WORKED ANSWERS – PRACTICE TEST 3

Please note that the options provided online correspond to A to D in the worked answers below

Questions 1 – 4
No information is provided about the number of women, only percentages.
Question 1
A Correct
Because the number of women in each category is not known, the proportion of all women working
cannot be determined for any year. Adding the percentage in each category only gives the
percentage of all women if the numbers in each category are the same, but this cannot be assumed.
Question 2
D Correct
By 2000, most married women (60%) and never-married women (65%) were working, but only 45% of
previously married women were working.
Question 3
A Incorrect
In 1910, less than half of each category were working; therefore, less than half of all women must have
been working.
B Incorrect
It is not possible to determine the percentage of the labour force that consisted of never-married
women because neither the number of never-married women nor the total number of women is
known. Half of never-married women were working, but this does not equate to half of working
women being never-married.
C Correct
The percentage of never-married women in the labour force in 1910 was 50%. Thus, half the number of
never-married women were working and half not working.
D Incorrect
The opposite is true. The percentage of previously married women in the labour force in 1910 was 30%;
therefore, more were not working than working.
Question 4
C Correct
In 1965, the percentage of previously married women and married women in the labour force was the
same (approximately 33%). I would be true if the numbers of all previously married women and all
married women were the same; this may be true but cannot be assumed. The equal percentages can
be equated to equal likelihoods; thus, II is true.

Questions 5 – 8
Question 5
C Correct
Option C is the correct answer because Dr Wallace decides on a course of action without asking
Debbie how she is feeling, or how she might want events to proceed. He acts purely from his own
expectations of events, thus treating Debbie’s condition in a routine manner. In addition, he is
patronising when he says to her, ‘Now, young lady’, and ‘surely you want it to be over as quickly as
possible?’ because it suggests that he views her as an inferior being without any decision-making
ability.
Options A and B are incorrect because Dr Wallace’s strategy in response to Debbie’s condition is not
emotional, just impatient and perfunctory. He is neither judging her nor trying to punish her, rather he is
simply trying to get the job done efficiently, so Option D is also incorrect.
Question 6
C Correct
As the introduction explains, Debbie has been a keen member of the childbirth classes. This suggests
she has gained some knowledge of the birthing process, and has made personal choices in regard to
it (a homestyle birthing unit … is her preference). Her expressed desire to delay breaking her waters is
calm and selfassured – a desire that appears justified when the nurses see no need to follow the
doctor’s instructions, and Debbie soon after becomes fully dilated, allowing her to give birth without
intervention. Debbie is also aware of the need to push, which, again, turns out to be the right thing to
do. Thus, from the nurses’ perspective, Debbie was aware of what was happening to her own body
and therefore in control of it, making Option C the correct answer.
There is no indication that Debbie is upset, or will become so, so Option A is incorrect. Likewise, there is
no evidence that Debbie is thinking only of herself during this process – her active interest in birthing
classes and her loving reaction to her newborn suggest her concerns were always for her child,
making Option D incorrect. Also, there is no evidence that the nurses respond to Debbie’s condition
differently to how they would respond to an older woman, so Option B is incorrect.
Question 7
D Correct
Debbie’s active participation in her school’s birthing classes, her hesitation to break her waters, as well
as her understanding of when to ‘push’, suggest that she is well-informed about childbirth. In addition,
her rejection of intervention and her calm resolve to trust herself and continue with what she feels to
be right, indicate that Option D is the correct answer.
Debbie is self-assured rather than temperamental, and assertive about her wishes rather than obliging
of others, making Option C incorrect. She is concerned and determined rather than frightened or
stoical, so Option B is incorrect. Similarly, there is nothing proud or defiant about her self-assuredness –
she is simply trusting her instincts and knowledge – so Option A is also incorrect.

Question 8
C Correct
When Debbie’s baby is born, her wonder and love for him immediately allows her to put the birth and
any pain behind her (‘Debbie doesn’t reply because she is totally absorbed by her new baby’),
making Option C the correct answer.
The fact that the birth proceeds according to Debbie’s plans and was relatively speedy suggest that it
wasn’t an ‘ordeal’ to her, making Option A incorrect. Debbie’s informed assertiveness during the birth
suggest that she was unaffected by any outside opinions regarding her pregnancy, so Option B is
incorrect. The fact that Debbie’s school has taken great care to accommodate her pregnancy, and
that there is no evidence she was worried about how giving birth would impact her Year 12, makes
Option D incorrect.

Question 9
In this sequence, note that each frame contains one black circle, but that dotted and white circles are
absent from some frames. This suggests that when the black circle is in the same position as the dotted
or white circles, it hides them. The simplest explanation of this pattern is that, between frames, the black
circle ‘snakes’ two squares horizontally through the grid, the white circle moves one square down the
diagonal from top left to bottom right (re-entering at top left), and the dotted circle ‘snakes’ two
squares vertically. Therefore, in the 5th frame, the white circle should be in the centre and the black
circle should be in the bottom right corner; the dotted circle should also be in the bottom right corner
but will be hidden by the black circle. The alternative that satisfies these conditions is D.

Question 10
In this pattern, note that in the top row the black quadrants in the left and centre frames are in
different positions and both appear in the right frame. In the bottom row, the black quadrants that are
in different positions in the left and centre frames appear in the right frame; if they are in the same
position they do not appear. The simplest explanation of this pattern is that, in each row, the left and
centre frames combine to produce the right frame, with the black quadrants cancelling if they
overlap. Therefore, in the missing frame there should be no black quadrants. The alternative that
satisfies these conditions is A.

Question 11
In this set of frames, note that each frame contains one black, one white and four grey arrows; one of
the grey arrows points inwards. The black arrow and the grey inward-pointing arrow are always the
same distance apart. The simplest explanation of this pattern is that, starting from A, between frames,
the black and inward-pointing arrows move clockwise one position, while the white arrow moves
anticlockwise one position. The remaining grey arrows are part of the background pattern that is hidden
by each of the black, white and inward-pointing arrows. Therefore, the sequence is ABCED.

Question 12
In this set of frames, note that the grey square is in the same position in two frames, the black circle is in
the same position in two frames, and is missing from A, and the number of white circles varies. The
simplest explanation of this pattern is that, starting from E, between frames, the square moves one
position clockwise, while the black circle moves clockwise by an increasing number of positions (one,
two, three and so on) and is hidden by the square in A. There are four white circles, which are hidden by
other elements when in the same position. Therefore, the sequence is EDACB.

Question 13
In this pattern, note that the frames in the middle row contain just those circles that appear in one or the
other (but not both) of the two frames immediately above. The simplest explanation of this pattern is
that, going down the figure, adjacent frames combine to produce the frame immediately below, with
the circles cancelling if they are present in the same position. Therefore, the missing frame should
contain three circles – one in the centre and two on the right side. The alternative that satisfies these
conditions is C.

Questions 14 – 16
Question 14
The grey shading represents the area exposed to light and is not shadow. Using the prefixes provided,
phototaxis is movement relative to light; hydrotaxis is movement relative to water.
A Incorrect
If this were true, the insects would be in the lower left region of the dish (towards light, away from
water).
B Incorrect
If this were true, the insects would be in the upper left region of the dish (towards both light and
water).
C Incorrect
If this were true, the insects would be in the upper right region of the dish (away from light, towards
water).
D Correct
The insects are in the lower right region, having apparently moved away from both light and water.
Question 15
Using the prefixes provided, positive thigmotropism is growth towards something that the plant is
touching.
A Incorrect
This would be an example of negative thigmotropism, as the plant would be growing away from
contact (touch) with other plants.
B Incorrect
This would be an example of negative thermotropism, as the plant would be reducing exposure of the
flower to heat and dryness.
C Correct
This pattern of growth would maintain the plant’s contact (touch) with the support.
D Incorrect
This would be an example of positive hydrotropism, as the plant would be growing towards water.
Question 16
A Correct
Those snails between the heat and the light are closer to the light than to the heat. This could be a
result of the snails being attracted to both heat and light, or repelled by both. However, the snails at
the left end of the tube are not attracted to the light (if they were, they would be under it). Thus, the
snails are apparently negatively thermotaxic and negatively phototaxic, but more adverse to heat
than to light.
B Incorrect
If this were true, the snails would be located closer to the heat than to the light. There would not be
any snails at the left end of the tube, which is as far as possible from the heat.
C Incorrect
If this were true, the snails would be distributed either in two groups, one under the light and one
above the heat, or be in a single group midway between the heat and light.
D Incorrect
If this were true, the snails would be in a single group under the light.
Questions 17 – 19
Question 17
D Correct
The mother’s attitude is dutiful and well-intentioned. This answer hinges on the mother’s speech: ‘Of
course we will give you a roof over your head’, the words of a dutiful mother. She sees the
accommodation as helping her son to complete a good thesis (thus well-intentioned), not as a free
place to socialise. The mother is not ‘pleased and proud’, she questions her belief that the supervisor
said the draft thesis was very good; ‘but I thought . . .’. Her response, ‘Of course we will . . .’ is not
grudging or reluctant and had she been frustrated or impatient, she would have said something like ‘I
suppose we could’, or ‘you’d better make good use of it this time’.
Question 18
B Correct
Terry emphasises his parents’ duty. He talks of this support leading to a career (vocational
opportunity), which parents are likely to see as a part of their duty. He jokes about being a ‘penniless
student’ – doesn’t present this as the reality. He plays down any suggestion that the draft was very
good (which he may have said on a previous occasion) as this could suggest that he doesn’t really
need more time.
Terry doesn’t seem to have given any thought to what this will mean for his parents – such as his father
not having a study. He doesn’t mention the fact that he is now in his late twenties, or that he could
have another year to socialise, relatively free of obligations. His father asks him about the amount of
time needed. He tries to gloss over this; ‘um – well’ and then places the judgment on his supervisor
and plays it down by suggesting another year would be the maximum time.
Question 19
B Correct
Wherever possible, Terry shifts the responsibility to his supervisor. ‘My supervisor says . . .’, ‘My supervisor
thinks that with just a bit longer . . .’, ‘My supervisor reckons another year . . .’. The only time he doesn’t
mention his supervisor is when he jokes about being a ‘penniless student’. At no point does he suggest
he will complete the work in a systematic manner. He makes no reference to his parents being
comfortably off and he does not seem to respond to the father’s recital of what he was doing at
Terry’s age.

Question 20
In this sequence, note that between frames the C-shaped object becomes smaller and thinner. As
well, it rotates clockwise by increasing amounts (45º, 90º, 135º and so on). Therefore, compared to its
appearance in the 4th frame, in the 5th frame the object should be thinner and rotated through 180º.
The alternative that satisfies these conditions is E.

