All India Open Test (Aiot) Jee Main: Important Instructions

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ALL INDIA OPEN TEST (AIOT) JEE MAIN
COURSE : JP, JF, JR, ER, JCC TARGET : JEE(IITs/NITs) - 2013
Date : 27-01-2013 Duration : 3 Hours Max. Marks : 360

Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.
IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS
1. Immediately fill the particulars on this page of the Test Booklet with Blue / Black Ball Point Pen.
Use of pencil is strictly prohibited.
2. The Test Booklet consists of 90 questions.
3. There are three parts in the question paper. The distribution of marks subjectwise in each part is as under for each correct
response.
PART A — PHYSICS (120 marks)

Question No. 1 to 30 consist of Four (4) marks for each correct response.
PART B — CHEMISTRY (120 marks)

DO NOT BREAK THE SEALS WITHOUT BEING

INSTRUCTED TO DO SO BY THE INVIGILATOR
PART C — MATHEMATICS (120 marks)
4. Candidates will be awarded marks as stated above in Instructions No. 3 for correct response of each question.
–1/4 (minus one fourth) marks will be deducted for indicating incorrect response of each question. No deduction from the
total score will be made if no response is indicated for an item in the Answer sheet.
5. No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, paper, mobile phone, any electronic
device, etc., except the Admit Card inside the examination hall/room.
6. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only. This space is given at the bottom
of each page.
7. On completion of the test, the candiate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the Room/Hall. However,
the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
8. Make sure that the CODE printed of the Answer Sheet is the same c as that on this booklet. In case of discrepancy, the
condidate should immediately report the matter to the Invigilator fo replacement of both the Test Booklet and the Answer Sheet.
9. Do not fold or make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet.
Name of the Candidate Roll Number
I have read all the instructions and I have verified all the information
shall abide by them. filled in by the Candidate.
-------------------------------- --------------------------------
Signature of the Candidate Signature of the Invigilator
PART- A 3. A rod of length  carrying current i is kept in uniform
magnetic field of magnitude B is shown in figure.
Then the force on rod due to magnetic field is.
SECTION - I
Straight Objective Type
T his s ec tion contains 27 m ultiple c hoic e
questions. Each question has choices (1), (2),
(3) and (4) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. An ideal cell of emf 30 V is connected across three

resistance of 10  each and an ideal diode as (1) zero
shown. Then the magnitude of potential difference (2) iB sin
VAB across at 10 resistor as shown is (3) iB cos
(4) iB
4. A charge particle of charge q is moving with speed v

in a circle of radius R as shown in figure. Then the
magnetic field at a point on axis of circle at a distance
x from centre is :
(1) 10 V
(2) 20 V
(3) 30 V
(4) None of these
2. In the circuit shown in figure, the base current IB

is 10 A and the collector current is 5.2 mA. The
value of VBE is  0 qV 0 qV
(1) (2) 4 2
4 R 2 (R  x 2 )
 0 qV 0 qVR
(3) (4) 4 2
4 x 2 (R  x 2 )3 / 2
5. The pressure at the bottom of a tank of water is 3P,

where P is the atmospheric pressure . If the water
(1) 0.1 V is drawn out to lower the level of water by one fifth
(2) 0.3 V then, the pressure at the bottom of the tank will be:
(3) 0.5 V (1) 2P (2) (13/5) P
(4) None of these (3) (8/5) P (4) (4/5)P
(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)
RESONANCE JPFRAIOTXII270113C0-1
6. A battery of EMF E, resistance R and an uncharged 8. The incorrect ray diagram for thin concave lens is :
capacitor C are connected in the circuit as shown in
figure. Then after switch is turned on :
(1)
(1) Current through R and charge on capacitor C

both will increase with time.
(2) Current through R and charge on capacitor C
both will decrease with time.
(3) Current through R will increase but charge on C (2)
will decrease with time.
(4) Current through R will decrease but charge on C
will increase with time.
7. Consider a ring performing pure rolling then on a fixed

rough surfae. There is a point ‘A’ marked on the
circumference of it. If velocity of centre of ring is
uniform, then this point will move in a cycloidal path (3)
as shown.
(4) None of these

Now, if the ring is perfoming pure rolling with uniform
acceleration what will be the path followed by this
point.
(1)
increasing size of cycloid
(2) v
decreasing size of cycloid.

