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SAMPLE MCQ BOOKLET

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Do not open this QUESTION BOOKLET until you are asked to do so
|…∂x… {…÷Œ∫i…EÚ… ∫…∆./Question Booklet No. |…∂x… {…÷Œ∫i…EÚ… GÚ®…/Question Booklet Series
123456
A
¥…ËEÚŒ±{…EÚ |…EÚ…Æ˙ {…Æ˙“I…h…/OBJECTIVE(MCQ) TYPE TEST
EÚ…‰b˜ B¥…∆ {…n˘/CODE & POST : 3418 / JM
+¥… v…/Duration : 2 Hrs + v…EÚi…®… +∆EÚ/Maximum Marks : 70
+x…÷GÚ®……∆EÚ +¶™…l…‘ EÚ… x……®… :
Roll No. : Name of the Candidate :.....................................................

{…Æ˙“I…… EÚ“ i……Æ˙“J…/Date of Examination (dd/mm/yyyy) : ........ /......... /.....................


+¶™…l…‘ EÚ… Ω˛∫i……I…Æ˙ :  x…Æ˙“I…EÚ EÚ… Ω˛∫i……I…Æ˙ :
Signature of the Candidate : ............................................ Signature of the Invigilator : ........................................
¶……M…/PART  ¥…π…™…/SUBJECT No of Question
¶……M… I/Part I  ¥…π…™… Y……x…/Subject Knowledge |…∂x…/ Questions:40
¶……M… II/Part II ∫……®……x™… Y……x… & M… h…i…“™… + ¶…Y…i……/G K,English,Numerical,&Logical/Reasoning Ability |…∂x…/ Questions:30
Instructions : Please read the following instructions carefully before writing your  x…nÊ˘∂… : +{…x…‰ =k…Æ˙  ±…J…x…‰ ∫…‰ {…Ω˛±…‰ EfiÚ{…™……  x…®x… |…n˘k…  x…nÊ˘∂…… EÚ…‰ ∫……¥…v……x…“{…⁄¥…«EÚ {…g‰¯*
answer : 1. OMR =k…Æ˙ {… j…EÚ… ®… +{…x…‰ =k…Æ˙ +∆ EÚi… EÚÆ˙x…‰ ∫…‰ {…Ω˛±…‰ +…{…EÚ…‰ OMR =k…Æ˙ {… j…EÚ… E‰Ú
1. Before you proceed to mark your response in OMR answer sheet, you have to fill  ¥…¥…Æ˙h… v™……x…{…⁄¥…«EÚ +{…x…‰ |…¥…‰∂… {…j… E‰Ú +x…÷∫……Æ˙ ¶…Æ˙x…… Ω˲* OMR EÚ… ®…⁄±™……∆EÚx… x…Ω˛”  EÚ™……
in particulars carefully in the OMR answer sheet as per your admit card. The OMR V……BM…… ™… n˘ +∫…i™…/+{…⁄h…«  ¥…¥…Æ˙h… ¶…Æ˙… M…™…… Ω˛…‰* B‰∫…‰ OMR {… j…EÚ…  V…∫…®… +x…÷GÚ®……∆EÚ
shall not be evaluated if incorrect/incomplete details are filled.OMR sheet without +…ËÆ˙ |…∂x… {…÷Œ∫i…EÚ… +x…÷GÚ®… x…Ω˛” Ω˛…‰M…… =∫…EÚ… ®…⁄±™……∆EÚx…  EÚ∫…“ ¶…“ {… Æ˙Œ∫l… i… ®… x…Ω˛”  EÚ™……
Roll Number and Question Booklet Series will not be evaluated under any
circumstances.
V……BM……*
2. ∫…“±… i……‰c˜x…‰ E‰Ú `ˆ“EÚ §……n˘ +¶™…l…‘ ™…Ω˛ W……ƒS… EÚÆ˙ ±…  EÚ |…∂x… {…÷Œ∫i…EÚ… ®… §…Ω÷˛- ¥…EÚ±{… |…EÚ…Æ˙
2. Immediately on breaking of the seal, the candidate must check that the Question
Booklet has 100 questions with multiple choice answers. If there is any discrepancy, E‰Ú 100 |…∂x… ΩÈ˛* ™… n˘ EÚ…‰<« +∫…∆M… i… {……<« V……B i……‰ <∫…EÚ“ ∫…⁄S…x…… i…÷÷Æ∆˙i…  x…Æ˙“I…EÚ EÚ…‰ n¢ +…ËÆ˙
it should be reported to the Invigilator immediately for change of booklet. No sheet {…÷Œ∫i…EÚ… §…n˘±… ±…Â* |…∂x… {…j… ∫…‰ EÚ…‰<« EÚ…M…V… x…Ω˛”  x…EÚ…±…… V……x…… S…… Ω˛B*
from the question paper shall be detached. 3. +¶™…l…‘ +{…x…… x……®…, +x…÷GÚ®……∆EÚ +…ËÆ˙ Ω˛∫i……I…Æ˙ |…∂x… {…÷Œ∫i…EÚ… E‰Ú ∫……®…x…‰ E‰Ú {…fiπ`ˆ {…Æ˙ <∫…
3. Candidate must write his Name, Roll Number and sign at the appropriate places EÚ…™…« E‰Ú  ±…B  n˘B ∫l……x… {…Æ˙ +¥…∂™… +∆ EÚi… EÚÆÂ˙*
marked for this purpose on the front page of this Question Booklet.