Question 21
In this sequence, note that between frames the dot moves through the quadrants clockwise by
increasing amounts (one position, two positions and so on). The arrows follow the same rule, but move
anticlockwise. Therefore, in the 5th frame, the dot should be in the right quadrant and the arrows
should be in the top quadrant. The alternative that satisfies these conditions is D.

Question 22
In this sequence, note that each octagon contains one black segment, one or two dotted segments
and one to four grey segments. The simplest explanation of this pattern is that, between frames, the
black segment moves clockwise by increasing amounts (one position, two positions and so on), the
two dotted segments move anticlockwise two positions and the grey segments move anticlockwise
one position and ‘grow’ from their leading edge. When more than one shading is present in the same
segment, black hides each of the other shadings and grey hides dots. Therefore, in the 5 th frame, the
black segment should be in the right-most position; both dotted segments should be hidden, one by
grey, the other by black; and there should be five grey segments, starting at bottom right, with the
second one hidden by the black segment. The alternative that satisfies these conditions is A.

Questions 23 – 26
Question 23
B Correct
The correct answer is B because it is clear from the passage that the focus of Stan’s interest is Anna,
not Isobel. We are given clues to this in the passage by the reference to the ‘expression of joy’ as he
examines the photographs, and his vehement reaction to Isobel’s comments about leaving Anna
alone. His reference to having previously been ‘robbed’ of Anna’s company is also evidence that he
is hoping to form a bond with Anna.
Option A is incorrect because it is obvious from Stan’s reactions throughout the passage that he has
decided he wants to form a bond with Anna. He is not indecisive at all. Option C is incorrect because
there is no evidence that he wants to rekindle the relationship with Isobel. In fact, if anything he
behaves quite negatively towards her when talking about his feelings of being ‘robbed’ of his
relationship with his daughter. There is no reference to Isobel’s past relationships so Option D is also
incorrect.
Question 24
C Correct
The correct answer is Option C because the line ‘hadn’t meant to make her stand so promptly’ implies
that Isobel was going to build up to the ‘stand’ that she does in fact take there and then: that Anna
does not need a relationship with her father. Because this is a scenario that is likely to be unattractive
to Stan, and it is a sensitive issue, it is implied that Isobel was going to handle the matter by gently
building up to stating this, rather than divulging it straight away.
Option A is incorrect because we can deduce from the evidence in the passage that Isobel in not
afraid to say what she thinks. Option B is also incorrect because we can see from Isobel’s comments in
lines 7–9 that she is happy to mention Anna. Option D is also incorrect because there is no evidence in
the passage that Isobel is being deliberately dishonest or is trying to hurt Stan’s feelings. She is instead
speaking the truth as she sees it.
Question 25
D Correct
To correctly choose Option D, candidates need to interpret the last line of the passage accurately.
Candidates need to understand that the fact that Stan and Isobel eat in silence is because they are
both slightly stunned at the way the conversation has evolved. They have raised the deep issues
involving them both, right from the outset and their indiscretion is that they have said more than they
intended. This has appeared to have taken them both by surprise and their reaction is to cease the
conversation because it has been confronting for them both.
Option A is incorrect because the word ‘daunted’ used in the last line to describe their feelings,
reveals that neither Stan nor Isobel feel satisfied or ‘justified’. Neither does the last line imply that they
feel that they are ‘defeated and unable to see any solution’ (Option B). From their conversation both
appear determined to resolve the issue in their own respective favour. Option C is incorrect because it
is clear in the passage that both Stan and Isobel have been ‘forthright’ and said what they believe.
Isobel keeps her rage to herself, but she makes it clear to Stan what she thinks is best for Anna, and is
forthright in telling him.
Question 26
A Correct
For candidates to arrive at the correct answer, Option A, they need to infer what has occurred prior to
this meeting. Clearly Stan and Isobel have agreed to meet and talk about the situation and Isobel has
even brought along photographs of Anna to show Stan. Thus it can be inferred that they were
‘apprehensively pleasant’ at the outset of the meeting. While the middle of the passage shows that
there was a type of friction occurring during this part of the meeting, by the end this friction has
dissipated to the degree where Isobel can acknowledge to Stan that ‘Of course she’s yours. No-one is
disputing that’, which is realistic in that it is straightforward and honest.
Option B is incorrect because there is little evidence of optimism and candidates would be mistaken
to construe being optimistic with being realistic. There is little evidence that they are being
cooperative or that Stan is competing with Isobel for Anna’s affections at this stage (Option C).
Likewise there is no evidence in the passage that they secretly admire one another, or that they dislike
each other (Option D).

Question 27
A Correct
Using the lower end of the estimated range of how much faster extinction is occurring today gives the
upper estimate of the extinction rate in the past: 70 000 ÷ 100 = 700 species per year.
B Incorrect
No information is provided on which to draw such a conclusion.
C Incorrect
The sceptic is claiming that extinction is a normal process. The information does not refer to claims
made by the sceptic regarding potential increases in extinction by human activity (that link is made
by the expert), or whether the extinction rate is cause for concern.
D Incorrect
The expert links the increase in extinction above the background rate to human activity, but no
argument is made for the cessation of such activity.

Question 28
D Correct
I There is no information about people outside Porcupania; they may or may not be liars. Therefore,
the truth of the statement cannot be evaluated.
II The people in Porcupania are liars, i.e. they are all liars. Therefore, the statement is false.
III All people in Porcupania are liars. If there are any non-liars, they must live outside Porcupania.
Therefore, the statement is true.
IV As with I, people outside Porcupania may or may not be liars. Therefore, the statement is true.

Questions 29 and 30
Pain and anxiety reported as ‘+’ is the same as the control, not an increase. There is an implicit
assumption in these questions that subjects are unaware of what drugs they are given – a standard
experimental protocol.
Question 29
A Correct
Although it is not certain that anxiety intensifies pain, the data are consistent with this possibility. When
compared with the control, people that took the nocebo (same as the control, but with an
expectation of increased pain) had increased anxiety (presumably due to the expectation), as well as
increased pain (despite the painful stimulus being the same).
B Incorrect
The opposite is supported. Comparing the proglumide group to the control group, proglumide doesn’t
appear to have had any effect on its own. Comparing the nocebo group to the control group, the
nocebo appears to have increased pain and anxiety. Comparing the nocebo plus proglumide group
to the nocebo group, it appears that proglumide prevented some of the effect of the nocebo on
pain.
C Incorrect
Compared to the nocebo group, the nocebo plus proglumide group did not have increased
(intensified) pain and anxiety; indeed, pain was decreased.
D Incorrect
The opposite is supported. Groups with increased anxiety had increased pain relative to the control,
unless the effect of the anxiety was blocked (see B).
Question 30
In this question, familiarity with the concept of a placebo is assumed. In this case, the placebo would
have been said to have decreased the severity of pain.
A Incorrect
Naloxone, which blocks the effect of opioids, and proglumide had different effects on the experience
of pain; therefore, it does not seem likely that proglumide also blocks opioids.
B Incorrect
This option conflates two separate mechanisms. Naloxone and the nocebo both resulted in increased
pain; however, naloxone does so by blocking the effect of opioids, which reduce pain, whereas the
nocebo apparently intensifies pain by increasing anxiety (see 29 B). There is nothing to suggest that
opioids are involved in the nocebo mechanism, and therefore nothing to suggest that naloxone
would have an effect on a nocebo.
C Correct
The evidence given suggests that naloxone affects pain only by blocking opioids. It also suggests that
opioids are involved in pain perception through the placebo effect. There is nothing to suggest that in
those given naloxone alone there are any opioids – either to dampen pain or for naloxone to block.
Thus, it appears likely that the pain of those given naloxone alone would be unaffected, i.e. the same
as those of the controls.
D Incorrect
As with B, there is nothing to suggest that naloxone would have an effect on a nocebo, nor that the
effects of the two would be additive.

Question 31
In this pattern, note that in each frame in each row (and column) there are the same four shadings
and two or three shapes (of three). Each shading is never in the same spot within a row or column. The
shapes never appear in the top right quadrant. The simplest explanation of this pattern is that, from left
to right, the shadings move through the frames one position anticlockwise in the top and bottom rows,
and one position clockwise in the middle row. The shapes also follow the same movement, but pass
through just the top left, bottom left and bottom right quadrants and are hidden when on a black
quadrant. Therefore, in the missing frame, the shadings should be top right: checks; top left: white;
bottom left: grey; bottom right: black. The star should be in the top left, the cross in the bottom left and
the arrow hidden in the bottom right. The alternative that satisfies these conditions is C.

Question 32
In this pattern, note that from left to right in each row, one of the shapes present in a frame reappears
in the next frame, but with a changed orientation and relative position (internal/external). In the top
row, the internal shape reappears; in the middle row it is the external shape. The external shapes are
grey or white; the internal shapes are white or black. The simplest explanation of this pattern is that, in
each row, from left to right, a shape, flipped, moves into the next frame and changes from internal to
external or vice-versa. The external shapes alternate between grey and white; for the internal shapes
a sequence of black, white, white starts at top left and ‘snakes’ horizontally through to bottom right.
Therefore, in the missing frame, both shapes should be white. It cannot be clearly established whether,
in the bottom row, it is the internal or external shape that reappears from frame to frame, but the
available options allow only for the internal. Thus, the external shape should be an upside-down
hexagon and the internal shape should be a rectangle with an upward-pointing arrow. The
alternative that satisfies these conditions is D.

