required: Vmanifold

Solution:

Assuming ideal gas: PV = nRT

Using Boyle’s Law: P1 V1 = P2 V2

Pflask Vflask = Pcombined Vcombined

Pflask Vflask

𝑉𝑐𝑜𝑚𝑏𝑖𝑛𝑒𝑑 = Pcombined

(746 torr)(0.503 dm3)

Vcombined = (273 torr)

= 1.3745 dm3

Vmanifold = Vcombined − Vflask

Solving for Vmanifold:

Vmanifold = 1.3745 dm3 − 0.503 dm3 = 0.8715 dm3

no. of molecules/V = 5 x 1020 molecules/m3

Required: Pressure (P)

Solution:

From the ideal gas law: PV = nRT

Solving for P:

nRT molecules 1 mole Pa∙m3

P= = (5 x 1020 )( )(8.3145 )(175 K)

V m3 6.022x 1023 molecules mol∙K

P = 1.2081 Pa

Ans. 1.2 Pa

Step 1: 500 mL dilution of Pb, Zn, Cu excluding Sn

Step 2: 37.56 mL of 0.0025M EDTA titration of 10 mL of Pb, Zn and Cu

Step 3: 27.67 mL of 0.0025M EDTA titration of 25 mL of Pb and Zn

Step 4: 10.80 mL of 0.0025M EDTA titration of 100 mL of Pb

Required: % Cu

Solution:

Using step 2:

(MV)EDTA = (MV)Pb + (MV)Zn + (MV)Cu

(0.0025 × 37.56)EDTA = (M × 10)Pb + (M × 10)Zn + (M × 10)Cu

255

MPb + MZn + MCu = 9.39 x 10−3 (Equation 1)

Using step 3:

(0.0025 × 27.67)EDTA = (M × 25)Pb + (M × 25)Zn

MPb + MZn = 2.767 x 10−3 (Equation 2)

Using step 4:

(0.0025 × 10.80)EDTA = (M × 100)Pb

MPb = 2.7 x 10−4

Substituting to Equation 2:

MZn = 2.497 x 10−3

Substituting MPb and MZn to Equation 1:

MCu = 6.623 x 10−3

mmol 207.2 mg 1g

Wt.Pb = (2.7 x 10−4 ) (500mL) ( )( ) = 0.02797 g

mL mmol 1000 mg

−3 mmol 65.39 mg 1g

Wt.Zn = (2.497 x 10 ) (500mL) ( )( ) = 0.08164 g

mL mmol 1000 mg

mmol 63.546 mg 1g

Wt.Cu = (6.623 x 10−3 ) (500mL) ( )( ) = 0.2104 g

mL mmol 1000 mg

0.2104 𝑔

% Cu = 0.3284 𝑔 𝑥 100 = 64.07%

Ans. 64.07%

0.02797 𝑔

% Pb = 𝑥 100 = 8.52%

0.3284 𝑔

0.08164 𝑔

% Zn = 𝑥 100 = 24.88%

0.3284 𝑔

% Sn = 100 % − 64.07% − 8.52% − 24.88% = 2.53%

Ans. 2.53%

b = 0.1154 L/mol

Required: Z (compressibility factor) at 100oC

Solution:

Using van der Waals Equation:

𝑎

(𝑝 + ) (𝑉 − 𝑏) = 𝑅𝑇

𝑉2

256

𝑅𝑇

𝑉=𝑏+ 𝑎 ; V can be solved by iterations

(𝑝+ 2 )

𝑉

The first guess should be

𝐿∙𝑎𝑡𝑚

𝑅𝑇 0.08206 ×373 𝐾

o 𝑚𝑜𝑙∙𝐾

V = = = 30.61 𝐿

𝑃 1 𝑎𝑡𝑚

Solving for V:

30.61 L∙atm

V = 0.1154 L/mol + 18.24 atm∙L2 /mol

= 30.14 L

(1 atm+ )

V2

Guessed V Calculated V

Solving for Z:

30.61 30.14 pV 1atm∙30.12L

30.14 30.12 Z = RT = L∙atm = 0.984

0.08206 ∙373K

mol∙K

30.12 30.12

Ans. 0.984

17. Given: Calcium and Magnesium (Ca and Mg) in urine sample

Required: Mass (mg) of Ca

Solution:

Mass of ignited mixture: CaO and MgO

Let x be the mass of CaO and y be the of MgO

X + Y = 0.0285 (Equation 1)

mol 1 mol CaCO3 100.0869 g

Xg of CaO (56.08 g) ( )( ) + Y = 0.0433

1 mol CaO mol

1.7847X + Y = 0.0433 (Equation 2)

mol 1 mol Ca 40.08 g

X = 0.01886 g CaO (56.08 g CaO) (1 mol CaO) ( mol

Ca) = 0.01348 g

X = 13.5 g Ca

Ans. 13.5 g

Required: Percentage by mass of bromine

Solution:

mmol 1 mmol Br 79.90 mg

Mass of Br = 37.8 mg AgBr ( AgBr) ( )( Br) = 16.08 mg

187.77 mg 1 mmol AgBr mmol

16.08 mg

% Br = 𝑥100 = 3.97%

405.4 mg

Ans. 3.97%

257

21. Given: Mass of alloy steel= 0.75 g

Required: Percentage by mass of bromine

Solution:

mol 1 mol Ni 58.69 g

Mass of Ni = 0.356 g NiC8H14N4O ( )( )( Ni) = 0.0723 g

288.95 g 1 mol NiC8H14N4O mol

Mass of Co = 0.1532g – 0.0723g = 0.0809 g Co

0.0723 g

% Ni = 𝑥100 = 9.64%

0.75 g

0.0809 g

% Co = 𝑥100 = 10.79%

0.75 g

Required: Molecular Weight of unknown compound

Solution:

BPE = m ∙ K b

0.02 kg 1000 g 1 2.53o C

3o C = ( ) (MW) ( )

kg benzene solution 1 kg m

MW = 16.87 g/mole

Ans. 17 g/mole

Required: Percentage by Al

Solution:

mol 2 mol Al 26.98 g

Mass of Al = (0 .3605-0.0006)g Al2O3( )( )( Al) = 0.1905 g

101.96 g 1 mol Al2O3 mol

0.1905 g

% Al = 1.1105 g 𝑥100 = 17.15%

Ans. 17.15%

Back Titration: 5.64 mL of 0.100M NaOH

Required: Molar mass of carbonate

Solution:

Reaction: MCO3(s) + 2HCl(aq) → MCl2(aq) + H2O(l) + CO2(g)

HCl(aq) + NaOH(aq) → NaCl(aq) + H2O(l)

Moles of HCl reacted with MCO3 = moles of HCl − Moles of excess HCl

258

0.08 mol

Total moles HCl = 20.00 mL (1000 mL soln) = 1.60 x 10−3 mol

0.100 mol

Moles of excess HCl = 5.64 mL (1000 mL soln) = 5.64 x 10−4 mol

Moles HCl reacted with MCO3 = 1.60 x 10−3 mol − 5.64 x 10−4 mol

= 1.04 x 10−3 mol HCl

1 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝑀𝐶𝑂3

Mole of MCO3 reacted = 1.04 x 10−3 mol HCl x = 5.20 𝑥 10−4 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝑀𝐶𝑂3

2 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝐻𝐶𝑙

0.1022 𝑔

Molar mass of MCO3 = 5.20 𝑥 10−4 𝑚𝑜𝑙 = 197 𝑔/𝑚𝑜𝑙

Molar mass of MCO3 = 197 𝑔/𝑚𝑜𝑙

Molar mass of CO3 = 60.01 g

Molar mass of M = 197 g/mol − 60.01 g/mol = 137 g/mol

The metal, M, is Ba!

Ans. Ba

Required: pH

Solution:

1𝐿 0.1 𝑚𝑜𝑙

0.04 𝑚𝐿( )𝑋 ( )

1000 𝑚𝐿 𝐿

pH = − log ( ) = 6.39

10𝐿

Ans. 6.39

Required: Solubility (s) in g/L

Solution:

Reaction: CaF2 → Ca2+ + 2F−

Ksp = (2s)2s = 4s3

3 𝐾𝑠𝑝 3 3.9 𝑥 10−11

s= √ =√ = 2.1363 x 10-4 mole/L (78.08 g/mole) = 0.0167 g/L

4 4

44. Given: Urea sol’n. Fp = -2 C; 100g of Urea sol’n.

o

New Fp = -3oC

Required: Amount of Glucose:

Solution:

∆𝑇𝑓 = 𝑚 ∙ 𝑘𝑓

259

Xg of glucose mol 1.13o C

−2o C − (−3o C) = ( )( )

0.1 kg solution 180.18 g m

X = 15.95 g of glucose

Ans. 16 grams

Required: The order of reaction

Solution:

Condition 1: concentration of A is doubled without altering the

concentration of B, the rate gets doubled

𝑟1 = 𝐴𝑎 𝐵𝑏 ; 𝑟2 = 2𝑟1 = (2𝐴)𝑎 𝐵𝑏

2𝑟1 (2𝐴)𝑎 𝐵𝑏

Solving for a: = ; 2 = 2a ; a = 1

𝑟1 𝐴𝑎 𝐵 𝑏

the concentration of A, the rate gets tripled

𝑟1 = 𝐴𝑎 𝐵𝑏 ; 𝑟2 = 3𝑟1 = 𝐴𝑎 (9𝐵)𝑏

3𝑟1 𝐴𝑎 (9𝐵)𝑏

Solving for b: = ; 3 = 9b; b = ½

𝑟1 𝐴𝑎 𝐵 𝑏

Ans. 3/2

Required: Volume of stomach acid that is neutralized

Solution:

M Mg(OH)2 = 0.410(0.330g) = 0.1353g

0.1353 𝑔

moleMg(OH)2 = 𝑔 = 2.320×10-3 mole

58.32

𝑚𝑜𝑙

mole [H+] = 2.320×10-3 mole x 2 = 4.640×10-3 mole

Mole NaHCO3 = 0.1195g / 84.01g/mol = 1.422×10-3 mole

mole [H+] = 1.422×10-3 mole

So the total amount of acid absorbed is

= 4.640×10-3 + 1.422×10-3 = 6.062×10-3 moles

V = mole/molarity = 6.062×10-3 mole /0.020 mole/L

hence V = 0.3031 L = 303 mL

Ans. 303 mL

260

54. Given: 2.159 g of Silver deposited

Requird: Mass of Copper

Solution:

Silver moles = given mass / molar mass = 2.158 / 107.9 = 0.0200 moles.

of silver.

If you we have 0.02 moles of Ag, we will only get 0.01 moles of Cu

n = Mass / atomic mass

n = 0.01

molar mass = 63.5

0.01 = x / 63.5; x = 0.635 grams of Cu

Ans. 0.635 gram

Beaker B: 0.1L of a 0.20M HCl

Required: Molarity of resulting salt solution

Solution:

KOH + HCl KCl + H2O

0.02 mol 0.02 mol 0 0

0 0 0.02 0.02

0.02 𝑚𝑜𝑙

Molarity = (0.1+ = 0.1M

0.1)𝐿

Ans. 0.1 M

Sample 1: DOi = 8.2 mg/L; DOf = 6.7 mg/L

Sample 2: DOi = 8.3 mg/L; DOf = 6.4 mg/L

5 days BOD; k = 0.23 day

Required: Difference between the ultimate BOD of two sample

Solution:

𝑚𝑔 𝑚𝑔 𝑚𝑔 𝑚𝑔

8.2 −6.7 𝑚𝑔 8.3 −6.4 𝑚𝑔

𝐿 𝐿 𝐿 𝐿

BOD1 = 3𝑚𝐿 = 150 BOD2 = 3𝑚𝐿 = 190

𝐿 𝐿

300𝑚𝐿 300𝑚𝐿

150 𝑚𝑔/𝐿

𝐿𝑜1 = = 219.50 𝑚𝑔/𝐿

(1− 𝑒 −023/𝑑𝑎𝑦(5𝑑𝑎𝑦𝑠) )

190 𝑚𝑔/𝐿

𝐿𝑜2 = = 278.04 𝑚𝑔/𝐿

(1− 𝑒 −023/𝑑𝑎𝑦(5𝑑𝑎𝑦𝑠) )

261

Difference = 278.04 mg/L – 219.50 mg/L = 58.54 mg/L

Reaction: C5H9O4N + 4.5O2 → 5CO2 + 3H2O + 2O2 → NO3 + H+ + H2O

Required: Theoretical Oxygen Demand

Solution:

200 mg mmol 6.5 mmol O2 32 mg

TOD = C5H9O4N= ( )( )( ) = 283 mg/L

L 147.14 mg 1 mmol glutamic mmol

Volume Evaporated = 150 mL

Required: TDS concentration

Solution:

1000 𝑚𝑔

𝐹𝑖𝑛𝑎𝑙 𝑤𝑒𝑖𝑔ℎ𝑡−𝐼𝑛𝑖𝑡𝑖𝑎𝑙 𝑤𝑒𝑖𝑔ℎ𝑡 (30.324 𝑔−30.303 𝑔)

1𝑔

TDS = = = 140 𝑚𝑔/𝐿

𝑉𝑜𝑙𝑢𝑚𝑒 𝑒𝑣𝑎𝑝𝑜𝑟𝑎𝑡𝑒𝑑 0.150 𝐿

Volume of waste = 765 m3; 5 days/week

Required: Expected Life of landfill

Solution:

10000 𝑠𝑞.𝑚

16.2 ℎ𝑎( )(10 𝑚)

1 ℎ𝑎

Expected life = 765 5 𝑑𝑎𝑦𝑠 52 𝑤𝑒𝑒𝑘𝑠 = 16.29 𝑦𝑒𝑎𝑟𝑠

𝑚3 𝑥 ( )𝑥( )

2 𝑤𝑒𝑒𝑘 𝑦𝑒𝑎𝑟

63. Given: pH = 3.0

Required: pH when the solution is ten times acidic

Solution:

[H+] = 10-3 M

Ten times acidic: [H+] = 10 x 10-3 = 0.01 M

New pH = - log (0.01M) = 2

Ans. 2.0

262

FINAL EXAMINATION- PART II

CHEMICAL ENGINEERING

1. Which of the following is true for water at a reference temperature where enthalpy is

zero?

b. Entropy is nonzero d. Vapor pressure is zero

2. Heat to the hydrolyzer is to be supplied by an immersion heater of suitable material of

construction. The heater uses steam at 75psig. The suitable material of construction is

a. stainless steel 316 b. Teflon c. Karbate d. Hastlelloy B

3. What type of power cycle does the diagram illustrate?

a. a carnot cycle

b. an idealized rankine cycle

c. an idealized diesel cycle

4. Shear stress in a fluid flowing in a round pipe

a. is zero at the center and varies linearly with the radius

c. is zero at the wall and increases linearly to the center

d. remains constant over the cross section

5. A steam turbine operates adiabatically at a power level of 3500 kW. Steam enters the

turbine at 2400 kPa and 500C and exhausts from the turbine at 20 kPa. What is the

turbine efficiency?

6. A ten minute run shows that 75% of liquid reactant is converted to product by a half

order rate. What would be the amount converted in a half hour run?

263

7. At 378.5C the half life for the first order decomposition of ethylene oxide is 363

minutes, and E=52000 cal/mole. If the temperature is increased to 450C, find the time for

ethylene oxide to be 75% decomposed.

a. 13.8 min b. 23.1 min c. 37.2 min d. 45.8 min

8. At 500 K, the rate of a biomolecular reaction is ten times the rate of 400K. Activation

energy of this reaction is 9.15 kcal/mol. How much faster is the reaction at 450 K?

a. 3.6 times as at 450 K c. 5.6 times as 450 K

b. 4.6 times as fast at 450 K d. 6.6 times as fast at 450 K

9. The off gas from a boiling water nuclear power reactor contains a whole variety of

radioactive trash, one of the most troublesome being Xe-133 (half-life 5.2 days). This off

gas flows continuously through a large holdup tank in which it mean residence time is 30

days, and where we can assume that the contents are well mixed. Find the reaction of

activity removed in the tank.

a. 83% b. 88% c. 93% d. 98%

converted in a 5-minute run. How much longer would it take to reach 75% conversion?

a. 5 more minutes b. 10 more minutes c. 15 more minutes d. 20 more minutes

11. A certain substance A is mixed with equal amount of B and C. After 10 minutes, half

of A has reacted. What will be the conversion after 20 minutes if the reaction is second-

order with respect to A?

a. 25% b. 33% c. 67% d. 75%

For no. 12- 13. The analysis of a flue gas from a fuel gas containing no nitrogen is 4.62%

CO2. 3.08% CO. 8.91% O2, and 83.39% N2.

12. moles of water (H2O) formed

a. 7.04 moles b. 14.08 moles c. 15.07 moles d. 22.11 moles

13. moles of air supplied per 100 moles of dry flue gas

a. 1.055 b. 1.087 c. 1.124 d. 1.148

14. The ratio of moles of a reactant converted into the desired product to that converted

into unwanted product is called

a. operational yield b. selectivity c. relative yield d. none of the above

264

15. The moisture content of a solid is given as 50 % wet basis. What is the moisture

content, dry basis?

a. 0.5 b. 1 c. 2 d. 50

16. A fumace is fired with coal containing 6% moisture,18% VCM, 67% FC and 9% ash.

The refuse analysis shows 5% VCM, 23%FC and 62% ash. The higher heating value of

the coal as fired is 14,300 Btu/lb. Calculate the percentage of the heating value of thecoal

that is lost in the refuse. Assume that the moisture in the refuse is due to the “wetting

down” to prevent dusting and not moisture from the original coal.

