1.

When a substance is gaseous states is below the critical temperature it is called: Answer: A
A. Vapor
B. Cloud
C. Moisture
D. Steam

2. Is the condition of pressure and temperature at which a liquid and its vapor are indistinguishable:
Answer: A
A. Critical point
B. Dew point
C. Absolute humidity
D. Relative humidity

3. If the temperature is held constant and the pressure is increased beyond the saturation pressure,
we have a: Answer: C
A. Saturated vapor
B. Saturated liquid
C. Compressed liquid
D. Subcooled liquid

4. A Francis turbine has what flow: Answer: A

A. Inward flow reaction
B. Outward flow impulse
C. Outward flow reaction
D. Inward flow impulse

5. The latent heat of vaporization in joules per kg is equal to: Answer: C

A. 5.40 x 102
B. 4.13 x 103
C. 22.6 x 105
D. 3.35 x 105

6. Form of energy associated with the kinetic energy of the random motion of large number of
molecules: Answer: D
A. Internal energy
B. Kinetic energy
C. Heat of fusion
D. Heat

7. In a P-T diagram of pure substance, the curve separating the solid phase from the liquid phase is:
Answer : B
A. Vaporization curve
B. Fusion curve
C. Boiling point
D. Sublimation point
8. The number of protons in the nucleus of an atom of the number of electrons in the orbit of an
atom: Answer: B
A. Atomic volume
B. Atomic number
C. Atomic weight
D. Atomic mass

9. The energy of fluid flowing at any section in a pipeline is a function of: Answer: C
A. Velocity of flow only
B. Pressure only
C. Height above a chosen datum, density, internal energy, pressure and velocity of flow
D. Pressure, height above a chosen datum, velocity of flow, density of fluid

10. A type of water turbine: Answer: C

A. Parson
B. Hero
C. Pelton
D. Banki

11. if the pressure of the confined gas is constant, the volume is directly proportional to the adsolute
temperature: Answer: C
A. Boyle
B. Joule
C. Charles
D. White body

12. A theoretical body which heated to incandescence would emit a continuous light-ray spectrum:
Answer: B
A. Black body radiation
B. Black body
C. Blue body
D. White body

13. Ignition of the air fuel mixture in the intake of the exhaust manifold: Answer: B
A. Backlash
B. Backfire
C. Exhaust pressure
D. Back pressure

14.

15. When a substance in gaseous state is below its critical temperature it is called: Answer: D
A. Steam
B. Cloud
C. Moisture
D. Vapor
16. Which of the following a set of standard condition: Answer: B
A. 1 atm, 255k, 22.41 m3/kg mole
B. 101.325, 273 ok, 22.4 m3/kg mole
C. 101.325, 273 ok, 23.66 m3/kg mole
D. 1 atm, 10 oC, 22.41 m3/kg mole

17. Number of molecules in a mole oif any substance is a constant called: Answer: B
A. Rankine cycle
B. Avogadro’s number
C. Otto cycle
D. Thompson constant

18. A simultaneous generation of electricity and steam (or heat) in a single power plant: Answer: D
A. Gas turbine
B. Steam turbine-gas turbine plant
C. Waste heat recovery
D. Cogeneration

19. Is one whose temperature is below the saturation temperature corresponding to its pressure:
Answer: D
A. Compression
B. Condensation
C. Constant volume process
D. Subcooled liquid

20. Pump used to increase air pressure above normal, air is then used as a motive power: Answer: B
A. Air cooled engine
B. Air compressor
C. Air condenser
D. Air injection
21.

22. The locus of elevation: Answer: B

A. Critical point
B. Hydraulic gradient
C. Energy gradient
D. Friction gradient

23. In sensible cooling process, the moisture content: Answer: B

A. Does not change
B. Decreases
C. Indeterminate
D. Increases

24. What is the process that has no heat transfer? Answer: D

A. Reversible
B. Isothermal
C. Polytropic
D. Adiabatic
25. The internal combustion engines never work on ______cycle: Answer: A
A. Rankine
B. Diesel
C. Dual combustion
D. Otto

26. The dividing point between the high pressure and low pressure sides of the refrigeration cycle
occurs at the: Answer: A
A. Expansion valve
B. Compressor
C. Condenser
D. Cooling oil

27. What is the force which tends to draw a body toward the center about which it is rotating?
Answer: D
A. Centrifugal force
B. Centrifugal in motion
C. Centrifugal advance
D. Centrifugal force

28.

29. Percent excess air is the difference between air actually supplied and theoretically required
divided by: Answer: A
A. The theoretical air supplied
B. The deficiency air supplied
C. Gas turbine plant
D. Waste heat boiler

30. What amount of air is required in a low bypass factor? Answer: B

A. Greater
B. Lesser
C. Indeterminate
D. Does not change

31. Work done per unit charge when charge is moved from one point to another: Answer: B
A. Equipotential surface
B. Potential at a point
C. Electrostatic difference
D. Potential difference

32. A pressure o 1 millibar is equivalent to: Answer: A

A. 1000 dynes/cm2
B. 1000 cm of Hg
C. 1000 psi
D. 1000 kg/cm2

33. Heat transfer due to density differential: Answer: A

A. Convection
 B. Nuclear
C. Conduction
D. Radiation

34. When a system deviates infinitesimally from equilibrium at every instant of its state, it is
undergoing: Answer: B
A. Isobaric process
B. Quasi-static process
C. Isometric process
D. Cyclic process

35. The ratio of the average load to peak load over a designated of time is called: Answer: A
A. Load factor
B. Reactive factor
C. Diversity factor
D. Plant use factor

36. What is the clockwork-operated device which records continuously the humidity of the
atmosphere? Answer: D
A. Hetograph
B. Hygrometer
C. Hydrodeik
D. Hydrograph

37. What is an apparatus used in the analysis of combustible gases? Answer: D

A. Calorimeter differential
B. Calorimeter gas
C. Calorimetry
D. Calorimeter

38. if the fluid travels parallel to the adjacent layers and the paths of individual particles do not cross,
the flow is said to be: Answer: D
A. Turbulent
B. Critical
C. Dynamic
D. Laminar

39. What equation applies in the first law of thermodynamics for an ideal gas in a reversible open
steady-state system? Answer: D
A. Q – W = U2 – U1
B. Q + VdP = H2 – H1
C. Q – VdP = H2 - H1
D. Q – PdV = H2 – H1

40. Is one whose pressure is higher than the saturation pressure corresponding to its temperature:
Answer: B
A. Saturated liquid
B. Compressed liquid
C. Saturated vapor
D. Compressed gas
41. The locus of elevation to which water will rise in the piezometer tube is termed: Answer: C
A. Energy gradient
B. Friction head
C. Hydraulic gradient
D. Critical path

42. The total energy in a compressible or incompressible fluid flowing across any section in a
pipeline is a function of: Answer: D
A. Pressure and velocity
B. Pressure, density and velocity
C. Pressure, density, velocity and viscosity
D. Flow energy, kinetic energy, height above datum and internal energy

43. The ratio of the density of a substance to the density of some standard substance is called:
Answer: B
A. Relative density
B. Specific gravity
C. Specific density
D. Relative gravity

44. At any instant, the number of particles passing every cross-section of the stream is the same, the
flow is said to be: Answer: A
A. Steady flow
B. Uniform flow
C. Continuous flow
D. Turbulent flow

45. The hydraulic CA √ 2 gh is use to find: Answer: A

A. Quality of discharge through an orifice
B. Velocity of flow in a closed conduit
C. Length of pipe in a closed network
D. Friction factor of a pipe

46. The sum of the energies of all molecules in a system, energies appear in several complex forms, is
the: Answer: C
A. Kinetic energy
B. Potential energy
C. Internal energy
D. Thermal energy

47. The temperature at which its vapor pressure is equal to the pressure exerted on the liquid:
Answer: C
A. Absolute humidity
B. Calorimeter
C. Boiling point
D. Thermal energy
48. Type of turbine that has high pressure and low pressure is called: Answer: D
A. Compound engine
B. Gas turbine
C. Impulse turbine
D. Compound turbine

49. The design of an air supply duct of an air conditioning system: Answer: D
A. Adds moisture to the air
B. Lowers the temperature of the air
C. Does noaffect the distribution of air
D. Affects the distribution of air

50. The changing of solid directly to vapor, without passing through the liquid states is called:
Answer: C
A. Evaporation
B. Vaporization
C. Sublimation
D. Condensation

51. The volume of a fluid passing a cross-section stream in unit time is called: Answer: C
A. Steady flow
B. Vaporization
C. Discharge
D. Continuous flow

52. Weight per unit volume is termed as: Answer: C

A. Specific gravity
B. Density
C. Weight density
D. Specific gravity
53. S.I units of force: Answer: B
A. Pounds
B. Newton
C. Kilograms
D. Dyne

54. Heat exchanger used to provide heat transfer between the exhaust gases and the air prior to its
entrance to the combustion: Answer: C
A. Evaporator
B. Combustion chamber
C. Regenerator
D. Heater

55. Heat normally flowing from a high temperature body to a low temperature body wherein it is
impossible to convert heat without other effects is called: Answer: A
 A. Second law of thermodynamics
B. First law of thermodynamics
C. Third law of thermodynamics
D. Zeroth law of thermodynamics

56. What are the immediate undesirable products from the petroleum-based lubricating oil when
subjected to high pressure and temperature? Answer: A
A. Gums, resins and acids
B. Sulfur
C. Soots and ashes
D. Carbon residue

57. The intake pipe to a hydraulic turbine from a dam is: Answer: D
A. Tailrace
B. Spiral casing
C. Surge tank
D. Penstock

58. When 1 mol of carbon with 1 mol oxygen: Answer: B

A. 2 mols carbon dioxide
B. 1 mol carbon dioxide
C. 1 mol carbon and 1mol CO2

59. A device for measuring the velocity of wind: Answer: B

A. Aneroid barometer
B. Anemometer
C. Anemoscope
D. Anemograph

60. Air standard efficiency of a diesel engine depends on: Answer: B

A. Speed
B. Compression Ratio
C. Fuel
D. Torque

61. Heavy water is: Answer: D

A. B2O
B. H2O
C. W2O
D. D2O

62. The ratio of the sum of individual maximum demands of the system of the to the overall
maximum of the whole: Answer: A
A. Demand factor
B. Diversity factor
C. Power factor
D. Utilization factor

63.
64. Mechanism designed to lower the temperature of air passing through is: Answer: A
A. Air cooler
B. Air defense
C. Air spillover
D. Air cycle

65. The term “exposure” in radiological effects is used as a measure of a Gamma ray or an X-ray
field in the surface of an exposed object. Since this radiation produces ionization of the air
surrounding the object, the exposure is obtained as: Answer: A
A. x = no. of ions produced per mass of air x coulombs per kg
B. x = mass of air x surface area of an exposed object
C. x = mass of air over surface area of an exposed object
D. x = no. of ions produced per mass of air + coulombs per kg

66. The viscosity of most commercially available petroleum lubricating oil changes rapidly above:
Answer: B
A. 120°F
B. 180°F
C. 150°F
D. 130°F

67. A type of water turbine where a jet of water is made to fall on the blades or buckets and due to the
impulse of water, the turbine starts to move: Answer: A
A. Pelton wheel
B. Steam turbine
C. Francis turbine
D. Reaction turbine

68. What condition exists in an adiabatic throttling process: Answer: B

A. Enthalpy is variable
B. Enthalpy is constant
C. Entropy is constant
D. Specific volume is constant

69. The specific gravity of a substance is the ratio of its density to the density of: Answer: D
A. mercury
B. gas
C. air
D. water

70. Which is used as a moderator in certain types of nuclear reactors: Answer: B

A. vapor
B. heavy water
C. hot water
D. cold water

71. Yeast as raw material for beer making is added to the equipment called: Answer: A
A. Fermenters
B. Brew kettle
 C. Cooler
D. Starting tubs

72. What keeps the moisture passing from the system: Answer: A
A. Dehydrator
B. Aerator
C. Trap
D. Humidifier

73. What are the main components in a combined cycle power plant: Answer: A
A. Diesel engine and air compressor
B. Gas engine and waste heat boiler
C. Steam boiler and turbine
D. Nuclear reactor and steam boiler

74. What do you call the weight of the column of air above earth’s surface: Answer: D
A. Air pressure
B. Aerostatic pressure
C. Wind pressure
D. Atmospheric pressure

75. Combined process of cooling and humidifying is also known as: Answer: C
A. Heating and humidifying
B. Cooling tower
C. Evaporative cooling process
D. Moisture removal process

76. What is the force required to accelerate a mass of 1 gram at a rate of 1 cm/sec/sec: Answer: A
A. dyne
B. puondal
C. slug
D. kg force

77. What type of turbine has low heat and high discharge: Answer: B
A. Pelton wheel
B. Francis turbine
C. Jonval turbine
D. Kaplan turbine

78. What is a Bull Head Tee: Answer: D

A. A pipe tee with head shaped like a bull
B. A welded built-up tee a pipe tee with its run larger than its branch
C.
D. A pipe tee the branch of which is larger than the run

79. What is the main power generating plant that produces the most electricity per unit thermal
energy in the fuel and has the greatest surplus of electricity for most cogeneration systems:
Answer: C
 A. Steam engine
B. Steam turbine
C. Gas turbine
D. Diesel turbine

80. What is the term as the ratio of the volume at the end of heat addition to the volume at the start of
heat addition: Answer: D
A. Compression ratio
B. Air-fuel ratio
C. Volumetric ratio
D. Cut-off ratio

81. What is the ideal cycle for gas turbine work: Answer: A
A. Brayton cycle
B. Stag combined cycle
C. Bottom cycle
D. Encasson Cycle

82. What do you call the passing of heat energy from molecule to molecule through a substance:
Answer: A
A. conduction
B. radiation
C. conservation
D. convection

83. What is the lowest temperature to which water could possibly be cooled in a cooling tower:
Answer: B
A. The effective temperature
B. The temperature of adiabatic saturation
C. The wet bulb depression
D. The dew point temperature of the air

84. The indicator used to determine the anti-knock characteristics of gasoline: Answer: C
A. Aniline point
B. Cetane no.
C. Octane no.
D. Diesel index

85. Dew point is define as: Answer: A

A. The temperature to which the air must be cooled at constant pressure to produce
saturation
B. The point where the pressure and temperature lines meet
C. The temperature which dew is formed in the air
D. The pressure which dew is formed in the air
86. What type of lubricating oils are produced entirely from the crude chosen through elimination of
undesirable constituents by suitable refining processes: Answer: C
A. Additives
B. Inert
C. Straight
D. Premium

87. In a liquid-dominated geothermal plant, what process occurs when the saturated steam passes
through the turbine: Answer: B
A. Isobaric
B. Polytropic
C. Isometric
D. Isentropic

88. Gas being heated at constant volume is undergoing the process of: Answer: C
A. Isotropic
B. Adiabatic
C. Isometric
D. Isobaric

89. A receiver in an air compression system is used to: Answer: C

A. Avoid cooling air before using
B. Increase the air discharge pressure
C. Collect the water and grease suspended in the air
D. Reduce the work needed during compression

90. Foundation are preferably built of concrete in the proportion of air in the proportion of what
measure of what measures of a regenerator: Answer: D
A. 1:2:5
B. 2:4:6
C. 2:3:4
D. 1:2:4

91. How does the values for work per unit mass flow of air in the compressor and turbine influenced
by the addition of a regenerator: Answer: B
A. Slightly increased
B. Unchanged
C. Greatly decreased
D. Greatly increased

92. The work done by a force of R Newton moving in a distance of L meters is converted entirely
into kinetic energy is expressed by the equation: Answer: C
A. RL = 2MV2
B. RL = RL N-m
C. RL = ½ MV2
D. RL = ½ MV
93. In a steam generator with good combustion control, what occurs if the load is increased:
Answer: C
A. Air temperature leaving air heater decreases
B. Air temperature entering air heater increases
C. Furnace pressure approximately constant
D. Economizer gas outlet temperature decreases

94. The color of lubricating oil indicate: Answer: B

A. Does not indicated contamination
B. Does not indicates qualities
C. Qualities
D. Viscosity

95. For design stability, the center of gravity of the total combined engine, driven equipment and
foundation should be kept: Answer: D
A. Anywhere
B. Above the foundation top
C. In line with the surface of the foundation
D. Below the foundation top

96. Most commercially available petroleum lubricating oil deteriorates starting from operating
temperature of: Answer: B
A. 150°F
B. 200°F
C. 300°F
D. 250°F

97. What is the suggested maximum permissible dose (MPD) of gamma ray exposure for general
individuals not working in a nuclear setting, by choice, in rem/year: Answer: B
A. 1
B. 5
C. 1/5
D. 3

98. There are two broad types in the classification of lubricating oils, they are: straight and:
Answer: D
A. Active
B. Inactive
C. Crocked
D. Additives

99.

100. What is the function of the compression joint of pipes or tubes: Answer: C
A. It is used to connect two pipes by welding
B. It is used to connect two pipes by pressing both ends
 C. When tightened, compressed tapered, sleeves so that they form a tight joint on the
periphery of the tubing they connect
D. It connects two pipes with the use of threaded couplings

101. The components of a rotary pump: Answer: D

A. Gear
B. Piston
C. Impeller
D. Screw

102. An instrument commonly used in most research and engineering laboratories because it is small
and fast among the other thermometers: Answer: D
A. Mercury thermometer
B. Liquid-in-gas thermometer
C. Gas thermometer
D. Thermocouple

103. What is the term used in to express the ratio of specific humidities, actual versus saturated:
Answer: C
A. Relative humidity
B. Absolute humidity
C. Degree of saturation
D. Percent

103. What is the process whereby a fashionable species utilized as a source of neutrons to produce
more nuclei of its own kind than are used up: Answer: D
A. Developing
B. Culturing
C. Multiplying
D. Breeding

104. The process of heat transfer due to motion matter caused by a change in density: Answer: D
A. Absorption
B. Radiation
C. Conduction
D. Convection

105. What is the most efficient thermodynamic cycle: Answer: A

A. Carnot
B. Diesel
C. Rankine
D. Brayton

106. How do treat a statement that is considered a scientific law: Answer: D

A. We postulate to be true
B. Accept as a summary of experimental observation
C. We generally observe to be true
D. Believe to be derived from mathematical theorem
107. The transmission of heat from one place to another by fluid circulation between spots of
different temperature is called: Answer: A
A. Convection
B. Radiation
C. Conservation
D. Conduction

108. What is referred by volume control: Answer: C

A. An isolated system
B. Closed system
C. Fixed region in space
D. Reversible process only

109. Which of the following types of flow meters is most accurate: Answer: B
A. Vent tube
B. Pitot tube
C. Flow nozzle
D. Foam type

110. Pneumatic tubes are powered by: Answer: D

A. Steam
B. Water
C. Natural gas
D. Air

111. A graphical presentation between discharge and time is known as: Answer: C
A. Hectograph
B. Monograph
C. Hydrograph
D. Topograph

112. In a diesel engine, what elements in the fuel that make the work of the lubricant more difficult:
Answer: D
A. Water and ash content
B. High octane number
C. High cetane number
D. Sulfur and asphaltenecontent

113. What is the function of a radiation pyrometer: Answer: C

A. Boiler water weight
B. Boiler pressure
C. Furnace temperature
D. Boiler drum pressure

114. The specific measurement of moisture content in air: Answer: D

A. Relative humidity
B. Percent saturation
C. Degree of saturation
D. Specific humidity
115. Highest pressure drop in refrigeration cycle: Answer: C
A. Compressor
B. Condenser
C. Expansion valve
D. Evaporator

116. What is an expansion loop: Answer: D

A. A double radius elbow to minimize friction losses
B. A pipe bent to a loop to change direction
C. A pipe expander fitting
D. A large radius bend in pipe line to absorb longitudinal expansion in the pipe line due to
heat

117. What is the color code of steam pipe lines: Answer: A

A. Silver gray
B. Green
C. Red
D. Yellow

118. What is absorbed by sulphites in boiler water treatment: Answer: C

A. Oxygen
B. Carbon dioxode
C. Impurities settled in mud drums
D. Carbon dioxide and oxygen

119. What is meant by choking in pipe flow: Answer: A

A. The specified mass flow rate cannot occur
B. Shock waves cannot occur
C. A valve is closed in a line
D. A restriction in flow area occurs

120. What is a check valve: Answer: A

A. A valve design to allow a fluid to pass through in one direction only
B. A valve designed to release the excess pressure
C. A valve which allows flow of fluid in either direction
D. A valve used for checking the pressure of fluid

121. What is the purpose of providing the lubricating oil pre-heater in an emergency standby diesel
genset: Answer: A
A. To keep the lube oil viscosity down under the cold condition and enhance the starting of
the cold engine
B. To avoid moisture condensation in the engine
C. To avoid corrosion to engine parts
D. To see to it that the lubrication system is functioning properly

122. Which of the following refrigerants is most highly toxic: Answer: A

A. Ammonia
B. Freon 12
C. Sulfur dioxide
D. Methyl Chloride
123. Water turbine converts: Answer: D
A. Mechanical energy into electrical energy
B. Hydraulic energy into electrical energy
C. Mechanical energy into hydraulic energy
D. Hydraulic energy into mechanical energy

124. How do you differentiate surge from water hammer: Answer: A

A. Time for a pressure to traverse the pipe
B. The pressure of reservoir at the end of the pipe
C. Rate of deceleration of flow
D. Relative compressibility of liquid to expansion

125. Throttling of the refrigerant through the expansion valve in a vapor refrigeration cycle is:
Answer: C
A. Reversible adiabatic process
B. Constant entropy process
C. Irreversible adiabatic process
D. Isometric process
126. Assuming real process, the net entropy change in the universe is: Answer: D
A. Must be calculated
B. Equal to zero
C. Negative
D. Positive

127. What characterizes a reaction turbine: Answer: C

A. Steam losses velocity as it leaves the diaphragm
B. Steam strikes the blades at right angles
C. Steam will react with a force in the diaphragm
D. Steam is deflected

128. The work done in an adiabatic process in a system: Answer: D

A. Is equal to the change in total energy in a closed system
B. Is equal to the net heat transfer plus the entropy change
C. Is equal to the change in total energy of closed system plus entropy change
D. Is equal to the change in total energy of closed system plus net heat transfer

129. How do you increase the output of a centrifugal pump: Answer: A

A. Speed up rotation
B. Install circulation line
C. Increase the suction pipe area
D. Increase the discharge pipe area

130. Based on the first law of thermodynamics, which of the following is wrong: Answer: B
A. The heat transfer equals the work plus the energy change
B. The heat transfer cannot exceed the work done
C. The net heat transfer equals the network of the cycle
D. The net heat transfer equals the energy change if no work is done

131. The main cause of air pollution as a result of burning fuel oil is: Answer: D
A. Sulfur dioxide
 B. Silicon dioxide
C. Hydrogen dioxide
D. Nitrogen dioxide

132. What takes place in a uniflow scavenging?Answer: D

A. Turbo blower in exhaust header to create vacuum in cylinder
B. Air reversing direction in cylinder
C. Uses two blowers to purge cylinder
D. Air traveling in one direction

133. The diagonal lines the Psychrometric Chart represent: Answer: C

A. Effective temperature
B. Dry-bulb temperature
C. Wet-bulb temperature
D. Dew-point temperature

134. An ideal gas is compressed isothermally the enthalpy change is: Answer: B
A. Sometimes negative
B. Zero
C. Sometimes positive
D. Indeterminate

135. A system with paddle wheel work is irreversible, therefore, the change in its entropy: Answer: B
A. Is zero
B. Greater than zero
C. Maybe negative
D. Maybe positive, negative or zero

136. What is meant by brake horsepower: Answer: C

A. Power developed in the engine with cylinder
B. Final horsepower delivered to the equipment
C. Actual horsepower delivered to the engine drive shaft
D. Work required to raise a weight of 33,000 pounds at a heght of one foot in one minute

137. Enthalpy of an ideal gas is a function only of : Answer: B

A. Entropy
B. Internal energy
C. Temperature
D. Pressure

138. When droplets of water are carried by steam in the boiler: Answer: A
A. Priming
B. Foaming
C. Carryover
D. Embrittlement

139. Mechanical energy of pressure transformed into energy of heat: Answer: B

A. Kinetic energy
B. Enthalpy
 C. Heat exchanger
D. Heat of compression

140. The ratio between the actual power and the apparent power in any circuit is know : Answer: C
A. Measured power
B. Capacity
C. Power Factor
D. KVAR

141. The products of complete combustion of gaseous hydrocarbons : Answer: A

A. Carbon dioxide and water
B. Carbon monoxide
C. Carbon monoxide, water and ammonia
D. Water, carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide

142. The part that directs the flow of the refrigerant through the compressor : Answer: B
A. Wrist pin
B. Valve
C. Piston
D. Connecting rod

143. An odorless refrigerant, its boiling point varies over a wide range of temperature: Answer: A
A. Freon 22
B. Freon 12
C. Freon refrigerant
D. Ammonia

144. The boiling point of Freon 22 is: Answer: A

A. -41.04 0 F
B. 40.60 0 F
C. -38.40 0 F
D. -31.40 0 F

145. Medium pressure when applied to valves and fittings, implies they are suitable for a working
pressure of from : Answer: A
A. 862 to 1200 kPa
B. 758 to 1000 kPa
C. 500 to 1000 kPa
D. 685 to 1050kPa

146. A general term for a device that receives information in the form of one more physical
quantities, modifies the information and/or its form, if required, and produces a resultant output
signal: Answer: B
A. Converter
B. Transducer
C. Sensor
D. Scanner
147. In the process of pair formation, a pair cannot be formed unless the quantum has an energy
greater than: Answer: A
A. 2m sub 0 C2
B. ½ mV2
C. 0.5MeV
D. hv/c

148. The temperature of hot metals can be estimated by their color. For steel or iron, the color scale at
2200 0 F is roughly: Answer: A
A. White
B. Orange
C. Dark red
D. Yellow

149. Mathematically, a thermodynamic property is which of the following?Answer: A

A. A point function
B. Discontinuous
C. A path function
D. Exact differential

150. A device whose fuction is to pass an information in an unchanged for or in some modified form :
Answer: A
A. Relay
B. Sensor
C. Transmitter
D. Transducer

151. A device whose primary function is to meter the flow of refrigerant to the evaporator: Answer:
C
A. Sniffer valve
B. Equalizer
C. Thermostatic expansion valve
D. Crossover valves

152. The volume remaining when the piston reaches the end of the compression stroke: Answer: B
A. Air cell
B. Combustion chamber
C. Turbulence chamber
D. Pre-combustion chamber

153. Specific heat capacity is an SI derived unit described as: Answer: D

A. J/kg
B. W/m0 K
C. J/m3
D. J/kg0 K
154. The fundamental difference between pipe and tubing is: Answer: A
A. The dimensional standard to which each is manufactured
B. Compression joints
C. The smoothness of the surface
D. Bell and spigot joint
155. One of the most popular types of compressor utilized for supercharging engine is the: Answer: A
A. Roots type blower
B. Pulse turbocharger
C. Constant pressure turbocharger
D. Turbo compressor

156. Crankshaft of reciprocating type compressor is basically made of : Answer: C

A. Semi-steel
B. Aluminum alloy
C. Cast iron
D. Steel forging

157. A chemical method of feedwater treatment which uses calcium hydroxide and sodium
carbonates as reagents: Answer: B
A. Thermal treatment
B. Lime soda treatment
C. Demineralization process
D. Ion exchange treatment

158. Engines using heavy fuels requires heating of the fuel so that the viscosity at the injector is:
Answer: D
A. Around 200 SSU
B. 100 SSU or less
C. 200 SSU+50
D. 150 SSU or slightly higher

159. The temperature of the fluid flowing under pressure through a pipe is usually measured by:
Answer: D
A. Glass thermometer
B. Electric-resistance thermometer
C. Thermocouple
D. All of the above

160. An increase in the deposition of slag and ash on the surface for heating of oil-fired boilers in
both marine and stationary service has affected boiler efficiency. The following are the causes
except: Answer: D
A. Low temperature corrosion of the cold section of air heaters and duct works
B. Slagging of high temperature superheater surfaces
C. High temperature corrosion steel
D. Increase of heat transfer in the boiler

161.

