S & T MCQ PDF

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Science and Technology
Space Technology
1. Which of the following is a key player in earth observation and disaster
management support programmes?
a) Space Application Centre
b) National Remote Sensing Centre
c) ISRO Satellite
d) Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre
2. Which of the following vehicle launched 20 satellites in a single mission?

a) PSLV-C33
b) PSLV-C35
c) PSLV-C34
d) PSLV-C37
3. Initially the space research carried out by

a) Department of Space
b) Department of Atomic Energy
c) INCOSPAR
d) Antrix Corporation Limited
4. IRS series satellites are intended for

a) Space Exploration
b) Telecommunications
c) Navigational Services
d) Remote Sensing
5. Communication satellites are launched into

a) Low Earth Orbits
b) Sun Synchronous Polar Orbits
c) Geo Stationary Orbits
d) Medium Earth Orbits
6. Which of the following is not the payload of PSLV-C37
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a) Cartosat-2B
b) INS-1A
c) INS-IB
d) Scatsat-1
7. Which of the following is not a Student Satellite

a) Pratham
b) Jugnu
c) EDUSAT
d) STUDSAT
8. Scat Sat-1 took the place of

a) Resource Sat-1
b) Resource Sat-2
c) Ocean Sat-2
d) RISAT-1
9. In which of the following GSLV Operation used the indigenous cryogenic

engine for the first time
a) GSLV-F05
b) GSLV-D6
c) GSLV-D5
d) GSLV-D3
10.Which of the following is not a payload of Chandrayan

a) Hyper Spectral Imager
b) Terrain Mapping Camera
c) Lymann-Alpha Photometer
d) Lunar Laser Ranging Instrument
11.Which of the following is a payload of Astrosat

a) Ultra Violet Imaging
b) Radiation Dose Monitor Experiment
c) Thermal Infrared Imaging Spectrometer
d) Hyper Spectral Imager
12. Which of the following Award was won by MOM ,

a) Annual Space Award-2015
b) International Co-operation-2014

c) Space Pioneer Award-2014

d) Space Pioneer Award-2015
13.The payloads of GAGAN were not included in

a) GSAT-8
b) GSAT-10
c) GSAT-15
d) GSAT-14
14.The Regional Remote Sensing Service Centers were not located at

a) Dehradun
b) Hyderabad
c) Kharagpur
d) Jodhpur
15.One Institution ofthe following is not located at Thiruvananthapuram

a) LPSC
b) VSSC
c) DECU
d) ISSU
16. The following is not the research institute of ISRO

a) Physical Research Laboratory
b) ISRO Inertial Systems Unit
c) Master Control Facility
d) Space Application Centre
17. The following launch vehicle has launched its payloads in two different orbits
a) PSLV-C3
b) PSLV-C36
c) PSLV-C37
d) PSLV-C34
18. India's first Radar Imaging Satellite

a) Resource Sat-2
b) RISAT
c) Ocean Sat
d) Carto Sat

19. Stretched Rohini Satellite Series were launched into their orbits by
a) SLV
b) ASLV
c) GSLV
d) PSLV
20. The remote sensing activities were started in India with the launching
a) Aryabhatta
b) Bhaskara-I
c) Rohini
d) SROSS
21. Which programme reached it's Silver Jubilee on 17 March, 2013?

a) Earth Observation Programme
b) Indian Remote Sensing
c) GAGAN
d) BHUVAN
22. The following organization is not managed by ISRO

a) Satish Dhavan Space Centre
b) Iquid Propulsion Systems Centre
c) Physical Research Laboratory
d) Space Application Centre
23. Identify the odd one of the following based on their Head Quarters located at
Bangalore
a) Antrix Corporation
b) Laboratory for Electro Optics System (LEOS)
c) ISRO Tracking, Telemetry and Command Network
d) Indian Institute of Remote Sensing
24. The following organization is not located in Ahmedabad

a) Space Application Centre
b) Development and Educational Communication Unit
c) National Atmospheric Research Laboratory
d) Physical Research Laboratory
25. The following is renowned as India's Space University

a) Indian Institute of Remote Sensing
b) Indian Institute of Space Science and Technology

c) Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre

d) Institute of Semiconductor
26. The earth station of National Remote Sensing Centre is located at

a) Bala nagar
b) Jeedimetla
c) Shad Nagar
d) Jodhpur
27. The campus of National Remote Sensing Centre is not located at

a) Bala Nagar
b) Shad Nagar
c) Jeedimetla
d) Sanath Nagar
28. Which of the following is not paired accordingly

a) Regional Remote Sensing Centre (Central) - Nagpur
b) Regional Remote Sensing Centre (West) - Jodhpur
c) Regional Remote Sensing Centre (South) - Bangalore
d) Regional Remote Sensing Centre (East) – Patna
29. The aerial data acquisition and processing facilities of NRSC are located at
a) Jeedimetla
b) Jodhpur
c) Ahmedabad
d) Thiruvananthapuram
30. The following satellite was replaced by Scatsat-I

a) Oceansat-1
b) Oceansat-2
c) Resourcesat-1
d) Cartosat-1
31. How many Regional Remote Sensing Centres were established in India
a) 8
b) 5
c) 2
d) 1
32. The National Atmospheric Research Laboratory was located in

a) Ahmedabad

b) Hyderabad
c) Gadanki
d) Bengaluru
33. Which of the following institution established in Ahmadabad for research

programmes in astronomy and astrophysics, Solar System Studies of theoretical
physics
a) National Atmospheric Research Laboratory
b) Development and Educational Communication Unit
c) Space Application Centre
d) Physical Research laboratory
34. Which of the following is not paired correctly

a) Laboratory for Electro-Optics Systems-Ahmedabad
b) Physical Research Laboratory-Ahmadabad
c) Space Application Centre- Ahmadabad
d) Development and Educational Communication Unit- Ahmadabad
35. Identify the correct statement in view of ISRO Satellite Centre-Bangalore

Statement-1: It was established in 1972
Statement-2: In the beginning it was named as Indian Scientific Satellite
Project
Statement-3: It is the leading centre for design, development, fabrication
and testing of all indigenous satellite.
a) 1,2 and 3
b) Only 1 and 2
c) Only 2 and 3
d) Only 1 and 3
36. Identify the inconrectlypaired statements in view of their first launch

a) Satellite launch vehicle-1979
b) Augmented Satellite launch vehicle-1980
c) Geo Stationary Satellite launch vehicle-2001
d) Polar Satellite launch vehicle -1993
37. Choose the incorrect statement (s) in view of ASLV

Statement -I : ASLV is a 4 staged solid propellant rocket
Statement -II: It is having a capability of placing a 150 kg payloads into LEO
Statement-III: The first launch of ASLV was taken place on 24 March 1987.
a) Only I

b) Only II and III

c) Only III
d) Only II
38. The following vehicle will launch the 8000 kg weighed payloads into LEO
a) PSLV-XL
b) GSLV-Mk II
c) GSLVMkI
d) LVM-III
39. Choose the correct Statement(s)

Statement I: The GSLV Mk H is also considered as LVM-III
Statement II : It is intended to launch 4000 kg weighed payloads into Geo
Stationary Transfer Orbits
Statement III: the list off mass of LVM-III is 640000 kgs.
a) I,II and III
b) Only I and II
c) Only II and III
d) Only I and II
40. Which of the following is a failed launch of GSLV with indigenous CUS engine
a) GSLV-F05
b) GSLV-D6
c) GSLV-D5
d) GSLV-D3
41. The number of GSLV launches were conducted till now (as of 15 February, 2017)
a) 9
b) 10
c) 11
d) 12
42. The fourth stage of PSLV consumes the fuel

a) Hydraxyl Terminated Poly Butadine (HTPB)
b) Un-symmetrical Dimethyle Hydrazine (UDMH)
c) Mono Methyl Hydrazine (MMH)
d) b and c

43. The following rockets launched their payloads into two different orbits
I. PSLV-C29
II. PSLV-C31
III. PSLV-C33
IV. PSLV-C35
a) Only I and II
b) Only II and III
c) Only II and IV
d) Only I an IV
44. The variant of polar satellite launch vehicle in which the six strap-on booster motors
will be removed
a) PSLV-G
b) PSLV-CA
c) PSLV-XL
d) LVM-III
45. In which of the following stage of PSLV, the payload fairing will be separated
a) first stage
b) second stage
c) third stage
d) fourth stage
46. The life period of Scatsat-I is

a) 7 years
b) 10 years
c) 5 years
d) 12 years
47. The remote sensing nano satellite, which is developed by PES University of Bengalore
and is a payload of PSLV-C35
a) Pratham
b) Scatsat-I
c) PISAT

d) NLS-19
48. The lift off mass of PSLV-XL is

a) 230000 kgs
b) 295000
c) 640000 kgs
d) 320000 kgs
49. Identify which of the following is paired incorrectly

a) Antrix Corporation Ltd-1992
b) Space Commission-1972
c) Department of Space — 1972
d) Indian Space Research Organization-August, 1962
50. Which of the following nstrtution is involved in development of LVM-TH and

Reusable launch
a) Satish Dhawan Space Centre
b) SpaceApplications Centre
c) Master Control Facility
d) Vrkram Sarabhai Space Centre
51. Which of the Mowing organization is responsible for Telemedicine, Tele

Education etc.
a) Vikram Sarabhai Sapce Centre
b) Space Application Centre
c) Development and Educational Communication Unit
d) Laboratory for Electro-Optics Systems
52. Indian Institute of Remote Sensing is located in

a) Ahmedabad
b) Dehradun
c) Gadanki
d) Shillong
53. Which of the following is not a Communication Satellite

a) INSAT-4B

b) JNSAT-4CR
c) GSAT-6
d) RISAT-I
54. Which of the following is not a payload of PSLV-C37

a) Cartosat-2D
b) Nayif-I
c) LEMUR
d) Pathfinder
55. Which of the following is a commercial launch to place the payloads from
Singapore into their orbits
a) PSLV-C31
b) PSLV-C30
c) PSLV-C29
d) PSLV-C28
56. India’s rank in the world after launching PSLV-C34 in launching, highest
payloads in a single launch is
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
57. Which of the following is a payload of PSLV-C36

a) Cartosat-2D
b) Resource Sat-2A
c) Scatsat-I
d) Pratham
58. Which of the following is an exclusive meteorological satellite

a) Cartosat-2
b) Kalpana-I
c) Resource Sat-2A
d) SARAL

59. Which of the following is incorrectly paired according to their altitudes

a) Low Earth Orbits -120 km-2000 kms
b) Medium Earth Orbits - 2000 km - 35,786 km
c) Polar Synchronous Orbits – 2000 km above
d) Geostationary Orbits - 35,786 km above
60. The International Space Station is in

a) Low Earth Orbit
b) Medium Earth Orbit
c) Polar Synchronous Orbit
d) Geostationary Orbit
61. Earth observation Satellites will be placed in

a) LEO
b) MEO
c) GSO
d) Polar Orbits
62. Match the followings
List I LIST II
a) Space Exploration 1) IRNSS
b) Navigational Services 2) IRS
c) Communications 3) ASTROSAT
d) Remote Sensing 4) INSAT
A B C D
a) 2 1 4 3
b) 3 4 1 2
c) 3 1 4 2
d) 3 2 4 1

List I LIST II
A. GLONASS 1 USA
B. Global Positioning System 2 European Union
C. Galileo 3 China
D. Beidou Navigational Satellite System 4 Russia
A B C D
A. 2 1 3 4
B. 3 1 2 3
C. 2 1 4 3
D. 4 1 3 4
List I LIST II
a) IRNSS 1A 1 PSLV-C24
b) IRNSS 1B 2 PSLV-C22
c) IRNSS 1 E 3 PSLV-C33
d) IRNSS 1 G 4 PSLV-C31
A B C D
a) 2 4 1 3
b) 2 1 3 4
c) 2 1 4 3
d) 1 2 3 4
List I LIST II
a) Chandrayaan 1 PSLV-C33
b) Managalyaan 2 PSLV-C34
c) Astrosat 3 PSLV-C25
d) IRNSS 1 G 4 PSLV-C11
A B C D

a) 2 3 1 4
b) 4 2 3 1
c) 4 3 1 2
d) 4 3 2 1
List I LIST II
A. IRS-P4 1 Cartosat-2
B. IRS-P5 2 Resourcesat-I
C. IRS-P6 3 Oceansat-I
D. IRS-P7 4 Cartosat-I
A B C D
a) 1 4 2 3
b) 1 4 3 2
c) 3 4 2 1
d) 3 4 1 2
List I LIST II
a) Pratham 1 IIT, Kanpur
b) Swayam 2 IIT, Bombay
c) Jugnu 3 Anna University, Tamilanadu
d) ANUSAT 4 College of engineering, Pune
A B C D
A. 2 3 1 4
B. 2 4 1 3
C. 2 1 3 4
D. 2 4 3 1
68. In view of METSAT, which of the following Statement is correct?

Statement -I: It was renamed after Kalpna Chawla

Statement -II: It was launched by PSLV-C4
A. Only I
B. Only II
C. Both I and II
D. Neither I nor II
69. Which of the following Statements) is / are true for IRNSS

Statement -I: IRNSS is renamed as NAVIC
Statement-II: In 2017, the all atomic clocks of IRNSS-1A have failed
a) Only I
b) b)Only II
c) Both I and II
d) Neither I nor II
70. Which of the following is / are true about PSLV-C37

Statement -I: It is the thirty ninth flight of PSLV.
Statement -II: It is the thirty eighth successfull flight of PSLV
a) Only I
b) Only ll
c) Both I and II
d) Neither I nor II
71. Whcih of the following Statement is true is

Statement-I: Stage I of GSLV includes Solid State Hydroxyl Terminated Poly
Butadiene.
Statement-II: Stage H of GSLV includes Unsymmetrical Di-Methyl Hydrazine in
Solid form
a) Only I
b) Only ll
c) Both I and II
d) Neither I nor II
72. Which of the following Statement is true?