A. 4.68%

B. 7.02%

C. 9.36%

D. 15.0%

a. 107 grams b. 112 grams c. 120 grams d. 170

grams

18. The term “ adiabatic” comes from the greek word “adiabastos” which means

a. No transformation c. Not to be passed

b. No transfer d. No heat

19. A utility runs a Rankine cycle with a water boiler at 3.5 MPa and the cycle has the

highest and lowest temperature of 450C and 45C respectively. What is the cycle

efficiency?

a. 0.36 b. 0.53 c. 0.84 d. 0.61

20. The compression ratio of an ideal Otto cycle is 6:1. P1 is 101.35 kPa, and T1 is 20

degC. What is the temperature at state 2 at the diagram shown?

a. 332.6 K

b. 459.4 K

c. 560.0 K

d. 600.0 K

The process from 1 to 2 is adiabatic, isentropic compression

The process from 2 to 3 is asobaric, heat addition

The process from 3 to 4 is adiabatic, isentropic expansion

The process from 4 to 1 is constant volume heat rejection

What is the name of this cycle?

a. carnot b. diesel c. otto d. Rankine

265

22. An engine burns a liter of fuel each 12 minutes. The fuel has a specific gravity of 0.8

and a heating value of 45 MJ/kg. The engine has a efficiciency of 25%. What is most

nearly the brake horsepower of the engine?

a. 12.5 hp b. 15.6 hp c. 16.8 hp d. 21.0 hp

23. The COP of a carnot refrigeration cycle operating at 100 deg F and 900 deg F is

a. 0.1111 b. 0.1250 c. 1.125 d. 5.875

24. Maximum work that could be secured by expanding the gas over a given pressure

range is the ______________ work.

a. isothermal b. adiabatic c. isentropic d. none of these

25. 1 lbm of nitrogen is compressed at a constant temp of 70 deg F from 10 ft3 to 5 ft3. If

the process is non-flow and if no work is done on the gas except by a moving piston, how

much heat is added to or removed from the gas during the process?

a. 30.27 BTU b. -30.27 BTU c. 28.54 BTU d. -26.07 BTU

26. An engineer devises a scheme for extracting some power from waste process steam.

The engineer claims that the steam enters the device at 700.5 kPa and a quality 75%, and

the steam exits at 101.35 kPa and 65% quality. Which of the following statements is/are

true?

I. The device produces 216 kJ/kg of work

II. The device violates the first law of thermodynamics

III. The device violates the second law of thermodynamics

a. I only b. II only c. III only d. I and II

27. A chemical reaction involves the interaction collision of two molecules of A and B

goes through the following energy profile. The energy,E, shown on the diagram

represents which of the following?

a. entropy of reaction

b. enthalpy of reaction

c. forward activation energy

d. reverse activation energy

28. If 15 kJ of work is done by the surroundings on the system and the system loses 10 kJ

heat to the surroundings then the total energy change is

a. 25 kJ c. -5 kJ

b. 10 kJ d. 5 kJ

266

29. What refers to the amount of removed from the colled space in BTS’s for 1 watt-hour

of electricity consumed?

a. coefficient of performance c. cost of performance

b. energy efficiency rating d. cost efficiency rating

30. Carnot cycle is the best known reversible cycle which was proposed in what year?

a. 1824 b. 1832 c. 1834 d. 1842

a. A. Celcius b. A. Einstein c. R.H. Fowler d. G. Fahrenheit

a. Lord Kelvin b. Thomas Young c. Rudolph Clausius d. William Rankine

33. A device that violates the second law of thermodynamics is called a ______.

a. universal machine of the second kind

b. ambiguous machine of the second kind

c. unique machine of the second kind

d. Perpetual-motion machine of the second kind

34. In the process of radiation, energy is carried by electromagnetic waves. What is the

speed of electromagnetic waves?

a. 188 000 miles/sec

b. 186 000 miles/sec

c. 184 000 miles/sec

d. 182 000 miles/sec

35. Determine the state of water according to the following condition at 440 deg F

density of 842.3679 kg/m3

a. saturated liquid c. sub-saturated

b. saturated vapor d. superheated

36. Which of the following denotes the effect of compressibility in fluid flow?

a. weber number

b. Euler number

c. Reynolds number

d. Mach number

267

37. Air enters a dryer at 70 degF and 20% humidity and leaves at 180 degF and 50% RH.

If the dryer operates at atmospheric pressure of 14.3 psia, how many cubic feets of

entering air would be needed when 12.0 lb/hr of water is evaporated from the wet

material in the dryer?

a. 6.78 cu ft/min b. 7.86 cu ft/min c. 8.67 cu ft/min d. 13.8 cu ft/min

For no. 38-39. A solution composed 50% ethanol and 40% water is fed at the rate of 100

kg/hr into a separator that produces one stream at the rate of 60 kg/hr with the

composition of 80% ethanol, 15% methanol and 5% water, and a second stream of

unknown composition.

38. The mass flow rate of the second unknown stream in kg/hr is

a. 60 b. 50 c. 40 d. 20

39. The mass fraction of ethanol in the unknown stream is

a. 0.025 b. 0.05

40. In a reciprocating pump, the ration of the quantity of liquid actually pumped to that

which corresponds to the piston displacement is called

a. Hydraulic efficiency

b. Mechanical efficiency

c. Volumetric efficiency

d. Suction

a. Keep check on the liquid gradient over the plate by direct visual observation

b. Give access to the individual trays for cleaning, maintenance and installation

c. Guard against foaming & entrainment by dumping antifoaming agent through

it

d. All a, b and c

42. Cold air at 10 degF is forced to flow over a flat plate maintained at 40 defC. The

mean heat transfer coeeficient is 30 W/m2-K. Find the heat flow rate from the plate to

the air through a plate area of 2m2. Assume radiation is negligible.

a. 1.8 kW

b. 2.0 kW

c. 2.2 kW

d. 2.4 kW

a. Chlorinated polyether

b. Polyethylene

268

c. Polypropylene

d. Cellulose acetate butyrate

a. Increasing velocity

b. Decreasing velocity

c. Decreasing Viscosity

d. Increasing viscosity

45. You are asked what size of containers to use 1,000lbs of cotton seed oil (SG = 0.926).

What would be the minimum size of drum expressed in gallons?

a. 129.5

b. 254.2

c. 103.9

d. 85.6

46. A pure formic acid at 30°C flowing at 0.015 m/s is pumped Through a 75 mm

horizontal pipe 38 m long. The roughness of the pipe is 6x10-5 m. What will be be

the pressure drop in the pipe?

a. 71 kPa

b. 35 kPa

c. 21 kPa

d. 42 kPa

47. Of the pressure vessels, with same thickness but different diameters, which one

withstands higher pressure?

a. Larger dia vessel

b. Smaller dia vessel.

c. Larger dia long vessel

d. Strength of the vessel is same irrespective of the diameter.

48. In a laminar fluid flow, the average velocity is ____________ of the maximum

velocity.

a. one-half

b. one-fourth

c. twice

d. four times

269

49. “Perspex” or “Plexiglass” is basically

a. Poly (vinyl chloride)

b. Poly (acrylonitrile)

c. Poly (isobutylene)

d. Poly (methyl methacrylate)

50. Solubility of a substance which dissolves with an increase in volume and liberation of

heat will be favored by the

a. low pressure and high temperature.

b. low pressure and low temperature.

c. high pressure and low temperature

d. high pressure and high temperature

51. Design a multiple-contact extraction system to treat 1.25 tones (2500 lb) per hour of

dry black ash, containing 40% Na2CO3 and 60% insoluble matter with 30 gpm of

water. If 5% of the Na1CO3 remains unextracted, calculate the number of ideal stages

by_the absorption factor method. Note: The mass ratio of insoluble matter to solvent

in the underflow from stage is 1:2.

a. 2

b. 1

c. 4

d. 3

52. A 1-2 shell and tube exchanger heats 68 kg/min of water in a shell from 35°C to 75°C

by an oil (Cp= 1.9 kJ/kg-°C). The oil enters the tube at 110°C and leaves at 75°C. The

LMTD correction factor is

a. 0.81

b. 0.86

c. 0.91

d. 0.96

53. A large container 360 m long, 70 m wide and 25 m deep is being dragged in sea at a

constant speed of 10 m/s. Calculate power required to drag such container. The

temperature of sea water is 10oC.

a. 21.6 MW

b. 26.1 MW

c. 62.1 MW

d. 16.2 MW

270

54. An adiabatic compressor operating under steady-state conditions receives air (ideal

gas) at 0.1 MPa and 300 K and discharges at 1 MPa. If the flow rate of air through the

compressor is 2 mol/s, determine the power consumption of the compressor. Constant

pressure, specific heat for air = 1kJ/kg

a. 16.25 kW

b. 25.16 kW

c. 61.52 kW

d. 52.61 k

a. No change with location

b. No change with volume

c. No change with time

d. No change with mass

56. An insulated piston-cylinder system has air at 400kPa & 600K. Through an inlet pipe

to the cylinder air at certain temperature T(K) and ressure P (kPa) is supplied

reversibly into the cylinder till the volume of the air in the cylinder is 4 times the

initial volume. The expansion occurs isobarically at 400kPa. At The end of the

process the air temperature inside the cylinder is 450K Assume ideal gas behavior,

compute the temperature of the air supplied through the inlet pipe.

a. 380K

b. 480 K

c. 580 K

d. 680 K

57. 0.6 m3/s of gas is to be dried from a dew point of 294 K to a dew point of 277.5 K.

How much water must be removed and what will be the volume of the gas after

drying? Vapour pressure of water at 294K = 2.5 kN/m2. Vapour pressure of water at

277.5K = 0.85 kN/m2

a. 0.6 m3/s at STP

b. 1.2 m3/s at STP

c. 1.8 rn3/s at STP

d. 2.4 m3/s at STP

58. . A hydrogen stream at 300 K and atmospheric pressure has a dewpoint of 275K. It is

to be further humidified by adding to it (through a nozzle) saturated steam at 240

kN/m2 at the rate of 1 kg steam: 30kg of hydrogen feed. What will be the humidity of

the resultant stream?

a. 0.1 kg/kg

271

b. 0.2 kg/kg

c. 0.3 kg/kg

d. 0.4 kg/kg

59. A cyclone separator, 0.3 m in diameter and 1.2 m long, has a circular inlet 75 mm in

diameter and an outlet of the same size. If the gas enters at a velocity of 1.5 m/s, at

what particle size will the theoretical cut occur? The viscosity of air is 0.018 mN

s/m2, the density of air is 1.3 kg/m3 and the density of the particles is 2700 kg/m3

a. 1.17 x 10-6 m

b. 2.17 x 10-6 m

c. 3.17x10-6 m

d. 4.17 x10-6 m

60. In order to heat 0.5 kg/s of a heavy oil from 311 K to 327 K, it is passed through

tubes of inside diameter 19 mm and length 1.5 m forming a bank, on the outside of

which steam is condensing at 373 K. How many tubes will be needed?

a. 11

b. 12

c. 13

d. 14

61. Solute gas is diffusing into a stationary liquid, virtually free of solvent, and of

sufficient depth for it to be regarded as semi-infinite in extent. In what depth of fluid

below the surface will 90% of the material which has been transferred across the

interface have accumulated in the first minute? Diffusivity of gas in liquid = 10-9

m2/s.

a. 0.38 mm

b. 0.48 mm

c. 0.58 mm

d. 0.68 mm

a. 0.0235 in

b. 0.025 in

c. 0.028 in

d. 0.03 in

272

63. . A heat exchanger is to consist of a number of tubes each 25 mm diameter and 5 m

long arranged in parallel. The exchanger is to be used as a cooler with a rating of 4

MW and the temperature rise in the water feed to the tubes is to be 20 K. If the

pressure drop over the tubes is not to exceed 2 kN/m2, calculate the minimum

number of tubes that are required. Assume that the tube wails are smooth and that

entrance and exit effects can be neglected. Viscosity of water = 1 mNs/m2.

a. 106 tubes

b. 116 tubes

c. 126 tubes

d. 136 tubes

64. A liquid is pumped in streamline tow through a pipe of diameter d. At what distance

born the center of the pipe will the fluid be flowing at the average velocity?

a. 0.15d

b. 0.35d

c. 0.55d

d. 0.75d

65. Oil of viscosity 10 mNs/m2 and specific gravity 0.90, flows through 60 m of 100 mm

diameter pipe and the pressure drop is 13.8 kN/m2. What will be the pressure drop for

a second oil of viscosity 30 mNs/m2 and specific gravity 0.95 flowing at the same

rate through the pipe? Assume the pipe wall to be smooth.

a. 14.9 kN/m2

b. 19.4 kN/m2

c. 23.6 kN/m2

d. 26.3 kN/m2

66. Over a 30 m length of 150 mm vacuum line carrying air at 293 K, the pressure falls

from 1 kN/m2 to 0.1 kN/m2. If the relative roughness e/d is 0.002, what is

approximate flowrate?

a. 0.022 kg/s

b. 0.044 kg/s

c. 0.066 kg/s

d. 0.088 kg/s

67. A counter - current extraction column is designed to remove 99% of solute C from a

solution of solvent A and solute C using pure solvent B. The initial concentration of

solute in the solution of A + C is 20 wt%, and the total flow of solution is 1000 kg/hr.

tf the equilibrium relationship is Y=2X, where Y = mass of C/mass of A & X= mass

of C/mass of B. The minimum flow rate of solvent B required in kg/hr is

273

a. 1454

b. 1584

c. 1676

d. 1874

68. The radiation received by the earth's surface on a clear day with the sun overhead is 1

kW/m2 and an additional 0.3 kW/m2 is absorbed by the earth's atmosphere. Calculate

approximately the temperature of the sun, assuming its radius to be 700,000 km and

the distance between the sun and the earth to be 150,000,000 km. The sun may be

assumed to behave as a black body.

a. 5170 K

b. 5710 K

c. 5071 K

d. 5107 K

69. A device that violates the first law of thermodynamics is called a ______

a. Universal machine of the first kind

b. Ambiguous machine of the first kind

c. Unique machine of the first kind

d. Perpetual-motion machine of the first kind

70. A rotary drum filter with 30% submergence is used to filter concentrated aqueous

slurry of calcium carbonate containing 15 lbs of solids per cubic foot of water. The

pressure-drop is 20' Hg If the filter cake contains 50% mixture (wet basis), calculate

the filter area required to filter 10 gal/min of slurry. The filter cycle time is 5 min.

The specific cake resistance depends on the pressure-drop as:

Viscosity of the filtrate = 6.72 x 10-41bift-s. Density of calcium carbonate = 168.8 lb/ft,

.Neglect fitter medium resistance.

a. 72 ft,

b. 82 ft

c. 92 ft

d. 102 ft

pipe roughness e = 0.000045m frictional pressure drop dP = 15720 N/m2; liquid dynamic

viscosity = 0.01 Pa-s; liquid density p = 1200 kg/m3. Calculate.

71. The Reynolds' number.

a. 7138

b. 15000

c. 8273

274

d. 9569

72. The fanning friction factor f

a. 0.00884

b. 0.00727

c. 0.00990

d. 0.00698

73. The steady mean velocity v (m/s).

a. 1.13

b. 2.38

c. 1.25

d. 1.30

74. Which of the following is not a valid assumption in continuous binary distillation for

calculating the number of equilibrium stages by McCabe-Thiele's method?

a. Reflux is not a saturated liquid

b. Heat of mixing of normal liquid is assumed to be zero

c. Sensible heat changes for vapor & liquid are negligibly small

d. Molar latent heat of the two components are equal

75. In case of a supercooled solution, which is on the verge of crystallization, the free

energy of the solution as compared to that of the solid is

a. More

b. Less

c. Same

d. More or less; depends on the nature of solution

76. All of the following biogeochemical cycles involve the atmosphere as either sink or

reservoir except

a. Water

b. Carbon

c. Nitrogen

d. Phosporus

77. Correct use of 'factor of safety' is very important in equipment design. It is defined as

the ratio of the

a. ultimate stress to working stress

b. working stress to ultimate stress

c. ultimate stress to breaking stress

d. working stress to breaking stress

275

78. Pick out the wrong statement pertaining to of the bubble cap tray of a distillation

column to give stable operation and even vapor distribution

a. The dimensionless ratio of liquid gradient to pressure drop head caused by the

bubble cap assembly should be less than 0.4

b. The pressure drop due to the caps & slots and the static submergence should

be as high as practicable for reasonable operation

c. Tendency towards stable operation is increased by increasing the skirt

clearance of the caps, lowering the rate of liquid flow per unit plate width or

increasing the spacing between the caps

d. None of these

a. The absolute pressure falls below the atmospheric pressure

b. The atmospheric pressure falls below the absolute pressure

c. The absolute pressure falls below the vacuum pressure.

d. The atmospheric pressure falls below the absolute zero

80. In a gas-liquid absorption column, for obtaining the maximum absorption efficiency

a. a. by passing should be completely avoided

b. both gas as well as quid streams should be distributed uniformly

c. gas stream should be distributed uniformly

d. liquid stream should be distributed uniformly

276

ANSWER KEY

1. a. Internal energy is negative 41. b. Give access to the individual trays for

2. c. Karbate cleaning, maintenance and installation

3. b. an idealized rankine cycle 42. a. 1.8 kW

4. a. is zero at the center and varies linearly with 43. b. Polyethylene

the radius 44. a. increasing velocity

5. c. 82% 45. a. 129.5

6. d. 100% 46. a. 71 kPa

7. a. 13.8 min 47. b. Smaller dia vessel

8. a. 3.6 times as at 450 K 48. a. one-half

9. d. 98% 49. d. Poly (methyl methacrylate)

10. b. 10 more minutes 50. b. low pressure and low temperature.

