CLS Aipmt 17 18 XIII Zoo Study Package 4 SET 1 Chapter 14

Chapter 14
Evolution
Solutions
SECTION - A
Objective Type Questions
1. Origin of earth dates back to
(1) 10,000–15,000 million years ago (2) 4000–4600 million years ago
(3) 500–1000 million years ago (4) 2000–3000 million years ago
Sol. Answer (2)
Origin of universe = 20 billion years ago
Origin of earth = 4.5 billion years ago
2. Who finally refuted the theory of spontaneous generation and experimentally disproved it?
(1) Thomas Malthus (2) Alfred Wallace (3) Louis Pasteur (4) Charles Darwin
Sol. Answer (3)
Louis Pasteur disproved it by Swan neck experiment.
3. An experiment to prove that organic compounds were the basis of life, was performed by
(1) Van Helmont (2) Oparin (3) S. Miller (4) Fox
Sol. Answer (3)
Based on hypothesis proposed by Oparin and Haldane, Stanley Miller gave experimental evidence for chemical
evolution.
4. Which of the following theory is related to transfer of life from one planet to another?
(1) Theory of special creation (2) Theory of biogenesis
(3) Theory of spontaneous generation (4) Cosmozoic theory
Sol. Answer (4)
This theory states that life is transferred from one planet to another in the form of seeds or spores or sperms.
5. Stanley Miller had put the Oparin-Haldane theory to test in 1953 by creating in the laboratory, the probable
conditions on the primitive earth. In the experiment simple aminoacids were synthesized from which of the
following mixtures, as observed after eighteen days?
(1) H2, O2, N2 and H2O (2) CH4, CN, H2 and O2
(3) H2, NH3, CH4 and water vapour (4) NH3, CH4 and O2
Sol. Answer (3)
Primitive earth had reducing atmosphere.
Aakash Educational Services Pvt. Ltd. Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 Ph.011-47623456
72 Evolution Solution of Assignment
6. The proponent of the theory of spontaneous generation was

(1) Louis Pasteur (2) Van Helmont (3) Spallanzani (4) Francisco Redi
Sol. Answer (2)
Pasteur, Spallanzani and Redi performed experiments to disprove theory of spontaneous generation.
7. The English scientist who worked on the origin of life and settled in India?
(1) A. I. Oparin (2) J. B. S. Haldane (3) Louis Pasteur (4) Van Helmont
Sol. Answer (2)
Oparin and Haldane proposed hypothesis that first life originated from non-living matter.
8. According to cosmozoic theory, life comes on earth from other planets in space in the form of
(1) Spores (2) Seeds (3) Gametes (4) All of these
Sol. Answer (4)
‘Panspermia’ is used for transfer of these from one planet to other.
9. The theory that living organisms on the earth came from outer space is based on the study of
(1) Igneous rocks (2) Sedimentary rocks (3) Meteorites (4) Moon soil
Sol. Answer (3)
Meteorites are pieces of rocks falling on earth from space.
10. Russian scientist who proposed the theory of origin of life was
(1) Oparin (2) Haldane (3) Miller (4) None of these
Sol. Answer (1)
Haldane and Oparin both proposed hypothesis for origin of life. Haldane was English scientist.
11. A.I. Oparin wrote

(1) Origin of Species (2) Origin of Life (3) Philosophie Zoologique (4) The Planet
Sol. Answer (2)
Book Author
Origin of species - Darwin
Philosophie zoologique - Lamarck
The planet - H.C. Urey
12. H.C. Urey wrote the following book

(1) The Planets (2) Origin of Life (3) The Origin of Species (4) None of these
Sol. Answer (1)
Origin of Species by Darwin
Origin of life by Oparin
13. What did S.L. Miller observe in his experimental set-up?

(1) Formation of sugars and nitrogenous bases (2) Formation of amino acids
(3) Formation of pigments (4) Formation of fats
Sol. Answer (2)
Alamine, Glycine and Aspartic Acid were formed in Miller’s experiment.
Solution of Assignment Evolution 73
14. S.L.Miller conducted an experiment in 1953 to support the
(1) Theory of spontaneous generation (2) Biogenesis
(3) Chemical evolution of life (4) Natural selection
Sol. Answer (3)
Chemical evolution theory states that the first form of life could have come from pre-existing non-living organism
molecules, i.e., formation of life was preceded by chemical evolution. It was given by Oparin and Haldane.
15. The scientist related with the theory of biogenesis and experiments with swan-necked flasks is
(1) Van Helmont (2) Louis Pasteur (3) Miller (4) Haeckel
Sol. Answer (2)
Louis Pasteur performed this experiment to disprove theory of spontaneous generation.
16. All of the following conditions were present on early earth, except
(1) High temperature (2) Volcanic storms
(3) Oxidising atmosphere (4) Reducing atmosphere
Sol. Answer (3)
Early earth’s atmosphere was reducing.
17. Which of the following breakup water into hydrogen and oxygen on early earth?
(1) Visible light (2) Infrared radiations (3) Sunlight (4) UV radiations
Sol. Answer (4)
UV
2H2 O 
rays
 2H2  O2
Lighter H2 escaped. O2 combined with ammonia and methane to form water, CO2 and others.
18. One of the following appeared on the earth with the coming of the plants and was absent in the past
(1) Carbon dioxide (2) Methane (3) Ammonia (4) Oxygen
Sol. Answer (4)
Early earth had reducing atmosphere.
19. Theory of abiogenesis or spontaneous generation was finally disapproved by

(1) Louis Pasteur (2) A.I. Oparin (3) A.R. Wallace (4) Sydney Fox
Sol. Answer (1)
Louis Pasteur disproved it by famous Swan-Neck experiment.
20. Simple one-celled cyanobacteria like organisms appeared on earth

(1) 5600 million years ago (2) 5000 million years ago
(3) 4600 million years ago (4) 3.3 to 3.5 billion years ago
Sol. Answer (4)
Origin of earth - 4.5 billion years ago.
Cynobacteria appeared - about 3.3. to 3.5 billion years ago.
21. Eukaryotes developed around

(1) 1,600 million years ago (2) 459 million years ago
(3) 3,800 million years ago (4) 4,200 million years ago
Sol. Answer (1)
Free-living eukaryotic cell like organisms originated in the ocean, about 1.5 billion year ago.
22. The atmosphere became oxidising with the appearance of

(1) Autotrophic bacteria (2) Autotrophic cyanobacteria
(3) Land plants (4) Algae
Sol. Answer (2)
Autotrophic cyanobacteria used H2O to get hydrogen and release oxygen. Thus atmosphere became oxidising.
23 Which one of the following gas was not present in free form at the time life originated on earth?
(1) Ammonia (2) Oxygen (3) Hydrogen (4) Methane
Sol. Answer (2)
Primitive earth was reducing type. It had no oxygen.
24. The theory of spontaneous generation says that

(1) Life originated from the decaying and rotting matter like straw, mud etc.
(2) Life came on the earth from outer space
(3) Life comes from pre-existing life only
(4) Life started with the replication of self replicating metabolic capsules
Sol. Answer (1)
Theory of spontaneous generation supports abiogenesis.
25. Louis Pasteur by careful experimentation demonstrated that/the

(1) Phenomenon of chemical evolution (2) There is spontaneous generation of life
(3) Life comes from pre-existing life (4) Abiogenic origin of life
Sol. Answer (3)
He performed Swan-Neck experiment to prove BIOGENESIS.
26. The first non-cellular form of life could have originated about _______ years ago.
(1) 3 million (2) 2 million (3) 3 billion (4) 2 billion
Sol. Answer (3)
They would have been giant molecules (RNA, DNA, Polysaccharides, etc.,)
27. Evolution is defined as

(1) History of race (2) Development of race
(3) History and development of race with modification (4) Progressive history of race
Sol. Answer (3)
Evolution may not necessarily be progressive.
28. Basic unit of evolution is
(1) Species (2) Population (3) Individual (4) Mutation
Sol. Answer (2)
Basic unit of natural selection is individual.
29. Which ones are the most essential for origin of life?
(1) Enzymes (2) Proteins (3) Carbohydrates (4) Nucleic acid
Sol. Answer (4)
Nucleic acids constitute the genetic material (blue-print of the organisms genetic make-up)
30. Presence of NaCl in body fluid indicates that life originated in

(1) Primitive ocean (2) Rain water lakes (3) Salt solution (4) All of these
Sol. Answer (1)
Oceans have large content of NaCl.
31. Origin of life from nonliving matter is known as

(1) Coacervates (2) Abiogenesis (3) Biogenesis (4) None of these
Sol. Answer (2)
Theory of spontaneous generation or abiogenesis states that life has originated from non living matter.
32. During the origin and evolution of life, key biological compounds were progressively synthesised in ocean with
the help of energy obtainable from
(1) Lightening (2) Ultraviolet light
(3) Lightening as well as ultra-violet light (4) Combustion of certain compounds
Sol. Answer (3)
UV rays broke H2O into H2 and O2.
33. Which of the type of respiration probably arose first?

(1) Aerobic as it releases more energy
(2) Anaerobic as it releases more energy
(3) Aerobic as it is more complex
(4) Anaerobic as early atmosphere contained no free from of oxygen
Sol. Answer (4)
Primitive earth’s atmosphere was reducing.
34. Which of the following is not the result of convergent evolution?

(1) Forelimbs of whales and bats (2) Flippers of penguins and dolphins
(3) Potato and sweet potato (4) Eye of the octopus and mammals
Sol. Answer (1)
Both are mammals. They have similar structure of forelimbs and are a result of divergent evolution.
35. Evolutionary biology is the study of

(1) Civilisations (2) History of life forms on earth
(3) Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium (4) Reproductive success
Sol. Answer (2)
Study of evolutionary history of an organism is phylogeny.
36. The palaeontological evidences are obtained from

(1) Homologous structures (2) Analogous structures
(3) Fossils (4) Lichens
Sol. Answer (3)
Study of fossils is called palaeontology.
37. Archaeopteryx is a connecting link between

(1) Birds and reptiles (2) Reptiles and mammals
(3) Annelids and arthropods (4) Amphibians and fishes
Sol. Answer (1)
Archaeo = Primitive, pteryx = wing.
It has characteristics of both reptiles and birds.
38. Which of the following is incorrect match?

