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1. The following are the major components of Acute inflammation EXCEPT:

A. alterations in vascular caliber that lead to an increase in blood flow
B. structural changes in microvasculature permitting plasma proteins and leukocytes to pass
C. Tissue destruction, induced by the persistent offending agent or by the inflammatory cells
D. Leukocytes emigration from microcirculation, accumulation & activation
2. A person or animal with asymptomatic infection that can be transmitted to another susceptible person
A. Carrier B. Infection C. Invasion D. Adherence
3. Larger (>3mm) hemorrhages in the skin
A. Petechiae B. Ecchymoses C. Purpura D. Hematoma
4. Irreversible damage to the brain tissue occurs after how many minutes?
A. 3-4minutes B. 6-10minute C. 30minutes D. 60 minutes
5. Scar tissue that grows beyond the boundaries of the original wound and does not regress
A. Hypertrophic scar B. Keloid C. Contracture D. Wound dehiscence
6. Reversible changes in the size, number, phenotype, metabolic activity, or functions of cells in response to
changes in their environment.
A. adaptation B. Hyperplasia C. metaplasia D. anaplasia
7. Most common stimulus for muscle hypertrophy
A. hormonal stimulation B. growth factor C. increase work load D. increase protein production
8. Tumor marker for liver cancer
A. Calcitonin B. Immunoglobulin C. Alpha-feto protein D. Human chorionic gonadotropin
9. Most common cause of pulmonary embolism
A. Deep vein thrombosis B. myocardial infarct C. tumor D. Fat embolism
10. Blood vessel formation in adults that involves the branching and extension of adjacent pre-existing vessel
A. Inflammation B. Angiogenesis C. Migration D. Repair
11. Stem cells present in the cornea of the eye
A. Niche cells B. Kupferr cells C. Limbal cells D. Satellite cells
12. Cells that predominate in the inflammatory infiltrate during 24 hours- 48 hours
A. Monocytes B. Lymphocytes C. Neutrophils D. Basophils
13. The following are characteristic of a transudate except
A. Contain albumin B. contains no cellular debris C. high protein concentration D. low specific gravity
14. The following are hallmarks of all acute inflammatory reaction EXCEPT:
A. dilation of small blood vessels C. accumulation of leukocytes and fluid in the extravascular tissue
B. slowing of blood flow D. accumulation of leukocytes and fluid in the intravascular tissue
15. Most abundant protein in the animal world.
A. Fibrinogen B. amino acid C. Immunoglobulin D. Collagen
16. Father of Bacteriology and protozoology:
A. Antony Van Leeuwenhoek B. Francesco Redi C.John Needham D. Lazzaro Spallanzai
17. Discovered penicillin:
A. Louis Pasteur B. Antony Van Leeuwenhoek C. Alexander Fleming D. Robert Koch
18. The following statements are true about tetanus infection EXCEPT:
A. The disease is characterized by tonic contraction of voluntary muscles
B. Patients in tetanus infection with spastic paralysis is fully conscious, and pain may be intense
C. The volume of infected tissue is large, and the disease is almost entirely a toxemia.
D. Tetanospasmin is the toxin produced by clostridium tetani
19. Functions of cell membrane include the following EXCEPT:
A. Selective permeability and transport of solutes & secretion of hydrolytic exoenzymes
B. Electron transport and oxidative phosphorylation in aerobic species
C. Bearing the enzymes and carrier molecules that function in the biosynthesis of DNA, cell wall polymers,
and membrane lipids
D. Bearing the receptors and other proteins of the chemotactic & sensory transduction systems
20. A relationship in which a host provides the primary benefit to the organism
A. Mutualism B. Parasitism C. Commensalism D. Infection
21. Refers to an increase in the size of cells, resulting in an increase in the size of the organ.
A. anaplasia B. hypertrophy C. metaplasia D. hyperplasia
22. Most common epithelial metaplasia
A. squamous to columnar C. columnar to squamous
B. columnar to stratified squamous D. stratified squamous to columnar
23. Reversible cellular injury is characterized by the following EXCEPT:
A. generalized swelling of the cell C. blebbing of the plasma membrane
B. detachment of ribosomes from the ER D. protein denaturation
24. Cardiac-specific enzymes and proteins are rapidly released from necrotic muscle and can be detected in the
blood as early as 2 hours after myocardial cell necrosis
A. troponin B. creatine phosphokinase C. alkaline phosphatase D. A &B
25. Characterized by nuclear shrinkage and increased basophilia and chromatin condenses into a solid, shrunken
basophilic mass
A. pyknosis B. karyorrhexis C. karyolysis DE. All of the above


1. The average human skeleton has how many bones?
A. 206 B. 306 C.225 D.325
2. The following are bones in the body that is capable of forming blood cells except:
A. Ribs B. Vertebrae C. Cranium D. Humerus
3. True about long bones except
A. Two ends contain spongy bone and red marrow
B. Bones are light but very strong and are the weight bearing bones
C. They are compact bones that are strong and reinforced by thickening of bone tissue
D. It has a hollow center which contain yellow marrow
4. True about Arthrogryposis multiplex congenital
A. Congenital joint contractures in two or more areas of the body
B. The treatment includes occupational therapy, splinting and surgery
C. Joint contractures have abnormal muscle fibrosis causing muscle shortening therefore
unable to do passive extension and flexion in the affected joints.
