Вы находитесь на странице: 1из 346

PRETEST - PHYSICAL AND CHEMICAL PRINCIPLES

1. What nitrogen base is present in RNA but is absent in DNA?


a. Cytosine
b. Uracil
c. Adenine
d. Guanine

2. To what temperature must a neon gas be heated to double its pressure if the initial
volume of gas at 75C is decreased by 15%?
a. 592 K
b. 104 C
c. 148 C
d. 299 K

3. A solution containing 3.24 g of a non-volatile organic compound and 200 g of water


boils at 1 atm. What is the molecular weight of the solute? Kb of water is 0.52.
BPE=0.13
a. 100 g/mol
b. 57 g/mol
c. 77 g/mol
d. 65 g/mol

4. Melamine is officially 1,3,5-triazine-2,4,6-triamine in the IUPAC nomenclature


system. It is used in the fire retardants in polymer resins because its high nitrogen
content released as flame stifling nitrogen gas when compound is burned or charred.
What is the chemical formula for the melamine?
a. C3H6N3
b. C3H6N4
c. C3H6N5
d. C3H6N6

5. Vegetable oils can be converted to fuel by _______ in the presence of 2 catalyst


under high pressure and at high temperature.
a. Substitution
b. Alkyation
c. Hydrogenation
d. Bromination

1
6. A sample of polystyrene prepared by heating styrene with tribromobenzoyl
peroxide in the absence of air has the formula Br3C6H3(C8H8)n where n varies with
the preparation. If a certain sample of polystyrene is found to contain 20.01% Br,
what is the value of n?
a. 8
b. 10
c. 20
d. 15

7. These are viruses that attack bacteria.


a. Phages
b. Bacteriophages
c. Virulent bacteria
d. Temperate viruses

8. For the reaction 3A(g) + 3B(g) 2C(s) + 3D(g), the equilibrium concentration
are 0.3M A, 0.5M B, 0.2M C, 0.5M D. Find the equilibrium constant.
a. 37.04
b. 0.74
c. 12.3
d. 0.075

9. Thetoxicity of waste in aquatic environment is measured using


a. Phytoxicity
b. Lethal dose concentration
c. Biotoxicity
d. BOD

10. A mixture of N2 and H2 was allowed to come to an equilibrium at a given


temperature. An analysis of the mixture at equilibrium contained 2 mol N 2, 3 mol
H2 and 2.5 mol NH3. How many moles of H2 present at the beginning of the
reaction?
a. 3.5
b. 5.3
c. 7.5
d. 6.7

11. If an enzyme is inhibited non-competitively by the product of a reaction sequence


in which the enzyme precipitates, the enzyme is known to be what?

2
a. Inhibited
b. Modulator
c. Allosteric
d. Zymogen

12. Which f the following is a product on the hydrolization of ester?


a. Water
b. Acid
c. Alcohol
d. Base

13. A solution of 1.25g of a non-electrolyte solute in 20g of water freezes at 291.94K.


Find the molecular weight of the solute.
a. 110
b. 6.86
c. 180
d. 56.2

14. How many additional chemicals were added last May 2009 to the original list of
POP’s prohibited by the Stockholm Convention?
a. 10
b. 9
c. 5
d. 12

15. What mass in grams of NaC2H3O2 must be dissolved with 500ml of 0.100M acetic
acid to make 2L of buffer solution of pH 5? Ka=1.8x10-5
a. 2.28g
b. 7.19g
c. 7.38g
d. 2.12g

16. What is the pH of the resulting solution made by making 5ml of 0.2178M HCl and
15ml of 0.1156M NH3? KNH3=1.8x10-5
a. 9.49
b. 9.90
c. 9.02
d. 12.74

3
17. Baker’s yeast is to be grown in a continuous fermentation system using a fermenter
volume of 20m3 in which the flow residence time is 16h. A 2% inoculum
containing 1.2% of yeast cells is included in the growth medium. This is then passed
to the fermenter in which the yeast grows with a steady doubling time of 2.9h. The
broth leaving the fermenter then passes to a continuous centrifuge which produces
a yeast cream containing 7% yeast, 97% of the total yeast in the broth. Calculate
the rate of flow of the yeast cream.
a. 1235 kg/hr
b. 2639 kg/hr
c. 1114 kg/hr
d. 315.67 kg/hr

18. He proposed the theory of electrolytic dissociation


a. Debye and Huckel
b. Arrhenius
c. Faraday
d. Kohlrausch

19. Calculate the molarity of NaOH solution if 18.25 ml was used to titrate 0.4815 gram
of primary standard KHP.
a. 0.18
b. 0.13
c. 0.26
d. 0.16

20. How many alpha amino acids commonly make up the different proteins found in
humans?
a. 4
b. 32
c. 20
d. Millions

21. What is the pH of a 0.068 M aqueous solution of sodium cyanide? Ka for


HCN=4.9x10-10
a. 0.74
b. 2.93
c. 11.07
d. 13.26

4
22. Calculate the pH of a solution made by dissolving 1.87g of sodium caproate
(NaC6H11O2) in water and diluting to a total volume of 500 ml. For the caproate
ion, Kb-7.58x10-10
a. 5.344
b. 5.494
c. 8.505
d. 8.656

23. The root mean square speed of CO at 113C is _____ m/s.


a. 317
b. 58.3
c. 586
d. 993

24. Which of the following is a Huckel number?


a. 8
b. 10
c. 12
d. 16

25. Determine the fraction of ionization of HX (a weak electrolyte) if a solution


prepared by dissolving 0.020 moles of HX in 115g water freezes at -0.74 degC.
a. 0.044
b. 0.30
c. 0.45
d. 1.45

26. What is the IUPAC name for the molecule having a methyl group attached to an 8-
carbon alkane ring?
a. Cyclooctanol
b. Methylcyclooctane
c. Cyclooctane
d. Boric acid

27. Which of the following best explains the relative stabilities of the eclipsed and
staggered forms of ethane? The ____ form has the most _____ strain.
a. Eclipsed; steric
b. Eclipsed; torsional
c. Staggered; steric
d. Staggered; torsional

5
28. Which of the following is the strongest interaction?
a. A covalent bond
b. Induced dipole-induced dipole interactions
c. Dipole-dipole interactions
d. Hydrogen bonding
e. Van der waals

29. A sample containing Na2CO3, NaOH and inert matter weighs 1.179g. It is titrated
with 0.2239M HCl with phenolphthalein as the indicator, and the solution became
colorless after the addition of 46.25 ml. Methyl orange is then added and 12.85 ml
more of the acid is needed for the color change. What is the percentage of Na 2CO3
in the sample?
a. 24.89%
b. 64.95%
c. 76.12%
d. 25.87%

30. Histamine, an organic nitrogenous compound which can cause allergic rhinitis can
be produced in our body through the decarboxylation of the amino acid histamine.
Given that 18mM of the decarboxylase is used and 5mM of histidine forms.
Calculate the Michaelis-Menten constant if the reaction velocity and the TON are
6mM/s and 37/s respectively.
a. 0.330 M
b. 0.440 M
c. 0.550 M
d. 0.660 M

6
PRETEST- CHEMICAL ENGINEERING

1. A manometer is used to measure the pressure of gas in a container. One side is


connected to the container and the other side is open to the atmosphere. The
manometer contains oil of density of density = 750 kg/m3 and the head is 50mm.
Calculate the gauge pressure of the gas in the container.
a. 104.9 Pa 94.2 Pa c. 12.5 Pa d. 367.9 Pa

2. Cold air at 10 degF is forced to flow over a fluid plate maintained at 40 deg C. the
mean heat transfer coefficient is 30 W/m2-K. Find the heat flow rate from the plate
to the air through a plate area of 2m2. Assume radiation is negligible.
a. 1.8kW b. 2.0kW c. 2.2kW d. 2.4kW

3. The weight rate of flow of fluid stream per unit of cross section perpendicular to the
direction of flow is the
a. Mean linear velocity c. Velocity Head
b. Acoustic velocity d. Mean mass velocity of the stream

4. In a reciprocating pump, the ratio of the quantity of liquid actually pumped to that
which corresponds to the piston displacement is called
a. Hydraulic efficiency c. Volumetric efficiency
b. Mechanical efficiency d. Suction lift

Dry gas containing 75% air and 25% ammonia vapor enters the bottom of a
cylindrical packed absorption tower that is 2 ft in diameter. Nozzles in the top of the
tower distribute water over the packing. A solution of ammonia in water is drawn
from the bottom of the column, and the scrubbed gas leaves the top. The gas enters
at 80 deg F and 760 mmHg pressure. It leaves at 60 deg F and 730mm. The leaving
gas contains, on a dry basis, 1.0 percent ammonia.
5. If the entering gas flows through the empty bottom of the column at an average
velocity (upward) of 1.5 ft/s, how many cubic feet of entering gas are treated per
hour?
a. 400 b. 300 c. 200 d. 100

6. How many pounds of ammonia are absorbed per hour?


a. 234 b. 432 c. 711 d. 177

7. Solve for the diffusivity of the following material using diffusivity formula: Argon
in N2 at 1 atm and 20 oC.
a. 0.4542 cm2/s b. 0.1935 cm2/s c. 0.2435 cm2/s d.0.7456 cm2/s

7
8. A furnace wall is constructed of firebrick 6 in thick. The temperature of the inside of
the wall is 977K, and the temperature of the outside wall is 175 oF. If the mean
thermal conductivity under these conditions is 0.17 BTU/h-ft-oF. What is the rate of
heat loss through 1m 2 of wall surface? Express your answer in BTU/hr.
a. 2624.34 b. 1324.65 c. 4112.77 d.3312.12

9. The lowest cost plastic commercially available


a. Chlorinated polyether c. Polypropylene
b. Polyethylene d. Cellulose acetate butyrate

10. The ratio of moles of a reactant converted into the desired product to that converted
into unwanted product is called
a. operational yield b. selectivity
c. relative yield d. none of the above

11. Scaling can be best handled by


a. increasing viscosity b. decreasing velocity
c. decreasing viscosity d. increasing velocity

12. All of the following biogeochemical cycles involve the atmosphere as either sink
or reservoir except
a. Water b. Carbon c. Nitrogen d. Phosporus

13. At 378.5oC the half-life for the first-order decomposition of ethylene oxide is 363
minutes, and E = 52,000 cal/mole. If the temperature is increased to 450 oC, find the
time for ethylene oxide to be 75% decomposed.
a. 13.8 min. b. 23.1 min. c. 37.2 min. d. 45.8 min.

14. A certain substance A is mixed with equal amount of B and C. After 10 minutes,
half of A has reacted. What will be the conversion after 20 minutes if the reaction is
second-order with respect to A?
a. 25% b. 33% c. 67% d. 75%

15. The moisture content of a solid is given as 50% wet basis. What is the moisture
content, dry basis?
a. 0.5 b. 1 c. 2 d. 50

16. A furnace is fired with coal containing 6% moisture, 18% VCM, 67% FC and 9%
ash. The refuse analysis shows 5% VCM, 23% FC and 62% ash. The higher heating

8
value of the coal as fired is 14,300 Btu/lb. Calculate the percentage of the heating
value of the coal that is lost in the refuse. Assume that the moisture in the refuse is
due to the ‘wetting down’ go prevent dusting and not moisture from the original
coal.
a. 4.68% b. 7.02% c. 9.36% d. 15.0%

17. What is the theoretical oxygen demand of 100 grams of glucose?


a. 107 grams b. 112 grams c. 120 grams d. 170 grams

For. Nos. 18-19. A solution composed 50% ethanol, 10% methanol and 40% water
is fed at the rate of 100 kg/hr into a separator that produces one stream at the rate of
60 kg/hr with the composition of 80% ethanol, 15% methanol & 5% water, and a
second stream of unknown composition.
18. The mass flow rate of the second unknown stream in kg/hr is
a. 60 b. 40 c. 20 d. 50

19. The mass fraction of ethanol in the unknown stream is


a. 0.05 b. 0.025 c. 0.925 d. 0.5

20. You are asked what size of containers to use 1,000 lbs of cottonseed oil (SG =
0.926). What would be the minimum size of drum expressed in gallons?
a. 129.5 b. 254.2 c. 103.9 d. 85.6

21. A pure formic acid at 30oC flowing at 0.015 m3/s is pumped through a 75 mm
horizontal pipe 38 m long. The roughness of the pipe is 6x10-5m. What will be the
pressure drop in pipe?
a. 71 kPa b. 35 kPa c. 21 kPa d. 42 kPa

22. The venture meter is to be installed in a schedule 40-4in (ID=4.026 in) line to
measure the flowrate of water. The maximum flowrate is expected to be 325gpm at
60oF. The 50-in manometer is used to measure the differential pressure is to be filled
with mercury and water is to fill the leads above the mercury surfaces. The water
temperature is to be 60oF throughout. What throat diameter should be specified for
the venture meter?
a. 4.2 in b. 1.5 in c. 2 in d. 1.8 in

23. A rectangular duct 4’ x 5’ in cross section carries conditioned air in determining


the pressure drop through duct, the equivalent diameter in ft. which may be used in
this case is _________.
a. 2.42 ft b. 2.97 ft c. 4.05 ft d. 5.84 ft

9
24. The function of manholes provided in the shell of a distillation column is to
a. keep a check on the liquid gradient over the plate by direct visual observation.
b. give access to the individual trays for cleaning, maintenance and installation.
c. guard against foaming & entrainment by dumping antifoaming agent through it.
d. all (a), (b) and (c).

25. Of the pressure vessels, with same thickness but different diameters, which one
withstands higher pressure?
a. Larger dia vessel. c. Larger dia long vessel.
b. Smaller dia vessel. d. Strength of the vessel is same irrespective
of the diameter.

26. In a laminar fluid flow, the average velocity is _____ of the maximum velocity.
a. one-half b. one-fourth c. twice d. four times

With the following characteristics: Length L = 30.48 m; inside diameter d = 0.0526


m; pipe roughness e = 0.000045 m; frictional pressure drop ∆P = 15720 N/m2; liquid
dynamic viscosity µ = 0.01 Pa-s; liquid density = 1200 kg/m3. Calculate:

27. The Reynolds’ number.


a. 7138 b. 15000 c. 8273 d. 9569

28. The fanning friction factor f.


a. 0.00884 b. 0.00727 c. 0.00990 d. 0.00698

29. 1000 cfm of air at 95oF dry bulb and 70oF wet bulb is mixed with 2000 cfm of air
at 65oF dry bulb and 50oF wet bulb. What is the dry bulb temperature of the mixed
stream?
a. 80degF b. 78degF c. 75degF d. 63degF

30. A first order reaction with respect to a takes place in a PFR. If equal moles of B &
C are mixed with A and allowed to react for 1.5hr after which time half of A had
been consumed, how much of A is left unreacted after 3hrs?
a.18% b. 13% c. 35% d. 25%

31. 1 lbm nitrogen is compressed at a constant temperature of 70 oF from 10 ft3 to 5 ft3.


If the process is non-flow and if no work is done on the gas except by a moving
piston, how much heat is added to or removed from the gas during the process?
a. +30.27 BTU b. -30.27 BTU c. +28.54 BTU d. -26.07 BTU

10
32. Solubility of a substance which dissolves with an increase in volume and liberation
of heat will be favoured by the
a. low pressure and high temperature. b. low pressure and low temperature.
c. high pressure and low temperature. d.high pressure and high temperature.

For #s 33-34. The analysis of flue gas from a fuel gas containing no nitrogen is
4.62% CO2, 3.08% CO, 8.91% O2, and 83.39% N2.
33. Moles of water (H2O) formed
a. 7.04 moles b. 14.08 moles c. 15.07 moles d. 22.11 moles

34. Moles of air supplied per 100 moles of dry flue gas
a. 1.055 b. 1.087 c. 1.124 d. 1.148

35. Which of the following increases the degree of separation process between that of
a more volatile component and less volatile component through distillation?
a. increasing the feed temperature b. increasing the column pressure
c. increasing the boiler temperature d. decreasing the column pressure

36. A counter – current extraction column is designed to removed 99% of solute C from
a solution of solvent A and solute C using pure solvent B. The initial concentration
of solute in the solution of A + C is 20 wt%, and the total flow of solution is 1000
kg/hr. If the equilibrium relationship is Y = 2X, where Y = mass of C/mass of A &
X = mass of C/mass of B.
a. 1454 b. 1584 c. 1676 d. 1874

37. Design a multiple-contact extraction system to treat 1.25 tones (2500 lb) per hour
of dry black ash, containing 40% Na2CO3 remains unextracted, calculate the number
of ideal stages by the absorption factor method. Note: The mass ratio of insoluble
matter to solvent in the underflow from the stage is 1:2.
a. 2 b. 1 c. 4 d. 3

38. Particles of quartz having a diameter of 0.127mm and a sg of 2.65 are setting in
water at 293.2 K. At this temp., the viscosity and density of water are 1.005x10^-3
Pa and 998 kg/m3 respectively. The volume fraction of the particles in the slurry
mixture of quartz and water is 0.25 the. hindered settling velocity is
a. 0.285 m/s b. 8.52x10^-2 m/s c. 2.74X10^-3 m/s d. 2.85x10^-6
m/s

11
39. A batch centrifugal filler has a bowl height b = 0.457 m and r 2 = 0.381 m and
operates a 33.33 rev/s at 25oC.Thefiltrate is essentially water. At a given time in the
cycle the slurry and cake formed have the following properties: Cs =60 kg solids/m 3,
filtrate, 𝜀 = 0.8, Pp = 2002 kg solid/m3, cake thickness = 0.152 m, ∝ = 6.38 x 1010
m/kg, Rm = 8.53 x 1014/m, r1 = 0.2032 m. The rate of filtrate flow is
a. 6.11 x 10-4m3/s b. 5.55 x 10-4m3/s c. 3.11 x 10-4m3/s d. 7 x 10-4m3/s

40. A straight line is obtained if the boiling point of a solution is plotted against the
boiling point of pure water at the same pressure for a given concentration at different
pressures. This empirical law is known as
a. BPR law b. Duhring’s Rule c. Colligative Law d. All of the
above

12
PRETEST- GENERAL ENGINEERING

1. Which of the following statements regarding matrices is not true?


A. (AT)T=A C. A+(B+C)=(A+B)+C
B. A(B+C)=AB+AC D. (AB)-1=A-1B-1

2. The sides of a triangle have a total length of 100 inches. The angles are in the
continued proportion 1:2:4. Find the side opposite the smallest triangle.
A. 20.80 in B. 35.69 in C. 19.80 in D. 17.21 in

3. One of the most popular arithmetic books of all time (The Scholar’s Guide to
Arithmetic by Bonniecastle, 6th edition 1795) contains the exercise. If a cardinal
can pray a soul in purgatory, by himself, in an hour, a bishop in three hours, a priest
in five and a friar in seven, how long will it take then to pray out three souls from
purgatory, all praying together? Which of these is nearest to the expected answer?
A. 1 h 41.5 min B. 1 h 46 min C. 1 h 47.5 min D. an eternity

4. There is 30% chance to rain today. If it does not rain today, there is a 20% chance
of rain tomorrow. If it rains today, there is a 50% chance of rain tomorrow. What
is the probability that it rains tomorrow?
A. 0.27 B. 0.28 C. 0.29 D. 0.26

5. A road run 1200 m from A to B and then makes a right triangle going to C, a
distance of 500 m. A new road is being built directly from A to C. How much
shorter will the new road be?
A. 600 m B.400 m C. 500 m D. 300 m

6. A dam was constructed for P 200,000. The annual maintenance cost P 5000. If
interest is 5% the capitalized cost of the dam, including depreciation is
A. P100,000 B. 215,000 C. 250,000 D. P300,000

7. An investment of x pesos is made at the end of each year for three years, at an
interest rate of 9% per year compounded annually. What will the peso value of the
total investment be upon the deposit of the third payment?
A. 0.772x B. 1.295x C. 2.27x D. 3.278x

8. A store gives discount at less 26%/ less 5% of its tag price of a certain item. The
store wants to increase its discounted sales price by decreasing the discount to less
20 %/ less 5%. What is the effective increase in the discounted sales price?
A. 8.1% B. 5.7% C. 12.2% D. 15.5%

9. A train, an hour after starting, meets with an accident which detains it an hour, after
which it proceeds at 3/5 of its former rate and arrives three hour after time; but had
the accident happened 50 miles farther on the line it would have arrived one and
one-half hour sooner. Find the length of the journey.
A. 910/9 miles B. 800/9 miles C. 920/9 miles D. 850/9 miles

13
10. Japee left his home at past 3 o’clock PM as indicated in his wall clock, between 2-
3 hours after, Japee returns home and noticed that hands of the clock interchanged.
At what time did Japee leave his home?
A. 3:31.47 B. 3:21.45 C. 3:46.10 D.3:36.50

11. From the time 6:15 PM to the time 7:45 PM of the same day, the minute hand of a
standard clock describes an arc of?
A. 60o B. 90o C. 180o D.540o

12. A rubber ball is made to fall from a height of 50 feet and is observed to rebound
2/3 of the distance it falls. How far will the ball travel before coming to rest if the
ball continues to fall in this manner?
A. 200 feet B. 225 feet C. 250 feet D. 275 feet

13. An express train goes past a station platform at high speed. A person standing the
edge of the platform tends to be
A. Attracted to the train
B. Repelled from the train
C. Attracted or repelled; depending on the ratio between the speed of the train and
the speed of sound
D. Unaffected by the train’s passage

14. A company which manufactures electric motors has a production capacity of 200
motors a month. The variable cost are 150.00 per motor. The average selling price
of motors is P275.00. Fixed costs of the company amount to P 20,000 per month
which includes taxes. The number of motors that must be sold each month to break
even is closest to:
A. 40 B. 150 C. 80 D. 160
15. A diagonal of a parallelogram is 56.38 ft long and makes an angle of 27 o 13’ and
16o 24’ respectively with the sides. Find the area of the parallelogram.
A. 595 ft2 B. 585 ft2 C. 575 ft2 D. 565 ft2
16. If the diameter of a sphere is increased by 40 percent, by what percent is the volume
increased?
A. 144.7% B. 147.4% C.177.4% D. 174.4%
17. The sequence of numbers 1,8,27,64… is called
A. square numbers B. pentagonal numbers C. oblong numbers D. cubic
numbers

18. If (0, 4) and (1, 6) are critical points of y=a+bx+cx3, find the value of c.
A. 1 B. 2 C. -1 D. -2

19. As an airplane climbs,


A. Its mass increases
B. Its weight increases

14
C. Its mass decreases
D. Its weight decreases

20. When a horse pulls a wagon, the force that causes the horse to move forward is the
force
A. He exerts on the wagon
B. He exerts on the ground
C. The wagon exerts on him
D. The ground exerts on him

21. The action and reaction forces referred to in Newton’s third law of motion
A. Act on the same object
B. Act on different object
C. Need not be equal in magnitude and need not have the same line of action
D. Must be equal in magnitude but need not have the same line of action

22. The copying of an invention of another person without his/her permission


A. piracy B. plagiarism C. infringement D. xerox
23. The moment of inertia of any plane figure can be expressed in units of length to the
__ power.
A. second B. third C. first D. fourth

24. What is the height of the parabolic arch which has a span of 48 feet and having a
height of 20 feet at a distance from the center of the span?
A. 30 ft B. 40 ft C. 36 ft
D. 34 ft

25. A circle whose center is at (6, 8) passes through the origin. Which of the following
points is not on the circle?
A. (12, 0) B. (6, -2) C. (16, 8) D. (-2, 8)

26. Find the quotient of 3x5-4x3+2x2+36x+48 divided by x3-2x2+6.


A. 3x2-4x-8
B. 3x2+4x-8
C. 3x2-6x-8
D. 3x2+6x+8

27. How far does an automobile move while its speed increases uniformly from 15kph
to 45kph in 20 seconds?
A. 167 m
B. 185 m
C. 190 m
D. 200 m

15
28. At time t=0 a car has a velocity of 16 m/s. It slows down with an acceleration given
by -0.50t, in m/s2 for t in seconds. It stops at t=__
A. 64 s B. 32 s C. 16 s D. 8.0 s

29. An object is thrown straight up from ground level with a speed of 50 m/s. If g = 10
m/s2 its distance above ground level 1.0 s later is:
A. 40 m B. 45 m C. 50 m D. 55 m

30. The differential equation (x+y2-3y)dx + (x2+3x+y)dy = 0 is


A. Order one, degree two, and non linear
B. Order two, degree one, and linear
C. Order one, degree one, and non linear
D. Order two, degree two, and non linear

16
ANSWER KEY:

PCP ChE GE
1. B 1. D 1. D
2. A 2. A 2. C
3. D 3. D 3. C
4. D 4. C 4. C
5. C 5. A 5. B
6. A 6. D 6. D
7. B 7. B 7. D
8. A 8. C 8. A
9. B 9. B 9. B
10. D 10. C 10. A
11. C 11. D 11. D
12. B 12. D 12. C
13. B 13. A 13. A
14. B 14. B. 14. D
15. C 15. B 15. A
16. C 16. A 16. D
17. A 17. A 17. D
18. B 18. B 18. C
19. B 19. A 19. D
20. C 20. A 20. D
21. C 21. A 21. B
22. D 22. B 22. C
23. C 23. A 23. D
24. B 24. B 24. C
25. C 25. B 25. D
26. B 26. A 26. D
27. B 27. A 27. A
28. A 28. A 28. D
29. D 29. C 29. B
30. C 30. D 30. C
31. D
32. B
33. B
34. A
35. D
36. B
37. A
38. C
39. B
40. B

17
18
GENERAL CHEMISTRY

1. What is the concentration of calcium ions in 350 mL of an aqueous solution


containing 7.50 g CaCl2?
a. 0.0676 M c. 0.248 M
b. 0.193 M d. 0.535 M

2. What is the value of the quantum number l for a 5d orbital?


a. 1 b. 2
c. 3 d. 4

3. What is the orbital angular momentum quantum number, l, of the electron that is
most easily removed when ground-state aluminum is ionized?
a. 3 b. 2
c. 1 d. 0

4. Which compound has the highest normal boiling point?


a. CH3CH2COOH b. CH3COOH
c. CH3CH2 CH2OH d. HCOOCH2CH3

5. Which of the following has the largest radius?


a. Ca+2 b. K+
c. Ar d. Cl- e.S-2

6. Which of the following is not an intensive property?


a. Density b. temperature
c. Color d. Volume

7. Which atom has the greatest first ionization energy?


a. Cl b. Na
c. B d. P

8. What are the percentages by mass of each element in CaCl 2?


a.33.3% Ca and 66.7% Cl c. 36.1% Ca and 63.9% Cl
b.53.1% Ca and 46.9% Cl d. 69.3% Ca and 30.7% Cl

9. 0.1 M aqueous solutions of each of the following, which solution has the lowest
pH?
a. Na2CO3 b. Na3PO4
c. Na2S d. NaCl

19
10. How many protons (p), neutrons (n) and electrons (e) are there, respectively, in
an atom of the chlorine-39 isotope? Atomic number of Cl=17
a.17 p, 17 n, 22 e b. 22 p, 17 n, 17 e
c. 17 p, 39 n, 17 e d.17 p, 22 n, 17 e

11. Which of the following is classified as a conjugate acid-base pair?


a. HCl / NaOH b. H3O+ / H2O
c. O2 / H2O d. H+/Cl- e. NaCl/ OH-

12. Which of the following is always true of a spontaneous process?


a. The process is exothermic
b. The entropy of the system increases
c. The internal energy of the system decreases
d. The total entropy of the system plus the surrounding increases

13. 0.100 M solution of a weak monoprotic acid HX is 3.5% ionized. What is the pH
of a 0.500 M solution of HX?
a. 0.30 b. 1.76
c. 2.10 d. 2.46

14. Which of the following is the most likely as a lewis acid?


a. NH3 b. F-
c. H2O d. Zn2+

15. What is the oxidation state of nitrogen in magnesium nitride?


a. -3 b. -2
c. +3 d. +5

16. A system expands in volume from 2.0L to 24.5L at constant temperature. Calculate
the work (w), in kJ, if the expansion occurs against a constant pressure of 5.00 atm.
a. -11.4 kJ b. 11.4 kJ
c. -4.14 kJ d.-1.14 kJ

17. Which of the following diatomic molecule has the longest bond length?
a.N2 b. Cl2
c. O2 d. I2

18. How many π electrons are present in a molecule of C6H6?


a. 6 b. 4
c. 5 d. 7

20
19. For the following molecule, what is the hybridization for
each carbon?
a. sp c. sp4
2
b. sp d. sp3

20. Consider the molecular substances I2, H2O, and C8H18. Which of them is/are
soluble in CCl4?
a. only I2 b. only H2O
c. only C8H18 d. I2 and C8H18
e. H2O and C8H18

21. Which change will increase the number of moles of PCl 5(g) present at equilibrium?
PCl3(g) + Cl2(g) → PCl5(g) + heat
a. The volume of the reaction is tripled c. Some of the Cl 2(g) is removed
b. The reaction vessel is cooled d. Krypton gas is added to the reaction vessel

22. A gaseous compound is composed of 85.7% C and 14.3%H. Its density is 2.28 g/L
at 300K and 1.00 atm pressure. Determine the molecular formula of the compound.
C=12.01, H=1.01
a. C2H4 b. C3H6
c. C4H8 d. C5H10

23. An aqueous solution labeled 35.0% HCLO4 (𝑤⁄𝑤) had a density of


1.251𝑔⁄𝑐𝑚3.What is the molarity of the solution? H=1.01, Cl=35.45, O=15.99
a. 4.36 M b. 3.46 M
c. 6.43 M d. 2.46 M

24. A current of 15.0 A is passed through a solution of CrCl 2 for 45 min. How many
gram of Cr is deposited on the cathode? Cr=52.00, Cl=35.45
a. 9.10 g Cr b. 11.9 g Cr
c. 10.9 g Cr d. 8.9 g Cr

25. A 1.500 g sample of a compound containing only C,H, and O was burned
completely. The only combustion products were 1.738 g CO 2 and 0.711 g H2O.
What is the empirical formula of the compound? C=12.01, H=1.01, O=15.99
a. C2H4O3 b. C2H3O2
c. C3H4O2 d. C3H4O3

26. A certain public water supply contained 0.10 ppb (parts per billion) of chloroform,
CHCl3. How many molecules of CHCl3 would be contained in a 0.050 mL drop of
this water? C=12.01, H=1.01, O=15.99
a. 5.2 x10-10 molecules b. 3.5 x1010 molecules
-10
c. 2.5 x10 molecules d. 2.5 x1010 molecules

21
27. According to EPA guidelines the permissible level for lead in drinking water is 15
parts per billion (ppb). What is the maximum allowable mass of lead that could be
present in 1.00 L of H2O?
a. 0.015 ng b. 0.015mg
c. 0.015µg d. 0.015g

28. According to the Tyndall effect, a beam of light becomes visible when passed
through all of the following except a/an
a. aerosol b. emulsion
c. colloid d. solution

29. Which physical property decreases with an increase in intermolecular forces?


a. boiling point b. vapor pressure
c. enthalpy of vaporization d.viscosity

30. The rate constant of a first-order reaction is 3.68 x10-2s-1 at 150 oC, and the
activation energy is 71 kJ/mol. What is the value of the rate constant at 170 oC?
a. 9.2 x10-2s-1 b. 3.7 x10-2s-1
c. 2.49 s-1 d. 4.0 x10-2s-1

22
ANSWER KEY

General Chemistry
1) B. 0.193 M
2) B. 2
3) C.1
4) A. CH3CH2COOH
5) E. S-2
6) D.Volume
7) A. Cl
8) C. 36.1% Ca and 63.9% Cl
9) D. NaCl
10) D.17 p, 22 n, 17 e
11) B. H3O+ / H2O
12) D. The total entropy of the system plus the surrounding increases
13) C. 2.10
14) D. Zn2+
15) A. -3
16) A. -11.4 kJ
17) D. I2
18) A. 6
19) D. sp3
20) D. I2 and C8H18
21) B. The reaction vessel is cooled
22) C. C4H8
23) A. 4.36 M
24) C. 10.9 g Cr
25) A. C2H4O3
26) D. 2.5 x1010 molecules
27) B. 0.015 mg
28) B. emulsion
29) B. Vapor pressure
30) A. 9.2 x 10-2 s-1

23
SOLUTIONS

1. Given: 7.50 g CaCl2 in 350 mL solution


Required: Concentration of Calcium ion
Solution:
1𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝐶𝑎𝐶𝑙2) 1𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝐶𝑎
7.50𝑔 𝐶𝑎𝐶𝑙2 ( )( )
2+ 110.98 𝑔 𝐶𝑎𝐶𝑙2) 1 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝐶𝑎𝐶𝑙2
Concentration Ca = 0.35 𝐿
Concentration Ca2+ = 0.193 M

8. Required: Percentage by mass of each element in CaCl2


Solution:
𝑔
𝑀𝑜𝑙𝑒𝑐𝑢𝑙𝑎𝑟 𝑊𝑒𝑖𝑔ℎ𝑡 𝐶𝑎𝑙𝑐𝑖𝑢𝑚 40.08
𝑚𝑜𝑙
% Ca = = 𝑔 x 100%
𝑀𝑜𝑙𝑒𝑐𝑢𝑙𝑎𝑟 𝑊𝑒𝑖𝑔ℎ𝑡 𝐶𝑎𝐶𝑙2 110.98
𝑚𝑜𝑙
% Ca = 36.11%
𝑔
𝑀𝑜𝑙𝑒𝑐𝑢𝑙𝑎𝑟 𝑊𝑒𝑖𝑔ℎ𝑡 𝐶ℎ𝑙𝑜𝑟𝑖𝑛𝑒 2 𝐶𝑙 70.9
𝑚𝑜𝑙
% Cl = = 1 𝐶𝑎𝐶𝑙2 = 𝑔 x 100%
𝑀𝑜𝑙𝑒𝑐𝑢𝑙𝑎𝑟 𝑊𝑒𝑖𝑔ℎ𝑡 𝐶𝑎𝐶𝑙2 110.98
𝑚𝑜𝑙
% Cl = 63.89%

13. Given: 0.1 M HX is 3.5% ionized


Required: pH of 0.5 M HX

Solution
HX → H + X
i 0.10 0 0
c 3.5x10-3 3.5x10 3.5x10-3
-3

e 0.0965 3.5x10-3 3.5x10-3


[H][X]
K= [HX]
(3.5𝑥10−3)2
= 0.0965
K = 1.2694 x10-4

HX → H + X
i 0.50 0 0
c x x x
e 0.50-x x x

[H][X]
K=
[HX]
(𝑥)2
1.2694 x10-4 = 0.5−𝑥

24
X= 8.0306 x 10-3 = [H]
pH= -log [H] =-log(8.0306 x 10-3)
pH = 2.10

16. Given: P = 5.0 atm


V1= 2.0L V2= 24.5 L
Required: work (w) in kJ

Solution
W= - PdV
W = -5 atm ( 24.5 – 2.0) L
101.3 J 1kJ
=-112.5(L−atm)(1000 J)
W = -11.4 kJ

22. Given: 85.7% C and 14.3%H


Density = 2.28 g/L
T = 300K P= 1 atm
Required : molecular formula of the compound

Solution:

PM ρRT
ρ= ; M=
RT P

g L−atm
2.2 (0.08206 )(300K)
l mol−K
Mw = 1 atm

Mw of compound= 56.1290 g/mol

MW of C
% C = Mw compound ( X mol C) x 100%
12.01𝑔
𝑚𝑜𝑙
85.7% = 𝑔 (X mol of C) (100)
56.1290
𝑚𝑜𝑙
X = 4.005 mole Carbon

MW of H
% H = Mw compound ( Y mol H) x 100%
1.01g
mol
14.3% = g (Y mol of H) (100)
56.1290
mol
Y= 7.95 mole Hydrogen

Therefore the molecular formula of the compound is C4H8.

25
23. Given: 35.0 % HClO4 (w/w)
Density= 1.251 g/cm3

Required: Molarity of solution


Solution:
35 𝑔 HClO4 1.251 𝑔 𝑠𝑜𝑙𝑢𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛 𝑚𝑜𝑙 1000 cm3
Molarity = 100 𝑔 solution ( ) (100.42 𝑔 HClO4)( 1L )
𝑐𝑚3
Molarity = 4.360 M

25. Given: 1.50 g sample


1.738 g CO2 and 0.711 g H2O
Required: Empirical formula of the compound
Solution:
CxHyOz + O2 → CO2 + H2O
12
mass of C in CO2 = 1.738 (44) = 0.474 g of C
2
mass of H in H2O = 0.711 (18) = 0.079 g of H
mass of O is the remainder = 1.500 - ( .474 + .079) = 0.947 g of O
0.474
moles of C in CxHyOz = 12 = 0.0395 moles
moles of H = .079 moles
0.947
moles of O = 16 = 0.0592

molar ratio of C:H:O = 0.0395:0.079:0.0592


dividing by the smallest number we have 1:2:1.5
multiply by 2 to get whole numbers ..
C:H:O = 2:4:3
Therefore the empirical formula is C2H4O3.

26. Given: 0.10 ppb CHCl3


0.05 ml drop H2O
Solution
Molecules of CHCl3
1mL 1g 1 mol 6.022 × 1023 molecules
= 1 drop H20( )( H2O)(0.10 x10−9 )( CHCl3)( )
20 drop mL 119.3776 g mol CHCl3
Molecules of CHCl3 = 𝟐. 𝟓 × 𝟏𝟎𝟏𝟎𝐦𝐨𝐥𝐞𝐜𝐮𝐥𝐞𝐬

27. Solution
15 μg Pb
Maximum Pb allowed = 1L H2O × L H2O
𝐌𝐚𝐱𝐢𝐦𝐮𝐦 𝐏𝐛 𝐚𝐥𝐥𝐨𝐰𝐞𝐝 = 𝟎. 𝟎𝟏𝟓 𝐦𝐠

26
30. Given: k1= 3.68 x10-2 s-1 ; T1= 150 oC
Ea = 71 kJ/mol ; T2 = 170 oC
Required: rate constant, k2
Solution
k1 Ea 1 1
ln k2 = R (T2 − T1) ;

0.0368 71 1 1
ln =( )( − )
k2 0.008314 443.15 423.15

k2=9.2 x 10-2 s-1

27
ENVIRONMENTAL ENGINEERING

1. Pick out the wrong statement


a. BOD is a characteristic and not a constituent of water
b. BOD is a measure of the amount of oxygen which will be demanded & used in 5
days by the biological decomposition of the organic matter present in water stream
present as food for the living organism
c. BOD is expressed in mg/L
d. None of these

2. COD is a good
estimate of
a 20-day BOD b. cBOD c. nBOD d. Ultimate BOD

3. Pick out the wrong statement.


a. The waves used in the long distance radio communication are reflected back to
earth by stratosphere,
b. The concentric atmosphere layer just above troposphere is called stratosphere,
which is rich in ozone.
c. Mesosphere is characterized by very low atmospheric pressure and low
temperature,
d. Troposphere is a dusty zone containing water vapour and clouds.

4. The best procedure for determining the DO of a plant effluent is to analyze


a. Several grab samples at various flows
b. A grab sample of the effluent at high flow
c. A grab sample of the effluent at low flow
d. A 24-hour composite sample of the effluent

5. The correct relation between TOD, BOD and COD is given by


a. TOD > BOD > COD c.BOD > COD > TOD

b. TOD > COD > BOD d.COD > BOD > TOD
6 Pick out the correct statement
a. BOD5 is the ultimate BOD
b. BOD5 is greater than BOD4 keeping other conditions same
c. BOD5 is less than BOD4 keeping other conditions same
d. BOD5 is equal to BOD4 keeping other conditions same

28
7. The rate of BOD exerted at any time is
a. Directly proportional to BOD satisfied
b. Directly proportional to BOD remaining
c. Inversely proportional to BOD satisfied
d. Inversely proportional to BOD remaining

8. The ratio of BODs to ultimate BOD is about


a. 1/3 b. 2/3 c. ¼ d. ¾

9. What would be the effect on a BOD determination if the dilution water used
contained either copper or chloride?
a. BOD would be higher c. DO level would increase
b. BOD would be lower d. DO level would decrease

10. Assertion (A) : The determination of pH value of sewerage is important.

Reason (R) : The efficiency of certain treatment methods depends upon availability of
pH value.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation Of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true

11. In sampling waste water for a BOD test, the best results are obtained from

a. A grab sample
b. A 24-hour composite sample
c. A sample made of 2 to 4 portions taken at time of high flow
d. A sample taken at time of low flow

12. The three measurements that are essential in calculating the solids and organics on
a waste water treatment plant are
a. Flow, BOD, DO
b. Flow, BOD, SS

c. BOD, SS, DO
d. BOD, SS, pH

29
13, The following data are given for an SS determination: filtered 100 mL sample;
tare weight= 14.9913 g ; SS= 1312 mg/L. The final weight after drying in grams was
a. 14.8601 b. 14.7289 c. 15.1225
d.15.2537

14. This disease is caused by poisoning of a certain chronic chemical that impairs
kidney function and progressively causes osteomalacia, a calcium deficiency. What is
disease and what heavy metal causes it?

a. Mercury -Minamata disease


b. Cadmium- Itai-ltai disease
C. Silver- Argyria
d. Chromium - Chromium toxicity

15. The best procedure for determining the SS of a plant effluent is to analyze
a. A series of grab samples taken at different times during the day
b. A grab sample of the effluent at high flow
c. A grab sample of the effluent at low flow
d. A 24-hour composite sample of the effluent

16. .A five day B.O.D at 150C of the sewage of a town is 100 kg/day. If the 5 day B.O
D, per head at 150C for standard sewage is 0.01 kg/day, the population equivalent is
a. 500
b. 1000
c. 5000
d. 10000

17. The following data are given for a BOD test: 1, 0.5 and 0.1 percent samples were
set up. Initial DO for all samples was 7.6 mg/L. Final DO was 0 mg/L for all samples.
The seed correction was 0.6 mg/L. From the results of this test we conclude
a. The BOD is less than 700 c. The BOD is than 7000
b. The BOD is greater than 700 d. The BOD is greater than 7000

30
18. In a lab measurement of BOD, 10 mL of waste water is diluted to 300 mL. The
initial D.O. level (after dilution) Is 10 mg/L. The test bottle is incubated at 20 degC,
but after 3 days the incubator malfunctions and the temperature changes to degC.
After 5 days a D.O. level of 4 mg/L is measured. If the 20 degC rate constant (k) is
0.2/day and 9 = 1.05, find the correct BOD5 of the waste water.
a. 160 mg/L
b. 170 mg/L
c. 180 mg/L
d. 190 mg/L

19.200 mL of Genesee river water was collected from just below the brewery, Sample
A, 2 mL of river water diluted to ml, aerated and seeded. The dissolved oxygen
content was 7.6 mg/L initially. After 5 days, the dissolved oxygen cont had dropped
to 5.7 mg/L. A second sample, sample B was obtained 60 days later and retested in
identical fashion, initial dissolved oxygen was 7.5 mg/L and, after 5 days, dropped to
5.3 mg/L. Which water sample was cleaner?
a. Sample A
b. Sample B
c. Both samples are the same
d. Cannot be determined

20. A midnight dumper discharged a tank truck full of industrial waste in a gravel pit.
The truck was spotted there 3 days and a pool of pure waste remains, A laboratory
technician determined that the waste has a 5-day BOD of 80 mg/L rate constant of 0.1
per day. Three factories in the vicinity generate organic wastes: a winery (ultimate
BOD=275 mg vinegar manufacturer (ultimate BOD=80 mg/L) and a pharmaceutical
company (ultimate BOD=200 mg/L). Determine the source of the waste

a. Winery
b. Vinegar Manufacturer
c. Pharmaceutical company
d. Cannot be determined

31
21. A waste having an ultimate CBOD of 1,000 mg/L is discharged into a river at a
rate of 2 m3/s. The river has an ultimate CBOD of 10 mg/L and is flowing at a rate of
8 m3/s, Assuming a reaction rate coefficient of 0.1/day, calculate the CBOD the waste
at 20 km downstream. The river is flowing at a velocity of 10 km/day.
a. 36.6 mg/L
b. 37.7 mg/L
c. 38.8 mg/L
d. 39.9mg/L

22. Assume that the BOD of a sample to be tested is about 200 mg/L and the DO
is zero.
DO of dilution water to be used
is known to be 8 mg/L. Which of the following ratios of dilution water to waste
water sample would most logically be used in setting up a BOD bottle for
incubation and testing?

a. 50:1
b 40:1
c. 30:1
d. 20:1

23 Calculate the total hardness of water containing the following per titer
NazCOs= 14.6 Mg(HCO3)2= 7.3mg Ca(HCO3)2 = 16.2
MgCl2 = 9.5 mg CaCl2 = 11.1 mg Na2SO4 =4.9 mg
CaSO4 = 13.6 mg HCO3 =8.7 mg MgSO4 = 12 mg

a. 44 mg/L
b. 55 mg/L
c. 66 mg/L
d. 77 m/L

24. The tannery with a waste water flow of 0.011 m3/s and a BOD5 of 590 mg/L
discharges into the creek. The creek has a 10 year, 7 day low flow of 1.7 m 3/s.
Upstream of the tannery, the BODs of the creek is 0.6 mg/L. The BOD rate
constant for the tannery and creek are 0.115 day-1 and 3.7 day-1 respectively.
Calculate the ultimate BOD after mixing.

a. 8.3 mg/L
b. 9.3 mg/L
c. 10.3 mg/L
d. 11.3 mg/L

32
25. A solid analysis is to be performed on a waste water sample. The abbreviated
procedure is outlined as follows:
i. A gooch crucible and filter pad are dried at 105 degC to a constant mass of
25.439g.
ii. 200 mL of a well-mixed sample is passed through the filter pad.
iii. It is then dried at 105 degC to a constant mass of 25. 645 g.
iv. 100 mL of the filtrate that passes through the filter pad in step ii above is
placed in an evaporation dish that had been pre-weighed at 275.410 g.
v. The sample in Sted iv is evaporated to dryness at 105 degC and the dish
and residue are weighed at 276. 227 g.
vi. Both the crucible from step ill and the evaporation dish from step v are
placed in a furnace at 550 degC for an hour. After cooling in desiccators, the
mass of the crucible is 25.501 g and the mass of the dish is 275.944 g.
Determine the Total Solid of the waste water sample.

a. 9200 mg/L
b. 9300 mg/L
c. 9400 mg/L
d. 9500 mg/L

33
ANSWER KEY

Environmental Engineering

1. D. None of these
2. A. 20-day BOD
3. A. The radio waves used in long distance radio communication are
reflected back to earth by stratosphere
4. A. Several grab samples at various flow
5. B. TOD > COD >BOD
6. C. BOD5 is lless than BOD4 keeping other conditions same
7. B. Directly proportional to BOD remaining
8. B. 2/3
9. B. BOD would be lower
10. A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
11. B. A 24-hour composite sample
12. B. Flow, BOD, SS
13. C. 15.1225
14. B. Cadmium- Itai-itai disease
15. D. A 24-hour composite sample of the effluent
16. D. 10000
17. D. The BOD is greater than 7000
18. B. 170 mg/L
19. B. Sample B
20. C. Pharmaceutical company
21. B. 37.7 mg/L
22. A. 50:1
23. B. 55 mg/L
24. B. 9.3 mg/L
25. A. 9200 mg/L

34
SOLUTIONS

𝐹𝑖𝑙𝑡𝑒𝑟 𝑚𝑎𝑠𝑠 𝑎𝑓𝑡𝑒𝑟 𝑑𝑟𝑦𝑖𝑛𝑔−𝑖𝑛𝑖𝑡𝑖𝑎𝑙 𝑓𝑖𝑙𝑡𝑒𝑟 𝑚𝑎𝑠𝑠


13. SS (mg/L)= 𝑠𝑎𝑚𝑝𝑙𝑒 𝑣𝑜𝑙𝑢𝑚𝑒
𝑋−14.9913𝑥103
1312 (mg/L)= 100
1000
X= 15.1225 g

𝐵𝑂𝐷 𝑙𝑜𝑎𝑑 𝑓𝑟𝑜𝑚 𝑖𝑛𝑑𝑢𝑠𝑡𝑟𝑦


16. Population Equivalent (PE)= 𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑑𝑎𝑟𝑑 𝑠𝑒𝑤𝑎𝑔𝑒

100 𝑘𝑔/𝑑𝑎𝑦
Population Equivalent (PE)= 0.01 𝑘𝑔/𝑑𝑎𝑦

PE= 10000

𝑚𝑔
7.6 −5.7 𝑚𝑔/𝐿
𝐿
19. BOD5,1= 2𝑚𝐿 =238 mg/L
250 𝑚𝐿

𝑚𝑔
7.5 −5.3 𝑚𝑔/𝐿
𝐿
BOD5,2= 2𝑚𝐿 =275mg/L
1000𝑚𝐿

* BOD5,1=𝐿𝑜(1 − e−𝑘𝑡 )
238 mg/L=𝐿𝑜(1 − e−0.23𝑥5 )
Lo=348 mg/L

* BOD5,2=𝐿𝑜(1 − e−𝑘𝑡 )
275 mg/L=𝐿𝑜(1 − e−0.23𝑥5 )
Lo=402 mg/L

Therefore, the second sample is dirtier than the first sample

20. BOD5 = 80 mg/L k= 0.1/day

Lo=275 mg/L BOD5 = 275 𝑚𝑔/𝐿(1 − e−0.1𝑥5)=108 mg/L

Lo= 80 mg/L BOD5 = 80 𝑚𝑔/𝐿(1 − e−0.1𝑥5 )=31.48 mg/L

Lo= 200 mg/L BOD5 = 200𝑚𝑔/𝐿(1 − e−0.1𝑥5 )=79 mg/L ✔


(pharmaceutical)

35
21. cBOD = 1000 mg/L (2m3/s)

Ultimate cBOD = 10mg/L (8m3/s)

K=0.1/day

cBOD= ? (20 km downstream)

v= 10 km/day
𝑚𝑔 2000𝐿 8000𝐿
1000 ( )+10 𝑚𝑔/𝐿( )
𝐿 𝑠 𝑠
Lo=
2000+8000

Lo= 208 mg/L

BOD=𝐿𝑜(1 − e−𝑘𝑡 )

20 𝑘𝑚
t=10 𝑘𝑚/𝑑𝑎𝑦=2 days

BOD=208 𝑚𝑔/𝐿(1 − e−0.1𝑥2 )


= 37.7 mg/L
1 𝑚𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝑐𝑎𝑆𝑂4 1𝑚𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝐶𝑎 1𝑚𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝐶𝑎𝐶𝑂3
23. CaSO4= 13.6 mg x 136.08 𝑚𝑔 𝑐𝑎𝑆𝑂4 𝑥 1𝑚𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝐶𝑎𝑆𝑂4
𝑥
1𝑚𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝐶𝑎
𝑥 100 𝑚𝑔 =9.99 mg
1 𝑚𝑚𝑜𝑙 MgCl2 1𝑚𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝑀𝑔 1𝑚𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝑀𝑔𝐶𝑂3
MgCl2= 9.5 mg x 𝑥 𝑥 𝑥 100 𝑚𝑔 =10 mg
94.9 𝑚𝑔 MgCl2 1𝑚𝑚𝑜𝑙 MgCl2 1𝑚𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝑀𝑔

Mg(HCO3)2= 7.3mg x
1 𝑚𝑚𝑜𝑙 Mg(HCO3)2 1𝑚𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝑀𝑔 1𝑚𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝑀𝑔𝐶𝑂3
𝑥 𝑥 𝑥 100 𝑚𝑔 =5 mg
146 𝑚𝑔 Mg(HCO3)2 1𝑚𝑚𝑜𝑙 Mg(HCO3)2 1𝑚𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝑀𝑔

1 𝑚𝑚𝑜𝑙 CaCl2 1𝑚𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝐶𝑎 1𝑚𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝐶𝑎𝐶𝑂3


CaCl2= 11.1 mg x 𝑥 𝑥 𝑥 100 𝑚𝑔 =10 mg
140.9 𝑚𝑔 CaCl2 1𝑚𝑚𝑜𝑙 CaCl2 1𝑚𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝐶𝑎

1 𝑚𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝑀𝑔𝑆𝑂4 1𝑚𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑀𝑔 1𝑚𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝑀𝑔𝐶𝑂3


MgSO4= 12 mg x 𝑥 𝑥 𝑥 100 𝑚𝑔 =10 mg
120.08 𝑚𝑔 𝑀𝑔𝑆𝑂4 1𝑚𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑀𝑔𝑆𝑂4 1𝑚𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝑀𝑔

Ca(HCO3)2=16.2mg x
1 𝑚𝑚𝑜𝑙 Ca(HCO3)2 1𝑚𝑚𝑜𝑙 Ca 1𝑚𝑚𝑜𝑙 Ca𝐶𝑂3
𝑥 1𝑚𝑚𝑜𝑙 Ca(HCO3)2 𝑥 𝑥 100 𝑚𝑔 =10 mg
162 𝑚𝑔 Ca(HCO3)2 1𝑚𝑚𝑜𝑙 Ca

Add: 9.99+10+5+10+10+10=54.99 mg/L

24. Qp= 0.011 m3/s


BODp=590 mg/L
Qs=1.7 m3/s
BODs=0.6 mg/L

36
BOD=𝐿𝑜(1 − e−𝑘𝑡 )
590 mg/L=𝐿𝑜(1 − e−0.115𝑥5 )=1349.20 mg/L
0.6 mg/L=𝐿𝑜(1 − e−3.7𝑥5)=0.6 mg/L
0.011𝑚3 𝑚𝑔 𝑚3 𝑚𝑔
( )(1349.20 )+(1.7 )(0.6 )
𝑠 𝐿 𝑠 𝐿
Lo= 0.011+1.7
Lo=9.27 mg/L

(25.645𝑔−25.439𝑔)(1000𝑚𝑔)
25. FS = 1𝐿
200 𝑚𝐿𝑥( )
1000 𝑚𝐿
= 1030 mg/L

(276.227𝑔−275.410𝑔)(1000𝑚𝑔)
VS= 1𝐿
200 𝑚𝐿𝑥( )
1000 𝑚𝐿

= 8170 mg/L

TS= FS+VS=1030 mg/L+8170 mg/L =9200 mg/L

37
BIOCHEMICAL ENGINEERING

1. A biological agent that accelerates the rate of chemical reaction but whose quantity or
concentration and chemical identity remains theoretically unchanged at the end of reaction.
A. Catalyst B. Enzyme C. Substrate D. Inhibitor

2. If the half-life of the enzyme-catalyzed dimerization of proflavine is


t1/2=0.001/[proflavin]0, then the most feasible chemical equation that will represent the
equation is:
A. 2(proflavin) –k(Proflavin)2 C. proflavin + enzyme –k(proflavin)2
B. Proflavine –kiso-proflavin D. proflavin + enzyme –kiso-proflavin

3. A widely accepted model for enzyme-substrate complex formation which suggests that
enzymes are flexible structures in which the active site continually reshapes by its
interaction with the substrate until the time the substrate is completely bound to it.
A. Lock-and-key model C. Induced-fit model
B. Michaelis-Menten model D. Pseudoplastic model

4. In enzyme-catalyzed reactions, the molecules acted upon by the enzymes (i.e., reactant
molecules) are called
A. Substrate B. Inhibitors C. Ligands D. Catalysts

5. Michaelis-Menten model for enzyme kinetics suggests that formation of stable


enzyme-substrate complex is favored when
A. KM is low
B. KM is high
C. Vmax is 0
D. Vmax is large

6. Turnover number is the number of _______ that can be covered per unit time per
active site on the enzyme.
A. Inhibitor molecules C. Substrate molecules
B. Enzyme-substrate molecules D. Enzyme-substrate-inhibitor molecule

7. Which of the following is false according to the Michaelis-Menten kinetics?


A. The reaction rate is proportional to the substrate concentration (that is, first-order
reaction) when the substrate concentration is in the low range.
B. The reaction rate does not depend on the substrate concentration when the substrate
concentration is high, since the reaction rate changes gradually from first order to zero
order as the substrate concentration is increased.
C. The Michaelis-Menten constant KM is proportional to the enzyme concentration within
the range of the enzyme tested.
D. All choices are true.

38
8. A nonprotein compound which combines with an otherwise inactive protein
(apoenzyme) to give a catalytically active complex.
A. Haloenzyme B. Cofactor C. Inhibitor D. Ligand

9. Any molecule that reduces the rate of an enzyme reaction is a/an


A. Haloenzyme B. Cofactor C. Inhibitor D. Ligand

10. In ______, the inhibitor has some degree of similarity with the substrate.
A. Competitive inhibition C. Uncompetitive inhibition
B. Noncompetitive inhibition D. Substrate inhibition

11. In _____, the inhibitor does not affect the value of Vmax but affects the value of KM.
A. Competitive inhibition C. Uncompetitive inhibition
B. Noncompetitive inhibition D. Substrate inhibition

12. Uncompetitive inhibition _____ Vmax and _____ KM.


A. Increases, decreases C. Increases, increases
B. Decreases, increases D. Decreases, decreases

13. Enzymes which have more than 1 binding site.


A. Transferases C. Allosteric enzymes
B. Hydrases D. Oxidoreductases

14. Confinement of enzyme in a phase (matrix or support) over which the substrate is
passed and converted to products (carrier-binding method)
A. Inhibition C. Encapsulation
B. Immobilization D. Allosteric regulation

15. The following are types of immobilization except


A. Physical D. Entrapment
B. Chemical E. All are immobilization techniques
C. Surface immobilization

16. The kinetics of cell death is usually


A. Zero order C. Second order
B. First order D. Pseudo-first order

17. In this type of reactor, the liquid volume is kept constant by setting the outlet flow
rate equal to the inlet flow rate. However, the inlet flow rate is adjusted to keep the
biomass concentration constant.
A. Batch reactor B. PFR C. Chemostat D. Turbidostat

39
For questions 18-20:
Aspergillus niger is used to produce gluconic acid. Product synthesis is monitored in a
fermenter; gluconic acid concentration is measured as a function of time for the first 39 h
of culture.

Time (h) Acid concentration (g-L-1)


0 3.6
16 22
24 51
28 66
32 97
39 167
18. Determine the order of reaction
A. Zero order C. Second order
B. First order D. It follows Michaelis-Menten kinetics

19. Determine the rate constant


A. 3.85 g/L-h B. 0.10 h-1 C. 0.007 L/g-h D. 2.76 L2/g2-h

20. Estimate the product concentration after 20h.


A. 5.6 g/L B. 29.49 g/L C. 11.1 g/L D. 34.7 g/L

For problems 21 and 22:


Amylglucosidase from Endomycopsis bispora is immobilized in a very small
polyacrylamide gel beads. The activities of immobilized and soluble enzymes are
compared at 80OC. Initial rate data are measured at a fixed substrate concentration with
the following results:
Enzyme Activity
Immobilized
Time, min Soluble Enzyme
Enzyme
0 0.86 0.45
3 0.79 0.44
6 0.70 0.43
9 0.65 0.43
15 0.58 0.41
20 0.46 0.40
25 0.41 0.39
30 --- 0.38
40 --- 0.37
21. What is the half-life for the soluble enzyme?
A. 23.46 min B. 38.97 min C. 137 min D. 336.1 min

22. What is the half-life for the immobilized enzyme?


A. 23.46 min B. 38.97 min C. 137 min D. 336.1 min

40
For problems 23 and 24:
A substrate is converted to a product by the catalytic action of an enzyme. Assume that
the Michaelis-Menten kinetics parameters for this enzyme are: KM=0.04 mol/L and
Vmax=12.5 mol/L-min.

23. What should be the size of a steady state CSTR to convert 98% of the incoming
substrate (CSO=15 mol/L) with a flow rate of 10 L/h?
A. 0.11 L B. 0.22 L C. 0.33 L D. 0.44 L

24. If a PFR of size equal to that of the CSTR in item 23 is used, what would be the
substrate conversion?
A. 0.245 B. 0.896 C. 0.989 D. 0.999

For problems 25 and 26:


Eadie (1942) measured the initial reaction rate of hydrolysis of acetylcholine (substrate)
by dog serum (source of enzyme) in the absence and presence of prostigmine (inhibitor),
1.5x10-7 mol/L and obtained the following data:
Substrate Concentration Initial reaction rate (mol/L-min)
(mol/L) Absence of Prostigmine Presence of Prostigmine
0.0032 0.111 0.059
0.0049 0.148 0.071
0.0062 0.143 0.091
0.0080 0.166 0.111
0.0095 0.200 0.125
25. What type of inhibitor is prostigmine?
A. Competitive C. Uncompetitive
B. Noncompetitive D. Substrate

26. What is the Michaelis-Menten constant using the Langmuir plot?


A. 0.001 B. 0.002 C. 0.003 D. 0.004

For problems 27-30:


Zymoonas mobilis is used to convert glucose to ethanol in a batch fermenter under
anaerobic conditions. The yield of biomass from substrate is 0.06 g/g; YPX=7.7 g/g. The
maintenance coefficient is 2.2 g/g-h; the specific rate of product formation due to
maintenance is 1.1/h. The maximum specific growth rate of Z. mobilis is approximately
0.3/h. Five grams of bacteria are inoculated into 50 L of medium containing 12 g/L
glucose. Determine the batch culture time required to:
27. Produce 10 g of biomass.
A. 3.4 h B. 3.7 h C. 5.4 h D. 5.7 h

28. Achieve 90% substrate conversion.


A. 3.4 h B. 3.7 h C. 5.4 h D. 5.7 h

29. Produce 100 g ethanol.


A. 3.4 h B. 3.7 h C. 5.4 h D. 5.7 h

41
30. Which of the following statements is false?
A. In fermentation broths, the desired product is present within a complex mixture of
many components.
B. Any treatment of the culture broth of fermentation to concentrate and purify the
product is known as downstream processing.
C. In most cases, downstream processing requires only physical modifications.
D. Harvested fermentation broths are not susceptible to contamination.

ANSWER KEY

Biochemical Engineering

1. B. Enzyme
2. A. 2(proflavin) –k(Proflavin)2
3. C. Induced-fit model
4. A. Substrate
5. A. KM is low
6. C. Substrate molecules
7. C. The Michaelis-Menten constant KM is proportional to the enzyme
concentration within the range of the enzyme tested.
8. B. Cofactor
9. C. Inhibitor
10. A. Competitive inhibition
11. A. Competitive inhibition
12. D. Decreases, decreases
13. C. Allosteric enzymes
14. B. Immobilization
15. E. All are immobilization techniques
16. B. First order
17. D. Turbidostat
18. B. First order
19. B. 0.10 h-1
20. B. 29.49 g/L
21. A. 23.46 min
22. C. 137 min
23. B. 0.22 L
24. D. 0.999
25. C. Uncompetitive
26. A. 0.001
27. B. 3.7 h
28. D. 5.7 h
29. A. 3.4 h
30. D. Harvested fermentation broths are not susceptible to contamination.

42
SOLUTIONS

For problems 18-20:


𝑑𝐶
𝑟𝐴 = 𝑑𝑡𝐴 = 𝑘1 𝐶𝐴 where A denotes gluconic acid. Integrating this equation and taking
natural logarithm gives:
𝑙𝑛𝐶𝐴 = 𝑙𝑛𝐶𝐴0 + 𝑘1 𝑡
Therefore, a semi-log plot of gluconic acid concentration versus time will give a straight
line with slope k1 as shown in the figure. The first-order model fits the data as well.

Plugging in the values for t and CA in the equation 𝑙𝑛𝐶𝐴 = 𝑙𝑛𝐶𝐴0 + 𝑘1 𝑡 gives:
𝟎.𝟏𝟎 𝑔
𝒌𝟏 = 𝒉 and 𝐶𝐴0 = 4.1 𝐿
The kinetic equation is:
𝐶𝐴 = 𝐶𝐴0 𝑒 𝑘𝑡
𝐶𝐴 = 4.1𝑒 0.1𝑡
At t = 20:
𝒈
𝐶𝐴 = 4.1𝑒 0.1(20) = 𝟑𝟎. 𝟐𝟗𝟓𝟏
𝑳

For problems 21-22:


Let: E0 = initial amount of enzyme; E0(t) = amount of active enzyme after time (t)
𝑉𝑚𝑎𝑥 = 𝑘2 [𝐸0 ]
Assuming a first order degradation kinetics:
[𝐸0 (𝑡)] = [𝐸0 ](𝑒 −𝑘𝑑 𝑡 )
Then, the maximum reaction rate at different times can be written as:
𝑉𝑚𝑎𝑥 (𝑡) = 𝑘2 [𝐸0 (𝑡)] = 𝑘2 [𝐸0 ](𝑒 −𝑘𝑑 𝑡 ) = 𝑉𝑚𝑎𝑥 (𝑒 −𝑘𝑑 𝑡 )
Recalling the Michaelis-Menten equation:
𝑉𝑚𝑎𝑥 [𝑆] 𝑘2 [𝐸0 ][𝑆]
𝑉= =
𝑘𝑚 + [𝑆] 𝑘𝑚 + [𝑆]
At constant substrate concentration [S], the reaction rate is directly proportional to v max, we
can use v instead of vmax:
𝑉(𝑡) = 𝑉0 (𝑒 −𝑘𝑑𝑡 ) ⟹ ln(𝑉(𝑡)) = ln(𝑉0 ) − 𝑘𝑑 𝑡
Plugging in the values in the above equation, we can obtain:
𝑘𝑑 = 0.0295 ⇒ 𝑓𝑜𝑟 𝑓𝑟𝑒𝑒 − 𝑠𝑜𝑙𝑢𝑏𝑙𝑒 𝑒𝑛𝑧𝑦𝑚𝑒
𝑘𝑑 = 5.0595𝑥10−3 ⇒ 𝑓𝑜𝑟 𝑖𝑚𝑚𝑜𝑏𝑖𝑙𝑖𝑧𝑒𝑑 𝑒𝑛𝑧𝑦𝑚𝑒
The half-life time is calculated as:

43
ln 2
𝑡1⁄ =
2 𝑘𝑑
𝒕𝟏⁄ = 𝟐𝟑. 𝟒𝟔 ⇒ 𝒇𝒐𝒓 𝒇𝒓𝒆𝒆 − 𝒔𝒐𝒍𝒖𝒃𝒍𝒆 𝒆𝒏𝒛𝒚𝒎𝒆
𝟐
𝒕𝟏⁄ = 𝟏𝟑𝟕 ⇒ 𝒇𝒐𝒓 𝒊𝒎𝒎𝒐𝒃𝒊𝒍𝒊𝒛𝒆𝒅 𝒆𝒏𝒛𝒚𝒎𝒆
𝟐

For problems 25-26:


𝑉𝑚𝑎𝑥 [𝑆]
𝑉= ⇒ 𝑀𝑖𝑐ℎ𝑎𝑒𝑙𝑖𝑠 − 𝑀𝑒𝑛𝑡𝑒𝑛 𝑒𝑞𝑢𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛
𝑘𝑚 + [𝑆]
𝑉𝐾𝑚
𝑉𝑚𝑎𝑥 = + 𝑉 ⇒ 𝑙𝑖𝑛𝑒𝑎𝑟𝑖𝑧𝑒𝑑 𝐸𝑎𝑑𝑖𝑒 𝑒𝑞𝑢𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛
𝐶𝑆
Plugging in the values, there is a decrease in the values of Km and CS. Therefore,
prostigmine is uncompetitive inhibitor.
Plugging in the values in the Langmuir equation, we will obtain Km = 0.001

For problems 27-30:


If 10 g biomass are produced by reaction, the final amount of biomass present is
15 𝑔 𝑔
(10+5) g = 15 g. Therefore, 𝑥𝑓 = 50 𝐿 = 0.3 𝐿
1 0.3𝑔 𝐿−1
𝑡𝑏 = 𝑙𝑛 = 𝟑. 𝟕 𝒉
0.3 ℎ−1 0.1𝑔 𝐿−1

If 90% of the substrate is converted, Sf = (0.1 S0) = 1.2 g L-1.