Statement -1: Mangalyaan is the first interplanetary mission of India.
Statement -II: India is the first Asian Nation to reach mars.
Statement-Ill: India is the first Nation in the world to reach mars in its first
attempt.
a) Only I and II
b) Only II and III

c) Only I and III

d) I, II and III
73. Which of the following is/are not valid

Statement -1: Cryogenic upper stage has been seen with GSLV
Statement –II : We are using indigenous CUS in GSLV Mk H
Statement-IIl: GSLV achieved 50% of successful launches
a) Only I and III
b) Only II and III
c) Only I and III
d) I, II and III
74. Find the Correct Statement

Statement-I: Chandrayaan-1 is the first lunar probe of India.
Statement -II: India is the fourth country to place its flag on moon.
Statement-III: The probe hit the moon near Shackelton
a) I, II and III
b) Only l and III
c) Only II and III
d) Only I and II
75. Identify the correct Statement / Statements.

Statement-I: PSLV-C34 launched 20 satellites in single launch.
Statement-II: India become the third country to launch highest satellites into
their orbits. Statement-Ill: PSLV-C37 has launched 104 satellites and stood first in
launching highest number of satellites in the world.
A. Only I and II, III
B. Only I and II
C. Only I and III
D. Only II and III
76. Choose the correct Statement / Statements.

Statement -I: PSLV-C29 is the sixth commercial launch.
Statement-II: PSLV-C29 launched six Singapore satellites into their corresponding
orbits. Statement-III: Astrosat is considered as Mini Hubble,
a) Only I and II
b) Only II and III
c) Only I and III
d) I, II and III
77. The following is/are not a wrong Statement / Statements.

Statement—I: RLV—TD is the first unmanned flying test bet of Lidia.

Statement -II: It was tested on 23 May, 2016.
Statement-III: It can launch a satellite like a rocket and return to earth like an
aeroplane,
a) I, II and III
b) Only I and II
c) Only I and III
d) Only II and III
78.Identify the incorrect Statement/Statements.

Statement -I: Edusat is the first Educational Satellite of India.
Statement-II: Edusat is also designated as GSAT-4.
Statement-III: It was launched on 20 October 2004.
a) I, II and III
b) Only I and II
c) Only I and III
d) Only II and III
79. Indigenous Cryogenic upper stage is used in

Statement-I: GSLVD3
Statement-II: GSLVD5
Statement-III: GSLVD6
Statement-IV: GSLVF05
a) I, II and III
b) Only II ,III and IV
c) Only I and III, IV
d) All of the above
80. Consider the following Statements, identify the true statements

Statement -1: Master Control Facility Centre located at Dehradun.
Statement-II: It was established in 1982.
Statement-III: controlling and monitoring the satellites launched by ISRO is its
responsibilities
a) I, II and III
b) Only I and III
c) Only II and III
d) Only II, I
81. Consider the following in respect of Pratham

Statement -I: It is an Indian Ionospheric Research Satellite.

Statement -II: It will be operated by HT, Bombay.

Statement-III: It is the payload of PSLV-C36
a) I, II and III
b) Only I and II
c) Only I and III
d) Only II, III
82. Consider the following in respect of GAGAN

Statement-I: GAGAN—GPS Aided Geo Augmented Navigation.
Statement -II: Its payloads were carried by GSAT 8, GSAT-10 and GSAT-15.
Statement-III: It is Regional Satellite based Augmentation System by Airport
Authority of
India and Government of India.
a) I and II
b) Only I and III
c) Only II and III
d) All of the above

Nuclear energy
1. The process of splitting of a heavy nucleus into lighter nucleus by bombarding

with neutrons is
a) Radio Activity
b) Nuclear Fusion
c) Nuclear Fission
d) Radio Active decay
2. Identify the Isotope which is useful in curing of Cancer

1. Radio Cobalt
2. Radio Cesium
3. Radio Iridium
a) Only 1,2
b) Only 2,3
c) Only 1,3
d) 1,2 and 3
3. The production of Radio Isotopes have been started with the establishment of
the research reactor
a) Apsara
b) Cirus
c) Kamini
d) Dhruva
4. India's first nuclear test was conducted on

a) 18 May,1974
b) 14 May, 1974
c) 15 May,1975
d) 16 May ,1974
5. India's first nuclear research reactor is

a) Apsara
b) Pumima
c) Zeriina
d) Dhruva
6. The following reactor was based on CANDU reactor

a) KudanKulam
b) Cirus
c) RAPP-I
d) RAPP-II
7. Atomic Minerals Directorate of Exploration and research established at

a) Kolkata
b) Bangalore
c) Hyderabad
d) Kalpakkam
8. The following is intended for the mining of Uranium to the reactors of India
a) India Rare Earth Ltd.
b) Nuclear Power Corporation of India Ltd
c) Uranium Corporation of India Ltd
d) Nuclear Fuel Complex
9. The total installed capacity of Indian Reactors is

a) 5780 MW
b) 6780 MW
c) 7680 MW
d) 7580 MW
10. The organization which is established for the construction of fast breed
reactors
a) Kudamkular Atomic Power Project
b) BharatiyaNabiMyaVidyathNigamLtd.
c) Atomic Energy Education Society
d) Board of Research in Nuclear Sciences
11. The largest Uranium Exporting country in the world

a) USA
b) France
c) Canada
d) Australia

12. The CANDU type reactor was installed in which of the following Nuclear
Power Plant
a) Kaiga
b) kakrapar
c) Narora
d) Rawatbhata
13. The following is the Plutonium based reactor

a) Dhrava
b) cirus
c) Pumima-I
d) Pumima-II
14. India’s second Nuclear Weapons Test was conducted in

a) 18 May, 1974
b) 11 May,1974
c) 11 May, 1998
d) 18 May,1998
15. The following is considered as the Newton Source Reactor

a) Dhrava
b) Zerlina
c) Pumima
d) Kamini
16. The second Nuclear Weapons Test was headed by

a) AtalBihari Vajpayee
b) Dr. Manmohan singh
c) APJ Abdul Kalam
d) K.R. Narayanan
17. Which is the largest research reactor in India?

a) Kamini
b) cirus
c) Dhrava
d) FB TR
18. India’s three stage Nuclear power programme was formulated by
a) APJ Abdul Kalam

b) Vikram Sarabhai

c) Horni Bhabha
d) Jawaharlal Nehru
19. Which stage of India's three stage nuclear programme designed for U-233
fuelled reactors?
a) Stage-I
b) Stage-II
c) Stage-I and ll
d) Stage-III
20. The reactors which breed more fuel than they consume
a) Boiled water reactors
b) Pool type reactors
c) Breeder Reactors
d) A and B
21. Nuclear Radiation is measured--------units

a) MW
b) Watts
c) MeV
d) Rutherford
22. The smallest unit of Nuclear Radiation is

a) Rutherford
b) Becquerel
c) Curie
d) farad
Note: SI Units: 1 Becquerel= one disintegration/second; CGS Units: 1 Curie - 3.7 x
1010 disintegration/second; 1 Rutherford = 106 disintegration/second)
23. Controllers of Nuclear reactors involved in

a) Reducing the speed of neutrons
b) absorbing neutrons completely
c) Absorbing the excess neutrons
d) Stopping the reactor

24. Thorium based reactors were established in India during _________of the
India’s 3-stage nuclear programme.
a) Stage-I
b) Stage-II
c) Stage-III
d) Stage-I and II
25. The term that indicates the chain reaction that has been established in a
nuclear reactor is
a) criticality
b) radio activity
c) decay
d) b and c
26. The following is not the fissible fuel

a) Uranium-235
b) Uranium-238
c) Uranium-233
d) Uranium-239
27. In second generation or Stage II reactors Uranium-238 transmutes to

a) Uranium-238
b) Uranium-235
c) Plutonium-239
d) Thorium
28. By introducing this radioactive element in second stage reactors will give
Uranium-233
a) Plutonium-239
b) Thorium
c) Uranium-238
d) Uranium-235

29. Nuclear energy is measured in _______units

a) curie
b) Becqueral
c) MeV
d) MW
30. The isotopes have

a) different atomic number
b) Same mass number
c) different positions in periodic table
d) common chemical properties
31. The following absorbs neutrons and led to the formation of fissionable
material is
a) Fissile material
b) Moderators
c) Fertile material
d) Controllers
32. Which of the following is a fertile material

a) Uranium-234
b) Uranium-233
c) Uranium-235
d) Plutonium-239
33. The most commonly used material for shielding is

a) Lead
b) graphite
c) cadmium
d) iron
34. Moderators in nuclear reactors are intended to

a) heat exchangers
b) control the speed of fast moving neutrons
c) reduce the temperature of reactor
d) control the chain reaction

35. The by-product from Stage I reactors of India is

a) Uranium-235
b) Uranium-238
c) Plutonium-239
d) Uranium-233
36. Stage I reactors of India are_____based reactors

a) Natural Uranium
b) Uranium-233
c) Thorium
d) Plutonium-239
37. Which of the following is responsible in the exploration of Uranium?

a) NPCIC
b) UCIC
c) AMD
d) IGCAR
38. Choose the odd one in view of technical assistance for the reactors of India
a) Trapur-USA
b) Kudankullam-Russia
c) Jaitapur-France
d) Rawatbhata-Hdigenous
39. Converting one chemical element into other is called

a) Transformation
b) Radioactivity
c) Galvanization
d) Carbonification
40. Identify which of the following is paired incorrectly in view of their capacity
a) ZERLINA-100 watt

b) APSARA-1MWT
c) DHRUVA-100 MW
d) PFBR-50 MW
41. KAMINI reactor achieved its criticality on

a) 29 October, 1996
b) 30 October 1996
c) 28 October, 1996
d) 31 October 1996
42. Isotope means

a) Same mass number
b) The same place
c) Same chemical properties
d) Same mass number and properties
43. Identify the wrongly associated pair

a) ECIL-Hyderabad
b) UCIL- Singhbhum
c) NPCIL-Bengaluru
d) BHAVINI- Kalpakkam
44. The following organization is not located in Mumbai

a) Atomic Energy Commission
b) Heavy Water Board
c) Horni Bhabha National Institute
d) Variable Energy Cyclotran Centre
45. Department of Atomic Energy was established in

a) 1948
b) 1952
c) 1954
d) 1956
46. The following reactors doesn't constitute heat exchangers

a) Gas Cooled Reactor

b) Water Cooled Reactor

c) Boiling Water Reactors
d) Liquid Metal Cooled Reactor
47. The energy policies of India will be framed by

a) Department of Atomic Energy
b) NPCIL
c) Atomic Energy Commission
d) AMD
48. Xenon -135 is a

a) Controller
b) Moderator
c) Coolant
d) Neutron poison
49. Deuterium Oxide is used as a

a) Controller
b) Shielding element
c) Neutron Poison
d) Coolant
50. The presence of Helium will be seen in

a) Water Cooled Reactors
b) Boiled water reactors
c) Gas Cooled Reactors
d) Liquid metal cooled reactors
51. The following organization is responsible in producing of isotopes

a) UCEL
b) VECC
c) NPCIL
d) AMD
52. The following is the source of alpha, beta and gamma emissions
a) Americium

b) Strontium
a) Radium
b) Titanium
53. Boiled Water Reactors were established in

a) Tarapur Atomic Power Station
b) Rajasthan Atomic Power Station
c) Kaiga Generating Station
d) Kundankullam Atomic Power Project
54. Which of the following reactors are established in Kundankullam Atomic

Power Project?
a) BWR
b) Pool Type
c) PHWR
d) WER
55. The highest number of reactors were established in the following plant
a) Rajasthan Atomic Power Station
a) Tarapur Atomic Power Station
b) Kaiga Generating Station
c) Kakrapar Atomic Power Station
56. Which of the following is incorrectly associated?

a) Tarapur Atomic Power Station-Maharastra
b) Kakrapar Atomic Power Station-Gujarath
c) Narora Atomic Power Station-Kamataka
d) Kaiga Nuclear Power Plant-Karnataka
57. The following is a Plutonium based reactor

a) Pumima-2
b) CIRUS
c) APSARA
d) Pumimar-1
58. Which of the following is a neutron source reactor?

a) Pumima-1

b) KAMINI
c) ZERLINA
d) APSARA
59. Which of the following radio isotope will be used in Household smoke
detectors?
a) Radium
b) Americium-0241
c) Strontium-90
d) Carbon-14
60. Arrange the following Radio isotopes according to their half lifes in ascending
order Uranium, Carhon-14, Tritium, and Polonium-210
a. Polonium, Tritium, Uranium, Carbon-14
b. Polonium, Tritium, Caibon-14, Uranium
c. Tritium, Polonium, Uranium, Carbon-14
d. Tritium, Polonium, Caibon-14, Uranium
61. Match the following

List-I List-II
A) Apsara l) 1960
B) Cirus II) 1985
C) Kamini III) 1956
D) Dhruva iv) 1996
ABCD
a) ii iv ii i
b) iii i ii iv
c) iii iv i ii
d) iii i iv ii

List-I List-II
A) HWP, Thai I) Rajasthan
B) HWP, Hazira ii) Odisha
C) HWP, Kota iii) Gujarath
D) HWP, Talcher iv) Maharashtra

ABCD
a) iv ii i iii
b) iv ii iii i
c) iv iii i ii
d) iv iii ii i

List-I List-II
A) Heavy Water Board i) Bhubaneswar
B) Nuclear Fuel Complex II) Gandhi Nagar
C) Institute of Physics iii) Hyderabad
D) Institute of Plasma Research iv) Mumbai
ABCD
a) iii i iv ii
b) iii iv i ii
c) iv iii i ii
d) iv iii ii i
64. Match the following Nuclear Power Plants with their assisted country
List-I List -II
A) Jaithapur i) Canda
B) Kudankulam ii) USA
C) Tarapur iii) Russia
D) Rawathbhata iv) France
ABCD
a) ii iii iv i
b) iv iii ii i
c) ii iii i iv
d) iv iii ii i


List-I List-II
A) Narora Atomic Power Station l) Gujarath
B) Kaiga Generating Station ii) Maharashtra
C) Kakrapar Atomic Power Station iii) Uttar Pradesh
D) Tarapur Atomic Power Station iv) Karnataka
ABCD
a) iii iv i ii
b) ii iv i iii
c) iv iii i ii
d) iv ii i iii
66. Match the following in view of India's Three-Stage Nuclear Power Programme
List -I List-II
Stage-I i) Thorium based reactor
Stage-II ii) Pressurised heavy water reactor
Stage-III iii) Fat breeder reactor
A BC
a) ii iii i
b) ii i iii
c) iii ii i
d) iii i ii
67. Match the following in view of India's Three-Stage Nuclear Power Programme
List-I list II
a) Stage-I i. Thorium based reactor
b) Stage-II ii. Pressurised heavy water reactor
c) Stage-III I iii. Fat breeder reactor
ABC
a) i ii iii
b) ii i iii
c) iii ii i
d) ii iii i

List-I List-II
A) Variable Energy Cyclotran i) Bhubaneswar
B) Raja Ramanna Centre for advanced Tech… II) Gandhi Nagar
C) ECIL iii) Hyderabad
D) Uranium Corporation of India ltd iv) Mumbai
ABCD
a) iii i iv ii
b) iii iv i ii
c) iv iii i ii
d) iv iii ii i
69. Choose the valid Statements

Statement -1: Variable Energy Cyclotran Center is intended for the production of
Isotopes indigenously.
Statement -2: With the establishment of Dhruva and Cirus India became the major
producer of Isotopes
Statement-3: The research reactors were established at BARC and IGCAR.
a) Only 1, 2 and 3
b) Only 1 and 2
c) Only 1 and 3
d) Only 2 and 3
70. The following research reactors were established at BARC Trombay.

a) Zeriina
b) Pumima
c) Dhruva
d) Kamini
71. Consider the following Statements in respect of Chicago Pile-1

Statement -1: It is the first nuclear reactor in the world.
Statement -2: It was constructed by Enrico Fermi in 1942.
a) 1 Only
b) Only 2
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None of them
72. Choose the correct one in respect of neutron poison

Statement -1: These are neutron-absorbing materials.

