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2018
A GUIDE FOR PROMOTION TEST
Prepared by
1
Preface
As the promotion tests to be held for promotions to various cadres in the year 2018-
19 are fast approaching, a guide to promotion test has been prepared keeping in
view various areas covered in such tests. The book covers information relevant from
the point of view of Bank's promotional tests and will assist the aspirants in preparing
well and acquiring requisite knowledge to get through the tests. We have added a
new topic of “Macro Economic Environment/General Awareness” in this year’s
edition.
While the book incorporates the developments up to 15th December 2017, for further
development in the areas covered in this book, the uses are requested to refer latest
Govt. guidelines and notifications/circulars issued by RBI/SBI.
Bhavnagar
Date: 04.01.2018
Disclaimer
While every effort has been made by the said faculty members of the State Bank
Learning Centre, Bhavnagar to avoid errors or omissions in this publication, any
error or discrepancy noted may be brought to our notice through e-mail to
sblcbvn@sbi.co.in which shall be taken care of in the subsequent editions.
2
FOREWORD
It gives me immense pleasure in presenting the sincere efforts made by Team SBLC
Bhavnagar in preparing a promotional guide keeping in view the upcoming
promotional tests for the year 2018-19. The guide, titled “Vallabhi”, is named after
the name of SBLC Bhavnagar. The guide has been prepared by incorporating the
developments in the covered subjects up to 15th December 2017.
The guide contains information relevant from the point of view of Bank's promotional
Tests in the form of multiple choice questions. The prospective candidates aspiring
for promotions to JMGS-I, MMGS-II and MMGS-III under various channels will find
the guide useful. The faculties of SBLC, Bhavnagar under the leadership of Mr.
Parag Buch AGM SBLC have taken due care to present the most relevant and latest
information in this guide.
The questions/ answers in this guide are illustrative, so every prospective candidate
will benefit immensely by keeping themselves abreast with the latest data and
information in order to come out successful in the promotional examinations.
3
Index
S Description Page No.
No.
1. Technology products 5-24
2. Macro Economic Environment /
25-46
General Awareness
3. General Banking 47-69
4. Systems & Procedures 70-91
5. Home Loan and its variants 92-100
6. Auto Loans 101-105
7. Education Loan & P-Gold Loan 106-111
8. SME Segment 112-142
9. Agriculture Segment 143-173
10. International Banking 174-196
4
TECHNOLOGY PRODUCTS – 1
Q1. What is TPD ?
a) Transaction Printing Device b) Transaction processing Device
c) Third Party Device d) None of these
Q3. Name of software used by our Bank at AML-CFT Cell, Jaipur for generation of
Suspicious Transaction Report (STR) ?
a) STRike b) AMLock c) MSLock d) Translink
Q4. The software used by our Bank at AML-CFT Cell, Jaipur for generation of
Suspicious Transaction Report (STR) is provided by which company ?
a) Mphasis b) 3i InfoTech c) TCS d) Infosys
Q5. The ceiling for single transaction through GRC card for remitting cash is
a) Rs.50000 b) Rs.100000 c) Rs.25000 d) Rs.15000
5
Q12. In MOPS which is not a payment option?
a) Internet Banking of all major banks b) Debit/Credit Card
c) Any Bank Cheque d) SBI Cheque/Cash
Q13. The Merchant website should have minimum ……………. bit or more SSL
certification for e-Handshake?
a) 64 b) 128 c) 256 d) 320
Q14. In case of private Merchants (Other than Govt.) the merchant site must be
audited from ………….. auditors for e-Handshake.
a) NIC b) Cert-In c) Earnest & Young d) Any CA
Q15. In case of Govt. sites the site must be audited from ………….. auditors for e-
Handshake.
a) NIC b) Cert-In c) Earnest & Young d) Statutory Auditors
6
Q23. Auditor facility is available in which product of CINB?
a) Saral b) Vistaar c) Vyapaar d) in both b & c
Q24. Which App is for OTP creation for doing transactions through INB or State
Bank Anywhere-Personal App?
a) SBI Quick b) SB OTP c) SB 3D Secure d) SB Secure OTP
Q25. Who can deactivate the users available at the Branch Interface – INB?
a) Circle Admin b) Maker-Checker c) Service Desk d) Checker
Q26. Who can deactivate the Single Checker available in the Branch Interface –
INB?
a) Circle Admin b) Maker-Checker
c) Service Desk d) Checker himself/herself
Q27. The Saral user if adds a party as supplier then up to what maximum amount he
can transfer to supplier in a single transaction?
a) 10 lacs b) 15 lacs c) 20 lacs d) 25 lacs
Q30. Which of the following is NOT true in CINB Once the Admin is deactivated?
a) All accounts mapped to the Admin and to the users created by him will be
unmapped
b) All users created by him will be permanently deactivated
c) All the beneficiaries added/approved by the Admin will be permanently
deleted.
d) Corporate Admin, once deactivated can be reactivated
Q31. In YONO app the Digital account customer is provide with which type of ATM
card?
a) Gold Card b) Plastic Card c) Platinum Card d) Plutonium Card
Q32. In YONO app what is the CIBIL cut-off score for non-CSP customers for Pre-
Approved Personal Loan?
a) 800 b) 750 c) 700 d) 650
7
Q33. In YONO app what is the CIBIL cut-off score for CSP customers for Pre-
Approved Personal Loan?
a) 800 b) 750 c) 700 d) 650
Q34. In CINB the Admin creates the requests for re-issue of login password for a
user with which form?
a) C7a b) C7b c) C7 d) C11
Q35. Which facility Corporate users can opt for Digital Signature Certificate (DSC) in
CINB instead of mobile SMS based OTP?
a) Saral b) Vyapaar c) Vistaar d) All of these
Q36. Which CINB user can not access State Bank Anywhere-Corporate App?
a) Saral b) Vyapaar c) Vistaar d) Khata Plus
Q37. State Bank Collect facility cannot be given in which type of accounts?
a) OD b) SB c) CA d) Can be given to All of these
Q38. State Bank Collect facility cannot be given in which type of CINB facility?
a) Vyapaar b) Vistaar c) Khata Plus d) Saral
Q39. While uploading logo of corporate in State Bank Collect the size of the logo file
must not exceed……..?
a) 10 MB b) 32 KB c) 20 KB d) 1 MB
Q40. Who is the Authority for giving Administrative Clearance for State Bank Collect
in accounts of branches under the control of Regional Manager (RBO)?
a) Regional Manager b) DGM (B&O)
c) DGM (Anytime Channels) d) GM Network
Q41. E-Return Intermediary (e-RI) facilitate the E- filing process for the tax payers.
We have since started SBI E-file services through M/s Span across IT Solutions
Private Limited who work under WHICH brand name to provide this service to our
customers.
a) Taxman b) TaxSpanner c) TaxFile d) TaxIndia
8
a) taxman.com b) spanacross.com
c) taxspanner.com d)taxfile.com
Q45. The rate of interest for YONO Pre Approved personal Loan is ……………?
a) 400 bps+1 year MCLR b) 400 bps+2 year MCLR
c)560 bps+1 year MCLR d) 500 bps+2 year MCLR
Q47. In digital account how customer can get his Debit Card ?
a) SBIinTouch branch
b) At correspondence address
c) a or b
d) At any branch through welcome kit
Q48. Which of the following is a pre-requisite for opening a Digital Account through
YONO?
a) Aadhar Card b) PAN Card c) Age above 18 years d) All of the
Above
Q49. All the Banks in India must migrate all of their existing card base to EMV cards
by ………………….?
a) March 2018 b) March 2019 c) December 2018 d) December 2019
Q50. If customer is not getting the SMS for ATM related transactions then branch
may e-mail to which email id for resolution of the issue?
a) epg.support@sbi.co.in b) atm.sms@sbi.co.in
c) sms.asc@sbi.co.in d) asc.sms@sbi.co.in
9
TECHNOLOGY PRODUCTS – 2
Q1. What is the expansion of URIB?
a) User Registration for Internet Banking
b) User Driven Registration for Internet Banking
c) Unified Registration for IMPS Banking
d) Universal Rules of Internet Banking
Q3. POS Limit for State Bank Platinum Debit Card is Rs.
a) 50000/- b) 100000/- c) 200000/- d) 500000/-
Q4. In YONO app which of the following old SBI Life policies can be added as of
now?
a) Policy purchased through Bancassurance Channel
b) Policy purchased through Agents
c) Policy purchased through online mode
d) Any of the above
Q7. Daily Cash limit at ATM for State Bank Business Debit Card – Premium is
Rs……?
a) 1,00,000 b) 2,00,000 c) 3,00,000 d) 5,00,000
Q8. In Phase-I of YONO launch Bank is offering how many variants of SBI Card to
the Customer?
a) 5 b) 8 c) 12 d) 16
10
Q10. What are the first 4 digits for SBI’s MMID?
a) SBIN b) 9001 c) 9002 d) 9003
Q11. What is the per transaction limit for a customer who opens an Insta Digital
Savings Account through YONO?
a) 49900 b) 49999 c) 50000 d) 100000
Q13. The validity of Green Remit Card is ……years from date of issue
a) 1 year b) 3 years c) 5 years d) 10 years
Q14. State Bank SME Insta Deposit Card is valid for years
.a) 5 Yeas b) 10 Years c) 3 Years d) Upto the year 2049
Q15. A maximum of ……….accounts of the customer under same CIF can be linked
to SME Insta Deposit card?
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 5
Q16. The maximum number of currency notes that can be deposited in CDM at a
time?
a) 100 b) 200 c) 300 d) 150
Q20. State Bank MobiCash in partnership with which company has been launched?
a) BSNL b) Vodafone c) Idea d) Jio
Q22. Non-smartphone users can use Mobicash facility using SMS facility by send
SMS to which number?
a) 9223966666 b) 9418399999 c) 9438199999 d) 9418300000
11
Q23. Mobicash subscribers can also use this service over USSD by dialing which
numbers?
a) *121* b) *595# c) *511# d) *495#
Q24. In Mobicash the OTP received for a transaction shall be valid for how much
time?
a) 24 hours b) 12 hours c) 30 minutes d) 1 hour
Q25. In Mobicash if the customer enters wrong MPIN for three consecutive times,
his Mobile Wallet will be locked for how much time?
a) 24 hours b) 12 hours c) 6 hours d) 1 hour
Q26. In Mobicash if the wallet is not used for ……….., the account will be treated as
suspended/dormant.
a) 12 months b) 6 months c) 3 months d) 1 month
Q28. What is the Maximum Balance limit per Wallet for Non KYC compliant Wallet in
Mobicash?
a) 5000 b) 10000 c) 20000 d) 50000
Q29. What is the Maximum Balance limit per Wallet for KYC compliant Wallet in
Mobicash?
a) 25000 b) 100000 c) 20000 d) 50000
Q30. What is the Cash in /Top up limit through any channel per month for KYC/Non-
KYC compliant Mobicash wallet?
a) 5000 b) 10000 c) 20000 d) 25000
Q31. What is the validity of State Bank Smart Payout Card, a prepaid Card issued in
Indian Rupees in association with VISA?
a) 1 year b) 3 years c) 5 years d) 10 years
Q32. What is the maximum amount storage limit of Smart Payout Card?
a) 5000 b) 10000 c) 49000 d) 50000
12
Q34. In INB the maximum transaction limit through IMPS between 8.00 P.M. to 8.00
A.M. (Night Region) is………?
a) 50000 b) 100000 c) 200000 d) 40000
Q35. In Insta Digital Account opend through YONO the aggregate of all credits in a
financial year shall not exceed Rs. ………… only
a) 50000 b) 100000 c) 200000 d) 40000
Q37. At CBS level, provision has been made to choose the language for receiving
SMS. State True or False?
a) True b) False c) May be d) Don’t Know
Q38. Using SBI Mingle, the Bank’s customers can do a host of banking services on
which of their preferred social platform?
a) Twitter b) Facebook c) a or b d) Instagram
Q39. Green PIN initiative for creating ATM PIN cannot be generated through which
of the following?
a) SMS b) IVR c) INB d) SBI Pay
Q40. Single Sign On in State Bank group can be accessed through which link?
a) http://sso.sbi.co.in b) https://singlesignon.com
c) http:// singlesignon.com d) https://sso.sbi.co.in
13
Q44. As per the SEBI’s new guidelines w.e.f. 01.01.2016 the IPO process time is T+
…………. days (T is closing date of IPO).
a) 12 b) 7 c) 6 d) 8
Q45. While opening Savings Bank account through TABLET the signature of the
prospective customer will have to be obtained on ………………..?
a) Not Required b) Tablet c) Single Page Form d) Small Slip
Q46. The data captured by the TABLET for opening Savings Bank account will be
retained and available in the …………….?
a) CBS Srver b) INB Server
c) TAB Server d) ATM Switch Centre
Q47. The data captured by the TABLET for opening Savings Bank account will be
retained and available in the Server for how many days?
a) 7 b) 14 c) 21 d) 30
Q48. After expiry of prepaid cards (all variants) the unutilized balances up to what
amount shall lapse to the Bank and Card will be closed?
a) 100/- b) 250/- c) 500/- d) 1000/-
Q49. In case after expiry, balance in the rupee prepaid cards is above certain
balance an annual maintenance charge of Rs………….. will be recovered each year
from the unused balance lying on the expired cards.
a) 50 b) 100 c) 150 d) 200
14
TECHNOLOGY PRODUCTS - 3
Q1. Which of the following is not eligible to register as a Merchant on “SBI Buddy
Merchant”?
a) Debit Card linked to your Current Account
b) Corporate Internet Banking User
c) Mobile number is registered in the current account
d) Debit Card linked to your Savings Account
Q2. “State Bank Buddy” And “SBI Buddy Merchant” Apps can be used on
…………..?
a) Same mobile number b) on different mobile numbers
c) One App at a time on same mobile number d) Any of the above
Q3. Maximum balance at any point of time in “SBI Buddy Merchant” App can be Rs.
……….?
a) 10000 b) 20000 c) 50000 d) 100000
Q6. In which of the following case of fund transfer with SBI Pay App the beneficiary
must be registered for UPI?
a) Account+IFSC b) Mobile+MMID
c) Aadhar number d) Virtual Payment Address
Q7. What is the per transaction limit for BHIM SBI Pay/UPI?
a) 5000 b) 10000 c) 1000 d) 20000
Q8. Through SMS to which mobile number you can switch ON or OFF your Debit
Card usage at ATM/POS/ECOM/DOM/INTL?
a) 9223488888 b) 9223766666 c) 9223866666 d) 9223966666
Q9. How many digits of Debit card are required in the SMS to be sent for switching
ON or OFF limit for ATM/POS/ECOM/DOM/INTL usage?
a) Any 4 digits b) first 4 digits c) last 4 digits d) last 6 digits
15
Q10. In Retail Internet Banking (RINB) while lodging of Online Request for Issue of
Demand Draft (DD) the customer can get DD issued through which of the following
option?
a) Home branch b) Any Domestic SBI branch
c) Any SBI branch d) a or b
Q11. ATM Switch Centre has been awarded with the “ISO Certification -…………..”
indicating highest technical and Security/safety standards
a) 27001 b) 20001 c) 29001 d) 9001
Q13. What is the maximum per day limit for GCC transaction for cash and transfer?
a) 25000 b) 200000 c) 40000 d) 50000
Q14. The maximum deposit allowed through cash deposit machine is?
a) 200000 b) 49900 c) 50000 d) 100000
16
c) Society for Worldwide Inter Bank Fund Transfer
d) None of the above
Q21. Linking of 5 self a/c to Mobile Banking can take place at……….?
a) ATM b) Branch c) Both of the above d) INB
Q23. What is the maximum per day limit for card to card transfer through ATM?
b) 15000 b) 25000 c) 40000 d) 50000
Q24. What is the maximum per day limit for card to account transfer through ATM?
a) 15000 b) 25000 c) 40000 d) 50000
Q26. What is the name of facility in which the beneficiary can withdraw money from
State Bank Group ATMs to begin with, without using a Debit Card?
a) Instant Money Transfer b) Immediate Money Transfer
c) Internet Mobile Transfer d) Immediate Mobile Transfer
Q27. What is the sequence in SMS sent after BREG for doing IMT?
i) PIN ii) Address iii) Beneficiary mobile number iv) Name of beneficiary
Q31. What is the monthly cap for IMT transactions per beneficiary?
a) 10000/- b) 15000/- c) 25000/- d) 40000/-
17
Q32. What is the maximum amount limit, per sender, in a calendar month for IMT?
a) 10000/- b) 25000/- c) 40000/- d) 50000/-
Q33. What is the fee for IMT (inclusive of GST) per transaction?
a) 10/- b) 22/- c) 25/- d) 30/-
Q35. In IMT the receiver can withdraw the money within………….. days?
a) T+1 b) T+2 c) T+3 d) 2
Q37. What is the time period for the lodgement of disputed ATM complaints from the
date of transaction?
a) 90 days b) 45 days c) 30 days d) 15 days
Q43. In Retail Internet Banking what is the per day limit of Quick Transfer option?
a) 10000/- b) 5000/- c) 1000/- d) 25000/-
18
c) Interbank Mobile Payment Service d) Interface Mobile Payment System
Q46. Which is the first Bank in India to launch its website on gTLD protocol?
a) ICICI Bank b) SBI c) SBT d) Axis Bank
Q49. In Retail Internet Banking what is the per transaction limit of Quick Transfer
option?
a) 10000/- b) 5000/- c) 1000/- d) 25000/-
19
TECHNOLOGY PRODUCTS – 4
Q1. To remit through mCash the sender requires...... of the beneficiary
a) Mobile Number b) E-Mail ID
c) Both d) a or b
Q3. Maximum amount of money that can be remitted per transaction by mCash
is…..?
a) Rs.5001/- b) Rs.1101/- c) Rs.1501/- d) Rs.2501/-
Q4. Maximum amount of money that can be remitted per day by mCash is…….?
a) Rs.2202/- b) Rs.5101/- c) Rs.11001/- d) Rs.5505/-
Q5. The maximum amount of money that can be remitted in mCash in a month
is…….?
a) Rs.2202/- b) Rs.5101/- c) Rs.11001/- d) Rs.5505/-
Q7. The passcode generated in mCash to claim money by the beneficiary is valid
upto….?
a) 2 days b) 5 days c) 3 days d) 7 days
Q10. The maximum per day limit for IMPS transactions in retail internet banking is
Rs.……………?
a) 10000 b) 40000 c) 50000 d) 200000
Q11. Which type of card can not be got issued using RINB?
a) Gift Card b) Smart Payout Card c) Credit Card d) Debit Card
20
Q13. Login password for retail Internet Banking customers is mandatory to be
changed after …….. days.
a) 180 b) 45 c) 365 d) 90
Q14. Cooling Period for Third Party Transfer through RINB is……….?
a) 5 days b) 3 days c) 2 days d) 4 days
Q16. What is the validity period of e-Card(Virtual Card) created under SBI Online
Banking?
a) 24 hrs b) 48 hrs
c) 24 hrs or till the transaction is complete, whichever is earlier
d) 48 hrs or till the transaction is complete, whichever is earlier
Q17. What is the cut off time for creating e-TDR / e-STDR online banking?
a) 24 hrs without any restriction on timing b) 6.00 AM IST to 6.00 PM IST
c) 8.00 AM IST to 8.00 PM IST d) None
Q19. New beneficiary activation for INB in normal case gets activated within ....
a) Immediately b) One day c) One hour d) 4-16 hours
Q20. How many third party accounts can be added in a single day in RINB
a) 2 b) 3 c) Unlimited d) 5
Q22. The maximum limit per transaction in Western Union money transfer is
a) USD 2000 b) USD 3000 c) USD 1500 d) USD 2500
Q23. The maximum number of transaction beneficiary can receive in a calendar year
in Western Union (WU) is
a) Unlimited b) 50 c) 45 d) 30
21
a) Mumbai Main b) NRI Mumbai c) NRI Kochi d) New Delhi
Main
Q25. For activation of INB, NRI customer has to send an SMS containing activation
code in the prescribed format to from his/her registered mobile number.
a) +91-922358888 b) +91-9223040040
c) +91-9224040040 d) +91-9223766666
22
Q36. The Contact Centre is functioning from …………….. locations
a) 1 b) 2 c) 4 d) 5
Q41. Which Id and password would be required for accessing the TAB Banking
application?
a) EMS b) HRMS c) CBS d) ADS
Q46. The administrator of the corporate prints the following form for getting the PPKs
of other corporate users issued from the branch
23
a) Form C1 b) Form C5 c) Form C7 d) Form C8
Q50. The access channel that is set for a Khata user in CBS is …………?
a) 10 b) 02 c) 04 d) 09
24
MACRO ECONOMIC ENVIRONMENT / GENERAL AWARENESS
1. How much amount of agricultural credit to farmers has been proposed in the
Union Budget 2017-18?
A. Rs. 15 lakh crore
B. Rs. 10 lakh crore
C. Rs. 20 lakh crore
D. Rs. 5 lakh crore
3. According to the Union Budget 2017-18, what is the total allocation made
under Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana?
A. Rs. 2.44 Lakh crore
B. Rs. 1.20 Lakh crore
C. Rs. 2.50 Lakh crore
D. Rs. 1.75 Lakh crore
4. Recently, Stock market regulator SEBI has imposed trade restrictions on 331
firms which are suspected of being “shell companies”. Which of the following is
NOT an activity generally carried out using shell companies?
A. Trade and normal business
B Financial manoevour for some unstated objectives
C Illegal financial activities
D Violation of intellectual rights and properties
5. From July 1, 2017, the nationwide GST (Goods & Services Tax) has been
rolled out in India, making the country a single market. What is the current size
of Indian economy?
A USD 1 Trillion
B USD 2 Trillion
C USD 3 Trillion
D USD 4 Trillion
25
A India, China, Africa
B US, EU, Japan
C India, Japan, China
D US, China, Japan
8. Which among the following places is not a site for India’s currency notes
printing press?
A Nasik B Mysuru C Salboni D Jhansi
10. Which of the following firms has been recently named as the world’s biggest
private equity firm?
A Aditya Birla Group
B Blackstone Group
C Goldman Sachs
D General Atlantic
12. India is the biggest producer, as well as the largest consumer and importer of
which of the following crops?
A Wheat
B Cotton
C Sugarcane
D Pulse
13. Who has taken charge as the new Vice Chief of Naval Staff (VCNS)?
A D K Dewan
B P N Murugesan
C Ajit Kumar P
D Karambir Singh
14. Who has won the 2017 Swiss Indoors men’s singles tennis tournament?
A Roger Federer
B Roberto Bautista Agut
C David Goffin
D Juan Martin del Potro
15. Which ministerial committee has been constituted by the Central Government
on PSU bank mergers?
A Piyush Goyal committee
B Arun Jaitley committee
C Rajiv Kumar committee
D Nirmala Sitharaman committee
26
16. Which Indian shuttler has won the 2017 men’s singles French Open
Superseries badminton tournament?
A B. Sai Praneeth
B Kidambi Srikanth
C HS Prannoy
D Parupalli Kashyap
17. Who has been honoured with the Hridaynath Mangeshkar Award 2017?
A Vishwanathan Anand
B AR Rahman
C Javed Akhtar
D Sulochana Tai
18. Who has been appointed as the new Special Director of Central Bureau of
Investigation (CBI)?