(1) Devonian period – Age of fishes (2) Carboniferous period – Age of amphibians
(3) Ordovician period – Age of invertebrates (4) Cretaceous period – Age of reptiles
Sol. Answer (4)
Mesozoic era is age of reptiles.
39. Mesozoic era is called the

(1) Age of Fishes (2) Age of Reptiles (3) Age of Mammals (4) Age of Birds
Sol. Answer (2)
Age of fishes = Devonion period.
Age of mammals = Coenozoic era.
40. Which of the following is known as age of mammals

(1) Mesozoic (2) Palaeozoic (3) Coenozoic (4) Archaeozoic
Sol. Answer (3)
Coenozoic era.
41. First mammals appeared around

(1) 459 million years back (2) 220 million years back
(3) 1600 million years back (4) 3800 million years back
Sol. Answer (2)
Mammals first appeared in triassic period of mesozoic era.
42. Which of the following arrangement of periods of the mesozoic era gives a correct sequence from the earliest
to the latest?
(1) Jurassic, triassic, cretaceous (2) Triassic, jurassic, cretaceous
(3) Permian, jurassic, triassic (4) Devonian, permian, jurassic
Sol. Answer (2)
Triassic Jurassic Cretaceous

About 245 208 144
million years million years million years
ago ago ago
43. Cretaceous period of the Mesozoic era is characterised by which of the following?
(1) Gymnosperms are dominant plants and first birds appear
(2) Dinosaurs become extinct and angiosperms appear
(3) Flowering plants disappear
(4) Radiation of reptiles and origin of mammal-like reptiles
Sol. Answer (2)
First birds appeared in jurassic period.
44. The flowering plants originated in which of the following periods?

(1) Cretaceous (2) Tertiary period (3) Triassic (4) Carboniferous
Sol. Answer (1)
Origin of angiosperms  cretaceous period.
45. Amphibia first appeared in which of the following period?

(1) Permian (2) Carboniferous (3) Devonian (4) Silurian
Sol. Answer (3)
First amphibians originated is devonian period and age of amphibians is carboniferous period.
46. The Permian period, during which the first most modern orders of insects appeared, occurred approximately
Sol. Answer (3)
Palaeozoic era has Cambrian Ordovician Silurian Devonian

544 505 438 408 million years ago
million years million years million years Carboniferous
ago ago ago
360 million years ago
Permian
285 million years ago
47. Dinosaurs were abundant in

(1) Jurassic period (2) Devonian period (3) Permian period (4) Pleistocene period
Sol. Answer (1)
In jurassic period, gymnosperms and dinosaurs were dominant. First birds appeared in this period.
48. Fossils of Archaeopteryx were found from

(1) Jurassic rocks (2) Triassic rocks (3) Cretaceous rocks (4) Cenozoic rocks
Sol. Answer (3)
First modern birds appeared in cretaceous period. Archaeopteryx is connecting link between reptiles and birds. It
got extinct in creataceous period.
49. The epoch of human civilization is

(1) Pliocene (2) Holocene (3) Pleistocene (4) Palaeocene
Sol. Answer (3)
50. The last major evolutionary advancement among the vascular plants was the emergence of flowering plants
(angiosperms) about
(3) 16,00 million years ago (4) 220 million years ago
Sol. Answer (2)
In cretaceous period, angiosperms appeared.
51. Replacement of original hard parts or even the soft tissues of the organisms by minerals is known as
(1) Compression (2) Petrification (3) Moulds (4) Amber
Sol. Answer (2)
Moulds : When exact replica of the original structure is left behind.
Compression : Internal structure is lost, leaving a thin carbon film. It is type of plant fossil.
Amber : Resinous secretion from fossil pine trees.
52. The study of the fossil plants is known as

(1) Palaeontology (2) Palaeobotany (3) Palynology (4) Palaeoanatomy
Sol. Answer (2)
Palynology - Study of pollen grains
Palaeontology - Study of fossils
Palaeobotany - Study of plant fossils
53. Which of the following is richest in fossil?

(1) Basalt (2) Granite (3) Lava (4) Sedimentary rock
Sol. Answer (4)
Fact.
54. Excreta preserved as a fossil is called as

(1) Stromatolite (2) Compression fossil (3) Intact fossil (4) Coprolite
Sol. Answer (4)
Stromatolite  deposits of cyanobacterial fossils.
55. Ape like ancestors of human appear in epoch

(1) Pleistocene (2) Pliocene (3) Miocene (4) Oligocene
Sol. Answer (2)
Humans appeared in pleistocene.
56. Which of the following can be used as an industrial pollution indicator?
(1) Lichens (2) White-winged moths (3) Dark-winged moths (4) Fossils
Sol. Answer (1)
Lichens grow exclusively in pollution-free regions.
57. Which of the following does not illustrate the phenomenon of natural selection?
(1) Industrial melanism (2) Herbicide resistant weeds
(3) Artificial breeding (4) Antibiotic resistant microbes
Sol. Answer (3)
Artificial breeding refers to deliberately cross different varieties having special characteristics.
58. The original birds were ________, from which the various Darwin’s finches arose.
(1) Insectivorous (2) Cactus eating (3) Carnivores (4) Seed eating
Sol. Answer (4)
Originally, Darwin’s finches were seed eating.
59. Convergent evolution is illustrated by

(1) Rat and Dog (2) Bacterium and Protozoan
(3) Star fish and Cuttle fish (4) Dog fish and Whale
Sol. Answer (4)
Dog fish (Scoliodon) belongs to Pisces.
Whale is a mammal. Both are aquatic swimming animals.
60. All the following are examples of homologous organs, except

(1) Arm of man and flipper of whale (2) Thorn of Bougainvillaea and tendril of Cucurbita
(3) Eye of an octopus and eye of a mammal (4) Brain of frog and man
Sol. Answer (3)
Eye of an octopus and eye of a mammal show covergent evolution. They are analogous structures.
61. The homologous organs are

(1) Wings of pigeon and housefly (2) Wings of housefly and bat
(3) Wings of pigeon and forelimbs of man (4) Wings of butterfly, bat and housefly
Sol. Answer (3)
Wings of pigeon are modifed forelimbs.
62. Anatomically and structurally different, but functionally similar structures are called
(1) Analogous (2) Divergent (3) Homologous (4) Convergent
Sol. Answer (1)
Homologous organs have similar origin but different functions.
Divergent and convergent are types of evolution.
63. Organs which have similar origin and developmental plan, but different functions are called
(1) Vestigial organs (2) Analogous organs (3) Homologous organs (4) Physiological organs
Sol. Answer (3)
Vestigial organs refer to those which are present in an organism but are non-functional. These are just inherited
from ancestor.
64. Find the odd one out

(1) Trunk of an elephant and hand of a chimpanzee (2) Ginger and sweet potato
(3) Wings of bat and insect (4) Nails of human beings and claws of a cat
Sol. Answer (4)
Nails of human beings and claws of cat have similar origin.
65. The convergent evolution of two species is usually associated with

(1) A recent common ancestor (2) Analogous organ
(3) Homologous organ (4) Different habitat
Sol. Answer (2)
Divergent evolution is associated with homologous organ.
66. Find the odd one out w.r.t. evolution

(1) Seal’s flipper (2) Bat’s wing (3) Horse’s foot (4) Butterfly’s wings
Sol. Answer (4)
Butterfly’s wings are different anatomically.
67. Which of the following is not vestigeal organ in human beings?

(1) Rudimentary ear muscles and third molars (wisdom teeth), body hair
(2) Coccygeal tail vertebrae and scalp muscles
(3) Vermiform appendix and nictitating membrane of the eye
(4) Ear pinna, patella, olecranon process
Sol. Answer (4)
Vestigeal organs are those which are present in the individuals, but are non functional. Patella is knee cap. Olecranon
process is present in ulna.
68. Which of the following is a vestigial organ?

(1) Vermiform appendix (2) Atlas (3) Premolars (4) Incisors
Sol. Answer (1)
Fact.
69. Which of the following is not a vestigial organ?

(1) Scalp hair (2) Epiglottis (3) Vermiform appendix (4) Wisdom tooth
Sol. Answer (2)
Epiglottis is the flap of elastic cartilage covering the glottis during food swallowing.
70. The ‘Recapitulation Theory’ was put forth by
(1) Haeckel (2) Cuvier (3) Wallace (4) Lamarck
Sol. Answer (1)
It stated ontogeny repeats phylogeny.
71. Gill clefts and notochord appear in the embryonic development of all vertebrates from fishes to mammals. This
supports the theory of
(1) Recapitulation (2) Metamorphosis (3) Biogenesis (4) Abiogenesis
Sol. Answer (1)
‘Ontogeny repeats or recapitulates phylogeny’ is given by Ernest Haeckel.
72. Cycas and Ginkgo are connecting links between

(1) Bryophytes and pteridophytes (2) Pteridophytes and gymnosperms
(3) Gymnosperms and angiosperms (4) Thallophyta and bryophyta
Sol. Answer (2)
Connecting links show characteristics of both the divisions.
73. Which one of the following is not a living fossil?

(1) Peripatus (2) King crab (3) Archaeopteryx (4) Sphenodon
Sol. Answer (3)
Living fossil refers to the organisms which has not changed since birth. King crab - Limulus.
74. Presence of tail and coarse hair in human baby is

(1) Radiation (2) Atavism (3) Mutation (4) Crossing over
Sol. Answer (2)
Atavism refers to recurrence of ancestrol characteristics.
75. Who was the proponent of the theory of inheritance of acquired characters?
(1) A.I. Oparin (2) Hugo deVries (3) Lamarck (4) Weinberg
Sol. Answer (3)
He also said that the organs which are used become more developed.
76. Hugo de Vries studied mutations in

(1) Eucalyptus (2) Evening primrose (3) Hibiscus (4) Vallisneria
Sol. Answer (2)
Hugo de Vries gave mutation theory. Evening primrose = Oenothera lamarckiana.
77. If gene migration happens multiple times, it would lead to

(1) Mutation (2) Gene flow (3) Chemical evolution (4) Genetic drift
Sol. Answer (2)
Genetic drift causes the change in gene frequency by chance in a small population.
78. Natural selection in which more individuals acquire peripheral character value at both the ends of the distribution
curve is
(1) Stabilising natural selection (2) Disruptive natural selection
(3) Directional natural selection (4) The curve never shows the formation of two peaks
Sol. Answer (2)
Peak gets higher

and narrower
(a)
Number of individuals
Medium-sized
individuals Peak shifts in
with phenotype
Phenotypes are favoured one direction

favoured
by natural
selection
(b)
Two peaks form
(c)
79. The rate of appearance of new life forms is linked to their

(1) Acquired traits (2) Nonheritable characters
(3) Life span (4) Cranial capacities
Sol. Answer (3)
Evolutionary rate is linked to the life span or life cycle of organism.
80. Which of the following is a placental mammal not marsupial?

(1) Wombat (2) Bobcat (3) Bandicoot (4) Tasmanian tiger cat
Sol. Answer (2)
Bobcat is placental mammal.
81. Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium is not affected by which of the following factors?

(1) Random mating (2) Genetic recombination during gametogenesis
(3) Natural selection (4) Variations due to mutation
Sol. Answer (1)
Equilibrium is not disturbed if there is random mating among people of the population.
82. Lemur and Spotted cuscus exhibit
(1) Convergent evolution (2) Homology (3) Analogy (4) Hybridisation
Sol. Answer (1)
Lemur - Placental mammal
Spotted cuscus - Australian mammal
83. Which of the following evolved into the first amphibians?