(3) It will depend on direction of acceleration whether
it is in the direction of velocity of centre or opposite.
(4) No change in path will occur.
9. The point of intersection of emergent rays is : 11. In the figure shown find out the distance of centre
of mass of a system of a uniform circular plate of
radius 3 R from O in which a hole of radius R is
cut whose centre is at 2R distance from centre of
large circular plate.
(1) 2 cm left of o.
(1) R/4
(2) 2 cm right of o.
(2) R/5
(3) 1 cm left of o.
(3) R/2
(4) 1 cm right of o.
(4) none of these
10. The current flowing in the loop is shown in figure.

Then the magnetic field at point O (centre) is : 12. The correct shape of a water drop enclosed between
two glass plates in gravity free space will be -
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
3 o i
(1)
8r
5 o i 13. The ratio of the radii of the planets P1 and P2 is

(2)
8r k 1. The corresponding ratio of the acceleration due
to the gravity on them is k 2. The ratio of the escape
 o i velocities from them will be
(3)
8r
(1) k 1 k 2 (2) k 1k 2
(4) None of these
(3) (k 1 / k 2 ) (4) (k 2 / k 1 )
14. The ratio of the secondary to the primary turns in a 18. The frequency of oscillation of current in the inductor
transfomer is 3 : 2 and the output power is P. is :
Neglecting all power losses, the input power must
be
2P 3P
(1) (2)
3 2
P 1 1
(3) (4) P (1) (2)
2 3 LC 6 LC
15. Three consecutive resonant frequencies of string are 1 1

(3) (4)
90, 150 and 210Hz. If the length of the string is 80cm LC 2 LC
what is the speed of the transverse wave in the string.
(1) 45 m/s
(2) 96 m/s 19. A thin metal rod of length L0 is shaped into a ring
(3) 48 m/s with a small gap x as shown. On heating the system
(4) 80 m/s
16. If one starts with one curie of radioactive substance

(half life time = 12 hrs) the activity left after a period
of 1 week will be about
(1) 1 curie
1 (1) x decreases, r and d increase

(2) 7 curie
2 (2) x and r increase, d decreases
(3) x, r and d all increase
1 (4) Data insufficient to arrive at a conclusion
(3) curie
214
1 20. When a sound wave of frequency 300 Hz passes

(4) curie
22 through a medium, maximum displacement of the
particle of the medium is 0.1 cm. The maximum
 
17. If E and B are the electric and magnetic field velocity of the particle will be :
vectors of electromagnetic waves, then the (1) 60 m/s
direction of propagation of electromagnetic wave (2) 30 m/s
is along the direction of (3) 30  cm/s
(1) E
 
(2) B (4) 60  cm/s
 
(3) E  B (4) None of these
21. The rate of radiation of a black body at 0 ºC is E 24. In Young’s double slit experiment, separation
watt. Then the rate of radiation of this black body at between slits is halved and distance between slits
273 ºC will be: and screen is doubled. The fringe width is :
(1) 8 E (1) same.
(2) 16 E (2) quadrupled
(3) 4 E (3) halved.
(4) E (4) one–third
22. In a compound microscope the intermediate image 25. An alternating current is given by
is : i = i1 cos t + i2 sin t.
(1) real, inverted & magnified The rms current is given by
(2) real, erect & magnified
i1  i 2 i1  i2
(3) virtual, erect & magnified (1) (2)
2 2
(4) virtual, erect & reduced
23. A mass m is suspended from a massless pulley, i12  i22 i12  i22
(3) (4)
which itself is suspended by a massless string 2 2
and a spring as shown in figure. What will be the
time period of osillations of the mass. The force
26. A ball of relative density 0.8 falls into water from a
constant of spring is K-
height of 2m above the surface of water. The depth
inside water upto which the ball will sink is (neglect
viscous forces):
(1) 8 m
(2) 2 m
(3) 6 m
(4) 4 m
27. If 13.6 eV energy is required to ionize the hydrogen