1 (12 − 1.2)𝑔 𝐿−1


𝑡𝑏 = ln [1 + ] = 𝟓. 𝟕 𝒉
0.3 ℎ−1 1 2.2𝑔 𝑔−1 ℎ−1 −1 )
( + ) ( 0.1𝑔 𝐿
0.06 𝑔 𝑔−1 0.3ℎ−1

In batch culture with 𝜇 = 𝜇𝑚𝑎𝑥 :


𝑞𝑝 = 7.7𝑔 𝑔−1 (0.3ℎ−1 ) + 1.1ℎ−1 = 3.4ℎ−1
As no product is present initially, p0 = 0. Production of 100 g of ethanol corresponds to
100 𝑔 𝑔
= 2 = 𝑝𝑓
50 𝐿 𝐿
1 0.3 ℎ−1
𝑡𝑏 = ln [1 + (2 𝑔 𝐿−1 )] = 𝟑. 𝟒 𝒉
0.3 ℎ−1 (0.1𝑔 𝐿−1 )(3.4 ℎ−1 )

44
ORGANIC CHEMISTRY

1. Predict the product of the following reaction sequence.


Ethyne + 1) excess NaNH2 2) excess I-CH2-(CH2)2-CH3--
a. 6-iodo-1-hexyne b. 1-hexyne c. 5-decyne d. 1-iodo-1-hexene
2. The metal-catalyzed addition of hydrogen to an alkene occurs in what fashion?
a. Syn b. Anti c. Mixture of syn and anti d. neither syn nor anti
3. Pyridinium chlorochromate (PCC) ia a commercially available reagent that provides Cr
6+
( as CrO3), and does not contain water. It is useful for oxidizing primary alcohols to
aldehydes, and secondary alcohols to ketones. Which of the following compounds does
not give an aldehyde upon reaction with PCC?
a. benzyl alcohol b. cyclopentylmethanol
c. 2,2-dimethyl-1-butanol d. 3-methyl-3-pentanol
4. Which of the following statements best describes the most stable conformation of trans
1,3-dimethylcyclohexane?
a. Both methyl groups are axial c. one methyl group is axial, the other is
equatorial
b. Both methyl group are equatorial d. The molecule is severely strained and
cannot exist
5. Upon hydrogenation, which of the following alkenes releases the least heat per mole
a. 3,4-dimethyl-1-hexene
b. (Z)-3,4-dimethyl-2-hexene
c. (E)-3,4-dimethyl-2-hexene
d. (Z)-3,4-dimethyl-3-hexene
e. . (E)-3,4-dimethyl-3-hexene

6. Carbon-carbon double bonds do not undergo rotation as do carbon-carbon single


bonds. The reason is that
a. the double bond is much stronger and thus more difficult to rotate
b. overlap of the sp2 orbitals of the carbon-carbon sigma bond would be lost
c. overlap of the p orbitals of the carbon-carbon pi bond would be lost
d. The shorter bond length of the double bond makes it more difficult for the attached
groups to pass one another
e. The statement is incorrect-rotation around double bonds does occur

45
7. What is the major product from the acid-catalyzed hydration of 2-methyl-2-pentene?
a. 2-methylpentane c. 2-methyl-2-pentanol e. 1- methoxypentane
b. 2-methyl-1-pentanol d. 2-methyl-3-pentanol
8. How many electrons are involved in a carbon-carbon triple bond?
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 e. 6
9. Which of the following is a correct statement about the carbon-carbon triple bond in an
alkyne?
a. composed of one sigma bond and one pi bond
b. composed of two sigma bond and one pi bond
c. composed of one sigma bond and two pi bond
d. composed of two sigma bond and two pi bond
e. composed of one sigma bond, one pi bond and one delta bond
10. Which of the following is not used as primary standard for sodium hydroxide
solutions?
a. KHP b. Benzoic Acid c. Sulfuric Acid d. Potassium biodate
11. Which of the following nonpolar molecules should have the highest boiling point?
a. SF1 b. CH4 c. CO2 d. N2
12. The least reactive towards electrophilic
aromatic substitution

13. Can form intramolecular hydrogen bonds

14. Which of the following reactions is associated with the inversion of configuration of
a chiral substrate?
a. Nucleophilic Substitution Bimolecular c. Nucleophilic Acyl Substitution
b. Elimination Unimolecular d. Free radical Addition
15. Which of the following is an essential fatty acid
a. palmitic acid b. stearic acid c. lauric acid d. linolenic acid

46
16. Which of the following can possibly give rise to meso compound?
17. Which of the following is the strongest Brønsted base?

18. Which of the following reactions would not be useful for converting 4,4-
diethylcyclohexanone into 1,1-diethylcyclohexane?
a. Wolff-Kischner reduction (N2H4, strong base & heat)
b. Clemmensen reduction (Zn/Hg, acid & heat)
c. Thioacetal reduction (i HSCH2CH2SH & BF3; ii H2 + Raney Ni)
d. LiAlH4 in THF & heat

19. A C5H8 hydrocarbon is reacted with BH3 in THF, followed by oxidation with alkaline
hydrogen peroxide. Treatment of the resulting product with PCC in CH2Cl2 produces a
chiral ketone, formula C5H8O. What hydrocarbon best fits these facts?
a. 1-methylcyclobutene
b. methylenecyclobutane
c. vinylcyclopropane
d. cyclopentene
20. . Determine the double bond stereochemistry (E or Z) for the following molecules.
a. A: E, B: E
b. A: Z, B: Z
c. A: E, B: Z
d. A: Z, B:E

21. Which of the following is/are chiral?


a. 1,2 and 3
b. 1 and 2
c. Only 1
d. Only 2

22. How many chiral centers are there in 3-bromo-2-pentanol ?


a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 1

47
23. What is the stereochemistry of the following compound?
a. R
b. S
c. E
d. Z

24. How many gauche are present in cis-1,4-dimethylcyclohexane?


a. 1 gauche
b. 2 gauche
c. 3 gauche
d. 4 gauche

25. Which of the following used as a suffix of carbaldehyde in naming?

CHO CHO CHO

a. b. c. d. all of these
26. Conjugated alkenes are characterized by
a. Alternating  and  bonds.
b. Adjacent  bonds.
c.  bonds separated by two or more  bonds.
d. A cyclic system containing 6 bonds.

27. Aryl ketones are prepared by the following reaction. This reaction is called _____ .

CO - CH3
AlCl3 / heat
+ CH3-CO Cl

a. Friedel-Crafts Alkylation b. Friedel-Crafts Acylation


c. Wolff-Kishner reaction d. Hofmann rearrangement
28. Which of the following does not have a net dipole moment?
a. H2O
b. NH3
c. BF3
d. BrF5\

48
29. Aldehydes and ketones are reduced by NaBH4 or LiAlH4 to yield ___ and ___
alcohols.
a. 10 and 20 b. 20 and 10 c. 10 and 30 d. 20 and 30
30. -bromination of carboxylic acid by a mixture of Br2 and PBr3 is called
____________.
a. Hell-Volhard Zelinskii (HVZ) reaction c. Claisen- condensation reaction
b. Robinson annulation d. Michael reaction

49
ANSWER KEY

Organic Chemistry

1. B. 1-hexyne
2 .D. neither syn nor anti
3. D. 3-methyl-3-pentanol
4. C. one methyl group is axial, the other is equatorial
5. E. (E)-3,4-dimethyl-3-hexene
6. C. overlap of the p orbitals of the carbon-carbon pi bond would be lost
7. C. 2-methyl-2-pentanol
8. E. 6
9. C. composed of one sigma bond and two pi bond
10. C. Sulfuric Acid
11. A. SF1
12. A
13. D
14. A. Nucleophilic Substitution Bimolecular
15. D. linolenic acid
16. B
17. C
18. D. LiAlH4 in THF & heat
19. A. 1-methylcyclobutene
20. D. A: Z, B:E
21. B. 1 and 2
22. A. 2
23. E
24. B. 2 gauche
25. A
26. A. Alternating  and  bonds.
27. B. Friedel-Crafts Acylation
28. C. BF3
29. A. 10 and 20
30. A. Hell-Volhard Zelinskii (HVZ) reaction

50
ANALYTICAL CHEMISTRY

1. The Beer-Lambert Law


A. States that transmittance is linearly related to concentration.
B. Requires that the product of absorptivity and pathlength be known before
absorbance can be related to concentration
C. Requires that absorptivity be independent of wavelength
D. Cannot be used if more than one absorbing species is present in a sample
Problem 2-4. A mixture containing MgCl2 (95.21 g/mol) and AlCl3 (133.33 g/mol)
weighs 3.1416g. The chlorides were precipitated using ammonia and ignited to MgO
(40.31 g/mol) and AlO3 (101.96), respectively. The oxide mixture weighs 1.2121 g.
2. Calculate %Mg in the sample?
A.2.2% B. 4.4% C. 95.6% D. 97.8%
3. How many grams of AgCl3 were in the sample?
A. 0.88 g B. 1.22 g C. 1.82 g D. 2.88 g
4. How many grams of MgO were produces after ignition?
A. 0.11 g B. 0.22 g C. 1.1 g D. 2.2 g
5. The aluminum in a 0.910 g-sample of impure ammonium aluminum sulfate was
precipitated with aqueous ammonia as the hydrous Al2O3xH2O. The precipitate was
filtered and ignited at 1000°C to give anhydrous Al2O3 which weighed 0.2001 g.
Express the result of this analysis in terms of %NH4Al(SO4)2.
A. 102.18 B. 98.12 C. 89.23 D. 108.60
Problem 6-7, A 0.2356-g sample containing only NaCl and BaCl2 yielded 0.4637 g of
dried AgCl
6. Calculate the % of each halogen compound in the sample
A. 35% NaCl, 65% BaCl2 C. 45% NaCl, 55% BaCl2
B. 65% NaCl, 35% BaCl2 D. 55% NaCl, 45% BaCl2
7. What weight of impure NaCl sample must be taken for analysis so that the weight
of AgCl precipitate obtained in mg will be equal to the %Cl in the sample?
A. 24.7 B. 35.45 C. 12.32 D. 20.12
8. In a titration experiment, a student finds that 23.48 ml of NaOH solution are needed
to neutralize 0.5468 g of KHP (MW: 204.2). What is the conc (in molarity) of the
NaOH solution?

51
A. 0.15 M B. 0.13 M C. 0.11 M D. 0.09 M
9. A 50.00 ml portion of an HCl solution required 29.71 ml of 0.01963 M Ba(OH)2 to
reach an endpoint with bromocresol green indicator. Calculate the molarity of the HCl.
A. 0.01 M B. 0.02 M C. 0.03 M D. 0.04 M
Problem 10-12. Calculate the pH in the titration of 25 ml of 0.1 M HCl by NaOH after
the addition to the acid solution of 10 ml, 25 ml, and 35 ml of 0.1 M NaOH.
10. 10 ml of 0.1 M NaOH
A. 1.37 B. 1.73 C. 1.48 D. 1.84
11. 25 ml of 0.1 M NaOH
A. 7 B. 14 C. 4 D. 1
12. 35 ml of 0.1 M NaOH
A. 13.12 B. 10.12 C. 11.34 D. 12.22
13. Ksp of AgCl at room temperature is 1x10-10. Calculate the Ag+ ion concentration
in ppm in a 0.01 M NaCl solution.
A. 0.001079 B. 0.0024 C. 0.0035 D. 0.0042
14. In an acidic solution, 25 ml of 0.021 M KMnO4 oxidize Fe2+ to Fe3+. Calculate
the mass of Fe2+ (55.85g) oxidized
A. 14.66mg B. 25.32mg C. 2.55mg D. 146.6mg
15. The presence of the following cations od solutions maybe confirmed by
conducting flame tests, except:
A. Ba+2 B. Na+1 C. Ca+2 D. Ni+2
16. A small amount of KI is added to solution of NaCN. 35 mL of 0.1200 M AgNO3
is required to produce a precipitate of AgI. Find the milligrams of NaCN present.
A. 245.6 mg B. 378.6 mg C. 397.5 mg D. 411.8 mg
17. A 0.7500 g sample of an alloy steel yielded on electrolysis 0.1532 g of a mixed
deposit of Co and Ni. This is dissolved, and the precipitated nickel dimethylglyoxime
(NiC8H14N4O4) weighs 0.3560 g. What is the percentage of the Ni in the alloy?
A. 9.64% Ni B. 10.79%Ni C. 12.43 D. 13.79% Ni
18. In the titration of a water sample using double indicator, the volume of standard
acid required for the methyl orange endpoint is equal to the volume required for the
phenolphthalein endpoint. The impurity (ies) is/are:

52
A. NaOH only B. Na2CO3 only C. NaHCO3 only D. Na2CO3
and NaOH
19. The pH value at equivalence point when titrating a weak acid against a strong base
is
A. at exactly 7 B. greater than 7 C. less than 7 D. neutral
20. EDTA is
A. not useful as a chelating agent
B. an effective antidote for heavy metal poisoning
C. known to form unstable complex ions with Fe3+, Hg2+, and Zn2+
D. a monodentate ligand
21. Which response gives the products of hydrolysis of KF?
A. KOH and HF B. OH- and HF C. KOH, H+ and F- D. no hydrolysis
22. A grain sample as received contains 10% moisture. If after drying, the dried sample
contains 15% N, then the %N in the as received sample is
A. 13.5 B. 16.67 C. 15 D. 5
23. Calculate the molarity of NaOH solution if 12.25 ml was used to titrate 0.2615
grams of primary standard KHP
A. 0.2118 B. 0.1354 C. 0.1045 D. 0.1697
24. What weight of Mn ore should be taken so that the percentage of MnO2 in the ore
can be found by multiplying by 5 the number of centigrams of Mn3O4 obtained?
A. 2.28 g B. 2.28 cg C. 228 g D. 0.228 g
25. A 10.0 ml solution containing Cl- was treated with excess AgNO3 to precipitate
00.4368 g of AgCl. What was the concentration of Cl- in the unknown? (AgCl =
143.321 g/mol)
A. 0.0384 M B. 0.8048 M C. 0.3048 M D. 0.4038 M
26. When a sample of impure potassium chloride (0.4500 g) was dissolved in water
and treated with an excess of silver nitrate, 0.8402 g of silver chloride was precipitated.
Calculate the percentage KCl in the original sample.
A. 96.27% B. 92.16% C. 96.12% D. 97.12%
27. The precipitant commonly used for the determination of calcium in gravimetric
analysis is ___.
A. NH3 B. H2C2O4 C. H2PtCl6 D. HF

53
28. Which of the following is a bidentate ligand?
A. CN- B. NH3 C. CO D. H2NCH2CH2NH2
29. Which gas is formed in the Kjeldahl analysis of nitrogen in the sample?
A. NH3 B. H2 C. N2 D. NH4Cl
30. When KMnO4 is reacted with Fe2+ in acid medium, Mn2+ and Fe3+ are formed.
The equivalent weight of KMnO4 in this reaction is equal to
A. FM/2 B. FM/4 C. FM/5 D. FM/7
ANSWER KEY

Analytical Chemistry
1. B. Requires that the product of absorptivity and path length be known before
absorbance can be related to concentration
2. A. 2.2%
3. D. 2.88 g
4. A. 0.11 g
5. A. 102.18
6. D. 55% NaCl, 45% BaCl2
7. A. 24.7
8. C. 0.11 M
9. B. 0.02 M
10. A. 1.37
11. A. 7
12. D. 12.22
13. A. 0.001079
14. D. 146.6 mg
15. D. Ni+2
16. D. 411.8 mg
17. A. 9.64% Ni
18. B. Na2CO3 only
19. B. greater than 7
20. B. an effective antidote for heavy metal poisoning
21. D. no hydrolysis
22. A. 13.5
23. C. 0.1045
24. D. 0.228 g
25. C. 0.3048 M
26. D. 97.12%
27. A. NH3
28. D. H2NCH2CH2NH2
29. A. NH3
30. C. FM/5

54
SOLUTIONS

Problem 2-4. A mixture containing MgCl2 (95.21 g/mol) and AlCl3 (133.33 g/mol) weighs
3.1416g. The chlorides were precipitated using ammonia and ignited to MgO (40.31 g/mol)
and AlO3 (101.96), respectively. The oxide mixture weighs 1.2121 g.
Calculate %Mg in the sample?
A.2.2% B. 4.4% C. 95.6% D. 97.8%
Solutions:
Let: x = mass of MgCl2
y = mass of AlCl3
𝑥 + 𝑦 = 3.1416
1 𝑀𝑔𝑂 40.31𝑔 𝑀𝑔𝑂 1 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝑀𝑔𝐶𝑙2
𝑥 𝑔 𝑀𝑔𝐶𝑙2 ( )( )( )
1 𝑀𝑔𝐶𝑙2 1 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝑀𝑔𝑂 95.21 𝑔 𝑀𝑔𝐶𝑙2
1 𝐴𝑙2𝑂3 101.96 𝑔 𝐴𝑙2𝑂3 1 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝐴𝑙𝐶𝑙3
+ 𝑦 𝑔 𝐴𝑙𝐶𝑙3 ( )( )( )
1 𝐴𝑙𝐶𝑙3 1 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝐴𝑙2𝑂3 133.33 𝑔 𝐴𝑙𝐶𝑙3
= 1.2121 𝑔
Solving for x and y:
𝑥 = 0.2652 𝑔
𝑦 = 2.8764 𝑔
1 𝑀𝑔 24.31
0.2652 𝑔 𝑀𝑔𝐶𝑙2 (1 𝑀𝑔𝐶𝑙2)(95.21)
% 𝑀𝑔 = 𝑥 100 = 𝟐. 𝟏𝟓𝟓𝟒%
3.1416

3. How many grams of AgCl3 were in the sample?


A. 0.88 g B. 1.22 g C. 1.82 g D. 2.88 g
Solutions:
Let: x = mass of MgCl2
y = mass of AlCl3
𝑥 + 𝑦 = 3.1416

55
1 𝑀𝑔𝑂 40.31𝑔 𝑀𝑔𝑂 1 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝑀𝑔𝐶𝑙2
𝑥 𝑔 𝑀𝑔𝐶𝑙2 ( )( )( )
1 𝑀𝑔𝐶𝑙2 1 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝑀𝑔𝑂 95.21 𝑔 𝑀𝑔𝐶𝑙2
1 𝐴𝑙2𝑂3 101.96 𝑔 𝐴𝑙2𝑂3 1 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝐴𝑙𝐶𝑙3
+ 𝑦 𝑔 𝐴𝑙𝐶𝑙3 ( )( )( )
1 𝐴𝑙𝐶𝑙3 1 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝐴𝑙2𝑂3 133.33 𝑔 𝐴𝑙𝐶𝑙3
= 1.2121 𝑔
Solving for x and y:
𝑥 = 0.2652 𝑔
𝑦 = 𝟐. 𝟖𝟕𝟔𝟒 𝒈
4. How many grams of MgO were produces after ignition?
A. 0.11 g B. 0.22 g C. 1.1 g D. 2.2 g
Solutions:
1 𝑀𝑔 24.31
0.2652 𝑔 𝑀𝑔𝐶𝑙2 ( )( ) = 𝟎. 𝟏𝟏𝟐𝟑 𝒈
1 𝑀𝑔𝐶𝑙2 95.21
5. The aluminum in a 0.910 g-sample of impure ammonium aluminum sulfate was
precipitated with aqueous ammonia as the hydrous Al2O3xH2O. The precipitate was
filtered and ignited at 1000°C to give anhydrous Al2O3 which weighed 0.2001 g. Express
the result of this analysis in terms of %NH4Al(SO4)2.
A. 102.18 B. 98.12 C. 89.23 D. 108.60
Solutions:
2 𝑁𝐻4𝐴𝑙 (𝑆𝑂4)2 237 𝑔 𝑁𝐻4𝐴𝑙 (𝑆𝑂4)2 1 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝐴𝑙2𝑂3
0.2001 𝑔 𝐴𝑙2𝑂3 ( )( )( )
1 𝐴𝑙2𝑂3 1 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝑁𝐻4𝐴𝑙 (𝑆𝑂4)2 101.96 𝑔 𝐴𝑙2𝑂3
𝑥 100
0.910 𝑔
= 𝟏𝟎𝟐. 𝟐𝟔%
Problem 6-7, A 0.2356-g sample containing only NaCl and BaCl2 yielded 0.4637 g of dried
AgCl
6. Calculate the % of each halogen compound in the sample
A. 35% NaCl, 65% BaCl2 C. 45% NaCl, 55% BaCl2
B. 65% NaCl, 35% BaCl2 D. 55% NaCl, 45% BaCl2
Solutions:
Let: x = mass of NaCl
y = mass of BaCl2
𝑥 + 𝑦 = 0.2356

56
1 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝑁𝑎𝐶𝑙) 1 𝐴𝑔𝐶𝑙 143.32 𝑔
𝑥 𝑔 𝑁𝑎𝐶𝑙 ( )( )( )
58.44 𝑔 1 𝑁𝑎𝐶𝑙 1 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝐴𝑔𝐶𝑙
1 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝐵𝑎𝐶𝑙2 2 𝐴𝑔𝐶𝑙 143.22 𝑔
+ 𝑦 𝐵𝑎𝐶𝑙2 ( )( )( ) = 0.4637
208.23 𝑔 1 𝐵𝑎𝐶𝑙2 1 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝐴𝑔𝐶𝑙
Solving for x and y :
𝑥 = 0.1296 𝑔
𝑦 = 0.1060 𝑔
0.1296
% 𝑁𝑎𝐶𝑙 = 𝑥100 = 𝟓𝟓%
0.2356
0.1060
% 𝐵𝑎𝐶𝑙2 = 𝑥100 = 𝟒𝟓%
0.2356
7. What weight of impure NaCl sample must be taken for analysis so that the weight of
AgCl precipitate obtained in mg will be equal to the %Cl in the sample?
A. 24.7 B. 35.45 C. 12.32 D. 20.12
Solutions:
1 𝐶𝑙 35.45
𝑥 𝑁𝑎𝐶𝑙 ( )( ) 100 1 𝐴𝑔𝐶𝑙 143.32 𝑔
1 𝑁𝑎𝐶𝑙 58.44 = 𝑥 𝑁𝑎𝐶𝑙 ( )( )
𝑥 1 𝑁𝑎𝐶𝑙 58.44 𝑔
𝒙 = 𝟐𝟒. 𝟕𝟑𝟒𝟗 𝒈
8. In a titration experiment, a student finds that 23.48 ml of NaOH solution are needed to
neutralize 0.5468 g of KHP (MW: 204.2). What is the conc (in molarity) of the NaOH
solution?
A. 0.15 M B. 0.13 M C. 0.11 M D. 0.09 M
Solutions:
1 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝐾𝐻𝑃 1 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝑁𝑎𝑂𝐻
0.5468 𝑔 𝐾𝐻𝑃( 204.2 𝑔 )( )
1 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝐾𝐻𝑃
= 𝟎. 𝟏𝟏𝟒𝟎 𝑴
0. 02348 𝐿
9. A 50.00 ml portion of an HCl solution required 29.71 ml of 0.01963 M Ba(OH)2 to
reach an endpoint with bromocresol green indicator. Calculate the molarity of the HCl.
A. 0.01 M B. 0.02 M C. 0.03 M D. 0.04 M
Solutions:
𝑚𝑚𝑜𝑙 2 𝐻𝐶𝑙
29.71 𝑚𝑙(0.01963 𝐵𝑎(𝑂𝐻 )2)( )
𝑚𝑙 1 𝐵𝑎(𝑂𝐻 )2
= 𝟎. 𝟎𝟐𝟑𝟑 𝑴
50 𝑚𝑙

57
Problem 10-12. Calculate the pH in the titration of 25 ml of 0.1 M HCl by NaOH after the
addition to the acid solution of 10 ml, 25 ml, and 35 ml of 0.1 M NaOH.
10. 10 ml of 0.1 M NaOH
A. 1.37 B. 1.73 C. 1.48 D. 1.84
Solutions:
25 (0.1) − 10(0.10)
𝑝𝐻 = − log ( ) = 𝟏. 𝟑𝟔𝟖𝟎
35

11. 25 ml of 0.1 M NaOH


A. 7 B. 14 C. 4 D. 1
12. 35 ml of 0.1 M NaOH
A. 13.12 B. 10.12 C. 11.34 D. 12.22
Solutions:
25 (0.1) − 25(0.10)
𝑝𝐻 = 14 + log ( ) = 𝟏𝟐. 𝟐𝟐𝟏𝟖
60

13. Ksp of AgCl at room temperature is 1x10-10. Calculate the Ag+ ion concentration in
ppm in a 0.01 M NaCl solution.
A. 0.001079 B. 0.0024 C. 0.0035 D. 0.0042
Solutions:
𝐾𝑠𝑝 = 1𝑥10−10
𝐴𝑔𝐶𝑙 → 𝐴𝑔 + + 𝐶𝑙 −
1𝑥10−10 = [𝐴𝑔 +][𝐴𝑔 + +0.01]
[𝐴𝑔 +] = 9.99999𝑥10−9 𝑀
𝑚𝑜𝑙 1000 𝑚𝑚𝑜𝑙 107.87 𝑚𝑔
9.99999𝑥10−9 𝐴𝑔 ( ) (1𝑚𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝐴𝑔) = 1.0787𝑥10−3 = 𝟎. 𝟎𝟎𝟏𝟎𝟕𝟗 𝒑𝒑𝒎
𝐿 1 𝑚𝑜𝑙

14. In an acidic solution, 25 ml of 0.021 M KMnO4 oxidize Fe2+ to Fe3+. Calculate the
mass of Fe2+ (55.85g) oxidized
A. 14.66mg B. 25.32mg C. 2.55mg D. 146.6mg
Solutions:
𝑚𝑚𝑜𝑙 5 𝑚𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝐹𝑒2 + 55.85 𝑚𝑔
0.021 𝐾𝑀𝑛𝑂4 ( ) 25𝑚𝑙 ( ) = 𝟏𝟒𝟔. 𝟔𝟎𝟔𝟑 𝒎𝒈 𝑭𝒆𝟐 +
𝑚𝑙 1𝑚𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝑀𝑛𝑂4 − 𝑚𝑚𝑜𝑙
58
16. A small amount of KI is added to solution of NaCN. 35 mL of 0.1200 M AgNO3 is
required to produce a precipitate of AgI. Find the milligrams of NaCN present.
A. 245.6 mg B. 378.6 mg C. 397.5 mg D. 411.8 mg
Solutions:
𝑚𝑜𝑙 2𝑁𝑎𝐶𝑁 48.99𝑔
12 (0.035𝐿 𝐴𝑔𝑁𝑂3) ( )( ) = 𝟒𝟏𝟏. 𝟓𝟏𝟔 𝒎𝒈
𝐿 1 𝐴𝑔𝑁𝑂3 1𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝑁𝑎𝐶𝑁
17. A 0.7500 g sample of an alloy steel yielded on electrolysis 0.1532 g of a mixed deposit
of Co and Ni. This is dissolved, and the precipitated nickel dimethylglyoxime
(NiC8H14N4O4) weighs 0.3560 g. What is the percentage of the Ni in the alloy?
A. 9.64% Ni B. 10.79%Ni C. 12.43 D. 13.79% Ni
Solutions:
𝑔
58.69 1 𝑚𝑜𝑙
0.3560 𝑔 NiC8H14N4O4( 𝑚𝑜𝑙
𝑔 )(1 𝑚𝑜𝑙 )
288.69
𝑚𝑜𝑙 = 𝟗. 𝟔𝟒𝟗𝟗% 𝑵𝒊
0.75 𝑔
22. A grain sample as received contains 10% moisture. If after drying, the dried sample
contains 15% N, then the %N in the as received sample is
A. 13.5 B. 16.67 C. 15 D. 5
Solutions:
%𝑁 = 90 𝑥 0.15 = 𝟏𝟑. 𝟓%
23. Calculate the molarity of NaOH solution if 12.25 ml was used to titrate 0.2615 grams
of primary standard KHP
A. 0.2118 B. 0.1354 C. 0.1045 D. 0.1697
Solutions:
1 𝑚𝑜𝑙 1 𝑁𝑎𝑂𝐻
0.2615 𝑔 𝐾𝐻𝑃(204.2 𝑔)( 1 𝐾𝐻𝑃 )
= 𝟎. 𝟏𝟎𝟒𝟓 𝑴 𝑵𝒂𝑶𝑯
0.01225 𝐿
24. What weight of Mn ore should be taken so that the percentage of MnO2 in the ore can
be found by multiplying by 5 the number of centigrams of Mn3O4 obtained?
A. 2.28 g B. 2.28 cg C. 228 g D. 0.228 g
Solutions:
86.94 𝑔 𝑀𝑛𝑂2 1𝑀𝑛𝑂2 228.82 𝑔 𝑀𝑛3𝑂4 1 𝑀𝑛3𝑂4
𝑥 𝑀𝑛 ( )( ) = 5𝑥𝑀𝑛( )(
54.94 𝑔 𝑀𝑛 1 𝑀𝑛 54. 94 𝑔 𝑀𝑛 3 𝑀𝑛)

59
𝒙 = 𝟎. 𝟐𝟐𝟖 𝒈 𝑴𝒏
25. A 10.0 ml solution containing Cl- was treated with excess AgNO3 to precipitate
00.4368 g of AgCl. What was the concentration of Cl- in the unknown? (AgCl = 143.321
g/mol)
A. 0.0384 M B. 0.8048 M C. 0.3048 M D. 0.4038 M
Solutions:
1 𝑚𝑜𝑙 1 𝐶𝑙
0.4368 𝑔 𝐴𝑔𝐶𝑙(143.32 𝑔)(1 𝐴𝑔𝐶𝑙 )
= 𝟎. 𝟑𝟎𝟒𝟖 𝑴
0.01 𝐿
26. When a sample of impure potassium chloride (0.4500 g) was dissolved in water and
treated with an excess of silver nitrate, 0.8402 g of silver chloride was precipitated.
Calculate the percentage KCl in the original sample.
A. 96.27% B. 92.16% C. 96.12% D. 97.12%

Solutions:
1 𝑚𝑜𝑙 1 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝐾𝐶𝑙 74.55 𝑔
0.8402 𝑔 𝐴𝑔𝐶𝑙(143.32 𝑔)(1 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝐴𝑔𝐶𝑙 )(1 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝐾𝐶𝑙 )
= 𝟗𝟕. 𝟏𝟐𝟎𝟓%
0.45 𝑔

60
PHYSICAL CHEMISTRY

1. Entropies of fusion are generally of a _____ order than entropies of vaporization


because molecular disorder in the gaseous state is _____ than in the liquid or solid
states.
a. Higher, lower
b. lower, higher
c. lower, minimum
d. higher, minimum

2. A current of electricity is passed successively through the following solutions: a) NaCl


between inert electrodes b) AgNO3 between Ag electrodes c) Sufuric acid between inert
electrodes d) KOH between inert electrodes. Ten liters of H2 measured at STP are
produced at the cathode in the 3rd solution. The amount of substance liberated at the
positive electrode in the 3rd cell is
a. 0.89g H2
b. 0.89g Cl2
c. 7.12g O2
d. 31.6g Cl2

3. The magnitude of the vapor pressure is inversely proportional to the strength of


attractive forces thus ionic crystals have a _____ vapor pressure.
a. High
b. Low
c. Constant
d. None of these

4. A solution composed of 10 grams of non-volatile organic solute in 100 grams of diethyl


ether (CH3CH2OCH2CH3) has a vapour pressure of 426 mmHg at 20C. If the vapor
pressure of the pure diethyl ether is 442.2 mmHg at the same temperature, what is the
molecular weight of solute?
a. 149.6 g/mol
b. 164.8 g/mol
c. 186.4 g/mol
d. 194.8 g/mol

61
5. A salt bridge is a tube filled with a concentrated solution of a salt which permits _____
to flow between the half cells but prevent mixing of a solution of the half cells.
a. Ions
b. Current
c. Anion
d. Cation

6. The Regnault’s method is a method for determination of molecular weights of


substances which are
a. Solid at room temperature
b. Fluid at room temperature
c. Gaseous at room temperature
d. Liquid at room temperature

7. The time of outflow of 250 ml methane in a porous opening is 16 seconds. Under the
save condition of T and P, how long would it take 1500 ml of sulfur dioxide to diffuse
through the same opening?
a. 129 sec
b. 192 sec
c. 229 sec
d. 291 sec

8. Which of the following statements are true?


I. For aqueous solutions, the equivalent conductance increases with
temperature
II. For non-aqueous solutions at a certain temperature, the higher the dielectric
constant of the solvent, the lower is the conductance.
a. I only
b. II only
c. I and II
d. None

9. Which of the following statements are true?


III. Colligative properties depend on the number of solute molecules not on the
nature of the solute molecules.
IV. When two solutions of different concentrations are separated by a semi-
permeable membrane, osmosis allows the only solvent molecules to pass
through the membrane.
e. I only
f. II only

62
g. I and II
h. None

10. Barium has a body centered cubic unit cell and a density of 3.62 g/cm3. What is the
atomic radius of Barium?
a. 1.92 angstroms
b. 2.2 angstroms
c. 2.7 angstroms
d. 3.5 angstroms

11. At 140C the vapor pressure of C6H5Cl is 939.4 mmHg and that of C6H5Br is 495.8
mmHg. Assuming that these liquids form an ideal solution, what should be the molar
composition of the liquid solution so that the vapor pressure above the solution at 140
is at 1 atm?
a. 0.596 C6H5Cl; 0.404 C6H5Br
b. 0.707 C6H5Cl; 0.293 C6H5Br
c. 0.698 C6H5Cl; 0.302 C6H5Br
d. 0.803 C6H5Cl; 0.197 C6H5Br

12. Suppose that you work for a company that designs the drive mechanisms for large
ships. The materials in this mechanism will obviously come into contact with
environments that enhance corrosion. To estimate the difficulties that corrosion might
cause, you decide to build a model electrochemical cell using electrolyte concentrations
that might be present in your system when it is in your service. Assume that you have
a cell that has an iron (III) concentration of 0.015Mand an H+ concentration of 1.0 x10 -
3
M. the cell temperature is 38C and the pressure of hydrogen gas is maintained at 0.04
atm. What would be the cell potential be under these conditions?
a. 0.35V
b. 0.53V
c. 0.46V
d. 0.64V

13. Calculate the density of a natural gas mixture containing 32.1% methane, 41.2%
ethane, 17.5% propane and 9.2% nitrogen (mole basis) at 500 psig and 394K. Assume
ideal gas law applies.
a. 44.1 kg/m3
b. 30.1 kg/m3
c. 20.9 kg/m3
d. 13.6 kg/m3

63
14. The osmotic pressure of an aqueous solution of a certain protein was measured in order
to determine its molar mass. The solution contained 3.50mg of protein dissolved in
sufficient water to form 5ml solution. The osmotic pressure of the solution at 25C was
found to be 1.54 torr. Calculate the molar mass of the protein.
a. 6.2 x103 g/mol
b. 5.5 x105 g/mol
c. 17.9x104 g/mol
d. 8.5 x103 g/mol

15. Which of the following is/are intensive properties?


I. Temperature
II. Pressure
III. Composition
IV. Mass
a. I only
b. IV only
c. I and II
d. I, II and III

16. How much heat is given up when 20g of steam at 100C is condensed and cooled at
20C?
a. 74 kcal
b. -74 kcal
c. 12 kcal
d. -12 kcal

17. What is the number of photons of light with a wavelength of 4000 pm that provide 1J
of energy?
a. 3.0 x108 photons
b. 5.0 x107 photons
c. 3.0 x108 photons
d. 6.0 x108 photons

18. At what temperature will the velocity of CO2 molecules equalthe velocity of oxygen
molecules at 0 °C?
a. 132 ºC
b. 102 ºC
c. 623 ºC
d. 293 ºC

64
19. One mole of H2O and one mole of CO are taken in a 10 liter vessel and heated to 725K.
at equilibrium 49% of water (by mass) reacts with CO according to the equation;
H2O(g) + CO(g) – H2(g) + CO2(g)
Calculate the equilibrium constant for the reaction.
a. 1.44
b. 0.44
c. 0.66
d. 14.4

20. Ethanol boils at 78.4C and the enthalpy of vaporization of ethanol is 42.4 kJ/mol.
Calculate the entropy of vaporization of ethanol.
a. 0.54 J/mol-K
b. 54.08 J/mol-K
c. 120.66 J/mol-K
d. 5.55 J/mol-K

21. A gas approaches ideal behavior at:


a. Low temperatures and high pressures
b. High temperatures and low pressures
c. Low temperatures and low pressures
d. High temperatures and high pressure

22. What is the average velocity (in m/s) of a N2 molecule at 20C?


a. 510
b. 490
c. 470
d. 440

23. In the previous problem, what is the mean free path of the N2 molecule at 20C and 1
atm? The molecular diameter of N2 molecule is 3.7 x10-10 m.
a. 4.64 x10-8 m
b. 5.80 x10-8 m
c. 6.60 x10-8 m
d. 9.10 x10-8 m

24. What is the packing fraction of a face-centered cubic unit cell?


a. 0.52
b. 0.65
c. 0.74
d. 0.83

65
25. A solution of 0.6M MgSO4, 0.1M AlCl3 and 0.1M (NH4)2SO4. What is the total ionic
strength?
a. 3.2
b. b. 3.3
c. c. 6.4
d. d. 6.6

ANSWER KEY

Physical Chemistry

1. B. lower, higher
2. C. 7.12 g O2
3. B. Low
4. D. 194.8 g/mol
5. B. Current
6. C. Gaseous at room temperature
7. B. 192 sec
8. A. I only
9. C. I and II
10. B. 2.2 angstroms
11. A. 0.596 C6H5Cl; 0.404 C6H5Br
12. A. 0.35V
13. B. 30.1 kg/m3
14. D. 8.5 x 103 g/mol
15. D. I, II and III
16. D. -12 kcal
17. B. 5x107 photons
18. B. 102oC
19. B. 0.44
20. C. 120.66 J/mol-K
21. B. High temperatures and low pressures
22. C. 470
23. C. 6.60 x 10-8 m
24. C. 0.74
25. B. 3.3

66
SOLUTIONS

1 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝐻2 1 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝑂2 32 𝑔
2. 10 𝐿 𝐻2 ( )( )( ) = 7.1429 𝑔 𝑂2
22.4 𝐿 2 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝐻2 1 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝑂2
Answer: 7.1429 g O2

4. 𝑃𝐴 = 𝑥𝐴 𝑃𝐴º
100 𝑔
74.14 426
100 𝑔 10 =
+ 442.2
74.14 𝑀𝑊
𝑔
𝑀𝑊 = 194.9607 𝑚𝑜𝑙
Answer: 194.9607 g/mol

𝑟1 𝑀1
7. 𝑟2
= √𝑀2
250
16 64.06
1500 =√
16
𝑥
𝑥 = 192.09 𝑠𝑒𝑐𝑜𝑛𝑑𝑠
Answer: 192.09 seconds

𝑔 1 𝑚𝑜𝑙 1 𝑐𝑚3
10. 137.33 𝑚𝑜𝑙 ( ) (3.62 𝑔) (2 𝑎𝑡𝑜𝑚𝑠) = 1.2599𝑥 10−22 𝑐𝑚3
𝑁𝐴
3
𝐿 = √𝑌 = 5.0132 𝑥10−8 𝑐𝑚
𝑅 = √𝐿2 + 𝐿2 = 7.0897 𝑥 10−8 𝑐𝑚
4𝑟 = √𝑅2 + 𝐿2
1𝑚 1010𝐴°
𝑟 = 2.17 𝑥10−8 𝑐𝑚 (100 𝑐𝑚) ( 1𝑚
) = 2.17 𝐴°
Answer: 2.17 A°

11. 𝑥+𝑦 =1
939.4 495.8
𝑥+ 𝑦=1
760 760
C6H5Cl= 0.5956
C6H5Br= 0.4044
Answer: C6H5Cl= 0.5956, C6H5Br= 0.4044

𝑅𝑇
12. 𝜀 = 𝜀° − ln 𝑄
𝑛𝐹
(8.3145)(38+273.15) (0.015)(0.04)
𝜀 = 0.44 − ln( )
2(96485) (1.0𝑥10−3 )−2
𝜀 = 0.35 𝑉
Answer: 0.35 V

67
𝑃𝑀
13. 𝜌= P= 514.7 psia = 3547753.571 Pa
𝑅𝑇
3547753.571(16)
CH4: 𝜌= (0.321) = 5.5622
83145(394 𝐾)
3547753.571(30)
C2H6: 𝜌 = (0.412) = 13.3857
83145(394 𝐾)
3547753.571(44)
C3H8: 𝜌 = (0.175) = 8.3390
83145(394 𝐾)
3547753.571(28)
N2: 𝜌= (0.092) = 2.7898
83145(394 𝐾)
𝑇𝑜𝑡𝑎𝑙 = 30.0767 𝑔/𝑚𝑜𝑙
Answer: 30.0767 g/mol

14. 𝜋 = 𝐶𝑅𝑇
𝑚𝑎𝑠𝑠 𝑠𝑜𝑙𝑢𝑡𝑒(𝑅𝑇)
𝜋=
𝑀𝑀(𝑉)
1.54 3.50 𝑚𝑔(0.08206)(298.15)
=
760 𝑀𝑀(5 𝑚𝑙)
𝑥103 𝑔
𝑀𝑀 = 8451.9562 = 8.5 𝑚𝑜𝑙
Answer: 8.5 x108 g/mol

𝑐𝑎𝑙 𝑐𝑎𝑙
16. 𝑄 = −540 (20 𝑔) − (1 )(20 𝑔)(80 𝐶)
𝑔 𝑔𝐶
𝑄 = −12400 𝑐𝑎𝑙 = −12.4 𝑘𝑐𝑎𝑙
Answer: -12.4 kcal

ℎ𝑐𝑁
17. 𝐸 = ℎ𝑓 = 𝛿
ℎ𝑐𝑁
1 𝐽 = 4000𝑥10−12 𝑚
𝑁 = 2.0136𝑥 1016 𝑝ℎ𝑜𝑡𝑜𝑛𝑠
Answer: 2.0136 x1016 photons

3𝑅𝑇(𝑂2) 3𝑅𝑇(𝐶𝑂2)
18. √ =√
𝑀 𝑀

273.15 𝑇(𝐶𝑂2)
√ =√
32 44
𝑇(𝐶𝑂2) = 375.5813 𝐾 = 102.43 °𝐶
Answer: 102.43 °C

19. 𝐻2𝑂 + 𝐶𝑂 = 𝐻2 + 𝐶𝑂2


0.1 0.1 0 0
-0.04 -0.04 0.04 0.04
0.06 0.06 0.04 0.04

68
(0.04)(0.04)
𝐾𝑐 = = 0.44
(0.06)(0.06)
Answer: Kc=0.44

𝐽
𝑄 42400 𝐽
𝑚𝑜𝑙
20. 𝑠= = 78.4+273.15 𝐾 = 120.6087 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝐾
𝑇
Answer: 120.6087 J/mol-K

3𝑅𝑇 3(8314.5)(293.15)
22. 𝑉 𝑎𝑣𝑒𝑟𝑎𝑔𝑒 = 0.92√ = 0.92√
𝑀 28.02
𝑉 𝑎𝑣𝑒𝑟𝑎𝑔𝑒 = 469.9779
Answer: Vave= 469.9779

𝑅𝑇
23. 𝑚𝑒𝑎𝑛 𝑓𝑟𝑒𝑒 𝑝𝑎𝑡ℎ = 𝜋(√2)(𝐷 2)(𝑃)(𝑁𝑎)
8.3145(293.15)
𝑚𝑒𝑎𝑛 𝑓𝑟𝑒𝑒 𝑝𝑎𝑡ℎ =
𝜋(√2)(3.7𝑥 10−10 )2 (101325)(𝑁𝑎)
−8
𝑚𝑒𝑎𝑛 𝑓𝑟𝑒𝑒 𝑝𝑎𝑡ℎ = 6.5673 𝑥10 𝑚
Answer: 6.5673 x10-8 m

25. 𝑖𝑜𝑛𝑖𝑐 𝑠𝑡𝑟𝑒𝑛𝑔𝑡ℎ = ((0.6)(22 ) + (0.6)(22 ) + (0.1)(32 ) + (0.1)(12 )(3) +


1
(0.1)(12 )(2) + (0.1)(22 ))
2

𝑖𝑜𝑛𝑖𝑐 𝑠𝑡𝑟𝑒𝑛𝑔𝑡ℎ = 3.3


Answer: 3.3

69
70
CHE CALCULATIONS AND HEAT TRANSFER

1. A chemical process is said to occur under steady state, if the


A. Flow rates & composition both are time dependent D. All of these
B. Inventory changes do not take place E. None of these
C. Ratio of streams entering/leaving are independent of time

2. A rocket engines burns a stoichiometric mixture of fuel in oxidant. The combustion


chamber is cylindrical, 85 cm long and 50 cm in diameter, and the combustion
process produces 108 kg/s of exhaust gases. If combustion is complete, find the rate
of reaction of oxygen.
A. 3.5950 x 104 C. 7.1901 x 104
4
B. 1.7975 x 10 D. 0.8988 x 104

3. Arrange the following coals according to their rank.


A. Bituminous, Anthracite, Sub-bituminous, Lignite
B. Anthracite, Bituminous, Sub-bituminous, Lignite
C. Anthracite, Bituminous, Lignite, Sub-bituminous
D. Lignite, Anthracite, Bituminous, Sub-bituminous

4. A petroleum distillate having flash point not below 22.8 oC as determined by the
Abel Tester.
A. Kerosene B. Gasoline C. Diesel D. LPG

5. The boiling points for pure water and pure toluene are 100 oC and 110.6oC
respectively. Toluene and water are completely immiscible in each other. A well
agitated equimolar mixture of toluene and water are prepared. The temperature at
which the above mixture will exert a pressure of one standard atm is
A. Less than 100oC D. 110oC
o
B. 100 C E. More than 110oC
C. Between 100 and 110oC

6. The reaction A + B C has been conducted in a reactor as shown below. The


number of balances (material) that can be made around the reactor are
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
For number 7 and 8,
The reactor A 2B + C takes place in a catalytic reactor. The reactor effluent
is sent to a separator. The overall conversion of A is 95%. Leaving the separator is

71
the product and the recycle stream. The product from the separator consists of B, C
and 0.5% of A entering the separator, while the recycle stream consists of the
remainder of the unreacted A and 1% of B entering the separator.
7. Calculate the Single Pass conversion of A
A. 8.77 B. 7.88 C. 5.66 D. 6.55
8. Molal ratio of recycle to feed
A. 8.77 B. 7.88 C. 5.66 D. 6.55

9. A solvent recovery system delivers a gas saturated with benzene vapor that analyzes
on a benzene free basis as follows: 15% CO2, 4% O2, 81% N2. This gas is at 21oC
and 750 mmHg. It is compressed to 5 atm and cooled to 21 oC after compression.
How many kg of benzene are condensed by this process per 1000 m 3 of the original
mixture? VP of benzene at 21oC is 75 mmHg.
A. 361.4 kg B. 341.6 kg C. 314.6 kg D. 413.6 kg

For numbers 10 and 11,


Calcium hypochlorite is produced by absorbing chlorine in a milk of lime. A gas
produced by the deacon process is fed to an absorption column at 100 kPa and 20oC.
The partial pressure of chlorine is 8.266 kPa, the remainder being inert gases. The
gas leaves the column at 29.5oC and 99.3 kPa with chlorine partial pressure of 0.093
kPa.
10. Calculate the volume (m3) of gases leaving the absorption column per 100 m3
entering
A. 55.91 B. 59.51 C. 55.19 D. 51.95

11. Weight (kg) of chlorine gas absorbed per 100 m3 entering


A. 55.91 B. 59.51 C. 55.19 D. 51.95

12. The ratio of % total carbon obtained in the ultimate analysis of coke and % fixed
carbon obtained in the proximate analysis is always
A. 1 B. < 1 C. > 1 D. Unpredictable

13. The vapor pressure of the solvent decreased by 10 mmHg, when a non-volatile
solute was added to the solvent. The mole fraction of the solute in the solution is
0.2. What should be the mole fraction of the solvent if the decrease in vapor
pressure of the solvent is required to be 20 mmHg?
A. 0.1 B. 0.2 C. 0.4 D. 0.6

14. Pick out the wrong statement.


A. To make 100 kg of a solution containing 40% salt by mixing solution A
(containing 50% salt), the amount of solution A required is 40 kg.

72
B. 1.2 g atoms of carbon and 1.5 g moles of oxygen are reacted to give 1 g mole
of carbon dioxide. The limiting reactant is carbon. The percent excess supplied
is 25.
C. A gas bubble at a pressure of Pg is passed through a solvent with a saturation
vapor pressure of Ps. If the time of passage of the bubble is long and air is
insoluble in the solvent, the mole fraction of solvent in the bubble will be equal
to Ps/Pg.
D. A supersaturated solution of a sparingly soluble solute, at a concentration of C,
is being fed to a crystallizer at a volumetric flow rate of V. The solubility of the
solute is C1. The output rate of solids from an efficient crystallizer is (C + C1)
V.

15. N2 content in a urea sample was found to be only 42%. What is the actual urea
content of the sample?
A. 80% B. 90% C. 95% D. 98%

16. A bypass stream in a chemical process is useful, because it


A. Facilitates better control of the process D. All of these
B. Improves the conversion E. None of these
C. Increases the yield of products

17. The wall of a furnace is constructed from a 0.15 m thick brick having a thermal
conductivity of 1.7 W/m-K. At steady state, the temperatures of the inner and the
outer surfaces are 2060oF and 1610oF respectively. What is the rate of heat loss
through a wall that is 0.5 by 1.2 m on a side?
A. 1700 W B. 2833 W C. 3060 W D. 5508 W

18. If the critical radius of insulation is greater than the pipe radius, then adding more
layers of insulation
A. Will not have any further on the heat transfer rate
B. Will increase heat transfer rate
C. Will decrease heat transfer rate
D. Will stop heat transfer

19. Important in unsteady state heat transfer, this dimensionless number is defined as
the ratio of boundary layer surface resistance to convection and internal resistance
to conduction.
A. Biot Number B. Fourier Number C. Stanton Number D. Prandtl Number

For numbers 20-22,


The temperature of a 0.012 m thick slab made of a hard rubbery material and
originally at 26.7oC is to be raised to 132.2oC. The thermal diffusivity of the slab

73
𝛼 = 3.0 x 10-7 m2/s, k = 0.20 W/m-K, and h = 5.7 W/m2-K. The surrounding fluid
temperature is 141.7oC.
20. Determine the Biot number
A. 0.171 B. 0.342 C. 0.581 D. 1.162

21. Determine the Fourier number


A. 12.67 B. 14.68 C. 17.28 D. 19.05

22. Determine the time needed to achieve the temperature change needed.
A. 9.9 s B. 59.3 s C. 29.2 min D. 1.94 h

23. A large block of steel with k = 45 W/m-K and α = 4 x 10-5 m2/s is initially at a
uniform temperature of 35oC. The surface is exposed to a heat flux by suddenly
raising the temperature to 200oC. Calculate the temperature at a depth of 3 cm after
20 s.
A. 130oC B. 90oC C. 110oC D. 70oC

X erf x
0.3 0.329
0.4 0.428
0.5 0.520
0.6 0.604

24. A gray body is where


A. Absorptivity is a function of wavelength and is less than 1.
B. Absorptivity is a function of wavelength and is equal to 1.
C. Absorptivity is not a function of wavelength and is equal to 1.
D. Absorptivity is not a function of wavelength and is less than 1.

25. One radiation shield is placed between two very large parallel planes having
identical emissivities, both of which are less than 1. What is the fractional decrease
in radiation loss?
A. 0 B. ½ C. 1/3 D. cannot tell due to insufficient data

For number 26 and 27,


A spherical automobile component of 6 in diameter, initially at 8oF is placed in a
cubical oven of side 5ft which is at temperature of 560oF. Both sides are black
bodies.
26. Calculate the view factor from the oven to the component.
A. 0.031 B. 0.00524 C. 1 D. 0.00996

27. Estimate the net heat transfer from the oven to the component.
A. 2.564 x 105 B. 8498 C. 1344 D. 4.526 x105

74
28. Fins are added to heat exchangers in order to provide additional area for heat
transfer. For a shell-and-tube heat exchanger, fins should be added on the:
A. Tube side C. Side with fluid of higher resistance to heat transfer
B. Shell side D. Side with fluid of lower resistance to heat transfer

For number 29 and 30,


A steel pipe (thickness = 0.5 cm, OD = 0.051m) is insulated with 0.0064 m thick
asbestos (k = 0.166 W/m-K) followed by a 0.00254 m layer of fiber glass (k =
0.0485 W/m-K). The fluid inside the pipe is at 315.6 K; at this condition h = 500
W/m2-K. Outside, the temperature of air is 265 K, where h = 100 W/m2-K. The
resistance of the steel pipe is negligible.
29. Neglecting the radiation, the heat loss is
A. 64.5 W B. 76.8 W C. 95.86 W D. 189 W

30. The overall hear transfer coefficient (W/m2-K) based on the outside surface area
A. 33.6 B. 21.8 C. 11.7 D. 8.75

75
ANSWER KEY

ChE Calculations and Heat Transfer

1. A. Flow rates & composition both are time dependent


2. B. 1.7975 x 104
3. B. Anthracite, Bituminous, Sub-bituminous, Lignite
4. A. Kerosene
5. C. Between 100 and 110oC
6. C. 3
7. E.
8. E.
9. E.
10. E.
11. E.
12. C. > 1
13. D. 0.6
14. D. A supersaturated solution of a sparingly soluble solute, at a concentration of
C, is being fed to a crystallizer at a volumetric flow rate of V. The solubility of
the solute is C1. The output rate of solids from an efficient crystallizer is (C +
C1) V.
15. B. 90%
16. A. Facilitates better control
17. A. 1700 W
18. B. Will increase the heat transfer
19. A. Biot number
20. B. 0.342
21. E.
22. B. 59.3
23. C. 110oC
24. D. Absorptivity is not a function of wavelength and is less than 1.
25. B. ½
26. B. 0.00524
27. C. 1344
28. C. Side with fluid of higher resistance to heat transfer
29. C. 95.86 W
30. D. 8.75

76
SOLUTIONS

2. Given: Length = 85 cm
Diameter = 50 cm
Mass Flow Rate = 108 kg/s
Required: 𝑟𝑂2 (reaction rate of oxygen)
Solution:

1 dNO2
Reaction Rate: −rO2 = V dt

𝑑2 (0.5 m)2
where V = π 4 ∙ 𝐿 ; V= π ∙ 0.85 m V = 0.166897 m3
4

1
Reaction: H2 + O2 → H2 O
2
kg kmol 1000 mol mol
H2O produced = 108 ( 18kg ) ( ) = 6000
s 1 kmol s
1
mol mol O2 mol
2
O2 used = 6000 ( ) = 3000
s 1 mol H2O s
1 dNO2
Solving for reaction rate of O2 : −rO2 = V dt
1 mol mol
−rO2 = 0.166897 m3 (3000 ) = 17975.158 m3s
s

𝐦𝐨𝐥
Ans. 1.7975 x 104 𝐦𝟑 𝐬

7. Given: Overall Conversion of A = 95%


Required: Single Pass Conversion of A
Solution:

Material Balance:

Basis: 1 mole of pure A in the feed

From the reaction, A → 2B + C


Overall conversion is 95%. Therefore, 1 mole of feed A will produce

77
Product stream contains:
Mole of A = 1 mole – (1 mole x 0.95) = 0.05 mole
Mole of B = (1 mole A x 0.95) (2 moles B /1 mole A) = 1.9 moles
Mole of C = (1 mole A x 0.95) (1 mole C /1 mole A) = 0.95 mole
Material Balance for B:
B in the recycle = 1% of B entering the separator
B in the product = 99% of B entering the separator = 1.9 mole
Total B entering the separator = 1.9/0.99 = 1.919 mole
B in the recycle = 1.919 x 0.01 = 0.019 mole.

Material Balance for A:


A in the product = 0.5% of A entering the separator
A in the product stream = 0.5% of A entering the separator = 0.05 mole.
A entering the separator = 0.05/0.005 = 10 mole.
A in the recycle stream = A entering the separator - A in the product stream
= 10 - 0.05 = 9.95 mole.
A entering the reactor = fresh A + recycle A = 1 + 9.95 = 10.95 mole.
A converted in the reactor = A entering the reactor - A entering separator
= 10.95 - 10 = 0.95 mole

Single Pass Conversion of A


= (A converted in the reactor /A entering the reactor) x 100
= (0.95/10.95) x 100 = 8.676%

Ans. 8.676%

8. Solving for the recycle stream:


Total moles in recycle stream = A in recycle stream + B in recycle stream
= 9.95 + 0.019 = 9.969 mole
Molar ratio of recycle to feed = 9.969/1 = 9.696

Ans. 9.696

10. Given: Absorption column: 100 kPa, 20oC


Pi = 8.266 kPa; Gas leaving: 29.5oC, 99.3 kPa; Pi = 0.093 kPa
Required: Volume in m3 of gases leaving the column
Solution:
𝑘𝑚𝑜𝑙 273.15𝐾 100−8.266 𝑘𝑃𝑎
mol inert = 100 𝑚3 ( )( )( ) = 3.765 𝑘𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑒
22.4 𝑚3 293.15𝐾 101.325 𝑘𝑃𝑎
mole of Chlorine in the leaving gas
𝑋 0.093 𝑘𝑃𝑎
𝑋+3.765
= 99.3 𝑘𝑃𝑎
; 𝑥 = 3.529𝑥10−3 kmole

Total moles of gas leaving the column:


= 3.529𝑥10−3 + 3.765 = 3.7685 𝑘𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑒𝑠

78
Volume of gas leaving the column:
22.4 𝑚3 302.65𝐾 101.325 𝑘𝑃𝑎
= 3.7685 𝑘𝑚𝑜𝑙 ( 𝑘𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑒 ) (273.15𝐾) (99.3−0.093 𝑘𝑃𝑎)
= 95.53 m3

Ans. 95.53 m3

11. Required: Weight (in kg) of chlorine gas absorbed per 100 m3 entering
Solution:
mole of chlorine in entering gas
𝑋 8.266 𝑘𝑃𝑎
= ; 𝑥 = 0.3393 kmol
𝑋+3.765 100 𝑘𝑃𝑎

Mole of chlorine gas absorbed = mole chlorine entering – mole chlorine leaving
= 0.3393 -3.529𝑥10−3 = 0.33577 kmole Cl2
Weight Cl2= 0.33577 kmol (70.90kg/kmol)
Weight Cl2 = 23.81 kg

Ans. 23.81 kg

13. Given: Decreased in vapor pressure: 10 mmHg when xi = 0.2


Required: mole fraction of solvent when decreased is 20 mmHg.
Solution:
∆P = xi P o ; 10 mmHg = 0.2P o
P o = 50 mmHg
When ∆P = 20 mmHg
20 mmHg = xi (50 mmHg) ; xi = 0.4
Mole fraction of solvent = 1 – 0.4 = 0.6

Ans. 0.6

17. Given: 0.015 m thick brick; k = 1.7 W/m-K


T2 = 2060oF; T1 = 1610oF; A = 0.5 by 1.2 m
Required: Rate of heat loss (Q)
Solution:
T2 = 2060oF = 1399.82K; T1 = 1610oF = 1149.82K
dT W (1399.82−1149.82)K
Q = −kA dx = − (1.7 m ∙ K) (0.5x1.2)m2 0.015
Q = 1700 W

Ans. 1700

20. Given: thickness = 0.012 m; T1 = 26.7oC; T2 = 32.2oC; Ts = 141.7oC


𝛼 = 3.0 x 10- ll7 m2/s, k = 0.20 W/m-K, and h = 5.7 W/m2-K
Required: Biot number

79
Solution:
W
hR 5.7 x0.012m
m2 ∙K
Fo = = W = 0.342
k 0.20
m∙K

Ans. 0.342

23. Given: k = 45 W/m-K; α = 4 x 10-5 m2/s; T1 = 35oC; T2 =200oC


Required: Temperature at x = 3 cm; t = 20s
Solution:
Tx −T2 x Tx −200 3/100
= erf( )= = erf( )
T1 −T2 2√αt 35−200 2√4x10−5 x20
3/100
x= = 0.5303
2√4x10−5 x20
Through linear regression using the table below:
X erf x
0.5 0.520
0.6 0.604
erf x = 0.5455
Solving for Tx :
Tx −200
= 0.5455; Tx = 109.99o C
35−200

Ans. 110oC

26. Given: Spherical component: Diameter = 6-in at 80oF


Cubical oven: Side = 5ft at 560oF
Required: View factor from oven to the component, F21
Solution:
𝐴1 𝐹12 = 𝐴2 𝐹21
πd2 π(6in)2
4 ( 4 ) x 1 = 6s 2 x F21 ; 4 ( ) x 1 = 6(5x12in)2 x F21
4
F21 = 0.00524

Ans. 0.00524

27. Required: Net hear transfer from oven to the component


Solution:
𝑇1 4 𝑇2 4
Q21 = 0.1713𝐴2 𝐹21 ((100 ) − (100 ) )
293.33𝑜 𝐶 4 26.67𝑜 𝐶 4
Q21 = 0.1713𝑥6x(60in)2 x 0.00524 x (( ) −( ) )
100 100
Q21 = 1435.29 W

Ans. 1435.29 W

29. Given: Steel pipe: t = 0.5 cm; OD = 0.051 m; negligible resistance


Asbestos: t = 0.0064 m; k2 = 0.166 W/m-K

80
Fiber glass: t = 0.00254 m; k3 = 0.0485 W/m-K
Required: Heat Loss
Solution:

𝑇2−𝑇1
Q= 𝑟2 𝑟3 𝑟4
1 ln(𝑟1) ln(𝑟2) ln(𝑟3) 1
+ + + +
2𝜋𝑟1 𝐿ℎ1 2𝜋𝑘1𝐿 2𝜋𝑘2𝐿 2𝜋𝑘3𝐿 2𝜋𝑟4 𝐿ℎ2

Length: 1 m pipe
r1 = 0.0205 m h1 = 500 W/m2-K
r2 = 0.0255 m h2 = 100 W/m2-K
r3 = 0.0319 m
r4 = 0.0344 m
(315.6−265)𝐾
Q= 0.0319 0.0344
1 ln(0.0255) ln(0.0319) 1
+ + +
2𝜋𝑥0.0205𝑥500 2𝜋𝑥0.166 2𝜋𝑥0.0485 2𝜋𝑥0.0344𝑥100

Q = 95.86 W

Ans. 95.86 W

30. Required: Overall heat transfer coefficient based on outside surface area
Solution:
Q = UA∆𝑇
95.86 W
U=
2π x 0.03444 m x 1m x (315.6−265)K
U = 8.75 W/m
Ans. 8.75 W/m2-K

81
EVAPORATION, HUMIDIFICATION,
CRYSTALLIZATION

1. Rebelen was assigned to maintain the equipment by cleaning it. She was scolded
by her boss since she could not clean the inside of the heat exchanger. But Reb said
she would’ve cleaned it if she could. What do you think is the reason behind this?
A. The boss has a high standard in cleaning.
B. The equipment might have been blocked by foreign matters.
C. Their company uses a hairpin type which offers only surface cleaning.
D. Their company uses a Multitubular heat exchanger which does not allow tube
bundles disassembly.

2. You were asked to select a type of heat exchanger but only a double pipe. Your
boss will be happier if you could save more money. What would you recommend?
A. Finned type
B. Multitubular
C. Shell and Tube
D. Plat heat exchangers

3. With your knowledge in heat exchanger that at minimum temperature cross, the
effectiveness of a heat exchanger is observed to be dependent, what is your
conclusion in relation to the effectiveness of double-pipe heat exchangers?
A. Larger temperature cross provides higher efficiency. Shell and Tube is generally
more efficient than double-pipe.
B. Minimal temperature cross varies inversely with efficiency, thus double-pipe is
more efficient.
C. For smaller volumes, shell and tube is still affected by fouling factor and thus
unsuited for smaller volumes making double-pipe more efficient.
D. Both A and C

4. In a counterflow heat exchanger, the hot stream is cooled from 120 to 30 oC while
the cold stream temperature changes from 20 to 60 oC. If the same exchanger were
operated with parallel flow, what would be the exit temperatures of the two
streams?
A. 51.5oC: 50.4oC
B. 61.4oC: 20.8oC
C. 88.2oC: 54.9oC
D. 73.4oC: 44.9oC

5. Oil at 50oF is heated in a horizontal 2-in. Schedule 40 steel pipe 60 ft long having
a surface temperature at 120oF. The oil flow rate is 150 gal/h at inlet temperature.
What will be the oil temperature as it leaves the pipe and after mixing?
A. 77.9oF
B. 63.8oF

82
C. 99.4oF
D. 11.4 oF

6. From the prev problem, what is the average heat-transfer coefficient?


A. 1.23 Btu/h·ft2·oF
B. 9.99 Btu/h·ft2·oF
C. 2.94 Btu/h·ft2·oF
D. 8.08 Btu/h·ft2·oF

7. In a two effect forward feed evaporator; which statement is true


A. the temperature in the steam chest is higher in the first than in the second effect.
B. the temperature in the steam chest is lower in the first than in the second effect.
C. The pressure in the second effect must be reduced below that in the first.
D. In some cases, the first effect may be at a pressure above atmospheric
8–10. Compute the heat required to vaporize 1 lb of water in an evaporator producing
caustic solution containing 40% NaOH by weight, at a pressure of 3.716 psia, when
feeding 20% NaOH solution to the evaporator at the boiling temperature in the
evaporator. What is the boiling point elevation?
8. What is the boiling point of Water?
A. 212oF B. 180oF C. 165oF D. 150oF
9. The boiling point elevation
A. 20oF B. 35oF C. 50oF D. 12oF

10. Heat required


A. 1008 BTU B. 1038 BTU C. 1080 BTU D. 1178 BTU

11. A solution of organic colloids is to be concentrated from 15 to 50% solid in a


vertical tube evaporator. The solution has a negligible elevation in the boiling point,
and the specific heat of the feed is 0.93. Saturated steam is available at 0.8 atm abs,
and the coefficient is 1700 W/m2oC. The evaporator must evaporate 25,000 kg of
water per hour.
How many square meters of surface area required, and
A. 247 m2 B. 431 m2 C. 258 m2 D. 693 m2
12. What is the steam consumption in kilograms per hour?
A. 74632 kg/h B. 28340 kg/h C. 85214 kg/h D. 96321 kg/h

13. Humidification involves mass transfer between a pure liquid phase and a fixed gas
which is:
A. insoluble in the liquid
B. soluble in the liquid
C. non-ideal in nature
D. at a fixed temperature

83
14. At a fixed total pressure, humidity depends only on the
A. partial pressure of vapor in the mixture
B. heat capacity of the vapor
C. density of the vapor
D. none of these

15. In saturated gas, the


A. vapor is in equilibrium with the liquid at the gas temperature
B. vapor is in equilibrium with the liquid at the room temperature
C. partial pressure of vapor equals the vapor pressure of the liquid at room temperature
D. none of these

16. In an air-conditioning system, 1 kg/s air at 350 K and 10 per cent humidity is mixed
with 5 kg/s air at 300 K and 30 per cent humidity. What is the humidity of the
resultant stream?
A. enthalpy = 76 kJ/kg
B. enthalpy = 67 kJ/kg
C. enthalpy = 87 kJ/kg
D. enthalpy = 57 kJ/kg

17. 0.08 m3/s of air at 305 K and 60% humidity is to be cooled to 275 K. Calculate,
using a psychrometric chart, the amount of heat to be removed for each 10 deg K
interval of the cooling process. What total mass of moisture will be deposited?
A. 0.0009 kg/s
B. 0.0010 kg/s
C. 0.00011 kg/s
D. 0.0012 kg/s

18. Which of the following psychrometric processes is followed by water vapour laden
unsaturated air, when it is passed through solid or liquid adsorbent?
A. Cooling and dehumidification.
B. Heating and dehumidification at almost constant wet bulb temperature.
C. Dehumidification with dry bulb temperature remaining constant.
D. None of these.

19. A _______ temperature is the steady state temperature attained by a small amount
of liquid evaporating into a large quantity of unsaturated gas-vapor mixture.
A. Dry bulb
B. Wet bulb
C. Dew point
D. none of these

20. Which of the following is not a continuous drier?


A. Drum drier

84
B. Spray drier
C. Tunnel drier
D. Tray drier

21. During constant rate period, the rate of drying decreases with the
A. Decrease in air temperature
B. Increase in air humidity
C. both (a) and (b)
D. dehumidified

22. The term “approach” in a cooling tower refers to the difference in the temperature
of the
A. cold water leaving the tower and the wet bulb temperature of the surrounding air
B. hot water entering the lower and the wet bulb temperature of the surrounding air
C. hot water entering and the cooled water leaving the cooling tower.
D. none of these

23. Unsaturated air (with dry and wet bulb temperatures being 35 and 25 oC
respectively) is passed through water spray chamber maintained at 35 oC. The air
will be
A. cooled
B. humidified
C. both (a) & (b)
D. dehumidified

24. The solubility of a substance A at 25oC is 25g/L and at 50oC it solubility is 75g/L.
If 500 mL of a saturated solution of A is cooled from 50 oC to 25oC, how many
grams of solute A will be crystallized? Assume volume of solute in the solution is
negligible.
A. 12.5 g B. 37.5 g C. 25 g D. 32.5 g

25. As solution of 28% wt Na2SO4 is to be crystallized to yield Glauber salt in a four


section (one section is 10 ft in length) Swenson Walker Crystallizer. It is fed to the
unit at 120oF and cooled to 60oF using cooling water which enters at 50oF and
leaves at 70oF. The crystallizer has a cooling surface of 3 ft 2 per foot of length. The
feed rate is 500 lb/hr and the crystallizer is seeded with 50 lb/hr of 65 mesh crystals,
19. The amount of the crystalline crop (C) produced in lb per hour is ___.
A. 285.3
B. 249.3
C. 255.65
D. 214.65

85
ANSWER KEY

Evaporation, Humidification and Crystallization

1.) C. Their company uses a hairpin type which offers only surface cleaning
2.) A. Finned type
3.) D. Both A and C
4.) A. 51.5oC : 50.4oC
5.) A. 77.9oF
6.) D. 8.08 Btu/h·ft2·oF
7.) B. the temperature in the steam chest is lower in the first than in the second effect
8.) D. 150oF
9.) C. 50oF
10.) C. 1080 BTU
11.) A. 247 m2
12.) B. 28340 kg/h
13.) A. insoluble in the liquid
14.) A. partial pressure of vapor in the mixture
15.) A. vapor is in equilibrium with the liquid at the gas temperature
16.) B. enthalpy = 67kJ/kg
17.) D. 0.0012 kg/s
18.) B. Heating and dehumidification at almost constant wet bulb temperature
19.) B. Wet bulb
20.) D. Tray drier
21.) C. both (a) and (b)
22.) A. cold water leaving the tower and the wet bulb temperature of the surrounding
air
23.) B. humidified
24.) C. 25 g
25.) B. 249.3

86
SOLUTIONS
4. For the countercurrent operation:
Thi =120°C Tci =20°C
Tho = 30°C Tco = 60°C
LMTD = [(Thi-Tco)-(Tho-Tci)]/ln[(Thi-Tco)/(Tho-Tci)] LMTD = 27.9055°C
Because the same heat exchanger would be used, the only meaningful assumption
is to use the same LMTD for the new exit temperatures. Thus, LMTD Countercurrent =
LMTDParallel Also, Thi and Tci will remain the same. We need to find Tho and Tco.