11. c. 67% 51. a. 2

12. b. 14.08 moles 52. 0.81

13. a. 1.055 53. 21.6 MW

14. c. relative yield 54. a. 16.25kW

15. b. 1 55. a. No change with location

16. A. 4.68% 56. b. 480 K

17. a. 107 grams 57. a. 0.6 m3/s at STP

18. c. Not to be passed 58. a. 0.1kg/kg

19. a. 0.36 59. b. 2.17 x 10-6 m

20. d. 600.0 K 60. d. 14

21. b. diesel 61. b. 0.48 mm

22. c. 16.8 hp 62. b. 0.025 in

23. d. 5.875 63. b. 0.48 mm

24. a. isothermal 64. b. 0.35d

25. d. -26.07 BTU 65. b. 19.4 kN/m2

26. c. III only 66. a. 0.022 kg/s

27. d. reverse activation energy 67. b. 1584

28. d. 5 kJ 68. b. 5710 K

29. b. energy efficiency rating 69. d. Perpetual-motion machine of the first kind

30. a. 1824 70. b. 82 ft

31. a. A. Celcius 71. a. 7138

32. b. Thomas Young 72. a. 0.0088

33. d. Perpetual-motion machine of the second 73. a. 1.13

kind 74. a. Reflux is not a saturated liquid

34. b. 186 000 miles/sec 75. a. more

35. c. sub-saturated 76. d. Phosporus

36. d. Mach number 77. a. ultimate stress to working stress

37. c. 8.67 cu ft/min 78. d. none of these

38. c. 40 79. b. The absolute pressure falls below the

39. b. 0.05 atmospheric pressure

40. c. Volumetric efficiency 80. b. both gas as well as quid streams should be

distributed uniformly

277

FINAL EXAMINATION-PART II/CHE

SOLUTIONS

. A steam turbine operates adiabatically at a power level of 3500 kW. Steam enters the

turbine at 2400 kPa and 500C and exhausts from the turbine at 20 kPa. What is the

turbine efficiency?

Since the process is adiabatic for a reversible process: S1 = S2

Thus S2 = 7.3439 KJ/Kg0K

At 20kPa checking the steam table we find that at the exit the steam is ‘wet’, since the

following condition holds at 20kPa:

Sliq=0.8321/KJ/Kg0K < S2 < Svap= 7.9094 KJ/Kg0K

On substituting the values of all the parameters we get: x = 0.92.

Thus for reversible and adiabatic process:

Η = (H2-H1)/( H2id- H1) = 0.82

7. At 378.5C the half life for the first order decomposition of ethylene oxide is 363

minutes, and E=52000 cal/mole. If the temperature is increased to 450C, find the time for

ethylene oxide to be 75% decomposed.

363 = 0.693/K1

K1=1.91x10-3 min-1

𝑘2 𝐸 𝑇2−𝑇1

𝑙𝑛 = 𝑥 T1=651.50A T2=7230

𝑘𝑖 𝑅 𝑇1𝑇2

𝐾2 52000 71.5

So, 𝑙𝑛 1.91𝑥10−3 = 𝑥 651.5𝑥723

1.987

278

Or, K2 = 0.101 min-1

If at 450 deg C 75% i.e. th of initial amount decomposes in time “t” then as

1 𝑎

, 𝐾 = 𝑡 𝑙𝑛 𝑎−𝑥

1 𝑎

So , 0.101 = 𝑡 𝑙𝑛 1 𝑜𝑟, 𝑡 = 𝟏𝟑. 𝟕 𝒎𝒊𝒏𝒔

𝑎

4

8. At 500 K, the rate of a biomolecular reaction is ten times the rate of 400K. Activation

energy of this reaction is 9.15 kcal/mol. How much faster is the reaction at 450 K?

Solution:

𝐾2 𝐸𝑎 1 1

𝑙𝑛 =− ( − )

𝐾1 𝑅 𝑇2 𝑇1

𝑘2 1 1

𝑙𝑛 𝑘3 = -(9.15𝑘𝑐𝑎𝑙/𝑚𝑜𝑙)(4186 𝐽𝑜𝑢𝑙𝑒𝑠)(1/8.3145)(450 – 400)

𝑘2

𝑙𝑛 𝑘3 = 1.2796

𝑒 1.2796 = 3.595

converted in a 5-minute run. How much longer would it take to reach 75% conversion?

- dCA/dt = kCa2

CA=CAo(1) – X

dCA=- dCAodX

dX/(1-X2) = kCAodt

1/(1-X) = kCA0t

kCAot= X/(1-X)

At 50 % conversion

kCAot0.5= 0.5/(1-0.5)

t0.5= 5

kCAo = 0.2

279

At 75% Conversion

kCAot0.75= 0.75/(1-0.75)

=3

t0.75= 3/0.2 = 15 min Therefore an extra 10 minutes would be required to achieve 75%

conversion for 2nd order reaction

11. A certain substance A is mixed with equal amount of B and C. After 10 minutes, half

of A has reacted. What will be the conversion after 20 minutes if the reaction is second-

order with respect to A?

- dCA/dt = kCa2

Upon integration:

(1/Ca -1/Cao) = kt

Assume Cao=1 therefore t =10 minutes

(1/0.5 -1/1) = k(10)

k = 0.1

At t = 20 minutes

(1/X -1/1) = (0.1)(20)

X = 33.33 %

For no. 12- 13. The analysis of a flue gas from a fuel gas containing no nitrogen is 4.62%

CO2. 3.08% CO. 8.91% O2, and 83.39% N2.

O2 unaccounted for = O2 in air – ( CO2 – CO/2 –O2)

O2 in air = 83.39 (21/79) = 22.17 moles O2 in air

O2 unaccounted for = 22.17 moles O2 in air – 4.62 moles CO2 – 3.08/2 moles CO – 8.91

moles O2)

O2 unaccounted for = 7.1 moles

280

13. moles of air supplied per 100 moles of dry flue gas

moles of air supplied per 100 moles of dry flue gas = (O2 in air + N2 in air)/100 moles dry

FG

moles of air supplied per 100 moles of dry FG = (22. 17 mol O2 in air + 83.39 mol N2 in

air)/100

moles of air supplied per 100 moles of dry FG = 1.0556

15. The moisture content of a solid is given as 50 % wet basis. What is the moisture

content, dry basis?

Wet basis = 50 % = 0.5

Dry basis = (0.5/(1 – 0.5)) = 1

1 𝑚𝑜𝑙 C6H12O6 6 𝑚𝑜𝑙 O2 32 𝑔𝑟𝑎𝑚𝑠 O2

100 grams C6H12O6 x ( )( )( ) = 106.667 grams O2

180 𝑔𝑟𝑎𝑚𝑠 1 𝑚𝑜𝑙 C6H12O6 1 𝑚𝑜𝑙 O2

19. A utility runs a Rankine cycle with a water boiler at 3.5 MPa and the cycle has the

highest and lowest temperature of 450C and 45C respectively. What is the cycle

efficiency?

Solution:

1: 450C, x = 0 → h1 = 188.42, v1 = 0.00101, Psat = 9.6 kPa

3: 3.5 MPa, 4500C → h3 = 3337.2, s3 = 7.0051

C.V. Pump Rev adiabatic

-wp = h2 – h1 ; s2 = s1

Since incompressible it is easier to find work as

∫ 𝑣 𝑑𝑃 = 𝑣1 (𝑃2 − 𝑃1) = 0.00101(3500 − 9.6) = 3.525

ℎ2 = ℎ1 − 𝑤𝑝 = 188.42 + 3.525 = 191.95

C.V. Boiler : 𝑞ℎ = ℎ3 − ℎ2 = 3337.2 − 191.95 = 3145.3

C.V. Turbine : wt =h3 – h4 ; s4 = s3

s4 = s3 = 7.0051 = 0.6386 + x4 (7.5261)

x4 = 0.8459

281

h4 = 188.42 + 0.8459 (2394.77) = 2214.2

wt = 3337.2 – 2214.2 = 1123 kJ/kg

ncycle = wnet/qh = (wt + wp)/qh = (1123 – 3.5)/3145.3 = 0.356

20. The compression ratio of an ideal Otto cycle is 6:1. P1 is 101.35 kPa, and T1 is 20

degC. What is the temperature at state 2 at the diagram shown?

Solution:

𝑣1

𝑇2 = 𝑇1( )𝑘−1

𝑣2

T2 = (20 + 273.15)(6)(1.4-1)

T2 = 610.51 K

22. An engine burns a liter of fuel each 12 minutes. The fuel has a specific gravity of 0.8

and a heating value of 45 MJ/kg. The engine has a efficiciency of 25%. What is most

nearly the brake horsepower of the engine?

Solution:

𝐵𝑟𝑎𝑘𝑒 𝑃𝑜𝑤𝑒𝑟

Brake Thermal Eff =

𝑚𝑓 𝑄ℎ

Brake Power = mf x Qh x Brake Thermal Eff

1 𝑙𝑖𝑡𝑒𝑟 𝑚𝑖𝑛 1 𝑘𝑔

𝑚𝑓 = 𝑥 𝑥 𝑥0.80

12 𝑚𝑖𝑛𝑢𝑡𝑒𝑠 60𝑠 𝑙𝑖𝑡𝑒𝑟

mf = 1.11 x 10-3 kg/sec

𝐵𝑟𝑎𝑘𝑒 𝑃𝑜𝑤𝑒𝑟 = (1.11𝑥10−3 )(45𝑥106 )(0.25) = 12487.5 𝑤𝑎𝑡𝑡𝑠

𝐻𝑝

𝐵𝑟𝑎𝑘𝑒 𝑃𝑜𝑤𝑒𝑟 = 12487.5𝑥( )

746 𝑊

𝑩𝒓𝒂𝒌𝒆 𝑷𝒐𝒘𝒆𝒓 = 𝟏𝟔. 𝟕 𝑯𝑷

23. The COP of a carnot refrigeration cycle operating at 10 deg F and 90 deg F is

10 deg F = 260.928 K

282

COPR,rev = 1/((TH/TL)-1) 90 deg F = 305.37 K

COPR,rev = 1/((305.37/260.928)-1)

COPR,rev = 5.8712

25. 1 lbm of nitrogen is compressed at a constant temp of 70 deg F from 10 ft3 to 5 ft3. If

the process is non-flow and if no work is done on the gas except by a moving piston, how

much heat is added to or removed from the gas during the process?

1lbm = 0.45392 kg = 453.92 g

(453.592)(1 mol/28.02 grams N2) = 16.19 mol N2

10 ft3 = 0.283 m3 5ft3 = 0.142 m3

For isothermal Process

Q = nRT(ln V2/V1)

Q = (16.19)(8.3145)(ln 0.142/0.283)

Q = -27307.9953 Joules = -25.882 BTU

For no. 38-39. A solution composed 50% ethanol and 40% water is fed at the rate of 100

kg/hr into a separator that produces one stream at the rate of 60 kg/hr with the

composition of 80% ethanol, 15% methanol and 5% water, and a second stream of

unknown composition.

38. The mass flow rate of the second unknown stream in kg/hr is

Mass flow rate of the second unknown stream = 40 kg/hr

For ethanol,

100(0.5) = 60(0.8) + 40 (x)

Where x is the mass fraction of the unknown stream

x = 0.05

283

81. You are asked what size of containers to use 1,000lbs of cotton seed oil (SG = 0.926).

What would be the minimum size of drum expressed in gallons?

Solution:

m = 1000 lbs

specific gravity = 0.926

𝑘𝑔

density = 926 𝑚3

1 𝑘𝑔

1000 lbs (2.205 𝑙𝑏𝑠) = 453.51 kg

453.51

Volume = 𝑚3

926

Volume = 0.4898 m3 = 129.38 gallons

82. A 1-2 shell and tube exchanger heats 68 kg/min of water in a shell from 35°C to 75°C

by an oil (Cp= 1.9 kJ/kg-°C). The oil enters the tube at 110°C and leaves at 75°C. The

LMTD correction factor is

T1=35 deg C

T2=75 deg C

t1=110 deg C

t2=75 deg C

𝑡1−𝑡2

R1=𝑇2−𝑇1=0.8750

𝑇2−𝑇1

P1= 𝑡1−𝑇1 =0.5333

F = 0.8024

54. An adiabatic compressor operating under steady-state conditions receives air (ideal

gas) at 0.1 MPa and 300 K and discharges at 1 MPa. If the flow rate of air through the

compressor is 2 mol/s, determine the power consumption of the compressor. Constant

pressure, specific heat for air = 1kJ/kg

284

m•(He-Hi) = -Ws ……(1)

But, He-Hi = Cp (Te-Ti) ………(2)

Cp – Cv = R

Cp/Cv = 𝛾

𝛾𝑅

Thus Cp = 𝛾−1

It follows that from the given data 𝛾 = 1.4

𝛾𝑅

He − Hi = 𝛾−1 (Te − Ti) … … . (3)

Also for adiabatic operation of the compressor

𝛾−1

𝑃𝑒

Te = 𝑇𝑖( 𝑃𝑖 ) 𝛾 = 580°K … … . (3)

m• = 2 mol/s = 0.058 kg/s

𝛾𝑅

Substituting the relevant data: −Ws = 𝛾−1 (Te − Ti) = 𝟏𝟔. 𝟐𝟓 𝒌𝑾 = 𝟏𝟔. 𝟐𝟓

56. An insulated piston-cylinder system has air at 400kPa & 600K. Through an inlet pipe

to the cylinder air at certain temperature T(K) and ressure P (kPa) is supplied reversibly

into the cylinder till the volume of the air in the cylinder is 4 times the initial volume. The

expansion occurs isobarically at 400kPa. At The end of the process the air temperature

inside the cylinder is 450K Assume ideal gas behavior, compute the temperature of the

air supplied through the inlet pipe.

Solution:

Applying the first law (∆𝑃𝐸 = ∆𝐾𝐸 = 0)

𝑑𝑚𝑈𝑐𝑣

+ ∆(𝐻𝑚) = 𝑄 + 𝑊

𝑑𝑡

𝑑𝑚𝑈𝑐𝑣 𝑑𝑚 𝛿𝑄 𝛿𝑊

+ ∆ (𝐻 )= +

𝑑𝑡 𝑑𝑡 𝑑𝑡 𝑑𝑡

𝑑𝑚 𝛿𝑄 𝛿𝑊

𝑜𝑟 𝑑(𝑚𝑈𝑐𝑣 ) + ∆ (𝐻 )= +

𝑑𝑡 𝑑𝑡 𝑑𝑡

For change of state from 1-2

2 2 2 2

∫(𝑚𝑈𝑐𝑣) + ∆ ∫ 𝐻𝑑𝑚 = ∫ 𝛿𝑄 + ∫ 𝛿𝑊

1 1 1 1

2 2

1 1

285

2

1

For ideal gas m = PV/RmT

Rm = R/Mol. Wt

Since incoming fluid and system fluid are same

H = CpT ; U = CvT (Ideal gas assumption)………(4)

𝑉2𝑡

𝑇𝑖 =

𝑉1𝑡 𝑉2𝑡 − 𝑉1𝑡

+

𝑇1 𝑇2

Now V2t = 4V1t , T1 = 600 K, T2 = 450 K, to calculate Ti

Thus Ti = 480 K

57. 0.6 m3/s of gas is to be dried from a dew point of 294 K to a dew point of 277.5 K.

How much water must be removed and what will be the volume of the gas after drying?

Vapour pressure of water at 294K = 2.5 kN/m2. Vapour pressure of water at 277.5K =

0.85 kN/m2

When the gas is cooled to 294 K, it will be saturated and Pw0 = 2.5 kN/m2

mass of vapour = Pw0Mw/RT = (2.5 x 18) / (8.314 x 294) = 0.0184 kg/m3 gas

At 277.5 K and Pw = 0.85 kN/m2

Mass of vapour = (0.85 x 18)/(8.314 x 277.5) = 0.0066 kg/m3 gas

Water to be removed = (0.0184 – 0.0066) = 0.0118 kg/m3 gas

Or: (0.0118 x 0.6) = 0.00708 kg/s

Assuming the gas flow, 0.6 m3/s, is referred to 273 K and 101.3 kN/m2, 0.00708 kg/s of

water is equivalent to (0.00708/18) = 3.933 x 10-4 kmol/s

I kmol of vapour occupies 22.4 m3 at STP

And: volume of water removed = (3.933 x 10-4 x 22.4) = 0.00881 m3/s

Assuming no volume change on mixing, the gas flow after drying

= (0.60 – 0.0081) = 0.591 m3/s at STP

58. A hydrogen stream at 300 K and atmospheric pressure has a dew point of 275K. It is

to be further humidified by adding to it (through a nozzle) saturated steam at 240

kN/m2 at the rate of 1 kg steam: 30kg of hydrogen feed. What will be the humidity of the

resultant stream?