A Deepak Mishra
B Sudeep Lakhtakia
C Rakesh Asthana
D Javeed Ahmed
19. Who has been named as the 2017 Best FIFA Men’s Player?
A Gianluigi Buffon
B Cristiano Ronaldo
C Neymar
D Lionel Messi
20. Which of the following commodity exchange has launched India’s first
commodity options in gold?
A Indian Commodity Exchange Limited (ICEX)
B National Spot Exchange Limited (NSEL)
C Multi-Commodity Exchange of India Ltd (MCX)
D National Commodity & Derivatives Exchange Limited (NCDEX)
22. Which e-commerce company has tied up with Union Ministry of Textile to
promote handloom industry?
A Myntra
B HomeShop18
C Amazon
D Indiatimes
23. Who has become the 1st cricketer from Bangladesh to be inducted in MCC
World Cricket Committee?
A Mehedi Hasan Miraz
B Soumya Sarkar
27
C Shakib Al Hasan
D Nasir Hossain
24. Which of the following has been named as the India’s best FMCG company in
the food sector by the International Advertising Association (IAA)?
A Patanjali Ayurved
B Nestle India
C Amul
D Dabur India
25. What is the India’s GDP forecast for FY18 by the World Bank (WB) in its South
Asia Economic Focus (Fall 2017) report?
A 7.2%
B 7.1%
C 7.0%
D 7.2%
26. What is the India’s GDP forecast for FY18 by IMF in its latest World Economic
Outlook (WEO) report?
A 7.0%
B 6.7%
C 7.1%
D 6.5%
27. Who has been appointed as the new chairman of the Film and Television
Institute of India (FTII)?
A Anupam Kher
B Ragini Sharma
C Jagdish Bhagwati
D Rishi Kapoor
28. Which IIT institute has signed a MoU with Samsung for digital academy?
A IIT-Bombay
B IIT-Madras
C IIT-Kharagpur
D IIT-Indore
29. Which state has become the India’s first state to incorporate skill development
programme in higher education?
A Himachal Pradesh
B Chattisgarh
C Punjab
D Rajasthan
30. Who has won the Nobel Prize in Economic Sciences 2017?
A George F. Loewenstein
B Colin F Camerer
C Stewart C. Myers
D Richard. Thaler
28
31. The 2017 Nobel Peace Prize has been awarded to International Campaign to
Abolish Nuclear Weapons (ICAN). Where is the headquarters of ICAN?
A London
B New York
C Warsaw
D Geneva
32. Who of the following has won the Nobel Prize for Literature 2017?
A Svetlana Alexievich
B Mo Yan
C Patrick Modiano
D Kazuo Ishiguro
33. Who of the following have won the Nobel Prize in Chemistry 2017?
A Jean-Pierre Sauvage, Fraser Stoddart and Ben Feringa
B Tomas Lindahl and Paul L. Modrich
C Brian K. Kobilka and Robert J. Lefkowitz
D Jacques Dubochet, Joachim Frank and Richard Henderson
34. Who has become the first Indian to hold deputy director general post at World
Health Organisation (WHO)?
A Ritu Karidhal
B Soumya Swaminathan
C Minal Sampath
D Anuradha TK
35. What is the current repo rate, according to recently released 4th bi-monthly
monetary policy review statement for the year 2017-18?
A 6%
B 6.25%
C 5.75%
D 5.5%
36. Who of the following have won the Nobel Prize in Physics 2017?
A Rainer Weiss, Kip Thorne and Barry Barish
B John Kosterlitz and Duncan M. Haldane
C Takaaki Kajita, Barry Barish and Rainer Weiss
D David J. Wineland, John Kosterlitz and Rainer Weiss
37. Who of the following has/have won the Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine
2017?
A Jeffrey C. Hall
B Michael Rosbash
C Michael W. Young
D All of the above
29
C ICICI Bank
D IDBI Bank
39. Which was the first big state after Goa to use EVMs with VVPAT?
A Himachal Pradesh
B Gujarat
C Karnataka
D Rajasthan
40. Which state has won the ‘Best Tourism State’ National award-2017?
A Karnataka
B Madhya Pradesh
C Odisha
D Punjab
41. What is the India’s rank in the 2017 Global Competitiveness Rankings (GCR)?
A 40th B 55th C 67th D 35th
42. The Union government has set up special fund ‘DPIDF’ to boost dairy sector.
What does “DPIDF” stands for?
A Dairy Processing and Infra Development Fund
B Dairy Processing and Internal Development Fund
C Dairy Processing and Infrastructure Development Fund
D Dairy Processing and Internet Development Fund
43. Who is the newly appointed CMD of Oil and Natural Gas Corporation (ONGC)?
A Shashi Shanker
B Nirmala Kaur
C K S Rajput
D Dinesh Sarraf
44. The Asian Development Bank (ADB) has downgraded India’s GDP growth
forecast for FY18 from 7.4% to ____?
A 6.9%
B 7.2%
C 7.1%
D 7%
45. Who is the author of the book “The Shershah of Kargil: Captain Vikram Batra”?
A Deepak Surana
B Vikram Batra
C Neeraj Jain
D Sunny Rajput
46. Who is the head of the newly constituted Prime Minister Economic Advisory
Council (PMEAC)?
A Bibek Debroy
B Surjit Bhalla
C Ratan Watal
D Ashima Goyal
30
47. Which web portal has been launched by the Union Government for effective
implementation of National Child Labour Project?
A Care
B Pencil
C Corner
D Platform
48. Who is the newly appointed Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India?
A Rajiv Gauba
B Sunil Arora
C R.K. Raghavan
D Rajiv Mehrishi
49. Who has become the first Indian to be picked as AIBA representative at IOC
athletes’ forum?
A Sachin Tendulkar
B Milkha Singh
C Abhinav Bindra
D Mary Kom
50. Who has been appointed as the new interim chairman of National Payments
Corporation of India (NPCI)?
A M Balachandran
B B Sambamurthy
C K K Rao
D M S Jadon
51. Which of the following has become the India’s first payments bank to integrate
the UPI on its digital platform?
A FINO Payments Bank
B Airtel Payments Bank
C Paytm Payments Bank
D India Post Payments Bank
53. Which of the following cricket team is not directly qualified for the ICC Cricket
World Cup 2019?
A West Indies
B New Zealand
C South Africa
D Sri Lanka
54. Who has been appointed as new Indian High Commissioner to Pakistan?
A Ajay Bisaria
B Gautam Bambawale
31
C Satish Chandra
D Sharat Sabharwal
55. Who has won the 2017 Formula One Singapore Grand Prix tournament?
A Daniel Ricciardo
B Valtteri Bottas
C Sergio Perez
D Lewis Hamilton
56. President Ram Nath Kovind has launched a nationwide campaign ‘Swacchata
Hi Seva’ from which city?
A Kanpur
B New Delhi
C Gandhinagar
D Guwahati
57. Which committee has been constituted by the Union Finance Ministry to
monitor tech issues of GST?
A T M Thomas Isaac committee
B Krishna Byre Gowda committee
C Etela Rajender committee
D Sushil Modi committee
59. Who will be the first recipient of the lifetime achievement award instituted by
the Badminton Association of India (BAI)?
A Chetan Anand
B Aparna Popat
C Pullela Gopichand
D Prakash Padukone
60. The Punjab National Bank (PNB) has signed an agreement with which telecom
company to roll out open mobile wallet Speedpay?
A Vodafone India
B BSNL
C Reliance Jio
D Idea Cellular
61. Who has taken over charge as new Director-General (DG) of National
Investigation Agency (NIA)?
[A] Jainam Shah
[B] Ankit Awasthi
[C] Sharad Kumar Sinha
[D] Yogesh Chander Modi
62. Who has been appointed as the Karnataka’s first woman Director General and
Inspector General of Police (DG-IGP)?
[A] Neelmani N. Raju
[B] Minal Reddi
32
[C] Pooja Chandra
[D] Deepali Murthy
63. What is the India’s rank in the latest World Bank (WB)’s Ease of Doing
Business ranking 2018?
[A] 111th
[B] 130th
[C] 115th
[D] 100th
64. Which Indian bollywood personality has been honoured with the 2017 Parmod
Mahajan Smriti Award?
[A] Amitabh Bachchan
[B] Shatrughan Sinha
[C] Sharmila Tagore
[D] Anupam Kher
65. Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code was passed by Lok Sabha on _____
A. 1 October 2016
B. 1 November 2016
C. 5 March 2016
D. 5 May 2016
67. Which of the following has been authorized by RBI as the Bharat Bill
Payment Central Unit (BBPCU)?
A. NACH
B. NHB
C. NPCI
D. All of these
33
70. _____ is a USSD based mobile banking service from NPCI that brings
together all the Banks and Telecom Service Providers.
A. NUUP
B. QSAM
C. UPI
D. BHIM
71. In NUUP, a customer can access banking services by just pressing ______
from his/her mobile phones.
A. *99#
B. *999#
C. *149#
D. *99*99#
76. The new Rs. 50 denomination has a motif of _______ on the reverse,
depicting the country’s cultural heritage.
A. Mangalyan
B. Hampi with Chariot
C. Sanchi Stupa
D. Red Fort
34
77. The dimension of the NEW Rs.50 banknote is _______
A. 66 mm × 166 mm
B. 66 mm x 135 mm
C. 66 mm × 146 mm
D. 66 mm × 150 mm
78. An Authorised Dealer (AD) is any person specifically authorized by the RBI
under ______ of FEMA, 1999.
A. Section 10(1)
B. Section 11(1)
C. Section 12(1)
D. Section 13(1)
79. Who among the following set up the Credit Guarantee Fund Trust for Micro
and Small Enterprises (CGTMSE)?
A. GOI
B. Ministry of MSME
C. SIDBI
D. All of these
81. If the tangible net worth of the company, as per the latest audited balance
sheet, is not less than ______ crore, then the corporate would be eligible to
issue CP.
A. 4 crore
B. 3 crore
C. 2 crore
D. 5 crore
35
B. 7 crore
C. 6 crore
D. 5 crore
86. Bank loans up to a limit of ______ per borrower for building social
infrastructure under priority sector.
A. Rs. 1 crore
B. Rs. 2 crore
C. Rs. 3 crore
D. Rs. 5 crore
87. Bank loans up to a limit of _____ to borrowers for purposes like solar based
power generators under priority sector.
A. Rs. 10 crore
B. Rs. 18 crore
C. Rs. 15 crore
D. Rs. 20 crore
89. Which of the following public sector banks has the largest number of branches
in foreign countries?
a. Bank of India
b. Bank of Baroda
c. Punjab National Bank
d. Corporation Bank
36
90. Which of the following regulates Credit Rating agencies in India?
a. RBI
b. NSE
c. SEBI
d. ICAI
92. Who has taken over charge as new Director-General (DG) of National
Investigation Agency (NIA)?
[A] Jainam Shah
[B] Ankit Awasthi
[C] Sharad Kumar Sinha
[D] Yogesh Chander Modi
93. Who has been appointed as the Karnataka’s first woman Director General and
Inspector General of Police (DG-IGP)?
[A] Neelmani N. Raju
[B] Minal Reddi
[C] Pooja Chandra
[D] Deepali Murthy
94. Pension regulator PFRDA has increased maximum age of joining National
Pension Scheme (NPS) Private Sector from 60 to _____?
[A] 70 years
[B] 65 years
[C] 63 years
[D] 67 years
95. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has constituted high-level task force on public
credit registry (PCR) for India. It will be chaired by
[A] Y M Deosthalee [B] Minal Reddi
[C] Pooja Chandra [D] Deepali Murthy
96. What is the current reverse repo rate, according to recently released 4th bi-
monthly monetary policy review statement for the year 2017-18?
A 6%
B 6.25%
C 5.75%
D 5.5%
97. What is the current Bank rate, according to recently released 4th bi-monthly
monetary policy review statement for the year 2017-18?
A 6%
B 6.25%
37
C 5.75%
D 5.5%
98. What is the CRR, according to recently released 4th bi-monthly monetary
policy review statement for the year 2017-18?
A 4%
B 4.25%
C 4.75%
D 4.5%
99. What is the current Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) according to recently
released 4th bi-monthly monetary policy review statement for the year 2017-
18?
A 20 %
B 18%
C 19.5%
D 18.5%
100. State Bank of India (SBI) along with FTSE Russell, global index and data
provider, launched FTSE SBI Bond Index series at London Stock Exchange
(LSE)
A London Stock Exchange
B New York Stock Exchange
101. India and which country have recently signed pacts for technical
cooperation in the field of Railways?
[A] Switzerland
[B] Nepal
[C] Malaysia
[D] Bhutan
102. Who has been appointed as the new Vice-Chairman of NITI Aayog?
[A] Rutvak Agrawal
[B] Vijay Parasher
[C] Umesh Singhal
[D] Rajiv Kumar
103. NTPC has signed a Rs 3,000-crore term loan agreement with which
bank for partially funding its capital expenditure?
[A] State Bank of India
[B] Punjab National Bank
[C] ICICI Bank
[D] HDFC Bank
38
[C] P K Krishnan
[D] M S Ganesha
105. Which city has been formally accorded the status of India’s first World
Heritage City by UNESCO?
[A] Udaipur
[B] Mathura
[C] Ujjain
[D] Ahmedabad
106. Which of the following airports has bagged the National Award for
‘Excellence’ in Energy Management?
[A] Chennai International Airport
[B] Rajiv Gandhi International Airport
[C] Chaudhary Charan Singh International Airport
[D] Vijayawada International Airport
108. Who is the newly elected chairman of Press Trust of India (PTI) ?
[A] Mahendra Mohan Gupta
[B] M.P. Veerendra Kumar
[C] Viveck Goenka
[D] Hormusji N. Cama
39
111.Which among the following public sector banks has announced that BNP
Paribas Cardiff is keen to increase its stake from 26 percent to 36 percent?
(a) Actuary
(b) Broker
(c) Agent
(d) Clause
(e) None of the given options is true
115. Which Bank and Bajaj Allianz General Insurance have signed an agreement
for the distribution of insurance products through the branches?
40
116.Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has set up Supervisory Colleges for six
Scheduled Commercial Banks which have sizeable international presence
recently. Which among the following Banks is not them?
(a) Development
(b) Department
(c) District
(d) Doing
(e) None of the given options is true
120.National Housing Bank (NHB), a wholly owned subsidiary of the central bank
(RBI) was established in 1988 under the-
41
121. The Board of Industrial and Financial Reconstruction (BIFR) came into
existence in-
(a) 1999
(b) 1995
(c) 1991
(d) 1987
(e) 1982
(a) NABARD
(b) SEBI
(c) RBI
(d) Finance Ministry
(e) Government of India
125.From 01st September 2017 Punjab National Bank's customers will have to
pay charges for depositing cash above _______ in a non-base branch even if
it is located in the same city.
42
(a) VY Reddy
(b) Aditya Kapoor
(c) Shikha Sharma
(d) Uday Kotak
(e) Nita Ambani
127. Name the smartphone maker company, which has tied up with State Bank
of India to store higher variants of SBI debit cards on the app.
(a) Samsung
(b) Motorola
(c) Apple
(d) Lava
(e) Sony
128.Private sector lender Axis Bank reduced interest rate on savings bank
accounts by 50 basis points to 3.5 percent for deposits up to-
(a) Rs 1 lakh
(b) Rs 80 lakh
(c) Rs 20 lakh
(d) Rs 50 lakh
(e) Rs 10 lakh
43
132.Part of company’s earning or profit which is paid out to shareholders is known as
_______
(a) Premium
(b) Dividend
(c) Bonus
(d) Sum Assured
(e) Return
133. According to the Income Tax Act of 1961, the age of Super Senior Citizens
should be-
(a) 60 years
(b) 70 years
(c) 80 years
(d) 75 years
(e) 65 years
134. As per the amendment, the pecuniary jurisdiction of the Banking Ombudsman
to pass an award has been doubled to _____ rupees.
(a) 20 lakh rupees
(b) 10 lakh rupees
(c) 25 lakh rupees
(d) 50 lakh rupees
(e) 5 lakh rupees
135. Which of the following is the country’s largest custodian and depository
participant?
(a) CIBIL
(b) SEBI
(c) NABARD
(d) SHCIL
(e) None of the given options is true
(f) USA
136.Security Paper Mill (SPM) was formally inaugurated and dedicated to the nation
on the 9th March, __________ by the then Deputy Prime Minister, Shri Morarji
Desai.
(a) 1956
(b) 1968
(c) 1949
(d) 1962
(e) 1971
137. Which among the following bank is the first bank to launch the Mudra Card
based on the RuPay platform?
(a) SBI
(b) Corporation Bank
(c) Vijaya Bank
(d) PNB
(e) HDFC Bank
44
138. Which bank has launched India’s first contactless mobile payment solution-?
(a) ICICI
(b) Kotak Mahindra Bank
(c) IndusInd Bank
(d) South Indian Bank
(e) Axis Bank
139. Which bank has launched India’s first golf-centric credit card?
(a) SBI
(b) UBI
(d) PNB
(d) RBL
(e) ICICI
140. A signed undertaking from one party containing a promise to pay a stated sum
to a specified person or a company is known as ________
(a) Power of Attorney
(b) Promissory Note
(c) Purchasing Power Parity
(d) Plastic Notes
(e) None of the given options is true
141. ICRA Limited (formerly Investment Information and Credit Rating Agency of
India Limited) was set up in _________ by leading financial/investment institutions,
commercial banks and financial services companies as an independent and
professional Investment Information and Credit Rating Agency.
(a) 2004
(b) 1999
(c) 1995
(d) 1987
(e) 1991
143.Which of the following is mainly used by the banks in order to meet their
temporary requirement of Cash on a daily basis?
(a) Commercial Paper
(b) Certificate of Deposit
(c) Collateralized Borrowing and Lending Obligations (CBLO)
(d) Call Money
(e) None of the given options is true
45
KEY FOR MCQ MACRO ECONOMIC ENVIRONMENT / GENERAL AWARENESS
1 B 31 D 61 D 91 A 121 D
2 D 32 D 62 A 92 D 122 D
3 A 33 D 63 D 93 A 123 E
4 A 34 B 64 D 94 B 124 E
5 B 35 A 65 D 95 A 125 C
6 C 36 A 66 C 96 C 126 D
7 B 37 D 67 C 97 B 127 A
8 D 38 D 68 A 98 A 128 D
9 B 39 B 69 C 99 C 129 C
10 B 40 B 70 A 100 A 130 B
11 D 41 A 71 A 101 A 131 A
12 D 42 C 72 C 102 D 132 B
13 C 43 A 73 B 103 C 133 C
14 A 44 D 74 A 104 B 134 A
15 B 45 A 75 B 105 D 135 D
16 B 46 A 76 B 106 B 136 B
17 C 47 B 77 B 107 A 137 B
18 C 48 D 78 A 108 C 138 A
19 B 49 D 79 D 109 E 139 D
20 C 50 B 80 D 110 B 140 V
21 A 51 B 81 A 111 C 141 E
22 A 52 C 82 B 112 B 142 D
23 C 53 A 83 D 113 D 143 D
24 C 54 A 84 A 114 A
25 C 55 D 85 D 115 B
26 B 56 A 86 D 116 C
27 A 57 D 87 C 117 E
28 C 58 D 88 C 118 A
29 D 59 D 89 B 119 B
30 D 60 B 90 C 120 A
46
GENERAL BANKING
1. Commercial banks can obtain funds by way of rediscounting of eligible bills with
RBI under section:
4. Bank notes issued by RBI are exempted from payment of stamp duty as per
which of the following:
a. Section 12, Indian Stamp Act 1899
b. Section 23, Banking Regulation Act
c. Section 5, Negotiable Instrument Act
d. Section 29-RBI Act
6. Banks have to maintain cash balances with RBI in a special current account for
maintenance of Cash Reserve Ratio as per :
7. What is the highest denomination bank note that RBI can issue as per provisions
of RBI Act?
a. Rs. 1000 b.Rs. 2000 c. 5000 d. Rs. 10000
47
8. Cash in a currency chest is held by a bank as:
a. Licensee b. A bailer c. Agent d. Owner
a. April 1, 1934 b. July 1, 1956 c. March 16, 1949 d.March 26, 1950
11. Under Section 5(a) of the Banking Regulation Act 1949, approved securities
denote:
a. Securities approved by Indian Banks Association
b. The securities which have been defined under Section 20 of the Indian Trusts
Act 1882
c. The securities approved by IDBI
12. .As per Section 17 of Banking Regulation Act 1949, every banking company
incorporated in India is required to create a reserve fund and to transfer to it at least:
a. 50% of profits after dividend b.20% of profit before dividend
c.15% of total profits d.20% of total profits
13. .Under which section of Banking Regulation Act 1949, a banking company is
prohibited to grant a loan or an advance against security of its own shares:
a. 19(2) b.20(1) c. 17(2) d. 24
14. Under which section of Banking Regulation Act 1949, every banking company
has to maintain statutory liquidity ratio:
a. 19(d) b.25 c.24 d.None
15. Under which section of Banking Regulation Act 1949, every banking company
has to submit annual statement of all those accounts which are lying under
inoperative category for the last 10 years to RBI :
a. 17
b. 25
c. 19(2)
d.26
16. A customer wants return of his paid cheques. He can ask his bank to return him
the paid instruments under the provisions of which of the following :
a. RBI Act Section 45
b. Negotiable Instruments Act Section 45 Z
c. Banking Regulation Act Section 45 Z
d. Negotiable Instrument Act Section 45 ZA
e. Negotiable Instrument Act Section 45 ZC
48
17.Banks can undertake the business of banking and ‘banking’ as a term has been
defined under :
a. Banking Regulation Act Section 5(b)
b. Banking Regulation Act Section 17
c. RBI Act Section 2(2)
d. Negotiable Instruments Act Section 1
e.All the above
18. What is the maximum extent, up to which a bank can hold the shares of a
company when it is a pledge or mortgagee or absolute owner?
a. No ceiling
b. 5% of the total unsecured loans
c. 30% of its own paid up capital and reserves or 30% of the paid up capital of
the company, whichever is lower
d. 30% of its own paid up capital and 30% of the paid up capital and reserves of
the company, whichever is lower
e. 30% of the capital
19. Under which Section of NI Act, the bank has obligation to make payment of
cheque issued by a customer:
a. 85 b. 131 c.30 d. 31
22.The Negotiable Instrument Act 1881 as amended from time to time is applicable
in all parts of India except J&K.
a. True b. False
23.Which among the following parties are liable on the negotiable instruments either
as drawer or as acceptor or endorser :
a. A minor b.An insolvent c.A lunatic d.None
25.Protection is available to paying banker for paying draft with endorsement u/s
……. Of NI Act:
a. 85 b.85 A c. 131 d.130
49
26.An instrument is inchoate if the amount or the date or the name of payee, all are
left blank.
a. True b.False
29.A cheque has already been negotiated by X to Y and by Y to Z. How many times
more, this instrument can be negotiated?
a. Thrice
b. Twice
c. Once
d. No limit
30.As per Section 13 of NI Act, 1881, the negotiable instrument has not been defined
directly but it is defined indirectly.
a. True b .False
34.The holder of a negotiable instrument is holder in due course if (a) he has right of
possession (b) he receives the instrument for lawful consideration (c) the instrument
is in his possession. Which of these is correct :
a. a and b only
b. b and c only
c. a and c only
d. a to c all
50
35.Which of the following is not a condition essential for constituting a person as
holder of a negotiable instrument:
a. he could be payee of the instrument
b. he could be an endorsee of the instrument
c. he should receive the instrument for valuable consideration only and not
otherwise
d. he has the right of possession to the instrument.
