Industrial Automation Training PDF

EXAMINATION
1
02R400-Test 01_Experion System Overview
1 Points: 1.00
Which of the following is not a function of the Experion PKS Server?
A. Provide a global database for process data
B. Provide regulatory control
C. Provide a repository for configuration data
D. Provide supervisory control
2 Points: 1.00
Configuration done in EMDB is downloaded to
A. Real Time Database
B. Engineering Repository Database
C. Quick Builder Database
3 Points: 1.00
What is the maximum number of data paths provided by a Honeywell Fault Tolerant Ethernet?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
EPKS 02 / 17 R400 Page: 1 of 4 03 April 2012

EXAMINATION
4 Points: 1.00
In Experion, the various data sources to the Server real-time database include all but which of the
following:
A. OPC Servers
B. CEE Controllers (C300, C200/C200E, and ACE)
C. SCADA controllers
D. TPS Interface
E. Fieldbus devices
F. Knowledge Builder
5 Points: 1.00
The C200/C200E connects to the Experion using..
A. Fault Tolerant Ethernet
B. ControlNet
C. ControlNet or Fault Tolerant Ethernet
D. Terminal Server

EXAMINATION
1
Use this scenario to answer the following three questions.
An Experion PKS System is needed for the following requirements:
1. Redundant Servers
2. Regulatory and Sequence Control.
3. Integration to a 3rd-party control system using OPC.
4. Integration to Fieldbus devices.
5. Advanced control needs to be performed.
6. There are 3 operators and 3 casual users of process
information.
7. No loss of view is permitted for the Operators to the C200/C200E Controllers
8. A high system availability is needed for the 3 operators.
9. 50 PLCs controlling a section of the plant also need to
be integrated.
6 Points: 1.00
How many Console stations are needed for this requirement?
A. 3
B. 6
C. 9
7 Points: 1.00
Which stations must be connected to the Fault Tolerant Ethernet?
A. Flex Stations for the casual users
B. Console Stations
C. Both Flex and Console Stations
8 Points: 1.00
Which system component would you use for Advanced control?
A. Station
B. C200
C. ACE
D. Server
-----End of Scenario-----

EXAMINATION
9 Points: 1.00
Which statement is not true about Distributed Systems Architecture (DSA)?
A. Up to 31 EPKS servers can be integrated at a time
B. Alarms and events from all servers will be presented to the operator on a single
screen
C. Can work with redundant servers, redundant networks, and FTE
D. You need to rebuild tags of each database in other databases
10 Points: 1.00
Which of the following databases contain control strategies f C200/C200E and C300 controllers
A. Real Time Database
B. Enterprise Model Builder Database
C. Engineering Repository Database
D. Quick Builder Database
11 Points: 1.00
Which device cannot be an FTE node?
A. Experion Server
B. Experion Station
C. Modicon PLC
D. Application Control Environment (ACE)

EXAMINATION
1
02R400-Test 02_Configuration Tools
1 Points: 1.00
Which application is used to launch all configuration tools in Experion PKS?
A. Station
B. Control Builder
C. Configuration Studio
D. Enterprise Model Builder
2 Points: 1.00
Which tool is used build SCADA points?
A. Control Builder
B. Quick Builder
C. Station
3 Points: 1.00
What are the capabilities of Diagnostic Tools?
A. System Health Monitoring
B. Host file verification
C. FTE configuration validation
D. Password setup
E. All of the above
4 Points: 1.00
Which tool is used to define equipment included in an Experion System Status display and to
define node configuration?
A. Control Builder
B. System Management Display
C. System Definition and Configuration Tool
D. Station

EXAMINATION
02R400-Test 02_Configuration Tools

EXAMINATION
1
02R400-Test 03_Introduction to Enterprise Model
1 Points: 1.00
SCADA tags are configured from which item in Configuration Studio?
A. Stations and Consoles
B. System Interfaces
C. Control Strategy
D. Schedules
2 Points: 1.00
Enterprise Model consists of:
A. an online database that is loaded continuously during configuration.
B. an offline database that gets downloaded to included servers
C. an offline database existing on multiple servers
3 Points: 1.00
Which of the following items need to configured at the System level?
A. SCADA points
B. Assets
C. C300 points
D. Alarm Groups
E. HMIWeb Displays
F. B and D
4 Points: 1.00
Which one of these items is added into Configuration Studio System hierarchy?
A. Experion PKS Console Stations
B. 3rd Party OPC servers
C. Honeywell C200/C200E Controllers
D. Experion PKS Servers and Equipment included in the Experion system

EXAMINATION
02R400-Test 03_Introduction to Enterprise Model
5 Points: 1.00
What is the status of a controller which is indicated with the icon ?
A. Connecting
B. Healthy
C. Disabled
D. Failed
E. Marginal

