1. Amino acids sequence in DNA can be determined 8.

Edman degradation is used for

by the order of their a. Identifying N-terminal amino acids
a. rRNA b. Identifying C-terminal amino acids
b. tRNA c. Identifying amino acid
c. Nucleotides d. Identifying carbohydrates
d. mRNA
9. What best summarizes the MALDI method by
2. Which of the following is a Sanger’s reagent? which gas phase ions are produced for mass
a. asd1-fluoro-2, 4-dinitrobenzene spectrometry?
b. dfsd1-fluoro-2, 3-dinitrobenzene a. Sample is hit by a low energy xenon
c. gh1-fluoro-2, 4-trinitrobenzene beam.
d. jut1-fluoro-2, 3-trinitrobenzene b. Sample is forced through a narrow
capillary tube and solvent rapidly
3. The amino acid sequences of thousands of evaporates.
different proteins from many species have been c. Sample is embedded in a crystalline
determined using principles first developed by matrix and bombarded by laser beams.
a. Edman d. Sample is heated and then bombarded
b. Sanger by electrons
c. Mendel
d. Watson and Crick 10. Which of the following is Edman reagent?
a. Phenylisothiocyanate
4. Which of the following compound is not involved b. CF3COOH
in Edman degradation? c. FDNB
a. Phenylisothiocyanate d. Phenylthiocarbonyl
b. CF3COOH
c. FDNB 11. Which of the following does not affect the
d. Phenylthiocarbonyl stability of a α-helix?
a. Electrostatic repulsion
5. Which of the following statements is false? b. Bulkiness
a. Oxidation of cysteine residue with c. Interaction between R groups spaced
performic acid is done to break disulfide three residues apart
bond in proteins d. Occurrence of alanine and glycine
b. Reduction of cysteine residue with residues
dithiothreitol is done to break disulfide
12. Which of the following is not true about
bond in proteins
secondary protein structure?
c. Reduction of cysteine residue with
a. The hydrophilic/hydrophobic character
performic acid is done to break disulfide
of amino acid residues is important to
bond in proteins
secondary structure.
d. Reduced cysteine is further acetylated
b. The ability of peptide bonds to form
by iodoacetate
intramolecular hydrogen bonds is
important to secondary structure.
6. Cleaving of peptide chain is done by
c. The alpha helix, beta pleated sheet and
a. Trypsin
beta turns are examples of protein
b. Tyrosine
secondary structure.
c. Tryptophan
d. The steric influence of amino acid
d. Arginine
residues is important to secondary
structure.
7. Which of the following is the correct order of
sequencing?
13. β-pleated sheets are the examples of
a. Cleaving, sequencing and ordering
a. Primary structure
b. Sequencing, ordering and cleaving
b. Secondary structure
c. Ordering, cleaving and sequencing
c. Tertiary structure
d. Ordering, sequencing and cleaving
d. Quaternary structure
14. A coiled peptide chain held in place by hydrogen 20. Which of the following is false statement?
bonding between peptide bonds in the same a. α-Keratin is α helical
chain is b. Collagen is α helical
a. Primary structure c. Hemoglobin has a quaternary structure
b. α-helix d. α-Keratin is β pleated structure
c. β-pleated sheets
d. Tertiary structure 21. Fibroin is rich in
a. Alanine and Glycine
15. A structure that has hydrogen bonds between b. Alanine
polypeptide chains arranged side by side is c. Glycine
a. Primary structure d. Pro
b. α-helix
c. β-pleated sheets 22. Which of the following bonds are not involved in
d. Tertiary structure tertiary type of protein structure?