36.Who among the following is only a holder and not a ‘holder’ in due course?
a. Holder of a bearer cheque
b. Holder of a crossed order cheque
c. Holder of a non-negotiable crossed cheque
37.A is payee of a cheque but court prohibits him to receive the payment :
a. In this case A will remain holder of the cheque
b. In this case A will lose rights of holder
c. In this case A will receive the payment
d.In this case A will become agent of the drawer
40.A customer tenders to the bank an outstation cheque of Rs. 10000 for collection
and also requests for instant credit of the cheque, to which bank agrees. What would
bank be called :
a. Agent of the customer
b. Holder for value
c. Holder
d. Holder in due course
41.In case of a gift cheque, the payee cannot be holder in due course.
a. True b .False
43.A has received an order cheque which bears a forged endorsement in his favour.
The cheque was originally issued in favour of Mr. X who endorsed in favour of Y but
Y misplaced it and Z who found this cheque endorsed it in favour of A by forging X’s
signature. The holder of cheque will be:
a. A b.Y c. Z d.None
51
45. Cheque has been defined as per section …… of NI Act:
a. 3 b.4 c.5 d.6 e.11
49.If a bill is lost, the holder can get its duplicate as per section 45 A of NI Act.
a. True b. False
50. Currency notes are promissory notes as these have features similar to
promissory notes.
a. True b. False
52.A bill is presented to drawee. What is the period during which he is to give his
acceptance (Under section 63 of NI Act )?
a. 3 days including holidays
b. 3 days excluding holidays
c. 48 hours including holidays
d. 48 hours excluding holidays
e. 48 hours excluding Sunday
52
54.Where due date of a usance of bill of exchange is to be calculated, the day on
which it is drawn/accepted, shall be included.
a. True b. False
57.A formal notorial certificate based on noting, to attest that the bill has been
dishonored is called:
a. Noting of the bill
b. Protesting of the bill
c. Notice of dishonor
d. Court direction
e. Any of the above
58.The 3 days of grace for payment of usance bills or promissory notes are allowed
as per Section ….. of NI Act :
a. 22 b.23 c.24 d.25 e. 26
59.A bill of exchange is dated 31.08.2016 and is payable 3 months after date. It is
presented on Sept 02, 2016 and accepted by the drawee on Sept 03, 2016. What
will be its due date?
a. Dec 03, 2016
b. Dec 04, 2016
c. Dec 05, 2016
d. Dec 02, 2016
60.A bill of exchange has been received by your branch for collection from London
branch of a foreign bank. The bill is dishonoured on presentation for payment :
a. Protesting would be required under the provisions of UCPDC
b. Protesting would be required under the provisions of FEMA
c. Protesting would be essential under the provisions of Section 99 of NI Act
d. Protesting of the bill will be under the provisions of Section 100 of NI Act
e. Protesting would not be required as the bill is under collection only.
53
61.X and Y deal with each other by sale and purchase of goods. X draws a bill of
exchange on Y which Y accepts for payment, but no sale purchase has taken place
for this bill. In this case the bill is :
a. Clean bill of exchange
b. Documentary bill of exchange
c. Foreign bill
d. Genuine bill
e. Accommodation bill
62.The authority to declare holiday u/s 25 of NI Act is originally with the State Govt.
a. True b. False
63.Banks issue demand draft payable to order only instead of making it payable to
bearer or order in terms of which of the following :
a. Banking Regulation Act Section 49 A
b. Reserve Bank of India Act Section 31
c. Negotiable Instrument Act Section 85
d. Bills of Exchange Rules 1881
65.Where interest rate is not mentioned on a promissory note it shall be 18% p.a. as
per Section 82 of NI Act:
a. True b. False
66.Your branch receives a cheque of Rs. 500 written in figures and Rs. Five lac in
words. Under Section 18 of the NI Act, the bank:
a. Is required to return the cheque, as the mandate is not clear
b. Is required to pay the amount written in words
c. Is required to pay the amount in figures
d. Is required to pay the lower of the amount written in words and figures
67.Alterations are not allowed on cheques under CTS-2010. The effective date of
implementation is :
a. April 01, 2011
b. Dec 01, 2010
c. Oct 01, 2010
d. April 01, 2010
68.As per Sec 17 of Stamp Act, all the instruments or document chargeable with
duty if they are executed in India must be stamped before or at the time of execution.
a. True .b. False
54
d) Any one or more consumers where there are numerous consumers having the
same interest, i.e., they should have a common cause of action.
e) All of the above
70.Under which section of NI Act Minor may draw, endorse and accept a negotiable
instrument so as to bind all parts except himself
a) 24 b)25 c)26 d) 35
71.Under which section of Partanership Act 1932, partners are Jointly and severally
liable for all acts done while he is a partner
a) 21 b) 25 c) 26 d) 85
73. Maximum penalty for giving false compliance certification in the rectification of
irregularities in RFIA is Marks:
75.Under Prevention of Money Laundering Act 2002 banks have to report suspicious
transactions to:
a. RBI b.CBI c. FIU-IND New Delhi d.LHO
76. Which section of BR Act prohibits a bank from buying, selling or dealing in goods
except in connection with the realization of a security :
a.8 b.4 c.7 d.9
77.With whom has SBI entered into an agreement for setting up a Payment Bank
Joint Venture?
a. Reliance Industries Ltd.
b. Tata Finance
c. Birla Cements Ltd
d. Sundaram Finance Ltd.
78.Which Bank has launched ‘SME Bank’ that will provide complete digital banking
services?
a. ICICI Bank Ltd
55
b. HDFC Bank
c. Kotak Mhindra Bank
d.Axis Bank
79.If a person is missing for more than 1 year, balance in the account may be
disposed off without insisting of death certificate upto amount:
89. A branch can be kept open for government business on a public holiday on the
requisition made by the
a) District Collector b) Judicial Magistrate c) Treasury Officer d) None of these
56
90. A Life Certificate is required to be furnished by the pensioners/family pensioners
in the prescribed form:
a) Once in a year in the month of November
b) Twice in a year in the month of June and December
92. The deposit mobilized by the Bank under Capital Gains Accounts Scheme are
credited to
a) Government accounts b) Term Deposits c. SB account d. either b or c
93 What is the rate at which the Govt commission is paid to the Bank for Govt
Receipts in physical mode?
a) Rs.25 per transaction b) Rs.45 per transaction
b) c) Rs.30 per transaction d) Rs.50 per transaction
94. What is the rate at which the Govt commission is paid to the Bank for Govt
Receipts in digital mode :
a) Rs.25 per transaction b) Rs.12 per transaction
c) Rs.30 per transaction d) Rs.50 per transaction
97.In case of excess payment of pension the maximum recovery which can be
effected from future pension every month is:
a) 1/4th of pension b) 1/3rd of pension
c) 1/2nd of pension d) whole amount to be recovered
98. Govt commission receivable for the last quarter is debited to account for arriving
at correct Profit/Loss of the branch :
a) Suspense Account b) Sundries Account c) Adjusting Account
100. In case of no nomination in PPF account the outstanding amount will be paid to
legal heirs of the deceased without Succession Certificate up to
a) Rs.10000 b) Rs.50000 c) Rs.1 lacs d) Rs. 5 lacs
101. Loan against PPF can be given between ------and-------- financial years
a. 2 & 3 b. 1 &3 c. 4 & 8 d. 3 & 6
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102. Maximum amount of withdrawal from PPF account is linked to % of the balance
at the credit at the end of 4th year immediately preceding the year in which the
amount is withdrawn or at the end of the preceding year whichever is lower.
a) 40 % b) 25% c) 50% d) 75%
107. Income tax refunds up to Rs. ------------ are now credited through ECS.
a) Rs.20000 b) Rs.25000 c) Rs.50000 d) Rs.100000
108. SBI is conducting Government business under section ------------of RBI Act &
--------of SBI Act.
a) 45 & 32 b) 40 & 32 c) 45 & 30
110. Minimum deposit in the PPF account is Rs ------ per annum and multiple
of Rs ----------.
a) 500 & 5 b) 500 & 100 c) 100 & 5
111. PPF Account can be attached by Court for debt / liability of depositor.
a) True b) False
112. In case PPF deposit is made by means of a local cheque or demand draft by
the subscriber, following is correct
a) The date of realization of the amount will be the date of deposit.
b) The date of cheque/draft will be the date of deposit.
c) The date of credit to the account will be the date of deposit.
113. In SCSS, more than one account can be maintained subject to the condition
that deposits in all accounts taken together shall not exceed the maximum limit of
Rs.15 lakh
a) True b) False
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114. TCRN stands for:
a) Temporary Customer Reference Number
b) Temporary Customer Reference Note
c) Technical Consumer Reference Number
d) Technical Customer Reference Number
118. 3. Name the Encryption Mechanism implemented for online banking www.onlinesbi
a. 32 Bit SSL b. 64 Bit SSL c. 128 Bit SSL d. 256 Bit SSL
119. Small files that are deposited on a user’s hard drive when they visit a Web
site are called
a)Codes b) cookies c) profiles d) Trackers
122. Asset & Liability of all employees of the Bank have to declare under which
section of Lokapal Act 2013
a) 41 b) 42 c)43 d)44
123. Banking industry has been declared “Public Utility Service” under act:
a) Company Act b) Banking regulation Act
c). Industrial Dispute Act d ) RBI Act
59
a) Bank’s logo & name (water mark)
b) Fugitive ink
c) Secondary florescent ink
d) All of the above
129 Under CSR our Banks has taken new steps beneficial to environment:
a) Green Champion b) Blue Champion
c)Ozone Champion d) a & c
132. Claims upto Rs 20 lacs under COPRA 1986 are settled at:
a) District Forum b) State Commission c) National Commission
136 To ensure regular payment of locker rent, banks obtain at the time of
allotment of locker, fixed deposit which cover rent of ---- years
a) 2 yesr b) 3 year c ) 5 year d) 1 year
137. Number of cheque leave free per year in SB Account for senior citizen is:
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a) 20 b) 30 c) 40 d)50
139 Applicant of DD/IOI can stop its payment after delivery to beneficiary, before
payment.
a) True b) False
141 RTI fee Rs 10/- collected from the customers in cash, is to be credited to
a) Commission A/C b) Exchange A/C
b) Interest A/C d)P&T charges recovered A/C
144 Under how many grades revised Risk rating is divided under RFIA
a) 3 b)4 c)5 d)6
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a) True b) False
154 As per Banks compensation policy, where neither the Bank is at fault nor
the customer, but the fault lies elsewhere in the system, the Bank will help in
restoring the actual amount involved and, as a gesture of goodwill & to deal with
the customers fairly, will also compensate the customer with Rs.100/- per
Rs.5000/- (maximum Rs.1000/-) for each instance.
a) True b) False
155 As per Banks compensation policy, where the Bank had issued an ATM /
Debit card without written consent of the customer, which has been disputed by
the customer without using the card, the said ATM/Debit card will be taken back
by the Bank and cancelled. The Bank would reverse the charges, if levied
a) True b) False
157 As part of the compensation policy of the bank, the bank will pay interest to
its customers on the amount of collection instruments in case there is delay in
giving credit beyond the time period specified in Bank’s Cheque collection policy,
in case of Metro/Major A cities for SBI Branches----days & days-----in case of
Branches of other Banks.
a) 5,7 b) 7,10 c) 6,9 d) 6,7
158 The bank will pay interest to its customers on the amount of collection
instruments in case there is delay in giving credit beyond the time period
specified in Bank’s Cheque collection policy for collection of instruments forState
Capitals (other than North Eastern States & Sikkim) and Area I Cities for SBI
Branches -----days, & for Branches of other Banks-------days.
a) 5,7 b) 8,10 c) 7,10 d) 10, 15
159 As per Banks compensation policy, for collection of instruments at other
62
centres Bank will pay interest if it is delayed beyond ---------days for SBI
Branches and ---------days for branches of other Banks.
a) 8,10 b)10,14 c) 10,15 d) 15,30
160 As per Banks compensation policy, where the delay is beyond 14 days,
interest will be paid at the rate applicable for term deposit for the corresponding
period or Saving Bank rate, whichever is higher.
a) True b) False
162 As per Banks compensation policy, minimum interest shall be payable in for
compensation is Rs:
a) 10 b)20 c)25 d) 5
163 As per Banks compensation policy, Bank would also compensate the
customer for any reasonable charges which he/she incurs in getting duplicate
cheque/instrument upon production of receipt, in the event the instrument is to
be obtained from a Bank/institution who would charge a fee for issue of duplicate
instrument, subject to a maximum of Rs. 250/-.
a) True b) False
164 As per RBI’s instructions/guidelines stipulate that the time limit for resolution
of customer’s ATM complaints by the issuing banks is ------ working days from
the date of receipt of customer complaint.
a) 2 b)3 c)5 d)7
166 In case of dispute in regard to delayed credit to the customer’s account from
Cash Deposit Machine (CDM), the Bank will pay the interest at the applicable
rate of the customer’s deposit/overdraft/loan account for the delayed period.
a) True b) False
167 Duplicate IOI will be issued within ---------- working days from the receipt of
such request from the purchaser thereof. In the event of any delay beyond
above days, a compensation of Rs----------- will be paid.
a) 2, 10 b) 3,100 c)5,100 d) 7, 200
168 The Bank would pay the compensation for delay in return of
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securities/documents/title deeds of the mortgaged property beyond 15 days of
repayment of all dues agreed to or contracted, subject to above conditions, @
Rs.100/- per day (maximum Rs.5000/-) to the borrower”.
a) True b) False
169 As per Banks policy for dealing with incidents of frequent dishonour. in the
event of 3rd dishonour of cheque during a financial year, a cautionary notice will
be sent to the customer intimating him that no fresh cheque book will be issued
after dishounor of cheque on 4th occasion and the Bank will have the right to
close the account after serving a notice of 30 days to the customer.
a) True b) False
172 Under RTI,if an applicant is not supplied information within the prescribed
time of thirty days or 48 hours, as the case may be, or is not satisfied with the
information furnished to him, he may prefer an appeal to the First Appellate
Authority who is an officer senior in rank to the Central Public Information
Officer.
a) True b) False
177 Which is the following are mandatory for banks in relation to ATM?
a. The message regarding non-availability of cash in ATMs should be displayed
before the transaction is initiated by the customer.
b. The ATM ID may be displayed clearly in the ATM premises to enable a
customer to quote the same while making a complaint/suggestion.
c. To make available the forms for lodging ATM complains within the ATM
64
premises
d. Display the name and phone number of the official with whom the complaint
can be lodged complaints.
e. All of these
178 In which year, Reserve Bank of India (RBI) constituted the Committee on
Procedures and Performance Audit of Public Services under the Chairmanship
of Shri S.S. Tarapore (former Deputy Governor) to address the issues relating to
availability of adequate banking services to the common person.
a.2003 b.2004 c.2005 d.2006
183. Where the customer is a partnership firm, the beneficial owner is the
natural person(s), who, whether acting alone or together, or through one or more
juridical person, has/have ownership of/entitlement to more than ------ per cent of
capital or profits of the partnership.
a. 15 b. 20 c. 25 d.30
185. Where ‘simplified measures’ are applied for verifying, for the limited
purpose of, proof of address the following additional documents are deemed to
be OVDs :
a. Pension or family Pension Payment Orders (PPOs) issued to retired
employees by Government Departments or Public Sector Undertakings, if they
contain the address;
b. Letter of allotment of accommodation from employer issued by State or
Central Government departments, statutory or regulatory bodies, public sector
undertakings, scheduled commercial banks, financial institutions and listed
companies. Similarly, leave and license agreements with such employers
allotting official accommodation; and
c. Documents issued by Government departments of foreign jurisdictions or
letter issued by Foreign Embassy or Mission in India.
65
d. All of the above
191. Customer Identification Procedure is required when the bank is carrying out
transactions for a non-account based customer, that is a walk-in customer,
where the amount involved is equal to or exceeds rupees -----------, whether
conducted as a single transaction or several transactions that appear to be
connected.
a. 25000
b. 50000
c. 100000
d. 200000
66
192. In case it is observed that the address mentioned as per ‘proof of address
has undergone a change, Banks shall ensure that fresh proof of address is
obtained within a period of ------- months.
a. 6 b.9 c.3 d.12
b.
193. For which of the following Savings Bank account can be opened?
a. government departments
b. municipal corporations
c. any political party
d. professional concern
e. None of the above
199. If a locker is operated jointly, can there be more than one nominee?
a. Yes b. No
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200. Which of the following is not true about periodic updation of KYC
a. Low Risk-10 years
b. Medium Risk- 5 years
c. High Risk -2 years
d. None of the above
68
KEY - GENERAL BANKING
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
A D B D B B D C A C
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
B B B C D C A C D B
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
D B E E A A C B D A
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A B C D C C B A D B
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A B B B D D D A A B
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
A D A B D C B A A D
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
E B B C A B B A E C
71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
B C D E C A A B B A
81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
B A A A D B B B A A
91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
C D D B D C B C C C
101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
D C E A A A B B B A
111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
B A A A A B B D B A
121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
D D C A B D A B D A
131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
D A B A D B D D B A
141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
D C C B A C C D A C
151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160
C A A A A B D B B A
161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A C A D B A C A A B
171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
B A A C C A E A D A
181 182 183 184 185 186 187 188 189 190
A D A D D E D D C D
191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
B A E B D D A B A B
69
SYSTEMS & PROCEDURES
1. The size of the new 2000 RUPEE note is …………….?
3. How many bleed lines are there on new 500 rupee note?
a) 3 b) 5 c) 7 d) 9
4. How many bleed lines are there on new 2000 rupee note?
a) 3 b) 5 c) 7 d) 9
a) 5 b) 10 c) 25 d) 50
a) 5 b) 10 c) 25 d) 50
7. Counterfeit Currency Notes detected and impounded at the branch are required to
be reported on real-time basis directly to corporate centre and its effective monitoring
the application can be accessed at which URL?
a) https://ccr.sbi.co.in b) https://ccr.statebanktimes.in
c) https:// sbi.co.in/ccr d) https://statebanktimes.in/ccr
8. Manual preparation and submission of the counterfeit currency reporting has been
discontinued wef which date?
9. The currency chests should invariably report all transactions through ICCOMS on
the same day by …… PM by uploading data through the Secured Website to their
respective link offices.?
70
a) 7 b) 8 c) 9 d) 10
11. Penal interest shall be levied at the rate of ………. % over the prevailing Bank
Rate for the period of delayed reporting/wrong reporting/non-reporting /inclusion
of ineligible amounts in chest balances.
71
c) 9 months requirements d) 18 months requirements
20. All state Government transactions are reported to
a) FSLO at LHO b) GAD, Belapur
c) GAS, Nagpur d) None of the above.
21. Security forms should be in the custody of
a) Accountant b) Branch Manager
c) Joint custodians d) None of these
22. Various audit reports and Branch Manager’s Monthly Certificate register
should be in the custody of
a) Record Keeper b) Accountant
c) Branch Manager d) Any officer
23. EXIM Bills is the software used in
a) LCPC b) LPC
c) RACPC/RASMECC d) CCIL
24. Disaster Recovery Site for ATM Switch is at
a) Mumbai b) Chennai
c) Kolkata d) Bangalore
25. The stages of Pre Sanction Credit Process are
a) Appraisal and Sanction b) Assessment, Appraisal and
Sanction
c) Appraisal and recommendation, d) Appraisal and Assessment
Assessment and Sanction
26. CGTMSE stands for
a) Credit Guarantee Trust for Micro and Small Enterprises
b) Credit Guarantee Fund Trust for Micro and Small Enterprises
c) Credit Guarantee Trust for Manufacturing & service Enterprises
d) Credit Guarantee Fund Trust for Manufacturing & service Enterprises
27. RTGS business hours as per the revised RBI guidelines are
a) 8 AM TO 2 PM b) 8 AM TO 8 PM
c) 10 AM TO 4 PM d) 8 AM TO 4 PM
28. Foreign Department (FD), Kolkatta has been renamed as
a) Global Link Services b) Global Marketing Unit
c) None of these d) No change
29. OPERATION SANKALP is the name of campaign announced by Bank for
a) Promotion of RINB b) Promotion of GCC & GRC
72
c) NPA reduction d) None of the above
30. i-Probe is mandatory for all loan applications of
a) Rs.50 lacs & above b) Rs.75 lacs & above
c) Rs.10 lacs & above d) Rs.1 cr & above
31. Maximum capability that can be given to Employee in CBS is
a) 7 b) 9 c) 10 d) 12
32. Maximum amount of subscription to be made in a PPF account in a financial
year is
a) Rs.1 lac b) Rs.1.50 c) Rs.1.75 lacs d) Rs.0.50 lac
33. The ceiling on MCCSs as per CTS 2010 Standard cheques at Home branch is
a) Rs.5 lacs b) No Ceiling c) Rs.15 lacs d) Rs.20 lacs
34. Succession certificate does not cover
a) Gold loan ornaments b) Safe deposit lockers
c) Articles in safe custody d) All of the above
35. The Manager, CAC is having reporting relationship with
a) AGM, FSLO b) DGM (B&O)
c) Regional Manager of the d) None of the above
Region in which the CAC
is Located
36. Which of the following roles is not stipulated by BPR manual for CAC?
a) Mobile messengers b) Dy Manager (transportation)
c) Deputy Manager(Maintenance) d) Mobile Cashiers
37. Issuance of a cheque without balance is punishable under
a) Cr.CPC b) IPC c) Banking Regulation Act d) NI Act
38. Small coin depot transaction reported to
a) SGLO b) FSLO c) CAG d) ITS
39. A depositor of PPF account can nominate ____persons
a) One b) Two c) Three d) No limit
40. When interest is applied to PPF accounts?
a) 31st December b) 31st March c) 30th June d) 30th September
41. CDR mechanism covers only multiple banking/consortium/syndication
accounts with outstanding exposure of Rs. __ Cr. And above.
a) 10 b) 15 c) 25 d) 20
42. CRA is applicable to trade advances of ______
a) Above Rs.15 lacs b) Above Rs.10 lacs
73
c) Above Rs.5 lacs d) Above Rs.25 lacs
43. What are the KYC conditions we have to fulfill to open Small accounts?
a) Photograph and Address proof b) Two Photo proof and self certification
c) Photo proof and address proof d) Photograph and self certification for the
address
44. In Centralized Pension Processing Centers concept the commission between
Dealing/Home branch and Focal Point branch/ CPPC is distributed ------
a) 75%-25% b) 100%by CPPC
c) 100% by Dealing/ Home branch d) 80%-20%
45. A authorizes B for operating his locker. B approaches the bank for surrender
thereof. How would you react?
a) B can surrender the locker b) B cannot surrender the locker
c) If contents are nil he can surrender d) None of the above
46. The packets or boxes accepted for keeping in safe custody must bear which
one of the following seals------------:
a) Seal of the Bank b) Seal of the depositor
c) Both the above d) None of the above
47. When a person dies without leaving behind a will, a person appointed by court
to manage his estate is called
a) An executor b) An attorney
c) An administrator d) A trustee
48. In the event of Original and duplicate IOI are presented for payment through
clearing, by two different banks on the same day, the Bank----------
a) Will pay the duplicate b) Will pay the original
c) Will return both d) Both will have to be paid
49. Maximum amount for which an IOI can be issued is
a) Rs. 99,99,999 b) Rs. 99,99,99,999
c) Rs. 99,00,00,000 d) none of these
50. If the collection is realized beyond 45 days it is treated as---------
a) Normal Delay b) Abnormal delay
c) Delay is delay, it hardly whether d) No such classification matters
normal or abnormal
51 If the memorandum of securities is lost by the customer duplicate
memorandum is issued,
a) After obtaining indemnity
b) Duplicate is not issued is issued against a simple letter.