162. Which does not belong to the group?Answer: C

 A. Air injection system
B. Mechanical injection system
C. Time injection system
D. Gas admission system

163. Cooling water system consists of equipment to dissipate heat absorbed by the engine jacket
water, tube oil and the heat to be remove from air intercooler is measurable to keep the engine
outlet water temperature constant and the differential of the cooling water at a minimum
preferably not to exceed: Answer: C
A. 10 to 30 0 F
B. 10 to 50 0 F
C. 10 to 20 0 F
D. 10 to 40 0 F

164. In a water tube boiler, where is heat and gases of combustion passed?Answer: D
A. Through the combustion chamber only
B. Through the tubes
C. Away from the tubes
D. Around the tubes

165.

166. The instrument used to measure atmospheric pressure is:Answer: D

A. Rotameter
B. Manometer
C. Venture
D. Barometer

167. A refrigeration system in which only part of the refrigerant passes over the heat transfer surface
is evaporated and the balance is separated from the vapor and re-circulated:Answer: C
A. Direct expansion system
B. Chilled water system
C. Flooded system
D. Multiple system

168. When four events take place in one revolution of a crankshaft of an engine, the engine is
called:Answer: C
A. Rotary engine
B. Steam engine
C. Two-stroke engine
D. Four-stroke engine

169. What occurs in a reversible polytropic process?Answer: C

A. Enthalpy remains constant
B. Internal energy does not change
C. Some heat transfer occurs
D. Entropy remains constant
170. In a deepwell installation or operation, the difference between static water level and operation
water level is called:Answer: B
A. Suction lift
B. Drawdown
C. Priming level
D. Clogging

171. What characteristic an impulse turbine?Answer: C

A. Steam striking blades on angle
B. No steam reaction to velocity
C. Steam striking blades at zero
D. Steam reversing direction

172. Air receive in a compressed air plant must be:Answer: D

A. Without pressure gauges
B. Vented to the atmosphere
C. Rectangular in shape
D. Installed with safety valve and drain valve

173. A gas which will not be found in the flue gases produced by the complete combustion of fuel oil
is:Answer: B
A. Carbon dioxide
B. Hydrogen
C. Oxygen
D. Nitrogen
174. Scale in boiler can:Answer: D
A. Create low steam quality
B. Cause foaming
C. Overheat blow-off line
D. Inhibit circulation and heat transfer

175. The effectiveness of a body as a thermal radiator at a given temperature.Answer: B

A. Absorptivity
B. Emissivity
C. Conductivity
D. Reflectivity

176. In a cooling tower, the water is cooled mainly by:Answer: B

A. Condensation
B. Evaporation
C. Convection
D. Conduction

177. Where is lithium bromide used in a refrigeration system?Answer: B

A. Condensate return lines
B. Absorbers
C. Centrifugal compressors
D. Ion exchangers
178. Amount of heat liberated by the complete combustion of a unit weight or volume of fuel
is:Answer: A
A. Heating value
B. Latent heat
C. Sensible heat
D. Work or compression

179. A temperature above which a given gas cannot be liquefied:Answer: D

A. Cryogenic temperature
B. Vaporization temperature
C. Absolute temperature
D. Critical temperature

180.

181. When fuel oil has a high viscosity, we mean that the fuel oil will:Answer: D
A. Evaporate easily
B. Have a low specific gravity
C. Bum without smoke
D. Flow slowly through pipes

182.

183. In a refrigeration system, the heat absorbed in the evaporator per kg mass of refrigerant passing
through is:Answer: A
A. Equals the increase in enthalpy
B. Does not depend on the refrigerant used
C. Is decreased if pre-cooler is used
D. Equals the increase in volume

184. Air that controls the rate of combustion in the combustion chamber is known as:Answer: A
A. Secondary air
B. Excess air
C. Control air
D. Primary air

185. An after cooler on a reciprocating air compressor is used primarily to:Answer: B

A. Cool the lubricating oil
B. Condense the moisture in the compressed air
C. Improve the compressor efficiency
D. Increase the compressor capacity

186. In a hydro-electric plant using a francis turbine with medium head, the speed can be regulated by
using the:Answer: C
A. Deflector gate
B. Nozzle
C. Wicket gate
D. Weir
187. To protect adequately the engine bearings, what types and better arrangement of lubricating oil
filter is most practical?Answer: A
A. Full-flow type installed between the lubricating oil pump and the bearing
B. Duplex filter installed before the lubricating pump
C. By pass filter with cleanable and replaceable elements
D. Splash lubricating system in the crankcase

188. In radiation, the heat transfer depends on:Answer: B

A. Temperature
B. Heat rays
C. Heat flow from cold to hot
D. Humidity

189. The main purpose of a subcooler in a refrigerating system especially a 2-stage system is
to:Answer: D
A. Increase the heat rejection per ton and avoid system shutdown
B. Improve the flow of evaporator gas per ton and increase the temperature
C. Reduce the total power requirements and return oil to the compressor
D. Reduce the total power requirements and heat rejection to the 2 nd stage

190. The performance of a reciprocating compressor can be expressed by:Answer: B

A. Adiabatic work divided by adiabatic input
B. Adiabatic work divided by indicated work
C. Isothermal work divided by indicated work
D. Isothermal work divided by adiabatic work
191. A reciprocating pump is considered positive displacement pump because:Answer: A
A. Displacement of the liquid is affected by the displacement of the piston
B. Positive pressure is given to the liquid
C. Liquid is discharge with positive pressure
D. Liquid is lifted due to the vacuum created inside the cylinder

192. A change in the efficiency of combustion in a boiler can usually be determine by comparing the
previously recorded readings with the current readings of the:Answer: D
A. Stack temperature and CO
B. Over-the-fire-draft and CO
C. Ringelman chart and CO2
D. Stack temperature and CO2

193. A boiler stream gauge should have a range of at least:Answer: B

A. One-half the working steam pressure
B. 1 ½ times the maximum allowable working pressure
C. The working steam pressure
D. Twice the maximum allowable working pressure

194. A manometer is an instrument that is used to measure: Answer: A

A. Air pressure
B. Heat radiation
C. Condensate water level
D. Air volume
195. Pres. F. V. Ramos approved on February 12, 1998 a Republic Act, which is an act to regulate the
practice of Mechanical Engineering in the Philippines, otherwise known as the M.E. Law. What
is this act: Answer: B
A. RA No. 9845
B. RA No. 8495
C. RA No. 8594
D. RA No. 8945

196. The relationship of water vapor in the air at the dew point temperature to the amount that would
be in the air if the air were saturated at the dry bulb temperature: Answer: C
A. Partial pressure actual at dew point
B. Percentage humidity
C. Relative humidity
D. Partial pressure of water

197. What is the color code of air pipeline: Answer: A

A. Light blue
B. Red
C. Brown
D. Violet

198. The CO2 (carbon dioxide) percentage in the flue gas of an efficiently fired boiler should be
approximately: Answer: B
A. 1%
B. 12%
C. 18%
D. 20%

199. An unloader is used in air compressor to: Answer: A

A. To relief air pressure
B. Start easier
C. Stop easier
D. Run faster

200. How many pounds of air theoretical needed to burn one pound of diesel fuel oil: Answer: B
A. 28
B. 14
C. 18
D. 22

201. Which of the following is a great advantage of a fire tube-tube boiler: Answer: B
A. Steam pressure is not steady
B. Contains a large volume of water and requires long interval of time to raise steam and not
so flexible as to changes in steam demand
 C. Cannot use impure water
D. Radiation losses are higher because fire is on the boiler and is surrounded by water

202. What should be the temperature of both the water and steam whenever they are present together:
Answer: A
A. Saturation temperature for the existing pressure
B. Boiling point of water at 101.325 KPa
C. Superheated temperature
D. One hundred degree centigrade

203. One of the following tasks which is an example of preventive maintenance is: Answer: A
A. Cleaning the cup on a rotary cup burner
B. Cleaning a completely clogged oil strainer
C. Replacing a leaking valve
D. Replacing a blown fuse
204. An air current in a confined space such as that in a cooling tower or chimney is called:
Answer: D
A. Variable flow
B. Velocity profile
C. Velocity gradient
D. Draft

205. What kind of a heat exchanger where water is heated to a point that dissolved gases are
liberated: Answer: D
A. Evaporator
B. Condenser
C. Intercooler
D. Deaerator

206. What is the function of steam separator: Answer: A

A. Trapping the steam and letting water through
B. Throttling
C. Changing direction of steam flow
D. Steam metering

207. Which of the following is not a main part of a typical coal burner: Answer: C
A. Air registers
B. A nozzle
C. An atomizer
D. An ignitor

208. Which of the following types of air dryers works by absorbing moisture on a solid dissicant or
drying material such as activated alumina, silicon gel, or molecular sleve: Answer: B
A. Regenerative cycle
B. Deliquescent cycle
C. Spray dryer
D. Refrigerated dryer
 209. A heat-transfer device that reduces a thermodynamic fluid from its vapor phase to its liquid
phase such as in vapor-compression refrigeration plant or in a condensing steam power plant:
Answer: C
A. Flash vessel
B. Cooling tower
C. Condenser
D. Steam separator

210. A goose neck is installed in the line connecting a steam gauge to a boiler to: Answer: B
A. Maintain constant steam flow
B. Protect the gauge element
C. Prevent steam knocking
D. Maintain steam pressure

211. The law that states entropy of all perfect crystalline solid is zero at absolute zero temperature:
Answer: B
A. Newton Law
B. Third law of thermodynamics
C. First law of thermodynamics
D. Second law of thermodynamics

212. In the processing section, there is an instrument frequently used to measure the flow rate of fluids.
What is the instrument consisting of a vertical passage with variable cross – sectional area, a float and
calibrated scale: Answer: A
A. Rotameter
B. Pilot tube
C. Rota- aire
D. Manometer

213. How do you describe a non-flow process where in the volume remains constant: Answer: A
A. Isometric
B. Isentropic
C. Isobaric
D. Isenthalpic

214. A branch system of pipes to carry waste emissions away from the prison chambers of an internal
combustion engine is called: Answer: D
A. Exhaust nozzle
B. Exhaust deflection pipe
C. Exhaust pipes
D. Exhaust manifold

215. Measure of ability of a boiler to transfer the heat given by the furnace to the water and steam is:
Answer: D
A. Grate efficiency
B. Stocker efficiency
C. Furnace efficiency
 D. Boiler efficiency

216. A major cause of air pollution resulting from the burning of fuel oils is: Answer: C
A. Nitrous
B. Hydrogen
C. Sulfur dioxide
D. Silicon

217. An Engine indicator is generally used to measure: Answer: C

A. Steam pressure
B. Heat losses
C. Steam cylinder pressure
D. Errors in gauge reading

218. The power required to deliver a given quantity of fulid against a given head with no losses in the
pump is called:Answer: C
A. Wheel power
B. Brake power
C. Hydraulic power
D. Indicated power

220. The function of an unloader on an electric motor – driven compressor to:Answer: C

A. Reduce the speed of the motor when the maximum pressure is reached
B. Drain the condensate from the cylinder
C. Release the pressure in the cylinders in order to reduce the starting load.
D. Prevent excess pressure in the receiver

221. Fluids that are pumped in processing work are frequently more viscous than water. Which of the
following statements is correct:Answer: C
A. Reynolds number varies directly as the viscosity
B. Efficiency of a pump increases as the viscosity increases
C. Increased fluid friction between the pump parts and the passing fluid increases useful
work
D. Working head increases as the viscosity increases.

222. The size of the steam reciprocating pump is generally designated by a three digit number size as 646.
What would be the first number designate: Answer: B
A. Stroke of the pump in inches
B. Inside diameter of the steam cylinder measured in inches
C. Percent clearance
D. Number of cylinders

223. Peak load for a period of time divided by installed capacity is:Answer: C
A. Capacity factor
B. Demand factor
C. Utilization factor
D. Load factor
224. At what temperature where in an oil at any grade becomes cloudy and it freezes, thus in application
is limited. Answer: A
A. Cold point
B. Pour point
C. Flash point
D. Freezing point

225. A turbine pipe determined its “nominal” size refers to: Answer: A
A. Inside diameter
B. Outside diameter
C. Approximate diameter
D. Pipe wall thickness

226. If the exhaust lowered or the boiler is raised the moisture content of steam: Answer: D
A. Vaporizes
B. Decreased
C. Liquefies
D. Increase

227. The relative humidity become 100% and where the water vapor starts to condensate. Answer: C
A. Critical point
B. Dew point
C. Saturated point
D. Cold point

228. For reciprocating compression slip at positive displacement. Answer: B

A. Cd = 1
B. Cd < 1
C. Cd > 1
D. Cd = 0

229. A temperature measurement in an ordinary thermometer which has constant specific humidity.
Answer: B
A. Critical temperature
B. Dry bulb temperature
C. Dew point temperature
D. Wet bulb temperature

230. For reciprocating compressor slip at negative displacement: Answer: A

A. Cd>1
B. Cd<1
C. Cd = 0
D. Cd = 1
231. When the number of reheat stages in a reheat cycle is increased, the average temperature: Answer: A
A. Increases
B. Constant
C. Decreases
D. Zero

232. When the boiler pressure increases or when the exhaust pressure decreases, the amount of moisture:
Answer: C
A. Increases
B. Constant
C. Decreases
D. Zero

233. The purpose of the nozzle in an combustor of gas turbine plant is to: Answer: A
A. Increase the velocity
B. Increase the pressure
C. Increase the moisture
D. Increase the power

234. During the sensible heating, the absolute humidity remains constant but the relative humidity.
Answer: C.
A. Increases
B. Remains constant
C. Decreases
D. Zero

235. For negative slip, the coefficient of discharge: Answer: A

A. increases
B. zero
C. decreases
D. constant

236. For positive slip, the coefficient of discharge: Answer: C

A. increases
B. zero
C. decreases
D. constant

237. Is an abrupt reduction in flow velocity due to sudden increase of water depth in the down
streamdirection.Answer: B
A. Hydraulic energy
 B. Hydraulic jump
C. Weirs
D. Hydraulic gradient

238. Is a valve that regulates the flow of refrigerants? Answer: C

A. Direct expansion wave
B. Throttle valve
C. Thermostatic expansion valve
D. Control valve
239. A valve that sense the loss of ignition in a diesel engine. Answer: C
A. Combustion control
B. Fire control
C. Flame detector
D. Fire extinguisher

240. If evaporator oil clogs in the evaporator, it cause: Answer: C

A. Increase in heat transfer
B. Vaporized oil
C. Low suction pressure
D. High pressure

241. In cooling, if humidity ratio remains unchanged, Answer: A

A. Sensible cooling
B. Sensible heating
C. Pre-cooling
D. Lantent cooling

242. Property of lubricating oil that responds at low temperature, the oil is known as: Answer: A
A. Viscousity
B. Pour point
C. Cloud point
D. Solid point

243. A turbine in which all available energy of the flow is converted by a nozzle into kinetic energy
before in contact to moving blades. Answer: D
A. Kaplan turbine
B. Francis turbine
C. Propeller turbine
D. Impulse turbine
244. A class of system of a refrigeration in which the load is in the evaporator directly using it.
Answer: B
A. Evaporator preload system
B. Direct system
C. Indirect system
 D. Chilling system

245. Efficiency of Carnot cycle is a function of. Answer: A

A. Temperature difference
B. Pressure
C. Entropy
D. Volume

246. A company manager want to used comfort air, what is the most efficient setting of the conditioning
unit: Answer: C
A. Most attainable value
B. Moderate value
C. Maximum value
D. Minimum value

247. In a cooling tower the temperature of water is lower than the wet bulb temperature of entering air
and it is found that air cannot cool. What temperature of water in cooling tower exit. Answer: A
A. Above
B. Lower
C. Constant
D. None of these

248. What is the temperature where water & vapor are in equilibrium to the atmospheric
pressure.Answer: C
A. Ice point
B. Critical point
C. Boiling point
D. Freezing point

249. In a pipe specification, schedule is used, when the pipe specified as “schedule 80”, the pipe
corresponds to the: Answer: B
A. “extra standard” weight
B. Extra strong
C. Internal pressure
D. “old standard” weigh

250. The entropy of a substance at a temperature of absolute zero is. Answer: C

A. Unity
B. Infinity
C. Zero
D. 100

251. The ratio of cross-sectional area of flow to the wetted perimeter. Answer: B
A. Hydraulic lead
 B. Hydraulic radius
C. Hydraulic energy
D. Hydraulic gradient

252. The effect of superheating the refrigerant is: Answer: A

A. Increased in COP
B. Reduced in COP
C. High COP
D. Constant COP

253. The absolute zero in Celsius scale: Answer: B

A. 100
B. -273
C. 0
D. 273

254. The water in the product of combustion is in vapor state. Answer: C

A. Ultimate analysis
B. Analysis
C. Lower heating value
D. Higher heating value

256. The thermal efficiency pf gas – vapor cycle as compared to steam turbine or gas turbine. Answer: A
A. Greater than
B. Lower than
C. Less than
D. Equal to

257. When air is saturated, the wet bulb depression is: Answer: A
A. Zero
B. Unity
C. Constant
D. 100%

258. The process in which the heat energy is transferred to a thermal storage device. It is known as:
Answer: C
A. Adiabatic
B. Intercooling
C. Regenerator
D. Isentropic
259. The liquid pressure in the surface per area in the surface at the bottom is: Answer: C
A. Magnitude pressure
B. Cohesion pressure
C. Intensity pressure
D. Adhesion pressure

260. The property of liquid in which they extend resistance to angular or shear deformation is: Answer: B
A. Specific gravity
B. Viscosity
C. Specific weight
D. Density

261. The volumetric efficiency of an engine normally decrease with: Answer: C

A. Higher fuel – viscosity
B. A decrease in speed
C. An increase in speed
D. A decrease in jet velocity

262. In order to increase the gas velocity, gas turbines generally have fixed nozzles. This is to allow the:
Answer: B
A. Compression of gases
B. Expansion of gases
C. Condensation of gases
D. Evaporation of gases

263. What does the area under the curve on a temperature entropy diagram indicates? Answer: C
A. Volume
B. Work
C. Heat
D. Entropy

264. How can the average temperature during heat rejection process of a Rankine cycle be decreases?
Answer: D
A. Increase boiler pressure
B. Increase turbine pressure
C. Bring condenser pressure
D. Reduce turbine exit pressure

265. The high pressure of refrigeration system consist of the line of the expansion valve, the receiver, the
uppermost unit of the compressor and the valve _____. Answer: B
A. Line after the expansion valve
B. Condenser
 C. Lower most half of compressor
D. Evaporator

266. What is the pressure at the exit of a draft tube in a turbine? Answer: B
A. Below atmosphere
B. Atmospheric
C. Vacuum
D. Gage
267. A property of lubricating oil that measures the thickness of the oil and will help determine low long
oil will flow at a given temperature is known as: Answer: A
A. Viscosity
B. Cloud point
C. Flash point
D. Solid point

268. What is the result when the fluid’s kinetic energy during a stagnation process is transformed to
enthalpy? Answer: C
A. Decrease in fluid’s volume
B. Rise in fluid’s volume
C. Rise in the temperature and process of fluid
D. Decrease in the temperature and pressure of fluid.

269. What is the value of the Mach number at the throat of a converging – diverging nozzle? Answer: B
A. Zero
B. One
C. Two
D. Ten

270. For a double acting reciprocating pump, there are two suction strokes for every revolution of the
crank wheel. How many delivery strokes does it have? Answer: B
A. 4
B. 3
C. 2
D. 1

271. Which of the following materials is suitable for tubing in refrigeration application where refrigerant
ammonia is employed.Answer: C
A. Plastic
B. Brass
C. Steel
D. Copper

272. What do you call a conversation technology that yields electricity straight from sunlight without the
aid of a working substance like gas or steam without the use of any mechanical cycle? Answer: D
 A. Power conservation
B. Sterling cycle conversion
C. Solar thermal conversion
D. Photovoltaic – energy conversion

273. If the composition of hydrocarbon fuel is known, the ratio between the nitrogen and oxygen that is
supplied in air is: Answer: D
A. Equal
B. Intensity
C. Constant
D. Fixed

274. Which of the following is a reason for a motor head loss in long pipe? Answer: B
A. Pressure
B. Friction
C. Velocity
D. Elevation

275. The engineer was tested to design the air – conditioning system, for a ballroom dance hall. Consider
that this involve a lot of activity from its users, the engineer would design that will require _____.
Answer: B
A. Maximum attainable effective
B. Higher effective temperature
C. Constant effective temperature
D. Lower

276. The minimum amount of air required for a complete combustion of fuel is called: Answer: B
A. 90% air
B. Theoretical air
C. Excess air
D. 110% air

277. For pipes extending more than 1000 times its diameter, what major losses of hydraulic head due to?
Answer: C
A. Cross-sectional change
B. Velocity
C. Friction
D. Pressure

278. When change in kinetic energy of a compressed gas are negligible or insignificant, the work input to
an adiabatic compressor is ____. Answer: C
A. Negligible
 B. Equal to zero
C. Equal to change in enthalpy
D. Infinity

279. If the actual kinetic energy of a nozzle is Ka and Ki is the maximum value that can be attained by an
isentropic expansion from initial to final state, then efficiency of a nozzle is: Answer: A
A. Ka/Ki
B. Ka x Ki
C. Ki = Ka
D. Ki/ Ka

280. Which of the following has the minimal effect on the penetration of the air in the combustion
chamber? Answer: D
A. Jet velocity
B. Fuel viscosity
C. Orifice size
D. Air density

281. Which of the following component of a pump converts mechanical energy to pressure energy?
A. Impeller
B. Shaft
C. Valve
D. Delivery pipe

282. The convergent section of a nozzle increases the velocity of the flow of the gas. What does it do on
its pressure? Answer: B
A. Pressure becomes constant
B. decrease the pressure
C. increase the pressure
D. pressure is equal to viscosity

283. What is the specific humidity of air?

A. 150
B. 50
C. 100
D. 0

284. Flow of fluids wherein its particles do not have definite paths and the paths of individual and distinct
particles cross one another is: Answer: D
A. Non – uniform flow
B. Laminar flow
C. Unsteady flow
 D. Turbulent flow

285. When hot soup was served in a cup during dinner, an engineer was so eager to drink it. Since it was
hot, he added cubes of ice to cool the soup and stirred it. He noticed that dew starts to form on the
outermost surface of the cup. He wanted to check the temperature of the outermost surface of the cup.
What is the temperature equal to? Answer: D
A. Superheated temperature
B. Standard temperature
C. Equal to zero
D. Equal to air’s dew point temperature

286. Both Stirling and Ericsson engines are: Answer: C

A. Internal combustion engine
B. Carnot engine
C. External combustion engine
D. Brayton engine

287. Heat transfer processes which include a change in phase of fluid are considered: Answer: A
A. Convection
B. Conduction
C. Thermal radiation
D. Radiation

288. In a closed vessel, when vaporization takes place, the temperature rises due to the rising temperature,
the pressure increases until equilibrium is established between the temperature and pressure. The
temperature of equilibrium is called. Answer: D
A. Dew point
B. Superheated temperature
C. Ice pint
D. Boiling point

289. When H 2 O in the products of combustion is in liquid form, the heating value is known as:
Answer: A
A. Higher heating value
B. Lower heating value
C. Low and medium heat value
D. Lower and heat value

290. Nozzles do not involve any work interaction. The fluid through this device experiences.
Answer: A
A. No change in potential energy
 B. Vacuum
C. No change in kinetic energy
D. No change in enthalpy

291. In the absence of any irreversibility, thermoelectric, generator, a device that incorporates both
thermal and electric effects, will have the efficiency of a. Answer: A
A. Carnot cycle
B. Diesel cycle
C. Otto cycle
D. Rankine cycle

292. At steam point, the temperature of water and its vapor at standard pressure are. Answer: B
A. In its maximum
B. In equilibrium
C. Unity
D. Zero

293. When can a Francis turbine obtain a correct disposition of the moving blades and the guide?
Answer: C
A. At half load
B. At any load
C. At full load only
D. At all loads

294. A rapid increase in boilers pressure occurs when there is, Answer: B
A. Moderate drop in steam load
B. Abrupt drop in steam load
C. Constant drop in steam load
D. Gradual drop in steam load