286

At 275 K, the vapour pressure of water = 0.72 kN/m2 (from Tables) and the hydrogen is

saturated.

The mass of water vapour: 𝑃𝑤𝑜 𝑀𝑤 ⁄𝑅𝑇 = (0.72 𝑥 18)⁄(8.314 𝑥 275) = 0.00567 kg/m3

and the mass of hydrogen: (𝑃 − 𝑃𝑤𝑜 )𝑀𝐴 ⁄𝑅𝑇 = (101.3 − 0.72) 𝑥 2 ⁄(8.314 𝑥 275) =

0.0880 kg/m3

Therefore, the humidity at saturation, 𝐻𝑜 = (0.00567 ⁄0.0880) = 0.0644 kg/kg dry

hydrogen and at 300 K, the humidity will be the same, 𝐻𝑜 = 0.0644 kg/kg.

At 240 kN/m2 pressure, steam is saturated at 400 K at which temperature the latent heat is

2185 kJ/kg.

The enthalpy of the steam is therefore:

H2 = 4.18 (400 - 273) + 2185 = 2715 kJ/kg

Taking the mean specific heat capacity of hydrogen as 14.6 kJ/kg K, the enthalpy in 30

kg moist hydrogen or 30/ (1 + 0.0644) = 28.18 kg dry hydrogen is:

(28.18 x 14.6)(300 - 273) = 11, 110 kJ

The latent heat of water at 275 K is 2490 kJ/kg and taking the specific heat of water

vapour as 2.01 kJ/kg K, the enthalpy of the water vapour is:

(28.18 x x 0.0644)(4.18(275-273) + 2490 + 2.01 (300 - 275)) = 4625 kJ

Hence the total enthalpy:

H1 = 15, 730 kJ

In mixing the two streams, 28.18 kg dry hydrogen plus (30 - 28.18) = 1.82 kg water is

mixed with 1 kg steam and hence the final humidity:

𝐻 = (1 + 1.82)⁄28.18

= 𝟎. 𝟏𝟎𝟎 𝒌𝒈/𝒌𝒈

59. A cyclone separator, 0.3 m in diameter and 1.2 m long, has a circular inlet 75 mm in

diameter and an outlet of the same size. If the gas enters at a velocity of 1.5 m/s, at what

particle size will the theoretical cut occur? The viscosity of air is 0.018 mN s/m2, the

density of air is 1.3 kg/m3 and the density of the particles is 2700 kg/m3

𝜋

cross-sectional area at the gas inlet, Ai = ( 4 ) (0.075)2 = 4.42 𝑥 10−3 m2

gas outlet diameter, do = 0.075 m

gas density, 𝜌 = 1.30 𝑘𝑔/𝑚3

height of separator, Z = 1.2 m, separator diameter, dt = 0.3 m

Thus: mass flow of gas, G = (1.5 x 4.42 x 10-3 x 1.30) = 8.62 x 10-3 kg/s

𝑢𝑜 = 0.2 𝐴𝑖 2𝑑𝑜 𝜌𝑔⁄(𝜋𝑍𝑑𝑡𝐺 ) (equation 1.54)

287

or: 𝑢𝑜 =

−3 )2

[0.2 𝑥 (4.42 𝑥 10 𝑥 0.075 𝑥 1.3 𝑥 9.81]⁄(𝜋 𝑥 1.2 𝑥 0.03 𝑥 8.62 𝑥 10−3 )

= 3.83 𝑥 10−4 𝑚/𝑠

Use is now made of Stokes' law (Chapter 3) to find the particle diameter, as follows:

𝑢𝑜 = 𝑑2𝑔(𝜌𝑠 − 𝜌)/18𝜇 (equation 3.24)

or: 𝑑 = [𝑢𝑜 𝑥 18𝜇/𝑔(𝜌𝑠 − 𝜌)] 𝑥 0.5

= [(3.83 x 10-4 x 18 x 0.018 x 10-3)/(9.81(2700-1.30))] x 0.5

= 2.17 x 10-6 m or 2.17 𝜇m

60. In order to heat 0.5 kg/s of a heavy oil from 311 K to 327 K, it is passed through

tubes of inside diameter 19 mm and length 1.5 m forming a bank, on the outside of which

steam is condensing at 373 K. How many tubes will be needed?

Solution

Heat load

Q=(0.5 x 2.1)(327 - 311) = 16.8 kW

Logarithmic mean driving force

θ1 = (373 − 311) = 62 deg 𝐾, θ2 = (373 − 327) = 46 deg 𝐾

A preliminary estimate of the overall heat transfer coefficient may now be obtained from

Table 9.18.

For condensing steam, ho = 10.000 W/m2 K and for oil. hi = 250 W/m2 K (say). Thus

1/U=1/ho + 1/hi = 0.0041, U = 244 W/m2 K and from equation 9.1 the preliminary area:

A = (16.8 x 103) / (244 x 53.6) = 1.29 m2

The area/unit length of tube is(𝜋 x 19.0 x 10-3 x 1.0) = (5.97 x 10-2)m2/m

and; total length of tubing = 1.29 / (5.97 x 10-2) = 21.5 m

Thus: number of tubes = (21.5 / 1.5) = 14.3, say 14 tubes

61. Solute gas is diffusing into a stationary liquid, virtually free of solvent, and of

sufficient depth for it to be regarded as semi-infinite in extent. In what depth of fluid

below the surface will 90% of the material which has been transferred across the interface

have accumulated in the first minute? Diffusivity of gas in liquid = 10-9 m2/s.

Solution

As in the previous problem, the basic equation is:

288

𝜕𝐶𝐴 𝜕 2 𝐶𝐴

=𝐷

𝜕𝑡 𝜕𝑦 2

(equation 10.66)

which can be solved using the same boundary conditions to give the rate of mass transfer

at depth, y, (NA)y,f as:

𝑑𝐶𝐴 𝐷 2

(𝑁𝐴 )𝑦,𝑓 = −𝐷 = 𝐶𝐴𝑖 √ 𝑒 −𝑦 ⁄4𝐷𝑡

𝑑𝑦 𝜋𝑡

At some other value of y = L, the amount which has been transferred in time t per unit area

is:

𝑡

𝐷 −𝑦2⁄4𝐷𝑡

∫ 𝐶𝐴𝑖 √ 𝑒 𝑑𝑡

0 𝜋𝑡

𝛽2 = 𝑦 2 ⁄4𝐷𝑡

so that:

𝛽 = 𝑦⁄2√𝐷𝑡

and:

𝑑𝑡 = (−𝑦 2⁄2𝐷)𝛽−3 𝑑𝛽

𝐷 𝑦 2√𝐷𝑡 −𝑦2⁄4𝐷𝑡 𝑦

= 𝐶𝐴𝑖 √ [ 𝑒 − √𝜋erfc ]

𝜋 √𝐷 𝑦 2√𝐷𝑡

2√𝐷𝑡 −𝑦2⁄4𝐷𝑡 𝑦

= 𝐶𝐴𝑖 [ 𝑒 − 𝑦 erfc ]

𝑦 2√𝐷𝑡

and:

2√𝐷𝑡 −𝑦2⁄4𝐷𝑡 𝑦

[ 𝑒 − 𝑦 erfc ]

𝑚𝑎𝑠𝑠 𝑡𝑟𝑎𝑛𝑠𝑓𝑒𝑟 𝑎𝑡 𝐿 𝑦 2√𝐷𝑡

=

𝑚𝑎𝑠𝑠 𝑡𝑟𝑎𝑛𝑠𝑓𝑒𝑟 𝑎𝑡 𝑦 = 0 𝐷𝑡

2√ 𝜋

289

2 ⁄4𝐷𝑡 𝑦 𝑦 2

= 𝑒 −𝑦 − √𝜋erfc = 𝑒 −𝑥 − X√𝜋erfc X

2√𝐷𝑡 2√𝐷𝑡

where 𝑋 = 𝑦⁄2√𝐷𝑡

erfc X = 1 - erf X

so that erfc X can be calculated from table 13 in the Appendix of Volume 1. Values of X

will be assumed and the right hand side evaluated until a value of X is found such that the

right hand side = 0.1

𝟐 Right

X 𝒆−𝒙 erf X erfc X 𝑿 √𝝅𝐞𝐫𝐟𝐜 𝑿

hand side

1 0.368 0.843 0.157 0.278 0.0897

0.9 0.445 0.797 0.203 0.324 0.121

0.97 0.390 0.830 0.170 0.170 0.098

0.96 0.398 0.825 0.175 0.175 0.101

X = 0.96 = y2/4Dt

long arranged in parallel. The exchanger is to be used as a cooler with a rating of 4 MW

and the temperature rise in the water feed to the tubes is to be 20 K. If the pressure drop

over the tubes is not to exceed 2 kN/m2, calculate the minimum number of tubes that are

required. Assume that the tube wails are smooth and that entrance and exit effects can be

neglected. Viscosity of water = 1 mNs/m2.

Solution

Heat load = (mass flow x specific heat x temperature rise), or 4000= ( m x 4.18 x 20)

and:

m = 47.8 kg/s

2

Pressure drop = 2 kN/m = 2000/(1000 x 9.81) = 0.204 m of water.

From equation 3.23, (𝑅⁄𝜌𝑢2 )𝑅𝑒 2 = −Δ𝑃𝑓 𝑑 3 𝜌 / 4𝑙𝜇 2

= (2000 x 0.253 x 1000)/(4 x 5 x 10-6) = 1.56 x 106

If the tubes are smooth, then from Fig. 3.8: Re = 2.1 x 104.

water velocity = (2.1 x 104 x 10-3)/(1000 x 0.025) = 0.84 m/s.

290

Cross-sectional area of each tube = (𝜋 /4)0.252 = 0.00049 m2.

Mass flow rate per tube = (0.84 x 0.00049) = 0.000412 m3/s = 0.412 kg/s

Hence the number of tubes required = (47.8/0.412) = 116 tubes

64. Oil of viscosity 10 mNs/m2 and specific gravity 0.90, flows through 60 m of 100 mm

diameter pipe and the pressure drop is 13.8 kN/m2. What will be the pressure drop for a

second oil of viscosity 30 mNs/m2 and specific gravity 0.95 flowing at the same rate

through the pipe? Assume the pipe wall to be smooth.

Solution

For the first oil, with a velocity in the pipe of u m/s then:

Re = u x (0.90 x 1000) x (100/1000)/(10 x 10-3) = 9000u

𝑅 2

−Δ𝑃𝑑 3 𝜌

𝑅𝑒 =

𝜌𝑢2 4𝑙𝜇 2

= (13.8 x 1030) x 0.103 x 900/(4 x 60 x 0.012) = 5.2 x 105

From Fig. 3.8, when (𝑅⁄𝜌𝑢2 )𝑅𝑒 2 = 5.2 x 105 for a smooth pipe, Re = 12000.

Hence, velocity u = (12,000/9000) = 1.33 m/s.

For the second oil, the same velocity is used although the density and viscosity are now

950 kg/m3 and 0.03 Ns/m2.

Hence:

Re = (1.33 x 0.10 x 950/0.03) = 4220

For a smooth pipe, Fig. 3.7 gives a friction factor, 𝑅 ⁄𝜌𝑢2 = 0.0048 for this value of Re.

From Equation 3.18:

−Δ𝑃 = 4 (𝑅⁄𝜌𝑢2 )(𝑙 ⁄𝑑 )𝜌𝑢2

=4 x 0.0048 x (60/0.10) x 950 x 1.332

= 1.94 x 104 N/m2 = 19.4 kN/m2

66. Over a 30 m length of 150 mm vacuum line carrying air at 293 K, the pressure falls

from 1 kN/m2 to 0.1 kN/m2. If the relative roughness e/d is 0.002, what is approximate

flowrate?

Solution

The specific volume of air at 293 K and 1 kN/m2 is:

𝑣1 = (22.4/29)(293/273)(101.3/1.0) = 83.98 m3/kg

291

It is necessary to assume a Reynolds number to determine 𝑅 ⁄𝜌𝑢2 and then calculate a

value of G/A which should correspond to the original assumed value. Assume a Reynolds

number of 1x105.

When 𝑒⁄𝑑 = 0.002 and Re = 105, 𝑅⁄𝜌𝑢2 = 0.003 from Fig. 3.7.

(𝐺 ⁄𝐴)2 ln (𝑃1⁄𝑃2 ) + (𝑃22 − 𝑃12 )/2𝑃1 𝑣1 + 4 (𝑅⁄𝜌𝑢2 )(1⁄𝑑)(𝐺 ⁄𝐴)2 = 0 (equation

4.55)

Substituting:

(𝐺 ⁄𝐴 )2 ln (1.0⁄0.1) + (0.12 − 12 )𝑥106 /(2 𝑥 1 𝑥 106 𝑥 83.98)

+ 4 (0.003)(30⁄0,15)(𝐺 ⁄𝐴)2 = 0

and:

(𝐺 ⁄𝐴) = 1.37kg/m2s

The viscosity of air is 0.018 mN s/m2.

Re = (0.15 x 1.37)/(0.018 x 10-3) = 1.14 x 104

Thus the chosen value of Re is too high. When Re = I x 104, 𝑅 ⁄𝜌𝑢2 = 0.0041 and G/A =

1.26 kg/m2s.

Re now equals 1.04 x 104 which agrees well with the assumed value.

Thus:

G = 1.26 x (𝜋 /4) x (0.15)2 = 0.022 kg/s

68. The radiation received by the earth's surface on a clear day with the sun overhead is 1

kW/m2 and an additional 0.3 kW/m2 is absorbed by the earth's atmosphere. Calculate

approximately the temperature of the sun, assuming its radius to be 700,000 km and the

distance between the sun and the earth to be 150,000,000 km. The sun may be assumed to

behave as a black body.

Solution

The total radiation received = 1.3 kW/m2 of the earth's surface. The equivalent surface

area of the sun is obtained by comparing the area of a sphere at the radius of the sun, 7 x

105 km and the area of a sphere of radius (radius of sun + distance between sun and earth)

or:

𝐴1 4𝜋(7 x 105 )

= = 2.16 x 10−5

𝐴2 4𝜋(150 x 106 + 7 x 105 )2

Therefore radiation at the sun's surface = (1.3 x 103/2.16 x 10-5)= 6.03 x 107 W/m2. For a

black body, the intensity of radiation is given by equation 9.112:

6.03 x 107 = 5.67 x l0-8 T4 and T = 5710 K

292

With the following characteristics: length L = 30.48 m; inside diameter d = 0.0526 m;

pipe roughness e = 0.000045m frictional pressure drop dP = 15720 N/m2; liquid dynamic

viscosity = 0.01 Pa-s; liquid density p = 1200 kg/m3. Calculate.

𝑑𝑣𝜌

Nre = 𝜇

0.0526∗1.13∗1200

Nre = 0.01

Nre = 7132.56

72. The fanning friction factor f

f = 0.079/Nre0.25

f = 0.008596

293

FINAL EXAMINATION - PART III

GENERAL ENGINEERING

1. The collection of all points in the plane of equidistant from two fixed point is

A. Ellipse

B. Parabola

C. Line

D. Circle

2x3 – 8

A. 0

B. 2

C. ½

D. ¼

A. –exsinx2

B. ex (cos x2-2xsin x2)

C. excosx2-2xsinx2

D. -2exsinx

A. Twice

B. Thrice

C. Four times

D. Five times

A. y=x4

B. y=x3

C. y=x2

D. y=x

6. A box is to box constructed from a piece of zinc 20 in by cutting equal squares from

each corner and turning up the zinc to form the side. What is the maximum volume

(cubic inch) of the box that can be constructed?

A. 600

B. 593

C. 580

D. 622

294

7. Find the f(2x + 2) dx / (x+2)

A. 2x-2ln(x+2) + C

B. 2x+2ln (x+2) + C

C. 2x-ln (x+2) + C

D. 2x + ln(x+2) + C

8. Find the length of the arc in one branch of the curve y2=x3 from x=0 to x=1

A. 1.2

B. 1.44

C. 1.64

D. 1.84

9. Find the volume generated by rotating the region bounded by x=y and y2=4x, about

the x-axis from x=1 and x=4.

A. Π

B. 2Π

C. 3Π

D. 9Π

10. The area bounded by the curve y2=12x and the line x=3 is revolved about the line x=3.

What is the volume generated?

A. 176

B. 179

C. 181

D. 184

𝜋/6

11. Evaluate ∫0 𝑐𝑜𝑠8 3A dA

35𝜋

A.

768

45𝜋

B.

