INORGANIC ASSIGNMENT (d) Covalent and co-ordinate

CHEMICAL BONDING 12. Which contains a co-ordinate and covalent bond:

*(b) NH4CI (d) H2O (a) BaCl2 (c) HCI

1. Polar covalent compounds are soluble in 13. Which cannot exist on the basis of MO theory:

*(a) Polar solvents (b) Non-polar solvents (a) C2 (b) He2+ (c) H2+ *(d) He2

(c) Concentrated acids (d) All solvents 14. 'When metals react with non-metals, the metal 'atoms
tend to:
2. Which contains both polar and non-polar covalent bonds:
*(a) Lose electrons (b) Gain electrons
(a) NH4Cl (b) HCN * (c) H2O2 (d) CH4
(c) Share electrons (d) none
3. A sp3-hybride orbital contains:
*(a) NH4Cl (b) ½ s-character 15. How many  -bond are there in the nitrogen molecule:
(c) 2/3 s-character (d) ¾ s-character
4. Element X is strongly electropositive and element Y is
(a) one (b) three * (c) Two (d) None
strongly electronegative. Both are univalent. The compound
formed would be:
16. Octet rule is not valid for the molecule:
*(a) X+Y- (b) X-Y+ (c) X-Y (d) X  Y
(a) CO2 * (b) H2O (c) O2 (d) CO
5. Two ice cubes are pressed over each other and unite to
form one cube. Which force is responsible for holding them
17. Which contains both covalent and ionic bonds:
together:
(a) CCl4 *(b) KCN (c) CaCl2 (d) H2O
(a) van der Waals' forces (b) Covalent attraction
18. Which has a giant covalent structure:
*(c) Hydrogen bond formation (d) Dipole-dipole attraction
(a) PbO2 * (b) SiO2 (c) NaCl (d) AICl3
6. When sodium and chlorine react, energy is:
19. An atom of one element A has three electrons in its
*(a) Released and ionic bond is formed
outermost shell, and that of B has six electrons in the
outermost orbit. The formula of the compound formed by
(b) Released and covalent bond is formed
these two will be:
(c) Absorbed and covalent bond is formed
(a) A3B6 (b) A2B * (c) A2B3 (d) A3B2
(d) Absorbed and ionic bond is formed
20. Dative bond is present in:
7. Multiple covalent bonds exist in the molecule of:
*(a) SO3 (b) NH3 (c) BaCl2 (d) BF3
(a) F2 (b) H2 *(c) N2 (d) C2H6
21. Which of the following has fractional bond order:
8. The orbitals of same energy level providing the most
efficient overlapping are: (a) O22+ (b) O22- (c) F22- * (d) H2-
(a) sp3 -sp3 * (b) sp-sp (c) sp2-sp2 (d) All
22. Carbon atoms in C2 (CN)4 are:
9. The pair of elements which on combination are most likely
to form an ionic compound is: (a) sp-hybridised (b) sp2 -hybridised

(a) Na and Ca *(b) K and O2 *(c) sp- and sp2-hybridised (d) Sp, sp2 and sp3-hybridised

(c) O2 and CI2 (d) AI and I2 23. The unequal sharing of bonded pair of electrons between
two atoms in a molecule gives rise to:
10. Among the following bonds which has the most polar
character: (a) Ionic bond *(b) Polar covalent bond

(a) C—O (b) C—Br *(c) C—F (d) C—S (c) Non-polar covalent bond (d) None

11. The type of bonds present in CuSO4.5H2O are only: 24 A triple bond in C2H2 is made of:

(a) Electrovalent and covalent *(a) One  -and two -bonds

(b) Electrovalent and co-ordinate (b) Two  -and one  -bond

*(c) Electrovalent, covalent and co-ordinate (c) Three  -and three  -bonds
1
(d) One  -and four  -bonds *(a) CO2 (b) SO2 (c) H2O (d) NH3

25. The bonds present in N2O5 are: 38. Which has higher bond energy and stronger bond:

(a) Ionic *(b) Covalent and co-ordinate (a) F2 * (b) Cl2 (c) Br2 (d) I2

(c) Covalent (d) Ionic and covalent 39. Which of the bonds is non-polar:

26 The element which exists in both hard and soft form is: (a) C—O in CO2 (b) O—H in H2O

(a) Fe (b) Si *(c)C (d) Al *(c) N—N in N2 (d) H—Cl in HCl

27 Ionic reactions take place in: 40. Ice has an open structure compared to water due to
which it floats on water and occupies a greater volume of
(a) Liquid state (b) Solid state space. The open structure of ice is due to:

*(c) Solution state (d) Gaseous state (a) Solid state of ice (b) Its low density

28. A p-block element in which last electron enters into s- (c) Crystalline nature *(d) Hydrogen bonding
orbital of valence shell instead of p-orbital is:
41. The lattice energy order for lithium halide is:
(a) As (b) Ga (c) No such element exist *(d) He
*(a) LiF > LiCI > LiBr > Lil (b) LiCI > LiF > LiBr > LiI
29. Resonance is not shown by:
(c) LiBr > LiCI > LiF > Lil (d) Lil > LiBr > LiCI > LiF
(a) C6H6 (b) CO2 (c) CO32- *(d) SiO2
42.  -bonding occurs in each of the following except:
30. Which compound is non-polar:
(a) CO2 (b) C2H4 (c) CN- *(d) CH4
(a) CHCI3 *(b) SiCl4 (c) SnCl2 (d) NH3
43. Strongest bond is formed by the head on overlapping of:
31. The correct order of dipole moment is:
(a) 2s- and 2p-orbitals *(b) 2p- and 2p-orbitals
*(a) CH4 < NF3 < NH3 < H2O (b) NF3 < CH4 < NH3 < H2O (c)
NH3 < NF3 < CH4 < H2O (d) H2O < NH3 < NF2 < CH4 (c) 2s- and 2s-orbitals (d) All

32. Which statement is true: 44. The high boiling point of water is due to:

(a) Absolutely pure water does not contain any ion (a) Weak dissociation of water molecule

*(b) Some covalent compounds may also give ions in *(b) Hydrogen bonding among water molecules
aqueous solution
(c) Its high specific heat (d) Its high dielectric constant
(c) In aqueous solution only electrovalent com pounds give
ions 45. Crystal of sodium chloride consists of:

(d) Very sparingly soluble substances do not dissociate in *(a) Na+ and Cl- ions (b) Na and Cl atoms
aqueous solution
(c) NaCl molecules (d) Dimers of NaCI
33. Which one is the weakest bond:
46. Which is likely to have the highest melting point:
*(a) Hydrogen (b) Ionic (c) Covalent (d) Metallic
(a) He * (b) CsF (c) NH3 (d) CHCl3
34. The total number of bonds in acetylene molecules is:
47. Which would be the appropriate technique of indicating
(a) One (b) Two (c) Three * (d) Five the position of hydrogen atom within molecules of a
substance:
35. Which can form hydrogen bonds:
(a) X-ray diffraction (b) Electron diffraction
(a) NaCI (b) CHCl * (c) H2O (d) CH4
(c) Emission spectrum *(d) Mass spectrometry
36. In which of the following the angle between the two
covalent bonds is greatest: 48. Which liquid is not deflected by a non-uniform
electrostatic field:
*(a) CO2 (b) CH4 (c) NH3 (d) H2O
(a) Water (b) Chloroform (c) Nitrobenzene * (d) Hexane
37. Which has zero dipole moment:
49.The structure of XeF4 is:

2
(a) Planar (b) Tetrahedral *(c)Square planar (d) Pyramidal 60. Bond order of N; anion is:

50. A bond with maximum covalent character between non- (a) 3.0 (b) 2.0 *(c) 2.5 (d) 1.5
metallic elements is formed:
61. Which one is not tetrahedral:
*(a) Between identical atoms
*(a) H2O (b) C2Cl6 (c) CH4 (d) Diamond
(b) Between chemically similar atoms
62. The molecule having zero dipole moment is:
(c) Between atoms of widely different electro negativities
(a) CH3Cl (b) CH2Cl2 (c) CHCl3 (*d) CCl4
(d) Between atoms of the same size
63. The solubility of KCl is relatively more in (where D is
51. A molecule which can not exist theoretically is: dielectric constant):

(a) SF4 (b) OF2 *(c) OF4 (d) 2F2 (a) C6H6 (D= 0) (b) (CH3)2CO (D= 2)

52. Which of the following is most stable: (*c) CH3OH(D= 32) (d) CCl4 (D= 0)

*(a) Pb2+ (b) Ge2+ (c) Si2+ (d) Sn2+ 64. Which electronic configuration of neutral atom will have
the highest first ionisation potential:
53. Hydrogen bonding is maximum in:
(a) 1s2 ,2s2 2p1 (b*) Is2 ,2s2 2p3
*(a) Ethanol (b) Diethyl ether
(c) 1s2, 2s2 2p2 (d) 1s2, 2s2 2p4
(c) Ethyl chloride (d) Triethyl amine
65. A molecule with four bonded electron pairs on the central
54. Compound formed by sp2d-hybridisation will have atom and no lone pair is likely to be:
structure:
(a) Linear *(b) Tetrahedral
(a) Trigonal bipyramidal (b) T-shaped (c) Linear
(c) Octahedral (d) Triangular planar
*(d) Either of these depending on number of lone pair of 55.
According to Fajan's rule polarisation is more when: 66. Which ion has a higher pol arising power:

*(a) Small cation and large anion (a) Mg2+ (b*) Al3+ (c) Ca2+ (d) Na+

(b) Small cation and small anion 67. The shape of CIO:! ion is:

(c) Large cation and large anion (a) Square planar (b) Square pyramidal

(d) Large cation and small anion (c*) Tetrahedral (d) Trigonal bipyramidal

56. The bond order of CO molecule on the basis of molecular 68. Which one is most polar:
orbital theory is:
(a) CCl4 (b) CHCl3 (c) CH3Cl (*d) CH3OH
(a) Zero (b) 2 * (c) 3 (d) 1
69. In which molecule the van der Waals' force is likely to be
57. In water molecule, oxygen is: the most important in determining the m.pt. and b.pt. :

(a) sp-hybridised *(b) sp3-hybridised (*a) Br2 (b) CO (c) H2S (d) HCl

(c) sp2-hybridised (d) None 70. Overlapping of 2 hybrid orbitals can lead to the formation
of:
58. According to Fajan's rule ionic character increases for:
(a) Ionic bond (b)  -bond
*(a) Large cation and small anion
(c*) a-bond (d) None
(b) Small cation and small charge on cation
71. In covalency:
(c) Small cation and large charge on cation
(a) The transfer of electrons take place
(d) Large cation and no charge on cation
(b*) Sharing of electrons take place
59. Which has the largest distance between the carbon
hydrogen atom: (c) The electrons are shared by only one atom

*(a) Ethane (b) Ethene (c) Ethyne (d) Benzene (d) None

3
72. The internuclear distance in H2 and CI2 molecules are 74 (a) Energy is absorbed
and 198 pm respectively. The bond length of H-Cl may be:
*(b) Forces of attraction overcome forces of repulsion
(a) 272 pm (b) 70 pm (c*) 136 pm (d) 248 pm
(c) Forces of repulsion overcome forces of attraction
73. Super octet molecule is:
(d) Forces of attraction are equal to forces of repulsion
(*a) F3Cl (b) PCl3 (c) NH3 (d) None of these
83. The O-H bond distance in water molecule is:
74. An electro valent compound is made of:
(a) 1. A (b) 1.33 A ( *c) .96 A (d) 1.45 A
(a) Electrically charged particles
84. Which one is the strongest bond:
(b) Neutral molecules
(a) Cl-F (b) F-F *(c) Br-F (d) Br-Cl
(c) Neutral atoms
85. The shape of sulphate ion is:
(*d) Electrically charged atoms or group of atoms
(a*) Tetrahedral (b) Square planar
75. The lowest bond energy exist in the following bonds for:
(c) Trigonal (d) Trigonal planar
(a) C-C (c) H-H (b)N-N *(d) O-O
86. PF3 molecule is:
76. In a double bond connecting two atoms there is a sharing
of: (a) Square planar (b) Trigonal bipyramid

(a) 2 electrons *(b) 4 electrons (c) Tetrahedral (*d) Trigonal pyramidal

(c) I electron (d) An electrons 87. In which molecule sulphur atom sp2-hybridised:

77. Which one has more tendency to form covalent (a) SO42- (b*) SF4 (c) SF2 (d) None
compounds:
88. Which one possesses strong covalent bond:
(a) Ba (*b) Be (c) Mg (d) Ca
(*a) H—Cl (b) CI—Cl (c) C—Cl (d) B—Cl
78. Elements whose electronegativities are 1.2 and 3.0 form:
89. Which one has a planar structure:
*(a) Ionic bond (b) Covalent bond
(a) NH4+ (b) SCl4 (*c) XeF4 (d) BF4-
(c) Co-ordinate bond (d) Metallic bond
90. The bond angle in ammonia is:
79. The electronic configuration of an element is 1s 2, 2s2 2p6,
3s2 3p6. It is most likely to have a valency of: (a) 109°28' (b) 9° (*c) 17° (d) 15°

(a) + 2 * (b) + 3 (c) + 1 (d)+4 91. Each of the following has non-zero moment, except:

80. Which are true statements among the following: (*a) C6H6 (b) CO (c) SO2 (d) NH3

(1) PH5 and BiCl5 does not exist 92. Which one is least ionic:

(2) p  -d  bonds are present in S2 (*a) AgCl (b) KCl (c) BaCl2 (d) KNO3

93. Covalent radius of Li is 123 pm. The crystal radius of Li

(3) Electrons travel with speed of light
will be:
(4) SeF4 and CH4 has same shape
(a*) > 123 pm (b) < 123 pm (c) = 123 pm (d) =123/2
(5) 13+ has bent geometry
94. The bond angle in PH3 is:
(a) 1,3 * (b) 1,2,5 (c) 1,3,5, (d) 1,2,4
(*a) Much lesser than NH3 (b) Equal to that in NH3
81. AICl3 is covalent, while AIF3 is ionic. This is justified by:
(c) Much greater than in NH3 (d) Slightly more than in NH3
(a) Crystal structure (b) Valence bond theory
95. The total number of electrons that take part in forming
*(c) Fajan's rule (d) Lattice energy bonds in N2 molecule is;

82. Chemical bond formation takes place when: (a) 2 (b*)6 (c) 4 (d) 8

96. Tetrahedral nature of bonding in carbon was first shown

4
by: (c) O2 > O22- > O22- > O2+

(a) Kekule (b*) van't Hoff and Le Bel (c) Lewis (d) Pasteur (d) O2- > O22- > O2+ > O2

97. Which one is not tetrahedral: 106. Which bond has the highest bond energy:

(a) BF4- (b) NH4+ (*c) CO32- (d) SO42- (a) Co-ordinate bond (b) Sigma bond

98. Which has sp2 -hybridisation: (*c) Multiple bond (d) Polar covalent bond

(a) CO2 (*b) SO2 (c) N2O (d) CO 107. NH3 has a net dipole moment, but boron trifluoride (BF3)
has zero dipole moment, because:
99. The nature of bonding in CCl4 and CaH2:
(a) B is less electronegative than N
(a) Electrovalent in both CCl4 and CaH2
(b) F is more electronegative than H
(b*) Covalent in CCl4 and electrovalent in CaR2
(c) BF, is pyramidal while NH, is planar
(c) Electrovalent in CCl4 and covalent in CaR2
*(d) NH3 is pyramidal while BF3 is trigonal planar
(d) None
108. The molecule symmetry is:
100. Which bond is more polar: [Roorkee 1997]
(*a) NH3 (b) PCl5 (c) SO2 (d) CO2
(a) CI-Cl (b) N-F (*c) C-F (d) O-F
109. In case of stable molecule the value of bond order
101. A regular hexagonal crystalline lattice of ice is mostly should be:
formed by:
(a) Ionic bond (b) Hydrogen bond (*a) Positive (b) Negative (c) Zero (d) All

(*c) Covalent bond (d) Metallic bond 110. Which one has maximum solubility in water:

102. VSEPR theory was proposed by: *(a) BaSO4 (b) MgSO4 (c) RaSO4 (d) CaSO4

(a*) Nyhom and Gillespie (b) Nyhom 111. sp3 -hybridisation is important in describing the bonding
in:
(c) Gillespie (d) Kossel
(a) NH4+ (b) CCl4 (c) H3O+ (d*) All
103. The structure of IF5 can be best demonstrated as:
112. The angle between the overlapping of one s-orbital and
FF
FF FF one p-orbital is:
FF

II 7200
72
12000
120
9000
90 (*a) 180° (b) 120° (c) 109°28’ (d) 12°6'
FF II FF
FF
113. The species which does not show paramagnetism is:
FF
FF
(a) (b) FF (a) O2 (b)O2+ *(c) O22- (d) H22+

F 114. H-B-H bond angle in BH3 is:

F F
(a) 18° (b) 12° (*c) 19° (d) 9°
I
900
115. Which of the following is false:

(c*) F F (d) None of these (a) Methane molecule is tetrahedral in shape

(b) Nickel tetrachloride is square planar in shape

104. In which of the following gaseous molecules, the (c) P2O5 is like two pyramids joined at their apices

ionic character of the covalent bond is greatest: (*d) Acetylene is non-linear

(a) HCl (b) HBr (c) HI (*d) HF
116. CCI4 is insoluble in water because:
105. The bond length in O22-, O2-, O2 and O22+ follows the
order: (*a) CCl4 is non-polar and water is polar

(*a) O22- > O2- > O2 > O22+ (b) Water is non-polar and CCI4 is polar

(b) O2+ > O2 > O2- > O22-

5
(c) Water and CC14 both are polar 128. In PCl5 molecule, P is:

(d) None (a) sp3-hybridised (b) dsp2-hybridised

117. Which species does not exist: (c) ds3p-hybridised (d) sp3d-hybridised

(a) (SnCl6)2- (b) (GeCI6)2- *(c) (CCI6)2- (d) (SiCI6)2- 129. The total number of valency electrons in PH4+ ion is:

118. The equilateral triangle shape has: *(a) 8 (c) 6 (b) 9 (d) 14

(a) sp-hybridisation *(b) sp2 -hybridisation 130. Structure of ICl2- is;

(c) sp3-hybridisation (d) sp3d-hybridisation (a) Trigonal (b) Octahedral (c) Square planar

119. If Na+ ion is larger than Mg2+ ion and S2- ion is larger (*d) Distorted trigonal pyramidal
than Cl- ion, which of the following will be least soluble in
water: 131. The pair Of species having identical shape is:

(a) NaCl (b) Na2S (c) MgCl2 (*d) MgS (a) CF4, SF4 (b) PCl3, BF3 (c)* XeF2' CO2 (d) PF5. IF5

120. H-O-H bond angle in H2O is 14.5° and not 109°28’ 132. The bond between two identical non-metal atoms has a
because of: pair of electrons:

(a) High electronegativity of oxygen (a) Unequally shared between the two

(b) Bond pair-bond pair repulsion (b*) Equally shared between the two

(c*) Lone pair-lone pair repulsion (c) Transferred fully from one atom to another (d) None

(d) Lone pair-bond pair repulsion 133. Decreasing order of size of various hybrid orbitals IS:

121. Shape of molecules is decided by; (a) sp > sp2 > sp3 (*b) sp3 > sp2 > sp

(a*) Sigma bond (b)  -bond (c) sp2 > sp > sp3 (d) sp > sp3 > sp2

(c) Both sigma and  -bonds (d) Neither sigma nor  - 134. The carbon atom in graphite is:
bonds
(*a) sp2-hybridised (b) s/-hybridised
122. Which force is strongest:
(c) sp-hybridised (d) None
(a) Dipole-dipole forces *(b) Ion-ion forces
135. Which of the following bonds is most stable:
(c) Ion-dipole forces (d) Ion-induced dipole forces
*(a) 1s-1s (b) 2p-2p (c) 2s-2p (d) 1s-2p
123. The compound possessing most strongly ionic nature
136. Higher is the bond order, greater is;
is:
(*a) Bond dissociation energy (b) Covalent character
(a) SrCI2 (b) BaCI2 (c) CaCl2 (*d) CsCI
(c) Bond length (d) Paramagnetism
124. The value of bond order in nitrogen and oxygen
molecule is: 137. In the formation of N2+ from N2, the electron is lost from:
*(a) 3,2 (b) 4,2 (c) 2,3 (d) 1,2 (a) A  -orbital (b)* A  -orbital
125. Both ionic and covalent bonds are present in:
(c)A  *-orbital (d) A  * -orbital
(b) KCI (*d) NaOH (a) CH4 (c) SO2
138. Bonded electron pairs present in octahedral SF6
126. Which of the following has highest bond angle: molecule:

(a) H2O (b) H2S (*c) NH3 (d) PH3 (a) 3 (b) 4 (c*) 6 (d) 3

127. Lateral overlapping give rise to: 139. The valency of the element with atomic number 5 is:

(a) a-bonds (b*)  -bonds *a) 5 (b) 2 (c) 4 (d) 3

140. Which pair represents isostructural species:

(c) Metallic bonds (d) None

6
(a) CH3- and CH3+ (b) NH4+ and NH3 (a*) H2S (b) HF (c) H2O (d) Ice

(c) SO42- and BF4- (d) NH2- and BeF2 154. The electronic configurations of four elements L, P, Q
and R are given below
141. The metal chloride insoluble in cold water is:
L=1s2, 2s2 2p4 Q=1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s2 3p5
(a) Pb (b) Hg (*c) (c) Ba (d) Cu
P = Is2 ,2s2 2p6, 3s1 R = Is2 ,2s2 2p6, 3s2
142. The species having octahedral shape is:
The formula of the ionic compounds that can be formed
(*a) SF6 (b) BF4- (c) PCl5 (d) BO33- between these elements are:

143. If the bond has zero per cent ionic character, the bond (a) L2P, RL, PQ, R2O (b) LP,RL,PQ,RQ
is:
(*c) P2L, RL, PQ, RQ2 (d) LP, R2L, P2Q, RQ
(*a) Pure covalent (b) Partial covalent
155. The higher values of specific heat of water in
comparison to other liquids is due to:
(c) Partial ionic (d) Co-ordinate covalent
(a) High dielectric constant (b) Polarity
144. HCI molecule in the vapour state is an example of:
*(c) H-bonding (d) None
(a) Non-polar bond (b) Ionic bond
156. When an element of very low ionisation potential is
(c)* Polar covalent bond. (d) Pure covalent allowed to react with an element of very high electron affinity,
we get:
145. Which of the following is more ionic:
(a) A weak ionic bond (*b) A strong ionic bond
(a) NaCI (*b) KCl (c) MgCI2 (d) CaCI2
(c) A polar covalent bond (d) No bond
146. Which is not an exception to octet rule:
157. According to molecular orbital theory, O2+ possesses:
(a) BF3 (b*) SnCI4 (c) BeI2 (d) CI02
(*a) Bond order of 2.5 (b) Three unpaired electrons
147. Formation of  -bond:
(c) Diamagnetic character (d) Stability lower than O2
(a) Increases bond length
158. Which molecule is not linear:
*(b) Decreases bond length
(a) CO2 (b*) SO3 (c) C2H2 (d) MgCI2
(c) Distorts the geometry of molecule
159. Which species is paramagnetic:
(d) Makes homoatomic molecules more reactive
(a*) O2- (b) CH3- (c) CO (d) NO+
148. In which element shielding effect is not possible:
160. The hydrogen bonding is strongest in:
(*a) H (b) Be (c) B (d) N
(a) O-H---S (b) S-H---O
149. The atomic numbers of three elements A, Band C are a,
a+1 and a+2. C is an alkali metal. In a compound of A and C, (c*) F-H---F (d) F-H---O
the nature of bonding is:
161. Which has largest bond angle:
(a) Co-ordinate (b) Covalent (*c) Ionic (d) Metallic
(*a) NH3 (b) PH3 (c) AsH3 0 (d) SbH3
150. Which is paramagnetic:
162. The compound in which carbon atom uses only its sp 3-
(a) CI2O6 (b) CI2O7 (c) CI2O (*d) CIO2 hybrid orbitals for bond formation is:

151. Which is paramagnetic and has bond order 0.5: (a) HCOOH (b) (H2N)2CO (*c) (CH3)3COH (d) CH3CHO

(*a) H2+ (b) F2 (c) N2 (d) O2 163. The paramagnetic behaviour of O2 molecules is best
explained by:
152. Which is non-polar, but contains polar bonds:
(*a) Molecular orbital theory (b) Resonance theory
(a) HCI (b) H2O (c) SO3 (*d) CO2
(c) VSEPR theory (d) Valence bond theory
153. The bond length is maximum in:
164. Which of the following characteristics regarding

