EE3004: Control Engineering - Section ESB350 July - Nov 2018

Solutions to Tutorial & Homework #2

1. Given that,
Z ∞
L[f (t)] = F (s) = f (t)e−st dt
0

But since we are given that f (t) = 0 ∀t > T , we have

Z T
F (s) = f (t)e−st dt
0

It is clear that the periodic repetition of the signal is given by

f ˜(t) = f (t) + f (t − T ) + f (t − 2T ) + ....

Since we know that L[f (t − T ) = e−sT F (s), we have

L[f ˜(t)] = F (s) + e−sT F (s) + e−2sT F (s) + ....

So,

F ˜(s) = (1 + e−sT + e−2sT + e−3sT + ..)F (s)

1
We know that 1 + z + z 2 + z 3 + ..... = 1−z if |z| < 1

So, 1 + e−sT + e−2sT + e−3sT + .. = 1

1−e−sT
, if Re(s) > 0

Hence,

1
F ˜(s) = F (s)
1 − e−sT

2. a) The convolution of two rectangular pulses p1 (t) and p2 (t) of amplitudes A1 , A2 and
durations T1 , T2 gives a trapezoidal pulse p(t) as illustrated below.
In our case, T1 = T , T1 + T2 = 3T and A1 A2 = TK2
So,

A1 A2 (1 − e−sT1 )(1 − e−sT2 )

L[p(t)] = L[p1 (t) ∗ p2 (t)] = L[p1 (t)].L[p2 (t)] =
s2

Substituting the values for amplitudes and periods, we get

1
 K(1 − e−sT )(1 − e−2sT )
L[p(t)] =
T 2 s2

b) The given signal is expressed as

1
f (t) = 2[u(t) − u(t − T )] + (t − 3T )[u(t − T ) − u(t − 3T )]
T
So using properties of Laplace Transform, it is evaluated as

2 1 T e−sT e−sT e−sT e−3sT

(1 − e−sT ) + ( + 2 )−3 − 2
s T s s s s T

3. a) Taking Laplace Transform both sides for both the differential equations, we have
sR1 (s) − R1 (0) = K1 (R2 (s) − R1 (s))
sR2 (s) − R2 (0) = K2 (R1 (s) − R2 (s))
Rearranging the equations and putting them in matrix form gives

" #" # " #

s + K1 −K1 R1 (s) R1 (0)
= (1)
−K2 s + K2 R2 (s) R2 (0)

Thus, inverting the above 2X2 matrix and solving for R1 (s) and R2 (s)we have

s + K2 K1
R1 (s) = R1 (0) + R2 (0)
s(s + K1 + K2 ) s(s + K1 + K2 )
s + K1 K2
R2 (s) = R2 (0) + R1 (0)
s(s + K1 + K2 ) s(s + K1 + K2 )

Using partial fractions, the above equations simplify as

R1 (s) = ( s(KK 2
1 +K2 )
K1
+ (K1 +K2 )(s+K 1 +K2 )
)R1 (0) + ( s(KK 1
1 +K2 )
K1
− (K1 +K2 )(s+K 1 +K2 )
)R2 (0)
R2 (s) = ( s(KK 1
1 +K2 )
K2
+ (K1 +K2 )(s+K 1 +K2 )
)R2 (0)+( s(s+KK12+K2 ) − (K1 +K2 )(s+K
K2
1 +K2 )
)R1 (0)

Inverting the Laplace transforms, we get the solution as

K2 R1 (0) + K1 R2 (0) K1
R1 (t) = + e−(K1 +K2 )t (R1 (0) − R2 (0))
K1 + K2 K1 + K2
K2 R1 (0) + K1 R2 (0) K2
R2 (t) = + e−(K1 +K2 )t (R2 (0) − R1 (0))
K1 + K2 K1 + K2

b) As t → ∞ in the expressions for R1 (t) and R2 (t), we have at steady state,

K2 R1 (0) + K1 R2 (0)
R1 (∞) = R2 (∞) =
K1 + K2

So, the robots achieve rendezvous asymptotically.

c) We can use final value theorem in the Laplace Transform expressions for R1 (s) and

2
 R2 (s) in the equations in (a) and get the same result
d) The robots meet midway along the line joining their initial positions, with the ren-
dezvous point dividing that line in the ratio of K1 and K2 respectively. It is the
familiar section formula in plane coordinate geometry.