74
c) Duplicate is issued against a simple letter
d) None of these
52. What is the name the Project rolled out by NPCI In respect of CTS-2010?
a) Payee Name Project b) Project CTS-2010
c) Project Vijay d) Project MCC
53. Nomination facility is available in case of Deposit accounts, under which act?
a) Sec 45Z of BR Act b) Sec 45ZA of BR Act
c) Sec 45ZC of BR Act d) Sec 45 ZE of BR Act
54. All branches should ensure that all cases of counterfeit currency note to be
reported by way of counterfeit currency report to principal office (KYC/AML)
through?
a) DGM& CFO and money b) GM & CFO
laundering officer
c) CGM & CFO d) AGM & CFO
55. Forgery of valuable security / cash transaction where forged or counterfeit
currency note have been used, the report should be furnished to FIU-IND?
a) Every month by 5th day of b) Every month by 15th day of
succeeding month succeeding month
c) Every month by 10th day of d) None of the above
succeeding month
56. Maximum number of deposits that can be made in a PPF account in a
financial year is
a) 24 b) 18 c) 21 d) 12
57. What is the name the campaign for Deposit Mobilization through BC channel?
a) Lakshya 1000 b) Lakshya 7000
c) Lakshya 3000 d) Lakshya 2000
58. When scrip is withdrawn for renewal, it will be entered in which register?
a) Miscellaneous register b) Branch Document Register
c) Securities Exchange Custody d) Securities Register
register
59 Nomination of safe custody and safe deposit articles is available under what
Section?
a) Sec 45ZC of BR Act b) Sec 45ZC of SBI Act
c) Sec 45ZAof BR Act d) Sec 45ZF of SBI Act
75
60. Two currency Note press owned by RBI are at?
a) Devas and Nashik b) Devas and Salboni
c) Devas and Salboni d) Mysore and Salboni
61. Difference between Day’s deposit and withdrawal in the chest is known as?
a) Chest Transfer b) Currency Transfer
c) Amount Transfer d) Balance Transfer
62. In case if counterfeit notes found in remittance from currency chest to RBI,
how much amount is debited from banks current account?
a) Entire amount + ( Bank Rate+2%) b) Entire amount + (Base Rate+ 2%)
c) Entire amount + (Base Rate ) d) Entire amount + (Bank Rate+ 1%)
63. What is the Fidelity insurance for SWO?
a) 1 Lac b) 2 Lac c) 5 Lac d) 10 Lac
64. What is the size of the aluminium box of SWO?
a) 14x11x4 b) 11x10x4 c) 14x11x14 d) None of the above
65. IOI can be paid by ______ irrespective of the location of the drawee branch
a) Drawee branch only b) Clearing branch
c) Issuing branch only d) Any branch
66. Under Deceased account what is the aggregate balance upto which surety is
not required?
a) 0.50 Lac b) 2.50 Lac c) 10 Lac d) 5 Lac
67. Under Pahla Kadam and Pehli Udaan what is the threshold limit for Auto
Sweep?
a) 5000/- b) 15000/- c) 20000/- d) 10000/-
68 Under Pehla Kadam and Pehli Udaan the transaction limit for Internet Banking
per day is--?
a) 2000/- b) 3000/- c) 1000/- d) 5000/-
69. Under Pehla Kadam and Pehli Udaan the transaction limit for Mobile Banking
per day is --?
a) 1000/- b) 2000/- c) 3000/- d) 4000/-
70. Duplicate draft is to be issued within a maximum period of
a) 14 days b) 6 days c) 15 days d) 7 days
71. Which one of the following is NOT a BPR initiative ?
a) Grahak Mitra b) Drop Box c) Project Ambience d) Cross Selling
72. How many compartments does the Drop Box have, to accept the
instruments/Cheques through it for processing ?
76
a) One b) Two c) Three d) None of these
73. Which one of the following Business Unit is not a part of National Banking
Group (NBG) at Corporate Centre ?
a) SME Business Unit b) Government Business Unit
c) Financial Institutions Business d) Agri Business Unit
Unit
74. What is the Annual Turnover Range defined for any unit to be classified under
Mid Corporate Group ?
a) Rs. 25 Cr to Rs.100 Cr b) Rs. 10 Cr to Rs.500 Cr
c) Rs. 500 Cr to Rs.1000 Cr d) Rs. 50 Cr to Rs.500 Cr
75. Which one of the following is the major role of Green Banking Cell that has
been set up in the Bank ?
a) Setting up of Green Channel to all b) Providing Internet Banking Facility
Counters in the Branch
c) Providing Green Remit Cards d) Undertaking various initiatives like
Energy efficient lighting, tree
plantation, water & waste
management etc, to the Customers.
76. CENMAC (Central Office Management Committee) consists of
a) CGM, CDO, MDs b) Chairman, MDs, DMDs
c) MDs, DMDs, Circle CGMs d) None of these
77. The Bank's Registered Office is at
a) Mumbai b) Kolkatta c) New Delhi d) Chennai
78. The reduction of liquidity and interest rate risk and optimization of returns is
managed by which committee ?
a) Asset Liability Management b) Inspection and Audit Committee
Management System
c) Bank Risk Management d) Corporate Risk Mitigation
Department Committee
77
a) Designing a Loan Product b) Registration, Processing and
Generation of Loan using the
software Documents and tracking
the status of Loan applications
c) NPA Tracking d) None of these d) None of these
88. All CBS enabled banks are to issue only MCC cheques as per which act?
a) BR Act b) RBI Act
c) NI Act d) Payment & Settlement System Act
89. What is the role of Document Archival Centre (DAC) under BPR ?
a) Decongest the Branches by b) Execution of Bank's Loan
removing records maintenance
c) Printing of Bank's Loan d) None of these
Documents
78
90. Who is a Manager (BO) in a BPR Branch?
a) Accountant b) Branch Manager
c) CRO d) RMPB
91. Number of Inward Remittance Cell in the country are
a) Only two b) 14 at all LHOs
c) 3 at Delhi, Chennai, Calcutta d) Only one
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c) RBI d) None of these
102. Strong Room fitness certificate has to be renewed once in ?
a) Once in two months b) A quarter
c) Once in a year d) Six months
103. Balances in Currency Transactions account are transferred to FSLO on last
working day of ?
a) April & October b) April & September
c) February & August d) January & July
104. Excess cash found in the cash balance of a SWO has to be credited to ?
a) Suspense account b) Charges account
c) Sundry Deposit account d) Commission account
105. The deposit and withdrawal of Cash Box in/from Vault under IBCH will be
entered in ?
a) Cash Receipt / Delivery Register b) Cash officer’s jotting book
c) Cash box receipt Delivery d) None of these
Register
106. Cash held in the cash box overnight, will be treated as ?
a) Sundry balance b) Petty cash balance
c) Branch Cash balance d) None of these
107. Specific gravity of pure gold is ?
a) 18.1 b) 20.1
c) 19.3 d) 18.3
108. Cash officer is responsible for ______ while sanctioning gold loan ?
a) Purity b) Weight
c) Value d) All the above
109. Gold ornaments of deceased borrower pending their settlement will have to
be kept in ?
a) Joint custody b) Safe Deposit Articles
c) In a separate locker d) None of these
110. Vault Register will always be kept in ?
a) Accountant’s Hand Safe b) Strong Room
c) With Cash Officer d) None of these
111. Minimum Transaction that can be made to currency chest ?
a) Rs 1 lakh & multiples of Rs 5 lak b) Rs 1 lakh & in multiples of Rs
only 50,000 there of
c) Rs 50,000 & multiples of Rs 50,000 d) None of these
80
112. Currency Chest is the property of ?
a) Government of India b) SBI
c) Reserve Bank of India d) None of the above
113. Small Coin Depot consists of ?
a) All coins b) Coins upto Rs. 1/-
c) Coins below Re. 1/- d) Coins upto Rs. 5/-
114. Small Coin Depot (SCD) is the property of ?
a) SBI b) RBI
c) Govt. of India d) None of these
115. Rs 1/- notes are issued by ?
a) Govt of India b) RBI
c) SBI d) None of these
116. Min. withdrawal / deposits in SCD ?
a) Rs 100/- & multiples of Rs 50/- b) Rs 50/- & multiples of Rs 50/-
c) Rs 1000/- & multiples of 100/- d) Rs 500/- & multiples of Rs 50
117. Small coin depot transactions are to be reported to ?
a) Zonal Office b) RBI
c) FSLO d) None of these
118. Clean Note Policy (CNP) is governed by ?
a) Sec 35 of Indian Currency Act b) Sec 35 A of B.R Act
c) Sec 35 A of RBI Act d) None of these
119. Relationship between RBI & SBI in case of currency chests is
a) Principal & Agent b) Bailor & Bailee
c) Agent & Principal d) None of these
120. Person preparing the note packet is responsible for both quality & quantity
upto ?
a) Rs 100/- b) Rs 50/-
c) Rs 1000/- d) Rs 500/-
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123. For Rs 500/- & Rs 1000/- person preparing the note packet is responsible for?
a) Quantity only b) Quality only
c) Both quality & quantity d) None of these
124. Balances in Currency Chest have to be verified by an official other than the
joint custodians once in ?
a) Once in two months b) Half year
c) Once in three months d) Once in a year
125. The difference between day’s total withdrawals and day’s total deposits in the
Chest is ?
a) Treasury Transfer b) Cash Transfer
c) Currency Transfer d) None of these
126. The certificate of chest balance as on ____ is submitted to RBI by the Chest
branch?
a) 31st March b) 31st May
c) 31st July d) 31st Dec
127. In a soiled note remittance to RBI if more than ___% of notes is found to be
issuable notes, then entire remittance will be returned by RBI at sending
bank’s cost ?
a) 10 b) 5
c) 20 d) None of these
128. Name the of the Register to record exchange of Cash between SWOs in Cash
Dept.?
a) Cash Transfer Register b) Cash Receipts Delivery Register
c) Cash Officer’s Jotting Book d) Cash Transaction Register
129. What type of insurance cover is obtained for Cash Remittances?
a) Comprehensive insurance cover b) Fidelity Insurance cover
c) Transit Insurance cover d) None of these
130. As per the latest instructions of the RBI, FIR has to be lodged in case of Fake
Currency notes, if the no. of notes is ?
a) 4 b) 5 or more c) 3 d) 2
131. Days net Withdrawal/ Deposit to reported to FSLO through ?
a) ICCOMS b) IFAMS c) Fax d) email
132. Verification of Currency Chest balances by officials other than Joint custodian
is done at___________ intervals ?
a) Once in a month b) Once in 2 months
c) No periodicity stipulated d) Once in a quarter
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133. Surprise verification of Critical Currency Chests is made by LHO at ?
a) Monthly Interval b) Quarterly Interval
c) Half Yearly Interval d) No periodicity stipulated
134. Which of the following is true when remittance is sent from one currency chest
to another currency chest ?
a) Branch Cash Balance is credited and RBI’s Account is debited
b) Branch Cash Balance is debited and RBI’s Account is credited
c) No Entry is passed
d) None of these
135. Charges towards police escorts, transport etc. for chest to chest remittances
of treasure is ?
a) Borne by Bank b) Paid by RBI
c) Paid initially by Bank, then d) None of these
reimbursed by RBI
136. Repository is part of ?
a) Branch Cash Balance b) Currency Chest
c) Small Coin Depot d) None of these
137. Printing & Circulation of forged Indian currency notes is an offence u/s ?
a) Sec 292 of Criminal Procedure b) Sec 489A to 489E of Indian Penal
Code Code
c) Both d) None
138. Forged Note Vigilance Cell (FNVC) of the bank is required to submit data on
counterfeit notes detected during a month on all India basis by email to
____before the end of succeeding month.
a) RBI Issue Office b) FIU-IND, New Delhi
c) National Crime Records Bureau,New Delhi
d) Currency Management Dept. of RBI, Mumbai
139. Fidelity insurance cover for single window operator is obtained for ?
a) Rs 0.50 Lakh b) Rs 1 Lakh
c) Rs 5 lakh d) Rs 10 Lakh
140. Recounting of note packets is not required for denominations upto ?
a) Rs 50/- b) Rs 100/-
c) Rs 500/- d) All note packets to be recounted
141. Who will be responsible for tampered bundles / note packets kept in the vault?
a) Cash-in-Charge alone b) Joint Custodian of Vault
c) Accountant alone d) Branch Head alone
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142. In respect of soiled notes bundles prepared for remittance to RBI, who is/are
responsible for Quality & Quantity of notes in the bundle ?
a) Person preparing the bundle b) Cash-in-charge
c) Accountant d) Joint Custodian
143. Interest will be credited to the SB accounts at half year intervals on:
a) 30th June and 31st december b) 31st January and 31st july
c) 25th June and 25th december d) 31st March and 30th September
144. Ceiling for petty cash expense is?
a) Rs.100/- b) Rs.25/- c) Rs.50/- d) Rs.500/-
145. Petty Cash should be checked by ____________ at _____________ interval
a) BM, Monthly Irregular b) Accountant, Regular
c) RM, Monthly d) BM, Fortnightly
146. Interest will be calculated on a _____ product basis and credited to the SB
accounts at half yearly intervals
a) Daily b) weekly
c) 10th to last working day minimum balance d) monthly
147. Safe deposit receipt relating to deposit of duplicate keys is entered in BD
register and the safe deposit receipt is held by _________________ ?
a) Accountant outside the strong b) Accountant inside the strong room
room
c) BM outside the strong room d) BM inside the strong room
148. One Re coin is issued under _______ act
a) Coinage Act, 1906 b) RBI c) SBI d) BR Act
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a) at half yearly interval by the Branch Managers of nearby branches
b) By the Branch Manager of the Branch
c) No need for verification
d) None of the above
153 The coverage of cash-in transit insurance will be limited to _____?
a) The cash retention limit of the branch.
b) Upto 50,00,000/-
c) Upto 49,00,000/-
d) None of the above
154. What is the minimum amount that can be withdrawn from SB a/c using
withdrawal form
a) Rs.25/- b) Rs.10/- c) No such stipulation d) Rs.50/-
155 While sending Soiled Note Remittance to RBI, remittance should sent in
multiples of ________?
a) Rs.100000/- b) Rs.50000/ c) Rs.500/- d) Rs.1000/
156 The counterfeit bank notes cannot be impounded by-------------
a) All PSBs b) All Treasuries and Sub-treasuries
c) All NBFCs d) All Co-operative banks & RRBs
157 Cash shortage up to which is made good by the employee same day and if
there is no suspicion of fraud, it need not be reported as fraud.
a) Rs.1,000/- b) Rs.5,000/-
c) Rs.10,000/- d) None of these
158 In order to keep FCN(Foreign Currency Notes) at optimum level, branches are
advised to handover the FCNs to …........
a) Overseas Branch at monthly intervals
b) M/s Thomas Cook India Limited(TCIL) at regular interval
c) Reserve Bank of India
d) Need not to hand over FCNs, to be retained at branch
159 Full form of FATF which is pertaining to KYC AML standards
a) Financial Administration Task Force b) Financial Action Task Force
c) Foreign Administration Task Force d) Financial Action Technical Force
160 KYC AML standards are implemented as per ___ guidelines
a) RBI b) Government of India
c) Basel d) FEMA
161 Every year, Bank celebrates KYC Compliance and Fraud Prevention Day on
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a) 1st August b) 1st November
c) 1st December d) 31st July
162 Money Laundering is defined under ___ Act
a) RBI Act b) BR Act
c) Sec.2 of PML Act d) Section 3 of PML Act
163 All records pertaining to prescribed transactions need to be preserved for a
period of
a) 5 years b) 7 years
c) 9 years d) 10 years
164 All records pertaining to prescribed transactions need to be preserved for ___
years after cessation of relationship with the clients in respect of account
opening and KYC forms
a) 2 years b) 3 years
c) 5 years d) 10 years
165 Full KYC exercise will be required to be done at least every __ years for high
risk individuals and entities
a) 1 year b) 2 years
c) 3 years d) 5 years
166 Full KYC exercise will be required to be done at least every __ years for
medium risk individuals and entities
a) 3 years b) 5 years
c) 8 years d) 10 years
167 Full KYC exercise will be required to be done at least every ___ years for low
risk individuals and entities
a) 3 years b) 5 years
c) 8 years d) 10 years
168 Positive confirmation will be required to be completed at least every __ years
for medium risk individuals and entities.
a) 1 year b) 2 years
c) 3 years d) 5 years
169 Positive confirmation will be required to be completed at least every __ years
for low risk individuals and entities.
a) 1 year b) 2 years c) 3 years d) 5 years
170 In case of transfer of account, the following are the guidelines of RBI.
a) Fresh proof of address to be submitted to the transferee branch
within 15 days
b) Fresh proof of address to be submitted to the transferee branch within 30
days
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c) Fresh proof of address to be submitted to the transferee branch
within 6 months
d) Self-declaration from the account holder about his/her current address
171 The following is not officially valid document proof for KYC
a) PAN Card b) Voter Identity Card
c) NREGA card d) Telephone bill
172 In respect of walk-in customers where the amount of transaction is ____,
customer’s
identity and address should be verified.
a) Rs.20000 and above b) Rs.25000 and above
c) Rs.50000 and above d) Rs.1 lakh and above
173 Choose the odd one from criteria for a Small Account
a) Aggregate of all credits does not exceed Rs.50000
b) Aggregate of all withdrawals and transfers in a month does not exceed
Rs.10000
c) Balance at any point does not exceed Rs.50000
d) None of these
174 The following is false statement in respect of accounts opened for SHGs
a) KYC of all the members need to be done
b) KYC of all the office bearers is to be done
c) No separate verification for credit linkage
d) All the statements are true
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178 Non-individual acct holders with Cr/Dr summations of __ is classified as
medium risk
a) Rs.50 lakhs to below Rs.2 crores b) Rs.1 crore to Rs.5 crores
c) Rs.1 crore to Rs.10 crores d) Rs.2 crores to Rs.10 crores
179 Individual account holder with credit/debit summation below ___ is classified
as low risk
a) Rs.50 lakhs b) Rs.1 crore
c) Rs.2 crore d) Rs.5 crore
180 Non-Individual account holders with credit/debit summation below ___ is
classified as low risk
a) Rs.50 lakhs b) Rs.1 crore
c) Rs.2 crores d) Rs.5 crores
181 AMLOCK software for tracking suspicious transactions is acquired from ___
a) M/s 3i-infotech LTD b) M/s TCS Ltd
c) M/s Infosys LTD d) M/s Softech Infotech Ltd
182 The following is the threshold amount in respect of low risk customers for
filtering transactions for generation of alerts
a) Rs.10 lakhs b) Rs.30 lakhs
c) Rs.50 lakhs d) Rs.1 crore
183 In respect of receipts in foreign currency to the accounts of non-profit
organizations, a report needs to be sent to FIU-IND for value of transactions
more than ___
a) Rs.10 lakhs b) Rs.25 lakhs
c) Rs.50 lakhs d) Rs.1 crore
184. IBTS is
a) Inter branch transfer system b) Inter branch transaction system
C Inter branch transfer scheme D Inter branch transaction scheme
185. IBTS is meant for
a) Inter branch transfers other than SC/DDPs
b) Inter Branch transfers including SC/DDP
c) Inter Branch transfers other than staff purpose.
d) None of the above
186 How many new BGL accounts have been created for IBTS purpose?
a) 4 b) 3 c) 2 d) 8
187 The purpose of IBTS is
a) To ensure better control on inter Branch transactions.
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b) To replace Branch Clearing General Account (BCGA) as IBTS is self
reconciliation facility.
c) Due to RBI compulsions.
d) To enable faster realization of SCs/DDPs
89
a) Destination Branch code, amountCand narration
b) Destination Branch BGL No, amount and narration.
c)Destination Branch code, amount and destination BGL account.
d) Destination Branch code, BGL account and narration.
194 For responding a IBTS entry, the responding Branch
a) Need not depend on any documents.
b) It can respond after receiving system generated forward letter and
documents.
c) It can respond on the strength of Branch Clearing General Account.
d) None of the above.
195 Under COPRA Act District forum deals with claims up to______
(a) Rs.20 lacs (b) Rs.25 lacs (c) Rs.5 lacs (d) Rs.50 lacs
196 The Bank has the right to sell the gold ornaments pledged, after giving
reasonable notice to the borrower vide section ___ of the Indian Contract Act.
(a) 138 (b) 25 (c) 167 (d) 176
197 The apex appellate authority under the provisions of the COPRA is.....
(a) Supreme Court (b) High Court
(c) National Forum (d) None of these.
198 what is the maximum limit on the amount of compensation as specified in an
award by the Banking Ombudsman
(a) 10 lac (b) 15 lac
(c) 20 lac (d) 30 lac
199 Who can seek information from the Bank
(a) Individual (b) Organisation
(c) Association (d) All of these
200 Under the provisions of the RTI act, the appellate authority for branches in the
circle is......