4. ∫…¶…“ |…∂x… + x…¥……™…« ΩÈ˛* |…i™…‰EÚ |…∂x… EÚ… +∆EÚ 1 Ω˲* M…±…i… =k…Æ˙ E‰Ú  ±…B EÚ…‰<« +∆EÚ P…]ı…™……
4. All questions are compulsory.Each question carries 1 mark. There is no negative x…Ω˛” V……BM……*
marking for wrong answer.
5. E‰Ú¥…±… x…“±…“ ™…… EÚ…±…“ §……ϱ… {……Ï<∆]ı {…‰x… EÚ… |…™……‰M… EÚÆÂ˙* {… ∫…±… ™…… V…‰±… {…‰x… EÚ… |…™……‰M… x…Ω˛”
5. Use only blue or black ball point pen. Use of pencil or gel pen is not allowed.
6. There are four answer options – (A), (B), (C), (D) given against each question, out
EÚÆÂ˙*
of which only one is correct. Mark your answer by filling OVAL/bubble on the 6. |…i™…‰EÚ |…∂x… E‰Ú  ±…B S……Æ˙  ¥…EÚ±{… =k…Æ˙ - (A), (B), (C), (D)  n˘B M…B ΩÈ˛  V…x…®… ∫…‰ E‰Ú¥…±…
OMR answer sheet provided to the candidate. BEÚ ∫…Ω˛“ ΩÈ˛* +¶™…l…‘ E‰Ú  ±…B OMR =k…Æ˙ {… j…EÚ… {…Æ˙ |…n˘k… M……‰±……/¥…fii……EfiÚ i… EÚ…‰ ¶…Æ˙EÚÆ˙
7. Darken completely only one OVAL/bubble which you think is correct as shown in +{…x…… =k…Æ˙ +∆ EÚi… EÚÆÂ˙*
the figure 7.  V…∫… M……‰±……/¥…fii……EfiÚ i… EÚ…‰ +…{… ∫…Ω˛“ ®……x…i…‰ ΩÈ˛ E‰Ú¥…±… =∫…‰ Ω˛“  S…j… ®…  n˘J……B +x…÷∫……Æ˙ {…⁄Æ˙“
Correct method Wrong Method i…Æ˙Ω˛ M…Ω˛Æ˙… EÚÆÂ˙* ∫…Ω˛“ i…Æ˙“EÚ… M…±…i… i…Æ˙“EÚ…
✓ ✓
Rough work must be done on the pages (space for rough work) given at the end of Æ˙°Ú EÚ…™…« |…∂x… {…÷Œ∫i…EÚ… E‰Ú +∆i… ®… |…n˘k… (Æ˙°Ú EÚ…™…« E‰Ú  ±…B ∫l……x…) {…fiπ`ˆ {…Æ˙ Ω˛“ EÚÆÂ˙*
the Question Booklet.
8. Answer sheets will be processed by electronic means. Hence, invalidation of OMR
8. =k…Æ˙ {… j…EÚ… EÚ…‰ <±…‰C]≈ı…‰ x…EÚ ®……v™…®… ∫…‰ |… GÚ™……M…i…  EÚ™…… V……BM……* +i…& <∫…E‰Ú ®…÷c˜x…‰ ™……
answer sheets resulting due to folding or putting stray marks on it or any damage
<∫…{…Æ˙ EÚ…‰<«  x…∂……x… {…c˜x…‰ +l…¥…… =k…Æ˙ {… j…EÚ… EÚ…‰ EÚ…‰<« I… i… Ω˛…‰x…‰ E‰Ú ∫……l…-∫……l… +{…⁄h…«/
to the answer sheet as well as incomplete/incorrect filling of answer sheet, will be +∫…i™… ¶…Æ˙x…‰ E‰Ú  ±…B E‰Ú¥…±… +¶™…l…‘ Ω˛“ =k…Æ˙n˘…™…“ Ω˛…ÂM…‰*
the sole responsibility of the candidate. 9. ™… n˘ +¶™…l…‘ BEÚ ∫…‰ + v…EÚ =k…Æ˙ n‰˘i…… Ω˲ i……‰ =∫…‰ M…±…i… =k…Æ˙ Ω˛“ ®……x…… V……BM…… ¶…±…‰ Ω˛“ =x…
9. If candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as wrong answer even if =k…Æ˙… ®… ∫…‰ BEÚ ∫…Ω˛“ =k…Æ˙ Ω˛…‰*
one of given answer happens to be correct. 10. {…Æ˙“I…… {…⁄Æ˙“ EÚÆ˙x…‰ E‰Ú §……n˘, +…{… +{…x…… |…∂x… {…÷Œ∫i…EÚ…, OMR =k…Æ˙ {… j…EÚ… +…ËÆ˙ |…¥…‰∂… {…j…
10. After completion of examination, you have to hand over your Question Booklet, (PH +¶™…l…‘ E‰Ú ®……®…±…‰ ®… ∫GÚ…<§… |…¥…‰∂… {…j…)  x…Æ˙“I…EÚ E‰Ú {……∫… V…®…… EÚÆ˙… n¢*
OMR answer sheet and Admit Card(in case of PH candidates, scribe Admit Card
also) to the invigilator. 11.  EÚ∫…“ <±…‰C]≈ı…‰ x…EÚ ™…∆j… V…Ë∫…‰ ®……‰§……<±…, EËÚ±…C™…⁄±…‰]ıÆ˙ ™…… +x™…  EÚ∫…“ <±…‰C]≈ı…‰ x…EÚ ={…EÚÆ˙h… EÚ…
11. Use of any electronic device like mobile, calculator or any electronic gadgets is
|…™……‰M… ∫…¥…«n˘… ¥…ÃV…i… Ω˲* ™… n˘ +¶™…l…‘ E‰Ú {……∫… B‰∫…… EÚ…‰<« ™…∆j… {……™…… V……i…… Ω˲ i……‰ =∫…EÚ“
strictly prohibited. If candidate is found in possession of any such devices, her/his +¶™…l…‘i……  x…Æ˙∫i… EÚÆ˙ n˘“ V……BM…“*
candidature will be cancelled.