768

125𝜋

C. 768

5𝜋

D. 768

A. (AT)T=A

B. A(B+C)=AB+AC

C. A+(B+C)=(A+B)+C

D. (AB)-1=A-1B-1

A. Order 3, degree 2, and non-linear

295

B. Order 3, degree 3, and non-linear

C. Order 3, degree 2, and linear

D. Order 3, degree 3, and linear

A. Ellipse

B. Circle

C. Parabola

D. Hyperbola

15. Find the particular solution of y’’’=0 given that: y(0)=3, y’(1)=4, y’’(2)=6

A. y=2x2-3x+3

B. y=3x2-2x+3

C. y=2x2-2x+2

D. y=3x2+2x-3

A. y=c1 sin 2x + 3 cos 2x

B. y=3sin 2x + c1cos 2x

C. y=c1sin2x + 6 cos 2x

D. y= c1sin 2x-3 cosx

17. There is a 30% chance of rain today. If it does not rain today, there is a 20% chance

of rain tomorrow. If it rains today, there is a 50% chance of rain tomorrow. What is

the probability that it rains tomorrow?

A. 0.27

B. 0.28

C. 0.29

D. 0.26

18. A road run 1200 m from A to B and then makes a right angle going to C, a distance of

500 m. a new road is being built directly from A to C. how much shorter will the new

road be?

A. 600 m

B. 400 m

C. 500 m

D. 300 m

19. A dam was constructed for P 200,000. The annual maintenance cost P 5000. If interest

is 5% the capitalized cost of the dam, including depreciation, is

A. P 100,000

B. P 215,000

C. P 250,000

296

D. P 300,000

20. An investment of x pesos is made at the end of each year for three years, at an interest

rate of 9% per year compounded annually. What will the peso value of the total

investment be upon the deposit of the third payment?

A. 0.772x

B. 1.295x

C. 2.278x

D. 3.2778x

21. A store gives discount at less 26% / less 5% of its tag price of a certain item. The store

wants to increase its discounted sales price by decreasing the discount to less 20% /

less 5%. What Is the effective increase in the discounted sales price?

A. 8.1%

B. 5.7%

C. 12.2%

D. 15.5%

22. A train, an hour after starting, meets with an accident which detains it an hour, after

which it proceeds at 3/5 of its former rate and arrives three hour after time; but had the

accident happened 50 miles farther on the line, it would have arrived one and one-half

hour sooner. Find the length of the journey

A. 910/9 miles

B. 800/9 miles

C. 920/9 miles

D. 850/9 miles

23. Carlo left his home at past 3 o’clock PM as indicated in his wall clock, between 2-3

hours after, Carlo returns home and noticed that hands of the clock interchanged. At

what time did Carlo leave his home?

A. 3:31.47

B. 3:21.45

C. 3:46.10

D. 3:36.50

24. From the time 6:15 PM to the time 7:45 PM of the same day, the minute hand of a

standard clock describe an arc of?

A. 60 degrees

B. 90 degrees

C. 180 degrees

D. 540 degrees

297

25. A rubber ball is made to fall from a height of 50 feet and is observed to rebound 2/3

of the distance it falls. How far will the ball travel before coming to rest if the ball

continues to fall in this manner?

A. 200 feet

B. 225 feet

C. 250 feet

D. 275 feet

26. At present, the sum of the parent’s ages is twice the sum of the children’s ages. Five

years ago, the sum of the parent’s ages was 4 times the sum of the children’s ages.

Fifteen years hence, the sum of the parent’s ages will be equal to the sum of the

children’s ages. How many children are there?

A. 3

B. 4

C. 5

D. 6

27. Twice the sum of two numbers is 28. The sum of the squared of the two numbers is

100. The product of the two numbers is

A. 42

B. 48

C. 54

D. 56

28. A certain job can be done by 72 men in 100 days. There were 80 men at the start of

the project but after 40 days, 30 of them had to be transferred to another ptoject. How

long will it take the remaining workforce to complete the job.

A. 70

B. 90

C. 80

D. 60

29. Eight men can dig 150 ft of trench in 7 hrs. Three men can backfill 100 ft of the trench

in 4 hrs. The time that it will take 10 men to dig and fill 200 ft of trench is ______.

A. 9 hrs 52 mins

B. 10 hrs 24 mins

C. 10 hrs 1 min

D. 10 hrs 46 mins

30. Simplify: cot x – tan x?

A. tan 2x

B. 2 tan x

C. 2 cot 2x

D. cot 2x

298

31. A diagonal of a parallelogram is 56.38 ft long and makes an angle of 27 degree 13’

and 16 degree 24’ respectively with the sides. Find the area of the parallelogram.

A. 595 ft2

B. 585 ft2

C. 575 ft2

D. 565 ft2

32. If the diameter of a sphere is increased by 40 percent by what percent is the volume

increased?

A. 144.7%

B. 147.4%

C. 177.4%

D. 174.4%

33. Transform the equation of the circle x2 + y2 = 16 into an equation in polar coordinates.

A. r=4

B. r sine = 4

C. r = 16

D. r cose = 4

34. if (0, 4) and (1, 6) are critical points of y = a + bx + cx3, find the value of c.

A. 1

B. 2

C. -1

D. -2

35. Five cards are drawn at random from a pack of 52 well – shuffled cards. Find the

probability that 3 are 10’s and 2 are queens.

A. 1/649,740

B. 1/108,290

C. 1/32

D. 1/54,350

A. Triangle C. Pentagon

B. Square D. Hexagon

37. A cylinder tank of radius 10 feet is being filled with water at a rate of 314 cubic feet

per minute. How fast is the depth of water increasing?

A. 1 fpm

B. 2 fpm

C. 3 fpm

D. 4 fpm

299

38. The cords of an ellipse, which pass through the center, are known as ____.

A. Asymptote

B. Radical Axis

C. Major Axes

D. Diameters

39. If a company spends P 12,000 now and P 5,000 per year for 10 years, with first P5,000

expenditure made 4 years from now, the rate of return would it make if its income

were P4,000 per year starting in year 8 and continuing through year 25 is

A. 5.1%

B. 1.5%

C. 4.2%

D. 1.2%

40. The present worth of a series that decreases uniformly, y P200 per year, from P4,000

in year 11 to P2,200 in year 20, if interest equals 105 is

A. P7,709.1

B. P9,707.2

C. P10,709.1

D. P6,910

41. Consider a project that costs P 14,762, with an indefinite life. if the cash in years

1,3,5…(i.e., every odd year is P 1,000 and the cash flows in years 2,4,6… (i.e., every

even year) is P 2,000, find the rate of return of the investment.

A. 9%

B. 11%

C. 10%

D. 12%

42. A man deposited P 10, 000 in a savings account when his son was born. The normal

interest rate was 8% per year compounded continuously. On the son’s 18th birthday,

the accumulated sum is withdrawn from the account. The amount of this accumulated

amount is

A. P42,810

B. P42,210

C. P42,920

D. P48,210

43. The present equivalent of a uniform series of annual payments of P3,500 each for 5

years if the interest rate is 10% compound continuously is

A. P11,300 C. P12,095

B. P14,100 D. P13,100

300

44. When a business calculates taxable income from gross income, which of the following

is true?

A. Depreciation, interest and principal are all subtracted

B. Depreciation and interest are subtracted, principal is not

C. Depreciation is subtracted, interest and principal are not

D. Interest and principal, and depreciation is not

45. What two cost categories form the trade off that leads to an optimal replacement

interval?

A. Direct costs and indirect costs

B. Insider costs and outsider costs

C. Operating & maintenance costs and recovery costs

D. Sunk costs and opportunity costs

46. Mike’s veneer shop owns a vacuum press that requires annual maintenance. Mike has

a contract to cover the maintenance expenses for the next five years. The contract calls

for an annual payment of P600 with adjustment each year for inflation, inflation is

expected to hold constant at 6% / yr over this period. The then-current cash flow

pattern for this expense is best described by which of the following?

A. Uniform series

B. Gradient series

C. Geometric series

D. Continuous series

47. When done correctly, what is the relationship between the present worth of an

alternative calculated using a then-current approach and the present worth of the

alternative calculated using a constant-worth approach?

A. They are equal

B. Then-current PW is higher because it uses a lower discount rate

C. Constant worth PW is higher because is uses a lower discount rate

D. Cannot be determined without knowing the cash flows and inflation rate

A. True

B. False

49. Which among the following statements is not true regarding the codes of ethics?

A. They are based on human values

B. They involve persons learning what is right or wrong, and then doing what is

beneficial to them

C. They include the fundamental ground rules by which people live by

D. They are lists of guidelines that govern a person’s conduct

301

50. How many years comprise one term for the members of the ChE Regulatory Board?

A. 3

B. 5

C. 4

D. 6

51. Which of the following is considered as an objective for giving licensure examinations

for qualified ChE applicants?

A. To limit the number of applicants allowed to practice the profession

B. To keep the quality of licensed chemical engineers at par with the best in the world

C. To test the overall knowledge and proficiency of the applicants for the practice off the

profession

D. All of the above

52. Determine the single force that will replace the following coplanar forces: 120 N, 30

degree; 200 N, 110 degree; 170 N, 240 degree; and 80 N, 300 degree.

A. 351 N, 175 degrees

B. 351 N, 165 degrees

C. 372 N, 175 degrees

D. 372 N, 165 degrees

53. A 50 ft airplane wing is subjected to a test load P=70.7x10^2 that varies parabolically

from 0 to 500 lb/ft, determine the resultant load and its location.

A. 14,322 lb, 28 ft

B. 14, 332 lb, 30 ft

C. 16,664 lb, 28 ft

D. 16,664 lb, 30 ft

54. Determine the resultant of the three forces originating at point (3, -3) and passing

through the points indicated: 126 N through (8,6) 183 through (2, -5), and 269 N

through (-6, 3).

A.

B. 263 N

C. 293 N

D. 323 N

E. 353 N

55. The maximum stress to which a material may be subjected without the occurrence of

permanent strain remaining upon the complete release to stress.

A. Ultimate stress

B. Rupture point

C. Resilience point

D. Elastic limit

302

56. Property of material which implies resistance to shock of difficulty of breaking and

expresses the work per unit volume required to fracture a material

A. Malleability

B. Toughness

C. Hardness

D. Stiffness

Question #57-58 are based on the given beam carrying the triangular loads

Wo Wo

L/2 L/2

R1 R2

57. Determine the value of reaction 1 and 2.

A. ½ Lwo , ¼ Lwo C. ¼ Lwo, ¼ Lwo

B. 2Lwo, 1/4 Lwo D. ½ Lwo, ½ Lwo

58. The shear from A to B is increasing, thus the slope of shear A to B is ____.

A. Decreasing

B. Increasing

C. Zero

D. Undetermined

59. A solid circular shaft is required to transmit 200 kW while turning at 1.5 rev/s. the

allowable shearing stress is 42 MPa. Find the required shaft diameter.

A. 138 mm

B. 183 mm

C. 381 mm

D. 118 mm

60. A 17-kg ladder has a center of mass at G. if the coefficients of friction at A and B are

μA=0.3 and μB=0.2, respectively, determine the smallest horizontal force that the man

must exert of the ladder at point C in order to push the ladder forward.

A. F= 120.2 N

B. F= 288 N

C. F= 166.8 N

D. F= 204 N

303

ANSWER KEY

1.) A. Ellipse 31.) A. 595 ft2

2.) C. ½ 32.) D. 174.4%

3.) B. ex (cos x2-2xsin x2) 33.) A. r=4

4.) B. thrice 34.) -1

3

5.) B. y=x 35.) E. 1/1,082,900

6.) B. 593 36.) B. square

7.) A. 2x-2ln(x+2) + C 37.) A. 1fpm

8.) B. 144 38.) D. Diameters

9.) D. 9 Π 39.) B. 1.5%

10.) C. 181 40.) A. P 7,709.1

35𝑛

11.) A. 768 41.) B. 11%

12.) D. AB)-1=A-1B-1 42.) B. P 42,210

13.) A. Order 3, degree 2, and non-linear 43.) D. P 13,100

14.) C. Parabola 44.) B. Depreciation and interest re

15.) B. y=3x2-2x+3 subtracted, principal is not

16.) A. y=c1 sin 2x + 3 cos 2x 45.) C. Operating & maintenance costs and

17.) C. 0.29 recovery costs

18.) B. 400 m 46.) C. Geometric Series

19.) D. P 300,000 47.) A. They are equal

20.) D. 3.2778X 48.) A. True

21.) A. 8.1% 49.) B. They involve persons learning what

22.) B. 800/9 is right or wrong, and then doing what

23.) A. 3:31:47 is beneficial to them

24.) D. 540 degrees 50.) A. 3

25.) C. 250 feet 51.) C. To test the overall knowledge and

26.) C. 5 proficiency of the applicants for the

27.) B. 48 practice off the profession

28.) C. 80 52.) A. 351 N, 175 degrees

29.) A. 9 hrs 52 mins 53.) D. 16,664 lb, 30 ft

30.) C. 2 cot 2x 54.) A. 263 N

55.) D. Elastic Limit

56.) B. Toughness

57.) C. ¼ Lwo, ¼ Lwo

58.) A. Decreasing

59.) A. 138 mm

60.) D. 204 N

304

FINAL EXAMINATION – PART III/GE

SOLUTIONS

𝑋 3 2𝑋 9

3

𝑋 − 2𝑋 + 9 3 − 3+ 3 𝟏

2. lim = 𝑋 𝑋 𝑋 =

𝑛→∞ 2𝑋 3 − 8 2𝑋 3 8 𝟐

− 3

𝑋3 𝑋

3. Derivative of y = e x cos x2

udv + vdu

let u = ex let v = cos x 2

du = ex dv = -2x sin x 2

6.

V = lwh

20 x V = (20-2x) (20-2x) x

x V = 400x − 80x 2 + 4x 3

𝑉 ′ = 400 − 160𝑥 + 12𝑥 2 = 0

10

x2 = 3

V = 592.59 = 593

2x + 2

7. Integral of ∫ dx

x+2

x+1 1

= ∫2 dx = 2 ∫ dx −

x+2 x+2

let u = x + 2

du = dx

du

= 2 ∫ dx −

u

= 𝟐𝐱 − 𝟐 𝐥𝐧(𝐱 + 𝟐) + 𝐂

305

8. Length of arc y2 = x 3 x=0; x=1

dy 2

Length of arc = √1 + ( dx) dx

1

𝑑𝑦 3

𝑦 = 𝑥 3/2 = 2 𝑥2

𝑑𝑥

1 2

3

Length of arc = √1 + ( 2 𝑥 2 ) dx

4 2

9. V = πx ∫ (√4X) − X2 dx

1

V = 𝟗𝝅

10. Volume

V = 2π ∫r^2 dy from 0 to 6

= 2π ∫(3 - y^2/12)^2 dy from 0 to 6

= 2π ∫(9 - (1/2)y^2 + y^4/144) dy

= 2π [ 9y - (1/6)y^3 + (1/720)y^5] from 0 to 6

= 2π ( 54 - 216/6 + 7776/720 - 0 )

= 2π(144/5)

= 288π/5

V = 180.96

𝜋

11. Evaluate ∫06 cos 8 3A dA

= (sin 18( Π/6) + 9 sin 12 (Π/6) + 45 sin 6(Π/6) + 180 (Π/6)) – (sin 18(0) +

9 sin 12(0) + 45 sin 6(0) + 180(0))

𝛑/𝟔 𝟑𝟓𝛑

∫𝟎 𝐜𝐨𝐬𝟖 3A dA = 𝟕𝟔𝟖

306

14. dy + 7x dx = 0 ; C=10

dy/dx + 7x = 0

∫ y′ = ∫ 7x

7𝑥 2

𝑦= − therefore, parabola

2

y = 3x 2 − 2x + 3

y(0) = 3 y’ = 6x – 2 y’’ = 6

3 = 3(0)2 − 2(0) + 3 y’(1) = 6(1) – 2 y’’(2) = 6

3=3 4=4 6=6

y’’’ = 0 therefore, 𝐲 = 𝟑𝐱 𝟐 − 𝟐𝐱 + 𝟑

0=0 is a solution

𝑑2 𝑦

16. + 4𝑦 = 0

𝑑𝑥 2

y = C1sin2x + 3cos2x

y1 = C12cos2x + 3 [-2sin2x]

y11 = C12[-2sin2x] + 3(-6)(2cos2x)

y11 = -4C1sin2x – 12cos2x

𝑑2 𝑦

𝑑𝑥 2

+ 4𝑦 = 0

-4C1sin2x – 12cos2x + 4 (C1sin2x + 3cos2x) = 0

-4C1sin2x – 12cos2x + 4C1sin2x + 12cos2x = 0

0=0

𝑑2 𝑦

Therefore, y = C1sin2x + 5cos2x is a solution of 𝑑𝑥2 + 4𝑦 = 0

probability = (0.3(0.5)) + (0.7(0.2))