(a) GM of the Network (b) CGM
(c) DGM of Module (d) None of these
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KEY - SYSTEMS & PROCEDURES
1 B 26 B 51 C 76 B 101 B 126 B 151 B 176 D
2 A 27 B 52 A 77 B 102 C 127 B 152 A 177 A
3 B 28 B 53 B 78 A 103 A 128 B 153 A 178 D
4 C 29 C 54 A 79 C 104 C 129 C 154 D 179 A
5 B 30 C 55 B 80 B 105 C 130 B 155 B 180 C
6 C 31 B 56 D 81 B 106 C 131 B 156 C 181 A
7 B 32 B 57 B 82 C 107 C 132 B 157 A 182 C
8 C 33 B 58 C 83 A 108 D 133 B 158 B 183 A
9 C 34 D 59 A 84 D 109 B 134 C 159 B 184 B
10 D 35 B 60 D 85 B 110 B 135 C 160 A 185 A
11 A 36 C 61 B 86 D 111 B 136 B 161 A 186 A
12 A 37 D 62 A 87 C 112 C 137 B 162 D 187 B
13 A 38 B 63 C 88 D 113 C 138 D 163 A 188 A
14 D 39 D 64 A 89 A 114 C 139 C 164 C 189 B
15 C 40 B 65 D 90 A 115 A 140 B 165 B 190 B
16 C 41 C 66 D 91 D 116 A 141 B 166 C 191 B
17 D 42 D 67 C 92 A 117 C 142 A 167 D 192 B
18 D 43 D 68 D 93 B 118 B 143 C 168 B 193 D
19 A 44 A 69 B 94 B 119 A 144 C 169 C 194 B
20 A 45 B 70 A 95 A 120 A 145 A 170 D 195 A
21 C 46 B 71 D 96 B 121 C 146 A 171 D 196 D
22 C 47 C 72 C 97 B 122 C 147 C 172 C 197 A
23 D 48 A 73 C 98 D 123 B 148 A 173 A 198 A
24 B 49 B 74 D 99 A 124 A 149 A 174 A 199 D
25 C 50 B 75 D 100 B 125 C 150 A 175 B 200 A
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HOME LOAN AND ITS VARIANTS
1. Minimum Loan Amount: under SBI Maxgain is
a) 10 lacs b) 15 lacs c) 20 lacs d) None of these
2. Maximum Loan Amount under SBI Maxgain is
a) 100 lacs b) No Cap c) 200 lacs d) None of these
3. Whether we need to take into consideration the existing Home Plus loans for
determining eligibility of Home Top-Up Loan?
a) Yes b) No
4. Individual(s) over 18 years of age with steady source of income,
includingpersons engaged in agriculture & allied activities
a) 20 years b) 21 Years c) 18 years d) None of these
5. In case the property holder is not having independent source of income, the
income earning near relative may join as co-borrower/ guarantor for the loan
and his or her income can be taken forarriving at loan eligibility.
a) True b) False
6. Maximum age limit for a Home Loan borrower is fixed at ______ years, i.e.
the age by which the loan should be fully repaid, subject to availability of
sufficient, regular and continuous source of income for servicing the loan
repayment.
a) 70 years b) 60 years c) 75 years d) 65 years
7. Ordinarily maximum ______number of co-borrowers, including
spouse/children/parents/siblings , is permitted in Home Loan
a) 5 b) 4 c) 3 d) 2
8. AGM (Region)/AGM (Branch) can relax maximum number of co-borrowers for
Home Loan provided the repayment is made through an account with Bank in
the joint names of all the borrowers
a) True b) False
9. EMI/NMI Ratio for Net Annual Income > 10 lacs is
a) 50 % b) 60 % c) 70 % d) 75 %
10. EMI/NMI Ratio for Net Annual Income >Rs. 3 lacs &<= Rs. 5 lacs is
a) 55 % b) 65 % c) 70 % d) 75 %
11. EMI/NMI Ratio for Net Annual Income > Rs. 8 lacs &<= Rs. 10 lacs is
a) 50 % b) 65 % c) 70 % d) 75 %
12. In cases where the customer opts to avail loan for funding premium of SBI
Life policy Margin on Premium is_______ %
a) Zero b) Ten c) Five d) Fifteen
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13. Loan to Value (LTV) ratio Home Loan Amount Upto Rs. 30 lacs is
a) 80 % b) 70% c) 75% d) 90%
14. Loan to Value (LTV) ratio Home Loan Amount Above Rs. 30 lacs and upto
Rs. 75 lacs is
a) 80 % b) 70% c) 75% d) 90%
15. Loan to Value (LTV) ratio Home Loan Amount Above Rs. 75 lacs is
a) 80 % b) 70% c) 75% d) 90%
16. Dicretionary power for approving concession in LTV NIL
a) True b) False
17. The maximum loan amount for repairs / renovations should not normally
exceed Rs_______.
a) 2 lacs b) 5 lacs c) 10 lacs d)15 lacs
18. Home loan may be sanctioned for reimbursement of investment made by the
borrower in housing during the preceding 24 months
a) True b) False
19. Reimbursement of investment made by the Home Loan borrower will be
restricted to the investments made by the borrower from own resources or
through borrowings from friends, relatives and employers
a) True b) False
20. Small expenditure like furnishing, wood work will be considered for
reimbursement. Reimbursement will also not be permitted for investment
made in acquiring vacant plots
a) True b) False
21. One criteria to get Special interest rate available to women borrowers under
Her Ghar Scheme is The woman should be the sole owner or one of the co-
owners of the property proposed to be financed by the Bank
a) True b) False
22. Interest rates of our Home Loans and other RE products namely (i) SBI Home
Top-up Loan (ii) SBI Reverse Mortgage Loan (iii) Loan against Property (LAP)
are linked to 2 year MCLR.
a) True b) False
23. Fixed rate option is available on new Home Loans sanctioned on or after 1st
May 2011.
a) True b) False
24. The discretionary powers made available to Chief General Manager (Circle)
for approving concession in interest rate for Home Loans > Rs 75 lacs is
_____
93
a) 10 bps b) 2 bps c) 15 bps d) nil
94
36. A separate BGL account number (followed by five digit Branch Code and a
check digit) has since been rolled out in CBS for crediting CERSAI charges
recovered from the Home Loan borrowers.
a) 3199841 b) 3199842 c) 3199843 d) 3199840
37. No pre-payment and or pre-closure penalty is levied on Home Loans
irrespective of the period for which the account has run or the
source of funds.
a) True b) False
38. The sanction of a home loan will be valid for ______ months from the date of
sanction.
a) 2 b) 3 c) 6 d) 12
39. Discretionary Powers to approve deviation for any default/write-off appearing
in CIBIL in respect of non-Credit Card dues above Rs 10000/- and upto Rs
50000/- is AGM (Branch)/ (CPC)/(RBO) or concerned Credit Committee
a) True b) False
40. NRIs eligible for Home Loans under the Scheme may include NRIs, with total
work experience of ______ years in India or abroad, who have taken up
jobs/professions/other economic activity abroad for better prospects
a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5
95
47. Nature of Facility under Home Top-up Loans upto Rs. 20 lacs is
a) Only Term Loan
b) Only Overdraft Facility
c) Term Loan and Overdraft with reducing drawing power
d) None of These
48. At any point of time not more than _____ loans will be allowed to exist under
the Home Top-up Loan scheme.
a) 3 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
49. Under Home Top-up Loan Scheme, Second loan may be considered only after
a gap of ___ year from the date of disbursement of first loan
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
50. Under Home Top-up Loan Scheme the maximum permissible tenor of the loan
will be the residual tenure of underlying Home Loan or ____ years, whichever
is higher, subject to liquidation of the loan before the borrower attains the age
of 70 years.
a) 10 b) 20 c) 5 d) 15
51. Under Home Top-up Loan Scheme, Loan upto Rs_____ lacs ,Extension of the
mortgage on the residential property already mortgaged with the Bank will not
be mandatory. However, loan period in such case should be co-terminus with
Home Loan
a) 10 b) 20 c) 5 d) 15
52. Under Home Top-up Loan Scheme, Loan above Rs 20 lacs & upto Rs. 2
crores , can be given as Overdraft facility & TL.
a) True b) False
53. Interest concession of ____ bps to women borrowers under Her Ghar
Scheme.
a) 1 b) 2 c) 5 d) 10
54. TIR in respect of POA Sales/Gift Deed will invariably be obtained from ______
empanelled advocates, irrespective of loan amount.
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
55. Home Loans to Staff and loans with limits less than Rs. _______ lacs will not
be eligible for assessing performance under Griha Tara campaign.
a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5
96
a) 15 days b) 30 days c) 60 days d) 90 days
57. Minimum age of the borrower in Reverse Mortgage Loan is ____ Yeas and
above.
a) 50 b) 55 c) 60 d) 70
58. Extension of mortgage for loan under SBI Home Top -up loan is not
mandatory up to the loan amount of Rs. _________ lacs
a) 2 b) 3 c) 5 d) 10
60. Applicants having net annual income of less than Rs. ___ lacs would not be
eligible for loan under the revised Home Top-Up loan scheme.
62. In case of House loan Take over above 75 lacs Max Permissible LTV is ___%.
a) 60 b) 75 c) 80 d) 90
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
64. All salaried applicants with minimum ----- year experience are eligible for SBI
Flexi Loan.
a) 2 b) 1 c) 1 d) 4
65. For SBI Flexi Loan, the maximum age of the applicant should be ------years.
a) 40 b) 45 c) 48 d) 50
66. Minimum Net Monthly salary of the applicant should be ---------lacs for SBI
Flexi Loan
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) No minimum stipulation
97
67. Minimum loan amount under SBI Flexi Loan is Rs.-------lac
a) 10 b15 c) 20 d) 25
68. Under SBI Flexi Loan, ------- times the loan quantum calculated as per the
normal EMI/NMI Ratio method, subject to stipulated LTV norms.
69. Under SBI Flexi Loan, minimum and maximum loan tenor are
70. To be eligible for top up loan under category 1, minimum home loan limit
should be ------lacs.
a) 20 b)25 c) 30 d) 50
71. Category 1 borrowers enjoying home loan limit up to Rs.75 lac are eligible for
top up loan up to
73. For top up loans above Rs.2 crore and up to Rs.5 crore which type of facilities
can be sanctioned.
a. Term Loan
b. Overdraft
c. Both Term Loan and Overdraft
d. Dropline OD
74. Which of the following conditions should be satisfied for the borrower to be
eligible under Insta Top up Loan.
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75. For insta top up loan CIBIL score should be
a. 600 or higher
b. 650 or higher
c. 700 or higher
d. 750 or higher
a) 1 b)2 c) 3 d) 5
78. For residual tenor of the existing housing loan of more than 120 months, insta
top up loan is to be repaid in -----months.
80. Maximum loan amount under Tribal Plus Home Loans Scheme is Rs. ____
lacs
a) 5 b) 10 c) 15 d) 20
99
HOME LOAN AND ITS VARIANTS - KEY
1 C 11 B 21 A 31 B 41 D 51 C 61 B 71 A
2 B 12 A 22 B 32 B 42 B 52 A 62 B 72 A
3 A 13 D 23 B 33 A 43 D 53 C 63 D 73 A
4 C 14 A 24 C 34 D 44 D 54 B 64 A 74 E
5 A 15 C 25 C 35 B 45 D 55 A 65 B 75 C
6 A 16 A 26 C 36 A 46 A 56 B 66 D 76 D
7 C 17 C 27 B 37 A 47 A 57 C 67 C 77 B
8 A 18 B 28 A 38 B 48 B 58 C 68 A 78 C
9 C 19 A 29 A 39 B 49 A 59 B 69 A 79 D
10 A 20 B 30 C 40 A 50 D 60 C 70 C 80 B
100
AUTO LOANS
Q1. What is the age group to whom Auto Loans can be given?
a) 18-65 years b) 21-65 years c) 20-70 years d) 21- 70 years
Q2. Which of the following Income criteria grouping is wrong for SBI Car Loan, SBI
Car Loan Overdraft and SBI Combo loan schemes?
a) Salaried/Pensioners – 250000/-
b) Salaried/Pensioners – 300000/-
c) Self-employed, Professionals, Proprietary/Partnership firms/Businessmen-
400000/-
d) Agriculturist – 400000/-
Q4. Which of the following pair is wrong about maximum loan amount permissible?
a) Salaried-48 month NMI
b) Businessmen/Self Employed- 4 times Net Profit/Gross Taxable Income +
Depreciation
c) Agriculturist – 3 times NAI
d) Agriculturist – 4 times NAI
Q5. What is the EMI/NMI ratio for Car Loan seekers who have already availed a
Home Loan from our Bank and their Annual income is above 10 lakhs?
a) 50% b) 60% c) 65% d) 70%
Q6. Which fact is correct about SBI Two Wheeler Loan product?
a) Minimum Loan 30000/- Maximum Loan 300000/-
b) Minimum Loan 30000/- Maximum Loan < 300000/-
c) Minimum Loan 20000/- Maximum Loan 300000/-
d) Minimum Loan 25000/- Maximum Loan 250000/-
Q7. Which of the following is the maximum EMI/NMI ratio for SBI Two wheeler loan?
a) 40% b) 45% c) 50% d) 60%
Q8. Which fact is incorrect about SBI Two Wheeler Loan product?
a) It can be given to old and new both types of customers
b) Minimum NMI is 12500/-
c) Minimum NAI is 150000/-
d) Margin is 25% of on-road price
Q9. The concessions in rate of interest linked to CIC scores to various types of
customers for Auto loan limit of Rs. …………… and above have been approved.
a) 3 lacs b) 4 lacs c) 5 lacs d) 7 lacs
Q10. If the Net Annual Income of the applicant is above Rs. 10 Lakhs what will be
the minimum margin for car loan for other than salary package/tie-up accounts?
a) 10% b) 15% c) 20% d) 25%
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Q11. Which fact is true regarding accessories, extended warranty and total
maintenance in car loan scheme?
a) 5% of on-road price or Rs.50000/- whichever less
b) 5% of ex-showroom price or Rs.50000/- whichever less
c) 5% of on-road price or Rs.50000/- whichever is higher
d) 5% of ex-showroom price or Rs.50000/- whichever is higher
Q12. What is the minimum margin for car loan, on the on-road price, for salary
package/tie-up accounts irrespective of their salary amount?
a) 10% b) 15% c) 20% d) 5%
Q13. As per Bank’s instruction which BGL a/c needs to be credited for sending
RTGS/NEFT to the Dealers account in other Bank?
a) 98516 b) 98565 c) 98534 d) 98576
Q14. Under which product name SBI’s Pre Approved Car Loan Product for TDR
Customers has been launched?
a) SBI Loyalty Car Loan b) Assured Car Loan
c) Super Car Loan d) Luxury Car Laon
Q15. In Bank’s Pre Approved Car Loan Product for TDR Customers the Reapyment
period is upto the age of ……. Years?
a) 70 b) 75 c) 67 d) 72
Q16. In Bank’s Pre Approved Car Loan Product for TDR Customers theminimum
loan amount is Rs…………..?
a) 50,000 b) 100,000 c) 200,000 d) 500,000
Q17. In Bank’s Pre Approved Car Loan Product for TDR Customers the Reapyment
period is……….years?
a) 1-3 b) 3-5 c) 5-7 d) 3-7
102
Q21. Which of the following fact about Auto Loan is correct?
a) Registration no. to be verified from vahan.nic.in website
b) Registration no. to be verified fron vahan site within 60 days of disbursement
c) Verify hypothecation details each time EMI is not paid
d) RC details to be fed into Digital Inspection Tool
Q23. For car loan for Self Employed, Professionals, Proprietary/Partnership firms &
Businessmen the ITR is required for previous …….. years?
a) 1 years b) 2 years c) 3 years d) 5 years
Q24. We may also reimburse finance for the cars purchased out of own funds which
are not more than ………………. Old?
a) 1 year b) 1 month c) 3 months d) 6 months
Q25. Which Form is used as Application for Registration Certificate of vehicle signed
by BM?
a) Form-20 b) Form-35 c) Form-34 d) Form-16
Q26. Penalty is to be recoved if the borrower fails to get the vehicle registered, with
hypothecation charge in favour of the Bank, within ………… days from the date of
disbursement?
a) 30 b) 60 c) 90 d) 120
Q27. What is the penal amount to be recovered per month from borrower if he fails
to get vehicle registered in certain number of days prescribed by the bank or charge
of bank gets vacated before liquidation of the loan?
Q28. Vehicle search Charges are to be debited from Charges A/c -Vehicle
Registration Verification Charges. Which one of the following is that a/c number?
a) 4599284 b) 4599522 c) 4599523 d) 4599524
Q29. For what amount of Auto Loans Insurance copy for 2 nd year onwards is
required to be obtained every year during the loan life?
Q30. The List of website of car manufacturers is available on PBBU SITE under Auto
Loan segment. State True or False?
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Q31. Which of the following is untrue in case of CIC reports?
a) A single credit card default ( settled or otherwise) more than 5 years old,
regardless of amount, may be ignored provided there are no other instances
of overdues
b) A single credit card default ( settled or otherwise) more than 3 years old,
regardless of amount, may be ignored provided there are no other instances
of overdues
c) One overdue monthly payment in 24 months would be allowed provided DPD
did not exceed 30 days, but not in the last 6 months
d) If the Account Status for a secured loan/unsecured loan /credit card is Suit
filed & Written-off then one must reject the loan proposal.
Q34. What is the meaning of less than 600 CIBIL TransUnion Score?
a) Low Risk b) High Risk c) No Loan Record d) < 6 month credit history
Q35. What is the meaning of more than 800 CIBIL TransUnion Score?
a) Low Risk b) High Risk c) No Loan Record d) < 6 month credit history
Q36. In case of takeover of car loans the loan should be repaid within how many
years from the date of the original purchase of the vehicle?
a) 2 b) 5 c) 7 d) 4
Q40. In case of Combo Loan how many loan accounts are opened?
a) 1 b) 2 c) None d) SB a/c linked to credit card
Q41. Which of the following product is not available in Loyalty Car Loan?
a) Combo Loan b) NRI Car Loan c) Assured Car Loan d) Used Car Loan
Q42. What is the margin to be provided by borrower in Loyalty Car Loan Scheme?
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a) 5% b) Nil c) 10% d) 15%
Q43. In case of Loyalty Car Loan above which amount of car loan extension on
mortgaged property is required?
a) 5 lacs b) 10 lacs c) not required d) 20 lacs
Q45. The maximum age up to which we can finance under high value super bike
loan scheme?
a) 60 years b) 65 years c) 70 years d) 58 years
Q46. The car financed in certified pre-owned car loan scheme should not be more
than …………. years old?
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 5
Q47. The RC book of a car is duplicate. Can we finance it under used car loan?
a) Yes b) No
c) Yes, if other parameters qualify d) subject to deviation approval
Q49. The eligible income for getting Super Bike loan is ……………?
a) 3 lacs b) 4 lacs c) 5 lacs d) 6 lacs
Q50. Which of the following statement is incorrect in case of Super Bike Loan?
a) The minimum loan amount is 3 lacs
b) The margin is 15% of on-road price
c) The margin is 15% of ex-showroom price
d) Repayment period is 5 years
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EDUCATION LOAN & P-GOLD LOAN
2. Maximum amount of Loan for live virtual classes for Chartered Accountancy
course is Rs:
a) 40000 b) 50000 c) 42250 d) 100000
5. Maximum loan amount under Student Loan Scheme for study in India is Rs
--------lacs for study in abroad are Rs -------lacs.
a) 10, 20 b) 15, 30 c) 10, 30 d) 10, 15
6. As per Reserve Bank of India guidelines, education loans upto the ceilings of
Rs.----- lacs for studies in India and Rs.----- lacs for studies abroad, are
reckoned under priority sector advances
a) 5, 10 b) 10, 20 c)15 ,30 d)No limit
8. Margin above Rs 7.50 lacs for study in India is ----% & for abroad …....%
under Student Loan Scheme:
a) 5, 15 b) 10, 15 c) 10, 20 d) 10, 25
10. Security for loan upto 7.50 lacs with co-obligation of parent is :
a) 50 % b) 100 % c) Nil
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11 Security for loan above Rs 7.50 lacs, Co-obligation of parent(s) together with
tangible collateral security of suitable value, along with the assignment of
future income of the student for payment of installments is require.
a) True b) False
13. What is the concession in interest rate to the Girl student under the Scheme ?
a) 0.50 % b) 1% c) 1.50 % d) No concession
14. 1% concession in rate of interest to be provided for full tenure of the student
loan if full interest is serviced during the moratorium period (including course
duration).
a) True b) False
16. Penal interest @ --------% to be charged for loans above Rs.4 lacs for the
overdue amount and overdue period.
a) 1 b)2 c)3 d)Nil
18 All those students who approach us for an education loan of more than
Rs.4.00
lacs for studies abroad will be required to make a deposit of Rs............
a) 1000 b) 2000 c) 5000 d) Nil
19. If the applicant avails the loan, the amount of Rs.5000/- will be adjusted
against the contribution of margin money by him.
a) True b) False
20. ‘No dues’ certificate need not be insisted upon as a pre -condition for
considering educational loan. However, a declaration/an affidavit confirming
that no loans are availed from other banks may be obtained.
a) True b) False
21. All the SBI Branches are authorized for sanctioning Student Loan Scheme.
a) True b) False
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22. Interest rate for Student Loan to Childre/Wards of Staff ?
a) 7 % pa b) 8% pa c) 9% pa d) Same as to Public
24. Nodal Branch for interest subidy for economically/weaker section claims is:
a) Chennai Main b)Kolkata Main c) Mumbai Main d)Delhi Main
26. Under SBI Scholar Loan Scheme loan will be granted without any tangible
collateral, only Parent/ Guardian as co-borrower up to Rs ----------lacs for AA
Category Institutions.
a) 10 b) 20 c) 30 d) 25
27. Under SBI Scholar Loan Scheme loan will be granted without any tangible
collateral, only Parent/ Guardian as co-borrower up to Rs ----------lacs for A &
BCategory Institutions.
a) 10 b) 20 c) 30 d) 25.
28 Under SBI Scholar Loan Scheme loan will be granted without any tangible
collateral, only Parent/ Guardian as co-borrower up to Rs --------lacs & with
tangible collateral of full value and Parent/ Guardian as co-borrower upto Rs
------lacsfor A Category Institutions
a) 20, 30 b) 10, 20 c) 20, 25 d) 10, 15
29. Under SBI Scholar Loan Scheme loan will be granted without any tangible
collateral, only Parent/ Guardian as co-borrower up to Rs --------lacs & with
tangible collateral of full value and Parent/ Guardian as co-borrower upto Rs
------lacs for C Category Institutions.
a) 7.50,10 b) 7.50,20 c) 7.5,30 d)10, 30
31. Under SBI Scholar Loan Scheme, maximum ….... years after commencement
of repayment. Repayment starts 1 year after the completion of the course.
a) 10 b) 12 c) 15 d) 7
32. Rate of interest under SBI Scholar Loan Scheme for lisy AA & all IIMs is :
a) 1 year MCLR +1.35 % pa b) 1 year MCLR +1.45 % pa
c) 1 year MCLR +1.50 % pa d) 1 year MCLR +1.55 % pa
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33. Rate of interest under SBI Scholar Loan Scheme for list C upto Rs 7.50 lacs is
a) 1 year MCLR +1.35 % pa b) 1 year MCLR +1.45 % pa
c) 1 year MCLR +1.50 % pa d) 1 year MCLR +2 % pa
34. SBI Global ed-vantage Scheme is for full time regular courses in foreign
colleges/universities :
a) True b) False
40 Under Skill Loan Scheme, minimum loan amount is Rs --------- & maximum
loan amount is Rs …..0
a) 5000, 1.50 lacs b) 10000, 1.50 lacs c) 15000, 1 lacs d) 20000, 1 lacs
41. Under Skill Loan Scheme, repayment period upto Rs 50000/- is -----year.
a) 1 year b) 2 year c) 3 year d) 5 year
42 Moratorium periods under Skill Loan Scheme for Courses of duration upto 1
year is 6 months from the completion of the course
a) True b) False
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45 Non home Branches can sanctioned the loan against TDR/STDRs
a) True b) False
49 Maximum repayment periods under Gold Loan to individuals ---- months for
Demand Loan and ------ months for Overdraft.
b) 30, 36 b) 24, 36 c) 12, 24 d) 24, 36
c)
50. Minimum and maximum loan amount under Gold loan to individuals is
a) 20000, 10 lacs b) 20000, 20 lacs c) 10000,10 lacs d) 10000, 20 lacs
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KEY - STUDENT LOAN, SCHOLAR LOAN, P-GOLD LOAN
1 A 11 A 21 B 31 C 41 C
2 B 12 B 22 B 32 A 42 A
3 A 13 A 23 A 33 D 43 C
4 C 14 A 24 C 34 A 44 B
5 C 15 A 25 A 35 B 45 B
6 B 16 B 26 C 36 C 46 A
7 A 17 B 27 B 37 B 47 A
8 A 18 C 28 A 38 B 48 B
9 A 19 A 29 C 39 A 49 A
10 C 20 A 30 A 40 A 50 B
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SME SEGMENT
1.Which units are eligible for getting the loan under SME Smart Score Scheme?