Statement -2: Xenon-135 is used as neutron poison.

a) Only 1
b) Only 2
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None of them
73. Which is true in respect of neutron moderator?

Statement -1: Neutron moderator reduces the speed of fast neutrons produced in the
nuclear reactor.
Statement -2: It Normal water, Beryllium and heavy water have been used as neutron
moderators Statement-3: Most of the world's reactors are using Beryllium as moderator,
a) Only 1, 2 and 3
b) Only 2 and 3
c) Only 1 and 3
d) Only 2 and 3
74. Assertion: Most of the World’s reactors are using normal water as coolant
Reason: Water has highest specific heat capacity.
a) R is the correct reason for A
b) R is not the correct reason for A
c) A is true, but R is false
d) A is false, but R is true
75. Assertion: Natural Uranium based first generation reactors were not convenient for
India.
Reason: India has insufficient natural Uranium reserves.
c) A is true, but R is false
d) A is false, but R is true
76. Choose the correct one in respect of control rods.

Statement -1: Control rods can control the fission rate of Uranium and Plutonium.
Statement -2: Boron, Silver, Indium and Cadmium have been used as control rods
a) Only 1
b) Only 2
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None of them
77. Identify the correct statement

Assertion: Fast breeder reactors are highly convenient for India.

Reason: Breeder Reactors can produce their fuel on their own.
c) A is true and R is false
d) A is false but R is true
Note: Even though breeder reactors can produce their fuel on their own, here India has
large thorium reserves to produce the nuclear fuel from these breeder reactors, which is
highly convenient for India.
78. Choose the correct one in respect of Kamini.

Statement -1: It is a research reactor at IGCAR, Kalpakkam.
Statement-2: It uses Uranium-233 as its fuel.
Statement-3. As of 2006, it is the only Thorium based experimental reactor
a) Only 1, 2 and 3
b) Only 1 and 2
c) Only 1 and 3
d) Only 2 and 3
79. Identify the correct statement in respect of shielding

Statement-1: Shielding protects from leakage of radiation into the environment
Satement-2: Aluminium, lead concrete used in constructing the shielding.
a) Only 1
b) Only 2
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None of them
80. Choose the correct statement

Statement-1: India's first nuclear weapons test was conducted in 1974.
Statement-2: Its code name was smiling Budha
a) Only 1
b) Only 2
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None of them
81. Choose the correct statement

Statement -1: India's first proto type fast breeder reactor being constructed at MAPS-
Kalpakkam.
Statement -2: Expected in October 2017
a) Only 1

b) Only 2
c) Both 1 and 2
d) None of them

Missiles
1. The following is an SAM
a) Trishul
b) Brahmos
c) Prithvi
d) Astra
2. The following is not a tacticle ballistic missle(TBM)

a) Prahar
b) Hatf II
c) Abdali
d) Agni
3. DRDO was formed in

a) 1982
b) 1958
c) 1985
d) 1952
4. Brahmos missiles programme aims at creating a range of the following

missile system
a) Yakhont
b) Barak
c) K-15
d) Sagarika
5. The following is an intermediate range ballistic missile (IRBM)

a) Prithvi
b) Agni-III
c) Agni-V
d) Sagarika
6. India's first major project in developing surface to air missiles (SAM) is

a) Project Valiant
b) Project Devil
c) A and b

d) Project Indigo
7. The missile that was not developed under IGMDP is

a) Prithvi
b) Agni-II
c) Agni-IV
d) Nag
8. Exercise Rudra Akrosh was carried out to test the preparedness levels of
units of
Indian Armed Force in the month of
a) April 2012
b) May 2012
c) June 2012
d) July 2012
9. Long range surface to air missile (LRS AM) Barak-8 is the air defence
missile system
for both India and militaries
a) Russia
b) France
c) Israel
d) Brazil
10.Prahar is a solid fueled surface to surface guided missile its range is

a) 75 km
b) 150 km
c) 225 km
d) 300 km
11.The Armed Forces special powers act was declared first time in Manipur
in the year
a) 1979
b) 1980
c) 1981
d) 1982

12.The following Exerciese(s) is/are jointly conducted since 2005 between--

---------India and USA.
a) Exercise Shatrujeeth
b) Exercise Yudh Abhyas
c) a and b
d) Exercise Nomadic Elephant
13.The combined army and police counter - insurgency operation against

the naxalites in West Bengal is
a) Operation Pawan
b) Operation Steeple chase
c) Operation Bluestar
d) Operation Viraat
14.The equivalent military rank of Lieutenant Colnel in Indian Army to that

in Indian Navy is
a) Wing Commander
b) Group Captain
c) Commander
d) Commoder
15.The Indian Armed Forces Medical College (AFMC) is responsible for

providing the Entire Pool of medical staff to the Armed Forces by giving
them in service training. It is located In
a) Sainik Puri
b) Pune
c) New Delhi
d) Mhow
16.The college of Defence Management (CDM) is located at

a) Chennai
b) Pune
c) Sainik Puri
d) Mhow

17.The highest wartime gallantry award is

a) Ashoka Chakra
b) Param Vir Chakra
c) Maha Vir Chakra
d) Vir Chakra
18.Sagarika is being carried with

a) Sukanya Class patrol vehicle
b) Arihant class submarines
c) Brahmaputra class frigates
d) Rajputra class destroyers
19.INS Jalashwa is a
a) Frigate
b) Destroyer
c) Amphibious transport dock
d) Aircraft carrier
20.The training command of Indian Air force located at

a) Chennai
b) Bangalore
c) Nagapur
d) Shilling
21.The following organization is not operated jointly by the Indian Armed

Forces
a) The National Defence Academy
b) The Defence Services Staff College
c) Counter Insurgency and Jungle Warfare School
d) The College of Defence Management

22.Operation Goodwill is
a) Humanitarian tasks in Manipur
b) Humanitarian tasks in Nagaland
c) Flushing out Bodo millitants in Assam
d) Humanitarian task in Jammu & Kashmir
23.Special Protection Group was formed for "providing proximate security

to the Prim Minister of India the former Prime Ministers and members
of their immediate families" in the year
a) 1957
b) 1958
c) 1988
d) 1989
24.Commando Battalion for Resolute Act (COBRA) is

a) To guard the land boarders of the country
b) guarding duties on the boarder with China
c) to guard Indo-Nepal and Indo-Bhutan Boarders
d) an Anti-Naxalite force
25.Which is an elite counter terrorist and rapid response force

a) Special Protection Group
b) National Security Guard
c) Sashastra Seema Bal
d) Central Reserve Police Force
26.Choose the incorrectly paired statement

a) DRDO-1958
b) Project Indigo-1960
c) IGMDP-1980
d) Project Devil-1960
27.Agni-V is

a) considered as IRBM
b) successfully test fired on 19 April 2015
c) a canister launched missile
d) a joint venture of India and Russia
28.Agni- II is
a) An MRBM
b) An IRBM
c) An ICBM
d) A submarine launched missile
29.The following is not a SAM

a) Akash
b) Trishul
c) Astra
d) Barak
30.Prahar is
a) a surface air missile
b) a liquid fuelled missile
c) a S-S missile with a range 150 km
d) an AAM with a range 150km
31.Which of the following is not a surface to surface missile

a) Prahar
b) Barak
c) Ptilhvi
d) Shourya
32.Astra is
a) a surface-surface missile
b) a surface air missile
c) an air-air missile
d) a air-surface missile

33.The missile which is a complement of European missile MILAN is

a) Barak
b) Nag
c) Astra
d) Prithvi
34.Helina is
a) a Air Defence System
b) a BMD system
c) Anti Satellite missile
d) Helicopter launched Nag missile
35.Which of the following is an anti- sea skimmer

a) Nag
b) Akash
c) Trishul
d) Agni- V
36.Choose the incorrectly paired statement

a) Trishul-SAM
b) Prithvi-SSM
c) Barak-SAM
d) Prahar-AAM
37.Choose the incorrectly associated pair

a) Astra-125 km
b) Helinar-7km
c) Trishul-9km
d) Brahmos-270 km
38.Ramjet air breathing propulsion system is equipped with---------missile

a) Trishul
b) Nag

c) Akash
d) Astra
39.The missile which will be used to place mini satellites for battle field use
is
a) Rohini
b) Agni-V
c) Prahaar
d) Barak
40.Rohini is
a) an AAM missile
b) an AS AT weapon
c) famous radar of India
d) a Ballistic Missile Defence System
41.Indigenous remotely piloted high speed target drone system is

a) Nishant
b) Lakshya
c) Aqun
d) Piraka
42.Which of the following is incorrectly paired

a) BDL-Hyderabad
b) BEL - Bengaluru
c) HAL-Bengaluru
d) MIDHANI - Mumbai
43.Choose the incorrectly paired statement with their equivalent ranks of

Indian Navy to that of Indian Army
a) Admiraf-General
b) Captain-Colonel

c) Lieutenant-Flight Lieutenant
d) Commander-Brigadier
44.The college of Defence Management is a Ministry of Defence Sponsored

Institute located in
a) Khadakwala
b) Secunderabad
c) Pune
d) Mhow
45.Which of the following Army Command is incorrectly paired

a) Southern -Jaipur
b) northern- Udhampur
c) Headquarter-New Delhi
d) Eastern- Kolkata
46.The highest rank of Indian Army is

a) Field Marshal
b) Chief of Army Staff
c) Marshal
d) Admiral of fleet
47.Exercise Shakti, a joint exercise of Indian and France started from

a) 2008
b) 2003
c) 2011
d) 2014
48.Exercise Normadic Elephant is a joint exercise of India and Army

a) USA
b) Mongolia
c) Japan

d) France
49.Identify the incorrectly paired statement

a) Aircraft carrier - INS Vikramaditya
b) Landing ship tanks- INS Shardul
c) Frigates - INS Jalashwa
d) Destroyers- INS Rajputh
50.INS-Sahyadri is a
a) Destroyer
b) Ship
c) Frigate
d) Patrol vessel
51.Rajputh class Destroyers were built by

a) Ukraine
b) Indigenous
c) Russia
d) GRSE
52.The following patrol vessels are jointly developed by India and South
Korea
a) Sarayu class
b) Sukanya class
c) Carnikobar class
d) Bangaram class
53.Which of the following submarine was exploded and sank on 14 August

2013
a) INS Sindhudhwaj
b) WS Sindhu Vijay
c) INS Shishumar
d) INS Sindhu Rakshak

54.INS Astradharani is a
a) Torpedo Recovery Vehicle
b) Fleet Tanker
c) Destroyer
d) Corvette
55.India's Akula class nuclear powered attack submarine INS Chakra

obtained from
a) Ukraine
b) Russia
c) South Korea
d) Israel
56.The military operation carried out during Mumbai attacks in 2008 is

a) Operation Cyclone
b) Operation Cactus
c) Operation Goodwill
d) Operation Surya Hope
57.The following operation is not against LTTE in Srilanka

a) Operation Pawan
b) Operation All out
c) Operation Viraat
d) Operation Trishul
58.Choose the incorrectly paired statement from the following

a) Operation Pawan-1987
b) Operation Viraat-1987
c) Operation Trishul-1988
d) Operation Checkmate-1988
59.Which of the following is a relief mission in quake-frit Nepal

a) Operation Black-Tomedo
b) Operation Maitri

c) Operation Rajiv
d) Operation Surya Hope
60.Eagle mission 4 is also known as

a) Operation Poomalai
b) Operation Safed Sagar
c) Operation Rahat
d) Operation Maitri
61.Match the following in view of types of missiles

List-I List-II
A) surface-surface I) Brahmos
B) air –surface II) Aakash
C) surface -air III) Astra
D) Air to Air IV) prithvi
ABCD
a) IV I II III
b) II I IV III
c) IV I III II
d) II I III IV
62.Match the following as per their ranges
List-I List-II
A) tactical ballistic missiles I) 300-3500km
B) threatre ballistic missiles II) 3500-5500km
C) intermediate range ballistic missiles III) 5500km and above
D) intercontinental ballistic missiles IV) 150-300 km
ABCD
a. IV II I III
b. I II IV III
c. IV I II III
d. I IV II III
63.Match the following in respect of their established years

List-I List-II
A) project Indigo I) 1970
B) project Devil II) 1980
C) integrated guided missile development III) 1960
ABC
A. II I III
B. I II III
C. III I II
D. I III II
64.Match the following in view of types of missiles