Questions 33 – 37
Question 33
B Correct
Prior to Jackie’s phone call, Lou was looking forward to tennis and does not think her sister has a very
good excuse for not playing. This makes her mildly frustrated. Her response (‘Ok, wimp!’) is a mild but
tolerant – even affectionate – rebuke, revealing that she is not anxious about her sister’s actions, so
Option B is the correct answer.
Since she is mildly frustrated, Lou is not ‘relieved’ about missing tennis, so Option A is incorrect. Lou is
not ‘uncaring’ because she does not recognise that anything is wrong. Her thoughts are concerned
with the loss of her tennis game and the inconsistent nature of Jackie’s excuse rather than the reasons
behind it. Hence, she is not worried about Jackie, and Option C is incorrect. Lou’s light-hearted use of
‘wimp’ suggests that she is not suspicious, so Option D is also incorrect.
Question 34
B Correct
The sisters meet regularly to play tennis, and whilst Lou is disappointed and mildly frustrated that Jackie
cannot make it, her reaction (‘Ok, wimp’) is playful and teasing, suggesting a familiarity and closeness,
making Option B the correct answer.
Lou is disappointed that Jackie cannot come to tennis, but there is no sense this is because she is
competitive and was looking forward to defeating Jackie. Neither does Lou assume ulterior motives
for Jackie’s absence, so Option A (jealous rivalry) is incorrect. Jackie’s apology for missing tennis and
her effort to tell Lou her bad news, as well as Lou’s concerned reaction to it, suggests that the sisters
have a strong connection to each other, making Option C (strained respect) incorrect. Option D is
incorrect because if there were a protective and intimate relationship between the sisters, Lou would
have probed more into why Jackie wasn’t prepared to play tennis, rather than dismissing her in a light-
hearted way.
Question 35
A Correct
As there was no immediate reaction by Jackie to the email from Lou, it can be inferred that Jackie
needed solitude. The passage tells us that there is a ‘couple of days’ lapse before Jackie replies to Lou
and we can assume that during this time Jackie was processing the news of her diagnosis. After this
time lapse Jackie replies to Lou and is able to relate the news to Lou in quite a direct manner. She also
states quite emphatically that she would like to see Lou to explain more about the tumour and these
actions imply that Jackie needed to take control after her initial period of solitude.
Option B is incorrect because Lou was unaware of the diagnosis initially and therefore could not have
displayed sympathy even if she had wanted to. The relationship between the two appears to be open
and direct and we can infer from this that if Jackie had needed sympathy initially, she would have
asked Lou for it. There is also no evidence that Jackie is angry towards the end of the passage.
Likewise for Option C, we can infer from the time lapse between the email and Jackie’s phone call
that it was not reassurance that Jackie needed, because otherwise she would have sought it more
immediately. She does not need to act independently at the end of the passage as she still wants to
seek out Lou’s company so that she can tell her more about her condition. Option D is incorrect
because there is no evidence that Jackie needs to vent her feelings at the beginning of the passage.
Her comments at the end of the passage do not imply quiet acceptance as she is seeking further
communication and discussion about the implications of her diagnosis.

Question 36
A Correct
In her state of vulnerability and anxiety, Jackie would most likely want her sister to be honest but
reassuring and supportive. Option A is a response that honestly expresses personal distress, but then
manages to place the other’s needs ahead of the speaker’s by declaring a willingness to help in any
way necessary. This response shows the most empathy for the other’s vulnerable state, and offers the
most support, making it the saying Jackie is most likely to appreciate coming from Lou. Thus, Option A
is the correct answer.
Option B focuses on the negatives of the illness as a perverse spectacle, which is neither reassuring nor
supportive, so it is incorrect. Option C highlights the vulnerability of a tumour sufferer, which, again, is
neither reassuring nor supportive, so it is also incorrect. Option D at first sounds reassuring (‘Don’t
worry’), but doesn’t attend to Jackie’s immediate needs, and highlights the progress of the illness and
its treatment again, introducing the awful likelihood of surgery. This makes Option D less likely to be
appreciated by Jackie (than Option A), and an incorrect answer.
Question 37
C Correct
The news of Jackie’s tumour comes as a shock for Lou. At first she doesn’t think she hears correctly,
then a part of her refuses to believe it (‘In your brain! Surely not!’). Her response to Jackie’s request to
meet for coffee (‘Of course’) is automatic and unthinking, indicating that she is still in the grip of shock
from the news, making Option C the correct answer.
Because Lou is so stunned, she doesn’t have enough control over her mind to be able to restrain it, so
Option D is incorrect. Similarly, since her state of shock has overwhelmed her, she has not had the time
or ability to develop other feelings (such as anger or anxiety) about the issue, so Options A and B are
incorrect.
Question 38
In this set of frames, note that each of the shadings (grey/black/white) appears twice in one position,
twice in another and once in a third. As well, the arrows always point in different directions. The simplest
explanation of this pattern is that, starting from C, between frames, the arrow rotates clockwise by
increasing amounts (45º, 90º, 135º, and so on), and the shadings flow through the arrow from bottom to
top, returning at the bottom. Therefore, the sequence is CDAEB.

Question 39
In this set of frames, note that in each frame the butterfly has dots in two adjacent sections; overall, the
dots appear at least once in each section, except for the left antenna. The simplest explanation of this
pattern is that, starting at B, between frames, the dotted shading moves one position clockwise through
the sections of the butterfly. Therefore, the sequence is BAECD.

Question 40
In this sequence, note that each frame has four columns of circles, with one to four circles per column.
Within columns with two, three and four circles, the circles’ positions do not change. The position of
the single circle within its column does change, as does the location of the columns from frame to
frame. The simplest explanation of this pattern is that, between frames, the columns move from left to
right one position, and the single circle moves down two positions (re-entering at the top). Therefore, in
the 5th frame, the column with four circles should be in the right-most location, the column with three
should be second from left, the column with two should be on the left, and the column with the single
circle should be second from right with the circle in the second-from-top position. The alternative that
satisfies these conditions is D.
Question 41
As P and Q fired, the inputs into U (– and +) summed to zero; therefore, U must not have fired. As R
fired, the input into V was positive; therefore, V must have fired. As S fired, the input into W was
positive; therefore, W must have fired. Thus, the sum of the inputs from V (–) and W (+) into X was zero.
As X did not fire, the sum of its inputs must have been zero or negative. If T had fired, the sum of the
inputs from V, W and T into X would have been positive. Thus, as the sum from V and W was zero, T
could not have fired.
I If O had fired and has a stimulatory input into T, T would have fired.
II If O had fired and has an inhibitory input into T, T would not have fired.
III If O did not fire, regardless of whether its input into T is stimulatory or inhibitory, T would not have
fired as it has no other inputs.
D Correct
Each of II and III could have produced the situation, but I could not have.

Questions 42 and 43
Each student is a fan of exactly two musicians.
I Avis has lunch with the Bach and Ellington fans. Therefore, either Ben or Chi is the Bach fan, and
the other the Ellington fan.
II From I, as Ben lives next to the Ellington fan, Ben must be the Bach fan, and Chi the Ellington fan.
III Chi lost at poker to Ben and the Clapton fan. Therefore, the Clapton fan must be Avis.
IV The Mozart fan and the Bach fan (from II, Ben) went to a concert together. Therefore, Ben cannot
be the Mozart fan.
V The Gabrielli fan is going out with a friend of the Clapton fan (from III, Avis). Therefore, Avis cannot
be the Gabrielli fan.
VI The Clapton fan (from III, Avis) and the Mozart fan are both holidaying in Bali. Therefore Avis
cannot be the Mozart fan.
VII From IV and VI, neither Ben nor Avis can be the Mozart fan. Therefore, Chi must be the Mozart fan.
VIII From II and VII, Chi is the Ellington and Mozart fan; from V, Avis cannot be the Gabrielli fan.
Therefore, Ben must be the Gabrielli fan.
IX From II and VII, Chi is the Ellington and Mozart fan; from II and VIII, Ben is the Bach and Gabrielli
fan. Therefore, Avis must be the Meatloaf fan.

Question 42
B Correct
From I and II, neither Avis nor Ben are Ellington fans.
Question 43
B Correct
From II and VIII, Ben is both the Gabrielli fan and the Bach fan.

Question 44
In this sequence, note that each frame contains a black circle and a black square. The simplest
explanation of this pattern is that, between frames, the black circle moves anticlockwise along the
frame edge 1½ sides, the grey circle (hidden by the black circle in the 1st frame) moves anticlockwise
½ a side and the white circle (hidden by the black circle in the 2 nd frame) moves clockwise 1½ sides.
The squares ‘snake’ through vertically, the black by two places and the grey by one place (the grey is
hidden by the black in the 2nd frame). Therefore, in the 5th frame, the black circle should be in the
bottom left corner, the black square in the bottom right corner, the grey square in the middle top
position and the white circle in the top left corner. The grey circle should be hidden by the black
circle. The alternative that satisfies these conditions is B.

Question 45
In this sequence, note that successive frames alternate between having two large crosses and one
small one, and having two small crosses and one large one. The five shadings (dark grey, stripes, dots,
white and light grey) repeat left to right across the sequence of frames as a whole. Therefore, the 5 th
frame should contain two large crosses and one small cross; going from left to right the shading should
be dots, white and light grey. The alternative that satisfies these conditions is C.
Question 46
In this pattern, note that there appear to be three different shapes (arrow, wave and pointed ‘hat’)
each in three versions and two different orientations. The simplest explanation of this pattern is that in
the left column the shape is complete, in the middle column it does not have the tip, and in the right
column it does not have the base line. Each shape appears once in each row and once in each
column. In each row and each column, two of the shapes point up, one points to the left. Therefore,
the missing frame should contain a complete ‘hat’ pointing up. The alternative that satisfies these
conditions is B.

Question 47
In this set of frames, note that in each frame the arrow points in a different direction, either to a corner
or to one of the sides, and the position of the grey circle is always along the same diagonal. The
simplest explanation of this pattern is that, starting at B, between frames, the arrow rotates
anticlockwise through 135°, while the grey circle moves one position along the top right to bottom left
diagonal (and is hidden by the white circle in C). Because the circle’s movement is a loop, it cannot
be used to determine the starting point of the sequence. Therefore, based on the arrow alone, the
sequence is BACED.

Questions 48 – 51
Question 48
B Correct
In lines 14 and 15 Miss Kelly is seeking to reassure Anton (Option B). She wants to convince Anton that
her main concern is not to punish him, but to understand his problems. Her comment that ‘We both
like you, Anton’ is designed to help Anton realise that he is not in any trouble, but rather his teachers
are acting out of concern for his welfare.
Option A (indulge Anton) is incorrect because, even though Miss Kelly is sounding kind and
understanding, she does not go further than this. She is aware that there is something causing Anton’s
lateness and wants to reassure Anton that they can possibly help him. Option C (shake Anton up) is
incorrect because Miss Kelly is clearly not seeking to upset Anton in any way. Option D (get Anton to
admit to his problem) is also incorrect because in the passage Miss Kelly is trying to convince Anton
they have his best interests at heart. While Miss Kelly is interested in the cause of Anton’s lateness and
lack of participation, she is more interested in winning his trust.

Question 49
A Correct
The correct answer is Option A (baffling) because Miss Kelly is implying that she finds Anton difficult to
fathom and she is unsure of the reasons for his behaviour. She is also implying that there is a difference
between Anton’s behaviour and his potential to achieve in English and she finds this puzzling. We can
suppose that Miss Kelly is an articulate woman because she is an English teacher, but the ellipsis at the
end of line 15 is revealing in that it shows that even she has difficulty finding the right word to describe
Anton.
There is no evidence for Option B (impatient) in the passage. While Miss Kelly is efficient and forthright,
she does not show any impatience. Likewise Option C (charming) is incorrect because there is little
evidence that she is charmed by Anton. She openly admits to liking him, but she does not find his
behaviour in any way charming. Option D (disrespectful) is also incorrect because she is not
disparaging or disciplining Anton in this exchange; she may be slightly frustrated by Anton’s behaviour,
but she is also reassuring him that she is there to help.