EXAMINATION
1
02R400-Test 04_Configuring Asset Model
1 Points: 1.00
Which is the best answer: An Asset is an Experion database entity that represents
A. A field instrument.
B. A plant operator.
C. A piece of system hardware.
D. A physical item or area in an enterprise.
2 Points: 1.00
Assets can be used to set up Scope of Responsibility (SOR) to restrict access to all but which of
the following?
A. Points
B. Operating Groups
C. Reports
D. Custom Displays
3 Points: 1.00
Which of the following is not true? An asset configured as not directly assignable
A. Will appear half intensity in Station asset assignment screens.
B. Will not have an assignment pull down box next to it in station assignment
screens.
C. Cannot have points assigned to it.
D. Will have the same Scope of responsibility assignment as its parent asset.
4 Points: 1.00
A point has been assigned to an asset that has been configured as not directly assignable. To
add this point to an operator's Scope of Responsibility you would:
A. Add the asset's parent asset to the operator's SOR
B. Enable the Unassigned Asset for the operator's SOR
C. Build a related point assigned to a directly assignable asset and add that point
to the operator's SOR.
D. None of the above

EXAMINATION
02R400-Test 04_Configuring Asset Model
5 Points: 1.00
Select the best answer. Points assigned to assets can be referenced by:
A. Tagname and Item Name including the full asset path.
B. Tagname and Item Name without the full asset path.
C. Nickname.
D. Paul, John, George, and Ringo.
6 Points: 1.00
A yellow delta sign next to an asset in Enterprise Model Builder indicates
A. The asset has been deleted from the database
B. The asset configuration has been modified after being downloaded into the
database
C. The asset has not been downloaded in to the database
D. The security level of the Asset is not correct for download
7 Points: 1.00
What type of assets can not be configured for the Directly Assignable property?
A. Child Assets
B. Parent Alarm Group
C. Top level parent assets

EXAMINATION
1
02R400-Test 05_Alarm Groups
1 Points: 1.00
An Alarm group is used to
A. Group assets together
B. Group entities(points, assets or other Alarm groups) for alarm state aggregation
C. Group Servers together
D. Group Stations together
2 Points: 1.00
Alarms Groups are configured using
A. Station
B. Control Builder
C. Quick Builder

EXAMINATION
02R400-Test 05_Alarm Groups

EXAMINATION
1
02R400-Test 06_Flex Stations and Report Printers
1 Points: 1.00
The key parameter in configuring a printer in Configuration Studio is:
A. The printer make and model number
B. the printer share name
C. The printer Font size and color
2 Points: 1.00
Downloading an item from Quick Builder to the server database always:
A. Creates an Error dialog box
B. Creates an Export dialog box
C. Creates a Dialogs of Plato box
D. Creates a Results dialog box
3 Points: 1.00
Which access level is not available with Station -based security?
A. Supv
B. Engr
C. Mngr
D. Ack Only
E. Oper
4 Points: 1.00
The Station Status can be accessed using
A. Quickbuilder
B. Station
C. Windows Explorer

EXAMINATION
02R400-Test 06_Flex Stations and Report Printers
5 Points: 1.00
Which of these is a valid printer share name for Experion configuration
A. AlarmPrinter
B. Alarm Printer
C. Alarm Printer 1
6 Points: 1.00
There are many operators in a plant.Each operator belongs to one of three teams. All team
members need identical access level, control level, and scope of responsibility setups. The
Experion implementers have decided to use operator-based security to allow monitoring of
individual operator activity. What is the best configuration option?
A. Create Integrated accounts for each operator
B. Create three Experion Windows Group accounts
C. Create Traditional accounts for each operator in Experion
7 Points: 1.00
What is the function of Rotary Stations?
A. Uninterrupted continuous interface to the process.
B. Direct connection to C200/C200E controllers.
C. Occasional interface to the process.
D. Direct connection to SCADA controllers.

EXAMINATION
1
02R400-Test 07_Station Configuration
1 Points: 1.00
The Auxiliary Setup File entry in the Connection Properties configuration applies only to:
A. Flex Stations in a Redundant server setup
B. Console Stations in a redundant server setup
C. Flex Stations in a non-redundant server setup
D. Console Extension Stations connecting to a Console Station
2 Points: 1.00
A Station failure alarm indication setting is a....
A. Server-wide setting
B. System wide setting
C. Station-specific setting
3 Points: 1.00
Entries configured on the Server-Wide settings page apply to:
A. All connected Stations
B. Connected Flex Stations only
C. Connected Console Stations and Console Extension Stations only
D. Server Station only
4 Points: 1.00
If 'Enable Callout' option is checked, which of the following statement is true for confirmative
messages notifications
A. Messages will be displayed in Station's message zone
B. Messages will be displayed as callout notification
C. Messages will be displayed both in Station's message zone and as callout