List-I List-II
A) Agni –I I) BVRAAM
B) Agni-II II) ICBM
C) Agni-III III) IRBM
D) Astra IV)SRBM
ABCD
A. II III IV I
B. IV III II I
C. III II IV I
D. III IV II I
65.Match the following in accordance to their moto

List-I List-II
A) Indian Airforce I) Service before self
B) Indian Navy II) touch the sky with glory
C) Indian Army III) may the lord of water be auspicious unto us
ABC
A. III I II
B. III II I
C. II III I
D. II III I
66.Match the following

List-I List-II
A) National defence academy I) Gaya
B) Indian military academy II) Pune
C) Officers training academy III) Shimla
D) Army training command IV)Dehradun
ABCD
A. II III I IV
B. II I IV III
C. II I III IV
D. II IV I III
67.Match the following joint naval exercise b/w Indian and the according
countries
List-I List-II
A) Exercise Varun I) Singapore
B) Exercise Simbex II) USA
C) Exercise Malbar III) Russia
D) Exercise Indra IV)France
ABCD
A. III I IV II
B. III I II IV
C. IV I II III
D. II I IV III
68.Match the following

List-I List-II
A) Hindustan Aeronautics Ltd I) Hyderabad
B) Bharat Dynamics Ltd II) Bengaluru
C) Mazagon Dock Ltd III) Kolkata
D) Garden reach ship builders& engineers IV) Mumbai
ABCD
A. III II IV I
B. III I IV II

C. II III IV I
D. II I IV III
69.Match the following operations with mounted years

List-I List-II
A) Operation Vijay I) 2015
B) Operation Maitri II) 1961
C) Operation Surya Hope III) 2016
D) India Surgical strike IV) 2013
ABCD
A. II I IV III
B. IV I II III
C. I II IV III
D. I IV II III
70.An intercontinental ballistic missile (ICBM) consists of

Statement-I: The powered flight portion
Statement -II: The free flight portion.
Statement -III: The re-entry phase,
A. Only I and II
B. Only I and III
C. Only II and III
D. I, II and II
71.Theatre ballistic missiles are meant for

Statement-I: It targets medium range missiles.
Statement -II: it means the entire localized region for military operations
Statement-III: Agni-V, Minuteman (USA) are used as theatre ballistic
missiles
A. I II and III
B. Only I and II
C. Only II and III
D. Only I and III

72.Defence Research and Development organization (DRDO) was formed in

195b by the merger of
Statement-I: Technical Development Establishment
Statement -II: Directorate of Technical Development and Production
Statement-III: Defence Science Organization
A. I, II and III
B. Only I and II
C. Only I and III
D. Only II and III
73.Identify the valid statement in respect of Brahmos

Statement -I: It is a cruise missile used against terrestrial targets
Statement -II: It is a supersonic missile
Statement -III: It is a joint venture between India and Russia
Statement-IV: Another, supersonic Brahmos-II is underdevelopment
A. I, II, III and IV
B. Only I, II and III
C. Only I, III and IV
D. Only II, III and IV
74.Identify the correct statement(s) in view of Prithvi

Statement -I: Prithvi is the first missile developed under integrated guided
missile development programme.
Statement -II: It is a medium range surface-to-surface missile
Statement-III: It has single stage, with liquid propellant to strike the targets
at a range 350 km
Statement -IV: It has Army, Naval and Airforce Version
A. Only I, II and III
B. Only ll, III and IV
C. Only I, III and IV
D. I, II, III and IV
75.Which of the following statement(s) is/are true in respect of INDRA

Statement -I: It is a bilateral military exercise since 2003
Statement -II: These exercises, conducted jointly by India and Russia
A. Both I and II
B. Only I
C. Only ll
D. Neither I nor II

76.Which of the following statement(s) are true for Sagarika

Statement -I: It is a nuclear capable submarine launched ballistic missile
Statement -II: It strikes the targets at a range of 750 kms
Statement -III: It was developed at Missile Complex of DRDO, Hyderabad
A. Only I and II
B. Only II and III
C. Only I and III
D. I, II and III
77.Choose the correct statement

Statement-I: The first President's fleet review hosted on 10 October 1953
Statement -II: It was named as Bridges of Friendship
A. Both I and II
B. Only ll
C. Only I
D. Neither l nor ll
78.Identify the correct statement(s) in view of Nag missile

Statement -I: Its land carrier and launcher is Namica
Statement -II: Helicopter launched Nag missile is being developed under
HELINA project
Statement -III: It is a complement of Russian Konkurs and European MILAN
in Indian use
A. I,II and III

B. Only I and II
C. Only I and III
D. Only II and III
79.What are the valid statements for Akash

Statement-I: It is a medium range supersonic surface to air missile system.
Statement-II: It consists of advanced Ramjet Propulsion System
Statement-III: can strike the targets at a range of 25km
A. Only I and II
B. Only I and III
C. Only II and III
D. I, II and III

80.Choose the correct statement(s)

Statement -I. INS Viraat is a centaur class aircraft carrier formerly with
British Navy.
Statement -II: Soon, INS Viraat should be replaced by indigenous INS
VIKRANTH
A. Both I and II
B. Only I
C. Only II
D. Neither I nor II

Computers and ICT

1. The following is not an output device
a) Monitor
b) Printer
c) Magnetic Character Ink Recognition
d) Projector
2. The following is not an input device

a) Scanner
b) Smart Card Reader
c) Optical Character Reader
d) Visual Display Unit
3. Identify from the following which is not a micro computer

a) Palmtop
b) Tablet Computer
c) Laptop
d) IBM 370
4. The following is considered as the backbone for business sector

a) Micro Computers
b) b)Mini Computers
c) Mainframe Computers
d) Sequential Computers
5. Super Computers worked on the basis of

a) Linear Computing
b) Artificial Intelligence
c) Parallel Computing
d) Sequential Computing
6. The world's first super computer was invented by Seymour Cray in the year
a) 1974
b) 1976
c) 1978

d) 1980
7. The language which is a set of instructions executed directly by a computer's

Central Processing Unit is/are
a) High Level Programming Language
b) Assembly Language
c) Machine Language
a) d)a and b
8. The process of converting Assembly Language into executable machine code

by a utility programme is called
a) Execution
b) b)Translation
c) Encryption
d) Assembly
9. The first computer in India is

a) Sidhartha
b) Bhaskara
c) Param
d) Eka
10. The computer which dealt with the physical quantities such as pressure,
temperature etc in
a) Digital Computer
b) Minicomputer
c) Analog Computer
d) Mainframe Computer
11. These computers are meant for some specific purposes like CAD is
a) Microcomputer
b) Minicomputer
c) Mainframe Computer
d) Supercomputer
12. Which is / are considered as the precursor (s) to ARPANET

a) Intergalactic Computer Network
b) Wide Area Network
c) Ethernet, ARC Net

d) Both a and b
13. Ethernet was established in 1973 by

a) Western Electric
b) Robert Metcalfe
c) John Murphy
d) JCR Lick Lider
14. Wide area network was created in 1965 by

a) Thomas Marill, Lawrence G Roberts
b) Robert Metcalfe, David Boggs
c) Norman Abramson his colleagues
d) David Boggs and Norman Abramson
15. The following is not a wired technology to establish a computer network

a) Optical Fiber Cable
b) Twisted Pair Wire
c) Free Space Optical Communication
d) Co-axial cable
16. A computer network that covers a large geographic area is
a) Large Area Network

b) Wide area net work
c) Personal Area Network
d) virtual Private Network
17. SAGA is an Indian Super Computer with a performance of 450 teraflops

built by
a) Centre for Development of Advanced Computing
b) Computational Research laboratories and Hewlett Packard
c) TATA Sons
d) Indian Space Research Organization
18. The super computer with a performance of17.17 peta flops installed at
Lawrence Livermore National Laboratory, Ranked 4 in the 47th top 500 list is
a) Sequoia

b) Titan
c) Sequoia
d) Oak forest
19. The number of super computers installed in China which were listed in the
47th top 500 list
a) 171
b) 168
c) 165
d) 170
20. Which of the following countries are having highest shares of super
computers in the recent top 500 list (as on November 2016?)
a) USA, France
b) USA, China
c) USA, India
d) USA, Japan

List I List-II
a) Sunway Taihulight l) USA
b) Titan II) China
c) K Computer III) Switzerland
d) Piz Diant iv) Japan
ABCD
a) II I IV III
b) II III IV I
c) II I III IV
d) II III I IV

List I List-II
A) EKA i) ISRO
B) SAGA ii)TATA Sons
C) PARAM iii) BARC
D) Anupam iv) C-DAC, Pune
ABCD

a) III I IV II
b) II I IV III
c) I III IV II
d) I II IV III

List I List-II
A) Vikram 100 I) C-DAC
B) Supernova II)Physical Research Lab Wipro
C) Aaditya III) Wipro
D) ISHAN IV) Indian Institute of Tropical
Meterology
ABCD
a) I III II IV
b) II III IV I
c) I III IV II
d) II III I IV

List-I List-II
A) Face Book I) Bharathi Mittal
B) Twitter II) Mark Zuker Berg
C) Whats App III) Jak Dorsey, Noahglass, Evan
D) Hike iV) Jan Koum, Brian Acton
ABCD
e) II I IV III
f) II III IV I
g) II IV I III
h) II IV III I
25. List-I List-II

A) Face Book I) Sanfransico
B) Telegram II) Clifornia
C) Whats App III) Berlin
D) Twitter iV) Mountain View
ABCD

a) II III IV I
b) I II III IV
c) II III I IV
d) II I III IV

First Generation Component used
A) First generation I) Transistors
B) Second generation II) Integrated Circuits
C) Third generation III) Micro Processors
D) Fourth generation IV) Vacuum Tubes
ABCD
a) IV I II III
b) IV III II I
c) IV I III II
d) IV III I II

Communication Network Inventors
A) World Wide Web i) Thomas Marill, Lawrence
B) Eathernet ii) JCR Lick Lider
C) WideAreaNetwork iii) Robert Metacalfe
D) Intergalactic Computer Network iv) Tim Berners Lee
ABCD
A. IV II I III
B. IV II III I
C. IV III I II
D. IV III II I
28 . Match the following

List-I
A) Param8000 I) Bio informatics related HPC
B) ParattiPadma II) Super Computer in a box
C) ParamShavak III) First Super Computer to enter Top 500 list
D) Param Biochrome IV) First giga scale HPC
ABCD

A. IV I II III
B. IV I III II
C. IV III I II
D. IV III II I
29. Identify the true statements

Statement -1: In 1896 Herman Hollerith started Tabulating Machine Company.
Statement-II: Later it was renamed as International Business Machines,
A) I and ll
B) Only l
C) Only ll
D) Neither I nor II
30. Which of the following is correct?

Statement-I: OFC Carries pulses of light that represent data.
Statement -II: The data through Optical Fibre Cable have very low transmission
loss and immunity from electrical interference.
A) Only l
B) Only ll
C) Both I and II
D) Neither I nor II

Statement -I: In 1976 John Murphy created ARCNET
Statement -II: It is a token passing network first used to share storage devices.
A) Only l
B) Only ll
C) Both I and II
D) Neither I nor II
.
32. Choose the correct statements)
Statement -I: Assembly language is a low-level language which is specific to
particular computer architecture.
Statement -II: Assembly language is converted into executable machine code
by an assembler
A) Only l
B) Only ll
C) Both I and II
D) Neither I nor II

33. Choose the valid statement(s) for Cray I

Statement -1. Cray-I is the first super computer in the world.
Statement -2: Cray-I is invented by Seymour Cray in 1976.
A) Both I and II
B) 0nlyI
C) Only II
D) Neither I nor II
34. Which of the following are correct

Statement-I. The first practical integrated circuits were invented by Jack Kilby
and Robert Noyce.
Statement-II: In an integrated circuit, all the components of electronic circuit
are completely integrated.
Statement-III: The invention of IC led to the invention of microprocessor later
A) I, II and III
B) Only I and II
C) Only I and III
D) Only II and II
35. Identify the correct statements.

Statement -I: The computers that were developed during 1964-1971 are
considered as Third generation computer.
Statement -II: In this generation, integrated circuits were introduced.
Statement-III: With the use of ICs, the size become large
A) I, II and III
B) Only I and II
C) Only I and III
D) Only II and II
36. Choose the correct statement(s)

Statement-I: VIRGO is installed at IIT, Madras.
Statement -II: It is having 91.1 tera flops and considered as one of the fastest
cluster in an
Indian academic institution.
A) Only l
B) Only ll
C) Both I and II

D) Neither I nor II
37. Choose the correct statement(s) in view of Param Yuva-II

Statement-I: It was unveiled on 8 February, 2013.
Statement -II: It performs 524 T flops and ranked 62 in the November, 2012,
Top 500 list.
Statement -III: It is the first super computer in India achieving more than 500
Tera Flops
A) Only I
B) Only I and III
C) Only II and III
D) Only I, II and III
38. Identify the true statements) in view of VDCRAM—500

Statement 1: It was inaugurated on 26 June, 2015 by Prof. U.R.Rao
Statement 2: It was installed at Physical Research Laboratory.
Statement 3 : Its performance is more than 100 Tera Flops
A) Only I and II are true

B) Only II and III are true
C) Only I and III are true
D) All are true
39. The following are true for Garuda

Statement-I: Garuda is India's National grid infrastructure of Computer
Systems.
Statement-II: Garuda connects 70 academic & research institutions across
17cities of the country.
Statement -III: Garuda also connected with India's National Knowledge
Network
A) Only I and II are true
B) Only II and III are true
C) Only I and III are true
D) I, II and III are true
40. Illustrating statements) of National Computing facilities by C DAC is/are

Statement-I: National Param Super Computing facility-Pune.
Statement-II: C-DAC's Tera Scale Super Computing facility - Bangalore.

Statement-III: Bio informatics Resources and applications facility-Pune

A) All of the above
B) Only I and II
C) Only II and III
D) Only I and III
41. The following can perform both functions of input device as well as output
device
A) Mouse
B) Joystick
C) OMR
D) Touch Screen
42. Which is incorrect in view of RAM

A) It’s a primary memory
B) It’s a non-volatile memory
C) It’s volatile memory
D) The information in it is not permanent
43. Alan Turning is not involved in

A) he prepared first stored programme computer
B) he gave the principle of the modem computers
C) he proposed universal computing machines
D) be prepared a seminar paper tin computable numbers
44. World’s first commercially available general purpose computer

A) Mark-I
B) Baby
C) Universal Turing Machine
D) Atanasoff-Berry Computer
45. Which of the following is not a modern computer?