Question 50
C Correct
Anton’s focus on the girl in the front row suggests that he is more concerned with what his peers have
to say (Option C) than on what his teacher is saying. This is evident because we as readers are privy to
what the girl says and she is parodying Miss Kelly’s comments, using an exaggerated tone to make
comments specifically about Anton.
In the passage, Anton remains passive and there is no evidence that he is trying to embarrass Miss
Kelly (Option A). There is also no evidence that Anton feels sorry for the girl in the front row, especially
given that she is making fun of Anton’s exchange with Miss Kelly. While Option D might seem like an
attractive option, because Anton is ignoring Miss Kelly, again there is no evidence that Anton is
disdainful of her. His reactions to the girl’s comments are because he is embarrassed by them, not
because he is scornful of Miss Kelly.
Question 51
C Correct
When Anton blushes in line 20 it is because he is mortified by the mockery of the girl in the front row
(Option C). The other students have entered the classroom, overheard what Miss Kelly is saying to
Anton and the girl has chosen to ridicule Anton by exclaiming ‘We love you Anton! We adore you. Oh,
Anton!’ (line 18). As we know from the comments of Miss Kelly, Anton is a quiet student and it can be
implied from this that he would find the attention of the girl, and her comments, highly embarrassing.
There is no evidence in the passage that Anton is attracted to the girl in the front row (Option A). We
are made aware that Anton’s blushing is directly linked to the girl’s comments through lines 19–20,
where it states that Miss Kelly saw ‘that he was not listening to her’ and ‘his face redden’. This
evidence therefore rules out Option B (realises he has been rude to Miss Kelly). If candidates were to
choose Option D (believes the girl in the front row is attracted to him), they would be misreading the
tone of the girl’s comments and would therefore be choosing incorrectly.

Questions 52 – 56
These questions require evaluation of the validity of various statements by comparing the frequency of
certain indicators. For questions 54–56, the comparison is in relation to successful versus unsuccessful
revolutions (it is helpful to recognise that the top half of the table contains only successful revolutions).
Information necessary for interpreting the tables is provided in the key below the table.
Question 52
B Correct
Of the 20 revolutions, the government had the stronger economy in ten revolutions compared to the
rebels’ five; and the government had the stronger organisation in twelve revolutions compared to the
rebels’ two. Thus, ruling governments were ‘generally stronger’ than the rebels in both economy and
organisation.

Question 53
A Incorrect
In the American revolution, the rebels and government were evenly matched in economy (2 and 2)
and organisation (2 and 2), but only the rebels had support from other countries.
B Incorrect
In the Spanish revolution, the rebels and government were evenly matched in economy (–1 and –1)
and organisation (1 and 1), but only the rebels had support from other countries.
C Correct
In the Magna Carta revolution, the rebels and government were evenly matched in economy (2 and
2), organisation (1 and 1), and support from other countries (neither the rebels nor the government
had outside support).
D Incorrect
In the Sandinistas revolution, the rebels were stronger than the government in both economy (1 and –
1) and organisation (1 and –1), and the rebels had support from other countries.
Question 54
This question considers the likelihood of success of revolutions only in relation to the three possible
goals of the rebels: establish a new government (ten cases, of which three were successful); establish
a dictatorship (six cases, of which five were successful); and no specific goal other than overthrowing
existing government (four cases, of which two were successful).

A Incorrect B Incorrect C Correct D Incorrect

Question 55
A Correct
Of the four revolutions in which the rebels’ economy was strong or very strong, the revolution was
always successful, regardless of the strength of the government’s economy.
B Incorrect
Of the two revolutions in which the rebels’ economy was very weak (–2), neither was successful, but of
the fourteen revolutions in which the rebels’ economy was weak (–1), six were successful.
C Incorrect
Of the ten revolutions in which the rebels’ economy was as strong as or stronger than the
government’s economy only nine were successful; in the French revolution the economies were
evenly matched (–2 and –2), yet the revolution was unsuccessful.
D Incorrect
Of the ten revolutions in which the rebels’ economy was weaker than the government’s economy,
only nine were unsuccessful; in the Irish revolution the rebels had the weaker economy (–1 and 2), yet
the revolution was successful.
Question 56
This question considers whether having the support of other countries increases the likelihood of
success for rebels (i.e. revolution successful) and/or for governments (i.e. revolution unsuccessful)
relative to not having such support.
C Correct
Of the sixteen revolutions in which the rebels did not have support from other countries, six were
successful. Of the four revolutions in which the rebels did have support, all were successful. As ,
support from other countries apparently increased the rebels’ chance of success.
Of the seventeen revolutions in which the government did not have support from other countries, the
government was successful in seven (i.e. revolution unsuccessful). Of the three revolutions in which the
government did have support, the government was successful in all three. As , support from other
countries apparently also increased the government’s chance of success.

Questions 57 – 60
Question 57
B Correct
Susan’s mother’s feelings shift from suspicion to relief in the passage (Option B). The ‘clue’ to the
suspicion she feels is in the description of her ‘narrowed eyes’ in lines 1 and 2. Candidates need to
recognise that this physical characteristic is an expression of the suspicion the mother feels about her
daughter’s recent behaviour. The relief is evident in the mother’s comment towards the end of the
passage in line 17: (‘Oh, is that all it was’). She clearly has a sense of relief that the daughter’s
behaviour is not about ‘something serious’. Counter-intuitively, she is relieved because it relates to the
failed relationship rather than anything to do with her illness.
Option A is incorrect because, even though we might assume that a mother has sympathy for a sick
daughter, the mother’s behaviour and body language tell us that she is not feeling sympathy or fear.
In Option C ‘annoyance’ is incorrect because it is too strong, as is ‘happiness’ in relation to her final
comments. The closest to the answer is Option D, but it is still incorrect because the mother’s
behaviour does not reflect resentment or outright acceptance. Rather than acceptance, she is
showing relief that she now can understand her daughter’s behaviour.

Question 58
D Correct
The correct answer is Option D, ‘disoriented and despondent’, because Susan describes her ‘drilling
headache’ and the fact that she feels ‘shaky and out of control’, which point to her sense of
disorientation. She also has a sense of resignation and despondency, evident in the comments ‘I have
the post-binge blues’ and ‘there is no-one to call…No sharing. Even the illusion of a relationship is
gone.’ The disorientation is both physical (from overindulging the night before) and emotional (her
relationship breakup) and the feelings of despondency are the consequences of the physical and
emotional disorientation.
Option A ‘indignant and angry’ is incorrect because Susan’s behaviour is too subdued to be
described in this way. Likewise Option B (‘petulant and aggressive’) is also incorrect because these
two descriptors of her mood are too strong. There is also no evidence in the passage that Susan is
‘determined and vengeful’ (Option C).

Question 59
D Correct
In line 13, when Susan admits to having an affair, we are made aware that her ‘...saying it out loud will
somehow give it substance’. This is the evidence that candidates needed to focus on in order to arrive
at the correct answer, that Susan was confessing in order to ‘convince herself that the relationship was
serious and significant’ (Option D). Susan seeks to reassure herself that the level of hurt and
abandonment she feels, parallels the importance she placed on the relationship.
Susan is more focused on the relationship breakdown (the end of the ‘affair’) than she is on her illness,
so Option A is incorrect. Likewise, Susan is not trying to show that she is in control of her life (Option B)
and, in fact, is admitting to a lack of control with the reference to the ‘binging’ of the previous day.
Option C is incorrect because there is no evidence in the passage that Susan is not being ‘welcoming’
to her mother, in fact she is happy to ‘reboil the kettle’ to accommodate her mother’s tastes. In the
passage, she is focused on herself and her actions of the previous few days, not on the comfort of her
mother.

Question 60
B Correct
The correct answer is Option B because, while Susan is focused on the breakdown of her relationship,
it is inferred that the break-up is somehow linked to her breast cancer and the mastectomy. Referring
to Susan’s mastectomy as ‘mutilation’ is likely to be offensive to Susan because it is an insensitive and
brutal description. Susan is also likely to feel ‘disconsolate’ because there is little she can do about the
nature of the treatment – she must bear it in order to get better. A mastectomy is a serious and radical
treatment, and probably difficult enough to come to terms with, without her mother describing it in this
way. Option A is incorrect because the mother’s description is wholly focused on Susan – she is not
being made to feel unimportant and neglected; the description applies directly to her circumstances.
Option C is unlikely because of the severity of the word choice by the mother – ‘mutilation’ a word
likely to have negative repercussions, rather than the positive ‘appreciated and self-reliant’. Likewise
the descriptors in Option D are too positive to be correct in relation to the mother’s comments.

Question 61
In this pattern, note that the black circle appears only at the top left and bottom right corners of each
square; within a row, the white circle appears in a different position in each frame or, in two frames,
cannot be seen. The simplest explanation of this pattern is that, from left to right within each row, the
black circle alternates between the two corners, and the white circle moves clockwise by one, then
two, positions. Black hides white when in the same position. Therefore, in the missing frame, both circles
should be in the top left corner with black hiding white. The alternative that satisfies these conditions is
A.

Question 62
In this set of frames, note that in the five frames the front of the car points in five different directions and
that there are five different shadings, each of which occurs in the roof and in the body. The simplest
explanation of this pattern is that, starting at E, between frames, the car rotates clockwise by 45º, and
the shadings flow independently through the roof and body in order: black, black bubbles, grey, grey
bubbles, white. Therefore, the sequence is EADCB.

Question 63
In this sequence, note that each frame contains five line segments and that in successive frames the
position of just one segment changes. The simplest explanation of this pattern is that, between frames,
one segment (starting with the right-most segment and progressing left) ‘flips’ across the horizontal line
and then remains in the new position. Therefore, in the 5 th frame, only the left-most segment should be
in the original position; all other segments should have flipped. The alternative that satisfies these
conditions is D.

Question 64
In this question, three possible indicators of the moths’ likelihood of winning contests are evaluated:
colour; occupation of a territory; and previous capture by net.
A Correct
This hypothesis is not consistent with the results shown. If moth colour were important, it would be
expected that either the dark moth would win both contests with the light moth, or lose both.
B Incorrect
This hypothesis is consistent with the results shown. In both contests the moth that occupies the territory
(the bush) wins.
C Incorrect
This hypothesis is consistent with the results shown. The light moth won the first contest but, after being
captured, lost the second contest.
D Incorrect
This hypothesis is consistent with the results shown. As for B, the winner of contests is the moth that
occupies the territory.