(1) Lobefins (2) Shrews (3) Salamanders (4) Turtles
Sol. Answer (1)
Lobefins are coelacanths.
84. Pelycosaurs and Therapsids were

(1) Sauropsids (2) Synapsids (3) Sphenopsids (4) Dinosaurs
Sol. Answer (2)
Birds
Lizards Tuataras
Turtles Snakes Crocodiles
Mammals
Quaternary 0
Tertiary 50
Dinosaurs
(extinct)
Cretaceous 100
150
Jurassic
Therapsids
(extinct)
200
Triassic
Thercodonts
(extinct)
250
Permian
Sauropsids Pelycosaurs
(extinct)
300 Synapsids
Carboniferous
350
Early reptiles
(extinct)
85. Which of the following is correctly matched w.r.t. era and its period?
(1) Paleozoic – Cretaceous (2) Mesozoic – Devonian
(3) Cenozoic – Permian (4) Paleozoic – Carboniferous
Sol. Answer (4)
Eras Periods
Paleozoic - Pernian, Carboniferous, Devonian, Silurian, Ordovician, Cambrian.
Mesozoic - Cretaceous, Triassic, Jurassic
Cenozoic - Tertiary, Quaternary
86. In 1938, a coelacanth was found in

(1) South America (2) South Africa (3) Australia (4) England
Sol. Answer (2)
The fish caught was named Latimeria and is considered as connecting link between fishes and amphibians.
87. The first organisms that invaded land were

(1) Plants (2) Fishes (3) Insects (4) Bacteria
Sol. Answer (1)
Plants invaded land first.
88. Branching descent is one of the key concepts of

(1) Lamarckian theory (2) Miller’s theory (3) The Big Bang theory (4) Darwinian theory
Sol. Answer (4)
Natural selection and branching descent are key concepts of Darwinian theory.
89. All of the following are the mammals wholly living in water except
(1) Penguins (2) Dolphins (3) Seals (4) Sea cows
Sol. Answer (1)
Penguins are birds.
90. Australopithecines probably lived in the

(1) East African grasslands (2) West African grasslands
(3) North American grasslands (4) South American grasslands
Sol. Answer (1)
Fact.
91. Fossils discovered in Java in 1891 belonged to

(1) Homo habilis (2) Neanderthal man (3) Homo erectus (4) Ramapithecus
Sol. Answer (3)
Homo erectus includes 3 fossils.
Java Ape man, Peking man and Heidelberg man.
92. Among following, the most recent is
(1) Homo sapiens (2) Australopithecines (3) Homo habilis (4) Dryopithecus
Sol. Answer (1)
Dryopithecus  Australopithecus  Homo habilis  Homo erectus  Homo sapiens.
93. The Neanderthal man had a cranial capacity of around

(1) 1600cc (2) 650–800cc (3) 900cc (4) 1400cc
Sol. Answer (4)
Fact.
SECTION - B
Objective Type Questions
1. Theory of panspermia was proposed to explain the
(1) Origin of universe (2) Origin of life (3) Origin of earth (4) Evolution of life
Sol. Answer (2)
It states that life transfers from one planet to other in the form of spore, sperms or seeds.
2. The first organisms appeared on earth were

(1) Chemoheterotrophs (2) Chemoautotrophs (3) Photoautotrophs (4) Decomposers
Sol. Answer (1)
Chemoheterotrophs depend on organic chemicals to obtain energy.
3. Most important condition for origin of life is the presence of

(1) Water (2) Oxygen (3) Nitrogen (4) Carbon
Sol. Answer (1)
Life originated in water.
4. Early atmosphere contained methane and other hydrocarbons. They have been now replaced by
(1) Nitrogen (2) Oxygen (3) Carbondioxide (4) Hydrogen
Sol. Answer (3)
UV
2H2O rays 2H2 + O2
Escaped with methane & give rise to CO2 &

ammonia other chemicals
containing oxygen
5. According to the discovery made in 1980's. RNA can act like enzyme to assemble new RNA molecules on
RNA template. Which of the following statements is not proved by this theory?
(1) Coacervates may not have been the first step in the evolution of life
(2) Perhaps the first macromolecule was RNA
(3) Coacervates were the basis for the first cell
(4) After formation of RNA, stability of molecule improved by surrounding RNA within a coacervate
Sol. Answer (3)

As in coacervates lipid outer membrane was absent and they cannot reproduce, they fail to fulfil the requirement
as a candidate for precursor of life.
6. Which among the following are called the Darwin’s finches?
(1) Archaeopteryx (2) Pteranodon (3) Pavo cristatus (4) Small black birds
Sol. Answer (4)
Small black birds, studied by Darwin at Galapagos islands.
7. Which of the following scientists believed in the concept of natural selection like Darwin?
(1) Lamarck (2) S.L.Miller (3) Alfred Wallace (4) Haldane
Sol. Answer (3)
Alfred Wallace worked on Malay Archipelago.
8. The fish-like giant reptile which existed 200 mya was
(1) Pteranodon (2) Ichthyosaur (3) Triceratops (4) Tyrannosaurus
Sol. Answer (2)
Some of the land reptiles went back into the water 200 million years ago and converted into fish like reptiles.
9. Which of the following was a land dinosaur?
(1) Triceratops (2) Pteranodon (3) Archaeopteryx (4) Ichthyosaur
Sol. Answer (1)
Triceratops was land dinosaur.
Ichthyosaur was fish like giant reptile Pteranodon is extinct flying reptile.
10. The wrongly matched pair w.r.t. the organisms and their probable time of evolution is
(1) Jawless fish – around 350 mya (2) Lobefins – around 350 mya
(3) Fish-like giant reptiles – around 320 mya (4) Sea weeds – around 320 mya
Sol. Answer (3)
Fish like giant reptiles = Ichthyosaurs  evolved around 200 million years ago.
11. Seed ferns originated in
(1) Carboniferous period (2) Devonian period (3) Silurian period (4) Cretaceous period
Sol. Answer (1)
Fact.
12. The dinosaurs descended from_____ ancestors.
(1) Therapsids (2) Pelycosaurs (3) Synapsids (4) Thecodonts
Sol. Answer (4)
Birds
Lizards Tuataras
Turtles Snakes Crocodiles
Mammals
Quaternary 0
Tertiary 50
Dinosaurs
(extinct)
Cretaceous 100
150
Jurassic
Therapsids
(extinct)
200
Triassic
Thercodonts
(extinct)
250
Permian
Sauropsids Pelycosaurs
(extinct)
300 Synapsids
Carboniferous
350
Early reptiles
(extinct)
13. Which of the following had huge fearsome dagger like teeth?
(1) Dryopithecus (2) Tyrannosaurus (3) Ichthyosaur (4) Homo erectus
Sol. Answer (2)
It was biggest dinosaur, about 20 ft. in height.
14. The origin of seeds in the land plants was achieved about 345 million years ago, in lineages recognised as
ancestral to all more advanced vascular plants in
(1) Rhynia (2) Tracheophyte ancestor
(3) Seed ferns (4) Conifers
Sol. Answer (3)
First seed plants (seed ferns) were seen in carboniferous period.
15. Origin of mammal-like reptiles occurred in

(1) Triassic period (2) Permian period (3) Jurassic period (4) Tertiary period
Sol. Answer (2)
Fact.
16. As horse evolved, there was progressive reduction in number of toes. Which of the following is correct sequence
in the evolution of horse?
(1) Orohippus, Hyracotherium, Mesohippus, Callipus, Merychippus, Pliohippus, Equus
(2) Hyracotherium, Orohippus, Mesohippus, Merychippus, Pliohippus, Equus
(3) Orohippus, Callipus, Hyracotherium, Mesohippus, Merychippus, Pliohippus, Equus
(4) Hyracotherium, Mesohippus, Orohippus, Callipus, Merychippus, Pliohippus and Equus
Sol. Answer (2)
During evolution of horse, there was : General increase in size, progressive loss of toes, lengthening of toes that
was retained lenthening of limbs in general, enlargement of brain, increase in height, increase in complexity of molar
teeth.
17. The homologous structures are

(1) Anatomically different
(2) Functionally different, evolved from different ancestors
(3) Functionally same
(4) Anatomically same, but perform different functions
Sol. Answer (4)
Analogous organs are anatomically different and functionally similar
18. Tasmanian wolf and placental wolf appear similar due to

(1) Chemical evolution (2) Divergent evolution
(3) Biochemical evolution (4) Convergent evolution
Sol. Answer (4)
Marsupial and placental mammals show covergent evolution.
19. The Darwinian variations are

(1) Small and directionless (2) Random and directional
(3) Small and directional (4) Random and directionless
Sol. Answer (3)
Darwinian variations are small and directional.
According to Hugo de Vries, mutations are large and can occur in any direction.
20. Natural selection leads to the directional change when

(1) More individuals acquire mean character value in the distribution curve
(2) More individuals acquire peripheral character value of both ends of distribution curve
(3) More individuals acquire value other than the mean character value at any one end of distribution curve
(4) No individual acquires the peripheral character value
Sol. Answer (3)
Peak gets higher

and narrower
(a)
Number of individuals
Medium-sized
individuals Peak shifts in
with phenotype
Phenotypes are favoured one direction

favoured
by natural
selection
(b)
Two peaks form
(c)
21. Find the odd one out related to evolution

(1) Vertebrate hearts (2) Vertebrate brains
(3) Wings of butterfly and of birds (4) Forelimbs of mammals
Sol. Answer (3)
Wings of butterfly and birds are analogous structures.
22. Evolutionary process, giving rise to new species adapted to new habitats and ways of life, is called as adaptive
radiation, for example
(1) Darwin’s Finches in Galapagos Islands
(2) Australian marsupials that radiated to form new species
(3) Wolf and Tasmanian Wolf
(4) Both (1) & (2)
Sol. Answer (4)
Wolf and Tasmanian Wolf show convergent evolution.
23. Humming birds and hawk illustrate
(1) Convergent evolution (2) Homology (3) Adaptive radiation (4) Parallel evolution
Sol. Answer (3)
Adaptive radiation refers to the process of evolution of different species in a given geographical area starting
from a point and literally radiating to other areas of geography.
24. Which one provides direct and solid evidence in favour of organic evolution through ages?
(1) Atavism (2) Palaeontology
(3) Vestigeal organs (4) Galapagos island fauna
Sol. Answer (2)
Palaeontology refers to study of fossils.
25. When more than one adaptive radiations appeared to have occurred in an isolated geographical area, it is called
(1) Divergent evolution (2) Convergent evolution
(3) Anthropogenic evolution (4) Saltation
Sol. Answer (2)
e.g., Placental and Marsupial mammals.
26. According to Hardy-Weinberg principle, difference in the values of measured and expected allelic frequencies
indicates all of the following, except
(1) Changes in the gene pool (2) Disturbance in genetic equilibrium
(3) Extent of evolutionary change (4) Absence of any kind of evolution
Sol. Answer (4)
Difference in the values of measured and expected allelic frequencies indicate that evolution has occurred.
27. Which of the following was discovered in Ethiopia and Tanzania?