notification

EXAMINATION
02R400-Test 07_Station Configuration

EXAMINATION
02R400-Test 08_Channels, Controllers and Points
A process is controlled using a PLC. You need to provide the control using an Experion PKS system. You
need to first establish communication to the PLC.
Given the scenario, answer the following
2
1 Points: 1.00
Which of the following is a valid channel name?
A. PUMP HOUSE 1
B. PUMPHOUSE 1
C. PUMPHOUSE1
2 Points: 1.00
Which tool would you need to build and load the channel and controller?
A. Station
B. Windows
C. Quick Builder
D. Notepad
3 Points: 1.00
Which tool would you use to enable communication to the PLC?
A. Quick Builder
B. Station
C. Windows
D. Notepad

EXAMINATION
4 Points: 1.00
A channel is a connection between
A. A server and a printer
B. A server and a station
C. A server and a C200/C200E controller
D. A server and a SCADA controller
5 Points: 1.00
A single physical SCADA controller can be configured as
A. A single controller
B. Multiple controllers
C. A and B - depends on the controller
6 Points: 1.00
A process is controlled using a PLC. You need to provide the control using an Experion PKS
System. The requirement is to monitor and operate various devices. Given that scenario, answer
the following questions. What is the order of configuration?
A. Use Quick Builder, build points, then build channels, then build controllers.
B. Use Quick Builder, build a controller, then build a channel, then build points.
C. Use Quick Builder, build a channel, then build a controller, then build points.
D. Use Quick Builder, build points, then build a controller, then build channels.
7 Points: 1.00
A SCADA controller uses what data transfer mechanism for server updates?
A. OPC mechanism
B. CDA mechanism
C. Scanning/Scan Packets
D. Point discovery

EXAMINATION
8 Points: 1.00
Which point type would you choose to operate a pump?
2
A. Accumulator point
B. Analog point
C. Container point
D. PID point
E. Status point
9 Points: 1.00
Which point type would you choose to operate a continuous loop?
B. Analog point
C. Container point
D. PID point
E. Status point
10 Points: 1.00
Which point type would you choose to totalize a flow?
B. Analog point
C. Container point
D. PID point
E. Status point

EXAMINATION

EXAMINATION
02R400-Test 09_Configuring Points
1 Points: 1.00
A text entry that turns red in an Experion script editor indicates:
2
A. The entry is a comment.
B. The entry is OK.
C. The entry has a syntax error.
D. The entry is very embarrassed.
2 Points: 1.00
In which point type can you configure both a Setpoint and a Mode?
A. Accumulator Point
B. Analog Point
C. Status Point
3 Points: 1.00
How many script engines does Experion PKS have?
A. 10 Automatic and 10 Manual Engines
B. 5 Automatic and 10 Manual Engines
C. 5 Automatic and 15 Manual Engines
D. 5 Automatic and 20 Manual Engines
4 Points: 1.00
Which type of point can have 2, 4, or 8 state discriptors?
A. Accumulator Point
B. Analog Point
C. Status Point

EXAMINATION
02R400-Test 09_Configuring Points
5 Points: 1.00
Script engines report errors to
A. Experion Server log file (log.txt)
B. HMIWeb log
C. Windows event log
D. Windows application log
6 Points: 1.00
Which of the following items cannot be changed from the Station?
A. Alarm Limits
B. Point Address
C. Point Range
D. Enable or Disable Point Scan

EXAMINATION
02R400-Test 10_Quick Builder Functionality
1 Points: 1.00
The best way to empty the Quick Builder recycle bin is to
2
A. The recycle bin does not need to be emptied.
B. Download the deletion to remove the item from the server and the recycle bin.
C. Empty from the Windows desktop.
D. Open the Quick Builder recycle bin, select the items and press the Delete
button on the keyboard.
2 Points: 1.00
The Rebuild Scan Table check box in the Load dialogue Box applies to the loading of which of
the following:
A. Static Stations
B. SCADA Points
C. Rotary Stations
D. Printers

EXAMINATION
02R400-Test 10_Quick Builder Functionality

EXAMINATION
02R400-Test 11_Alarm Setup in Server
1 Points: 1.00
What is the indication that full-page alarm acknowledgement is disabled?
2
A.
The icon is gone from the station tool bar.
B.
The button is half intensity in the Alarm
Summary screen.
C. The <F4> function key is disabled.
2 Points: 1.00
For effective alarm management, plant operations require that lower priority alarms are elevated if
not acknowledge for a certain time.
To configure this setting, you would.
A. Change Alarm priority settings in a point detail display in Station
B. Change Alarm colors in Alarms and Point Processing in Configuration Studio
C. Configure the Alarm priorities in Alarms and Point Processing in