Probability = 0.29

307

18. How much shorter the new road be?

d2 = 1300

1200 m

d1 = 1200 + 500 = 1700

B

A

d2 = 1300

A z = 1700 – 1300

C

500 m A

z = 400 m

A

Total Investment = 200,000 + 5,000 / 0.05

0 1 2 3 interest rate = 9% compounded annually

payment =

1 + (1+0.09) +

2

(1+0.09)

x x x Total investment = 3.2781x

22. Condition 1:

S−V

1+1+ 3 =t+3

V

5

S−V

3 = t+1

V

5

S

Substitute t = :

V

5 S

(S − V) = +1

3V V

308

2 S 8

( )=

3 V 3

𝑆

𝑉= 4

Condition 2:

50+V S−(50+V) 3

+1 3 =t+

V V 2

5

50+V 5 S 1

[

V

+

3V

(S − 50 − V) =

V

+ 2

]V

5 250 5 V

50 + V + S− − V=S+

3 3 3 2

𝑆 5 250 5 𝑆 1 𝑆

50 + + 𝑆 − − ( )=𝑆+ ( )

4 3 3 3 4 2 4

100 3

- = 𝑆

3 8

𝟖𝟎𝟎

𝐒= 𝐦𝐢𝐥𝐞𝐬

𝟗

23. Substitute 1:

𝑦

x = 30 +

12

Substitute 2:

𝑥

y = 15 +

12

𝑥

15

12

x = 30 +

12

𝑥

15

12

[𝑥 = 30 + ] 12

12

𝑥

12x = 360 + 15 +

12

x = 31.47 minutes

309

24. 6:15 PM to 7:45 PM of the same day

1hr = 360 degrees

6:15 to 7:45 = 1 ½ hour

2 100

25. a1 = 50 [ ]= ; n=∞

3 3

100

𝑎1 3

S= = 2 = 100

1−𝑟 1−

3

D = 50 + 2S

D = 50 + 2(100)

D = 250 feet

Parents 2x - 10 2x 2x + 30

Children x – 5n x x + 15n

2x – 10 = 4(x-5n) 2x + 30 = x + 15n

2x – 10 = 4x – 20n X = 15n – 30

equation 2

X = 15n – 30 equation 1

n = 5 children

2(x + y) = 28 x2 + y2 = 100

310

28− 2y 2

2x + 2y = 28 ( ) + 𝑦 2 = 100

2

28− 2y

x= y=8 ; x=6

2

x(y) = 8 * 6 x(y)= 48

man * hours

x days = 80 days

29. Time it will take for 10 men to dig an fill 200 ft of trench

man hours / ft

8 men (7 hours) 4 men (3 hours) 10 men (x hours)

+ =

150 ft 100ft 200ft

x hours = 9.8667 hours

x hours = 9 hr 52 min

cos 𝑥 sin 𝑥 cos 2 𝑥 − sin2 𝑥 cos 2𝑥

= − = =

sin 𝑥 cos 𝑥 sin 𝑥 cos 𝑥 sin 2𝑥

2

cot x – tan x = 2 cot 2x

4

V1 sphere = 3 πr 3 If diameter is increased by

40%

4

V2 sphere = π(1.4r)3

3

4

V2 sphere = π(1.4r)3 =

3

311

% increase in volume = (V2 – V1) x 100= (2.74 – 1) x 100

x2 + y2 = 16

x = r cos θ ; y = sin θ

4 3 2 4 3

Probability = ∗ ∗ ∗ ∗

52 51 50 49 48

𝟏

𝐏𝐫𝐨𝐛𝐚𝐛𝐢𝐥𝐢𝐭𝐲 =

𝟏, 𝟎𝟖𝟐, 𝟗𝟎𝟎

Volumetric flow rate = 314 ft3 / min

Diameter of cylinder = 10 ft

ft3

314

min

rate of increase in depth =

π(10ft3)

= 4k (P/A , x, 17)(P/F , x , 8)

Get x

x = 1.5%

312

40. Present worth of series that decreases uniformly

Present worth = (400(P/A, 10%, 10) – 20(P/G, 10%, 10)(P/F, 10%, 10))

1000 2000

(1+x) + (1+x)2 = 14762

(1+𝑥)2 −1 (1+𝑥)2 −1

x = 11.5%

P = P 10,000 , r = 8% per year compounded continuously, n = 18 years

F = P(enr )

F = 10000(e18(0.08))

F = 42,206.96 = 42,210

A = P 3500 , r = 8%

(1 + i )n − 1

P=A ; i = er − 1

i ( 1 + i )n

(1 + (e0.1 − 1))5 − 1

P = 3500 0.1

(e − 1)(1 + (e0.1 − 1))5

P = P 13,094.43 = P 13,100

F1 = 120 N,30 ̊ F3 = 340 N, 180 ̊ F5 = 80 N, 300 ̊

Complex:

313

∑ 𝐹 = 120 < 30° + 200 < 110° + 340 < 180° + 170 < 240° + 80 < 300°

9

dy1 = 6 + 3 = 9 dy2 = -3 + 5 = 2 dy3 = 3 + 3 =

6

9

θ1 = tan−1 5 = 60.94°

θ2 = tan−1 2 + 180 = 243.43°

6

θ3 = 180 − tan−1 = 146.31°

9

F = 262.53 = 263 N

Wo Wo

L/2 L/2

R1 R2

1 L L 1 1 L L L 2

R1 = 2 (2) Wo (2) (3) + 2 (2) Wo (2 + 2 (3))

𝟏

R1 = 𝟒 𝐋𝐖𝐨 = R2

314

60. NB

FB

P

G = 17 kg

FA

NA

Fx = 0 Fy = 0

FA + NB = P 17 kg (9.81 m/ s2) + FB = NA

0.3NA + NB = P (1) 166.7 + 0.2NB = NA (2)

Moment at G:

-2(cos 50)NA – 2(cos 50)0.3NA + (cos 50)P – 2(cos 50)0.2NB + 2(cos 50)NB = 0

-1.6712 NA + 0.6427 P + 1.0284 NB = 0 (3)

NA = 202.61 N

NB = 179.24 N

P = 240 N

315

316

Removal Examination – Part I

Physical and Chemical Principles

1. Archaeologists can determine the age of an artifact made of wood or bone by measuring

the amount of the radioactive isotope 14C present in the object. The amount of isotope

decreases in a first order process. If 15.5% of the original amount of 14C is present in a

wooden tool at the time of analysis, what is the age of the tool? The half life of 14C is 5730

years.

a. 15,411.76 years b. 14,411.46 years c. 11,411.16 years d. 17,411.46 years

2. Consider the molecular substances I2, H2O, and C8H18. Which of them is/are soluble

in CCl4?

a. only I2 b. only H20 c. only C8H18 d. I2 and C8H18 e. H2O and

C8H18

3.Consider the following half-reactions and select the strongest oxidizing agent present:

Sr2+(aq) + 2e- —> Sr(s) E° = -2.89 V

Cr2+(aq) + 2e- -> Cr(s) E° = -0.913 V Co2+(aq) + 2e- -> Co(s) E° = -0.28 V

a. Cr2+(aq) b. Sr2+(aq) c. Co2+(aq) d. Sr(s) e.

Co(s)

4. A solution composed 10 grams of non-volatile organic solute in 100 grams of diethyl

ether (CH3CH2OCH2CH3) has a vapour pressure of 426.0 mm Hg at 20°C. If the vapor

pressure of the pure diethyl ether is 442.2 mm Hg at the same temperature, what is the

molecular weight of solute?

a. 149.6g/mole b. 164.8 g/mol c. 186.4 g/mol d. 194.8 g/mol

5. The chemical name of Tumbull's blue is

a. ferrous ferricyanide b. cuprous chloride c. ferric ferrocyanide d.cupric

chloride

6. Find the pH of a solution made by diluting one drop (0.04 mL) of 0.10 N HCI to 10

liters.

A. 6.37 B. 7.24 C. 8.14 D. 8.55

7. An air sampling program sampled 100,000 L of particle size. The following mass of

particles were collected: 12 mg retained with size greater than 2.5 μm; and 6 mg retained

with size less than 2.5 μm. What are the PM2.5 and TSP concentrations (in ppm) of this

air sample respectively?

a. 6.0 x 10-4; 1.8 x 10-4 c. 6.0 x 104; 6.0 x 10-5

317

b. 1.2 x 10-4; 1.8 x 10-4 d. 1.2 x 10-4; 6.0 x 10-5

8. Disaccharides are carbohydrates composed of two monosaccharide residues united by a

gycolylycosidic linkage. Which of the following is inappropriate?

a. sucrose + water —> glucose + fructose c. maltose + water —> glucose +

glucose

b. lactose + water —> glucose + glucose d. lactose + water —> galactose +

glucose

9. Which vitamin is not a fat soluble?

a. A b. C c. K d. E

10. Which of the following potential contaminant is the most resistant to heat sterilization?

a. Pseudomonas aeruginosa c. Aspergillus niger

b. Clostridium botulinum d. Saccharomyces cerevisiae

11. Melamine is officially 1,3,5-triazine-2,4,6-triamine in the IUPAC nomenclature

system. It is used in fire retardants in polymer resins because its high nitrogen content

released as flame stifling nitrogen gas when the compound is burned or charred. What is

the chemical formula of melamine?

a. C3H6N3 b. C3H6N4 c. C3H6N5 d. C3H6N6

12. A sample of polystyrene prepared by heating styrene with tribromobenzoyl peroxide in

the absence of air has the formula Br3C6H3(C8H8)n where n varies with the preparation.

If a certain sample of polystyrene is found to contain 20.01 /o Br, what is the value of n?

a. 8 b. 10 c. 20 d. 15

13. For the reaction 3A(g) + 3B (g) —> 2C (s) + 3D (g), the equilibrium concentration are

0.3M of A, 0.5 M B, 0.2 M of C and 0.5 M of D, find the equilibrium constants

a. 37.04 b.0.74 c. 12.3 d. 0.075

14. A mixture of N2 and H2 was allowed to come to an equilibrium at a given temperature.

An analysis of the mixture at equilibrium contained 2.0 mol N2, 3.0 mol H2, and 2.5 mol

NH3. How many moles of H2 present at the beginning of the reaction?

a. 3.5 b. 5.3 c. 7.5 d. 6.7

15. If an enzyme is inhibited non-competitively by the product a reaction sequence in which

the enzyme precipitates, the enzyme is?

a. Inhibited b. Modulator c. Allosteric d. Zymogen

16. A solution of 1.25 g of non-electrolyte solute in 20 g water freezes at 291.94K, find the

molecular weight of the solute.

318

a. 110 b. 6.86 c. 180 d. 56.2

17. What is the pH of the resulting solution made by mixing 5ml of 0.2178M HCI and

15ml of 0.1156M NH3? Kwm =1 8x10 s

a. 9.49 b. 9.90 c. 9.02 d. 12.74

18. Calculate the molarity of NaOH solution if 18.25mL was used to titrate 0.4815 gram

of primary standard KHP

a. 0.18 b. 0.13 c. 0.26 d. 0.16

19. What is the pH of a 0.068 M aqueous solution of sodium cyanide? Ka for HCN = 4.9

x 10’°

a. 0.74 b. 2.93 c. 11.07 d.13.26

20. Histamine, an organic nitrogenous compound which can cause allergic rhinitis, can be

produced in our body through the decarboxylation of the amino acid histidine. Given that

18 mM of the decarboxylase is used and 5 mM of histidine forms. Calculate the Michaelis-

Menten constant if the reaction velocity and the TON are 6 mM/s and 37/s respectively.

a. 0.330 M b. 0.440 M c. 0.550 M d. 0.660 M

21. What weight of impure ferrous ammonium sulfate should be taken for analysis so that

the number of centigrams of BaS04 obtained will represent five times the percentage of S

in the sample?

a. 0.59 g b. 0.69 g c.0.79 g d.0.89 g

22. An oxide of the element M has the formula M207 and it is known from experiments

that 1.000 gram of M combines with an excess of oxygen to form 2.019 grams of oxide.

The element M is

a. aluminum b. chlorine c. manganese d. iron

23. All of the following are correctly stated underlying principles used to build up the

configuration of a many electron atom, EXCEPT

a. Pauli principle: no two electrons can have an identical set of quantum numbers.

b. Aufbau principle: atomic orbitals are filled with electrons from lowest energy to higher

energies.

c. Hund’s rule: electrons in degenerate orbitals are arranged to minimize the number of

unpaired spins.

d. All of the above statements are correct.

24. In the most stable conformation of trans-1,4-dimethylcyclohexane, what positions do

the methyl groups occupy?

319

a. Axial, axial b. Equitorial, axial c. Equitorial, equitorial d. Axial,

equitorial

25. The pKa for formic acid is 3.74. What is the pH of the solution resulting from addition

of 0.50 moles of formic acid (HCOOH) and 0 30 mole sodium formate (HCOO-) to enough

water to create a final volume of 1.0 L?

a. 2.18 b. 2.78 c. 3.52 d. 4.28

26. Formic acid is a monobasic acid that is 4.6% ionized in 0.10M aq. solution at 25°C. If

a 25 mL pipetful of a 0.25N aq. solution of formic acid is diluted to 200 mL and titrated

with 0.33N NaOH, what indicator would be suitable in this titration? I

a. Methyl orange c. Bromothymol blue

b. Cresol red d. Phenolphthalein

27. A certain solution may contain any of the following solutes: NaH2P04, HCI, H3P04,

Na2HP04. A 25 mL portion is titrated with 0.2N NaOH and with an indicator changing

color at approximately pH 9, the end point is at 48.0 mL of NaOH. A second 25 mL sample

is titrated with 0.2N NaOH, and with an indicator changing color at approximately pH 4,

the end point is at 32.5 mL of the NaOH. What active solutes are present in significant

amounts in the original solution?

a. NaH2P04, HCl b. HCl, H3P04 c. H3P04, Na2HP04 d. NaH2P04,

Na2HP04

28. What should be the “iron value" of a solution of KMn04 so that when a sample of

impure Na3As03 weighing 0.5 g is titrated to arsenate with the permanganate, the

percentage of As203 in the sample will be twice the buret reading?

a. 0.0113 g b. 0.0224 g c. 0.0335 g d. 0.0446 g

29. Bromide can be determined by precipitating as AgBr, heating in a current of Cl2 and

weighing the resulting AgCl. What would be the gravimetric factor for finding the

percentage bromine?

a. Less than 1 b. 1 c. More than 1 d. Insufficient Information

30. Trouton's rule slates that many substances have entropies of vaporization close to 88

J/mol-K. Which of the following is the best rationale for Trouton’s rule?

a. Most substances have similar enthalpies of vaporization

b. Most substances have similar boiling points.

c. The change in disorder in going from one mole of liquid to one mole of gas is similar

for many substances.

d. Entropy changes for most processes are about 88 J/mol-K.

320

SOLUTIONS

1. Archaeologists can determine the age of an artifact made of wood or bone by measuring

the amount of the radioactive isotope 14C present in the object. The amount of isotope

decreases in a first order process. If 15.5% of the original amount of 14C is present in a

wooden tool at the time of analysis, what is the age of the tool? The half life of 14C is 5730

years.

a. 15,411.76 years b. 14,411.46 years c. 11,411.16 years d. 17,411.46 years

Solutions:

1

ln ( ) = −𝑘𝑡

2

1

ln ( ) = −𝑘 (5730)

2

𝑘 = 1.20968 𝑥 10−4

𝒕 = 𝟏𝟓, 𝟒𝟏𝟏. 𝟕𝟔 𝒚𝒆𝒂𝒓𝒔

2. Consider the molecular substances I2, H2O, and C8H18. Which of them is/are soluble

in CCl4?

a. only I2 b. only H20 c. only C8H18 d. I2 and C8H18 e. H2O and

C8H18

3.Consider the following half-reactions and select the strongest oxidizing agent present:

Sr2+(aq) + 2e- —> Sr(s) E° = -2.89 V

Cr2+(aq) + 2e- -> Cr(s) E° = -0.913 V Co2+(aq) + 2e- -> Co(s) E° = -0.28 V

a. Cr2+(aq) b. Sr2+(aq) c. Co2+(aq) d. Sr(s) e.

Co(s)

4. A solution composed 10 grams of non-volatile organic solute in 100 grams of diethyl

ether (CH3CH2OCH2CH3) has a vapour pressure of 426.0 mm Hg at 20°C. If the vapor

pressure of the pure diethyl ether is 442.2 mm Hg at the same temperature, what is the

molecular weight of solute?

a. 149.6g/mole b. 164.8 g/mol c. 186.4 g/mol d. 194.8 g/mol

Solutions:

321

10 100 100

( + ) (426) = ( ) (442.2)

𝑥 74.14 74.14

𝒙 = 𝟏𝟗𝟒. 𝟗𝟔 𝒈/𝒎𝒐𝒍

5. The chemical name of Tumbull's blue is

a. ferrous ferricyanide b. cuprous chloride c. ferric ferrocyanide d.cupric

chloride

6. Find the pH of a solution made by diluting one drop (0.04 mL) of 0.10 N HCI to 10

liters.