D. All of the above
E. Only A & B
5. Incomplete contact between the articular surfaces of the femoral head and acetabulum
A. Dislocation B. Subluxation C. Instability D. Fracture
6. Risk factors for fracture include the following except
A. Sudden impact B. increased age C. male D. malnutrition
7. A disease due to repetitive trauma to the apophysis, induced by the pull of the Achilles tendon
leading to heel pain in a growing active child
A. Sinding-Larsen-Johansson syndrome C. Legg-Calvé -Perthes disease
B. Myositis ossificans D. Sever’s disease
8. Cobb angle measurement in scoliosis that can result in a reduced life expectancy secondary to
cor pulmonale and cardiorespiratory failure
A. 35-50 degrees B.80-100 degrees C. 100-120 degrees D.>150
9. Small segment of bone begins to separate from its surrounding region due to a lack of blood supply
and results to cracking and loosening of bone and cartilage
A. Osteochrondritis dissecans C. Myositis ossificans
B. Legg-Calve-Perthes disease D. Blount disease
10. Injuries to the ligaments that support the spine.
A. Sprain B. Strain C. Arthritis D. Myalgia
11. Injuries to the muscles and musculotendinous junctions
A. Sprain B. Strain C. Arthritis D. Myalgia
12. Most common location of shoulder dislocations
A. Anterior B. Posterior C. Lateral D. Antero-posterior dislocation
13. Pain in shoulder impingement syndrome is usually manifested at what degree angle?
A. 30-90degrees B. 50-100 degrees C. 60-120degrees D. 100-150degrees
14. Common impairment of shoulder dislocation
A. Pain localized to the involved joint and neighboring ligament
B. Painful arc with shoulder elevation and shoulder horizontal adduction or abduction
C. Hypomobility in the joints if trauma or overuse is involved
D. Hypermobility in the joints if sustained posture or immobility is involved
15. Functional limitation of shoulder dislocation
A. Limited ability to sustain repeated loaded movements related to forward/backward motions of the
arm, such as with grinding, packing, assembly, and construction work
B. Inability to reach overhead without pain.
C. Inability to serve effectively at tennis or spike a volleyball.
D. All of the above
16. Most common cause of pes cavus disorder
A. congenital B. infection C. neurologic D. Idiopathic
17. Most common cause of adult onset acquired flatfoot
A. Posterior tibial tendon dysfunction C. accessory navicular bone
B. Anterior tibial tendon dysfunction D. midial tibial tendon dysfunction
18. Characteristic changes in disc degeneration
A. Fibrosis or cleft formation in the nucleus C. Osteophytes formation at the nucleus
B. Mucinous degeneration of the nucleus D. fissuring of the nucleus
19. Indications for triple arthrodesis EXCEPT:
A. extensive talocalcaneal coalition C. Ball and socket ankle joint disorder
B. Single coalition D. all of the above
20. Most common cause of tendon rupture
A. Infection B. Congenital C. sudden forced plantar flexion D. direct trauma
21. An injury of the extensor digitorum tendon of the fingers at the distal interphalangeal joint (DIP)
A. Mallet finger B. Boutonniere deformit C. Dupuytren’s contracture D. Swan neck deformity
22. Absolute contraindication to Hip arthroplasty
A. localized infection B. neurological disorder C. neuropathic hip joint D. young patient
23. A chronic degenerative disorder primarily affecting the articular cartilage of synovial joints, with bony