Configuration Studio
D. Change the Alarm priority settings for the points in Quick Builder

EXAMINATION
02R400-Test 11_Alarm Setup in Server
3 Points: 1.00
Given the above configuration, the OP of Status point LOWALARM03 will:
A. Change to the one-state when any low-level alarm occurs in the connected
server.
B. Change to the zero-state when any alarm is acknowledged in the connected

server.
C. Change to the zero-state when the silence key is pressed from any connected
station.
D. All of the above.
4 Points: 1.00
Based on which of the following parameters can the Alarm Line in Station be filtered
A. Alarm Priority and Alarm Status
B. Alarm Priority, Alarm Status and Alarm Type
C. Alarm Priority, alarm Type and Operator ID

EXAMINATION
02R400-Test 12_Assets and Operators
1 Points: 1.00
Users reside in
2
A. Security Account Manager
B. Real Time Database
C. Active Directory
D. All of the above

EXAMINATION
There are 3 operators in a plant, each responsible for one plant section. In addition, a Supervisor is
responsible for all the operation.
You need to restrict access such that:
• Each operator is allowed control only in their section, but can view the entire plant
• The supervisor needs to view and occasionally operate equipment from the entire plant.
You have decided to use Operator-based security.
Given the above scenario, answer the following questions
2 Points: 1.00
What is the minimum number of directly assignable Assets needed?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
E. 4
F. 5
3 Points: 1.00
How many Assets would be assigned with no restrictions for a typical operator?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
E. 4
F. 5

EXAMINATION
4 Points: 1.00
How many Assets would be assigned to a typical operator?
2
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
E. 4
F. 5
5 Points: 1.00
How many Assets would be assigned to the supervisor?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
E. 4
F. 5
6 Points: 1.00
How many Assets would be assigned with no restrictions for the supervisor?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5

EXAMINATION
7 Points: 1.00
What Security functionality would you use if you need personal accountability for operators
(Events logged with the operator's ID?)
A. Control levels
B. Asset profiles
C. Operator-based security
D. Station-based security
8 Points: 1.00
For logon to operator based station, the user must exist in
A. SAM
B. AD
C. RTDB
9 Points: 1.00
What security functionality would you use if you need identical asset assignment for several
operators?
A. Control levels
B. Asset profiles
D. Windows domain log ins
10 Points: 1.00
What security functionality would you choose to restrict control for certain points within an asset?
A. Control levels
B. Asset profiles
D. Station-based security

EXAMINATION
11 Points: 1.00
Which of the following would be best if 15 operators need an identical security setup in Experion?
2
A. Individual Integrated accounts
B. Windows Group Account
C. Individual Classic accounts

EXAMINATION

EXAMINATION
02R400-Test 13_Console Functions
1 Points: 1.00
Which of the following statements about Console Station are true
A. Console Station can be a part of a console
B. Console Station gets data from Controller even if the server is not running
C. Console Station can be built in Quick Builder
3
D. A and B
2 Points: 1.00
Experion PKS Console provides which of the following functions
A. Single workspace across one or more Console Stations and Console Station
Extensions
B. Cross Station display invocation
C. Console wide alarm acknowledgement
D. All of the above
3 Points: 1.00
Which of the following cannot be a member of Console?
A. Console Station
B. Console Extension Station
C. Flex Station
D. Multiple Console Stations
4 Points: 1.00
Station Alias in Console configuration is used for
A. Identifying Console name
B. Identifying Console Extension station
C. Invoking displays cross-station within a Console
D. Assigning Assets to Stations

EXAMINATION
02R400-Test 13_Console Functions

EXAMINATION
02R400-Test 14_Alarms and Event Notifications
1 Points: 1.00
Alarms can be sorted by:
A. Assets
B. Priorities
C. Date and Time
3
D. Tagnames
E. Tag descriptions
F. All of the above
2 Points: 1.00
Which one of the following is not correct?
An operator:
A. can "Filter" the Alarm Summary if configured accordingly in the server-wide

settings.
B. will see alarms for assets assigned as view only..
C. can Acknowledge a full page in the Alarm Summary if configured accordingly in

the server-wide settings.
D. will see alarms for all points, all Assets in the Server -- no restrictions.
3 Points: 1.00
Select the best response: Supervisors can
A. Print out Alarm Summaries.
B. Change the column organizer.
C. Pause Alarms.
D. Save customized views.
E. All of the above depending on the server-wide value settings.