a. Disulfide bond
16. Which of the following are known as helix b. Hydrogen bonding
breakers? c. Salt bridges
a. Proline and glycine d. Hydrophilic interactions
b. Isoleucine and leucine
c. Valine 23. Which of the following does not possess a
d. Threonine quaternary structure?
a. Myoglobin
17. Which of the following is false about NMR b. Lactate dehydrogenase
spectroscopy? c. Immunoglobin M
a. NMR is an abbreviated form of Nuclear d. Creatine Phospho Kinase
Magnetic Resonance
b. The intramolecular magnetic field 24. Which of the following is abundantly found in
around an atom in a molecule changes collagen?
the resonance frequency giving a. Glycine
structural information about the atom b. Serine
c. The intermolecular magnetic field c. Alanine
around an atom in a molecule changes d. Tryptophan
the resonance frequency giving
structural information about the atom 25. Which of the following is first determined as
d. It is a technique that exploits magnetic oligomer?
properties of atomic nuclei a. Myoglobin
b. Collagen
18. Which of the statements is false about multiple c. Keratin
sequence alignment? d. Hemoglobin
a. Both protein and nucleic acid secondary
structures can be used 26. Which of the following is false?
b. More useful in RNA a. Lysozyme has S-S linkage
c. These alignments can be made more b. Ribonuclease has S-S linkage
accurate by the inclusion of secondary c. Heme group in cytochrome c is
structure information covalently linked to the protein on two
d. A significant increase in accuracy sides
d. Ribonuclease has SH-SH linkage
19. Secondary structure is defined by 27. Which of the following enzyme is secreted by the
a. Hydrogen bonding pancreas?
b. Vander Waals forces a. Ribonuclease
c. Covalent bonding b. Lysozyme
d. Ionic bonding c. Cytochrome c
d. Myoglobin
28. Which of the following is a component of 35. Which of the following is a function of chaperone
mitochondria? protein?
a. Ribonuclease a. It degrades proteins that have folded
b. Lysozyme improperly
c. Cytochrome c b. It provide a template for how the
d. Myoglobin proteins should fold
c. It rescues proteins that have folded
29. Which of the following serves as bactericidal improperly and allows them to refold
agent? properly
a. Ribonuclease d. It degrades proteins that have folded
b. Lysozyme properly
c. Cytochrome c
d. Myoglobin 36. As folding progresses which of the following does
not take place?
30. Which of the following is false about fibrous a. Entropy decreases
protein? b. Amount of protein in native state
a. It is in rod or wire like shape increases
b. Keratin and collagen are the best c. Free energy increases
examples d. Amount of protein in native state
c. Hemoglobin is the best example decreases
d. It provides structural support for cells
and tissues 37. Which of the following are chaperons in E.coli?
a. Hsp70
31. Which of the following forces is favorable for b. Hsp40
protein folding? c. DnaA
a. Hydrophobic interactions d. DnaK and DnaJ
b. Hydrogen bonding
c. Vander Waals forces 38. Which of the following about spontaneous folding
d. Ionic bonding is false?
a. It involves initial formation of highly
32. A process by which a protein structure assumes compact structure
its functional shape or conformation is b. It involves initial formation of a local
a. Denaturing secondary structure
b. Folding c. It is essentially a random process
c. Synthesis d. It may be defective in some human
d. Hydrolysis diseases