. remodeling and overgrowth at the margins of the joints with capsular thickening and joint effusion.
A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Osteoarthritis C. Gouty arthritis D. SLE arthritis
24. Total knee arthroplasty is a procedure for advanced arthritis of the knee usually done at what age ?
A. 50 yrs old B. >60 yrs old C. >70 yrs old D. >80 yrs old
25. The following are characteristics of Rheumatoid arthritis EXCEPT:
A. Usually begins between age 15 and 50
B. Inflammatory synovitis and irreversible structural damage to cartilage and bone
C. Usually affects many joint and usuaaly bilateral
D. May develop slowly over many years
EBP integument and respi
1. Evidence based medicine is best described as:
A. Conscientious, explicit and judicious use of current best evidence in making decisions about
the care of the individual patient.
B. Conscientious and judicious use of current best evidence in making decisions about the care
of patient as a group by integrating individual expertise from systematic research
C. Combination of external evidence to a specific treatment.
D. All of the above.
2. The largest organ of the body
A. Sex organ B. Brain C. Skin D. Blood vessel
3. Tearing away of the structure or a part, such as a finger tip either accidentally or surgically
A. Maceration B. Avulsion C. Contusion D. Laceration
4. Major epidermal cells
A. Melanocytes B. Merkell cells C. Keratinocytes D. Langerhans cell
5. A type of exudates consisted of large amount of RBC indicating damage to capillaries.
A. Sanguinous B. serous C. Purulent D. AOTA
6. Complication of wound healing commonly observed during the 1st 48 hours after surgery
A. Infection B. Hemorrhage C. Dehiscence D. AOTA
7. The most prevalent type of burns in children <4 years old.
A. Chemical burn B. Scald burn C. Electrical burn D. Flame burn
8. The following factors can prevent fire EXCEPT:
A. Install and use smoke detectors
B. Control the hot water thermostat, the maximum water temperature should be 150F
C. Keep fire, matches, and lighters out of reach of children
D. Avoid cigarette smoking, especially in bed & do not leave lit cigarettes unattended
E. Use flame retardant-treated clothing & keep cloth items off heaters
9. The following statements are true for out-patient management of burn EXCEPT:
A. Patient with 1st and 2nd degree burns of <10% BSA
B. Require a tetanus booster or prophylactic penicillin therapy
C. Blisters should be left intact and dressed with Bacitracin or Silver sulfadiazine cream
D. Dressings should be changed once daily
10. Common donor sites for skin grafting EXCEPT:
A. Thighs B. Buttocks C. Chest D. Back
11. True about debridement EXCEPT:
A. Debridement can be performed with sharp instruments (i.e., a scalpel or scissors)
mechanically, chemically, or with autolysis.
B. It is an important part of the healing process for burns and other serious wounds
C. it is used for treating some kinds of snake and spider bites
D. None of the above
12. Inhalational injury can occur in the following situation EXCEPT:
A. direct heat (greater problems with steam burns C. chronic asphyxia
B. toxic fumes, including cyanides from combustible plastics D. carbon monoxide poisoning
13. Most common cause of lower leg ulceration
A. Diabetes B. Vasculitis C. Venous insufficiency D. Arterial insufficiency
14. A component in urine that raises the skin’s pH, which promotes growth of pathogenic bacteria,
disrupts the protective acid mantle, and activates fecal enzymes.