 EÚ∫…“  ¥…¥……n˘ EÚ“ Œ∫l… i… ®…Â, +ƒO…‰V…“ EÚl…x… Ω˛“ ®……x™… Ω˛…M‰ ……/In case of any dispute, English version will prevail.
1573_18 (A) 1
SAMPLE MCQ
GENERAL APTITUDE

1. How does light normally travel?


A) In concentric circles B) In a straight line
C) Always towards a dark area D) In a curved line

2. First Country to undergo industrial revolution:


A) France B) Britain C) Germany D) USA

3. A solar water heater can not be used to get hot water on


A) A sunny day B) A cloudy day C) A hot day D) A windy day

4. In India, the first cotton mill was set up in


A) Madras B) Bombay C) Kanpur D) Surat

5. Regur soil is the other name of


A) Black soil B) Alluvial soil C) Arid soil D) Laterite soil

6. The different group of stars is known as


A) Constellations B) Celestial bodies C) Asteroids D) Comet

7. Which country has two-party system?


A) India B) Sri Lanka C) United Kingdom D) Nepal

8. Which of the following is a macro nutrient?


A) Mn B) Mg C) Cu D) Zn

9. The process of evaporation causes


A) Cooling B) Heating C) Dryness D) None of these

10. Place directly above focus on Earth’s surface is known as


A) Strike B) Comma C) Epicenter D) Origin

11. HCF of 84 & 270 is


A) 8 B) 6 C) 4 D) 2

12. The sum of first five multiples of 3 is:


A) 45 B) 65 C) 75 D) 90

13. 7:12 is equivalent to:


A) 28 : 40 B) 42 : 71 C) 72 : 42 D) 42 : 72

14. Find the simple interest on the Rs. 2000 at 25/4% per annum for the period from 4th Feb 2005 to 18th
April 2005
A) Rs. 35 B) Rs. 30 C) Rs. 25 D) Rs. 40

15. The average of 20 numbers is Zero. Of them, at the most, how many may be greater than zero?
A) 0 B) 1 C) 10 D) 19

16. An athlete runs 200 meters in 24 seconds. His speed is?


A) 10 km/hr B) 17 km/hr C) 27 km/hr D) 30 km/hr
1405_17 (A) 2
17. Every rational number is
A) A natural number B) An integer C) A real number D) A whole number

18. What decimal of an hour is a second?


A) .0025 B) .0256 C) .00027 D) .000126

19. A fruit seller had some apples. He sells 40% apples and still has 420 apples. Originally, he had how many ?
A) 588 apples B) 600 apples C) 672 apples D) 700 apples

20. A does a work in 10 days and B does the same work in 15 days. In how many days they will do the same
work together?
A) 5 days B) 6 days C) 7 days D) 8 days

SUBJECT/DOMAIN KNOWLEDGE

21. Which tool is used for laying out large circles is


A) Trammel B) Divider C) Jenny caliper D) Scriber

22. The point angle of scriber is


A) 30° B) 60° C) 5° to 10° D) 12° to 15°

23. The point angle of centre punch is


A) 30° B) 60° C) 90° D) 120°

24. During marking, the reference surface is provided by


A) Sketch of the job B) Work piece
C) Marking off table surface D) Surface gauge

25. A divider is used for


A) Scribing circles B) Scribing arcs
C) Transferring and stepping distances D) All of the above

26. Scriber is made of


A) Copper B) High carbon steel C) Mild steel D) Cast iron

27. What is the name of the scriber marked as’2’ in the right side figure?

A) Straight scriber B) Bent scriber


C) Adjustable sleeve scriber D) Ball head scriber

1405_17 (A) 3
28. Which one of the following types of hammers is used for forming a rivet head by spreading the shank of
the rivet?
A) Ball peen hammer B) Cross peen hammer
C) Straight peen hammer D) Soft hammer

29. The length of the hammer handle for a 500 gm hammer should be about
A) 275 mm B) 300 mm C) 325 mm D) 350 mm

30. Generally the length of the handle of a vice is


A) 1.5 times the nominal size of the vice B) 2.5 times the nominal size of the vice
C) 3.5 times the nominal size of the vice D) 4.5 times the nominal size of the vice

31. For general purpose, a bench vice is fixed at a height of


A) 80 cm B) 90 cm C) 106 cm D) 125 cm

32. Vice clamps are used to


A) Protect the finished surfaces of the job B) Hold the job firmly
C) Protect the serrated jaws of the vice D) Protect the file

33. The jaw plates of a bench vice are made of


A) Tool steel B) Mild steel C) Cast iron D) Bronze

34. Which head is used and set to any required angle in the combination set shown in bellow figure?

A) Square head B) Protractor head C) Centre head D) Rule

35. Which one of the following tools is perfect for quickly loosening and tightening nuts and bolts?
A) Air impact wrench B) Air ratchet C) Ring spanner D) Socket spann

36. Which one of the following is used when a precise amount of torque is to be imparted to be fastener?
A) Air ratchet B) Ring spanner C) Torque wrench D) Monkey wrench

37. An air chisel is used to break or cut metal objects apart. It is operated
A) Pneumatically B) Hydraulically C) Magnetically D) Frictionally

38. It is a simple air tool, which is used to blast dirt and debris out of confined spaces. It is called
A) Air spray gun B)Air dispensation gun C) Air chisel gun D) Air blow gun

39. For car washing, water pressure normally should be


A) 50-60 bars B) 70-80 bars C) 100-110 bars D) 120-140 bars

1405_17 (A) 4
40. It is the process of removing very small chips from metal surfaces by means of a sharp-edged tool. What is
this tool called as?
A) Scraper B) Chisel C) Hacksaw D) Reamer

41. The cutting action of a file depends upon


A) The kind of cut and spacing of teeth B) Arrangement of teeth on the file
C) Size and shape of the file D) All of the above

42. Hacksaw blade teeth get dull due to


A) High speed and pressure B) Pressure not released during return stroke
C) Coolant not used D) Any one of the above

43. Which one of the following is NOT the reason for making file faces slightly convex in form?
A) To increase the friction between the file face and the job surface
B) To give better distribution of the pressure and to compensate slight filing movement.
C) To reduce the friction between the file face and the job surface
D) To reduce the effort in driving a file.