33. Process of folding does not depend on 39. Protein A will fold into its native state only when
a. Concentration of salts protein B is also present in the solution. However
b. pH protein B can fold itself into native confirmation
c. Solute without the presence of protein A. Which of the
d. Solvent following is true?
a. Protein B serves as precursor for
34. Which of the following cannot denature a protein A
protein? b. Protein B serves as molecular chaperon
a. Iodoacetic acid for protein A
b. SDS detergent c. Protein B serves as ligand for protein A
c. Urea d. Protein B serves as structural motif for
d. Heating to 90°C protein A
40. Which of the following is true about ribonucease?
a. Native state which is catalytically
inactive is denatured
b. Unfolded state is inactive
c. Renatured ribonuclease is inactive
d. Renaturation involves reestablishment
of the correct disulfide cross links
41. Which of the following is false?
a. Heme consists of a complex organic ring
structure, protoporphyrin
b. Protoporphyrin is bound to a single iron
atom in its Fe3+ state
c. Iron atom has 6 coordination bonds
d. Heme is found in a number of oxygen
transporting proteins
42. Myoglobin is particularly abundant in
a. Nerves
b. Muscles
c. Blood cells
d. Skin
43. His93 is also called
a. His F8
b. His F7
c. His F6
d. His F5
44. Which of the following is a correct relation?
a. Ka [L] = [PL] ⁄ [P]
b. Ka [L] = [P] ⁄ [PL]
c. Ka [L] = [PL] × [P].
d. Ka [PL] = [L] ⁄ [P]
45. Which of the following is a correct relation?
a. Kd [L] = [PL] ⁄ [P]
b. Kd [L] = [P] ⁄ [PL]
c. Kd [L] = [PL] × [P].
d. Kd [PL] = [L] ⁄ [P]
46. Myoglobin binding of O2 depends on
a. Hemoglobin concentration
b. O2 concentration and affinity
myoglobin for O2
c. Ka
d. Kd
47. In the binding of oxygen to myoglobin, the
relationship between the concentration of oxygen
and the fraction of binding sites occupied can best
be described as:
a. Hyperbolic
b. Linear with a negative slope
c. Linear with a positive slope
d. Parabolic
48. Myoglobin and the subunits of hemoglobin have:
a. Very different primary and tertiary
structures
b. Very similar primary and tertiary
structures
c. Very similar primary structures, but
different tertiary structures
d. Very similar tertiary structures, but
different primary structures
49. The interactions of ligands with proteins are:
a. Relatively nonspecific
b. Relatively rare in biological systems
c. Usually irreversible
d. Usually transient
50. When oxygen binds to a heme-containing protein,
the two open coordination bonds of Fe2+ are
occupied by:
a. One O atom and one amino acid atom
b. One O2 molecule and one amino acid
atom
c. One O2 molecule and one heme atom
d. Two O atoms
51. Which of the following is not the function of
helper T cells is
a. Produce soluble signaling proteins
called cytokines, which include the
interleukins
b. They help activate cytotoxic T cells to
kill infected target cells
c. They help activate B cells to secrete
antibodies and macrophages to destroy
ingested microbes
d. They recognize and bind extracellular
ligands
52. Which of the following is a function of
Macrophages?
a. Ingest large particles and cells by
of
phagocytes
b. Produce and secrete antibodies
c. Interact with infected host cells through
receptors on T-cell surface
d. Interact with macrophages and secrete
cytokines
53. Which of the following is a function of B 60. Which of the following is true?
lymphocytes? a. Most of the antibodies recognize small
a. Ingest large particles and cells by organic molecules
phagocytes b. Most of the antibodies recognize
b. Produce and secrete antibodies proteins
c. Interact with infected host cells through c. Monoclonal antibodies produced in the
receptors on T-cell surface laboratory lack the constant regions of
d. Interact with macrophages and secrete IgG
cytokines d. IgM is a pentamer with 10 antigen
binding sites
54. Which of the following is a function of T
lymphocytes? 61. IgG consists of
a. Ingest large particles and cells by a. A light chain and two heavy chains
phagocytes joined by disulfide bond
b. Produce and secrete antibodies b. Two light chains and a heavy chain
c. Interact with infected host cells through joined by disulfide bond
receptors on T-cell surface c. Two light chains and two heavy chains
d. Interact with macrophages and secrete joined by disulfide bond
cytokines d. Two light chains and two heavy chains
joined by hydrogen bond
55. The most abundant immunoglobulin is
62. Which of the following is a true statement?
a. IgA
a. IgG is involved in primary immune
b. IgE
response
c. IgG
b. IgM is involved in primary immune
d. IgM
response
c. IgG is involved only in secondary
56. Which of the following is the largest
immune response
immunoglobulin?
d. IgG and IgM both are involved in
a. IgA
primary immune response
b. IgE
c. IgG 63. The primary antibody of exocrine secretions is
d. IgM a. IgA
b. IgE
57. The antibody present in secretions like tears and c. IgG
saliva is d. IgM
a. IgA
b. IgE 64. Which of the following is not a feature of
c. IgG secondary immune respone to an antigen when
d. IgM compared to the first immune response to the
same antigen?
58. Which of the following antibody first reaches the a. Antibody is generated without T-cell
site of infection? help
a. IgA b. Antibody is generated fast
b. IgE c. Antibody produced has greater affinity
c. IgG for the antigen
d. IgM d. Much antibody is produced
65. Which of the following presents antigenic peptide
59. Where do T-lymphocytes develop into fully
to T-cells in order to initiate an adaptive immune
competent but not activated T-cells?
response?
a. The thymus gland
a. Plasma cell
b. The lymph nodes
b. Dendrite cell
c. The thyroid gland
c. Neutrophil
d. The bone marrow
d. Epithelial cell
66. Light band has which of the following filament 74. The connective tissue that surrounds individual
protein? fibers is
a. Actin a. Fascia
b. Myosin b. Epimysium
c. Actin and myosin c. Endomysium
d. None of these d. Perimysium