2.What is the minimum score for eligibility under SME Smart Score Scheme?
a. The applicant must obtain a minimum overall score of 50% with a minimum of
50% under each sub-head
b. The applicant must obtain a minimum overall score of 60% with a minimum of
50% under each sub-head
c. The applicant must obtain a minimum overall score of 60% with a minimum of
60% under each sub-head
d. The applicant must obtain a minimum overall score of 50% with a minimum of
60% Under each sub-head
3.Which types of units are eligible for getting loan under SME Smart Score Scheme?
4.What is the maximum quantum of finance under SME Smart Score Scheme for
Trade and service units?
5.What is the maximum quantum of finance under SME Smart Score Scheme for
Manufacturing units?
a. 15% of annual turnover for WC loan and 67% of project cost for TL
b. 20% of annual turnover for WC loan and 67% of project cost for TL
c. 20% of annual turnover for WC loan and 75% of project cost for TL
d. 15% of annual turnover for WC loan and 75% of project cost for TL
6.What is the maximum quantum of finance under SME Smart Score Scheme for
Trade and service units?
a. 15% of annual turnover for WC loan and 67% of project cost for TL
b. 15% of annual turnover for WC loan and 75% of project cost for TL
c. 25% of annual turnover for WC loan and 75% of project cost for TL
d. 25% of annual turnover for WC loan and 67% of project cost for TL
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7.What is the repayment period for TL under SME Smart Score Scheme?
8.What is the periodicity of renewal and review of WC for finance under SME Smart
Score Scheme?
9.If a proposal does not fit into SME Smart Score Scheme Model, what is the
solution?
10.What is the minimum amount of loan that can be granted under SBI Asset
Backed Loan ?
a. Rs. 10 lacs
b. Rs. 5 lacs to
c. Rs. 20 lacs
d. Rs. 25 lacs
11.What is the maximum amount of loan that can be granted under SBI Asset
Backed Loan
a. Rs. 10 crore
b. Rs. 20 crore
c. Rs. 15 crore
d. Rs. 50 crore
a. Take over can be considered subject to take over norms and approval from
CGM
b. Take over can be considered subject to take over norms and approval from
GM-NW
c. Take over can be considered subject to take over norms and approval from
CCC
d. Takeover of existing units from other Banks/ FIs with satisfactory track record.
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13.Which type of facilities can be granted under SBI ABL?
a. Demand Loan and Term Loan
b. Cash Credit, Demand Loan and Term Loan
c. Cash Credit & Demand Loan
d. Drop-line OD facility
17.To be eligible for loan under SBI SMILE, in which type of activities the unit should
be engaged?
a. The unit should be engaged in activities eligible for classification as SSI
b. The unit should be engaged in activities eligible for classification as Micro and
Small Enterprises under MSMED Act including Retail Trade
c. The unit should be engaged in any type of commercial activities
d. The unit should be engaged in activities eligible for classification as Micro and
Small Enterprises under MSMED Act excepting Retail Trade
19.What is the initial moratorium period to be granted for loan under SBI SMILE?
a. Initial moratorium period of 5 to 7 years
b. Initial moratorium period of 3 to 5 years
c. Initial moratorium period of 1 to 3 years
d. Initial moratorium period of 6 months to 18 months
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20.What are the norms for charging interest for the funds lent under the equity Loan
Assistance Scheme (SBI SMILE)?
a. Funds lent under the Equity Loan Assistance Scheme will bear interest at
Base Rate.
b. Funds lent under the Equity Loan Assistance Scheme will bear no interest.
c. Funds lent under the Equity Loan Assistance Scheme will bear interest similar
to the rate of interest charged for other loans granted to the unit
d. Funds lent under the Equity Loan Assistance Scheme will bear interest at
SBAR.
21.What is the maximum quantum of finance that can be finance under Artisan
Credit Card Scheme?
a. Rs. 1 lac
b. Rs. 3 lacs
c. Rs. 5 lac
d. Rs. 2 lac
22.For the finance under Artisan Credit Card Scheme assessment to be made under
nayak Committee norms and will be based on the simplified Scoring Model. What is
the minimum score required for being eligible for finance?
a. The minimum score to obtained for being eligible for finance is 50%
b. The minimum score to obtained for being eligible for finance is 60%
c. The minimum score to obtained for being eligible for finance is 45%
d. The minimum score to obtained for being eligible for finance is 65%
23.What is the target group under Artisan Credit Card Scheme for financing?
a. Artisans in the handicraft sector and NOT covered by the Govt. Sponsored
Loan Schemes
b. Artisans in the handicraft sector and also covered by the Govt. Sponsored
Loan Schemes
c. Artisans in the handicraft sector only covered by the Govt. Sponsored Loan
Schemes
d. Artisans in the handicraft sector from SC/ST category and also covered by the
Govt. Sponsored Loan Schemes
24.The beneficiaries under Artisan Credit Card Scheme registered with Development
Commissioner (Handicraft) will be eligible for insurance under Group Guarantee
Scheme for which the premium will be paid by the Government and the beneficiaries.
What is the ratio of sharing the premium?
a. Ratio of sharing the premium is 50: 50
b. Ratio of sharing the premium is 75: 25
c. Ratio of sharing the premium is 60:40
d. Ratio of sharing the premium is 25:75
25.The working capital component should be reviewed every year. What is the
criteria for credit summations for review under SME Credit Card Scheme?
a. Credit summations should not be less than 50% of the projected turnover
b. Credit summations should not be less than 75% of the projected turnover
c. Credit summations should not be less than 100 of the limit
d. Credit summations should not be less than 200 of the limit
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26.What is the validity period of WC limit for finance granted under SME Credit Card
Scheme?
a. The limit will be valid for 2 years but is subject to annual review
b. The limit will be valid for 5 years but is subject to bi-annual review
c. The limit will be valid for 1 year and to be renewed every year
d. The limit will be valid for 3 years but is subject to annual review
27.What is the method for assessment of WC limit for finance under SME Credit
Card Scheme granted to Small Business units and Retail Traders?
a. 20% of annual turnover or 20% of turnover of the last 12 months in their
accounts, which ever is higher
b. 25% 0f annual turnover or 20% of turnover of the last 12 months in their
accounts, which ever is higher
c. 20% 0f annual turnover or 25% of turnover of the last 12 months in their
accounts, which ever is higher
d. 25% 0f annual turnover or 25% of turnover of the last 12 months in their
accounts, which ever is higher
28.What is the method of assessment of WC limit for finance under SME Credit Card
Scheme granted to Self-employed and Professionals?
a. 200% of gross annual income as declared in their Income Tax returns
b. 150% of gross annual income as declared in their Income Tax returns
c. 50% of gross annual income as declared in their Income Tax returns
d. 75% of gross annual income as declared in their Income Tax returns
29.A scoring model has been designed under SME Credit Card Scheme. What is the
minimum score required for qualifying for finance?
a. Minimum 50% to qualify under the scheme
b. Minimum 60% to qualify under the scheme
c. Minimum 67% to qualify under the scheme
d. Minimum 65% to qualify under the scheme
31.What is the maximum quantum of finance that can be granted under SME Credit
Plus Scheme?
a. 20% of aggregate working capital limit subject to maximum of Rs. 25 lacs
b. 20% of aggregate working capital limit subject to maximum of Rs. 50 lacs
c. 25% of aggregate working capital limit subject to maximum of Rs. 25 lacs
d. 25% of aggregate working capital limit subject to maximum of Rs. 50 lacs
32.Credit facilities granted under SME Credit Plus Scheme to be repaid within how
many months?
a. Each amount of withdrawal should be repaid within 2 months
b. Each amount of withdrawal should be repaid within 3 months
c. Each amount of withdrawal should be repaid within 6 months
d. Each amount of withdrawal should be repaid within 12 months
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33.What is the maximum quantum of finance that can be granted under Standby
Line of Credit (Working Capital)?
a. 30% of working capital facility subject to maximum of Rs. 5 crore
b. 20% of working capital facility subject to maximum of Rs. 2 crore
c. 15% of working capital facility subject to maximum of Rs. 20 crore
d. 15% of working capital facility subject to maximum of Rs. 2 crore
34.How the credit under Standby Line of Credit (Working Capital ) is calculated for
seasonal industry?
a. Calculated separately for peak and non-peak seasons
b. Calculated separately for peak level only
c. Calculated non-peak seasons only
d. There is no such separation for peak and non-peak seasons
35.What are the eligibility criteria under General Purpose Term Loan for SSI Sector?
a. Should have earned profits in each of the preceding 5 years
b. Should have earned profits in each of the preceding 2 years
c. Should have earned profits in each of the preceding 1 years
d. Should have earned profits in each of the preceding 3 years
36.What is the unique feature of Open Term Loan for Service Sector Scheme?
a. A loan limit with the option of multiple purpose of single disbursements to be
sanctioned on case to case basis
b. Pre-approved term loan facility with option of multiple disbursements for
multiple purposes.
c. A pre-sanctioned WC limit along with TL
d. A pre-sanctioned term loan limit with the single disbursements to be
sanctioned along with the working capital limit
37.What is the maximum quantum of finance permitted under Open Term Loan
Product for Term Loan?
a. No upper ceiling
b. Rs. 500 lacs
c. Rs. 200 lacs
d. Rs. 100 lacs
38. How much is the eligible limit under SME SBI TIE UP CARD scheme?
a. 2% of aggregate fund based working capital limit
b. 5 % of aggregate fund based working capital limit
c. 2% of the aggregate limit
d. 5% of the aggregate limit
39. How much is the maximum limit under SME SBI TIE UP CARD scheme ?
40.What should be the base for assessment of loan mount under SME Car Loan
Scheme?
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a. The personal net worth and repayment capabilities of the unit
b. The unit’s net worth and repayment capabilities of the individual(s)
c. The unit’s net worth and repayment capabilities of the unit
d. The personal net worth and repayment capabilities of the individual(s)
44.Which of the following cannot be accepted as a purpose for general purpose term
loan?
a. shoring up NWC
b. substitution of high cost debt,
c. R&D, quality up-gradation for ISO certification
d. None of the above
45.To be eligible for General purpose term loan, CRA Rating should be
a. SB-5
b. SB-6
c. SB-7
d. SB-8
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a. The additional limit can be used twelve times in a year but there should be gap
of at least 15 days between total repayment of funds drawn under the facility
and its next utilisation.
b. The additional limit can be used ten times in a year but there should be gap of
at least 15 days between total repayment of funds drawn under the facility and
its next utilisation.
c. The additional limit can be used four times in a year but there should be gap
of at least 15 days between total repayment of funds drawn under the facility
and its next utilisation.
d. The additional limit can be used six times in a year but there should be gap of
at least 5 days between total repayment of funds drawn under the facility and
its next utilisation.
49.To be eligible for SME credit plus, minimum CRA Rating should be
a. SB-5
b. SB-6
c. SB-7
d. SB-9
51.Maximum loan amount for purchasing a used car in SME Car Loan is
Rs._____lac
a. 10
b. 15
c. 20
d. 25
a. 1.50
b. 1.75
c. 2.00
d. 2.50
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a. 5
b. 10
c. 15
d. 20
58.In case of take over in SME Car Loan, the vehicle should not be more than
___years old.
a. 3
b. 5
c. 1
d. 2
59.In view of the demonetization, it has been decided that WC limits of MSME units
(availing Fund Based Working Capital requirement upto Rs. 5 crores) will be
assessed at 31.25% of the projected annual turnover and unit will be sanctioned limit
of a minimum -------------% of the projected annual turnover
a. 25
b. 30
c. 24
d. 21
60. Under SBI OD product for business correspondents , all National/State level
Business Correspondents having valid agreement with SBI and having satisfactory
business relationship with SBI for at least -------- years are eligible.
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 5
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61.In SME segment detailed opinion report is not required for limits up to Rs.
Lacs.
a. 1
b. 3
c. 5
d. 7
62 Maximum repayment period in doctor plus for setting up a clinic is-------years.
a 10 years
b 5 years
c 7 years
d 9 years
63 Margin in doctor plus is --------%.
a. 10
b. 15
c. 20
d. 25
64.In Open Term Loan, loan amount for business development expenditure incurred
for creation of intangible assets applicable to both manufacturing and services sector
is:
a. 20% of total limit sanctioned with a maximum of Rs. 2 crores
b. 25% of total limit sanctioned with a maximum of Rs. 2 crores
c. 20% of total limit sanctioned with a maximum of Rs. 3 crores
d. 20% of total limit sanctioned with a maximum of Rs. 1 crores
65. In Doctor Plus, for loans above Rs. 2 crore and upto Rs. 5 crores, Minimum ----%
tangible collateral security is to be obtained.
a. 20
b. 25
c. 30
d. 35
66.In open term loan margin is --------%.
a. 20
b. 25
c. 30
d. 35
67.In SME Open Term Loan, the borrower has to avail disbursement of the loan
within___months
a. 6
b. 9
c. 12
d. 15
68.Which of the following statements is true about repayment under SME Open TL.
a. Repayment period generally not to exceed 3 years.
b. Repayment period generally not to exceed 5 years.
c. Repayment period generally not to exceed 7 years.
d. Repayment period generally not to exceed 8 years.
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69.Which of the following is true about SBI ABL.
a. Property mortgaged needs to be within a radius of 25 km from the Branch,
wherein account is maintained.
b. Property mortgaged needs to be within a radius of 20 km from the Branch,
wherein account is maintained.
c. Property can be located anywhere.
d. None of the above
72.How many times the borrower can utilize the facility sanctioned under Open Term
Loan Manufacturing Sector?
a. On multiple occasions as per their needs
b. Once only
c. Twice only
d. Once in a quarter
73.In SME fleet finance scheme, maximum loan can be sanctioned up to Rs.-----
crore.
a. 5
b. 10
c. 15
d. 20
74.Maximum loan amount under Stree Shakti Scheme for SSI units is Rs.____lacs
a. 20
b. 25
c. 50
d. 75
75.SBI ABL is required to reviewed
a. Half-yearly
b. Annually
c. Quarterly
d. Not required for regular accounts
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76.LTV Ratio under ABL is-----% of realizable value of security
a. 40
b. 50
c. 60
d. 70
a. Monthly
b. Quarterly
c. Half-yearly
d. Annually
83. Unit with CRA of ----- and below is not eligible for finance under ABL.
a. SB-7
b. SB-8
c. SB-9
d. SB-10
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a. ECR is mandatory for loans above Rs.10 crore
b. ECR is mandatory for loans above Rs.5 crore
c. ECR is mandatory for loans above Rs.8 crore
d. ECR is not mandatory
85. Existing term loan or cash credit loan be converted into SBI ABL if CRA of the
unit is ------------ or better and conduct of account is fully satisfactory.
a. SB-7
b. SB-5
c. SB-9
d. SB-10
86. In ABL If the credit summations in the account are less than ------% of sales
realization, penal interest @ 0.25% will be charged
a. 50
b. 55
c. 65
d. 75
87. In ABL, TIR should be obtained from two different panel advocates in case of
loan above Rs. --------- lacs.
a. 100
b. 50
c. 25
d. 20
90. Under Doctor Plus, units with CRA rating of ------ and above will only be
considered
a. SB-7
b. SB-5
c. SB-9
d. SB-10
a. 5
b. 0
c. 10
d. 5% for loan amounts more than Rs.25000/-
92. In PMMY, Tarun category covers loans above -------- lakh to 10 lakh25
124
a. 2
b. 3
c. 5
d. 7
a. SB-7
b. SB-5
c. SB-9
d. SB-10
95. SIMPLIFIED SMALL BUSINESS LOANS are sanctioned, to the unit with a
minimum requirement of above Rs. 10 lacs and less than Rs. ---------- lacs
a. 20
b. 25
c. 50
d. 100
96. The minimum collateral security under SIMPLIFIED SMALL BUSINESS LOANS
is -----%.
a. 25
b. 30
c. 35
d. 40
a. Cash credit
b. Term Loan
c. Dropline OD
d. All of the above
98. Under Simplified Small Business Loan scheme, existing business for at least ---
years in the same location are eligible.
a. 2
b. 3
c. 5
d. None of the above
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99. Under Simplified Small Business Loan scheme, Unit should be situated within a
radius of ----- km from the financing branch.
a. 5
b. 10
c. 15
d. 20
104. PRADHAN MANTRI MUDRA YOJANA (PMMY) New Scheme Code is------
a. 09119
b. 09118
c. 09147
d. 09148
105.Under Stand Up India scheme, bank loans between Rs. ---- lakhs and Rs.----
crore are to be sanctioned.
a. 10 lac/1 crore
b. 25 lac/1 crore
c. 5 lac /50 lac
d. None of the above
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106. SIDBI’s interactive Stand up India portal is called--------------.
a. www.standupindia.in
b. www.standuploan.in
c. www.standupmitra.in
d. None of the above
111.To be eligible for SIMPLIFIED CASH CREDIT FACILITY (SCCF) the unit should
be in existence for ------- years.
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 5
113.Which of the following methods is adopted for assessing the working capital
required under SCCF.
a. FBWC limits will be assessed on the basis of actual peak inventory plus
receivables levels for the previous 12 months.
b. 25% of the turnover during previous 12 months
c. Lower of a or b
d. None of the above
127
114.Under SCCF, facility fee of -------- per crore or part thereof to be recovered
annually on 1st April every year plus service tax & Swachh Bharat Cess.
a. 10000
b. 15000
c. 20000
d. 25000
115. For irregularity in Cash Credit Account under SCCF, penal interest is recovered
at ---- per annum over and above the applicable rate, on the irregular portion for the
period of irregularity.
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 5
117. Fleet operator having existing fleet of minimum ------- vehicles are eligible under
SME Fleet Finance Scheme.
a. 5
b. 10
c. 15
d. 2
118. Under SME Fleet Finance Scheme Average Gross DSCR:Min should be --------.
a. 1.25
b. 1.50
c. 1.75
d. 2.00
119. Minimum amount of Facility under Mortgage Dealer Finance Scheme is Rs.-----
Lakhs.
a. 25
b. 50
c. 75
d. 100
120. Minimum -------% Tangible Collateral Security (realizable value) in the form of
Land & Building / Cash Collateral / Bank’s Approved securities should be obtained
under m-DFS.
a. 100
b. 75
c. 150
d. None of the above
128
a. Shishu : covering loans upto 50,000/-
b. Kishore : covering loans above 50,000/- and upto 5 lakh
c. Tarun : covering loans above 5 lakh to 10 lakh
d. None of the above
122.Margin under PMMY for loan amount from Rs.50001 to Rs.10 lac is
a. 5%
b. 10%
c. 15%
d. 20%
125.In PMEGP, For setting up of project costing above Rs.10 lakhs in the
manufacturing sector and above Rs. 5 lakhs in the business /service sector, the
beneficiaries should possess at least -------- standard pass certificate.
a. V
b. VI
c. VII
d. VIII
126.For deciding micro, small and medium enterprise, investment in plant and
machinery is taken at
a. original cost excluding land and building
b. original cost including land and building
c. Book value excluding land and building
d. Book value including land and building
129
a. Rs.25 lac
b. Rs.5 lac
c. Rs.10 lac
d. Rs.15 lac
130.The priority sector target for Foreign Banks operating in India with more than 20
branches is
a. 40%
b. 25%
c. 32%
d. 30%
131.In terms of the recommendations of the Prime Minister’s Task Force on MSMEs,
banks are advised to achieve a ___ per cent year-on-year growth in credit to micro
and small enterprises
a. 20%
b. 25%
c. 15%
d. 10%
133.Banks are mandated not to accept collateral security in the case of loans upto
Rs. _______ lakh extended to units in the MSE sector
a. 10
b. 15
c. 20
d. 25
a. Rs.50 lac
b. Rs.1 crore
c. Rs.2 crore
d. Rs.5 crore
130
b. Small enterprises
c. Classification will depend on investment in plant and machinery
d. None of the above
136.Time norm for disposal of loan applications for loans up to Rs.5 lac is
a. within 2 weeks from the date of receipt of the loan application
b. within 4 weeks from the date of receipt of the loan application
c. within 6 weeks from the date of receipt of the loan application
d. within 8 weeks from the date of receipt of the loan application
137.The working capital limits of MSE units shall be assessed on the basis of a
minimum _________% of the projected annual turnover as per Nayak Committee.
a. 10
b. 15
c. 20
d. 25
138.As per the RBI directive, the ceiling on the Composite Loan Limits has been
fixed at Rs.-------- lacs through a single window
a. 50
b. 100
c. 150
d. 200
139.The stock statements should be submitted by the borrower within -------- days of
the end of the month.
a. 7
b. 20
c. 15
d. 12
140.Bank has now decided to mandatorily coverall eligible MSE loans only up to
Rs.____ Lacs under Credit Guarantee Scheme (CGS) of CGTMSE.
a. 25
b. 50
c. 75
d. 100
141.The annual guarantee fee for CGTMSE covered accounts with limits above
Rs.50 lac
142.CGTMSE has reduced the guarantee cover from 62.50% to ____% in the loan
range of >Rs.50 lacs to Rs.100 lacs.
a. 40
131
b. 50
c. 55
d. 45
143.For advances under SME segment, which of the following documents will be
taken as “Arrangement Letter”
a. SME-1
b. SME-2
c. SME-3
d. SME-4
144.For advances under SME segment, which amongst the following documents is
the main document of loan
a. SME-1
b. SME-2
c. SME-3
d. SME-4
150.“Cost of Sales” is
a. Cost of Raw Material consumed and direct expenses including depreciation
b. Cost of Raw Material consumed and direct expenses excluding depreciation
132
c. Cost of Production plus indirect expenses
d. Cost of production plus opening stocks of finished goods minus closing stocks
of finished goods
152.Cash Accrual is
a. Cash received minus cash paid during the year
b. Profit Before Interest and tax plus depreciation
c. Profit after interest and tax plus depreciation
d. Savings with housewives
133
c. Capital + Current assets
d. capital + Res. – Intangible assets
164.In case of power gain account cash deposit charge at home branch is free up to
Rs----lacs
a. 10 b.15 c.20 d.25
134
b. Rs.2000/-
c. Rs.3000/-
d. Rs.4000/-
135
b. Cheque book cannot be given
c. 100 cheques can be given per year
d. None of the above
177.Overdraft in Power POS account is available maximum up to Rs.------lacs
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 5
181.In power jyoti account, rate of commission to be collected from the remitter is
a. Rs.50/-
b. Rs.60/-
c. Rs.75/-
d. Rs.25/-
182.One Insta deposit card can be linked to _______ accounts under the same CIF
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
184.In CDM, maximum _____ pieces of currency notes can be deposited per
transaction.
a. 100
b. 200
c. 300
136
d. 400
186.Customers with average balance of more than Rs. ______ lakh are eligible for
Premium Business Debit Card
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
187.Daily cash limit in case of State Bank Pride Card is Rs. ______ lakh
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
188.Power POS Current Account may be opened at ZERO balance with QAB of
____.
a. Rs.1000/-
b. Rs.2000/-
c. Rs.3000/-
d. Rs.5000/-
137
193.A trader approaches you for a working capital requirement of Rs.15 lacs. Under
which schemes he is eligible for finance?
a. SME Credit Card and SME Smart Score
b. SME Smart Score
c. SME Smart Score and Asset Backed Loan
d. None of the above
(1) When the MVS exceeds AVS, the MVS is taken into consideration for drawing
power.