(1) Fossils of dinosaurs (2) Few fossils of man-like bones
(3) Alive coelacanth (4) Fossils of Archaeopteryx
Sol. Answer (2)
Fact.
28. Which of the following fact is not true for Homo habilis?
(1) They had a brain capacity of 1400cc (2) They were the first human-like being
(3) They showed the hominid features (4) They probably did not eat meat
Sol. Answer (1)
Homo habilis  650 - 800 cc.
29. The ancestors of man who used hides to protect their body were
(1) Homo erectus (2) Homo habilis (3) Neanderthal man (4) Australopithecus
Sol. Answer (3)
30. An evolutionary trend in which there is general degeneration and loss of organs is
(1) Progressive (2) Vestigeal (3) Retrogressive (4) Stasigenesis
Sol. Answer (3)
Evolution may be progressive or retrogressive.
SECTION - C
Previous Years Questions
1. Artificial selection to obtain cows yielding higher milk output represents [NEET-2017]
(1) Stabilizing selection as it stabilizes this character in the population
(2) Directional as it pushes the mean of the character in one direction
(3) Disruptive as it splits the population into two one yielding higher output and the other lower output
(4) Stabilizing followed by disruptive as it stabilizes the population to produce higher yielding cows
Sol. Answer (2)
Artificial selection to obtain cow yielding higher milk output will shift the peak to one direction, hence, will be
an example of Directional selection. In stabilizing selection, the organisms with the mean value of the trait are
selected. In disruptive selection, both extremes get selected.
2. Genetic drift operates in [NEET (Phase-2) 2016]
(1) Small isolated population (2) Large isolated population
(3) Non-reproductive population (4) Slow reproductive population
Sol. Answer (1)
Genetic drift operates in small isolated inbreeding population.
3. In Hardy-Weinberg equation, the frequency of heterozygous individual is represented by
[NEET (Phase-2) 2016]
(1) p2 (2) 2pq (3) pq (4) q2
Sol. Answer (2)
In Hardy Weinberg equation,
p2 = Homozygous dominant individuals
2pq = Heterozygous individuals
q2 = Homozygous recessive individuals
4. The chronological order of human evolution from early to the recent is [NEET (Phase-2) 2016]
(1) Australopithecus  Ramapithecus  Homo habilis  Homo erectus
(2) Ramapithecus  Australopithecus  Homo habilis  Homo erectus
(3) Ramapithecus  Homo habilis  Australopithecus  Homo erectus
(4) Australopithecus  Homo habilis  Ramapithecus  Homo erectus
Sol. Answer (2)
The chronological order of human evolution from early to the recent is
Ramapithecus  Australopithecus  Homo habilis  Homo erectus
5. Which of the following is the correct sequence of events in the origin of life? [NEET (Phase-2) 2016]
(i) Formation of protobionts
(ii) Synthesis of organic monomers
(iii) Synthesis of organic polymers
(iv) Formation of DNA-based genetic systems
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(2) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(3) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(4) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
Sol. Answer (3)
Correct sequence of events in the origin of life is
Synthesis of organic monomers

Synthesis of organic polymers

Formation of protobionts

Formation of DNA-based genetic systems
6. A molecule that can act as a genetic material must fulfill the traits given below, except
[NEET (Phase-2) 2016]
(1) It should be able to express itself in the form of 'Mendelian characters'
(2) It should be able to generate its replica
(3) It should be unstable structurally and chemically
(4) It should provide the scope for slow changes that are required for evolution
Sol. Answer (3)
A molecule which is unstable structurally and chemically cannot act as a genetic material.
7. Which of the following structures is homologus to the wing of a bird? [NEET-2016]
(1) Flipper of Whale (2) Dorsal fin of a Shark
(3) Wing of a Moth (4) Hind limb of Rabbit
Sol. Answer (1)
Wings of bird and flipper of whale are modified fore limbs but wings help in flying and flippers help in swimming.
8. Analogous structures are a result of [NEET-2016]
(1) Stabilizing selection
(2) Divergent evolution
(3) Convergent evolution
(4) Shared ancestry
Sol. Answer (3)
Analogous structures are a result of convergent evolution.
9. Following are the two statements regarding the origin of life [NEET-2016]
(a) The earliest organisms that appeared on the earth were non-green and presumably anaerobes.
(b) The first autotrophic organisms were the chemoautotrophs that never released oxygen.
On the above statements which one of the following options is correct?
(1) Both (a) & (b) are false
(2) (a) is correct but (b) is false
(3) (b) is correct but (a) is false
(4) Both (a) & (b) are correct
Sol. Answer (4)
The earliest organisms that appeared on earth were anaerobic chemoheterotrophs.
Chemoautotrophs were the first autotrophic organisms unable to perform photolysis of water and never released
oxygen.
10. The wings of a bird and the wings of an insect are: [Re-AIPMT-2015]
(1) Homologous structures and represent convergent evolution
(2) Homologous structures and represent divergent evolution
(3) Analogous structures and represent convergent evolution
(4) Phylogenetic structures and represent divergent evolution.
Sol. Answer (3)
The wings of a bird and an insect are analogous structure which differ in structure and origin but perform similar
functions and represent convergent evolution.
11. Industrial melanism is an example of [Re-AIPMT-2015]
(1) Neo Lamarckism (2) Neo Darwinism (3) Natural selection (4) Mutation
Sol. Answer (3)
Industrial melanism is an example of natural selection.
12. Which of the following had the smallest brain capacity? [AIPMT-2015]
(1) Homo habilis
(2) Homo erectus
(3) Homo sapiens
(4) Homo neanderthalensis
Sol. Answer (1)
Brain capacity
(1) Homo sapiens 1400 cm3
(2) Homo neanderthalensis 1400 cm3
(3) Homo habilis 650 – 800 cm3
(4) Homo erectus 900 cm3
13. Which is the most common mechanism of genetic variation in the population of a sexually-reproducing
organism? [AIPMT-2015]
(1) Recombination
(2) Transduction
(3) Chromosomal aberrations
(4) Genetic drift
Sol. Answer (1)
In sexually reproducing organisms the most common cause of variations is recombination.
14. A population will not exist in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium if [AIPMT-2015]

(1) The population is large
(2) Individuals mate selectively
(3) There are no mutations
(4) There is no migration
Sol. Answer (2)
Selective mating alters Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium. Random mating maintains the equilibrium.
15. Forelimbs of cat, lizard used in walking; forelimbs of whale used in swimming and forelimbs of bats used in
flying are an example of [AIPMT-2014]
(1) Analogous organs
(2) Adaptive radiation
(3) Homologous organs
(4) Convergent evolution
Sol. Answer (3)
Homologous organs have common origin.
16. Which one of the following are analogous structures? [AIPMT-2014]

(1) Wings of Bat and Wings of Pigeon (2) Gills of Prawn and Lungs of Man
(3) Thorns of Bougainvillea and Tendrils of Cucurbita (4) Flippers of Dolphin and Legs of Horse
Sol. Answer (2)
Gills of prawn and lungs of man have different origin.
17. The eye of octopus and eye of cat show different patterns of structure, yet they perform similar function. This
is an example of [NEET-2013]
(1) Homologous organs that have evolved due to divergent evolution
(2) Analogous organs that have evolved due to convergent evolution
(3) Analogous organs that have evolved due to divergent evolution
(4) Homologous organs that have evolved due to convergent evolution
Sol. Answer (2)
Analogous due to convergent evolution
In analogous  Phenotype similar/similar function.
a b
18. The process by which organisms with different evolutionary history evolve similar phenotypic adaptations in
response to a common environmental challenge, is called [NEET-2013]
(1) Convergent evolution (2) Non-random evolution (3) Adaptive radiation (4) Natural selection
Sol. Answer (1)
Similar phenotypic applications
Convergent evolution
Different species
with different evolutionary history
19. The tendency of population to remain in genetic equilibrium may be disturbed by [NEET-2013]
(1) Lack of migration (2) Lack of mutations
(3) Lack of random mating (4) Random mating
Sol. Answer (3)
Random mating is responsible for maintaining H-W equilibrium. 5 factors responsible for disturbing H-W
equilibrium are
(i) Gene flow (ii) Genetic drift
(iii) Genetic recombination (iv) Natural selection
(v) Mutation
20. Variation in gene frequencies within populations can occur by chance rather than by natural selection. This
is referred to as [NEET-2013]
(1) Genetic drift (2) Random mating (3) Genetic load (4) Genetic flow
Sol. Answer (1)
Genetic load : Loss in average fitness of individuals in a population because population carries deleterious
alleles.
21. According to Darwin, the organic evolution is due to [NEET-2013]

(1) Interspecific competition
(2) Competition within closely related species
(3) Reduced feeding efficiency in one species due to the presence of interfering species
(4) Intraspecific competition
Sol. Answer (1)
22. Evolution of different species in a given area starting from a point and spreading to other geographical areas
is known as [AIPMT (Prelims)-2012]
(1) Migration (2) Divergent evolution (3) Adaptive radiation (4) Natural selection
Sol. Answer (3)
Adaptive radiation is diversification of single species or a group of related species into new ecological or
geographical zones resulting in formation of additional species.
23. What was the most significant trend in the evolution of modern man (Homo sapiens) from his ancestors?
[AIPMT (Prelims)-2012]
(1) Increasing cranial capacity (2) Upright posture
(3) Shortening of jaws (4) Binocular vision
Sol. Answer (1)
Humans have enlarged brains, shorter arms in relation to their ape-like ancestors.
24. Which one of the following options gives one correct example each of convergent evolution and divergent
evolution? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2012]
Convergent Evolution Divergent evolution
(1) Bones of forelimbs of vertebrates Wings of butterfly and birds
(2) Thorns of BougainvillIea and tendrils of Cucurbita Eyes of Octopus and mammals
(3) Eyes of Octopus and mammals Bones of forelimbs of vertebrates
(4) Thorns of Bougainvillea and tendrils of Cucurbita Wings of butterflies and birds
Sol. Answer (3)

 Bones of forelimbs of vertebrates.
Homologous
 Thorns of Bougainvillea and tendrils of Cucurbita
* Eyes of octopus and eyes of mammals
Analogous
Wings of butterfly and birds
25. The extinct human who lived 1,00,000 to 40,000 years ago, in Europe, Asia and parts of Africa, with short
stature, heavy eye brows, retreating for heads, large jaws with heavy teeth, stocky bodies, a lumbering gait
and stooped posture was [AIPMT (Prelims)-2012]
(1) Ramapithecus (2) Homo habilis (3) Neanderthal human (4) Cro-magnan humans
Sol. Answer (3)
Neanderthal man could have co-existed with Homo sapiens.
26. The idea of mutations was brought forth by [AIPMT (Mains)-2012]