295.Which of the following determines the effectiveness and size of the condenser? Answer: D
A. Number of passes
B. Tube sizes
C. Thickness of the shell
D. Heat transfer

296. What do bodies at a temperature above absolute zero emit?Answer: B

A. Energy
B. Thermal radiation
C. Heat of convection
D. Heat of compression

297. A refrigerant control in a refrigeration system that is used to prevent the flow refrigerant gas from the
condenser back to the compressor during off cycles is: Answer: A
 A. Check valve
B. Hold-back valve
C. Solenoid valve
D. Safety valve
298. A device used in steam power plant which is required on engine and turbine exhaust casings, on
condensers and heater shells or on area where it is possible to have pressures higher than the design
pressure of the castings, is a. Answer: D
A. Steam hold – back valve
B. Steam – generator safety valve
C. Pressure – operated check valve
D. Relief valve

299. A body that is hot compared to its surroundings illuminates more energy than it receives, while its
surroundings absorb more energy than they give. The heat is transferred from one body to another by
energy wave motion. What is this mode of heat transfer? Answer: A
A. Radiation
B. Convection
C. Conduction
D. Condensation

300. An engineer inspected an air – conditioning unit. He found that the unit does not produce any
cooling effect, however, the air conditioning unit is running. He checked the temperatures of the
condenser and evaporator and had the unit run. He found out that there was no change in the temperature.
What should he do? Answer: C
A. Replace fuse
B. Replace relay
C. Charge with new refrigerant
D. Adjust door seal

301. Dirt and foreign materials normally build – up on the side of the condenser tubes. To ensure adequate
condenser capacity, a certain factor is used in calculating the overall heat transfer through the walls of the
tubes including the heat transfer rate of the layers of dirt and foreign materials. What is this factor called?
Answer: B
A. Booster
B. Factor of safety
C. Fouling factor
D. Compression factor

302. Dry air can be approximately _____ % Oxygen and _____ % Nitrogen by mole numbers. Answer: B
A. 30% / 70%
B. 21% / 79%
C. 70% / 30%
D. 79% / 21%
303. Which of the following is the preferred criterion for a high speed engine? Answer: A
A. Higher internal stress
B. High rpm
C. Low piston speed
D. High mean piston speed

304. In order that cavitation will not take place in the suction line of a pump, what should be the sum of
the velocity head and pressure head at suction compared to the vapor pressure of the liquid? Answer: B
A. Sufficiency lower
B. Adequately greater
C. Constant
D. Equal

305. What is the part of an oil pressure governor that is used to continuously draw oil for as the turbine is
working? Answer: D
A. Speed governor
B. Governing device
C. Servometer
D. Gear pump

306. A hot block is cooled by blowing cool air over its top surface. The heat that is first transferred to the
air layer close to the block is by conduction. It is eventually carried away from the surface by: Answer: A
A. Convection
B. Conduction
C. Radiation
D. Thermal radiation

307. In Sterling and Ericsson cycle, regeneration can: Answer: C

A. Hinder efficiency
B. Decrease efficiency
C. Increase efficiency
D. Limit efficiency

308. The most economical and low maintenance cost condenser, Answer: B
A. Water – cooled
B. Air cooled
C. Evaporative
D. Sub – cooled

309.The ___ are under the T-S diagram. Answer: C

 A. Entropy
B. Energy
C. Heat added
D. Work
310. A boiler feed pump has enough capacity to deliver feedwater heater to a boiler. If you are the
engineer of such power plant, how many pumps of the same capacity are you recommended to install?
Answer: B
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

311. In order to avoid cavitation the NPSH of an installation should be at least _____________ the NPSH
of pump. Answer: A
A. Equal or greater than 1
B. Less than 1
C. Always less than 1
D. None of these

312. Mr. De la Cruz wanted to buy a pump for his farm. What is suitable for deepwell? Answer: D
A. Reciprocating
B. Air lift
C. Hand lift
D. Ejector – Centrifugal pump

313. Swamp gas ( vegetable decay ) Answer: D

A. Propane
B. Octane
C. Methane
D. Ethane

314. High head turbine Answer: A

A. Impulse
B. Francis
C. Propeller
D. None of these

315. Used for deepwell installation. Answer: C

A. Rotary
B. Reciprocating
C. Centrifugal
D. Screw type

316. In a two phase system, 30% moisture means. Answer: C

 A. 70% liquid and 30% vapor
B. 100% liquid and 30% vapor
C. 70% vapor and 30% liquid
D. None of these
317. What is the basis of continuity of flow? Answer: C
A. Energy balance
B. Mass balance
C. Bernouli’s equation
D. None of these

318. First Law of thermodynamics states. Answer: B

A. Entropy change is zero
B. Conservation of energy
C. Heat entering all converted to work
D. None of these

319. An impulse turbine has. Answer: B

A. Low head
B. High head
C. Medium head
D. None of these

320. In two revolution in a four stroke engine how many cycle. Answer: D
A. Three
B. Twice
C. 4 times
D. Once

321. Is the heart of refrigeration system?Answer: D

A. Condenser
B. Expansion wave
C. Evaporator
D. Compressor

322. Number that is use to determine if the fluid is laminar flow or turbulent flow. Answer: B
A. Number factor
B. Reynolds number
C. Mach number
D. Froude number

323. An engineer found that the fluid flowing in the pipe is low. What diameter of pipe should be
recommended in order to increase the speed? Answer: B
A. Increase the diameter
B. Reduce the diameter
 C. Constant diameter
D. None of these

324. Boiling temperature of water is: Answer: C

A. 273°K
B. 32°F
C. 100°C
D. 212°K

325.Gas turbine will depend its temperature at: Answer: A

A. Allowable maximum
B. Maximum value
C. Allowable minimum
D. None of these

326. Sugar removes molasses by: Answer: A

A. Filtration
B. Condensation
C. Separation
D. None of these

327. Exit of impulse turbine casing pressure: Answer: A

A. Above atm
B. Below atm
C. Vacuum
D. None of these

328. Exit of turbine way: Answer: A

A. Tail race
B. Split way
C. Dam
D. None of these

329. When there is a reduction on humidity ratio:

A. Humidifying
B. Dehumidifying
C. Cooling
D. Heating

330. An engineer found that the glass of the window is frosted in the morning. What is the cause of this
frosting? Answer: A
A. Low humidity in the room
B. High humidity in the room
 C. Air movement
D. Low humidity outside the room

331. What is the heat represent for 1 Kmol of fuel? Answer: D

A. Enthalpy of reaction
B. Enthalpy of formation
C. Internal energy of reaction
D. Enthalpy of combustion

332. If area is contact to liquid and P is wetted perimeter, what is the hydraulic mean depth? Answer: B
A. P/A
B. A/P
C. P + A
D. P(A)

333. to prevent backflow of refrigerant from condenser to compressor the valve to be install must be:
Answer: C
A. Expansion valve
B. Purger
C. Check valve
D. Relief valve

334. What energy used in reaction turbine? Answer: C

A. Hydraulic energy
B. Water energy
C. Kinetic energy
D. Dynamic energy

335. At low temperature, a good lubricant. Answer: A

A. Free from wax
B. Tolerable
C. Free from combustion
D. None of these

336. Water converted to steam. What type of hydrothermal power plant? Answer: C
A. Geo pressured system
B. Vapor dominated
C. Liquid dominated
D. None of these

337. An engineer want to maintain the temperature in the room. Air entering must warned to. Answer: A
A. Lower than indoor
B. Equal to indoor
 C. higher than indoor
D. outdoor is lower than indoor

338. If the number of reheating stages increases in Rankine cycle, the average temperature increases.
Answer: C
A. All in the cycle
B. In the turbine
C. In the reheating
D. None of these

339. In Brayton cycle with regeneration, the efficiency will. Answer: A

A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. Remains constant
D. None of these

340. In a polytropic process, the P – V diagram has graph. What is the indication of n? Answer: C
A. Indicate heat
B. Indicate work
C. Indicate stiffness of curve
D. Pressure x volume

341. Work in ______________. Answer: B

A. Power interaction
B. Energy interaction
C. Power
D. Kinetic energy

342. A valve that is used to determine the level of refrigerant. Answer: A

A. Float valve
B. Glove valve
C. Foot valve
D. Relief valve

343. Type of switch put in flooded system that actuate the predetermined level of refrigerant. Answer: B
A. toggle switch
B. float switch
C. firing switch
D. fuse

344. In a diesel cycle, if cut – off ratio decreases, what happened to the cycle efficiency? Answer: A
A. increase
B. decrease
 C. remains constant
D. none of these

345. What process where most of the heat is added in Sterling cycle? Answer: B
A. constant volume
B. constant temperature
C. constant pressure
D. constant entropy

346. If the steam condition is about to condense, it is. Answer: A

A. saturated vapor
B. super saturated
C. subcooled
D. superheated

347. Measure the flow of refrigerant. Answer: C

A. speedometer
B. velometer
C. venturi meter
D. pilot tube

348. If V a = velocity of air and V s = velocity of sound, the Mach number is. Answer: A
A. V a / V s
B. Vs / Va
C. VaVs
D. V a + V s

349. In order to compensate the work of compressor in Brayton cycle, what size of turbine to be used.
Answer: A
A. Large turbine
B. Small turbine
C. Medium turbine
D. None of these

350. For steady flow, what is the velocity at the side of wall pipe.Answer: C
A. Maximum
B. Minimum
C. Approaches zero can
D. Approaches infinity

351. Cycle used for aircraft. Answer: D

A. Combine cycle
 B. Diesel cycle
C. Otto cycle
D. Jet propulsion

352. If a plant has an electric precipitator, what is the function of this device? Answer: C
A. Collect fuel
B. Collect information
C. Collect dust
D. Collect moisture

353. What is the energy used in reaction turbine? Answer: B

A. Hydraulic energy
B. Kinetic energy
C. Water energy
D. Dynamic energy

354. If the temperature of body cannot overcome temperature of resistance of air, what is the mode of
heat transfer? Answer: C
A. Radiation
B. Conduction
C. Convection
D. None of these

355.What cycle that is a function of temperature? Answer: A

A. Carnot cycle
B. Brayton cycle
C. Diesel Cycle
D. Otto Cycle

356. In spark ignition, during combustion, where is the piston position? Answer: C
A. Away from the top center
B. Away from the bottom dead center
C. At top dead center
D. Approaching TDC

357. A heat engine operating at reversed in refrigeration unit is: Answer: C

A. Refrigerator
B. Regenerator
C. Heat pump
D. Humidifier

358. Boyle’s law states that if the temperature is constant, the volume is inversely proportional to.
Answer: D
 A. Entropy
B. Work
C. Internal energy
D. Pressure

359. Which is cheaper? Answer: A

A. Two stroke engine
B. Stirling engine
C. Four stroke engine
D. Carnot engine

360. If there is no heat exchange in the system, it is. Answer: A

A. Adiabatic
B. Polytropic
C. Diabatic
D. Isochoric

361. If work of the process is zero, the process is. Answer: A

A. Constant volume
B. Constant entropy
C. Constant temperature
D. Constant pressure

362. Force of water that strikes the turbine/ Answer: B

A. Water forve
B. Dynamic force
C. Static force
D. Force

363. For a pump that has a nameplate of 8” x 6” x 10”, what is the bore of the cylinder? Answer: C
A. 8”
B. 6”
C. 8” and 6”
D. 10”

364. Water converted to steam. What type of hydrothermal power plant? Answer: B
A. Geo pressurized steam
B. Lquid dominated
C. Vapor dominated
D. None of these

365. In a polytropicprocess PV n=C , the process becomes constant volume when n is _____/
Answer: B
A. Zero
 B. Infinity
C. 1.0
D. Maximum

366. Two pumps installed in parallel, what is the discharge if each pump delivers Q. Answer: C
A. Q
B. 3Q
C. 2Q
D. 4Q

367. How are you going to improve the engine power? Answer: C
A. Increase combustion time
B. Increase combustion chamber volume
C. Decrease combustion chamber volume
D. Increase piston diameter

368. How are you going to reduce moisture by desiccation? Answer: C

A. Less cooling power
B. Decrease air volume
C. Maintain the right relative humidity
D. Less oxygen

369. Temperature at which air start to condense. Answer: B

A. Pour point
B. Dew point
C. Wet bulb
D. Dry bulb

370. When dry bulb and wet bulb temperatures are the same, its relative humidity is: Answer: C
A. 0 %
B. 50%
C. 100%
D. 75%

371. What type of heat transfer if there is a density differential of fluid? Answer: A
A. Convection
B. Radiation
C. Conduction
D. None of these

372. Air carried heat transfer by evaporation and _______. Answer: A

A. Convection
 B. Radiation
C. Conduction
D. None of these

373. Type of refrigeration system chilled or cool the water in the evaporator.Answer: D
A. Chilled water
B. Vapor compression
C. Direct expansion
D. Direct system

374. There are two reservoirs are installed at different elevation. One fluid is transferred to another
reservoir, what type of head loss at discharge? Answer: A
A. Friction
B. Velocity head
C. Pressure head
D. Hydraulic head

375. Device used to remove or separate moisture. Answer: A

A. Rectifier
B. Generator
C. Condenser
D. Evaporator

376. What is the vertical height when pump discharges to certain height.Answer: A
A. Static head
B. Gross head
C. Net head
D. Potential head

377. What cycle create spark ignition? Answer: A

A. Otto
B. Diesel
C. Brayton
D. Carnot

378. Use to increase pressure while the velocity decreases. Answer: B

A. Nozzle
B. Diffuser
C. Pitot tube
D. Venturi meter

379. If it is supersonic flow, what is the Mach number?Answer: B

 A. Less than 1
B. Greater than unity
C. Less than 0
D. None of these

380. what is the reason of reheating the steam in Rankine cycle? Answer: A
A. Due to excessive moisture
B. Due to less moisture
C. Due to high quality
D. Due to superposition

381. In the absence of any work interaction between system and its surroundings, the amount of heat
transfer is equal to the ________. Answer: B
A. Change of temperature of open cycle
B. Change of energy at closed cycle
C. Change of temperature of closed cycle
D. Change of energy at open cycle

382. Combine the cooling tower and condenser, what type of condenser is this? Answer: A
A. Evaporative condenser
B. Indirect contact condenser
C. Direct contact condenser
D. Air cooled condenser

383. One use of condenser is to decrease the back pressure that convert steam to liquid. Answer: B
A. Shell and tube
B. Water – cooled
C. Air cooled
D. Oil cooled

384. Device used to ventilate, circulate and opposing the pressure.Answer: A

A. Blower
B. Duct
C. Compressor
D. Pump

385. Two pumps are connected in series. One pump has a head of h1 and capacity Q1 . Second
pump has a head of h2 and capacity of Q 2 . What is the head relation if Q2 is less than Q 1 ?
Answer: C
A. 2 times h1 h2
B. H 1 / h2
C. h 1 + h2
 D. h1 - h2

386. By increasing the average temperature during heat addition of power per cycle, what happened to the
thermal efficiency? Answer: A
A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. Constant
D. None of these
387. What is the regulator valve location in refrigeration system? Answer: A
A. Condenser inlet
B. Condenser outlet
C. Suction of compressor
D. Discharge of compressor

388. An inert gas that do not react during combustion. Answer: B

A. Oxygen
B. Nitrogen
C. Carbon
D. Hydrogen

389. In the product of combustion, if oxygen is not enough, what is the result of the product? Answer: B
A. Carbon trisulfide
B. Carbon monoxide
C. Carbon sulifide
D. Carbonate

390. Is the heat supplied per degree temperature unability.Answer: C

A. Internal energy
B. Enthalpy
C. Entropy
D. Flow work
391. Amount of heat absorbed in the evaporator. Answer: C
A. Compressor power
B. Heat rejected
C. Refrigerating effect
D. None of these

n
392. PV =C is the process called. Answer: B
A. Isentropic
B. Polytropic
C. Isothermal
D. Isobaric

393. Viscosity can be measured by. Answer: B

 A. Pressure
B. Temperature
C. Thickness of oil
D. Density

394. Parameter use to determine the capacity of air to hold moisture in air. Answer: B
A. RH
B. Saturation pressure
C. Temperature
D. Density

395. Is the property of lubricant that will start burning.Answer: D

A. Pour point
B. Fire point
C. Solid point
D. Flash point

396. From one point to another, what type of flow that has a flow characteristics of change in width and
change in height. Answer: A
A. Non – uniform flow
B. Non – steady flow
C. Unsteady flow
D. None of these

397. At one point of pipe, the steady flow was checked many times, the velocity is/are: Answer: A
A. Constant
B. Uniform
C. Equal
D. None of these

398. What do you call the difference in temperature of water inlet and the outlet of cooling tower?
Answer: D
A. Temperature approach
B. Equilibrium temperature
C. Mixing temperature
D. Temperature range
399. To maintain equilibrium in condenser, what is the relation of cooling water temperature differential
to the temperature difference in condenser.Answer: D
A. Equal
B. Much lesser
C. Lesser
 D. Greater

400. In steady flow, the volume at suction, _______________ at any time, Answer: B
A. Equal
B. Constant
C. Uniform
D. Unsteady

401. For steam power plant to operate, the working must exchange heat with the surroundings and the
furnace. Answer: A
A. Kelvin – Planc
B. First law of thermodynamics
C. Kirchoff’s law
D. New second law

402. In food storage, to minimize desiccation, maintains the temperature and ______. Answer: B
A. Input of Oxygen
B. Control relative humidity
C. Airflow
D. None of these

403. Multi staging type of refrigeration: Answer: B

A. Vapor compression cycle
B. Cascade refrigeration
C. Absorption refrigeration
D. Air – cycle refrigeration

404. When RH = 100% its temperature is. Answer: B

A. Dew point
B. Saturation temperature
C. Critical temperature
D. None of these

405. Room air conditioning needs more outside air. Answer: A

A. Air cooled
B. Water cooled
C. Shell and tube
D. None of these

406. Instrument used to measure fluid velocity Answer: A

A. Pilot tube
B. Orsat apparatus
C. Venturi meter
D. Manometer
407. It prevents the refrigerant from the condenser to go back to the compressor. Answer: A
A. Check valve
B. Float switch
C. Expansion valve
D. Low side float

408. Gauge cock in the boiler is designed to determine. Answer: A

A. Water level
B. Water pressure
C. Expansion valve
D. Low side float

409. The ideal cycle based on the concept that the combustion process is both diesel and gasoline in the
combination of heat transfer process that is constant pressure and constant volume. Answer: B
A. Ericsson cycle
B. Dual cycle
C. Brayton cycle
D. Rankine cycle

410. What is the value of air stratification in air conditioning design fit for human comfort? Answer: C
A. Minimum
B. Maximum
C. Less than air temperature
D. Equal to air temperature

411. If PV is the power required for a vapor – compression refrigeration system, then what is the power
required for an air – refrigeration system, assuming that they have the same capacity? Answer: A
A. 5 PV
B. 2 PV
C. PV/10
D. 1/PV

412. If the velocity of fluid passing through a pipe is constant, the flow is said to be. Answer: A
A. Steady flow
B. Unsteady flow
C. Uniform flow
D. Non – uniform flow

413. If the system is in equilibrium with the surroundings. Answer: C

A. Reversible
B. Irreversible
C. Dead state
 D. Critical

414. When there is a release amount of energy from one energy level to another level, it is. Answer: A
A. Quantum theory
B. Dalton’s law
C. Charle’s law
D. Ideal gas law

415. If the pressure ratio of Otto cycle increases, the cycle efficiency will. Answer: A
A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. Remains constant
D. None of these

416. Water flows thru rectangular channel. What is the height (w) at maximum flow? Answer: A
A. L/2
B. w/2
C. 2w
D. 2L

417. System with sulfur dioxide. Answer: A

A. Can corrode metals cannot be used in hospitals
B. Cannot be used in hospitals
C. Can help the system
D. None of these

418. What cycle that has combustion but no compression? Answer: A

A. Brayton
B. Stirling
C. Otto
D. Diesel

419. In a reaction turbine or impulse turbine, the energy developed is. Answer: B
A. Mechanical energy
B. Kinetic energy
C. Potential energy
D. Work

420. A pump that has 1 impeller, the number of stages is: Answer: A
A. Single
B. Double
C. Triple
D. Quadruple
421. If every other stroke there is compression, it is. Answer: C
A. 4 – stroke
B. Double stroke
C. Single acting
D. Double acting

422. A cycle that has intercooling, reheating and regeneration. Answer: B

A. Stirling cycle
B. Brayton cycle
C. Gasoline cycle
D. Carnot cycle

423. Two pumps are connected in series. If Q1 is discharge of Pump 1 and Q 2 is the discharge of
Pump 2 where Q1< Q2 what is the discharge?Answer: A
A. Q2
B. Q1
C. Q1 + Q2
D. Q1 / Q2

424. What cycle is used for vapor cycle in power plant? Answer: D
A. Brayton cycle
B. Diesel cycke
C. Ericsson cycle
D. Rankine cycle

425. What is the BTU/hr equivalent for 1 horsepower? Answer: B

A. 778
B. 2545
C. 746
D. 3.41

426. If Q a is the actual discharge flow and Q b is the theoretical discharge flow, what will be the
coefficient of discharge be equal to during positive displacement slip? Answer: C
A. Q a x Q b
B. Qb / Qa
C. Qa / Qb
D. 1 - Q a / Q b

427. What is the unit of electromagnetic wave frequency? Answer: C

A. Volts
 B. Horsepower
C. Hertz
D. Knot

428. At 101.325 kpa, the boiling point of water is 100°C. If the pressure is decreased, the boiling
temperature will. Answer: B
A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. Remain the same
D. None of these
429. The temperature at which lubricating oil form a cloud. Answer: A
A. Cold point
B. Pour point
C. Critical point
D. Boiling point

430. What is the pressure above zero? Answer: A

A. Gage pressure
B. Absolute pressure
C. Vacuum pressure
D. Atmospheric pressure

431. Tidal power is attractive because it has: Answer: C

A. Low head and intermittent power
B. High head
C. Cheap energy source
D. Expensive energy

432. R-22 is. Answer: B

A. Dichlorodifluoromethane
B. Monochlorodifluoromethane
C. Mythyl chloride
D. Trichlorodifluoromethane

433. One N-m is equal to one. Answer: A

A. Joule
B. Btu
C. Calorie
D. Kg-m
1. Device for converting heat transfer to work are called: Answer: C
A. Piston cylinder
B. Heat pumps
C. Heat engines
D. Carnot engines

2. Use to measure the performance of the engine is: Answer: A

A. Efficiency
B. Ratio
C. Effectiveness
D. COP

3. Internal combustion use the ignition of combustible fuel within the engine itself as the source of
energy which is partially converted into: Answer: C
A. Potential
B. Kinetic
C. Work
D. Heat

4. Heat is transferred during _________in carnot cycle: Answer: A

A. Isometric process
B. Isentropic process
C. Isobaric process
D. Adiabatic process

5. During the isentropic compression of carnot cycle, the pressure: Answer: B

A. Decreases
B. Increases
C. Remains constant
D. None of these

6. During the isentropic expansion of carnot cycle, the pressure: Answer: A

A. Decreases
B. Increases
C. Remains constant
D. None of these

7. The temperature during the heat rejection in carnot cycle is known as: Answer: B
A. Temperature source
 B. Temperature sink
C. Temperature maximum
D. Temperature crest

8. The efficiency of carnot cycle depend mainly in. Answer: D

A. Absolute temperature
B. Isentropic expansion
C. Isentropic compression
D. Temperature ranges

9. The net area under T-S diagram of carnot cycle is. Answer: C
A. Heat
B. Energy
C. Work
D. Entropy

10. Mean effective pressure is the ratio of net work and ______. Answer: B
A. Mean volume
B. Volume displacement
C. Volume difference
D. Control volume

11. A Carnot cycle has two isothermals and two ________. Answer: B
A. Polytropic process
B. Isentropic process
C. Adiabatic process
D. Irreversible process

12. Stirling cycle uses a ___________ as working fluids. Answer: D

A. Incompressible gas
B. Incompressible fluids
C. Compressible refrigerant
D. Compressible fluids

13. Stirling cycle has two isothermals and two constant. Answer: A
A. Volume process
B. Pressure process
C. Temperature process
D. Entropy process

14. In stirling process the heat is added during. Answer: C

A. Isobaric process
B. Isentropic process
C. Isothermal process
D. Heat process

15. A chamber containing wire or ceramic mesh or fine metallic gauze and is used for the temporary
storage of __________. Answer: B
A. Power
 B. Energy
C. Work
D. Air

16. The energy stored and released by the regenerator is known as: Answer: C
A. Kinetic energy
B. Potential energy
C. Internal energy
D. Heat energy

17. The efficiency of stiring cycle is the same as that of __________ efficiency. Answer: D
A. Brayton cycle
B. Ericsson cycle
C. Gasoline cycle
D. Carnot cycle

18. The ericsson cycle has two isothermal and two constant. Answer: D
A. Isentropic process
B. Reversible process
C. Adiabatic process
D. Pressure process

19. The heat exchanger used in an Ericsson cycle is known as. Answer: D
A. Reheater
B. Boiler
C. Heat exchanger
D. Recuperator

20. The energy exchanger process in Erirsson cycle takes place during. Answer: B
A. Isothermal process
B. Isobaric process
C. Isothermal process
D. Isentropic process

21. The greatest network output per cycle in Stiring cycle is obtained with the smallest pressure ratio
across the turbine; the greatest volumetric expansion ratio and operating at the highest
temperature at Answer: A
A. Turbine inlet
B. Turbine outlet
C. Reheater inlet
D. Reheater outlet
22. Brayton cycle is also known as Answer: B
A. Carnot cycle
B. Joule cycle
C. Diesel cycle
D. Rankine cycle

23. The heat in Brayton cycle is added during _________. Answer: D

A. Isothermal process
B. Steady flow process
 C. Any process
D. Isobaric process

24. The Brayton cycle has isobaric and two ___________. Answer: C
A. Adiabatic process
B. Isothermal process
C. Isentropic process
D. None of these

25. The efficiency of the closed-cycle Brayton engines is found to depend on the __________.
Answer: B
A. Temperature only
B. Pressure only
C. Volume only
D. Entropy only