A) Baby
B) Marks
C) LEO—I
D) Torpedo data computer
46. The world’s first regular routine office computer job which was became
operational in

April
A) Mark-I
B) Universal Turing Machine
C) LEO-I
D) Baby
47. The first automatic electronic digital computer developed by John Vincent
and Clifford Berry is
A) Z3
B) Mark-I
C) Atanasoff-Berry computer
D) LEO-I
48. The use of transistors by replacing vacuum tubes in computers has been
seen from
A) 1955
B) 1947
C) 1951
D) 1950
49. Which of the following is not a digital computer?

A) LEO-I
B) Torpedo Data Computer
C) 72
D) Z3
50. Which of the following is not a micro computer?

A) Smartphone
B) Tablet
C) HP-9000
D) Notebook
51. IBM-17 is a
A) Micro Computer
B) Mini Computer
C) Mainframe Computer
D) Super Computer
52. Identify, which of the following is incorrectly paired

A) Micro Computer-Tablet
B) Minicomputer- HP 9000
C) Mainframe Computer-IBM 370
D) Super computer –Siddhartha
53. Which of the following statement is incorrectly paired?

A) Cray- I- Seymour cray
B) Param - C-DAC, Pune
C) SAGA-ISRO
D) EKA - Physical Research Laboratory
54. The Super Computer Anupam is designed and developed by

A) Bhabha Atomic Research Centre
B) ISRO
C) Physical Research Laboratory
D) C-DAC
55. CD-ROM was invented by

A) Ted Hoff
B) Philips
C) Stanley Mazor
D) Jack Kilby
56. The world's first Dot Matrix printer was released by

A) IBM
B) HP
C) Intel
D) b & c
57. The manufacturing of Digital electronic computers become easy by the

invention of
A) Punch Cards
B) Electronic valves
C) Nano Tubes
D) Integrated circuits
58. ROM is a
A) secondary memory
B) volatile memory
C) non-volatile memory

D) external memory
59. Computer mouse was invented by

A) Douglas Engelbart
B) Erhard
C) Atherton
D) Bertram Raphael
60. The computer language BASIC was invented by

A) John Kemeny, Thomas Kurtz
B) John Kemeny, Ekart
C) Erhard, Thomas Kurtz
D) Gates, Paul Allen
61. UNIVAC-I is the first commercially successful computer was invented by

A) Presper Eckert, John Mauchly
B) Gates, Paul Allen
C) Erhard, Thomas Kurtz
D) Lee DPorest, Hollerith
62. IBM was established by

A) Herman Hollerith
B) John Henry Patterson
C) Thomas J Watson
D) Presper Eckert
63. Automated Teller Machines were invented by

A) Intel
B) IBM
C) HP
D) Microsoft
64. IBM's personal computer business was acquired by

A) Motorola
B) HP
C) Lenovo
D) Microsoft

65. Difference Engine was invented in 1786 by

A) Charles Babbage
B) John Napier
C) Blaise Pascal
D) John H mullar
66. Identify the incorrectly paired statement in view of their founders.

A) Face book - Mark Zuckerberg
B) Whatsapp-Jan Koum, Brian Acton
C) Twitter—Jack Dorsey, Noah Glass, Bizstone
D) Telegram-Kavin, Bharati Mittal
67. SMS of the Internet is considered as

A) Whats app
B) Twitter
C) Face book
D) Hike
68. Which of the following is a cloud based messaging service

A) Hike
B) Telegram
C) Whats app
D) Twitter
69. Which of the following is incorrectly paired according to their

headquarters?
A) Facebook- California
B) Telegram- Berlin
C) Whatsapp- Japan
D) Twitter- Sanfransisco
70. Trojan Horse is a

A) Social messaging site
B) Malicious computer programme

C) Nigerian prince e-mail

D) 419 scam

Digital India
1. Digital India includes plans to connect rural area with high speed
internet networks. It started on
A. 5 July2015
B. 4July2015
C. 2 July 2015
D. 1 July 2015
2. Universally accessible digital resources will be obtained through the

components of
A. The creation of digital infrastructure
B.Delivery of services digitally
C. a and b
D. digital literacy
3. How many pillars were identified under Digital India?

A. 3
B. 5
C. 9
D. 11
4. Under Broadband for all Rural How many village panchayaths would be
covered?
A. 1,25,000
B. 2,50,000
C. 2,00,000
D. 1,00,000
5. The nodal Department for providing Broadband for all rural village
panchayaths is
A. Department of Technology
B. Department of Science
C. Department of Telecommunications

D. National Optical Fibre Network
6. for the delivery of Government and business services, the multifunctional

end points
which were established at each Gram Panchayath is
A. National Knowledge Network
B. Common Service Centres
C. Government user Network
D. Digital Locker
7. The following would be the nodal agency in implementing common service

centre
A. Department of Posts
B. Department of Panchayath Raj
C. Diety
D. Department of Telecommunications
8. Digital India week was conducted on

A. 1 July2015
B. 7July2015
C. 4 July 2015
D. 2 July 2015
9. The essential Pillar of the India initiative to provide electronic delivery of

services is
A. e- governance
B. e-Kranti
C. Broadband highway
D. Common Service Centre
10. The number of Railway Stations were committed to provide broadband

connectivity by
Google is
A. 200
B. 300
C. 400

D. 500
11. Identify the components of Digital India

Statement-I: The creation of digital infrastructure.
Statement -II: Broadband for all - Rural.
Statement -III: Delivery of Services Digitally.
Statement -IV: Digital Literacy
B. Only I, III and IV
C. Only II, III and IV
D. Only I, II and IV
12. The key principles of e-Kranti are

Statement -I: Transformation and not translation.
Statement-II: Integrated Services and not individual
Statement -III: Security and Electronic Data Preservation
Statement -IV: Language Localization
B. Only II,III and IV
C. Only II, III and IV
D. I, II, III and IV
13. Choose the correct statement in view of e-Kranti

Statement-I: It was approved on 25 March, 2015 with the vision of
transforming e -Govemance for transforming Governance.
Statement -II: There are 44 mission mode projects implemented under e-Kranti
Statement-IIl: 13 Central MMPs, 17 State wide MMPs, 14 Integrated MMPs
were identified
A. Only I and II
B. Only I and III
C. Only II and III
D. I, II and III
14. The Services or facilities which will be provided through Digital India
initiative is/are

Statement-I: Digi Locker

Statement-II: Attendance.gov.in
Statement -III: Social Media and Online Messaging
Statement -IV: SBM Mobile app
A. Only I and II,IV
B. Only II and III,IV
C. Only II,I and III
D. Only II, III and IV
15. Which of the following is/ are valid in view of Digi Locker
Statement-I: It will help citizens to store their documents digitally.
Statement -II: It uses authenticity services provided by Aadhar
Statement -II: The maximum size limit of certificates to be uploaded is 50 MB
A. Only I and III
B. Only II and III
C. Only I and II
D. I, II and III
16. The platform for citizen engagement in governance through discusses, DO

and disseminate approach is
A. Digi Locker
B. mygov.in
C. SBM mobile app
D. attendance.gov.in

Indian Science Congress Association
1. The premier scientific organisation of India, India Science congress

association was started
A. 1900
B. 1910
C. 1914
D. 1904
2. ISCA, Headquartered in Kolkata was established by

A. Prof. J.L. Simonsen
B. Prof. P S. Mac Mohan
C. A and B
D. Jawarharlal Nehru
3. 105th meeting of ISCA will be conducted from 3-7 January 2018 in
A. Tirupathi
B. Hyderabad
C. Visakhapatnam
D. Warangal
4. The President of 104th Session of ISCA was
A. Ashok Kumar Saxena

B. Narayana Rao
C. Sarje Rao B.Ninse
D. Manmohan singh
5. The theme of 104th Session of ISCA is
A. S& T for Human Development

B. S & T for indigenous Development
C. S & T for National Development
D. Innovations in S & T for Inclusive Development

6. Who is the first lady President of ISCA
A. Asima Chatterjee
B. Archana Sharma
C. Geetha Bali
D. None of these
7. Dr. Manmohan Singh presided the l00thsession of ISCA with the theme of
A. S & T for Human Development

B. Science for shaping the future of India
C. S & T for Inclusive Innovation - Role of Women
D. S & T for National Development
8. The first ISCA session, that was conducted in Hyderabad, presided by
A. T.S.Venkata Raman
B. Birbal Sahni
C. S.N. Bose
D. J.C.Ghosh
9. Who presided the Platinum Jubilee Summits of ISCA
A. Dr.S.Bhagavantham
B. Prof. C.N.R.Rao
C. Prof. D.S.Kothari
D. A.P.Mitra
10. The participation of foreign Scientists in sessions of ISCA was initiated from
A. Golden Jubilee Editions

B. Platinum Jubilee Editions
C. Silver Jubilee Editions
D. Diamond Jubilee Editions

List I List-II
e) Silver Jubilee l) 1938
f) Golden Jubilee II) 1988
g) Diamond Jubilee III) 1973

h) Platinum Jubilee Iv) 1963
ABCD
e) I IV III II
f) I III IV II
g) I IV II III
h) I III II IV
12. Match the following summits of ISCA and their location

List I List-II
th
a) 105 summit l) Tirupathi
th
b) 104 summit II) Hyderabad
rd
c) 103 summit III) Mumbai
nd
d) 102 summit Iv) Mysore
ABCD
A. II I III IV
B. II I IV III
C. II III I IV
D. II IV III I
13. Which of the following is true for the centenary edition of ISCA?
Statement-I: It was held from 3-7 January 2013.
Statement-II: The theme of Centenary Edition of ISCA "Science for Shaping the
Future ‘’
Statement-III: It was hosted by University Calcutta
A. Only I and II
B. Only I and III
C. Only II and III
D. I, II and III
14. The publications which were brought out during Golden Jubilee
Statement -I: A decade: Indian Science Congress Association.
Statement-II: Fifty Years of Science in India.
Statement-III: A short history of the Indian Science Congress Association
A. I, II and III
B. Only l and IIl

C. Only II and III

D. Only I and III

Statement-I: The first ISC A session was held in 1914 at the premises of Asiatic
Society, Calcutta.
Statement II: Honorable Justice Sir Ashutosh Mukaijee presided over the
congress.
Statement -III: Altogether 35 papers were presented
A. I, II and III
B. Only l and IIl
C. Only II and III
D. Only I and III

Technology Policies of India

1. Creating robust national innovation system is the key element of
a) S&T Policy-2013
b) S&T Policy-2003
c) Technology Policy Statement-1993
d) a and b
2. The following is not a factor of national prosperity
a) Technologay
b) Raw materials
c) Capital
d) Demand
3. Technology policies were designed with the involvement of
a) APJ Abdul Kalam

b) Jawaharlal Nehru
c) MadhavanNair
d) HomiJBhabha
4. Science and Technology and Innovation Policy 2013, tried to position India
among the top; five global scientific powers by
a) 2025
b) 2020
c) 2030
d) 2040
5. Which of the following are the key elements of STI-2013
Statement-I: Fostering resource optimized

Statement-II: Cost-effective innovations across size and technology domains.
Statement-III: Seeding S & T based high risk innovations through new

mechanisms.
Statement-IV: Making traditional skills and capabilities commercially

competitive
a) I, II, III and IV

b) Only I and II, lV
c) Only I, II and III only
d) Only II, III and IV
6. This policy aimed at improving indigenous technologies for national

development
a) Technology policy statement-1958

b) Technology policy statement-1983
c) Technology policy statement-1993
d) Technology policy statement-2003
7. This policy focussed on special needs of women and the weaker sections of
society?
a) Technology Policy-1993
b) S&T Policy-2003
c) STI-2013
d) Technology Policy-1983


Biotechnology
1. The process of fermentation was explained by the works of
A. Chaim Weizmann
B. Louis Pasteur
C. Karoly Ereky
D. Haldane
2. Addressing biological problems using computational techniques is

A. Bio leaching
B. Bio informatics
C. Bio pharmaceutics
D. White bio technology
3. The first form of bio technology is

A. Bio leaching
B. Breeding
C. Cloning
D. Parthenogenesis
4. Rising demand for fossil fuels will be reduced by

A. Bio leaching
B. Bio remediation
C. Bio fuels
D. LPG
5. Cleaning up environmental wastes by using Bio Technology applications is

called
A. Bio leaching
B. Bio remediation
C. Brewing
D. Bio fermentation
6. The explosive that was produced by using bio technology is

A. TNT
B. Acetone
C. IED

D. A and C
7. The bio technology process used for ancient era in producing medicated
alcoholic products was
A. Fermentation
B. Pasteurization
C. Leaching
D. Remediation
8. Cloning is originated from

A. Latin
B. Greek
C. English
D. French
9. “Studies on fermentation” a famous published paper by

A. Weianann
B. HansSpemann
C. Haldane
D. Louis Pasteur
10. The process which included in making multiple molecules is

A. Fermentation
B. Leaching
C. Pasteurization
D. Molecular cloning
11. The following is linearised using restriction enzymes in cloning

A. The vector
B. Ligation
C. Transfection
D. Selection
12. The first endangered species that was cloned is

A. Gaur
B. Tetra

C. Masha
D. Carp
13. The first cloned Pashmina goat is

A. Injaz
B. Noori
C. Samrupa
D. Snuppy
14. The first cloned Pashimna goat was produced by

A. India
B. USA
C. Scotland
D. China
15. Human Cloning includes

A. Therapeutic cloning
B. Reproductive cloning
C. A and B
D. parthenogenesis
16. Adult Stem cells were found in

A. Bone marrow
B. Adipose tissue
C. Blastocyst
D. A and B
17. Most adult stem cells are having

A. Toti potency
B. Multi potency
C. Pluri potency
D. Uni potency
18. The first demonstration of induced pluri potent stem cells was conducted
by
A. Lan Willmut
B. Shinya Yamanaka
C. Keith Campbell

