Flight Training Adelaide Section 19

Air Law One Practice Exam One

SECTION 19 – PRACTICE EXAM NUMBER ONE

Answer the following questions. Circle the correct answer a, b, c or d.

1 When 2 aircraft are approaching head-on and there is danger of a

collision:
a Each aircraft shall alter its heading to the left.
b Each aircraft shall alter its heading to the right.
c The larger of the two aircraft shall alter its heading to the right.
d The smaller of the two aircraft shall give way to the larger.

2 A flight crew member shall not consume any alcoholic liquor:

a 12 hours before the departure of the flight.
b 24 hours before reporting for duty.
c 8 hours before reporting for duty.
d 8 hours before the departure of the flight.

3 Which of the following circumstances would prompt you to make a

PAN PAN call?
a Immediately after takeoff you are unable to raise your undercarriage.
b You have a fire in flight.
c You become aware of a surface vessel in distress.
d One of your passengers develops severe motion sickness.

4 You are operating over a populated area where the highest obstacle on
track reaches 800 feet AGL. What is the minimum height at which you
may legally overfly that obstacle?
a 1000 feet
b 1,500 feet
c 500 feet
d 2000 feet

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Air Law One Practice Exam One

5 One restriction placed on VFR aircraft operating at or below 2000 feet

AGL is:
a The minimum horizontal distance from cloud is 2000 metres.
b The minimum flight visibility is 6 km.
c Navigation must be by visual reference to the ground or water.
d The minimum vertical distance from cloud is 1000 feet.

6 When operating at Parafield aerodrome outside tower hours, the

frequency to be selected on your VHF radio should be
a 124.6 MHz.
b 118.7 MHz.
c 130.45 MHz.
d 119.9 MHz

7 In a light single-engine aeroplane, what is the minimum legal altitude

that may be maintained over a township of elevation 300 feet?
a 1,300 feet
b 1500 feet
c 1,800 feet
d 800 feet

8 When a pilot is inbound to the Parafield Class D Control Zone from the
Western Training Area, the inbound call should be made:
a Crossing the VFR control zone boundary.
b At least 3 nautical miles before the Class D Control Zone boundary.
c At a published VFR approach point at Outer Harbour.
d At a point nominated on the ATIS (Automatic Terminal Information Service)

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Flight Training Adelaide Section 19
Air Law One Practice Exam One

9 In order to remain in VMC, an aircraft operating in Class G airspace

at or above 5,000 feet AMSL must maintain a minimum vertical
distance below cloud of:
a 500 feet
b 1,000 feet
c 2,000 feet
d 1,500 feet

10 When a powered aircraft and a glider are approaching head-on and

there is danger of a collision:
a Each aircraft shall alter its heading to the right.
b Each aircraft shall alter its heading to the left.
c The powered aeroplane shall give way to the glider.
d The powered aeroplane shall climb and the glider shall descend to avoid
collision.

11 The minimum flight visibility for fixed wing aircraft operating at 5,000
feet AMSL is:
a 6,000 metres
b 5,000 metres
c 8 kilometres
d 6 kilometres

12 An aircraft is flying at 2,000 feet on area QNH. The vertical distance

read on the altimeter would be referred to as:
a Altitude 2,000
b Height 2,000
c Flight level 020
d Two thousand above terrain

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Flight Training Adelaide Section 19
Air Law One Practice Exam One

13 A steady green light directed at an aircraft in flight means that the

pilot:
a Is authorized to land if satisfied that no collision risk exists.
b Should return for landing.
c Should give way to other aircraft and continue circling.
d Should take no action – the light is of no significance to aircraft in flight.

14 The radio frequency to be monitored in the Training Area is:

a 118.7 MHz
b 130.45 MHz
c 120.5 MHz
d 124.2 MHz

15 CASA recommends in the AIP/Jepps that turns onto final approach

should:
a Commence not below 500 feet AGL.
b Be completed by not less than 500 feet above aerodrome elevation.
c Commence not above 500 feet AGL.
d Be completed not below 500 feet AMSL.

16 When two aircraft are on approach to land on the same runway, the
aircraft which has right of way is:
a The larger aircraft
b The higher aircraft
c The faster aircraft
d The lower aircraft

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Air Law One Practice Exam One

17 The minimum horizontal distance from cloud for an aircraft

operating in Class D airspace is:
a 600 metres
b 1,500 metres
c 1,000 feet
d 500 feet

18 A student pilot is not permitted to carry passengers unless:

a He/she has completed 2 hours as pilot in command.
b He/she has passed the General Flying Progress Test and flies within the
Student Pilot Area limits.
c He/she has completed 5 hours of navigation training.
d He/she has had a dual flight within the last 30 days.