atom, then the energy required to remove an electron
from its excited state in orbit n = 2 is equal to :
m m (1) 10.2 eV
(1) 2 (2) 2
2K K (2) 0 eV
(3) 3.4 eV
m m (4) 6.8 eV
(3)  (4) 
K 2K
30. STATEMENT-1 : Gas ejected from rocket will never
SECTION - II exert thrust on the rocket if the ejected gas and the
Reasoning Type rocket move in the same direction.
This section contains 3 reasoning type questions. STATEMENT-2 : To exert thrust on rocket in its
Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and direction of motion, the ejected gas ( w.r.t. rocket)
(4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. must move opposite to velocity of rocket (w.r.t. ground)
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
28. STATEMENT–1: In photoelectric experiment the
Statement-1.
ejected electrons have a wide range of kinetic energy
even if the photons striking the surface have same
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
energy.
Statement-1
STATEMENT–2: According to Einstein electrons can
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
absorb any fraction of the energy of the striking
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
photon.
Statement-1.
Statement-1
29. STATEMENT-1 : A uniformly distributed direct

current flows through a solid long metallic cylinder
along its length. It produces magnetic field only
outside the cylinder .
STATEMENT- 2 : A thin long cylindrical tube carrying
uniformly distributed direct current along its length
does not produce a magnetic field inside it. Moreover,
a solid cylinder can be supposed to be made up of
many thin cylindrical tubes.
Statement-1.
Statement-1
PART- B
Atomic masses : [H = 1, D = 2, Li = 7, C = 12, N = 14, O = 16, F = 19, Na = 23, Mg = 24,
Al = 27, Si = 28, P = 31, S = 32, Cl = 35.5, K = 39, Ca = 40, Cr = 52, Mn = 55, Fe = 56, Cu = 63.5,
Zn = 65, As = 75, Br = 80, Ag = 108, I = 127, Ba = 137, Hg = 200, Pb = 207]

This section contains 30 questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) for its answer, out of which
ONLY ONE is correct.
31. Which of the following gases turns starch iodide 34. (P) forms a precipitate with AgNO3. The precipitate
paper blue? dissolves in excess reagent (P). (P) cannot be :
(1) CO2
(1) KOH
(2) SO2
(2) KCN
(3) NO2
(3) Na2S2O3
(4) H2S
(4) NH3
32. A substance (A) is water insoluble, On bubbling Cl2
through its suspension in water, it produces a 35. CS2 burns in excess air to produce :
coloured aqueous solution, forming a single product.
(A) may be :
(1) CO2 & SO2
(1) BiOCl
(2) CO2 & SO3
(2) CuCl
(3) CO & SO2
(3) Hg2Cl2
(4) CO & SO3
(4) All of these
36. Conc. HCl can dissolve :
33. Cold dilute HNO3 cannot dissolve :
(1) Mg
(1) Pb
(2) Ag
(2) PbO2
(3) Hg
(3) PbO
(4) PbCO3 (4) Cu
37. Which of the following pairs of compounds have 40. As a bomb explodes, gases are formed in a small
central atom with identical hybridization ? volume very rapidly. During explosion, these gases
rapidly expand. In this process of explosion :
(1) SO2 and SOCl2
(1) PV work is done by the atmospheric air.
(2) XeO3 and XeO2F2
(2) PV work is done on the atmospheric air.
(3) XeF4 and XeOF4
(3) exploding bomb is an isolated system.
(4) SF4 and XeF4
(4) energy is absorbed from the sunoundings.
38. Spin-only magnetic moment of [Co(NH3)3(H2O)3]Cl3
(in Bohr Magnetons) is : 41. During electrolysis of 1L, 1M AgNO3 using silver
Electrodes, 9.65 A current is used for one hour.
(1) Zero Assuming the volume to remain unchanged, molarity
of AgNO3 at the end of electrolytic process is :
(2) 3
(1) 1 M
(3) 24 (2) 0.36 M
(3) 0.64 M
(4) 35
(4) None of these
39. CO forms a volatile carbonyl complex with which of
the following metals ? 42. 100 mL of given KMnO4 solution titrates 50 mL of
0.1 M oxalic acid. Its normality against alkaline H2O2
(1) Na is :
(2) Sn (1) 0.1 N
(3) Ni (2) 0.02 N
(4) Hg (3) 0.06 N
(4) None of these
43. Gold is plated with rhodium to give a base for 46. Arhenius equation is not applicable for :
mounting diamonds in modern jewellery. The
rhodium-gold alloy consistes of gold atoms in fcc (1) first order reactions
structure with half the face centers being replaced
by rhodium atoms. Formula of this alloy is : (2) Second order reactions
(1) Au5Rh3 (3) Zero order reaction
(2) AuRh3 (4) radioactive decay
(3) Au3Rh5 47. During formation of the activated complex in reaction
(4) Au3Rh–1 of with alc. KOH, which of the following is