7
halogens is not correct: (b) F2 is highly reactive

(a) Ionization energy decreases with increase in atomic (c) HF is the weakest acid of all hydrogen halides
number
(d) Fluorine atom is the smallest of all halogens
(b) Electronegativity decreases with increase in atomic
number 174. Covalent bonding is found in:

(*c) Electron affinity decreases with increase in atomic (a) Sodium chloride (b) Potassium chloride
number
*(c) Water (d) Brass
(d) Enthalpy of fusion increases with increase ill atomic
number 175. The bond--order of individual bonds in benzene is:

165. The molecule which has zero dipole moment is: (a) One (b) Two (*c) Between 1 and 2

*(b) BF3 (d) ClO2 (a) CH2Cl2 (c) NF3 (d) One and two alternately

166. The metallic lustre exhibited by sodium is explained by: 176. In a sodium chloride crystal each Na+ ion is surrounded
by:
(a) Diffusion of sodium ions
(a) Three CI- ions (b) Eight Cl- ions
(b) Excitation of free proton
(c) Four Cl- ions (*d) Six Cl- ions
*(c) Oscillations of loose electrons
177. The double bonds between the two carbon atoms in
(d) Existence of body-centred cubic lattice ethylene consists of:

167. A covalent bond is formed between the atoms by the
overlapping of orbitals containing:
(a) Single electron
(b) Paired electron
(c) Single electron with parallel spin
*(d) Single electron with opposite spin
(a) Two sigma bond at right angles to each other
(b)* One sigma bond and one pi bond
(c) Two pi bonds at right angles to each other
(d) Two pi bonds at an angle of 6° to each other
178. How many  - and  - bonds are there in the molecule
of tetracyanoethylene:

168. Length of hydrogen bond ranges from 2.5 Å to: N C C N

C C
N C C N
(a) 3.0 Å (*b) 2.75 Å (c) 2.6 Å (d) 3.2 Å

169. When two atomic orbitals combine, they form:

(*a) Nine  - and nine  (b) Five  - and nine 

(a) One molecular orbital (c) Nine  - and seven  (d) Five  - and eight 
*(b) Two molecular orbitals 179. Resonance is due to:

(c) Two bonding molecular orbitals (a) Delocalization of sigma electrons

(d) Two antibonding molecular orbitals (*b) Delocalization of pi electrons

170. Which molecule is planar: (c) Migration of H-atoms

(a) NH3 (b) CH4 *(c) C2H4 (d) SiCl4 (d) Migration of protons

171. The molecule which has pyramidal shape is: 180. In the series ethane, ethylene and acetylene, the C-H
bond energy is:
*(a) PCl3 (b) SO3 (c) CO32- (d) NO3-
(a) The same in all the three compounds
172. The bond and hybridisation in ether (CH3OCH3) is:
(b) Greatest in ethane
(a) 106° 51’ , sp3 (b) 104° 31' , sp3 (c*) 110°, sp3 (d) None
(c) Greatest in ethylene
173. Hydrogen fluoride is a liquid hydrogen halides because:
*(d) Greatest in acetylene
*(a) HF molecules associate due to hydrogen bonding
181. In solid argon, the atoms are held together by:
8
(a) Ionic bonds (b) Hydrogen bonds (a) NaCI (b) NaBr (c*) NaF (d) NaI

(*c) van der Waals' forces (d) Hydrophobic forces 195. The correct order of decreasing polarity is:

182. The total number of valency electrons for PO43- ion is: (a) HF > SO2 > H2O> NH3

(a*) 32 (b) 16 (c) 28 (d) 3 (b*) HF > H2O> SO2 > NH3

183. Atoms or group of atoms which are electrically charged (c) HF > NH3 > SO2 > H2O
are known as:
(d) H2O > NH3 > SO2 > HF
(a) Anions (b) Cations (*c) Ions (d) Atoms
196. Which one species has the longest bond length:
184. Which has maximum bond order: (a) NO+ (*b) O2- (c) O2+ (d) N2+

(a) H2 (*b) N2 (c) F2 (d) O2 197. BeF2 has no dipole moment because of:

185. Among HX, the maximum dipole moment is of: (a) Covalent bond

(*a) HF (b) HCl (c) HBr (d) HI *(b) Linear and symmetrical structure

186. The bond order in ; is equal to bond order in: (c) Non-linear structure

(a*) N2+ (b) CN- (c) CO (d) NO+ (d) No charge displacement

187. The correct increasing bond angles order is: 198. Which is paramagnetic:

(a) BF3< NF3< PF3< CIF3 *(b) CIF3< PF3< NF3< BF3 (a) N2 (b) H2 (*c) O2 (d) Cl2

(c) BF3 =NF3< PF3< CIF3 (d) BF3< NF3< PF3< CIF3 199. The pair likely to form the strongest hydrogen bonding:
(a) H2O2 and H2O (*b) HCOOH and CH3COOH
188. Which is electron deficient compound:
(a) C2H4 (b*) B2H6 (c) C2H6 (d) NaBH4 (c) CH3COOH and CH3COOCH3 (d) SiH4 and SiCl4

189. In which of the following compounds, the bonds have 200. Which property is commonly exhibited by a covalent
the largest percentage of ionic character: compound:

(a) H2O (*b) HF (c) IBr (d) N2O4 (a) High solubility in water *(b) Low m.pt.

190. Which is not ionically bonded: (c) High electrical conductivity (d) High b.pt.

(a) H2O (*b) NaCI (c) KCI (d) K2S 201. The nature of bonding in diamond is:

191. The half of the difference between the number of (a) Ionic (*b) Covalent (c) Metallic (d) Co-ordinate
electrons in bonding molecular orbital and antibonding
molecular orbital is known as: 202. Which is least soluble in H2O:

(*a) Bond order (b) Proton order (a) BeF2 (b) SrF2 (*c) CaF2 (d) MgF2

(c) Molecular order (d) Electron order 203. Ortho and para hydrogens have:

192. Which combination is most likely to form predominantly (a) Same spin of electrons of two H atoms
covalent bonds:
(b) Opposite spin of electrons of two H atoms
(a) Sodium and hydrogen (b) Magnesium and oxygen
(c*) Different spin of nucleus or proton of two H atoms
(*c) Bromine and fluorine (d) Cesium and fluorine
(d) None
193. The energy of antibonding molecular orbital is:
204. Which contributes significantly to ionic bonding:
(*a) Greater than the bonding M.O.
(a) Transfer of protons (b) Overlap of atomic orbitals
(b) Smaller than the bonding M.O.
(c) Sharing of electrons
(c) Equal to that of bonding M.O. (d) None
* (d) Tendency to form closed shell configuration
194. Which is highest melting point halide:
205. Which is non-polar:

9
(a) H2S (b) NaSH (*c) Cl2 (d) H2SO4 *(a) 1s2, 2s2 2p6

206. The electronegativity values of C, H, O , N and S are (b) 1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s2
2.5,2.1,3.5,3.0 and 2.5 respectively. Which of the following
bonds is most polar: (c) 1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s2 3p2

(a)C-H ( b)N-H (c) S-H *(d) O-H (d) 1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s2 3p6

207. An element X has 3 electrons in p-orbitals and also 216. Among LiCl, BeCI2, BCl3, and CCl4 the covalent bond
belongs to ill period. Its molecular formula should be: character follows the order:

(a) X (b)X2 *(c) X4 (d) X5 (a) LiCI > BeCl2 > BCl3, > CCl4

208. The electronic structure of the four elements A, B, C (*b) LiCl < BeCl2 < BCl3 < CCl4
and D are ; (A) = 1s2; (B) = 1s2 , 2s2 2p2 ;(C) = 1s2 , 2s2 2p5
(D) = 1s2 , 2s2 2p6 (c) LiCl > BeCI2 > CCl4 > BCI3

The tendency to form electrovalent bond is maximum in: (d) LiCI < BeCl2 < BCl3 > CCI4

(a) A (b)B (c*) C (d) D 217. The correct order of decreasing polarisability of ion is:

209. Experiment shows that H2O has a dipole moment (a) CI-, Br-, I-, F- (b) F-, I-, Br-, Cl-
whereas CO2 has not. Point out the structures which best
*(c) I-, Br-, Cl-, F- (d) F-, CI-, Br-, I-
illustrate these facts:
218. Which has the lowest bond angle:
(a) O C O H O H
C (*a) NH3 (b) BeF2 (c) H3O+ (d) CH4
(b) O O H O H
O 219. During bond formation, normally all the elements in their
(c) O C O H H outermost shell acquire:
O H
(d) (a) 2 electrons (b) 4 electrons
C O O H C
*(c) 8 electrons (d) 10 electrons
210. An electrovalent compound does not exhibit space
isomerism due to: 220. Co-ordinate compounds are formed by:

(a) Presence of ions (b) High melting point (a) Transfer of electrons (b) Sharing of electrons

(c) Strong electrostatic forces between constituent ions *(c) Donation of electron pair (d) None of these

*(d) Non-directional nature of electrovalent bond 221. K+, Cl-, Ca2+, S2- ions are isoelectronics. The decreasing
order of their size is:
211. The molecule having largest dipole moment among the
following is: (a*) S2- > CI- > K+ > Ca2+ (b) Ca2+ > K+ > Ca2+ > S2-

(a) CH4 (*b) CHCI3 (c) CCl4 (d) CHI3 (c) K+ > CI- >Ca2+ > S2- (d) CI- > S2- > Ca2+ > K+

212. sp2-hybridisation is shown by: 222. Which explains that o-nitrophenol is more volatile than
p-nitrophenol:
(a) BeCl2 (*b) BF3 (c) NH3 (d) XeF2
(a) Hyper conjugation (b) Steric hindrance
213. Debye an unit of dipole moment is of the order of;
(c*) Hydrogen bonding (d) Resonance
(a) 10-10 esu cm *(b) 10-18 esu cm
223. Which contains a triple bond:
(c) 10-6 esu cm (d) 10-12 esu cm
(a) SO3 *(b) HCN (c) NH3 (d) C2H4
214. HCl involves;
224. Compounds formed by sp3d2-hybridisation will have
(a) s-s overlapping (*b) s-p overlapping configuration:

(c) p-p overlapping (d) p  -d  overlapping (a) Square planar *(b) Octahedral

215. The ground state electronic configuration of an element (c) Trigonal bipyramidal (d) Pentagonal bipyramidal
which is isoelectronic with H2O is:
225. Which does not use sp'-hybrid orbitals in its bonding:

10
(*a) BeF3- (c) NH4+ (b) OH3+ (d) NF3 236. What bond order does Li2 have:

226. The ICI molecule is: (a)* 1 (b)2 (c) Zero (d) 3

(a) Purely covalent (b) Purely electrovalent 237. Which of the following is least ionic:

(c*) Polar with negative end on chlorine (a) CaF2 (b) CaBr2 (*c) Cal2 (d) CaCI2

(d) Polar with negative end on iodine 238. Which does not have linear shape:

227. Which of the following molecules is covalent and shows (a) CO2 *(b) CH4 (c) C2H2 (d) Mercuric chloride
expanded octet in its formation:
239. Which shows non-directional bonding:
(a) HF (b) NF3 (c) BF3 (d*) ClF3
(a) BCl3 (b*) CsCI (c) NCI3 (d) BeCI3
228. In the formation of a compound AB, an electron is
transferred from atom A to atom B, then: 240. Concept of bond order in the molecular orbital theory
depends on the number of electrons in the bonding and
(a) A is divalent antibonding orbitals. The bond order:

(b) B is oxidised and A is reduced (a) Can have a -ve value

(c) The compound AB is covalent (b) Has always an integral value

(*d)The compound AB is electrovalent (c) Is a non-zero quantity

229. Which does not have pyramidal geometry: *(d) Can assume any + ve value, including zero

(a) SO32- (*b) NO3- (c) NH3 (d) C(C6H5)3- 241. The example of the pop-orbital overlapping is the
formation of:
230. Which is expected to conduct electricity:,
(a) H2 molecule (b*) CI2 molecule
(a) Diamond (b) Molten sulphur
(c) Hydrogen chloride (d) Hydrogen bromide molecule
(c*) Molten KCl (d) Crystalline NaCI
242. A bond with maximum covalent character between two
231. The correct order of ionic radii is: elements is found:

(a) I+ >I->I (b) I>I+>I- (a) Between atoms of same size

(c) I+ > I > I- *(d) I- > I > I+ (*b) Between two identical atoms

232. Methanol and ethanol are miscible in water due to: (c) Between atoms of widely different electronegativities (d)
Between chemically similar atoms
(a) Covalent character (*b) Hydrogen bonding character
243. Sulphurie acid molecule contains:
(c) Oxygen bonding character (d) None
(a) Only covalent bonds
233. The correct order of ionic radii is:
(b) Covalent and ionic bonds
(a) Fe > Fe2+ > Fe3+ (b) O2- > O- > O+
(c) Covalent and co-ordinate bonds
(c) I-> I > I+ (*d) All
*(d) Covalent, ionic and co-ordinate bonds
234. The charge on a cation M is + 2 and anion A is -3. The
compound formed has the formula: 244. Which of the following atoms has minimum covalent
radius:
(a) MA2 (*b) M3A2 (c) M2A3 (d) M2A
(a) Si (c) C (*b) N (d) B
235. OF2 is:
245. Sulphur in S2 is:
(a) Linear molecule and sp-hybridised
(a) sp-hybridised (c) sp2-hybridised
(b) Tetrahedral molecule and s/ -hybridised
(*b) sp3-hybridised (d) sp2-d-hybridised
*(c) Bent molecule and s/-hybridised
246. NF3 is:
(d) None

11
(a) Non-polar compound (b) Electrovalent compound 260. Most predominantly ionic compounds are obtained by
the combination of the groups:
(c*) Having low value of dipole NH3
(*a) 1 and 7 (b) 2and6 (c) 4 and 8 (d) 3 and 5
(d) Having more dipole moment than NH3
261. Which contains ionic as well as covalent bonds:
247. The bond order of C2+ is:
(a) LiCI (b*) (NH4)2S (c) PCl5 (d) CaF2
(a) 1 (b) 2 (*c) 3/2 (d) 1/2
262. Which of the following is correct:
248. How many unpaired electrons are present in N2+
*(a) Decrease in bond length means increase in bond
(a)* 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 strength .

249. Which has an odd electron and shows paramagnetic (b) Covalent radius of carbon is less than that of nitrogen
character:
(c) Single bonds are stronger than double bonds
(a*) NO (b) S2 (c) CO2 (d) H2O
(d) Fe (III) chloride cannot exist in the dimeric form Fe 2Cl6
250. What bond order does O22- have:
263. The type of bonding in hydrogen chloride is:
(*a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 1/2
(a) Ionic (b) Non-polar covalent
251. In which of the following N has lowest oxidation state:
(c) Co-ordinate covalent *(d) Polar covalent
(a) NO (b) N2 (*c) N2O (d) NPs
264. The bond order is maximum in:
252. Which will not conduct eleetric1ty:
(a*) H2 (b) H2+ (c) He2 (d) He2+
(a) Aqueous KOH solution (b) Fused NaCI
265. Which of the following bonds will be non-polar:
(c) Graphite (*d) KCI in solid state
(a) N-H (b) C-H (*c) F-F (d) O-H
253. The maximum possible number of hydrogen bonds in
which a water (H2O) molecule can participate: 266. Which of the following bonds require the largest amount
of energy to dissociate the bond concerned:
*(a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 6
(a) H-H bond in H2 (b) C-H bond in CH4
254. Which of the following has largest ionic radius:
(*c) N N bond in N2 (d) O=O bond in O2
(a) Na+ (b) K+ (c) Li+ *(d) Cs+
267. Which of the following is not isoelectronic:
255. Which species has lone pair on central atom:
(*a) NO- (b) CN (c) N2 (d) O22+
(a) CC4 (b) CH4 (c) NH4+ *(d) H2O
268. Valency means: .
256. The shape of a molecule which has 3 bond pairs and
one lone pair is: (a*) Combining capacity of an element

(a) Octahedral (b*) Pyramidal (b) Atomicity of an element

(c) Triangular planar (d) Tetrahedral (c) Oxidation number of an element

257. The compound showing maximum covalent character (d) None

is:
269. Which can be described as a molecule with residual
(a) BH3 (b) BCI3 (*c) BF3 (d) BBr3 bonding capacity:

258. The ionisation energy will be maximum for the process: (a) N2 (b) CH4 (c) NaCI (*d) BeCl2

270. NH3 has higher boiling point than expected, because:

(a) Ba  Ba2+ *(b) Be  Be2+
(a) With water it forms NH4OH
(c) Cs  Cs+ (d) Li  Li+
*(b) It bas strong intermolecular hydrogen bonds
259. Which of the following has lowest bond angle:
(c) It has strong intermolecular covalent bonds
(a) BeF2 * (b) H2O (c) NH3 (d) CH4

12
(d) Its density decreases on freezing in outermost shells. On combination they form a compound
of the type:
271. Which statement is not correct:
(a) X2Y *(b) XY(c) XY2 (d) X2Y2
(a) Double bond is shorter than a single bond
282. Which is soluble in water:
*(b) Sigma bond is weaker than 1t-bond
(*a) AgF (b) AgCI (c) AgBr (d)AgI
(c) Double bond is stronger than a sigma bond
283. Organic compounds soluble in water contain:
(d) Covalent bond is stronger than hydrogen bond
(a) C, H, CI (b) C, H (*c) C, H,O (d) C, S
272. As the s-character of hybridisation orbital increases.
the bond angle: 284. Which does not have a covalent bond:

*a) Increases (b) Decreases (a) Acetylene (b*) Brass (c) Copper sulphate

(c) Does not change (d) Becomes zero (d) Wax form petroleum

273. Pauling received Nobel Prize for his work on: 285. Variable valency is characteristic of:

(a) Photosynthesis (b) Atomic structure (a) Noble gases (b) Alkali metals

*(c) Chemical bonding (d) Thermodynamics (*c) Transition metals (d) Non-metallic elements

274. The highest oxidation state is shown by the element 286. Intramolecular hydrogen bonding is found in:
with the electronic configuration in d-orbitals:
*(a) Salicyldehyde (b) Water
(a) d2 (*c) d3 (b) d3 (d) d5
(c) Acetaldehyde (d) Phenol
275. Which easily:
287. An atom becomes ion when there is:
(a) X-(Cl- Br-, I- (b) OH- (c) H- (d*) None
(a) Gain of electron
276. Which of the following species would be least likely to
act as Lewis base: (b) Loss of electron