A. 6.37 B. 7.24 C. 8.14 D. 8.55

Solutions:

𝑝𝐻 = −log[𝐻 +]

𝑚𝑜𝑙

0.1 𝐿 (0.4𝑥10−3 𝐿)

𝑝𝐻 = − log(

10 𝐿

𝒑𝑯 = 𝟔. 𝟑𝟗𝟖

7. An air sampling program sampled 100,000 L of particle size. The following mass of

particles were collected: 12 mg retained with size greater than 2.5 μm; and 6 mg retained

with size less than 2.5 μm. What are the PM2.5 and TSP concentrations (in ppm) of this

air sample respectively?

a. 6.0 x 10-4; 1.8 x 10-4 c. 6.0 x 104; 6.0 x 10-5

b. 1.2 x 10-4; 1.8 x 10-4 d. 1.2 x 10-4; 6.0 x 10-5

Solutions:

12 𝑚𝑔

= 𝟏. 𝟐 𝒙 𝟏𝟎−𝟒 𝒑𝒑𝒎

100000 𝐿

18 𝑚𝑔

= 𝟏. 𝟖 𝒙 𝟏𝟎−𝟒 𝒑𝒑𝒎

100000 𝐿

8. Disaccharides are carbohydrates composed of two monosaccharide residues united by a

gycolylycosidic linkage. Which of the following is inappropriate?

a. sucrose + water —> glucose + fructose c. maltose + water —> glucose +

glucose

b. lactose + water —> glucose + glucose d. lactose + water —> galactose +

glucose

322

9. Which vitamin is not a fat soluble?

a. A b. C c. K d. E

10. Which of the following potential contaminant is the most resistant to heat sterilization?

a. Pseudomonas aeruginosa c. Aspergillus niger

b. Clostridium botulinum d. Saccharomyces cerevisiae

11. Melamine is officially 1,3,5-triazine-2,4,6-triamine in the IUPAC nomenclature

system. It is used in fire retardants in polymer resins because its high nitrogen content

released as flame stifling nitrogen gas when the compound is burned or charred. What is

the chemical formula of melamine?

a. C3H6N3 b. C3H6N4 c. C3H6N5 d. C3H6N6

12. A sample of polystyrene prepared by heating styrene with tribromobenzoyl peroxide in

the absence of air has the formula Br3C6H3(C8H8)n where n varies with the preparation.

If a certain sample of polystyrene is found to contain 20.01 % Br, what is the value of n?

a. 8 b. 10 c. 20 d. 15

Solutions:

𝑀𝑎𝑠𝑠 𝐵𝑟

%𝐵𝑟 =

𝑀𝑜𝑙𝑒𝑐𝑢𝑙𝑎𝑟 𝑤𝑒𝑖𝑔ℎ𝑡

3 (79.91)

0.2001 =

3(79.91) + 75.09 + 𝑥(104.16)

𝑥 = 8.47

𝒙 ≈𝟖

13. For the reaction 3A(g) + 3B (g) —> 2C (s) + 3D (g), the equilibrium concentration are

0.3M of A, 0.5 M B, 0.2 M of C and 0.5 M of D, find the equilibrium constants

a. 37.04 b.0.74 c. 12.3 d. 0.075

Solutions:

[𝐷]3

𝐾 =

[𝐴]3 [𝐵]3

[0.5]3

𝐾 = = 𝟑𝟕. 𝟎𝟒

[0.3]3 [0.5]3

323

14. A mixture of N2 and H2 was allowed to come to an equilibrium at a given temperature.

An analysis of the mixture at equilibrium contained 2.0 mol N2, 3.0 mol H2, and 2.5 mol

NH3. How many moles of H2 present at the beginning of the reaction?

a. 3.5 b. 5.3 c. 7.5 d. 6.7

Solutions:

𝑁2 + 3𝐻2 → 2𝑁𝐻3

i x x 0

c -1.25 -3.75 2.5

e 2 3 2.5

𝑥 − 3.75 = 3

𝒙 = 𝟔. 𝟕𝟓

15. If an enzyme is inhibited non-competitively by the product a reaction sequence in which

the enzyme precipitates, the enzyme is?

a. Inhibited b. Modulator c. Allosteric d. Zymogen

16. A solution of 1.25 g of non-electrolyte solute in 20 g water freezes at 291.94K, find the

molecular weight of the solute.

a. 110 b. 6.86 c. 180 d. 56.2

Solutions:

𝑥

18.79 = (1.86)

0.020

𝑥 = 0.2020

1.25

𝑀𝑊 = = 𝟔. 𝟖𝟔

0.2020

17. What is the pH of the resulting solution made by mixing 5ml of 0.2178M HCI and

15ml of 0.1156M NH3? KNH3 =1 8x10-5

a. 9.49 b. 9.90 c. 9.02 d. 12.74

Solutions:

𝑁𝐻3 + 𝐻𝐶𝑙 → 𝑁𝐻4 + + 𝐶𝑙 −

i i 0.645

1.734 1.089

0 0

1.089 00

cc -1.089

-x -1.089 1.089

x x

ee0.645-x

0.645 0 1.089

1.089+x x

324

𝑁𝐻3 + 𝐻2 𝑂 → 𝑁𝐻4 + + 𝑂𝐻 −

(1.089 + 𝑥 )(𝑥 )

1.8 𝑥 10−5 =

(0.645 − 𝑥 )

𝑥 = 1.0661𝑥10−5 𝑀 [𝑂𝐻 −]

𝑝𝐻 = 14 − 𝑝𝑂𝐻

𝑝𝐻 = 14 + log(1.0661𝑥10−5 )

𝒑𝑯 = 𝟗. 𝟎𝟑

18. Calculate the molarity of NaOH solution if 18.25mL was used to titrate 0.4815 gram

of primary standard KHP

a. 0.18 b. 0.13 c. 0.26 d. 0.16

Solutions:

1 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝐾𝐻𝑃 1 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝑁𝑎𝑂𝐻

0.4815 𝑔 𝐾𝐻𝑃 ( )( )

204.05 𝑔 1 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝐾𝐻𝑃

[𝑁𝑎𝑂𝐻 ] =

0.01825 𝐿

[𝑁𝑎𝑂𝐻] = 0.1293 𝑀 = 𝟎. 𝟏𝟑 𝑴

19. What is the pH of a 0.068 M aqueous solution of sodium cyanide? Ka for HCN = 4.9

x 10-10

a. 0.74 b. 2.93 c. 11.07 d.13.26

Solutions:

1 [𝑀]

𝑝𝐻 = 14 + log ( )

2 𝐾𝑎

1 0.068

𝑝𝐻 = 14 + log ( )

2 4.9 𝑥 10−10

𝒑𝑯 = 𝟏𝟏. 𝟎𝟕

20. Histamine, an organic nitrogenous compound which can cause allergic rhinitis, can be

produced in our body through the decarboxylation of the amino acid histidine. Given that

18 mM of the decarboxylase is used and 5 mM of histidine forms. Calculate the Michaelis-

Menten constant if the reaction velocity and the TON are 6 mM/s and 37/s respectively.

a. 0.330 M b. 0.440 M c. 0.550 M d. 0.660 M

Solutions:

𝑉𝑚𝑎𝑥 (𝐶𝑠)

𝑉 =

𝐾𝑚 + 𝐶𝑠

325

37

𝑚𝑀 ( 𝑠 )(5𝑚𝑀)(18𝑚𝑀)

6 =

𝑠 𝐾𝑚 + 18𝑚𝑀

𝐾𝑚 = 550 𝑚𝑀

𝑲𝒎 = 𝟎. 𝟓𝟓𝟎 𝑴

21. What weight of impure ferrous ammonium sulfate should be taken for analysis so that

the number of centigrams of BaS04 obtained will represent five times the percentage of S

in the sample?

a. 0.59 g b. 0.69 g c.0.79 g d.0.89 g

22. An oxide of the element M has the formula M207 and it is known from experiments

that 1.000 gram of M combines with an excess of oxygen to form 2.019 grams of oxide.

The element M is

a. aluminum b. chlorine c. manganese d. iron

Solutions:

1 𝑔 𝑀 + 𝑂2 = 2.019 𝑔 𝑀2 𝑂7

7

2𝑀+ 𝑂 → 𝑀2 𝑂7

2 2

1 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝑀 1 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝑀2 𝑂7 2𝑥 + 7(16)

1𝑔𝑀( )( )( = 2.019 𝑔 𝑀2 𝑂7

𝑥𝑔𝑀 2 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝑀 1 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝑀2 𝑂7

𝑔

𝑥 = 54.9558

𝑚𝑜𝑙

𝑻𝒉𝒆𝒓𝒆𝒇𝒐𝒓𝒆 , 𝑴 𝒊𝒔 𝑴𝒂𝒏𝒈𝒂𝒏𝒆𝒔𝒆

23. All of the following are correctly stated underlying principles used to build up the

configuration of a many electron atom, EXCEPT

a. Pauli principle: no two electrons can have an identical set of quantum numbers.

b. Aufbau principle: atomic orbitals are filled with electrons from lowest energy to higher

energies.

c. Hund’s rule: electrons in degenerate orbitals are arranged to minimize the number of

unpaired spins.

d. All of the above statements are correct.

24. In the most stable conformation of trans-1,4-dimethylcyclohexane, what positions do

the methyl groups occupy?

a. Axial, axial b. Equitorial, axial c. Equitorial, equitorial d. Axial,

equitorial

326

25. The pKa for formic acid is 3.74. What is the pH of the solution resulting from addition

of 0.50 moles of formic acid (HCOOH) and 0.30 mole sodium formate (HCOO-) to enough

water to create a final volume of 1.0 L?

a. 2.18 b. 2.78 c. 3.52 d. 4.28

Solutions:

0.3

𝑝𝐻 = 14 + log ( )

0.5

𝒑𝑯 = 𝟑. 𝟓𝟐

26. Formic acid is a monobasic acid that is 4.6% ionized in 0.10M aq. solution at 25°C. If

a 25 mL pipetful of a 0.25N aq. solution of formic acid is diluted to 200 mL and titrated

with 0.33N NaOH, what indicator would be suitable in this titration?

a. Methyl orange c. Bromothymol blue

b. Cresol red d. Phenolphthalein

27. A certain solution may contain any of the following solutes: NaH2P04, HCI, H3P04,

Na2HP04. A 25 mL portion is titrated with 0.2N NaOH and with an indicator changing

color at approximately pH 9, the end point is at 48.0 mL of NaOH. A second 25 mL sample

is titrated with 0.2N NaOH, and with an indicator changing color at approximately pH 4,

the end point is at 32.5 mL of the NaOH. What active solutes are present in significant

amounts in the original solution?

a. NaH2P04, HCl b. HCl, H3P04 c. H3P04, Na2HP04 d. NaH2P04,

Na2HP04

28. What should be the “iron value" of a solution of KMn04 so that when a sample of

impure Na3As03 weighing 0.5 g is titrated to arsenate with the permanganate, the

percentage of As203 in the sample will be twice the buret reading?

a. 0.0113 g b. 0.0224 g c. 0.0335 g d. 0.0446 g

29. Bromide can be determined by precipitating as AgBr, heating in a current of Cl2 and

weighing the resulting AgCl. What would be the gravimetric factor for finding the

percentage bromine?

a. Less than 1 b. 1 c. More than 1 d. Insufficient Information

30. Trouton's rule slates that many substances have entropies of vaporization close to 88

J/mol-K. Which of the following is the best rationale for Trouton’s rule?

c. The change in disorder in going from one mole of liquid to one mole of gas is similar

for many substances.

327

Removal Examination – Part II

Chemical Engineering

1. Critically damped system means that damping coefficient is

a. 1

b. <1

c. >1

d. 0

2. A mercury manometer at 800F reads 30.85 in. The local acceleration of gravity is

3200ft/s2. To what pressure in atmosphere does this height of mercury correspond?

a. 1.02

b. 1.08

c. 0.96

d. 1.12

vaporized at a pressure of 1 kPa.

a. 115.1

b. 120.8

c. 129.2

d. 134.0

4. Pick out the material having maximum Rittinger's number. (hint:make use of Che

handbook by Perry)

a. calcite

b. quartz

c. pyrite

d. galena

5. Sphericity for cubical particle when its equivalent diameter is taken as the height

of the tube is

a. 0.5

b. √2

c. 1

d. √3

328

With the following characteristics: length L = 30.48 m; inside diameter d = 0.0526

m; pipe roughness e = 0.000045 m; frictional pressure drop delta P = 15720 N/m 2;

liquid dynamic viscosity p = 0.01 Pa-s; liquid density p = 1200 kg/m3. Calculate:

7.the Reynolds' number.

a. 7138

b. 15000

c. 8273

d. 9569

8. The faning friction factor f.

a. 0.00884

b. 0.00727

c. 0.00990

d. 0.00698s

9. 1000 cfm of air at 95degF dry bulb and 70degF wet bulb is mixed with 2000 cfm

of air at 65degF dry bulb and 50degF wet bulb. What is the dry bulb temperature of

the mixed stream?

a. 80degF b. 78egF c. 75degF d.

63degF

10. A first order reaction with respect to A takes place in a PFR. If equal moles of

B and C are mixed with A and allowed to react for 1.5hr after which time half of A

had been consumed. How much of A is left unreacted after 3 hrs. ?

a.18% b.13% c. 35% d.

25%

ft3. If the process is non-flow and if no work is done on the gas except by a moving

piston, how much heat is added to or removed from the gas during the process?

b. - 30.27 BTU d. -26.07 BTU

volume and liberation of heat will be favoured by

a. low pressure and high temperature. b. low pressure and low

temperature.

c. high pressure and low temperature. d. high pressure and high

temperature.

For 13-14.The analysis of a flue gas from a fuel gas containing no nitrogen is 4.62%

C02, 3.08%CO, 8.91%02, am} 83.39% N2.

329

13. moles of water (H20) formed

a. 7.04 moles b. 14.08 moles c. 15.07 moles d. 22.11

moles

14. moles of air supplied per 100 moles of dry flue gas

15. With the same reaction time , initial concentration and feed rate , the reaction 2A -5

B is carried out separately in CSTR an P.F. reactor of equal volumes. The conversion will

be

a. Higher P.F > reactor

b. Same in both the reactors

c. Higher in CSTR

d. data insufficient, can’t be predicted

16. A first order reaction requires two unequal sized CSTR. Which of the following

gives a higher yield?

a. Large reactor followed by smaller one

b. Smaller reactor followed by larger one

c. either of the arrangement (a) or (b) will give the same yield

d. data insufficient, can’t be predicted

17. A control structure with two feedback controllers with the output of the primary

controller changing the set point of the secondary controller whose output goes to the

final controller.

a. Feedback control

b. Ratio control

c. Cascade control

d. Override control

18. The degrees of freedom associated with ternary distillation process according to the

Gibb's phase rule is

a. 2

b. 3

c. 4

d. 5

wet basis is

330

a. 100X/(X+100)

b. X/(1+X)

c. (100+X)/X

d. 100(1-X)/X

20. The major problem in leaching is to promote diffusion of the solute out of the

solid and the liquid, The most effective way of doing this is.

a. to reduce the solid to the smallest size feasible

b. to use crossflow evaporation

c. to use counter current operation

d. to use parallel operation

a. 1

b. <1

c. >1

d. 0.5

a. dew point at 20degC b. 70%RH c. absolute humidity of 0.05

d.60%saturation

a. Carnoot Cycle b. Rankine cycle c. Reheat cycle d. Brayton

cycle

24. A cylinder is fitted with a weightless, frictionless piston contains m pounds of air at

TI , VI and ambient pressure Pa. Heat is ten added until the air in the cylinder s at T2, V2

and Pa. What is the expression for the heat transferred during the process?

a. mCv(T2-T1)

b. mCv(T2-T1)-Pa(V2-V1)

c. mCv(T2-T1)+Pa(V2-V1)

d. mCp(T2-T1)+Pa(V2-V1)

25. A tank holds nitrogen gas at 82 degree Celsius and 940 mmHg. After releasing 2

grams of the remaining inside the talk then exerts a pressure of 480 mmHg at 30

degree Celsius. How much nitrogen gas was originally in the tank?

a. 3.0 g b. 5.0 g c. 139.4g d. 154.39

26. A camot engine, operating between 70F and 2000F is modified by raising

the high temperature to 2150F and low temperature by 100F. Which of the following

statements is incorrect?

a. More heat is absorbed during vaporization

b. More work is done during the reversible adiabatic expansion

331

c. Net work is increased

d. Thermodynamics efficiency is increased

27. Gaseous propane at 770F is mixed with air at 260F and burned. If 300% theoretical

air is used, what is the adiabatic flame temperature?

a. 1766degF b. 166degF c. 766degF d.

1616degF

28. Water flowing at 1.2gal/min at 50F is to be heated to 1500F with saturated stream at

14.7 psia. Calculate the steam flow rate required in lb/min to heat the water in a "parallel

type" heat exchanger.

4.01lb/sec

29. Steam is delivered by a boiler at 550 psia and 7000F. After expansion to 110 psia the

steam is reheated to 700F. Expansion occurs to 1.5 inHg(abs). For ideal reheat cycle,

calculate on the basis of 1 1b of steam the thermodynamic efficiency.