(2) When the AVS is greater than the limit, then the limit must be taken as the
drawing power.
(3) When the AVS is less than the limit sanctioned, then drawing power is equal to
the limit sanctioned.
a Only (1)
b Only (2)
c Only (3)
d Both (1) & (2)
195.SME-11 is to be executed by
a Borrower
b Guarantors
c Third Party Mortgagors
d All of the above
a. New Projects
b. Expansion of the existing units
c. Term Loan requirement of the existing units
d. All of the above
197.Under warehouse receipt financing, CC facility will be given when the limits is
more than Rs.--------crore.
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 5
198. Under warehouse receipt financing Demand Loan should be liquidated as and
when the produce is sold during the interim period not exceeding ------ months.
a. 6
b. 9
c. 12
d. 3
138
199. Under warehouse receipt financing, for individual warehouse receipts of value
over Rs 50 lacs and for limits over Rs 1 crore, the Branch should inspect the
underlying commodity every -------- months at irregular intervals
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 6
200.Udyami Tara relates to
a. Stand up India
b. PMMY
c. e-DFS
d. None of the above
201. How many documents are covered under “Initial Document” category of SME
Simplified Documentation?
a. 4
b. 5
c. 3
d. 2
202. How many documents are covered under “Complementary Document” category
of SME Simplified Documentation?
a. 4
b. 5
c. 3
d. 2
203. Which of the following document is used as Agreement for Loan cum
Hypothecation?
a. SME-1
b. SME-2
c. SME-3
d. SME-4
139
d. SME-4
a. Revival Letter
b. Evergreening Letter
c. Letter of Undertaking
d. Lien Letter
a. Link Letter
b. Garnisee Order
c. Letter of Undertaking
d. Lien Letter
211. For covering the enhanced portion of working capital finance, this document is
used as supplemental agreement for Loan cum Hypothecation.
a. SME-11
b. SME-8
c. SME-9
d. SME-4
212. The effect of a valid acknowledgement (Revival Letter) is that it commences a fresh
period of limitation from the date
a. it is executed
b. it is stamped
c. it is registered
d. none of these
140
a. Borrower
b. Guarantor
c. Bank official
d. Owner of the property
217. Mortgage Deeds are to be registered with the Sub-Registrar of Assurances within
a. 4 months of execution
b. 3 months of execution
c. 2 months of execution
d. 6 months of execution
220. Recording the creation mortgage by depositing of title deed is written by;
a. Borrower
b. Guarantor
c. Bank official
d. Sub Registrar
141
SME KEY
1 A 46 B 91 B 136 B 181 B
2 B 47 D 92 C 137 C 182 B
3 D 48 A 93 C 138 B 183 B
4 C 49 D 94 C 139 B 184 B
5 B 50 A 95 B 140 B 185 A
6 A 51 B 96 D 141 B 186 D
7 B 52 A 97 C 142 B 187 A
8 D 53 A 98 C 143 A 188 D
9 C 54 A 99 A 144 B 189 B
10 A 55 D 100 B 145 A 190 A
11 B 56 B 101 B 146 C 191 B
12 D 57 B 102 A 147 C 192 C
13 D 58 D 103 D 148 C 193 C
14 A 59 A 104 A 149 C 194 B
15 C 60 B 105 A 150 D 195 D
16 C 61 B 106 C 151 A 196 A
17 D 62 C 107 B 152 C 197 A
18 D 63 B 108 C 153 A 198 C
19 A 64 A 109 B 154 C 199 C
20 B 65 B 110 A 155 A 200 A
21 D 66 B 111 C 156 C 201 A
22 B 67 C 112 D 157 C 202 D
23 A 68 B 113 A 158 D 203 B
24 C 69 A 114 C 159 C 204 A
25 A 70 A 115 D 160 D 205 B
26 D 71 D 116 C 161 D 206 A
27 A 72 A 117 B 162 A 207 C
28 C 73 B 118 B 163 B 208 C
29 B 74 B 119 B 164 B 209 A
30 D 75 B 120 C 165 B 210 A
31 A 76 B 121 D 166 A 211 D
32 A 77 D 122 B 167 A 212 A
33 C 78 C 123 D 168 C 213 C
34 D 79 D 124 D 169 D 214 D
35 D 80 C 125 D 170 A 215 B
36 B 81 A 126 A 171 B 216 A
37 B 82 B 127 D 172 B 217 A
38 B 83 B 128 C 173 A 218 C
39 A 84 D 129 D 174 B 219 A
40 B 85 B 130 A 175 D 220 C
41 B 86 C 131 A 176 B
42 A 87 C 132 C 177 D
43 D 88 A 133 A 178 B
44 D 89 C 134 B 179 A
45 C 90 C 135 A 180 C
142
AGRICULTURE SEGMENT
1. In rural and semi-urban areas for all types of loans including under Government
Sponsored Schemes (GSS) no due certificate is to be obtained when
2.Under tie-up arrangement the ceiling for collateral free contract farming loan per
farmer is enhanced to Rs.------ lacs.
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
3.Collateral security can be Nil for crop loans (ACC / KCC) upto Rs.----- lacs to
farmers having legal ownership of agricultural land with good repayment track record
for last three years and not covered under Agriculture Debt Waiver & Debt Relief
Scheme, 2008
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
a. Monthly
b. Quaterly
c. Half-yearly
d. Annually
5. Irregular crop loans (any amount) – visits for recovery should be undertaken.
a. Monthly
b. Quaterly
c. Half-yearly
d. Annually
6. Agri Term Loans (all limits):Where movable assets are created out of our finance:
One post disbursement inspection within ------- month should be undertaken and
Creation of the asset to be invariably ensured and recorded.
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
143
7. Regular term loans (any amount) – inspection once in ------- months for verification
of asset (preferably at harvest time) will suffice.
a. 3
b. 6
c. 9
d. 12
a. 25000
b. 50000
c. 75000
d. 100000
9.In terms of RBI guidelines, the branches may waive insurance of assets financed
by the bank in all categories of priority sector advances upto Rs.-------/-.
a. 10000
b. 25000
c. 50000
d. 100000
a. 25
b. 10
c. 20
d. 30
144
a. AB-1
b. AB-2
c. AB-3
d. AB-4
a. AB-5
b. AB-6
c. AB-7
d. AB-8
16. Letter to be addressed to the Bank by the borrower and the guarantor for
conversion of Crop Loan to Term Loan or re-scheduling repayment of exiting Term
Loans in form no
a. AB-5
b. AB-6
c. AB-7
d. AB-8
17.In terms of Section ------ of the Contract Act, an agreement to pay a time barred
debt is a valid contract.
a. 25
b. 26
c. 27
d. 28
18.The scales of finance i.e. crop-wise estimates for cost of cultivation and loan
requirement per acre are worked out by the -------- for the various crops grown locally
in the district.
a. SLBC
b. DLTC
c. Financing Bank
d. Lead Bank
19.Crop loans upto Rs.---------/- may be disbursed in cash at the request of the
borrowers.
a. 25000
b. 50000
c. 10000
d. Any amount
145
20. Which of the following is not considered for assesment of KCC
21.Marginal farmers will be sanctioned a composite limit (as Flexi KCC limit) of
Rs.10,000/- to Rs.---------/- based on the land holding and crop grown + small term
loan investments,
a. 15000
b. 25000
c. 50000
d. 100000
a. MDL
b. MPL
c. Either a or b
d. None of the above
24. Processing charges for limits more than Rs.50,000 and upto Rs.1.00 lac in KCC
is
a. 100
b. 500
c. 250
d. Nil
25. Processing charges for limits more than Rs.1 lac and upto Rs.3 lac in KCC is
a. 0.20%
b. 0.30%
c. 0.50
d. 0.75%
146
27.The main objective of “SBI Krishak Uthaan Yojna” is
a. to provide easy access to short term production and consumption credit to
meet genuine requirements of tenant farmers, share croppers and oral
lessees having no recorded land records
b. To sanction higher loan amount
c. To form cluster of village to undertake developmental activities
d. None of the above
28. Maximum Limit under SBI Krishak Uthaan Yojna is upto Rs.--------/- (maximum)
a. 50000
b. 100000
c. 200000
d. 300000
29. Which of the following facilities can be sanctioned for Agricultural Gold Loans
a. Demand loan
b. Cash Credit
c. Overdraft
d. Term Loan
e. All of the above
a. Gold
b. Silver
c. Brass
d. a and b above
e. all of the above
a. SIM/GL-1
b. IM/GL-2
c. SIM/GL-3
d. SIM/GL-4
a. SIM/GL-1
b. SIM/GL-2
c. SIM/GL-3
d. SIM/GL-4
a. 30
b. 20
c. 25
d. 40
147
34.In gold loan Branch Manager has the discretion to reduce margin up to
a. 30
b. 20
c. 25
d. 40
a. Field Officer
b. Accountant
c. Branch Manager
d. Cash Officer
36.In cases of loan above Rs.-------/-, branches other than Chennai cirle should get
the gold ornament assayed by a local jeweller for their genuineness.
a. 50000
b. 100000
c. 25000
d. 200000
a. Branch
b. Borrower
c. Both in the ratio of 50:50
d. For loans more than Rs.50000 charges are to be borne by beneficiary
a. 12
b. 24
c. 36
d. 48
39.Can loan be sanctioned against gold ornaments bearing names, initials or other
marks, which are, prima-facie, not those of the borrowers ?
a. Yes after Cash Officer satisfies himself through discreet enquiries that the
borrowers have full title to the ornaments despite the existence of initials or
marks thereon.
b. Yes after the borrower proves that ornamemts belong to him
c. Cannot be sanctioned
d. None of the above
a) 1, 3 b) 5, 1 c) 1, 2 d) 2, 1
148
41. Inter Cropping means:
42. While converting crop loan into term loan, interest portion is:
44. ATM card can be issued under which of the following schemes:
a) KCC
b) GCC
c) KGC
d) Artisan Credit Card
45. In case of finance to weaker section in Agricultural segment, cost of photo graph
is to be borne by ------
a) Borrower
b) Bank
c) Borrower: Bank 50:50
d) Photograph not required
149
48. MPEDA stands for
a. Mohalanobis model
b. Vakil and Brahmananda wage goods model
c. Harrod-Domar Growth model
d. None of the above
50. RBI has decided to Issue _______ coins to commemorate the 150th anniversary
of Swami Vivekananda.
a. 5
b. 10
c. 50
d. 100
150
55.Can PML be sanctioned to Farmers, including group of farmers,. who have not
availed crop loan from any Bank ?
56. In case of PML, Credit Informaiton Report is to be obtained from which CIC ?
a. CIBIL
b. Highmark
c. Equifax
d. Either a or b
57. In PML the commodity offered for pledge is to be valued by considering the
a. Minimum Support Price, wherever declared.
b. Price genrally prevailing at the time of harvest of the commodity in the current
year
c. Current Market Price.
d. d.The lowest of the all the above
59.As regards collateral security in PML, in cases where WHR issued by approved
warehouses,
a. Not required
b. Waived up to Rs.10 lac
c. Mortgage of land
d. Waived up to 5 lac
60.As regards collateral security in PML, in cases where WHR issued by Banks
approved collateral
managed warehouses
a. Not required
b. Waived up to Rs.10 lac
c. Mortgage of land
d. Waived up to 50 lac
151
62.Cash disbursement in PML can be made up to
a. 10000
b. 20000
c. 50000
d. 100000
63.In case the farmer stores the pledged produce in his house / custody and if the
value of the stock exceeds Rs.-------/- the entire stock should be insured for its full
value with an insurance company .
a. 10000
b. 15000
c. 25000
d. 50000
64. In PML, where the loan amount exceeds Rs-------/-, the hypothecated stocks
should be inspected at monthly intervals, otherwise the stocks should be inspected
once in two months.
a. 25000
b. 50000
c. 100000
d. 200000
65.Total PML of Rs.------ crore can be sanctioned per private Warehouse /Cold
storage (both financed by us and otherwise) for circles other then Hyderabad circle.
a. 1
b. 2
c. 5
d. 10
a. 6
b. 9
c. 12
d. None of the above
68. The tenor of the term loans would be for a fixed period exceeding --- years.
152
69.The Economic Unit as per NABARD in respect of cross-bred milch cattle is-----
animals
a. 2
b. 3
c. 5
d. 7
70.Due dates for repayment may be fixed based on the harvesting time, giving
reasonable time of, say, ---- months for the farmer to market his produce.
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
71.In case of Modified New Tractor Loan Scheme and Stree Shakti Tractor Loan
Scheme minimum land criteria is fixed at ------ acres.
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
72.In tractor loan (modified new tractor loan scheme) Minimum ---- hours work per
annum should be available for the tractor including the custom hiring service.
a. 500
b. 600
c. 700
d. 400
73. In tractor loan (modified new tractor loan scheme), at least -----% of total amount
required for repayment of loan instalment together with interest shall come from
incremental income derived out of mechanisation of borrowers’ farm.
a. 50
b. 40
c. 60
d. None of the above
74.Loans for small lift irrigation scheme can be given subject to total financial outlay
not to exceed Rs.---- lacs.
a. 5
b. 7
c. 10
d. 8
153
a. 10
b. 15
c. 25
d. 50
a. To avail refinance
b. Not to avail refinance
c. To avail refinance in select cases
d. To avail refinance only for loans more than Rs.10 lac
77.Amounts not collected during the year of occurrence of the calamity, should be
converted into term loans for a period upto ----- years and for small and marginal
farmers upto ----- years in the normal circumstances.
a. 3/5
b. 5/7
c. 2/4
d. None of the above
78.In extreme cases of hardship arising out of very severe loss to the crops, or
occurrence of three successive crop failures and the debt burden being found to be
beyond the immediate repaying capacity of the borrowers, conversion for longer
period upto a maximum period of ---- years may also be considered, in consultation
with the Task Force /SLBC.
a. 5
b. 7
c. 9
d. 8
a) Sprinkler Irrigation
b)Drip Irrigation
c)Canal irrigation
d)Agri Gold loan
80. Interest Subvention of ----% is available in case of gold loans for crop production
purpose.
a)1.0%
b) 1.5%
c) 2.0%
d) 3.0%
81. Our Bank stipulates a margin of _______in case of Agri Gold Loan.
154
a) 30%
b) 25%
c) 20%
d) 15%
a) Borrower's A/c
b) Bank's Commission A/c
c) Bank's Charges A/c
d) Bank's Interest A/c
83. Which among the following is correct regarding sanction of Agri Gold Loans?
84. Maximum loan amount that can be sanctioned under Agri Gold Loan is
a) Rs 3.00 lacs
b) Rs 10. 00 lacs
c) 5 times of Annual Farm Income
d) No limit is stipulated
85. Repayment period stipulated for Agri Gold Loan sanctioned for crop production is
a)6 Months
b)12 Months
c)18 Months
d)30 Months
86. Agri Gold loan under the non interest subvention category can be financed for
persons
87. In case of agricultural gold loan, delivery of ornaments to a third party, signature
of the receiver will be obtained on-------
a) Gold loan ledger
b) COS 49
c) Both a & b
d) Not required
155
88. Agricultural gold loans can be sanctioned as
a) Demand Loan
b) Term Loan
c) Over Draft
d) Cash Credit
e) All of these
89.In the event of fall of market price or in the case of adverse fluctuation of more
than ---% during the course of month, PMD will flash special alerts through SBI
Times and based on that branches have to initiate corrective action, if needed.
a. 5
b. 10
c. 15
d. 20
90.In the case of gold below ---- Ct. the borrower should be properly introduced by a
person well-known to the branch in addition to usual KYC due diligence.
a. 24
b. 22
c. 18
d. None of the above
91. In gold in circles other than Chennai and Hyderabad, in case of loans above
Rs.-------/-, branches should get the gold ornament assayed by a local jeweller for
their genuineness.
a. 50000
b. 100000
c. 25000
d. 200000
a. 30
b. 50
c. 100
d. 75
a. LHO
b. Corporate Centre
c. Region Office
d. SLBC
156
94.In which of the following cases, gold loans are eligible for interest subvention
95.Which of the following is not a method for verifying the purity of the gold ?
a. Karatometer
b. Goldmeter
c. Machmeter
d. None of the above
a. SIM – GL/7
b. SIM – GL/9
c. SIM – GL/8
d. SIM – GL/6
99. Delivery of ornaments to a third party, who must be identified, may be made on
repayment of loan only in very exceptional circumstances and on undoubted
authority of the borrower. The letter of authority in such cases should be obtained as
per
a. SIM – GL/7
b. SIM – GL/4
c. SIM – GL/8
d. SIM – GL/6
100. In case of tractor loan, one post disbursement inspection within ----- month
should be undertaken.
a. 1
157
b. 2
c. 3
d. 6
101.In scoring model proposals with credit score of ----- & above are considered
‘Good Loans’ for sanction
a. 66
b. 61
c. 81
d. 71
102. In scoring model, proposals with credit score of ----- and below should not be
considered for sanction.
a. 41
b. 51
c. 25
d. 26
103. In case of regular accounts (any amount) - inspection once in----- months for
verification of asset (preferably at harvest time) will suffice.
a. 6
b. 3
c. 9
d. None of the above
a. 31st August
b. 30th September
c. 31st Ocober
d. 31st March
107.---------- provide due date structure for each crop based on the crop season
period of their States / districts and local farming conditions, which is not in line with
our common due dates.
158
a. RBI
b. NABARD
c. SLBC
d. DLTC
108. Borrowers are required to route their farm proceeds or other credits into the
KCC account, with a minimum of ------------- and other charges, if any, within the
repayment due date.
109. If the KCC borrower needs enhanced MDL, beyond the regular 10% increase
(10% in short term loan component) for reasons of enhancement of scale of finance
or otherwise, during a particular year to meet his / her genuine farming requirement
a. it may also be considered by the branch, within the sanctioned KCC limit
(MPL)
b. It cannot be considered by the branch
c. Only additional 5% can be given
d. None of the above
110, If the KCC borrower fails to repay or route the proceeds or other credits into his/
her KCC as on the due date of repayment which of the following would happen ?
a. will not be eligible for additional interest subvention for prompt repayment.
b. Interest beyond the due date will be at card rate and compounded half yearly.
c. MDL of the KCC account will become zero and no further drawals will be
allowed.
d. Branch will have to initiate recovery process immediately.
e. All of the above
111.In case the KCC borrower repays the loan, but after the due date of repayment
112.As per IRAC norms, KCC accounts will be become NPA if they remain overdue
a. For 2 crop season for long duration crop
b. For 1 crop season for multiple crop
c. For 2 crop season for multiple crop
d. None of the above
113.In case of non-payment within the repayment due dates, interest will be applied
at ---------, beyond the repayment due date, compounded at half yearly rests.
159
a. 2% higher
b. 3% higher
c. 4% higher
d. Card Rate
114. As per RBI guidelines, additional interest subvention (@----% as of now) will
be paid to the farmer only if he / she repays the loan on or before the due date.
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
115. Credit balances in KCC account will fetch interest at ------------ rate.
a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. Savings Bank Rate
117. Short term credit limit is fixed for the first year depending upon
a. the crops cultivated as per proposed cropping pattern & scale of finance
b. post harvest/household/ consumption requirements and
c. Maintenance expenses of farm assets, crop insurance, Personal Accident
Insurance Scheme (PAIS) and Asset insurance.
d. All of the above
118. Investment credit requirement of small value in the nature of farm implements/
equipments etc (like sprayer, plough etc.,) and repayable within a period of one year
will be included while fixing KCC limit. Select the statements which are true.
a. There can be automatic step up of this limit during 2nd to 5th year.
b. This portion of the credit will not be included for automatic step up during 2nd
year to 5th year
c. credit requirement for this portion in each year will be reckoned for arriving at
the maximum drawal limit for the respective year
d. only b and c
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b. The short term loan limit arrived for the 5th year plus estimated investment
loan requirement as in (highest among the five years )
c. It is the limit for which documents are executed
d. Both b and c
a. 2
b. 0.50
c. 5
d. 1
a. MDL
b. MPL
c. Actual amount disbursed
d. All accounts will have same rate
a. Project Cost
b. Bank loan
c. Land holding and type of crop
d. Subsidy
a. SBI
b. RBI
c. NABARD
d. GOVT.
a. Rs.50000
b. Rs.1 lac
c. Rs.2.00 lac
d. none of the abov
a. Revolving credit
b. Overdraft
c. Term Loan
d. Composite Term Loan
126.Under SSTL Minimum annual income of borrower(s) should be Rs. -------- /- from
all sources
161
a. 100000
b. 150000
c. 200000
d. None of the above
a. 30
b. 40
c. 50
d. 60
128. in SSTLwith liquid collateral, Security of gold ornaments, NSC, Time Deposits
(advance value of gold ornaments, time deposits, NSC) to the extent of a minimum
----% is obtained for loans sanctioned under ‘SSTL with Collateral’
a. 30
b. 35
c. 40
d. 45
129. In SSTL with liquid collateral margin is to be obtained at -------% for tractor on
original invoice and taxes
a. 20
b. 10
c. 25
d. 30
a. 24
b. 36
c. 48
d. 60
a. 24
b. 36
c. 48
d. 60
a. 5
b. 7
c. 10
d. No upper limit
133.Minimum land holding for new tractor loan scheme is -----acre
a. 2
162
b. 3
c. 4
d. 6
a. 24
b. 36
c. 48
d. 60
136. Under Tatkal Tractor loan scheme, free accidental insurance cover up to
Rs.------- Lakhs is given.
a. 2
b. 4
c. 6
d. 5
a. 15
b. 25
c. 20
d. 10
138.For combined harvester loan, the Farmer should own minimum ------- acres of
irrigated land
a. 2
b. 6
c. 8
d. 10
140. Dairy Society Plus loan is provided to dairy societies for modernization and
creating infrastructures like
a. Construction of "milk house or society office"
b. Purchase of "Automatic milk collection system"
163
c. Purchase of transport vehicles.
d. Purchase of Bulk chilling unit
e. All of these
141. To be eligible under Dairy Society Plus, the society should be supplying an
average of ------ litres of milk to the milk union per day.
a. 1000
b. 2000
c. 3000
d. 4000
a. 15
b. 25
c. 20
d. 10
a. 36
b. 48
c. 60
d. 72
145.Which of the following is not a condition for financing under dairy society plus?