4. a) Substituting the driver’s feedback scheme in the differential equation of the car, we
get

dv
M + bv(t) = u(t) = Cp(t) = C.K(r − v(t))
dt
Simplifying the above equation, we have

dv
M + (b + CK)v(t) = CKr
dt
Taking Laplace Transform both sides, we have

CKr
(M s + b + cK)V (s) − M V (0) =
s
So,

CKr M V (0)
V (s) = +
s(M s + B + KC) sM + B + KC

Simplifying and writing the partial fraction expansion, we get

KCr 1 1 V (0)
V (s) = ( − )+
b + KC s s + b+KC
m s + b+KC
m

Inverting the Laplace transform, we get

KCr b+KC b+KC

v(t) = (1 − e− m t ) + V (0)e− m t
b + KC

KCr
We observe that as t → ∞, v(t) → b+KC 6= r unless b = 0 or K → ∞.
The physical reason behind this steady state error of this scheme is that the friction
in the system due to damping (b) wants to maintain the system at zero velocity
whereas the controller wants to maintain equilibrium at the reference speed (r) and
hence the system at steady settles somewhere midway where both the forces cancel.
More the the gain, more is the force from the controller and hence the steady state
velocity approaches reference in the limit of high gain.

5. Naive statement of final value theorem:

lim f (t) = lim sF (s)

t→∞ s→0
1
Iff (t) = e3t andF (s) =
s−3
s
lim sF (s) = lim =0
s→0 s→0 s − 3

whereas we know that

3
 lim e3t = ∞
t→∞

This looks like a contradiction but actually, the Laplace transform for e3t is given by the
integral
Z ∞
e3t e−st dt
0

does not converge at s=0

So, actually, lims→0 L[e3t ] = ∞ So, final value theorem should read as

lim f (t) = lim sF (s)

t→∞ s→0

if Re(s)=0 lies in the region of convergence of F(s). Otherwise it is undefined. A Laplace

transform is completely defined only if its region of convergence is specified. So the final
value theorem is
limt→∞ f (t) = lims→0 sF (s)
if Re(s)=0 is in the region of convergence of L[f (t)]
2
6. a) An example would be f (t) = et
We will prove that it is not bounded by any exponential. Assume the contrary that
it is so. Then, there exists constants K > 0, c such that
2
et < Kect ∀t
2 −ct
⇒ et < K∀t

Taking logarithm both sides (log is an increasing function and hence it preserves the
inequality), we have

t2 − ct < M ∀t

where

M = log(K)

But that is a contradiction since no matter how large c is, there is always a time
after which t2 > ct by any finite number.
Any exponential whose exponent grows faster than a linear function will do as an
example.
b) No. Not necessarily. Consider the function
2
f (t) = sin(et )

It is bounded in magnitude by unity and hence Laplace transformable.

|f (t)| < 1e0t

2 2 2
But df t t t
dt = 2te cos(e ) which is not Laplace transformable as it contains an e term.
The function even though bounded, oscillates faster and faster with time and the

4
 rate of change of its oscillations is uncontrolled by any exponential and hence its
derivative is not Laplace transformable.
c) Fourier Transformability ⇒ Laplace transformability but the reverse is not true un-
less Re(s)=0 is in the region of convergence of the Laplace Transform.
F [f (t)] = L[f (t)] with Re(s) = 0. So, if a signal is Laplace transformable, it is
not Fourier transformable unless Re(s)=0 lies in the region of convergence of the
Laplace Transform. But if a signal is Fourier transformable, then it is also Laplace
transformable since Fourier transformability implies Laplace Transform converges for
Re(s)=0 and hence would converge for Re(s) ≥ 0 also.