67. Contractile protein of a muscle is 75. Which of the following is an invagination of the
a. Troponin muscle cell’s sarcolemma?
b. Myosin a. Cisternae
c. Tubulin b. Microtubules
d. Tropomyosin c. T tubules
d. Sarcoplasmic reticula
68. Which of the following contractile protein of
skeletal muscle involve in ATPase activity? 76. Which of the following is true about Michaelis-
a. Troponin Menten kinetics?
b. Myosin a. Km, the Michaelis constant, is defined
c. Tubulin as that concentration of substrate at
d. Tropomyosin which enzyme is working at maximum
velocity
69. The cross bridges involved in muscle contraction b. It describes single substrate enzymes
are located on the c. Km, the Michaelis constant is defined as
a. Myosin myofilaments the dissociation constant of the
b. Actin myofilaments enzyme-substrate complex
c. Tropomyosin d. It assumes covalent binding occurs
d. Dystrophin between enzyme and substrate

70. The contractile unit consisting of bundles of thick 77. When the velocity of enzyme activity is plotted
filaments interleaved at either end with those of against substrate concentration, which of the
thin filaments is following is obtained?
a. Myofibril a. Hyperbolic curve
b. Cross bridges b. Parabola
c. Z band c. Straight line with positive slope
d. Sarcomere d. Straight line with negative slope

71. Sarcomere is a part between 78. Which of the following is the correct Line weaver-
a. 2 I bands Burk equation?
b. 2 Z bands
c. 2 A bands
d. 2 H bands

72. Which of the following is the smallest division?

a. Actin
b. Fiber
c. Fibril
d. Filament

73. Which of the following is false?

a. Actin is a thin filament
b. Myosin is a thick filament
c. The band in a myofibril is an area of thin
filament
d. Functional unit of muscle is sarcomere
79. Which of the following statements is true about 85. Where does inhibitor binds on enzyme in mixed
competitive inhibitors? inhibition?
a. It is a common type of irreversible a. At active site
inhibition b. Allosteric site
b. In the presence of a competitive c. Does not bind on enzyme
inhibitor, the Michaelis-Menten d. Binds on substrate
86. The catalytic efficiency of two distinct enzymes
equation becomes can be compared based on which of the following
c. The apparent Km decreases in the factor?
presence of inhibitor by a factor α a. Km
d. The maximum velocity for the reaction b. Product formation
decreases in the presence of a c. Size of the enzymes
competitive inhibitor d. pH of optimum value
87. What is the general mechanism of an enzyme?
80. Which of the following statements is true about
a. It acts by reducing the activation energy
uncompetitive inhibitors?
b. It acts by increasing the activation
a. They bind covalently at a site distinct energy
from the substrate active site c. It acts by decreasing the pH
b. In the presence of a uncompetitive d. It acts by increasing the pH
inhibitor, the Michaelis-Menten
88. By what factor chymotrypsin enhances the rate of
peptide bond hydrolysis?
equation becomes a. 107
c. They increase the measured Vmax⁡ b. 108
d. Apparent Km also increases c. At least 109
d. 106
81. The rate determining step of Michaelis-Menten 89. The active site of chymotrypsin consists of a
kinetics is catalytic triad of which of the following amino
a. The complex dissociation step to acid residues?
produce products a. Serine, histidine and aspartate
b. The complex formation step b. Serine, histidine and glutamate
c. The product formation step c. Threonine, histidine and aspartate
d. None of the above d. Methionine, histidine and aspartate
82. The molecule which acts directly on an enzyme to
90. Which of the following statements are true about
lower its catalytic rate is
the reactions at the active center of
a. Repressor
chymotrypsin?
b. Inhibitor
a. The aspartate residue gives an electron
c. Modulator
to histidine
d. Regulator
b. The aspartate residue gives a proton to
83. Which of the following is an example for histidine
irreversible inhibitor? c. The aspartate residue keeps the
a. Disulfiram histidine in the correct direction
b. Oseltamivir d. A proton moves from the aspartate to
c. Protease inhibitors serine to histidine in the catalytic triad
d. DIPF of chymotrypsin