Questions 65 – 69
By determining the button presses that could result in a particular move, specific buttons can be
identified by a process of elimination.
Question 65
Turn 1 Moving forward four spaces can only result from ‘move forward’ + 4, or ‘double and move
forward’ + 2. Therefore, W is either ‘move forward’ or ‘double and move forward’; U is either 4 or 2.
Turn 2 Not moving can only result from ‘subtract 1 and move forward’ (Y) + 1 (V).
Turn 3 Moving forward four spaces can only result from ‘move forward’ + 4, or ‘double and move
forward’ + 2. Therefore, Z is either ‘move forward’ or ‘double and move forward’; T is either 4 or 2.
A Incorrect
U could be 2.
B Correct
S cannot be 4 as either U or T is 4.
C Incorrect
Z could be ‘double and move forward’.
D Incorrect
W could be ‘move forward’.
Question 66
Turn 1 Moving forward four spaces can only result from ‘move forward’ + 4, or ‘double and move
forward’ + 2. Therefore, W is either ‘move forward’ or ‘double and move forward’; T is either 2 or 4.
Turn 2 Moving forward six spaces can only result from ‘double and move forward’ (X) + 3 (S).
Turn 3 Moving back one space can only result from ‘move backward’ (Y) + 1 (U).
Combining the information from each turn gives the remaining unknowns: because X is ‘double and
move forward’, W must be ‘move forward’ and, therefore, T must be 4. This leaves Z as ‘subtract 1 and
move forward’ and V as 2.
C Correct
V and Z are 2 and ‘subtract 1 and move forward’. The light would move forward one space.
Question 67
A Correct
There are two combinations that will reach position 20 in two moves:
 ‘Double and move forward’ + , combined with ‘move forward’ +
 ‘Double and move forward’ + , combined with ‘subtract and move forward’ + .
Question 68
Turn 1 Moving forward four spaces can only result from ‘move forward’ + 4, or ‘double and move
forward’ + 2. Therefore, Z is either ‘move forward’ or ‘double and move forward’; U is either 4 or 2.
Turn 2 Moving back four spaces can only result from ‘move backward’ (X) + 4 (S).
Combining the information from each turn: because S is 4, U must be 2 and, therefore, Z must be
‘double and move forward’.
A Incorrect
Moving forward six spaces can only result from ‘double and move forward’ + 3. W cannot be ‘double
and move forward’ (Z is).
B Incorrect
Moving forward eight spaces can only result from ‘double and move forward’ + 4. W cannot be
‘double and move forward’ (Z is); T cannot be 4 (S is).
C Incorrect
Moving forward four spaces can only result from ‘move forward’ + 4. T cannot be 4 (S is).
D Correct
Not moving can only result from ‘move backward’ plus any number, or ‘subtract 1 and move forward’
+ 1. It cannot be ‘move backward’ (X is) but both ‘subtract 1 and move forward’ and 1 are
‘available’.
Question 69
B Correct
Turn 1 Moving forward two spaces can result from ‘subtract 1 and move forward’ + 3, or ‘move
forward’ + 2, or ‘double and move forward’ + 1.
Turn 2 Moving back two spaces can only result from ‘move backward’ (Y), but in combination with
any of 2, 3 or 4.
Thus, only Y is determined: ‘move backward’.

Questions 70 and 71
Question 70
B Correct
Option B is correct. Ian is expressing shock. For him, the comment came ‘out of the blue’ with ‘no
warning’. So far as he was concerned, he says, he had no idea that ‘things were this bad’ and
therefore it was a complete shock to hear that his wife wanted a separation. He compares the
experience to the time he was told he was adopted, when once again the news to him seemed
totally unexpected; ‘a bolt from the blue’. The other options are incorrect. The words ‘where did this
come from’ do not express anger (Option A). At that point he is too stunned to be angry – anger may
come later. It is not an expression of shame (Option C) – he has not had time to contemplate the
situation and being ‘out of the blue’ it is far too sudden for the weighing up of ideas needed for
‘scepticism’ (Option D).
Question 71
B Correct
Option B is correct. Ian is expressing resentment towards his birth mother. His resentment is apparent in
his choice of words such as ‘lousy’ and mention that his birth mother had ‘chosen’ to relinquish him –
implying that he believes she could have chosen to keep him. Option A is incorrect as there is no
suggestion of compassion. In his emotional and somewhat irrational outburst it is more as though he
blames his birth mother for being young, broke and not married. Option C is incorrect because Ian’s
comments are not directed towards society in general, they are directed very pointedly at his birth
mother. Option D is incorrect because he is not expressing understanding. He suggested that his birth
mother did not allow time to sort things out: ‘two lousy days’ expresses anger directed towards her,
not a case of understanding her motives or of blaming ‘society’.

Questions 72 and 73
Question 72
C Correct
Option C is correct. Exclusion is Bertha’s most prominent feeling throughout the scene. This starts when
Bertha sees the baby’s hair brushed into what seems to her ‘a funny little peak’ – not the way she
would do it. And then, a stronger feeling of exclusion, that she had come into the nursery ‘at another
wrong moment’, suggesting that she may not be welcome there all of the time. Bertha does not
‘dare’ to make a critical suggestion about how her daughter was treated. Then, poignantly, she feels
excluded like ‘the poor little girl in front of the rich little girl with the doll’ – Nanny being the ‘girl’ with
the ‘doll’. Option A is incorrect. Although Bertha considered that the baby might have been in a
dangerous situation with the dog, that moment has passed and there is no suggestion, overall, that
Bertha fears Nanny is negligent. Option B is incorrect. Bertha does not feel anger. When she exclaims
to Nanny, ‘Oh, I must!’ she seems to be feeling an overwhelming love for her daughter – she wants to
hold her immediately. Option D is incorrect. To see Bertha as helpless is to misread her situation. Bertha
desperately wants to hold her baby, and at the end of the passage she does. If she were helpless she
would not exclaim, ‘Oh, I must!’

Question 73
A Correct
Option A is the correct answer. Nanny sees herself as an authority on bringing up babies. This is evident
at the beginning of the passage when Nanny sets her lips, suggesting she is very confident in what she
is doing. And she knows that babies become unsettled if given to someone else to hold while eating.
Presumably Nanny will have to deal with the consequences if the baby becomes unsettled from her
mother’s cuddle. Nanny comes over as a person not to be trifled with, so when Bertha ignores her
judgment and takes the baby before she has finished, Nanny is offended.
Option B is incorrect. There is no suggestion that Nanny is looking for something to do. In fact, Bertha
suggests that the bath things need to be put away. The offence comes from not having been listened
to. Option C is incorrect. From Nanny’s set lips, at the beginning of the passage, we can see that she
has set ways – rather than the baby’s welfare, her concern is more that her routine will be interrupted.
Option D is incorrect. There is no information about Bertha’s handling of the baby.

Question 74
In this set of frames, note that in each frame the black segment is in a different position, and between
two and six grey segments are grouped together except when separated by the black segment. The
simplest explanation of this pattern is that, starting at A, between frames, the black shading moves
anticlockwise three positions, while an extra grey segment is added clockwise. Black hides grey when
they are in the same position. Therefore, the sequence is ABECD.

Question 75
In this set of frames, note that the three shadings appear in each frame, except that dots cannot be
seen in A and stripes cannot be seen in B. Each shading is always in a different position. The simplest
explanation of this pattern is that, between frames, grey moves one position left to right in each row,
dots move two positions anticlockwise around the outside of the figure (and are hidden by grey in A);
and stripes ‘snake’ one position upwards through the bottom two rows (and are hidden by dots in B).
Therefore, the sequence is DBAEC.

Question 76
In this sequence, note that each frame contains an arrowed cross with one white arm, and a
checked square that fills the space between two arms of the cross. In successive frames the cross
becomes thinner and its orientation changes; the position of the square also changes. The simplest
explanation of this pattern is that, between frames, the cross rotates anticlockwise by increasing
amounts (45º, 90º, 135º and so on) and becomes thinner. The square moves one position clockwise
relative to the white arm. Therefore, in the 5th frame, the cross should be thinner than it is in the 4 th
frame and the white arm should point to the left. The square should be in the top right space. The
alternative that satisfies these conditions is A.

Question 77
In this sequence, note that in successive frames the crescent is in the same position but flips, while the
star alternates between the left and right columns. The oval sometimes contains an arrow but the
arrow never appears outside the oval. The simplest explanation of this pattern is that, between frames,
the crescent flips vertically and the star alternates between left and right columns. The oval moves in
the direction to which the arrow is pointing; if the arrow is absent, the oval does not move. Therefore,
in the 5th frame, the crescent should have its corners pointing up, the star should be in the left column
and the oval should be in the right column; the oval may or may not contain an arrow, but the arrow
cannot be outside the oval. The alternative that satisfies these conditions is A.

Question 78
In this pattern, note that the flowers have four differently shaded centres and that the flowers in each
row and column have different orientations. The simplest explanation of this pattern is that, in each
row, from left to right, the flower rotates anticlockwise by one, then two, positions; the four shadings
‘snake’ horizontally, from top left, in the order dots, grey, checks, stripes. Therefore, in the missing
frame, the flower head should be in the bottom left corner and the shading should be dots. The
alternative that satisfies these conditions is E.