For the parallel operation:

LMTD = [(Thi-Tci)-(Tho-Tco)]/ln[[(Thi-Tci)/ Tho-Tco]


27.9055 = [(120-20)- )-(Tho-Tco)]/ln[(120-20)/(Tho-Tco)]

Tho – Tco = 3.1047oC

The correct answer would be the one with a temperature difference of 3.1047°C.

Ans. 51.5 o C and 50.4 o C

5. At 120°F: At 50°F
ρ = 56.2 lb/ft3 μ = 100 cp (0.067197 lbm/ft-s)
cp = 0.465 BTU/lb°F
k = 0.070 BTU/hr-ft-°F (1.9444 x 10-5 BTU/s-ft-°F) μ = 20 cp (0.0134394 lb/ft-s)

NRe = Dvρ/μ v = Q/A = 0.238853 ft/s


NPr = cpμ/k
NPr = 0.465(0.0134394)/(1.94444 x 10-5)
NPr = 321.3944

87
From the Reynolds Number, we can tell that its flow is laminar. Thus, we use 5-
47 Perry or 4.5-4 by Geankoplis, else we use the turbulent one. NNu =
1.86[D(NReNPr)/L]1/3(μb/μ w)0.14
Substituting:
NNu = 1.86[0.17225(172.0467)(321.3944)/60]1/3(100/20)0.14
NNu = 12.6163
Since NNu = hD/k, h(0.17225)/0.070 = 12.6163
h = 5.1271 BTU/hr-ft2-°F

To find Tbo, we use the heat balance:


A of contact = πDL =
q = AhΔT where ΔT = [(Tw-Tbi)+(Tw-Tbo)]/2 32.46836 ft2
m (mass flow rate) =
Also, q = mcp(Tbo-Tbi) 0.31281 lbm/s

0.31281(0.465)(Tbo – 50) = 32.46836(5.1271){[(120-50)+(120-Tbo)]/2}(1/3600)


Tbo = 69.2012°F
0.31281(0.465)(Tbo – 50) = 32.46836(X){[(120-50)+(120-Tbo)]/2}(1/3600)
Let us substitute the choices, using X and find T bo. Whichever matches, then it’s
the correct answer. Note that X here means the heat transfer coefficient.

Ans. X = 8.08, Tbo = 78.0447°F

8 – 10 From Steam Table Tv = ~150°F.


hv = 1125.7072 BTU/lb

1. This temperature of 150°F is the vapor chest pressure which is the boiling
point of water. How about the solution? The boiling point of solution is higher
since it has BPE, of course.

2. From BPE Chart at Perry. 40% NaOH has a BPE ~ 48°F.


Thus, we will round it up to 50°F to obtain an answer.
3. This time it needs the typical problem solving.
OMB: F = L+V; F = L + 1
Solute: FXF = LXL; F(0.20) = L(0.40) Thus: L = 1 lb, F = 2 lb

88
Enthalpy balance: FhF + SHS = LhL + VhV + ShS; SλS = LhL + VhV - FhF
Where SλS = q
From NaOH-enthalpy chart:
hF = 100 BTU/lb (150°F) [Since it is stated that it is fed at boiling point. Thus TV = TF]
hL = 170 BTU/lb (200°F) [This is the solution temperature.]

Substitute:
LhL + V(hV + 0.45BPE) - FhF = q 1(170) + 1[1125.7072 + 0.45(50)] – 2(100) = q
q = 1118.7072 BTU (Closest is 1080 BTU)

Ans. 150oF, 50oF & 1080 BTU

11.
Make a figure yourself. Feed is concentrated from 15% to 50%.
V = 25 000 kg/hr Saturated steam is fed at 0.8 atm.
No BPE! (TL = TV) Data Gathered from Steam Table (app).
cPF = 0.93 cal/g-K TS = 367 K
U = 1700 W/m2-K λS = 2272.6169 kJ/kg-K

Solve:
OMB: F = L+V = L+25000
Solute: F(0.15) = L(0.50) F = 35714.2857 kg/hr
L = 10714.2857 kg/hr
Heat Balance:
q = FcpF(TL-TF) + VλV
BPE q =1700(1/1000)(A)(367-TV)(3600)

V/S = 25000/28340 = 0.8821

S = 28340 kg/hr

An increase in Area, provides lower temperature difference from the steam and
the vapor chest. Either way, practically speaking, an area of 693 m 2 is too big for an
89
evaporator so in essence, the area that must be selected must be at least the industrially
correct and conceivable, so we would go for for 247 m2 since it would provide highest
temperature gradient

Ans. 247 m2 and 28,340 kg/h

16. Stream 1 (S1): 1 kg/s air, Tdb1 = 350 K, %abs H = 10%


Stream 2 (S2): 5 kg/s air, Tdb2 = 300 K, %abs H = 30%
Resultant H=?
At 350 K, pA° = 0.41137 atm
At 300 K, pA° = 0.034903 atm
From the formula Hs = [pA°/(PT - pA°)](MWA/MWB)
HS1 = 0.43378 kg H2O/kg d.a.
HS2 = 0.022447 kg H2O/kg d.a.
And since %abs H = (H/HS)(100%),
H1 = 0.043378 kg H2O/kg d.a.
H2 = 6.7341 X 10-3 kg H2O/kg d.a.
We can modify the humidity by expressing it in terms of kg H2O/kg air.
H1’ = 0.043378/(1+0.043378) = 0.0415746 kg H2O/kg air
H2’ = 6.7341 X 10-3/(1+6.7341 X 10-3) = 6.6891 X 10-3 kg H2O/kg air
Using the given streams:
S1(H1’) = 0.0415746(1) = 0.0415746 kg H2O/s (water from stream 1)
S2(H2’) = 6.6891 X 10-3(5) = 0.033445 kg H2O/s (water from stream 2)
Total stream = S1 + S2 = 1 + 5 = 6 kg air/s
Thus, total outlet humidity = Total water/Total dry air
Total water = 0.0750196 kg H2O
H = 0.0750196/(6-0.0750196)
H = 0.012662 kg H2O/kg d.a.

90
find the outlet temperature by sensible heat balance.
mDAcs1(T1-T)=mDAcs2(T-T2)

From the previous values, mDA1 = 0.958426 kg da/s, mDA2 = 4.966514 kg da/s
And to find cs, cs = 1.01 + 1.88H: cs1 = 1.09155 kJ/kg-K, c s2 = 1.02266 kJ/kg-K
0.958426(1.09155)(350-T) = (4.966514)(1.02266)(T-300)
T = 308.5398

From Perry’s Handbook, the equation to find the enthalpy is given by:
h = [cpg + cpv(H)](T-TRef) + λRef(H) = [1.01 + 1.88H](T-273.15K) + 2501H in
kJ/kg h = [1.01 + 1.88(0.012662)](308.5398-273.15) + 2501(0.012662)
h = 68.25380 kJ/kg

Ans. 67kJ/kg

17. Q = 0.08 m3/s of air


Tdb1 = 305 K Tdb2 = 275 %abs H = 60%
The required amount is the moisture deposited (E). E = m DA(H1-H2)
Thus, we need to find the mass of dry air, as well as the humidities for both inlet and
outlet. At 305 K, pA° = 0.046573 atm
At 275 K, pA° = 6.8932 X 10-3 atm
Thus, using the equations before to find the humidity: HS1 = 0.030319 kg H2O/kg d.a.
HS2 = 4.308235 X 10-3 kg H2O/kg d.a.
Using the % abs Humidity, H1 = 0.018192 kg H2O/kg d.a.
Now, this is a critical assumption. Since the cooling process did not exactly say
what the condition of the outlet is, the best assumption is to consider that the outlet is
saturated.
Thus, H2 = HS2 = 4.308235 X 10-3 kg H2O/kg d.a.
To find the mass of dry air given the volume of air, we need to find the inlet
humid volume. VH1 = 0.8883156 m3/kg d.a.
Thus, mDA = 0.08/0.8883156 = 0.09005808 kg d.a./s
Using E = mDA(H1-H2)

91
E = 0.09005808(0.018192-4.308235 X 10-3)
E = 0.0012503 kg H2O
Ans. 0.0012 kg/s

24. The solubility at 25°C is 25 g/L while at 50°C, it is 75 g/L.


V = 500 mL of saturated solution at 50°C is cooled to 25°C.
From the volume of solution, msolute = 500(75)/1000 = 37.5 g
Thus, for every 500 mL, there are 37.5 g of solute on it.
Lowering the temperature, the same volume of solution is present since the volume
of solute is negligible and no expansion or contraction is assumed from this process.
msolute = 500(25)/1000 = 12.5 g
The difference from the masses of the solute is the amount of crystals that will
precipitate from the supersaturated solution.
C = 37.5 g – 12.5 g
C = 25 g
Ans. 25
25. XF = 0.28 (at 120°F)
XC = 142.04/322.186 = 0.44086 (Na2SO4/Na2SO4∙10H2O)
XL = 0.12875 (Perry’s Handbook interpolated) (60°F)
F = 500 lb/hr
MS = 50 lb/hr (65 Mesh)
Water is fed at 50°F to 70°F

OMB: F = L + C
Solute: FXF = LXL + CXC
500 = L + C
500(0.28) = L(0.12875) + C(0.44086) L = 257.6986 kg/hr
C = 242.3024 kg/hr

Ans. 249.3

92
REACTION KINETICS, GAS ABSORPTION, DRYING

1. The second order irreversible elementary chemical reaction, 2A B can be


plotted in an x-y Cartesian plane. Determine the y-intercept.
A. CAO B.1/CAO C. 1/CAO^2 D.
1/2CAO

2. Discuss the following overall reaction with respect to order, catalysts, etc.
A. First order in A, second order in B, first order in C, product is inhibitor, fourth order
overall
B. First order in A, second order in B, first order in C, product is catalyst, fourth order
overall
C. First order in A, second order in B, first order in C, reactant is catalyst, fourth order
overall
D. First order in A, second order in B, first order in C, reactant is inhibitor, fourth order
overall

3. The half life for the given reaction was doubled as the initial concentration of a
reactant is doubled. What is the order of the reaction?
A. 0 B.1 C. 1/2 D. 2

4. The concentration of A in a first order reaction A B decreases


A. Linearly with time C. Very abruptly toward the end of the
reaction
B. Exponentially with time D. Logarithmically with time

5. The equilibrium constant of a chemical reaction


A. increases in the presence of catalyst C. remains unaffected in the presence of
catalyst
B. decreases in the presence of catalyst D. can either increase or decrease; depends
on the type of catalyst

6. Reactions with high activation energy are


A. very temperature sensitive C. always irreversible
B. temperature sensitive D. always irreversible

7. A second order reaction of the from A+B C is called a pseudo-first order reaction
when

A. CAO=CBO B.CAO>CBO C. CAOKCBO D. CBO>CAO

93
8. A first order irreversible reaction A B is carried separately in a constant volume
as well as in a variable volume reactor for a particular period. It signifies that
A. both conversion as well as concentration are the same in the two reactors
B. conversion in both will be the same but concentrations will be different in the two
reactors
C. both the conversion as well as concentrations will be different in the two reactors
D. none of these.

9. Which of the following is true about the elementary process?


A. A reaction involving only atoms is an elementary process.
B. A reaction that proceeds in only one step is an elementary process.
C. A reaction with zero order rate law is an elementary process.
D. All chemical reactions are elementary process.

10. If a catalyst increases the rate of a reaction what happens to k(forward), the rate
constant for the forward reaction, and to k(reverse), the rate constant of the reverse
reaction?
A. k(forward) increases and k(reverse) increases
B. k(forward) increases and k(reverse) decreases
C. k(forward) increases and k(reverse) remains unchanged
D. k(forward) remains unchanged and k(reverse) decreases

11. A liquid phase reaction: A+B < -- > R+S, where k1=7 L/mol-min and k2=3 L/mol-
min is to take place in a 120-L CSTR. Two feed streams, one contaiming 2.8 mols
A/L, and the other containing 1.6 mols B/L are to introduced in equal volumes into
the reactor and 75% conversion of the limiting reactant is desired. What should be
the flow rate of each stream? Assume a constant density throughout.
A. 8 L/min B. 2 L/min C. 16 L/min D. 4 L/min

12-15. A liquid feed of pure A (1 mol/L) is treated in two reactors of two-liter volume
each and reacts with the rate of rA=0.05 Ca2, mol/L-s. find what feed rate in L/min that
will give a final outlet concentration of Ca=0.5 mol/L if
12. Two CSTRs in series are used
A. 8.49 B. 12 C. 10.23 D. 10.67

13. Two CSTRs in parallel are used


A. 3 B. 6 C. 8 D. 9

14. Two PFRs in parallel are used.


A. 12 B. 9 C. 8 D. 6

15. A CSTR and PFR hooked up in parallel are used.


A. 12 B. 9 C. 8 D. 6

16. A liquid reactant stream (1 mol/L) passes through mixed-flow reactors in a series.
The concentration of A in the exit of the first reactor is 0.5 mol/L. Find the

94
concentration in the exit stream of the second reactor. The reaction is second order
with respect to A and V2/V1=2.
A. 0.25 mol/L B. 0.5 mol/L C. 0.75 mol/L D. 0.87 mol/L

17. An aqueous reactant stream (4 A/L) passes through a mixed-flow reactor followed
by a plug-flow reactor. Find the concentration at the exit of the plug-flow reactor.
If in the mixed-flow reactor Ca = 1 mol/L. the reaction is second order with
respect to A, and the volume of the plug-flow reactor is three times that of the
mixed flow reactor.
A. 0.05 mol/L B. 0.01 mol/L C. 0.1 mol/L D. 0.5 mol/L

18. In general, operating pressure should be ___ and temperature ___ for an absorber,
to minimize stage requirements and/or absorbent flow rate to lower the equipment
volume required to accommodate the gas flow.
A. high, low B. low, high C. maximum, low D. minimum,
high

19. The reverse is true for stripping. However, the operating pressure should not be too
high and operating temperature should not be too low as to ___ the feed gas.
A. Vaporize B. condense C. compress D. none of these

20. CO2 is to be absorbed from air using pure water in a countercurrent column. The
ratio of mass fraction of CO2 in inlet air to that in exit air is 5 and the absorption
factor 1.25. What is the theoretical number stages needed if the equilibrium line has
a slope of 2?
A. 2. 63 B. 3.11 C. 2.18 D. 1.98

21. If the liquid flow rate in the preceding item is 20 mol/s, what is the gas flow rate?
A. 10 mol/s B. 8 mol/s C. 16 mol/s D. 12 mol/s

22. What are the common symptoms of flooding?


A. Excessive entrainment, increase in pressure drop, increase in efficiency
B. Excessive entrainment, decrease in pressure drop, increase in efficiency
C. Excessive entrainment, decrease in pressure drop, decrease in efficiency
D. Excessive entrainment, increase in pressure drop, decrease in efficiency

23. The initial moisture content of a food product is 77% (wet basis), and the critical
moisture content is 30% (wet basis). If the constant drying rate is 0.1 kg H2O/ m2.s,
compute the time required for the product to begin the falling rate drying period.
The product has a cube shape with 5-cm sides, and the initial product density is 950
kg/m3.
A. 23.4 s B. 34.6 s C. 48.5 s D. 53.2 s

95
24. A cabinet dryer is being used to dry a feed product from 68% moisture content (wet
basis) to 5.5% moisture content (wet basis). The drying air enters the system at 54
degC and 10% RH. The product temperature is 25 degC throughout drying.
Compute the quantity of air required for drying on the basis of 1 kg of product solid.
A. 224.65 kg dry air/kg solids C. 302.27 kg dry air/kg solids
B. 268.4 kg dry air/kg solids D. 412.36 kg dry air/kg solids

25. An wet slab in a tray with a moisture content of 3.5 lbH2O/lb DS is to be dried until
the moisture is down to 1.5 lb H2O/lbDS of product. The dimensions of the slab is
4’x2’x3” and the density of the wet slab is 45 lb/ft3. How many trays are needed to
be dried to produce a ton of product? Assume that the slab does not warp during
drying.
A. 54 trays B. 44 trays C. 200 trays D. 20 trays

ANSWER KEY

Reaction Kinetics, Gas Absorption, Drying

1. B. 1/CAO
2. A. First order in A, second order in B, first order in C, product is catalyst,
fourth order overall
3. A. 0
4. B. Exponentially with time
5. C. remains unaffected in the presence of catalyst
6. A. very temperature sensitive
7. D. CBO>CAO
8. B. conversion in both will be the same but concentrations will be different in the
two reactors
9. B. A reaction that proceeds in only one step is an elementary process.
10. A. k(forward) increases and k(reverse) increases
11. D. 4 L/min
12. A. 8.49
13. B. 6
14. A. 12
15. B. 9
16. A. 0.25 mol/L
17. C. 0.1 mol/L
18. A. high, low
19. B. condense
20. A. 2.63
21. B. 8 mole/s
22. D. Excessive entrainment, increase in pressure drop, decrease in efficiency
23. D. 53.2 s
24. A. 224.65 kg dry air/kg solids
25. B. 44 trays

96
SOLUTIONS

11. The concentration of components in the mixed feed stream is


Cao = 1.4 moles/liter
Cbo = 0.8 mole/liter
Cro = Cbo = 0

For 75% conversion of B the composition within the reactor and in the exit

stream, for X= 0, is
Cao = 1.4 – 0.6 = 0.8 mole/liter
Cbo = 0.8 – 0.6 = 0.02 mole/liter
Crs = 0.6 mole/liter
Cs = 0.6 mole/liter
Now the rate of reaction at the conditions within the reactor is
-rA = -rB = k1CACB – k2CRCS

𝑙𝑖𝑡𝑒𝑟𝑠 𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑒 𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑒


(
= 7 (𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑒)(min) )( 0.8 (𝑙𝑖𝑡𝑒𝑟) )( 0.2 (𝑙𝑖𝑡𝑒𝑟) )-
(3 𝑙𝑖𝑡𝑒𝑟𝑠
(𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑒)(min) )( 0.6 𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑒
(𝑙𝑖𝑡𝑒𝑟) )2
𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑒 𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑒
= (1.12 – 1.08) = 0.04
(𝑙𝑖𝑡𝑒𝑟)(𝑚𝑖𝑛) (𝑙𝑖𝑡𝑒𝑟)(𝑚𝑖𝑛)

For no change in density, hence X= 0


𝑉 𝐶𝑎𝑜−𝐶𝑎 𝐶𝑏𝑜−𝐶𝑏
τ = = =
ⱴ −𝑟𝐴 −𝑟𝐵

Hence the volumetric flow rate into and out of the reactor, is

𝑉(−𝑟𝐴) 𝑉(−𝑟𝐵)
ⱴ = 𝐶𝑎𝑜−𝐶𝑎 = 𝐶𝑏𝑜−𝐶𝑏

(120 𝑙𝑖𝑡𝑒𝑟𝑠)(0.04 𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑒/(𝑙𝑖𝑡𝑒𝑟)(min)) 𝑙𝑖𝑡𝑒𝑟𝑠


= 𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑒 =8
(0.6 ) 𝑚𝑖𝑛
𝑙𝑖𝑡𝑒𝑟

97
or 4 liters/min of each of the two feed streams.

Ans. 4 liters/min of each of the two feed streams.

12. rA = 0.05 CA2


1 mol/L
2L

2L

0.5 mol/L
2 1−Ca
=
Vo 0.05 Ca2
2 Ca−0.5 Ca−0.5
= ;
Vo 0.05 (0.5)2 1/80

2 Ca−0.5 1
= = 40 Vo = Ca - 0.5
Vo 1/80
1
+ 0.5 = Ca
40 𝑉𝑜
1
2 1− 40 Vo + 0.5
Vo
= 1 2 = Vo = 0.1416 L/sec or 8.4935 L/min
0.05 ( + 0.5)
40 Vo
Ans. 8.4935 L/min
13.

1mol/L

2L
0.5 mol/L

2L 0.5 mol/L

98
𝑉 𝐶𝑎𝑜−𝐶𝑎
= ; -rA = 0.05CA2
𝑉𝑜 −𝑟𝐴

𝑉 𝐶𝑎𝑜−𝐶𝑎 4 1−0.05
= 2  =
𝑉𝑜 0.05Ca 𝑉𝑜 0.05(0.5)2

𝑽𝒐 = 0.1 L/sec or 6 L/min


Ans. 6 L/min
14.

𝐶𝑎𝑜 𝑑𝐶𝑎
τ = Cao ∫𝐶𝑎
−𝑟𝐴
1 𝑑𝐶𝑎 4
τ = ∫0.5 ; τ = 20  𝑉𝑜 = 20
0.05𝐶𝑎2

Vo = 0.2 L/sec or 12 L/min


Ans. 12 L/min
2 1−0.5
15. = = 0.05
𝑉𝑜 0.05(0.52 )

2 1 𝑑𝐶𝑎
= ∫0.5 0.05𝐶𝑎2
𝑉𝑜
2 1 0.5
= ∫0.5 = 0.1
𝑉𝑜 0.05(0.5)2

Vo = 0.05 + 0.1 = 0.15(60)


Vo = 9 L/min
Ans. 9 L/min
𝐶𝑎𝑜−𝐶𝑎
16. For second order reaction: kτ =
𝐶𝑎2
; so for the two reactors
𝑉2 kτ2 (𝐶𝑎1−𝐶𝑎2)/𝐶𝑎2 2 (0.5−𝐶𝑎2)/𝐶𝑎2 2
=2= = 2 = or
𝑉1 kτ2 (𝐶𝑎𝑜−𝐶𝑎1)/𝐶𝑎1 (1−0.5)/0.52

4CA22 = 0.5 – CA2 ; CA2 = 0.25 mol/L


Ans. 0.25 mol/L

99
17. For the second order reaction
(𝐶𝑎𝑜−𝐶𝑎1 ) 4−1
For the mixed flow reactor: kτm = 2 = =3
𝐶𝑎1 1

For the plug flow reactor: kτp = 3 kτm = 9


𝐶𝑎2 1 1
And = 1+ kτp 𝐶𝑎 = 1+9(1) = 0.1
𝐶𝑎1 1

CA2 = 0.1CA1 = 0.1 mol/L


Ans. 0.1 mol/L
𝑦1−𝑚𝑥2 1 1
ln[(𝑦2−𝑚𝑥2)(1−𝐴)+𝐴]
20. N =
𝑙𝑛𝐴
1 1
ln[(5)(1− )+ ]
1.25 1.25
N=
𝑙𝑛1.25
N = 2.63
Ans. 2.63
21. m=2 , L=20 mol/s
A = L/mV
1.25 = (20mol/s)/2V
V = 8 mol/s
Ans. 8 mol/s
23. Initial moisture content =77% wet basis
Critical moisture content =30% wet basis
Drying rate for constant rate period =0.1 kg H2O/(m2 s)
Product size cube with 5-cm sides
Initial product density = 950 kg/m3

Approach
The time for constant-rate drying will depend on mass of water removed and the rate
of water removal. Mass of water removed must be expressed on dry basis, and rate of
water removal must account for product surface area.

The initial moisture content is 0.77 kg H2O/kg product= 3.35 kg H2O/kg solids X=1/(1-
X)
1-0.77 kg H2O/kg product = .23 kg solid/kg product
The critical moisture content is 0.3 kg H2O/kg product= 0.43 kg H2O/kg solids

100
The amount of moisture to be removed from product during constant-rate drying will
be
3.35 – 0.43 = 2.92 kg H2O/kg solids
The surface area of the product during drying will be
0.05 m x 0.05 m =2.5 x 10-3 m2/side
2.5 x 10-3 x 6 sides = 0.015 m2
The drying rate becomes
0.1 kgH2O/(m2s)x0.015m2 = 1.5x10-3 kgH2O/s
Using the product density, the initial product mass can be established.
950 kg/m3x(0.05)3m3 = 0.11875 kg product
0.11875 kg product x 0.23 kg solid/kg product = 0.0273 kg solid
The total amount of water to be removed becomes
2.92 kgH2O/kg solids x 0.0273 kg solids = 0.07975 kg H2O
Using the drying rate, the time for constant-rate drying becomes
0.07975 kg H2O
= 53.2 s
1.5x10−3 kgH2O/s

Ans. 53.2 s
24. Using the Psychrometric chart from HB
W1 = 0.0186 kgH2O/kg dry air (using 30degC and 70% RH)
W2 = 0.0094 kgH2O/kg dry air (using 54degC and 10% RH)
(ṁa /ṁp)(0.0094 kgH2O/kg dry air) + 2.125 kgH2O/kg solids = (ṁa /ṁp)(0.0186
kgH2O/kg dry air) + 0.0582 kgH2O/kg solids
0.0092(ṁa /ṁp) = 2.067
(ṁa /ṁp) = 224.65 kg dry air/ kg solids
Ans. 224.65 kg dry air/ kg solids

101
SEPARATION PROCESS

1. In binary distillation, the separation of the components is easier if the relative


volatility (α) is ______.
a. α >>1
b. α <<1
c. α =1
d. none of these

2. In a binary distillation column, if the feed contains 40% mole vapour, the q line
will have a slope of ______. (solution required)
a. 1.5
b. -0.6
c. -1.5
d. 0.6

3. For a fixed number of ideal stages in a distillation column, as the reflux ratio is
increased, the difference in composition between the top and the bottom product
streams _____.
a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. Remains unaffected
d. Passes through a maximum

4. In distillation column design, the McCabe-Thiele procedure is inadequate and a


Ponchon-Savarit procedure is needed when______.
a. Saturated feed is not used
b. An azeotrope forms
c. The latent heats of vapourization of the more and less volatile components are
greatly different
d. A total condenser is used

5. What is the boiling point of benzene-toluene mixture under atmospheric pressure if


the mixture contains 0.682 mole fraction toluene?
a. 100 degC
b. 95 degC
c. 89 degC
d. 98 degC

6. In the above question, when the resulting vapor ids condensed, the liquid
composition contains how much benzene (mole fraction)?

102
a. 0.532
b. 0.83
c. 0.425
d. 0.18

7. In vacuum distillation, substance boils at ____.


a. Its exact temperature
b. Temperature slightly above its normal boiling point
c. A temperature below its normal boiling point
d. Under high pressure

8. Calculate the vapor pressure of a solution of 74g benzene in 48.8g toluene at 25


degC.
a. 9.5 kPa
b. 8.5 kPa
c. 6.5 kPa
d. 10.5 kPa

9. Calculate the relative volatility of the above solution.


a. 4.02
b. 3.35
c. 6.9
d. 11.16

10. The estimated minimum number of stages for a binary distillation system with
relative volatility of 2.35, having the lighter component at 0.98 in the distillate and
0.045 in the bottoms is _____.
a. 9
b. 6
c. 7
d. 5

11. A filtration is carried out for 10 minutes at a constant rate in a leaf filter and
thereafter it is continued at constant pressure. This pressure is attained at the end of
the constant rate period. If one quarter of the total volume of the filtrate is collected
during the constant rate period, what is the total filtration rate time? Assume the
cake is incompressible and the filter medium resistance is negligible.
a. 80 min
b. 85 min
c. 95 min
d. 60 min

12. What is the fraction of the volume of voids over the total volume of the filter cake?

103
a. Permeability
b. Filterability
c. Sedimentation factor
d. Porosity

13. Volume of the filtrate collected is 1 gal when the filtration rate is 1.5gpm and it is
5 gal when the filtration rate is 0.6gpm. Calculate the volume collected when the
filtration rate is 0.55 gpm. Assume constant-pressure filtration.
a. 3.67
b. 4.22
c. 5.59
d. 5.18

14. In the problem above, what is the total volume of the filtrate collected in 15 min?
a. 4.45
b. 6.96
c. 10.85
d. 5.73

15. A plate and frame press delivers 50 liters of filtrate in an hour at constant pressure
of 50 psig. The washing time using 50 L of wash water is _____.
a. 1h
b. 2.5h
c. 4h
d. 3h

16. Calculate the sphericity of a cylinder of diameter 1cmand height 3 cm.


a. 0.779
b. 0.705
c. 0.755
d. 0.80

17. Find the sphericity of a cube of Vp=a3, Ap= 6a2 and c= a3.
a. 0.790
b. 0.830
c. 0.853
d. 0.806

18. Which of the following is not an example of adsorption?


a. Recovery and separation of pharmaceuticals
b. Purification and recovery processes for gases and liquids
c. Activated carbon-based applications
d. Nitrogen from air by PSA using carbon molecular sieve

104
19. What is false about sedimentation of particles in a concentrated suspension?
a. If a significant size range of particles is present, the large particles are settling
to a suspension of smaller ones so that the effective density and viscosity of the
fluid are increased.
b. The upward velocity of the fluid displaced during settling is appreciable in a
concentrated suspension.
c. The apparent settling velocity is more than the actual velocity to the fluid.
d. The velocity gradients in the fluid close to the particles are increased as a result
of the change in the area and shape of the flow spaces.

20. Square plates with 0.0123 cm thickness and 0.0645 square cm are randomly falling
through a liquid with a density of 55 lb/ft3 with a μ=15 centipoise. The SG of plates
is 3.0, what is its settling velocity?
a. 5.5cm/s
b. 7.2 cm/s
c. 3.9 cm/s
d. 6.8 cm/s

21. How many “g” can be obtained in a centrifuge which can spin a liquid at 2000
rev/min at a maximum radius of 10 cm?
a. 440
b. 450
c. 460
d. 470

22. A particle “A” of diameter 10 microns settles in an oil of SG 0.9 and viscosity of
10 poise under Stokes Law. A particle “B” with diameter 20 microns settling in the
same oil will have a settling velocity of _____.
a. Same as that of A
b. ¼ as that of A
c. Twice as that of A
d. Four times as that of A

23. The US Standard Sieve series is equivalent to a 24 mesh Tyler Standard is _____
microns.
a. 600
b. 100
c. 805
d. 707

24. A random handful of silica particles ranging in size from 28 mesh to 200 mesh is
thrown to a very deep body of water (without tides or turbulence).

105
Data: Viscosity of water= 0.01 poise mesh= 0.0589 cm
3
Density of silica= 2.65 g/cm 200 mesh= 0.0074 cm
The distance between the largest and the smallest particles after 10 min is _____.
a. 4700 cm
b. 4900 cm
c. 5000 cm
d. 4000 cm

25. An available crusher has been accepting hard rock with a volume surface mean
diameter of 0.069 m and providing a product with a surface mean diameter of 5x10 -
3
m. The power required for crushing 10000 kg/h of this specified rock is 6.35 kW.
Assume that the mechanical efficiency of the unit will remain unchanged. The
power consumption if the capacity were reduced to 9000 kg/h with the same feed
characteristics but with a reduction in the volume surface mean diameter of the
product is 4 x10-3 m.
a. 7.35 kW
b. 7.00 kW
c. 6.64 kW
d. 8.64 kW

26. What will be the power required for the same feed at 100 tons/hr to be crushed to a
product such that 80% is to passed through a 1.6 mm screen?
a. 280 kW
b. 260 kW
c. 270 kW
d. 290 kW

27. For low-porosity cakes, if the fraction of solute remaining is 0.3, the corresponding
wash ratio is _____.
a. 1.90
b. 0.75
c. 0.98
d. None

28. What filter media should be used when high resistance to oxidizing agents and high
breaking tenacity are both required?
a. Fluorocarbon
b. Nylon
c. Glass
d. Acetate

29. Separation process depends on the differences in a particular property of the


components of the mixture for fractional distillation, it is the difference in 1) _____
106
for gas absorption, it is the difference in the 2) _____ in a solubility adsorbent and
for liquid-liquid extraction it is based on the 3) _____ of a particular component in
an immiscible solvent.
a. 1) volatility 2) solubility 3) solubility
b. 1) selectivity 2) diffusivity 3) volatility
c. 1) volatility 2) diffusivity 3) solubility
d. 1) selectivity 2) volatility 3) solubility

30. Calculate the equilibrium composition of the liquid and the vapour phases for the
mixture of methyl alcohol in water at a temperature of 50 C and under a pressure
of 40 kPa. Assume that both the liquid and the vapour behave ideally. At 50 C, the
vapour pressure of methyl alcohol is 53.32 kPa and that of water is 12.33 kPa.
a. Liquid 65.5% methyl alcohol; Vapour 85.95% methyl alcohol
b. Liquid 67.5% methyl alcohol; Vapour 89.98% methyl alcohol
c. Liquid 57.5% methyl alcohol; Vapour 79.80% methyl alcohol
d. Liquid 47.5% methyl alcohol; Vapour 69.16% methyl alcohol

107
ANSWER KEY

Separation Process

1. A. α >>1
2. C. -1.5
3. A. Increases
4. D. A total condenser is used
5. D. 98oC
6. A. 0.532
7. C. A temperature below its normal boiling point
8. A. 9.5 kPa
9. B. 3.35
10. A. 9
11. B. 85 min
12. D. Porosity
13. C. 5.59
14. B. 6.96
15. C. 4h
16. A. 0.779
17. D. 0.806
18. A. Recovery and separation of pharmaceuticals
19. C. The apparent settling velocity is more than the actual velocity to the fluid
20. B. 7.2 cm/s
21. B. 450
22. D. Four times as that of A
23. D. 707
24. A. 4700 cm
25. C. 6.64 kW
26. A. 280 kW
27. B. 0.75
28. C. Glass
29. A. 1) volatility 2) solubility 3) solubility
30. B. Liquid 67.5% methyl alcohol; Vapour 89.98% methyl alcohol

108
SOLUTIONS

2. 𝑦 = 𝑚𝑥 + 𝑏
𝑞 1
𝑦=− 𝑥+ 𝑥𝐹
1−𝑞 1−𝑞
𝑞 0.6
𝑚 = − 1−𝑞 = − 1−0.6
𝑚 = −1.5 Answer: -1.5

5.
𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝑓𝑟𝑎𝑐𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛 𝑏𝑒𝑛𝑧𝑒𝑛𝑒 = 1 − 0.682 = 0.318

98

Answer: 98 degC
6.

109
0.532 Answer: 0.532

74 𝑔
8. 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝐶6𝐻6 = 𝑔 = 0.94734 𝑚𝑜𝑙
78.1134
𝑚𝑜𝑙
48.8 𝑔
𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝐶8𝐻10 = 𝑔 = 0.52963 𝑚𝑜𝑙
92.1402
𝑚𝑜𝑙
0.94734
𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑒 𝑓𝑟𝑎𝑐𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛 𝐶6𝐻6 = = 0.6414
0.94734+0.52963
0.52963
𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑒 𝑓𝑟𝑎𝑐𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛 𝐶8𝐻10 = = 0.3586
0.94734+0.52963
𝑃𝑡𝑜𝑡𝑎𝑙 = ((𝑃°)(𝑥))𝐶6𝐻6 + ((𝑃°)(𝑥))𝐶8𝐻10
𝑃𝑡𝑜𝑡𝑎𝑙 = 95.1(0.6414) + (28.4)(0.3586)
𝑃𝑡𝑜𝑡𝑎𝑙 = 71.2𝑡𝑜𝑟𝑟 = 9492.5526 𝑃𝑎 = 9.5 𝑘𝑃𝑎
Answer: 9.5 kPa

𝑃𝐴 𝑥𝐵
9. 𝛼 (𝐴𝐵) = ( )
𝑥𝐴 𝑃𝐵
𝑃𝐴 = 𝑥𝐴 (𝑃𝐴°) = (0.6414)(95.1) = 60.9971 𝑡𝑜𝑟𝑟
𝑃𝐵 = 𝑥𝐵 (𝑃𝐵 °) = (0.3586)(28.4) = 10.1842 𝑡𝑜𝑟𝑟
60.9971 0.3586
𝛼 (𝐴𝐵) = (10.1842)
0.6414
𝛼 (𝐴𝐵) = 3.3486
Answer: 3.3486

𝑋 𝑋
𝑙𝑜𝑔( 𝐿𝐷 )( 𝐿𝐵 )
𝑋𝐻𝐷 𝑋𝐻𝐵
10. 𝑁=
log(𝛼)
0.98 1−0.045
𝑙𝑜𝑔( )( )
1−0.98 0.045
𝑁= log(2.35)
𝑁 = 8.1306 = 9 𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑔𝑒𝑠
Answer: 9 stages
110
𝑑𝑄 2𝑉 2𝑉𝑓
11. = +
𝑑𝑉 𝐶 𝐶

where C is a function of DP and mean specific cake resistance (a).If filter medium
resistance is negligible, then Vf = 0.Now the equation can be written in the form,

𝑑𝑄 2𝑉 2𝑉
= =
𝑑𝑉 𝐶 𝐶2 (𝑑𝑃)

For constant rate filtration, dQ/dV = Constant = Q/V

Given: Q = 10 min for V = 0.25 Vt

Where Vt = total volume of filtrate (filtrate collected in constant rate operation and
constant pressure operation)

2𝑉 10 40
= =
𝐶2 (𝑑𝑃) 0.25 𝑉𝑡 𝑉𝑡

Constant Pressure filtration:

2
𝑑𝑄 = (𝑉𝑑𝑉)
0.0125 𝑉𝑡 2

80
𝑄𝑡 − 10 = (𝑉𝑡 2 − (0.25 𝑉𝑡)2 )
𝑉𝑡 2

80
𝑄𝑡 = 10 + (0.9375 𝑉𝑡 2 )
𝑉𝑡 2

Total filtration time (𝑄𝑡) = 10 + 75 = 85 minutes

Answer: 85 minutes

13. V= 1 gal, r= 1.5 gpm


𝑘
𝑟𝑓 =
2(𝑉+𝑉𝑐)
𝑘
1.5 = 2(1+𝑉𝑐)
3 + 3 𝑉𝑐 = 𝑘 equation 1

V= 5 gal, r= 0.6 gpm


𝑘
0.6 =
2(5+𝑉𝑐)

111
6 + 1.2 𝑉𝑐 = 𝑘 equation 2
Solve for Vc and k:
5
𝑉𝑐 = = 1.67 𝑔𝑎𝑙
3
𝑔𝑎𝑙2
𝑘=8 𝑚𝑖𝑛

V= ?, r= 0.55 gpm
8
0.55 = 2(𝑉+1.67)
𝑉 = 5.60 𝑔𝑎𝑙
Answer: 5.60 gal

14. @ t= 15 minutes V= ?gal


𝑉2 2𝑉𝑐𝑉
ɵ= +
𝑘 𝑘
𝑉2 2(1.67)(𝑉)
15 = +
8 8
𝑉 = 6.96 𝑔𝑎𝑙
Answer: 6.96 gal

15.
1 2
𝜋3 (6𝑉𝑝)3
16. 𝛹= diameter= 1 cm height= 3 cm
𝐴𝑝
1 2
𝜋3 (6𝜋(0.5)2(3))3
𝛹 = 2𝜋(0.5)(3)+2𝜋(0.5)2

𝛹 = 0.779
Answer: 0.779

1 2
𝜋3 (6𝑉𝑝)3
17. 𝛹= Vp = a3 Ap = 6a2
𝐴𝑝
1 2
𝜋3 (6𝑎3 )3
𝛹= 6𝑎2
1 2
𝜋3 (6)3
𝛹= 6
𝛹 = 0.8060
Answer: 0.806

21. 𝐹𝑐 = 0.011 𝑚𝑟𝑁 2


𝐹𝑔 = 𝑚𝑔
𝐹𝑐 0.011 𝑟𝑁 2
=
𝐹𝑔 𝑔

112
𝐹𝑐 0.011 (0.1)(2000)2
=
𝐹𝑔 9.81
𝐹𝑐
= 450
𝐹𝑔
Answer: 450

𝑃 1 1
25. = 0.3162𝐸( − ) T1= 10000 kg/hr= 10 tons/hr
𝑇 √𝑥1 √𝑥2
6.35 1 1
= 0.3162𝐸( − √5𝑥10=3 )
10 √0.069
𝐸 = −0.1943
𝑃 1 1
= 0.3162𝐸( − ) T2= 9000 kg/hr= 9 tons/hr
𝑇 √𝑥1 √𝑥2
𝑃 1 1
= 0.3162(−0.1943(( − √4𝑥10=3 )
9 √0.069
𝑃 = 6.6380 𝑘𝑊
Answer: 6.6380 kW
𝑃 1 1
26. = 0.3162𝐸( − ) T= 100 tons/hr
𝑇 √𝑥1 √𝑥2
𝑃 1 1
= 0.3162(−0.1943)( − √1.6𝑥10−3 )
100 √0.069
𝑃 = 130.2052 𝑘𝑊
Answer: 130.2052 kW

𝑃−𝑃𝐵
30. 𝐿𝑖𝑞𝑢𝑖𝑑: 𝑥𝐴 = 𝑃𝐴 −𝑃𝐵
40−12.33
𝑥𝐴 = 53.32−12.33
𝑥𝐴 = 0.6750
𝑥𝐴 = 0.6750 𝑥 100 = 67.50%
𝑥𝐴 𝑃𝐴
𝑉𝑎𝑝𝑜𝑢𝑟: 𝑦𝐴 = 𝑃
0.675(53.32)
𝑦𝐴 = 40
𝑦𝐴 = 0.8998𝑥 100 = 89.98%
Answer: Liquid 67.50%, Vapour 89.98%

113
FLUID FLOW AND THERMODYNAMICS

1. An ideal fluid is one that is


a. compressible c. incompressible and viscous
b. incompressible d. compressible and inviscid

2. The requirement by which the pressure of the liquid at the suction of the pump must
exceed the vapor pressure of the liquid to avoid cavitation of pump is
a. Net Positive Suction Head c. Cavitational Limit

c. Cavitation Head d. Suction Head


3. Orifice has the highest permanent pressure loss among all meters. Which of the
following increases the pressure drop across an orifice for a given flow rate?

a. Decrease in orifice flow area c. Both a and b


b. Decrease in orifice thickness d. Neither a nor b
4. Which of the following fittings exhibits the highest pressure drop for the same flow
conditions?
a. 90-degree long radius elbow c. 45-degree standard elbow
b. 90-degree standard elbow d. square-corner elbow

5. A dimensionless group that is used to analyze transport phenomena and shows the
ratio of interial forces to gravitational forces
a. Euler number b. Froude number

c. Newton number d. Reynolds number


6. The laminar flow regime can be characterized by
a. parabolic profile b. exponential profile

c. flat profile d. hyperbolic profile


7. Hydraulic radius is the ratio of
a. wetted perimeter to flow area c. flow area to wetted perimeter
b. flow area to square of wetted perimeter d. square root of flow area to wetted
perimeter

8. Which of the following factors does not contribute to the pressure drop in a pipeline

114
a. velocity of fluid c. length of pipe and number of bends
b. size of pipe d. none of these

9. It is a non-newtonian fluid which shoes an apparent viscosity that decreases with


increases rate of shear. Examples are solutions of high polymers, paper pulp, and
mayonnaise.

a. Thixotropic fluids b. dilatant fluids


c. rheopectic fluids d. pseudoplastic fluids
10. Ninety-eight percent sulfuric acid (viscosity = 25 x 10 -3 Ns/m2, density =
1840kg/m3) is pumped at 1.25kg/s through a 25mm diameter pipe, 30m long, to a
reservoir 12m higher than the feed point. Calculate the pressure drop in the pipeline.
Use mild steel pipe as the pipe.

a. 320kPa b.240kPa
c. 480kPa d. 560kPa
11. Natural gas which is essentially methane is being pumped through a 1.016m ID
wrought iron pipeline for a distance of 1.609 x 10 5 m at a rate of 2.077kmol/s. It
can be assumed that the line is isothermal at 288.8K. The pressure P2 at the
discharge end of the line is 170.3 x 10 3 Pa absolute. Calculate the pressure P1 at
the inlet of the line.
a. 694 x10 3 Pa b.680 x 10 3 Pa
c. 724 x 10 3 Pa d. 433 x 10 3 Pa
12. The rate of flow of water in a 150mm diameter pipe is measured with a venturi
meter with a 50mm diameter throat. When the pressure drop over the converging
section is 121mm of water, the flow rate is 2.91kg/s. What is the coefficient for the
converging cone of the meter at this flow rate?
a. 0.895 b. 0.598 c. 0.859 d. 0.985

13. Water flows 10ft/s through a pipe 1000ft long with a diameter of 1in the inlet
pressure P1 = 200psig, and the exit section is 100ft higher than the inlet. What is
the exit pressure P2 if the friction head loss is 350ft?

a. 15psig b. 5psig c. 8psig d. 1psig


14. Six thousand liters per second (6000L/s) of waer at 320K is pumped in a 40mm
inside diameter pipe through a length of 150m in a horizontal direction and up
through a vertical height of 10m. In the pipe there is a control valve which may be
taken as equivalent to 200 pipe diameters and other pipe fittings equivalents to 60

115
pipe diameters. Also in the line there is a heat exchanger across which there is a
loss in head of 1.5m of water. If the main pipe has a roughness of 0.0002m, what
power must be delivered to the pump of the unit is 60% efficient?
a. 218W b.128W c. 521W d. 512W
15. A centrifugal pump is to be used to extract water from a condenser in which the
vacuum is 640mmHg. At the rated discharge, the net positive suction head must be
at least 3 above the cavitation vapor pressure of 710mmHg vacuum. If losses in the
suction pipe account for a head of 1.5m, what must be the least height of the liquid
level in the condenser above the pump inlet?
a. 3.55m b.5.33m c. 1.77m d. 7.17m
16. For an isothermal process the internal energy of a gas

a. Increases b. decreases
c. remains unchanged d. data insufficient can’t be predicted
17. During Joule-Thomson expansion of gases

a. enthalpy remains constant c. temperature remains constant


b. entropy remains constant d. none of these
18. Which of the following is not a intensive property

a. Volume b. Density c. Temperature d. Pressure


19. Entropy of an ideal gas depends upon its
a. pressure b. temperature c. both (a) & (b) d. neither (a) nor (b)
20. Coefficient of Performance (COP) of refrigerator is the ratio of
a. work required to refrigeration obtained

b. refrigeration obtained to the work obtained


c. lower to higher temperature
d. higher to lower temperature

21. 21.Work in the amount of 12kJ is done on a closed system, and its internal energy
decreases by 25kJ. How much heat is removed from the system?
a. 12 kJ b. 20 kJ c. 13 kJ d. 37 kJ

22. An ideal gas with CV = (7/2)R enters a process at 300K and 2 bar and leaves the
process at 600K and 9 bar. Calculate its entropy change.

116
a. 5.4 J/mol-K b. 8.4 J/mol-K
c. 10.4 J/mol-K d. 13.4 J/mol-K

23. Calculate the work necessary to compress air in an insulated cylinder from a volume
of 6 ft 3 to a volume of 1.2 ft 3. The initial temperature and pressure are 50⁰F and
30psia, respectively.

a. -99BTU b. -44BTU c. -120BTU d. -75BTU


24. Saturated steam at 630K is throttled to a pressure of 15bar. What is the quality of
the stea after the throttling process?

a. 0.947 b. 0.856 c. 0.744 d. 0.687


25. Wet steam at 400K has an enthalpy of 39kJ/mol. What is the quality of the steam?
a. 0.589 b. 0.655 c. 0.748 d. 0.875

26. Two Carnot engines operate in series between two reservoirs maintained at 600⁰F
and 100⁰F respectively. The energy rejected by the first engine is input into the
second engine. If the first engine’s efficiency is 20% greater than the second
engine’s efficiency, calculate the intermediate temperature.

a. 744⁰F b. 285⁰F c. 352⁰F d. 671⁰F

27. A refrigerator with a power consumption of 1.8KW has a refrigeration rate of 4KW.
If heat is rejected from the condenser at 40⁰C, what is the lowest possible
temperature that the refrigerator can maintain?

a. -8.5⁰C b. -30.2⁰C c. -57.2⁰C d. -64.1⁰C

28. Nitrogen gas expands adiabatically from 9 bar and 100⁰C to 2 bar, at a flowrate of
100mol/s. If the turbine efficiency is 0.80, calculate the power output of the turbine.
Assume that nitrogen is an ideal gas with Cp = (7/2)R.
a. 504kW b.630kW c. 379kW d. 303kW

29. Nitrogen gas enters a nozzle at 1000kPa and 200⁰C with a negligible initial velocity
and discharges at a pressure of 500kPa. Assuming isentropic expansion of the
nitrogen in the nozzle, determine the exit velocity. Assume nitrogen to be ideal gas
with Cp = (7/2)R.

a. 225m/s b.940m/s c. 550m/s d. 420m/s

30. Water at 200⁰F is pumped from a storage tank at the rate of 50gpm. The motor for
the pump supplies work at the rate of 2hp. The water goes through a heat exchanger,
giving up heat at the rate of 40000BTU/min and is delivered to a second storage

117
tank at an elevation 50ft above the second tank. What is the temperature of water
delivered to the second tank?

a. 101.75⁰F b. 110.74⁰F c. 118.9⁰F d. 104.27⁰F

ANSWER KEY

Fluid Flow and Thermodynamics


1. D. Incompressible & Inviscid
2. A. Net Positive Suction Head
3. C. Both a & b
4. D. Square-corner elbow
5. B. Froude Number
6. A. Parabolic profile
7. C. Flow area to wetted perimeter
8. D. None of these
9. D. Pseudo plastic fluids
10. A. 320kPa
11. B. 680 x 10 ^ 3 Pa
12. D. 0.985
13. B. 5 psig
14. B. 128 W
15. A. 3.55m
16. C. remains unchanged
17. A. Enthalpy remains constant
18. A. Volume
19. C. both (a) & (b)
20. B. Refrigeration obtained to the work required
21. D. 37kJ
22. D. 13.4 J/mol-K
23. D. -75BTU
24. B. 0.856
25. C. 0.748
26. B. 285⁰F
27. B. -30.2⁰C
28. D. 303kW
29. D. 420 m/s
30. A. 101.75⁰F

118
SOLUTIONS
2𝑓𝑣²𝐿𝜌
10. ∆𝑃 = 𝐷

𝐷𝑣𝜌
𝑁𝑅𝑒 =
𝜇
𝜋
𝐴𝑟𝑒𝑎 = (0.025)2 = 4.91 𝑥 10−4 𝑚2
4

𝑚 1.25𝑘𝑔/𝑠
𝑉𝑜𝑙 = = = 6.7934 𝑥 10−4 𝑚3 /𝑠
𝜌 1840 𝑘𝑔/𝑚3

𝑣𝑜𝑙𝑢𝑚𝑒 6.7934 𝑥 10−4 𝑚3 /𝑠


𝑉𝑒𝑙𝑜𝑐𝑖𝑡𝑦 = = = 1.38360𝑚/𝑠
𝑎𝑟𝑒𝑎 4.91 𝑥 10−4 𝑚2
1.38360𝑚 𝑘𝑔
𝐷𝑣𝜌 (0.025)( )(1840 3 )
𝑠 𝑚
𝑁𝑅𝑒 = = = 2545.824
𝜇 25𝑥 10−3 𝑃𝑎−𝑠

0.079 0.079
𝑓= 0.25 = 0.25 = .0111
𝑁𝑅𝑒 2545.824
1.38360𝑚 𝑘𝑔
2𝑓𝑣²𝐿𝜌 2(.0111)( 𝑠 )²(30𝑚)(1840 3 )
𝑚 = 93836.79 𝑃𝑎
∆𝑃 = =
𝐷 0.025𝑚

𝑃 = 93836.79 𝑃𝑎 + (9.81)(1840)(12𝑚) = 𝟑𝟏𝟎𝟒𝟒𝟏. 𝟓𝟗𝑷𝒂

11.
𝑘𝑚𝑜𝑙 16 𝑘𝑔
2.077 𝑠 ( )
𝐺= 𝑘𝑚𝑜𝑙 = 40.99
𝜋
4 (1.016𝑚)²
𝐷𝐺 1.016 (40.99)
𝑁𝑅𝑒 = = = 3820719.266
𝜇 1.09 𝑥 10−5
0.9
1 . 27(4.57𝑥10−5 7
= −4 log( +( ) )
√𝑓 1.016 3820719.266

𝑓 = 2.8042 𝑥 10−3

119
𝑅𝑇 4𝑓𝐿 𝑃1
𝑃1 2 − 𝑃2 2 = 𝐺 2 ( + 2𝑙𝑛 )
𝑀𝑊 𝐷 𝑃2

𝑃1 2 − (170.3 𝑥 103 )2
8.314(288.8) 4(2.8042 𝑥 10−3 )(1.609𝑥105
= 40.992 (
16/1000 1.016
𝑃1
+ 2𝑙𝑛 )
170.3 𝑥 103
𝑃1 = 𝟔𝟕𝟒, 𝟐𝟓𝟖. 𝟔𝟐𝟒𝟐 𝑷𝒂

12.
C = 0.98 is commonly used for 𝑁𝑅𝑒 > 10,000

𝑃1−𝑃2
15.𝑁𝑃𝑆𝐻 = + ∆𝑧 − ℎ𝑓
𝑔𝜌

P1 = 640 mmHg = 15998.6842 Pa

P2 = 710 mmHg = 6666.1184 Pa


15998.6842 − 6666.1184
3𝑚 = + ∆𝑧 − 1.5
(999)(9.81)

∆𝑧 = 𝟑. 𝟓𝟓𝒎

21. ∆𝑈 = 𝑄 − 𝑊

−25 = 12 − 𝑊

𝑊 = 37kJ

𝑇2 𝑃1
22.∆𝑆 = 𝑛𝐶𝑝 ln 𝑇1 + 𝑛𝑅𝑙𝑛 𝑃2

9 600 2
∆𝑆 = (8.3145) ln + 8.3145𝑙𝑛
2 300 9
𝑱
∆𝑆 = 𝟏𝟑. 𝟒𝟑
𝒎𝒐𝒍 𝑲

120
23. 𝑄 = ∆𝑈 + 𝑊

0 = ∆𝑈 + 𝑊

∆𝑈 = −𝑊

−𝑊 = 𝑚𝐶𝑣 ∆𝑇
𝑉1 1.4−1
𝑇2 = 𝑇1 ( )
𝑉2
0.17 1.4−1
𝑇2 = 283.15 ( )
0.0340
𝑇2 = 539.0196 𝐾
𝑊 0.717𝐾𝐽 𝐾𝐽
− =( ) (539.0196 − 283.15)𝐾 = −183.4585 = −𝟕𝟖. 𝟖𝟕 𝑩𝑻𝑼
𝑚 𝑘𝑔 − 𝐾 𝑘𝑔

24. @ 630𝐾 = 5.10525

@ 15 𝑏𝑎𝑟

𝑆𝑓 = 3.697023125

𝑆𝑓𝑔 = 3.697023125

5.10525 = 3.697023125 + 3.697023125𝑥


X = 0.88

26.
𝑇1 − 𝑇2 𝑊
𝑛1 = =
𝑇1 𝑄2 + 𝑊
𝑇2 − 𝑇3 𝑊
𝑛2 = =
𝑇2 𝑄3 + 𝑊
𝑇1 − 𝑇2 = 𝑇2 − 𝑇3

600 − 𝑇2 = 𝑇2 − 100

𝑇2 = 350 ∗ .80 = 𝟐𝟖𝟎⁰𝑭

121
27.
4 40
= 1−
1.8 𝑥
x = -32.72 ⁰C

28.
𝑃2 1.4−1
𝑇2 = 𝑇1 ( ) 1.4
𝑃1

2 1.4−1
𝑇2 = 373.15 ( ) 1.4
9
𝑇2 = 242.8014 𝐾

∆𝑈 = 𝑊 = 𝑚𝐶𝑝 ∆𝑇
7
𝑊 = (100) ( ) (8.314)(373.15 − 242.8014) = 379301.3911 𝑊 = 379.301 𝐾𝑊
2
𝑊 = 379.301 ∗ .80 = 𝟑𝟎𝟑. 𝟒𝟒𝟎𝟖 𝑲𝑾

29.

𝑉12 𝑉22
𝐻1 + = 𝐻2 +
2 2

1.4(𝑅)
𝑉2 = √𝑉12 + 2 (𝑇1 − 𝑇2)
1.4 − 1

500 1.4−1
𝑇2 = (200 + 273.15) ( ) 1.4
1000
𝑇2 = 388.1416 𝐾

R = 287 J/kg-K

1.4(287)
𝑉2 = √0 + 2 (473.15 − 388.1416)
1.4 − 1

𝑽𝟐 = 𝟒𝟏𝟑𝒎/𝒔

122
30.
Water @ 200F = 366.48 K

Z150ft = 15.24m
Density = 963.24 kg/m3
50 gpm = 3.15451 x 10 ^ -3 m3/s

𝑀𝑎𝑠𝑠 𝑓𝑙𝑜𝑤 𝑟𝑎𝑡𝑒 = 3.15451 x 10−3 (963.24) = 3.0386 kg/s

PUMP : 2hp = 1492Watts


1
𝑊 = 1492 W ( ) = 491.02J /kg
3.0386 kg/s
HEAT EXCHANGER: -40000 BTU/min = -703370.8 Watts

1
𝑄 = −703370.8W ( ) = −231478.5757 J/kg
kg
3.0386 s

H1 @ 366.48K = 390 x 10 ^ 3 J/kg

𝑉22 − 𝑉12
𝐻2 − 𝐻1 + 𝑔∆𝑧 + =𝑄−𝑊
2
𝐻2 − 390 𝑥 103 + (9.81)(15.24) + 0 = −231478.5757 − (−491.02)
𝐽 158.8629𝐾𝐽
𝐻2 = 158862.9256 = = 2.8627 𝐾𝐽/𝑚𝑜𝑙
𝑘𝑔 𝑘𝑔

By interpolation

Enthaply Temp.
2.7810 310K
3.5340 320K

T = 311.08 K = 100.274⁰F

123
LEACHING AND LIQUID-LIQUID EXTRACTION

1. A counter current multiple contact extraction system is to treat 50 tons/hr of wet


beets with fresh water as the solvent. The beets have the following analysis:
Components Mass fraction
water 0.48
pulp 0.40
sugar 0.12
The strong solution leaving the system is to contain 0.15 mass fraction sugar, 97%
of the sugar in the sliced beets is to be recovered. Determine the number of
extraction cells required, assuming equilibrium between the underflow and
overflow in each cell.
If each ton of dry pulp retains 3 tons of solution.
If each ton of dry pulp retains 3 tons of water.

2. The oreobody of the Union Miniere du Haaut-Katanga in the Belgian Congo is


composed of malachite (CuCO3 Cu(OH)2) and gangue. Copper is extracted by
crushing the ore to – 20 mash., agitating with a diute solution of sulfuric acid,
followed by multiple-contact counter current washing to wash the gangue free of
the copper-bearing solution. The rich solution from the washing system is treated
for removal of dissolved iron and aluminum and then sent to the electroytic cells
for precipitation of the copper. The dilute acid solution from the cells is recycled to
the agitators for treatment of more raw ore.
The counter current washing operation uses Dorr thickeners for the recovery of the
rrich solution. The slurry from the agitators, with the copper in the solution as
copper sulphate, is fed to the thickeners at the rate of 300 tons per hour.
According to operating records, the underflow from each thickener retains 1.22 tons
of solution per ton of gangue,and the streams have the following compositions in
mass percent.

Underflow
Feed to Strong Leaving
Thickener, Solution System
% % mass %

CuSO4 6.10 6.69 1.0

Gangue 14.92 --- 99.0

Water 78.98 93.31 99.0

124
Determine the number of equilibrium stages.

3. Halibut oil is extracted from granulated halibut livers in a countercurrent multi-


batch arrangement using ether as the solvent. The solids charge contains 0.35 kg
oil/kg exhausted livers and it is desired to obtain a 90 per cent oil recovery. a). How
many theoretical stages are required if 50 kg ether is used/100 kg untreated solids?
The entrainment data are:
Concentration of overflow(kg oil/kg solution)
0 0.1 0.2 0.3 0.4 0.5 0.6 0.670
Entrainment (kg solution/kg extracted livers)
0.28 0.34 0.40 0.47 0.55 0.66 0.80 0.96

b. The mass of ether in the overflow


c. The mass of liver fed per 100 kg of untreated solids

4. 4. Coconut oil is to be produced from dry copra in two stages. First, through
expellers to squeeze out part of the coconut oil and then through a countercurrent
multistage extraction process. After expelling, the dry copra cake contains 20%
residual oil. In the extraction operation, 90% of the residual oil in the expeller cake
is extracted as a solution containing 50% by weights oil. If fresh solvent is used and
one kg of solution with every two kg of insoluble cake is removed with the
underflow, how many number of ideal stage is required?

5. 5. A plant produces 8640 tonnes per day (100 kg/s) of titanium dioxide pigment
which must be 99.9 per cent pure when dried. The pigment is produced by
precipitation and the material, as prepared, is contaminated with 1 kg of salt
solution, containing 0.55 kg of salt/kg of pigment. The material is washed
countercurrently with water in a number of thickeners arranged in series. How
many thickeners will be required if water is added at the rate of 17,400 tonnes per
day (200 kg/s) and the solid discharged from each thickener removes 0.5 kg of
solvent/kg of pigment? What will be the required number of thickeners if the
amount of solution removed in association with the pigment varies with the
concentration of the solution in the thickener, as follows? The concentrated wash
liquor is mixed with the material fed to the first thickener.

Concentration of solution Amount of solution removed


(kg solute/kg solution) (kg solution/kg pigment)

125
0 0.30
0.1 0.32
0.2 0.34
0.3 0.36
0.4 0.38
0.5 0.40

6. In a pilot scale test using a vessel 1 m3 in volume, a solute was leached from an
inert solid and the water was 75 per cent saturated in 100 s. If, in a full-scale unit,
500 kg of the inert solid containing, as before, 28 per cent by mass of the water-
soluble component, is agitated with 100 m3 of water, how long will it take for all
the solute to dissolve, assuming conditions are equivalent to those in the pilot scale
vessel? Water is saturated with the solute at a concentration of 2.5 kg/m3.

7. Seeds, containing 20 per cent by mass of oil, are extracted in a countercurrent plant,
and 90 percent of the oil is recovered in a solution containing 50 per cent by mass
of oil. If the seeds are extracted with fresh solvent and 1 kg of solution is removed
in the underflow in association with every 2 kg of insoluble matter, a). what is the
mass fraction of insoluble material in the underflow ? b). how many ideal stages
are required?

8. It is desired to reduce the concentration of pyridine in 500 kg of aqueous solution


from 20% w to 5% w in a single batch extraction using chloro-benzene as solvent.
Equilibrium compositions (end points of the tie line ) in terms of weight percent of
pyridine – water-chlorobenzene are (5, 95, 0) and (11, 0, 80)
a. The amount of raffinate is ___.
b. The amount of pure solvent required for the extractions is ____.

9. It is desired to extract acetone from a feed containing acetone and water, using
chloroform as the solvent, in two cross current extraction stage as shown below.
Assume that water and chloroform are immiscible. The ffg. are given for the
process. The feed is equimolar mixture of acetone and water. The quantities of
chloroform used in 2 stages are equal. 60mole % of the acetone in the feed is
extracted in stage I. The extract and raffinate phases existing from each stage are in
equilibrium. The equilibrium relation for the distribution of acetone is given by:
(moles of acetone in water rich phase)/ (moles of water in water rich phase) = 2.0
x (moles of acetone in chloroform rich phase)/ (moles of chloroform in chloroform
rich phase)
a. Determine the quantity of chloroform used in each per mole of feed.
b. Determine the mole fraction of acetone (product) after stage I

126
c. Determine the mole fraction of acetone (final product)

10. A feed containing a solute is contacted with a solvent (S) in an ideal stage as shown
in the diagram below. Only the solute transfers into the solvent. The flow rates of
all the streams are shown on a solute free basis and indicated by the subscript S.
The compositions of the streams are expressed on a mole ratio basis. The extract
leaving the contactor is divided into two equal parts, one part collected as the
product (P) and the other stream is recycled to join the solvent. The equilibrium
relationship is Y* = 2X.
a. The product flow rate (Ps)
b. The composition (Y out)
c. The composition of raffinate (X out)

ANSWER KEY

Leaching and Liquid-Liquid Extraction

1.) a.) 16 extraxtion cells


b.) 17 extraction cells
2.) 4 stages
3.) a.) 3 stages
b.) 27.33 kg ether
4.) 5 stages
5.) 4.36 𝑥 5 thickeners
6.) 98.70 mins
7.) a.) 0.66 inert
b.) 5 stages
8.) 421.05 kg raffinate
638.76 kg pure solvent
9.) 1.50 mol Chloroform
0.29 acetone
10.) a.) 100 mol/s
b.) 0.22
c.) 0.11

127
SOLUTIONS:
1. Required: No. of Exraction Cells

Water
97 % r V2 Vn+1
0.15 sugar Y2 Yn+1

Lo = 50 tons/hr L1 Ln
0.048 water X1 Xn = 0.03x1
0.40 pulp
0.12 sugar

3 ton soln tons


Ln = Lsoln = 50(0.4 pulp) ∗ = 60
dry pulp hr
0.03(50 (0.12 sugar))
Xn = = 0.003
60
0.97 (0.12 (50))
Y1 = 0.15 =
V1
V1 = 38.8 tons /hr

Solution Balance: Lo + Vn+1 = Ln + V1


(50-0.4(50)) + Vn+1 = 60 + 38.8
Vn+1 = 68.8 tons/hr

X1 = Y1 = 0.15
Vn+1 (Y2 – Yn+1) = Ln ( X1-Xn)

68.8 (Y2-0) = 60 (0.15-0.003)


Y2 = 0.1282

128
a.
0.15 − 0.1292
log
N= 0.003 + 1 = 15.49
0.15 − 0.003
log 0.1282

N = 16 extraction cells

b.
3 tons water
If R = dry pulp

Ln = 60 tons/ hr
V1 = 38.8 tons/hr

Solution Balance: 50 (0.6) + Vn+1 = 60 +32.98


Vn+1 = 62.98

X1 = 0.1764 , Xn = 0.003

60
𝑌2 = (0.1764 − 0.003) = 0.150888
62.98

0.1764 − 0.150888
log
N= 0.003 +1
0.1764 − 0.003
log 0.150888

N = 16.39 = 17 extraction cells

2. Required: Number of stages

Vo
6.69% CuSo4 Vn
93.31 % Water Water

Lo = 300 tons/ hr
6.10% CusSo4
14.92 Gangue
78.98% Water

129
Ln
R = 1.22 tons of solution / 1% CuSO4
tons gangue 99% Water +
Gangue

In Lo: Gangue = 0.1492 (300 tons/hr)


= 44.76 tons/ hr
CuSO4 + Water at Ln = 1.22 tons of sol’n / tons gangue ( 44.76 tons / hr)
= 54.6072 tons of sol’n / hr
CuSO4 Balance: (0.0610) (300 tons/hr) = 0.01 Ln + 0.01 Ln + 0.0669Vo
Water Balance: (0.7898) (300 tons /hr) = WaterLn + 0.9331Vo – Vn
Vn = 58.0567
Gangue Balance: 0.1492 (300 tons/hr) = GangueLn
GangueLn = 44.76 tons/hr

In Ln:
GangueLn + WaterLn
0.99 =
Gangue Ln + WaterLn + CuSO4Ln
44.76 + 54.6072 − CuSO4Ln
0.99 =
44.76 + 54.6072 − CuSO4Ln + CuSO4Ln
CuSO4Ln = 0.993672 tons/hr = 0.01Ln ; Ln = 99.33672 tons/hr
CuSO4 Balance : 0.0610 (300 tons/hr) = 0.993672 tons/hr + 0.0669Vo
Vo = 258.6895 tons/hr
Ya = 0.993672 / 54.6072 = 0.0182
Yb* = (54.6072 / 58.0567) (0.0669 – 0.0182)) = 0.0458
0.0669 − 0.0458
ln
𝑁−1= 0.0182
0.0669 − 0.0182
ln 0.0458
N = 3.41 = 4 stages

130
3. Required: Number of stages , mass of ether at overflow

r = 90%
Y1
23.33 kg oil 50 = Vn+1
50-e kg ether Y2 Yn+1 = 0

100 kg X1
74 kg live Ln
26 kg oil Yn
e(ether)

Solution:
Ratio
Overflow Concentration Entrainment
Oil Ether

0 0.28 0 0.280

0.1 0.34 0.034 0.306

0.2 0.40 0.080 0.320

0.3 0.47 0.141 0.329

0.4 0.55 0.220 0.330

0.5 0.66 0.330 0.330

0.6 0.80 0.480 0.320

0.670 0.96 0.643 0.317

Basis: 100 kg untreated solids


Mass of livers fed (1+0.35) = 100
M livers fed = 74.0741 kg exhausted liver
100 – 74.0741 = 25.9259 kg oil

131
b. M ether underflow = 0.306 kg ether / kg ex liver (74.0741 kg ex liver) = 26.67 kg
ether
M ether overflow = 50 – 22.67 = 27.33 kg ether
X1 = Y1 = 23.33 kg oil / 27.33 kg ether = 0.8536
Xn = 2.5926 kg oil / 22. 67 kg ether underflow = 0.1144
Ln (X1 – Xn ) = Vn+1 ( Y2 – Yn+1)
22.67 (0.8536 – 0.1144 ) = 50(Y2 – 0)
Y2 = 0.3352

a. No. of Stages
0.8536 − 0.3352
log
𝑁−1= 0.1144 − 0
0.8536 − 0.1144
log 0.3352 − 0

N = 2.91 = 3 stages

4. Required : Number of Stages

V1
Vn+1
y1=0.50 y2
Yn+1 = 0

Ln
1 kg sol’n / kg solids
Lo x1
Xn
Xo = 0.2

Assuming 2 kg solids
At Ln: Msolution = 1kg sol’n / 2 kg solids (2 kg solids) = 1kg solution
y1 = x1 = 0.50
yn+1 = 0
Oil in Lo = 2 kg / 0.8 (0.2) = 0.5 kg
Oil in Ln = 0.5 kg (0.1) = 0.05 kg

132
Oil in V1 = 0.5 kg -0.05kg = 0.45 kg
V1 = 0.45 kg / 0.50 = 0.90 kg

Overall Material Balance: Vn+1 + Lo = V1 + Ln


Vn+1 + 0.50kg = 0.90kg + 1kg
Vn+1 = 1.4 kg
Xn = 0.05kg / 1 kg = 0.05
y2 = 1kg / 1.4kg (0.50 – 0.05) = 0.3214
0.50 − 0.3214
ln
N−1= 0.05
0.50 − 0.05
ln
0.3214
N = 4.7833 = 5 stages

5.