7. a) Applying Kirchoff’s Law, the equation in Laplace domain assuming initial charge
zero is given by

1
Y (s) = U (s)
1 + sCR

b) The Laplace transform of the pulse train (by Q1) is given by

1 − e−sDT
U (s) =
s(1 − e−sT )

Substituting this in the expression for Y(s), we have

1 − e−sDT
Y (s) =
s(1 + sCR)(1 − e−sT )

Simplifying through partial fraction, we have

1 − e−sDT 1 1
Y (s) = ( −sT
)( − 1 )
1−e s s + CR

Splitting the numerator, we have

1 1 1 e−sDT 1 1
Y (s) = −sT
( − 1 ) − −sT
( − 1 )
1−e s s + CR 1−e s s + CR

Expanding

1
= 1 + e−sT + e−2sT + ....
1 − e−sT
We have
1 1 −sT
Y (s) = ( − 1 )(1 + e + e−2sT + .... − e−sDT − es[D+1]T − es[D+2]T − ....)
s s + CR

We know that L−1 [e−sT F (s)] = f (t − T )

t
L−1 [( 1s − 1
1
s+ CR
)] = u(t)(1 − e− CR ) where u(t) is the unit step function.

5
 So,
∞
X t−iT t−[i+D]T
y(t) = u(t − iT )(1 − e− CR − u(t − [i + D]T )(1 − e− CR )
i=0

c) In high frequency (T small), we have that 1 − e−aT = aT (neglecting higher order

terms), we have that

D
Y (s) =
s(1 + sCR)

At high frequencies capacitor acts as though a constant DC input of D is being

applied and it is reasonable from intuition because capacitor acts as a short circuit
to high frequencies and hence sees only the average value of the applied voltage at
such high frequencies whose value is D.
At low frequencies, T is very high and hence e−aT = 0 and hence we have that

1
Y (s) =
s(1 + sCR)

The capacitor sees a constant input of 1V since as time period becomes high, the
capacitor sees only one cycle.

8. a Drawing the free body diagram and writing the equations of motion in Laplace domain,
we have

(s2 + s + 1)X1 (s) − (s + 1)X2 (s) = F (s)

−(s + 1)X1 + (s2 + s + 1)X2 (s) = 0

Solve for X2 (s) From which,

X2 (s) (s + 1)
= 2 2
F (s) s (s + 2s + 2)

Solving for X1 (s), we have

X1 (s) s2 + s + 1
= 2 2
F (s) s (s + 2s + 2)

The force-voltage analogous circuit is drawn below by interpreting the mechanical

velocities as mesh currents.

6
 Figure 1

b Let x1 be the displacement of the actual mass given. The tip in these kind of questions
is to place a zero mass whenever there is an intersection of springs and dampers in
series. So, placing a zero mass between f (t) and the spring and calling it m3 = 0
and placing another zero mass m2 = 0 between the spring and the damper, and
calling their respective displacements as x3 and x2 respectively, drawing their free
body diagrams and writing the equations of motion in Laplace domain, we have

(10s2 + 2s)X1 (s) + 5s(X1 (s) − X2 (s)) = 0

2(X2 (s) − X3 (s)) + 5s(X2 (s) − X1 (s)) = 0
2(X3 (s) − X2 (s)) = F (s)

Solving for X1 (s) after eliminating X2 and X3 yields the transfer function as

X1 (s) 50
=
F (s) s(10s + 7)(s2 + 50s + 2)

Drawing the force-voltage analogous circuit below

Figure 2

c Writing mesh equations,

(3s + 1)I1 (s) − I2 (s) = Vi (s)

2
−I1 (s) + (2s + 1 + )I2 (s) = 0
s

7
 Solve for I2 (s),
we get,

I2 (s) s
= 3 2
Vi (s) 6s + 5s + 6s + 2

But V0 (s) = I2 (s)3s

Therefore,

3s2
G(s) =
6s3 + 5s2 + 6s + 2
Drawing the voltage-force analogous mechanical system below

Figure 3

d Simplifying the network using impedances in Laplace domain yields,

Writing the loop equations,
s s
(s + )I1 (s) − 2 I2 (s) − sI3 (s) = Vi (s)
s2 + 1 s +1
s s 1
− 2 I1 (s) + ( 2 + 1 + )I2 (s) − I3 (s) = 0
s +1 s +1 s
−sI1 (s) − I2 (s) + (2s + 1)I3 (s) = 0

Solving for I2 (s),

s(s2 + 2s + 2)
I2 (s) = Vi (s)
s4 + 2s3 + 3s2 + 3s + 2
But,

I2 (s) (s2 + 2s + 2
Vo (s) = = 4 Vi (s)
s s + 2s3 + 3s2 + 3s + 2
Therefore,

Vo (s) I2 (s) (s2 + 2s + 2)

= = 4
Vi (s) s s + 2s3 + 3s2 + 3s + 2

The above electrical circuit does not have force-voltage analogous mechanical system in
terms of the mesh currents because some mesh equations will involve second derivatives

8
 of two inductor charges but this is not possible in any mechanical system since Newton’s
equations involve only one acceleration per mass..