correct ?
44. Positive deviation from raoults law is shown by which
of the following mixtures :
(1) Hactivation < 0
(1) Benzene and toluene

(2) Sactivation < 0
(2) CHCl3 & acetone

(3) Gactivation < 0
(3) ethanol & water

(4) All are correct
(4) HCl & water

48. Sugar can be removed from sweetened milk by :
45. Solubility of AgCl in 0.1 M AgNO3 is 10–9M. Its

(1) coagulation
solubility in 0.1 M HCl is :
(2) syneresis
(1) 10–9 M
(3) peptization
(2)10–10 M
(4) dialysis.
(3)10–5 M
(4) None of these
49. Consider the following acids and bases : 50. The product of following reaction
CH MgCl
3
  
ether
Acids :
(1)
(1) (2) (3)
(2)
Bases:
(3)
(4) (5) (6)
The fastest rate of reaction of an acid and a base

takes place between :
(1) 1 and 4 (4)
(2) 3 and 6
(3) 2 and 5
(4) 1 and 6
51. The product of the following reaction does not show 53. Number of optically active optical isomers of
positive test with
compound is :
(1) 4
NH
3 Br / NaOH
  2  product.
 
(2) 2
(3) 0
(1) (CHCl3 + KOH)/(Carbyl amine test)
(4) 3
54. Gauche form of meso-butane-2,3-diol has :

(2) HNO2, (-naphthol test)
(1) Plane of symmetry

(3) Ph–SO2Cl/NaOH (Hinsberg test)
(2) Centre of symmetry
(4) Neutral FeCl3 Test
(3) Both 1 and 2
52. Which of the following will not react with acetyl
(4) Intramolecular H-bonding
chloride ? 55. Select the true/false statements
S1 : The rate of catalytic hydrogenation of 2–butyne

is greater than trans–2–butene.
(1) H2O
S2 : The rate of reduction of CH2= O is slower than
(CH3)2C=O by LiAlH4.
(2)
S3 : The aqueous solution of CH3MgBr is used for
SN2 reaction with primary alkyl halides.
(1) F F F
(3)
(2) T F T
(3) T F F
(4) (4) T F T
56. Identify a reagent from the following list which can C H Cl / AlCl ( X) (Y)
58. 25
3 


easily distinguish between 1-butyne and 2-butyne.
(1) bromine, CCl4
The reagents X and Y are respectively :

(2) H2, Lindlar catalyst
(1) X = CH3COCl / AlCl3, Y = KMnO4 / OH / ,

(3) dilute H2SO4, HgSO4
acidification
(4) ammonical Cu2Cl2 solution

(2) X = CH3CH2Cl / AlCl3, Y = CrO3 / H / 
57. The reactant X & Y of following reactions are (3) X = CH3COCl / AlCl3, Y = I2 / NaOH, acidification
HO O
OH–
X + Y   (4) X = KMnO4 / OH / , acidification, Y = CH3CH2Cl
H2O
/ AlCl3
59. Which of the following is nonreducing sugar ?
(1) + CH3CHO
(1) Glyceraldehyde (2) Glucose
(3) Fructose (4) Sucrose
(2) 60. Identify the correct order of boiling points of the

following compounds having nearly same molecular
weight.
(3)
(1) IV > II > III > I (2) IV > III > II > I
(3) III > IV > II > I (4) IV > II > III > I
(4)
64. Set of real values of k for which the lines x + 3y + 1 = 0,
PART- C
kx + 2y – 2 = 0 and 2x – y + 3 = 0 form a triangle is
SECTION - I 2  2  6
(1) R –  , – 4 (2) R –  , – 4, 
3  3 5 
This section contains 25 questions. Each question

 2
(3) R – 4,   (4) R
has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) for its answer, out  3
of which ONLY ONE is correct.
  