44. Which one of the following designations does NOT denote the grade of a file?
A) Bastard B) First cut C) Second cut D) Smooth

45. The cutting angle of a flat chisel for chipping aluminum is


A) 35° B) 55° C) 60° D) 70°

46. Which one among the following materials can be cut with a rasp cut file?
A) Steel B) Cast iron C) Wood D) Bronze

47. Which one among the following scrapers is used for scraping on bearing bush?
A) Flat scraper B) Triangular scraper C) Half round scraper D) Round scraper

48. A double cut file is used for filing on


A) Wood B) Hard board C) Leather D) Steel

49. Second cut in a file is the type of


A) Section B) Grade C) Cut D) Design

50. The body of a flat chisel is usually made in the shape of


A) Rectangular B) Square C) Hexagonal D) Octagonal

51. The chisel used to cut keyways is


A) Cape chisel B) Flat chisel C) Round nose chisel D) Diamond point
chisel

52. Both sides of a flat bastard file have


A) No cut B) Single cut teeth C) Double cut teeth D) Wavy teeth

53. The length of hacksaw blade is measured from


A) One end of the toothed portion to the other end
B) Centre of one pin hole to the centre of other pinhole
C) End to end of blade
D) End of one hole to the end of the other pin hole

1405_17 (A) 5
54. The new hacksaw blade should not be used in the blind saw cut made by old blade because
A) The space is not enough to run the blade B) The blade is costly
C) The new blade has sharp teeth D) None of the above

55. The safe edge of file is used to


A) Give best finishing B) Protect the adjacent sides
C) Finish flat surfaces only D) Cut metal very quickly

56. File card is used for


A) Cleaning the work piece B) Cleaning the file teeth
C) Renewing the file teeth D) Cleaning the chips

57. Setting of teeth in hacksaw blade is


A) Not required
B) Required to avoid friction between the blade and work piece
C) Required for increasing the strength of blade
D) Required for providing teeth on the blade

58. Which one of the following materials is used for making a grinding wheel?
A) Silicon carbide B) Granite C) Sand D) Calcium carbonate

59. A slight convexity is made on the cutting edges of flat chisel for
A) Cutting sharp corners B) Allowing lubricant to reach the cutting edge
C) Cutting curved surfaces D) Preventing digging of the ends of cutting edge

60. While chipping, the clearance angle is the angle between


A) The working surface of the job and the top surface of cutting edge of chisel
B) The working surface of the job and the bottom surface of cutting edge of chisel job
C) The surface at right angle to the cutting edge of chisel and the working surface of the
D) None of the above

61. The most suitable pitch of the hacksaw blade of cutting thin section tubes is
A) 0.8 mm B) 1.0 mm C) 1.4 mm D) 1.8 mm

62. The suitable pitch of hacksaw for cutting solid brass is


A) 0.8 mm B) 1.0 mm C) 1.4 mm D) 1.8 mm

63. The commonly used standard length of hacksaw blade is


A) 100 mm B) 150 mm C) 200 mm D) 250 mm

64. Which among the following is an artificial abrasive?


A) Aluminum oxide B) Emery C) Diamond D) Corundum

65. Hacksaw blades with fine-pitched teeth are more effective on


A) Thin section metal B) Soft metals C) Broad section metals D) Non-metals

66. In case of single cut files, the teeth are cut on the file face at an angle of
A) 45⁰ to the centre line of the file B) 60⁰ to the centre line of the file
C) 75⁰ to the centre line of the file D) 80⁰ to the centre line of the file

1405_17 (A) 6
67. The cause of glazing of a grinding wheel is
A) Grain size is too fine B) Wheel is hard
C) Wheel speed is too fast D) Both A) and B)

68. Which one of the following bonds is most commonly used on grinding wheels?
A) Vitrified B) Rubber C) Shellac D) Silicate

69. The balancing of wheel is done to


A) Make the sides of the wheel parallel
B) Make the outside diameter concentric with the bore
C) Equalize the weight in every position of the wheel
D) None of the above

70. In grinding fluids are used to


A) Reduce the friction between the wheel face and the job
B) Wash away chips
C) Prevent loading of wheel
D) All of the above

/END/

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