9. a) Let us solve the system classically first. We know that ∀t ∈ 0+ , δ(t) = 0.

So, for t > 0+ , we have the system as

ẋ(t) + x(t) = 0

which has the solution

x(t) = x(0+ )e−t

We have to now find x(0+ ) when we are given only x(0− ). This is where the impulse
comes in. Integrating the differential equation from t = 0+ to t = 0− we have
Z 0+ Z 0+
+ −
x(0 ) − x(0 ) + x(t)dt = δ(t)dt
0− 0−
R
Note that x(t)dt should be continuous at 0, since if it were not, then it would be
having a step change at 0, and its derivative, x(t) would be having an impulse at 0
and its derivative, ẋ would have the derivative of an impulse at 0, which is not found
R
in the RHS of the differential equation. So, x(t)dt is continuous and hence cannot
R 0+
change abruptly from 0− to 0+ . So, we have that 0− x(t)dt = 0. So, we have
Z 0+
+ −
x(0 ) − x(0 ) = δ(t)dt = 1
0−

So, we have

x(0+ ) = 1 + x(0− ) = 1 + 1 = 2

However, these complications do not arise when we use the Laplace transform (more
R∞
strictly the L− transform defined as 0− f (t)e−st dt where we can use this to solve
the differential equation at one shot. We know that the L− transform of the impulse
function is
Z ∞
L[δ(t)] = δ(t)dt = 1
0−

Taking Laplace transform both sides of the differential equation, we have

sX(s) − x(0− ) + X(s) = 1

2
⇒ X(s) =
s+1

⇒ x(t) = 2e−t

b) First classically, as usual, let us integrate the above differential equation once and
from 0− to 0+ and arguing the same way we have the x(t)dt to be continuous, we
R

9
have
Z 0+ Z 0+
+ − + −
ẋ(0 ) − ẋ(0 ) + 2[x(0 ) − x(0 )] = δ(t)dt + δ̇(t)dt = 1 + 0
0− 0−

Note that the second term is 0 because the integral simplifies to δ(0+ ) − δ(0− ) = 0
by the definition of impulse function. Substituting x(0− ) = ẋ(0− ) = 1 in the above
equation, we have

ẋ(0+ ) + 2x(0+ ) = 4

Now, integrating the above differential equation from 0+ to 0− twice this time, we
have that

x(0+ ) − x(0− ) = 1
R RR RR
Since x(t)dt and x(t)dt and δ(t)dt = tu(t) are all continuous (repeat the
same argument), they all vanish when integrated over a vanishingly small interval
from 0− to 0+ . The only integrals that survive are written below
Z ∞
x(0+ ) − x(0− ) + 0 + 0 = 0 + δ(t)dt = 1
0−

which gives the above equation. From solving the two equations, we get x(0+ ) and
ẋ(0+ ) as

x(0+ ) = 2
ẋ(0+ ) = 0

Now for t ≥ 0+ , all input terms in the RHS vanish and hence we have the unforced
solution given by

x(t) = x(0+ )e−t + t(x(0+ ) + ẋ(0+ ))e−t

⇒ x(t) = 2e−t + 2te−t

Let us now use Laplace transforms and we have that L[δ(t)] = 1, L[δ̇(t)] = s,
x(0− ) = x(0− ) = 1, we get

s2 X(s) − sx(0− ) − ẋ(0− ) + 2sX(s) − 2x(0− ) + X(s) = 1 + s

Simplifying, substituting the initial conditions and rearranging, we get that

2(s + 2)
X(s) =
(s + 1)2

Inverting the expression in time domain using partial fractions simplifies to

x(t) = 2e−t + 2te−t

10