Y1 Y2 𝑘𝑔
54.9 kg salt 200 H2O
𝑠
Yn+1

𝑘𝑔
100 𝑠
TiO2
𝑘𝑔 X1
100 TiO2 Xn 0.1 kg salt
𝑠 0.5 𝑘𝑔 𝑠𝑜𝑙𝑣𝑒𝑛𝑡
removed = 𝑘𝑔 𝑝𝑖𝑔𝑚𝑒𝑛𝑡

REQD: No. of thickeners, N


SOLN:
H2O Bal: (45 + 200) = 50 + X
X = 195 kg H2O

𝑘𝑔 𝑠𝑎𝑙𝑡
1 kg salt solution = 0.55 = 55 kg salt
𝑘𝑔 𝑝𝑖𝑔𝑚𝑒𝑛𝑡

54.9
 Y1=X1 = = 0.2815
195
0.1
 Xn = = 0.002
50
50 (X1-Xn) = 200 (Y2-Yn+1)

133
50 (0.2815-0,002) = 200 (Y2-0)
Y2 = 0.0699

0.2815−0.0699
𝑙𝑜𝑔
0.002
N= 0.2815−0.002
𝑙𝑜𝑔
0.0699
N = 4.36 𝑥 5 thickeners

6. PILOT SCALE:
Cs = 2.5 kg/m3
V = 1.0 m3
t = 100s
C = 2.5 kg/m3 (o.75) = 1.875 kg/m3

Using Fick’s Law of Diffusion


C = Cs (1-𝑒 −(𝑘′𝐴⁄𝐵𝑉)𝑡 )
1.875 = 2.5 (1-𝑒 −(𝐾′𝐴⁄𝐵)(100𝑠) )
𝑘′𝐴 3
= 0.013863 𝑚 ⁄𝑠
𝐵
FULL SCALE:
Cs = 2.5 kg/m3
V = 100 m3
0.28 (500𝑔)
C= = 1.40 kg/m3
100𝑚3

C = Cs 1-𝑒 −(𝐾′𝐴⁄𝐵)𝑡 )
1.40 2.5 (1-𝑒 −(0.013863⁄100)𝑡 )
t = 5922.10 s
t = 98.70 mins

7.
Y2 Un+1
Yn+1
N
Lo
Ln
20% oil X1 Xn
80% inert
90% r 1𝑘𝑔 𝑠𝑜𝑙𝑛
50% oil
Y= 0.5
2𝑘𝑔 𝑖𝑛𝑠𝑜𝑙𝑢𝑏𝑙𝑒

REQD: a. Xinert

134
b. Ideal Stages, N

SOLN:
Basis: 100g Lo
0.2 (100) kg oil (0.9) = moil V1 = 0.5 V1
V1 = 36 kg
1𝑘𝑔 𝑠𝑜𝑙𝑛
0.80 (100) kg inert (2 𝑘𝑔 𝑖𝑛𝑒𝑟𝑡) = 40 kg soln = Ln

Solution Bal: 20 + Vn+1 = 40 + 36


Vn+1 = 56 kg

0.1 (20)
 Xn = = 0.05
40
 X1 = Y1 = 0.5
 Ln (X1-Yn) = Vn+1 (Y2-Yn+1)
40 (0.5-0.05) = 56 (Y2-0)
Y2 = 0.3214

80
a. Xinert =
40 + 80 + 2
Xinert = 0.66
𝑋1−𝑌2
log𝑋𝑛−𝑌𝑛+1
b. N-1 = 𝑋1−𝑋𝑛
log
𝑌2−𝑌𝑛+1
0.5−0.3214
log
0.05−0
N= 0.5−0.05 +1
log0.3214−0

N = 4.78 ≈ 5 stages

8.
V1 Vo
11% pyridine Pure chlorobenzene
89% chlorobenzene
EXTRACTOR
Lo = 500 kg L1
20% pyridine 5% pyridine
80% H2O 95% H2O

OMB:
Lo + Vo = L1 + V1

135
Pyridine Balance:
0.20 (500 kg) = 0.05 L1 + 0.11 V1

Chlorobenzene Balance:
Vo = 0.89 V1

H2O Balance:
0.80 (500kg) = 0.95 L1
L1 = 421.05 kg (raffinate)

Using Pyridine Balance:


0.20 (500kg) = 0.05 (421.0526 kg) + 0.11 V1
V1 = 717.7034 kg

Using Chlorobenzene Balance:


Vo = 0.89 V1
Vo = 0.89 (717.7034 kg)
Vo = 638.76 kg pure solvent

9.
chloroform chloroform
S1 S2

H2O P1 P2
F = 1mol 0.5mol H2O
50% acetone E1 0.5-0.3 = 0.5mol H2O
50% H2O 0.2 mol acetone E2 0.2-x mol acetone
60%x acetone feed 1.5 mol chloroform
0.6 (0.5) = 0.3 mol acetone xacetone = ?

REQUIRED: a. Amt chloroform, S


b. mol acetone after stage 1 , Xacet1
c. mol acetone final pdt , Xacet2

SOL’N:

 in feed, F:
acetone = 0.5 mol
H2O = 0.5 mol

136
 in E1:
acetone = 0.6(0.5) = 0.3 mol acetone
c. Using the relationship:
𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝑎𝑐𝑒𝑡𝑜𝑛𝑒𝐻2𝑂 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝑎𝑐𝑒𝑡𝑜𝑛𝑒(𝑐ℎ𝑙𝑜𝑟𝑜𝑓𝑜𝑟𝑚)
= 2 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝑐ℎ𝑙𝑜𝑟𝑜𝑓𝑜𝑟𝑚 (𝑐ℎ𝑙𝑜𝑟𝑜𝑓𝑜𝑟𝑚)
𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝐻2 𝑂(𝐻2𝑂)
0.2 0.3
=2
0.5 𝑆
S = 1.50 mol Chloroform

 in P1:
acetone = 0.5 – 0.3 = 0.2 mol acetone
H2O = 0.5 mol H2O
0.2
d. = Xacet1
0.5+0.2
Xacet1 = 0.29

 E2 = acetone + S2
S2 = 1.5
Acetone = 0.2-X

 P2 = acetone + H2O
acetone = X
H2O = 0.5
e. using the relationship:
𝑋 0.2−𝑋
=2
0.5 1.5
x = 0.08 mol acetone
0.08
Xacet2 = ; Xacet1 = 0.14
0.08+0.5

10.

Feed (Fs) = 100 𝑚𝑜𝑙⁄𝑠 Raffinate (R)


Xin = 0.3 Xout
EXTRACTOR

E Product (P)
Solvent (S) = 100 𝑚𝑜𝑙⁄𝑠 Yout
Yin = 0 Extracted Recycle
A

𝟏𝟎𝟎 𝒎𝒐𝒍
Total Feed = = 142.8571
𝟎.𝟕 𝑺

137
OMB: 142.8571 + 100 = R + P
Solute Balance: 0.3 (142.8571) = Xout R + Yout P
P = 100/(1-2Xout)

Using OMB (1):


242.8571 = R + 100/(1-2Xout)
242.8571-485.7142 Xout = R + 100 – 2R Xout
142.8571 - 485.7142 Xout = R (1-2Xout)
142.8571−485.7142 Xout
R=
1−2 Xout

Using Solute Balance (2):


42.8571 = R Xout + 2Xout (1-2Xout)
42.8571-85.7142 Xout = (R Xout -2RX2out + 200 Xout
42.8571-285.7142 Xout = R (Xout - X2out)
42.8571−285.7142 Xout
R=
Xout−X2 out

Using 1 & 2:
R=R
142.8571−485.7142 Xout 42.8571−285.7142 Xout
=
1−2 Xout Xout−X2 out

Xout = 0.11 ; Yout = 0.22

100
a. Ps = (0.78)
1−2 (0.11)
Ps = 100 mol/s

b. Yout = 2Xout
Yout = 2(0.11)
Yout = 0.22

c. Xout = 0.11

138
PHYSICS, STATICS, DYNAMICS, CHE LAWS & ETHICS

1. A projectile is fired with a horizontal velocity of 30 m/s from the top of a cliff 80
m high. How far from the foot of the cliff will it strike?
a. 112m b. 230 m c. 121 m d. 151m

2. A 5.00 kg object is to be given an upward acceleration of 0.30 m/s2 by a rope pulling


straight upward on it. What must be the tension in the rope?
a. 65.4 N b. 45.2 N c. 50.5 N d. 38.7 N

3. An object is dropped from rest from a height of 49 meters. What is the speed of the
object as it hits the ground?
a. 35 m/s b. 31 m/s c. 28 m/s d. 19 m/s

4. An 8-gram bullet is fired horizontally into a 9-kg block of wood and sticks in it.
The block, which is free to move, has velocity of 40 cm/s after impact. Find the
initial velocity of the bullet.
a. 450 m/s b. 350 m/s c. 220 m/s d. 510 m/s

5. An object travelling a circular path makes 1200 revolutions in 1 hour. If the radius
of the path is 10 m, calculate the speed of the object.
a. 19 m/s b. 21 m/s c. 20 m/s d. 22 m/s

6. A stone is thrown straight upward and it rises to a height of 20 m. with hat speed
was it thrown?
a. 12.6 m/s b. 19.8 m/s c. 17.7 m/s d. 23.8 m/s

7. A train is travelling with a speed of 60 mi/hr is brought to an emergency stop in


2000 f. what is the time required for the train to stop?
a. 50 s b. 35 s c. 46 s d. 60 s

8. A 0.25 hp motor is used to lift a load at the rate of 5.00 cm/s. how great a load can
lift at this constant speed?
a. 381 kg b. 350 kg c. 421 kg d. 400 kg

9. By the use of the pulley, a man raises a load 120 lb to a height of 40 ft in 65 seconds.
Find the average horsepower required.
a. 0.18 hp b. 0.19 hp c. 0.13 hp d. 0.04 hp

10. A certain cable is suspended between two supports at the same elevation and 50 m
apart. The load is 50 N/m horizontal length including the weight of the cable. If the
sag of the cable is 3m, calculate the total length of the cable.
a. 40.12 m b. 25.40 m c. 50.48 m d. 60.24 m

139
11. A 10-kg block of copper at 60oC is placed in contact with the identical 10-kg block
of copper at 20oC. What is the equilibrium temperature of both blocks? (for copper
c=0.24 kJ/kg-oC)
a. 55 deg C b. 45 deg C c. 50 deg C d. 40 deg C

12. A certain 1200-kg car can accelerate from rest to a speed of 25 m/s in a time of 8.00
s. What is the average power must the motor produce to cause this acceleration?
Ignore friction losses.
a. 62.8 hp b. 50.2 hp c. 52.8 hp d. 60.2 hp

13. Two forces vector A and B act on the same point. If A = 50N, 30 degrees and B =
40N, 120 degrees, what is the resultant force?
a. 64 N b. 46 N c. 106 N d. 94 N

14. With the aid of a pulley, a mechanic raises a 40 kg engine to a height of 15 m in 3


minutes. Find the average horsepower required/
a. 1.0 HP b. 0.0438 HP c. 0.6 HP d. 0.5 HP

15. What average force is necessary to stop a bullet of mass 10 g and speed of 200
cm/sec as it penetrates wood 15 cm thick?
a. 1512 N b. 1411 N c. 1333 N d. 1443 N

16. How much work is performed in steadily dragging a sled of 20 m horizontally


when the force of 80 N is applied by a rope making an angle of 30 degrees with the
horizontal ground?
a. 693 N-m b. 639 J c. 1386 N-m d. 936 J

17. A block weighing 500 kN rests on a ramp inclined at 39 degrees with the horizontal.
What is the force that tends to move the block down the ramp?
a. 389 kN b. 315 kN c. 351 kN d. 242 kN

18. A ball was thrown upward with an initial velocity of 50 ft/s. how high does it go?
a. 39 ft b. 30 ft c.20 ft d. 45 ft

19. If the absolute pressure at the bottom of the ocean is 120 kPa, how deep is the water
at this point?
a. 1.90 m b. 1.85 m c. 1.78 m d. 1.82 m

20. A DC-9 jet with a takeoff mass of 120 tons has two engines producing average
force of 80,000 N during takeoff. Determine the plane’s acceleration down the
runway if the takeoff time is 10 seconds.
a. 1.42 m/s2 b. 1.33 m/s2 c. 2.02 m/s2 d. 1.67 m/s2

140
21. What is the resultant of a displacement of 6 miles north and 9 miles east?
a. 11 miles, N 56oE b. 11 miles, N 54oE c. 10 miles, N 56oE d. 10 miles, N 54oE

22. Determine the vertical pressure due to column of water 85 m high.


a. 8.33 x 105 N/m2 b. 8.33 x 104 N/m2 c. 8.33 x 106 N/m2 d. 8.33 x 103
2
N/m

23. A 200 gram apple is thrown from the edge of a tall building with an initial speed of
20 m/s. What is the change in kinetic energy of the apple if it strikes the ground at
50 m/s?
a. 130 joules b. 210 joules c. 100 joules d. 81 joules

24. Find the length of vector (2,4,4).


a. 7.00 b. 8.75 c. 6.00 d. 5.18

25. The horsepower required to raise a 150 kg drum to a height of 20m over a period
of one minute is:
a. 0.41 hp b. 0.81 hp c. 0.66 hp d. 1.12 hp

26. According to the Chemiccal Engineering Law of 2004, who appoints the members
of the ChE Regulatory Board?
a. Professional Regulation Commission
b. President of the Country
c. President of PIChE
d. Commission on Higher Education

27. The decree on Pollution Control issued in 1976 is


a. PD 894 b. PD 984 c. PD 349 d. PD 232

28. Includes individual names and surnames, firm names, devices or words used by one
to identify in his business, vocations or occupations.
a. Trademark b. service mark c. trade name d. brand name

29. A chemical engineer who violates the provisions of the ChE law, upon conviction,
shall be sentenced to a fine or imprisonment, upon the discretion of the court, of
not more than
a. 5 years b. 6 months c. 10 years d. 20 years

30. The Chemical Engineering Law was signed on ___________.


a. May 13, 2004 b. May 11, 2004 c. May 10, 2004 d. May 12, 2004

141
ANSWER KEY

Physics, Statics, Dynamics, ChE Laws and Ethics


1. C. 121 m
2. C. 50.5 N
3. B. 31 m/s
4. A. 450 m/s
5. B. 21 m/s
6. B. 19.8 m/s
7. C. 46 s
8. A. 381 kg
9. C. 0.13 hp
10. C. 50.48 m
11. D. 40oC
12. A. 62.8 hp
13. A. 64 N
14. B. 0.0438 hp
15. C. 1333 N
16. C. 1386 N-m
17. B. 315 kN
18. A. 39 ft
19. A. 1.90 m
20. B. 1.33 m/s2
21. A. 11 miles
22. A. 8.33 x 105 N/m2
23. B. 210 joules
24. C. 6
25. C. 0.66 hp
26. B. President of the country
27. B. PD 984
28. C. Trade Name
29. A. 5 years
30. A. May 13, 2004

142
SOLUTIONS

1. Sy = 80 m
Vo = 30 m/s
Sx = ?

Sy = Vot + ½ gt2
80 = vo sin θt + ½ gt2
80 = 0.30(0)t + ½ (9.81)t2
t = 4.039 s

Sx = vo cosθt
Sx = 30 cos (0) (4.039)
Sx = 121.17 m

2. F = ma
= 5.00 (0.3)
F = 1.5 kg m/s2

W = mg
= 5.00 (9.81)
W = 49.05 kg m/s2

F = T-W
1.5 = T – 49.05
T = 50.55 N

3. Y = 49 meters
y = vot + ½ gt2
49 = 0 + ½ gt2
t = 3.16 s

v = vo + αt
v = 0 + 9.81(3.16s)
v = 30.9996 m/s = 31 m/s

4. m = 80 g
v =?

m1v1= m2v2
8g (v1) = (9000 g)(40 cm/s)
v1 = 45000 cm/s = 450 m/s

143
5. S = rθ
1200 𝑟𝑒𝑣 1 ℎ𝑟 2𝜋
= (10 m)( ℎ𝑟 )(3600 𝑠)(1 𝑟𝑒𝑣)
= 21 m/s

6. S = 20 m
vo = 0
v=?

v2 = vo2 +2as
v = √0 + 2(9.81)(20)
v = 19.81 m/s

60 𝑚𝑖 1.609 𝑘𝑚 1 000 𝑚 1 ℎ𝑟 𝑚
7. v0 = ℎ𝑟 ( 1 𝑚𝑖 ) ( 1 𝑘𝑚 ) (3600 𝑠) = 26.82 𝑠
S = 2000 ft = 609.6 m
v=0

v2 = vo2 + 2as
02 = (26.82 m/s)2 + 2a(609.6 m)
a = -0.59

v = vo + at
0 = 26.82 + (-0.59)(t)
t = 45.45 s = 46 s
746 𝑊
8. 0.25 hp ( ) = 186.5 𝑊
1 ℎ𝑝
W = Fd
𝑊 186.5 𝐽/𝑠
F= 𝑑 = 𝑚 = 380.224 kg
0.05 𝑚 (9.81 2 )
𝑠

𝑊 𝐹𝑑 𝑚𝑔𝑑 54.2418 𝑘𝑔 (9.81)(92.1595)


9. = = = = 99.8332 𝑊 = 𝟎. 𝟏𝟑 𝒉𝒑
𝑡 𝑡 𝑡 65 𝑠

8 𝑑2 32𝑑4
10. S = L + −
3𝐿 5 𝐿3

8(3)2 32 (3)4
S = 50 N/m + − = 𝟓𝟎. 𝟒𝟖 𝒎
3(50) 5(50)3

11. mcp∆T = mcp ∆T


60 - X = X - 20
X = 40 oC

12. m = 1200 kg
vo = 0

144
vf = 25 m/s
t = 8.0 s
1 25𝑚 2
(1200 𝑘𝑔)( )
2 𝑠
P= = 46875 𝑊 = 𝟔𝟐. 𝟖𝟔𝟎𝟒 𝒉𝒑
8𝑠

13. ΣFx = 50 cos 30o – 40 cos60o


ΣFx = -20 + 25√3

ΣFy = 50 cos 30o + 40 cos 60o


ΣFy = 25 + 20√3

R = √ΣFx + ΣFy = 64.0312 N

14. m = 40 kg
h = 15 m
t = 3 min
𝑚
𝑊 𝑚𝑔ℎ (40 𝑘𝑔)(9.81 2 )(15 𝑚)
𝑠
P= = = 60 𝑠 = 32.7 𝑊
𝑡 𝑡 3 min( )
1 𝑚𝑖𝑛
1 ℎ𝑝
32.7 W (746 𝑊) = 𝟎. 𝟎𝟒𝟑𝟖 𝒉𝒑

15. m = 10 g = 0.010 kg
v = 200 m/s
½ mv2 = Fd
1𝑚
½ (0.010 kg)(200 m/s) = F (15 cm) (100 𝑐𝑚)
F = 1333.33 N

16. d = 20 m
F = 80 N
W = Fd
= F cos 30o d
= 80 (cos 30) (20)
W = 1385.6406 Nm

17. ΣFy = F – W cos 39 = 0


F = Wsin39
= 500 kN sin 39
F = 315 kN

18. Vo = 50 ft/s
V=0
V2 = v02 - 2as
0 = 502 – 2 (32.2) s
S = 38.82 ft = 39 ft

145
19. Pabs = Patm + Pgauge
Pabs – P atm = Pgauge
Pgauge = pgh
(120,000 Pa – 101325 Pa) = 1000 kg/m3 (9.81m/s2) (h)
h = 1.9037 m

21. R = √62 + 92 = 10.82 = 11 miles

22. Pgauge = pgh


= (1000 kg/m3) (9.81 kgm/s2)(85m)
Pgauge = 8.34 x 105 N/m3 1

23. m = 200 g
vo = 20 m/s
v = 50 m/s
KE = ½ m( v2 – vo2)
1 𝑘𝑔
= ½ (200 g) (1000 𝑔)(502 -202 )
KE = 200 J

24. 𝐿 = √22 + 42 + 42 = 𝟔

25. m = 150 kg
h= 20 m
t = 1 min
9.81𝑚
𝑊 𝑃𝐸 𝑚𝑔ℎ (150 𝑘𝑔)( )(20 𝑚)
𝑠2
P= = = = 60 𝑠
𝑡 𝑡 𝑡 1 min( )
1 𝑚𝑖𝑛
1 ℎ𝑝
P = 490.5 W (746 𝑊) = 0.67 hp

146
DIFFERENTIAL CALCULUS
1. Differentiate: y = sin ( √𝑥 − 1 )
2. Differentiate: y = x2cos2x
3. Differentiate: y = √3 − 2𝑥2
4. Differentiate: y = arctan3x
5. Differentiate: y = (arcsin4x)2
6. Find the radius of the largest right circular cylinder inscribed on a sphere of radius 5.
7. A rectangular box open at the top is to be formed from a rectangular piece of cardboard
3 inches by 8 inches. What size square should be cut from each corner to form the box
with maximum volume?
8. A painting of height 3 feet hangs on the wall of a museum, with the bottom of the
painting 6 feet above the floor. If the eyes of an observer are 5 feet above the floor,
how far from the base of the wall should the observer stand to maximize his angle of
vision?
9. Find the dimension of the rectangle of largest area whose base is on the x axis and
whose upper two vertices lie on the parabola y = 12 - x2. What is the maximum area?
10. A cylinder is inscribed in a sphere with a radius of 10cm. what is the radius and height
of the cylinder which yield a maximum volume?

INTEGRAL CALCULUS

5 2
1. Evaluate: ∫4 ( − 𝑥 ) 𝑑𝑥
√𝑥
𝛱/2
2. Evaluate: ∫0 (𝑠𝑖𝑛5 Ө)(𝑐𝑜𝑠 5 Ө)𝑑 Ө
1 𝛱
3. Evaluate: ∫0 ∫0 (𝑥𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑦)𝑑𝑥𝑑𝑦
2 𝑦
4. Evaluate: ∫0 ∫0 ( 3𝑥 2 + 9𝑦 2 )𝑑𝑥𝑑𝑦
5. Find the area bounded by the curves y2 = 4x and y + 2x = 12.
6. Find the area of the region above the x-axis bounded by the function y = 4x - x – 3.
7. Find the area bounded by the line x – 2y + 10 = 0, the coordinate axis in the first
quadrant and line x = 10.
8. What is the area of the region bounded by the curve x2 + 2x = 8 – y and the x axis.
9. Find the area bounded by the parabolas y2 = 4x and x2 = 4y
10. Find the area bounded by the curves x2 + y2 = 9 and 4x2 + 9y2 = 36 on the first
quadrant.

147
DIFFERENTIAL EQUATION

1. What is the solution of the DE (6x+y2)dx + y (2x-3y)dy=0

2. What is the general solution (x5 + 3y) dx – x dy = 0

3. Eliminate the arbitrary constant in the following equation: x 3 – 3x2y = c

4. Eliminate the arbitrary constant in the following equation: y = c 1e-2x + c2e3x

5. Obtain the differential equation of the family of straight lines with slope and y- intercept
equal.

6. Write a differential equation for the family of circles with center on the x – axis.

7. Solve xy’ ( 2y – 1) = y ( 1- x).

8. Obtain a general solution to the following differential equation: ( 1 + y2) dx + ( 1 + x2)dy


=0

9. Obtain a particular solution for the following differential equation 2xyy’ = 1 + y 2, given
x = 2 and y = 3.

10. Solve for the general solution of the following differential equation: 3( 3x 2 + y2)dx –
2xydy = 0

11. Determine the integrating factor for the following differential equation: y’ – 3y = 6

12. Solve for y: (D3 – 3D2 + 3D – 1)y = 0.

13. Solve for y: (4D4 + 4D3 – 13D2 – 7D + 6)y = 0.

14. Solve (D2 + 3D – 10) y= 0, when x=0, y=0 and x=2, y=1.

15. Find the orthogonal trajectories of the family of curves y = cx2.

148
DIFFERENTIAL EQUATION

16. Determine the differential equation of the family of circles with center on the y – axis.

 3 y  sin 2 x, y 0   6 , then y 2  most nearly is


dy
17. Given 2
dx
18. The form of the exact solution to 2  3 y  e  x , y 0  5 is
dy
dx

19. The following nonlinear differential equation can be solved exactly by separation of
variables. d  10 6  2  81,  0  1000. The value of  100 most nearly is
dt

20. It has been identified that in chemical reaction, the time rate change (conversion) of the
unconverted substance is proportional to the amount of the unconverted substance. If half
of the substance has been converted after 10 s, find when the 9/10 of the substance will
have been converted?

21. The radioactive isotope of Pb-209 decays at a rate proportional to the amount present
at that time and has a half -life of 3.3 hours, if 1 gram of Pb is present initially, how long
will it take for 90% of the lead to decay?

22. A tank initially holds 100 gallons salt solution in which 50 lbs of salt has been
dissolved. A pipe fills the tank with brine at the rate of 3 gpm, containing 2 lbs of dissolved
salt per gallon. Assuming that the mixture is kept uniform by stirring, a drain pipe draws
out of the tank of a mixture at 2 gpm. Find the amount of salt in the tank at the end of 30
minutes.

149
ANSWER KEY

Differential Calculus
cos(√x−1)
1.y′ = 2. y’=−2x [x sin(2x) − cos(2x)]
2√x
2𝑥 3
3.y′ = − 4. 𝑦′ = 9𝑥2+1
√3−2x2
8 (sin−1 4x)
5. y′ = √1−16x2 6. 4.08 units
7. 0.67 in 8. 2 units
9. 32 units 10. x = 8.165 cm ; h= 11.55 cm

Integral Calculus
1. -3.56 6. 1.33 sq.units
2. 1/60 7. 75 sq.units
3. 1 8. 36 sq.units
4. 40 9. 5.33 sq.units
5. 41.67 sq.units 10. 2.36 units

Differential Equation
1. 3x + xy – y = C
2 2 3

2. dy/dx + (-3/x)y = x4
3. xdx-2ydx-xdy=0
4. y’’-y’-6y =0
5. ydx - (x+1)dy =0
6. 1 + yy” +(y’)2 =0
7. ln(xy)=x+2y+C
8. Arc tan(x) + Arc tan(y) + C=0
9. 𝑦 = √5𝑥 − 1
10. 9x2 - y2 = Cx
11. e−3x
12. y = (C1 + C2x + C3x2)ex
3 1
13. y = C1 e−x + C2 e−2x + C3 e(2)x + C4e(2)x
1
14. 𝑦 = 𝑒4 −𝑒10 (𝑒 2𝑥 − 𝑒 −5𝑥 )
dy −x
15. dx = 2y
16. xy”-(y’)3 – y’ = 0
17. 0.32
x 3x
18. y = (e2 + 4)e− 2
−6𝑡
19. 8.1 + 𝐶𝑒 −10
20. 33.23 s
21. 10.96 hours
22. 171.24 lbs.

150
SOLUTIONS
Differential Calculus

1. 𝑦 = sin(√𝑥 − 1)
Solution:
𝑑𝑦 𝑑
= [sin(√𝑥 − 1)]
𝑑𝑥 𝑑𝑥
𝑑
𝑦′ = cos(√𝑥 − 1) (√𝑥 − 1)
𝑑𝑥
1
𝑦′ = cos(√𝑥 − 1)( )
2√𝑥
𝐜𝐨𝐬(√𝐱 − 𝟏)
𝐲′ =
𝟐√𝐱

2. y = x 2 cos2x
Solution:
dy d
= [x2 cos(2x)]
dx dx

d 2 d
y= [x ⋅ cos(2x) + x 2 ⋅ cos(2x)]
dx dx
d
y’= 2x cos(2x) + (−sin(2x))⋅ dx (2x)⋅ x2
d
y’= 2xcos(2x) – 2 ⋅ dx
(x) ⋅ x2sin(2x)

y’= 2xcos(2x)− 2⋅1x2sin(2x)


y’= 2xcos(2x)−2x2sin(2x)
Simplifying:
y’=−2x [x sin(2x) − cos(2x)]

3. y = √3 − 2𝑥 2
Solution:
d 1
y= [(3 − 2x 2 )2 ]
dx

151
1
1 −2 d
y′ = 2
(3 − 2x2 ) . dx
(3 − 2x2 )
1
1 −2
y′ = 2 (3 − 2x2 ) (-4x)

𝟐𝒙
𝐲′ = −
√𝟑 − 𝟐𝐱𝟐

4. y = arc tan3x
d
y= [arc tan(3x)]
dx
dy 1 d
= 2 . (3x)
dx (3𝑥) + 1 dx
𝑑
3. (𝑥)
y′ = 𝑑𝑥
9𝑥 2 + 1
(3) (1)
𝑦′ =
9𝑥 2 + 1
𝟑
𝐲′ =
𝟗𝐱 𝟐 +𝟏

5. y = (arcsin4x)2
d
[y = arc sin(4x)2 ]
dx
dy d
= [arc sin(4x)]2
dx dx
d
y ′ = 2 (arcsin 4x) (arc sin4x)
dx
1 d
y ′ = 2 (arcsin 4x) . . (4x)
√1 − (4x)2 dx

𝟖 (𝐬𝐢𝐧−𝟏 𝟒𝐱)
𝐲′ =
√𝟏 − 𝟏𝟔𝐱 𝟐
6. Given: R = 5cm
let R = radius of sphere
r = radius of cylinder
h = height of cylinder
Solution:

152
Volume of cylinder: V = πr²h
𝑉
𝑟² = 𝜋ℎ → equation 1

By the Pythagorean Theorem


h h²
R² = r² + (2 )² = r² + 4

r² = R² - 4

ℎ2
𝑟 = √(𝑅 2 − ) → equation 2
4

Set the equations (1) and (2) for r² equal.

V h²
πh
= R² - 4

V = πR²h - 4

Take the derivative with respect to h and set it equal to zero to find the critical point(s).

𝑑𝑉/𝑑ℎ = 𝜋𝑅² − 3𝜋ℎ²/4 = 0


𝜋𝑅² = 3𝜋ℎ²/4
4𝑅²/3 = ℎ²
ℎ = 2𝑅/√3


Solve for r ; r = √(R² − )
4
2R
r = √(R² − ((4) 3)²

2
r =√3 R²

When R= 5
2
r = √3 (52 )

r = 4.08 units
7) V = L × W × H
V = (8 − 2x)(3 − 2x)(x)

V = 24x − 22x2 + 4𝑥 3

V ′ = 24 − 44x + 12x2

0 = 4 (6 − 11x + 3x2 )

153
0 = 4(3x − 2)(x − 3)
2
x=3;x=3
𝟐
if x= 𝟑 𝒊𝒏 ; V= 7.4074 in3

x= 3 ; V = -13
Therefore to form a box with maximum volume, 2/3 in (0.67 in) should be cut from each
corner.
8. 𝜃 = 𝛽 − 𝛼
𝑑𝜃 = 𝑑𝛽 − 𝑑𝛼
4 1
tan 𝛽 = 𝑥 ; xtan 𝛽 = 1 tan 𝛼 = 𝑥 ; xtan 𝛼 = 1

x sec2 𝛽𝑑𝛽 + 𝑡𝑎𝑛𝛽𝑑𝑥 = 0 x sec2 αdα + tan αdx = 0


−xsec2 βdβ −𝑥𝑠𝑒𝑐 2 α𝑑α
dx = 𝑑𝑥 =
tanβ 𝑡𝑎𝑛α

Solve for x:
−𝑡𝑎𝑛β𝑑x
𝑥=
sec2 βdβ
−𝑡𝑎𝑛β(−xsec2α𝑑α)
𝑥=
sec2 βdβtanα
sec2 βtanα = tanβsec2 α
(1 + tan2 β) tanα = tanβ(1 + tan2 α)
[1 + (4/𝑥)2 ](1/x) = (4/x) [1+(1/x)2]
X2 + 16 = 4x2 + 4
X2 – 4x2 +12 = 0
(x+6) (x-2) = 0
x= 2 units

9. y = 12 – x2
x2 = 12 – y
(x-h)2 = -4a (y-k)
(x-0)2 = -1 (y -12)

154
V (0,12)
A rectangle = L x W L= 2x = 2(2) =4
A = x (12-x2) W = y = 12-x2
A= 12x – x3 W=y =12 – 22 = 8
dA =0= 12 – 3x2
12 = 3x2 Area rectangle = LW
X2= 4 A = 4 (8)
x = ±2 A = 32 units
10. Given: r = 10cm
let x = radius of cylinder
h = height of cylinder
r = radius of sphere

Volume of cylinder: V = πx²h → equation 1


dV dh
= π (x2 + 2xh) →equation 2
dx dx

By the Pythagorean Theorem


h h²
r² = x² + ( )² = x² + →equation 3
2 4

r² = x² - 4

h dh
2x + =0 → equation 4
2 dx

Using eqtn (3) and (4)


dV
= π(2𝑟h − 3h3/4)
dx

0 = π(2𝑟h − 4ℎ3)

2𝑟h = 3ℎ3

4 20√3
h = √ (10cm) = 𝑐𝑚 or 11.55 cm
3 3

Substituting the value of h to equation 3 and r=10cm


h² (√2x) ²
10² = x² + = x² +
4 4

x = 8.165 cm

155
SOLUTIONS
Integral Calculus
5 5 1
2
1. ∫4 ( − x) dx = ∫4 (2x −2 − x)dx
√x
1
2(𝑥)2 𝑥2 5
= 1 − |
2 4
2

𝟓
𝟐
∫ ( − 𝒙) 𝒅𝒙 = −𝟑. 𝟓𝟔
𝟒 √𝒙

𝜋
2. ∫02 𝑐𝑜𝑠5 𝜃𝑠𝑖𝑛5 𝜃 𝑑𝜃

Use 𝑐𝑜𝑠 2 (𝑥) = 1 − 𝑠𝑖𝑛2 (𝑥)


∫ 𝑐𝑜𝑠 5 𝜃𝑠𝑖𝑛5 𝜃 𝑑𝜃 = ∫ cosx ∙ sin5 x (sin2 x − 1)2 dx
du
Let u = sinx ; = cosx
dx
𝜋
∫02 𝑠𝑖𝑛5 𝜃𝑐𝑜𝑠 5 𝜃𝑑𝜃 = ∫ u5 (u2 -1)2du

= ∫(𝑢9 − 2 𝑢7 + 𝑢5 ) 𝑑𝑢
𝑢10 𝑢8 𝑢6
= − + ; u = sin x
10 4 6

𝑠𝑖𝑛10 (𝑥) 𝑠𝑖𝑛8 𝑥 𝑠𝑖𝑛6 𝑥


= − + +C
10 4 6

𝑠𝑖𝑛6 (𝑥)(6 𝑠𝑖𝑛4 (𝑥)−15𝑠𝑖𝑛2 𝑥+10)


= +C
60
𝜋 𝜋 𝜋
𝑠𝑖𝑛6 ( 2 )(6 𝑠𝑖𝑛4 ( 2 )−15𝑠𝑖𝑛2 ( 2 )+10−0
=
60
𝝅
𝟐 𝟏
∫ 𝒔𝒊𝒏𝟓 𝜽𝒄𝒐𝒔𝟓 𝜽 𝒅𝜽 =
𝟎 𝟔𝟎

1 𝜋 1 1
3. ∫0 ∫0 𝑥𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑦𝑑𝑥𝑑𝑦 = ∫0 − cos 𝑦 |𝜋0 𝑥𝑑𝑥 = ∫0 (− cos 𝜋 − cos(0) 𝑥𝑑𝑥
1 1
= ∫0 (1 + 1)𝑥𝑑𝑥 = ∫0 2𝑥𝑑𝑥
𝟏 𝝅
∫𝟎 ∫𝟎 𝒙𝒔𝒊𝒏𝒚𝒅𝒙𝒅𝒚 = 𝟏

2 𝑦 2 3𝑥 3
4.∫0 ∫0 3𝑥 2 + 9𝑦 2 𝑑𝑥𝑑𝑦 = ∫0 + 9𝑦 2 |𝑦0 𝑑𝑦
3

156
2
= ∫0 (𝑦 3 + 9𝑦 3 )𝑑𝑦
2
= ∫0 10𝑦 3 𝑑𝑦
2
= ∫0 10𝑦 4 |20
𝟐 𝒚
∫ ∫ 𝟑𝒙𝟐 + 𝟗𝒚𝟐 𝒅𝒙𝒅𝒚 = 𝟒𝟎
𝟎 𝟎

9
5. A1 = ∫4 [(12 − 2x) + 2√x)]dx
61
𝐴1 = 𝑠𝑞. 𝑢𝑛𝑖𝑡𝑠
3
4
A2 = 2 ∫ 2√x dx
0
3
4(𝑥)2 4
𝐴2 = |
3/2 0
A2 = 64/3 sq. units
Atotal = A1 +A2
= 61/3 + 64/3
Atotal =41.67 sq. units

6. y= 4x-x2-3
(x-3)(x-1)=0
3
A= ∫1 (4x − x 2 − 3)dx
4𝑥 2 𝑥3
A= − − 3𝑥|31
2 3
𝟒
A= 𝟑 = 𝟏. 𝟑𝟑 𝒔𝒒 𝒖𝒏𝒊𝒕𝒔

7. dA= (y1-y2)dx
10
A= ∫0 ydx
10 x
A =∫0 (5 + ) dx
2

157
𝑥2 (10)2
A= 5x +2(2) |10
0
= 5(10) + − 0
4

A = 75 sq. units
8. x2+2x=8-y
y= -x2-2x+8
(x-2) (x+4) =0
dA= y1-y2 dx
2
A=∫−4(−x 2 − 2x + 8) dx
−𝑥 3 2
A= − 𝑥 2 + 8𝑥|−4
3

A= 36 sq units

9. y2=4x and x2=4y


point of intersection (0,0) and (4,4)
4 x2
A=∫0 (2√x − ) dx
4
3
2(𝑥)2 𝑥3
= 3 − |4
4(3) 0
2

𝟏𝟔
A= or 5.33 sq. units
𝟑

158
SOLUTIONS
Differential Equation
∑ ∫ DI + NDI = C
DI = 6xdx, -3y2dy
NDI = y2dx, 2xydy
∫(6xdx – 3 y2dy) + ∫y2∂x = C
6 (x2/2) – 3(y3/3) + xy2 = C

3x2 + xy2 – y3 = C

2. v (x) = e∫P(x)dx
y-v(x) = ∫v(x).Q(x)dx + C (since v≠0)
y = v-1(x)∫v(x).Q(x)dx + cv-1(x)
dydx + P(x)y = Q (x)

(x5+ 3y) dx – x dy = 0
-x(dy) = - (x5+3y)dx
dy/dx + (-3/x)y = x4

𝑑
3. [ 𝑥 3 − 3𝑥 3 𝑦 = 𝐶] 𝑑𝑥
3𝑥 2 − 3𝑥 2 𝑑𝑦 − 3𝑦(2𝑥 )𝑑𝑥 = 0
3𝑥 2 −6𝑥𝑦𝑑𝑥−3𝑥 2 𝑑𝑦=0
3𝑥
𝐱𝐝𝐱 − 𝟐𝐲𝐝𝐱 − 𝐱𝐝𝐲 = 𝟎

159
4. y = c1e-2x + c2e3 ← (1)

y' = -2C1 e-2x + 3 C2e3x ← (2)


y’ + 2y = 5C2e3x ← (3)
y'' + 2y’=5C2e3x (3) ← (4)
y'' + 2y’= (y’+2y) (3)
y'' + y’ - 6y = 0

5. 𝑦 = 𝑚𝑥 + 𝑏 ; m = b
𝑦 = 𝑚𝑥 + 𝑚 y
𝑑
Slope = y-int.
[𝑦 = 𝑚(𝑥 + 1)]
𝑑𝑥
𝑑
𝑑𝑥
= 𝑚
𝑑𝑦 𝑑𝑦 m=b x
𝑦= (𝑥 ) +
𝑑𝑥 𝑑𝑥
𝑑𝑦
𝑦= (𝑥 + 1)
𝑑𝑥
𝑦𝑑𝑥 = 𝑥𝑑𝑦 + 𝑑𝑦

𝐲𝐝𝐱 − (𝐱 + 𝟏)𝐝𝐲 =

160
6. x2 + y2 + Ax + By + C =0
x2 + y2 + Ax + C =0
2xdx + 2ydy + Adx = 0
y2 = C – Ax – x2
2yy’ = -A – 2x
Y’ = (-A – 2x)/ 2y

2yy’’/2 + y’(2y)/2 = -1
yy’’ + (y’)2 = -1
(y’)2 + yy” + 1 = 0

7. xy’ (2y-1) = y(1-x)


dy
x (2y − 1) = y(1 − x)
dx
x(2y-1) dy = y(1-x) dx
2y−1 1−x
dy − dx=0
y x
dy dx
2 ∫ dy − ∫ −∫ + ∫ dx = C
y x

2y-lny-lnx+x=C
2y+x+C=lnx+lny
ln(xy)=2y+x+C

8. ( 1 + y2) dx + ( 1 + x2)dy = 0
∫(1/(1+x2))dx = ∫(1/(1+y2))dy
Arc tan(x) + Arc tan(y) + C =0

161
9. 2xy(dy/dx) = 1 + y2

𝑑𝑥 2𝑦(𝑑𝑦)
=
𝑥 1+ 𝑦 2

Integrating both side: ln x = ln (1+y2) + ln C

Taking exponentials:x = C(1+y2)


when x = 2 and y = 3
2 = C (1+ 32)
C = 1/5

Thus y particular solution is


𝒚 = √𝟓𝒙 − 𝟏

162
10. We cannot separate the variables, but M(x, y) and N(x, y) are homogeneous
functions of degree 2.

Substituting: y = vx and dy = v dx + x dv

we get
(9 + v2)dx – 2v(v dx + x dv) = 0
Separating variables
9(dx) + v2(dx) – 2v2(dx) + 2vx(dv) = 0
9(dx) - v2(dx) + 2xv(dv) = 0
(9- v2)(dx) + 2xv(dv) = 0
𝑑𝑥 2𝑣(𝑑𝑣)
− =
𝑥 9−𝑣 2
Integrating
ln (9-v2) = - ln x + ln C

Taking exponentials

x(9-v2) = C

since v = y/x
9x2 - y2 = Cx

11. 𝑦 ′ − 3𝑦 = 6
𝑑𝑦
− 3𝑦 = 6
𝑑𝑥
𝑃 (𝑥 ) = −3
𝑄(𝑥) = 6
𝐼𝑛𝑡𝑒𝑔𝑟𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑛𝑔 𝐹𝑎𝑐𝑡𝑜𝑟: 𝑒 ∫ 𝑃(𝑥)𝑑𝑥 = 𝑒 ∫ 𝑃(−3)𝑑𝑥
𝐞∫ 𝐏(𝐱)𝐝𝐱 = 𝐞−𝟑𝐱

12. (D3 – 3D2 + 3D – 1)y = 0.

x3 – 3x2 + 3x – 1 = 0
(x-1)(x-1) (x-1) = 0
x = 1 ;occuring 3 times
y = (C1 + C2x + C3x2)ex

13. (4D4 + 4D3 – 13D2 – 7D + 6)y = 0.


4m4 + 4m3 – 13m2 – 7m + 6 = 0
(m+1)(4m3-13m+6) = 0
(m+1)(m+2)(4m2-8m+3) = 0
(m+1)(m+2)(2m-1)(2m-3) = 0
Roots: m = -1, -2, ½, 3/2

General Equation: 𝐲 = 𝐂𝟏 𝐞−𝐱 + 𝐂𝟐 𝐞−𝟐𝐱+ 𝐂𝟑 𝐞(𝟑/𝟐)𝐱+ 𝐂𝟒 𝐞(𝟏/𝟐)𝐱

14. D2 + 3D – 10 = 0
(D + 5) (D – 2) = 0
D = -5 ; D =2
y = C1e-5x + C2e2x
163
when y=0 ; x=0
0= C1e-5(0) + C2e2(0)
0= C1+ C2
When x=2 ; y=1
1= C1e-5(2) + C2e2(2)
1 −1
C2= e4 −e10 ; C1= e4 −e10
𝟏
y= 𝐞𝟒 −𝐞𝟏𝟎 (𝐞𝟐𝐱 − 𝐞−𝟓𝐱 )

15. 𝑦 = 𝐶𝑥 2
𝑦
=𝐶
𝑥2
𝑥 2 𝑑𝑦−𝑦(2𝑥)𝑑𝑥
=0
(𝑥 2 )2
𝑥 2 𝑑𝑦−(2𝑥𝑦)𝑑𝑥
=0
(𝑥)4

𝑥 2 𝑑𝑦 − (2𝑥𝑦)𝑑𝑥 = 0

𝑑𝑦 2𝑥𝑦
=
𝑑𝑥 2𝑥 2
𝑑𝑦 2𝑦
= 2𝑥
𝑑𝑥

𝐝𝐲 −𝐱
Orthogonal trajectories: 𝐝𝐱 = 𝟐𝐲

164
16. x2 + (y-k)2 = r2

Differentiate:
2x+2(y-k)y’ = 0
x+yy’ – ky’ = 0
k = x/y + y

𝑦 ′ (1)−𝑥𝑦"
0= + 𝑦′
(𝑦′)2
y'-xy”+(y‘)3 = 0
xy”-(y’)3 – y’ = 0

17. Using homogenous Solution, (2D+3)y = 0


2r + 3 = 0
r = -1.5, Yn = Ce-1.5x,Yp = A sin2x + B cos2x

y ′ → 2y′ (Asin2x + Bcos2x) + 3(Asin2x + Bcos2x) = sin2x


2(2Acos2x − Bsin2x) + 3(Asin2x + Bcos2x) = sin2x
(4A + 3B)cos2x + (−4B + 3A)sin2x = sin2x

Equating sin2x and cos2x on both sides,


-4B+3A=1 3B+4A=0
A = 0.12 B = -0.16

Yp = 0.12 sin2x – 0-16cos2x


Y = Yn + Yp = Ce-1.5x + 0.12 sin2x – 0.16 cos2x
y (0) = 6
y = Ce-1.5(0) + 0.12sin2 (0) – 0.16 cos2 (0)
6 = C – 0.16
C = 1.16

y(2) = 6.16e-1.5(2) + 0.12sin2 (2) – 0.16 cos2 (2)


y(2) = 0.32

𝑑 2
19. = −10−6 (  - 81)
𝑑𝑡
𝑑 2
+ 10−6  = (8.1 × 10−5
𝑑𝑡

165
−6 𝑑𝑡 −6 𝑡
𝐼. 𝐹. = 𝑒 ∫ 10 = 𝑒 10
 = ∫ 8.1 × 10−5(𝑒10
−6 𝑡 −6 𝑡
𝑒 10 )𝑑𝑡
 = 8.1 × 10−5𝑒10 𝑡 (106 )
−6 𝑡 −6
𝑒 10
−𝟔𝒕
= 𝟖. 𝟏 + 𝑪𝒆−𝟏𝟎

dx
20. = -kx
dt
At t=0 ; x= xo; C=xo
x = Ce-kt
1
xo = xo(e−kt )
2
k= 0.693

at x= 9/10 ; t=?
1
xo = xo(e−0.693t )
10

t=33.23 s

21. N(t) = Ce-kt


t = 0, n (t) = 1
1 = e-k (0)
C=1
At t = 3.3, n (t) = 0.5
n (t) = Ce-kt
0.5 = e-k (3.3)
ln 0.5 = - 3.3 k
𝑙𝑛0.5
𝑘= −3.3
𝑘 = 0.21

90% decayed, n(t) = 0.1, t = ?


n (t) = Ce-kt
0.1 = e-0.21t
ln 0.1 = - 0.21t
𝑙𝑛0.21
𝑡=
−0.2
𝒕 = 𝟏𝟎. 𝟗𝟔𝒉𝒓𝒔

166
22. . Let Q= amount of salt in the mixture
100 + (3-2)t = 100+ t = Volume of mixture at any time t
Q
= Concentration of salt
100+t

dQ
= rate gain − rate loss
dt
dQ Q
= 3(2) − 2( )
dt 100 + t
dQ 2
+ Q( )=6
dt 100 + t
2
i. f. = e∫ P(t)dt ;where P(t)=100+t ; A(t)= 6
2
i. f. = e∫ P(t)dt = e∫100+t = e2ln(100+𝑡) = (100 + t)2
Substitute:
Q(100+t)2=∫ 6(100 + t)2 dt + C = 2(100 + t)3 + C
When t=0 ; Q=50
50(100)2=2(100+t)3 +C
C= -1.5x106
When t= 30 min ; Q= ?
Q(100+30)2=2(100+30)3 -1.5x106
Q = 171.24 lbs.

167
ENGINEERING ECONOMY

1. What is the effective rate corresponding to 18% compounded daily? Take 1 year is
equal to 360 days.

2. What nominal rate compounded semi-annually, yields the same amount as 16%
compounded quarterly?

3. The amount of P50,000 was deposited in the bank earning an interest of 7.5% per
annum. Determine the total amount at the end of 5 years, if the principal and interest
were not withdrawn during the period.

4. The sum of P20,000 is left to Robert as a will, however, with a condition that the
sum will be held in a trust fund until it amounts to P50,000. When will Robert
receive the money if the fund is invested at 8% compounded quarterly?

5. A sum of P1,000 is invested now and left for 8 years, at which time the principal is
withdrawn. The interest has accrued is left for another 8 years. If the effective
annual interest is 5%, what will be the withdrawal amount at the end of 16th year?

6. Today, a businessman borrowed money to be paid in 10 equal payments for 10


quarters. If the interest rate is 10% compounded quarterly and the quarterly
payment is P2,000, how much did he borrow?

7. Mr. Ayala borrows P100,000 at 10% effective annual interest. He must pay back
the loan over 30 years with uniform monthly payments due on the first day of each
month. What does Mr. Ayala pay each month?

8. A person buys a piece of lot for P100,000 down payment and 10 deferred semi-
annual payments of P8,000 each, starting 3 years from now. What is the present
value of the investment if the rate of interest is 12% compounded semi-annually?
9. At 6%, find the capitalized cost of a bridge whose cost is P250M and life is 20
years, if the bridge must be partially rebuilt at a cost of P100M at the end of each
20 years.

10. A man wants to make 14% nominal interest compounded semi-annually on a bond
investment. How much should he be willing to pay now for a 12%, P10,000-bond
that will mature in 10 year; and pays interest semi-annually?

168
11. What is the maximum amount an investor should pay for a 25-year bond with a
P20,000 face value and 8% coupon rate (interest only paid semi-annuaily)? The
bond will be kept to maturity. The investor's effective annual interest rate for
economic decisions is 10%.

12. A manufacturer produces certain items at a labor cost per unit of P315, material
cost per unit of P100 and a variable cost per unit of P3. If the item has a selling
price of P995, how many units must be manufactured each month for the
manufacturer to break even if the monthly overhead is P461,600.

13. ABC Corporation manufactures bookcases that it sells for P65 each. It costs ABC
P35000/yr to operate it: plant. This sum includes rent, depreciation charges on
equipment, and salary payments. If the cost to produce one bookcase is P50, how
many bookcases must be sold each year for AbC to avoid taking a loss?

14. The volatility of a stock is found to be 1.5times the stock market average. If the risk
premium for buying stocks averages 8.3% and the present treasury bill rate
(assumed to be risk free) is 7%, what is most nearly the expected return (ER) on
the stock?

15. A manufacturer of sports equipment produces tennis rackets for w/c there is a
demand of 200/month. The production setup cost for each batch of rackets is P300.
In addition, the inventory carrying cost for each racket is P24/year. Using the EOQ
model, w/c is most nearly the best production batch size for the rackets?

16. . A student needs P4000/year for 4 years to attend college. Her father invested
P5000 in a 7% account for her education when she was born. If the student
withdraws P4000 at the end of her 17th, 18th, 19th and 20th years, how much
money will be left in the account at the end of her 21st year?

169
ANSWER KEY

Engineering Economy
1. Ans. 19.72 %
2. Ans. 16.32%
3. Ans. P71781.47
4. Ans. 11.5678 years
5. Ans. P705.42
6. Ans. P17504.12786
7. Ans. P839.1989
8. Ans. P143999.08162
9. Ans. P 295.3076 M
10. Ans. 600
11. Ans. P16,723.57
12. Ans. 800 units
13. Ans. 2334/yr
14. Ans. 19.45%
15. Ans. 245 units
16. Ans. P1700.01

170
SOLUTIONS
0.18
1. ER = (1+ 360 )3 6 0 -1
= 0.1972 x 100
ER = 19.72 %
Ans. 19.72 %

0.16 𝑖
2. (1+ 4 )4 = (1+ 2)2
= 0.1632x100
i = 16.32%
Ans. 16.32%

3. F = P(1+i) n
F = P 50000 (1+0.075) 5
F = P71781.47
Ans. P71781.47
0.08 4 n
4. 50000 = 20000(1 + )
4
N= 11.5678 years
Ans. 11.5678 years

5. F = 1000(1+0.05) 8
F = P1477.4554 – P1000
F = P477.4554
F = 477.4554(1+0.05) 8
F = P705.42
Ans. P705.42

2000 0.1 -1 0
6. P = [1- (1+ ) ]
0.1 4
P = P17504.12786
Ans. P17504.12786

𝑖
7. 1+0.10 = (1+ 12)1 2
i = 0.0956 or 9.57% (monthly)
Annuity:
𝐴 0.0956
100000 = 0.0956 [1-(1+ 12 ) -(30(12)-1 ) ]+A
12
A = P839.1989
Ans. P839.1989

171
8.
x y

1 8000 (1+(0.12/2) -1

2 6000 (1+(0.12/2) -2

⅀xý, 1,10
P = 58880.69641
PF = 58880.69641 (1+(0.12/2)) -5
P 1 = 43999.08162 + 100000
P 1 = P143999.08162
Ans. P143999.08162

9. C a p C = PC+[(FC-SV)/(1+i) n -1]+(AC/i)
100
= 250 + 1.0620 −1 + 0
CapC = P 295.3076 M
Ans. P 295.3076 M

𝐹𝑟
10. P = (1+(1+i) -n )
𝑖
∑20 -x
𝑥=1 1.07 = 10.5940; r=0.07
I = (0.12/2)(10000) = 600
Ans. 600

𝑥
11. 0.10 = (1+ 2) 2 -1
x = 0.097618 or 9.7618%
I = 20000(0.08/2)
= 800
0.097618 -x
∑50
𝑥=1(1 + ) = 18.597076
2
0.097618 -5 0
P = 800 (18.597076) + 20000 (1+ )
2
P = P16,723.57
Ans. P16,723.57

12. 995x = 315x + 100x + 3x + 461600


x = 800 units
Ans. 800 units

13. 65x = 35000 + 50x


x = 2333.3333 bookcases/yr
x = 2334/yr bookcases to avoid taking a loss
Ans. 2334/yr

172
14. V = 1.5 (SMA)
Risk = 8.3%
T. bill rate = 7%
ER = (V)(SMA) + T
= 1.5 (8.3) + 7
ER = 19.45%
Ans. 19.45%

15. Demand = 200/month


Purchase cost = P300/batch
Inventory cost = P24/yr
2(200)(300)
EOQ = √ 24/12
EOQ = 244.95 units or 245 units
Ans. 245 units

16. F = F 1 – F 2
F 1 = 5000 ( 1.07) 2 1 = 20702.81187
∑4𝑥=1(1.07)x = 4.7507
F 2 = 4.7507(4000) = 19002.8
F = 20702.81187 - 19002.8
F = P1700.01
Ans. P1700.01

173
STRENGTH OF MATERIALS
A rod 200cm long and of diameter 3.0cm is subjected to an axial pull of 30kN.
If the Young's modulus of the material of the rod is 200GPa.
1. Determine the stress.
2. Determine the strain.
3. Determine the elongation of the rod.

4. A member formed by connecting a steel bar to an aluminium bar is shown below.


Assuming that the bars are prevented from buckling sideways, calculate the
magnitude of P, that will cause the total length of the member to decrease 0.30mm.
The values of elastic modulus for steel and aluminium are 200GPa and 65GPa
respectively.

For problems 5-6


The bar shown in the figure is subjected to a tensile load of 150kN. If the
stress in the middle portion is limited to 160MPa. Young's modulus given
as 200GPa.

5. Determine the diameter of the middle portion.


6. Find the length of the middle portion if the total elongation of the bar is to be 0.25mm.

7. A brass bar, having a cross-sectional area of 1000 mm 2, is subjected to axial forces


as shown below. Find the elongation of the bar. Take E= 105GPa.

174
For problems 8 to 13
Three bars made of copper, zinc and aluminium are of equal length and have cross-
section 500, 750 and 1000 mm2 respectively. They are rigidly connected at their
ends. If this compound member is subjected to a longitudinal pull of 250kN.
Take the value of E for copper = 130GPa, zinc = 100GPa and aluminium = 80GPa.

8. Determine the stress through the aluminium bar.


9. Determine the stress through the zinc bar.
10. Determine the stress through the copper bar.
11. Determine the proportional load experienced through the copper bar.
12. Determine the proportional load experienced through the zinc bar.
13. Determine the proportional load experienced through the aluminium bar.

For problems 14 to 17
A steel rod 5cm diameter and 6m long is connected to two grips and the rod is
maintained at a temperature of 100degC.

14. Determine the stress exerted when the temperature falls to 20degC if the ends do not
yield.
15. Determine the pull exerted when the temperature falls to 20degC if the ends do not
yield.
16. Determine the stress exerted when the temperature falls to 20degC if the ends yield by
0.15cm.
17. Determine the pull exerted when the temperature falls to 20degC if the ends yield by
0.15cm.

For problems 18 to 19
A metallic bar of length 30cm, breadth 4cm and depth 4cm when the bar is subjected
to an axial compressive load of 400kN. The decrease in length is given as 0.075cm
and increase in breadth is 0.003cm.

175
18. Determine the value of Young's modulus.
19. Determine the value of Poisson's ratio.

20. A steel bar 300mm long, 50mm wide and 40mm thick is subjected to a pull of 300kN
in direction of its length. E = 200GPa and Poisson's ratio = 0.25.

21. A metallic bar 300mm x 100mm x 40mm is subjected to a force of 5kN(tensile),


6kN(tensile) and 4kN(tensile) along x,y and z directions respectively. Determine the
change in the volume of the block. Take E = 200GPa and Poisson's ratio = 0.25.

For problems 22 to 23
A metallic bar 250mm x 100mm x 50mm is loaded as shown in the figure
below. Take E = 200GPa and u = 0.25.

22. Find the change in volume.


23. Find the change that should be made in the 4MN load in order that there should
be no change in the volume of the bar.

For problems 24 to 26
A bar of 30mm diameter is subjected to a pull of 60kN. The measured extension on
gauge length of 200mm is 0.1mm and change in diameter is 0.004mm.
24. Calculate the Young’s modulus.
25. Calculate the Poisson’s ratio.
26. Calculate the Bulk’s modulus.

176
ANSWER KEY

Strength of Materials
1. Ans. 42.44 MPa
2. Ans. 0.000212205
3. Ans. 0.00042 m
4. Ans. 405.7803 kN
5. Ans. 0.03 m
6. Ans. 𝟐𝟗.375 cm
7. Ans. -1.14x10 -4
8. Ans. 147.72 MPa
9. Ans. 113.64 MPa
10. Ans. 90.90 MPa
11. Ans. 73 863.64 N
12. Ans. 85.2272 kN
13. Ans. 90909.09 N
14. Ans. 192 MPa
15. Ans. 376,991.12 N
16. Ans. 242 MPa
17. Ans. 475165.89 N
18. Ans. 100 GPa
19. Ans. 0.3
20. Ans. 225 mm3
21. Ans. 5.65mm3
22. Ans. 250 mm3
23. Ans. 2MN must be applied
24. Ans. 169.7653 GPa
25. Ans. 0.27
26. Ans. 123. 0183 GPa

177
SOLUTIONS
𝜋(0.03 𝑚)2
1. A = 4
= 7.068583x10 -4 m 2
𝑎𝑥𝑖𝑎𝑙 𝑝𝑢𝑙𝑙
Stress = 𝑎𝑟𝑒𝑎

30000
= 7.068583x10−4
Stress = 42,411,320.98 Pa or 42.44 MPa
Ans. 42.44 MPa

2. Strain = /E
42.441𝑥106
=
200𝑥109
Strain = 0.000212205
Ans. 0.000212205

𝑃𝐿
3. Elongation of the rod =
𝐴𝐸
30000(2𝑚)
= 7.068583x10−4 ( 200x109 )
Elongation of the rod = 0.00042 m
Ans. 0.00042 m

4. x = 0.30 mm
Est = 200GPa
E  L = 65 GPa
𝑃𝐿𝑠𝑡 𝑃𝐿L
δT = +
𝐴𝑠𝑡𝐸𝑠𝑡 alEl
0.30 20/100 30/100
=P[ + ]
1000 36/1002 (200𝑥109 ) 100/1002 (65𝑥109 )
P L = 405.7803 kN
Ans. 405.7803 kN

5. 160x10 6 Pa = 150x10 3 /A
A = 9.375x10 -4
𝜋(𝐷)2
9.375x10 -4 =
4
D = 0.03 m
Ans. 0.03 m

𝑃𝐿
6. δ = = L/E
𝐴𝐸
0.25 160𝑥106 (𝐿)
=
1000 (200𝑥109 )

178
𝑥 = 45 – (31.25/2)
𝒙 = 𝟐𝟗.375 cm
Ans. 𝟐𝟗.375 cm

( 50x103 )(0.6 𝑚)
7. E 1 = 1𝑚
1000 mm (1000 𝑚𝑚 )2(105x9 )

E 1 = -2.8571x10 -4 m decrease (-)

( 30x103 )(1 𝑚)
E2 = 1𝑚
1000 mm (1000 𝑚𝑚 )2(105x9 )
E 2 = 2.8571x10 -4 m increase (+)

( 10x103 )(1.2 𝑚)
E3 = 1𝑚
1000 mm (1000 𝑚𝑚 )2(105x9 )
E 3 = -1.1429x10 -4 m decrease (-)

E T = -2.8571x10 -4 m + 2.8571x10 -4 m -1.1429x10 -4 m


E T = -1.14x10 -4
Ans. -1.14x10 -4
8. 250 kN = FCu + 15/13 FCu + 16/13 FCu
FCu = 73.8636 kN
Cu = 73.8636 kN/500
Cu = 147.72 MPa
Ans. 147.72 MPa

Bars Area mm 2 Area m 2 E (Pa)


Copper 500 5x10 -4 130x10 9
Zinc 750 7.5x10 -4 100x10 9
Aluminum 1000 1x10 -3 80x10 9
9.

P = 250 kN
Total Load (P) = Load C + Load Z+Load A
130𝑥109 100𝑥109
250x103 N = ( -4
A)(5x10 ) + ( A)(7.5x10
-4
)+( A)(1x10
-3
)
80𝑥109 80𝑥109

A = 90909090.91Pa
100𝑥109
2= (90909090.91 Pa)
80𝑥109

179
2= 113636363.6 Pa or 113.64 MPa
Ans. 113.64 MPa
16
𝐹 (73.8636)(1000)
13
10. = = 1000
𝐴
10002
= 90.90 MPa
Ans. 90.90 MPa

11. Pc = cAc
100𝑥109
(90909090.91) (5x10- 4)
80𝑥109

Pc = 73 863.64 N
Ans. 73 863.64 N
15
12. FL2n = (73.8636)
13
FL2n = 85.2272 kN
Ans. 85.2272 kN

13. PA = AAA = 90909090.91 Pa (1x10-3)


PA = 90909.09 N
Ans. 90909.09 N

14. L = 6 (12x10-6/Co)(100-20)
L = 5.76x10-3 m = δT
5.76x10-3 m = (6)/200x109)
= 192 MPa
Ans. 192 MPa

15. δ = 6m (12x10-6 m/Co)(100-20)Co


= 5.76x10-3
5.76𝑥10−3 𝑚 (200𝑥109 )
= = 192 MPa
6𝑚
P= A
𝜋
P = 192x106 Pa 4 (0.05)2
P = 376,991.12 N
Ans. 376,991.12 N

16. δ thermal = (-) 5.76 m due to cooling


0.15 𝑐𝑚
+ 5.76x10-3 m = (6)/200x109)
100𝑐𝑚/𝑚
= 242 MPa
Ans. 242 MPa

180
17. δ = 5.76x10-3 m + ( 1.5x10-3m) = 7.26x10-3 m
7.26𝑥10−3 𝑚 (200𝑥109 )
= = 242 MPa
6𝑚
PL = A
𝜋
PL = 242x106 Pa (0.05)2
4
P = 475165.89 N
Ans. 475165.89 N
[0.075/100(4)(4)]/100 -1
18. E =( 30 )
400𝑥103 (100)
E = 100 GPa
Ans. 100 GPa
𝛿 0.075 𝑐𝑚 -3
19. Longitude Strain = = = 2.5x10
𝐿 30 𝑐𝑚
μ = b/ L
7.5𝑥10−4
=
2.5𝑥10−3
μ = 0.3
Ans. 0.3

300𝑥103
[1.2 ( 0.25)]
(40𝑥50)/10002
20. Ev =
200𝑥109
Ev = 3.75x10-4
V = 3.75x10-4 (300)(50)(40) = 225 mm3
Ans. 225 mm3

21. V = xyz (1-2 μ ) (1/E) ( x + y+ z)

4 5
= (300 x 100 x 40) (1-2(0.25))(1/200x109 Pa)( + 40(300)
300(100)
6
+40(100))
V = 5.65mm3
Ans. 5.65mm3

𝑷
22. EL =
𝒅𝒆𝒍𝒕𝒂𝑬
−4x10𝟔 400x10𝟑 2x10𝟔 𝟏
=[ + (𝟏𝟎𝟎)(𝟓𝟎)/𝟏𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟐 + (𝟓𝟎)(𝟐𝟓𝟎)/𝟏𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟐]( 𝟐𝟎𝟎𝒙𝟏𝟎𝟗)
(𝟏𝟎𝟎)(𝟐𝟓𝟎)/𝟏𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟐
= 4x10-4
EV = 4x10-4 (1-2(0.25))
= 2x10-4
V = 2x10-4 (250)(100)(50)
V = 250 mm3
Ans. 250 mm3

181
𝑃
23. = 0 so that V = 0 ; =𝐴
𝑥 400𝑥103 𝑁 2𝑥106 𝑁
0= + + 0.05 𝑚 (0.25 𝑚)
0.1𝑚 (0.25 𝑚) 0.1 𝑚 (0.05 𝑚)
X = F = 6000 kN compressive
Additional: 6000 kN – 4000 kN = 2000 kN so
Additional 2MN must be applied; compressive load
Ans. 2MN must be applied
24. E = PL/Aδ
60𝑥103 (200)/1000
E= 𝜋
(30/100)2 0.1
4 (1000)
E = 169.7653 GPa
Ans. 169.7653 GPa

𝐿𝑎𝑡𝑒𝑟𝑎𝑙 𝑆𝑡𝑟𝑎𝑖𝑛 0.004/30


25. μ = = = 0.27
𝐿𝑜𝑛𝑔𝑖𝑡𝑢𝑑𝑖𝑛𝑎𝑙 𝑆𝑡𝑟𝑎𝑖𝑛 0.1/200
Ans. 0.27

26.  = [3(1-2μ)]-1 (E)


= [3(1-2(0.27)]-1 (169.7653)
 = 123. 0183 GPa
Ans. 123. 0183 GPa

182
PRELIMINARY EXAMINATION
PHYSICAL AND CHEMICAL PRINCIPLES

1. From the standpoint of kinetic theory, a liquid may be considered as a continuation


of the gas into the region of ________ volume and ________ molecular attraction.
a. Rigid, stronger b. small, stronger c. large, smaller d. dynamic, smaller

2. In a small biochemical plant, a 450-L capacity steady state chemostat is being used
to control the growth of microorganisms by adjusting the dilution rate. The Monod
constant and the maximum specific growth rate are 0.83 mol/L and 0.85/h
respectively. Given a limiting exit concentration of 0.74 mol/L, calculate the daily
amount of the substrate that the bioreactor is able to process.
a. 4327 L/d b. 5327 L/d c. 6327 L/d d. 7327 L/d

3. Deducing the structures of vitamins is important in understanding their biochemical


function. Which woman was responsible for solving the structure of vitamin B12,
the most chemically complex vitamin?
a. Marie curie c. Mary Somerville
b. Dorothy Hodgkin d.Barbara McClintock

4. Which interesting sounding scientist came up with the name “vitamin”?


a. Emil Fischer c. J.B.S. Haldane
b. Kazimierz Funk d. Friedrich Miescher

5. Supposed the following four salts all have the same numerical value of Ksp which
is much less than one, which will have the highest solubility?
a. AB b. AB2 c. AB3 d. A2B3
For numbers 6-8, choose on the following choices,
a. First statement is true; Second statement is false
b. First statement is false; Second statement is true
c. Both statement is true
d. Both statement is false

6. Enzyme is a protein which consists of amino acid residues. The total enzyme
concentration stays constant during the reaction.