(1) Hugo de Vries, who worked on evening primrose
(2) Gregor Mendel, who worked on Pisum sativum
(3) Hardy Weinberg, who worked on allele frequencies in a population
(4) Charles Darwin, who observed a wide variety of organisms during sea voyage
Sol. Answer (1)
Hugo de Vries gave mutation theory while working on Oenothera lamarckiana ( = evening primrose)
27. Darwin’s finches are a good example of [AIPMT (Prelims)-2010]

(1) Convergent evolution (2) Industrial melanism (3) Connecting link (4) Adaptive radiation
Sol. Answer (4)
Adaptive radiation : Radiation of organisms into different geographical areas and thus generation of new
species.
28. Given below are four statements (A-D) each with one or two blanks. Select the option which correctly fills
up the blanks in two statements
Statements:
(A) Wings of butterfly and birds look alike and are the results of __(i)____, evolution.
(B) Miller showed that CH4, H2, NH3 and ___(i)___, when exposed to electric discharge in a flask resulted
in formation of ___(ii)_____.
(C) Vermiform appendix is a ___(i)____ organ and an ___(ii)___ evidence of evolution.
(D) According to Darwin evolution took place due to ___(i)___ and ___(ii)___ of the fittest.
[AIPMT (Mains)-2010]
Options :
(1) (D) – (i) Small variations, (ii) Survival, (2) (A) – (i) Convergent,
(A) – (i) Convergent (B) – (i) Oxygen, (ii) nucleosides
(3) (B) – (i) Water vapour, (ii) Amino acids (4) (C) – (i) Vestigial, (ii) Anatomical
(C) – (i) Rudimentary, (ii) Anatomical (D) – (i) Mutations, (ii) Multiplication
Sol. Answer (1)
(B) - (i) water vapour, (ii) Amino acids = Alanine, glycine, aspartic acid.
(C) - (i) vestigeal, (ii) Anatomical
29. Peripatus is a connecting link between [AIPMT (Prelims)-2009]

(1) Mollusca and Echinodermata (2) Annelida and Arthropoda
(3) Coelenterata and Porifera (4) Ctenophora and Platyhelminthis
Sol. Answer (2)
30. In the case of peppered moth (Biston betularia) the black-coloured form became dominant over the light-coloured
form in England during industrial revolution.
This is an example of : [AIPMT (Prelims)-2009]
(1) Appearance of the darker coloured individuals due to very poor sunlight
(2) Protective mimicry
(3) Inheritance of darker colour character acquired due to the darker environment
(4) Natural selection whereby the darker forms were selected
Sol. Answer (4)
31. Which one of the following scientist’s name is correctly matched with the theory put forth by him?
(1) Mendel – Theory of Pangenesis
(2) Weismann – Theory of continuity of Germplasm
(3) Pasteur – Inheritance of acquired characters
(4) de Vries – Natural selection
Sol. Answer (2)
Mendel  Laws of genetics.
Pasteur  Theory of biogenesis.
Hugo de Vries  Mutation theory
32. Which one of the following is incorrect about the characteristics of protobionts (coacervates and micropheres)
as envisaged in the abiogenic origin of life? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2008]
(1) They could maintain an internal environment
(2) They were able to reproduce
(3) They could separate combinations of molecules from the surroundings
(4) They were partially isolated from the surroundings
Sol. Answer (2)
They were not able to reproduce.
33. Which one of the following pairs of items correctly belongs to the category of organs mentioned against it?
(1) Wings of honey-bee and wings of crow - Homologous organs
(2) Thorn of Bougainvillea and tendrils of Cucurbita - Analogous organs
(3) Nictitating membrane and blind spot in human eye - Vestigial organs
(4) Nephridia of earthworm and malpighian tubules of cockroach - Excretory organs
Sol. Answer (4)
Blind spot is not vestigial.
Wings of honey-bee and wings of crow  Analogous.
Thorn of Bougainvillea and tendrils of Cucurbita-Homologous.
34. Which one of the following in birds, indicates their reptilian ancestry? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2008]
(1) Eggs with a calcareous shell
(2) Scales on their hind limbs
(3) Four-chambered heart
(4) Two special chambers crop and gizzard in their digestive tract
Sol. Answer (2)
Epidermals scales are present on hindlimbs of birds.
35. When two species of different genealogy come to resemble each other as a result of adaptation, the
phenomenon is termed [AIPMT (Prelims)-2007]
(1) Convergent evolution (2) Divergent evolution (3) Microevolution (4) Co-evolution
Sol. Answer (1)
Same phenotype
sp. 1
sp. 2
Different geneology
36. Adaptive radiation refers to [AIPMT (Prelims)-2007]

(1) Power of adaptation in an individual to a variety of environments
(2) Adaptations due to Geographical isolation
(3) Evolution of different species from a common ancestor
(4) Migration of members of a species to different geographical areas
Sol. Answer (3)
sp 1
Adaptive radiation
Ancestor 1 sp 2 e.g., Darwin's finches.
sp 3
Over generations
37 The Finches of Galapagos islands provide an evidence in favour of [AIPMT (Prelims)-2007]

(1) Biogeographical Evolution (2) Special Creation
(3) Evolution due to Mutation (4) Retrogressive Evolution
Sol. Answer (1)
Adaptive radiation  different species due to divergent evolution, this was due to geopraphical isolation.
38. One of the important consequences of geographical isolation is [AIPMT (Prelims)-2007]

(1) Random creation of new species (2) No change in the isolation faunax
(3) Preventing speciation (4) Speciation through reproductive isolation
Sol. Answer (4)
New species are formed due to geographical isolation. Interbreeding is possible only in individuals of isolated
population.
39. Industrial melanism as observed in peppered moth proves that [AIPMT (Prelims)-2007]
(1) Melanism is a pollution-generated feature
(2) The true black melanic forms arise by a recurring random mutation
(3) The melanic form of the moth has no selective advantage over lighter form in industrial area
(4) The lighter-form moth has no selective advantage either in polluted industrial area or non-polluted area
Sol. Answer (2)
Industrial melanism  Random mutation.
Pollution generated feature  Natural selection  selection of melanic forms.
40. The concept of chemical evolution is based on [AIPMT (Prelims)-2007]

(1) Possible origin of life by combination of chemicals
(2) Crystallization of chemicals under suitable environmental conditions
(3) Interaction of water, air and clay under
(4) Effect of solar radiation of chemicals
Sol. Answer (1)
Chemical evolution theory was proposed by Oparin and Haldane
41. Among the human ancestors the brain size was more than 1000 cc in [AIPMT (Prelims)-2007]
(1) Homo habilis (2) Homo neanderthalensis
(3) Homo erectus (4) Ramapithecus
Sol. Answer (2)
Homo sapiens neanderthalensis  1300 – 1600 cc
Homo erectus  900 cc
Homo habilis  650 – 800 cc
42. Select the correct statement from the following [AIPMT (Prelims)-2007]
(1) Mutations are random and directional
(2) Darwinian variations are small and directionless
(3) Fitness is the end result of the ability to adapt and gets selected by nature
(4) All mammals except whales and camels have seven cervical vertebrae
Sol. Answer (3)
43. Which one of the following statement is correct? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2007]

(1) Ontogeny repeats phylogeny
(2) Stem cells are specialized cells
(3) There is no evidence of the existence of gills during embryogenesis of mammals
(4) All plant and animal cells are totipotent.
Sol. Answer (1)
44. Differentiation of organs and tissues in a developing organism, is associated with [AIPMT (Prelims)-2007]
(1) Deletion of genes (2) Developmental mutations
(3) Differential expression of genes (4) Lethal mutations
Sol. Answer (3)
45. What is common to whale, seal and shark? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2007]

(1) Homoiothermy (2) Seasonal migration
(3) Thick subcutaneous fat (4) Convergent evolution
Sol. Answer (4)
46. Which one of the following amino acids was not found to be synthesized in Miller’s experiment ?
(1) Glycine (2) Aspartic acid (3) Glutamic acid (4) Alanine
Sol. Answer (3)
47. An important evidence in favour of organic evolution is the occurrence of [AIPMT (Prelims)-2006]
(1) Homologous and vestigial organs (2) Analogous and vestigial organs
(3) Homologous organs only (4) Homologous and analogous organs
Sol. Answer (1)
Homologous  similar structures  phenotype or functions different. Vestigial  organs present in ancestors
but rudimentary in the present species.
48. Which one of the following is not a living fossil ? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2006]
(1) King crab (2) Sphenodon (3) Archaeopteryx (4) Peripatus
Sol. Answer (3)
49. Jurassic period of the Mesozoic era is characterised by [AIPMT (Prelims)-2006]

(1) Gymnosperms are dominant plants and first birds appear
(2) Radiation of reptiles and origin of mammal like reptiles
(3) Dinosaurs become extinct and angiosperms appear
(4) Flowering plants and first dinosaurs appear
Sol. Answer (1)
In jurassic period, gymnosperms were dominant, dinosaurs were dominant and first birds appeared.
50. Evolutionary history of an organism is known as [AIPMT (Prelims)-2006]