D. Hilde Mangold
19. The production of which animal was published in 'Bio Fizika in 1987
A. Masha (mouse)
B. Tetra (Rhesus Monkey)
C. Carp (fish)
D. Copy Cat
20. The research organization involved in stem cell technology in India is

A. Roslin Institute
B. LV Prasad Eye Institute
C. Reliance life sciences
D. B and C

List I List-II
E) Green Bio Technology i) marine applications
F) White Bio Technology ii)agricultural process
G) Blue Bio Technology iii) Industrial applications
H) Red Bio Technology iv medical applications
ABCD
e) II III IV I
f) II IV III I
g) II III I IV
h) II IV I III
22. Match the following names with the cloned species

List I List-II
A. Carp i) Horse
B. Prometea ii) fish
C. Tetra iii) rat
D. Ralph iv) Rhesus monkey
ABCD
A. II I III IV
B. II III I IV
C. II I IV III
D. II III IV I


List I List-II
A. Pluripotent stem cells i) bone marrow
B. Multipotent stem cells ii) Ectoderm, Endoderm
C. Totipotent stem cells iii) Lymphoid cells
D. Oligopotent stem cells iv) Cells after few divisions in a
fertilized egg
ABCD
A. II I III IV
B. II III I IV
C. II I IV III
D. II III IV I

List I List-II
A. Dolly i) Lalji singh
B. Noori ii)Ian Wilmut
C. Indian black buck iii) NDRI, Karnal
D. SAMRUPA iv) Riaz, Ahmed Shah
ABCD
A. II III IV I
B. II IV III I
C. II III I IV
D. II IV I III

Statement-I. The term bio technology is coined by Karoly Ereky
Statement-II: It is the use of living systems and organisms to develop or make
products.
Statement-III: The expansion of bio technology includes genomics, applied
immunology etc.
A. Only I and II
B. Only II and III
C. Only I and III
D. I, II and III


Statement-I: The first genetically engineered products were medicines.
Statement -II: Bio pharmatics includes the joning of required genes with a
plasmid inserted into Escherichia coli
Statement-III: Parthenogenesis allows the genetic diagnosis of vulnerabilities
to inherited diseases.
A. I, II and III
B. Only I and II
C. Only II and III
D. Only I and III

Statement-I: Cloning invented by JBS Haldane
Statement-II: The word 'Clone' means twig.
Statement-III: It refers to the process of getting a new plant from a twig,
A. Only I and II
B. Only l and III
C. Only II and III
D. I, II and III
28. Which of the following is true?

Statement-I: Weizmann showed that fermentation is initiated by living
organisms.
Statement-II: The cause behind souring in milk and food spoilage was revealed
in 1860.
Statement-III: Pasteur defined fermentation as life without air
A. I, II and III
B. Only I and II
C. Only II and III
D. Only I and III
29. Cloning of DNA fragment involve

Statement-I: Fragmentation
Statement -II: Ligation
Statement -III: Transfection
Statement IV: Screening
B. Only II III and IV

C. Only I III and IV

D. I,II,III, IV

Statement -I: Somatic cell nuclear transfer is for producing agriculture, animals
for food consumption
Statement -II: Endangered species can be reproduced by SCNT.
A. Onlyl is true
B. Onlyllistrue
C. Both I and II are true
D. Neither I nor II are true
31. Choose the correct statements) for embryonic induction

Statement –I: It was invented by Han Spemann
Statement- II :For the invention of embryonic induction, he won the noble
prize in 1935
A. Only I
B. Only II
C. Both I and II
D. Neither I nor II

Statement -I: Hand Spemann and Holde Mangord, perform cloning by using
amphibian embryos
Statement-II: They use somatic cell nuclear transfer for this
A. Both I and II are true
B. Only l is true
C. Only n is true
D. Neither I nor II are true
33. Choose the correct statements

Statement-I: The first cloned mammal is Dolly
Statement-II: Dolly was invented at Roslin Institute, Scotland
Statement-III: For this invention Ian Wilmut is called as Father of cloning
Statement-IV: The first cloned horse is Carp
A. I, II, III and IV
B. Only I, II and III
C. Only II and III,IV
D. Only I,III and IV

34. Identify the correct statement(s)

Statement -I: The first test tube baby was born in 1978
Statement -II: Robert G Edwards involved in the born of Louise Brown
Statement-III : The CCMB, Hyderabad induced spotted deer and Indian black
buck through assistive reproductive Technology (ART)
A. I,II and III

B. Only l and ll
C. Only I and III
D. Only II and III
35. A treatment that uses naturally occurring organisms to breakdown

hazardous substances into less toxic or non-toxic substances is
A. Bio remediation
B. Fermentation
C. Bio leaching
D. Carbonification
36. The extraction of metals from their ores through the use of living
organisms is called
A. Bio remediation
B. Carbonification
C. Bio leaching
D. Fermentation
37. Bacteria like Acidithio bacillus ferrooxidants, Acidithiobacillus thiooxdiants

involved in
A. Bio fuels preparation
B. Fermentation
C. Bio remediation
D. Bio leaching
3 8. Which of the following is incorrectly paired according to their time to Bio

degrade
A. News paper-6 weeks
B. Plywood-1 to 3 years
C. Plastic bags-10 to 20 years
D. Disposable diapers-4 weeks

39. Oil zapper is a bacteria involved in

A) Bio leaching
B) Bio remediation
C) Regenerative medicine
D) Bio markers
40. Crude oil and refined fuel spills from tanker ship accidents will be cleared
up by suing the bacteria like
a. 0il ZapPer
b. Oil vorus
c. Mythylocella silvestris
d. All of the above
41. Pseudomonas Putida is a soil bacterium used to

a. degrade plastics
b. degrade oil
c. degrade paper
d. degrade cotton
42. The bacteria (to degrade oil) oil zapper and oil vorus were developed by
Resource Institute
A. ONGC
B. The energy and resource Institute
C. HP
D. RIL
43.b The process which is useful in degrading wastages in municipalities is

A. Bio stimulation
B. Bio Augmentation
C. Decomposition
D. a and b
44. The bio technology related programmes in India will be designed by

A. Department of Science and Technology
B. Department of Bio Technology
C. CCMB
D. CSIR

45. National Brain Research Centre is located in
a) Hyderabad
b) Chennai
c) Gurgaon
d) Bangalore
46. Which institution has the responsible in developing and production of bio
fertilizers
A. Forest Research Institute
B. National Centre of Organic farming
C. The Energy and Resources Institute
D. National Centre for Biological Sciences
47. The Stem cell research in LV Prasad Eye Institute involved in

A. Embryonic Stem cells
B. Limbus Stem cells
C. Umbilical Cord Blood Stem cells
D. Foetal Stemcells
48. J.Craig Venter Institute (USA) invented a bacteria that participate in bio
remediation is
A. Micoplasma Gemtalium
B. Oil Vorus
C. Methanococcusjannaschii
D. OilZapper
49. Stem cells were invented by

A. Madison and Baltimore
B. Robert Lanja
C. James Thomson
D. Jeffery Jones
50. Which of the following is not an adult stem cell

A. Bone mamo Stem cells
B. Comeal limbal Stem cells
C. Foetal Stem cells
D. Brain cells

51. Embryonic stemcells will be differentiated into more than------cells

A. 150
B. 250
C. 40
D. 24
52. The following organization established in CCMB to initiate researches in

stem cell technology
A. National Centre for Stem cell Science
B. Life cell
C. Clinical Research Facility for Stem cells and Regenerative
Medicine
D. Stem cell Bank
53. Gene Targeting Tech.. was invented by

A. Martin Evans
B. Mario Capecchi
C. Oliver Smities
D. All of the above
54. The following scientist won Nobel in 2012 for creating induced Pluripotent
Stem cells
A. Yamanaka
B. John Gurdon
C. a and b
D. Charles Vacanti
55. Bio fertilizers are not involved in

A. Nitrogen fixation
B. Solubilising phosphorus
C. Increasing use of chemical fertilizers
D. Reducing the use of pesticides
56. Which of the following is a natural bio fertilizer

A. Blue green algae
B. Rhizobium
C. Anabaena
D. Azolla

57. Which of the following is not a phosphate solubilising bacteria

A. Rhizobium
B. Pseudomonas putida
C. Pantoea agglomerans
D. Microbacterium laevaniformans
58. Which of the following is not a Nitrogen fixation bacteria

a) Anabaena
b) Nostoc
c) Azospirillum
d) Azolla
59. Bacillus thurigiensis is a

A. Bio fertilizer
B. Bio pesticide
C. Bio marker
D. Bio fungicide
60. Beauveria bassiana, Metarhizium etc are

a. Bio fertilizers
b. bio markers
c. Bio pesticides
d. Bio fungicides
61. Which of the following is not a bio pesticide

A. Pyrethrum
B. Rotenone
C. Neem oil
D. Azolla
62. The process of preparing bio fuels from Jatropha curcas etc., is
A. Bio Augmentation
B. Transesterification
C. Carbonification
D. Bio markings
63. Methanococcus and Methanomonas bacteria are used in preparation of

A. Bio gas
B. Bio butenol
C. Hydrogen gas
D. Biodiesel
64. Micro propagation involved in

A. Plant Tissue Culture
B. Developing stem cells
C. Cloning animals
D. d) Parthenogenesis
65. To conserve rare or endangered plant species the following is involved

A. Trans Embryo Technology
B. Plant Tissue Culture
C. Inoculation
D. incubation
66. Tissue Culture was invented by
A. Morgan
B. Haberland
C. RD Paul Metre
D. RL Bnntor
67. The plants for developing community forests will be developed in a short
time is by
A. Micro propagation
B. Rapid Clonal propagation
C. Inoculation
D. Incubation
68. Golden Rice is rich in Beta-carotine and Iron developed by

A. ICRISAT
B. CRIDA
C. Swiss Federal Institute of Technology
D. Monesanto

69. Genome valley is in

A. Bengaluru
B. Kerala
C. Chennai
D. Hyderabad
70. CRY l AC is a
A. BT Crop
B. BT Gene
C. Transgenic animal
D. Bio fertilizer
71. Central Research Institute for Dry land Agriculture (CRIDA) is established
in
A. Bangalore
B. Hyderabad
C. Chennai
D. Kolkata
72. CRY I AC was developed by

A. CRIDA
B. ICRISAT
C. Monsanto
D. SFIT
73. The following involved in agricultural research activities in the low rainfall
areas
A. Monesanto
B. SFIT
C. CRIDA
D. a and b
74 Golden Ground nut is rich in Beta-carotine developed by

A. CRIDA
B. ICRISAT
C. SFU
D. CCMB

Robotics
1. Robotics includes the following branches
a) Mechanical, Electrical
b) Computers
c) Genomics
d) a and b
2. Robotics are used in Science, Technology, Engineering and Mathematics

(STEM) as
a) Demonstrator
b) Receptionist
c) Teaching Aid
d) Care Taker
3. The following is/are true for Robotics

I. The word robot introduced by 'Karel Capek'.
II. He mentioned it in his play 'Runaround'.
III. Robot comes from Robota (labour) is a Slavic word.
a) I, II only
b) II, III only
c) I, III only
d) All
4. The laws of Robotics are formulated by

a) Karel Capek
b) Isac Asimov
c) Norbert Wiener
d) A and b
5. Which of the following is / are true for the three laws of Robotics
I. These were introduced in the short story 'Run around'.
II. Karel Capek wrote the short story 'Run around'.
III. These laws were published in 'Handbook of Robotics',
a) I, II and III
b) I and II only

c) II and III only

d) I and III only
6. Boris can
a) load a dishwasher
b) exhibit emotions
c) manipulate objects
d) receive guests
7. Somabar is used in
a) kitchen works
b) dishwashing
c) lawn mover
d) pool cleaner
8. Actuation is ...... of a robot

a) Power supply
b) Muscles
c) Sensor
d) Touch Technology
9. The field of cloud robotics by EU seventh frame work project is

a. Know rob
b. Robo earth
c. Robo brain
d. Rapyuta
10. The service intended for connecting robots to the internet

a) R0S
b) COALAS
c) My Robots
d) Robo earth
11. The tactical unmanned ground vehicle programme ’Gladiator1 was

developed by
a) Japan
b) USA
c) China
d) Israel

12. Which of the following is/are true for Daksh

I. It was developed for locating and destroying hazardous objects
II. It was developed by DRDO, India.
a) Only I
b) Only II
c) Both I and II
d) Neither I nor II
13.The US project to develop humanoid robots is

a) Rapyuta
b) Robonaut
c) Nano Rob
d) TALON
14. Which of the following exhibits insect like locomotion

a) Tuna
b) Hexapod
c) Vainos
d) Penguin
15. TOPIO is a
a) Humanoid Robot
b) Surgical Robot
c) Kitchen Robo
d) Skating Robo
16. Math the following

List I List-II
A) Unimate i) Hospital Robot
B) Famulus II) First Programmable Robot
C) PUMA III) First Industrial Robot
D) HOSPI IV) Programmable Manipulation Arm
ABCD
i) III II IV I
j) II III IV I
k) II III I IV
l) II IV III I


List-1 List -11
A) Know Rob I) Open source cloud based framework
B) Robo Brain II) Knowledge processing system
C) Rapyuta III) New Technology for disabled persons
D) COALAS IV) Large Scale Computational System
ABCD
a) II IV I III
b) II IV III I
c) II I IV III
d) II I III IV

List-1 List -11
A) Hexapod i) sail boat robo

B) i splash-I II) six legged insect like robo
C) Plen III) full length fish like robo
D) Vaimos IV) skating robot
ABCD
A) II III I IV
B) II I III IV
C) II III IV I
D) I II III IV
19. The Davinci is a Surgical Robot developed by

a) Israel
b) Russia
c) Japan
d) USA
20. The following is a Robo which is an automatic self cleaning litter boxes
a) Swiffer
b) ZEUS

c) Cat Litter Robot

d) Davinci
21. The following is not a domestic Robot

a) Pressman
b) Somabar
c) Cat litter Robot
d) HOSPI
22. Aprogrammable Universal Manipulation arm developed by Victor