84. Which of the following is an example of reversible 91. The polypeptide chains in chymotrypsin are linked
inhibitor? by
a. DIPF a. Hydrogen bonds
b. Penicillin b. Ionic bonds
c. Iodoacetamide c. Disulfide bond
d. Protease inhibitors d. SH-SH bond
92. Which of the following is false about
chymotrypsin?
a. Hydrolytic cleavage of a peptide bond
by chymotrypsin has two phases
b. It is activated in the presence of trypsin
c. It is synthesized in the thyroid gland
d. Polypeptide chains in chymotrypsin are
linked by S-S bonds

93. Which of the following is true about the structure

of hexokinase?
a. U-shaped
b. T-shaped
c. E-shaped
d. G-shaped

94. Which of the following is true?

a. Xylose is stereo chemically similar to
glucose but one carbon shorter
b. Xylose binds to hexokinase in a position
where it can be phosphorylated
c. Addition of xylose increases the rate of
ATP hydrolysis
d. The binding of xylose is sufficient to
induce a change in hexokinase to its
active conformation

95. Which of the following catalyzes the reversible

degradation of 2-phosphoglycerate to
phosphoenolpyruvate?
a. Chymotrypsin
b. Hexokinase
c. Enolase
d. Trypsin

96. Which of the following catalyzes the reversible

reaction of β-D-Glucose to glucose 6-phosphate?
a. Chymotrypsin
b. Hexokinase
c. Enolase
d. Trypsin

97. Which of the following is false about lysozyme?

a. It is an antibacterial agent found in
tears and egg white
b. The substrate of lysozyme is
peptidoglycan
c. Lysozyme cleaves (β1 → 4) glycosidic C-
O bonds between two types of sugar
residue in the molecule NAM and NAG
d. It is a bisubstrate enzyme
ANSWER KEY 52. A
53. B
1. C 54. C
2. A 55. C
3. B 56. D
4. C 57. A
5. C 58. D
6. A 59. A
7. A 60. B
8. A 61. C
9. C 62. D
10. A 63. A
11. D 64. A
12. A 65. A
13. B 66. A
14. B 67. B
15. C 68. B
16. A 69. A
17. C 70. D
18. B 71. B
19. A 72. A
20. D 73. C
21. A 74. C
22. D 75. C
23. A 76. B
24. A 77. A
25. D 78. A
26. D 79. B
27. A 80. B
28. C 81. A
29. B 82. B
30. C 83. D
31. A 84. D
32. B 85. B
33. C 86. A
34. A 87. A
35. C 88. C
36. D 89. A
37. D 90. C
38. C 91. C
39. B 92. C
40. A 93. A
41. B 94. B
42. B 95. C
43. A 96. B
44. A 97. D
45. A
46. B
47. A
48. D
49. D
50. B
51. D