26. If the inlet pressure to the turbine increases, the inlet temperature to the turbine will also
_________. Answer: A
A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Remains constant
D. None of these

27. Higher inlet pressure and temperature to the turbine as well as a larger temperature ratio, resulting
from greater heat transfer per cycle, ___________per cycle. Answer: C
A. Will decrease mean effective pressure
B. Will decrease work
C. Will increases the mean effective pressure
D. Will increase work

28. The _________ is the ratio of compressor work input to the turbine work output. Answer: D
A. Heat ratio
B. Specific heat ratio
C. Energy ratio
D. Work ratio
29. As the work ratio approaches unity, the network output of the brayton engine approaches.
Answer: A
A. Zero
B. Infinity
C. Maximum value
D. None of these

30. If the turbine and/or compressor efficiency becomes low enough, the efficiency of the cycle can
become zero and the work ratio can exceed _________ in gas turbine. Answer: C
A. Infinity
B. Zero
C. Unity
D. Negative

31. A recuperation can ____________ of Brayton cycle. Answer: B

 A. Hider efficiency
B. Improved the efficiency
C. Limit the efficiency
D. Minimized the efficiency

32. The total energy of the gas leaving the turbine is minimized so that the tubine work output
is___________. Answer: A
A. Maximized
B. Minimized
C. Zero
D. Infinity

33. Is applied to propulsion of vehicles because of certain practical characteristics. Answer: D

A. Diesel cycle
B. Otto cycle
C. Carnot cycle
D. Brayton cycle

34. The ____________ has the general advantage of being able to burn fuels that required little
refining and having few moving parts. Answer: A
A. Automotive gas-turbine engine
B. Turbo-engine
C. CAD engine
D. None of these

35. Aircraft Brayton cycle engines is also known as: Answer: A

A. Turbojet
B. Propjet
C. Fighter jet
D. Bomb jet

36. Is commonly used stationary power plants, Answer: C

A. Carnot cycle
B. Three cycle
C. Brayton cycle
D. Diesel cycle

37. Otto cycle has two constant volume and two ___________. Answer: D
A. Polytropic process
B. Adiabatic process
C. Isothermal process
D. Isentropic process

38. The heat added in Otto cycle is during, Answer: B

A. Constant temperature process
B. Constant volume process
 C. Heating process
D. None of these

39. The efficiency of Otto cycle is dependent on the _________ only. Answer: D
A. Temperature ratio
B. Expansion ratio
C. Cut-off ratio
D. Compression ratio

40. Exhaust stroke of gasoline engine is also known as, Answer: B

A. Supercharging
B. Scavenging
C. Turbocharging
D. Charging

41. Under steady operation, the mass flow rate of each fluid stream flowing through a heat exchanger.
Answer: C
A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Remains constant
D. None of these

42. Heat exchanger typically involve Answer: A

A. No work interactions
B. No heat interactions
C. No energy interactions
D. None of these

43. When the entire heat exchanger is selected as control volume, heat becomes Answer: A
A. Zero
B. Maximum
C. Infinity
D. None of these

44. If the process involved changes within the control volume with time then is called Answer:
A. Transient flow process
B. Variable process
C. Control process
D. None of these

45. A process will not occur unless Answer: A

A. It satisfies both the first and the second law of thermodynamics
B. It satisfies both the second and third law of thermodynamics
C. It satisfies Zeroth law of thermodynamics
D. None of these

46. The __________ is also used in determining the theoretical limits for the performance of
commonly used engineering system. Answer: C
A. First law of thermodynamics
 B. Zeroth law of thermodynamics
C. Second law of thermodynamics
D. None of these

47. Thermal energy capacity is the product of Answer: B

A. Mass and specific volume
B. Mass and specific heat
C. Pressure and temperature
D. None of these

48. A two phase system can the modeled as a reservoir also since it can absorb and release large
quantities of heat while remaining at _________. Answer: A
A. Constant temperature
B. Constant volume
C. Constant pressure
D. None of these

49. A reservoir that supplies energy in the form of heat is called a: Answer: B
A. Sink
B. Source
C. Reserve
D. None of these

50. A reservoir that absorbs energy in the form of heat is called: Answer: A
A. Sink
B. Source
C. Reserve
D. None of these

51. Thermal energy reservoir that supplies energy in the form of heat is called. Answer: C
A. Work reservoir
B. Energy reservoir
C. Heat reservoir
D. None of these

52. A device that is used to convert the heat to work is called. Answer: C
A. Adiabatier
B. Regenerator
C. Heat engines
D. None of these

53. Heat engines rejects heat to aAnswer: A

A. Low temperature sink
B. High temperature source
C. Medium temperature
D. None these

54. The work producing device that best fits into the definition of a heat is the. Answer: C
A. Hydroelectric power plant
B. Nuclear power plant
C. Steam power plant
 D. None of these

55. The network output of a heat engines is always ___________. Answer: A

A. Less than the amount of heat input
B. More than the amount of heat input
C. Less than the amount of heat output
D. None of these

56. The fraction of the heat input that is converted to network output is a measure of the performance
of a heat engines and is called the. Answer: A
A. Thermal efficiency
B. Adiabatic efficiency
C. Effectiveness of second law
D. None of these

57. Is the ratio of desired output over the required input.Answer: C

A. Ratio
B. Requirement
C. Performance
D. None of these

58. Is the ratio of network output and the total heat input.Answer: A
A. Thermal efficiency
B. Bakwork ratio
C. Work ratio
D. None of these

59. The thermal efficiency of a heat engines is always. Answer: C

A. The same
B. More than one
C. Less than unity
D. None of these

60. In a steam power plant, the device where large quantities of waste heat is rejected. Answer: B
A. To the sea
B. To rivers, lakes or the atmosphere
C. To culverts
D. None of these

61. The energy that cannot be recycled, and it is properly called. Answer: C
A. Reserve energy
B. Acquired energy
C. Waste energy
D. None of these

62. Statement states that it is impossible for any device that operates on a cycle to receive heat from a
single reservoir and produce a net amount of work. Answer: C
A. Planc
B. Celsius
 C. Kelvin-planc
D. None of these

63. The transfer of heat from a low-temperature medium to a high temperature one requires a special
devices called Answer: B
A. Heat pump
B. Refrigerator
C. Heat exchanger
D. None of these

64. The working fluid used in the refrigeration cycle is called: Answer: C
A. Medium
B. Steam
C. refrigerant
D. None of these

65. The efficiency of refrigerator is expressed in terms of the: Answer:

A. Efficiency
B. Power
C. Coefficient of performance
D. None of these

66. The objective of refrigerator is: Answer: A

A. To remove heat from the refrigerated
B. To remove heat from the condenser
C. To add heat from the refrigerated space
D. None of these

67. The device that transfer heat from a low temperature medium to a high temperature one is:
Answer: C
A. Heat reservoir
B. Abattoir
C. Heat pump
D. None of these

68. The objective of a heat pump is to maintain a heated space at: Answer: B
A. Low temperature
B. High temperature
C. Medium temperature
D. None of these

69. Are basically refrigerators whose refrigerated space is a room or a building instead of the food
compartment.Answer: C
A. Cooling tower
B. Humidifier
C. Air conditioners
D. None of these
70. A _________ cools a room by absorbing heat from the room air and discharging it to the outside.
Answer: C
A. Centralized air-conditioning unit
 B. Individual unit
C. Window air conditioning unit
D. None of these

71. EER means? Answer: A

A. Energy efficiency rating
B. Energy efficiency right
C. Efficiency entrance ratio
D. None of these

72. Is the amount of heat removed from the cooled space in Btu’s for W-hr of electricity consumed:
Answer: B
A. COP
B. Energy efficiency rating
C. Efficiency
D. None of these

73. Most air conditioning have an EER between: Answer: A

A. 8 and 12
B. 6 and 8
C. 10 and 14
D. None of these

74. States that it is impossible to construct a device that operates in a cycle an produces no effect
other than the transfer of heat from a lower temperature body to a higher temperature body.
Answer: A
A. Clausius statement
B. Planc statement
C. Kelvin-planc statement
D. None of these

75. A device that violates the first law of thermodynamics is called a: Answer: C
A. Perpetual motion machine of second kind
B. Perpetual motion machine of third kind
C. Perpetual motion machine of the first kind
D. None of these

76. A device that violates the second law of thermodynamics is called a: Answer: A
A. Perpetual motion machine of second kind
B. Perpetual motion machine of third kind
C. Perpetual motion machine of the first kind
D. None of these

77. A ______ is a process which can be reversed without leaving any trace on the surroundings.
Answer: B
A. Irreversible process
 B. Reversible process
C. Adiabatic process
D. None of these

78. The process that are not reversible are called. Answer: A
A. Irreversible process
B. Isentropic process
C. Reversible process
D. None of these

79. The factor that causes a process to be irreversible are called. Answer: A
A. Irreversibilities
B. Reversibilities
C. Activities
D. None of these

80. Any friction that involves friction is: Answer: B

A. Reversible
B. Irreversible
C. Steady
D. None of these

81. The heat transfer process becomes less and less irreversible as the temperature difference between
two bodies. Answer: A
A. Approaches zero
B. Approaches infinity
C. Approaches maximum value
D. None of these

82. A process is called ________ if no irreversible occur within the boundaries of the system during
the process. Answer: A
A. Internally reversible
B. Internally irreversible
C. Cyclic process
D. None of these
83. A process is called _________ if no irreversible occur outside the system boundaries during the
process. Answer: A
A. Externally reversible
B. Internally reversible
C. Reversible
D. None of these

84. The efficiency of an irreversible heat engine _________ of an reversible one operating between
two reservoirs. Answer: B
A. Is always more than the efficiency
B. Is always less than the efficiency
C. Is always equal the efficiency
D. None of these
85. The efficiency of all reversible heat engines operating between the same two reservoirs.
Answer: B
A. Differ
B. Are the same
C. Are unequal
D. None of these

86. A temperature scale that is independent of the properties of the substance that are used to measure
temperature is called. Answer: B
A. A thermodynamic volume scale
B. A thermodynamic temperature scale
C. A thermodynamic pressure scale
D. None of these
0
87. The triple point temperature is 273.16 K. Most work producing devices in operation have
efficiency under: Answer: C
A. 30 percent
B. 50 percent
C. 40 percent
D. None of these

88. The thermal efficiency of actual heat engines can be ________ by supplying heat to the engine at
the highest possible engine at the lowest possible temperature. Answer: A
A. Maximized
B. Minimized
C. Zero
D. None of these

89. Heat transfer to a system will increase the entropy of that system whereas heat transfer from the
system will: Answer: B
A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Remains constant
D. None of these

90. The energy change of a closed system equals the _______ for any process whereas the entropy
change of a closed system equals the entropy transfer only for a reversible process. Answer: A
A. Energy transfer
B. Heat transfer
C. Work transfer
D. None of these

91. Energy is transferred in the form of ________ whereas entropy is transferred only with heat.
Answer: A
A. Heat work
B. Energy
C. Power
D. None of these
92. An energy intersection which is not accompanied by entropy transfer is: Answer: C
A. Work transfer
B. Energy transfer
C. Heat transfer
D. None of these

93. An energy interaction which is not accompanied by entropy transfer is. Answer: C
A. Energy
B. Heat
C. Work
D. None of these

94. The entropy transfer for adiabatic system is: Answer: A

A. Zero
B. One
C. Maximum
D. None of these

95. Is generated during an irreversible process. Answer: A

A. Entropy
B. Enthalpy
C. Pressure
D. None of these
96. Total entropy change associated with a process must be: Answer: C
A. Maximum
B. Negative
C. Positive or zero
D. None of these

97. The entropy change of a buffer zone will be: Answer: A

A. Zero
B. One
C. Infinity
D. None of these

98. Heat transfer to a system increases the entropy of that system and heat from a system. Answer: B
A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Remains constant
D. None of these

99. Irreversible always cause entropy to: Answer: A

A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Remains constant
D. None of these

100. If the process involves no heat transfer, the entropy of a fixed mass must _________ during that
process. Answer: C
A. Increases
 B. Decreases
C. Remains constant
D. None of these

1. Improving the efficiency of an air-standard otto cycle engines depends chiefly on: Answer: A
A. Increasing the compression ratio
B. Increasing the temperature and pressure
C. Decreasing density
D. Increasing specific

2. Increasing the piston diameter or piston stroke of otto engine will. Answer: B
A. Decrease the efficiency of the engine
B. Increases the efficiency of the engine
C. Increases the work
D. Decreases the work

3. The work output per cycle also depends strongly the compression as well as the : Answer: C
A. Bore of the engine
B. Isentropic compression
C. Isentropic expansion
D. Volumetric displacement of the engine

4. The mean effective pressure of otto cycle can be increased by increasing the heat transfer into the
engine per cycle or by: Answer: C
A. Decreasing volumetric expansion
B. Increasing the volumetric efficiency
C. Increasing pressure ratio
D. Decreasing pressure ratio

5. ____________ the engine in otto cycle can increase the power of the cycle but not to increase
efficiency. Answer: C
A. Discharging
B. Charging
C. Supercharging
D. Scavenging
6. A ____________ is used in aircraft engines and some automotive engine. In this method, a turbine
driven by the exhaust gases is used to provide power to compressor or blower at the inlet.Answer: B
A. Discharging
B. Turbocharging
C. Supercharging
D. Scavenging

7. The practical disadvantage of supercharging is that the pressure P 3 will be greater in the supercharge
engine, resulting in? Answer: B
A. Chocking
B. Knocking
C. Trickiting
D. Blocking

8. Most supercharged of turbo-charged engines use fuel injection of gasoline directly to? Answer: D
A. Heat exchanger
B. Furnace
C. Recuperator
D. Combustion chamber

9. A diesel cycle has two isentropic, one constant pressure and one? Answer: B
A. Constant temperature
B. Constant volume process
C. Constant density
D. None of these

10. The ideal cycles are? Answer: B

A. Externally reversible
B. Internally reversible
C. Externally irreversible
D. Internally irreversible

11. The thermal efficiency of an ideal cycle is less than that of a totally reversible cycle operating
between? Answer: B
A. Temperature decrease
B. Temperature limits
C. Temperature increase
D. None of these

12. The only devices where the changes in kinetic energy are significant are? Answer: C
A. Compressor
B. Pumps
C. Nozzles and diffusers
D. None of these

13. The t-s diagram is useful in the analysis ofAnswer: B

 A. Actual power cycle
B. Ideal power cycle
C. Combined power cycle
D. None of these

14. Equations pertaining to steady flow systems should be used in the analysis of? Answer: D
A. Carnot cycle
B. Otto cycle
C. Brayton cycle
D. Rankine cycle

15. Equations pertaining to close systems should be used in the analysis of? Answer: A
A. Otto cycle
B. Brayton cycle
C. Absorption system
D. Stirling cycle

16. The carnot cycle is a function of the? Answer: D

A. Absolute temperature
B. Limit temperature
C. Critical temperature
D. Sink and source temperature

17. Thermal efficiency of carnot cycle increases with ____________ at which heat is added to the
system or with a decrease in the average temperature at which heat is rejected from the system.
Answer: B
A. A constant average temperature
B. An increase in average temperature
C. A decrease in average temperature
D. None of these

18. Spark-ignition automobile engines, diesel engines, and the conventional gas turbines are devices
which operate on ____________. They are also internal combustion engines.
Answer: B
A. Steam cycles
B. Gas cycles
C. Heat cycles
D. None of these

19. Another assumption which is often utilized to simplify the analysis of air standard assumptions is
that air has ____________ whose values are determined at room temperature (25C). Answer: D
A. Variable specific heat
B. All of these
C. Thermal specific heat
D. Constant specific heat

20. A cycle for which the air-standard assumptions are applicable is frequently referred as? Answer: D
 A. Gas standard cycle
B. Adiabatic cycle
C. Reversible cycle
D. Air standard cycle

21. ____________ basically a piston-cylinder device? Answer: D

A. Centrifugal engine
B. Steam engine
C. Moving engine
D. Reciprocating engine

22. ____________ is the position of the piston when it forms the smallest volume in the cylinder.
Answer: B
A. Middle dead center
B. Top dead center
C. Bottom dead center
D. Approach dead center

23. ____________ is the position of the piston when it forms the largest volume in the cylinder.
Answer: C
A. Middle dead center
B. Top dead center
C. Bottom dead center
D. Approach dead center

24. The distance between TDC and BDC in which the piston can travel is the? Answer: C
A. Right extreme position
B. Displacement stroke
C. Stroke of the engine
D. Swept stroke

25. The diameter of the piston is called? Answer: C

A. Engine diameter
B. Stroke
C. Bore
D. Projected diameter

26. The air-fuel mixture is drawn into the cylinder through the? Answer: A
A. Intake valve
B. Exhaust valve
C. Intake pump
D. Jet pump

27. The combustion products are expelled from the cylinder through the? Answer: C
A. Intake valve
B. Exhaust manifold
C. Exhaust valve
D. None of these

28. The minimum volume formed in the cylinder when the piston is at TDC is called the? Answer: D
A. Compression volume
 B. Expansion volume
C. Volume change
D. Clearance volume

29. The volume displaced by the piston as it moves between TDC and BDC is called? Answer: D
A. Free mixture volume
B. Clearance volume
C. Piston discharge
D. Displacement volume

30. The ratio of the maximum volume formed in the cylinder to the minimum volume is called the
_______ of the engine. Answer: D
A. Expansion ratio
B. Cut-off ratio
C. Intake volume ratio
D. Compression ratio

31. Compression ratio is? Answer: D

A. Pressure ratio
B. Temperature ratio
C. Entropy ratio
D. Volume ratio

32. __________ is the fictitious pressure which, if it acted on the piston during the entire power stroke,
would produce the same amount of work as that produced during the actual cycle. Answer: D
A. Indicated pressure
B. Brake mean effective pressure
C. Critical pressure
D. Mean effective pressure

33. Reciprocating engines are classified as a? Answer: A

A. Spark-ignition engines or compression ignition engines
B. Spark-ignition engines
C. Compression-ignition engines
D. Heat engines

34. In spark-ignition system, the combustion of the air-fuel mixture is initiated by a? Answer: D
A. Carburetor
B. Injector
C. Feed pump
D. Spark plug

35. In compression-ignition, the combustion of air-fuel mixture is self-ignited as a result of compressing

the mixture above its? Answer: D
A. Self-developed temperature
B. Mixing temperature
C. Self-feed temperature
D. Self-ignition temperature
36. _________ the piston executes four complete strokes (two mechanical cycles) within revolutions for
each thermodynamic cycle. Answer: D
A. One stroke internal combustion engine
B. Two stroke internal combustion engine
C. Three stroke internal combustion engine
D. Four stroke internal combustion engine

37. Initially, both the intake and the exhaust valves are closed, and the piston is at its? Answer: B
A. Top position
B. Lowest position
C. Mean position
D. Central position

38. During compression stroke, the piston moves ________, compressing the air-fuel mixture.
Answer: D
A. Downward
B. Sideward
C. Centrifugally
D. Upward

39. Shortly before the piston reaches its highest position, the spark plug fires ________ of the system.
Answer: C
A. Decreasing the temperature and density
B. Increasing the volume and temperature
C. Increasing the pressure and temperature
D. Decreasing pressure and entropy

40. In 4 stroke cycle, the useful output is done during the? Answer: B
A. Exhaust stroke
B. Expansion or compression stroke
C. Intake stroke
D. Heat stroke

41. The pressure in the cylinder is _________ during the exhaust stroke and slightly below during intake
stroke. Answer: A
A. Slightly above
B. Slightly below
C. Is atmospheric
D. Approaches infinity

42. The stroke engine performs intake, compression, expansion and exhaust stroke in ______ only.
Answer: D
A. One revolution
B. Four revolution
C. Six revolution
D. Two revolution
43. Two stroke engines are generally_________ than four-stroke engines because of isentropic expulsion
of the exhaust gases and partial expulsion of fresh air-fuel mixture with the exhaust gases. Answer:
A
A. Less efficient
B. More efficient
C. Generally more efficient
D. Critically efficient

44. Two stroke engine are relatively ________, and have high power-to-weight and power-to-volume
ratios, which make them suitable for applications requiring small size and weight such as for
motorcycles, chain saws, and lawn mowers. Answer: C
A. High speed
B. High discharge
C. Simple and inexpensive
D. Simple and expensive

45. Two stroke engines have ________ compared to four stroke engine. Answer: B
A. Less power
B. More power
C. Less efficient
D. More efficient

46. The thermal efficiency of an ideal otto cycle depends __________ of the working fluid. Answer: D
A. The pressure ratio of the engine and the specific heat ratio
B. The temperature ratio of the engine and the specific heat ratio
C. The moles ratio of the engine and the specific heat ratio
D. The compression ratio of the engine and the specific heat ratio

47. The thermal efficiency of the otto cycle increases as the compression ratio? Answer: A
A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Remains constant
D. None of these

48. Typical compression ratio of otto cycle is? Answer: C

A. 6.0
B. 7.0
C. 8.0
D. 9.0

49. The premature ignition of the fuel is called? Answer: B

A. super ignition
B. auto ignition
C. ignition delay
D. pre-ignition

50. Auto ignition in spark-ignition engine can _______ to the engine. Answer: C
 A. Explode
B. Cause drastic change
C. Cause damage
D. Cause separation

51. _________ has been added to gasoline because it is the cheapest method of raising the octane rating.
Answer: A
A. Tetraethyl lead
B. Unleaded
C. Super leaded
D. Blaze

52. Is a measure of the engine knock resistance of a fuel? Answer: C

A. Ucrain
B. Anti-knock rating
C. Octane rating
D. Saybolt rating

53. Leaded gasoline engine has? Answer: C

A. Best effect
B. Produce double effect
C. Undesirable side effect
D. None of these

54. Most cars have been designed to use unleaded gasoline and the compression ratio had to be lowered
to avoid? Answer: D
A. Infinite revolution
B. zagging knock
C. super knock
D. Engine knock

55. The thermal efficiency of car engines has been decreased somewhat as a result? Answer: B
A. Increased compression ratio
B. Decreased compression ratio
C. Dead weight ratio
D. Zero clearance

56. The second parameter affecting the thermal efficiency of an ideal otto cycle is the? Answer: C
A. Density
B. Air condition
C. Specific heat ratio
D. Compression ratio

57. Using monatonic gas, the thermal efficiency of otto cycle? Answer: A
A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Remains constant
D. None of these
58. The thermal efficiency of actual spark-ignition engines range from about? Answer: A
A. 25-30%
B. 30-35%
C. 35-40%
D. 40-50%

59. The diesel engine is the ideal for CI is? Answer: A

A. Reciprocating engine
B. Combustion engine
C. External engine
D. Two way engine

60. Invented diesel engine is _______ in the 1890. Answer: D

A. Rudolph Hitler
B. Ronnie Diesel
C. Rodel Diesel
D. Rudolph Diesel

61. If the density of air increases if its _________ will increase. Answer: D
A. Temperature
B. Specific volume
C. Entropy
D. Pressure

62. The difference between enthalpy and work flow is? Answer: B
A. Internal work
B. Internal energy
C. Specific heat
D. Kinetic energy

63. At critical point of T-S diagram in rankine cycle, what is the relation of saturated enthalpy of liquid
and vapor? Answer: A
A. Hf=hg
B. Hf>hg
C. Hf>hf
D. Hg is slightly greater than hf

64. At one point of a pipe, x=volume flow of liquid, y=specific volume of liquid. The mass flow of
liquid is? Answer: A
A. x/y
B. xy
C. y/x
D. y-x

65. The fuel used in diesel is __________ than in the fuel used in gasoline engine. Answer: A
A. Less expensive
B. More expensive
C. More
D. None of these
 66. The fuel injection process in diesel engines starts when the piston _________ and continuous during
the first part of power stroke. Answer: D
A. And of BDC
B. Before TDC
C. Approaches BDC
D. Approaches TDC
67. In diesel engine, combustion process during combustion occurs during? Answer: D
A. Isothermal expansion
B. Constant pressure process
C. Isentropic process
D. Adiabatic

68. The Otto and diesel cycle differs during…. Answer: D

A. Expansion process
B. Intake process
C. Exhaust process
D. Combustion process

69. A measure of performance for any power cycle is its… Answer: B

A. Back work ratio
B. Thermal efficiency
C. Auto ignition efficiency
D. None of these

70. Is the ratio of cylinder volumes after and before the combustion process.Answer: C
A. Expansion ratio
B. Back work ratio
C. Cut – off ratio
D. Compression ratio

71. The thermal efficiency of Otto cycle is always ______ the thermal efficiency of Diesel cycle when
both cycle operates in the same compression ratio.
A. Greater than
B. Less than
C. Equal
D. None of these

72. If the cut-off ratio decreases, the efficiency of diesel cycle. Answer: A
A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Remains constant
D. None of these

73. If the cut off ration is unity, the diesel and Otto cycle are… Answer: D
A. Performs different field
B. Separately exited
C. Fixed
D. Identical
74. The diesel engines also burn the fuel more completely since the usually operate _____ than spark
ignition engines. Answer: C
A. Higher revolutions per minute
B. Medium speed
C. Lower revolutions per minute
D. None of these

75. Thermal efficiencies of diesel engines range from about… Answer: D

A. 30 to 45%
B. 65 to 89%
C. 50 to 55%
D. 35 to 40%

76. The _______ of diesel engines make them the clear choice in applications requiring relatively large
amounts of power, such as locomotive engines, emergency power generation units, large ships, and heavy
trucks. Answer: A
A. Higher efficiency and lower fuel costs
B. High power
C. Low efficiency
D. High work of compression

77. A diesel engine can be built as much as _____ at 122 rpm. Answer: C
A. 20, 500 hp
B. 27, 456 hp
C. 25, 000 hp
D. 34, 345 hp

78. A better approach would be to model the combustion process in both gasoline and diesel engines as a
combination of two heat transfer process. This process known as..Answer: D
A. Gas cycle
B. Otto cycle
C. Diesel cycle
D. Dual cycle

79. In dual cycle, the heat is added during constant volume and ____ process. Answer: B
A. Constant temperature
B. Constant pressure
C. Constant volume
D. Constant pressure and temperature

80. _____________ is the process during which heat is transferred to a thermal energy storage device.
Answer: B
A. Adiabatic
B. Regeneration
C. Recuperication
D. Isentropication

81. The regenerator is a device that borrows _____ from working fluid during one part of the cycle and
pays it back during another part of the cycle.
A. Heat
B. Energy
 C. Work
D. None of these

82. In stirling cycle, regeneration process works during _____ process. Answer: A
A. Constant volume
B. Constant pressure
C. Constant heat addition
D. None of these

83. In Ericsson cycle, the regeneration process occur during ____ process. Answer: C
A. Constant volume
B. Constant temperature
C. Constant pressure
D. None of these

84. Invented Striling engine is ______. It is very heavy and complicated. Answer: D
A. Robert Deniro
B. Robert Boyle
C. Robert Sreri
D. Robert Stirling

85. Both the sterling and Ericsson cycles are totally reversible as is the..Answer: A
A. Carnot cycle
B. Otto cycle
C. Diesel cycle
D. Gas turbine cycle

86. _____ have the same efficiency when operating the same temperature limits. Answer: C
A. Stirling and gas turbine cycles
B. Carnot and Otto cycles
C. Stirling, Ericsson, and Carnot cycles
D. None of these

87. Both the stirling and Ericsson cycles are… Answer: B

A. Internal combustion engines
B. External combustion engines
C. Otto engine
D. Stirling engine

88. Are two gases commonly employed in Stirling and Ericsson cycles.Answer: A
A. Hydrogen and Helium
B. Water and Brine
C. Salt and water
D. Oxygen and Nitrogen.