(1) Phylogeny (2) Ancestry (3) Paleontology (4) Ontogeny
Sol. Answer (1)
Palaeontology  fossil study.
Ontology  embryological development.
51. Sickle cell anaemia has not been eliminated from the African population because : [AIPMT (Prelims)-2006]
(1) It is controlled by recessive genes (2) It is not a fatal disease
(3) It provides immunity against malaria (4) It is controlled by dominant genes
Sol. Answer (3)
Carriers of sickle cell anaemia are immune to malaria.
52. There are two opposing views about origin of Modern man. According to one view Homo erectus in Asia were
the ancestors of modern man. A study of variations of DNA however suggested African origin of Modern man.
What kind of observation on DNA variation could suggest this? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2005]
(1) Greater variation in Africa than in Asia (2) Variation only in Asia and no variation in Africa
(3) Greater variation in Asia than in Africa (4) Similar variation in Africa and Asia
Sol. Answer (1)
DNA variation gives better information.
53. Which one of the following phenomena supports Darwin’s concept of natural selection in organic evolution?
(1) Development of transgenic animals
(2) Production of ‘Dolly’ the sheep by cloning
(3) Prevalence of pesticide resistant insects
(4) Development of organs from ‘stem cells’ for organ transplantation
Sol. Answer (3)
Others are artificially done by man.
54. Which of the following is not true for a species ? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2005]
(1) Members of a species can interbreed
(2) Variations occurs among members of a species
(3) Each species is reproductively isolated from every other species
(4) Gene flow does not occur between the populations of a species
Sol. Answer (4)
55. Which one of the following experiments suggests that simplest living organisms could not have originated
spontaneously from non-living matter ? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2005]
(1) Microbes did not appear in stored meat
(2) Larvae could appear in decaying organic matter
(3) Microbes appeared from unsterilized organic matter
(4) Meat was not spoiled, when heated and kept sealed in a vessel
Sol. Answer (4)
It shows that living organisms could not arise from unspoiled meat.
56. de Vries gave his mutation theory on organic evolution while working on [AIPMT (Prelims)-2005]
(1) Althea rosea (2) Drosophila melanogaster
(3) Oenothera lamarckiana (4) Pisum sativum
Sol. Answer (3)
57. Which of the following is the relatively most accurate method for dating of fossils? [AIPMT (Prelims)-2005]
(1) Potassium – Argon method
(2) Uranium – Lead method
(3) Electron – Spin resonance method
(4) Radio – Carbon method
Sol. Answer (3)
58. Random non-directional change in allele frequencies that occurs by chance in all populations and especially
in small populations is known as
(1) Mutation (2) Migration (3) Natural selection (4) Genetic drift
Sol. Answer (4)
Fact.
59. The finch species of Galapagos Islands are grouped according to their food sources. Which of the following
is not a finch food?
(1) Seeds (2) Carrion (3) Insects (4) Tree buds
Sol. Answer (2)
Carrion - dead and decay of flesh of animals - was not their food.
60. Dinosaurs dominated the world in which of the following geological era?
(1) Devonion (2) Coenozoic (3) Jurassic (4) Mesozoic
Sol. Answer (4)
Jurassic period of Mesozoic era.
61. What is true about the isolated small tribal populations?

(1) There is no change in population size as they have a large gene pool
(2) There is a decline in population as boys marry girls only from their own tribe
(3) Hereditary diseases like colour blindness do not spread in the isolated population
(4) Wrestlers who develop strong body muscles in their life time pass this character on to their progeny
Sol. Answer (2)
This results in homozygosity  inbreeding depression.
62. Which statement best explains the evolutionary advantage of meiosis?

(1) Meiosis is necessary for sexual reproduction
(2) Genetic recombinations are possible from generation to generation
(3) Meiosis alternates with mitosis for generation to generation
(4) The same genetic system is passed on from generation to generation
Sol. Answer (2)
Crossing over.
At pachytene stage, crossing over is responsible for variations.
63. Which one of the following changes involved is irrelevant, in the evolution of man?
(1) Perfection of hand for tool making
(2) Change of diet from hard nuts and hard roots to soft food
(3) Loss of tail
(4) Increase in the ability to communicate with others and develop community behaviour
Sol. Answer (3)
Other changes meant for beneficial events.
64. Which of the following evidences does not favour the Lamarckian concept of inheritance of acquired characters?
(1) Lack of pigment in cave-dwelling animals (2) Melanization in peppered moth
(3) Absence of limbs in snakes (4) Presence of webbed toes in aquatic birds
Sol. Answer (2)
Melanized form is dominant mutant variety of moth. It is an example of natural selection.
65. Which of the following is a pair of homologous organs?
(1) Pectoral fin of fish and fore-limb of horse (2) Wings of grasshopper and wings of crow
(3) Lungs of rabbit and gills of prawn (4) Wings of bat and wings of butterfly
Sol. Answer (1)
Pectoral fin and fore-limb - both are appendages of vertebrates
66. The concept that ‘Population tends to increase geometrically while food supply increases arithmetically’ was
put forward by
(1) Thomas Malthus (2) Charles Darwin (3) Stuart Mill (4) Adam Smith
Sol. Answer (1)
Thomas Malthus wrote Essay on Population.
67. The change of the lighter-coloured variety of peppered moth (Biston betularia) to its darker variety (Biston
carbonaria) is due to
(1) Mutation (2) Regeneration (3) Genetic isolation (4) Temporal isolation
Sol. Answer (1)
Dominant mutant variety - Biston carbonaria
68. The homologous organs are those that show similarity in
(1) Appearance (2) Function (3) Origin (4) Size
Sol. Answer (3)
Homologous  similarity in origin.
Analogous  similarity in phenotype-function.
69. The presence of gill slits, in the embryos of all vertebrates, supports the theory of
(1) Metamorphosis (2) Biogenesis (3) Organic evolution (4) Recapitulation
Sol. Answer (4)
Ontogeny recapitulates phylogeny  by Haeckel.
70. Two zoogeographical regions, separated by high mountain ranges, are
(1) Neoarctic and Palaearctic (2) Neotropical and Ethiopian
(3) Oriental and Australian (4) Palaearctic and Oriental
Sol. Answer (4)
Palaearctic and Oriental  by Himalaya Mountains.
71. Which era is dubbed as the age of prokaryotic microbes?
(1) Precambrian (2) Phanerozoic (3) Archean (4) Cambrian
Sol. Answer (1)
Precambrian is age of prokaryotic microbes.
72. The animals of cold countries have relatively shorter and poorly developed ears, eyes, hairs and other phenotypic
characters. This is known by which law?
(1) Cope’s Law (2) Dollo’s Law (3) Allen’s Law (4) Bergmann’s Law
Sol. Answer (3)
Allen’s law  Mammals tend to have shorter extremities in colder region than in warmer climate.
73. Which of the following changes for man in the course of evolution is probably useless?
(1) Development of being erect (2) Development of cranial capacity
(3) Loss of tail (4) Development of opposable thumb
Sol. Answer (3)
Erect posture  to walk easily
Cranial capacity  to increase intelligence.
Opposable thumb  for grasping
74. Which of the following is the direct ancestor of Homo sapiens?

(1) Australopithecus (2) H. sapiens neanderthalis
(3) Homo erectus (4) Ramapithecus
Sol. Answer (3)
Australopithecus  Homo habilis
Homo erectus
Homo sapiens
75. Which of the following is the correct group of vestigial organs in man?
(1) Nictitating membrane, ear muscles, eyelids and coccyx
(2) Appendix, coccyx, ear muscles and elbow joint
(3) Wisdom tooth, coccyx, body hair and ear pinna
(4) Wisdom tooth, body hair, nictitating membrane and vermiform appendix
Sol. Answer (4)
Ear pinna, elbow joint, eyelids are not rudimentary.
76. Improvement of human race by controlled selective breeding between individual with desirable characteristics
is called
(1) Inbreeding (2) Euthenics (3) Eugenics (4) None of these
Sol. Answer (3)
Euthenics : study of improvement of human functioning and well being by improvement of living conditions.
77. The correct sequence for the manufacture of the gases on the primitive earth is
(1) NH3, nucleic acid, protein and carbohydrate (2) Protein, carbohydrate, water and nucleic acid
(3) NH3, protein, carbohydrate and nucleic acid (4) NH3, water, nucleic acid and protein
Sol. Answer (3)
NH3 Proteins Carbohydrates Nucleic acids
(has amino group) (carbon chain of R (Sugar + Phosphate
group of proteins) + N-bases)
78. The first domesticated animal by primitive man was
(1) Cat (2) Cow (3) Dog (4) Horse
Sol. Answer (3)
79. Which of the following statements is correct regarding evolution of mankind?

(1) Homo erectus is preceded by Homo habilis
(2) Neanderthal man and Cro-magnon man were living at the same time
(3) Australopithecus was living in Australia
(4) None of these
Sol. Answer (1)
Cromagnon Man  34,000 years ago.
Neanderthal  1,00,000 years ago.
Australopithecus  lived in African grasslands.
80. Common origin of man and chimpanzee is best shown by

(1) Binocular vision (2) Homology in chromosomes
(3) Dental formula (4) Cranial capacity
Sol. Answer (2)
Genetic evidences are best to know the similarities.
Recent classification is also based on 16s rRNA.
81. Which of the following is a living fossil?

(1) Mirabilis jalapa (2) Gingko biloba (3) Pinus longifolia (4) Dalbergia sissoo
Sol. Answer (2)
Living fossils  organisms that carry primitive characters and have not changed from origin.
82. Evolutionary convergence is characterized by

(1) Development of dissimilar characteristics in closely related groups
(2) Development of a common set of characteristics in groups of different ancestry
(3) Development of characteristics by random mating
(4) Replacement of common characteristics in different groups
Sol. Answer (2)
a

Distant
b Convergence (common set of characteristics).
species
c
83. In the developmental history of mammalian heart, it is observed that it passes through a two chambered fish
like heart, three chambered frog like heart and finally four chambered stage. To which hypothesis can this
above cited statement be approximated?
(1) Lamarck’s principle (2) Mendelian principles (3) Biogenetic law (4) Hardy Weinberg law
Sol. Answer (3)
Biogenetic law  Ontogeny recapitulates Phylogeny by Ernst Haeckel.
84. The age of the fossil of Dryopithecus on the geological time scale is
(1) 2.5 × 106 years back (2) 50 × 106 years back (3) 75 × 106 years back (4) 15 × 106 years back
Sol. Answer (4)
Fact.
85. Which one of the following statement is correct?

(1) Australopithecus is the real ancestor of modern man
(2) Neanderthal man is the direct ancestor of Homo sapiens
(3) Homo erectus is the ancestor of man
(4) Cro-magnon man‘s fossil has been found in Ethiopia
Sol. Answer (3)
Cro-magnon man’s fossil has been found in France.
Neanderthal man is not direct ancestor of Homo sapiens.
86. Species occurring in different geographical area are called as

(1) Sympatric (2) Allopatric (3) Sibling (4) Neopatric
Sol. Answer (2)
Sympatric  species evolved in same geographical area.
87. The diversity in the type of beaks of finches adapted to different feeding habits on the Galapagos Islands, as
observed by Darwin, provides evidence for
(1) Intraspecific competition (2) Interspecific competition
(3) Origin of species by natural selection (4) Intraspecific variations
Sol. Answer (3)
Origin of species by natural selection  Adaptive Radiation.
88. Genetic drift operates only in

(1) Larger populations (2) Mendelian populations (3) Island populations (4) Smaller populations
Sol. Answer (4)
Genetic drift  only parameter of Hardy Weinberg Principle that works on small population.
89. Phenomenon of ‘Industrial melanism’ demonstrates

(1) Geographical isolation (2) Reproductive isolation (3) Natural selection (4) Induced mutation
Sol. Answer (3)
Pollution changed colour of tree trunks and birds selected the moths accordingly [natural selection]
90. Which of the following are homologous organs?