Sheinman is
a) HOSPI
b) PUMA
c) IRB6
d) Famulus
23. The first digitally operated and programmable robot is

a) Unimate
b) IRB6
c) PUMA
d) Famulus
24. The first digitally operated and programmable robot, the Unimate
developed by
A) George Devol
B) Joseph Engelberger
C) a and b
D) Victor Sheinman
25. The three laws of Robotics are quoted in

A) Runaround
B) Liar
C) Handbook of Robotics
D) RUR
26. The basis of practical Robots were formulated by

a) Norbert Wiener
b) Karel Capek
c) Isaac Asimov

d) Victor Sheinman
27. Unimate is a
A) first industrial robot
B) first digitally operated programmable robot
C) die casting machine
D) universal manipulation arm
28. HOSPI is a....

a) remote controlled crane
b) courier in hospitals
c) wastes cleaning robot
d) welding robot
29. The following is a kitchen robot

a) Somabar
b) Swiffer
c) Dressman
d) Davinci
30. Smart Hand is a

a) Prosthetic Hand
b) Skating robo
c) Roti making Robo
d) New composer
31. The end effector of a robo is its

a) Vision
b) manipulator
c) Hand
d) Arm
32. Vaimos is a
a) Sail boat robot
b) Six legged waling robot
c) Robotic platform
d) Tracked robot

33. which of the following is an amphibian Robot

a) I Splash-I
b) ACM-R5
c) Hexapod
d) Vaimos
34. Which of the following has snake like loco motion

a) Plen
b) ACM R5
c) Hexapod
d) Ball IP
35. Gladiator is a tactical unmanned ground vehicle programme

a) USA
b) Japan
c) Israel
d) India
36. Hexapod is a
a) Unmanned aerial vehicle
b) insect like robot
c) first robotic platform
d) model fish robot
37. Robonaut was developed by

a) NASA, USA
b) Honda
c) Toyota
d) Suzuki
38. Daksh was developed by

a) India
b) USA
c) Japan
d) China

39. Which of the following bank introduced first humanoid robot

a) ICICI
b) HDFC
c) Axis
d) Yes Bank
40. The following is a humanoid robot, that can play Ping Pong
a) TOPIO
b) Nao
c) Enon
d) Nikola
41. The first android that has the ability to sing is

a) EveR-2
b) Actroid
c) DEROI
d) Telenoid Rl
42. The first lull - body walking Robo is

a) Albert Hubo
b) I
c) Gynoid
d) Actroid
43. Gynoid is a
a) Male humanoid robo
b) Female Humanoid robo
c) Robo Gynaecologist
d) Female news reader
44. ASIMO is a humanoid robot created by

a) Toyota
b) Honda
c) General Motors
d) Suzuki
45. Android is a
a) Male humanoid robot
b) Female humanoid robot

c) erotic robot
d) Actroid
46. NeuroArmisa
a) Surgical robot
b) News Composer
c) Robo Cop
d) Automated Warning System
47. DRDO, India developed a robot to recover bombs is

a) Robo Cop
b) Daksh
c) Robonaut
d) Predator
48. ZEUS robotic Surgical System developed by

a) India
b) USA
c) Japan
d) China

Health
1. Which of the following is not a congenital disease?
a) Sickle Cell Anaemia
b) Haemophilia
c) Encephalitis
d) Down’s Syndrome
2. The following is an infectious disease

a) Cervical Cancer
b) Schizophrenia
c) Influenza
d) Gonorrhea
3. The following is a bacterial disease

a) Tuberculosis
b) Smallpox
c) Mumps
d) Dengue
4. The disease caused by Treponema pallidum is

a) Sepsis
b) Syphillis
c) Diphtheria
d) Meningitis
5. The incubation period of Diphtheria is

a) 7 days
b) 10 days
c) 2-5 days
d) 15 days
6. The incubation period of Plague is

a) 17 days
b) 2-10 days
c) 15 days
d) 1 month

7. For which of the following disease Arsenic is the causing agent?

a) Sillicosis
b) Melanosis
c) Fluorosis
d) a and c
8. The infected disease caused by Trichophyton is

a) Athlete’s foot
b) Dhobi itch
c) Eumycetoma
d) Mycetoma
9. The following disease mainly affect the limbs?

a) Mycetoma Pedis
b) Tinea Cruris
c) Eumycetoma
d) Tinea Pedis
10. Lyssavirus can cause?

a) Influenza-A
b) Rabies
c) Smallpox
d) Mumps
11. Ebola virus vaccine VSB-EBOV was invented in

a) December 2015
b) November 2015
c) December 2016
d) November 2016
12. Immunization methods were developed in 1880 by

a) Edward Jenner
b) Robert Hook
c) Louis Pasteur
d) Ronald Rans
13. The immunization developed by the microbe at parts of it are injected into
the person before they are able to take it in naturally is
a) passive immunization

b) active immunization
c) artificial active immunization
d) a and b
14. The first vaccine preventable disease targeted for eradication was
a) Rabies
b) Smallpox
c) Ebola
d) Anthrax
15. The last naturally occurring case of smallpox occurred in

a) South Africa
b) West Africa
c) Somalia
d) South Africa
16. The disease which was targeted for eradication in 1988 by World Health
Organization is
a) Smallpox
b) Chicken pox
c) Polio
d) Measles
17. Global Alliance for vaccines and immunization was established in the
countries with a per capita GDP (in US dollars)
a) greater than 1000

b) less than 1000
c) 1000-5000 dollars
d) 5000-10000 dollars
18. National Rural Health Mission was introduced

a) 2005
b) 2013
c) 2004
d) 2014
19. Mission Indradhanush was launched by Union Health Minister, J .P. Nadda
on

a) 24 December 2014
b) 24 December 2015
c) 25 December 2014
d) 25 December 2015
20. In addition to the vaccines for 7 diseases under the mission Indradhanush
the following, will be given in selected states
a) Japanese Encephalitis
b) HB
c) a and b
d) Rota virus, Rubella virus
21. Universal Immunization programme is the key area for

a) Mission Indradhanush
b) Child Survival and Safe motherhood programme
c) National Rural Health Mission
d) a and b
22. The submission (s) of National Health Mission is/are

a) National Rural Health Programme
b) National Urban Health Mission
c) a and b
d) Mission Indradhanush
23. NRHM was introduced for the health needs of how many states
a) 18
b) 81
c) 80
d) 10
24. The number of districts covered under first phase of Mission Indradhanush
are
a) 82 districts
b) 18 districts
c) 100 districts
d) 201 districts
25. The following vaccine has not covered under Universal Immunization

Programme
a) Tetanus vaccine
b) Hepatitis-B
c) Diarrhoea
d) Measles Vaccine
26. Match the following diseases due to malnutrition

List-I List-II
A) Kwashiorkor 1) Vitamin-D
B) Rickets 2) Proteins
C) Scurvy 3) Niacin
D) Pellagra 4)Vitamin C
ABCD
A. 2413
B. 2143
C. 4213
D. 2134
27. Match the following diseases

List-I List-II
A) Congenital disease 1) Influenza
B) Infectious disease 2) Sickle cell Anaemia
C) Deficiency disease 3) Schizopheria
D) Mental Imbalance 4) Scurvey
ABCD
A. 2143
B. 2413
C. 3421
D. 2431
28. Match the following diseases
List-I List-II
A) Bacteria 1) Ebola
B) Virus 2) Malaria
C) Protozoa 3) Dysentery
D) Fungi 4) Dhobhi itch

ABCD
A. 3124
B. 3241
C. 3214
D. 3421
29. Match the following with their corresponding incubation periods

List-1 list-2
A) Smallpox 1) 1-4 days
B) Mumps 2) 12 days
C) Dysentery 3) 16-18 days
D) Cholera 4) 12 days
ABCD
A. 4231
B. 4321
C. 4213
D. 4312
30. Match the following in view of their corresponding to relief drugs

List-1 list-2
A) Dysentery 1) Rimantadine
B) Madura Foot 2) Ampicillin
C) Influenza 3) Keto Conazole
D) Gonorrhoea 4) Pencillin
ABCD
A. 2341
B. 3214
C. 2314
D. 3124
31. Match the following cancers

List-1 list-2
A) Carcinoma 1) tissues of muscles
B) Sarcoma 2) skin cells
C) Lymphomas 3) glandular tissues

D) Adenomas 4) tissues of immune system
ABCD
A. 2134
B. 43 12
C. 2314
D. 4132
32. Match the following cancers

List-1 list-2
A) Universal Immunization Programme 1) 2002
B) National Health Policy 2) 1985
C) National Rural Health Mission 3) 2013
D) National Urban Health Mission 4) 2005
ABCD
A. 1342
B. 1243
C. 31 24
D. 2134
33. Choose the correct statement(s) in view of Diphtheria

Statement-I: It is caused by Coryne bacterium Diphteria
Statement-II: Symptoms are Sore throat and fever
Statement -III: The neck may swell due to large lymph nodes
A. Only l and II
B. Only II and III
C. Only l and III
D. I, II and III
34. Identify the correct statement(s) in view of Ebola virus

Statement -I: It caused the majority deaths in South Africa
Statement-II: In December 2016, VSV- EBOV was found as the first vaccine
A. Only I
B. Only II
C. Both I and II
D. Neither I nor II

35. Choose the correct statement(s) in view of Gonorrhoea

Statement -I: Gonorrhoea spread by sexual inter course.
Statement -II: The incubation period is 15 days.
Statement -III: Sulpha drugs, Pencillin will give relief
A. Only I and II
B. Only II and III
C. Only I and III
D. I, II and III

Statement -1: Anthrox is a viral disease.
Statement -2: It is spread by Bacillus Anthrasis.
Statement -3: Usually spread by infected cattle and horses.
Statement-4: Pencillin and Tetracyclin will give relief
A. All
B. Only 2, 3, and 4
C. Only 1, 3 and 4
D. Only 1, 2 and 3
37. Choose the correct statement(s) in view of sore throat

Statement-1: Sore throat is caused by streptococcus bacteria
Statement -2: Symptoms are fever, cough, sore throat
Statement-3: Symptoms will be seen in 12 days
A. Only 1 and 2
B. Only 2 and 3
C. Only 1 and 3
D. All
Statement-I: Smallpox is caused by Variola bacteria
Statement -II: The symptoms will be seen in 12 days
A. Only 1
B. Only 2
C. Both
D. Neither 1 nor 2

Statement 1: Tinea Pedis is a common infection of skin of the feet

Statement-2: It is caused by Trichophyton, Microsporum

Statement-3: Common places where the fungi can survive is around swimming
pools
A. All
B. Only 1 and 2
C. Only 2 and 3
D. Only 1 and 3

Statement-1: Immunization is done most commonly through vaccination.
Statement -2: In 1798, Edward Jenner introduced inoculation with cow pox.
Statement -3: From 1880, immunization methods were developed by Louis
Pasteur for other diseases.
A. Only 1, and 2
B. Only 1 and 3
C. Only 2 and 3
D. All of the above
41. The initiatives of National Health Mission are

Statement -1: Accredited Social Health Activists (ASHA)
Statement -2: Rogi Kalyan Samiti / Patient Welfare Committee
Statement-3: Auxiliary Nurse Midwives (ANMs)
Statement-4: Janani Surksha Yojana
A. Only 1,3, and 4
B. Only 2, 3 and 4
C. Only 1, 2 and 3
D. All of the above
42. Choose the correct statements) for Kala-Azar

Statement -1: It is endemic in Bihar.
Statement -2: Control Programme for Kala-Azar was initiated from 1990-91
A. Only 1
B. Only 2
C. Both
D. Neither 1 nor 2
43. Father of bacteriology is

A. Eren Burg
B. Robert Koch
C. Leuven Hook
D. Pascher
44. National Institute of Immunology is located in

A. New Delhi
B. Hyderabad
C. Bangalore
D. Chennai
45. National Programme for Control of blindness (NPCB) was launched to

control blindness by GOI in
A. 1975
B. 1976
C. 1977
D. 1978
46. When was India certified as 'free of Polio?'

A. March 2013
B. March 2012
C. March 2014
D. March 2011
47. Pulse Polio Immunization Programme was launched in India in

A. 1995
B. 1996
C. 1997
D. 1998
48. Aids was first detected in India in

A. 1982
B. 1984
C. 1986
D. 1988
49. Tuberculosis will be cured by

A. Etham butol
B. Isoniazid

C. Pyrazinamide
D. All of the above
50. The National Filaria Control Programme was launched in

A. 1945
B. 1955
C. 1965
D. 1975
51. Filariasis is targetted for global elimination by

A. 2018
B. 2019
C. 2020
D. 2025
52. 80% of Kala-Azar cases are from

A. Bihar
B. Jharkhand
C. West Bengal
D. Uttar Pradesh
53. Live Attenuated Vaccine for Japanese Encephalitis will be given to the
children in the age group of
A. 0-5 years
B. 1-15 years
C. 1-10 years
D. 5-10 years
54. Live Attenuated Vaccine for Japanese Encephalitis in India was launched
from
A. 2005
B. 2006
C. 2007
D. 2008
55. Mission Indradhanush will give protection against how many life-
threatening diseases
A. 5
B. 6

C. 7
D. 8
56. Third phase of Mission Indradhanush was started in India from

A. April 2016
B. April 2015
C. April 2014
D. April 2017
57. Under Mission Indradhanush, pregnant women will be provided vaccine for
A. TB
B. HIB
C. Tetanus
D. Dengue
58. Auxiliary Nursing Midwife (ANM) for 10,000 populations is provided under
the programme
A. Universal Immunisation Programme
B. Mission Indradhanush
C. National Rural Health Mission
D. National Urban Health Mission
59. Which of the following is incorrectly paired

A. NRHM-April 2005
B. NUHM-May 2013
C. UIP-1985
D. Mission Indradhanush-April 2014
60. For achieving health goals, National Health Policy of India was launched in
A. 2002
B. 2003
C. 2004
D. 2005
61. Under National Health Policy (2002), Limphatic Filariasis will be eliminated
by
A. 2014
B. 2015
C. 2016

D. 2017
62. Ban on smoking in public places was implemented from

A. October 2,2007
B. October 2,2008
C. October 2,2009
D. October 2, 2010
63. The cancer that associates with the muscles, bones and connective tissues
is
A. Carcinomas
B. Sarcomas
C. Lymphomas
D. Adenomas
64. Identify the incorrectly Paired statement in view of cancer and associated
cells
A. Carcinomas-Cells of skin
B. Sarcomas-Bone Marrow
C. Adenomas Thyroid
D. Lymphomas-Immune System Tissues
65. The cancer that is associated with glandular tissue is

A. Carcinomas
B. Sarcomas
C. Adenomas
D. Lymphomas
66. Which of the following is not a malnutrition disease?

A. Kwashiorkor
B. Marasmus
C. Beri-Beri
D. Fluorosis
67. Pellagra is caused due to the deficiency of
A. Vitamin B1
B. Niacin
C. Vitamin D
D. Vitamin E

Energy resources
1. Which of the following is not a primary energy
A. Wind
B. Water
C. Coal
D. Gas
2. The following is not a fossil fuel - though it is available in the deeper layers of
earth
A. Coal
B. Shale gas
C. Natural gas
D. Petroleum
3. By the process of carbonization, dead vegetation is converted into

A. Petroleum
B. Coal
C. Natural gas
D. Uranium
4. Which of the following fuel has high industrial importance?

A. Peat Coal
B. Lignite coal
C. Sub-bituminous coal
D. Anthracite coal
5. Which form of carbon has been used as a lubricant?