7. The length of the lag period depends on many factors such as age of microorganism
and culture condition. The specific growth rate if the same for each microorganism
and can be affected by several factors.
8. Industrial applications of biochemical processes are to use living cells or cellular
components to effect the desired physical or chemical changes. Biological
processes are prone to contamination.

183
9. An aqueous solution of molasses contains 20% by weight sucrose. The CO2 formed
in the reaction can be considered as having a negligible solubility in the solution.
Determine the % wt ethanol in solution after 98% of the sucrose has been converted
to ethyl alcohol by fermentation.
a. 11.22% b. 22.33% c. 33.44% d. 44.55%

10. A 50.00 ml aliquot of 0.1000 M calcium nitrate is added to a 1.000 g sample


containing sodium fluoride. After the calcium fluoride precipitate has been filtered
and collected, the x’css calcium (II) is titrated with EDTA. The titration requires
24.20 ml of 0.0500 M EDTA. Calculate the % NaF in the sample.
a. 31.38% b. 31.83% c. 33.18% d. 33.81%

11. Limestone (CaCO3) can be decomposed in a furnace to yield CaO(s) and CO2(g).If
the furnace used a water filter as a purification method to trap emitted gases, what
would happen to the pH of the water overtime?
a. Increase b. decrease c. remain the same d. equal to 1

For numbers 12 and 13,


Lactase, also known as B-galactosidase, catalyzes the hydrolysis of lactose to produce and
galactose from milk and whey. Experiments are carried out to determine the kinetic
parameters for enzyme. The initial rate data are as follows.
Lactose Concentration Reaction Velocity
(mol/L) (mol/L-min)
2.500 1.940
2.270 1.910
1.840 1.850
1.850 1.800
1.250 1.780
0.730 1.460
0.460 1.170
0.204 0.779

12. Calculate Vmax using Lineweaver-Burk Plot.


a. 1.11 mol/l-min
b. 2.22 mol/L-min
c. 3.33 mol/L-min
d. 4.44 mol/L-min

13. Calculate Km using Lineweaver-Burk Plot


a. 0.18 mol/L
b. 0.28 mol/L

184
c. 0.38 mol/L
d. 0.48 mol/L

14. In solution, glucose exists as:


a. The open-chain form only
b. The cyclic hemiacetal form only
c. The cyclic acetal form only
d. An equilibrium mixture of the open-chain form and cyclic acetal forms
e. An equilibrium mixture of the open-chain form and cyclic hemiacetal forms.

15. A 550.0 mg sample is analyzed for aluminum (III) by adding 50.00 ml of 0.0510
M EDTA and back-titrating the x’css EDTA with 14.40 ml of 0.0480 M Zinc (II).
Calc. the % aluminum in the sample
a. 19.2 % b. 9.21% c. 12.9% d. 9.12%

16. What is the assumption and model used in cell kinetics?


a. Structured, Distributed
b. Unstructured, Distributed
c. Structured, Segregated
d. Unstructured, Segregated

17. A 0.3284 g sample of brass (contg. Lead, zinc, copper and tin) was dissolved in
nitric acid. The sparingly soluble SnO2 x 4H2O was removed by filtration, and the
combined filtrate and washings were then diluted to 500.00 ml. A 10.00 ml aliquot
was masked with thiosulfate; the lead and zinc were then titrated with 27.67 ml of
the EDTA sol’n. Cyanide ion was used to mask the copper and zinc in a 100.00 ml
aliquot; 10.80 ml of the EDTA sol’n was needed to titrate the lead ion. Determine
% Cu in the brass sample.
a. 23.92% b. 29.32% c. 50.67% d. 50.76%

18. From no. 17, determine the % of tin by difference.


a. 23.92% b. 29.32% c. 50.67% d. 50.76%

19. A 1.20 g sample of a mixture of sodium hydroxide and sodium carbonate with inert
impurity is dissolved and titrated cold with 0.50N HCl. With phenolphthalein as
the indicator, the solution turns colorless after the addition of 30.0mL of the acid.
Methyl orange is then added, and 5.0mL more of the acid are required for the color
to change to pink. What is the percentage of sodium carbonate in the sample
a. 22.08% b. 32.11% c. 45.67% d. 41.67%

20. What is the normality of a solution of potassium permanganate if 40.0mL will


oxidize 0.30g of sodium oxalate?
a. 0.22 b. 0.06 c. 0.34 d. 0.59

185
21. Beaker A contains 0.1L of a 0.20M KOH solution; beaker B contains 0.1L of a 0.20
M HCl solution. The contents of the two beakers are thoroughly mixed together in
a sufficiently large third beaker. Calculate the molarity of the resulting salt solution.
a. 1M b. 0.001M c. 0.01M d. 0.1M

22. As a consulting engineer, you have been contracted to modify an existing control
device used in fly ash removal. The federal standards for emissions have been
changed to a total number basis.
a. 1.856 x 10-8 gr
b. 2.856 x 10-8 gr
c. 3.856 x 10-8 gr
d. 4.856 x 10-8 gr

23. Does the unit meet the effluent standard of 105.7 particles/ft3
a. The emission meets the standard
b. The emission doesn’t meet the standard
c. The emission conditionally meet the standard
d. There is not enough data

24. A sample of 500 mL of Genesee River was collected from just below the brewery.
Three mL of the river water sample is diluted to 300mL, aerated and seeded. The
DO content was 8.2 mg/L initially. After 5 days, the DO content had dropped to 6.7
mg/L. The second sample was obtained 60 days later and retested in identical
fashion. The initial DO was 8.3 mg/L and after 5 days, dropped to 6.4 mg/L. What
is the difference between the ultimate BOD of the two sample? Use k = 0.23/day.
a. 48.54 mg/L b. 58.54 mg/L c. 68.54 mg/L d. 78.54 mg/L

25. Marijuana is the most commonly used illegal drug in the United States and in the
World, and was a well-established medicine until it was federally criminalized in
1937. What is the chemical responsible for most of marijuana’s psychological
effects?
a. Octanitrocubane c. Cisplatin
b. Tetrahydrocannabinol d. Terapthalic acid

26. What is the percentage of the total acid expressed as acetic acid in a sample of
vinegar if 3.00 g of vinegar require 20.5 mL of 0.115N KOH solution for an
endpoint with phenolphthalein indicator?
a. 3% b. 4.7% c. 4.3% d. 11%

27. Which of the following is the minimum information necessary for calculating the
molality of a solution?
a. The mass of the solute and the volume of the solvent
b. The mass of the solute, the volume of the solvent, and the density of the
solvent

186
c. The mass of the solute, the volume of the solvent, and the molecular mass
of the solute.
d. The mass of the solute, the volume of the solvent, the molecular mass of the
solute, and the density of the solvent

28. A vacuum manifold was calibrated using Boyle’s law. A 0.503-dm^3 flask
containing dry nitrogen at 746 torr was attached to the manifold, which was at 13
mtorr. After the stopcock was opened and the system allowed to reach equilibrium,
the pressure of the combined system was 273 torr. Assuming isothermal conditions,
what is the volume of the manifold?
a. 0.728 dm^3 b. 0.872 dm^3 c. 0.827 dm^3 d. 0.782 dm^3

29. Which of the following is a TRUE statement?


a. A carbon atom is larger than a hydrogen atom
b. Citric acid cycle is also called as carboxylic acid cycle
c. Cardiolipids are a group of lipids found in heart muscles
d. Sanger dideoxy method uses carbon reactions

30. Sulfuric acid in water dissociates completely into H+ and HSO-4 ions. The HSO-4
ion dissociates to a limited extent into H+ and SO4 -2. The freezing point of 0.1000
m solution of sulfuric acid in water is 272.76 K. Calc. the molality of SO4 -2 in the
solution, assuming ideal solution behavior.
a. 0.0079 b. 0.097 c. 0.0097 d. 0.079

31. The process by which the genetic information encoded in DNA is read and used to
synthesize RNA in the nucleus of the cell
a. Transfer RNA c. Transamination
b. Trasncription d. Translation

32. How many products might be formed on chlorination of m-xylene?


a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4

33. An aqueous solution of glucose behaves as an aldehyde because:


a. It is hydrolysed by water to the free aldehyde
b. It is a ketoe, but is in equilibrium with the aldehyde form
c. Glucose is actually a cyclic aldehyde
d. Its cyclic hemiacetal, the predominant form, is in equilibrium with the free
aldehyde form
e. It can be oxidized with periodic acid.

34. The difference between heat capacity at constant volume and heat capacity at
constant pressure is the heat energy may be supplied (for constant) to increase
a. Internal energy c. pressure changes
b. volume changes d. temperature changes

187
35. Ozonolysis (O3 in CH2Cl2) of compound A under reducing conditions (Zn /acetic
acid) gives formaldehyde, 2-butanone, and compound B. Catalytic hydrogenation
(H2/Pd) of A gives 2,7-dimethylnonane. What is a possible structure for compound
A?
a. 2,7-Dimethyl-2,8-nonadiene c. 2,7-Dimethyl-1,6-nonadiene
b. 2,7-Dimethyl-1,8-nonadiene d. 2,7-Dimethyl-1,7-nonadiene

36. What weight of sample of impure oxalic acid should be taken for titration by 0.50N
NaOH so that the percentage of H2C2O4·2H2O will be twice the burette reading?
a. 1.57 g b. 2.33 g c. 2.11 g d. 1.02 g

37. What is the sequence of reagents that will accomplish the synthesis of the following
aromatic amine from benzene?
a. CH3Cl, AlCl3; HNO3, H2SO4; H2
b. CH3Cl, AlCl3; HNO3, H2SO4; Fe, HCl; NaOH
c. HNO3, H2SO4; Fe, HCl; NaOH; CH3Cl, AlCl3
d. HNO3, H2SO4; CH3Cl, AlCl3; Fe, HCl; NaOH

38. This type of spectroscopy is mainly used to tell functional groups within a
compound. Older versions require special salt plates, but newer technology has
made them obsolete. The “fingerprint region” in the readout is only useful for those
who have studied this method extensively, and isn’t very useful for beginners.
a. Nuclear Magnetic Resonance c. Infrared Spectroscopy
b. X-ray fluorescence d. Gas chromatography-mass spectroscopy

39. How may stereoisomers of 3-bromo-2-butanol, CH3CH(OH)CHBrCH3, exist?


a. 3 b. 1 c. 4 d. 2

40. A “strong water”| as defined from DAO 35 refers to the water whose initial BOD
value before treatment is equal to greater than
a. 500 b. 1000 c. 3000 d. 5000 e. 250

41. The biological decomposition of organic matter accomplished by the production of


foul smelling product associated with inadequate oxygen.
a. Assimilative capacity
b. Eutropication
c. Phosphorylation
d. Putrefaction

188
42. The Philippine Starch Corporation prepares pharmaceutical glucose from
cornstarch by enzyme hydrolysis. It was observed that when the starch
concentration of the slurry was 5%, the rate of concentration of starch to glucose
was 0.04 kg/s. When the starch concentration was made 10%, the turnover rate was
0.07 kg/s. The maximum production level of glucose that can be reasonably be
obtained per shift of 8 hours is
a. 8064 kg b. 7064 kg c. 6064 kg d. 5064 kg

43. Which of the following statements correctly describes the general reactivity of
alkynes?
a. An alkyne is an electron-rich molecule and therefore reacts as a nucleophile
b. The sigma bonds of alkynes are higher in energy than the pi bonds and are
thus more reactive
c. Unlike alkenes, alkynes fail to undergo electrophilic addition reactions
d. Alkynes are generally more reactive than alkenes

44. Which statements apply to an SN1 reaction?


I. The rate of limiting of the reaction involve the alkyl halide and the the
nucleophile
II. The order of reactivity is methyl>1>2>3
III. The rate limiting step of the reaction involves only the alkyl halide
IV. There is an intermediate carbocation

a. I,II b. III, IV c. I, IV d. III

45. Arrange the compounds in the order of increasing solubility in water


I. CH3CH2CH2CH2OCH3
II. CH3OCH3
III. CH3OCH2CH2OCH3
IV. CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2OH

a. I,III,II,IV b. III,I,IV,II c. I,IV d. IV,I,III,II

46. Which of the following is the most important progestin?


a. Androsterone
b. Estrone
c. Progesterone
d. Testosterone

47. The Del Factor to reduce the number of cells in a fermenter from 1010 viable
organisms to one is:
a. 21 b. 23 c. 25 d. 27

48. Which reaction does not lead to 3-methyl-3-hexanol?

189
a. 2-butanone + propylmagnesium bromide
b. 3-hexanone + methylmagnesium bromide
c. 2-pentanone + ethylmagnesium bromide
d. 3-pentanone + ethylmagnesium bromide

49. Which of the following does not belong to the group?


a. Aspirin b. Naprosyn c. Tylenol d. Kremil-S

50. Which statement does not describe a transition state?


a. Possesses a definite geometry
b. Maximum on the potential energy diagram
c. Structure can be determined experimentally
d. Cannot be isolated

51. The building blocks of proteins:


a. Carbohydrates b. Lipids c. Nucleic acids d. Amino Acids

52. Benzyl penicillinic acid is also known as


a. Penicillin A b. Penicillin G c. Penicillin B d. Penicillin H

53. The most general method for preparing alcohol is


a. Reduction of carbonyl group
b. Separation of carbonyl group
c. Oxidation of carbonyl group
d. Hydrogenation of carbonyl group

54. The partial double bond character of the peptide bond


a. Makes the link between two amino acids planar
b. Restricts free rotation about the bond
c. Is a result of resonance hybridization
d. All of these choices

55. In the systematic nomenclature of peptides, which is given first?


a. The residue that comes first alphabetically
b. The residue with the largest R-group
c. The C- terminal amino acid residue
d. The N-terminal amino acid residue

56. A balloon has a mass of 0.5 g when completely deflated. When it is filled with an
unknown gas, the mass increase to 1.7 g. You noticed on the canister of that
unknown gas that it occupies a volume of 0.4487 L at a temperature of 50 oC. You
note the temperature in the room is 25 oC. Give the possible name of the unknown
diatomic gas. Assume all the canister contents have been emptied and the condition
is held at 1 atm pressure. Use oC + 273.15 K for all the temperature conversion and
R=0.08206 Latm/Kmol.
a. Br2 b. Cl2 c. O2 d. N2

190
57. A 1.20g sample of a mixture of sodium hydroxide and sodium carbonate with inert
impurity is dissolved and titrated cold with 0.50N HCl. With phenolphthalein as
the indicator, the solution turns colorless after the addition of 30.0mL of the acid.
Methyl orange is then added, and 5.0mL more of the acid are required for the color
to change to pink. What is the percentage of NaOH in the sample?
a. 22.08 % b. 32.11% c. 45.67% d. 41.67%

58. The reaction C2H5ONa + C2H5I C2H6OC2H5+NaI is known as


a. Kolbe’s Synthesis
b. Wurtz’s Synthesis
c. Williamson’s synthesis
d. Grignard’s Synthesis

59. Cetane number indicates the amount of


a. Heptane
b. 2,2,4-trimethylnaphthalene
c. 1-methylnaphthalene
d. n-hexadecane

60. A 1-month-old male showed abnormalities of the nervous system and lactic
acidosis. Enzyme assay for pyruvate dehydrogenase (PDH) activity on extracts of
cultured skin fibroblasts showed 5% of normal activity, with a low concentration
(1 x 10-4 mM) of thiamine pyrophosphate (TPP), but 80% of normal activity when
the assay contained a high (0.4 mM) concentration of TPP. Which one of the
following statements concerning this patient is most correct?
a. Elevated levels of lactate and pyruvate in the blood reliably predict the
presence of PDH deficiency
b. The patient is expected to show disturbances in fatty acid degradation
c. A diet consisting of high carbohydrate intake would be expected to be
beneficial in this patient
d. Alanine concentration in the blood is expected to be less than normal
e. Administration of thiamine is expected to reduce his serum lactate
concentration and improve his clinical symptoms

61. Which of the following statement is not valid?


a. Above the critical temperature, the given substance has a single phase
occupying the entire volume of the container
b. The Tc of O2 is 155 K, this means that it is impossible to prodce O 2 if its T
is above 155K
c. To liquefy a given substance at Tc, high pressure must be applied
d. Liquid and vapor exist at Tc and both phases are distinct

191
62. In 1932, James Chadwick bombarded a thin sheet of beryllium with alpha particles,
and paved way for his discovery of this very small particles. What is this small
particle?
a. Electron b. Proton c. Neutron d. Atom
63. Which of the following is not true about acids?
a. Sour tastes
b. Reacts with metal to produce gas
c. Changes litmus from blue to red
d. Aqueous solutions do not conduct electricity

64. The 5-day BOD of domestic sewage is 200 ppm and its removal rate constant K is
0.23/day. What is the ultimate BOD in ppm?
a. 29.27 ppm b. 60.1 ppm c. 292.7 ppm d. 400 ppm

65. An open chamber rest on the ocean floor in 50 m of sea water (SG=1.03). The air
pressure in kilopascals that must be maintained inside to exclude water is nearest
to
a. 318 b. 431 c. 505 d. 661

66. A small bubble rises from the bottom of a lake, where temperature and pressure are
8 deg C and 6.4 atm, to the water’s surface, where the temperature is 25 deg C and
pressure is 1 atm. Calculate the final volume of the bubble if its initial volume was
2.1mL.
a. 10 ml b. 12 ml c. 14mL d. 16 ml

67. A 7.5 m3 chemostat operating at 75% capacity is producing biomass from a glucose
feed at a volumetric flow rate of 46.9 L/min. The specific growth rate of the
organism is:
a. 0.373/h b. 0.0083/h c. 0.5/h d. 0.006/h

68. Sodium azide is used in some automobiles air bags. The impact collision
decomposes the sodium azide to sodium and nitrogen gas. Calculate the volume of
the nitrogen gas generated during impact at 85 deg C and 812 mmHg from 50.0g
sample of sodium azide.
a. 12L b. 32 L c. 43 L d. 16 L

69. All of the following factors increase the strength of van der Waals forces between
molecules except by an
a. Increase in the molecular weight of the molecules
b. Increase in the number of atoms in the molecules
c. Increase in the number of electrons in the molecules
d. Increase in the ionic strength of the molecule

192
70. Robert Boyle became famous due to his studies in gas collisions. What is the
nationality of Boyle?
a. Polish b. Irish c. English d. American

71. A flammable gas made up only of carbon and hydrogen is found to effuse through
porous barrier in 3.50 min. Under the same conditions of temperature and pressure,
it takes an equal volume of chlorine gas 7.34 mins to effuse through the same
barrier. Calculate the molar mass of the unknown gas.
a. 12 g/mol b. 16 g/mol c. 18 g/mol d. 24 g/mol

72. Cisplatin, whose formula is PtCl2(NH3)2 is an


a. Anti-histamine drug
b. Anti-inflammatory
c. Anti-cancer drug
d. Antiseptic drug

73. A given amount of electric charge deposits 2.159 gram of silver from an Ag+
solution. What mass of copper from a Cu+2 solution will be deposited by the same
quantity of electric charge? Atomic masses: Ag = 107.87 g/mol; Cu = 63.5 g/mol
a. 0.635 gram b. 0.356 gram c. 0.535 gram d. 0.335 gram

74. Which of the following compounds can undergo the aidol reaction
a. Benzaldehyde
b. 2,2,6,6-tetramethylcyclohexanone
c. Formaldehyde
d. 2,2-dimethylcyclohexanone

75. Which of the following is a TRUE statement/


a. A carbon atom is larger than a hydrogen atom
b. Citric acid cycle is also called as carboxylic acid cycle
c. Cardiolipids are a group of lipids found in heart muscles
d. Sanger dideoxy method uses carbon reactions

76. Which functional group will cause an IR absorption of 3500/cm?


a. Alkyne
b. Alkane
c. Ketone
d. Alcohol

193
77. Glutathione removes potentially harmful oxidants in human body and is a common
whitening agent among Filipinos. How many carbon atoms does glutathione have?
a. 10 b. 12 c. 7 d. 15

78. Which of the following is an aldohexose?


a. Glucose b. Fructose c. Ribose d. Sedoheptulose

79. How much money was appropriated for the initial implementation of the Philippine
Clean Air Act of 1999?
a. 500 Million pesos
b. 750 Million pesos
c. 600 Million pesos
d. 1 Billion pesos

80. Which of the following is the most acidic?


a. Ethanol
b. Methanol
c. Butanol
d. Phenol

194
ANSWER KEY

PRELIM EXAMINATION
1. B 41. D
2. A 42. A
3. B 43. A
4. B 44. B
5. D 45. B
6. C 46. C
7. A 47. B
8. C 48. D
9. A 49. D
10. C 50. C
11. B 51. D
12. B 52. B
13. C 53. A
14. E 54. E
15. D 55. D
16. B 56. B
17. A 57. E
18. D 58. C
19. A 59. D
20. B 60. E
21. D 61. D
22. A 62. C
23. B 63. D
24. B 64. C
25. B 65. C
26. B 66. C
27. D 67. C
28. B 68. B
29. C 69. D
30. C 70. C
31. B 71. B
32. C 72. C
33. D 73. A
34. B 74. A
35. C 75. C
36. A 76. D
37. B 77. A
38. C 78. A
39. C 79. B
40. C 80. D

195
PRELIMINARY EXAMINATION SOLUTIONS

10. (50.00)(0.1000) – (24.20)(0.0500) = 3.70 mole Ca


(3.970)(2)(41.99)(100)
= = 31.83 % NaF
1000.0

12. Using Lineweaver-Burk Plot;


Using calculator, Mode>Stat>A+Bx
Input (x) = 1/Concetration
Input (y) = 1/ velocity
Get Vmax by: 1/A
Vmax = 2.22 mol/L-min

13. From number 12;


Get Km by: B/A Km = 0.38 mol/L

15. Al3+ + Y4- AIY-


50
0.051 mol/L EDTA 𝑥 𝐿 = 2.55x10-3mol EDTA
1000

Zn2+ + Y4- ZnY2-


14.40 1𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝑌4−
0.0480 mol/L Zn2+ 𝑥 𝐿 Zn2+ x 1𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝑍𝑛2+ = 6.912x10-4mol EDTA
1000

mol EDTA reacted w/ Al3+ = (2.55x10-3) – (6.912x10-4)


= 1.8588x10-3 mol EDTA = mol of Al3+
26.98𝑔 1000𝑚𝑔
Mass Al3+ = 1.858x10-3 x x x 50.1504mg
1𝑚𝑜𝑙 1𝑔
50.1504
%Al3+ = 𝑥 100 = 𝟗. 𝟏𝟐%
550

5 1𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝑁𝑎2𝐶𝑂3 105.99𝑔 𝑁𝑎2𝐶𝑂3


19. 0.5mol/L HCl x 𝐿x 𝑥 = 0.264975g Na2CO3
1000 1𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝐻𝐶𝑙 1𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝑁𝑎2𝐶𝑂3

0.264975
% Na2CO3 = 𝑥 100 = 22.08%
1.2

196
20. KMnO4 + Na2C2O4 NaMnO4 + K2C2O4
1𝑚𝑜𝑙 Na2C2O4 1𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝐾𝑀𝑛𝑂4
0.3g Na2C2O4 𝑥 𝑥 1𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝑁𝑎2𝐶2𝑂4 𝑥 = 2.2388 𝑥10 − 3 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝐾𝑀𝑛𝑂4
134𝑔 Na2C2O4
2.2388𝑥10−3𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝐾𝑀𝑛𝑂4
Molarity = 1𝐿 = 0.0560 𝑀
40𝑚𝑙 𝑥
1000𝑚𝐿

Normality = 0.0560𝑀 𝑥 5 = 𝟎. 𝟐𝟑 𝑵

21. KOH + HCl KCl + H2O


0.02 mol 0.02 mol 0 0
0 0 0.02 0.02
0.02 𝑚𝑜𝑙
Molarity = (0.1+ 0.1)𝐿 = 𝟎. 𝟏𝑴

22. Data for the unit are given below.


Average particle size, dp = µm (assume constant)
Particle specific gravity = 2.3
Inlet loading = 3.0 gr/ft3
Efficient (mass basis) = 99%
m = 1.856 x 10-8 gr

24.
1st BOD testing: After 60 days
Do = 8.2 mg/L Do = 8.3 mg/L
Df = 6.7 mg/L Df = 6.4 mg/L
(8.2−6.7)𝑚𝑔/𝐿 (8.3−6.4)𝑚𝑔/𝐿
BOD5 = = 150 BOD5 = = 190
3/300 3/300

1−𝑒^(−𝑘𝑡) 1−𝑒^(−𝑘𝑡)
Lo = 𝐵𝑂𝐷5
Lo = 𝐵𝑂𝐷5
1−𝑒^(−0.23𝑥5) 1−𝑒^(−0.23𝑥5)
= =
150 190

Lo = 219.50 mg/L Lo = 278.04 mg/L

197
∆Lo = 278.04 mg/L – 219.50 mg/L
∆Lo = 58.54 mg/L

26. CH3COOH + KOH CH3COOK + H2O

20.5 1𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝐶𝐻3𝐶𝑂𝑂𝐻 60.06𝑔 𝐶𝐻3𝐶𝑂𝑂𝐻


0.115mol/L KOH 𝑥 𝐿𝑥 𝑥 = 0.1416𝑔 𝐶𝐻3𝐶𝑂𝑂𝐻
1000 1𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝐾𝑂𝐻 1𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝐶𝐻3𝐶𝑂𝑂𝐻

0.1416
% CH3COOH = 𝑥 100 = 𝟒. 𝟕𝟐 %
3

28. ∆P1V1 = P2V2


(0.503)(746 – 273) = 273 (V2)
V2 = 0.87149 dm3

64. 5-day BOD = 200 mg/L (due to carbon only); k=0.23/day


L(5)= L0 [1-e(-k*5)] = 2000 mg/L= L(0) [1-e(-0.23*5) ]
Ultimate BOD Lo = 292.6 mg/L

65. p = ywaterh = (SG)(ywater)(h)


P = (1.03)(9.81)(50) = 505 kPa

66. P1V1T2 = P2V2T1


(6.4atm)(2.1mL)(298.15K) = (1atm)(V2)(281.15K)
V2 = 14.25mL

68. 2NaN3 → 2Na+3N2 (balanced equation)


1 𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑒 𝑁𝑎𝑁3 3 𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑒𝑠 𝑁2
50 g (64.99 𝑔 𝑁𝑎𝑁3) = 0.769 𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑒𝑠 𝑁𝑎𝑁3 (2 𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑒𝑠 𝑁𝑎𝑁3) = 1.1535 moles N2

PV = nRT

198
812 𝑚𝑚ℎ𝑔 𝐿−𝑎𝑡𝑚
(760 𝑚𝑚ℎ𝑔)(𝑉) = 1. 1535 𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑒𝑠 𝑁2 (0.08206 )(85 + 273.15)
𝑚𝑜𝑙−𝐾

V = 31.73 L = 32 L

𝑟1 𝑡 𝑀
71. = 𝑡2 = √𝑀2
𝑟2 1 1

3.50 𝑚𝑖𝑛 𝑀
= √ 𝑔
7.34 𝑚𝑖𝑛 35.43
𝑚𝑜𝑙

𝑀 = 8.06 𝑔/𝑚𝑜𝑙
M = 8.06 g/mol (2) = 16 g/mol

73. Silver moles = given mass / molar mass = 2.158 / 107.9 = 0.0200 moles. of silver.
If you we have 0.02 moles of Ag, we will only get 0.01 moles of Cu

n = Mass / atomic mass


n = 0.01
molar mass = 63.5

0.01 = x / 63.5
x = 0.635 grams of Cu

199
MIDTERM EXAMINATION
CHEMICAL ENGINEERING
1. Particle diameter representation which is defined as the width of the minimum
square aperture through which the particle will pass.
a. Feret’s diameter b. Martin’s diameter
c. Sieve diameter d. Projected area diameter
2. Equivalent diameter of a particle which is referred to the average distance between
pairs of parallel tangents to the projected outline of the particle.

a. Feret’s diameter b. Martin’s diameter


c. Sieve diameter d. Projected area diameter
3. Which of the following is not a standard in a particle size distribution using sieves?

a. Tyler series b. API


c. US series ATM d. all are standards
4. In Moh’s scale, which is the hardest among the materials given?

a. Apatite b. Quartz
c. Feldspar d. Topaz
5. A crushed material of certain ore has 3’’ – diameter particle and has density of
170lb/ft. If the specific surface area ratio is 10, what is the specific surface in cm²
per g of ore?

a. 2.89 b. 28.9 c. 7.2 d. 72


6. The energy required to reduce the size of a certain ore from 1cm to 0.3cm is
11kJ/kg. What is the power requirement to reduce the same set of material from
0.1cm to 0.01cm assuming Kick’s law apply?
a. 21 b. 91
c. 423 d. None of the choices

7. What is the sphericity of cylinder assuming that the equivalent length is equivalent
to its height?
a. 0.806 b. 0.857
c. 0.874 d. 1
8. In an analysis of a certain crushed material, the total surface area of a certain
fraction of a 5kg sample that passed through a 7 mesh sieve but was caught on a 9

200
mesh sieve is 7.88m². If the density of the material is 1050 kg/m³ and the shape
factor is 1.75, find the fraction.

a. 34% b. 38% c. 42% d. 52%


9. What is the sphericity of a cylinder with L/D ratio of 1?
a. 0.806 b. 0.857 c. 0.874 d. 1

10. What is the sphericity of a cube?


a. 0.806 b. 0.857 c. 0.874 d. 1
11. Find the width of an apron conveyor without skirts whose capacity is 56tons/hr at
a speed of 50rpm handling solids with density of 50lb/cuft.
a. 36 inches b. 38 inches c. 40 inches d. 52 inches
12. A type of a gas-solid separator employing centrifugal force.
a. elutriator b. cyclones
c. centrifuge d. none of these
13. The energy required per unit mass to grind limestone particles of very large size to
100mm is 12kWh/ton. An estimate (using Bond’s law) of the energy to grind the
particles from a very large size to 50mm is
a. 18kWh/ton b. 10kWh/ton c. 15kWh/ton d.12kWh/ton

14. A material is crush in a Blake Jaw Crusher and the average size of particle reduces
from 50mm to 10mm with the consumption of energy at the rate of 13kW(kg/s).
The consumption of energy needed to crush the same material of an material of an
average size 75mm to an average size 25mm assuming Kick’s Law applies is
a. 8.88kW(kg/s) b. 8.08kW(kg/s)
c. 4.66kW(kg/s) d. 4.33kW(kg/s)
15. Saturated steam at 110⁰C is available and the temperature in the condenser is 43⁰C.
Specific heat of the solutions may be taken is constant at 4 J/g ⁰C. The overall-heat
transfer coefficient is 2840W/m² ⁰C. Determine the steam consumption, in kg/hr.
a. 3400 b. 4700 c. 5800 d. 6500
16. Refer to item no. 15, how many square meters of heating surface are required?
a. 15 b. 13 c. 11 d. 9
For numbers 17 to 18. Determine the boiling point rise for the following solutions
of biological solutions in water.

201
17. A 30 wt% solution of citric acid in water boiling at 220⁰F

a. 3.4⁰F b. 1.8⁰F c. 2.2⁰F d. 4.5⁰F


18. A 40 wt% solution of sucrose in water boiling at 220⁰F
a. 1.4⁰F b. 2.1⁰F c. 3.2⁰F d. 4.9⁰F

19. The rate of increase of the number of bacteria under certain condition is
proportional to the number of bacteria. If the number doubles in four hours, how
much increase in number of bacteria can be expelled after 12 hours?

a. 2 b. 4 c. 6 d. 8
20. A second order reaction involving reactants initially present at 0.10moles/L is
found to be 20% complete in 40minutes, when the reaction is 25⁰C, and 40%
complete in 35 minutes, when the reaction is 50⁰C. What is the activation energy
for this reaction in cal/mol?
a. 2700 cal/mol b. 8500 cal/mol c. 1020 cal/mol d. 5530
cal/mol
21. In a first order reaction the time required to reduce the concentration of reactant
from 1mol/L to 0.5mol/L will be _____________ that required to reduce it from
10mol/L to 5mol/L in the same volume.
a. more than b. less than c. same d. data sufficient

22. If a first order reversible liquid reaction A ↔ B is conducted in a batch reactor. The
initial concentrations are 𝐶𝐴0 = 0.5gmol/L and 𝐶𝐵0 = 0. After 8 minutes, the
fractional conversion of A is 1/3 and at equilibrium, the fractional conversion of
2/3. Find the equilibrium constant.
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4

23. A gaseous reaction, A → 2B + C takes place isothermally in a constant pressure


reactor. Starting with gaseous mixture containing 50% A, the ratio of final to initial
volume is found to be 1.6. Calculate the percentage conversion of A.

a. 30 b. 50 c. 60 d. 74
24. Pick the wrong statement pertaining to space velocity of flow reactors.

a. The unit space velocity is (𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑒)−1 .

b. The space velocity of 3 ℎ𝑟 −1 means that the three reactor volumes of feed at
specified conditions are being fed into the reactor every hour.

202
c. The space velocity of 3 ℎ𝑟 −1 means that the one third reactor volume of feed at
specified conditions are being fed into the reactor.

d. None of these.
25. For liquid phase zero order irreversible reaction A → B, the conversion of A in a
CSTR is found to be 0.3 at space velocity of 0.1𝑚𝑖𝑛−1 . What will be the conversion
for PFR with a space velocity of 0.2𝑚𝑖𝑛−1 ? Assume that all the other operating
conditions are the same for CSTR and PFR.
a. 0.15 b. 0.30 c. 0.60 d. 0.90

For numbers 26-28: A homogenous liquid phase, A → R, −𝑟𝐴 = 𝑘𝐶𝐴 ² takes place
with 50% conversion in a mixed reactor.
26. The value of space time
a. 1/(2k𝐶𝐴0 ) b. 2/(𝑘𝐶𝐴0 ) c. 1/(k𝐶𝐴0 ) d. 3/(k𝐶𝐴0 )

27. What is the conversion if the reactor is replaced by one 6 times as large – all
else remaining unchanged?
a. 0.67 b. 0.75 c. 0.70 d. 0.79
28. 28. Calculate the conversion if the original reactor is replaced by a plug flow reactor
of equal size – all else remaining unchanged?
a. 0.67 b. 0.90 c. 0.88 d. 0.92
29. The separation of solid particles into several size fractions based upon the settling
velocities in a medium is called
a. settling b. filtration
c. flotation d. classification

30. An apparatus in which particles settle in a liquid by gravitational or centrifugal


force and are removed as a concentrated slurry.
a. classifier b. thickener c. elutriator d. agitator

31. What is the absolute velocity of a real fluid at a surface?


a. the same as the bulk fluid velocity
b. the velocity of the surface

c. zero.
d. proportional to the smoothness of the surface

203
32. Which of the following sets of reversible processes describes an ideal Otto cycle?
I. Adiabatic compression, constant volume heat addition, adiabatic expansion,
constant volume heat rejection
II. Isothermal compression, isobaric heat addition, isothermal expansion, isobaric
heat rejection

a. I only
b. II only
c. I and II in succession

d. II and I in succession
33. Which of the following statements regarding Rankine cycles is false?
a. Use of condensable vapor in the cycle increases the efficiency of the cycle
b. The temperatures at which energy is transferred to and from the working liquid
are less separated than in a Carnot cycle
c. Superheating increases the efficiency of a Rankine cycle

d. In practical terms, the susceptibility of the engine materials to corrosion is not a


key limitation on the operating efficiency.
34. Which of the following is/are representation of a carnot cycle?

a. I and II b. I and III c. II and III d. all of these

35. For which type of process is the equation dQ = TdS valid?


a. Irreversible b. Reversible c. Isothermal d. Isobaric
36. The general energy equation for an open system involves the following terms:

I. Accumulation of energy IV. Transfer of energy in by mass flow


II. Net energy transfer by work V. Transfer of energy out by mass flow

204
III. Net energy transfer by heat
a. I = -II + III + IV – V

b. I = II + III + IV + V
c. I = II + III + IV – V
d. I = II – III – IV + V

37. Which of the following flow meters measure/s the average fluid velocity rather than
a point or local velocity in a pipe?
I. Venturi meter IV. Orifice meter

II. Pitot tube V. Hot-wire anemometer


III. Impact tube
a. I and III b. III and V c. I and IV d. II and V

38. Consider the following two flows of water in the figure shown. What is the relation
between the velocity at point 2 in I and II?

a. V2(I) =V2(II)
b. V2(I) =1/2 V2(II)
c. V2(I) =2 V2(II)
d. V2(I) =4 V2(II)
39. Which of the following describes a streamline?

I. It is a mathematical concept
II. It cannot be crossed by the flow
III. It is a line of constant entropy

a. I and II b. I and III c. II and III d. all of these


40. Calculate the terminal velocity of a steel ball, 2mm diameter and of density
7870kg/m³ in an oil of density of 900kg/m³ and viscosity 50mN-s/m².

205
a. 0.189m/s b. 0.289m/s c. 0.389m/s d. 0.489m/s
41. The thermodynamic equilibrium constant is unaffected by the following except:

a. Pressure of the system c. velocity of the flow


b. Presence or absence of inerts d. kinetics of the reaction
42. He pioneered the work of the first commercial steam turbine (5hp).

a. George Herman Babcock c. Gustaf de Laval


b. Stephen Wilcox d. John Barber
43. Power plants should operate on the following conditions:

a. below 100,000kPa and below 600⁰C c. above 100,000kPa and above 600⁰C
b. below 100,000kPa and above 600⁰C d. above 100,000kPa and below 600⁰C
44. The Diesel engine differs from the Otto engine because

a. higher compression ratio c. low cut-off ratio


b. lower compression ratio d. high cut-off ratio
45. Air is flowing at a steady rate of 0.0232 lb/sec through a straight tube having an
inside diameter of 0.2 inch. At the first section, the air has a temperature of 70⁰F
and is under an absolute pressure of 0.2atm. The tube is heated and the net input
power, between the first and second section, is 174 watts. The air at the second
section is under an absolute pressure of 0.1atm. The average specific heat of the air
is 0.24BTU/lb ⁰F. Calculate the temperature of the air leaving the second section.
a. 63⁰F b. 73⁰F c. 83⁰F d. 93⁰F
46. A tank of relatively non-volatile oil is to be cooled from 200⁰ to 100⁰C by blowing
cold air at 1 atm and 20⁰C through it. How long will this process take if the air
leaving the tank is always in thermal equilibrium with the oil? Assume that the air
bubbles keep the oil well agitated.
Data: Heat capacity of oil = 0.81 cal/(g ⁰C) Air rate (1 atm and 20⁰C) =
100cfm
Capacity of the oil tank = 1,000 gal Sp. Gr of oil = 0.88
a. 4,550 min b. 5,550 min c. 6,550 min d. 7,550min
47. A very dilute gas mixture of sulfur dioxide in air is contacted with water in a 25
mm ID wetted wall column at 20⁰C and 1 atm. The velocity of gas mixture is
2.2m/s. Determine the friction factor.

206
a. 0.01 b. 0.003 c. 0.006 d. 0.008
48. The rotational speed in RPM that you could recommend for a ball mill, 1200 mm
in diameter charged with 75 mm balls is
a. 30 b. 60 c. 10 d. 50
49. In countercurrent liquid-liquid extraction, the maximum concentration of solute in
extract layer
a. Is that corresponding to equilibrium with the incoming feed
b. Is less that the concentration corresponding to equilibrium with the incoming
feed
c. Can be increased than the obtained in (a) above by using raffinate reflux
d. none of the above
50. An isobaric steam generating process starts with saturated liquid at 143kPa. The
change in entropy is equal to the initial entropy. Not all of the liquid is vaporized.
What is mostly nearly the change in enthalpy during the process?

a. 110kJ/kg b. 270kJ/kg c. 410kJ/kg d. 540kJ/kg


51. A current of 200A is passed through a stainless steel wire ( k =22.5, SI units) with
a diameter of 5mm and length of 1 m. The electrical resistance of the wire is
0.1ohm. Estimate the temperature at the center of the wire if the outer surface
temperature is held at 114⁰C

a. 114.5 degC b. 116.3 degC c. 128.4 degC d. 134.7 degC


52. What is the BPR of a 30% NaOH solution at an evaporator pressure of 3.722psia?
a. 17 degF b. 25 degF c. 29 degF d. 33 degF

53. A system consists of moist air and water inside a closed container. What is this
system’s degree of freedom?
a. 0 b. 1 c. 2 d. 3

54. A newly designed air-conditioning unit has a capacity of 3140 watts and an input
rating of 735 watts. If this machine is operated as heat pump, its COP is
a. 4.27 b. 5.27 c. 4.44 d. 5.44

55. The evidence that the solute does not freeze with the solvent is that
a. the first crystals formed are precipitates of the solute

207
b. the crystals formed could clearly be seen as that of the solution
c. the freezing point of the solution that remains a liquid is getting lower and lower
as freezing proceeds
d. the freezing point asymptotically a constant value.
56. What does the dashed curve in the figure represent?

a. the solidus line


b. an isotherm
c. the saturated liquid line

d. the saturated vapor line


57. For the Carnot cycle shown, helium is the gas used with a specific heat ratio, k, of
𝑉 𝑇 𝑃
5/3. Given that 𝑉𝐵 = 2 and 𝑇𝐴 = 1.9, calculate 𝑃𝐶 .
𝐴 𝐷 𝐴

a. 0.0633 c. 0.1800
b. 0.1000 d. 0.2620

58. Pick out the wrong statement.


a. entering velocity of the liquid in the tubes of natural circulation evaporators is in
the range of 0.3 to 0.9m/s.

b. duhring’s plot is used for calculating the concentration of solution

208
c. the value of hydrostatic head increases with increase in vacuum in the effect in a
multiple effect evaporator system

d. In a multiple effect evaporator system, the number of effects is limited by the


total boiling point rise.
59. Which of the following has the minimum absorptivity?

a. Refractory bricks b. Aluminum foil c. Iron plates d. Coal dust


60. To reduce the tube side pressure drop for the same flow rate, the heat exchanger
recommended is

a. 1-1 heat exchanger


b. 1-2, heat exchanger
c. 2-4, heat exchanger
d. 3-2 heat exchanger
61. Drying operation under vacuum is carried out to
a. reduce drying temperature

b. dry those materials which have very high unbound moisture content
c. dry materials having high bound moisture content
d. increase drying temperature

62. Pick out the wrong statement.


a. Packed towers are preferred for vacuum operation, because the pressure drop
through the packing is less and they (packings) also lessen the possibility of tower
wall collapse.
b. Packed towers are preferred over plate towers for handling corrosive and foamy
liquids.
c. due to uneven supply and improper distribution of liquid, problem of channeling,
loading & flooding is generally encountered in packed towers.

d. diameter of randomly packed towers is normally more than 1.2m.


63. For zero order reaction, the concentration of product increases with the
a. increase of reaction time c. increase in initial concentration
b. total pressure d. decrease in total pressure

209
64. Which of the following curves shows the effect of temperature on the gas-solid
adsorption at a given pressure?

a. Freundlich adsorption isotherm c. Langmuir adsorption isotherm


b. Adsorption isobar d. None of these
65. Pick out the wrong statement.

a. In a continuous flow reactor, uniform concentration can not be maintained


throughout the vessel even in a well agitated system
b. In a continuous flow reactor, both the reactants and products flow out
continuously.
c. In a semi-batch reactor, one reactant is charged otherwise, while the other
reactant is fed continuously.

d. In a batch reactor, which is exclusively used for liquid phase reactions;


temperature pressure and composition may vary with time.
66. Which of the following denotes the effect of compressibility in fluid flow?

a. Weber number b. Euler number


c. Reynolds number d. Mach number
67. Pick out the wrong statement pertaining to the design of the bubble cap tray of a
distillation column to give stable operation and even vapor distribution.
a. the dimensionless ratio of liquid gradient to pressure drop head caused by the
bubble cap assembly should be less than 0.4.
b. the pressure drop due to the caps and slots and the static submergence should be
as high as practicable for reasonable operation

c. Tendency towards stable operation is increased by increasing the skirt clearance


of the caps, lowering the rate of liquid flow per unit plate width or increasing the
spacing between the caps.

d. none of these
68. It is the procedure in which a fraction of the fees to a process unit is diverted around
the unit and combined with the output stream from the unit.

a. Recycle b. Bypass c. Purge d. Reflux


69. A storage tank of demineralized water has a holding capacity of 1800m3 up to an
overflow point. The DM water having silica content of 0.005mg/L is flowing into
a tank at a rate of 25L/s. The outflow from a tank to the high pressure boiler is

210
25L/s. With time, the quantity of DM water deteriorates and the silica content rose
up to 0.02mg/L. Assuming that the inflow and the outflow remains constant,
determine the time in hrs required for the silica content in the storage tank to
increase to 0.01mg/L.
a. 76.6 b. 6.77 c. 7.66 d. 66.7 e. 8.11

70. One gram of a magnesium-aluminum alloy was reacted with excess muriatic acid
to form magnesium chloride, aluminum chloride and hydrogen gas. Hydrogen gas
collected over mercury at 0⁰C occupied at 2.835L at 39.26kPa. Find the %Al in the
alloy.
a. 44 b. 56 c. 54 d. 46
For numbers 71 and 72,

The fresh feed to the process was 0.5kmol/hr of O2 and an excess methanol. All of
the O2 reacts in the reactor. Formaldehyde and water are removed from the product
stream first, after which H2 is removed from the recycled methanol. The recycle
flow rate of methanol was 1kmol/hr. The ratio of methanol reacting by
decomposition to that by oxidation was 3.
71. Calculate the per pass conversion in % of methanol in the reactor

a. 60 b. 70 c. 80 d. 90
72. Calculate the fresh feed rate (in kmol/hr) of methanol

a. 3 b. 3.5 c. 4 d. 4.5
73. Natural gas containing 80% CH4, 15% C2H6, and 5% C3H8 is burnt with 50%
excess air. Assuming that 90% of the carbon in the hydrocarbons are converted to
CO2 and the rest to CO, determine the %mol of H2O produced in stack gas.
a. 5 b. 5.5 c. 6 d. 6.5 e. 2.25
74. A solid fuel consisting of 90.04% C, 0.79% S, 1.2%N with no ash and moisture
undergoes combustion with excess air. Analysis of stack gas shows 10.83% CO2,
1.08% CO, 0.22%H2, 79.9%N2 and 7.97%O2. Calculate the ultimate H in the solid
fuel.

a. 5.07 b. 8.04 c. 2.9 d. 5.39


75. The most matured coal out of the following is
a. Bituminous b. Semi-anthracite c. Sub-bituminous d. Lignite

76. Gross calorific value will be equal to the net calorific value for

211
a. H2 b. C2H2 c. CO d. C2H6
77. A fluid flow (Cp = 4.0kJ/kg-K) flowing at 0.5kg/s is to be heated from 18⁰C to 30⁰C
in a medium sized 2-3 STHE using another fluid (Cp = 1.20kJ/kg-K), which enters
on the shell side of the exchanger at 71⁰C and to leave at 62⁰C. The overall heat
transfer coefficient is 50W/m²-K. What is the flow rate of the other fluid?

a. 2.2 b. 2.0 c. 3.0 d. 2.5


78. In the previous problem, what is the surface are for heat transfer?
a. 8.8 b. 6.61 c. 9.72 d. 11.55

79. Because of fouling due to prolonged use, the exit temperature of the cold fluid
becomes 28⁰
a. 0.00669 b. 0.00103 c. 0.000931 d. 0.00483

80. What is the simplest type of heat exchanger?


a. Double-pipe HE b. Shell-and-tube HE
c. Cross-flow HE d. Finned-type HE

81. In a distillation column, the bottom section has the following characteristics,
a. highest temperature b. highest pressure
c. both a and b d. neither a nor b

82. Minimum reflux of stagrs can be achieved through


a. total reflux c. alternate use of tray and packings
b. maximum reboiling d. oversized condenser
83. The overall separation efficiency can be dictated by
a. relative volatilies c. intimate contact on each tray/stage

b. number of trays d. all of the above


84. As the temperature of the liquid increases, its vapor pressure tends to
a. decrease b. increase
c. remain the same d. fluctuate relative to the liquid’s density
85. What is the boiling point of a benzene-toluene mixture under atmospheric pressure
if the mixture contains 0.682 mole fraction toluene?

a. 100degC b. 95degC
c. 89degC d. 98degC

212
86. In the above question, when the resulting vapor is condensed, the liquid
composition contains how much benzene (mole fraction)?

a. 0.532 b. 0.83
c. 0.425 d. 0.18
87. What are the advantages of extraction processes compared with other separation
processes?
a. Extraction is a separation process which involves no evaporation; carried out
mostly at ambient temperature and can be used as a separation process for high
temperature sensitive products.
b. All streams are in liquid phase, therefore the system pressures are lower, resulting
in thinner walls needed for the equipments.

c. There are no specific advantages.


d. The treatment of the process products is easier, since all are in liquid phase. There
is no cooling energy needed.

88. 88.In liquid-liquid extraction 10 kg of a solution containing 2 kg of solute C and 8


kg of solvent A is brought into contact with 10 kg of solvent B. Solvents A and B
are completely immiscible in each other whereas solute C is soluble in both the
solvents. The extraction process attains equilibrium. The equilibrium relationship
between the two phases is Y* = 0.9X where Y* is kg of C/kg of B and X is kg of
C/kg of A. Choose the correct answer.
a. the entire amount of C is transferred to solvent
b. less than 2 kg but more than 1 kg of C is transferred to solvent B
c. less than 1 kg of C is transferred to B
d. no amount of C is transferred to B
89. Determine the state of water according to the following condition of at 440⁰F with
density of 842.3679kg/m³.
a. saturated liquid
b. saturated vapor
c. sub-saturated
d. superheated

213
90. A utility runs a Rankine Cycle with a water boiler at 3.5MPa and the cycle has the
highest and lowest temperature of 450⁰C and 45⁰C respectively. What is the cycle
efficiency?
a. 0.36
b. 0.84

c. 0.53
d. 0.61

214
ANSWER KEY

MIDTERM EXAMINATION
1. C. Sieve diameter 46. A. 4,550min
2. A. Feret’s diameter 47. D. 008
3. B. API 48. A. 30
4. D. Topaz 49. A. Is that corresponding to equilibrium
5. A. 2.89 with the incoming feed
6. A. 21 50. D. 540KJ/kg
7. C. 0.874 51. C. 128.4deg C
8. B. 38% 52. B. 25 deg F
9. C. 0.874 53. D. 3
10. A. 0.806 54. B. 5.27
11. A. 36 inches 55. C. the freezing point of the solution that
12. B. Cyclones remains a liquid is getting lower and
13. A. 18 kwh/ton lower as freezing proceeds
14. A. 8.88kW(kg/s) 56. D. The saturated vapor line
15. A. 3400 57. B. 0.100
16. C. 11 58. B. duhring’s plot is used for calculating
17. C 2.2⁰F the concentration of solution
18. B. 2.1⁰F 59. B. Aluminum foil
19. D. 8 60. A. 1-1 heat exchanger
20. B. 8500 cal/mol 61. A. reduce drying temperature
21. C. same 62. D. diameter of randomly packed towers is
22. B. 2 normally more than 1.2m
23. C. 60 63. A. increase of reaction time
24. C. The space velocity of 3 ℎ𝑟 −1 means 64. B. Adsorption bar
that the one third reactor volume of feed 65. A. In a continuous flow reactor, uniform
at specified conditions are being fed into concentration can not be maintained
the reactor. throughout the vessel even in a well
25. A. 0.15 agitated system
26. B. 2/(𝑘𝐶𝐴0 ) 66. D. Mach number
27. B. 0.75 67. D. None of these
28. A. 0.67 68. B. Bypass
29. D. Classification 69. E. 8.11
30. B. Thickener 70. C. 54
31. B. The velocity of the surface 71. C. 80
32. A. I only 72. C. 4
33. D. In practical terms, the susceptibility of 73. E. 2.25
the engine materials to corrosion is not a 74. D. 5.39
key limitation on the operating efficiency. 75. B. Semi-anthracite
34. C. II and III 76. C. CO
35. B. Reversible 77. A. 2.2
36. A. I = - II + III + IV – V 78. D. 11.55
37. C. I and IV 79. C. 0.000931
38. A. V2(I) = V2(II) 80. A. Double-pipe HE
39. A. I and II 81. C. Both a and c

215
40. A. 0.189m/s 82. A. Total reflux
41. C. Velocity of the flow 83. D. all of the above
42. C. Gustaf de Laval 84. B. increase
43. A. below 100,000kPa and below 600⁰C 85. D. 98degC
44. A. higher compression ratio 86. A. 0.532
45. B. 73⁰F 87. A. Extraction is a separation process
which involves no evaporation; carried
out mostly at ambient temperature and
can be used as a separation process for
high temperature sensitive products.
88. B. less than 2 kg but more than 1 kg of C
is transferred to solvent B
89. C. Sub-saturated
90. A. 0.36

MIDTERM EXAMINATION SOLUTIONS

5.
3inches = 0.7=0762m

170lb/ft3 = 2723.kg/m3

𝐴𝑟𝑒𝑎 = 𝜋(0.0762)2 = 0.0182𝑚2


𝜋
𝑉𝑜𝑙𝑢𝑚𝑒 = (0.0762)3 = 2.3167 𝑥 10−4 𝑚3
6
100𝑐𝑚
𝐴 0.0182𝑚2 ( 1𝑚 )²
= = 0.2885 𝑥 10 = 𝟐. 𝟖𝟗
𝑉𝜌 𝑘𝑔 1000𝑔)
2.3167 𝑥 10−4 𝑚3 𝑥2723 3 ( 1𝑘𝑔
𝑚

6.
𝑃 𝐷𝑝𝑎
= 𝑘 𝑙𝑜𝑔
𝑇 𝐷𝑝𝑏
1
11𝑘𝐽/𝑘𝑔 = 𝑘 𝑙𝑜𝑔
0.3
𝑘 = 21.03738
𝑃 1
= 21.03738 𝑙𝑜𝑔
𝑇 0.01

216
𝑃
= 𝟐𝟏. 𝟎𝟑𝟕 𝒌𝑱/𝒌𝒈
𝑇

7. and 9.

𝑉𝑜𝑙𝑢𝑚𝑒 = 𝜋𝑟 2 ℎ = (𝜋)(0.5)²(1) = 0.7854 𝑚³

4𝜋𝑟³
𝑅𝑎𝑑𝑖𝑢𝑠 𝑜𝑓 𝑠𝑝ℎ𝑒𝑟𝑒 = = 0.7854 𝑚³
3
𝑅 = 0.5724 𝑚

𝑆𝑢𝑟𝑓𝑎𝑐𝑒 𝐴𝑟𝑒𝑎 = 4𝜋𝑟 2 = 4(𝜋)(0.5724)² = 4.11 𝑚²

𝑆𝑢𝑟𝑓𝑎𝑐𝑒 𝐴𝑟𝑒𝑎 𝑜𝑓 𝑝𝑎𝑟𝑡𝑖𝑐𝑙𝑒 = 2𝜋(0.5)(1 + 0.5) = 4.71 𝑚²

4.11 𝑚²
𝑓= = 𝟎. 𝟖𝟕𝟑
4.71 𝑚²

10.
1 2/3 1
𝜋 3 6(𝑉𝑝 ) 𝜋 3 6(6)2/3
𝑓= = = 𝟎. 𝟖𝟎𝟔
𝐴𝑝 6𝑥6

14.
𝑃 𝐷𝑝𝑎
= 𝑘 𝑙𝑜𝑔
𝑇 𝐷𝑝𝑏
50
13𝑘𝐽/𝑘𝑔 = 𝑘 𝑙𝑜𝑔
100
𝑘 = 18.599
𝑃 75
= 18.599 𝑙𝑜𝑔
𝑇 25
𝑃 𝒌𝒈
= 𝟖. 𝟖𝟖𝒌𝑾 ( )
𝑇 𝒔

15-16.

𝑄 = 𝑆 (𝜆) = 𝑚𝐶𝑝Δ𝑇

217
(𝜆) @383.15𝐾 = 2690.27 − 461.31 = 2228.96 𝑘𝐽/𝑘𝑔
2228.96𝑘𝐽 3400𝑘𝑔 1ℎ𝑟 1000𝐽 𝑊
( )( )( ) = 2840 2 0 (110 − 43)0 𝐶 (𝐴)
𝑘𝑔 ℎ𝑟 3600𝑠 1𝑘𝐽 𝑚 ( 𝐶)

𝐴 = 𝟏𝟏. 𝟎𝟔𝒎²

19.

ln 𝐶𝑎 − ln 𝐶𝑎𝑜 = 𝑘𝑡

ln 2 − ln 1 = 𝑘(4)

𝑘 = 0.1733

ln 𝐶𝑎 − ln 1 = 0.1733(12)

𝐶𝑎 = 𝟖. 𝟎𝟎

20.
1 1
− = −𝑘𝑡
𝐶𝑎𝑜 𝐶𝑎
1 1
− = −𝑘1(40)
0.1 0.1(0.8)
𝑘1 = 0.0625
1 1
− = −𝑘2(35)
0.1 0.1(0.6)
𝑘2 = 0.1905
𝑅𝑇1𝑇2 𝑘1
𝐸𝑎 = 𝑙𝑛
𝑇1 − 𝑇2 𝑘2
(8.314)(298.15)(323.15) 0.0625
𝐸𝑎 = 𝑙𝑛
298.15 − 323.15 0.1905
35709.4747𝐽/𝑚𝑜𝑙
𝐸𝑎 = = 𝟖𝟑𝟑𝟒. 𝟕𝟕 𝒄𝒂𝒍/𝒎𝒐𝒍
4.184𝐽/𝑐𝑎𝑙

22.

218
𝐶𝑏𝑒 𝑚 + 𝑋𝑎 0 + 2/3
𝑘= = = =𝟐
𝐶𝑏𝑎 1 − 𝑋𝑎𝑒 1 − 2/3
23.

𝐼 + 𝐴 → 2𝐵 + 𝐶 + 𝐼

𝑿𝒂 = 𝟎 1 1 0 0 =2

𝑿𝒂 = 𝟏 1 0 2 1 =4
4−2
𝜀= =1
2
𝑉 = 𝑉𝑜( 1 + 𝜀𝑥𝑎)
𝑉
= ( 1 + 𝜀𝑥𝑎)
𝑉𝑜
1.6 = ( 1 + 1𝑥𝑎)

𝑥𝑎 = 0.60 = 𝟔𝟎%

25.

CSTR
Xa = 0.3
1
= 0.1
𝜏
𝜏 = 10
𝐶𝑎𝑜 − 𝐶𝑎
10 =
−𝑅𝑎
0.3 𝐶𝑎𝑜
−𝑅𝑎 =
10
−𝑅𝑎 = 0.03𝐶𝑎𝑜
PFR

Xa = ?
1
= 0.2
𝜏
𝜏=5

219
𝑋𝑎
𝑑𝑋𝑎
5 = 𝐶𝑎𝑜 ∫
0 −𝑅𝑎
𝑋𝑎
𝑑𝑋𝑎
5 = 𝐶𝑎𝑜 ∫
0 −0.03𝐶𝑎𝑜
𝑋𝑎
𝑑𝑋𝑎
5= ∫
0 −0.03
1
5= (𝑋𝑎 − 0)
0.03
𝑿𝒂 = 𝟎. 𝟏𝟓

26.

CSTR
A -> R

-Ra = kCa²

Xa = 0.50
𝑋𝑎
𝑘𝜏 =
𝐶𝑎𝑜 (1 − 𝑋𝑎)²
0.5𝐶𝑎𝑜
𝜏=
𝑘𝐶𝑎𝑜² (1 − 0.50)²
𝟐
𝜏=
𝒌𝑪𝒂𝒐

27.
𝑉1
𝜏1 =
𝑉0
𝑉2
=6
𝑉1
𝜏1
=6
𝜏2

220
𝑋𝑎
𝜏1 𝑘𝐶𝑎𝑜 (1 − 𝑋𝑎)²
=6=
𝜏2 0.5
𝑘𝐶𝑎𝑜(1 − .5)²

𝑋𝑎 = 𝟎. 𝟕𝟓

28.
𝑋𝑎
𝑘𝜏𝐶𝑎𝑜 =
1 − 𝑋𝑎
𝑋𝑎
2=
1 − 𝑋𝑎
𝑿𝒂 = 𝟎. 𝟔𝟕

40.
2
(9.81)(1000)²(7870 − 900)
𝑈𝑡 =
18(50𝑥10−3 )
0.303𝑚
𝑈𝑡 =
𝑠
46.

200degC = 473.15 K
100 degC = 373.15 K
1 atm = 101325 Pa

20 degC = 293.15 K
100ft3/min = 0.047m3/s
0.81 cal/g degC = 3.389 J/g-K

1000 gallons = 3.785412m3


Density of oil = 880kg/m3
Cp of air = 1033 J/g-K (Thermodynamic Property of Air)
𝑀𝑤𝑃 28.84(101325)
𝜌= = = 1.198𝑘𝑔/𝑚3
𝑅𝑇 8.314(293.15)(1000)

221
880𝑘𝑔
𝑚 = 3.785412𝑚3 ( ) = 3331.16 𝑘𝑔
𝑚3
3.389𝐽 1000𝑔
𝑄 = 𝑚𝐶𝑝Δ𝑇 = 3331.16 𝑘𝑔 ( )( )(473.15 − 373.15)𝐾 =
𝑔𝐾 𝑘𝑔
𝑚3 1.198𝑘𝑔
(0.047 )( )(𝑡)(1033)(373.15 − 293.15)K
𝑠 𝑚3

𝑡 = 242617.47𝑠 = 𝟒𝟎𝟒𝟑. 𝟔𝟐𝟓 𝒎𝒊𝒏

48.

1200mm = 3.936ft
75 mm = 0.246ft
76.65
𝑁= = 39.90
√3.936 − 0.246

51.

𝐼²𝑅 200²(0.1)
𝑞= = = 203718327.2
𝜋(𝑟)²𝐿 𝜋( 5 )²(1)
1000𝑥2
5
𝑞(𝑟)² 203718327.2( )²
𝑇𝑜 = + 𝑇𝑤 = 1000𝑥2 + 114 = 𝟏𝟐𝟖. 𝟏𝟒𝟕 𝐝𝐞𝐠 𝑪
4𝑘 4(22.5)

53.

DOF
F = C-P +2
F = 3 – 2 +2

F=3

71-72.

222
CH3OH + 0.5 O2 -> HCHO + H2O ->1
1 0.5 1 1

CH3OH -> HCHO + H2 ->2


1 1 1
Total methanol entering the reactor = Methanol reacted by oxidation + methanol reacted
by decomposition + recycle methanol = 1 + 3 + 1 = 5 kmol/hr.
Conversion per pass = 100 x (Total methanol reacted /Total methanol entering the reactor)
= 100 x 4/5 = 80%

Fresh methanol rate = Total methanol entering the reactor - recycle methanol = 5 - 1 = 4
kmol/hr.

73.