(1) Wings of bird and wings of a bat (2) Nails of human being and claws in cat
(3) Wings of bird and wings of insect (4) Wings of bat and wings of cockroach
Sol. Answer (2)
Wings of birds and wings of insect/wings of bat and wings of cockroach are analogous organs.
91. Homo sapiens have evolved in
(1) Paleocene (2) Pleistocene (3) Oligocene (4) Miocene
Sol. Answer (2)
1.8 million years ago  humans appeared.
92. Character which is closely related to human evolution

(1) Disappearance of tail (2) Reduction in size of jaws
(3) Binocular vision (4) Flat nails
Sol. Answer (2)
In humans  orthognathous.
In chimpanzee  prognathous
93. Which evidence of evolution is related to Darwin’s finches?

(1) Evidences from bio geographical distribution (2) Evidences from comparative anatomy
(3) Evidences from embryology (4) Evidences from palaeontology
Sol. Answer (1)
Darwin’s finches flew off from their native place and reached different geographical areas.
94. Who is most directly related to man?

(1) Gorilla (2) Rhesus (3) Gibbon (4) Orangutan
Sol. Answer (1)
Fact.
95. Lemur or idri-idri is found in

(1) Madagascar (2) Mauritius (3) India (4) Sri Lanka
Sol. Answer (1)
Lemur is found in Madagascar islands.
96. Which is the most important factor for continuity of a species from evolutionary point of view?
(1) Replication of genetic material (2) Formation of gametes
(3) Synthesis of proteins (4) None of these
Sol. Answer (1)
Genetic recombination during crossing over.
97. Due to discovery of which of the following in 1980, the evolution was termed as RNA world?
(1) m-RNA, t-RNA, r-RNA synthesise proteins (2) In some virus RNA is genetic material
(3) RNA have enzymatic property (4) RNA is not found in all cells
Sol. Answer (3)
Ribozymes’ discovery proved that evolution was RNA world.
98. Reason of diversity in living beings is

(1) Mutation (2) Long term evolutionary change
(3) Gradual change (4) Short term evolutionary change
Sol. Answer (2)
Long term evolutionary change only results in formation of new species.
99. Similarities in organism with different genotype indicates

(1) Microevolution (2) Macroevolution (3) Convergent evolution (4) Divergent evolution
Sol. Answer (3)
If genotype is different, similarities are seen in function/phenotype, this is called covergent evolution.
100. Which of the following is closest relative of man?

(1) Chimpanzee (2) Gorilla (3) Orangutan (4) Gibbon
Sol. Answer (1)
Man and apes have common ancestor.
101. Which of the following is correct order of the evolutionary history of man?
(1) Peking man, Homo sapiens, Neanderthal man, Cro magnon man
(2) Peking man, Habilus man, Neanderthal man, Cro magnon man
(3) Peking man, Heidelberg man, Neanderthal man, Cro magnon man
(4) Peking man, Neanderthal man, Homo sapiens, Heidelberg man
Sol. Answer (3)
Peking man  Heidelberg man  Neanderthal man  Cro-magnon man.
102. 1st life on earth was

(1) Cyanobacteria (2) Chemoheterotrophs (3) Autotrophs (4) Photoautotrophs
Sol. Answer (2)
Chemicals  source of energy.
Depended on already formed organic chemicals.
103. Frequency of an allele in an isolated population may change due to

(1) Genetic drift (2) Gene flow (3) Mutation (4) Natural selection
Sol. Answer (1)
Isolated population  small and less variable population  genetic drift acts on small population.
104. In Lederberg’s replica plating experiment what shall be used to obtain streptomycin resistant strain?
(1) Minimal medium and streptomycin (2) Complete medium and streptomycin
(3) Only minimal medium (4) Only complete medium
Sol. Answer (2)
Streptomycin acting as visual marker.
105. Forthcoming generation are less adaptive than the parental generation due to
(1) Natural selection (2) Mutation (3) Genetic drift (4) Adaptation
Sol. Answer (1)
The environment has changed due to anthropogenic interference.
106. Occurrence of endemic species in South America and Australia is due to
(1) These species has been extinct from other regions
(2) Continental separation
(3) There is no terrestrial route to these places

(4) Retrogressive evolution
Sol. Answer (2)

Biogeographical evidence.
107. Darwins theory of pangenesis shows similarity with theory of inheritance of acquired characters then, what shall
be correct according to it?
(1) Useful organs becomes strong and developed while useless organs become extinct
(2) Size of organs increase with ageing

(3) Development of organs is due to will power
(4) There should be some physical basis of inheritance

Sol. Answer (4)
According to Lamarck also, some physical characteristics should also be inherited.
108. Cause of mimicry is
(1) Concealment (2) Offence (3) Defence (4) Both (1) & (3)
Sol. Answer (1)
Concealment  an organism tries to hide itself.
This results in protecting it, i.e., defence and offending.
109. Some bacteria are able to grow in Streptomycin containing medium due to
(1) Natural selection (2) Induced mutation (3) Reproductive isolation (4) Genetic drift
Sol. Answer (1)
Mutations are pre-adaptive.
110. Reason of fast speciation in present day crop plants is due to

(1) Mutation (2) Isolation (3) Polyploidy (4) Sexual reproduction
Sol. Answer (3)
Modern day wheat  Hexaploid.
111. Which of the following is most important for speciation?

(1) Seasonal isolation (2) Reproductive isolation (3) Behavioural isolation (4) Tropical isolation
Sol. Answer (2)
Reproductive isolation : Most important in speciation because this prevents random mating (resulting in
evolution).
112. There is no life on moon due to the absence of

(1) Oxygen (2) Water (3) Light (4) Temperature
Sol. Answer (2)
Moon has no water, nor it has atmosphere.
But in water also, life can exist.
113. According to fossils discovered up to present time origin and evolution of man started from
(1) France (2) Java (3) Africa (4) China
Sol. Answer (3)
Ancestors of Homo sapiens sapiens were also found in Africa.
114. In which condition, the gene ratio remains constant for any species population?
(1) Sexual selection (2) Random mating (3) Mutation (4) Gene flow
Sol. Answer (2)
Random mating does not disturb Hardy Weinberg equilibrium.
115. In which era reptiles were dominant?

(1) Coenozoic era (2) Mesozoic era (3) Palaeozoic era (4) Archaeozoic era
Sol. Answer (2)
Origin of reptiles in Palaeozoic era.
Dominant in Mesozoic era.
116. Two different species cannot live for long duration in the same niche or habitat. This law is
(1) Allen’s law (2) Gause’s hypothesis (3) Dollo’s rule (4) Weismann’s theory
Sol. Answer (2)
Dollo’s law  Evolution is irreversible.
117. Convergent evolution is illustrated by

(1) Rat and dog (2) Bacterium and protozoan
(3) Starfish and cuttle fish (4) Cephalopod eye and vertebrate eye
Sol. Answer (4)
Eye of Octopus and eye of a vertebrate are analogous organs.
118. Random genetic drift in a population probably results from

(1) Highly genetically variable individuals (2) Interbreeding within this population
(3) Constant low mutation rate (4) Large population size
Sol. Answer (2)
Random genetic drift : Operates in small population size.
Results from interbreeding within small population.
119. In recent years, DNA sequences (nucleotide sequence) of mtDNA and Y chromosome were considered for the
study of human evolution, because
(1) They are small and therefore, easy to study
(2) They are uniparental in origin and do not take part in recombination
(3) Their structure is known in greater detail
(4) They can be studied from the samples of fossil remains
Sol. Answer (2)
mtDNA is from mother (cytoplasmic inheritance), Y chromosome is from father.
120. Industrial melanism is an example of

(1) Drug resistance
(2) Darkening of skin due to smoke from industries
(3) Protective resemblance with the surroundings
(4) Defensive adaptation of skin against ultraviolet radiations
Sol. Answer (3)
Birds selected those who were not able to blend with the surroundings.
121. Darwin in his “Natural Selection Theory” did not believe in any role of which one of the following in organic
evolution?
(1) Parasites and predators as natural enemies (2) Survival of the fittest
(3) Struggle for existence (4) Discontinuous variations
Sol. Answer (4)
According to Darwin, variations are directional and continuous.
122. Which one of the following describes correctly the homologous structures?
(1) Organs with anatomical similarities, but performing different functions
(2) Organs with anatomical dissimilarities, but performing same function
(3) Organs that have no function now, but had an important function in ancestors
(4) Organs appearing only in embryonic stage and disappearing later in the adult
Sol. Answer (1)
Homologous organs
Similar anatomical structures
Different functions or phenotype
123. Which one of the following is categorised under living fossils?

(1) Pinus (2) Cycas (3) Selaginella (4) Taxus
Sol. Answer (2)
Cycas is gymnosperm having primitive structure.
124. Age of fossils in the past was generally determined by radio-carbon method and other methods involve
radioactive elements found in the rocks. More precise methods, which were used recently and led to the revision
of the evolutionary periods for different groups of organisms, includes
(1) Study of carbohydrates proteins in fossils (2) Study of the conditions of fossilization
(3) Electron spin resonance (ESR) and fossil DNA (4) Study of carbohydrates / proteins in rocks
Sol. Answer (3)
Fact.
125. Presence of gills in the tadpole of frog indicates that

(1) Fishes were amphibious in the past (2) Fishes evolved from frog-like ancestors
(3) Frogs will have gills in future (4) Frogs evolved from gilled ancestors
Sol. Answer (4)
Ontogeny recapitulates phylogeny.
126. According to Oparin, which one of the following was not present in the primitive atmosphere of the earth?
(1) Methane (2) Oxygen (3) Hydrogen (4) Water vapour
Sol. Answer (2)
Primitive earth was reducing (so earlier anaerobic).
127. Using imprints from a plate with complete medium and carrying bacterial colonies, you can select streptomycin
resistant mutants and prove that such mutations do not originate as adaptation. These imprints need to be
used
(1) On plates with and without streptomycin (2) On plates with minimal medium
(3) Only on plates with streptomycin (4) Only on plates without streptomycin
Sol. Answer (1)
Streptomycin presence or absence can be used for selection of organisms resistant to bacteria.
128. At a particular locus, frequency of A allele is 0.6 and that of a is 0.4. What would be the frequency of
heterozygotes in a random mating population at equilibrium?
(1) 0.36 (2) 0.16 (3) 0.24 (4) 0.48
Sol. Answer (4)
heterozygotes
2 2
p + 2pq + q = 1
2pq = 2 × 0.6 × 0.4 = 0.48
129. G-6-P dehydrogenase deficiency is associated with haemolysis of

(1) Leucocytes (2) Lymphocytes (3) Platelets (4) RBCs
Sol. Answer (4)
G  6 P
NADP   NADPH  maintains glutathione.
130. Probiotics are

(1) Cancer inducing microbes (2) New kind of food allergens
(3) Live microbial food supplement (4) Safe antibiotics
Sol. Answer (3)
Pro-biotics are live microbial food supplement.
131. A high density of elephant population in an area can result in
(1) Intra specific competition (2) Inter specific competition
(3) Predation on one another (4) Mutualism
Sol. Answer (1)
Intra specific competition  More number of organisms of same species compete for food, mating etc.
132. One of the important consequences of geographical isolation is