A. Peat coal
B. Steam coal
C. Graphite
D. Coke
6. Natural gas consists of highly

A. Butane
B. Propane
C. Ethane
D. Methane
7. Which of the following is having highest carbon content?

A. Anthracite Coal
B. Bituminous coal
C. Coke
D. Lignite coal
8. Liquefied petroleum gas consists of

A. Methane
B. Butane
C. Propane
D. b and c
9. Which of the following is an eco friendly fuel?

A. LPG
B. Petrol
C. Shale gas
D. Solar energy
10. The average value of solar constant is

A. 1.366w/m2
B. 1.366 kw/m2
C. 11.366 kw/m2
D. 11.366 kw/m
11. The first wind-mill used for the production of electric power was built in
A. China
B. Scotland
C. India
D. USA

12. The non-conventional energy resource is

A. Wind power
B. LPG
C. Natural gas
D. Shale gas
13. The following energy resource is not an alternate form of solar energy
A. Tidal energy
B. Wind energy
C. Geothermal energy
D. Oceanic thermal energy
14. Which of the following doesn't cause green house gas emissions?
A. Magnetic Hydro Dynamics
B. Shale gas
C. Coal
D. Petroleum
15. The find proto type of MHD was built and tested by
A. Hammrd
B. Steward Way
C. Henrico fermi
D. a and b
16. The headquarters of International Solar Alliance was established in

A. Gurgaon
B. kolkata
C. Tokyo
D. Durban
17. Components of petroleum are separated by using the technique

A. Distinctive Distillation

B. Fractional distillation
C. Fermentation
D. A and D
20. Choose the correct statement(s) in view of India's first solar power project
Statement -1: At Sivagangai Village India's first solar power project was
constructed.
Statement -2: Installed capacity of this project is 500 MW.
Statement-3: It was registered under the clean development mechanism
A. Only 1 and 2
B. Only 2 and 3
C. Only 1 and 3
D. All
21. Which city has the largest deployment of roof top solar water heaters in
India?
A. Mumbai
B. Ahmedabad
C. Bengaluru
D. Chennai
22. Choose the correct statements?

Statement-1: Jawaharlal Nehru National Solar Mission was initiated to
promote renewable energy in India.
Statement-2: It is one of die initiatives of National Action Plan on Climate
Change (NAPCQ)
A. Only 1 is true
B. Only 2 is true
C. Both 1 and 2 are true
D. Neither 1 nor 2
23. Which of the following is true for Magnetic Hydro Dynamics?

Statement-1: It is the study of magnetic properties of electrically conducting
fluids.

Statement-2: MHD was initiated by Marines Alfven

Statement-3: The first proto type MHD was built by Hannes Alfven
A. Only 1 and 2
B. Only 2 and 3
C. Only 1 and 3
D. All
24. Identify the correct statements(S)

Statement-1: In July 2015, Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Gram Jyoti Yojana was
launched.
Statement-2: The objective of DDUGJY is to provide power to the rural areas
round the clock
A. Only 1
B. Only 2
C. Both
D. Neither 1 nor 2
25. Choose the correct statement for the wind power

Statement-1: The development of wind power in India began in 1986
Statement-2: Gansu wind farm is the largest wind farm in the world
Statement-3: wind power is also considered as alternate source of energy
A. All
B. Only 1 and 2
C. Only 1 and 3
D. Only 2 and 3

Statement-1: In January 2016, the headquarter of International Solar Alliance
was established at Gurgaon.
Statement-2: The foundation stone for this headquarter was laid by the Prime
Minister of India and President of France Francois Hollande
Statement-3: ISA promotes solar energy and solar products in the countries of
Polar region.
A. All

B. Only 1 and 2
C. Only 1 and 3
D. Only 2 and 3

Statement-1: Gasohol is the blending of ethanol and Gasoline in proportionally.
Statement-2: Gasohol can reduce the green house gas emissions when blended
with mineral diesel.
Statement-3: Bio ethanol is used widely in US A and in Brazil
A. 1 and 2 only
B. Only 1 and 3
C. Only 2 and 3
D. All
28. PV Cells can convert

A. Wind ener4gy to electricity
B. Wind energy to chemical energy
C. Solar energy to thermal energy
D. Solar energy to electricity
29. Which of the following is considered as eco-friendly

A. Non- renewable energy
B. Commercial energy
C. Fossil fuels
D. Non-conventional energy
30. Which of the following is used as a reducing agent in metallurgical

industries?
A. Coal
B. Bituminous coal
C. Coke
D. lignite coal
31. Indian coal is having........ content

A. low quality, low ash

B. high quality, high ash
C. low quality,high ash
D. ) high quality, low ash
32. To reduce harmful emissions from fuels, we should do

A. change the fuel by switching to low-suplphur fuels
B. use of coal-cleaning technologies
C. use of advanced, fuel efficient vehicles
D. all of the above
33. At normal temperature and pressure LPG is in-----state

A. gaseous
B. liquid
C. solid
D. plasma
34. Which of the following is true?

A. Natural gas is heavier than the air
B. LPG is lighter than the air
C. Natural gas is heavier than LPG
D. LPG is heavier than the air
35. Arrange in ascending order of densities of the following LPG, Natural Gas,
and Air?
A. Air, Natural Gas, LPG
B. Natural Gas, LPG, Air
C. Natural Gas, Air, LPG
D. LPQ Natural Gas, Air
36. Which of the following is a continuously renewable electrical energy

source?
A. Nuclear Electricity
B. Thermal Electricity
C. Hydro Electricity
D. Naphtha based Electricity
37. Bhuj Solar Pond Project is in

A. Gujarat
B. Maharashtra
C. Tamilnadu
D. Goa
38. Which of the following river has a solar plant not only to produce
electricity, but also preventing water from evaporating?
A. Godavari
B. Gomathi
C. Narmada
D. Sarayu
39. India's first solar power project in Tamilnadu under clean development
mechanism established on
A. May 2010
B. May 2011
C. May 2012
D. May 2013
40. The target of Jawaharlal Nehru National Solar Mission by 2022

A. 10000 W
B. 20000 MW
C. 20000 W
D. 10000 MW
41. National Geophysical Research Institute (NGRI) was located at

A. Bangalore
B. Hyderabad
C. Kolkata
D. chennai
42. The following are the Geothermal Sites in India

A. Surajkhand
B. Tapovan
C. Jharkhand
D. all of the above
43. The largest wind power plant of India

A. Muppandal wind farm

B. Bhuj farm
C. Madhya Pradesh wind farms
D. Palakkad wind farm
44. Which of the following states is a leader in wind power in India?

a) Gujarath
b) Kerala
c) Tamilnadu
d) Odisha
45. As of March 31,2017 the installed capacity of wind power in India is

a) 30000 MW
b) 32280 MW
c) 80000 MW
d) 1,00,000 MW
46. Kamuthi Solar Power Project was in

a) Gujarath
b) Bengaluru
c) Tamilnadu
d) Odisha
47. Dhimbhai Ambani Solar Park is located in

a) Mumbai
b) Odisha
c) Rajasthan
d) Kerala
48. The world's largest Solar Steam System is located in

a) Maharashtra
b) Andhra Pradesh
c) Tamilnadu
d) Rajastan
49. Which of the following city has made it mandatory to install solar water
heaters in new buildings?
a) Bengaluru
b) Chennai

c) Pune
d) Mumbai
50. The first state to produce tidal electricity is

a) Kerala
b) Gujarat
c) Tamilanadu
d) Odisha
51. Centre for wind energy technology was located in

a) HYD
b) Bangalore
c) Chennai
d) Kolkata

NANO TECHNOLOGY
1. The term Nano technology was first used by

A. Richard Feynman
B. Norio Taniguchi
C. Gerd Binning
D. Heinrich Rohres
2. By whom the words there is plenty of room at the bottom were spoken
A. Norio Taniguchi
B. Richard Feynman
C. Heinrich Rohrer
D. Gerd Binnig
3. The dimension of Red blood cells is.............meters

A. 10,000 x 10-9 meters
B. 80,000 meters
C. 10,000 meters
D. 10 x 103 meters
4. Dimensions of Haemoglobin at Nano scale is

A. 1 nm
B. 4-5 nm
C. 2 nm
D. 0.1 nm
5. Who considered that the nano scale is the starting point where
assembling of objects can be initiated
A. Eric K Drexler
B. Dr. Heinrich Rohrer
C. Dr. Horst Stormer

D. Gerd Binnig
6. Which of the following nano particles are used as antibacterial agent

A. Mercury
B. Argentum
C. Sodium
D. Gold
7. In glass industry Nano particles of Aluminium Silicate are used as
A. making glass photocataly
B. Scratch resistant
C. Anti Bacterial Bandages
D. Smart drug
8. Nano particles of Titanium dioxide is used in preparing

A. Sun screen lotions
B. Scratch resistant glass windows
C. Anti bacterial Bandages
D. Smart drug
9. The following nano particles coated fabrics are used in fabric industry to
protect from UV radiation
A. Silver
B. Titanium Dioxide
C. Zinc Oxide
D. Aluminium Silicate
10. Nano mission was initiated by Government of India in

A. 2004
B. 2005
C. 2006
D. 2007

Statement-1: The implications of Nano technology are able to create many new

materials devices.
Statement-2: The concepts of Nano technology will be seen in nano medicine,
nano electronics, bio materials etc.
Statement-3: Eric K Drexler first used the term Nano technology in 1974.
A. Only 1
B. Only 2
C. Both
D. Neither 1 nor 2

Statement -1: Eric K Drexler used the term Nano technology in his book 'Engines of
Creation - The coming Era of Nano Technology'.
Statement-2: He was the co-founder of the Foresight institute.
A. Only 1
B. Only2
C. Both
D. Neither 1 nor 2
13. Choose the correct statements

Statement -1: The characteristics of materials at nano scale differ with the
characteristics at large scale.
Statement-2: Silicon is a semiconductor, become conductor when reduced to
nano scale
A. Only 1
B. Only 2
C. Both
D. Neither 1 nor 2
14. Which of the following statements) is/are true

Statement-1: Nano metrology for developing Nano technology has begun in
National Physical Laboratory.
Statement-2: To make India a world class centre for Nano technology Nano
Mission was initiated in 2006.
A. Only 1

B. Only 2
C. Both
D. Neither 1 nor 2

Statement-1: In 2004 March Nano Technology Development programme
started by the Department of IT and Government of India.
Statement -II: Nano electronics centres were established in 2005 at IISC,
Bengaluru and IlT, Bombay.
A. Only 1
B. Only 2
C. Both
D. Neither 1 nor 2


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Science and Technology

2. Which of the following vehicle launched 20 satellites in a single mission?

3. Initially the space research carried out by

4. IRS series satellites are intended for

5. Communication satellites are launched into

6. Which of the following is not the payload of PSLV-C37

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7. Which of the following is not a Student Satellite

8. Scat Sat-1 took the place of

9. In which of the following GSLV Operation used the indigenous cryogenic

10.Which of the following is not a payload of Chandrayan

11.Which of the following is a payload of Astrosat

12. Which of the following Award was won by MOM ,

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c) Space Pioneer Award-2014

13.The payloads of GAGAN were not included in

14.The Regional Remote Sensing Service Centers were not located at

15.One Institution ofthe following is not located at Thiruvananthapuram

16. The following is not the research institute of ISRO

18. India's first Radar Imaging Satellite

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21. Which programme reached it's Silver Jubilee on 17 March, 2013?

22. The following organization is not managed by ISRO

24. The following organization is not located in Ahmedabad

25. The following is renowned as India's Space University

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c) Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre

26. The earth station of National Remote Sensing Centre is located at

27. The campus of National Remote Sensing Centre is not located at

28. Which of the following is not paired accordingly

30. The following satellite was replaced by Scatsat-I

32. The National Atmospheric Research Laboratory was located in

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33. Which of the following institution established in Ahmadabad for research

34. Which of the following is not paired correctly

35. Identify the correct statement in view of ISRO Satellite Centre-Bangalore

36. Identify the inconrectlypaired statements in view of their first launch

37. Choose the incorrect statement (s) in view of ASLV

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b) Only II and III

39. Choose the correct Statement(s)

42. The fourth stage of PSLV consumes the fuel

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46. The life period of Scatsat-I is

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48. The lift off mass of PSLV-XL is

49. Identify which of the following is paired incorrectly

50. Which of the following nstrtution is involved in development of LVM-TH and

51. Which of the Mowing organization is responsible for Telemedicine, Tele

52. Indian Institute of Remote Sensing is located in

53. Which of the following is not a Communication Satellite

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54. Which of the following is not a payload of PSLV-C37

57. Which of the following is a payload of PSLV-C36

58. Which of the following is an exclusive meteorological satellite

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59. Which of the following is incorrectly paired according to their altitudes

60. The International Space Station is in

61. Earth observation Satellites will be placed in

62. Match the followings

63. Match the followings

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