89. Advantage of Stirling and Ericsson cycle: Answer: D

A. Can used variety of fuels as a source of energy
 B. There is more time for combustion
C. They operate on closed cycles
D. All of these

90. In Stirling cycle, Regeneration can… Answer: B

A. Decrease efficiency
B. Increase efficiency
C. Limit efficiency
D. Control efficiency

91. Brayton cycle is invented by..Answer: D

A. George Bragat
B. George Smith
C. George Turbine
D. George Brayton

92. Gas turbine usually operates on an ….. Answer: B

A. Closed cycle
B. Open cycle
C. Controllable cycle
D. None of these

93. In gas turbine, the gas is expanded to the… Answer: D

A. Vacuum pressure
B. Negative pressure
C. Gage pressure
D. Atmospheric pressure

94. Brayton cycle is made up of _____ internally reversible process. Answer: D

A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four

95. In Brayton cycle, the _____ during constant pressure process. Answer: B
A. Work is added
B. Heat is transferred
C. Pressure is rejected
D. Energy is added

96. The thermal efficiency of an ideal Brayton cycle depends on… Answer: D
A. Pressure ratio of the gas turbine and specific volume ratio
B. Temperature ratio of the gas turbine and specific heat ratio
C. Pressure ratio of the gas turbine and isentropic process
D. Pressure ratio of the gas turbine and specific heat ratio

97. The highest temperature of Gas turbine cycle occurs at the end of… Answer: C
A. Expansion process
 B. Compression process
C. Combustion process
D. Extraction process

98. For a fixed turbine inlet temperature, the net wok output per cycle increases with the pressure ratio,
reaches the maximum, and then starts to..Answer: B
A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. Limit
D. Extract

99. In most common design of Gas turbines, the pressure ratio ranges from… Answer: B
A. 10 – 12
B. 11 – 16
C. 13 – 18
D. 12 – 20

100. In gas turbines, an air – fuel mass ratio of ____ is not common. Answer: D
A. 10 or above
B. 20 or above
C. 30 or above
D. 40 or above
1.The thermal efficiency of a gas turbine engine depends on the _____ gas temperature at turbine intlet.
Answer: A
A. Allowable maximum
B. Allowable minimum
C. Considerable amount
D. Minimum

2.Two major application area of gas turbine engines are..Answer: C

A. Driving automotive engines and locomotives
B. Heating and generation
C. Aircraft propulsion and electric power generation
D. None of these

3. When it is used for aircraft propulsion, the gas turbine produces just enough power to drive the
compressor and a small generator to power the… Answer: C
A. Pump
B. Generator
C. Auxiliary equipment
D. Control devices

4. The ______ are also used for stationary power plants to generate electricity. Answer: C
A. Carnot engine
B. Stirling engine
C. Gas turbine engine
D. Steam engine

5. Are mostly utilized in the power generation industry to cover emergencies and peak periods because of
their relative low cost and quick response time. Answer: C
A. Geothermal power plants
B. Diesel power plants
C. Gas turbine power plants
D. Thermal power plants

6. Compared to system turbine engines and diesel propulsion systems, the gas turbine offers _____ for a
given size and weight, high reliability, long life, and more convenient operation. Answer: D
A. Common power
B. Reliable power
C. Sustainable power
D. Greater power

7. The engine start up time has been reduced from 4 hours required for a typical steam propulsion system
to _________ for a gas turbine. Answer: A
A. Less than 2 minutes
B. Less than 30 minutes
C. More than 1 hour
D. Less than 5 minutes
8. Many modern marine propulsion systems used gas turbines together with… Answer: A
A. Diesel engine
B. Gasoline engine
C. Stirling engine
D. Carnot engine

9. Is the ratio of compressor work to the turbine work in gas turbine power plants.Answer: A
A. Back work ratio
B. Thermal efficiency
C. Heat ratio
D. Combined ratio

10. In gas turbine usually more than one – half of the turbine work output is used to drive the..Answer: C
A. Engine
B. Generator
C. Compressor
D. Auxiliaries

11. The turbines used in gas turbine power plant are _____ than those used in steam power plants of the
same power rating. Answer: D
A. Smaller
B. Considerable power
C. Powerful
D. Larger

12. In gas – turbine engines, the temperature of the exhaust gas leaving the turbine is often considerable
____ than the temperature of the air leaving the compressor. Answer: B
A. Lower
B. Higher
C. Controllable
D. None of these

13. The high pressure air leaving the compressor can be heated by transferring heat to it from the hot
exhaust gases in a counter flow heat exchanger known as… Answer: D
A. Regenerator machine
B. Boiler
C. Adiabatic
D. Recuperator

14. The thermal efficiency of the Brayton cycle increases as a result of…. Answer: D
A. Isentropic compression
B. Isentropic expansion
C. Superposing
D. Regeneration
15. The use of regenerator in is recommended only when the turbine exhaust temperature is higher than
the compressor. Answer: A
A. Exit temperature
B. Inlet temperature
C. Mean temperature
D. Absolute temperature
16. The highest temperature occurring within the regenerator is the temperature of exhaust gases leaving
the turbine and… Answer: B
A. Leaving the regenerator
B. Entering the generator
C. Leaving the turbine
D. Entering the compressor

17. Effectiveness of regenerator is the ratio of Actual heat regenerated and the… Answer: B
A. Minimum regenerated heat
B. Maximum regenerated heat
C. Maximum regenerated work
D. Maximum regenerated energy

18. The higher the effectiveness of regenerator, will save a greater amount of… Answer: D
A. Work
B. Heat
C. Energy
D. Fuel

19. The thermal efficiency of an ideal Brayton cycle with regeneration depends on the ratio of the
minimum to maximum temperature as well as the… Answer: D
A. Entropy ratio
B. Back work ratio
C. Power ratio
D. Pressure ratio

20. Is the most effective at lower pressure ratios and low minimum to maximum temperature
ratios.Answer: C
A. Boiler
B. Heat regeneration
C. Regeneration
D. Recuperation

21. The network of Gas turbine cycle can be increased by decreasing the compressor or by …. Answer: A
A. Increasing the turbine work
B. Decreasing the turbine work
C. Recuperation
D. expansion

22. As the number of stages increased in multi compression with intercooling, the compression process
becomes isothermal at the compressor inlet temperature, and the compressor work. Answer: B
A. increases
B. decreases
C. remains constant
D. none of these
23. The work output of a turbine operating between two pressure levels can be increased _____ and
reheating it in between – that is, utilizing multi expansion with reheating. Answer: D
A. compressing the gas in stages
B. utilizing the gas in stages
C. reheating the gas in stages
D. expanding the gas in stages.

24. As the number of stages is increased, the expansion process becomes… Answer: B
A. isentropic
B. isothermal
C. isometric
D. polytropic

25. The steady flow compression or expansion work is proportional to the… Answer: D
A. density of liquid
B. specific gravity of liquid
C. specific weight of liquid
D. specific volume of liquid.

26. The back work ratio of a gas turbine cycle improves as a result of… Answer: A
A. intercooling and reheating
B. reheating
C. cooling
D. superposing

27. Intercooling and reheating will always ______ the thermal efficiency unless they are accompanied by
regeneration. Answer: A
A. decrease
B. increase
C. remains constant
D. none of these

28. Intercooling decreases the average temperature at which heat is added, and reheating increases the
average temperature at which heat is: Answer: C
A. limited
B. added
C. rejected
D. none of these

29. Gas turbine engines are widely used to power aircraft because they are light and compact and…
Answer: A
A. high power to weight ratio
B. low power to weight ratio
C. high power to volume ratio
D. low work ratio
30. Aircraft gas turbines operate on an open cycle called… Answer: B
A. Automatic cycle
B. Jet – propulsion cycle
C. Carnot cycle
D. Reheat cycle
31. The network output of a jet – propulsion cycle is… Answer: A
A. Zero
B. Infinity
C. One percent
D. Maximum

32. Aircraft gas turbines operate at higher pressure ratio typically between? Answer: D
A. 6 to 8
B. 12 to 24
C. 10 to 18
D. 10 to 25

33. Aircraft are propelled by accelerating a fluid in the opposite direction to… Answer: C
A. Acceleration
B. Direction
C. Motion
D. None of these

34. The gases expand in a nozzle to the ambient pressure and leave the aircraft at a… Answer: D
A. Low heat
B. Low work
C. Low cost
D. High velocity

35. The trust developed in a turbojet engine is the unbalance force which is caused by the difference in the
________ of the low velocity air entering the engine and the high velocity exhaust gases leaving the
engine. Answer: A
A. Momentum
B. Power
C. Impulsive force
D. Impact energy

36. The power developed from the thrust if the engine is called the… Answer: C
A. Impulsive force
B. Supersonic power
C. Propulsive power
D. Transitive power

37. The net work developed by a turbojet engine is… Answer: C

A. Infinity
B. One
C. Zero
D. None of these

38. Is the ratio of propulsive power and energy input rate. Answer: D
A. Thermal efficiency
 B. Adiabatic efficiency
C. Turbojet efficiency
D. Propulsive efficiency

39. The most widely used engine in aircraft propulsion is the… Answer: B
A. Supercharge fan engine
B. Turbofan engine
C. Stirring fan engine
D. Colative fan engine

40. The ratio of the mass flow rate of air bypassing the combustion chamber to that of air flowing through
it is called: Answer: B
A. Efficiency ratio
B. Bypass ratio
C. Compression ratio
D. Heat transfer ratio

41. The first commercial high-pass ratio engines has a bypass ratio of: Answer: C
A. 1
B. 3
C. 5
D. 7

42. Increasing the bypass ratio of a turbofan engine. Answer: A

A. Increase thrust
B. Increase power
C. Increase heat
D. Increase energy

43. As a general rule, propellers are more efficient than: Answer: D

A. Carnot engines
B. Dual engines
C. Ericsson engines
D. Jet engines

44. Another modification which is popular with military aircraft is the addition of an: Answer: B
A. Anti – burner
B. After burner
C. Cooler burner
D. Header

45. Is a property shaped duct with no compressor or turbine. Answer: D

A. Turbojet engine
B. Supercharged engine
C. Adiabatic engine
D. Ramjet engine

46. Ramjet is used for high – speed propulsion of: Answer: B

A. Aircraft carrier
B. Missiles and aircraft
 C. Supercharging
D. Exposing

47. A ______ is essentially a ramjet in which airflows through at supersonic speeds. Answer: D
A. Turbojet engine
B. Crumjet engine
C. Chargeable engine
D. Scramjet engine

48. A cycle which a net amount of work is produce is called: Answer: C

A. Ideal cycle
B. Actual cycle
C. Power cycle
D. Steam cycle

49. A power cycle during which the working fluid remains a gas throughout is called a ____ cycle.
Answer: D
A. Heat power
B. Fuel power
C. True power
D. Gas power

50. The single – stage compression process of an ideal Brayton cycle without regeneration is replaced by
a multistage compression process with intercooling between the same pressure limits. As a result of
modification, the compressor work: Answer: B
A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. Remain constant
D. None of these

51. The single – stage compression process of an ideal Brayton cycle without regeneration is replaced by
a multistage compression process with intercooling between the same pressure limits. As a result of
modification, the back work ratio: Answer: B
A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. Remain constant
D. None of these

52. The single – stage compression process of an ideal Brayton cycle without regeneration is replaced by
a multistage compression process with intercooling between the same pressure limits. As a result of
modification, the thermal efficiency: Answer: B
A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. Remain constant
D. None of these

53. The single – stage expansion process of an ideal Brayton cycle without regeneration is replaced by a
multistage expansion process with reheating between the same pressure limits. As a result of
modification, turbine work will: Answer : A
 A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. Remain constant
D. None of these

54. The single – stage expansion process of an ideal Brayton cycle without regeneration is replaced by a
multistage expansion process with reheating between the same pressure limits. As a result of
modification, back work ratio will: Answer : B
A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. Remain constant
D. None of these

55. The single – stage expansion process of an ideal Brayton cycle without regeneration is replaced by a
multistage expansion process with reheating between the same pressure limits. As a result of
modification, thermal efficiency will: Answer : B
A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. Remain constant
D. None of these

56. A simple ideal Brayton cycle without regeneration is modified to incorporate multistage compression
with intercooling and multistage expansion with reheating, without changing the pressure or temperature
limits of the cycle. As the result of modification, net work output will: Answer: A
A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. Remain constant
D. None of these

57. A simple ideal Brayton cycle without regeneration is modified to incorporate multistage compression
with intercooling and multistage expansion with reheating, without changing the pressure or temperature
limits of the cycle. As the result of modification, back work ratio will: Answer: B
A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. Remain constant
D. None of these

58. A simple ideal Brayton cycle without regeneration is modified to incorporate multistage compression
with intercooling and multistage expansion with reheating, without changing the pressure or temperature
limits of the cycle. As the result of modification, thermal efficiency will: Answer: B
A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. Remain constant
D. None of these

59. A simple ideal Brayton cycle without regeneration is modified to incorporate multistage compression
with intercooling and multistage expansion with reheating, without changing the pressure or temperature
limits of the cycle. As the result of modification, heat rejected will: Answer: A
A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. Remain constant
 D. None of these

60. A simple ideal Brayton cycle is modified to incorporate multistage compression with intercooling,
multistage expansion with reheating and regeneration without changing the pressure limits of the cycle.
As a result of modification, Net work output will: Answer A
A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. Remain constant
D. None of these

61. A simple ideal Brayton cycle is modified to incorporate multistage compression with intercooling,
multistage expansion with reheating and regeneration without changing the pressure limits of the cycle.
As a result of modification, back work ratio will: Answer B
A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. Remain constant
D. None of these

62. A simple ideal Brayton cycle is modified to incorporate multistage compression with intercooling,
multistage expansion with reheating and regeneration without changing the pressure limits of the cycle.
As a result of modification, thermal efficiency will: Answer A
A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. Remain constant
D. None of these

63. A simple ideal Brayton cycle is modified to incorporate multistage compression with intercooling,
multistage expansion with reheating and regeneration without changing the pressure limits of the cycle.
As a result of modification, heat rejected will: Answer B
A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. Remain constant
D. None of these

64. Which of the following is not considered as heat engines? Answer: D

A. Stirling cycle
B. Ericsson cycle
C. Brayton cycle
D. All of these

65.Which of the following is/are the application of Brayton cycle: Answer: D

A. Propulsion system
B. Automotive turbine engines
C. Aircraft turbine engines
D. All of these

66. Which of the following is conserved as internal combustion engine? Answer: D

A. Brayton cycle
B. Atkinson cycle
 C. Humpherey pump
D. All of these

67. The property that describes the randomness or certainty is called: Answer: B
A. Temperature
B. Entropy
C. Pressure
D. Internal energy

68. Air by volume: Answer: C

A. 11% Oxygen & 89% Nitrogen
B. 20% Oxygen & 80% Nitrogen
C. 21% Oxygen & 79% Nitrogen
D. 40% Oxygen & 60% Nitrogen

69. Is defined as the actual fuel air ratio over the stoichiometric fuel air ratio. Answer: D
A. Back work ratio
B. Volumetric ratio
C. Air – fuel ratio
D. Equivalent ratio

70.In a polytropic process, if n = 0, the process will become: Answer: C

A. Constant temperature
B. Constant internal energy
C. Constant pressure
D. Constant entropy

71. In a polytropic process, if _______ , the process will become constant temperature. Answer: A
A. N = 1
B. N = approaches infinity
C. N approaches zero
D. N has infinite value

72. In a polytropic process, if n = infinity, the process will become: Answer: A

A. Constant volume
B. Constant pressure
C. Constant entropy
D. Constant temperature

73. In a polytropic process, if _______, the process will become constant entropy. Answer: B
A. N = 1
B. N = k
C. N = 2
D. N = 0

74. Power generation coupled with process heating is called: Answer: C

A. Generation
B. Combination
C. Cogeneration
D. Regeneration
75. Steam is the most common working fluid used in vapor cycles because of its many desirable
characteristics, such as. Answer: D
A. Low cost
B. Availability
C. High enthalpy vaporization
D. All of these

76. It used as working fluid in high – temperature applications of vapor cycles. Answer: C
A. Helium
B. Deuterium
C. Mercury
D. Water

77. Are commonly referred to as coal plants, nuclear plants, depending on the type of fuel used to supply
heat to the steam. Answer: A
A. Steam power plant
B. Nuclear power plants
C. Diesel power plants
D. Gas turbine power plants

78. Is the most efficient cycle operating between two specified temperature levels.Answer: A
A. Canot
B. Diesel
C. Otto
D. Brayton

79. In Carnot cycle: Answer: D

A. Water is heated reversibly and isothermally in a boiler
B. Expanded isentropically in the turbine.
C. Condensed reversibly and isothermally in a condenser
D. All of these

80. The critical point value is ______ for water. Answer: B

A. 234°C
B. 374°C
C. 498°C
D. 563°C

81. Limiting the maximum temperature in the Carnot cycle also limits the: Answer: C
A. Compression ratio
B. Pressure ratio
C. Thermal efficiency
D. None the these

82. Is the ideal cycle for vapor power plants.Answer: C

A. Carnot cycle
B. Stirling cycle
 C. Rankine cycle
D. Combined cycle

83. In a Rankine cycle, water enters the pump as saturated liquid and is compressed isentropically to the
operating pressure of the: Answer: D
A. Heat exchanger
B. Recuperator
C. Condenser
D. Boiler

84. In the pump, the water temperature increases somewhat during this isentropic compression process
due to: Answer: B
A. A slight decrease in pressure of water
B. A slight decrease in specific volume of water
C. A slight increase in specific volume of air
D. A slight decrease in specific volume of fluid

85. The superheated vapor enters the turbine and expands isentropically and produces work by the
rotating shaft. The _________ may drop during the process. Answer: C
A. Density
B. Viscosity of fuel
C. Temperature and pressure
D. None of these

86.Steam us condensed at constant pressure in the: Answer: A

A. Condenser
B. Boiler
C. Turbine
D. Pump

87. If the power plant is cooled by air instead of water, this method is called: Answer: B
A. Wet cooling
B. Dry cooling
C. Specific cooling
D. Air cooled cooling

88. The area under T – S diagram represents the: Answer: B

A. Work
B. Heat transfer
C. Energy
D. None of these

89. The boiler and condenser do not involve any work, and the pump and turbine are to be: Answer: A
A. Isentropic
B. Isothermal
C. Adiabatic
D. None of these

90. The conversion efficiency of power plants in the United States is often expressed in terms of ______
which is the amount of heat supplied, in Btu’s to generate 1 Kwh of electricity. Answer: D
 A. Fuel rate
B. Work heat ratio
C. Contact ratio
D. Heat rate
91. The smaller the heat rate, the greater the: Answer: B
A. Effectiveness
B. Efficiency
C. Heat
D. Fuel

92. 1 Kwh = :Answer: A

A. 3412 BTU
B. 200 btu
C. 5012 btu
D. 1089 btu

93. Rankine cycle power plant converts ______ of the heat it receives in the boiler to net work.
Answer: B
A. 24%
B. 26%
C. 28%
D. 30%

94. The back work ratio of this power plants is: Answer: D
A. 0.001
B. 0.002
C. 0.003
D. 0.004

95. Only ________ of the turbine work output is required to operate the pump. Answer: D
A. 0.01%
B. 0.02%
C. 0.03%
D. 0.04%

96. Causes pressure drops in the boiler, the condenser, and piping between various components.
Answer: C
A. Standard friction
B. Kinematic friction
C. Fluid friction
D. Coefficient of friction

97. The pressure in the condenser is usually: Answer: D

A. Very large
B. Positive
C. Negative
D. Very small

98. To compensate pressure drops in Rankine cycle, the water must be pumped to a sufficient ______ than
the ideal cycle. Answer: A
A. Higher pressure
 B. Lower pressure
C. Higher temperature
D. Lower temperature

99. The major source of irreversibility is the ___________ from the steam to the surroundings. Answer:
C
A. Work input
B. Work output
C. Heat loss
D. Heat added

100. To increase the thermal efficiency of Rankine cycle, ___________ at which heat is transferred to the
working fluid in the boiler. Answer: B
A. Decrease pressure
B. Increase the average temperature
C. Increase temperature only
D. None of these
1. To increase the thermal efficiency of Rankine cycle. _______ at which heat is rejected from the
working fluid in the condenser.Answer: B
A. Increase the average temperature
B. Decrease the average temperature
C. Limit the average temperature
D. Temperature approaches zero

2. Lowering the operating pressure of the condenser automatically lowers the temperature of the steam,
and thus the temperature at which: Answer: A
A. Heat is rejected
B. Heat is added
C. Pressure is rejected
D. Temperature is added

3. The overall effect of lowering the condenser pressure is an _____ in the efficiency of Rankine cycle.
Answer: A
A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. Remains constant
D. None of these

4. To take advantage of the increased efficiencies at low pressure, the condenser of steam power plants
usually operate well below the: Answer: C
A. Gage pressure
B. Vacuum pressure
C. Atmospheric pressure
D. Absolute pressure

5. The average temperature at which heat is added to the steam can be increased without increasing the
boiler pressure by ________ the steam to high temperature. Answer: D
A. Subcooling
B. Reheating
C. Saturating
D. Superheating

6. Superheating the steam to higher temperatures decrease the moisture content of the steam at the
________. Answer: D
A. Turbine inlet
B. Compressor inlet
C. Compressor exit
D. Turbine exit

7. Presently the highest steam temperature allowed at the turbine inlet is about ______. Ceramics are very
promising in this regard. Answer: B
A. 600°C
B. 620°C
C. 640°C
 D. 660°C

8. Another way of increasing the average temperature during the heat addition process is to _______ the
operating pressure of the boiler. Answer: A
A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. Constant
D. None of these

9. Raises the average temperature at which heat is added to the steam raises the: Answer: D
A. Pressure
B. Temperature
C. Heat addition
D. Thermal efficiency of the cycle

10. The lower efficiencies of nuclear power plants is due to the ____________ used in those plants for
safety reasons. Answer: B
A. Higher maximum temperature
B. Lower maximum temperature
C. Considerate temperature
D. Allowable maximum temperature

11. The average temperature during the reheat process can be increased by __________ the number of
expansion and reheat stages. Answer: A
A. Increasing
B. Decreasing
C. Maximizing
D. None of these

12. The incorporation of the single reheat in a modern plant improves the cycle efficiency by ________
increasing the average temperature at which heat is added to steam. Answer: D
A. 1 to 2%
B. 2 to 3%
C. 3 to 4%
D. 4 to 5%

13. As the number of stages is increased, the expansion and reheat process approached an _________ at
the maximum temperature. Answer: B
A. Isentropic process
B. Isothermal process
C. Isobaric process
D. Adiabatic process

14. In a Reheat cycle, the optimum reheat pressure is about __________ of the maximum cycle pressure.
Answer: B
A. One – eight
B. One – fourth
C. One – half
D. One – third
15. The main purpose of reheating is to ________________ of the steam at the final stage of expansion.
Answer: A
A. Reduce the moisture content
B. Limit the pressure
C. Limit the moisture content
D. None of these

16. Is to transfer heat to the feedwater from the expanding steam in a counter flow heat exchanger built
into the turbine. Answer: B
A. Heat exchanger
B. Regeneration
C. Boiler
D. Reheater

17. The device where the feedwater is heated by regeneration is called: Answer: A
A. Regenerator
B. Recuperator
C. Diabatic
D. Toxic

18. Regeneration also provides a convenient means of dearating the feedwater to prevent: Answer: C
A. Boiler explosion
B. Boiler scale production
C. Boiler corrosion
D. Compressor damage

19. An open feedwater heater is basically a mixing chamber, where the steam from the turbine mixes with
the feedwater exiting the: Answer: B
A. Turbine
B. Pump
C. Boiler
D. Condenser

20. The thermal efficiency of the Rankine cycle ______ as a result of regeneration. Answer: A
A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Remains constant
D. None of these

21. The cycle efficiency increases further as the number of feedwater heaters is: Answer: A
A. Increased
B. Decreased
C. Remain constant
D. None of these
22. ________________ in which heat is transferred from the extracted steam to the feedwater without any
mixing taking place. Answer: D
A. Open feedwater heating
B. Condenser rejection
C. Boiler addition
D. Closed feedwater heating

23. A _______ allows the liquid to be throttled to a lower pressure region but traps the vapor. Answer: D
A. Vent
B. Elbow
C. Blow
D. Trap

24. A closed feedwater heater is more __________ than the open feedwater heater. Answer: C
A. Corrosive
B. Dangerous
C. Expensive
D. Toxic

25. Is the production of more than one useful form of energy ( such as process heat and electric power)
from the same energy source. Answer: B
A. Generation
B. Cogeneration
C. Simultaneous power reaction
D. None of these

26. Can be apply in steam turbine cycle (Rankine), Gas turbine cycle (Brayton) and Combined cycle.
Answer: C
A. Hydroelectric plant
B. Nuclear power plant
C. Cogeneration plant
D. Tidal power plant