At C At H
80% CH4 0.80 3.2
15% C2H6 0.30 0.9
5% C3H8 0.15 0.40
1.25 4.5

H2O = At H/2 = 4.5/ 2 = 2.25

77.
𝑚𝐶𝑝∆𝑇 (1) = 𝑚𝐶𝑝∆𝑇 (2)
(0.5)(30 − 18)(4) = 𝑚(71 − 62)(1.2)

223
𝑚 = 𝟐. 𝟐𝒌𝒈/𝒔

78.
(62 − 18) − (71 − 30)
∆𝑇𝑙𝑚 =
62 − 18
𝑙𝑛 71 − 30

∆𝑇𝑙𝑚 = 42.48 𝑑𝑒𝑔𝐶

𝑄 = 𝑈𝐴∆𝑇𝑙𝑚

(0.5)(30 − 18)(4)(1000) = (50)𝐴(42.48)

𝑨 = 𝟏𝟏. 𝟐𝟗𝟗 𝒎²

78.
Fouling resistance
28degC instead of 30degC
(62 − 18) − (71 − 28)
∆𝑇𝑙𝑚 =
62 − 18
𝑙𝑛 71 − 28

∆𝑇𝑙𝑚 = 43.498 𝑑𝑒𝑔𝐶

𝑄 = 𝑈𝐴∆𝑇𝑙𝑚

(0.5)(30 − 18)(4)(1000) = (𝑈)(11.55)(43.498)

𝑼 = 𝟒𝟕. 𝟕𝟕 𝑾/𝒎²𝑪
1 1
𝑟𝑓 = −
𝑈𝑎𝑐𝑡𝑢𝑎𝑙 𝑈𝑐𝑙𝑒𝑎𝑛
1 1
𝑟𝑓 = −
47.77 50
𝒓𝒇 = 9.336 x 𝟏𝟎−𝟒

90.
1: 45oC , x = 0 => h1 = 188.42 , v1 = 0.00101 , Psat = 9.6 kPa

224
3: 3.5 MPa , 450oC => h3 = 3337.2 , s3 = 7.0051
C.V. Pump Rev adiabatic

-wP = h2 - h1 ; s2 = s1
since incompressible it is easier to find work as
-wp = ∫ v dP = v1 (P2 - P1) = 0.00101 (3500 - 9.6) = 3.525

=> h2 = h1 - wp = 188.42 + 3.525 = 191.95


C.V. Boiler : qh = h3 - h2 = 3337.2 - 191.95 = 3145.3
C.V. Turbine : wt = h3 - h4 ; s4 = s3

s4 = s3 = 7.0051 = 0.6386 + x4 (7.5261) => x4 = 0.8459


=> h4 = 188.42 + 0.8459 (2394.77) = 2214.2
wt = 3337.2 - 2214.2 = 1123 kJ/kg

C.V. Condenser : qL = h4 - h1 = 2214.2 - 188.42 = 2025.78 kJ/kg


ηcycle = wnet / qH = (wt + wp) / qH = (1123 - 3.5) / 3145.3 = 0.356

225
SEMI-FINAL EXAMINATION
GENERAL ENGINEERING
1. To be able to pass the ChE Licensure Examination no grades should be lower than 50
for all three examinations and the average should be 70 or higher. A student, after taking
the 1st day (30% weight) and 2nd day (40%) estimated her grades to be 62 and 55
respectively. What grade should she aim on the 3 rd day (30%) to be a chemical engineer?
A. 98 B. 89 C. 95 D. 83

𝑥2
2. ∫ 3 𝑑𝑥 =
𝑒𝑥
1 3 1 3
A. − 3 𝑙𝑛𝑒 𝑥 + 𝐶 D. 3 𝑙𝑛𝑒 𝑥 + 𝐶
3 𝑥3
𝑒𝑥
B. − +𝐶 E. − 3 +𝐶
3 3𝑥
1
C. − 3 +𝐶
3𝑒 𝑥

3. If y=tan u, u=1/v, and v=ln x, what is the value of dy/dx at x=e?


A. 0 C. 1 E. sec2e
B. 1/e D. 2/e

4. ∫ sin(2𝑥 + 3) 𝑑𝑥 =
A. ½ cos(2x+3) + C C. –cos(2x+3) + C E. -1/5 cos(2x+3) + C
B. cos(2x+3) + C D. -½ cos(2x+3) + C

5. What type of polyhedron has pentagon as its face?


A. dodecahedron C. octahedron
B. hexahedron D. tetrahedron

6. The altitude of the sides of a triangle intersect at the point known as


A. incenter B. centroid C. circumcenter D. orthocenter

7. A man left his home at past 3 o’clock PM as indicated in his wall clock, between 2-3
hours after, he returns home and noticed that hands of the clock interchanged. At what
time did the man leave his home?
A. 3:31.47 B. 3:21.45 C. 3:46.10 D. 3:36.50

8. Locate the centroid of the plane area bounded by y=x 2 and y=x.
A. 0.4 from the x-axis and 0.5 from the y-axis
B. 0.5 from the x-axis and 0.4 from the y-axis
C. 0.4 from the x-axis and 0.4 from the y-axis
D. 0.5 from the x-axis and 0.5 from the y-axis

9. From the time 6:15 PM to the time 7:45 PM of the same day, the minute hand of a
standard clock describe an arc of?

226
A. 60O B. 90O C. 180O D. 540O

10. What is the coefficient of x5 in the polynomial expansion of (2-x+x2)4?


A. -128 B. 128 C. 125 D. 250

11. One of the satellites of Jupiter has an apogee of 40000 km and a perigee of 6600 km
assuming the radius of Jupiter as 6400 km, what will be the eccentricity of the elliptical
path described by the satellite with the center of Jupiter at one of the foci?
A. 0.56 B. 0.20 C. 0.78 D. 0.33

12. If equal spheres are piled in the form of a complete pyramid with an equilateral
triangle as base, find the total number of spheres in the pile if each side of the base
contains 4 spheres.
A. 15 B. 18 C. 20 D. 21

13. What is the fraction in lowest term equivalent to 0.133133133?


A. 133/666 B. 133/177 C. 133/888 D. 133/999

14. In how many different orders can 7 books be arranged on a shelf if this 3-volume
work is not merely not to be separated but must be kept in the proper order?
A. 120 B. 720 C. 5040 D. 4050

15. Find the equation of the conic with eccentricity 2 and foci at (6, 0) and (-6, 0).
A. 9x2-27y2=243 C. 27x2-9y2=243
B. 8x2-25y2=200 D. 25x2-8y2=20

16. Find a point in the parabola y2=4x at which the rates of change of line ordinate and
abscissa are equal.
A. (4, 4) B. (3, 2) C. (1, 2) D. (0, 0)

17. Find the value of A: (x2+2x2+10)/(x3+2x2+5x) = A/x + B(2x+2)/x2+2x+5 +


C/x2+2x+5.
A. -2 B. 0.5 C. -0.5 D. 2

18. An enterprising engineer purchased a fleet of trucks for Php 780,000.00 payments
were made by an immediate cash payment of Php 50,000.00 and twelve month – end
payments of Php 64,860.00 each. Another deal referred to finance the purchase at an
interest rate of ¾% per month on the unpaid balance. Which offer should the engineer
have accepted?
A. The first offer C. Either of the two offers
B. The second offer D. Neither of the two offers

19. If conversed sinθ=0.134, find the value of θ.


A. 30O B. 45O C. 60O D. 90O

227
20. At what time after 12:00 noon will the hour hand and the minute hand of the clock
first form an angle of 120O?
A. 12:18.818 B. 12:21.818 C. 12:22.818 D. 12:24.818

For items 21-24,

21. In the figure, the radius of the circle is 1, what is the perimeter of the shaded part of
the figure?
A. π B. 4π/3 C. 2π/3 D. π/3

22. A 200 mm pulley, loaded as shown, is keyed to a shaft of 60 mm diameter. Determine


the width “b” of the 70 mm long key if they allowable shearing stress is 60 MPa.
A. 14.56 mm B. 15.84 mm C. 16.25 mm D. 17.46 mm

23. A 7/8 inch diameter bolt having a diameter at the root of the threads of 0.731 inch is
used to fasten two timbers together as shown. The nut is tightened to cause a tensile
strength of 18,000 psi in the bolt. Determine the outside diameter of the washers if their
inside diameter is 9/8 inches and the bearing stress is limited to 800 psi.
A. 3.18 in B. 3.65 in C. 4.1 in D. 4.3 in

24. Determine the position of maximum moment in the beam ABC.


A. at A B. at B C. at C D. left of C

25. In a pile of logs, each layer contains one more log than the other layer above and the
top contains just one log. If there are 105 logs in the pile, how many layers are there?
A. 11 B. 12 C. 13 D. 14

26. What work is required to lift a 215 kg mass a distance of 5.65 m using a machine that
is 72.5% efficient?
A. 1.46x10-4 J B. 1.64x104 J C. 1.19x104 J D. 1.46x106 J

27. Two forces PQ and PR of magnitudes 5.0 kg and 8.0 kg, respectively, acts at a point
P. The direction of PQ is N20OE, and the direction of PR is N65OE. Approximate the
magnitude and direction of the resultant PS.
A. 11.2 kg, N42OE
B. 12.1 kg, N48OE
C. 14.1 kg, N73OE
D. 15.1 kg, N27OE

28. An electric motor drives a load, taking 18.8 amperes from 230-V source. How much
is the power input of the motor?
A. 2.343 kW B. 3.423 kW C. 4. 323 kW D. 3.343 kW

228
29. A rubber ball is made to fall from a height of 50 feet and is observed to rebound 2/3
of the distance it falls. How far will the ball travel before coming to rest if the ball
continues to fall in this manner?
A. 200 feet B. 225 feet C. 250 feet D. 275 feet

30. A resistor is connected across a voltage E1, dissipating a power P. If R was decreased
to half, how much must E change to dissipate the same power?
A. E must decrease to 0.707E1
B. E must decrease to 0.393E1
C. E must increase to 0.707E1
D. E must increase to 0.393E1

31. Which of the following numbers is a perfect number?


A. 496 C. both A and B
B. 8128 D. none of the choices

32. The equation 25x2+16y2-150x+128y+81=0 has its center at ______.


A. (-3, -4) B. (3, -4) C. (-3, 4) D. (3, 4)

33. The number 0.123123123123….. is


A. rational C. irrational
B. surd D. transcendental

34. Arjie, aside from being a terrorist, is a boatman who used to row the Tingloy marsh,
4.8 miles, with the stream and back in 14 hours, but finds that he can row 14 miles with
the stream in the same time as 3 miles against the stream. Find the rate of the stream in
mph.
A. 1.5 B. 1 C. 0.8 D. 0.6

35. Let A be a 50x50 matrix and B a 50x20 matrix. Which of the following expression
will have no definite answer?
A. BBT (product of B and B transpose)
B. BTB (product of B transpose and B)
C. ABT (product of A and B transpose)
D. BTA (product of B transpose and A)

36. Find the polar equation of the circle of radius 3 units and center at (3, 0).
A. r=3cosθ B. r=3sinθ C. r=6cosθ D. r=9sinθ

37. Angles are measured from the positive horizontal axis, and the positive direction is
counterclockwise. What are the values of sin B and cos B in the 4 th Quadrant?
A. Sin B>0 and Cos B<0 C. Sin B<0 and Cos B>0
B. none of these D. Sin B<0 and Cos B<0

38. The velocity of the transverse waves produced by an earthquake is 8.9 km/s, and that
of the longitudinal waves is 5.1 km/s. A seismograph records the arrival of the transverse

229
waves 73 s before the arrival of the longitudinal waves. How far away was the
earthquake?
A. 780,000 m B. 110,780 m C. 870,000 m D. 710,800 m

39. The general equation of a conic section is given by the following equation;
Ax2+Bxy+Cy2+Dx+Ey+F=0. A curve may be identified by which of the following
conditions?
A. B2-4AC<0 B. B2-4AC=0 C. B2-4AC>0 D. B2-4AC<0

40. Ahmed is standing on a 48.5 meter building high, has an eyesight height of 1.5 m
from the top of the building, took a depression reading from the top of another nearby
building and nearest wall, which are 50O and 80O respectively. Find the height of the
nearby building in meters. Ahmed is standing at the edge of the building and both
buildings lie on the same horizontal plane.
A. 39.49 B. 49.39 C. 59.69 D. 69.59

41. If a, b, and c are different numbers such that a3+9a-18, b3+9b-18, c3+9c-18 are all
equal to zero, find the value of 1/a +1/b +a/c.
A. ½ B. ¼ C. 1/3 D. 1/8

42. Three years ago, Luna got engaged to a foreigner who happens to be a Nobel Prize
winner. After a year, Luna and his husband got married. At present, the sum of Luna and
his husband’s ages is twice the sum of their children’s ages. Five years ago, when his
husband got the Nobel award, the sum of their ages was four times the sum of their
children’s ages. Fifteen years hence, the sum of their ages will be equal to the sum of
their children’s ages. How many children do Luna and his husband have? (On the
assumption that Luna has only one husband)
A. 5 B. 7 C. 12 D. 2

43. Given the area in the first quadrant by x2=8y, the line x=4 and the x-axis. What is the
volume generated by revolving this area about the y-axis?
A. 53.26 B. 52.26 C. 52.26 D. 50.26

44. Evaluate the integral of ln x dx, the limits are 1 and “the first letter of my name”
A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. Undefined

45. The cost per hour of running a motorboat is proportional to the cube of the speed. At
what speed will the boat run against a current of 8 km/hr in order to go a given distance
most economically?
A. 10 kph B. 15 kph C. 12 kph D. 20 kph

46. Water is pouring into a swimming pool. After t hours, there are t+t 1/2 gallons in the
pool. At what rate is the water pouring into the pool when t=9 hours?
A. 7/6 gph B. 1 gph C. ½ gph D. 1/6 gph

230
47. If the average of the seven numbers is 88, then the first number is increased by 12,
second number is increased by 20, the third by 10, the fourth by 15, the fifth by 13, the
sixth by 12 and the seventh by 16. What will be the new average of the seven numbers?
A. 102 B. 89 C. 201 D. 112

48. The total surface of two cubes is 150 sq. m. The total length of their edges is 84 cm.
Find the edge of the larger cube.
A. 4 B. 5.5 C. 6.4 D. 7.2

49. How many squares can be formed in a chessboard?


A. 112 B. 305 C. 204 D. 256

50. As shown in the figure, the side of the square ABCD


has a length of 2 cm. A smaller square is formed by
joining the midpoints of each side. Then smaller square is
formed using same method but from the previous square
formed and the process repeated indefinitely. What is the
total area of all the squares formed using this process?
A. 4 cm2 C. 12 cm2
B. 8 cm2 D. 16 cm2

51. A tank has 3 inlet pipes, A, B, and C. When all 3 pipes are fully open, the tank is
filled in 3 hours. If only A and B are open, it takes 4 hours to fill the tank. If only A and
C are open, it takes 8 hours to fill the tank. How long would it take pipe A, running alone,
to fill the tank?
A. 12 B. 24 C. 16 D. 32

52. The cost C of a product is a function of the quantity x of the product: C(x)=x 2-
4000x+50. Find the quantity for which the cost is minimum.
A. 1000 B. 1500 C. 2000 D. 3000

53. The integral of a function between certain limits divided by the difference in
abscissas between those limits gives the _____ of the function.
A. constant B. derivative C. average D. domain

54. Find the integrating factor for the equation (x2+y2-x)dx – ydy = 0
A. 1/(x+y) C. 1/(x2+y2) E. 1/y2
2
B. y/(x+y) D. 1/x

55. The equation of a circle on the y-axis and passes through the origin and the point (4,
2) is
A. x2+y2-10y=0 C. x2+y2-10x=0
2 2
B. x +y -10x+10y=0 D. x2+y2+10y=0

231
56. Twelve persons are to sit at a round table. Two particular people insist on sitting
opposite each other. Find the number of ways the twelve can be seated.
A. 2638800 B. 6238800 C. 3826800 D. 3628800

57. A square and a regular hexagon have the same perimeter. If the area of the square is
2.25, what is the area of the hexagon?
A. 2.250 B. 2.598 C. 2.838 D. 3.464

58. If money is worth 8% compounded quarterly, find the present value of a sequence of
payments of $200 each at the end of each 3 months forever.
A. $8620 B. $10,000 C. $10,200 D. 20,000

59. Determine the present value of a sequence of payments of $200 each at the beginning
of each 3 months forever.
A. $8620 B. $10,000 C. $10,200 D. 20,000

60. Determine the present value of a sequence of payments of $200 each at the end of
each 3 months for 25 years.
A. $8620 B. $10,000 C. $10,200 D. 20,000

61. The area of the region bounded by the curve 𝑦 = 𝑒 2𝑥 , the x-axis, the y-axis, and the
line x=2 is equal to
𝑒4 𝑒4 1
A. −𝑒 C. 2 − 2
2
B.
𝑒4
−1 D. 2𝑒 4 − 𝑒
2 E. 2𝑒 4 − 2

62. If sin x = ey, 0<x<π, what is dy/dx in terms of x?


A. –tan x C. cot x E. csc x
B. -cot x D. tan x

1 8 1
8( +ℎ) −8( )8
2 2
63. What is lim ?
ℎ→0 ℎ
A. 0 D. The limit does not exist
B. ½ E. It cannot be determined.
C. 1

64. When the area in square units of an expanding circle is increasing twice as fast as its
radius in linear units, the radius is
A. ¼ π B. ¼ C. 1/π D. 1 E. π

65. At t=0, a particle starts at rest and moves along a line in such a way that at time t its
acceleration is 24t2 feet per second. Through how many feet does the particle move
during the first 2 seconds?
A. 32 B. 48 C. 64 D. 96 E. 192

232
66. A solid is formed by rotating the triangle with vertices (0, 0), (2, 0), and (1, 1) about
the x-axis. What is the resulting volume?
A. 2pi/3 B. 3pi C. 3/2 pi D. 1/3 pi E. ½ pi

67. The portion of the curve y=x2 between x=1 and x=4 is rotated about the x-axis. What
volume does the resulting surface enclose?
A. 1320pi/5 B. 1023pi/5 C. 1023pi/4 D. 1230pi/5 E. 1230pi/4

68. Two couples and a single person are seated at random in a row of five chairs. What is
the probability that at least one person is not beside his/her partner?
A. 0.5 B. 0.4 C. 0.33 D. 0.45
4𝑥+3
69. The range of the function 𝑦 = is
2𝑥−3
A. All numbers except 1 C. All numbers except 3
B. All numbers except 2 D. All numbers except 4

70. A used bulldozer with a remaining life of 5 years and $10,000 salvage value can be
purchased for $40,000. The annual maintenance cost is expected to $20,000 per year. In
addition, operating costs are expected to be $25 per hour. Alternatively, a bulldozer can
be rented for $150 per hour. At an interest rate of 10% per year, the minimum number of
hours per year the bulldozer must be utilized to justify its purchase is closest to:
A. 231 hours B. 312 hours C. 322 hours D. 301 hours

71. A new boiler was installed at a cost of Php 1.5 M and projected to have a zero salvage
value at the end of its 10 year life. What is the capitalized cost if interest is 10% per year?
A. Php 2.44 M B. Php 6.02 M C. Php 3.42 M D. Php 1.06 M

72. Cash flow which changes by the same amount each interest period is called a
A. uniform cash flow C. uniform gradient
B. geometric series D. series cash flow

73. It is copying of one’s written research without acknowledging the author.


A. cheating B. infringement C. plagiarism D. piracy

74. Ecological Solid Waste Management Act


A. RA 6969 B. RA 8749 C. RA 9003 D. PD 984

75. RA 9297 is also known as


A. Chemical Engineering Law of 2005 C. RA 318
B. Revised Chemical Engineering Law D. Chemical Engineering Law of 2004

76. When equal and opposite forces are exerted on an object along different lines of
action, the object is said to be under
A. tension B. compression C. shear D. elasticity

233
77. Radio waves are electromagnetic waves with wavelengths that range from
A. 1mm-100km C. 1000km-10000km
B. 100km-1000km D. 10000km-10000km

78. What particles can occupy the same space if they have the same energy?
A. ion B. neutron C. boson D. proton

79. A lump of ice falls from an aeroplane as it comes in to land. If the ice hits the ground
with a vertical speed of 85m/s, what was the height of the plane when the ice fell off?
A. 361.25m B. 136.12m C. 231.12m D. 251.63m

80. The degree to which the measured value agrees with correct value for that
measurement
A. precision
B. accuracy
C. percent error
D. error

234
ANSWER KEY

SEMIFINAL EXAMINATION
1. A. 98 41. A. ½
1 42. A. 5
2. C. − 𝑥3 + 𝐶
3𝑒 43. D. 50.26
3. D. 2/e
44. B. 1
4. D. -½ cos(2x+3) + C
45. C. 12 kph
5. A. dodecahedron
46. A. 7/6 gph
6. D. orthocenther
47. A. 102
7. A. 3:31.47
48. A. 4
8. A. 0.4 from the x-axis and 0.5
49. C. 204
from the y-axis
50. B. 8 cm2
9. D. 540O
51. B. 24
10. A. -128
52. C. 2000
11. A. 0.56
53. C. average
12. C. 20
54. C. 1/(x2+y2)
13. D. 133/999
55. A. x2+y2-10y=0
14. A. 120
56. D. 3628800
15. C. 27x2-9y2=243
57. B. 2.598
16. C. (1, 2)
58. B. $ 10,000
17. D. 2
59. C. $ 10,200
18. B. The second offer
60. A. $8620
19. C. 60O 𝑒4 1
20. B. 12:21.818 61. C. 2 − 2
21. B. 4π/3 62. C. cot x
22. D. 17.46 mm 63. B. ½
23. D. 4.3 in 64. C. 1/π
24. B. at B 65. A. 32
25. D. 14 66. A. 2pi/3
26. B. 1.64x104 J 67. B. 1023 pi/5
27. B. 12.1 kg, N48OE 68. B. 0.4
28. C. 4.323 kW 69. B. All numbers except 2
29. C. 250 feet 70. A. 231 hours
30. A. E must decrease to 0.707E1 71. A. Php 2.44 M
31. C. both A and B 72. C. uniform gradient
32. B. (3, -4) 73. C. plagiarism
33. C. irrational 74. C. RA 9003
34. C. 0.8 75. D. Chemical Engineering Law of
35. C. ABT (product of A and B 2004
transpose) 76. C. shear
36. C. r=6cosθ 77. A. 1mm-100km
37. C. Sin B<0 and Cos B>0 78. C. boson
38. C. 870,000 m 79. A. 361.25m
39. A. B2-4AC<0 80. B. accuracy
40. A. 39.49

235
SEMIFINAL EXAMINATION SOLUTIONS

1.) 0.30(62) + 0.40(55) + 0.30(X) = 70 X = 98

𝑥2 𝟏
2.) ∫ 3 𝑑𝑥 = − 𝟑 +𝑪
𝑒𝑥 𝟑𝒆𝒙

1 1
3.) tan 𝑢 = tan (𝑣 − 𝑣) = tan(ln 𝑥 − ln 𝑥)
𝑑𝑦 1 1 1 1
= 𝑠𝑒𝑐 2 (ln 𝑥 − )[ + ( )]
𝑑𝑥 ln 𝑥 𝑥 (ln 𝑥)2 𝑥
at x = e:
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 𝟐
𝑠𝑒𝑐 2 (ln 𝑒 − )[ + ( )] = ( + ) =
ln 𝑒 𝑒 (ln 𝑒) 2 𝑒 𝑐𝑜𝑠 2 (1 − 1) 𝑒 𝑒 𝒆
𝟏
4.) ∫ sin(2𝑥 + 3) 𝑑𝑥 = − 𝒄𝒐𝒔(𝟐𝒙 + 𝟑) + 𝑪
𝟐

7.)
𝑦 𝑥
𝑥 = 30 + 12 (1) 𝑦 = 15 + 12 (2)
Solving simultaneously, x=31.47 minutes. Therefore, t= 3:31.47

8.)𝑥 2 = 𝑦 (eqtn. 1); 𝑦=𝑥 (eqtn. 2)


Equate (eqtn. 1) and (eqtn. 2):
𝑥2 = 𝑥
𝑥 = 1; 𝑦 = 1
Thus, the parabola and line intersect at points (0, 0) and (1, 1)
1 1 1
1
𝐴 = ∫ 𝑦𝑑𝑥 = ∫ (𝑦𝐿 − 𝑦𝑃 )𝑑𝑥 = ∫ (𝑥 − 𝑥 2 )𝑑𝑥 =
0 0 0 6
1 1 1
1
𝐴x̅ = ∫ 𝑦𝑑𝑥 ∗ 𝑥 = ∫ (𝑦𝐿 − 𝑦𝑃 )𝑑𝑥 ∗ 𝑥 = ∫ (𝑥 − 𝑥 2 )𝑑𝑥 ∗ 𝑥 =
0 0 0 12
1 1
( )x̅ =
6 12
𝐱̅ = 𝟎. 𝟓
1 1 1
1
𝐴y̅ = ∫ 𝑥𝑑𝑦 ∗ 𝑦 = ∫ (𝑥𝑃 − 𝑥𝐿 )𝑑𝑦 ∗ 𝑦 = ∫ (√𝑦 − 𝑦)𝑑𝑦 ∗ 𝑦 =
0 0 0 15

236
1 1
( )y̅ =
6 15
𝐲̅ = 𝟎. 𝟒

9.) Let: x = number of minute difference between 6:15 and 7:45


6:15 = 6(60) + 15 = 375 minutes
7:45 = 7(60) +45 = 465 minutes
180°
x = 465-375 = 90 𝑚𝑖𝑛𝑢𝑡𝑒𝑠 (30 𝑚𝑖𝑛𝑢𝑡𝑒𝑠) = 𝟓𝟒𝟎°

10.) (2 − 𝑥 + 𝑥 2 )4 = 𝑥 8 − 4𝑥 7 + 14𝑥 6 − 𝟐𝟖𝒙𝟓 + 49𝑥 4 − 56𝑥 3 + 56𝑥 2 − 32𝑥 + 16


(Assuming that there is a typographical error, and A is -28 not -128. The answer is A)

11.) 2a = 40000 + 2(6400) + 6000 = 59400


a = 29700

c = a – (6600 + 6400) = 29700 – (6600 + 6400) = 16700

𝑐 16700
𝑒= = = 𝟎. 𝟓𝟔
𝑎 29700

12.)

14.) (7-3)! x (5) = 120


𝑐
15.) 𝑒 = 𝑎 = 2 ; 𝑐=6
6
2=𝑎 𝑎=3
𝑏 = √62 − 32 = √27
𝑥2 𝑦2
− =1
𝑎2 𝑏 2
𝑥2 𝑦2
− =1
32 √272
𝑥2 𝑦2
− =1
9 27

237
𝟐𝟕𝒙𝟐 − 𝟗𝒚𝟐 = 𝟐𝟒𝟑

(𝑥2+2𝑥2+10) 𝐴 B(2x+2) 𝐶 𝐴(𝑥 2 +2𝑥+5)+𝐵𝑥(2𝑥+2)+𝐶𝑥


17.) (x3+2x2+5x) = 𝑥 + x2+2x+5 + x2+2x+5 = 𝑥(𝑥 2 +2𝑥+5)
2 2
(𝑥2 + 2𝑥2 + 10) 𝐴𝑥 + 2𝐴𝑥 + 5𝐴 + 2𝐵𝑥 + 2𝐵𝑥 + 𝐶𝑥
=
(x3 + 2x2 + 5x) 𝑥 3 + 2𝑥 2 + 5𝑥
By equating constants,
10 = 5A
A=2

19.) sin-1(1-0.134) = 59.9971 = 60O

180°
20.) 120 𝑚𝑖𝑛𝑢𝑡𝑒𝑠 (30 𝑚𝑖𝑛𝑢𝑡𝑒𝑠) = 20°
𝑥
𝑥 = 20 + 12 = 21.8182 minutes
t = 12:21.818

22.)

T = 0.03F
2.2 = 0.03F
2.2 = 0.03F
F = 73.33kN

V=τAV=τA
Where:
V=F=73.33kN
A=70b
τ=60MPa
Thus, 73.33(1000)=60(70b)
b = 17.46 mm

238
23.)

Tensile force on the bolt:


1 7 2
𝑃 = 𝜎𝐴 = 18 [ 𝜋 ( ) ] = 10.82
4 8
Outside diameter of the washer:
𝑃 = 𝜎𝑏 𝐴𝑏
1 9
10.82(1000) = 800{ 𝜋[𝑑 2 − ( )2 ]}
4 8
𝒅 = 𝟒. 𝟑 𝒊𝒏𝒄𝒉𝒆𝒔

𝑛
25.) 𝑆𝑛 = 2 [2𝐴1 + (𝑛 − 1)𝑑 ]
𝑛
105 = [2(1) + (𝑛 − 1)(1)]
2
𝒏 = 𝟏𝟒

26.) 𝑃𝐸 = 𝜂𝑊
𝑚𝑔ℎ = 0.725𝑊
215(9.81)(5.65) = 0.725𝑊
𝑊 = 16436.8241 𝐽 ≈ 𝟏. 𝟔𝒙𝟏𝟎𝟒 𝑱

27.) ∑ 𝐹𝑥 = 5 cos(20°) + 8 cos(65°) = 8.0794


∑ 𝐹𝑦 = 5 sin(20°) + 8 sin(65°) = 8.9606
𝐹 = √8.07942 + 8.96062 = 12.0652 ≈ 𝟏𝟐. 𝟏 𝒌𝒈
8.9606
tan−1 ( ) = 47.9602 ≈ 𝟒𝟖°
8.0794

28.) P = IV = 18.8(230) = 4324 ≈ 𝟒. 𝟑𝟐𝟒 𝒌𝑾

29.)
2 100
𝐴1 = 50 ( ) = ;𝑛 = ∞
3 3
100
𝐴1
𝑆𝑛 = = 3 = 100
1−𝑟 1−2
3
Let: D = total distance traveled by the ball
𝐷 = 50 + 2𝑆𝑛 = 50 + 2(100) = 𝟐𝟓𝟎 𝒇𝒆𝒆𝒕

239
32.) (25𝑥 2 − 150𝑥 ) + (16𝑦 2 + 128𝑦) = −81
25𝑥 2−150𝑥 −6
= 𝑥2 − 6 + ℎ ℎ= = −3
25 2
16𝑦2 −128𝑦 8
= 𝑦2 + 8 + 𝑘 𝑘=2=4
16
(𝑥 − 3)2 = 0 (𝑦 + 4)2 = 0
𝒙=𝟑 𝒚 = −𝟒

34.) Let: V1 = velocity of the boatman


V2 = velocity of the stream

4.8 4.8
+ = 14
𝑉1 + 𝑉2 𝑉1 − 𝑉2
4.8(𝑉1 + 𝑉2 ) + 4.8(𝑉1 + 𝑉2 )
= 14
(𝑉1 + 𝑉2 )((𝑉1 − 𝑉2 )
Simplifying the equation, 9.6𝑉1 = 14𝑉12 − 14𝑉22 (eqtn. 1)

14 3
=
𝑉1 + 𝑉2 𝑉1 − 𝑉2
Simplifying the equation, 𝑉1 = 1.545𝑉2 (eqtn. 2)
Substituting (eqtn. 2) in (eqtn. 1):
9.6(1.545𝑉2 ) = 14(1.545𝑉2 )2 − 14𝑉22
𝑉2 = 0.76 ≈ 𝟎. 𝟖 𝒎𝒑𝒉

36.) (𝑥 − ℎ)2 + (𝑦 − 𝑘 )2 = 𝑟 2
Substitute coordinates of center and radius:
(𝑥 − 3)2 + (𝑦 − 0)2 = 32
𝑥 2 − 6𝑥 + 9 + 𝑦 2 = 9
𝑥 2 − 6𝑥 + 𝑦 2 = 0

Note: 𝑥 = 𝑟𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜃
𝑦 = 𝑟𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃

Substitute:

240
(𝑟𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜃)2 − 6(𝑟𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜃) + (𝑟𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃)2 = 0
𝑟 2 𝑐𝑜𝑠 2𝜃 − 6𝑟𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜃 + 𝑟 2 𝑠𝑖𝑛2 𝜃 = 0
𝑟 2 (𝑐𝑜𝑠 2𝜃 + 𝑠𝑖𝑛2 𝜃 ) = 6𝑟𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜃
𝑟 2 = 6𝑟𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜃
𝒓 = 𝟔𝒄𝒐𝒔𝜽

38.) Let: d = distance in km


𝑑 𝑑
Transverse waves take 8.9 𝑠. Longitudinal waves take 5.1 𝑠. Difference in arrival
time is
1 1
𝑑(5.1 − 8.9) = 73
73 73(5.1)(8.9)
𝑑= 1 1 = = 871.96 𝑘𝑚 ≈ 𝟖𝟕𝟏, 𝟗𝟔𝟎 𝒎
( − ) 8.9−5.1
5.1 8.9

ℎ1 50
40.) tan(80) = 𝑑
= 𝑑
𝑑 = 8.8163
ℎ2
tan(50) = 8.82 ℎ2 = 10.5069
𝐻𝑒𝑖𝑔ℎ𝑡 𝑜𝑓 𝑡ℎ𝑒 2𝑛𝑑 𝑏𝑢𝑖𝑙𝑑𝑖𝑛𝑔 = 50 − 10.5069 = 𝟑𝟗. 𝟒𝟗 𝒎

41.) 𝑎3 + 9𝑎 − 18 (eqtn. 1)
𝑏3 + 9𝑏 − 18 (eqtn. 2)
3
𝑐 + 9𝑐 − 18 (eqtn. 3)
Solving simultaneously, a = 1.57, b = -0.785+3.2937i, c = -0.785-3.2937i
1 1 1 1 1 1
+ + = + + = 𝟎. 𝟓
𝑎 𝑏 𝑐 1.57 −0.785 + 3.2937i −0.785 − 3.2937i

42.)
Past Present Future
Parents 2x-10 2x 2x+30
Children x-5n x x+15n

2x – 10 = 4(x -5n) 2x+30 = x+15n


2x-10 = 4x-20n x = 15n-30 (eqtn. 2)
2x = 20n-10
x = 10n-5 (eqtn. 1)

Equate (eqtn. 1) and (eqtn. 2):


15n-30 = 10n-5
n=5

45.) Let: C = cost per hour; x = speed of the motorboat; Ct = total cost

𝐶 = 𝑘𝑥 3 (eqtn. 1) where k is the proportionality constant


𝑑𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑐𝑒 𝑑
𝑡= = (eqtn. 2)
𝑠𝑝𝑒𝑒𝑑 𝑥−8
𝐶𝑡 = 𝐶𝑡 (eqtn. 3)
Substitute (eqtn. 1) and (eqtn. 2) in (eqtn. 3):

241
𝑑
𝐶𝑡 = 𝑘𝑥 3 ( )
𝑥−8
𝑑𝐶𝑡 (𝑥 − 8)(3𝑘𝑑𝑥 2 ) − 𝑘𝑑𝑥 3 (1)
= =0
𝑑𝑥 (𝑥 − 8)2
(𝑥 − 8)(3𝑥 2 ) = 𝑥 3
3𝑥 3 − 24𝑥 2 = 𝑥 3
2𝑥 3 = 24𝑥 2
𝒙 = 𝟏𝟐 𝒌𝒑𝒉

46.) Let: Q = rate of discharge in gph


𝑄 = 𝑡 + √𝑡
𝑑𝑄 1
=1+
𝑑𝑡 2√𝑡
When t = 9 hours,
𝑑𝑄 1 1 𝟕
=1+ = 1 + = 𝒈𝒑𝒉
𝑑𝑡 2√9 6 𝟔

47.) Let: A1 = first average; A2 = second average; ∆A = increase in average


12 + 20 + 10 + 15 + 13 + 12 + 16
∆𝐴 = = 14
7
𝐴2 = 𝐴1 + ∆𝐴 = 88 + 14 = 𝟏𝟎𝟐

48.) Let: x = small cube edge; y = large cube edge


6𝑥 2 + 6𝑦 2 = 150 and 8𝑥 + 8𝑦 = 84
Simplifying each equation,
𝑥 2 + 𝑦 2 = 25 and 2𝑥 + 2𝑦 = 21
Solving simultaneously, x = 6.5 and y = 4

49.) There are many more different-sized squares on the chessboard. The complete list of
answers is shown below:
1 8x8 square
4 7x7 squares
9 6x6 squares
16 5x5 squares
25 4x4 squares
36 3x3 squares
49 2x2 squares
64 1x1 squares
Therefore, there are actually 64 + 49 + 36 + 25 + 16 + 9 + 4 + 1 squares on a chessboard
(in total 204).

𝑠 2
50.) ∑𝑛= ∞ 𝑛
𝑛=0 = 2 (2𝑛 ) = 𝟖 𝒄𝒎
𝟐

1 1 1 1
51.) + + = (eqtn. 1)
𝐴 𝐵 𝐶 3
1 1 1
+ = (eqtn. 2)
𝐴 𝐵 4

242
1 1 1
+ 𝐶 = 8 (eqtn. 3)
𝐴
Solving simultaneously,
A = 24, B = 4.8, C = 12

52.) 𝐶 (𝑥 ) = 𝑥 2 − 4000𝑥 + 50
Integrating the equation,
𝐶 (𝑥 ) = 2𝑥 − 4000 = 0
𝒙 = 𝟐𝟎𝟎𝟎

55.) The line thru the origin and (4, 2) is a chord of the circle. So the perpendicular
bisector of it will go thru the center. The intersection of that line and the y-axis will be
the center of the circle.
Find the equation of the line thru (0,0) and (4,2).
𝑦2 − 𝑦1 2 − 0 2 1
𝑠𝑙𝑜𝑝𝑒(𝑚) = = = =
𝑥2 − 𝑥1 4 − 0 4 2
The midpoint of the line is (2, 1).
The slope of the line perpendicular will be the negative inverse, = -2
Find the equation of the line with a slope of -2 thru (2,1)
y - y1 = m(x-x1)
y - 1 = -2(x - 2)
y - 1 = -2x + 4
y = -2x + 5
The y-intercept is 5, so the point (0,5) is the center of the circle (it was stated to be on the
y-axis).
Since the circle also goes thru the origin, the radius is 5.
x2 + (y-5)2 = 25 is the circle or
x2 + y2 - 10y + 25 = 25
x2 + y2 - 10y = 0

56.) (12-2)! = 3628800

57.) The sides of the square are √2.25 = 1.5, so the perimeter of the square is 4(1.5) = 6.
So the hexagon, which also has perimeter 6, will have sides of length 1. To find the area
of a regular hexagon, break it into 6 equilateral triangles:

Each of those can further be broken into 30º-60º-90º triangles, because all the angles in
an equilateral triangle are 60º.
1 1 √3 √3
𝐴𝑟𝑒𝑎 𝑜𝑓 𝑜𝑛𝑒 𝑡𝑟𝑖𝑎𝑛𝑔𝑙𝑒 = 𝑏ℎ = (1) ( ) =
2 2 2 4

243
Remember that there are 6 of those triangles in a hexagon.
√3
𝐴𝑟𝑒𝑎 𝑜𝑓 ℎ𝑒𝑥𝑎𝑔𝑜𝑛 = 6 ( ) = 𝟐. 𝟓𝟗𝟖𝟏
4
𝐴 200
58.) 𝑃 = = 0.08 = 𝟏𝟎, 𝟎𝟎𝟎
𝑖 ( )
4

𝐴 200
59.) 𝑃 = 𝐴 + 𝑖 = 200 + 0.08 = 𝟏𝟎, 𝟐𝟎𝟎
( )
4

0.08 −25(4)
1−(1+𝑖)−𝑛 1−(1+ )
4
60.) 𝑃 = 𝐴 [ ] = 200 [ 0.08 ] = 8619.6703 ≈ 𝟖𝟔𝟐𝟎
𝑖
4

63.) Using calculator techniques, substitute h = 0.0001 to the equation:


8
1 1
8 (2 + ℎ) − 8(2)8
lim = 𝟎. 𝟓
ℎ→0 ℎ

64.) 𝐴 = 𝜋𝑟 2
𝑑𝐴
= 2𝜋𝑟
𝑑𝑟
𝑑𝑟 𝑑𝑟
2𝜋 =2
𝑑𝑡 𝑑𝑡
𝟏
𝒓=
𝝅

65.) 𝐴(𝑡) = 24𝑡 2


𝑉(𝑡) = ∫ 24𝑡 2 = 8𝑡 3

𝑆(𝑡) = ∫ 8𝑡 3 = 2𝑡 4
When t = 2,
𝑆(𝑡) = 2𝑡 4 = 2(2)4 = 𝟑𝟐

4!(2!)
68.) = 𝟎. 𝟒
5!

𝐴 𝐹𝐶−𝑆𝑉 1.5−0
71.) 𝐶𝐶 = 𝐹𝐶 + 𝑖 + (1+𝑖)𝑘−1 = 1.5 + (1+0.1)10−1 = 𝟐. 𝟒𝟒 𝑴

79.) PE = KE
1
𝑚1 𝑔ℎ = 2 𝑚2 𝑣 2 𝑚1 = 𝑚2
1
𝑔ℎ = 𝑣 2
2
2𝑔ℎ = 𝑣 2
2(9.81)(ℎ) = 852
𝒉 = 𝟑𝟔𝟖. 𝟐𝟒𝟔𝟕

244
FINAL EXAMINATION- PART I
PHYSICAL AND CHEMICAL PRINCIPLES

1. This rule determines whether a compound is aromatic or not.


A. 4𝜋 + 2 rule C. Resonance Hybridization
B. Huckel’s rule D. Hund’s rule

2. Two or more chemical compounds that have the same chemical composition but
different structures (isomers) and can convert easily from one form to another.
A. Hemiacetals B. Acetals C. Tautomers D. none of the given

3. Which of the following is the strongest acid?


A. HClO B. HClO2 C. HClO3 D. HClO4

4. A survival mechanism of some bacteria when conditions are not conducive for
growth; a dormant form of the cell capable of resisting heat, radiation and
chemicals.
A. Capsule B. Capsid C. Fimbrae D. Spore

5. In fungal growth, long thin filaments are called ______ while the highly branched
structure is called the _______.
A. Pilli, Aggregate C. Fibres, Fimbrae
B. Pilli, Mycelium D. Hyphae, Mycelium

6. The specific growth rate can be controlled by _______.


A. Dilution B. Feed Flow rate C. Either A or B D. None of these

7. _________ is the common mathematical equation for describing the effect of


substrate on microbial growth.
A. Michaelis Menten B. Briggs-Haldane C. Monod Equation D. Kinetics

8. The van der Waals constants for Ar are a = 1.345 L2atm/mol2 and b = 0.03219
L/mol. The same constants for O2 are a = 1.360 L2atm/mol2 and b = 0.03183 L/mol.
Which of the following is correct in a comparison between Ar and O2?
A. Attraction between Ar particles are stronger and the effective size of the Ar
particles is greater.
B. Attraction between O2 particles are stronger and the effective size of the O2
particles is greater.

245
C. Attractions between Ar particles are stronger but the effective size of the O2
particle is greater.
D. Attractions between O2 particles are stronger but the effective size of the Ar
particle is greater.

9. Which of the following is the minimum information necessary for calculating the
molality of a solution?
A. The mass of the solute and the volume of the solvent
B. The mass of the solute, volume of the solvent and the density of the solvent
C. The mass of the solute, volume of the solvent and the molecular mass of the
solute
D. The mass of the solute, the volume of the solvent, the molecular mass of the
solute, and the density of the solvent.

10. A vacuum manifold was calibrated using Boyle’s law. A 0.503 dm 3 flask containing
dry nitrogen at 746 torr was attached to the manifold, which was at 12 mtorr. After
the stopcock was opened and the system allowed to reach equilibrium, the pressure
of the combined system was 273 torr. Assuming isothermal conditions, what is the
volume of manifold?
A. 0.872 dm3 B. 0.827 dm3 C. 0.782 dm3 D. 0.728 dm3

11. An ideal gas at 175K contains 5x1020 molecules/m3. What is the pressure of gas?
A. 1.2 Pa B. 1.2 kPa C. 2.1 Pa D. 2.1 kPa

For 12 and 13.


A 0.3284 g sample of brass (contg. Lead, zinc, copper and tin) was dissolved in
nitric acid. The sparingly soluble SnO2∙4H2O was removed by filtration, and the
combined filtrate and washing were then diluted to 500.00 mL. A 10.00 mL aliquot
was suitably buffered; titration of the lead, zinc and copper in this aliquot required
37.56 mL of 0.0025 M EDTA. The copper in a 25.00 mL aliquot was masked with
thiosulfate; the lead and zinc were then titrated with 27.67 ml of EDTA solution.
Cyanide ion was used to mask the copper and zinc in a 100.00 mL aliquot; 10.80
mL of EDTA sol’n was needed to titrate the lead ion.
12. Determine the % Cu in the brass sample.
A. 23.92% B. 29.31% C. 50.67% D. 50.76%

13. Determine the % of tin by difference.


A. 23.92% B. 29.31% C. 50.67% D. 50.76%

14. Benzene is a rotten ideal gas. The van der Waals parameters are a = 18.24
atm∙L2/mol and b = 0.1154 L/mol. Find its compression factor, Z at 100 oC.

246
A. 0.948 B. 0.984 C. 0.995 D. 0.959

15. Ozonolysis (O3 in CH2Cl2) of compound A under reducing conditions (Zn/acetic


acid) gives formaldehyde, 2-butanone, and compound B. Catalytic hydrogenation
(H2/Pd) of A gives 2,7-dimethylnonane. What is a possible structure for compound
A?

A. 2,7-Dimethyl-2,8-nonadiene C. 2,7-Dimethyl-1,6-nonadiene
B. 2,7-Dimethyl-1,8-nonadiene D. 2,7-Dimethyl-1,7-nonadiene

16. What is the sequence of reagents that will accomplish the synthesis of the following
aromatic amine from benzene?
A. CH3Cl, AlCl3, HNO3, H2SO4, H2
B. CH3Cl, AlCl3, HNO3, H2SO4, Fe, HCl, NaOH
C. HNO3, H2SO4, Fe, HCl, NaOH, CH3Cl, AlCl3
D. HNO3, H2SO4, CH3Cl, AlCl3, Fe, HCl, NaOH

17. The calcium and magnesium in a urine sample were pond as oxalates. A mixed ppt.
of CaC2O4 and MgC2O4 resulted and was analyzed by a thermogravimetric
procedure. The ppt. mixture was heated to form CaCO3 (100.0869) and MgO
(43.30). This second mixture weighed 0.0433 g. After ignition to form CaO (56.08)
and MgO, the resulting solid weighed 0.0285 g. What was the mass (mg) of Ca
(40.08) in the original sample?
A. 11.5 B. 12.5 C. 13.5 D. 15.3

18. A 0.4054 g solid organic sample containing covalently bound bromide and no other
halogens was placed in a porcelain crucible with about one gram of fresh sodium
metal. In a process known as sodium fusion, the mixture was heated in a furnace to
450oC which charred and vaporized the organic portion of the molecule and the
converted the covalent bromide into sodium bromide. Excess sodium was
decomposed by adding small portions of water which also dissolved sodium
bromide. The clear solution was quantitatively transferred to a beaker, acidified
with dilute nitric acid and diluted to about 50 mL. A 6 mL quantity of 0.1 M AgNO3
was added to the solution and the mixture heated to about 60 oC for an hour to age
and digest the precipitate. After filtering, the mass of the silver bromide produced
was determined to be 37.8 mg. What is the percentage by mass bromine in the
organic compound?
A. 3.79% B. 9.73% C. 3.97% D. 7.93%

19. To make some starches more soluble, phosphate ester groups are inserted into these
straight-chain molecules. Inserting phosphate ester groups.
A. Disrupts the molecule’s intermolecular forces thereby permitting water to
disperse within the chain more effectively

247
B. Changes the chemical composition of the starches, thereby decreasing the
polarity.
C. Alters their optical reactivity and thus causes their solubility to increase.
D. All of the above are true

20. The IUPAC name of complex [Co(NH3)4Cl2]∙Cl is


A. tetraammine dichloro cobalt (III) chloride
B. dichloro tetraammine cobalt (III) chloride
C. tetraammine dichloro cobalt (IV) chloride
D. tetraammine dichloro cobalt (II) chloride

21. A 0.7500 g sample of an alloy steel yielded on electrolysis 0.1532 g of a mixed


deposit of Co and Ni. This is dissolved and the precipitated nickel dimethylglyoxine
(NiC8H14N4O4) weighs 0.3560 g. What are the percentages of the two metals in
the alloy?
A. 9.64% Ni; 10.79% Co C. 6.94% Ni; 9.79% Co
B. 9.64% Co; 10.79% Ni D. 19.64% Ni; 11.97% Co

22. Rate of chemical reaction is independent of the concentration of reactants for


A. Zero order B. third order C. consecutive reaction D. first order

23. With increase in temperature, the equilibrium conversion of a reversible exothermic


reaction
A. Decreases C. remain unaffected
B. Increases D. decreases linearly with temperature

24. The boiling point of a 2% solution of an unknown compound in benzene is 3 oC


higher than the boiling point of pure benzene. What is the molecular weight of the
compound? Tf = 5.5oC, Tb = 80.2oC, kf = 5.12oC/m, kb = 2.53oC/m
A. 17 g/mole B. 24.2 g/mole C. 33 g/mole D. 36 g/mole

25. When s and p orbitals are hybridized, how many sp3 hybrid orbitals are formed?
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

26. Phase overlap of atomic orbitals produces _______ molecular orbital.


A. σ B. σ* C. 𝜋* D. 𝜋

27. Given the following: Phe-Asn-Ala-His. If this molecule were to be placed in an


electric field, a pH of 7, the molecule would most likely:
A. Migrate towards the positive pole C. not migrate at all
B. Migrate towards the positive pole D. not go into solution

28. Which among the following is a ketone?


248
A. CH3COCH3 B. (CH3)2CHOH C. CH3OCH2CH3 D. CH3CHO

29. The amount of heat absorbed (or evolved) where 1 mole of a substance is formed
is equal to the amount of heat evolved (or absorbed) when 1 mole of the same
substance is decomposed.
A. Hess Law of a Heat Summation C. Law of Lavoisier
B. Law of Lavoisier and Laplace D. Clausius-Clapeyron Equation

30. The benzene are less reactive by this type of substituents.


A. activating group B. deactivating group C. substituent D. NOTG

31. A 1.1105 g sample of bauxite (the primary ore of aluminum) was analyzed for
aluminum. The sample was pulverized and dissolved in concentrated nitric acid.
The HNO3 was removed by evaporation and solids dissolved in hot water with a
very small quantity of nitric acid added. Insoluble solids were removed by gravity
filtration. The solution was made basic by the slow addition of dilute NH3 at which
point a gelatinous solid precipitated (Al(OH)3 and Al2O3∙H2O). The precipitate was
heated to coagulate it as much as possible then filtered over “fast” filter paper. The
paper and solids were placed in a porcelain crucible and the paper ashed and
precipitate “ignited” at 600oC to convert the precipitate to pure Al2O3. The mass
of Al2O3 isolated was 0.3605 g. The average mass of ash remaining after charring
10 sheets of the identical filter paper was 0.0006 g. What is the percentage
aluminum in the bauxite ore?
A. 17.18% B. 17.15% C. 17.81% D. 17.51%

32. The molar mass of a certain metal carbonate MCO3, can be determined by adding
an excess of HCl to react with all the carbonate and then back-titrating the
remaining acid with NaOH. In a certain experiment, 20 ml of 0.800M HCl were
added to 0.1022 g sample of MCO3. The excess HCl required 5.64 ml of 0.100M
NaOH for neutralization. Calculate the molar mass of the carbonate.
A. 24 g/mol C. 40 g/mol
B. 197 g/mol D. cannot be determined from the given data

33. Based from the previous problem, identify the metal carbonate M.
A. Mg B. Ba C. Ca D. none of the given

34. 3000 MT of 6-10-16 fertilizer was prepared by mixing ammonium sulfate (95%
purity), phosphoric acid (95% purity), muriate of potash (95% purity), and gypsum
(90% purity). Calculate how much of the gypsum was used.
A. 893 MT B. 435.9 MT C. 800.9 MT D. 869.9 MT

35. Find the pH of a solution made by diluting one drop (0.04 mL) of 0.10 N HCl to 10
liters.

249
A. 1 B. 2.40 C. 3.4 D. 6.37

36. Einstein’s use this theory to explain the photoelectric effect.


A. Bohr’s Theory C. Planck’s quantum theory
B. Pauli’s Theory D. electromagnetic theory
37. An aqueous solution of CuSO4 was electrolyzed between Cu electrodes. On the
cathode, 0.300 g of Cu was deposited. The solution in the anode compartment
contained 1.43 g of Cu after electrolysis and the same weight of water contained
1.214 g before electrolysis. Calculate the transference number of Cu+2.
A. 0.18 B. 0.23 C. 0.28 D. 0.31

38. The most acidic hydrogen in alpha carbon occurs in


A. alkane B. alkene C. alkyne D. alcohol

39. The fatty acid cycle removes _______ units per cycle, until the fatty acid has been
completely oxidized.
A. one carbon B. one acetyl-CoA C. two carbon D. four acetyl-CoA

40. The Ksp for CaF2 is 3.9 x 10-11 at 25oC. Assuming that CaF2 dissociates
completely upon dissolving and that there are no other important equilibria
affecting its solubility, calculate the solubility of CaF2 in g/L.
A. 0.09 g/L B. 0.03 g/L C. 0.017 g/L D. NOTG

41. The Regnault’s method is a method for determination of molecular weights of


substances which are
A. solid at room temperature C. gases at room temperature
B. fluid at room temperature D. liquid at room temperature

42. This substituent is an example of a good leaving group.


A. Halogens B. Hydride ion C. Proton ion D. alkyl group

43. A visible concentrated growth of algae or other aquatic life/plants is called


A. Phytoplankton B. amoeba C. bloom D. zoo-plankton

44. A urea solution freezes at -2oC. How much glucose should be added to 100 grams
of urea solution to lower the freezing point of solution to -3oC?
A. 16 grams B. 1.6 grams C. 24 grams D. 2.4 grams

45. For reaction A + B → C + D; if the concentration of A is doubled without altering


the concentration of B, the rate gets doubled. If the concentration of B is increased

250
by nine times without altering the concentration of A, the rate gets tripled. The order
of the reaction is
A. 2 B. 1 C. 3/2 D. 4/3

46. For a reaction to be spontaneous at all temperatures


A. ∆G and ∆H should be negative C. ∆G = ∆S = 0
B. ∆G and ∆H should be positive D. ∆H < ∆G

47. For a reversible reaction: X(g) + 3Y(g) ↔ 2Z(g)


∆H = -40 kJ the standard entropies at X, Y and Z are 60, 40 and 50 J/K-mole
respectively. The temperature at which the above reaction attains equilibrium is
about.
A. 400 K B. 500 K C. 273 K D. 373 K

48. For preparing a buffer solution of pH = 7.0, which buffer system you will choose?
A. H3PO4, H2PO4- C. HPO42-, PO43-
4- 2-
B. H2PO , HPO4 D. H3PO4, PO43-

49. The insoluble salt AgBr can be dissolved in ammonia solution according to the
equilibrium below. What concentration of NH3 is needed to dissolve 0.010 mole of
AgBr in 1.0 L of solution?

A. 2.4 M B. 4.2 M C. 3.5 M D. 5.8 M


+
50. What is the pH of a buffer which has been prepared by mixing 250 mg NH4Cl and
200 mL of 0.1 M NH3 solution?
A. 8.56 B. 9.85 C. 10.26 D. 11.04

51. For the following reaction: C6H12O6(aq) + H2(g) → C6H14O6(aq)


Which one of the following is not affected by the addition of catalyst?
A. Rate of forward reaction C. Time required to reach the equilibrium
B. Rate of backward reaction D. Spontaneity

52. Stomach acid is approximately 0.02 M HCl. What volume of this acid is neutralized
by an antacid tablet that weighs 330 mg and contains 41.0% Mg(OH) 2, 36.2%
NaHCO3, and 22.8% NaCl? Mg(OH)2 + 2H+ → Mg2+ + 2H2O
A. 330 mL B. 303 mL C. 348 mL D. 384 mL

53. Suppose the following four salts all have the same numerical value of Ksp which
is much less than one, which will have the highest solubility?
A. AB B. AB2 C. AB3 D. A2B3

251
54. A given amount of electric charge deposits 2.159 gram of silver from an Ag+
solution. What mass of copper from Cu+2 solution will deposited by the same
quantity of electric charge? Atomic mass: Ag = 107.87 g/mol; Cu = 63.5 g/mol
A. 0.635 gram B. 0.356 gram C. 0.535 gram D. 0.335 gram

55. Beaker A contains 0.1L of a 0.20M KOH solution; beaker B contains 0.1L of a
0.20M HCl solution. The contents of the two beakers are thoroughly mixed together
in as sufficiently large third beaker. Calculate the molarity of the resulting salt
solution.
A. 1M B. 0.001M C. 0.01M D. 0.1M

56. ________ substances are not considered to be true solids but rather highly
supercooled liquids of very high viscosity.
A. Glass B. amorphous C. crystalline D. solid

57. Limestone (CaCO3) can be decomposed in a furnace to yield CaO(s) and CO2(g). If
the furnace used a water filter as a purification method to trap emitted gases, what
would happen to the pH of the water overtime?
A. Increase B. decrease C. remains the same D. equal to 1

58. A sample of 500 mL of Genesee River was collected from just below the brewery.
Three mL of the river water sample is diluted to 300 mL, aerated and seeded. The
DO content was 8.2 mg/L initially. After 5 days, the DO content had dropped to 6.7
mg/L. The second sample was obtained 60 days later and retested in identical
fashion. The initial DO was 8.3 mg/L and after 5 days, dropped to 6.4 mg/L. What
is the difference between the ultimate BOD of the two sample? Use k = 0.23/day
A. 48.54 mg/L B. 58.54 mg/L C. 68.54 mg/L D. 78.54 mg/L

59. Glutamic acid (C5H9O4N) is used as one of the reagents for a standard to check
BOD test. Determine the theoretical oxygen demand of 200 mg/L of glutamic acid.
Assume the following reactions apply:
C5H9O4N + 4.5O2 → 5CO2 + 3H2O + 2O2 → NO3 + H+ + H2O
A. 231 mg/L B. 132 mg/L C. 382 mg/L D. 283 mg/L

60. The weight of an evaporating dish is determined to be 30.303 g. After a sample is


filtered, 150 mL of the sample is evaporated from the dish. The weight of the dish
plus the dried residue is found to be 30.324 g. Compute the TDS concentration
A. 140 mg/L B. 104 mg/L C. 150 mg/L D. 130 mg/L

252
61. A sanitary landfill has an available space of 16.2 ha at an average depth of 10 m.
Seven hundred sixty five m3 of solid waste is dumped at the site 5 days a week.
The waste is compacted to twice its delivered density. Estimated the expected life
of the landfill in years.
A. 16.3 yrs. B. 13.6 yrs. C. 12.5 yrs. D. 15.2 yrs.

62. The mass of glucose that should be dissolved in 50 g of water in order to produce
the same lowering of vapour pressure as is produced by dissolving 1 g of urea in
the same quantity of water is
A. 1 g B. 3 g C. 6 g D. 18 g

63. A solution has a pH = 3.0. What is the pH of the solution that is 10 times acidic?
A. 1.0 B. 2.0 C. 8.0 D. 9.0

64. This determines a primary, secondary and tertiary alcohols by observing the
differences in the reaction rates.
A. Benedict’s Test C. Lucas Test
B. Tollens Test D. Bellstein Test

65. What is the indicator of sewage pollution?


A. Coliform C. streptococci
B. salmonella thyposa D. staphylococcus aureus

66. Also known as the “Philippine Environmental Code”.


A. P.D. 1151 B. P.D. 1152 C. P.D. 1153 D. P.D. 1154

67. _________ is the animal and vegetable waste resulting from the handling,
preparation, cooking, and serving food.
A. Garbage B. Trash C. Rubbish D. Refuse

68. It is a neurological disease characterized by trembling, inability to walk, speak, and


even serious convulsions that can lead to death.
A. Argyria B. Itai-itai C. Pneumonia D. Minamata

69. This class of fresh surface water is used for the propagation and growth of fish and
other aquatic resources.
A. Class B B. Class C C. Class D D. Class SC

70. A “strong water” as defined from DAO 35 refers to the water whose initial BOD
value before treatment is equal to or greater than _________.
A. 50000 B. 3000 C. 1000 D. 500

253
ANSWER KEY

Final Examination – Part I - PCP


1. Huckel’s rule 41. C. gases at room temperature
2. C. Tautomers 42. A. Halogens
3. D. HClO4 43. C. bloom
4. D. Spore 44. A. 16 grams
5. D. Hyphae, Mycelium 45. C. 3/2
6. C. Either A or B 46. B. ∆G and ∆H should be positive
7. C. Monod Equation 47. B. 500 K
8. D. Attractions between O2 particles are stronger 48. B. H2PO4-, HPO42-
but the effective size of the Ar particle is greater.
49. C. 3.5 M
9. D. The mass of the solute, the volume of the
50. B. 9.85
solvent, the molecular mass of the solute, and the
51. D. Spontaneity
density of the solvent.
10. A. 0.872 dm3
52. B. 303 mL
11. A. 1.2 Pa 53. D. A2B3
12. E. 54. A. 0.635 gram
13. E. 55. D. 0.1M
14. B. 0.984 56. B. amorphous
15. C. 2,7-Dimethyl-1,6-nonadiene 57. B. decrease
16. B. CH3Cl, AlCl3, HNO3, H2SO4, Fe, HCl, NaOH 58. B. 58.54 mg/L
17. C. 13.5 59. D. 283 mg/L
18. C. 3.97% 60. A. 140 mg/L
19. A. Disrupts the molecule’s intermolecular forces 61. A. 16.3 yrs.
thereby permitting water to disperse within the 62. B. 3 g
chain more effectively 63. B. 2.0
20. A. tetraammine dichloro cobalt (III) chloride 64. C. Lucas Test
21. A. 9.64% Ni; 10.79% Co 65. A. Coliform
22. A. Zero order 66. B. P.D. 1152
23. A. Decreases 67. A. Garbage
24. A. 17 g/mole 68. D. Minamata
25. A. 1 69. B. Class C
26. A. σ
70. B. 3000
27. B. Migrate towards the positive pole
28. A. CH3COCH3
29. B. Law of Lavoisier and Laplace
30. A. activating group
31. B. 17.15%
32. B. 197 g/mol
33. B. Ba
34. D. 869.9 MT
35. D. 6.37
36. C. Planck’s quantum theory
37. C. 0.28
38. C. alkyne
39. C. two carbon
40. C. 0.017 g/L

254
FINAL EXAMINATION- PART I/PCP
SOLUTIONS
10. Given: Vflask = 0.503 dm3 Pflask = 746 torr
Pmanifold = 12 mtorr Pcombined = 273 torr
Required: Vmanifold
Solution:
Assuming ideal gas: PV = nRT
Using Boyle’s Law: P1 V1 = P2 V2
Pflask Vflask = Pcombined Vcombined
Pflask Vflask
𝑉𝑐𝑜𝑚𝑏𝑖𝑛𝑒𝑑 = Pcombined
(746 torr)(0.503 dm3)
Vcombined = (273 torr)
= 1.3745 dm3
Vmanifold = Vcombined − Vflask
Solving for Vmanifold:
Vmanifold = 1.3745 dm3 − 0.503 dm3 = 0.8715 dm3

Ans. 0.872 dm3

11. Given: Temperature = 175 K


no. of molecules/V = 5 x 1020 molecules/m3
Required: Pressure (P)
Solution:
From the ideal gas law: PV = nRT
Solving for P:
nRT molecules 1 mole Pa∙m3
P= = (5 x 1020 )( )(8.3145 )(175 K)
V m3 6.022x 1023 molecules mol∙K
P = 1.2081 Pa

Ans. 1.2 Pa

12. Given: EDTA Titration of Pb, Zn, Cu and Sn


Step 1: 500 mL dilution of Pb, Zn, Cu excluding Sn
Step 2: 37.56 mL of 0.0025M EDTA titration of 10 mL of Pb, Zn and Cu
Step 3: 27.67 mL of 0.0025M EDTA titration of 25 mL of Pb and Zn
Step 4: 10.80 mL of 0.0025M EDTA titration of 100 mL of Pb
Required: % Cu
Solution:
Using step 2:
(MV)EDTA = (MV)Pb + (MV)Zn + (MV)Cu
(0.0025 × 37.56)EDTA = (M × 10)Pb + (M × 10)Zn + (M × 10)Cu

255
MPb + MZn + MCu = 9.39 x 10−3 (Equation 1)
Using step 3:
(0.0025 × 27.67)EDTA = (M × 25)Pb + (M × 25)Zn
MPb + MZn = 2.767 x 10−3 (Equation 2)

Using step 4:
(0.0025 × 10.80)EDTA = (M × 100)Pb
MPb = 2.7 x 10−4
Substituting to Equation 2:
MZn = 2.497 x 10−3
Substituting MPb and MZn to Equation 1:
MCu = 6.623 x 10−3

Solving for the weight of each metal:


mmol 207.2 mg 1g
Wt.Pb = (2.7 x 10−4 ) (500mL) ( )( ) = 0.02797 g
mL mmol 1000 mg
−3 mmol 65.39 mg 1g
Wt.Zn = (2.497 x 10 ) (500mL) ( )( ) = 0.08164 g
mL mmol 1000 mg
mmol 63.546 mg 1g
Wt.Cu = (6.623 x 10−3 ) (500mL) ( )( ) = 0.2104 g
mL mmol 1000 mg

Solving for % Cu:


0.2104 𝑔
% Cu = 0.3284 𝑔 𝑥 100 = 64.07%

Ans. 64.07%

13. Solving for % Sn by difference:


0.02797 𝑔
% Pb = 𝑥 100 = 8.52%
0.3284 𝑔
0.08164 𝑔
% Zn = 𝑥 100 = 24.88%
0.3284 𝑔
% Sn = 100 % − 64.07% − 8.52% − 24.88% = 2.53%

Ans. 2.53%

14. Given: Benzene, van der Waals parameter: a = 18.24 atm∙L2/mol


b = 0.1154 L/mol
Required: Z (compressibility factor) at 100oC
Solution:
Using van der Waals Equation:
𝑎
(𝑝 + ) (𝑉 − 𝑏) = 𝑅𝑇
𝑉2

256
𝑅𝑇
𝑉=𝑏+ 𝑎 ; V can be solved by iterations
(𝑝+ 2 )
𝑉
The first guess should be
𝐿∙𝑎𝑡𝑚
𝑅𝑇 0.08206 ×373 𝐾
o 𝑚𝑜𝑙∙𝐾
V = = = 30.61 𝐿
𝑃 1 𝑎𝑡𝑚
Solving for V:
30.61 L∙atm
V = 0.1154 L/mol + 18.24 atm∙L2 /mol
= 30.14 L
(1 atm+ )
V2

Guessed V Calculated V
Solving for Z:
30.61 30.14 pV 1atm∙30.12L
30.14 30.12 Z = RT = L∙atm = 0.984
0.08206 ∙373K
mol∙K
30.12 30.12
Ans. 0.984

17. Given: Calcium and Magnesium (Ca and Mg) in urine sample
Required: Mass (mg) of Ca
Solution:
Mass of ignited mixture: CaO and MgO
Let x be the mass of CaO and y be the of MgO
X + Y = 0.0285 (Equation 1)

Mass of the precipitated mixture: CaCO3 and MgO


mol 1 mol CaCO3 100.0869 g
Xg of CaO (56.08 g) ( )( ) + Y = 0.0433
1 mol CaO mol
1.7847X + Y = 0.0433 (Equation 2)

Solving the equations simultaneously:


mol 1 mol Ca 40.08 g
X = 0.01886 g CaO (56.08 g CaO) (1 mol CaO) ( mol
Ca) = 0.01348 g
X = 13.5 g Ca

Ans. 13.5 g

18. Given: Mass of sample = 0.4054 g


Required: Percentage by mass of bromine
Solution:
mmol 1 mmol Br 79.90 mg
Mass of Br = 37.8 mg AgBr ( AgBr) ( )( Br) = 16.08 mg
187.77 mg 1 mmol AgBr mmol
16.08 mg
% Br = 𝑥100 = 3.97%
405.4 mg

Ans. 3.97%

257
21. Given: Mass of alloy steel= 0.75 g
Required: Percentage by mass of bromine
Solution:
mol 1 mol Ni 58.69 g
Mass of Ni = 0.356 g NiC8H14N4O ( )( )( Ni) = 0.0723 g
288.95 g 1 mol NiC8H14N4O mol
Mass of Co = 0.1532g – 0.0723g = 0.0809 g Co

0.0723 g
% Ni = 𝑥100 = 9.64%
0.75 g
0.0809 g
% Co = 𝑥100 = 10.79%
0.75 g

Ans. 9.64% Ni; 10.79% Co

24. Given: BPE = 3oC; kb = 2.53oC/m; 2% solution


Required: Molecular Weight of unknown compound
Solution:
BPE = m ∙ K b
0.02 kg 1000 g 1 2.53o C
3o C = ( ) (MW) ( )
kg benzene solution 1 kg m
MW = 16.87 g/mole

Ans. 17 g/mole

31. Given: Mass of bauxite= 1.1105 g


Required: Percentage by Al
Solution:
mol 2 mol Al 26.98 g
Mass of Al = (0 .3605-0.0006)g Al2O3( )( )( Al) = 0.1905 g
101.96 g 1 mol Al2O3 mol
0.1905 g
% Al = 1.1105 g 𝑥100 = 17.15%

Ans. 17.15%

32. Given: 0.1022 g MCO3; 20 mL of 0.800M HCl


Back Titration: 5.64 mL of 0.100M NaOH
Required: Molar mass of carbonate
Solution:
Reaction: MCO3(s) + 2HCl(aq) → MCl2(aq) + H2O(l) + CO2(g)
HCl(aq) + NaOH(aq) → NaCl(aq) + H2O(l)

Moles of HCl reacted with MCO3 = moles of HCl − Moles of excess HCl

258
0.08 mol
Total moles HCl = 20.00 mL (1000 mL soln) = 1.60 x 10−3 mol
0.100 mol
Moles of excess HCl = 5.64 mL (1000 mL soln) = 5.64 x 10−4 mol

Moles HCl reacted with MCO3 = 1.60 x 10−3 mol − 5.64 x 10−4 mol
= 1.04 x 10−3 mol HCl
1 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝑀𝐶𝑂3
Mole of MCO3 reacted = 1.04 x 10−3 mol HCl x = 5.20 𝑥 10−4 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝑀𝐶𝑂3
2 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝐻𝐶𝑙
0.1022 𝑔
Molar mass of MCO3 = 5.20 𝑥 10−4 𝑚𝑜𝑙 = 197 𝑔/𝑚𝑜𝑙

Ans. 197 g/mole

33. What is the metal carbonate M?


Molar mass of MCO3 = 197 𝑔/𝑚𝑜𝑙
Molar mass of CO3 = 60.01 g
Molar mass of M = 197 g/mol − 60.01 g/mol = 137 g/mol
The metal, M, is Ba!