65. If a , b and c are non-coplanar unit vectors
2 3
61. The value of '' so that sin–1 , sin–1 , sin–1()    
perpendicular to each other and p = 2a – b – 4c ,
5 10
are the angles of a triangle is        
q = 2a + b + c , r = a – b + c then the
1 1
(1) – (2)
2 2 volume of parallelepiped whose adjacent edges are
1 1   
p , q , r is given by m. Integer part of minimum
(3) (4)
2 3
value of m  R, is
62. Range of the function f(x) = n ({x}2 + 3{x} + 2) is (1) 4 (2) 2

(where {.} is fractional part function)
(3) 1 (4) 5
(1) [2, 6) (2) ( n 2, n 6)
1 2 3
(3) [ n 2, n 6) (4) (–, n 2]  
66. If matrix A =  – 1 0 4  then the determinant of
 6 2 – 1
2n
n
63. If I1 = nlim r 2 and

r 1  3rn  2n 2
matrix A500 – 2A499 is m. Number of zeros at the end
n
n
I2 = nlim  2r 2 then the value of of m is

r 1  3rn  n2
(1) 1
2I1 – I2 is equal to
(2) 2
4 3
(1) n (2) n
3 4 (3) 0
3 (4) 3
(3) n (4) 0
2
70. Let (y – )2 = 4(x – ) be a parabola with x = 1 as
 n n n n 
67. L im  2  2  2 2
 ......  2  directrix. If 2y = – 4x + 11 is tangent then  =
n  n n 1 n  2 2n  2n  1
(1) 1
is equal to
(2) –2
(1) 1
(3) 2

(2)
4 (4) – 1
(3) tan 1
71. If z and w be two complex numbers, such that

(4) tan |z|2w – |w|2z = z – w and (z  w), then
4
(1) z  w
 x
 sin , x 1
68. The function f  x    2 , where [.] (2) zw  1
 2x  3  x, x  1

(3) zw  2
denotes the greatest integer function, is
(1) Continuous and differentiable at x = 1 (4) zw  4
(2) Continuous but not differentiable at x = 1
(3) Discontinuous at x = 1 sin 2x a  b cos x
72. If  (3  4 cos x) 3
dx   e , where e
(4) None of these c(3  4 cos x )d
is an arbitrary constant and a, b, c, d are positive

69. If f1  x   2x, f2  x   3 sin x  x cos x, then for integers then minimum value of a + b + c + d is
equal to
 
x   0,  (1) 27
 2
(1) f1  x   f2  x  (2) 28
(2) f1  x   f2  x  (3) 29
(4) 30
(3) f1 x  f2 x
   
(4) None of these
73. The distance of the plane passing through the point 76. The side of a regular hexagon is 2 cm. The ratio of
P(1, 1, 1) and perpendicular to the the radius of circumscribed circle to the radius of
inscribed circle is
x 1 y 1 z 1
line   from the origin is 3
3 0 4 (1)
2
(1) 3/4 (2) 4/3 1

(2)
2
(3) 7/5 (4) 1 (3) 2
74. Consider quadratic polynomial 2

(4)
3
f(x) = x2 – 4ax + 5a2 – 6a.
Let p : denotes smallest positive integral value of
'a' for which f(x) is positive for every real x and 77. If A1, A2,..., A100 are sets such that n(Ai) = i + 2,
q : denotes largest distance between the roots of 100
the equation f(x) = 0, then the value of p + q is A 1  A 2  A 3 ........  A 100 and A i  A , then
i3
n(A) =
(1) 9 (2) 11
(1) 3 (2) 4
(3) 13 (4) 15
(3) 5 (4) 6
75. At the foot of a mountain the elevation of its peak
 78. Let x = x 1, x = x 2 be two points of minima of
is found to be . After ascending ‘h’ m toward the
4
 y = x4 – 2x3 + x2 + 3. Area bounded by the curve,
mountain up a slope of inclination, the elevation
6 x-axis and x = x1, x = x2 is