27. The overall thermal efficiency of a power plant can be increased by: Answer: B
A. Binary reaction
B. Extraction
C. Carnot cycle
D. Binary cycle
28. A ________ is composed of two separate cycles, one at high temperatures (tropping cycle) and the
other at relative low temperatures. Answer: B
A. Carnot cycle
B. Binary cycle
C. Rankine cycle
D. Combustion cycle
29. Combined cycles have a ____________ thermal efficiency than the steam or gas turbine cycles
operating alone. Answer: A
A. Higher
B. Lower
C. Limit
D. Average

30. In a Rankine cycle with fixed turbine inlet conditions. What is the effect of lowering the condenser
pressure, the turbine work input will :Answer: A
A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. Remain the same
D. None of these

31. In a Rankine cycle with fixed turbine inlet conditions. What is the effect of lowering the condenser
pressure, the turbine work output will :Answer: A
A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. Remain the same
D. None of these

32. In a Rankine cycle with fixed turbine inlet conditions. What is the effect of lowering the condenser
pressure, the turbine heat added will :Answer: A
A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. Remain the same
D. None of these

33. In a Rankine cycle with fixed turbine inlet conditions. What is the effect of lowering the condenser
pressure, the turbine heat rejected will :Answer: B
A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. Remain the same
D. None of these

34. In a Rankine cycle with fixed turbine inlet conditions. What is the effect of lowering the condenser
pressure, the turbine cycle efficiency will :Answer: A
A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. Remain the same
D. None of these

35. In a Rankine cycle with fixed turbine inlet conditions. What is the effect of lowering the condenser
pressure, the moisture content at turbine exit will :Answer: A
A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. Remain the same
D. None of these
36. In an ideal Rankine cycle with fixed turbine inlet temperature and condenser pressure, what is the
effect of increasing boiler pressure, the pump work input will: Answer: A
A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. Remains the same
D. None of theseh r

37. In an ideal Rankine cycle with fixed turbine turbine inlet temperature and condenser pressure, what is
the effect of increasing boiler pressure, the pump work input will: Answer: A
A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. Remains the same
D. None of these

38. In an ideal Rankine cycle with fixed turbine turbine inlet temperature and condenser pressure, what is
the effect of increasing boiler pressure, the pump work output will: Answer: B
A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. Remains the same
D. None of these

39. In an ideal Rankine cycle with fixed turbine turbine inlet temperature and condenser pressure, what is
the effect of increasing boiler pressure, the heat added will: Answer: A
A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. Remains the same
D. None of these

40. In an ideal Rankine cycle with fixed turbine turbine inlet temperature and condenser pressure, what is
the effect of increasing boiler pressure, the heat rejected will: Answer: B
A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. Remains the same
D. None of these

41. In an ideal Rankine cycle with fixed turbine turbine inlet temperature and condenser pressure, what is
the effect of increasing boiler pressure, cycle efficiency will: Answer: A
A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. Remains the same
D. None of these

42. In an ideal Rankine cycle with fixed turbine turbine inlet temperature and condenser pressure, what is
the effect of increasing boiler pressure, the moisture content at turbine exit: Answer: A
A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. Remains the same
D. None of these
43. In an ideal Rankine cycle with fixed boiler and condenser pressures. What is the effect of superheating
the steam to a higher temperature, the pump work input will: Answer: C
A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. Remains the same
D. None of these

44. In an ideal Rankine cycle with fixed boiler and condenser pressures. What is the effect of superheating
the steam to a higher temperature, the turbine work ouput will: Answer: A
A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. Remains the same
D. None of these

45. In an ideal Rankine cycle with fixed boiler and condenser pressures. What is the effect of superheating
the steam to a higher temperature, the heat added will: Answer: A
A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. Remains the same
D. None of these

46. In an ideal Rankine cycle with fixed boiler and condenser pressures. What is the effect of superheating
the steam to a higher temperature, the heat rejected will: Answer: A
A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. Remains the same
D. None of these

47. In an ideal Rankine cycle with fixed boiler and condenser pressures. What is the effect of superheating
the steam to a higher temperature, the cycle efficiency will: Answer: A
A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. Remains the same
D. None of these

48. In an ideal Rankine cycle with fixed boiler and condenser pressures. What is the effect of superheating
the steam to a higher temperature, the moisture content at turbine exit will: Answer: B
A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. Remains the same
D. None of these

49. Assume the mass flow rate is maintained the same, when the simple ideal Rankine cycle is modified
with reheating, the pump work input will: Answer: C
A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. Remains the same
D. None of these
50. In an ideal Rankine cycle with fixed boiler and condenser pressures. What is the effect of superheating
the steam to a higher temperature, the turbine work input will: Answer: A
A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. Remains the same
D. None of these

51. In an ideal Rankine cycle with fixed boiler and condenser pressures. What is the effect of superheating
the steam to a higher temperature, the heat added will: Answer: A
A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. Remains the same
D. None of these

52. In an ideal Rankine cycle with fixed boiler and condenser pressures. What is the effect of superheating
the steam to a higher temperature, the heat rejected will: Answer: A
A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. Remains the same
D. None of these

53. In an ideal Rankine cycle with fixed boiler and condenser pressures. What is the effect of superheating
the steam to a higher temperature, the cycle efficiency will: Answer: A
A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. Remains the same
D. None of these

54. In an ideal Rankine cycle with fixed boiler and condenser pressures. What is the effect of superheating
the steam to a higher temperature, the moisture content at turbine exit will: Answer: B
A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. Remains the same
D. None of these

55. How do the following quantities change when the simple ideal Rankine cycle is modified with
regeneration? The turbine work output will: Answer: B
A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. Remain the same
D. None of these

56. How do the following quantities change when the simple ideal Rankine cycle is modified with
regeneration? The turbine heat added will: Answer: B
A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. Remain the same
D. None of these
57. How do the following quantities change when the simple ideal Rankine cycle is modified with
regeneration? The heat rejected will: Answer: B
A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. Remain the same
D. None of these

58. How do the following quantities change when the simple ideal Rankine cycle is modified with
regeneration? The cycle efficiency will: Answer: A
A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. Remain the same
D. None of these

59. How do the following quantities change when the simple ideal Rankine cycle is modified with
regeneration? The moisture content at turbine exit will :Answer: C
A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. Remain the same
D. None of these

60. Any material which can be burned to release energy is called a: Answer: A
A. Fuel
B. Gas
C. Coal
D. Uranium

61. Hydrocarbon fuels are primarily consist of :Answer: B

A. Oxygen and nitrogen
B. Hydrogen and carbon
C. Air and fuel
D. Helium and sulfur

62. A gasoline is treated as octane, _______. : Answer: C

A. C12 H 18
B. C4 H 8
C. C8 H 18
D. C14 H 30

63. A _________ is treated as dodecagon, C12 H 26 . Answer: D

A. Alcohol fuel
B. Solid fuel
C. Methane fuel
D. Diesel fuel

64. The gaseous hydrocarbon fuel natural gas is sometimes treated as ______, C H4
A. Methane
B. Propane
C. Ethane
 D. Trochane
65. A chemical reaction during which a fuel is oxidized and a large energy is released is called: Answer: B
A. Reaction
B. Combustion
C. Oxidation
D. Chemical reaction

66. Is used as an oxidizer only is some specialized applications, such as cutting and welding. Answer: D
A. Pure gas, CH
B. Pure carbon, C
C. Pure nitrogen, N 2
D. Pure Oxygen, O 2

67. During a combustion process, the components which exist before the reaction are called: Answer: C
A. Reaction
B. Combustion
C. Reactants
D. Product

68. The components which exist after the reaction are called: Answer: B
A. Results
B. Products
C. Mixture
D. None of these

69. The fuel must be brought _______ to start the combustion, Answer: C
A. Below its ignition temperature
B. Midway its ignition temperature
C. Above its ignition temperature
D. Above its maximum allowable value

70. The minimum ignition temperature various substances in atmospheric air ate approximately ______
for gasoline, 400°C for carbon, 580°C for hydrogen, 610°C for carbon monoxide, and 630°C for methane.
Answer: D
A. 200°C
B. 220°C
C. 240°C
D. 260°C

71. The total mass of each element is conserved during a: Answer: D

A. Chemical emission
B. Chemical transmission
C. Chemical union
D. Chemical reaction

72. The total number of moles is not conserved during a: Answer: C

A. Chemical sublimation
B. Chemical interaction
C. Chemical reaction
 D. Chemical direction

73. The frequency used quantity in the analysis of combustion processed to quantity the amounts of fuel
and air is called:Answer: B
A. Fuel – air ratio
B. Air – fuel ratio
C. Combustion ratio
D. Backwork ratio

74. A combustion process is complete if all the carbon in the fuel burns to CO2 , all the hydrogen
burns to H 2 O , and all the sulfur burns to: Answer: A
A. SO 2
B. S 2 O2
C. SO
D. Ash

75. A combustion is ______ if the combustion products contain any unburned fuel of components such
as C, H 2 , CO, or OH. Answer: B
A. Complete
B. Incomplete
C. Sustainable
D. Allowable

76. Is an obvious reason for incomplete combustion.Answer: D

A. Insufficient carbon
B. Insufficient air
C. Insufficient nitrogen
D. Insufficient oxygen

77. The minimum amount of air needed for the complete combustion of fuel is called the: Answer: B
A. Actual – fuel air
B. Theoretical air
C. 50% air
D. 90% air

78. The theoretical air is also referred to as the chemical correct amount of air, or, Answer: D
A. 120% theoretical air
B. 50% theoretical air
C. 0% actual air
D. 100% theoretical air

79. Theoretical air is also know as: Answer: D

A. Actual air
B. Exact theoretical air
C. Zero excess air
D. Stoichiometric air
80. The amount of air in excess of the stoichiometric amount is called: Answer: A
A. Excess air
B. Excessive air
C. Controllable air
D. Excess theoretical air

81. Amount of air less than the stoichiometric amount are called: Answer : D
A. Excess air
B. Inefficiency of air
C. Incremental air
D. Deficiency of air

82. A commonly device to analyze the composition of combustion gases is the: Answer: C
A. Volumetric analyzer
B. Gravimetric analyzer
C. Orsat analyzer
D. None of these

83. Is the difference between the enthalpy of the products at a specified state and the enthalpy of
reactants at the same state for a complete reaction.Answer: B
A. Chemical energy of reaction
B. Enthalpy of reaction
C. Internal energy of reaction
D. Kinetic energy reaction

84. Represents the amount of heat released during a steady – flow combustion process when 1 kmol of
fuel is burned completely at a specified temperature and pressure. Answer: D
A. Chemical energy of reaction
B. Enthalpy of reaction
C. Internal energy of reaction
D. Enthalpy of combustion

85. Enthalpy of formation is the enthalpy of a substance at a specified state due to its: Answer: B
A. Energy composition
B. Chemical composition
C. Internal energy of reaction
D. Enthalpy of combustion

86. Is the amount of energy released when a fuel is burned completely in a steady – flow process and the
products are returned to the state of the reactants.Answer: A
A. heating value
B. reactor
C. combustion
D. none of these
87. Higher heating value when H 2 O in the product of combustion is in: Answer: D
A. solid form
B. vapor form
C. gas form
D. liquid form

88. Lower heating value when H 2 O in the product of combustion is in: Answer: B
A. gas form
B. vapor form
C. liquid form
D. direct form

89. In the limiting case of no heat loss of the surroundings, the temperature of the products will reached
a maximum, which is called the: Answer: B
A. non – adiabatic form
B. adiabatic flame
C. combustion flame
D. adjustable flame

90. The entropy of a pure crystalline substance at _______ is zero. Answer: B

A. 0°F
B. Absolute zero temperature
C. Atmospheric zero temperature
D. None of these

91. Converted electric energy to chemical energy. Answer: A

A. Fuel cells
B. Converter
C. Photovoltaic cell
D. Generator

92. A major application area of thermodynamics is: Answer: B

A. Machining
B. Refrigeration
C. Compressor
D. Heat and energy

93. Devices which produce refrigeration are called: Answer: C

A. Air – conditioner
B. Heat pump
C. Refrigerators
D. None of these

94. The most frequently used refrigeration cycle is the: Answer: D

 A. Absorption
B. Steam – jet
C. Ammonia
D. Vapor – compression
95. Heat flows on the direction of decreasing: Answer: B
A. Pressure
B. Temperature
C. Volume
D. Density

96. The transfer of heat from temperature region to a high temperature one requires special device
known as: Answer: A
A. Refrigerator
B. Air – conditioner
C. Heat pump
D. Humidifier

97. Device which transfer heat from low temperature medium to high temperature one is a: Answer: D
A. Adiabatic
B. Refrigerator
C. Heat exchanger
D. Heat pump

98. The object of a heat pump is to maintain a heated space at a: Answer: D

A. Low pressure
B. High pressure
C. Low temperature
D. High temperature

99. The capacity of refrigeration that can freeze 1 ton of liquid water at 0°C into ice at 0°C in 24 hours is
said to be
A. 1 ton of refrigeration
B. 1 Mton of refrigeration
C. 1 EER
D. 1 ton of air – conditioning

100. Hydrocarbon fuels are primarily consist of :Answer: B

E. Oxygen and nitrogen
F. Hydrogen and carbon
G. Air and fuel
H. Helium and sulfur
1. A rule of thumb is that the COP improves by _________ for each 0 C the evaporating temperature is
raised or the condensing temperature is lowered. Answer: A
A. 2 to 4 percent
B. 6 to 7 percent
C. 1 to 5 percent
D. 6 to 10 percent

2. Diagram frequently used in the analysis of vapor compression cycle is the. Answer: B
A. T-s diagram
B. P-h diagram
C. P-v diagram
D. H-s diagram

3. Two common source of irreversibilities are: Answer: D

A. Pressure and temperature
B. Specific volume and fuel
C. Volume and temperature
D. Fluid friction and heat transfer

4. Was the first commercially used refrigerant in vapor compression system: Answer: D
A. Ammonia
B. R-11
C. Ethyl alcohol
D. Ethyl ether

5. The advantages of ammonia over other refrigerants are its: Answer: D

A. High power
B. High refrigerating effect
C. None flammable
D. Low cost and higher COP

6. Is predominantly used in food refrigeration facilities. Answer: A

A. Ammonia
B. R-12
C. R-11
D. Water

7. Is used primarily in large-capacity water chillers serving air conditioning system in buildings.
Answer: A
A. R-11
B. R-12
C. Ethyl chloride
D. Ammonia

8. Is used in domestic refrigerators and freezers, as well as automotive air conditioners. Answer: C
A. Air
B. R-11
C. R-12
 D. Water

9. Is used in window air-conditioners, heat pumps, air conditioners of commercial buildings. Answer:
C
A. R-102
B. R-33
C. R-22
D. R-202

10. Two important factor which need to be considered in the selection of a refrigerant are the
temperatures of the two media are the, Answer: C
A. Surroundings and type of refrigerant
B. Combustible and rating
C. Refrigerated space and the environment
D. None of these

11. To have heat transfer at a reasonable rate, a temperature difference of ________ should be
maintained between the refrigerant and medium with which it is exchanging. Answer: A
A. 5 to 10 percent
B. 5 to 15 percent
C. 5 to 20 percent
D. 5 to 25 percent

12. The temperature of the refrigerant on the condenser side depends on the medium to which heat is.
Answer: B
A. Added
B. Rejected
C. Constant
D. None of these

13. Lower temperature in the condenser can be maintained if the refrigerant is cooled by water instead of
_______. Answer: C
A. Brine
B. Water
C. Air
D. Gas

14. In the case of heat pumps, the minimum temperature ( and pressure ) for the refrigerant may be
considerably. Answer: A
A. Higher
B. Lower
C. Fixed
D. None of these

15. Are generally more expensive to purchase and install than other heating systems, but they save
money in the long run. Answer: C
A. Refrigerator
B. Adiabator
 C. Heat pumps
D. Humidifier

16. The most common energy source for heat pumps is. Answer: B
A. Compressed air
B. Atmospheric air
C. Vacuum air
D. Re-circulated air

17. The major problem with air-source system is frosting. Which occurs in humid climates when the
temperature falls below Answer:
A. 2 to 5 0 C
B. 2 to 10 0 C
C. 2 to 15 0 C
D. 2 to 20 0 C

18. Both the capacity and the efficiency of a heat pump fall significantly at: Answer: D
A. Medium temperature
B. Maximum temperature
C. Allowable temperature
D. Low temperature

19. Heat pumps and air conditioners have the same: Answer: D
A. Suction
B. Evaporator
C. Refrigerant
D. Mechanical components

20. For large industrial applications, ______ is the major concern: Answer: C
A. Effectiveness
B. Compression ratio
C. Efficiency
D. None of these
21. At temperature above the critical-point value, as a substance exist in the: Answer: B
A. Liquid phase only
B. Gas phase only
C. Solid phase only
D. None of these

22. ___________ cycle is also known as gas refrigeration cycle: Answer: A

A. Reversed Brayton
B. Reversed Rankine cycle
C. Reversed Adiabatic cycle
D. None of these

23. Another form of refrigeration which becomes economically attractive when there is a source of
inexpensive heat at a temperature of 100 to 200 0 C is: Answer: C
A. Steam-jet refrigeration
B. Ammonia refrigeration
C. Absorption refrigeration
 D. Vapor compression cycle

24. The most widely used absorption used absorption system is the ammonia-water system, where
ammonia is serves as refrigerant and H2 O as the: Answer: D
A. Cooling
B. Heating
C. Heating and cooling
D. Transport medium

25. The circuit which incorporates both thermal and electrical effects is called: Answer: A
A. Thermoelectric circuit
B. Thermocouple
C. Battery
D. None of these

26. The difference between c pand cv___________ as the absolute temperature approaches zero.
Answer: C
A. Approaches infinity
B. 100
C. Approaches zero
D. Approaches finite value

27. Id Joule Thomson coefficient is less than 0, then the temperature: Answer: A
A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Remains constant
D. None of these
28.

29. Composition of mixture that specifying the number of mole of each component is called: Answer: D
A. Gravimetric analysis
B. Ultimate analysis
C. Proximate analysis
D. Molal analysis

30. Composition of mixture that specifying the number of mass of each component is called: Answer: B
A. Orsat analysis
B. Gravimetric analysis
C. Heat analysis
D. Proximate analysis

31. Is the ratio of mass of component to the mass of the mixture.Answer: B

A. Mass mole
B. Mass friction
C. Mass disintegration
D. Mass long

32. The pressure of a gas mixture is equal to the sum of the pressure each gas would exert if it existed
alone at the mixture. Answer: D
A. Pressure and temperature
 B. Volume
C. Density
D. Temperature and volume

33. The volume of a gas mixture is equal to the sum of the volumes each gas woul occupy if it existed
alone at the mixture. Answer: C
A. Pressure and volume
B. Temperature and density
C. Temperature and pressure
D. Humidity

34. At temperature below the critical temperature, the gas phase of a substance is frequently referred as:
Answer: D
A. Gas
B. Liquid
C. Fluid
D. Vapor

35. Is a mixture of Nitrogen.Oxygen, and small amounts of some other gases. Answer: B
A. Carbon
B. Air
C. Water
D. Gas

36. The air that contains no water vapor is called: Answer: C

A. Zero pressure
B. Gage pressure
C. Atmosphere
D. None of these

37. The air that contains no water vapor is called: Answer: C

A. Zero air
B. Saturated air
C. Dry air
D. Humid air

38. The composition of dry air remains relatively constant but the amount of water vapor: Answer: B
A. Is fixed
B. Changes
C. Is constant
D. None of these

39. The temperature of air in an air-conditioning application ranges from about: Answer: A
A. -100 C to 500 C
B. -100 C to 400 C
C. -120 C to 100 C
D. None of these
40. The partial pressure of water vapor is usually reffered to as the: Answer: B
A. Gas
B. Vapor
C. Steam
D. Mixture

41. Is the pressure the water would exert if it existed alone at the temperature and volume of the mixture:
Answer: A
A. Vapor pressure
B. Saturated pressure
C. Vapor pressure
D. None of these

42. Water vapor is an ideal gas, enthalpy of water vapor is a function of. Answer: D
A. Pressure only
B. Volume only
C. Enthalpy only
D. Temperature only

43. In Psychrometric chart, the constant-enthalpy lines coincide with constant-temperature lines at
temperature Answer: D
A. Above 50 0 C
B. Below 40 0 C
C. Below 50 0 C
D. Above 10 0 C

44. The enthalpy of water vapor in air can be taken to be equal to the enthalpy of the saturated vapor at:
Answer: D
A. The same specific volume
B. The same entropy
C. The same internal energy
D. The same temperature

45. The mass of water vapor present in a unit mass of dry is called. Answer: A
A. Specific humidity
B. Specific volume
C. Percent humidity
D. None of these

46. The specific humidity of dry air is. Answer: C

A. One
B. 100%
C. Zero
D. 90%

47. By adding humidity ratio to dry air, the specific humidity will. Answer: A
A. Increases
B. Decreases
 C. Remains constant
D. None of these

48. Air is said to be saturated with moisture is known as. Answer: C

A. Saturated vapor
B. Saturated liquid
C. Saturated air
D. None of these

49. Any moisture introduce into saturated air will. Answer: B

A. Vaporized
B. Condense
C. Solidify
D. Moisturized

50. Any amount of moisture in the air has a _________on the comfortable we feel in an environment.
Answer: D
A. Definite forms
B. Definite moisture
C. Definite characteristics
D. Definite effect

51. Is the ratio of water-vapor mixture and saturated pressure at given temperature: Answer: B
A. Percent saturation
B. Relative humidity
C. Humidifier
D. None of these

52. The relative humidity ranges from 0 to dry air to 1 for: Answer: D
A. Superheater air
B. Dry air
C. Stratified air
D. Saturated air

53. The amount of moisture in air depends on its. Answer: C

A. Pressure
B. Volume
C. Temperature
D. Humidity

54.

55. The relative humidity of air changes with temperature even when its specific humidity. Answer: C
A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Remains constant
D. None of these

56. The enthalpy of atmospheric air is expressed per unit mass of. Answer: C
A. Water
B. Cold air
 C. Dry air
D. None of these
57. The ordinary temperature of atmospheric air is frequently reffered to as the. Answer: B
A. Wet bulb temperature
B. Dry-bulb temperature
C. Allowable temperature
D. None of these

58. Is defined as the temperature at which condensation begins if the air cooled at constant pressure.
Answer: B
A. Allowable maximum temperature
B. Dew point temperature
C. Co-valent temperature
D. Equibalent temperature

59. The dew point temperature is the saturation temperature of water corresponding to the. Answer: C
A. Vapor temperature
B. Vapor mixture
C. Vapor pressure
D. None of these

60. As the air cools at constant pressure the vapor pressure. Answer: C
A. Increases
B. Decrease
C. Remains constant
D. None of these

61. The ordinary temperature and the dew-point temperature of saturated air are. Answer: D
A. Different
B. Slight difference
C. Unique
D. Identical

62. The adiabatic saturation process involves no intersection, and the kinetic and potential energy
changes. Answer: D
A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Remains constant
D. None of these
63. In general, the adiabatic saturation temperature and the wet-bulb temperature. Answer: C
A. The same
B. Constant
C. Not the same
D. None of these

64. For saturated air, ________________are identical. Answer: C

A. Wet bulb and dew point temperature
B. Dew point temperature
C. The dry-bulb, wet bulb and dew point temperature
 D. The dry-bulb and saturated

65. The rate of heat generated by body: adult male – 87 watts when sleeping, 115 when resting or doing
office work, 230 watts when bowling and ________ when making heavy works. Answer: D
A. 400 watts
B. 410 watts
C. 420 watts
D. 440 watts

66. The deep body temperature of healthy person is maintained constant at. Answer: B
A. 270 C
B. 370 C
C. 470 C
D. 480 C

67. Heat transfer is proportional to. Answer: B

A. Pressure difference
B. Temperature difference
C. Density
D. Penetration

68. The hands feel painfully cold when the skin temperature reaches. Answer: C
A. 00 C
B. 50 C
C. 100 C
D. 150 C

69. Factor that affects human comfort is heat transfer by __________ between the body and surrounding
surface. Answer: B
A. Convection
B. Radiation
C. Conduction
D. None of these

70. The comfort of the human body depends primarily on. Answer: D
A. Dry bulb
B. Relative humidity
C. Air motion
D. All of these

71. Most people feel comfortable when the environment temperature is between. Answer: A
A. 220 C and 270 C
B. 200 C and 400 C
 C. 340 C and 400 C
D. None of these

72. Is a measure of air’s ability to absorb more moisture: Answer: B

A. Percent saturation
B. Relative humidity
C. Specific volume
D. None of these

73. Most people prefer a relative humidity of. Answer: C

A. 20 to 30%
B. 30 to 4o%
C. 40 to 60%
D. None of these

74. Air motion also plays important role in. Answer: C

A. Surroundings
B. Cooling
C. Human comfort
D. None of these

75. Removes the warm, moist air that builds up around the body and replaces it with fresh air.Answer: A
A. Air motion
B. Stratifiier
C. Air-conditioner
D. None of these

76. Most people feel comfortable at an airspeed of about: Answer: C

A. 12 m/min
B. 13 m/min
C. 15 m/min
D. None of these

77. Other factors that affect comfort are. Answer: D

A. Cleanliness
B. Odor
C. Noise and radiation effect
D. None of these

78. Maintain a living space or an industrial facility at the desired temperature and humidity requires
some process called. Answer: B
A. Refrigeration process
B. Air-conditioning process
C. Cooling process
D. None of these

79. Simple heating process of air-conditioning. Answer: C

A. Minimizing the temperature
B. Limiting the temperature
 C. Raising the temperature
D. None of these

80. Simple cooling process of air-conditioning. Answer: C

A. Maximizing the temperature
B. Hinder the temperature
C. Lowering the temperature
D. None of these

81. ______________ of air-conditioning is adding moisture to air. Answer: A

A. Humidifying process
B. Dehumidifying process
C. Heating process
D. None of these

82. ______________ of air-conditioning is removing moisture. Answer: A

A. Dehumidifying process
B. Humidifying process
C. Cooling process
D. None of these

83. During simple heating and cooling process has a __________ humidity ratio. Answer: C
A. Increasing
B. Decreasing
C. Constant
D. None of these