Question 79

In this pattern, note that the squares in the frames are of two sizes, and only the top left frame contains
shaded, touching or overlapping squares. The simplest explanation of this pattern is that the top left
frame is produced by stacking all the other frames on top of each other. Three squares of the same
type in the same position gives black, two gives grey, one gives white. The small squares stack on top
of the larger squares. To complete the pattern, the missing frame must contain just one small square in
the bottom left position. The alternative that satisfies these conditions is E.
Questions 80 – 85
Question 80
B Correct
A 45-year old woman is in Group I. She has high blood pressure (1 CHD risk factor) and drinks two
standard drinks a day (heavy drinker). Heavy drinkers with 1 CHD risk factor in Group I should abstain.
Question 81
D Correct
Non-drinkers (abstinence) at low risk of CHD are recommended ‘no change’ (no need to drink). Non-
drinkers at high risk are recommended 1–3 drinks/week (start drinking at light levels). Because only
high-risk non-drinkers are recommended to start drinking, it appears light drinking has a protective
effect against CHD only for high-risk individuals.
Question 82
The recommended daily limits on drinking for heavy drinkers at high risk of CHD are:
 Group I men, Group I women and Group II women – 1 standard drink
 Group II men – 2 standard drinks.
A Correct
For high-risk heavy drinkers, Group I men have a lower recommended daily limit (1 standard drink) on
drinking than Group II men (2 standard drinks).
Question 83
For both Group I at low risk of CHD and Group II at low risk, the recommended maximums are
abstinence for non-drinkers and heavy drinkers, 1 drink/day for female light drinkers and 2 drinks/day
for male light drinkers. For Group I at high risk, the recommended maximums are 3 drinks/week for non-
drinkers, 1 drink/day for female light drinkers, 2 drinks/day for male light drinkers and 1 drink/day for
heavy drinkers.
C Correct
The maximum number of drinks recommended for non-drinkers and heavy drinkers in Group I at high
risk is higher than for those in Group II at low risk. Only the recommendations for light drinkers are the
same. Thus, the recommended maximums are generally higher for Group I at high risk.
Question 84
If light drinking reduces the risk of CHD compared to abstinence, non-drinkers will be recommended to
drink 1–3 drinks/week.
A Incorrect
For non-drinkers with no risk factors, there is no recommendation to drink for either Group I or Group II.
B Incorrect
For non-drinkers with 1 or more risk factors, there is a recommendation to drink only for Group II. For
Group I, the recommendation to drink is given to non-drinkers only if they have 2 or more risk factors.
C Correct
All people (men and women) ‘over 50’ are in Group II. For non-drinkers in Group II with 1 risk factor
there is a recommendation to drink 1–3 drinks/week.
D Incorrect
All people (men and women) ‘under 40’ are in Group I. For non-drinkers in Group I with no risk factors,
there is no recommendation to drink.
Question 85
The varying recommended levels of drinking indicate that although drinking protects against CHD risk,
it also entails risks (not necessarily CHD risk) of its own. The different recommendations balance these
risks. For Group II, in general, fewer of the listed CHD risk factors are required before increased drinking
is recommended, and recommended drinking levels are higher. Thus, for Group II, the risk of CHD must
more readily outweigh the risks of drinking.
Men are categorised as Group II at 40 years of age, women not until 50. This suggests that for women
40–50 years old, compared to men of the same age, the risk of CHD is lower and/or the risks of drinking
are higher.
A Correct
This option indicates both a lower risk of CHD and a risk (cancer) of drinking. Other options give a
higher CHD risk and/or a lower drinking risk; these would shift the balance towards women being
categorised in Group II earlier than men, not later.

Question 86
In this set of frames note that the three shadings appear in each frame, except that only black appears
in C. Each shading is always in a different position. The simplest explanation of this pattern is that, starting
at D, between frames, the shadings move from left to right and return to the left after exiting. Black
moves two positions, and hides other shadings; grey moves one position (and is hidden in C); dots
moves three positions (and is hidden in C). Therefore, the sequence is DCBEA.

Question 87
In this sequence, note that the shaded columns appear in different positions in each frame but their
position with respect to each other remains the same, except for the diagonally striped columns. The
simplest explanation of this pattern is that, between frames, the columns move two positions from left
to right and then re-enter from the left, and the two diagonally striped columns swap their relative
positions. Therefore, in the 5th frame, the black column should be in the second-from-right position and
the orientation of the stripes in the diagonally-striped columns should be as shown in the 1st and 3rd
frames. The alternative that satisfies these conditions is B.

Question 88
In this pattern, note that within each of the two top rows three shadings appear twice and one
shading appears three times, each time in a different position. The simplest explanation of this pattern
is that, in each row, four shadings (stripes, white, dots and grey) flow one position clockwise through
the three sectors of each of the figures, entering from top left and leaving from the bottom. Therefore,
in the missing frame, the shading should be white at top right, dotted at bottom and striped at top left.
The alternative that satisfies these conditions is B.

Questions 89 – 92
Question 89
D Correct
The correct answer is Option D (vulnerable) because Stephanie tells us that there has been a change
in Jemma from being ‘fun’ and having robust conversations, to having a ‘lack of emotional stamina’.
Also, there is a marked contrast in the passage between the ‘faint and increasingly less energetic’
Jemma and the ‘bright and full of energy’ Stephanie. This contrast highlights Jemma’s fragility and
vulnerability.
Option A (distant) is incorrect because, although Jemma has certainly changed, she is attempting to
maintain communication with Stephanie and has not distanced herself from their relationship. Option
B (arrogant) is incorrect because there is no evidence in the passage that Jemma has become
haughty and disdainful. Likewise, she is not self-aware (Option C) because it is clear that if she was,
she would have more awareness of how her changed behaviour was impacting on Stephanie, and
this is not the case in the passage.

Question 90
B Correct
Stephanie interprets the change in Jemma as an attempt to control, because she believes Jemma is
manipulating the communication the two of them are now having. Stephanie’s comment ‘Her
pleading feels like an attempt to hold me’ is evidence of this. Stephanie views Jemma as needy and
also believes that Jemma uses the phone calls to try to elicit sympathy. This is evident when Stephanie
refers to Jemma’s ‘self-pity’.
The change in Jemma is not viewed as an attack (Option A) by Stephanie. While Stephanie finds the
calls tiresome and aggravating, there is no evidence that she views Jemma as attacking her. Option
C (a way of asserting herself) is incorrect because it is clear that Jemma is not being assertive.
Stephanie describes the faintness of her voice and her loss of energy and this description shows a lack
of assertiveness. Option D (an attempt to build up their friendship) is incorrect because the friendship is
already established and this is clear from the outset. It is the quality of the friendship that Stephanie is
now questioning, not the prior existence of it.
Question 91
D Correct
Option D is the correct answer because Stephanie deals with Jemma’s behaviour by accepting it and
refusing to look at its motivations. At no stage does she question why Jemma is sounding ‘faint’ or
‘lacking in energy’. Nor is there any investigation into why Jemma may be feeling ‘self-pity’.
Option A (being tactful and diplomatic towards Jemma) is incorrect because we learn from the
passage that Stephanie not only avoids her calls, but also cuts her short when they do communicate.
This is evidence that Stephanie is behaving negatively towards Jemma rather than in a tactful and
diplomatic way. Option B (pretending that she was being helpful to Jemma) is incorrect because
again there is no evidence of Stephanie acting in a positive way towards Jemma. Option C
(persuading herself that she has never really liked Jemma) is also incorrect because there is evidence
that Stephanie’s attitude to Jemma has changed over time. Stephanie recalls a time ‘when it was fun
to call her’ so there is evidence that Stephanie once genuinely liked speaking to Jemma, and wishes
this was still the case.

Question 92
C Correct
Option C (‘You didn’t support me when I most needed you’) is the correct answer because it is clear
from the passage that Stephanie’s attitude to the situation is one of avoidance and judgement rather
than support and concern. Stephanie’s reaction to Jemma is negative and unsympathetic so Jemma
is likely to feel unsupported and deserted by Stephanie.
Option A (‘You were a good friend at a difficult time’) is incorrect because there is no evidence that
Stephanie is being a good friend at this time. She may have been in the past, as alluded to by
Stephanie herself, but she is clearly not being supportive of Jemma in the passage. Option B (‘You
tried to help but didn’t know what to do’) is also incorrect because it implies that Stephanie took an
active role in helping Jemma overcome her problems and there is no evidence of this in the passage.
Option D (‘You were too patient when I needed you to be tough’) is incorrect because there is
evidence that Stephanie is somewhat impatient with Jemma. Stephanie is tough but not in the way
implied in Option D. Option D implies that the toughness needed is a positive sort of steadfastness,
whereas the toughness Stephanie actually shows is a kind of negative intolerance.

Question 93
D Correct
A man in the general population (II) is more likely to smoke than a man in the top 100 (I) (who must be
an advertiser). But no information is provided on the difference in smoking rates of males and females.
Such information is needed to compare II and III to determine which is more likely to smoke.

Questions 94 – 97
Question 94
All statements are supported to some degree. An evaluation must be made of which statement is
more strongly, clearly or consistently supported than the others.
A Incorrect
In total, Natalie makes only one more delivery than Travis (59 to 58). This difference is not as large as
that for B.
B Correct
Both drivers made more deliveries (were more productive) in the Triat than in the Mondo: Natalie
seven more, Travis eight more. These differences are relatively much larger than those for A, C and D,
and they are consistent across both drivers.
C Incorrect
When driving the Mondo, Natalie makes only one more delivery than Travis. In the Triat, they make the
same number of deliveries. Neither the difference between drivers nor the difference between
vehicles is as clear as that for B.
D Incorrect
Both drivers made more deliveries (were more productive) in the Triat than in the Mondo: Natalie
seven more, Travis eight more. Travis increased his productivity by only one more delivery than Natalie.
This difference is not as large as that for B.
Question 95
The factor that is least likely to affect any conclusions is the one that would have equally affected
both drivers and both vehicles.
A Incorrect
If only Travis had been allocated jobs that took longer, he would have made fewer deliveries and his
productivity relative to Natalie’s would have been reduced.
B Correct
Drivers worked shifts of equal lengths and there is nothing to suggest that their shifts were in any other
way different. If morning jobs took longer than afternoon jobs, the number of deliveries for both drivers,
in both vehicles, would have been reduced proportionally. The conclusions regarding the relative
productivity of drivers and vehicles would remain unchanged.
C Incorrect
If jobs that took longer were more often given to the driver in the Mondo, the productivity of the
Mondo relative to that of the Triat would have been reduced.
D Incorrect
If jobs that involved heavy loads were more often given to the driver in the Triat, deliveries might have
taken longer and, therefore, the productivity of the Triat relative to the Mondo reduced.

Question 96
A common reference must be used to compare the Northern and Eastern runs. As the work on the two
runs is similar, a comparison can be made of the drivers (Natalie and Travis compared to Corey and
Phil) using a common reference – the data from the Mondo. The data from the Triat and the Meno
cannot be compared as, although the work is similar, the drivers are different, i.e. there are two
variables that differ.
A Correct
Considering only the Mondo, Phil and Corey are more productive. They made 39 and 35 deliveries,
respectively, to Natalie’s 26.
B Incorrect
Corey made 35 deliveries in the Mondo to Travis’ 25.
C Incorrect
There is no common data on the Triat or Meno with which to compare Natalie and Travis with Phil and
Corey.
D Incorrect
The Mondo and Triat were both used on only the Northern run, and there the Triat was more
productive. More deliveries were made using the Mondo on the Eastern run than on the Northern run,
but this data cannot be validly compared as the drivers were different.