30. A helical coil made of 3" OD x 16 gauge type 316 stainless steel tubing has a total of

15 turns on a 72" pitch diameter. If the water at 80 0F flows through the coil at 150 gpm,

calculate the pressure drop of the coil in psi.

a. 11.7 psi b. 21.1 psi c. 14.7 psi d. 31.1 psi

31. A large centrifugal pump has a 10" diameter inlet and 5" diameter outlet. The

measured flow rate is 818 gpm. The measured inlet pressure is 5"Hg above atmospheric

and the discharge pressure measured at 4 ft above the pump outlet is 30.7 psia. Pump input

is 10 hp. Find the pump efficiency.

32. The parallel wooden outer and inner walls of a building are 15 ft long, 10 ft high and

4 inches apart, The outer surface of the inner wall is 700F and the inner surface of the outer

wall is 0F. Calculate the heat loss in BTU/hr neglecting any leakage of air through the

walls.

33. Suppose the air space is divided in half by a 0.01 inch aluminium foil. How much

would this affect the heat transfer through the air space?

34, A large sheet of glass 2 inches thick and initially 300F throughout is plunged into a

stream of water having a temperature Of 60F How long will it take to cool the glass to a

332

temperature of 100F in the centre of the slab? For glass, k = 0.4 BTU/ht-ft-F, density =

1lb/ft3 and cp=0.2 BTU/lbdegF.

35. If a counter current concentric pipe heat exchanger is heating air from 80 to 100F

using condensing steam at 220F, estimate how many times as much as air could be

heated within the same range by steam condensing at 250F.

ANSWER KEY

Removal Examination-Part II

1. A. 1

2. A. 1.02

3. C. 129.2

4. D. Galena

5. C. 1

6. A. Velocity Heads

7. A. 7138

8. A. 0.00884

9. C. 75 degF

10. D. 25%

11. D. -26.07 BTU

12. B. Low pressure and low temperature

13. B. 14.08 moles

14. A. 1.055

15. C. Higher in CSTR

16. C. Either of the arrangement (a) or (b) will give the same yield

17. C. Cascade Control

18. B. 3

19. A.100X/(X+100)

20. A. to reduce the solid to the smallest size feasible

21. A.1

22. A. dew point at 20degC

23. D. Brayton cycle

24. C. mCv(T2-T1)+Pa(V2-V1)

25. B. 5.0 g

26. D. Thermodynamic Efficiency

27. A. 1766degF

28. C. 1.03 lb/min

29. B. 37.6%

30. A. 11.7 psi

31. B. 78%

32. 418 BTU/hr

33. qAl=0.165 q

34. 0.45 hrs.

35. 5.7 times

333

SOLUTIONS

2. P=𝜌𝑔ℎ

𝜌=13600 kg/m3

g= 9.7537 m/s2

9.7537 𝑚

P= 13600 kg/m3 x x 0.78359 𝑚=1039439642 Pa

𝑠2

P= 1.0258 atm

3. ∆𝑉=Vg-Vs

6 𝑉𝑝 6 √23

5. ∅𝑐𝑢𝑏𝑒 = ( ) ( ) =( ) ( 2 )=1

𝐷𝑝 𝑆𝑝 √2 6√2

𝐷𝑣𝜌

7. 𝑁𝑟𝑒 = 𝜇

1.13𝑚

(0.0526𝑚)( )(1200𝑘𝑔/𝑚3)

𝑠

𝑁𝑟𝑒 = 0.01

𝑁𝑟𝑒 = 7132.56

𝐷∆𝑃

8. 𝑓 = 2𝜌𝑉 2 𝐿

15720𝑁

(0.0526𝑚)(

𝑓= 𝑚2 )

1200𝑘𝑔

2( ) (1.13)2 (30.48𝑚)

𝑚3

𝑓 = 0.008852

0.5 = 1𝑒 −𝑘(1.5)

334

𝑘 = 0.46209

𝐶 = 1𝑒 −0.46209(3)

C=25%

Q = nRT(ln V2/V1)

Q = (16.19)(8.3145)(ln 0.142/0.283)

O2 unaccounted for = 22.17 moles O2 in air – 4.62 moles CO2 – 3.08/2 moles CO – 8.91

moles O2)

14. moles of air supplied per 100 moles of dry flue gas = (O2 in air + N2 in air)/100 moles

dry FG

moles of air supplied per 100 moles of dry FG = (22. 17 mol O2 in air + 83.39 mol N2 in

air)/100

335

moles of air supplied per 100 moles of dry FG = 1.0556

25. PV=nRT

𝑃 𝑃

= 𝑛𝑇

𝑛𝑇

940 480

(82+273.15)(𝑛)

= 0.07142(30+273.15)

28 𝑔𝑟𝑎𝑚𝑠

n= 0.1194 moles x =5.34 grams

1 𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑒

a(3.76)(TA)N2

C: 3=b

H: 8=2d=4

O: 2a=2b+d, a=5

HR + Q = Hp; Q=0

HR = Hp

{ℎ𝑓,𝐶3𝐻8−3ℎ𝑓,𝐶𝑂2−4𝐻2𝑂}

Tp=298+

3𝐶𝑝,𝐶𝑂2+4𝐶𝑝,𝐻2𝑂+10𝐶𝑝,𝑂2+56.4𝐶𝑝,𝑁2

393522𝐽

{291235𝐽/𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑒−3(− )−4(−241827𝐽/𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑒}

𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑒

Tp=298+

3(45)+4(35)+10(35)+56.4(35)

Tp=1236.48013K=1765.9942℉

28. Q = Q

𝑚𝑐𝑝∆𝑇 = 𝑚𝜆𝑣

336

(4.54 kg/min)(4.184 J/kg.K)(55.56K) = m (2256.61356 J/kgK)

m= 0.467684 kg/min

m= 1.0311 lb/min

Q= 1.823 ft3/s

V1= q/A1=(1.823/0.545)=3.342ft/s

A2= π/4(0.417)^2=0.136ft^2

V2 =q/A2=(1.823/0.136)=13.367 ft/s

Ha= (P2-P1/𝜌)+(Z2-Z1)g/gc+((V2^2-V1^2)/2gc)

BHPa=10Hp

∆𝑇

32. Q=kA 1

∆𝑋

337

(70−0)

Q=(0.12)(10*50) 12

4

Q= 420 BTU/hr

ℎ𝐴

𝑇−𝑇∞ −( )𝑡

34. = 𝑒 𝑐𝑝𝜌𝑉

𝑇𝑜−𝑇∞

Assumptions:

*Volume is equal to 1

𝑇 − 𝑇∞ ℎ𝐴

−( )𝑡

= 𝑒 𝑐𝑝𝜌𝑉

𝑇𝑜 − 𝑇∞

= 𝑒 (0.2 𝑥 1)𝑡

100℉ − 60℉

t=0.447939 hrs

𝑚1 24.111

= =5.42 times

𝑚2 4.444

338

Removal Examination – Part III

General Engineering

1. A wooden rectangular parallelepiped 4m x 3m x 2m in dimension weighs 5 kg.

Find the volume of the rectangular parallelepiped in m3.

A. 22m3 B. 23m3 C. 24m3 D. 25m3

A. 5 B. 5.4 C. 5.8 D. 6.2

3. The hypotenuse of a right triangle is 34 cm. Find the length of the shortest leg if it

is 14 cm shorter than the other leg.

A. 15 cm B. 16 cm C. 17 cm D. 18 cm

5

4. If sec2x = 2, what is the numerical value of 1 – sin2x?

A. 2.5 B. 0.6 C. 1.5 D. 0.4

water content until the concentration is 5% by weight salt. How much water is

evaporated?

A. 10 kg B. 15 kg C. 20 kg D. 25 kg

A. 11 B. 12 C. 13 D. 14

A. 14 B. 12 C. 15 D. 17

8. The sum of the two interior angles of the triangle is equal to the third angle and

2

the difference of the two angles is equal to 3 of the third angle. Find the third

angle.

A. 15o B. 75o C. 90o D. 120o

A. 12 B. -3 C. -12 D. 3

𝑥 𝑦

10. Which of the following is perpendicular to the line 3 + 4 = 1?

A. x - 4y – 8 = 0 B. 4x – 3y – 6 = 0 C. 3x – 4y – 5 = 0 D.4x+3y-11=0

𝑥2 𝑦2

11. Given an ellipse 36 + 32 = 1. Determine the distance between the foci.

A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 8

12. Find the equation of the axix of symmetry of the function y = 2x 2 – 7x + 5.

A. 4x + 7 = 0 B. x – 2 = 0 C. 4x – 7 = 0 D. 7x + 4 = 0

13. Find the equation of the line tangent to the curve x2 + y2 = 41 through (5,4).

339

A. 5x + 4y = 41 B. 4x – 5y = 41 C. 4x + 5y = 41 D. 5x – 4y=41

14. In how many relative orders can we seat 7 people at a round table with a certain 3

people side by side.

A. 144 B. 5040 C. 720 D. 1008

15. Find the sum of the first 10 terms of the geometric progression 2, 4, 8, 16,…

A. 1023 B. 2046 C. 1596 D. 225

16. If AB = 15m, BC = 18m and AB = 24m find the point of intersection of the

angular bisector from the vertex C.

A. 11.3 B. 12.1 C. 13.4 D. 14.3

A. 2 B. 1 C. 2sin2x + 1 D. 2cos2x – 1

18. A 200 gm apple is thrown from the edge of a tall building with an initial speed of

20m/s. What is the change in kinetic energy of the apple if it strikes the ground at

50m/s?

A. 130 Joules B. 210 Joules C. 100 Joules D. 81 Joules

A. 7.00 B. 8.75 C. 6.00 D. 5.18

20. The horsepower required to raise a 150 kg drum to a height of 20 m over a period

of one minute is:

A. 0.41 hp B. 0.81 hp C. 0.66 hp D. 1.12hp

21. An object falls from a height of 97.5 m and strikes the ground with a speed of

21.90 m/s. How much higher should the object be in order to strike the ground

with a speed of 27.60 m/s?

A. 57.36 m higher B. 53.36 m lower C. 75.36 m lower

D.36.75m higher

22. In what distance can a 3000 lb automobile be stopped from a speed of 30mi/h

(44ft/s) if the coefficient of friction between tire and roadway is 0.70?

A. 24.15 ft B. 59.25 ft C. 22.59 ft D. 42.95 ft

𝑑𝑦

23. Solve: y = 3x2

𝑑𝑥

A. y2 = x3 + c B. y2 = 2x3 + c C. y3 = 2x2 + c D. y2 = 2x2+c

24. Solve the exact equation: 2xy3dx + (1+3x2y2)dy = 0

A. x2y3 + x = c B. x2y3 + y = cx C. x2y3 + y = c D. x3y2 + x=cy

25. If a company spends P12,000 now and P5,000 per year for 10 years, with first

P5,000 expenditure made 4 years from now, the rate of return would it make if its

income were P4,000 per year starting in year 8 and continuing through year 25 is

340

A. 5.1% B. 1.5% C. 4.2% D. 1.2%

26. The present worth of a series that decreases uniformly, y P200 per year, from

P4,000 in year 11 to P2,200 in year 20, if interest equals 105 is

A. P7,709.1 B. P9,707.2 C. P10,709.1 D. 6,910

27. Material A is a water and Material B is a glass with an index of refraction of 1.52.

If the incident ray makes an angle of 60o with the normal, find the direction of the

reflected ray.

A. 34.7o B. 49.3o C. 60.0o D. 91.3o

diameter wire on a mean radius of 90 mm when the spring is supporting a load of

2.5kN. Use G = 83 GPa.

A. 160 mm B. 165 mm C. 170 mm D. 175 mm

29. A telecommunication company purchased an equipment for P53 000 and paid P1

500 for freight and delivery charges to the job site. The equipment has a normal

life of 10 years with a trade-in value of P5 000 against the purchase of a new

equipment at the end of the life. Determine the annual depreciation cost. Interest

at 6.5% compounded annually.

A. P2 543 B. P3 668 C. P4 215 D. P5 956

force of acting at a given point of the rigid body is replaced by a force of same

magnitude and direction, but acting at a different point provided that the two

forces have the same line of action.” This statement is known as

A.Principle of Transmissibility B. Parallelogram Law

C. Pappus Propositions D. Varignon’s Theorem

341

ANSWER KEY

3

1.) C. 24 m

2.) B. 5.4

3.) B. 16 cm

4.) D. 0.4

5.) C. 20 kg

6.) C. 13

7.) A. 14

8.) C. 90o

9.) A. 12

10.) C. 3x – 4y – 5 = 0

11.) A. 2

12.) C. 4x – 7 = 0

13.) A. 5x + 4y = 41

14.) A. 144

15.) B. 2046

16.) D. 14.3

17.) D. 2cos2x - 1

18.) B. 210 Joules

19.) C. 6.00

20.) C. 0.66 hp

21.) A. 57.36 m higher

22.) D. 42.95 ft

23.) B. 0.20

24.) C. x2y3 + y = c

25.) B. 1.5%

26.) A. P7,709.1

27.) C. 60.0o

28.) D. 175 mm

29.) B. P3 668

30.) A. Principle of Transmissibility

342

SOLUTIONS

1. LxWxH

4m x 3m x 2m = 24m3

Ans. 24m3

2.

𝐴 (𝑥 ) + 𝐵 ( 𝑦 ) + 𝐶

√𝐴2 + 𝐵2

3(2) + 4(3) + 9

√9 + 16

Ans. 5.4

3. x2 + (x +14)2 = 342

x2 + x2 + 28x +196 = 1156

2x2 + 28x - 960 = 0

x = 16 cm

Ans. 16 cm

5

4. sec2x = 2

1 5

sec2x = cos ^2(𝑥) = 2

x = 21.1051

1 – sin2(21.1051) = 0.4

Ans. 0.4

5. OMB: 100 = W + P

Solute Balance: 100(0.04) = 0.05P

P = 80 kg

100 – 80 = W

W = 20 kg

Ans. 20 kg

𝒏

6. (𝒏 − 𝟑) = 𝟔𝟓

𝟐

n = 13

Ans. 13

7. y = kx when x = 7

10 = k(5) y = 2(7) = 14

343

k=2

Ans. 14

8. A + B + C = 180

A+B=C

A – B = 2/3C

2C = 180 C = 90

Ans. 90oC

9. LR = 4a

4a = 12

Ans. 12

10. 3y = 12 – 4x

4

y=- 𝑥+4

3

4

m1 = - 3

3 1

so m2 should be equal to 4 (m1 = -𝑚2)

Ans. 3x – 4y – 5 = 0

11. a 2 = b2 + c 2

36 = 32 + c2

4 = c2

c=2

Ans. 2

12. y = 2x2 – 7x + 5

axis of symmetry (y’) : 4x – 7 = 0

Ans. 4x – 7 = 0

13. C (0,0) pt (5,4)

4 5

m1 = 5 m2 = - 4

5

y – 4 = - (x – 5)

4

4y – 16 = -5x + 25

Ans. 5x + 4y = 4

14. (5 – 1!) 3! = 144

Ans. 144

344

𝑎1 (𝑟 𝑛− 1) 2 (210− 1)

15. S= = = 2046

𝑟−1 2−1

Ans. 2046

16. AB = 15 cm

BC = 18 cm

AC = 24 cm

Ans. 14.3 cm

= 1 (cos2x - sin2x)

= 1 (cos2x – (1 - cos2x))

= 2cos2x – 1

Ans. 2cos2x – 1

18. m = 200 g V1 = 20 m/s V2 = 50 m/s

1 1 1

KE = 2 𝑚(𝑣22 - 𝑣12 ) = 2 200(1000)((50 - 202 ) = 210 Joules

2

Ans. 210 J

19. √22 + 42 + 42 = 6

Ans. 6

20. m = 150 kg h = 20 m t = 1 min

150𝑘𝑔 (9.81𝑚/𝑠2) 20𝑚

PE = mgh = 60𝑠𝑒𝑐

= 290.5 W = 0.66 hp

Ans. 0.66 hp

21. V2 = Vo2 + 2gS

21.92 = 2g(97.5)

g = 2.4595

27.62 = 2(2.4595)(S)

S = 154.8583

ΔS = 154.8583 – 97.5

ΔS = 57.36 m

Ans. 57.36 m

22. distance = ?

m = 3000 lb

v = 30 mi/h

coefficient of friction = 0.70

Ans. 42.95 ft

345

23. angle = 250

T = 100N

Coefficient of 0.20

Ans. 0.20

23. y∫ 𝑦𝑑𝑦 = ∫ 3𝑥 2 𝑑𝑥

𝑦2

= x3 + C

2

y2 = 2x3 + C

Ans. y2 = 2x3 + C

Ans. x2y3 + y =C

1−(1+𝑖)−10 1−(1+𝑖)−18

25. 12000 + 5000[ ](1 + 𝑖)−4 = 4000[ ](1 + 𝑖)−8

𝑖 𝑖

i = 1.54%

Ans. 1.5%

26. Uniform decrease of P200 per year

Initial Amount = P4,000 Final Amount = P2,200

t = 11 years t = 20 years

Ans. P7,709.1

27. Index of refraction = 1.52

Angle = 60o

Ans. 60.0o

28. turns = 20

diameter = 20 mm

mean radius = 90 mm

load = 2.5kN

G = 83 GPa

Ans. 175 mm

CL = P5,000

d = (P54,500 – P5,000)/F/A, 6.5%,10 = P3,668

Ans. P3,668

346

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