Ans. Ba

35. Given: 0.04 mL of 0.10N HCl dropped to 10L


Required: pH
Solution:
1𝐿 0.1 𝑚𝑜𝑙
0.04 𝑚𝐿( )𝑋 ( )
1000 𝑚𝐿 𝐿
pH = − log ( ) = 6.39
10𝐿

Ans. 6.39

40. Given: CaF2; Ksp = 3.9 x 10-11


Required: Solubility (s) in g/L
Solution:
Reaction: CaF2 → Ca2+ + 2F−
Ksp = (2s)2s = 4s3
3 𝐾𝑠𝑝 3 3.9 𝑥 10−11
s= √ =√ = 2.1363 x 10-4 mole/L (78.08 g/mole) = 0.0167 g/L
4 4

Ans. 0.017 g/L


44. Given: Urea sol’n. Fp = -2 C; 100g of Urea sol’n.
o

New Fp = -3oC
Required: Amount of Glucose:
Solution:

∆𝑇𝑓 = 𝑚 ∙ 𝑘𝑓

259
Xg of glucose mol 1.13o C
−2o C − (−3o C) = ( )( )
0.1 kg solution 180.18 g m
X = 15.95 g of glucose

Ans. 16 grams

45. Given: Reaction: A + B → C + D


Required: The order of reaction
Solution:
Condition 1: concentration of A is doubled without altering the
concentration of B, the rate gets doubled
𝑟1 = 𝐴𝑎 𝐵𝑏 ; 𝑟2 = 2𝑟1 = (2𝐴)𝑎 𝐵𝑏
2𝑟1 (2𝐴)𝑎 𝐵𝑏
Solving for a: = ; 2 = 2a ; a = 1
𝑟1 𝐴𝑎 𝐵 𝑏

Condition 2: concentration of B is increased by nine times without altering


the concentration of A, the rate gets tripled
𝑟1 = 𝐴𝑎 𝐵𝑏 ; 𝑟2 = 3𝑟1 = 𝐴𝑎 (9𝐵)𝑏
3𝑟1 𝐴𝑎 (9𝐵)𝑏
Solving for b: = ; 3 = 9b; b = ½
𝑟1 𝐴𝑎 𝐵 𝑏

Therefore: 𝑟 = 𝐴𝐵1/2 and n= 1+1/2 = 3/2


Ans. 3/2

52. Given: Reaction: Mg(OH)2 + 2H+ → Mg2+ + 2H2O


Required: Volume of stomach acid that is neutralized
Solution:
M Mg(OH)2 = 0.410(0.330g) = 0.1353g
0.1353 𝑔
moleMg(OH)2 = 𝑔 = 2.320×10-3 mole
58.32
𝑚𝑜𝑙
mole [H+] = 2.320×10-3 mole x 2 = 4.640×10-3 mole

M NaHCO3 = 0.362(0.330g) = 0.1195g


Mole NaHCO3 = 0.1195g / 84.01g/mol = 1.422×10-3 mole
mole [H+] = 1.422×10-3 mole
So the total amount of acid absorbed is
= 4.640×10-3 + 1.422×10-3 = 6.062×10-3 moles
V = mole/molarity = 6.062×10-3 mole /0.020 mole/L
hence V = 0.3031 L = 303 mL

Ans. 303 mL

260
54. Given: 2.159 g of Silver deposited
Requird: Mass of Copper
Solution:
Silver moles = given mass / molar mass = 2.158 / 107.9 = 0.0200 moles.
of silver.
If you we have 0.02 moles of Ag, we will only get 0.01 moles of Cu
n = Mass / atomic mass
n = 0.01
molar mass = 63.5
0.01 = x / 63.5; x = 0.635 grams of Cu
Ans. 0.635 gram

55. Given: Beaker A: 0.1L of a 0.20M KOH


Beaker B: 0.1L of a 0.20M HCl
Required: Molarity of resulting salt solution
Solution:
KOH + HCl KCl + H2O
0.02 mol 0.02 mol 0 0
0 0 0.02 0.02
0.02 𝑚𝑜𝑙
Molarity = (0.1+ = 0.1M
0.1)𝐿

Ans. 0.1 M

58. Given: Sample volume = 3 mL Dilution volume = 300 mL


Sample 1: DOi = 8.2 mg/L; DOf = 6.7 mg/L
Sample 2: DOi = 8.3 mg/L; DOf = 6.4 mg/L
5 days BOD; k = 0.23 day
Required: Difference between the ultimate BOD of two sample
Solution:
𝑚𝑔 𝑚𝑔 𝑚𝑔 𝑚𝑔
8.2 −6.7 𝑚𝑔 8.3 −6.4 𝑚𝑔
𝐿 𝐿 𝐿 𝐿
BOD1 = 3𝑚𝐿 = 150 BOD2 = 3𝑚𝐿 = 190
𝐿 𝐿
300𝑚𝐿 300𝑚𝐿

BOD = Lo (1-e−kt ) where Lo is ultimate BOD

150 𝑚𝑔/𝐿
𝐿𝑜1 = = 219.50 𝑚𝑔/𝐿
(1− 𝑒 −023/𝑑𝑎𝑦(5𝑑𝑎𝑦𝑠) )
190 𝑚𝑔/𝐿
𝐿𝑜2 = = 278.04 𝑚𝑔/𝐿
(1− 𝑒 −023/𝑑𝑎𝑦(5𝑑𝑎𝑦𝑠) )

261
Difference = 278.04 mg/L – 219.50 mg/L = 58.54 mg/L

Ans. 58.54 mg/L

59. Given: 200 mg/L glutamic acid


Reaction: C5H9O4N + 4.5O2 → 5CO2 + 3H2O + 2O2 → NO3 + H+ + H2O
Required: Theoretical Oxygen Demand
Solution:
200 mg mmol 6.5 mmol O2 32 mg
TOD = C5H9O4N= ( )( )( ) = 283 mg/L
L 147.14 mg 1 mmol glutamic mmol

Ans. 283 mg/L

60. Given: Initial weight = 30.303g Final Weight = 30.324g


Volume Evaporated = 150 mL
Required: TDS concentration
Solution:
1000 𝑚𝑔
𝐹𝑖𝑛𝑎𝑙 𝑤𝑒𝑖𝑔ℎ𝑡−𝐼𝑛𝑖𝑡𝑖𝑎𝑙 𝑤𝑒𝑖𝑔ℎ𝑡 (30.324 𝑔−30.303 𝑔)
1𝑔
TDS = = = 140 𝑚𝑔/𝐿
𝑉𝑜𝑙𝑢𝑚𝑒 𝑒𝑣𝑎𝑝𝑜𝑟𝑎𝑡𝑒𝑑 0.150 𝐿

Ans. 140 mg/L

61. Given: Landfill Area = 16.2 ha; Depth = 10 m


Volume of waste = 765 m3; 5 days/week
Required: Expected Life of landfill
Solution:
10000 𝑠𝑞.𝑚
16.2 ℎ𝑎( )(10 𝑚)
1 ℎ𝑎
Expected life = 765 5 𝑑𝑎𝑦𝑠 52 𝑤𝑒𝑒𝑘𝑠 = 16.29 𝑦𝑒𝑎𝑟𝑠
𝑚3 𝑥 ( )𝑥( )
2 𝑤𝑒𝑒𝑘 𝑦𝑒𝑎𝑟

Ans. 16.3 yrs.


63. Given: pH = 3.0
Required: pH when the solution is ten times acidic
Solution:
[H+] = 10-3 M
Ten times acidic: [H+] = 10 x 10-3 = 0.01 M
New pH = - log (0.01M) = 2

Ans. 2.0

262
FINAL EXAMINATION- PART II
CHEMICAL ENGINEERING
1. Which of the following is true for water at a reference temperature where enthalpy is
zero?

a. Internal energy is negative c. specific volume is zero


b. Entropy is nonzero d. Vapor pressure is zero
2. Heat to the hydrolyzer is to be supplied by an immersion heater of suitable material of
construction. The heater uses steam at 75psig. The suitable material of construction is
a. stainless steel 316 b. Teflon c. Karbate d. Hastlelloy B
3. What type of power cycle does the diagram illustrate?

a. a carnot cycle
b. an idealized rankine cycle
c. an idealized diesel cycle

d. an idealized stirling cycle


4. Shear stress in a fluid flowing in a round pipe
a. is zero at the center and varies linearly with the radius

b. varies parabolically across the cross section


c. is zero at the wall and increases linearly to the center
d. remains constant over the cross section

5. A steam turbine operates adiabatically at a power level of 3500 kW. Steam enters the
turbine at 2400 kPa and 500C and exhausts from the turbine at 20 kPa. What is the
turbine efficiency?

a. 62% b. 72% c. 82% d. 92%


6. A ten minute run shows that 75% of liquid reactant is converted to product by a half
order rate. What would be the amount converted in a half hour run?

a. 70% b. 80% c. 90% d. 100%

263
7. At 378.5C the half life for the first order decomposition of ethylene oxide is 363
minutes, and E=52000 cal/mole. If the temperature is increased to 450C, find the time for
ethylene oxide to be 75% decomposed.
a. 13.8 min b. 23.1 min c. 37.2 min d. 45.8 min
8. At 500 K, the rate of a biomolecular reaction is ten times the rate of 400K. Activation
energy of this reaction is 9.15 kcal/mol. How much faster is the reaction at 450 K?
a. 3.6 times as at 450 K c. 5.6 times as 450 K
b. 4.6 times as fast at 450 K d. 6.6 times as fast at 450 K

9. The off gas from a boiling water nuclear power reactor contains a whole variety of
radioactive trash, one of the most troublesome being Xe-133 (half-life 5.2 days). This off
gas flows continuously through a large holdup tank in which it mean residence time is 30
days, and where we can assume that the contents are well mixed. Find the reaction of
activity removed in the tank.
a. 83% b. 88% c. 93% d. 98%

10. Liquid A decomposes by second-order kinetics, and in a batch reactor 50% of A is


converted in a 5-minute run. How much longer would it take to reach 75% conversion?
a. 5 more minutes b. 10 more minutes c. 15 more minutes d. 20 more minutes

11. A certain substance A is mixed with equal amount of B and C. After 10 minutes, half
of A has reacted. What will be the conversion after 20 minutes if the reaction is second-
order with respect to A?
a. 25% b. 33% c. 67% d. 75%
For no. 12- 13. The analysis of a flue gas from a fuel gas containing no nitrogen is 4.62%
CO2. 3.08% CO. 8.91% O2, and 83.39% N2.
12. moles of water (H2O) formed
a. 7.04 moles b. 14.08 moles c. 15.07 moles d. 22.11 moles

13. moles of air supplied per 100 moles of dry flue gas
a. 1.055 b. 1.087 c. 1.124 d. 1.148
14. The ratio of moles of a reactant converted into the desired product to that converted
into unwanted product is called
a. operational yield b. selectivity c. relative yield d. none of the above

264
15. The moisture content of a solid is given as 50 % wet basis. What is the moisture
content, dry basis?

a. 0.5 b. 1 c. 2 d. 50
16. A fumace is fired with coal containing 6% moisture,18% VCM, 67% FC and 9% ash.
The refuse analysis shows 5% VCM, 23%FC and 62% ash. The higher heating value of
the coal as fired is 14,300 Btu/lb. Calculate the percentage of the heating value of thecoal
that is lost in the refuse. Assume that the moisture in the refuse is due to the “wetting
down” to prevent dusting and not moisture from the original coal.
A. 4.68%
B. 7.02%
C. 9.36%
D. 15.0%

17. What is the theoretical oxygen demand of 100 grams of glucose?


a. 107 grams b. 112 grams c. 120 grams d. 170
grams
18. The term “ adiabatic” comes from the greek word “adiabastos” which means
a. No transformation c. Not to be passed
b. No transfer d. No heat
19. A utility runs a Rankine cycle with a water boiler at 3.5 MPa and the cycle has the
highest and lowest temperature of 450C and 45C respectively. What is the cycle
efficiency?
a. 0.36 b. 0.53 c. 0.84 d. 0.61

20. The compression ratio of an ideal Otto cycle is 6:1. P1 is 101.35 kPa, and T1 is 20
degC. What is the temperature at state 2 at the diagram shown?
a. 332.6 K
b. 459.4 K
c. 560.0 K
d. 600.0 K

21. The cycle has the following process:


The process from 1 to 2 is adiabatic, isentropic compression
The process from 2 to 3 is asobaric, heat addition
The process from 3 to 4 is adiabatic, isentropic expansion
The process from 4 to 1 is constant volume heat rejection
What is the name of this cycle?
a. carnot b. diesel c. otto d. Rankine

265
22. An engine burns a liter of fuel each 12 minutes. The fuel has a specific gravity of 0.8
and a heating value of 45 MJ/kg. The engine has a efficiciency of 25%. What is most
nearly the brake horsepower of the engine?
a. 12.5 hp b. 15.6 hp c. 16.8 hp d. 21.0 hp

23. The COP of a carnot refrigeration cycle operating at 100 deg F and 900 deg F is
a. 0.1111 b. 0.1250 c. 1.125 d. 5.875

24. Maximum work that could be secured by expanding the gas over a given pressure
range is the ______________ work.
a. isothermal b. adiabatic c. isentropic d. none of these

25. 1 lbm of nitrogen is compressed at a constant temp of 70 deg F from 10 ft3 to 5 ft3. If
the process is non-flow and if no work is done on the gas except by a moving piston, how
much heat is added to or removed from the gas during the process?
a. 30.27 BTU b. -30.27 BTU c. 28.54 BTU d. -26.07 BTU

26. An engineer devises a scheme for extracting some power from waste process steam.
The engineer claims that the steam enters the device at 700.5 kPa and a quality 75%, and
the steam exits at 101.35 kPa and 65% quality. Which of the following statements is/are
true?
I. The device produces 216 kJ/kg of work
II. The device violates the first law of thermodynamics
III. The device violates the second law of thermodynamics
a. I only b. II only c. III only d. I and II

27. A chemical reaction involves the interaction collision of two molecules of A and B
goes through the following energy profile. The energy,E, shown on the diagram
represents which of the following?
a. entropy of reaction
b. enthalpy of reaction
c. forward activation energy
d. reverse activation energy

28. If 15 kJ of work is done by the surroundings on the system and the system loses 10 kJ
heat to the surroundings then the total energy change is
a. 25 kJ c. -5 kJ
b. 10 kJ d. 5 kJ

266
29. What refers to the amount of removed from the colled space in BTS’s for 1 watt-hour
of electricity consumed?
a. coefficient of performance c. cost of performance
b. energy efficiency rating d. cost efficiency rating

30. Carnot cycle is the best known reversible cycle which was proposed in what year?
a. 1824 b. 1832 c. 1834 d. 1842

31. Who formulated the zeroth law of thermodynamics?


a. A. Celcius b. A. Einstein c. R.H. Fowler d. G. Fahrenheit

32. Who coined the word “ energy” in 1807?


a. Lord Kelvin b. Thomas Young c. Rudolph Clausius d. William Rankine

33. A device that violates the second law of thermodynamics is called a ______.
a. universal machine of the second kind
b. ambiguous machine of the second kind
c. unique machine of the second kind
d. Perpetual-motion machine of the second kind

34. In the process of radiation, energy is carried by electromagnetic waves. What is the
speed of electromagnetic waves?
a. 188 000 miles/sec
b. 186 000 miles/sec
c. 184 000 miles/sec
d. 182 000 miles/sec

35. Determine the state of water according to the following condition at 440 deg F
density of 842.3679 kg/m3
a. saturated liquid c. sub-saturated
b. saturated vapor d. superheated

36. Which of the following denotes the effect of compressibility in fluid flow?
a. weber number
b. Euler number
c. Reynolds number
d. Mach number

267
37. Air enters a dryer at 70 degF and 20% humidity and leaves at 180 degF and 50% RH.
If the dryer operates at atmospheric pressure of 14.3 psia, how many cubic feets of
entering air would be needed when 12.0 lb/hr of water is evaporated from the wet
material in the dryer?
a. 6.78 cu ft/min b. 7.86 cu ft/min c. 8.67 cu ft/min d. 13.8 cu ft/min

For no. 38-39. A solution composed 50% ethanol and 40% water is fed at the rate of 100
kg/hr into a separator that produces one stream at the rate of 60 kg/hr with the
composition of 80% ethanol, 15% methanol and 5% water, and a second stream of
unknown composition.
38. The mass flow rate of the second unknown stream in kg/hr is
a. 60 b. 50 c. 40 d. 20
39. The mass fraction of ethanol in the unknown stream is
a. 0.025 b. 0.05

40. In a reciprocating pump, the ration of the quantity of liquid actually pumped to that
which corresponds to the piston displacement is called
a. Hydraulic efficiency
b. Mechanical efficiency
c. Volumetric efficiency
d. Suction

41. The function of manholes provided in the shell of a distillation column is to


a. Keep check on the liquid gradient over the plate by direct visual observation
b. Give access to the individual trays for cleaning, maintenance and installation
c. Guard against foaming & entrainment by dumping antifoaming agent through
it
d. All a, b and c

42. Cold air at 10 degF is forced to flow over a flat plate maintained at 40 defC. The
mean heat transfer coeeficient is 30 W/m2-K. Find the heat flow rate from the plate to
the air through a plate area of 2m2. Assume radiation is negligible.
a. 1.8 kW
b. 2.0 kW
c. 2.2 kW
d. 2.4 kW

43. The lowest cost plastic commercially available


a. Chlorinated polyether
b. Polyethylene

268
c. Polypropylene
d. Cellulose acetate butyrate

44. Scaling can be best handled by


a. Increasing velocity
b. Decreasing velocity
c. Decreasing Viscosity
d. Increasing viscosity

45. You are asked what size of containers to use 1,000lbs of cotton seed oil (SG = 0.926).
What would be the minimum size of drum expressed in gallons?
a. 129.5
b. 254.2
c. 103.9
d. 85.6

46. A pure formic acid at 30°C flowing at 0.015 m/s is pumped Through a 75 mm
horizontal pipe 38 m long. The roughness of the pipe is 6x10-5 m. What will be be
the pressure drop in the pipe?
a. 71 kPa
b. 35 kPa
c. 21 kPa
d. 42 kPa

47. Of the pressure vessels, with same thickness but different diameters, which one
withstands higher pressure?
a. Larger dia vessel
b. Smaller dia vessel.
c. Larger dia long vessel
d. Strength of the vessel is same irrespective of the diameter.

48. In a laminar fluid flow, the average velocity is ____________ of the maximum
velocity.
a. one-half
b. one-fourth
c. twice
d. four times

269
49. “Perspex” or “Plexiglass” is basically
a. Poly (vinyl chloride)
b. Poly (acrylonitrile)
c. Poly (isobutylene)
d. Poly (methyl methacrylate)

50. Solubility of a substance which dissolves with an increase in volume and liberation of
heat will be favored by the
a. low pressure and high temperature.
b. low pressure and low temperature.
c. high pressure and low temperature
d. high pressure and high temperature

51. Design a multiple-contact extraction system to treat 1.25 tones (2500 lb) per hour of
dry black ash, containing 40% Na2CO3 and 60% insoluble matter with 30 gpm of
water. If 5% of the Na1CO3 remains unextracted, calculate the number of ideal stages
by_the absorption factor method. Note: The mass ratio of insoluble matter to solvent
in the underflow from stage is 1:2.
a. 2
b. 1
c. 4
d. 3

52. A 1-2 shell and tube exchanger heats 68 kg/min of water in a shell from 35°C to 75°C
by an oil (Cp= 1.9 kJ/kg-°C). The oil enters the tube at 110°C and leaves at 75°C. The
LMTD correction factor is
a. 0.81
b. 0.86
c. 0.91
d. 0.96

53. A large container 360 m long, 70 m wide and 25 m deep is being dragged in sea at a
constant speed of 10 m/s. Calculate power required to drag such container. The
temperature of sea water is 10oC.
a. 21.6 MW
b. 26.1 MW
c. 62.1 MW
d. 16.2 MW

270
54. An adiabatic compressor operating under steady-state conditions receives air (ideal
gas) at 0.1 MPa and 300 K and discharges at 1 MPa. If the flow rate of air through the
compressor is 2 mol/s, determine the power consumption of the compressor. Constant
pressure, specific heat for air = 1kJ/kg
a. 16.25 kW
b. 25.16 kW
c. 61.52 kW
d. 52.61 k

55. What does the term 'uniform' implies?


a. No change with location
b. No change with volume
c. No change with time
d. No change with mass

56. An insulated piston-cylinder system has air at 400kPa & 600K. Through an inlet pipe
to the cylinder air at certain temperature T(K) and ressure P (kPa) is supplied
reversibly into the cylinder till the volume of the air in the cylinder is 4 times the
initial volume. The expansion occurs isobarically at 400kPa. At The end of the
process the air temperature inside the cylinder is 450K Assume ideal gas behavior,
compute the temperature of the air supplied through the inlet pipe.
a. 380K
b. 480 K
c. 580 K
d. 680 K

57. 0.6 m3/s of gas is to be dried from a dew point of 294 K to a dew point of 277.5 K.
How much water must be removed and what will be the volume of the gas after
drying? Vapour pressure of water at 294K = 2.5 kN/m2. Vapour pressure of water at
277.5K = 0.85 kN/m2
a. 0.6 m3/s at STP
b. 1.2 m3/s at STP
c. 1.8 rn3/s at STP
d. 2.4 m3/s at STP

58. . A hydrogen stream at 300 K and atmospheric pressure has a dewpoint of 275K. It is
to be further humidified by adding to it (through a nozzle) saturated steam at 240
kN/m2 at the rate of 1 kg steam: 30kg of hydrogen feed. What will be the humidity of
the resultant stream?
a. 0.1 kg/kg

271
b. 0.2 kg/kg
c. 0.3 kg/kg
d. 0.4 kg/kg

59. A cyclone separator, 0.3 m in diameter and 1.2 m long, has a circular inlet 75 mm in
diameter and an outlet of the same size. If the gas enters at a velocity of 1.5 m/s, at
what particle size will the theoretical cut occur? The viscosity of air is 0.018 mN
s/m2, the density of air is 1.3 kg/m3 and the density of the particles is 2700 kg/m3
a. 1.17 x 10-6 m
b. 2.17 x 10-6 m
c. 3.17x10-6 m
d. 4.17 x10-6 m

60. In order to heat 0.5 kg/s of a heavy oil from 311 K to 327 K, it is passed through
tubes of inside diameter 19 mm and length 1.5 m forming a bank, on the outside of
which steam is condensing at 373 K. How many tubes will be needed?
a. 11
b. 12
c. 13
d. 14

61. Solute gas is diffusing into a stationary liquid, virtually free of solvent, and of
sufficient depth for it to be regarded as semi-infinite in extent. In what depth of fluid
below the surface will 90% of the material which has been transferred across the
interface have accumulated in the first minute? Diffusivity of gas in liquid = 10-9
m2/s.
a. 0.38 mm
b. 0.48 mm
c. 0.58 mm
d. 0.68 mm

62. The wire diameter of a 14 mesh screen (Tyler standard) is


a. 0.0235 in
b. 0.025 in
c. 0.028 in
d. 0.03 in

272
63. . A heat exchanger is to consist of a number of tubes each 25 mm diameter and 5 m
long arranged in parallel. The exchanger is to be used as a cooler with a rating of 4
MW and the temperature rise in the water feed to the tubes is to be 20 K. If the
pressure drop over the tubes is not to exceed 2 kN/m2, calculate the minimum
number of tubes that are required. Assume that the tube wails are smooth and that
entrance and exit effects can be neglected. Viscosity of water = 1 mNs/m2.
a. 106 tubes
b. 116 tubes
c. 126 tubes
d. 136 tubes

64. A liquid is pumped in streamline tow through a pipe of diameter d. At what distance
born the center of the pipe will the fluid be flowing at the average velocity?
a. 0.15d
b. 0.35d
c. 0.55d
d. 0.75d

65. Oil of viscosity 10 mNs/m2 and specific gravity 0.90, flows through 60 m of 100 mm
diameter pipe and the pressure drop is 13.8 kN/m2. What will be the pressure drop for
a second oil of viscosity 30 mNs/m2 and specific gravity 0.95 flowing at the same
rate through the pipe? Assume the pipe wall to be smooth.
a. 14.9 kN/m2
b. 19.4 kN/m2
c. 23.6 kN/m2
d. 26.3 kN/m2

66. Over a 30 m length of 150 mm vacuum line carrying air at 293 K, the pressure falls
from 1 kN/m2 to 0.1 kN/m2. If the relative roughness e/d is 0.002, what is
approximate flowrate?
a. 0.022 kg/s
b. 0.044 kg/s
c. 0.066 kg/s
d. 0.088 kg/s

67. A counter - current extraction column is designed to remove 99% of solute C from a
solution of solvent A and solute C using pure solvent B. The initial concentration of
solute in the solution of A + C is 20 wt%, and the total flow of solution is 1000 kg/hr.
tf the equilibrium relationship is Y=2X, where Y = mass of C/mass of A & X= mass
of C/mass of B. The minimum flow rate of solvent B required in kg/hr is

273
a. 1454
b. 1584
c. 1676
d. 1874

68. The radiation received by the earth's surface on a clear day with the sun overhead is 1
kW/m2 and an additional 0.3 kW/m2 is absorbed by the earth's atmosphere. Calculate
approximately the temperature of the sun, assuming its radius to be 700,000 km and
the distance between the sun and the earth to be 150,000,000 km. The sun may be
assumed to behave as a black body.
a. 5170 K
b. 5710 K
c. 5071 K
d. 5107 K

69. A device that violates the first law of thermodynamics is called a ______
a. Universal machine of the first kind
b. Ambiguous machine of the first kind
c. Unique machine of the first kind
d. Perpetual-motion machine of the first kind

70. A rotary drum filter with 30% submergence is used to filter concentrated aqueous
slurry of calcium carbonate containing 15 lbs of solids per cubic foot of water. The
pressure-drop is 20' Hg If the filter cake contains 50% mixture (wet basis), calculate
the filter area required to filter 10 gal/min of slurry. The filter cycle time is 5 min.
The specific cake resistance depends on the pressure-drop as:
Viscosity of the filtrate = 6.72 x 10-41bift-s. Density of calcium carbonate = 168.8 lb/ft,
.Neglect fitter medium resistance.
a. 72 ft,
b. 82 ft
c. 92 ft
d. 102 ft

With the following characteristics: length L = 30.48 m; inside diameter d = 0.0526 m;


pipe roughness e = 0.000045m frictional pressure drop dP = 15720 N/m2; liquid dynamic
viscosity = 0.01 Pa-s; liquid density p = 1200 kg/m3. Calculate.
71. The Reynolds' number.
a. 7138
b. 15000
c. 8273

274
d. 9569
72. The fanning friction factor f
a. 0.00884
b. 0.00727
c. 0.00990
d. 0.00698
73. The steady mean velocity v (m/s).
a. 1.13
b. 2.38
c. 1.25
d. 1.30

74. Which of the following is not a valid assumption in continuous binary distillation for
calculating the number of equilibrium stages by McCabe-Thiele's method?
a. Reflux is not a saturated liquid
b. Heat of mixing of normal liquid is assumed to be zero
c. Sensible heat changes for vapor & liquid are negligibly small
d. Molar latent heat of the two components are equal

75. In case of a supercooled solution, which is on the verge of crystallization, the free
energy of the solution as compared to that of the solid is
a. More
b. Less
c. Same
d. More or less; depends on the nature of solution

76. All of the following biogeochemical cycles involve the atmosphere as either sink or
reservoir except
a. Water
b. Carbon
c. Nitrogen
d. Phosporus

77. Correct use of 'factor of safety' is very important in equipment design. It is defined as
the ratio of the
a. ultimate stress to working stress
b. working stress to ultimate stress
c. ultimate stress to breaking stress
d. working stress to breaking stress

275
78. Pick out the wrong statement pertaining to of the bubble cap tray of a distillation
column to give stable operation and even vapor distribution
a. The dimensionless ratio of liquid gradient to pressure drop head caused by the
bubble cap assembly should be less than 0.4
b. The pressure drop due to the caps & slots and the static submergence should
be as high as practicable for reasonable operation
c. Tendency towards stable operation is increased by increasing the skirt
clearance of the caps, lowering the rate of liquid flow per unit plate width or
increasing the spacing between the caps
d. None of these

79. Graphically, gage pressure becomes negative under which scenario.


a. The absolute pressure falls below the atmospheric pressure
b. The atmospheric pressure falls below the absolute pressure
c. The absolute pressure falls below the vacuum pressure.
d. The atmospheric pressure falls below the absolute zero

80. In a gas-liquid absorption column, for obtaining the maximum absorption efficiency
a. a. by passing should be completely avoided
b. both gas as well as quid streams should be distributed uniformly
c. gas stream should be distributed uniformly
d. liquid stream should be distributed uniformly

276
ANSWER KEY

Final Examination – Part I - PCP


1. a. Internal energy is negative 41. b. Give access to the individual trays for
2. c. Karbate cleaning, maintenance and installation
3. b. an idealized rankine cycle 42. a. 1.8 kW
4. a. is zero at the center and varies linearly with 43. b. Polyethylene
the radius 44. a. increasing velocity
5. c. 82% 45. a. 129.5
6. d. 100% 46. a. 71 kPa
7. a. 13.8 min 47. b. Smaller dia vessel
8. a. 3.6 times as at 450 K 48. a. one-half
9. d. 98% 49. d. Poly (methyl methacrylate)
10. b. 10 more minutes 50. b. low pressure and low temperature.
11. c. 67% 51. a. 2
12. b. 14.08 moles 52. 0.81
13. a. 1.055 53. 21.6 MW
14. c. relative yield 54. a. 16.25kW
15. b. 1 55. a. No change with location
16. A. 4.68% 56. b. 480 K
17. a. 107 grams 57. a. 0.6 m3/s at STP
18. c. Not to be passed 58. a. 0.1kg/kg
19. a. 0.36 59. b. 2.17 x 10-6 m
20. d. 600.0 K 60. d. 14
21. b. diesel 61. b. 0.48 mm
22. c. 16.8 hp 62. b. 0.025 in
23. d. 5.875 63. b. 0.48 mm
24. a. isothermal 64. b. 0.35d
25. d. -26.07 BTU 65. b. 19.4 kN/m2
26. c. III only 66. a. 0.022 kg/s
27. d. reverse activation energy 67. b. 1584
28. d. 5 kJ 68. b. 5710 K
29. b. energy efficiency rating 69. d. Perpetual-motion machine of the first kind
30. a. 1824 70. b. 82 ft
31. a. A. Celcius 71. a. 7138
32. b. Thomas Young 72. a. 0.0088
33. d. Perpetual-motion machine of the second 73. a. 1.13
kind 74. a. Reflux is not a saturated liquid
34. b. 186 000 miles/sec 75. a. more
35. c. sub-saturated 76. d. Phosporus
36. d. Mach number 77. a. ultimate stress to working stress
37. c. 8.67 cu ft/min 78. d. none of these
38. c. 40 79. b. The absolute pressure falls below the
39. b. 0.05 atmospheric pressure
40. c. Volumetric efficiency 80. b. both gas as well as quid streams should be
distributed uniformly

277
FINAL EXAMINATION-PART II/CHE
SOLUTIONS
. A steam turbine operates adiabatically at a power level of 3500 kW. Steam enters the
turbine at 2400 kPa and 500C and exhausts from the turbine at 20 kPa. What is the
turbine efficiency?

Ws = - 3500KW, H2= 2609.9 KJ/Kg, S1= 7.3439 KJ/Kg0 K, H1=3462.9 KJ/Kg

m= Ws /∆H = 4.1 Kg/s;


Since the process is adiabatic for a reversible process: S1 = S2
Thus S2 = 7.3439 KJ/Kg0K

At 20kPa checking the steam table we find that at the exit the steam is ‘wet’, since the
following condition holds at 20kPa:
Sliq=0.8321/KJ/Kg0K < S2 < Svap= 7.9094 KJ/Kg0K

Thus: S2 = Sliq + x(Svap - Sliq )


On substituting the values of all the parameters we get: x = 0.92.
Thus for reversible and adiabatic process:

H2id = Hliq + x(Hvap- Hliq) = 2.421x103 KJ/kg


Η = (H2-H1)/( H2id- H1) = 0.82

7. At 378.5C the half life for the first order decomposition of ethylene oxide is 363
minutes, and E=52000 cal/mole. If the temperature is increased to 450C, find the time for
ethylene oxide to be 75% decomposed.

If K1 is rate constant at 378.5◦C then as the reaction is first order, so


363 = 0.693/K1
K1=1.91x10-3 min-1

From Arrhenius equation if K2 is rate constant at 450◦C then


𝑘2 𝐸 𝑇2−𝑇1
𝑙𝑛 = 𝑥 T1=651.50A T2=7230
𝑘𝑖 𝑅 𝑇1𝑇2

𝐾2 52000 71.5
So, 𝑙𝑛 1.91𝑥10−3 = 𝑥 651.5𝑥723
1.987

278
Or, K2 = 0.101 min-1
If at 450 deg C 75% i.e. th of initial amount decomposes in time “t” then as
1 𝑎
, 𝐾 = 𝑡 𝑙𝑛 𝑎−𝑥
1 𝑎
So , 0.101 = 𝑡 𝑙𝑛 1 𝑜𝑟, 𝑡 = 𝟏𝟑. 𝟕 𝒎𝒊𝒏𝒔
𝑎
4

8. At 500 K, the rate of a biomolecular reaction is ten times the rate of 400K. Activation
energy of this reaction is 9.15 kcal/mol. How much faster is the reaction at 450 K?
Solution:
𝐾2 𝐸𝑎 1 1
𝑙𝑛 =− ( − )
𝐾1 𝑅 𝑇2 𝑇1
𝑘2 1 1
𝑙𝑛 𝑘3 = -(9.15𝑘𝑐𝑎𝑙/𝑚𝑜𝑙)(4186 𝐽𝑜𝑢𝑙𝑒𝑠)(1/8.3145)(450 – 400)
𝑘2
𝑙𝑛 𝑘3 = 1.2796

𝑒 1.2796 = 3.595

3.6 times as fast at 450

10. Liquid A decomposes by second-order kinetics, and in a batch reactor 50% of A is


converted in a 5-minute run. How much longer would it take to reach 75% conversion?

- dCA/dt = kCa2
CA=CAo(1) – X
dCA=- dCAodX

CA0 dX/dt = KCA02(1) – X2


dX/(1-X2) = kCAodt
1/(1-X) = kCA0t

kCAot= X/(1-X)
At 50 % conversion
kCAot0.5= 0.5/(1-0.5)

t0.5= 5
kCAo = 0.2

279
At 75% Conversion
kCAot0.75= 0.75/(1-0.75)

=3
t0.75= 3/0.2 = 15 min Therefore an extra 10 minutes would be required to achieve 75%
conversion for 2nd order reaction

11. A certain substance A is mixed with equal amount of B and C. After 10 minutes, half
of A has reacted. What will be the conversion after 20 minutes if the reaction is second-
order with respect to A?
- dCA/dt = kCa2
Upon integration:
(1/Ca -1/Cao) = kt
Assume Cao=1 therefore t =10 minutes
(1/0.5 -1/1) = k(10)

k = 0.1
At t = 20 minutes
(1/X -1/1) = (0.1)(20)

X = 33.33 %

For no. 12- 13. The analysis of a flue gas from a fuel gas containing no nitrogen is 4.62%
CO2. 3.08% CO. 8.91% O2, and 83.39% N2.

12. moles of water (H2O) formed


O2 unaccounted for = O2 in air – ( CO2 – CO/2 –O2)
O2 in air = 83.39 (21/79) = 22.17 moles O2 in air
O2 unaccounted for = 22.17 moles O2 in air – 4.62 moles CO2 – 3.08/2 moles CO – 8.91
moles O2)
O2 unaccounted for = 7.1 moles

Net H2 = 7.1 moles x 2 = 14.20 moles

280
13. moles of air supplied per 100 moles of dry flue gas

moles of air supplied per 100 moles of dry flue gas = (O2 in air + N2 in air)/100 moles dry
FG
moles of air supplied per 100 moles of dry FG = (22. 17 mol O2 in air + 83.39 mol N2 in
air)/100
moles of air supplied per 100 moles of dry FG = 1.0556

15. The moisture content of a solid is given as 50 % wet basis. What is the moisture
content, dry basis?
Wet basis = 50 % = 0.5
Dry basis = (0.5/(1 – 0.5)) = 1

17. What is the theoretical oxygen demand of 100 grams of glucose?

C6H12O6 + 6O2 → 6CO2 + H2O


1 𝑚𝑜𝑙 C6H12O6 6 𝑚𝑜𝑙 O2 32 𝑔𝑟𝑎𝑚𝑠 O2
100 grams C6H12O6 x ( )( )( ) = 106.667 grams O2
180 𝑔𝑟𝑎𝑚𝑠 1 𝑚𝑜𝑙 C6H12O6 1 𝑚𝑜𝑙 O2

19. A utility runs a Rankine cycle with a water boiler at 3.5 MPa and the cycle has the
highest and lowest temperature of 450C and 45C respectively. What is the cycle
efficiency?

Solution:
1: 450C, x = 0 → h1 = 188.42, v1 = 0.00101, Psat = 9.6 kPa
3: 3.5 MPa, 4500C → h3 = 3337.2, s3 = 7.0051
C.V. Pump Rev adiabatic
-wp = h2 – h1 ; s2 = s1
Since incompressible it is easier to find work as
∫ 𝑣 𝑑𝑃 = 𝑣1 (𝑃2 − 𝑃1) = 0.00101(3500 − 9.6) = 3.525
ℎ2 = ℎ1 − 𝑤𝑝 = 188.42 + 3.525 = 191.95
C.V. Boiler : 𝑞ℎ = ℎ3 − ℎ2 = 3337.2 − 191.95 = 3145.3
C.V. Turbine : wt =h3 – h4 ; s4 = s3
s4 = s3 = 7.0051 = 0.6386 + x4 (7.5261)
x4 = 0.8459

281
h4 = 188.42 + 0.8459 (2394.77) = 2214.2
wt = 3337.2 – 2214.2 = 1123 kJ/kg
ncycle = wnet/qh = (wt + wp)/qh = (1123 – 3.5)/3145.3 = 0.356

20. The compression ratio of an ideal Otto cycle is 6:1. P1 is 101.35 kPa, and T1 is 20
degC. What is the temperature at state 2 at the diagram shown?

Solution:

k = 1.4 at room temperature


𝑣1
𝑇2 = 𝑇1( )𝑘−1
𝑣2

T2 = (20 + 273.15)(6)(1.4-1)

T2 = 610.51 K

22. An engine burns a liter of fuel each 12 minutes. The fuel has a specific gravity of 0.8
and a heating value of 45 MJ/kg. The engine has a efficiciency of 25%. What is most
nearly the brake horsepower of the engine?

Solution:
𝐵𝑟𝑎𝑘𝑒 𝑃𝑜𝑤𝑒𝑟
Brake Thermal Eff =
𝑚𝑓 𝑄ℎ
Brake Power = mf x Qh x Brake Thermal Eff
1 𝑙𝑖𝑡𝑒𝑟 𝑚𝑖𝑛 1 𝑘𝑔
𝑚𝑓 = 𝑥 𝑥 𝑥0.80
12 𝑚𝑖𝑛𝑢𝑡𝑒𝑠 60𝑠 𝑙𝑖𝑡𝑒𝑟
mf = 1.11 x 10-3 kg/sec
𝐵𝑟𝑎𝑘𝑒 𝑃𝑜𝑤𝑒𝑟 = (1.11𝑥10−3 )(45𝑥106 )(0.25) = 12487.5 𝑤𝑎𝑡𝑡𝑠
𝐻𝑝
𝐵𝑟𝑎𝑘𝑒 𝑃𝑜𝑤𝑒𝑟 = 12487.5𝑥( )
746 𝑊
𝑩𝒓𝒂𝒌𝒆 𝑷𝒐𝒘𝒆𝒓 = 𝟏𝟔. 𝟕 𝑯𝑷

23. The COP of a carnot refrigeration cycle operating at 10 deg F and 90 deg F is

10 deg F = 260.928 K

282
COPR,rev = 1/((TH/TL)-1) 90 deg F = 305.37 K
COPR,rev = 1/((305.37/260.928)-1)

COPR,rev = 5.8712

25. 1 lbm of nitrogen is compressed at a constant temp of 70 deg F from 10 ft3 to 5 ft3. If
the process is non-flow and if no work is done on the gas except by a moving piston, how
much heat is added to or removed from the gas during the process?

Convert all to SI units


1lbm = 0.45392 kg = 453.92 g
(453.592)(1 mol/28.02 grams N2) = 16.19 mol N2
10 ft3 = 0.283 m3 5ft3 = 0.142 m3
For isothermal Process
Q = nRT(ln V2/V1)

Q = (16.19)(8.3145)(ln 0.142/0.283)
Q = -27307.9953 Joules = -25.882 BTU

For no. 38-39. A solution composed 50% ethanol and 40% water is fed at the rate of 100
kg/hr into a separator that produces one stream at the rate of 60 kg/hr with the
composition of 80% ethanol, 15% methanol and 5% water, and a second stream of
unknown composition.
38. The mass flow rate of the second unknown stream in kg/hr is

100 kg/hr = 60 kg/hr + unknown stream


Mass flow rate of the second unknown stream = 40 kg/hr

39. The mass fraction of ethanol in the unknown stream is


For ethanol,
100(0.5) = 60(0.8) + 40 (x)
Where x is the mass fraction of the unknown stream

x = 0.05

283
81. You are asked what size of containers to use 1,000lbs of cotton seed oil (SG = 0.926).
What would be the minimum size of drum expressed in gallons?

Solution:

m = 1000 lbs
specific gravity = 0.926
𝑘𝑔
density = 926 𝑚3

1 𝑘𝑔
1000 lbs (2.205 𝑙𝑏𝑠) = 453.51 kg
453.51
Volume = 𝑚3
926
Volume = 0.4898 m3 = 129.38 gallons

82. A 1-2 shell and tube exchanger heats 68 kg/min of water in a shell from 35°C to 75°C
by an oil (Cp= 1.9 kJ/kg-°C). The oil enters the tube at 110°C and leaves at 75°C. The
LMTD correction factor is

For 1 shell 2 tube TEMA


T1=35 deg C
T2=75 deg C
t1=110 deg C
t2=75 deg C

𝑡1−𝑡2
R1=𝑇2−𝑇1=0.8750

𝑇2−𝑇1
P1= 𝑡1−𝑇1 =0.5333

Using LMTD correction factor chart


F = 0.8024

54. An adiabatic compressor operating under steady-state conditions receives air (ideal
gas) at 0.1 MPa and 300 K and discharges at 1 MPa. If the flow rate of air through the
compressor is 2 mol/s, determine the power consumption of the compressor. Constant
pressure, specific heat for air = 1kJ/kg

284
m•(He-Hi) = -Ws ……(1)
But, He-Hi = Cp (Te-Ti) ………(2)
Cp – Cv = R
Cp/Cv = 𝛾
𝛾𝑅
Thus Cp = 𝛾−1
It follows that from the given data 𝛾 = 1.4
𝛾𝑅
He − Hi = 𝛾−1 (Te − Ti) … … . (3)
Also for adiabatic operation of the compressor
𝛾−1
𝑃𝑒
Te = 𝑇𝑖( 𝑃𝑖 ) 𝛾 = 580°K … … . (3)
m• = 2 mol/s = 0.058 kg/s
𝛾𝑅
Substituting the relevant data: −Ws = 𝛾−1 (Te − Ti) = 𝟏𝟔. 𝟐𝟓 𝒌𝑾 = 𝟏𝟔. 𝟐𝟓

56. An insulated piston-cylinder system has air at 400kPa & 600K. Through an inlet pipe
to the cylinder air at certain temperature T(K) and ressure P (kPa) is supplied reversibly
into the cylinder till the volume of the air in the cylinder is 4 times the initial volume. The
expansion occurs isobarically at 400kPa. At The end of the process the air temperature
inside the cylinder is 450K Assume ideal gas behavior, compute the temperature of the
air supplied through the inlet pipe.
Solution:
Applying the first law (∆𝑃𝐸 = ∆𝐾𝐸 = 0)
𝑑𝑚𝑈𝑐𝑣
+ ∆(𝐻𝑚) = 𝑄 + 𝑊
𝑑𝑡
𝑑𝑚𝑈𝑐𝑣 𝑑𝑚 𝛿𝑄 𝛿𝑊
+ ∆ (𝐻 )= +
𝑑𝑡 𝑑𝑡 𝑑𝑡 𝑑𝑡
𝑑𝑚 𝛿𝑄 𝛿𝑊
𝑜𝑟 𝑑(𝑚𝑈𝑐𝑣 ) + ∆ (𝐻 )= +
𝑑𝑡 𝑑𝑡 𝑑𝑡
For change of state from 1-2
2 2 2 2

∫(𝑚𝑈𝑐𝑣) + ∆ ∫ 𝐻𝑑𝑚 = ∫ 𝛿𝑄 + ∫ 𝛿𝑊
1 1 1 1
2 2

𝑜𝑟 ∆𝑈 + ∫ 𝐻𝑒𝑑𝑚𝑒 − ∫ 𝐻𝑖𝑑𝑚𝑖 = 𝑄12 + 𝑊12


1 1

285
2

𝐻𝑒𝑟𝑒 𝑄12 = 0, ∫ 𝐻𝑒𝑑𝑚𝑒 = 0 𝑎𝑠 𝑡ℎ𝑒𝑟𝑒 𝑖𝑠 𝑛𝑜 𝑒𝑥𝑖𝑡


1

(m2U2 – m1U1)cv – Hi (m2 – m1) = -P (V2t-V1t)


For ideal gas m = PV/RmT
Rm = R/Mol. Wt
Since incoming fluid and system fluid are same
H = CpT ; U = CvT (Ideal gas assumption)………(4)
𝑉2𝑡
𝑇𝑖 =
𝑉1𝑡 𝑉2𝑡 − 𝑉1𝑡
+
𝑇1 𝑇2
Now V2t = 4V1t , T1 = 600 K, T2 = 450 K, to calculate Ti
Thus Ti = 480 K

57. 0.6 m3/s of gas is to be dried from a dew point of 294 K to a dew point of 277.5 K.
How much water must be removed and what will be the volume of the gas after drying?
Vapour pressure of water at 294K = 2.5 kN/m2. Vapour pressure of water at 277.5K =
0.85 kN/m2

When the gas is cooled to 294 K, it will be saturated and Pw0 = 2.5 kN/m2
mass of vapour = Pw0Mw/RT = (2.5 x 18) / (8.314 x 294) = 0.0184 kg/m3 gas
At 277.5 K and Pw = 0.85 kN/m2
Mass of vapour = (0.85 x 18)/(8.314 x 277.5) = 0.0066 kg/m3 gas
Water to be removed = (0.0184 – 0.0066) = 0.0118 kg/m3 gas
Or: (0.0118 x 0.6) = 0.00708 kg/s
Assuming the gas flow, 0.6 m3/s, is referred to 273 K and 101.3 kN/m2, 0.00708 kg/s of
water is equivalent to (0.00708/18) = 3.933 x 10-4 kmol/s
I kmol of vapour occupies 22.4 m3 at STP
And: volume of water removed = (3.933 x 10-4 x 22.4) = 0.00881 m3/s
Assuming no volume change on mixing, the gas flow after drying
= (0.60 – 0.0081) = 0.591 m3/s at STP

58. A hydrogen stream at 300 K and atmospheric pressure has a dew point of 275K. It is
to be further humidified by adding to it (through a nozzle) saturated steam at 240
kN/m2 at the rate of 1 kg steam: 30kg of hydrogen feed. What will be the humidity of the
resultant stream?

286
At 275 K, the vapour pressure of water = 0.72 kN/m2 (from Tables) and the hydrogen is
saturated.
The mass of water vapour: 𝑃𝑤𝑜 𝑀𝑤 ⁄𝑅𝑇 = (0.72 𝑥 18)⁄(8.314 𝑥 275) = 0.00567 kg/m3
and the mass of hydrogen: (𝑃 − 𝑃𝑤𝑜 )𝑀𝐴 ⁄𝑅𝑇 = (101.3 − 0.72) 𝑥 2 ⁄(8.314 𝑥 275) =
0.0880 kg/m3
Therefore, the humidity at saturation, 𝐻𝑜 = (0.00567 ⁄0.0880) = 0.0644 kg/kg dry
hydrogen and at 300 K, the humidity will be the same, 𝐻𝑜 = 0.0644 kg/kg.
At 240 kN/m2 pressure, steam is saturated at 400 K at which temperature the latent heat is
2185 kJ/kg.
The enthalpy of the steam is therefore:
H2 = 4.18 (400 - 273) + 2185 = 2715 kJ/kg
Taking the mean specific heat capacity of hydrogen as 14.6 kJ/kg K, the enthalpy in 30
kg moist hydrogen or 30/ (1 + 0.0644) = 28.18 kg dry hydrogen is:
(28.18 x 14.6)(300 - 273) = 11, 110 kJ
The latent heat of water at 275 K is 2490 kJ/kg and taking the specific heat of water
vapour as 2.01 kJ/kg K, the enthalpy of the water vapour is:
(28.18 x x 0.0644)(4.18(275-273) + 2490 + 2.01 (300 - 275)) = 4625 kJ
Hence the total enthalpy:
H1 = 15, 730 kJ
In mixing the two streams, 28.18 kg dry hydrogen plus (30 - 28.18) = 1.82 kg water is
mixed with 1 kg steam and hence the final humidity:
𝐻 = (1 + 1.82)⁄28.18
= 𝟎. 𝟏𝟎𝟎 𝒌𝒈/𝒌𝒈

59. A cyclone separator, 0.3 m in diameter and 1.2 m long, has a circular inlet 75 mm in
diameter and an outlet of the same size. If the gas enters at a velocity of 1.5 m/s, at what
particle size will the theoretical cut occur? The viscosity of air is 0.018 mN s/m2, the
density of air is 1.3 kg/m3 and the density of the particles is 2700 kg/m3

𝜋
cross-sectional area at the gas inlet, Ai = ( 4 ) (0.075)2 = 4.42 𝑥 10−3 m2
gas outlet diameter, do = 0.075 m
gas density, 𝜌 = 1.30 𝑘𝑔/𝑚3
height of separator, Z = 1.2 m, separator diameter, dt = 0.3 m

Thus: mass flow of gas, G = (1.5 x 4.42 x 10-3 x 1.30) = 8.62 x 10-3 kg/s

The terminal velocity of the smallest particle retained by the separator,


𝑢𝑜 = 0.2 𝐴𝑖 2𝑑𝑜 𝜌𝑔⁄(𝜋𝑍𝑑𝑡𝐺 ) (equation 1.54)

287
or: 𝑢𝑜 =
−3 )2
[0.2 𝑥 (4.42 𝑥 10 𝑥 0.075 𝑥 1.3 𝑥 9.81]⁄(𝜋 𝑥 1.2 𝑥 0.03 𝑥 8.62 𝑥 10−3 )
= 3.83 𝑥 10−4 𝑚/𝑠
Use is now made of Stokes' law (Chapter 3) to find the particle diameter, as follows:
𝑢𝑜 = 𝑑2𝑔(𝜌𝑠 − 𝜌)/18𝜇 (equation 3.24)
or: 𝑑 = [𝑢𝑜 𝑥 18𝜇/𝑔(𝜌𝑠 − 𝜌)] 𝑥 0.5
= [(3.83 x 10-4 x 18 x 0.018 x 10-3)/(9.81(2700-1.30))] x 0.5
= 2.17 x 10-6 m or 2.17 𝜇m

60. In order to heat 0.5 kg/s of a heavy oil from 311 K to 327 K, it is passed through
tubes of inside diameter 19 mm and length 1.5 m forming a bank, on the outside of which
steam is condensing at 373 K. How many tubes will be needed?
Solution
Heat load
Q=(0.5 x 2.1)(327 - 311) = 16.8 kW
Logarithmic mean driving force
θ1 = (373 − 311) = 62 deg 𝐾, θ2 = (373 − 327) = 46 deg 𝐾

in equation 9.9. 𝜃𝑚 = (62 − 46)⁄ln(62⁄46) = 53.6 deg 𝐾

A preliminary estimate of the overall heat transfer coefficient may now be obtained from
Table 9.18.
For condensing steam, ho = 10.000 W/m2 K and for oil. hi = 250 W/m2 K (say). Thus
1/U=1/ho + 1/hi = 0.0041, U = 244 W/m2 K and from equation 9.1 the preliminary area:
A = (16.8 x 103) / (244 x 53.6) = 1.29 m2
The area/unit length of tube is(𝜋 x 19.0 x 10-3 x 1.0) = (5.97 x 10-2)m2/m
and; total length of tubing = 1.29 / (5.97 x 10-2) = 21.5 m
Thus: number of tubes = (21.5 / 1.5) = 14.3, say 14 tubes

61. Solute gas is diffusing into a stationary liquid, virtually free of solvent, and of
sufficient depth for it to be regarded as semi-infinite in extent. In what depth of fluid
below the surface will 90% of the material which has been transferred across the interface
have accumulated in the first minute? Diffusivity of gas in liquid = 10-9 m2/s.

Solution
As in the previous problem, the basic equation is:

288
𝜕𝐶𝐴 𝜕 2 𝐶𝐴
=𝐷
𝜕𝑡 𝜕𝑦 2

(equation 10.66)
which can be solved using the same boundary conditions to give the rate of mass transfer
at depth, y, (NA)y,f as:

𝑑𝐶𝐴 𝐷 2
(𝑁𝐴 )𝑦,𝑓 = −𝐷 = 𝐶𝐴𝑖 √ 𝑒 −𝑦 ⁄4𝐷𝑡
𝑑𝑦 𝜋𝑡

At some other value of y = L, the amount which has been transferred in time t per unit area
is:

𝑡
𝐷 −𝑦2⁄4𝐷𝑡
∫ 𝐶𝐴𝑖 √ 𝑒 𝑑𝑡
0 𝜋𝑡

This integral can be solved by making the substitution:

𝛽2 = 𝑦 2 ⁄4𝐷𝑡

so that:

𝛽 = 𝑦⁄2√𝐷𝑡

and:

𝑡 = 𝑦 2 ⁄4𝐷𝛽2 , 𝑡 −1⁄2 = 𝑦⁄2𝛽√𝐷

𝑑𝑡 = (−𝑦 2⁄2𝐷)𝛽−3 𝑑𝛽

The amount transferred at depth L is then:

𝐷 𝑦 2√𝐷𝑡 −𝑦2⁄4𝐷𝑡 𝑦
= 𝐶𝐴𝑖 √ [ 𝑒 − √𝜋erfc ]
𝜋 √𝐷 𝑦 2√𝐷𝑡

2√𝐷𝑡 −𝑦2⁄4𝐷𝑡 𝑦
= 𝐶𝐴𝑖 [ 𝑒 − 𝑦 erfc ]
𝑦 2√𝐷𝑡
and:

2√𝐷𝑡 −𝑦2⁄4𝐷𝑡 𝑦
[ 𝑒 − 𝑦 erfc ]
𝑚𝑎𝑠𝑠 𝑡𝑟𝑎𝑛𝑠𝑓𝑒𝑟 𝑎𝑡 𝐿 𝑦 2√𝐷𝑡
=
𝑚𝑎𝑠𝑠 𝑡𝑟𝑎𝑛𝑠𝑓𝑒𝑟 𝑎𝑡 𝑦 = 0 𝐷𝑡
2√ 𝜋

289
2 ⁄4𝐷𝑡 𝑦 𝑦 2
= 𝑒 −𝑦 − √𝜋erfc = 𝑒 −𝑥 − X√𝜋erfc X
2√𝐷𝑡 2√𝐷𝑡

where 𝑋 = 𝑦⁄2√𝐷𝑡

Under the conditions in this problem, this ratio = 0.1

erfc X = 1 - erf X
so that erfc X can be calculated from table 13 in the Appendix of Volume 1. Values of X
will be assumed and the right hand side evaluated until a value of X is found such that the
right hand side = 0.1

𝟐 Right
X 𝒆−𝒙 erf X erfc X 𝑿 √𝝅𝐞𝐫𝐟𝐜 𝑿
hand side
1 0.368 0.843 0.157 0.278 0.0897
0.9 0.445 0.797 0.203 0.324 0.121
0.97 0.390 0.830 0.170 0.170 0.098
0.96 0.398 0.825 0.175 0.175 0.101

X = 0.96 = y2/4Dt

y = (0.96 x 4 x 10-9 x 60)0.5 = 4.8 x 10-4 m or 0.48 mm

63. A heat exchanger is to consist of a number of tubes each 25 mm diameter and 5 m


long arranged in parallel. The exchanger is to be used as a cooler with a rating of 4 MW
and the temperature rise in the water feed to the tubes is to be 20 K. If the pressure drop
over the tubes is not to exceed 2 kN/m2, calculate the minimum number of tubes that are
required. Assume that the tube wails are smooth and that entrance and exit effects can be
neglected. Viscosity of water = 1 mNs/m2.

Solution
Heat load = (mass flow x specific heat x temperature rise), or 4000= ( m x 4.18 x 20)
and:
m = 47.8 kg/s
2
Pressure drop = 2 kN/m = 2000/(1000 x 9.81) = 0.204 m of water.
From equation 3.23, (𝑅⁄𝜌𝑢2 )𝑅𝑒 2 = −Δ𝑃𝑓 𝑑 3 𝜌 / 4𝑙𝜇 2
= (2000 x 0.253 x 1000)/(4 x 5 x 10-6) = 1.56 x 106
If the tubes are smooth, then from Fig. 3.8: Re = 2.1 x 104.
water velocity = (2.1 x 104 x 10-3)/(1000 x 0.025) = 0.84 m/s.

290
Cross-sectional area of each tube = (𝜋 /4)0.252 = 0.00049 m2.
Mass flow rate per tube = (0.84 x 0.00049) = 0.000412 m3/s = 0.412 kg/s
Hence the number of tubes required = (47.8/0.412) = 116 tubes

64. Oil of viscosity 10 mNs/m2 and specific gravity 0.90, flows through 60 m of 100 mm
diameter pipe and the pressure drop is 13.8 kN/m2. What will be the pressure drop for a
second oil of viscosity 30 mNs/m2 and specific gravity 0.95 flowing at the same rate
through the pipe? Assume the pipe wall to be smooth.

Solution

For the first oil, with a velocity in the pipe of u m/s then:
Re = u x (0.90 x 1000) x (100/1000)/(10 x 10-3) = 9000u
𝑅 2
−Δ𝑃𝑑 3 𝜌
𝑅𝑒 =
𝜌𝑢2 4𝑙𝜇 2
= (13.8 x 1030) x 0.103 x 900/(4 x 60 x 0.012) = 5.2 x 105
From Fig. 3.8, when (𝑅⁄𝜌𝑢2 )𝑅𝑒 2 = 5.2 x 105 for a smooth pipe, Re = 12000.
Hence, velocity u = (12,000/9000) = 1.33 m/s.
For the second oil, the same velocity is used although the density and viscosity are now
950 kg/m3 and 0.03 Ns/m2.
Hence:
Re = (1.33 x 0.10 x 950/0.03) = 4220
For a smooth pipe, Fig. 3.7 gives a friction factor, 𝑅 ⁄𝜌𝑢2 = 0.0048 for this value of Re.
From Equation 3.18:
−Δ𝑃 = 4 (𝑅⁄𝜌𝑢2 )(𝑙 ⁄𝑑 )𝜌𝑢2
=4 x 0.0048 x (60/0.10) x 950 x 1.332
= 1.94 x 104 N/m2 = 19.4 kN/m2

66. Over a 30 m length of 150 mm vacuum line carrying air at 293 K, the pressure falls
from 1 kN/m2 to 0.1 kN/m2. If the relative roughness e/d is 0.002, what is approximate
flowrate?

Solution
The specific volume of air at 293 K and 1 kN/m2 is:
𝑣1 = (22.4/29)(293/273)(101.3/1.0) = 83.98 m3/kg

291
It is necessary to assume a Reynolds number to determine 𝑅 ⁄𝜌𝑢2 and then calculate a
value of G/A which should correspond to the original assumed value. Assume a Reynolds
number of 1x105.

When 𝑒⁄𝑑 = 0.002 and Re = 105, 𝑅⁄𝜌𝑢2 = 0.003 from Fig. 3.7.
(𝐺 ⁄𝐴)2 ln (𝑃1⁄𝑃2 ) + (𝑃22 − 𝑃12 )/2𝑃1 𝑣1 + 4 (𝑅⁄𝜌𝑢2 )(1⁄𝑑)(𝐺 ⁄𝐴)2 = 0 (equation
4.55)
Substituting:
(𝐺 ⁄𝐴 )2 ln (1.0⁄0.1) + (0.12 − 12 )𝑥106 /(2 𝑥 1 𝑥 106 𝑥 83.98)
+ 4 (0.003)(30⁄0,15)(𝐺 ⁄𝐴)2 = 0
and:
(𝐺 ⁄𝐴) = 1.37kg/m2s
The viscosity of air is 0.018 mN s/m2.
Re = (0.15 x 1.37)/(0.018 x 10-3) = 1.14 x 104
Thus the chosen value of Re is too high. When Re = I x 104, 𝑅 ⁄𝜌𝑢2 = 0.0041 and G/A =
1.26 kg/m2s.
Re now equals 1.04 x 104 which agrees well with the assumed value.
Thus:
G = 1.26 x (𝜋 /4) x (0.15)2 = 0.022 kg/s

68. The radiation received by the earth's surface on a clear day with the sun overhead is 1
kW/m2 and an additional 0.3 kW/m2 is absorbed by the earth's atmosphere. Calculate
approximately the temperature of the sun, assuming its radius to be 700,000 km and the
distance between the sun and the earth to be 150,000,000 km. The sun may be assumed to
behave as a black body.

Solution
The total radiation received = 1.3 kW/m2 of the earth's surface. The equivalent surface
area of the sun is obtained by comparing the area of a sphere at the radius of the sun, 7 x
105 km and the area of a sphere of radius (radius of sun + distance between sun and earth)
or:

𝐴1 4𝜋(7 x 105 )
= = 2.16 x 10−5
𝐴2 4𝜋(150 x 106 + 7 x 105 )2

Therefore radiation at the sun's surface = (1.3 x 103/2.16 x 10-5)= 6.03 x 107 W/m2. For a
black body, the intensity of radiation is given by equation 9.112:
6.03 x 107 = 5.67 x l0-8 T4 and T = 5710 K

292
With the following characteristics: length L = 30.48 m; inside diameter d = 0.0526 m;
pipe roughness e = 0.000045m frictional pressure drop dP = 15720 N/m2; liquid dynamic
viscosity = 0.01 Pa-s; liquid density p = 1200 kg/m3. Calculate.

71.The Reynolds' number.