146.The collateral security under poulty loan is Mortgage of land on which the poultry
shed and other infrastructure are available or proposed to be constructed covering at
least -----% of advance
a. 25
b. 50
c. 60
d. 75
a. 15%
164
b. 25%
c. 20%
d. 10%
a. 3
b. 5
c. 7
d. 6
150.Under Scheme for debt swapping of borrowers, the quantum of loan granted
shall be 100% if the debt is on account of cultivation or agri activity, with a maximum
of Rs ----------/.
a. 50000
b. 100000
c. 200000
d. None of the above
a. 2
b. 3
c. 5
d. 7
153.Under Land purchase scheme, entire loan amount together with interest may be
recovered over a maximum period of ------ years
a. 3 to 5
b. 5 to 7
c. 9 to 10
d. None of the above
165
154.Under Kisan Gold Card Scheme, the loan limit would be equal to five times the
Annual Farm Income or ----% of the value of the land mortgaged as collateral
security, whichever is less.
a. 50
b. 60
c. 40
d. 75
155. Withdrawals for consumption purposes under Kisan Gold Card scheme should
not, however, exceed -------% of the limit sanctioned.
a. 10
b. 20
c. 30
d. 25
156.What is the ceiling on maximum subsidy in any category for the finance under
the scheme Capital Investment Subsidy for Construction/Renovation of Rural
Godowns
a. Rs. 2 Crore
b. Rs.2.25 Crore
c. Rs.1.35 Crore
d. Rs. 3 crore
158.Permissible project cost under Rural Godown Scheme , upto 1000 tonne is:
166
c. IDFC
d. STATE GOVT.
a. 40
b. 50
c. 60
d. 35
a. 6 months
b. 12 months
c. 24 months
d. 36 months
167
168.ATL for purchasing pump becomes NPA if it remains overdue for
a. 2 crop seasons
b. 1 crop seasons
c. 1 year
d. 2 year
169. TATKAL (mortgage free) tractor loan can be sanctioned to High Net worth
farmers who are capable of purchasing tractor with cash and who secures ----- &
above under Tractor Credit Scoring Model.
a. 51
b. 61
c. 71
d. 66
170. Under TATKAL (mortgage free) tractor loan if Combined marks scored under
(Hiring Potential + Percentage of income from allied activities) is between 11-14, the
repayment frequency should be
a. Monthly
b. Quarterly
c. Half-yearly
d. Annually
171.ASSET BACKED AGRI LOAN amount will be fixed on the basis of how many
times of annual farm income/ non farm income from all verifiable sources?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
168
175.What is the repayment period for ASSET BACKED AGRI LOAN?
a. 12-60 months
b. 12-72 months
c. 18-84 months
d. 12-84 months
176.ASSET BACKED AGRI LOAN the Immovable Property (Land and Building) for
value not less than …………..% of the loan amount by way of first charge?
a. 170%
b. 150%
c. 165%
d. 155%
177.The processing fee for ASSET BACKED AGRI LOAN is ……..% of the loan
amount?
a. 0.25
b. 0.50
c. 0.75
d. 1.00
178.In Financing Farmers’ Receivables under Corporate Tie-up the Internal Credit
Rating should be …….. and above?
a. 7
b. 8
c. 9
d. 10
179. For financing dairy units, the farmer should own minimum ----- acre land for
cultivation of fodder for every 5 animals.
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. None of the above
180. For financing dairy units, individual farmers, who are members of the dairy
societies for more than 2 years and producing & selling at least ----- lts. of milk per
year to the society,
are eligible to avail the scheme.
a. 1000
b. 2000
c. 3000
d. 1500
169
182.What is the minimum margin for Financing of Combine Harvester?
a. 15%
b. 20%
c. 25%
d. 35%
185.What is the Turn Around Time (TAT) for Financing of Combine Harvester from
the date of submission of all the required documents/papers by the prospective
borrower/s?
a. 5 days
b. 7 days
c. 10 days
d. days
186.In Special SBI OTS 2016-17 for Tractor, Combine Harvester and Farm
Mechanization loan accounts with outstanding upto what amount are eligible, which
are classified as Doubtful or Loss asset as on 30.09.2016 and disbursed on or
before 30.09.2011.
a. 10 lakhs
b. 25 lakhs
c. 50 lakhs
d. 30lakhs
187.In Pradahn Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana what is the premium In case of annual
commercial and horticultural crops?
a. 1.5%
b. 2%
c. 3.5%
d. 5%
188.In Pradahn Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana what is the premium In case of Kharif
crops?
a. 1.5%
b. 2%
c. 3.5%
d. 5%
170
189.In Pradahn Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana what is the premium In case Rabi crops
and for food crop, oilseeds and pulses.?
a. 1.5%
b. 2%
c. 3.5%
d. 5%
190.In Pradahn Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana Banks are eligible for commission /
service charges at what percentage of the premium collected from farmers from
Insurance Company.
a. 1%
b. 2%
c. 3%
d. 4%
193.If a farmer is not having minimum land ownership then maximum how many
farmers can join together to fulfill the criteria of minimum land ownership to avail loan
for POWER TILLER?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. No such criteria
a. 5 years
b. 7 years
c. 9 years
d. 3 years
a. 5%
b. 10%
c. 15%
d. 25%
171
196.For financing New High Tech Product: Poly House/Net House/Green House
Cultivation what is the minimum score required in Credit Scoring Model?
a. 25 marks
b. 50 marks
c. 61 marks
d. 76 marks
197.For financing New High Tech Product: Poly House/Net House/Green House
Cultivation what is the repayment period?
a. 60 months
b. 36 months
c. 72 months
d. 48 months
198.For financing New High Tech Product: Poly House/Net House/Green House
Cultivation what is the value of collateral to be obtained for loans above 1 lakh
amount?
a. 150%
b. 155%
c. 170%
d. 200%
199.For financing New High Tech Product: Poly House/Net House/Green House
Cultivation what is the minimum size required for the unit?
a. 500 sq.m
b. 1000 sq.m.
c. 1200 sq.m
d. 1500 sq.m.
200.In New Dairy Product Under Tie-up to finance existing farmers associated with
anchor companies (co-operative societies/recognized private milk dairies) for
purchase of milch animals the loan is given for minimum ………milch animals?
a. 2
b. 4
c. 6
d. 8
172
KEY - AGRICULTURE SEGMENT
1 D 41 B 81 A 121 A 161 D
2 B 42 C 82 A 122 A 162 A
3 B 43 D 83 D 123 C 163 A
4 C 44 A 84 D 124 B 164 B
5 A 45 B 85 B 125 A 165 B
6 A 46 B 86 D 126 B 166 B
7 B 47 B 87 A 127 D 167 A
8 B 48 C 88 E 128 A 168 A
9 A 49 A 89 A 129 B 169 B
10 A 50 A 90 B 130 C 170 A
11 A 51 D 91 A 131 B 171 D
12 B 52 D 92 B 132 D 172 B
13 C 53 C 93 B 133 A 173 B
14 D 54 C 94 D 134 A 174 C
15 B 55 A 95 D 135 D 175 B
16 C 56 D 96 A 136 B 176 D
17 A 57 D 97 A 137 B 177 D
18 B 58 C 98 B 138 C 178 C
19 C 59 B 99 B 139 D 179 A
20 D 60 D 100 A 140 E 180 A
21 C 61 D 101 D 141 A 181 A
22 A 62 B 102 C 142 B 182 C
23 D 63 B 103 A 143 A 183 C
24 A 64 A 104 B 144 C 184 C
25 A 65 C 105 D 145 D 185 B
26 B 66 A 106 D 146 B 186 B
27 A 67 A 107 C 147 B 187 D
28 B 68 B 108 D 148 B 188 B
29 E 69 A 109 A 149 B 189 A
30 D 70 B 110 E 150 B 190 D
31 A 71 A 111 B 151 C 191 B
32 B 72 B 112 C 152 A 192 B
33 A 73 A 113 D 153 C 193 B
34 C 74 A 114 B 154 A 194 A
35 D 75 B 115 D 155 B 195 B
36 A 76 B 116 D 156 D 196 B
37 B 77 A 117 D 157 B 197 C
38 C 78 C 118 D 158 D 198 D
39 A 79 D 119 D 159 B 199 B
40 B 80 C 120 B 160 B 200 B
173
INTERNATIONAL BANKING
1.An individual shall be deemed to be a non-resident as per FEMA & Indian Income
Tax Act:
3.A person who is returning to India after 9 years of stay outside India (and who was
non-resident for each of the 9 years under the Income Tax Act, 1961), shall remain
RNOR for the period of ----- years only.
174
9.Which of the following are permissible credits in NRE account.
a.100000/50000 b.10000/20000
c.75000/50000 d.5000/15000
11. For NRE accounts in General Branches: minimum amount of deposit in TDR is
a.Rs.1000/- b.Rs.100/- c.Rs.5000/- d.No minimum deposit
13. NRIs are permitted to open NRE account with their resident close relative as a
joint holder on ------------------------- basis.
16. In NRO account principal & interest amount are partly repatriable, subject to
overall ceiling of ------------- or equivalent in a financial year
a.USD 1 mio
b.USD 10 mio
c.Any amount can be repatriated
d.Only interest amount can be repartriated before maturity
175
19. If interest income is less than or equal to Rs. 1 crore, tax in NRO account will be
deducted at-------------%
20. DTAA benefit can be availed by submitting which of the following documents:
21. In FCNR(B) account, Interest is paid at a frequency of ------- from date of Term
Deposit
176
29. In case of NRO accounts opened by Foreign Students , within a period of -----
days of opening the account, the foreign student should submit to the branch where
the account is opened, a valid address proof giving local address,
33. What is true about Letter of Authority (LOA) for NRI account operations
37.Minimum home loan amount under NRI home loan scheme is…………?
177
38.Which of the following is true about NRI car loan?
39. For availing car loan an NRI has to maintain an NRI account with other Banks for
last 24 months with a minimum balance/fixed deposits of ………………?
a. USD 1000 b. Rs.50000
b. USD 5000 d. Rs.100000
40.For availing car loan, the NRI should have a minimum Net Monthly Income of
USD -------- or a minimum Net Annual Income of USD---------- (equivalent amount in
other currencies)
a. 2000/24000 b. 3000/36000
c.1000/12000 d. None of the above
42.Loan to NRI against NRI deposits cannot be granted for which of the following
activities
a. re-lending
b. carrying out agricultural / plantation activities
c. for investment in real estate
d. All of the above
a. India Rupees
b. Foreign currency
c. Both Indian Rupees and Foreign currency
d. Only some loans can be availed in foreign currency
178
45.Loan against FCNR(B) Demand loan can be availed maximum up to…..?
a. 25000
b. 50000
c. 10000
d. 20000
48. Interest rate on Foreign Currency loan is -------- % over prevalent FCNR (B)
deposit rate for the relative period at the time of processing the loan
a. 2.50
b. 2.00
c. 1.00
d. 1.50
49. Normal time taken for SBI Rupee Instant Flash from associated Exchange
Houses or Banks in Bahrain, Kuwait, Oman, Qatar, Saudi Arabia and UAE is…….?
a. 10 min
b. 20 min
c. 1 day
d. 3 hours
a. 100/10000
b. 50/25000
c. 50/50000
d. 150/25000
179
c. Open foreign currency accounts
d. None of these
53.It is a credit where an exporter receiving it from his foreign buyer can approach
his banker to open credits in favour of one or more of his suppliers
a. Transferrable credit
b. Back to Back credit
c. Negotiation credit
d. None of these
a. T+1 basis
b. On the same day
c. T+2 Basis
d. T+3 basis
a. EUR
b. GBP
c. AUD
d. All of the above
56.Which of the following factors are taken into consideration for deciding the margin
in rate to the customers.
a. Buyer
b. Seller
c. LC Issuing Bank
d. LC Negotiating Bank
58.Uniform Customs and Practice for Documentary Credits-600 have been revised
wef :
a. 1.4.2007
b. 1.7.2007
c. 1.10.2007
d. 1.1.2007
180
c. LC is a separate transaction from contract of sale of goods and services and
not bound by such contract
d. None of the above
60.Under Uniform Customs and Practice for Documentary Credits-600, the banks
deal with documents and not with goods, services or performance to which
document relate. This is stated as per Article------------:
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
61.Under Uniform Customs and Practice for Documentary Credits-600, which of the
following statement is not correct regarding an advising bank :
a. 5 banking days
b. 5 business days
c. 5 working days
d. 5 calendar days
63.Under Uniform Customs and Practice for Documentary Credits-600, what is true
regarding discrepant documents :
64.Which of the following is not correct regarding shipping documents under Uniform
Customs and Practice for Documentary Credits-600 :
181
c. A bill of lading, must indicate that the goods have been shipped on board a
named vessel at the port of loading stated in the credit
d. None of the above
a. Insurance policy
b. Insurance certificate
c. Declaration under open cover
d. Cover note
66.Under Uniforms Customs and Practice for Documentary Credits-600, the words
“about” or “apprx” used in connection with the amount of LC or quantity of goods, or
price per unit, the LC are to be construed as allowing a tolerance not to exceed
--------- the amount, quantity or price to which they refer :
68.An exporter of your branch receives letter of credit for export of hand-tools to UK
but there is no mention of partial shipment in the credit conveniently. In order to
conveniently dispatch the goods, the exporter wishes that he could partially ship and
also trans-ship the exported material :
69.State Bank opened a letter of credit on behalf of M/s Mansukhlal and Company
for purchase of goods for trading purpose. Their managing partner comes to your
branch and informs that their booking agent has informed him over phone that the
supplier has sent the goods of a different specification, which are substandard also.
He makes a request to the bank not to make payment of the documents when
received from the negotiating bank :
182
a. The request of the party will be accepted by the bank since the bank has to
deal with the party for business
b. Bank can accept the request of the party since it is a fraud both on the
customer and also the bank
c. Bank cannot accept the request of the party since all the parties deal with
documents in letter of credit instead of goods and services
d. Customer can be advised to file a suit in a court of law and bring a stay
from court
a. Confirmed LC
b. Irrevocable LC
c. Back to back LC
d. Red clause LC
a. Confirmed LC
b. Irrevocable LC
c. Revolving LC
d. Standby LC
72.The payment by the opening bank has been guaranteed by another bank in an
LC. It is called :
a. Confirmed LC
b. Irrevocable LC
c. Revolving LC
d. Standby LC
73.An exporter gets a letter of credit for export of garments to US but the expiry date
of the credit falls on January 26, which is a public holiday. In such situation the
documents for negotiation can be submitted to the negotiating bank on :
183
a. Negotiating bank
b. Exporter
c. Importer
d. Issuing Bank
76.In letter of credit transactions, the bank which is allowed to make payment against
the documents is called :
a. Confirming bank
b. Nominated bank
c. Advising bank
d. Issuing bank
e. Reimbursing bank
80.The term ‘normal transit period’ (NTP) in the context of post shipment export
credit represents :
a. The time taken by documents to reach the importer’s country
b. The time taken by goods to reach the importer’s country
c. The time taken from date of purchase of documents to credit to NOSTRO
account of the bank
d. The time taken by documents to be realized and credited to NOSTRO
account of the bank
81.Which of the form does not match its purpose :
a. EFC – opening of foreign currency account with a bank in India or abroad
by exporters
b. ETX – seeking extension in realization of bills from RBI
184
c. XOS – Statement of export bills outstanding more than 6 months
d. BEF – Application for payment of import payment
82.Gold card for exporters can be issued to which of the following type of exporters
(which one is more appropriate) :
a. All exporters
b. All creditworthy exporters
c. All creditworthy exporters including SME having 3 year standard account
d. All the above
a) a, b and d only
b) b, c and d only
c) a, c and d only
d) a to d all
a. 5 years, Rs. 5 cr
b. 3 years, Rs. 5 cr
c. 2 years, Rs. 3 cr
d. 2 years, Rs. 2 cr
86.When a seller undertakes to make the goods available for export, at his factory,
such arrangement is called :
a. Ex-works
b. FOB
c. CIF
d. FOR on ship
e. None of the above
87. Advance remittance for import of services, without a bank guarantee, that an AD
can allow, can be up to :
a. USD 100000
185
b. USD 200000
c. USD 500000
d. USD 5000000
88. AD banks can issue bank guarantee for import of services to a maximum extent
of
a. USD 100000
b. USD 200000
c. USD 500000
d. USD 5000000
89.Your branch opens a letter of credit on behalf of a customer for which the
documents have been received but the customer has not been retiring the
documents. The bill in foreign currency will be crystallized if it is not paid within :
a. 180 days
b. 90 days
c. 45 days
d. 30 days
e. 10 days
90.What is the maximum amount that AD category-I banks can release to an Indian
residents for going abroad for employment :
a. USD 10000
b. USD 25000
c. USD 250000
d. USD 200000
91.What is the maximum amount that AD category-I banks can release to an Indian
residents for going abroad for business tour :
93.The visits by a resident Indian to which of the following countries are not eligible
for obtaining foreign exchange under forex facilities to residents :
186
c. All CIS countries
d. Iraq and Libya
e. Nepal and Bhutan
94.Foreign Currency Non-Resident (Banks) account can be opened in the name of
following :
a. Non-resident Indian
b. Person of Indian origin
c. Overseas corporate bodies
d. All the above
95.An NRO account can not be opened by which of the following :
a. An NRI
b. A person of Indian Origin (PIO)
c. A foreign national on temporary visit to India
d. A resident Indian
97.While cancelling a foreign draft issued by a branch, which rate will be applied?
a. TT selling
b. TT Buying
c. Currency Selling
d. Currency Buying
a. RBI
b. Authorized Dealers (AD)
c. Customs
d. None of the above
99.IEC No( Import-Export Code No.) issued by
a. DGFT
b. Ministry of Finance
c. Enforcement Directorate
d. Ministry of Commerce
100.A contract to buy or sell a specified amount of currency at a specified price on a
specified future date is called
a. Futures
b. Forward Contract
c. Hedging
d. Derivatives
187
101.ECGC covers risks/ issues policies to
a. Exporters
b. Financing Banks
c. Importers
d. a&b
a. USD
b. GBP
c. AUD
d. SAR
a. IBA regulations
b. FEDAI rules
c. RBI
d. None of the above
106.How is a foreign spouse of NRI treated for the purpose of opening an NRI
Account?
a. As an Indian Resident
b. As a foreigner
c. As a Person of Indian Origin
d. As an alien friend
107.When funds from NRE accounts are repatriated, the exchange risk is borne by
a. RBI
b. Authorized Dealers
c. Depositor
d. b & c equally
188
108.The account maintained by Foreign branches/Correspondents with our domestic
branch (In India) is called
a. Loro A/c
b. Vostro A/c
c. Nostro A/c
d. Special A/c
a. 1,00,000
b. 1,50,000
c. 2,50,000
d. No limit
a. 2,00,000
b. 2,50,000
c. 50,000
d. 75,000
a. A
b. B
c. C-1
d. C-2
a. A
b. B
c. C-1
d. C-2
113.As per the extant instructions, residents while making remittances exceeding
USD ------- for remittances other than Imports need to submit declaration cum
undertaking in Form A2.
a. 5000
b. 10000
c. 15000
d. 25000
189
114. Import licenses are normally issued for the ------- value of the goods to be
imported
a. CIF
b. FOB
c. Either a or b
d. None of the above
115.If the due date of a bill falls on a holiday or Saturday the importer's liability shall
be crystallized on---------------.
a. 50000
b. 5000
c. 100000
d. 200000
117.Authorised dealers may accept either Exchange Control copy of Bill of Entry for
home consumption or a certificate from the Chief Executive Officer (CEO) or auditor
of the company that the goods for which remittance was made have actually been
imported into India provided :-
a. the amount of foreign exchange remitted is less than USD 1,000,000 or its
equivalent,
b. the importer is a company listed on a stock exchange in India and whose net
worth is not less than Rs.100 crores as on the date of its last audited balance
sheet,
c. the importer is a public sector company or an undertaking of the Government
of India or its departments.
d. All of the above
a. Monthly
b. Quarterly
c. Half-yearly
d. Anually
190
119.The half-yearly statement of Bill of entry is to be submitted to the Regional Office
of Reserve Bank under whose jurisdiction the authorised dealer is functioning, within
----- days from the close of the half-year to which the statement relates.
a. 10
b. 15
c. 20
d. 30
a. 30000
b. 5000
c. 25000
d. 15000
a. 30000
b. 250000
c. 100000
d. 150000
122. A returning traveller is permitted to retain with him, foreign currency, travellers’
cheques and currency notes up to an aggregate amount of USD --------
a. 2000
b. 3000
c. 4000
d. 5000
a. 5
b. 2
c. 3
d. 1
191
125. With a view to liberalizing the procedure, it has also been decided by RBI to
enhance the limit for direct receipt of import bills / documents from the present limit
of USD 100,000 to USD---------.
a. 200000
b. 300000
c. 500000
d. 250000
126. Credit report on the overseas supplier (where the import documents are
received directly) need not be obtained in cases where the invoice value does not
exceed USD --------, provided that the branches are satisfied about the bonafides of
the transaction and track record of the importer constituent.
a. 200000
b. 300000
c. 500000
d. 250000
127.As per RBI earlier directives Suppliers' and Buyers' Credit (trade credit)
including the usance period of Letters of Credit opened for import of precious stones
and semi-precious stones should not exceed --- days from the date of shipment.
a. 90
b. 120
c. 60
d. 180
a. TC selling rate
b. TC buying rate
c. TT buying rate
d. TT selling rate
192
131. Crystallisation means ____________
132. Authorised Dealers are allowed upto ___________ for advance remittance for
import of services into India without insisting on foreign bank guarantee.
a. USD 500,000
b. USD 200,000
c. USD 100,000
d. USD 50,000
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138. Loro account means _________
139. In case of Exports by Indian Company under a CIF contract, the insurance
charges are to be borne by :
a. Exporter
b. Importer
c. to be shared between (a) & (b)
d. none of the above
142. For education abroad, ADs can release foreign exchange upto USD ……..
a. 5000
b. 10000
c. 30000
d. 250000
143. INCOTERMS stands for _________
a. Commercial Certification terms
b. International Commercial Terms
c. International Companies Terms
d. None of the above
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145.With a view to providing operational flexibility to exporters and importers to
hedge their foreign exchange risk, RBI has decided to allow exporters to cancel and
rebook forward contracts to the extent of -------- percent of the contracts booked in a
financial year for hedging their contracted export exposures
a. 25
b. 50
c. 40
d. 35
a. 25
b. 50
c. 40
d. 35
147.Branches may also allow importers and exporters to book forward contracts on
the basis of a declaration of an exposure and based on past performance upto the
average of the previous------- financial years
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. None of the above
a. 5
b. b.6
c. c.7
d. d.8
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INTERNATIONAL BANKING KEY
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
D D B D D A B A D A
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A A B D B A B A A D
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
D A A B D A B A B D
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
D A A D A A A D D C
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
B D C D C A D D A B
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
B C B C D D B B B D
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
D A D D D B C D C D
71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
C A C D D B B D D C
81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
D C C D C A C C E C
91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
B D E D D D B C A B
101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
D D A A D C C B C B
111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A D A A A C D C B B
121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
B A D D B B A A D A
131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
B A C C C D A C A D
141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
C D B B B A C B C A
196