84.
85. Air is commonly ___________ in winter and cooled and dehumified during summer. Answer: A
A. Heated and humidified
B. Cooling and dehumified
C. Adiabatic saturation
D. None of these

86. Dry bulb temperature is increasing during. Answer: B

A. Cooling process
B. Heating process
C. Cooling and heating process
D. None of these

87. Relative humidity decreases during: Answer: A

A. Heating process
B. Cooling process
C. Isothermal process
D. None of these

88. Dry bulb temperature _______ during cooling process. Answer: B

A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Remains constant
D. None of these
89. Problems associated with the low relative humidity resulting from simple heating can be eliminated
by: Answer: C
A. Cooling
B. Dehumidifying
C. Humidifying the heated air
D. None of these

90. The specify humidity of air remains constant during a simple cooling process, but its relative
humidity. Answer: A
A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. Remains constant
D. None of these

91. Evaporative coolers is also known as: Answer: C

A. Heat exchanger
B. Swamp controllers
C. Swamp coolers
D. None of these

92. The evaporative cooling process essentially identical to the adiabatic saturation process since the heat
transfer between the air steam and the surroundings is usually: Answer: C
A. Positive
B. Negative
C. Negligible
D. None of these

93. The _________ follows a line of constant wet – bulb temperature on the psychometric chart.
Answer: A
A. Evaporative cooling process
B. Condensive cooling process
C. Direct cooling process
D. None of these

94. The heat transfer with the surroundings is usually small, and thus the mixing process can be assumed:
Answer: B
A. Isentropic
B. Adiabatic
C. Isothermal
D. None of these

95. Mixing process normally involve no work interactions, and the changes in kinetic and potential
energies are: Answer: C
A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Negligible
D. None of these

96. _________ looks like an ordinary chimney. Answer: A

A. Natural draft cooling tower
 B. Forced draft cooling tower
C. Natural cooling tower
D. None of these

97. _______ do not require any external power. Answer: A

A. Natural draft cooling tower
B. Forced draft cooling tower
C. Natural cooling tower
D. None of these

98. The natural – draft cooling towers are ______ in profile. Answer: B
A. Parabolic
B. Hyperbolic
C. Circular
D. None of these

99. The idea of cooling tower started with the: Answer: C

A. Cooling pond
B. Ejector pond
C. Spray pond
D. None of these

100. Is basically a large lake open to the atmosphere, Answer: C

A. Forced pond
B. Natural pond
C. Cooling pond
D. None of these
1. A substance which has a fixed chemical composition through out is called a: Answer: B
A. Simple substance
B. Pure substance
C. Vapor substance
D. None of these

2. A liquid which is about to vaporize is called a: Answer: C

A. Sub cooled liquid
B. Saturated vapor
C. Saturated liquid
D. None of these

3. The temperature during the entire phase – change process remains constant if the pressure. Answer: C
A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. Remains constant
D. None of these

4. A vapor which is about to condense is called a. Answer: A

A. Saturated vapor
B. Saturated liquid
C. Superheated vapor
D. None of these
5. A vapor which is not about to condense is called a: Answer: C
A. Mixture of vapor and liquid
B. Critical vapor
C. Superheated vapor
D. None of these

6. The temperature of which water starts boiling depends on the _____: therefore, if the pressure is fixed,
so is the boiling temperature. Answer: B
A. Temperature
B. Pressure
C. Entropy
D. None of these

7. At a given pressure, the temperature at which a pure substance starts boiling is called the: Answer: A
A. Saturation temperature
B. Sub cooled temperature
C. Superheated temperature
D. None of these

8. At a given temperature, the pressure ay which a pure substance starts boiling is called the: Answer: A
A. Saturated pressure
B. Critical pressure
C. Superheated pressure
D. None of these

9. The atmospheric pressure and boiling temperature of water decreases with: Answer: C
A. Power
B. Density
C. Elevation
D. None of these

10. Is the point at which the saturated liquid and saturated vapor are identical. Answer: C
A. Saturation point
B. Boiling point
C. Critical point
D. None of these

11. The critical point temperature of water is: Answer: B

A. 386.34°C
B. 374.14°C
C. 398.45°C
D. None of these

12. The critical pressure of water is: Answer: B

A. 20 Mpa
B. 22 Mpa
C. 28 Mpa
D. None of these
13. The critical specific volume of air is: Answer: A
A. 0.003155 m 3 /kg
B. 0.004566 m 3 /kg
C. 0.006567 m 3 /kg
D. None of these

14. Liquid vapor region is also known as: Answer: C

A. Sub cooled region
B. Superheated region
C. Wet region
D. None of these

15. Passing from the solid phase directly into vapor phase is called: Answer: C
A. Condensation
B. Fusion
C. Sublimation
D. None of these

16. Phase diagram of pure substance is: Answer: B

A. H – s diagram
B. T – s diagram
C. P – T diagram
D. None of these

17. Enthalpy of vaporization represents the amount of energy needed to vaporized a unit mass of saturated
liquid at a given :Answer: A
A. Temperature or pressure
B. Specific volume
C. Enthalpy
D. None of these

18. Enthalpy of vaporization decreases as the temperature or pressure increases, and it becomes zero at
the: Answer: A
A. Crtitical point
B. Triple point
C. Saturation point
D. None of these

19. The _______ is the ratio of mass of vapor to the total mass of mixture. Answer: B
A. Moisture
B. Quality
C. Mixture
D. None of these

20. The quality of a system consisting of saturated liquid is: Answer: A

A. Zero
B. 1
C. Unity
 D. None of these

21. The quality of a system consisting of saturated vapor is: Answer: C

A. 0%
B. 50%
C. 100%
D. None of these

22. During the _______, only the amount of saturated liquid changes, not its properties. Answer: B
A. Liquefaction process
B. Vaporization process
C. Heating process
D. None of these

23. Any equation that relates the pressure, temperature and specific volume of a substance is called:
Answer: A
A. Equation of state
B. Property of equation
C. Charle’s law
D. None of these

24. Robert Boyle observed during his experiments with vacuum chamber that the pressure of gases is
inversely proportional to their: Answer: C
A. Temperature
B. Pressure
C. Volume
D. None of these
25. At low pressures and high temperatures, the density of gas: Answer: B
A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. Remains the same
D. None of these

26. The deviation from ideal – gas behavior at a given temperature and pressure can accurately be
accounted for by the introduction of a correction factor called: Answer: C
A. Expansion factor
B. Gaseous factor
C. Compressibility factor
D. None of these

27. Is the ratio of actual specific volume to the ideal specific volume.Answer: C
A. Expansion factor
B. Gaseous factor
C. Compressibility factor
D. None of these
28. At very low pressure, the gases behave as an: Answer: C
A. Vapor
B. Pure substance
C. Ideal gas
D. None of these
29. At high temperature ideal gas behavior can be assumed with good accuracy regardless of: Answer: B
A. Temperature
B. Pressure
C. Volume
D. None of these

30. The deviation of a gas from ideal gas behavior is greatest in the vicinity of the: Answer: C
A. Sublimation point
B. Saturation point
C. Critical point
D. None of these

31.__________ intended to improve the ideal – gas equation of state by including two of the effects not
considered in the ideal gas model with constant a and b. Answer: C
A. Charle’s law
B. Boyle’s law
C. Van der Waal’s
D. None of these

32. First law of thermodynamics is the law of. Answer: B

A. Conversation of momentum
B. Conversation of energy principle
C. Conversation of energy interaction
D. None of these

33. States that during an interaction between a system and its surroundings, the amount of energy gained
by the system must be exactly the same amount of energy lost by the surroundings. Answer: A
A. First law of thermodynamics
B. Second law of thermodynamics
C. Third law of thermodynamics
D. None of these

34. Heat is the form of energy that is transferred between two systems by virtue of: Answer: A
A. Temperature difference
B. Pressure difference
C. Volume difference
D. None of these

35. _______ is energy in transistion. Answer: A

A. Heat
B. Work
C. Power
D. None of these

36. A process during which there is no heat transfer is called an: Answer: C
A. Isochoric process
B. Hyperbolic process
C. Adiabatic process
D. None of these
37. Is the transfer of energy from the more energetic particles of a substance to the adjacent less energetic
ones as a result of interaction between the particles.Answer: A
A. Conduction
B. convection
C. radiation
D. None of these

38. ________ of the material is a measure of the ability of a material to conduct heat. Answer: C
A. Convection
B. Thermal radiation
C. Thermal conductivity
D. None of these

39. Indicates that the rate of heat conduction in a direction is proportional to the temperature gradient in
that direction. Answer: C
A. Farad’s Law
B. Newton’s Law
C. Fourier’s Law
D. None of these

40. Heat is conducted in the direction of: Answer: B

A. Increasing temperature
B. Decreasing temperature
C. Decreasing pressure
D. None of these

41.Temperature gradient becomes negative when temperature decreases with: Answer: C

A. Increasing temperature
B. Increasing area
C. Increasing wall thickness
D. None of these

42. Is a measure of the kinetic energies of the molecules.Answer: A

A. Temperature
B. Pressure
C. Volume
D. None of these

43. Is the mode of energy transfer between a solid surface and the adjacent liquid or gas which is in
motion, and it involves combine effects of conduction and fluid motion. Answer: B
A. Conduction
B. Convection
C. Radiation
D. None of these

44. The faster the fluid motion, the greater the: Answer: C
A. Conductive heat transfer
B. Radiative heat transfer
C. Convection heat transfer
D. None of these
45. If the fluid is forced to flow in a tube or over a surface by external means. Answer: B
A. Natural convection
B. Force convection
C. Free convection
D. None of these

46. If the motion is caused by buoyancy forces which are induced by the density differences due to the
vibration of temperature in the fluid. Answer: A
A. Free convection
B. Natural convection
C. Forced convection
D. None of these

47._________ which involve change of phase of a fluid are also considered to be convection because of
the fluid motion introduced during the process. Answer: A
A. Heat transfer process
B. Adiabatic process
C. Cooling process
D. None of these

48. The rate of heat transfer by convection is determined from: Answer: B

A. Fourier’s law of cooling
B. Newton’s law of cooling
C. Charle’s law of cooling
D. None of these

49. Is the energy emitted by matter in the form of electromagnetic waves as a result of the changes in the
electronic configurations of the atoms or molecules.Answer: A
A. Radiation
B. Conduction
C. Convection
D. None of these

50. Energy transfer by radiation is fastest and it suffers no attenuation in: Answer: C
A. Positive pressure
B. Maximum pressure
C. A vacuum
D. None of these

51. Which of the form of radiation emitted by bodies because of their temperature. Answer: C
A. Convection
B. Conduction
C. Thermal radiation
D. None of these

52. Is a volumetric phenomenon, and all solids, liquids, and gases emit, absorb, or transmit radiation to
varying degrees. Answer: B
A. Convection
B. Radiation
C. Heat
 D. None of these

53. Radiation is usually considered as: Answer: A

A. Surface phenomenon
B. Surface interaction
C. Surface corrosion
D. None of these

54. The maximum rate of radiation which can be emitted from a surface at an absolute temperature is
given by: Answer: A
A. Stefan – Boltzmann law
B. Newton’s law
C. Maxwell’s law
D. None of these

55. The idealized surface which emits radiation at this maximum rate is called: Answer: C
A. Blue body
B. Reservoir
C. Black body
D. None of these

56. The radiation emitted by blackbody is called a: Answer: A

A. Blackbody radiation
B. White body radiation
C. Blue body radiation
D. None of these
57. All bodies at a temperature above absolute zero emit: Answer: B
A. Thermal convection
B. Thermal radiation
C. Thermal conduction
D. None of these

58. The velocity of fluid in a pipe is _______ at the wall: Answer: A

A. Zero
B. One
C. Infinity
D. None of these

59. The velocity of a fluid at the center of pipe is: Answer: A

A. Maximum
B. Minimum
C. Allowable maximum
D. None of these

60. Kirchoff’s law of radiation states that the emissivity and the absorptivity of a surface are equal at the
same temperature and: Answer: C
A. Mach number
B. Velocity
C. Wavelength
D. None of these
61. The difference between the rates of radiation emitted by the surface and the radiation absorbed is the:
Answer: B
A. Natural convection
B. Net radiation heat transfer
C. Heat added
D. None of these

62. Work is ______ between the system and the surroundings. Answer: B
A. Work interaction
B. Energy interaction
C. Heat interaction
D. None of these

63. Energy can cross the system by means of: Answer: C

A. Pressure
B. Energy
C. Heat and work
D. None of these

64. If the energy crossing the boundary of a closed system is not heat, ________. Answer: A
A. It must be work
B. It must be power
C. It must be interaction
D. None of these

65. The driving force of heat is the: Answer: C

A. Thickness
B. Area
C. Temperature difference
D. None of these

66. Is the energy transfer associated with a force acting through a distance. Answer: B
A. Energy
B. Work
C. Power
D. None of these

67. The work per unit time is called: Answer: C

A. Energy
B. Work
C. Power
D. None of these

68. Work done by a system is: Answer: A

A. Positive
B. Negative
C. Zero
D. None of these

69. Work done on a system is: Answer: B

 A. Positive
B. Negative
C. Zero
D. None of these

70. The work produced by car engines, hydraulic, steam, or by a gas turbines is: Answer: A
A. Positive
B. Negative
C. Infinity
D. None of these

71. Work consumed by compressors, pumps, and mixers are: Answer: C

A. Zero
B. Infinity
C. Negative
D. None of these

72. The energy of a system decreases: Answer: A

A. As it does work
B. As it does energy
C. As it does power
D. None of these

73. The energy of system increases as work is: Answer: B

A. Done by the system
B. Done on the system
C. Cross the system
D. None of these

74. One form of mechanical work frequently encountered in practice is associated with the expansion or
compression of a gas in a: Answer: C
A. Screw drive
B. Hydraulic device
C. Piston – cylinder device
D. None of these

75. The expansion and compression work often called: Answer: B

A. Steady boundary work
B. Moving boundary work
C. Critical work
D. None of these

76. Is the process during which the system remains in equilibrium at all times. Answer: A
A. Quasi – equilibrium
B. Static equilibrium
C. Dynamic equilibrium
D. None of these
77. The volume change is positive during an expansion process and negative during a: Answer: B
A. Expansion process
B. Compression process
C. Steady flow process
D. None of these

78. The area under the process curve on a P – V diagram is equal to: Answer: B
A. Heat
B. Work done
C. Power
D. None of these

79. Is the work done by or against a gravitational force field.Answer: A

A. Gravitational work
B. Impact work
C. Kinetic work
D. None of these

80. The work associated with a change in velocity of a system is called: Answer: B
A. Speed work
B. Acceleration work
C. Work combination
D. None of these

81. The power transmitted by the shaft is the shaft per: Answer: C
A. Mass of flow
B. Volume flow
C. Unit time
D. None of these

82.The microscopic force are perpendicular to any line in the surface, and the force generated by these
forces per unit length is called the: Answer: C
A. Buoyancy
B. Weight
C. Surface tension
D. None of these

83. Electrical – wok the force is: Answer: B

A. Current
B. Voltage
C. Battery
D. None of these

84. First law of thermodynamics is known as the: Answer: C

A. Conservation of electrons
B. Conservation of atoms
C. Conservation of energy
D. None of these
85. States that energy can be neither be created nor destroyed. Answer: A
A. First law of thermodynamics
B. Second law of thermodynamics
C. Third law of thermodynamics
D. None of these

86. A major consequences of the first law is the existence and the definition of the property is:
Answer: C
A. Total work
B. Total heat
C. Total energy
D. None of these

87. In the absence of any work interactions between a system and its surroundings, the amount of net heat
transfer is equal: Answer: A
A. To the change in the total energy of a closed system.
B. To heat and work
C. Energy interactions
D. None of these

88. For _________, the amount of work done is equal to the change in the total energy of a closed system.
Answer: C
A. Isobaric process
B. Heating process
C. Adiabatic process
D. None of these
89. Is the energy storage capabilities of the substance.Answer: A
A. Specific heat
B. Specific heat ratio
C. Diabatic
D. None of these

90. Specific heat is the energy required to raise the temperature of a unit mass of a substance by:
Answer: A
A. One degree
B. Two degree
C. Three degree
D. None of these

91. Constant volume specific heat is the energy required to raise the temperature of a unit mass by one
degree as the volume is: Answer: C
A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. Maintained constant
D. None of these

92. The specific heat heats of real gas at low pressure are called ideal – gas specific heats or: Answer: A
A. Zero pressure specific heats
B. Zero temperature specific heats
C. Non – zero specific heats
D. None of these
93. The specific heat varies with: Answer: A
A. Temperature
B. Specific volume
C. Pressure
D. None of these

94. A substance whose specific volume (or density) is constant is called: Answer: B
A. Compressible substance
B. Incompressible substance
C. Compressible gas
D. None of these

95. The constant volume and constant pressure specific heats are identical for: Answer: B
A. Compressible substance
B. Incompressible substance
C. Compressible gas
D. None of these

96. The energy requirements of a body is met by the: Answer: C

A. Water we drink
B. Meat we eat
C. Food we eat
D. None of these

97. The boundaries of a control volume are called a: Answer: C

A. Control volume
B. Control boundary
C. Control surface
D. None of these

98. Control volume can be fixed in: Answer: C

A. Pressure
B. Temperature
C. Size and shapes
D. None of these

99. The term steady implies: Answer: A

A. No change with time
B. Change with time
C. Change with velocity
D. None of these

100. The COP of reversed Carnot increases as the difference between the two temperatures: Answer: A
A. Specified region
B. Specified space
C. Specified entropy
D. None of these
1. The __________ is the most fundamental principle in nature. Answer: B
A. Conservation in nature
B. Conservation of mass
C. Conspiracy theory
D. None of these

2. Formulates E = mc2 is ____________: Answer: A

A. Einstein
B. Newton
C. Euclid
D. None of these

3. The conservation of mass equation is often referred to as the continuity equation in. Answer: B
A. Thermodynamics
B. Fluid mechanics
C. Fluid dynamics
D. None of these

4. The amount of mass flowing through a cross section per unit time is called. Answer: C
A. Volume flow rate
B. Mass-volume flow rate
C. Mass flow rate
D. None of these
5. In most practical applications, the flow of a fluid through a pipe or duct can be approximated to be.
Answer: A
A. One dimensional flow
B. Two dimensional flow
C. Three dimensional flow
D. None of these

6. As a result, all properties are uniform at any cross section normal to the flow direction, and the
properties are assumed to have. Answer: A
A. Bulk average values
B. Trapezoidal rule
C. Kinetics
D. None of these

7. The velocity of fluid is zero at the wall and maximum at the center because of the. Answer: B
A. Velocity effect
B. Viscous effect
C. Temperature effect
D. None of these
8. When the mass of control volume, the energy of the control volume _________ because the
entering mass carries some energy with it. Answer: A
A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Remains constant
D. None of these

9. When some mass ceases the control volume, the energy contained within the control volume.
Answer: B
A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Remains constant
D. None of these

10. If the boundary of control volume is stationary, as is often the case, the moving boundary work is.
Answer: A
A. Zero
B. One
C. Infinity
D. None of these

11. The energy required to push fluid into or out of a control volume is called the. Answer: C
A. Boundary work
B. Non-flow work
C. Flow work
D. None of these

12. Turbines, compressor, and nozzles are classified as. Answer: C

A. Non-steady flow devices
B. Non-exhaust devices
C. Steady flow devices
 D. None of these

13. Is a process during which a fluid flows through a control volume steadily.Answer: B
A. Variable flow process
B. Steady flow process
C. Non-steady flow process
D. None of these

14. The heat and work interactions between a steady flow system and its surroundings. Answer: C
A. Change with time
B. Change with power
C. Do not change with time
D. None of these
15. The power delivered by a system and the rate of heat transfer to or from system ________ during
a steady-flow process. Answer: A
A. Remains constant
B. Increases
C. Decreases
D. None of these

16. During steady flow process, the total amount of mass contained within a control volume does not
change with. Answer: C
A. Speed
B. Distance
C. Time
D. None of these

17. For steady flow devices, the volume of the control volume is: Answer: C
A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Constant
D. None of these

18. When a fluid stream enters and leaves a steady flow device at about the same velocity, the change
in kinetic energy is. Answer: B
A. Infinity
B. Closed to zero
C. Maximum value
D. None of these

19. Are commonly utilized in jet engines, rockets, spacecrafts, and even garden hoses.
A. Turbine and boiler
B. Nozzles and diffusers
C. Steam engines and pump
D. None of these

20. A __________ is a device that increases the velocity of a fluid at the expenses of pressure.
Answer: A
A. Nozzle
B. Diffuser
 C. Venture meter
D. None of these

21. A __________ is a device that increases the pressure of a fluid by slowing it down. Answer: B
A. Nozzle
B. Diffuse
C. Pilot tube
D. None of these

22. The-sectional are of nozzle decreases in the flow direction of subsonic flows and increases for.
Answer: C
A. Hypersonic flow
B. Steady flow
C. Supersonic flows
D. None of these

23. The work termed for nozzle and diffusers is: Answer: A
A. Zero
B. One
C. Infinity
D. None of these

24. In stream, gas, or hydroelectric power plants, the device that drives the electric generator is the:
Answer: C
A. Motor
B. Dynamometer
C. Turbine
D. None of these

25. The work done in a turbine is __________ since it is done by the fluid. Answer: A
A. Positive
B. Negative
C. Zero
D. None of these

26. Compressors, as well as pumps and fans, are devices used to. Answer: A
A. Increases the pressure of a fluid
B. Decreases the pressure of a fluid
C. Increases the efficiency of fluid
D. None of these

27. The work termed for compressors is negative since works is: Answer: B
A. Done by the fluid
B. Done on the fluid
C. Rejection of fluid
D. None of these
28. A ___________ increases the pressure of a gas slightly and this is mainly used to move a gas
around. Answer: B
A. Compressor
B. Fan
C. Pump
D. None of these

29. A __________ is capable of compressing the gas to very high pressure. Answer: B
A. Fan
B. Compressor
C. Turbine
D. None of these

30. ____________ are any kind of flow-restricting devices that causes a significant pressure drop in
the fluid. Answer: C
A. Condenser
B. Compressor
C. Throttling valve
D. None of these

31. The magnitude of the temperature drop during a throttling process is governed by a property
called. Answer: B
A. Newton coefficient
B. Joule-Thomson coefficient
C. Joule coefficient
D. None of these

32. The work done in throttling valve is. Answer: A

A. Zero
B. One
C. Infinity
D. None of these

33. Throttling valves are called. Answer: B

A. Isentropic device
B. Isenthalpic process
C. Chronic device
D. None of these

34. If the product P-v decreases, the internal energy and temperature of fluid will _________ during
throttling process. Answer: A
A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Constant
D. None of these
35. In throttling process, if internal energy decreases the temperature. Answer: C
A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Will also drop
D. None of these

36. In the case of ideal gas, the temperature has to remain constant during a. Answer: C
A. Isentropic process
B. Isobaric process
C. Throttling process
D. None of these

37. The section where the mixing process takes place is commonly referred to as a. Answer: A
A. Mixing chamber
B. Combustion chamber
C. Air mixing
D. None of these

38. Are devices where two moving fluid streams exchanger heat without mixing: Answer: C
A. Adiabatic
B. Recuperator
C. Heat exchangers
D. None of these

39. Heat exchangers are widely used in. Answer: B

A. Power plant
B. Various industries
C. Turbine
D. None of these

40. The simplest form of heat exchanger is a. Answer: C

A. Tube heat exchanger
B. Shell heat exchanger
C. Shell and tube heat exchanger
D. None of these

41. For high speed flows, the potential energy of the fluid are: Answer: C
A. Positive
B. Negative
C. Negligible
D. None of these

42. For fluid flow, the enthalpy is the sum of internal energy and _______. Answer: B
A. Entropy
B. Work flow
C. Pressure
D. Temperature

43. Kinetic energy is not neglected in calculations of ___________. Answer: A

 A. High speed flow
B. Low speed flow
C. Steady flow
D. Equilibrium flow

44. The combination of enthalpy and kinetic energy of fluid is termed as: Answer: D
A. Combustion enthalpy
B. Auto ignition enthalpy
C. Steady enthalpy
D. Stagnation enthalpy

45. In the absence of any heat and work interaction and any changes in potential energy, the
stagnation enthalpy of a fluid remains constant during: Answer: B
A. Unsteady flow
B. Steady flow
C. Turbulent flow
D. Variable flow

46. Flows through the nozzle and diffusers with increasing fluid velocity will create equivalent
_________. Answer: A
A. Decrease in the static enthalpy of fluid
B. Increase in the static enthalpy of fluid
C. Decrease in the internal energy of fluid
D. Decrease in the dynamic enthalpy of fluid

47. Stagnation enthalpy represents the enthalpy of a fluid when it is brought to rest ________.
Answer: B
A. Diabatically
B. Adiabatically
C. Isothermally
D. Isobarically
48. During stagnation process, the kinetic energy of a fluid is converted to enthalpy which results in
an. Answer: C
A. Increase in the fluid specific volume
B. Increase in the fluid pressure
C. Increase in the fluid temperature and pressure
D. Increase in the fluid temperature

49. The properties of fluid at the stagnation in sate are called. Answer: C
A. Stagnation property
B. Stagnation phase
C. Stagnation state
D. Stagnation vapor

50. Stagnation state and stagnation properties are indicated the subscript. Answer: A
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
51. The stagnation state called the isentropic stagnation state when the stagnation process is:
Answer: D
A. Reversible as well dynamic
B. Isotropic
C. Adiabatic
D. Reversible as well as adiabatic

52. The entropy if a fluid remains constant during: Answer: D

A. Polytropic stagnation process
B. Unsteady stagnation process
C. Combustion process
D. Isentropic stagnation process

53. Represents the temperature an ideal gas will attain when it is brought to rest adiabatically.
Answer: B
A. Absolute zero temperature
B. Stagnation temperature
C. Boiling temperature
D. Critical temperature

54. The term V2 /2cp responds to the temperature rise during such a process and is called the: Answer:
C
A. Kinetic temperature
B. High temperature
C. Dynamic temperature
D. Elevation temperature