is found to be . Height of the mountain is
3 81 91
(1) (2)
30 30
h
(1) ( 3  1) m (2) h( 3  1) m
2
71
(3) (4) None of these
30
h
(3) ( 3 – 1) m (4) h( 3 – 1) m
2
79. The probability that atleast one of the events A, B 82. For two data sets, each of size 5, the variance are
happens is 0.6. If probability of their simultaneously given to be 4 and 5 and the corresponding means
happening is 0.2, then P ( A ) + P ( B ) = are given to be 2 and 4, respectively. The double of
the variance of the combined data set is
(1) 0.4
(1) 10
(2) 0.8 (2) 11
(3) 12
(3) 1.2
(4) 13
(4) 1.4
83. Consider the following statements
P : Suman is brilliant
80. If an ellipse slides between two perpendicular straight
Q : Suman is rich
lines, then the locus of its centre is
R : Suman is honest
(assuming length of axes of ellipse are constant)
The negation of the statement “Suman is brilliant
(1) a parabola
and dishonest if and only if Suman is rich” can be
expressed as
(2) an ellipse
(1) ((Q  R) ~ P))
(2) (Q  (P  ~ R))
(3) a hyperbola
(3) Q  ~ (P  ~ R)
(4) ~ ((Q  R) P))
(4) a circle
2cos2 2x sin2x  sin x
2
81. Asymptotes of a hyperbola are represented by 84. f  x   sin2x 2sin x cos x . The value of
2x 2 + 3xy – 2y2 + 2x – y = 0. The eccentricity of sin x  cos x 0
/2
hyperbola can be
 f '  x  dx is equal to
0
3 5
(1) (2)
2 3 (1) – 2
(2) – 1
(3) 2 (4) indeterminate
(3) 2
(4) 0
85. Let R = { (1,3), (4,2),(2,4),(2,3),(3,1)} be a relation 87. STATEMENT -1 : Solution of
on the set A = {1,2,3,4}. The relation R is (1 + x x 2  y 2 ) dx + y (–1 + x 2  y 2 ) dy = 0 is
(1) a function y2 1 2
x–  (x + y2)3/2 + C1 = 0, C1 being arbitrary
(2) reflexive 2 3
constant.
(3) not symmetric
STATEMENT-2 : Solution of
(4) transitive
y
xdy – ydx = x 2 – y 2 dx is sin–1   = n x + C2, C2
x
SECTION - II being arbitrary constant.
Reasoning Type
(1) STATEMENT-1 is True, STATEMENT-2 is True;
This section contains 5 reasoning type questions.
STATEMENT-2 is a correct explanation for
Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4),
STATEMENT-1
out of which ONLY ONE is correct. (2) STATEMENT-1 is True, STATEMENT-2 is True;
STATEMENT-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
86. STATEMENT-1 : If n is an odd prime then STATEMENT-1

(3) STATEMENT-1 is True, STATEMENT-2 is
 5  2 n  – 2n+1 is not divisible by 20 n,
 