EXAMINATION
4 Points: 1.00
Which of the following options is false? If the 'Enable Alarm Shelving' option is disabled then
A. User can perform a 'Shelve Alarm' operation without providing a reason
B. User cannot perform a 'Shelve Alarm' operation
C. The 'Shelve Alarm ' button will be grayed out in the Alarm Summary display
5 Points: 1.00
What is Quick Shelving?
A. Quick Shelving allows the user to simultaneously shelve two or more alarms
from the Alarm Summary display
B. Quick Shelving allows the user to shelve an alarm without providing a reason
for shelving.
C. Quick Shelving allows the user to shelve alarms from the detail display of a
point.
6 Points: 1.00
Which of the following statements is false about Alarm Shelving? When an alarm is shelved...
A. An event will be generated in the Events Summary display
B. It will be removed from the 'all alarms' view in Alarm Summary display
C. Alarm will not be silenced
D. Alarm will be acknowledged
7 Points: 1.00
A reshelved alarm can be viewed in ...
A. 'All alarms' view
B. The 'shelved alarms' view in the Alarm Summary display
C. 'Recently unshelved alarms' view
8 Points: 1.00
An event is generated for every Shelve, Unshelve, Reshelve operation performed in Station
(True/False)

EXAMINATION
9 Points: 1.00
Multiple Servers are connected via DSA and the 'system wide acknowledgement /shelving' option
is selected. If an alarm originating from the local server is shelved then...
A. Events related to the shelved action will be generated on all servers in the
system
3
B. Alarm will be shelved only on the local server
C. Alarm will be shelved on all servers in the system with the same shelving period
and reason

EXAMINATION

EXAMINATION
02R400-Test 15_Reports
1 Points: 1.00
The best application to use to create a Free Format report definition file is:
A. MS Power Point
B. MS Excel
C. Quick Builder
3
D. Station
E. Notepad
2 Points: 1.00
A pre-formatted Cross Reference Report will show:
A. The Groups to which the point is assigned.
B. The Trends to which the point is assigned.
C. The Reports which include the point.
3 Points: 1.00
Asset alarm Count Report can display___________ alarms for the assets in scope of
responsibility of the logged in user
A. Low Priority
B. High Priority
C. Urgent Priority
D. All
4 Points: 1.00
A periodic report will
A. display on all stations.
B. create a text file output and a HTM file output.
C. print to the Windows default printer.
D. None of the above.

EXAMINATION
02R400-Test 15_Reports

EXAMINATION
02R400-Test 16_Algorithms
1 Points: 1.00
PV Algorithms are processed
A. whenever the point is viewed in Station.
B. whenever the Setpoint is adjusted.
C. whenever the point is taken off scan.
3
D. whenever the PV is scanned.
E. whenever the point is put into manual mode.
2 Points: 1.00
Experion PKS Server contains ______ Algorithm Blocks.
A. 128
B. 240
C. 512
D. 5000
E. 6000
3 Points: 1.00
A Value of 0.0 in the Drift Deadband ensures the point's Action Algorithm
A. will be processed every 2 seconds.
B. will be processed every scan.
C. will never be processed.
D. will be processed only when viewed in Station.
E. None of the above

EXAMINATION
02R400-Test 16_Algorithms

EXAMINATION
02R400-Test 17_History Archive Options
1 Points: 1.00
User defined history collection rates can be configured for
A. Standard history only
B. Fast and Standard History
C. Exception history only
3
D. Extended history only
2 Points: 1.00
History Archiving
A. can be done manually.
B. can be archived to a remote server
C. can produce an Alarm.
3 Points: 1.00
History archiving is configured using:
A. Quick Builder
B. Configuration Studio or Station
C. HMIWeb Display Builder
D. Control Builder
4 Points: 1.00
Which of the following is not a History Archive Option
A. Move
B. Delete
C. Remove
D. Retain

EXAMINATION
02R400-Test 17_History Archive Options

EXAMINATION
02R400-Test 18_Event Archive Options
1 Points: 1.00
What are the features of Experion Event management?
A. Experion stores every event in the system
B. Events are stored in Experion system database file and periodically copied to
an SQL server event database
3
C. Events including Sequence of Events (SOE) can be archived
D. Events can be either manually or automatically archived
E. Event Archives can be stored directly to a filesystem or removable media
F. Event archiving status is indicated on Event Archiving Operations page
G. Event tamper detection is supported
H. A, B, C and E
I. All of the above

EXAMINATION
02R400-Test 18_Event Archive Options

EXAMINATION
02R400-Test 19_Groups and Trends
1 Points: 1.00
The following users can always configure Trends and Groups:
A. Oper
B. Supv
C. Engr
D. Mngr
E. C and D
2 Points: 1.00
4
Points cannot be added to Groups using which application?
A. Configuration Studio
B. Station
C. Excel
D. Knowledge Builder
3 Points: 1.00
The time base for points in a Trend will always be displayed as:
A. 5 seconds.
B. 1 minute.
C. 1 hour.
D. 6 hours.
E. Last viewed or configured.
4 Points: 1.00
Points in a Group must be:
A. in alphabetical order.
B. assigned to the same asset.
C. all from the same controller.
D. None of the above