𝑑𝑣𝜌
Nre = 𝜇
0.0526∗1.13∗1200
Nre = 0.01
Nre = 7132.56
72. The fanning friction factor f
f = 0.079/Nre0.25
f = 0.008596

293
FINAL EXAMINATION - PART III
GENERAL ENGINEERING
1. The collection of all points in the plane of equidistant from two fixed point is
A. Ellipse
B. Parabola
C. Line
D. Circle

2. Find lim x co x3-2x+9


2x3 – 8
A. 0
B. 2
C. ½
D. ¼

3. Find the derivative of y=ex(cos x2 – 2xsin x2)


A. –exsinx2
B. ex (cos x2-2xsin x2)
C. excosx2-2xsinx2
D. -2exsinx

4. The graph of y=x5-x will cross the x-axis


A. Twice
B. Thrice
C. Four times
D. Five times

5. Which of the following functions will have an inflection point?


A. y=x4
B. y=x3
C. y=x2
D. y=x

6. A box is to box constructed from a piece of zinc 20 in by cutting equal squares from
each corner and turning up the zinc to form the side. What is the maximum volume
(cubic inch) of the box that can be constructed?
A. 600
B. 593
C. 580
D. 622

294
7. Find the f(2x + 2) dx / (x+2)
A. 2x-2ln(x+2) + C
B. 2x+2ln (x+2) + C
C. 2x-ln (x+2) + C
D. 2x + ln(x+2) + C

8. Find the length of the arc in one branch of the curve y2=x3 from x=0 to x=1
A. 1.2
B. 1.44
C. 1.64
D. 1.84

9. Find the volume generated by rotating the region bounded by x=y and y2=4x, about
the x-axis from x=1 and x=4.
A. Π
B. 2Π
C. 3Π
D. 9Π

10. The area bounded by the curve y2=12x and the line x=3 is revolved about the line x=3.
What is the volume generated?
A. 176
B. 179
C. 181
D. 184

𝜋/6
11. Evaluate ∫0 𝑐𝑜𝑠8 3A dA
35𝜋
A.
768
45𝜋
B.
768
125𝜋
C. 768
5𝜋
D. 768

12. Which of the following statements regarding matrices is not true?


A. (AT)T=A
B. A(B+C)=AB+AC
C. A+(B+C)=(A+B)+C
D. (AB)-1=A-1B-1

13. The differential equation [1+(dy/dx)2]3/2 = k(d2y/dx2)


A. Order 3, degree 2, and non-linear

295
B. Order 3, degree 3, and non-linear
C. Order 3, degree 2, and linear
D. Order 3, degree 3, and linear

14. The particular solution for DE dy+7xdx = 0 when C=10 is a/an


A. Ellipse
B. Circle
C. Parabola
D. Hyperbola

15. Find the particular solution of y’’’=0 given that: y(0)=3, y’(1)=4, y’’(2)=6
A. y=2x2-3x+3
B. y=3x2-2x+3
C. y=2x2-2x+2
D. y=3x2+2x-3

16. The particular solution of d2y / dx2 + 4y =0


A. y=c1 sin 2x + 3 cos 2x
B. y=3sin 2x + c1cos 2x
C. y=c1sin2x + 6 cos 2x
D. y= c1sin 2x-3 cosx

17. There is a 30% chance of rain today. If it does not rain today, there is a 20% chance
of rain tomorrow. If it rains today, there is a 50% chance of rain tomorrow. What is
the probability that it rains tomorrow?
A. 0.27
B. 0.28
C. 0.29
D. 0.26

18. A road run 1200 m from A to B and then makes a right angle going to C, a distance of
500 m. a new road is being built directly from A to C. how much shorter will the new
road be?
A. 600 m
B. 400 m
C. 500 m
D. 300 m

19. A dam was constructed for P 200,000. The annual maintenance cost P 5000. If interest
is 5% the capitalized cost of the dam, including depreciation, is
A. P 100,000
B. P 215,000
C. P 250,000

296
D. P 300,000

20. An investment of x pesos is made at the end of each year for three years, at an interest
rate of 9% per year compounded annually. What will the peso value of the total
investment be upon the deposit of the third payment?
A. 0.772x
B. 1.295x
C. 2.278x
D. 3.2778x

21. A store gives discount at less 26% / less 5% of its tag price of a certain item. The store
wants to increase its discounted sales price by decreasing the discount to less 20% /
less 5%. What Is the effective increase in the discounted sales price?
A. 8.1%
B. 5.7%
C. 12.2%
D. 15.5%

22. A train, an hour after starting, meets with an accident which detains it an hour, after
which it proceeds at 3/5 of its former rate and arrives three hour after time; but had the
accident happened 50 miles farther on the line, it would have arrived one and one-half
hour sooner. Find the length of the journey
A. 910/9 miles
B. 800/9 miles
C. 920/9 miles
D. 850/9 miles

23. Carlo left his home at past 3 o’clock PM as indicated in his wall clock, between 2-3
hours after, Carlo returns home and noticed that hands of the clock interchanged. At
what time did Carlo leave his home?
A. 3:31.47
B. 3:21.45
C. 3:46.10
D. 3:36.50

24. From the time 6:15 PM to the time 7:45 PM of the same day, the minute hand of a
standard clock describe an arc of?
A. 60 degrees
B. 90 degrees
C. 180 degrees
D. 540 degrees

297
25. A rubber ball is made to fall from a height of 50 feet and is observed to rebound 2/3
of the distance it falls. How far will the ball travel before coming to rest if the ball
continues to fall in this manner?
A. 200 feet
B. 225 feet
C. 250 feet
D. 275 feet

26. At present, the sum of the parent’s ages is twice the sum of the children’s ages. Five
years ago, the sum of the parent’s ages was 4 times the sum of the children’s ages.
Fifteen years hence, the sum of the parent’s ages will be equal to the sum of the
children’s ages. How many children are there?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6

27. Twice the sum of two numbers is 28. The sum of the squared of the two numbers is
100. The product of the two numbers is
A. 42
B. 48
C. 54
D. 56

28. A certain job can be done by 72 men in 100 days. There were 80 men at the start of
the project but after 40 days, 30 of them had to be transferred to another ptoject. How
long will it take the remaining workforce to complete the job.
A. 70
B. 90
C. 80
D. 60

29. Eight men can dig 150 ft of trench in 7 hrs. Three men can backfill 100 ft of the trench
in 4 hrs. The time that it will take 10 men to dig and fill 200 ft of trench is ______.
A. 9 hrs 52 mins
B. 10 hrs 24 mins
C. 10 hrs 1 min
D. 10 hrs 46 mins
30. Simplify: cot x – tan x?
A. tan 2x
B. 2 tan x
C. 2 cot 2x
D. cot 2x

298
31. A diagonal of a parallelogram is 56.38 ft long and makes an angle of 27 degree 13’
and 16 degree 24’ respectively with the sides. Find the area of the parallelogram.
A. 595 ft2
B. 585 ft2
C. 575 ft2
D. 565 ft2

32. If the diameter of a sphere is increased by 40 percent by what percent is the volume
increased?
A. 144.7%
B. 147.4%
C. 177.4%
D. 174.4%

33. Transform the equation of the circle x2 + y2 = 16 into an equation in polar coordinates.
A. r=4
B. r sine = 4
C. r = 16
D. r cose = 4

34. if (0, 4) and (1, 6) are critical points of y = a + bx + cx3, find the value of c.
A. 1
B. 2
C. -1
D. -2

35. Five cards are drawn at random from a pack of 52 well – shuffled cards. Find the
probability that 3 are 10’s and 2 are queens.
A. 1/649,740
B. 1/108,290
C. 1/32
D. 1/54,350

36. The face of hexahedron is a ___.


A. Triangle C. Pentagon
B. Square D. Hexagon

37. A cylinder tank of radius 10 feet is being filled with water at a rate of 314 cubic feet
per minute. How fast is the depth of water increasing?
A. 1 fpm
B. 2 fpm
C. 3 fpm
D. 4 fpm

299
38. The cords of an ellipse, which pass through the center, are known as ____.
A. Asymptote
B. Radical Axis
C. Major Axes
D. Diameters

39. If a company spends P 12,000 now and P 5,000 per year for 10 years, with first P5,000
expenditure made 4 years from now, the rate of return would it make if its income
were P4,000 per year starting in year 8 and continuing through year 25 is
A. 5.1%
B. 1.5%
C. 4.2%
D. 1.2%

40. The present worth of a series that decreases uniformly, y P200 per year, from P4,000
in year 11 to P2,200 in year 20, if interest equals 105 is
A. P7,709.1
B. P9,707.2
C. P10,709.1
D. P6,910

41. Consider a project that costs P 14,762, with an indefinite life. if the cash in years
1,3,5…(i.e., every odd year is P 1,000 and the cash flows in years 2,4,6… (i.e., every
even year) is P 2,000, find the rate of return of the investment.
A. 9%
B. 11%
C. 10%
D. 12%

42. A man deposited P 10, 000 in a savings account when his son was born. The normal
interest rate was 8% per year compounded continuously. On the son’s 18th birthday,
the accumulated sum is withdrawn from the account. The amount of this accumulated
amount is
A. P42,810
B. P42,210
C. P42,920
D. P48,210

43. The present equivalent of a uniform series of annual payments of P3,500 each for 5
years if the interest rate is 10% compound continuously is
A. P11,300 C. P12,095
B. P14,100 D. P13,100

300
44. When a business calculates taxable income from gross income, which of the following
is true?
A. Depreciation, interest and principal are all subtracted
B. Depreciation and interest are subtracted, principal is not
C. Depreciation is subtracted, interest and principal are not
D. Interest and principal, and depreciation is not

45. What two cost categories form the trade off that leads to an optimal replacement
interval?
A. Direct costs and indirect costs
B. Insider costs and outsider costs
C. Operating & maintenance costs and recovery costs
D. Sunk costs and opportunity costs

46. Mike’s veneer shop owns a vacuum press that requires annual maintenance. Mike has
a contract to cover the maintenance expenses for the next five years. The contract calls
for an annual payment of P600 with adjustment each year for inflation, inflation is
expected to hold constant at 6% / yr over this period. The then-current cash flow
pattern for this expense is best described by which of the following?
A. Uniform series
B. Gradient series
C. Geometric series
D. Continuous series

47. When done correctly, what is the relationship between the present worth of an
alternative calculated using a then-current approach and the present worth of the
alternative calculated using a constant-worth approach?
A. They are equal
B. Then-current PW is higher because it uses a lower discount rate
C. Constant worth PW is higher because is uses a lower discount rate
D. Cannot be determined without knowing the cash flows and inflation rate

48. RA 9297 repealed RA 318


A. True
B. False

49. Which among the following statements is not true regarding the codes of ethics?
A. They are based on human values
B. They involve persons learning what is right or wrong, and then doing what is
beneficial to them
C. They include the fundamental ground rules by which people live by
D. They are lists of guidelines that govern a person’s conduct

301
50. How many years comprise one term for the members of the ChE Regulatory Board?
A. 3
B. 5
C. 4
D. 6

51. Which of the following is considered as an objective for giving licensure examinations
for qualified ChE applicants?
A. To limit the number of applicants allowed to practice the profession
B. To keep the quality of licensed chemical engineers at par with the best in the world
C. To test the overall knowledge and proficiency of the applicants for the practice off the
profession
D. All of the above

52. Determine the single force that will replace the following coplanar forces: 120 N, 30
degree; 200 N, 110 degree; 170 N, 240 degree; and 80 N, 300 degree.
A. 351 N, 175 degrees
B. 351 N, 165 degrees
C. 372 N, 175 degrees
D. 372 N, 165 degrees

53. A 50 ft airplane wing is subjected to a test load P=70.7x10^2 that varies parabolically
from 0 to 500 lb/ft, determine the resultant load and its location.
A. 14,322 lb, 28 ft
B. 14, 332 lb, 30 ft
C. 16,664 lb, 28 ft
D. 16,664 lb, 30 ft

54. Determine the resultant of the three forces originating at point (3, -3) and passing
through the points indicated: 126 N through (8,6) 183 through (2, -5), and 269 N
through (-6, 3).
A.
B. 263 N
C. 293 N
D. 323 N
E. 353 N

55. The maximum stress to which a material may be subjected without the occurrence of
permanent strain remaining upon the complete release to stress.
A. Ultimate stress
B. Rupture point
C. Resilience point
D. Elastic limit

302
56. Property of material which implies resistance to shock of difficulty of breaking and
expresses the work per unit volume required to fracture a material
A. Malleability
B. Toughness
C. Hardness
D. Stiffness
Question #57-58 are based on the given beam carrying the triangular loads

Wo Wo

L/2 L/2
R1 R2
57. Determine the value of reaction 1 and 2.
A. ½ Lwo , ¼ Lwo C. ¼ Lwo, ¼ Lwo
B. 2Lwo, 1/4 Lwo D. ½ Lwo, ½ Lwo

58. The shear from A to B is increasing, thus the slope of shear A to B is ____.
A. Decreasing
B. Increasing
C. Zero
D. Undetermined

59. A solid circular shaft is required to transmit 200 kW while turning at 1.5 rev/s. the
allowable shearing stress is 42 MPa. Find the required shaft diameter.
A. 138 mm
B. 183 mm
C. 381 mm
D. 118 mm

60. A 17-kg ladder has a center of mass at G. if the coefficients of friction at A and B are
μA=0.3 and μB=0.2, respectively, determine the smallest horizontal force that the man
must exert of the ladder at point C in order to push the ladder forward.
A. F= 120.2 N
B. F= 288 N
C. F= 166.8 N
D. F= 204 N

303
ANSWER KEY

Final Examination – Part I - PCP


1.) A. Ellipse 31.) A. 595 ft2
2.) C. ½ 32.) D. 174.4%
3.) B. ex (cos x2-2xsin x2) 33.) A. r=4
4.) B. thrice 34.) -1
3
5.) B. y=x 35.) E. 1/1,082,900
6.) B. 593 36.) B. square
7.) A. 2x-2ln(x+2) + C 37.) A. 1fpm
8.) B. 144 38.) D. Diameters
9.) D. 9 Π 39.) B. 1.5%
10.) C. 181 40.) A. P 7,709.1
35𝑛
11.) A. 768 41.) B. 11%
12.) D. AB)-1=A-1B-1 42.) B. P 42,210
13.) A. Order 3, degree 2, and non-linear 43.) D. P 13,100
14.) C. Parabola 44.) B. Depreciation and interest re
15.) B. y=3x2-2x+3 subtracted, principal is not
16.) A. y=c1 sin 2x + 3 cos 2x 45.) C. Operating & maintenance costs and
17.) C. 0.29 recovery costs
18.) B. 400 m 46.) C. Geometric Series
19.) D. P 300,000 47.) A. They are equal
20.) D. 3.2778X 48.) A. True
21.) A. 8.1% 49.) B. They involve persons learning what
22.) B. 800/9 is right or wrong, and then doing what
23.) A. 3:31:47 is beneficial to them
24.) D. 540 degrees 50.) A. 3
25.) C. 250 feet 51.) C. To test the overall knowledge and
26.) C. 5 proficiency of the applicants for the
27.) B. 48 practice off the profession
28.) C. 80 52.) A. 351 N, 175 degrees
29.) A. 9 hrs 52 mins 53.) D. 16,664 lb, 30 ft
30.) C. 2 cot 2x 54.) A. 263 N
55.) D. Elastic Limit
56.) B. Toughness
57.) C. ¼ Lwo, ¼ Lwo
58.) A. Decreasing
59.) A. 138 mm
60.) D. 204 N

304
FINAL EXAMINATION – PART III/GE
SOLUTIONS

𝑋 3 2𝑋 9
3
𝑋 − 2𝑋 + 9 3 − 3+ 3 𝟏
2. lim = 𝑋 𝑋 𝑋 =
𝑛→∞ 2𝑋 3 − 8 2𝑋 3 8 𝟐
− 3
𝑋3 𝑋

3. Derivative of y = e x cos x2
udv + vdu
let u = ex let v = cos x 2
du = ex dv = -2x sin x 2

y = ex cos x2 = 𝐞𝐱 (𝐜𝐨𝐬 𝐱 𝟐 − 𝟐𝐱 𝐬𝐢𝐧 𝐱 𝟐 )

6.
V = lwh
20 x V = (20-2x) (20-2x) x
x V = 400x − 80x 2 + 4x 3
𝑉 ′ = 400 − 160𝑥 + 12𝑥 2 = 0

x1 = 10 V = (20 – 2(10/3)) (20 – 2(10/3)) 10/3


10
x2 = 3
V = 592.59 = 593

2x + 2
7. Integral of ∫ dx
x+2

x+1 1
= ∫2 dx = 2 ∫ dx −
x+2 x+2

let u = x + 2
du = dx

du
= 2 ∫ dx −
u
= 𝟐𝐱 − 𝟐 𝐥𝐧(𝐱 + 𝟐) + 𝐂

305
8. Length of arc y2 = x 3 x=0; x=1

dy 2
Length of arc = √1 + ( dx) dx

1
𝑑𝑦 3
𝑦 = 𝑥 3/2 = 2 𝑥2
𝑑𝑥

1 2
3
Length of arc = √1 + ( 2 𝑥 2 ) dx

Length of arc = 1.44

4 2
9. V = πx ∫ (√4X) − X2 dx
1
V = 𝟗𝝅

10. Volume
V = 2π ∫r^2 dy from 0 to 6
= 2π ∫(3 - y^2/12)^2 dy from 0 to 6
= 2π ∫(9 - (1/2)y^2 + y^4/144) dy
= 2π [ 9y - (1/6)y^3 + (1/720)y^5] from 0 to 6
= 2π ( 54 - 216/6 + 7776/720 - 0 )
= 2π(144/5)
= 288π/5

V = 180.96

𝜋
11. Evaluate ∫06 cos 8 3A dA

= sin 18A + 9 sin 12A + 45 sin 6A + 180A +C

= (sin 18( Π/6) + 9 sin 12 (Π/6) + 45 sin 6(Π/6) + 180 (Π/6)) – (sin 18(0) +
9 sin 12(0) + 45 sin 6(0) + 180(0))

𝛑/𝟔 𝟑𝟓𝛑
∫𝟎 𝐜𝐨𝐬𝟖 3A dA = 𝟕𝟔𝟖

306
14. dy + 7x dx = 0 ; C=10
dy/dx + 7x = 0

∫ y′ = ∫ 7x
7𝑥 2
𝑦= − therefore, parabola
2

15. y’’’ = 0 ; y(0) = 3 ; y’(1) = 4 ; y’’(2) = 6

y = 3x 2 − 2x + 3

y(0) = 3 y’ = 6x – 2 y’’ = 6
3 = 3(0)2 − 2(0) + 3 y’(1) = 6(1) – 2 y’’(2) = 6
3=3 4=4 6=6

y’’’ = 0 therefore, 𝐲 = 𝟑𝐱 𝟐 − 𝟐𝐱 + 𝟑
0=0 is a solution

𝑑2 𝑦
16. + 4𝑦 = 0
𝑑𝑥 2

y = C1sin2x + 3cos2x
y1 = C12cos2x + 3 [-2sin2x]
y11 = C12[-2sin2x] + 3(-6)(2cos2x)
y11 = -4C1sin2x – 12cos2x

𝑑2 𝑦
𝑑𝑥 2
+ 4𝑦 = 0
-4C1sin2x – 12cos2x + 4 (C1sin2x + 3cos2x) = 0
-4C1sin2x – 12cos2x + 4C1sin2x + 12cos2x = 0
0=0
𝑑2 𝑦
Therefore, y = C1sin2x + 5cos2x is a solution of 𝑑𝑥2 + 4𝑦 = 0

17. Probability that it will rain tomorrow


probability = (0.3(0.5)) + (0.7(0.2))

Probability = 0.29

307
18. How much shorter the new road be?

A d22 = 12002 + 5002

d2 = 1300
1200 m
d1 = 1200 + 500 = 1700
B
A
d2 = 1300
A z = 1700 – 1300
C
500 m A

z = 400 m
A

19. Total Investment = Fixed Costs + Maintenance Costs / Interest


Total Investment = 200,000 + 5,000 / 0.05

Total Investment = P 300,000

20. Total investment upon deposit of third payment


0 1 2 3 interest rate = 9% compounded annually

Total investment upon deposit of third


payment =
1 + (1+0.09) +
2
(1+0.09)
x x x Total investment = 3.2781x

22. Condition 1:
S−V
1+1+ 3 =t+3
V
5

S−V
3 = t+1
V
5

S
Substitute t = :
V
5 S
(S − V) = +1
3V V

308
2 S 8
( )=
3 V 3
𝑆
𝑉= 4

Condition 2:

50+V S−(50+V) 3
+1 3 =t+
V V 2
5

50+V 5 S 1
[
V
+
3V
(S − 50 − V) =
V
+ 2
]V
5 250 5 V
50 + V + S− − V=S+
3 3 3 2

Substitute (1) in (2):


𝑆 5 250 5 𝑆 1 𝑆
50 + + 𝑆 − − ( )=𝑆+ ( )
4 3 3 3 4 2 4

100 3
- = 𝑆
3 8

𝟖𝟎𝟎
𝐒= 𝐦𝐢𝐥𝐞𝐬
𝟗

23. Substitute 1:
𝑦
x = 30 +
12

Substitute 2:
𝑥
y = 15 +
12

Substitute (2) in (1):


𝑥
15
12
x = 30 +
12
𝑥
15
12
[𝑥 = 30 + ] 12
12

𝑥
12x = 360 + 15 +
12

x = 31.47 minutes

time when he left home was 3:31.47’


309
24. 6:15 PM to 7:45 PM of the same day
1hr = 360 degrees
6:15 to 7:45 = 1 ½ hour

1 ½ hr * 360 degrees / hr = 580 degrees

2 100
25. a1 = 50 [ ]= ; n=∞
3 3
100
𝑎1 3
S= = 2 = 100
1−𝑟 1−
3

Let: D = total distance traveled by ball


D = 50 + 2S
D = 50 + 2(100)
D = 250 feet

26. Number of children

Past Present Future


Parents 2x - 10 2x 2x + 30
Children x – 5n x x + 15n

2x – 10 = 4(x-5n) 2x + 30 = x + 15n

2x – 10 = 4x – 20n X = 15n – 30
equation 2
X = 15n – 30 equation 1

Equate (1) & (2): 15 n – 30 = 10n – 5

n = 5 children

27. Product of two numbers


2(x + y) = 28 x2 + y2 = 100

310
28− 2y 2
2x + 2y = 28 ( ) + 𝑦 2 = 100
2

28− 2y
x= y=8 ; x=6
2

x(y) = 8 * 6 x(y)= 48

28. Time the remaining work force to complete the job


man * hours

72 men (100 days) = 80 men (40 days) + 50 men (x days)

x days = 80 days

29. Time it will take for 10 men to dig an fill 200 ft of trench
man hours / ft
8 men (7 hours) 4 men (3 hours) 10 men (x hours)
+ =
150 ft 100ft 200ft
x hours = 9.8667 hours

x hours = 9 hr 52 min

30. Simplify cot x – tan x


cos 𝑥 sin 𝑥 cos 2 𝑥 − sin2 𝑥 cos 2𝑥
= − = =
sin 𝑥 cos 𝑥 sin 𝑥 cos 𝑥 sin 2𝑥
2
cot x – tan x = 2 cot 2x

32. Percent increase in volume


4
V1 sphere = 3 πr 3 If diameter is increased by
40%
4
V2 sphere = π(1.4r)3
3

4
V2 sphere = π(1.4r)3 =
3

311
% increase in volume = (V2 – V1) x 100= (2.74 – 1) x 100

% increase in volume = 174.4 %

33. Equation in polar coordinates


x2 + y2 = 16

x = r cos θ ; y = sin θ

(r cos θ)2 + (r sin θ)2 = 16 r 2 = 16

r 2 (cos 2 θ + sin2 θ) = 16 r=4

35. Probability that 3 are 10’s and 2 are queens


4 3 2 4 3
Probability = ∗ ∗ ∗ ∗
52 51 50 49 48
𝟏
𝐏𝐫𝐨𝐛𝐚𝐛𝐢𝐥𝐢𝐭𝐲 =
𝟏, 𝟎𝟖𝟐, 𝟗𝟎𝟎

37. Rate at which the depth of water is increasing


Volumetric flow rate = 314 ft3 / min

Diameter of cylinder = 10 ft
ft3
314
min
rate of increase in depth =
π(10ft3)

rate of increase in depth = 0.999 ft / min = 1fpm

39. 12k + 5k (P/A , x , 10)(P/F , x , 4)


= 4k (P/A , x, 17)(P/F , x , 8)

Get x

x = 1.5%

312
40. Present worth of series that decreases uniformly
Present worth = (400(P/A, 10%, 10) – 20(P/G, 10%, 10)(P/F, 10%, 10))

Present worth of series that decreases uniformly = P 7,709.1

41. Rate per yer = x

every 2 years = (1 + x)2 – 1


1000 2000
(1+x) + (1+x)2 = 14762
(1+𝑥)2 −1 (1+𝑥)2 −1

x = 11.5%

42. Amount of accumulated amounts


P = P 10,000 , r = 8% per year compounded continuously, n = 18 years

F = P(enr )

F = 10000(e18(0.08))

F = 42,206.96 = 42,210

43. Present equivalent of a uniform series compounded continuously

A = P 3500 , r = 8%
(1 + i )n − 1
P=A ; i = er − 1
i ( 1 + i )n

(1 + (e0.1 − 1))5 − 1
P = 3500 0.1
(e − 1)(1 + (e0.1 − 1))5

P = P 13,094.43 = P 13,100

52. Single force


F1 = 120 N,30 ̊ F3 = 340 N, 180 ̊ F5 = 80 N, 300 ̊

F2 = 200 N, 110 ̊ F4 = 170 N, 240 ̊

Complex:
313
∑ 𝐹 = 120 < 30° + 200 < 110° + 340 < 180° + 170 < 240° + 80 < 300°

F = 350.89 N, 174.80 ̊ = 351 N, 175 ̊

54. Resultant Force of three forces

.F1 = 126 N F2 = 183 N F3 = 269 N

dx1 = 8 – 3 = 5 dx2 = 3 - 2 = 1 dx3 = 3 + 6 =


9
dy1 = 6 + 3 = 9 dy2 = -3 + 5 = 2 dy3 = 3 + 3 =
6

9
θ1 = tan−1 5 = 60.94°
θ2 = tan−1 2 + 180 = 243.43°
6
θ3 = 180 − tan−1 = 146.31°
9

∑ 𝐹 = 126 < 60.94 + 183 < 243.43 + 269 < 146.31

F = 262.53 = 263 N

57. Value of reaction 1 & 2

Wo Wo

L/2 L/2
R1 R2

1 L L 1 1 L L L 2
R1 = 2 (2) Wo (2) (3) + 2 (2) Wo (2 + 2 (3))

𝟏
R1 = 𝟒 𝐋𝐖𝐨 = R2

314
60. NB

FB
P
G = 17 kg

FA
NA

Fx = 0 Fy = 0
FA + NB = P 17 kg (9.81 m/ s2) + FB = NA
0.3NA + NB = P (1) 166.7 + 0.2NB = NA (2)

Moment at G:
-2(cos 50)NA – 2(cos 50)0.3NA + (cos 50)P – 2(cos 50)0.2NB + 2(cos 50)NB = 0
-1.6712 NA + 0.6427 P + 1.0284 NB = 0 (3)

NA = 202.61 N
NB = 179.24 N
P = 240 N

315
316
Removal Examination – Part I
Physical and Chemical Principles
1. Archaeologists can determine the age of an artifact made of wood or bone by measuring
the amount of the radioactive isotope 14C present in the object. The amount of isotope
decreases in a first order process. If 15.5% of the original amount of 14C is present in a
wooden tool at the time of analysis, what is the age of the tool? The half life of 14C is 5730
years.
a. 15,411.76 years b. 14,411.46 years c. 11,411.16 years d. 17,411.46 years
2. Consider the molecular substances I2, H2O, and C8H18. Which of them is/are soluble
in CCl4?
a. only I2 b. only H20 c. only C8H18 d. I2 and C8H18 e. H2O and
C8H18
3.Consider the following half-reactions and select the strongest oxidizing agent present:
Sr2+(aq) + 2e- —> Sr(s) E° = -2.89 V
Cr2+(aq) + 2e- -> Cr(s) E° = -0.913 V Co2+(aq) + 2e- -> Co(s) E° = -0.28 V
a. Cr2+(aq) b. Sr2+(aq) c. Co2+(aq) d. Sr(s) e.
Co(s)
4. A solution composed 10 grams of non-volatile organic solute in 100 grams of diethyl
ether (CH3CH2OCH2CH3) has a vapour pressure of 426.0 mm Hg at 20°C. If the vapor
pressure of the pure diethyl ether is 442.2 mm Hg at the same temperature, what is the
molecular weight of solute?
a. 149.6g/mole b. 164.8 g/mol c. 186.4 g/mol d. 194.8 g/mol
5. The chemical name of Tumbull's blue is
a. ferrous ferricyanide b. cuprous chloride c. ferric ferrocyanide d.cupric
chloride
6. Find the pH of a solution made by diluting one drop (0.04 mL) of 0.10 N HCI to 10
liters.
A. 6.37 B. 7.24 C. 8.14 D. 8.55
7. An air sampling program sampled 100,000 L of particle size. The following mass of
particles were collected: 12 mg retained with size greater than 2.5 μm; and 6 mg retained
with size less than 2.5 μm. What are the PM2.5 and TSP concentrations (in ppm) of this
air sample respectively?
a. 6.0 x 10-4; 1.8 x 10-4 c. 6.0 x 104; 6.0 x 10-5

317
b. 1.2 x 10-4; 1.8 x 10-4 d. 1.2 x 10-4; 6.0 x 10-5
8. Disaccharides are carbohydrates composed of two monosaccharide residues united by a
gycolylycosidic linkage. Which of the following is inappropriate?
a. sucrose + water —> glucose + fructose c. maltose + water —> glucose +
glucose
b. lactose + water —> glucose + glucose d. lactose + water —> galactose +
glucose
9. Which vitamin is not a fat soluble?
a. A b. C c. K d. E
10. Which of the following potential contaminant is the most resistant to heat sterilization?
a. Pseudomonas aeruginosa c. Aspergillus niger
b. Clostridium botulinum d. Saccharomyces cerevisiae
11. Melamine is officially 1,3,5-triazine-2,4,6-triamine in the IUPAC nomenclature
system. It is used in fire retardants in polymer resins because its high nitrogen content
released as flame stifling nitrogen gas when the compound is burned or charred. What is
the chemical formula of melamine?
a. C3H6N3 b. C3H6N4 c. C3H6N5 d. C3H6N6
12. A sample of polystyrene prepared by heating styrene with tribromobenzoyl peroxide in
the absence of air has the formula Br3C6H3(C8H8)n where n varies with the preparation.
If a certain sample of polystyrene is found to contain 20.01 /o Br, what is the value of n?
a. 8 b. 10 c. 20 d. 15
13. For the reaction 3A(g) + 3B (g) —> 2C (s) + 3D (g), the equilibrium concentration are
0.3M of A, 0.5 M B, 0.2 M of C and 0.5 M of D, find the equilibrium constants
a. 37.04 b.0.74 c. 12.3 d. 0.075
14. A mixture of N2 and H2 was allowed to come to an equilibrium at a given temperature.
An analysis of the mixture at equilibrium contained 2.0 mol N2, 3.0 mol H2, and 2.5 mol
NH3. How many moles of H2 present at the beginning of the reaction?
a. 3.5 b. 5.3 c. 7.5 d. 6.7
15. If an enzyme is inhibited non-competitively by the product a reaction sequence in which
the enzyme precipitates, the enzyme is?
a. Inhibited b. Modulator c. Allosteric d. Zymogen
16. A solution of 1.25 g of non-electrolyte solute in 20 g water freezes at 291.94K, find the
molecular weight of the solute.

318
a. 110 b. 6.86 c. 180 d. 56.2
17. What is the pH of the resulting solution made by mixing 5ml of 0.2178M HCI and
15ml of 0.1156M NH3? Kwm =1 8x10 s
a. 9.49 b. 9.90 c. 9.02 d. 12.74
18. Calculate the molarity of NaOH solution if 18.25mL was used to titrate 0.4815 gram
of primary standard KHP
a. 0.18 b. 0.13 c. 0.26 d. 0.16
19. What is the pH of a 0.068 M aqueous solution of sodium cyanide? Ka for HCN = 4.9
x 10’°
a. 0.74 b. 2.93 c. 11.07 d.13.26
20. Histamine, an organic nitrogenous compound which can cause allergic rhinitis, can be
produced in our body through the decarboxylation of the amino acid histidine. Given that
18 mM of the decarboxylase is used and 5 mM of histidine forms. Calculate the Michaelis-
Menten constant if the reaction velocity and the TON are 6 mM/s and 37/s respectively.
a. 0.330 M b. 0.440 M c. 0.550 M d. 0.660 M
21. What weight of impure ferrous ammonium sulfate should be taken for analysis so that
the number of centigrams of BaS04 obtained will represent five times the percentage of S
in the sample?
a. 0.59 g b. 0.69 g c.0.79 g d.0.89 g
22. An oxide of the element M has the formula M207 and it is known from experiments
that 1.000 gram of M combines with an excess of oxygen to form 2.019 grams of oxide.
The element M is
a. aluminum b. chlorine c. manganese d. iron
23. All of the following are correctly stated underlying principles used to build up the
configuration of a many electron atom, EXCEPT
a. Pauli principle: no two electrons can have an identical set of quantum numbers.
b. Aufbau principle: atomic orbitals are filled with electrons from lowest energy to higher
energies.
c. Hund’s rule: electrons in degenerate orbitals are arranged to minimize the number of
unpaired spins.
d. All of the above statements are correct.
24. In the most stable conformation of trans-1,4-dimethylcyclohexane, what positions do
the methyl groups occupy?

319
a. Axial, axial b. Equitorial, axial c. Equitorial, equitorial d. Axial,
equitorial
25. The pKa for formic acid is 3.74. What is the pH of the solution resulting from addition
of 0.50 moles of formic acid (HCOOH) and 0 30 mole sodium formate (HCOO-) to enough
water to create a final volume of 1.0 L?
a. 2.18 b. 2.78 c. 3.52 d. 4.28
26. Formic acid is a monobasic acid that is 4.6% ionized in 0.10M aq. solution at 25°C. If
a 25 mL pipetful of a 0.25N aq. solution of formic acid is diluted to 200 mL and titrated
with 0.33N NaOH, what indicator would be suitable in this titration? I
a. Methyl orange c. Bromothymol blue
b. Cresol red d. Phenolphthalein
27. A certain solution may contain any of the following solutes: NaH2P04, HCI, H3P04,
Na2HP04. A 25 mL portion is titrated with 0.2N NaOH and with an indicator changing
color at approximately pH 9, the end point is at 48.0 mL of NaOH. A second 25 mL sample
is titrated with 0.2N NaOH, and with an indicator changing color at approximately pH 4,
the end point is at 32.5 mL of the NaOH. What active solutes are present in significant
amounts in the original solution?
a. NaH2P04, HCl b. HCl, H3P04 c. H3P04, Na2HP04 d. NaH2P04,
Na2HP04
28. What should be the “iron value" of a solution of KMn04 so that when a sample of
impure Na3As03 weighing 0.5 g is titrated to arsenate with the permanganate, the
percentage of As203 in the sample will be twice the buret reading?
a. 0.0113 g b. 0.0224 g c. 0.0335 g d. 0.0446 g
29. Bromide can be determined by precipitating as AgBr, heating in a current of Cl2 and
weighing the resulting AgCl. What would be the gravimetric factor for finding the
percentage bromine?
a. Less than 1 b. 1 c. More than 1 d. Insufficient Information
30. Trouton's rule slates that many substances have entropies of vaporization close to 88
J/mol-K. Which of the following is the best rationale for Trouton’s rule?
a. Most substances have similar enthalpies of vaporization
b. Most substances have similar boiling points.
c. The change in disorder in going from one mole of liquid to one mole of gas is similar
for many substances.
d. Entropy changes for most processes are about 88 J/mol-K.

320
SOLUTIONS

1. Archaeologists can determine the age of an artifact made of wood or bone by measuring
the amount of the radioactive isotope 14C present in the object. The amount of isotope
decreases in a first order process. If 15.5% of the original amount of 14C is present in a
wooden tool at the time of analysis, what is the age of the tool? The half life of 14C is 5730
years.
a. 15,411.76 years b. 14,411.46 years c. 11,411.16 years d. 17,411.46 years
Solutions:
1
ln ( ) = −𝑘𝑡
2
1
ln ( ) = −𝑘 (5730)
2
𝑘 = 1.20968 𝑥 10−4

ln(0.155) = −1.20968𝑥10−4 (𝑡)


𝒕 = 𝟏𝟓, 𝟒𝟏𝟏. 𝟕𝟔 𝒚𝒆𝒂𝒓𝒔
2. Consider the molecular substances I2, H2O, and C8H18. Which of them is/are soluble
in CCl4?
a. only I2 b. only H20 c. only C8H18 d. I2 and C8H18 e. H2O and
C8H18
3.Consider the following half-reactions and select the strongest oxidizing agent present:
Sr2+(aq) + 2e- —> Sr(s) E° = -2.89 V
Cr2+(aq) + 2e- -> Cr(s) E° = -0.913 V Co2+(aq) + 2e- -> Co(s) E° = -0.28 V
a. Cr2+(aq) b. Sr2+(aq) c. Co2+(aq) d. Sr(s) e.
Co(s)
4. A solution composed 10 grams of non-volatile organic solute in 100 grams of diethyl
ether (CH3CH2OCH2CH3) has a vapour pressure of 426.0 mm Hg at 20°C. If the vapor
pressure of the pure diethyl ether is 442.2 mm Hg at the same temperature, what is the
molecular weight of solute?
a. 149.6g/mole b. 164.8 g/mol c. 186.4 g/mol d. 194.8 g/mol
Solutions:

321
10 100 100
( + ) (426) = ( ) (442.2)
𝑥 74.14 74.14
𝒙 = 𝟏𝟗𝟒. 𝟗𝟔 𝒈/𝒎𝒐𝒍
5. The chemical name of Tumbull's blue is
a. ferrous ferricyanide b. cuprous chloride c. ferric ferrocyanide d.cupric
chloride
6. Find the pH of a solution made by diluting one drop (0.04 mL) of 0.10 N HCI to 10
liters.
A. 6.37 B. 7.24 C. 8.14 D. 8.55
Solutions:

𝑝𝐻 = −log[𝐻 +]
𝑚𝑜𝑙
0.1 𝐿 (0.4𝑥10−3 𝐿)
𝑝𝐻 = − log(
10 𝐿
𝒑𝑯 = 𝟔. 𝟑𝟗𝟖
7. An air sampling program sampled 100,000 L of particle size. The following mass of
particles were collected: 12 mg retained with size greater than 2.5 μm; and 6 mg retained
with size less than 2.5 μm. What are the PM2.5 and TSP concentrations (in ppm) of this
air sample respectively?
a. 6.0 x 10-4; 1.8 x 10-4 c. 6.0 x 104; 6.0 x 10-5
b. 1.2 x 10-4; 1.8 x 10-4 d. 1.2 x 10-4; 6.0 x 10-5
Solutions:
12 𝑚𝑔
= 𝟏. 𝟐 𝒙 𝟏𝟎−𝟒 𝒑𝒑𝒎
100000 𝐿
18 𝑚𝑔
= 𝟏. 𝟖 𝒙 𝟏𝟎−𝟒 𝒑𝒑𝒎
100000 𝐿
8. Disaccharides are carbohydrates composed of two monosaccharide residues united by a
gycolylycosidic linkage. Which of the following is inappropriate?
a. sucrose + water —> glucose + fructose c. maltose + water —> glucose +
glucose
b. lactose + water —> glucose + glucose d. lactose + water —> galactose +
glucose

322
9. Which vitamin is not a fat soluble?
a. A b. C c. K d. E
10. Which of the following potential contaminant is the most resistant to heat sterilization?
a. Pseudomonas aeruginosa c. Aspergillus niger
b. Clostridium botulinum d. Saccharomyces cerevisiae
11. Melamine is officially 1,3,5-triazine-2,4,6-triamine in the IUPAC nomenclature
system. It is used in fire retardants in polymer resins because its high nitrogen content
released as flame stifling nitrogen gas when the compound is burned or charred. What is
the chemical formula of melamine?
a. C3H6N3 b. C3H6N4 c. C3H6N5 d. C3H6N6
12. A sample of polystyrene prepared by heating styrene with tribromobenzoyl peroxide in
the absence of air has the formula Br3C6H3(C8H8)n where n varies with the preparation.
If a certain sample of polystyrene is found to contain 20.01 % Br, what is the value of n?
a. 8 b. 10 c. 20 d. 15
Solutions:
𝑀𝑎𝑠𝑠 𝐵𝑟
%𝐵𝑟 =
𝑀𝑜𝑙𝑒𝑐𝑢𝑙𝑎𝑟 𝑤𝑒𝑖𝑔ℎ𝑡
3 (79.91)
0.2001 =
3(79.91) + 75.09 + 𝑥(104.16)
𝑥 = 8.47
𝒙 ≈𝟖
13. For the reaction 3A(g) + 3B (g) —> 2C (s) + 3D (g), the equilibrium concentration are
0.3M of A, 0.5 M B, 0.2 M of C and 0.5 M of D, find the equilibrium constants
a. 37.04 b.0.74 c. 12.3 d. 0.075
Solutions:
[𝐷]3
𝐾 =
[𝐴]3 [𝐵]3
[0.5]3
𝐾 = = 𝟑𝟕. 𝟎𝟒
[0.3]3 [0.5]3

323
14. A mixture of N2 and H2 was allowed to come to an equilibrium at a given temperature.
An analysis of the mixture at equilibrium contained 2.0 mol N2, 3.0 mol H2, and 2.5 mol
NH3. How many moles of H2 present at the beginning of the reaction?
a. 3.5 b. 5.3 c. 7.5 d. 6.7
Solutions:
𝑁2 + 3𝐻2 → 2𝑁𝐻3
i x x 0
c -1.25 -3.75 2.5
e 2 3 2.5

𝑥 − 3.75 = 3
𝒙 = 𝟔. 𝟕𝟓
15. If an enzyme is inhibited non-competitively by the product a reaction sequence in which
the enzyme precipitates, the enzyme is?
a. Inhibited b. Modulator c. Allosteric d. Zymogen
16. A solution of 1.25 g of non-electrolyte solute in 20 g water freezes at 291.94K, find the
molecular weight of the solute.
a. 110 b. 6.86 c. 180 d. 56.2
Solutions:
𝑥
18.79 = (1.86)
0.020
𝑥 = 0.2020
1.25
𝑀𝑊 = = 𝟔. 𝟖𝟔
0.2020
17. What is the pH of the resulting solution made by mixing 5ml of 0.2178M HCI and
15ml of 0.1156M NH3? KNH3 =1 8x10-5
a. 9.49 b. 9.90 c. 9.02 d. 12.74
Solutions:
𝑁𝐻3 + 𝐻𝐶𝑙 → 𝑁𝐻4 + + 𝐶𝑙 −
i i 0.645
1.734 1.089
0 0
1.089 00
cc -1.089
-x -1.089 1.089
x x
ee0.645-x
0.645 0 1.089
1.089+x x

324
𝑁𝐻3 + 𝐻2 𝑂 → 𝑁𝐻4 + + 𝑂𝐻 −
(1.089 + 𝑥 )(𝑥 )
1.8 𝑥 10−5 =
(0.645 − 𝑥 )
𝑥 = 1.0661𝑥10−5 𝑀 [𝑂𝐻 −]
𝑝𝐻 = 14 − 𝑝𝑂𝐻
𝑝𝐻 = 14 + log(1.0661𝑥10−5 )
𝒑𝑯 = 𝟗. 𝟎𝟑
18. Calculate the molarity of NaOH solution if 18.25mL was used to titrate 0.4815 gram
of primary standard KHP
a. 0.18 b. 0.13 c. 0.26 d. 0.16
Solutions:
1 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝐾𝐻𝑃 1 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝑁𝑎𝑂𝐻
0.4815 𝑔 𝐾𝐻𝑃 ( )( )
204.05 𝑔 1 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝐾𝐻𝑃
[𝑁𝑎𝑂𝐻 ] =
0.01825 𝐿
[𝑁𝑎𝑂𝐻] = 0.1293 𝑀 = 𝟎. 𝟏𝟑 𝑴
19. What is the pH of a 0.068 M aqueous solution of sodium cyanide? Ka for HCN = 4.9
x 10-10
a. 0.74 b. 2.93 c. 11.07 d.13.26
Solutions:
1 [𝑀]
𝑝𝐻 = 14 + log ( )
2 𝐾𝑎
1 0.068
𝑝𝐻 = 14 + log ( )
2 4.9 𝑥 10−10
𝒑𝑯 = 𝟏𝟏. 𝟎𝟕
20. Histamine, an organic nitrogenous compound which can cause allergic rhinitis, can be
produced in our body through the decarboxylation of the amino acid histidine. Given that
18 mM of the decarboxylase is used and 5 mM of histidine forms. Calculate the Michaelis-
Menten constant if the reaction velocity and the TON are 6 mM/s and 37/s respectively.
a. 0.330 M b. 0.440 M c. 0.550 M d. 0.660 M
Solutions:
𝑉𝑚𝑎𝑥 (𝐶𝑠)
𝑉 =
𝐾𝑚 + 𝐶𝑠

325
37
𝑚𝑀 ( 𝑠 )(5𝑚𝑀)(18𝑚𝑀)
6 =
𝑠 𝐾𝑚 + 18𝑚𝑀
𝐾𝑚 = 550 𝑚𝑀
𝑲𝒎 = 𝟎. 𝟓𝟓𝟎 𝑴
21. What weight of impure ferrous ammonium sulfate should be taken for analysis so that
the number of centigrams of BaS04 obtained will represent five times the percentage of S
in the sample?
a. 0.59 g b. 0.69 g c.0.79 g d.0.89 g
22. An oxide of the element M has the formula M207 and it is known from experiments
that 1.000 gram of M combines with an excess of oxygen to form 2.019 grams of oxide.
The element M is
a. aluminum b. chlorine c. manganese d. iron
Solutions:
1 𝑔 𝑀 + 𝑂2 = 2.019 𝑔 𝑀2 𝑂7
7
2𝑀+ 𝑂 → 𝑀2 𝑂7
2 2
1 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝑀 1 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝑀2 𝑂7 2𝑥 + 7(16)
1𝑔𝑀( )( )( = 2.019 𝑔 𝑀2 𝑂7
𝑥𝑔𝑀 2 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝑀 1 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝑀2 𝑂7
𝑔
𝑥 = 54.9558
𝑚𝑜𝑙
𝑻𝒉𝒆𝒓𝒆𝒇𝒐𝒓𝒆 , 𝑴 𝒊𝒔 𝑴𝒂𝒏𝒈𝒂𝒏𝒆𝒔𝒆
23. All of the following are correctly stated underlying principles used to build up the
configuration of a many electron atom, EXCEPT
a. Pauli principle: no two electrons can have an identical set of quantum numbers.
b. Aufbau principle: atomic orbitals are filled with electrons from lowest energy to higher
energies.
c. Hund’s rule: electrons in degenerate orbitals are arranged to minimize the number of
unpaired spins.
d. All of the above statements are correct.
24. In the most stable conformation of trans-1,4-dimethylcyclohexane, what positions do
the methyl groups occupy?
a. Axial, axial b. Equitorial, axial c. Equitorial, equitorial d. Axial,
equitorial
326
25. The pKa for formic acid is 3.74. What is the pH of the solution resulting from addition
of 0.50 moles of formic acid (HCOOH) and 0.30 mole sodium formate (HCOO-) to enough
water to create a final volume of 1.0 L?
a. 2.18 b. 2.78 c. 3.52 d. 4.28
Solutions:
0.3
𝑝𝐻 = 14 + log ( )
0.5
𝒑𝑯 = 𝟑. 𝟓𝟐
26. Formic acid is a monobasic acid that is 4.6% ionized in 0.10M aq. solution at 25°C. If
a 25 mL pipetful of a 0.25N aq. solution of formic acid is diluted to 200 mL and titrated
with 0.33N NaOH, what indicator would be suitable in this titration?
a. Methyl orange c. Bromothymol blue
b. Cresol red d. Phenolphthalein
27. A certain solution may contain any of the following solutes: NaH2P04, HCI, H3P04,
Na2HP04. A 25 mL portion is titrated with 0.2N NaOH and with an indicator changing
color at approximately pH 9, the end point is at 48.0 mL of NaOH. A second 25 mL sample
is titrated with 0.2N NaOH, and with an indicator changing color at approximately pH 4,
the end point is at 32.5 mL of the NaOH. What active solutes are present in significant
amounts in the original solution?
a. NaH2P04, HCl b. HCl, H3P04 c. H3P04, Na2HP04 d. NaH2P04,
Na2HP04
28. What should be the “iron value" of a solution of KMn04 so that when a sample of
impure Na3As03 weighing 0.5 g is titrated to arsenate with the permanganate, the
percentage of As203 in the sample will be twice the buret reading?
a. 0.0113 g b. 0.0224 g c. 0.0335 g d. 0.0446 g
29. Bromide can be determined by precipitating as AgBr, heating in a current of Cl2 and
weighing the resulting AgCl. What would be the gravimetric factor for finding the
percentage bromine?
a. Less than 1 b. 1 c. More than 1 d. Insufficient Information
30. Trouton's rule slates that many substances have entropies of vaporization close to 88
J/mol-K. Which of the following is the best rationale for Trouton’s rule?
c. The change in disorder in going from one mole of liquid to one mole of gas is similar
for many substances.

327
Removal Examination – Part II
Chemical Engineering
1. Critically damped system means that damping coefficient is
a. 1
b. <1
c. >1
d. 0

2. A mercury manometer at 800F reads 30.85 in. The local acceleration of gravity is
3200ft/s2. To what pressure in atmosphere does this height of mercury correspond?
a. 1.02
b. 1.08
c. 0.96
d. 1.12

3. Determine the volume Change in m3 when 1 kg of saturated water is completely


vaporized at a pressure of 1 kPa.
a. 115.1
b. 120.8
c. 129.2
d. 134.0

4. Pick out the material having maximum Rittinger's number. (hint:make use of Che
handbook by Perry)
a. calcite
b. quartz
c. pyrite
d. galena

5. Sphericity for cubical particle when its equivalent diameter is taken as the height
of the tube is
a. 0.5
b. √2
c. 1
d. √3

6. Friction bsses through valves and fittings are expressed in

a. Velocity heads b. roughness factor c. pressure drop d. Total Head

328
With the following characteristics: length L = 30.48 m; inside diameter d = 0.0526
m; pipe roughness e = 0.000045 m; frictional pressure drop delta P = 15720 N/m 2;
liquid dynamic viscosity p = 0.01 Pa-s; liquid density p = 1200 kg/m3. Calculate:
7.the Reynolds' number.

a. 7138
b. 15000
c. 8273
d. 9569
8. The faning friction factor f.

a. 0.00884
b. 0.00727
c. 0.00990
d. 0.00698s
9. 1000 cfm of air at 95degF dry bulb and 70degF wet bulb is mixed with 2000 cfm
of air at 65degF dry bulb and 50degF wet bulb. What is the dry bulb temperature of
the mixed stream?
a. 80degF b. 78egF c. 75degF d.
63degF

10. A first order reaction with respect to A takes place in a PFR. If equal moles of
B and C are mixed with A and allowed to react for 1.5hr after which time half of A
had been consumed. How much of A is left unreacted after 3 hrs. ?
a.18% b.13% c. 35% d.
25%

11. 1 lbm of nitrogen is compressed at a constant temperature of 700Ffrom 10 ft3 to 5


ft3. If the process is non-flow and if no work is done on the gas except by a moving
piston, how much heat is added to or removed from the gas during the process?

a. +30.27 BTU c. +28.54 BTU


b. - 30.27 BTU d. -26.07 BTU

12. Solubility of a substance which dissolves with an increase in


volume and liberation of heat will be favoured by
a. low pressure and high temperature. b. low pressure and low
temperature.
c. high pressure and low temperature. d. high pressure and high
temperature.

For 13-14.The analysis of a flue gas from a fuel gas containing no nitrogen is 4.62%
C02, 3.08%CO, 8.91%02, am} 83.39% N2.

329
13. moles of water (H20) formed
a. 7.04 moles b. 14.08 moles c. 15.07 moles d. 22.11
moles

14. moles of air supplied per 100 moles of dry flue gas

a. 1.055 b. 1.087 c. 1.124 d. 1.148

15. With the same reaction time , initial concentration and feed rate , the reaction 2A -5
B is carried out separately in CSTR an P.F. reactor of equal volumes. The conversion will
be
a. Higher P.F > reactor
b. Same in both the reactors
c. Higher in CSTR
d. data insufficient, can’t be predicted

16. A first order reaction requires two unequal sized CSTR. Which of the following
gives a higher yield?
a. Large reactor followed by smaller one
b. Smaller reactor followed by larger one
c. either of the arrangement (a) or (b) will give the same yield
d. data insufficient, can’t be predicted

17. A control structure with two feedback controllers with the output of the primary
controller changing the set point of the secondary controller whose output goes to the
final controller.
a. Feedback control
b. Ratio control
c. Cascade control
d. Override control
18. The degrees of freedom associated with ternary distillation process according to the
Gibb's phase rule is
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5

19. If % moisture content of a solid on dry basis is X, then % moisture content on


wet basis is

330
a. 100X/(X+100)
b. X/(1+X)
c. (100+X)/X
d. 100(1-X)/X
20. The major problem in leaching is to promote diffusion of the solute out of the
solid and the liquid, The most effective way of doing this is.
a. to reduce the solid to the smallest size feasible
b. to use crossflow evaporation
c. to use counter current operation
d. to use parallel operation

21. Desirable value of absorption factor in an absorber is.


a. 1
b. <1
c. >1
d. 0.5

22. Which has the lowest water content?


a. dew point at 20degC b. 70%RH c. absolute humidity of 0.05
d.60%saturation

23. Which of the following uses air as a typical working fluid?


a. Carnoot Cycle b. Rankine cycle c. Reheat cycle d. Brayton
cycle
24. A cylinder is fitted with a weightless, frictionless piston contains m pounds of air at
TI , VI and ambient pressure Pa. Heat is ten added until the air in the cylinder s at T2, V2
and Pa. What is the expression for the heat transferred during the process?
a. mCv(T2-T1)
b. mCv(T2-T1)-Pa(V2-V1)
c. mCv(T2-T1)+Pa(V2-V1)
d. mCp(T2-T1)+Pa(V2-V1)
25. A tank holds nitrogen gas at 82 degree Celsius and 940 mmHg. After releasing 2
grams of the remaining inside the talk then exerts a pressure of 480 mmHg at 30
degree Celsius. How much nitrogen gas was originally in the tank?
a. 3.0 g b. 5.0 g c. 139.4g d. 154.39

26. A camot engine, operating between 70F and 2000F is modified by raising
the high temperature to 2150F and low temperature by 100F. Which of the following
statements is incorrect?
a. More heat is absorbed during vaporization
b. More work is done during the reversible adiabatic expansion

331
c. Net work is increased
d. Thermodynamics efficiency is increased

27. Gaseous propane at 770F is mixed with air at 260F and burned. If 300% theoretical
air is used, what is the adiabatic flame temperature?
a. 1766degF b. 166degF c. 766degF d.
1616degF

28. Water flowing at 1.2gal/min at 50F is to be heated to 1500F with saturated stream at
14.7 psia. Calculate the steam flow rate required in lb/min to heat the water in a "parallel
type" heat exchanger.

a. 3.01 lb/min b. 4.03 lb/min c. 1.03 lb/min d.


4.01lb/sec

29. Steam is delivered by a boiler at 550 psia and 7000F. After expansion to 110 psia the
steam is reheated to 700F. Expansion occurs to 1.5 inHg(abs). For ideal reheat cycle,
calculate on the basis of 1 1b of steam the thermodynamic efficiency.

a. 27.6% b. 37.6% c. 17.4% d. 0.37%

30. A helical coil made of 3" OD x 16 gauge type 316 stainless steel tubing has a total of
15 turns on a 72" pitch diameter. If the water at 80 0F flows through the coil at 150 gpm,
calculate the pressure drop of the coil in psi.
a. 11.7 psi b. 21.1 psi c. 14.7 psi d. 31.1 psi

31. A large centrifugal pump has a 10" diameter inlet and 5" diameter outlet. The
measured flow rate is 818 gpm. The measured inlet pressure is 5"Hg above atmospheric
and the discharge pressure measured at 4 ft above the pump outlet is 30.7 psia. Pump input
is 10 hp. Find the pump efficiency.

32. The parallel wooden outer and inner walls of a building are 15 ft long, 10 ft high and
4 inches apart, The outer surface of the inner wall is 700F and the inner surface of the outer
wall is 0F. Calculate the heat loss in BTU/hr neglecting any leakage of air through the
walls.

33. Suppose the air space is divided in half by a 0.01 inch aluminium foil. How much
would this affect the heat transfer through the air space?

34, A large sheet of glass 2 inches thick and initially 300F throughout is plunged into a
stream of water having a temperature Of 60F How long will it take to cool the glass to a

332
temperature of 100F in the centre of the slab? For glass, k = 0.4 BTU/ht-ft-F, density =
1lb/ft3 and cp=0.2 BTU/lbdegF.
35. If a counter current concentric pipe heat exchanger is heating air from 80 to 100F
using condensing steam at 220F, estimate how many times as much as air could be
heated within the same range by steam condensing at 250F.
ANSWER KEY

Removal Examination-Part II
1. A. 1
2. A. 1.02
3. C. 129.2
4. D. Galena
5. C. 1
6. A. Velocity Heads
7. A. 7138
8. A. 0.00884
9. C. 75 degF
10. D. 25%
11. D. -26.07 BTU
12. B. Low pressure and low temperature
13. B. 14.08 moles
14. A. 1.055
15. C. Higher in CSTR
16. C. Either of the arrangement (a) or (b) will give the same yield
17. C. Cascade Control
18. B. 3
19. A.100X/(X+100)
20. A. to reduce the solid to the smallest size feasible
21. A.1
22. A. dew point at 20degC
23. D. Brayton cycle
24. C. mCv(T2-T1)+Pa(V2-V1)
25. B. 5.0 g
26. D. Thermodynamic Efficiency
27. A. 1766degF
28. C. 1.03 lb/min
29. B. 37.6%
30. A. 11.7 psi
31. B. 78%
32. 418 BTU/hr
33. qAl=0.165 q
34. 0.45 hrs.
35. 5.7 times

333
SOLUTIONS

2. P=𝜌𝑔ℎ

𝜌=13600 kg/m3

g= 9.7537 m/s2

9.7537 𝑚
P= 13600 kg/m3 x x 0.78359 𝑚=1039439642 Pa
𝑠2

P= 1.0258 atm

3. ∆𝑉=Vg-Vs

= 129.1833-0.001= 129.2 m3/kg

6 𝑉𝑝 6 √23
5. ∅𝑐𝑢𝑏𝑒 = ( ) ( ) =( ) ( 2 )=1
𝐷𝑝 𝑆𝑝 √2 6√2

𝐷𝑣𝜌
7. 𝑁𝑟𝑒 = 𝜇

1.13𝑚
(0.0526𝑚)( )(1200𝑘𝑔/𝑚3)
𝑠
𝑁𝑟𝑒 = 0.01

𝑁𝑟𝑒 = 7132.56

𝐷∆𝑃
8. 𝑓 = 2𝜌𝑉 2 𝐿

15720𝑁
(0.0526𝑚)(
𝑓= 𝑚2 )
1200𝑘𝑔
2( ) (1.13)2 (30.48𝑚)
𝑚3

𝑓 = 0.008852

10. 𝐶 = 𝐶𝑜𝑒 −𝑘𝑡

0.5 = 1𝑒 −𝑘(1.5)

334
𝑘 = 0.46209

𝐶 = 1𝑒 −0.46209(3)

C=25%

11. Convert all to SI units

1lbm = 0.45392 kg = 453.92 g

(453.592)(1 mol/28.02 grams N2) = 16.19 mol N2

10 ft3 = 0.283 m3 5ft3 = 0.142 m3

For isothermal Process

Q = nRT(ln V2/V1)

Q = (16.19)(8.3145)(ln 0.142/0.283)

Q = -27307.9953 Joules = -25.882 BTU

13. O2 unaccounted for = O2 in air – ( CO2 – CO/2 –O2)

O2 in air = 83.39 (21/79) = 22.17 moles O2 in air

O2 unaccounted for = 22.17 moles O2 in air – 4.62 moles CO2 – 3.08/2 moles CO – 8.91
moles O2)

O2 unaccounted for = 7.1 moles

Net H2 = 7.1 moles x 2 = 14.20 moles

14. moles of air supplied per 100 moles of dry flue gas = (O2 in air + N2 in air)/100 moles
dry FG

moles of air supplied per 100 moles of dry FG = (22. 17 mol O2 in air + 83.39 mol N2 in
air)/100

335
moles of air supplied per 100 moles of dry FG = 1.0556

25. PV=nRT

𝑃 𝑃
= 𝑛𝑇
𝑛𝑇

940 480
(82+273.15)(𝑛)
= 0.07142(30+273.15)

28 𝑔𝑟𝑎𝑚𝑠
n= 0.1194 moles x =5.34 grams
1 𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑒

27. C3H8 + a (TA)O2 + a(TA)(3.76)N2 bCO2 + dH2O + a(TA-1)O2 +


a(3.76)(TA)N2

C: 3=b

H: 8=2d=4

O: 2a=2b+d, a=5

C3H8 + 15O2 + 56.4N2 3CO2 + 4H2O +10O2+56.4N2

HR + Q = Hp; Q=0

HR = Hp

to calculate adiabatic flame temperature:

{ℎ𝑓,𝐶3𝐻8−3ℎ𝑓,𝐶𝑂2−4𝐻2𝑂}
Tp=298+
3𝐶𝑝,𝐶𝑂2+4𝐶𝑝,𝐻2𝑂+10𝐶𝑝,𝑂2+56.4𝐶𝑝,𝑁2

393522𝐽
{291235𝐽/𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑒−3(− )−4(−241827𝐽/𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑒}
𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑒
Tp=298+
3(45)+4(35)+10(35)+56.4(35)

Tp=1236.48013K=1765.9942℉

28. Q = Q

𝑚𝑐𝑝∆𝑇 = 𝑚𝜆𝑣

336
(4.54 kg/min)(4.184 J/kg.K)(55.56K) = m (2256.61356 J/kgK)

m= 0.467684 kg/min

m= 1.0311 lb/min

mass= 3.34 + 2 =5.34 grams

31. P1= ((5+30)/30)(14.696)(144) = 2469psf

P2= 30.7(144) = 4421psf

Q= 1.823 ft3/s

W= qP= (1.823)(62.43)=113.787 lb/s

D1= 10/12 =0.833 ft

A1= π/4(0.0833)^2 = 0.545ft^2

V1= q/A1=(1.823/0.545)=3.342ft/s

D2= 5/12 = 0.417 ft

A2= π/4(0.417)^2=0.136ft^2

V2 =q/A2=(1.823/0.136)=13.367 ft/s

Ha= (P2-P1/𝜌)+(Z2-Z1)g/gc+((V2^2-V1^2)/2gc)

Ha= 37.87 ft.lbf

WHPa= Haw/550 = ((37.87)(113.87)/550)=7.834 Hp

BHPa=10Hp

PUMP efficiency = WHPa/ BHPa= (7.834/10)=78.3%

∆𝑇
32. Q=kA 1
∆𝑋

337
(70−0)
Q=(0.12)(10*50) 12
4

Q= 420 BTU/hr

ℎ𝐴
𝑇−𝑇∞ −( )𝑡
34. = 𝑒 𝑐𝑝𝜌𝑉
𝑇𝑜−𝑇∞

Assumptions:

*thermal conductivity is equal to heat transfer coefficient

*Volume is equal to 1

𝑇 − 𝑇∞ ℎ𝐴
−( )𝑡
= 𝑒 𝑐𝑝𝜌𝑉
𝑇𝑜 − 𝑇∞

300℉ − 60℉ 0.4 𝑥 2


= 𝑒 (0.2 𝑥 1)𝑡
100℉ − 60℉

t=0.447939 hrs

35. m (air) = m1 x 0.24 x (100-80) = 10 x (2.1888) x (121.111-100)

= m2 x 0.24 x (100-80) = 10 x (2.1888) x (104.44-100)

𝑚1 24.111
= =5.42 times
𝑚2 4.444

338
Removal Examination – Part III
General Engineering
1. A wooden rectangular parallelepiped 4m x 3m x 2m in dimension weighs 5 kg.
Find the volume of the rectangular parallelepiped in m3.
A. 22m3 B. 23m3 C. 24m3 D. 25m3

2. Find the distance from the point (2,3) to the line 3x + 4y + 9 = 0.


A. 5 B. 5.4 C. 5.8 D. 6.2

3. The hypotenuse of a right triangle is 34 cm. Find the length of the shortest leg if it
is 14 cm shorter than the other leg.
A. 15 cm B. 16 cm C. 17 cm D. 18 cm
5
4. If sec2x = 2, what is the numerical value of 1 – sin2x?
A. 2.5 B. 0.6 C. 1.5 D. 0.4

5. A 100 kg salt solution originally 4% by weight. Salt in water is boiled to reduce


water content until the concentration is 5% by weight salt. How much water is
evaporated?
A. 10 kg B. 15 kg C. 20 kg D. 25 kg

6. If a regular polygon has 65 diagonals, then it has how many sides?


A. 11 B. 12 C. 13 D. 14

7. If y varies directly as x and is 10 when x = 5, find the value of y if x = 7.


A. 14 B. 12 C. 15 D. 17

8. The sum of the two interior angles of the triangle is equal to the third angle and
2
the difference of the two angles is equal to 3 of the third angle. Find the third
angle.
A. 15o B. 75o C. 90o D. 120o

9. What is the length of the latus rectum of the curve x 2 = -12y?


A. 12 B. -3 C. -12 D. 3
𝑥 𝑦
10. Which of the following is perpendicular to the line 3 + 4 = 1?
A. x - 4y – 8 = 0 B. 4x – 3y – 6 = 0 C. 3x – 4y – 5 = 0 D.4x+3y-11=0
𝑥2 𝑦2
11. Given an ellipse 36 + 32 = 1. Determine the distance between the foci.
A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 8
12. Find the equation of the axix of symmetry of the function y = 2x 2 – 7x + 5.
A. 4x + 7 = 0 B. x – 2 = 0 C. 4x – 7 = 0 D. 7x + 4 = 0
13. Find the equation of the line tangent to the curve x2 + y2 = 41 through (5,4).

339
A. 5x + 4y = 41 B. 4x – 5y = 41 C. 4x + 5y = 41 D. 5x – 4y=41

14. In how many relative orders can we seat 7 people at a round table with a certain 3
people side by side.
A. 144 B. 5040 C. 720 D. 1008

15. Find the sum of the first 10 terms of the geometric progression 2, 4, 8, 16,…
A. 1023 B. 2046 C. 1596 D. 225

16. If AB = 15m, BC = 18m and AB = 24m find the point of intersection of the
angular bisector from the vertex C.
A. 11.3 B. 12.1 C. 13.4 D. 14.3

17. Simplify: cos4x – sin4x.


A. 2 B. 1 C. 2sin2x + 1 D. 2cos2x – 1

18. A 200 gm apple is thrown from the edge of a tall building with an initial speed of
20m/s. What is the change in kinetic energy of the apple if it strikes the ground at
50m/s?
A. 130 Joules B. 210 Joules C. 100 Joules D. 81 Joules

19. Find the length of the vector (2, 4, 4).


A. 7.00 B. 8.75 C. 6.00 D. 5.18

20. The horsepower required to raise a 150 kg drum to a height of 20 m over a period
of one minute is:
A. 0.41 hp B. 0.81 hp C. 0.66 hp D. 1.12hp

21. An object falls from a height of 97.5 m and strikes the ground with a speed of
21.90 m/s. How much higher should the object be in order to strike the ground
with a speed of 27.60 m/s?
A. 57.36 m higher B. 53.36 m lower C. 75.36 m lower
D.36.75m higher

22. In what distance can a 3000 lb automobile be stopped from a speed of 30mi/h
(44ft/s) if the coefficient of friction between tire and roadway is 0.70?
A. 24.15 ft B. 59.25 ft C. 22.59 ft D. 42.95 ft

𝑑𝑦
23. Solve: y = 3x2
𝑑𝑥
A. y2 = x3 + c B. y2 = 2x3 + c C. y3 = 2x2 + c D. y2 = 2x2+c
24. Solve the exact equation: 2xy3dx + (1+3x2y2)dy = 0
A. x2y3 + x = c B. x2y3 + y = cx C. x2y3 + y = c D. x3y2 + x=cy

25. If a company spends P12,000 now and P5,000 per year for 10 years, with first
P5,000 expenditure made 4 years from now, the rate of return would it make if its
income were P4,000 per year starting in year 8 and continuing through year 25 is

340
A. 5.1% B. 1.5% C. 4.2% D. 1.2%

26. The present worth of a series that decreases uniformly, y P200 per year, from
P4,000 in year 11 to P2,200 in year 20, if interest equals 105 is
A. P7,709.1 B. P9,707.2 C. P10,709.1 D. 6,910

27. Material A is a water and Material B is a glass with an index of refraction of 1.52.
If the incident ray makes an angle of 60o with the normal, find the direction of the
reflected ray.
A. 34.7o B. 49.3o C. 60.0o D. 91.3o

28. Determine the elongation in a helical steel spring composed of 20 turns of 20 mm


diameter wire on a mean radius of 90 mm when the spring is supporting a load of
2.5kN. Use G = 83 GPa.
A. 160 mm B. 165 mm C. 170 mm D. 175 mm
29. A telecommunication company purchased an equipment for P53 000 and paid P1
500 for freight and delivery charges to the job site. The equipment has a normal
life of 10 years with a trade-in value of P5 000 against the purchase of a new
equipment at the end of the life. Determine the annual depreciation cost. Interest
at 6.5% compounded annually.
A. P2 543 B. P3 668 C. P4 215 D. P5 956

30. “The condition of equilibrium or motion of a rigid body remains unchanged if a


force of acting at a given point of the rigid body is replaced by a force of same
magnitude and direction, but acting at a different point provided that the two
forces have the same line of action.” This statement is known as
A.Principle of Transmissibility B. Parallelogram Law
C. Pappus Propositions D. Varignon’s Theorem

341
ANSWER KEY

Removal Examination-Part III


3
1.) C. 24 m
2.) B. 5.4
3.) B. 16 cm
4.) D. 0.4
5.) C. 20 kg
6.) C. 13
7.) A. 14
8.) C. 90o
9.) A. 12
10.) C. 3x – 4y – 5 = 0
11.) A. 2
12.) C. 4x – 7 = 0
13.) A. 5x + 4y = 41
14.) A. 144
15.) B. 2046
16.) D. 14.3
17.) D. 2cos2x - 1
18.) B. 210 Joules
19.) C. 6.00
20.) C. 0.66 hp
21.) A. 57.36 m higher
22.) D. 42.95 ft
23.) B. 0.20
24.) C. x2y3 + y = c
25.) B. 1.5%
26.) A. P7,709.1
27.) C. 60.0o
28.) D. 175 mm
29.) B. P3 668
30.) A. Principle of Transmissibility

342
SOLUTIONS

1. LxWxH
4m x 3m x 2m = 24m3
Ans. 24m3

2.
𝐴 (𝑥 ) + 𝐵 ( 𝑦 ) + 𝐶
√𝐴2 + 𝐵2

3(2) + 4(3) + 9
√9 + 16
Ans. 5.4

3. x2 + (x +14)2 = 342
x2 + x2 + 28x +196 = 1156
2x2 + 28x - 960 = 0
x = 16 cm
Ans. 16 cm

5
4. sec2x = 2
1 5
sec2x = cos ^2(𝑥) = 2
x = 21.1051
1 – sin2(21.1051) = 0.4
Ans. 0.4
5. OMB: 100 = W + P
Solute Balance: 100(0.04) = 0.05P
P = 80 kg
100 – 80 = W
W = 20 kg
Ans. 20 kg
𝒏
6. (𝒏 − 𝟑) = 𝟔𝟓
𝟐

n = 13
Ans. 13
7. y = kx when x = 7
10 = k(5) y = 2(7) = 14

343
k=2
Ans. 14

8. A + B + C = 180
A+B=C
A – B = 2/3C
2C = 180 C = 90
Ans. 90oC

9. LR = 4a
4a = 12
Ans. 12

10. 3y = 12 – 4x
4
y=- 𝑥+4
3
4
m1 = - 3
3 1
so m2 should be equal to 4 (m1 = -𝑚2)

Ans. 3x – 4y – 5 = 0
11. a 2 = b2 + c 2
36 = 32 + c2
4 = c2
c=2
Ans. 2

12. y = 2x2 – 7x + 5
axis of symmetry (y’) : 4x – 7 = 0
Ans. 4x – 7 = 0
13. C (0,0) pt (5,4)
4 5
m1 = 5 m2 = - 4
5
y – 4 = - (x – 5)
4

4y – 16 = -5x + 25

Ans. 5x + 4y = 4
14. (5 – 1!) 3! = 144
Ans. 144

344
𝑎1 (𝑟 𝑛− 1) 2 (210− 1)
15. S= = = 2046
𝑟−1 2−1

Ans. 2046
16. AB = 15 cm
BC = 18 cm
AC = 24 cm
Ans. 14.3 cm

17. cos4x – sin4x = (cos2x + sin2x)(cos2x – sin2x)


= 1 (cos2x - sin2x)
= 1 (cos2x – (1 - cos2x))
= 2cos2x – 1
Ans. 2cos2x – 1
18. m = 200 g V1 = 20 m/s V2 = 50 m/s
1 1 1
KE = 2 𝑚(𝑣22 - 𝑣12 ) = 2 200(1000)((50 - 202 ) = 210 Joules
2

Ans. 210 J

19. √22 + 42 + 42 = 6
Ans. 6
20. m = 150 kg h = 20 m t = 1 min
150𝑘𝑔 (9.81𝑚/𝑠2) 20𝑚
PE = mgh = 60𝑠𝑒𝑐
= 290.5 W = 0.66 hp

Ans. 0.66 hp
21. V2 = Vo2 + 2gS
21.92 = 2g(97.5)
g = 2.4595
27.62 = 2(2.4595)(S)
S = 154.8583
ΔS = 154.8583 – 97.5
ΔS = 57.36 m
Ans. 57.36 m

22. distance = ?
m = 3000 lb
v = 30 mi/h
coefficient of friction = 0.70
Ans. 42.95 ft

345
23. angle = 250
T = 100N
Coefficient of 0.20
Ans. 0.20

23. y∫ 𝑦𝑑𝑦 = ∫ 3𝑥 2 𝑑𝑥
𝑦2
= x3 + C
2
y2 = 2x3 + C
Ans. y2 = 2x3 + C

24. 2xy3dx + (1+3x2y2)dy = 0


Ans. x2y3 + y =C

1−(1+𝑖)−10 1−(1+𝑖)−18
25. 12000 + 5000[ ](1 + 𝑖)−4 = 4000[ ](1 + 𝑖)−8
𝑖 𝑖

i = 1.54%

Ans. 1.5%
26. Uniform decrease of P200 per year
Initial Amount = P4,000 Final Amount = P2,200
t = 11 years t = 20 years

Ans. P7,709.1
27. Index of refraction = 1.52
Angle = 60o

Ans. 60.0o

28. turns = 20
diameter = 20 mm
mean radius = 90 mm
load = 2.5kN
G = 83 GPa
Ans. 175 mm

29. Co = P53,000 + P1,500 = P54,500


CL = P5,000
d = (P54,500 – P5,000)/F/A, 6.5%,10 = P3,668

Ans. P3,668

346

Похожие интересы