Question 97
A Incorrect
This statement is supported: Cal made 8 more deliveries than Bon and 19 more than Abe.
B Correct
Compared to other statements, support for this statement is not as consistent or clear (relevant
comparisons were often closer): the Astro was the least productive vehicle for Abe and Cal, but the
second-most productive vehicle for Bon, and the second-most productive overall (86 deliveries
compared to 83 in the Burl and 89 in the Cirrus).
C Incorrect
This statement is supported: the Burl is the best vehicle for Abe (two and three more deliveries than in
the other vehicles), and the worst vehicle for Bon (seven and eight fewer deliveries than in the other
vehicles). The Burl is only the equal-best vehicle for Cal, rather than the best (and only just better than
the Astro), but on balance the statement is better supported than B.
D Incorrect
This statement is supported: using the Burl, Abe made three more deliveries than in the Astro, and two
more than in the Cirrus.
Question 98
In this pattern, note that each frame contains two black segments; in the left column they are always
at the ends of the ‘string’ but their position changes in the other frames. The number of grey segments
varies. The simplest explanation of this pattern is that between frames, from left to right within a row,
each of the two black segments moves in from the ends of the string: by six positions in the top row, by
four positions in the middle row and by two positions in the bottom row. The number of grey segments
decreases by one from left to right in each row, and from top to bottom in each column. Black hides
grey when in the same position. Therefore, in the missing frame, there should be no grey segments
and, because of overlap, just one black segment positioned two places further along than in the
previous frame in the row. The alternative that satisfies these conditions is A.

Question 99
In this pattern, note that each row contains variations of a single shape, and white, black and
patterned backgrounds. The simplest explanation of this pattern is that each row contains frames with
a thick and thin version of the shape with the shadings of shape and background swapped; in the
third frame the background is based on the shape and both shadings. Therefore, the missing frame
should have a thick, grey horizontal bar on a white background (the position of the bar does not
matter). The alternative that satisfies these conditions is D.

Questions 100 and 101

Question 100
C Correct
The patient in the cartoon is making a point about his confidence in the doctor (Option C). He would
be relying on his doctor to reassure him that all will be well. We can deduce that whatever the doctor
has said prior to the patient’s comment, he has made a joke where he has belittled or undervalued
himself. This would not inspire confidence in a patient about to go into surgery.
The doctor’s ability to undertake the surgery is not in question here so Option A is incorrect. The
cartoonist has depicted the doctor as professional and scrubbed-up and looking ready to operate in
a businesslike manner. The doctor’s attempt at humour and his professional-looking demeanour also
mean that Option B (the doctor’s lack of concern) is also incorrect. Option D (his fear about his
physical condition) is incorrect because the patient delivers his line in a controlled and articulate way,
which he would be unable to do if he was overtaken by fear. Additionally, it is not the patient’s
physical condition that is making him feel insecure, but rather the behaviour of the doctor.

Question 101
C Correct
The correct answer is Option C (vulnerable) because the patient is on the trolley, flat on his back,
ready to be administered the anaesthetic and to go into surgery, so it is clear that he would feel
vulnerable both emotionally and physically. The comment the patient is making also reveals his
vulnerability; his doctor’s self-deprecating humour has caused him to lose confidence and hence feel
vulnerable.
Option A (vengeful) is incorrect because it is clear that the patient is not enraged or bitter, which
would be part of feeling vengeful. Nor is there any evidence in the cartoon that the patient is
saddened (Option B). While the patient does feel vulnerable, it is too strong to say he feels intimidated
(Option D) because he is able to express his concern clearly to the doctor.

Questions 102 – 105

These problems are solved by tracking classes through each lesson. Often only the progress of one
class is needed to eliminate options.
Question 102
D Correct
II + V is:
a→a→γ
β→γ→β
γ→β→a
Aqua starts in a, ends in γ. Black starts in β, ends in β. Gold starts in γ, ends in a.
Question 103
C Correct
III + VI is:
a→β→β
β→γ→a
γ→a→γ
These two moves in sequence produce the same result as the single move IV.
Question 104
B Correct
Each sequence of two moves produces the same result.
III + V V + III
a→β→a produces the same a→γ→a
β→γ→β result as β→a→β
γ→a→γ γ→β→γ

Question 105
a→a→a
I+I β→β→β
γ→γ→γ

a→a→a
II+II β→γ→β
γ→β→γ

a→β→γ
III+III β→γ→a
γ→a→β

a→β→a
IV+IV β→a→β
γ→γ→γ

a→γ→β
V+V β→a→γ
γ→β→a

a→γ→a
VI+VI β→β→β
γ→a→γ

C Correct
Repeating any of I, II, IV and VI rotates a class back to its original room in the third lesson.

Question 106
In this sequence, note that each frame contains the same set of shapes with just one change in their
positions in successive frames. The simplest explanation of this pattern is that, between frames (starting
with the top middle segment and progressing clockwise one segment at a time), the shape in the left
corner of a segment (as viewed from the centre of the hexagon) swaps with the shape in the right
corner of the adjacent segment. Once a swap has taken place the shapes remain in that position.
Therefore, in the 5th frame, the crescent and the heart should have swapped positions while the other
shapes should be as shown in the 4th frame. The alternative that satisfies these conditions is A.

Question 107
In this set of frames, note that the three shadings appear in each of the frames, except that white
cannot be seen in C. The two grey segments are always separated by three black segments. The
simplest explanation of this pattern is that, between frames, the grey segments move as a pair four
positions clockwise and the white segment moves five positions clockwise (and is hidden by the
uppermost grey in C). Segments are black unless white or grey shading is present. Therefore, the
sequence is CAEDB.

Question 108
In this set of frames, note that the black circle is present in a different position in each of the frames and
that the paired stars have two combinations – black on grey and grey on white. The simplest
explanation of this pattern is that starting at B, between frames, the black circle moves clockwise three
positions and the star pair alternates between grey/white and black/grey. Therefore, the sequence is
BACED.

Questions 109 – 113

Question 109
D Correct
Harry and Dillon’s comments in and suggest that they both see themselves as overweight. When
Simon reveals his weight loss, Harry and Dillon’s silence suggests they are disconcerted, most likely
because it reminds them of their own lack of effort. Thus, Option D is the correct answer.
Option A is incorrect because Harry and Dillon are envious of Simon, not embarrassed by – or for – him;
and their offer of chocolate is a passive-aggressive act driven by envy, so it is not generous. Option B is
incorrect because Harry and Dillon’s envy stems from their submission to social expectations. Option C
is incorrect because Harry and Dillon’s motivation for giving Simon the chocolate is precisely because
they are aware of just how detrimental it can be; they are trying to encourage Simon to give up on his
health efforts and be more like them.

Question 110
A Correct
Harry and Dillon’s comments throughout the passage suggest they avoid acting on their health
concerns, and are quite open about this. This suggests that Simon would be aware of their attitude
towards health, and would be reluctant to attract their envy or scorn by being different. This is
apparent when, in response to Dillon’s disparaging question ‘You’re not going to a gym, are you?’,
Simon says ‘Is there anything wrong with that?’. His tone here is immediately defensive, suggesting that
he was expecting a negative reaction from his colleagues. Hence, Option A is the correct answer.
Simon’s reluctance to reveal his gym visit would not be caused by guilt that he is working harder than
his colleagues – they are not ‘working’ at all. Thus, Option C is incorrect. Option B is incorrect because
his attempted secrecy stems from his desire to avoid upsetting his social relationships. Option D is
incorrect because Simon’s efforts to lose weight appear to stem from a positive, pro-active mind-set.
In comment 8 he admits that he is ‘proud’ of his weight loss, suggesting that his efforts have nothing
to do with comparison to others, or others’ judgements of him, but rather a sense of personal
achievement.

Question 111
B Correct
Simon words, ‘I’m sick of hearing myself make excuses’, bring into focus Harry and Dillon’s comments
made in 13 and 14 and, inadvertently, show them for what they are: blatant excuses for laziness. Since
Harry and Dillon both admit that they would like to lose weight, the sudden highlighting of their
excuses would likely make them feel guilty about their laziness, making Option B the correct answer.
Harry and Dillon’s silence following Simon’s comment reveals their awkward awareness of their own
inactivity. In this moment they would be feeling inept rather than pitying or confused or inspired, so
Options A, C and D are incorrect.

Question 112
C Correct
Harry’s comment is an attempt to manipulate Simon into feeling bad for breaking their unspoken
social ‘rule’ of laziness, making Option C the correct answer.
Harry’s comment is designed to undermine Simon’s pride and self-respect rather than appeal to it, so
Option D is incorrect. It is selfish behaviour by Harry, making it the opposite of compassionate, thus
Option B incorrect. Since it is somewhat manipulative and selfish, it is not meant to be humorous
(which could reduce its intended impact), so Option A is incorrect.

Question 113
A Correct
The fact that Harry mocks Simon (‘Stop being such a goody-goody’) and tempts Simon with
chocolate to stop him continuing on his health regime, suggests that Harry finds Simon’s weight loss
efforts threatening. Therefore his comment ‘you must be quite proud of yourself’ is most likely masking
negative feelings, despite on the surface sounding encouraging. This makes Option A correct, and
Options B and D incorrect. Option C is incorrect because Harry’s comment is said with conscious
(albeit veiled) sarcasm, suggesting that he is neither being tentative, nor questioning his own weight-
loss efforts at that point.
Questions 114 – 115
One year of growth is represented by the white bands between two black lines. The rings towards the
centre of the tree are older. Thus, in the figures, age increases from right to left (the centre of the tree
is determined by the direction of the rings’ curve). The sections can be overlapped where their ring
patterns match.

Question 114
B Correct
Overlapping the sections, and given that age increases from right to left, the correct order is I, III, II.

Question 115
C Correct
Overlapping sections I and III, both arrowed rings are present in section III, with the white arrow six
rings to the right of the black arrow. Because age increases from right to left, the white arrow most
likely indicates six years later than 1812, i.e. 1818.

Questions 116 – 117

In the test used to measure cognitive impairment, a higher score indicates greater impairment and
the vertical axis indicates change from the baseline score. (Note also the reversal of the usual scale
direction of the vertical axis.) Thus, a negative change in score from the baseline indicates a lessening
of impairment.
The effect of the drug is the difference in the score change of patients taking the drug and of patients
in the control group (no drug).