EXAMINATION
02R400-Test 19_Groups and Trends
5 Points: 1.00
Which of these options is not a DSP trend type in Experion?
A. Single
B. Dual
C. Multirange
D. X-Y Plot

EXAMINATION
02R400-Test 20_Data Extraction for Other Uses
1 Points: 1.00
Microsoft Excel Data Exchange
A. can obtain data from multiple servers.
B. can obtain history values.
C. does not require Station software.
D. can view PVs as well as other parameters.
E. all of the above.
2 Points: 1.00
4
Microsoft Excel Data Exchange can update values:
A. Only every 5 seconds.
B. At the configured update rate.
C. Only when the points process.
D. Cannot show live values.
3 Points: 1.00
Microsoft Excel Data Exchange can be configured
A. only using the Wizard.
B. only using cell formulas.
C. using cell formulas or the Wizard.
D. only using Station.

EXAMINATION
02R400-Test 20_Data Extraction for Other Uses

EXAMINATION
02R400-Test 21_Distributed System Architecture
1 Points: 1.00
In configuring DSA, assets
A. must be unique across all servers.
B. must be configured on all DSA servers for all shared points.
C. do not restrict remote points. Operators are allowed to see and control all
remote points.
D. only inhibit Operator-based security Stations from viewing remote points.
2 Points: 1.00
4
Updates on shared points across the DSA network
A. take place only when required and on a report-by-exception basis.
B. do not occur, values are snapshots and are not refreshed.
C. are forced by an action algorithm.
D. occur only on shift changes.
3 Points: 1.00
Servers are added in Distributed System Architecture using
A. Quick Builder
B. Station
C. Configuration Studio
D. Control Builder
E. HMIWeb Display Builder
4 Points: 1.00
A server added to a DSA network as a Non-Publishing Server
A. can be configured as a Server External to System.
B. is not a supplier of data only a subscriber, such as an eServer.
C. has no asset restrictions available.
D. can use only Station-based security.

EXAMINATION
02R400-Test 21_Distributed System Architecture

EXAMINATION
02R400-Test 22_Integrating Non-Experion Nodes
1 Points: 1.00
Once a new OPC Integrator Group is validated and committed,
A. OPC Integrator Server/Client works automatically.
B. values can only be viewed from the group status page.
C. OPC Integrator will only work with Matrikon OPC Server Simulator.
D. it is necessary to "Enable" the transfer of items.
2 Points: 1.00
Which point is used by the OPC Advanced Data Client?
4
A. OPC Advanced Point
B. Accumulator Point
C. Analog Point
D. Status Point
3 Points: 1.00
To access third-party data using OPC Display Data Client, tags need to be built using
A. Configuration Studio
B. Control Builder
C. Enterprise Model Builder
D. No tags need to be built in Experion PKS.
4 Points: 1.00
OPC Performance Counters can be added from which of the following tool
A. Configuration Utility
B. System Management Display
C. Performance Monitor

EXAMINATION
5 Points: 1.00
OPC standards were established to
A. Alow two or more Experion Servers to communicate.
B. Allow two or more Flex Stations talk to each other.
C. Allow two C200/C200E controllers to share data.
D. Allow interoperability among automation and control applications, field systems,

and business applications.
6 Points: 1.00
OPC Integrator values will
A. update only on demand.
B. update every 5 seconds.
C. update based on a configured time and a deadband to minimize bandwidth.
D. never update.
7 Points: 1.00
Which command is used to configure access properties of OPC Server?
A. explorer
B. dcomcnfg
C. cmd
D. dcomconfiguration

EXAMINATION
8 Points: 1.00
What type of OPC options are available in Experion PKS?
A. OPC Client Interface
B. OPC Advanced Client Interface
C. OPC Display Data Client
D. OPC Data Access Server
E. OPC Alarm and Event Server
F. OPC Integrator
4
G. OPC History Data Access Server
H. All of the above

EXAMINATION

EXAMINATION
02R400-Test 23_Utilities and Basic Administration
1 Points: 1.00
Server Utilities are run from:
A. Quick Builder
B. Knowledge Builder
C. Windows Command Prompt at any Station
D. Windows Command Prompt at the Server
2 Points: 1.00
The utility paswrd:
A. is used to change Operator-based security passwords.
B. is used to change Windows account passwords.
C. is used to change Station-based security passwords.
5
D. is used to find unused algo blocks.
3 Points: 1.00
Several critical server services are linked to which Windows account?
A. oper
B. engr
C. mngr
D. ps_user
4 Points: 1.00
The Experion Server Configuration panel is used for
A. Custom Displays path for Station to browse displays
B. Report storage path
C. View and change Experion server license
D. Configuring SQL database