A. Hydrogen B. Phosphates C. Ammonia D. All of the above
15. Most common cause of pressure ulcer
A. Diabetes mellitus B. Impaired mobility C. neurologically impaired D. Stroke
16. Most serious complication of chronic ulceration
A. malignant transformation B. sepsis C. Chronic infection D. anemia
17. Cold application can be used with exercise with the following benefits EXCEPT:
A. Facilitate mobilization B. relieve pain C. decrease muscle spasm D. NONE
18. Anaerobic exercise wherein the resistance is moved through entire range of motion
A. Isokinetic B.Isometric C. Isophonic D. Isotonic
19. Therapeutic exercise is the systematic performance or execution of planned physical movements,
postures, or
activities with the following benefits EXCEPT:
A. intended to enable the patient/client to remediate or prevent impairments,
B. enhance function, reduce risk and overall health
C. enhance fitness and well-being of the patient
D. None of the above
20. The following are uses of splint EXCEPT:
A. To reduce/prevent contracture
B. To stabilize and rest joint in ligamentous injury
C. To correct deformity and decrease grip strength
D. To support and immobilize joints and limbs postoperatively until healing has occured
21. The following areas are at high risk to develop pressure ulcer for a seated person EXCEPT:
A. Ischial tuberosities and Olecranon process
B. Scapular and vertebral spinous process
C. Medial epicondyle of the humerus
D. Side of the knees and the heels and feet
22. Factors that influence wound infection includes the following EXCEPT:
A. the quantity of micro-organism C. virulence and antibiotic resistant organism
B. immune response of the patient D. NONE OF THE ABOVE
23. The following statements are true EXCEPT:
A. Secondary dressing keeps the primary dressing in site and fastens it to the wound.
B. In cases of infected wound, effective and expensive dressing is very helpful for faster healing.
C. Debridement of necrotic and slough tissue can alter the wound environment and reduce
D. Normally moist environment will enhance wound healing.
24. A multidisciplinary comprehensive program of care for patients with chronic respiratory disease that
is designed to reduce symptoms, optimize physical functioning and social participation, and reduce
health care cost
A. Pulmonary rehabilitation B. COPD rehabilitation C. PT rehabilitation D. All of the above
25. The amount of air inspired or expired during normal resting ventilation
A. tidal voumel B. inspiratory reserve volume C. Expiratory RV D. Residual volume
1. The most common muscular dystrophy
A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy C. Becker Muscular dystrophy
B. Emery-dreifuss D. Congenital myodystrophy
2. Anomaly that is apparent at birth
A. Deformity B. developmental C. congenital D. malformation
3. Turning outward away from the axis of the body
A. Internal rotation B. external rotation C. eversion D. inversion
4. Significant apnea is considered
A. Apnea longer than 20 seconds associated with cyanosis or bradycardia
B. Apnea longer than 10 seconds associated with cyanosis but without bradycardia
C. Apnea longer than 20 seconds without cyanosis or bradycardia
D. Apnea longer than 10 seconds associated with bradycardia but without cyanosis
5. The following statements are true EXCEPT:
A. DTRs in newborn are variable because corticospinal pathway is not yet developed
B. The triceps, brachioradialis, and abdominal reflexes are difficult to elicit before 6months old
C. Use of index or middle finger as neurologic hammer in eliciting DTR in children
D. The anal reflex is present at birth and important to elicit if a spinal cord lesion is suspected
6. Maneuver used to rule out hip dislocation
A. Ortolani maneuver B. Barlow maneuver C. A&B D. None of the above
7. HEADS format is a part of a complete history taking of adolescent patient and E stands for the
following EXCEPT:
A. Education B. Employment C. Exercise D. Experience of drug use
8. The triad of cranial nerve palsies, radiculitis and aseptic meningitis is most characteristic of this
condition during its disseminated phase.