19 A red flashing light directed by the control tower to an aircraft on

the ground indicates that the aircraft should:
a Stop and hold position.
b Return to the parking area via the most appropriate taxiway.
c Taxi clear of the landing area in use.
d Disembark passengers at its present position.

20 A radio transmission which is readable but with difficulty is:

a Three
b Two
c Five
d Four

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Air Law One Practice Exam One

21 What is the upper limit of the Parafield CTR?

a 2,000 feet
b 1,500 feet
c 2,500 feet
d 20,000 feet

22 What is/are the upper limit/limits of the Western Training Area?

a 2,500 feet to the north and 4,500 feet to the south
b 4,000 feet to the north and south
c 4,500 feet to the north and 2,500 feet to the south
d 3,000 feet to the north and 2,000 feet to the south

23 The longest runway at Parafield aerodrome is:

a Runway 21 Right
b Runway 26 Right
c Runway 03 Right
d Runway 08 Left

24 Which of the following is the minimum altitude you may legally

maintain in cruise flight over an unpopulated area of elevation
600 feet?
a 500 feet
b 1,600 feet
c 1,100 feet
d 2,100 feet

25 When navigating by visual reference to the ground a pilot must:

a Fix his or her position every 15 minutes.
b Fix his or her position every 30 minutes.
c Fly below 10,000 feet.
d Fly below 2,000 feet.

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Flight Training Adelaide Section 20
Air Law One Practice Exam Two

SECTION 20 – PRACTICE EXAM NUMBER TWO

Answer the following questions. Circle the correct answer.

1 A white cross displayed adjacent to the primary wind indicator means:

a Gliding operations are in progress.
b The unsealed areas of the aerodrome are unserviceable.
c The aerodrome is completely unserviceable.
d The aerodrome is not subject to regular inspection.

2 With local QNH set on the sub-scale an altimeter will read:

a Pressure height
b Density height
c Height above mean sea level
d Height above ground level

3 You are departing from a non-towered aerodrome and no ATIS is

available to give you the local QNH. Before takeoff you should:
a Set the altimeter to read zero feet.
b Set 1013.2 hPa on the sub-scale.
c Set the altimeter to read the airport elevation.
d Set an approximate aerodrome pressure on the sub-scale.

4 Restricted Area 298 on the Adelaide VTC should be avoided because:

a Of the large numbers of aircraft transiting to and from the Training Area.
b Of flying training in the area.
c The danger associated with overflying hot rising air above the Pelican Point
power station.
d Of military firing in the Port Wakefield areas.

5 You are at the holding point for runway 03L at Parafield aerodrome.

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Air Law One Practice Exam Two

You are flying Yankee Tango Echo. The correct radio call to be
used when reporting ‘Ready’ for the Western Training Area is:
a Parafield Tower, Yankee Tango Echo, Tobago, ready.
b Parafield Tower, Tobago, Yankee Tango Echo, Runway 03 Left, Ready
for the Western Training Area
c Parafield Tower, Yankee Tango Echo, Tobago, Ready runway 03 Left,
For the Western Training Area, received Golf.
d Parafield Tower, Yankee Tango Echo, require takeoff clearance for the
Training area.

6 A pilot is doing a 2 hour flight from Parafield to Mount Gambier.

EOD at Mount Gambier is 1905 local time. The latest time the pilot
can plan to depart from Parafield is:
a 1555 local time
b 1705 local time
c 1700 local time
d 1655 local time

7 What is the minimum in-flight visibility required to remain in VMC

when operating in Class C airspace at or above 10,000 feet AMSL?
a 8 km
b 600 metres
c 2,000 metres
d 5 km

8 Which of the following diagrams indicates a permanently displaced

threshold, permitting take-off from the beginning of the runway?
a b

c d

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Air Law One Practice Exam Two

9 You are about to take off in an aircraft with a MTOW below 2000kg
from a non-towered aerodrome. Another aircraft (Tobago) also
with a MTOW below 2000kg has just taken-off ahead of you. The
earliest you may commence your takeoff is when:
a The Tobago is airborne and is at least 600 metres ahead of you.
b The Tobago has commenced a turn after takeoff.
c The Tobago is airborne and at least 1800 metres ahead of you.
d The Tobago has crossed the upwind end of the runway.

10 At which of the following locations is a downwind report always

required prior to landing?
a In the circuit at Parafield aerodrome.
b In the circuit at a CTAF certified aerodrome.
c In the circuit at a primary airport control zone.
d In the circuit at an Aeroplane Landing Area (ALA).