EXAMINATION
02R400-Test 23_Utilities and Basic Administration
5 Points: 1.00
Enterprise Model Database (EMDB) administration tool is used to
A. Initialize EMDB database
B. Backup ERDB database
C. Restore EMDB database
D. Backup EMDB database
E. A, C, and D
6 Points: 1.00
Which tool is used to change the redundancy status (Computer name change with or without "A"
and "B" appended to the server name) of Experion servers?
A. Password Utility
B. Server name change tool
C. System Definition and Configuration Tool
D. Not allowed

EXAMINATION
02R400-Test 24_Reference Material (Optional)
1 Points: 1.00
Which one of these is not a licensed option in Experion PKS?
A. Server redundancy
B. Electronic Signatures
C. Accessing data in Microsoft Excel
D. History archiving
2 Points: 1.00
At the beginning of each new year
A. the system automatically configures the new holiday schedule.
B. the dates for the new holidays will have to be manually entered.
C. all old holidays are automatically removed.
5
D. due to cutbacks, there are no holidays in the New Year.
3 Points: 1.00
Parallel Operation Keyboard (POK) is used to operate control loops in ...?
A. Groups and Detail displays
B. Group displays only
C. Custom Faceplates
4 Points: 1.00
You need to configure a console with 4 screens using Safeview. How many Stations would need
to be built?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

EXAMINATION
5 Points: 1.00
Each recipe can have up to ______ scalable values.
A. 24
B. 30
C. 40
D. 50
6 Points: 1.00
Alarm Paging starts when
A. when three alarms occur with the same time stamp.
B. acknowledgement for a designated point has not occurred in the configured

time period.
C. the designated Alarm is Acknowledged.
D. the designated point's action algorithm starts the page.
7 Points: 1.00
In Recipe configuration:
A. Contiguous recipes cannot be strung together to load more than 30 parameters.
B. Recipe points are Area-restricted.
C. The MODEATTR parameter of C200/C200E controller points must be set to

OPERATOR.
D. Points used in a recipe must use the Unit ID as the first two characters of their
tagnames.

EXAMINATION
8 Points: 1.00
Alarm messages can be sent via
A. Simple Network Management Protocol.
B. E-mail.
C. Pager.
E. None of the above.
9 Points: 1.00
Each of the 8 groups of the keys on the POK consist of ...?
A. SP, OUT, RAISE, LOWER
B. NORM, MAN, SP, OUT
5
C. NORM, MAN, RAISE, LOWER
10 Points: 1.00
Shift information is used in
A. periodic reports.
B. overtime.
C. history collection.
D. Group Configuration
11 Points: 1.00
What are the reasons to add 'Do not send fast history data to PHD' option is Experion PKS R400
A. Excessive Network Load
B. Additional Load on PHD server
C. Excessive use of disk space
D. All of the above

EXAMINATION
12 Points: 1.00
Point Control Schedules
A. can be used one time. (One Shot)
B. can be scheduled once a week.
C. can be scheduled once a day.
D. can be scheduled only on weekends.
E. All of the above.
F. None of the above.
13 Points: 1.00
The configuration tool used for Alarm Paging is
A. Knowledge Builder.
B. Quick Builder.
C. Configuration Studio.
D. Control Builder.
E. Display Builder.
14 Points: 1.00
C200/C200E parameters
A. cannot be used with recipes.
B. require Mode Attribute set to Operator, to be used in recipes (if their function
block supports Mode Attribute.).
C. require Mode Attribute set to Program, to be used in recipes (if their function
block supports Mode Attribute.)

EXAMINATION
15 Points: 1.00
Which of the following option has been removed from Knowledge Builder in Experion R400
A. Knowledge Builder Developer Tool
B. Knowledge Builder Administrative Utility
C. Knowledge Builder Search
D. Using Knowledge Builder Favorites
16 Points: 1.00
What are the types of access available using eServer?
A. Configuration only access (with mngr level)
B. Read only access
C. Read/Write access
5
D. No access
17 Points: 1.00
Access to Experion data from Premium eServer is done from
A. Microsoft Excel
B. Microsoft Internet Explorer
C. Notepad
D. Microsoft Visual Studio
18 Points: 1.00
How is required software installed on Premium access clients?
A. Experion PKS CD's
B. Microsoft Office installation disks
C. Directly from the eServer