  False
(4) STATEMENT-1 is False, STATEMENT-2 is
where [.] denotes greatest integer function.
True
STATEMENT-2 : If n is prime then
88. STATEMENT -1 : The number of non negative
n
C1, nC2, ...... nCn – 1 must be divisible by n. integral solutions of equation x1 + x2 + x3 = 10 is
12C
(1) STATEMENT-1 is True, STATEMENT-2 is True; 2.
STATEMENT-2 : The number of ways of selecting
STATEMENT-2 is a correct explanation for
10 integers out of 12 different non negative integers
STATEMENT-1 12C
is 2.
(2) STATEMENT-1 is True, STATEMENT-2 is True; (1) STATEMENT-1 is True, STATEMENT-2 is True;
STATEMENT-2 is NOT a correct explanation for STATEMENT-2 is a correct explanation for
STATEMENT-1 STATEMENT-1
(3) STATEMENT-1 is True, STATEMENT-2 is (2) STATEMENT-1 is True, STATEMENT-2 is True;
False STATEMENT-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
STATEMENT-1
(3) STATEMENT-1 is True, STATEMENT-2 is
True
False
True
89. STATEMENT - 1 :Locus of mid point of chords of 90. STATEMENT-1 : If ab2c3 , a2b3c4, a3b4c5 are in A.P.
 (a, b, c > 0), then the minimum value of a + b + c
circle x2 + y2 = 4 which subtends angle of at
2
is 3.
origin is x2 + y2 = 1.
STATEMENT-2 : Arithmetic mean of any two
STATEMENT - 2 : If any chord of circle x2 + y2 = r2
numbers is greater than geometric mean of the
subtends an angle ‘’ at centre, then its mid point
 numbers.
always lies on x2 + y2 = r2 cos2  
2
(1) STATEMENT-1 is True, STATEMENT-2 is True;
(1) STATEMENT-1 is True, STATEMENT-2 is True; STATEMENT-2 is a correct explanation for
STATEMENT-2 is a correct explanation for STATEMENT-1
STATEMENT-1 (2) STATEMENT-1 is True, STATEMENT-2 is True;
(2) STATEMENT-1 is True, STATEMENT-2 is True; STATEMENT-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
STATEMENT-2 is NOT a correct explanation for STATEMENT-1
STATEMENT-1 (3) STATEMENT-1 is True, STATEMENT-2 is
(3) STATEMENT-1 is True, STATEMENT-2 is False
False (4) STATEMENT-1 is False, STATEMENT-2 is
(4) STATEMENT-1 is False, STATEMENT-2 is True
True

All India Open Test (Aiot) Jee Main: Important Instructions

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All India Open Test (Aiot) Jee Main: Important Instructions

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Date : 27-01-2013 Duration : 3 Hours Max. Marks : 360

2. The Test Booklet consists of 90 questions.

PART A — PHYSICS (120 marks)

PART B — CHEMISTRY (120 marks)

DO NOT BREAK THE SEALS WITHOUT BEING

9. Do not fold or make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet.

Name of the Candidate Roll Number

1. An ideal cell of emf 30 V is connected across three

4. A charge particle of charge q is moving with speed v

2. In the circuit shown in figure, the base current IB

5. The pressure at the bottom of a tank of water is 3P,

(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)

(1) Current through R and charge on capacitor C

7. Consider a ring performing pure rolling then on a fixed

(4) None of these

increasing size of cycloid

decreasing size of cycloid.

(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)

10. The current flowing in the loop is shown in figure.

5 o i 13. The ratio of the radii of the planets P1 and P2 is

(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)

15. Three consecutive resonant frequencies of string are 1 1

16. If one starts with one curie of radioactive substance

1 (1) x decreases, r and d increase

1 20. When a sound wave of frequency 300 Hz passes

(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)

27. If 13.6 eV energy is required to ionize the hydrogen

(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)

29. STATEMENT-1 : A uniformly distributed direct

(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)

Straight Objective Type

(4) PbCO3 (4) Cu

(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)

(3) 24 (2) 0.36 M

(2) Sn (1) 0.1 N

(3) Ni (2) 0.02 N

(4) Hg (3) 0.06 N

(4) None of these

(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)

(1) Au5Rh3 (3) Zero order reaction

(2) AuRh3 (4) radioactive decay

(3) Au3Rh5 47. During formation of the activated complex in reaction

(4) Au3Rh–1 of with alc. KOH, which of the following is

(1) Benzene and toluene

(2) CHCl3 & acetone

(3) ethanol & water

(4) HCl & water

45. Solubility of AgCl in 0.1 M AgNO3 is 10–9M. Its

(4) None of these

(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)

The fastest rate of reaction of an acid and a base

(1) 1 and 4 (4)

(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)

54. Gauche form of meso-butane-2,3-diol has :

(1) Plane of symmetry

chloride ? 55. Select the true/false statements

S1 : The rate of catalytic hydrogenation of 2–butyne

(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)

(1) bromine, CCl4

The reagents X and Y are respectively :

(1) X = CH3COCl / AlCl3, Y = KMnO4 / OH / ,

(4) ammonical Cu2Cl2 solution