A. Sarcoidosis B. SLE C. Lyme disease D. Horner’s syndrome
9. Symptoms of peripheral nerve disease EXCEPT:
A. motor function impairment B. loss of tendon reflex C. cramps D. sensation is spared
10. Early and most common sign of muscular dystrophy
A. upper extremities weakness B. gower’s sign C. scoliosis D. Orthopnea
11. Group of progressive hereditary degenerative disease of skeletal muscle
A. Myositis B. dystrophies C. polymyopathies D. myopathies
12. The following are essential amino acid EXCEPT:
A. Histidine B. adenine C. lysine D. methionine
13. Inverted J stroke on the sole of the foot which produces fanning of toes
A. Babinski reflex B. Parachute reflex C. Landau reflex D. Moro reflex
14. A syndrome that combines weight loss, loss of muscle and adipose tissue and weakness
A. Anorexia B. Sarcopenia C. Depression D. Cachexia
15. Brain atrophy occurs with aging and usually affects what age?
A. >40 years old B. >50 years old C.> 60 years old D. >70 years old
16. Most common clinical manifestation of myasthenia
A. diplopia B. weakness C. paralysis D. paresthesia
17. Mode of transmission of poliomyelitis
A. Fecal-oral B. droplet C. blood D. airborne
18. Indications for lumbar puncture includes the following EXCEPT:
A. To obtain pressure measurements and procure a sample of the CSF for cellular, cytologic,
chemical and bacteriologic examination.
B. To aid in therapy by the administration of spinal anesthetics and antibiotics
C. To inject a radioopaque substance, as in myelography or radioactive agent
D. NONE of the above
19. Involuntary tremulous motion usually noted between 45-70 years old with presence of
pigmented substance in the substancia nigra
A. Alzheimer disease B. Parkinson disease C. Schneider disease D. Multiple sclerosis
20. Best diagnostic procedure for the visualization of most neurologic diseases and provides slice
images of the brain in any planes
A. CT scan B. MRI C. Angiography D. Xray
21. Most common neurotransmitter secreted from the terminals that excite the spinal cord neuron
A. Dopamine B. serotonin C. glutamate D. acetylcholine
22. Seventh cranial nerve is also known as
A. Trochlear B. Facial nerve C. Glossopharyngeal D. Abduscent nerve
23. The following are Roles of Physical Therapist EXCEPT:
A. Examine each individual and develop a plan using treatment techniques to promote the
ability to move, reduce pain, restore function and prevent disability
B. PTs work with the individual to prevent the loss of mobility before it occurs by developing
fitness and wellness oriented programs for healthier and more active lifestyles.
C. Restore, maintain and promote not only optimal physical function but optimal wellness and
fitness and optimal quality of life.
D. PTs are healthcare professionals who diagnose and treat only the adults who have medical
problem or other health condition that limit their abilities to move and perform functional
activities in their daily lives.
24. The following are true of Physiatrist history and Physical examination EXCEPT:
A. It is the data platform from which a treatment plan is developed
B. It serves as a written record that communicates to other rehabilitation and nonrehabilitaion
health care professionals.
C.The scope is limited to knee and spinal cord injury
D. It includes comprehensive evaluation of a patient with traumatic brain or spinal cord injury.
25. Unusual burning, tingling or electric shock-like quality and maybe triggered by very light touch
A. Allodynia B. Neuropathic pain C. Hyperpathia D. Nostalgia


1. A
1. C 2. C 1. A 1. A
2. A 3. C 2. C 2. C
3. C 4. D 3. B 3. B
4. A 5. B 4. C 4. A
6. C 5. C
5. B 5. A
7. D
6. A 6. C 6. C
8. C
7. C 9. A 7. B 7. D
8. C 10. A 8. B 8. C
9. A 11. B 9. B 9. D
10. B 12. A 10. C 10. B
11. C 13. C 11. D 11. B
14. B
12. C 12. C 12. B
15. D
13. C 13. C 13. A
16. C
14. D 17. B 14. C 14. D
15. D 18. A 15. B 15. C
16. A KEY 19. B 16. A 16. A
17. C 20. C 17. C 17. A
18. C (small 21. A 18. A 18. D
22. C
19. A 19. B 19. B
23. B
20. B 24. C 20. C 20. A
21. B 25. D 21. D 21. C
22. C 22. D 22. B
23. D 23. B 23. D
24. D 24. A 24. C
25. A 25. A 25. A