EXAMINATION
19 Points: 1.00
Experion integration with PHD enables......
A. Data collected by Experion to be transferred to PHD for long-term storage and

management
B. Synchronized history collection of Experion data on PHD
C. PHD data to be displayed on Experion trends
D. All of the above

EXAMINATION
02R400-Test 25_TPS Integration (Optional)
1 Points: 1.00
TPS Integration is configured using
A. Configuration Studio.
B. Quick Builder.
C. Control Builder.
D. Display Builder.
E. Knowledge Builder.
2 Points: 1.00
HMIWeb TPN point detail displays are available on...
A. ES-F
B. ESC- LCN Connected
5
C. ES-CE
D. All of the above
3 Points: 1.00
An ESVT
A. cannot be an FTE node.
B. cannot communicate to Hiway-based controllers.
C. can communicate to the LAN/WAN and the TPN/LCN.
D. cannot be redundant.
4 Points: 1.00
TPS units
A. do not have any meaning in EPKS.
B. are used directly in EPKS.
C. are mapped to Experion PKS Assets.

EXAMINATION
5 Points: 1.00
TPS points
A. are "discovered" by the ESVT and ES-T.
B. must be built in the ESVT.
C. are not accessible in Experion.
D. cannot be used in PKS graphics.
6 Points: 1.00
An ES-T
A. Does not require an ESVT.
B. Is directly connected to both the LAN and the LCN.
C. Collects history for TPS points.
D. Cannot display C200/C200E points.
E. Requires Windows 2000 Server operating system software.
7 Points: 1.00
HM History Import Tool is intended to
A. Synchronize HM and Experion history group configuration
B. Import history data from HM
C. Backup history data to Experion for archiving purposes
D. One-time import of HM history group configuration in Experion history
8 Points: 1.00
What is the maximum number of Experion clusters that can share same LCN
A. 7
B. 5
C. 0
D. 11

EXAMINATION
9 Points: 1.00
Autopriming is performed on
A. EST and ESVT
B. Console Station
C. Flex Station

EXAMINATION

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EXAMINATION

Which of the following is not a function of the Experion PKS Server?

A. Provide a global database for process data

B. Provide regulatory control

C. Provide a repository for configuration data

D. Provide supervisory control

Configuration done in EMDB is downloaded to

A. Real Time Database

B. Engineering Repository Database

C. Quick Builder Database

EPKS 02 / 17 R400 Page: 1 of 4 03 April 2012

B. CEE Controllers (C300, C200/C200E, and ACE)

The C200/C200E connects to the Experion using..

A. Fault Tolerant Ethernet

C. ControlNet or Fault Tolerant Ethernet

EPKS 02 / 17 R400 Page: 2 of 4 03 April 2012

Use this scenario to answer the following three questions.

An Experion PKS System is needed for the following requirements:

How many Console stations are needed for this requirement?

Which stations must be connected to the Fault Tolerant Ethernet?

A. Flex Stations for the casual users

C. Both Flex and Console Stations

Which system component would you use for Advanced control?

EPKS 02 / 17 R400 Page: 3 of 4 03 April 2012

Which statement is not true about Distributed Systems Architecture (DSA)?

A. Up to 31 EPKS servers can be integrated at a time

C. Can work with redundant servers, redundant networks, and FTE

D. You need to rebuild tags of each database in other databases

A. Real Time Database

B. Enterprise Model Builder Database

C. Engineering Repository Database

D. Quick Builder Database

Which device cannot be an FTE node?

D. Application Control Environment (ACE)

EPKS 02 / 17 R400 Page: 4 of 4 03 April 2012

Which application is used to launch all configuration tools in Experion PKS?

D. Enterprise Model Builder

Which tool is used build SCADA points?

D. Enterprise Model Builder

What are the capabilities of Diagnostic Tools?

A. System Health Monitoring

B. Host file verification

C. FTE configuration validation

E. All of the above

B. System Management Display

C. System Definition and Configuration Tool

EPKS 02 / 17 R400 Page: 1 of 2 03 April 2012

EPKS 02 / 17 R400 Page: 2 of 2 03 April 2012

SCADA tags are configured from which item in Configuration Studio?

A. Stations and Consoles

Enterprise Model consists of:

A. an online database that is loaded continuously during configuration.

B. an offline database that gets downloaded to included servers

C. an offline database existing on multiple servers

Which of the following items need to configured at the System level?

A. Experion PKS Console Stations

B. 3rd Party OPC servers

C. Honeywell C200/C200E Controllers

D. Experion PKS Servers and Equipment included in the Experion system

EPKS 02 / 17 R400 Page: 1 of 2 03 April 2012

What is the status of a controller which is indicated with the icon ?

EPKS 02 / 17 R400 Page: 2 of 2 03 April 2012

C. A piece of system hardware.