Question 116
A Incorrect
The drug’s effect cannot be said to be ‘immediate’: the first data point after treatment begins is at six
weeks and the score of patients taking the drug was similar to the score of the control group; any
effect of the drug at six weeks is indistinguishable from that of the control. As well, ‘short-lived’ is
arguable: although the drug’s effect may appear to have lessened by or weeks, it was still
having an effect relative to the control.
B Correct
At all doses of the drug, by 12 weeks patients showed a reversal of cognitive impairment (i.e. a
decline in their impairment score that was not exhibited by the control). As well, the reversal was
temporary: by 24 or 30 weeks, the drug was still having an effect relative to the control, but the
reversal had ceased.
C Incorrect
Cognitive impairment did reverse (see B). If the drug only slowed impairment, impairment scores
would have continued to increase in the drug groups (the changes from baseline would have been
positive) but less so than in the control group.
D Incorrect
Although the drug did take several weeks to have an effect, with differences between drug and
control groups only appearing after 12 weeks, no data is given on long-term effects.

Question 117
A Correct
The data that least supports the drug’s effectiveness is that for which there is the least difference
between the scores of the drug groups and the control group. At six weeks, there are no apparent
differences. The data for weeks 24 and 30 indicate a lessening of the drug’s effect, but the effect is still
evident.

Question 118
In this pattern, note that each frame contains a shape made up of four line segments and, in
adjacent frames within a row, the position of just one of the segments varies. The simplest explanation
of this pattern is that, from left to right in each row, one segment changes position. Therefore,
compared to the centre frame of the bottom row, the missing frame should have just one segment in
a different position. Both B and D satisfy this condition, but B is a repeat of the first frame in the row. As
the frames did not repeat in the other rows, the better alternative is D.
Question 119
In this set of frames, note that each of the frames appears to contain two black diamonds, two grey
diamonds, one black-checked diamond and one grey-checked diamond; D is missing one grey
diamond and E is missing one grey-checked diamond. Each shading is always in a different position.
The simplest explanation of this pattern is that, starting at C, between frames, the different shadings
move down the diagonals; when they reach the bottom they return to the top of the adjacent
diagonal. One black, one grey and black-checks move left to right; one black, one grey and grey-
checks move right to left. In E, black-checks hides grey-checks; in D, one black hides one grey.
Therefore, the sequence is CBAED.

Question 120
In this sequence, note that the central ring is never shaded, the black and striped rings appear in
each frame but the grey ring is missing from one frame. The simplest explanation of this pattern is that
black and striped shadings move three positions clockwise around the periphery of the triangle while
grey moves four positions anticlockwise and is covered by black in the 3 rd frame. Therefore, in the 5th
frame, black should be on the right, second from bottom, stripes should be on left, second from top,
and grey should be in the bottom left position. The alternative that satisfies these conditions is A.

Questions 121 – 125

Question 121
B Correct
The patient’s personal comments about the psychologist are insensitive and insulting. The fact that the
psychologist does not become hostile in response, but rather uses the comments to discover more
about the patient’s condition, suggests that she is prepared to set aside her own negative feelings for
the patient’s sake. This makes Option B the correct answer.
The psychologist is not pandering to the patient, or trying to get his respect by setting aside her own
feelings; she is trying to uncover his feelings, so Option A is incorrect. Option C is incorrect because the
psychologist’s responses show that not only does she instantly recognise the challenge posed by the
patient’s comments, but is prepared to tackle it ‘head on’ in an open and honest manner: ‘You don’t
have to deal with my weaknesses. They’re for me to deal with’ (comment 8). Option D is incorrect
because the psychologist’s questions all relate to what might be causing the patient’s attitude. She is
neither trying to impress him with her questions, nor using them to draw attention to her own skills.

Question 122
D Correct
Instead of reacting with anger to the patient’s insulting comments, the psychologist recognises his
comments are an expression of his problem. Her comment ‘Do I need to be able to walk to help you?’
is not indignant, but leading – she is attempting to help him view his behaviour in a different way. This
makes Option D the correct answer.
Whilst the psychologist’s comment is assertive and direct, it is (like her other comments) designed to
provoke thought rather than to admonish, so Option A is incorrect. The psychologist is not trying to
convince the patient that she could do her job just as well without legs, or merely reassure him that
she is listening. Her main aim is to make him see the illogical nature of his attitude. Thus, Options B and
C are also incorrect.

Question 123
D Correct
In comment 19, the patient says ‘I’ve been a called a weakling and a failure all my life. I simply can’t
respect someone who’s even weaker than me.’ This suggests that the patient views the whole world in
the same terms as he views himself (through a prism of weakness and failure). This bias prompts him to
interpret the psychologist’s limp as a weakness affecting her entire being, including her capacity to
help him. Thus, his behaviour towards her is influenced primarily by his own feelings of inadequacy,
making Option D the correct answer.
The patient views the psychologist’s limp in a way that reflects his own sense of weakness, so his
behaviour towards her is influenced more by feelings of failure than superiority, betrayal, or disgust, so
Options A, B and C are incorrect.

Question 124
B Correct
The psychologist continues to try to help the patient, despite his insulting comments. She suppresses
her own feelings in order to continue doing her job. This makes her attitude focused and controlled,
and Option B the correct answer.
Option A is incorrect because the psychologist is not ‘curious’ about the patient; she is confronted by
his attitude and determined to discover where it comes from. At no stage does she make fun of or
mock him. Option C is incorrect because the psychologist is being too straightforward to be
‘pleasant’, and she never dismisses the patient. Option D is incorrect because she does not punish the
patient, or try to make him feel powerless.

Question 125
D Correct
The patient’s words ‘I’m sorry’ are directly followed by ‘but you don’t understand.’ This suggests that
‘I’m sorry’ is not an apology but a polite way of saying ‘If what I’m about to say is rude, then it’s your
fault for forcing me to be rude.’ Such a statement would be caused by frustration rather than shame,
remorse or confusion, so Option D is the correct answer and Options A, B and C are incorrect.

Question 126
In this sequence, note that the shapes never appear in the centre square and that the 4 th frame
apparently contains three new shapes, one of which is black. The simplest explanation of this pattern is
that, between frames, the rectangle on the left in the 1 st frame moves clockwise one square, and
alternates between the top of the square (as in the 1st frame) and the bottom (as in the 2nd frame).
The other rectangle moves clockwise two squares and moves clockwise around the perimeter of its
square. The triangle on the left in the 1st frame moves clockwise two squares and alternates between
the bottom left and top right corners of its square, while the other triangle moves anticlockwise one
square and similarly alternates corners. When shapes overlap, as in the 4th frame, the overlapped area
becomes black. Therefore, in the 5th frame, the two rectangles should overlap in the upper part of the
middle right square (becoming black) and the two triangles should be in the top left square. The
alternative that satisfies these conditions is A.

Question 127
In this pattern, note that in each row each frame contains the same three shapes but their position in
the frame and with respect to each other varies. The simplest explanation of this pattern is that, from
left to right in each row, the set of shapes progresses one side around the frame, either clockwise (top
and bottom rows) or anticlockwise (middle row) and the middle and end shapes swap positions – first
one end, and then the other. Therefore, in the missing frame the shapes should be along the bottom,
and the heart and arch should have swapped positions from the previous frame in the row. The
alternative that satisfies these conditions is B.

Question 128
In this set of frames, note that each frame contains one grey shading and two or three black shadings.
Only segments around the perimeter of the figure are shaded. The simplest explanation of this pattern is
that, between frames, the grey shading moves one position anticlockwise around the perimeter; and a
string of three black shadings moves one position clockwise. One black is hidden by the grey in A, C and
D. Therefore, the sequence is CBADE.

Questions 129 – 131

Knowledge of basic scientific methodology is useful for this question.
Question 129
A Correct
If subjects know the type of patch they are wearing, it may influence – consciously or unconsciously –
their likelihood of giving up smoking. This would affect any conclusions regarding the effectiveness of
the patches.
B Incorrect
If after six weeks the patches are swapped, both groups would be essentially the same with respect to
examining the effectiveness of nicotine patches (i.e. there is no control).
C Incorrect
The nicotine patches are designed to reduce the desire for cigarettes to aid in giving up smoking – it is
implicit that ‘giving up’ means such aids are no longer needed. It is not possible to assess whether
someone has given up permanently if they are still using the patches.
D Incorrect
If subjects remove the patch as soon as they no longer feel the need to smoke then the comparability
of the two groups is reduced. The aim of the study is also clearly to test the effectiveness of the
patches when worn for the full 12 weeks.

Question 130
There is an assumption that if a person is not smoking after eight years it equates to permanently giving
up.
A Correct
Less than half of smokers who refrained from smoking for 12 months (regardless of whether they used
nicotine patches or not) were smoking eight years after the study began.
B Incorrect
In order to evaluate which year is the most important, data is needed for each year on the success
rate of those attempting to stop smoking permanently: the number making it through each year as a
proportion of the total number making it to eight years. The only information provided is that of those
who were not smoking at the end of the first year, around half had resumed smoking in the next seven
years – there is no information on when in that period they resumed. If, for example, all those who
relapsed after the first year did so in the second year, the second year is more important than the first
year in an attempt to give up permanently, i.e. stopping smoking for one year would only give a 50%
chance of permanently giving up, but making it to two years would all but guarantee success.
C Incorrect
Although a smaller proportion of people resumed smoking later in the study compared to the first
year, it is not known whether this was due to ‘resisting temptation’ or other factors – perhaps the desire
to smoke no longer existed for many. Thus, C is supported as a possibility, but A is clearly true based on
the data given, i.e. is ‘best supported’.
D Incorrect
As for B, no data is given on the relapse rate for each of the years after the first year.

Question 131
C Correct
A total of 1624 smokers were in the study. Half (812) of them wore a nicotine patch for the first 12
weeks. After one year 11.2% (91) of the patch group were not smoking; of these, less than half had
resumed smoking after eight years: so more than 46 individuals were still not smoking. This excludes A
and B as possible answers. As well, because only 5% (81) of all 1624 smokers were not smoking at this
stage, D is excluded. This leaves C as the only possible answer.

Question 132
Calculations must consider, for each staff type, the number of staff as well as their average salary.
B Correct
Average for all women:
)+ +
Average for all men:
( )+ +

Question 133
In this pattern, note that each row contains a different set of shapes, and that compared to the left
and middle columns the right column has fewer shapes. The simplest explanation of this pattern is that
the left and middle columns combine to produce the right column, with elements in common
cancelling. Therefore, the missing frame should contain the elements that are present in just the left
column; and the elements that are present in just the right column. The alternative that satisfies these
conditions is A.

Question 134

In this set of frames, note that each frame has two black circles the same distance apart, and between
one and five grey circles. The simplest explanation of this pattern is that, between frames, the black
circles move clockwise as a pair through an increasing number of positions (4, 8, 12 and 16), hiding grey
when in the same position; an extra grey circle is added clockwise. Therefore, the sequence is CBEAD.