11 Following departure from Mildura you plan to cruise at 4500 feet en-
route to Murray Bridge. The change from local to Area QNH should
be made:
a Passing 1000 feet AGL.
b Prior to setting course on departure.
c Just prior to the top of climb.
d Passing 1500 feet on QNH.

12 Which of the following is not required when operating on the

Parafield Class D Control Zone aerodrome?
a Clearance for take-off and landing.
b Clearance to taxi from your parking area to the run-up bay.
c Clearance to taxi on the aprons, along and across the taxiways ‘S’ and ‘L’
and from the parking bay to the fuel bowser and back.
d All of the above.

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Air Law One Practice Exam Two

13 Identify the minimum horizontal distance from cloud that must be

maintained by a VFR flight cruising at 9500 feet.
a 600 metres.
b 500 metres.
c 2000 metres.
d 1500 metres.

14 One circumstance in which you may operate at an altitude lower

than 500 feet AGL over an unpopulated area is:
a Within a Danger Area established for the purpose of flying training.
b Over water.
c Due to stress of weather.
d In order to avoid a Military Low Jet route on which military aircraft have
notified their intention to operate at 500 feet AGL.

15 What is the minimum in-flight visibility required and horizontal

distance from cloud, to remain in VMC when operating in Class G
airspace at 2000 feet AMSL?
a 8 km / clear of cloud
b 600 metres / 1,500 metres
c 2000 metres / 1000 feet
d 5000 metres / clear of cloud

16 You have had a radio failure in the Training area and you have just
turned off the runway after landing on runway 26 Right at Parafield.
You need to return to the FTA Apron. What light signal would you
expect to see in the Control Tower?
a Red flashes
b Green flashes
c Steady green
d Steady white

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Air Law One Practice Exam Two

17 The meaning of a steady green light directed by the control tower

at an aircraft on the ground means:
a The aircraft is authorised to take-off provided the pilot is satisfied there is
no risk of collision.
b The aircraft is authorised to taxi to the holding point provided the pilot is
satisfied there is no risk of collision.
c Vacate the runway and await further light signals.
d Return for landing.

18 Seat belts/safety harness must be worn at all stages of flight by:

a The pilot when he/she is the sole pilot.
b The occupants of both control seats.
c All on board during climb and descent.
d Two children when they occupy a single seat.

The fuel system in an aircraft must be checked for water

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contamination as required by CASA:

a Before each flight.

b Before the first flight of the day and after each refuelling.
c Before the first flight of the day and after the last flight of the day.
d At least once a day.

20 One item which must be included in a passenger brief prior to take-

off is:
a A demonstration of the correct crash landing position.
b The use and location of fire extinguishers.
c The use and adjustment of seat belts.
d The demonstration of evacuation procedures.

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Air Law One Practice Exam Two

21 Smoking is not permitted in an aircraft;

a During take-off or landing
b During refuelling
c When a “no-smoking” sign is displayed
d All of the above

22 Which rule applies to the occupancy of a control seat by a

passenger of a dual control light aircraft?
a The carriage of a passenger in a control seat is prohibited.
b A passenger may occupy a control seat if he/she wears a seat belt at all
times, and there is satisfactory communication between the pilot and the
passenger.
c A passenger may not occupy a control seat unless the control column is
removable.
d A passenger may occupy a control seat if he/she is briefed not to touch the
controls, and there is satisfactory communication at all times between the
pilot and the passenger.

23 A passenger is not permitted to be carried on which of the

following types of flying:
a An aircraft engaged in aerobatic flying.
b Flying training given to a person who has not passed the General Flying
Progress Test (GPFT).
c An aircraft carrying out formation flying.
d An aircraft engaged in Search and Rescue (SAR) operations.

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24 You are returning from the Parafield Training Area in a Grob – THC.
You are in receipt of ATIS code ‘Echo’. Your radio call at Outer
Harbour will be:-
a “Parafield Tower, Tango Hotel Charlie. Grob, Outer Harbour, one
thousand five hundred, inbound, received Echo”.
b “Parafield Tower, Tango Hotel Charlie, Outer Harbour, inbound one
thousand, received Echo”.
c “Parafield Tower, Grob Tango Hotel Charlie, Outer Harbour,
inbound one thousand five hundred, received Echo”.
d “Parafield Tower, Grob, Tango Hotel Charlie, Outer Harbour, one
thousand five hundred, received Echo, inbound”.

25 The thick magenta (red) broken line around Edinburgh on the VTC
indicates:
a The boundary of the Edinburgh Military Control Zone.
b That Edinburgh uses CTAF procedures when the tower is inoperative.
c The boundary of the military restricted area above 1,500 feet.
d The size of the circuit area at Edinburgh.

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