(1) Preventing speciation
(2) Speciation through reproductive isolation
(3) Random creation of new species
(4) No change in the isolated fauna
Sol. Answer (2)
133. Sickle cell anemia is

(1) Characterized by elongated sickle like RBCs with a nucleus
(2) An autosomal linked dominant trait
(3) Caused by substitution of valine by glutamic acid in the beta globin chain of haemoglobin
(4) Caused by a change in a single base pair of DNA
Sol. Answer (4)
RBCs remain without nuclei. Sickle cell anemia is recessive trait. Glutamic acid is replaced by valine, hence
single base pair of DNA
134. Mutations can be induced with

(1) Gamma radiations (2) Infra-red radiations (3) I A A (4) Ethylene
Sol. Answer (1)
IAA  Indole Acetic Acid.
135. Darwin judged the fitness of an individual by

(1) Ability to defend itself (2) Strategy to obtain food
(3) Number of offspring (4) Dominance over other individuals
Sol. Answer (3)
Natural selection and reproductive fitness were the two major concepts of Darwin.
136. Analogous structures are

(1) Anatomically different but performing similar functions
(2) Anatomically similar but performing different functions
(3) Anatomically similar and functioning similarly
(4) Anatomically different and functioning differently
Sol. Answer (1)
Homologous - Anatomically similar but different functions
Analogous - Anatomically different but similar functions.
137. Tendrils in plants are an example of

(1) Convergent evolution (2) Adaptive radiation (3) Divergent evolution (4) Co-evolution
Sol. Answer (1)
Tendrils are modification of leaf or stem meant for support.
138. Resemblance of one organism to another for protection and hiding is

(1) Mimicry (2) Predation (3) Adaptation (4) Camouflage
Sol. Answer (1)
To protect from predators.
139. "Complete competitors cannot coexist" is true for

(1) Character displacement (2) Competitive exclusion
(3) Primary succession (4) Secondary succession
Sol. Answer (2)
Exclusion of competitors. Only one remains.
140. What is meant by the term Darwin fitness?

(1) The ability to survive and reproduce (2) High aggressiveness
(3) Healthy appearance (4) Physical strength
Sol. Answer (1)
Darwin fitness = Reproductive fitness.
141. Which one of the following animals shows discontinuous distribution?

(1) Green mussels (2) Bats (3) Lung fishes (4) Pacific salmons
Sol. Answer (3)
Due to continental drift.
Lung fishes are found in Africa, South America, Australia.
142. 'Balancing selection' promotes

(1) Homozygotes (2) Heterozygotes (3) Polyploids (4) Recessive traits
Sol. Answer (2)
Balancing natural selection promotes heterozygotes.
143. In a population of 1000 individuals 360 belong to genotype AA, 480 to Aa and the remaining 160 to aa. Based
on this data, the frequency of allele A in the population is
(1) 0.4 (2) 0.5 (3) 0.6 (4) 0.7
Sol. Answer (3)
Suppose frequency of ‘a’ as q
q2 × 1000 = 160
160
q2  ⇒ q  0.4
1000
 p = 1 – q = 1 – 0.4 = 0.6.
SECTION - D
Assertion-Reason Type Questions

1. A : During evolution pouched mammals of Australia survived.
R : Due to lack of competition from any other mammal due to continental drift.
Sol. Answer (1)
Continental drift resulted in isolation of pouched mammals in Australia
2. A : Mesozoic is the era of dinosaurs but they suddenly disappeared from the earth.
R : Dinosaurs may have changed into birds or climatic changes killed them.
Sol. Answer (1)
Dinosaur’s extinction  possibly due to climatic change.
3. A : Mutations are non-directional.
R : Darwin’s small variations are directional.
Sol. Answer (2)
Darwinian variations are small and directional.
4. A : During industrialisation dark-winged or melanised moths were more abundant.
R : They were able to camouflage themselves, hide in the background and survived.
Sol. Answer (1)
Birds killed light winged moths because they were conspicous.
5. A : Tyrannosaurus rex had fearsome dagger like teeth.
R : Tyrannosaurus was largest dinosaur depending upon herbs and shrubs.
Sol. Answer (3)
Tryannosaurus is carnivorous. It is biggest flesh eating dinosaur.
6. A : During evolution the early time period was without ozone layer.
R : Ozone layer absorbs U.V. rays to some extent.
Sol. Answer (2)
Early time was without ozone. UV rays entered atmosphere.
7. A : Theory of biogenesis explains that life arises from pre-existing life.
R : Louis Pasteur finally disapproved the theory of spontaneous generation of life.
Sol. Answer (2)
Louis Pasteur disproved the theory of spontaneous generation of life by swan-neck experiment.
8. A : India falls under oriental realm out of other biogeographical realms.
R : World is divided in six biogeographical realms.
Sol. Answer (2)
Oriental, Nearctic, Ethiopian, Australian, Palaearctic, Neotropical are six biogeographical realms.
9. A : Archaeopteryx had free caudal vertebrae and toothed beak with teeth like reptiles.
R : It is missing link between reptiles and bird.
Sol. Answer (2)
Missing link  extinct connecting link.
10. A : Placental wolf and Tasmanian wolf (a marsupial) show convergent evolution.
R : Like marsupials placental mammals in other parts of world also exhibit adaptive radiation in evolving into
varieties of such placental mammals each of which appears to be similar to a corresponding marsupial.
Sol. Answer (1)
When more than one adaptive radiations have occurred in an isolated geographical area (representing different
habitat) one may call it convergent evolution.
11. A : There is 99% homology in haemoglobin of man and Gorilla.

R : Modern man is direct descendent of Gorilla.
Sol. Answer (3)
Cro-Magnon man is regarded as most recent ancestor of todays man.
12. A : Many countries have banned the use of antibiotics in the cattle feed.
R : Dairymen give antibiotics in the feed to the cattle and it becomes breeding grounds for the antibiotic
resistant bacteria.
Sol. Answer (1)
Diseases will not be cured by using same antibiotic later.
13. A : Lycaenops is a connecting link between reptiles and mammals.
R : In permian period there was origin of mammal like reptiles.
Sol. Answer (2)
Permian period is a part of palaeozoic era.
14. A : Blood group analysis shows the human beings are more closely related to apes than to monkeys.
R : The blood groups A and B are found in apes but not in monkeys.
Sol. Answer (1)
Man and apes have common ancestor.
15. A : Due to bottle neck effect, among the survivors, certain alleles may be over-represented, some may be under-
represented and some alleles may be totally eliminated.
R : The path of extinction of a species cannot be reversed due to bottle neck effect.
Sol. Answer (2)
Bottle neck effect is the decrease in the genetic variability in a population, e.g., cheetah population.
16. A : Spotted cuscus and marsupial mole are the examples of marsupial radiation.
R : Both are found in Australian region.
Sol. Answer (2)
Australian marsupials exhibit adaptive radiation.
17. A : Similarities in proteins and genes performing a given function among diverse organisms give clue to common
ancestry.
R : All the group of vertebrates arises from the common ancestor with great adaptation capability.
Sol. Answer (1)
Genetic similarities are most accurate to compare organisms.
18. A : Sometimes, some babies have a small tail.
R : This is just a type of mutant variety.
Sol. Answer (3)
This is atavism  unusual occurrence of ancestral trait.
19. A : Muscles of external ears are fully developed in humans.
R : These muscle helps in moving ear pinna in human.
Sol. Answer (4)
These muscles are vestigial in humans.
20. A : A single large mutation called saltation can produce new species.
R : Mutations are directional.
Sol. Answer (3)
Mutations are non-directional.


CLS Aipmt 17 18 XIII Zoo Study Package 4 SET 1 Chapter 14

Загружено:

Сведения о документе

Авторское право

Доступные форматы

Поделиться этим документом

Поделиться или встроить документ

Параметры публикации

Этот документ был вам полезен?

Это неприемлемый материал?

Авторское право:

Доступные форматы

CLS Aipmt 17 18 XIII Zoo Study Package 4 SET 1 Chapter 14

Загружено:

Авторское право:

Доступные форматы

Chapter 14

6. The proponent of the theory of spontaneous generation was

11. A.I. Oparin wrote

12. H.C. Urey wrote the following book

13. What did S.L. Miller observe in his experimental set-up?

19. Theory of abiogenesis or spontaneous generation was finally disapproved by

20. Simple one-celled cyanobacteria like organisms appeared on earth

21. Eukaryotes developed around

22. The atmosphere became oxidising with the appearance of

24. The theory of spontaneous generation says that

25. Louis Pasteur by careful experimentation demonstrated that/the

27. Evolution is defined as

30. Presence of NaCl in body fluid indicates that life originated in

31. Origin of life from nonliving matter is known as

33. Which of the type of respiration probably arose first?

34. Which of the following is not the result of convergent evolution?

35. Evolutionary biology is the study of

36. The palaeontological evidences are obtained from

37. Archaeopteryx is a connecting link between

38. Which of the following is incorrect match?

39. Mesozoic era is called the

40. Which of the following is known as age of mammals

41. First mammals appeared around

Triassic Jurassic Cretaceous

44. The flowering plants originated in which of the following periods?

45. Amphibia first appeared in which of the following period?

Palaeozoic era has Cambrian Ordovician Silurian Devonian

47. Dinosaurs were abundant in

48. Fossils of Archaeopteryx were found from

49. The epoch of human civilization is

52. The study of the fossil plants is known as

53. Which of the following is richest in fossil?

54. Excreta preserved as a fossil is called as

55. Ape like ancestors of human appear in epoch

59. Convergent evolution is illustrated by

60. All the following are examples of homologous organs, except

61. The homologous organs are

64. Find the odd one out

65. The convergent evolution of two species is usually associated with

66. Find the odd one out w.r.t. evolution

67. Which of the following is not vestigeal organ in human beings?

68. Which of the following is a vestigial organ?

69. Which of the following is not a vestigial organ?

72. Cycas and Ginkgo are connecting links between

73. Which one of the following is not a living fossil?

74. Presence of tail and coarse hair in human baby is

76. Hugo de Vries studied mutations in

77. If gene migration happens multiple times, it would lead to

Peak gets higher

Phenotypes are favoured one direction

Two peaks form

79. The rate of appearance of new life forms is linked to their

80. Which of the following is a placental mammal not marsupial?

81. Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium is not affected by which of the following factors?

83. Which of the following evolved into the first amphibians?

84. Pelycosaurs and Therapsids were

86. In 1938, a coelacanth was found in

87. The first organisms that invaded land were

88. Branching descent is one of the key concepts of

90. Australopithecines probably lived in the

91. Fossils discovered in Java in 1891 belonged to

93. The Neanderthal man had a cranial capacity of around

2. The first organisms appeared on earth were

3. Most important condition for origin of life is the presence of