55. An important parameter in the study of compressible is the: Answer: D

A. Speed of fluid
B. Speed of sound
C. Speed of light
D. Speed of fluid flow

56. Is the velocity at which an infinitesimal small pressure wave travels through a medium:
Answer: C
A. Subsonic velocity
B. Hypersonic velocity
C. Sonic velocity
D. Monatomic velocity

57. Velocity of sound is C=? where: k = specific heat ratio of fluid, R = gas constant, T = absolute
temperature. Answer: D
A. kRt
B. Rt/k
C. kR/T
D. √ kRT
58. Is the ratio of the actual velocity of the fluid to the velocity of sound.Answer: A
A. Mach number
B. Froude number
C. Sonic number
D. Control number

59. The flow is called sonic when mach number is: Answer: A
A. Equal to 1
B. Less than 1
C. More than 1
D. None of these

60. The flow is sub-sonic when M is. Answer: B

A. Greater than 1
B. Less than 1
C. More than 1
D. None of thsese
61. The flow is supersonic when M is. Answer: C
A. Greater than zero
B. Less than 1
C. Greater than 1
D. None of these

62. The flow is hypersonic when. Answer: B

A. M>1
B. M>>1
C. M = 1
D. M = 0

63. The flow is transonic when. Answer: D

A. M = 0
B. M<1
C. M>1
D. M = 1

64. The pressure decreases as the temperature and velocity increases while the fluid velocity and
Mach number. Answer: A
A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Remains constant
D. None of these

65. The Mach number is unity or one at the location of smallest flow area, called the: Answer: A
A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Remains constant
D. None of these
66. The flow area decreases with decreasing pressure up to a critical pressure value where the March
Number is. Answer: B
A. Zero
B. Unity
C. Less than 1
D. Greater than 1
67. The Mach number is unity or one at the location of smallest flow area, called the: Answer: B
A. Decreasing area
B. Throat
C. Increasing area
D. None of these

68. The velocity of fluid is keep on increasing after passing the throat although the flow are.
Answer: A
A. Increases rapidly
B. Decreases rapidly
C. Remains constant
D. None of these

69. The increase in velocity past the throat is due to the rapid decrease in the. Answer: A
A. Fluid density
B. Fluid specific volume
C. Fluid temperature
D. Fluid pressure

70. If the area of the duct first decreases and then increases then this is known as. Answer: C
A. Converging nozzles
B. Diverging nozzles
C. Converging-diverging nozzles
D. None of these

71. The volume flow passes through a venture meter is. Answer: C
A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Constant
D. Varying

72. For subsonic flow, the pressure of the fluid increases as the flow area. Answer: A
A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Constant
D. None of these

73. For subsonic flow, the pressure of the fluid decrease as the flow area. Answer: B
A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Constant
D. None of these

74. Pilot tube is use to measure the. Answer: D

 A. Velocity of mass
B. Velocity of pipe
C. Flow
D. Velocity of flow

75. For supersonic flow, the pressure of fluid must increase as the fluid flow area of the duct:
Answer: B
A. Increases
B. Decrease
C. Constant
D. None of these

76. For super flow, the pressure of fluid must decrease as the fluid area of the duct. Answer: A
A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Constant
D. None of these

77. The property of fluid at a location where the Mach number is unity ( at the throat ) are called.
Answer: A
A. Critical properties
B. Sonic properties
C. Dynamic properties
D. Stagnation properties

78. The flow through the nozzle is. Answer: A

A. Isentropic
B. Polytropic
C. Isobaric
D. Isovolumic

79. If the reservoir is sufficient large, the nozzle inlet velocity is. Answer: D
A. Maximum
B. Negative
C. Positive
D. Zero

80. The ___________ is the pressure applied at the nozzle discharge section. Answer: C
A. Stagnation pressure
B. Critical pressure
C. Back pressure
D. Atmospheric pressure

81. When the back pressure is reduced to lowest exit pressure, the mass flow reaches a maximum
value and the flow is said to be. Answer: B
A. Stacked
B. Choked
C. Stuck-up
D. Clog-up
82. The mass flow rate through the nozzle is _________when M = 1 or the throat. Answer: A
 A. Maximum
B. Minimum
C. Zero
D. None of these

83. An increase in stagnation pressure will increase the mass flux through the. Answer: B
A. Diverging nozzle
B. Converging nozzle
C. Converging-diverging nozzle
D. None of these

84. A decrease in stagnation pressure will decrease the mass flux through the. Answer: A
A. Diverging nozzle
B. Converging nozzle
C. Converging-diverging nozzle
D. None of these

85. A converging-diverging nozzle is the standard equipment in. Answer: B

A. Subsonic aircraft
B. Supersonic aircraft
C. Hypersonic aircraft
D. Trisonic aircraft

86. For back pressure values, abrupt changes in fluid properties occur in a very thin section of
converging-diverging nozzle under supersonic flow conditions, creating: Answer: C
A. Sound wave
B. Tidal wave
C. Shock wave
D. None of these

87. The flow process through shock wave is highly irreversible and enthalpy be approximated as
being. Answer: D
A. Polytopic
B. Isometric
C. Hyperbolic
D. Isentropic

88. Is the locus states which have the same value of stagnation enthalpy and mass flux are called.
Answer: A
A. Fanno line
B. Straight line
C. Willan’s line
D. Cross cut line
89. Combination of mass and momentum equation into a single equation and plotted in h-s plane
yield a curve called. Answer: D
A. Faire line
B. Fresh line
C. Cutting line
D. Rayleigh line
90. Is the ratio of Actual kinetic energy at nozzle exit / Kinetic energy at nozzle exit for isentropic
flow.Answer: D
A. Turbo efficiency
B. Effectiveness
C. Ratio
D. Nozzle efficiency

91. Nozzle efficiencies range from. Answer: C

A. 78 to 89 percent
B. 80 to 90 percent
C. 90 to 99 percent
D. 93 to 98 percent

92. Is the ratio of Actual velocity at nozzle exit / Velocity at nozzle exit for isentropic flow.Answer: A
A. Velocity coefficient
B. Velocity ratio
C. Peripheral velocity
D. Speed ratio

93. Is the ratio of Actual mass flow rate through nozzle / Mass flow rate through isentropic
nozzle.Answer: D
A. Flow ratio
B. Flow factor
C. Discharge factor
D. Discharge coefficient

94. ___________ = ∆hs/ V1 2 / 2. Answer: C

A. Enthalpy efficiency
B. Kinetic efficiency
C. Diffuser efficiency
D. Convergence efficiency

95. Measure the diffuser’s ability to increase the pressure of the fluid is. Answer: B
A. Speed recovery factor
B. Pressure recovery factor
C. Volume recovery factor
D. Diffuser recovery factor

96. Is the ratio of actual stagnation pressure at diffuser exit and the isentropic stagnation
pressure.Answer: A
A. Pressure recovery factor
B. Critical flow pressure
C. Saturated stagnation pressure
D. None of these

97. Pressure rise coefficient is the ratio actual pressure rise and the ________. Answer: D
 A. Pressure ratio
B. Potential pressure
C. Isentropic ratio
D. Isentropic pressure rise

98. As the steam expand in the nozzle, its pressure and temperature. Answer: D
A. Increase
B. Maximum
C. Deficit
D. Drop

99. The locus of point where condensation takes place regardless of the initial temperature and
pressure at the nozzle entrance is called. Answer: A
A. Wilson line
B. Willan’s line
C. Transient line
D. Control line

100. Law of thermo dynamics that involves temperature in equilibrium is. Answer: D
A. First law
B. Second law
C. Third law
D. Zeroth law

1. A refrigerating unit of one tojn capacity can remove: Answer: C

A. 500 Btu per min
B. 288 Btu per min
C. 200 Btu per min
D. 100 Btu per min

2. To much oil in the compressor would: Answer: A

A. Absorb too much refrigerant from the system
B. Damage the expansion valve
C. Cause leakage through the shaft seals
D. Deposit oil on the condenser tubes

3. The refrigerant with the lowest boiling point is: Answer: B

A. NH3
B. CO2
C. F-12
D. F-22

4. A ton refrigeration is equal to the removal of: Answer: A

A. 288,000 Btu per 24 hrs
B. 28,000 Btu per 24 hrs
 C. 28,800 Btu per 24 hrs
D. 280,000 Btu per 24 hrs

5. Which of the following would cause a high suction pressure? Answer: B

A. Expansion valve not open wide enough
B. Expansion valve open too wide
C. King valve not open wide enough
D. Dirty dehydrator

6. Which of the following would cause high head pressure? Answer: D

A. Dirty condenser
B. Insufficient cooling water
C. Air in cooling water
D. All of these

7. Which of the following would cause law head pressure? Answer: D

A. Too much cooling water
B. Insufficient refrigeration gas
C. Insufficient cooling water
D. A and B

8. The principle of the mechanical refrigeration is: Answer: C

A. The absolute of temperature under heat, pressure compression, and expansion
B. The compressor of a liquid under temperature and expansion
C. The absolute of heat under temperature, compression, pressure and expansion
D. The conversion of a liquid to a gas

9. The function of the expansion valve is to: Answer: B

A. Change the high-pressure liquid to low pressure liquid
B. Regulate the amount of liquid refrigerant to the expansion coils
C. Change the gas refrigerants to a liquid
D. Shut off the flow of refrigerant to the condenser

10. The oil separator (trap) is located between the: Answer: A

A. Compressor discharge valve and the condenser
B. Condenser and the receiver
C. Receiver and the king valve
D. Receiver and the expansion valve

11. The purpose of the oil trap is: Answer: C

A. To remove oil from the charging tank
B. To add oil to the compressor
C. To remove oil from the refrigerating das
D. None of these

12. The boiling point of ammonia at atmospheric pressure is: Answer: D

A. -28 0 C
B. 28 0 C
C. 28 0 F
 D. -28 0 F

13. The boiling point of COoat atmospheric pressure is: Answer: B

A. 10 0 F
B. -110 0 C
C. 110 0 C
D. -110 0 F

14. The boiling point of Freon at atmospheric pressure is: Answer: A

A. -22 0 F
B. 22 0 C
C. 22 0 F
D. -22 0 C
15. The dehydrator is located between the: Answer: B
A. Receiver and the king valve
B. Receiver and the expansion valve
C. Condenser and the king valve
D. Condenser and receiver

16. The purpose of the dehydrator is to: Answer: C

A. Remove oil from the refrigerant
B. Add more refrigerant to the system
C. Remove moisture from the refrigerant
D. Remove moisture from the crankcase oil

17. Which of the following would you apply if a person got Freon in his eyes? Answer: B
A. Soapy water
B. Sterile mineral oil
C. Clean water
D. Sodium bicarbonate

18.

19. The thermal expansion valve: Answer: B

A. Controls the amount of gas coming from the dehydrator
B. Maintains a constant superheat of the receiver
C. Controls the amount of gas going to the receiver
D. Removes trap oil from the refrigerant

20. Water in the refrigerant is liable to: Answer: A

A. Freeze on the expansion seat and cut the flow of liquid refrigerant
B. Emulsify the oil in the compressor
C. Freeze in the king valve
D. Clog the oil trap

21. The purpose of the scale trap is to: Answer: C

A. Control the amount of scale going to the compressor
B. Remove insoluble gases from the refrigerant
C. Remove dirt, scale and metal chips from the refrigerant
D. Dissolve scale and dirt in the system
22. A double-seated valve allows the valve to be: Answer: B
A. Packed only in the closed position
B. Packed in wide open or closed position
C. Operated as a suction or discharge valve
D. Remove for replacement without shutting down

23. Sensible heat: Answer: A

A. Can be measured with a thermometer
B. Cannot be measured with a thermometer
C. Changes in the receiver tank
D. Increases with the cold

24. The latent heat of fusion is the amount of heat required to convert: Answer: B
A. Two lbs of ice at 32 0 F to one lb of ice at 32 0 F
B. One lb of ice at 32 0 F to one lb of water 32 0 F
C. One lb of ice at 32 0 F to one lb of steam 32 0 F
D. Two lbs of ice at 32 0 F to one lb of water at 32 0 F

25. The latent heat of vaporization of water is: Answer: C

A. 144 Btu
B. 940 Btu
C. 970 Btu
D. 288 Btu

26. The latent heat of vaporization is the amount of heat required to convert: Answer: A
A. One lb of water at 212 0 F to one lb of steam at 212 0 F
B. One lb of water at 180 0 F to one lb of steam at 180 0 F
C. Two lbs of water at 212 0 F to one lb of steam at 212 0 F
D. One lb of ice at 32 0 F to one lb of steam at 212 0 F

27. Too high suction pressure could be caused by: Answer: D

A. Expansion valve open too wide
B. Leaky suction valve
C. Expansion valve build not working properly
D. Any of the above

28. How is an ammonia system purged so that the operation will not be overcome by the fumes?
Answer: B
A. Into that atmospheric line
B. Into a bucket of water
C. Into a bucket of lube oil
D. Back into compressor

29. How is a CO2 system purged? Answer: A

A. When CO2 comes out, frost will form on a piece of metal held near the outlet
B. Through the king valve
C. The CO2 will come out with in liquid pump
D. Pumped out with a suction pump

30. How is Freon system purged? Answer: B

 A. The same as the ammonia system
B. The same as the CO2 system
C. Back to the extra supply bottle
D. With a reefer pump

31. The solenoid valve is: Answer: C

A. 144 Btu
B. 188 Btu
C. 940 Btu
D. 500 Btu

32. Where should you charge less than 6 pounds of refrigerant into a system? Answer: B
A. Any point downstream of the liquid line
B. On the low side of the system
C. On the high side of the system
D. The discharge service valve

33. Latent heat: Answer: C

A. Can be measured with a thermometer
B. Can be measured with a pyrometer
C. Cannot be measured with a thermometer
D. Changes as the refrigerant cools

34. Absolute zero is: Answer: B

A. 970o below zero on the Fahrenheit scale
B. 460 o below zero on the Fahrenheit scale
C. 144 o below zero on the Fahrenheit scale
D. The same as zero on the centigrade scale

35. When the evaporator coils are located in the ice box, the system is known as a: Answer: A
A. Direct system
B. Low-pressure system
C. Indirect system
D. High-pressure system

36. The amount of CO2 or Freon in a cylinder is measured by: Answer: C

A. Pressure
B. Volume
C. Weight
D. Psi

37.

38. The solenoid valve is controlled by: Answer: D

A. The amount of liquid in the system
B. The amount of gas in the system
C. The temperature in the condenser
D. The thermal switch operated by the icebox

39. The solenoid valve is controlled by: Answer: B

A. In the lowest part of the system
 B. In the highest part of the system
C. On the receiver discharge
D. On the evaporator coils

40. The system should be purged: Answer: C

A. While the system is operating
B. While starting up the system
C. After the system has been shut down for a few hours
D. Once a week

41. The function of the compressor is to: Answer: D

A. Pull the refrigerant gas through the system
B. Increase the pressure of the refrigerant
C. Discharge the refrigerant to the condenser
D. All of the above

42. The expansion valve is located between the: Answer: A

A. Receiver and evaporator
B. Evaporator and compressor
C. Compressor and condenser
D. Condenser and receiver

43. If frost forms on the cylinders, the cause would be: Answer: C
A. Expansion valve not open wide enough
B. Charging valve left open
C. Expansion valve open working properly
D. Dehydrator not working properly

44. Which of the following would cause a high head pressure? Answer: B
A. Icebox door left open
B. Insufficient cooling water
C. Too much cooling water
D. Suction valve not open enough

45. The high pressure side of the system is sometimes referred to as the: Answer: C
A. Suction side
B. Cold side
C. Hot side
D. Filling side

46. A ton of refrigeration is equal to the cooling effect of: Answer: A

A. 2000 lbs of ice melting in 24 hrs
B. 2000 lbs of ice melting in 12 hrs
C. 2000 lbs of water being converted to ice
D. 2240 lbs of ice melting in 24 hrs

47. The scale trap (liquid strainer) is located between the: Answer: B
A. Compressor and oil separator
B. King(liquid) valve and expansion valve
 C. Expansion valve and evaporator coils
D. Evaporator coil and compressor

48. When there is Freon leak, the halide torch will burn: Answer: D
A. Orange
B. Blue
C. White
D. Green

49. Which of the following could be used to check a leak in an ammonia system? Answer: D
A. Litmus paper
B. Halide torch
C. Sulphur stick
D. A and C

50. Valves and piping in an ammonia system are made of: Answer: A
A. Iron
B. Brass
C. Copper
D. Bronze

51. In an ammonia system, the oil gage must be kept: Answer: A

A. Closed expect when checking oil level
B. Open at all times
C. Closed when machine is shut down
D. Open when machine is shut down

52. Freon is: Answer: D

A. Colorless
B. Odorless
C. Nonpoisonous
D. All of the above

53. Which of the following gasket materials should be used on a Freon system? Answer: D
A. Metallic
B. Asbestos
C. Rubber
D. A and B

54. A double-pipe condenser ha: Answer: B

A. Two piping system side by side, one with cooling water and one with refrigerant
B. A small pipe inside a larger pipe, the cooling water passing through the small pipe and
the refrigerant through the lager pipe
C. Two pipes for cooling water and one for the refrigerant
D. None of these

55. Air can be prevented from getting into the system by: Answer: C
A. Keeping all glands and stuffing boxes on the high pressure side tight
B. Keeping the dehydrator clean at all times
 C. Keeping the glands and stuffing boxes on the low pressure side tight
D. Running the refrigerant through he aerator

56. The agent used in an indirect refer system is: Answer: D

A. Sodium chloride
B. Potassium chloride
C. Calcium chloride
D. A and C

57. An ammonia leak will turn litmus paper: Answer: A

A. Blue
B. Red
C. Green
D. Yellow

58. A sulphur stick burning in the presence of ammonia will give off a: Answer: B
A. Dense yellow smoke
B. Dense white smoke
C. Dense red smoke
D. Dense green smoke

59. If the compressor were to run continuously without lowering the temperature, the trouble would
probably be: Answer: D
A. Insufficient refrigerant in the system
B. Leaks
C. Leaky discharge valve
D. Any of the above

60. Ammonia leaks in the condenser can be detected by: Answer: B

A. Smelling the discharge water
B. Applying litmus paper to the circulating water discharge
C. Adding water to peppermint to the system and tracing the smell
D. Applying a soapy mixture to the condenser heads and looking for bubbles

61. When purging an ammonia condenser into a bucket of water, one can tell when the air is out and
ammonia starts to come through by the: Answer: D
A. Smell of ammonia being liberated from the water
B. Color of the water turning green
C. Color of the water turning bluish
D. Change of the bubbling sound of air to the cracking sound of ammonia

62. Large leaks in a Freon system cannot always be detected with a halide torch because it change
color with slight test amount of Freon present. A large leak can be detected easier by applying:
Answer: B
A. Sheets of litmus paper to all joints and watch for color change
B. A soup solution, mixed with a little glycerin to hold the solution together, and watch for
bubbles
C. A thin layer of material oil to all joints and watching for bubbles
D. A lightened candle at the joint and watching for leaky spots blowing candle flame
63. When the evaporator coils are located in a brine solution and the brine is pumped through the
icebox, the system is known as: Answer: B
A. A direct system
B. An indirect system
C. A low-pressure system
D. A double-evaporator system

64. Obstruction of the expansion valve is usually caused by: Answer: D

A. Congealed oil in the system
B. Scale
C. Water in the system
D. All of the above

65. Too low suction pressure could be caused by: Answer: B

A. Dirty scale traps
B. Shortage of refrigerant gas
C. Too much oil in the system
D. Any of the above

66. If an electrically operated compressor failed to start, the cause might be: Answer: D
A. An open switch
B. A blown fuse
C. Burned-out holding coils in solenoid valve
D. Any of the above

67. The oil separator is located between the: Answer: B

A. Evaporator and compressor
B. Compressor and condenser
C. Condenser and dehydrator
D. Solenoid valve and the thermal expansion valve

68. To help person who have been exposed to ammonia gas, would: Answer: A
A. Apply artificial respiration
B. Wrap in warm blankets
C. Apply cold compresses
D. Douse with cold water

69. If the compressor short cycles on the low pressure cut-out, the trouble might be: Answer: D
A. Lack of refrigerant
B. Dirty trap and strainers
C. Too much frost on coils
D. Any of the above

70. Ammonia will corrode: Answer: D

A. Copper
B. Bronze
C. Brass
D. All of these
71. The dehydrating agent in the Freon system is usually: Answer: C
A. Slaked lime
B. Sodium chloride
C. Activated alumina
D. Calcium chloride

72. If any of the electrically controlled devices in a Freon system malfunction, which of the following
valves will also automatically shut off? Answer: C
A. King valve
B. Expansion valve
C. Solenoid valve
D. Condenser cooling-water inlet valve

73. Many pressure gages on a Freon system have two dials or graduation on one gage. The two dials
represent: Answer: A
A. Pressure and temperature
B. Liquid pressure and gas pressure
C. Suction and discharge pressure
D. Cooling-water inlet and outlet

74. A leaky discharge valve can usually be detected by: Answer: D

A. A fluctuating high-pressure gage
B. A drop in icebox temperature
C. A discharge pressure lower than normal
D. Any of the above

75. The suction if a Freon system should be: Answer: A

A. The pressure which corresponds with a temperature about 20 o F below the temperature of
the ice box
B. The pressure which corresponds with a temperature equal to the temperature of the
icebox
C. The pressure which corresponds with a temperature about 20 o F above the temperature of
the icebox
D. None of these

76. The disadvantage of a CO2 system over an ammonia system is the fact that: Answer: D
A. The CO2 system requires a larger prime mover
B. The CO2 system operates at a much higher pressure
C. The piper and fitting of a CO2 system must be of the high pressure type
D. All of the above

77. One discharge of a CO2 system is the fact that: Answer: A

A. It is different to condense the refrigerant if the circulating water temperature is too high
B. It is difficult to condense the refrigerant if the circulating water temperature is too low
C. Due to high pressure it is difficult to keep oil from mixing with refrigerant
D. It takes more refrigerant to keep the iceboxes cold
78. The crossover connection in an ammonia system can be used to: Answer: B
A. Reduce the pressure on the discharge side of the condenser
B. Hot-gas defrost
C. Pump air out of the system
D. Add refrigerant to the system

79. Another name for discharge pressure is: Answer: C

A. Suction pressure
B. Absolute pressure
C. Head pressure
D. Condenser pressure

80. Oil used the refrigerating system is: Answer: B

A. Lube oil SAE20
B. Straight mineral oil
C. Lube SAE10
D. Vegetable oil

81. The discharge pressure on the compressor should be: Answer: B

A. The pressure which corresponds to a temperature from 5 0 to 150 F below that of the
condenser discharge
B. The pressure which corresponds to a temperature from 5 0 to 150 F higher than the
condenser discharge
C. The pressure which corresponds to a temperature equal of the condenser discharge
D. None of these

82. A leaky suction valve can usually be detected by: Answer: D

A. A fluctuating suction-pressure gage
B. A higher suction pressure
C. Closing in on the suction valve having no effect on the suction pressure
D. Any of the above

83. The purpose of relief valves on refrigerating machines is to: Answer: C

A. Prevent overloading in the iceboxes
B. Bypass the compressor when dehydrating
C. Prevent excessive pressure in case of stoppage on the discharge side of the system
D. A and B

84. The relief valve on an ammonia machine is located: Answer: C

A. On the discharge pipe from the condenser
B. On the discharge pipe from the compressor
C. In the compressor head
D. A and B

85. The relief valve on a CO2 machine is located: Answer: C

A. On the discharge pipe from the condenser
B. Next to the king valve
C. On the discharge pipe between the compressor and the discharge valve
D. In the compressor head
86. Excess frost on the evaporator coils: Answer: B
A. Keeps the icebox cooler
B. Reduces the efficiency of the plant
C. Takes the load off the compressor
D. Does not affect the system

87. Air circulation in the icebox is accomplished by the use of: Answer: C
A. Louver doors
B. Hollow sidewalls
C. Diffuser fans
D. Air vents to deck

88. Before securing a compressor to do maintenance on it, be sure to: Answer: D

A. Pump down system
B. Have spare parts ready
C. Purge the system
D. A and B

89. Some causes of a noisy compressor are: Answer: D

A. Worn bearings, pins, etc.
B. Too much oil in crankcase
C. Slugging due to flooding back of refrigerant
D. Any of the above

90. Slugging is usually cause by: Answer: C

A. Too much oil in the system
B. Too much refrigerant in the system
C. Expansion valve not operating properly
D. Too much cooling water to condenser

91. Zinc rods are found in the: Answer: D

A. Evaporating coils
B. Salt-water side of condenser
C. Compressor crankcase
D. Refrigerant side of crankcase

92. A double-trunk piston is used to : Answer: D

A. Prevent gas from getting to crankcase
B. Absorb some of the side trust
C. Prevent oil from mixing with refrigerants
D. All of the above

93. The purpose of the receiver is to: Answer: C

a. Cool the refrigerant gas
b. Separate the oil from the refrigerant
c. Store the refrigerant
d. Condense the refrigerant
94. When a pressure gage reads zero, the absolute pressure is: Answer: B
A. 30 psi
B. 14.7 psi
C. 0 psi
D. 17.4 psi

95. The heat used to change a solid to a liquid is called: Answer: A

A. Lantent heat of fusion
B. Sensible heat of fusion
C. Latent heat of liquid
D. Specific heat of fusion

96. The heat used to change a gas to a vapor is called: Answer: B

A. Latent heat of fusion
B. Latent heat of vaporization
C. Specific heat of vaporization
D. Latent heat of gas

97. Sweating of the crankcase is caused by: Answer: D

A. Too much superheat
B. Insufficient superheat
C. Expansion to valve hang up
D. Too much oil in the system

98. If an automatic Freon system will not start up, check the: Answer: D
A. High – pressure cutout
B. Low – pressure cutout
C. Reset mechanism
D. All of the above

99. The cooling – water side of the condenser should be opened for inspection every: Answer: D
A. Six months
B. Year
C. Two years
D. Three months

100. If the thermal expansion valves become inoperative the iceboxes will have to be controlled by
the: Answer: B
A. Solenoid wave
B. Manual expansion valve
C. King valve
D. Manual solenoid valve