(a) PCl3 (*b) I+ (c) SCl2 (d) CN- *(c) Gain or loss of electron

277. Maximum covalence of an atom of an element is equal (d) Neither gain nor loss of electron
to:
288. The type of hybridisation present in SO2 and SO3 is
(a) Number of unpaired electrons in the s- and p-orbitals of respectively:
valency shell
(a) sp, sp2 *(b) sp2 ,sp2
(b) Number of unpaired electrons in the p-orbitals of valency
shell (c) sp2 sp3 (d) sp, sp3

(*c) Total number of electrons in the s- and p-orbitals of
valency shell
(d) Total number of electrons in the p-orbitals of valency
shell
289. Molecular size of ICI and Br2 is nearly same. but boiling
point of ICl is about 40°C higher than Br2' This might be due
to:
(a) I-CI bond is stronger than Br-Br bond

278. Which atomic orbital is always involved in sigma (b) lonisation energy of I< ionisation energy
bonding only:
(c*) ICI is polar where as Br2 is non polar
*(a)s (b)p (c) d (d)f
(d) The size of I > size of Br
279. The process requiring the absorption of energy is:
290. The electronic configuration of 4 elements K, L, M and
(a)FF- (b)HH- (c)CICl- (*d) O-O2- N are:

280. Which of the following bond is strongest: K=1s2, 2s2 2p1 L=1s2, 2s2 2p6

(a) C-C (*b) C-H(c) C-O (d) None M=1s2, 2s2 2p4 N=1s2, 2s2 2p3

281. Two atoms X and Y have 2 and 6 electrons respectively The element that would form a diatomic molecule with

13
double bond is: 300. H2O boils at higher temperature than H2S because it is
capable of forming;
(a) K (b) L (*c) M (d) N
(a) Ionic bonds (b) Covalent bonds
291. Which is not true in case of ionic bond;
(c*) Hydrogen bonds (d) Metallic bonds
(a*) It is linear bond (b) It is 100% ionic
301. When ionic compounds gets dissolved in water;
(c) It is formed between two atoms with large
electronegativity difference (a) They involve heat changes

(d) None (b) Inter ionic attraction is reduced

292. Strongest bond is in: (c) Ions show dipole-ion attraction with water molecules

(a) NaCI (b*) CsCI (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None *(d) All are correct

293. Which of the following does not exhibit both ionic and 302. In co-ordinate bond, the acceptor atoms must
covalent bonding: essentially contain in its valency shell an orbital:

(a) BaSO4 (b*) CH3Cl (c) NH4Cl (d) Ca(NO3)2 (a) With paired electron (b) With single electron

294. Linear combination of two hybridised orbitals, belonging *(c) With no electron (d) With three electrons
to two atoms and each having one electron leads to:
303. Elements having six electrons in its outermost orbit
(*a) Sigma bond (b) Double bond generally form:

(c) Co-ordinate covalent bond (d) Pi bond (a) Complex ion *(b) Negative ion

295. Among NaF, NaCl, NaBr and NaI, the NaF has highest (c) Positive ion (d) Zwitter ion
melting point because:
304. Chemical reactions involve participation of:
(*a) It has maximum ionic character
(a) Electrons (*b) Protons (c) Neutrons (d) Mesons
(b) It has minimum ionic character
305. Chlorine atom differs from chloride ion in the number of;
(c) It has associated molecules,
(a) Protons (b) Neutrons (*c) Electrons (d) Protons and
(d) It has least molecular weight electrons

296. Silicon has 4 electrons in the outermost orbit. In forming 306. When NaCI is dissolved in water the sodium ion is:
the bond:
(a) Oxidised (b) Reduced
(a) It gains electrons (b) It losses electrons
(c) Hydrolysed (*d) Hydrated
(*c) It shares electrons (d) None
307. The pairs of bases in DNA are held together by;
297. Which combination is best explained by the co-ordinate
covalent bond; (a*) Hydrogen bonds (b) Ionic bonds

(a) H2 + I2 (b) Mg + ½O2 (*c) Cl + Cl (d) H+ + H2O (c) Phosphate groups (d) Deoxyribose groups

298. Which involves breaking of covalent bond: 308. Which involves a bond forming process:

(a) Boiling H2S (b) Melting KCN (a) Stretching rubber (b) Dissolution of sugar in water

(*c) Melting SiO2 (d) Boiling CF4

*(c) Rusting of iron (d)Emission of y-rays by
299. Two elements X and Y have following electronic radioactive iron
configurations:
309. Solid NaCI is a bad conductor of electricity because:
X = 1s2 ,2s2 2p6, 3s2 3p6, 4s2 and
(a) In solid NaCI there are no ions
Y = 1s2 ,2s2 2p6 ,3s2 3p5
(b) Solid NaCI is covalent
The compound formed by combination of X and Y is:
(*c) In solid NaCI there is no velocity of ions
(*a) XY2 (b) X5Y2 (c) X2Y5 (d) XY5

14
(d) In solid NaCI there are no electrons

310. Which statement is wrong: 320. When a chlorine atom becomes a chloride ion, its Size:

(a) Hybridisation is the mixing of atomic orbitals prior to their (*a) Increases (b) Decreases
combining into molecular orbitals
(c) Remains same (d) None of these
(b) sp2 -hybrid orbitals are formed from two p-atomic orbitals
and one s-atomic orbital 321. Hydrogen bonding would not affect the boiling point of:

(c) dsp2-hybrid orbitals are all at 9° to one another *(a) HI (b) NH3 (c) CH3OH (d) H2O

(*d) d2s/-hybrid orbitals are directed towards the corners of a 322. Which is a good solvent for ionic
regular tetrahedron
covalent compounds:
311. PCI5 exists but NCI5 does not because: *(a) H2O (b) CH3COOH (c) CCI4 (d) Liquid NH3

(*a) Nitrogen has no vacant 2d-orbitals (b) NCI5 is unstable 323. Molecular orbital theory was proposed by:

(c) Nitrogen atom is much smaller than p (a) Werner (b) Kossel c) Moseley * (d) MulIikan

(d) Nitrogen is highly inert 324. As compared to covalent compounds. electrovalent

compounds generally have:
312. XeF6 is:
(a) High m.pt. and low b.pt. (b) Low m.pt. and high b.pt.
(a) Octahedral *(b) Pentagonal pyramidal
(c*) High m.pt. and high b.pt.(d) Low m.pt. and low b.pt.
(c) Planar (d) Tetrahedral
325. Fluorine molecule is formed by the overlapping of:
313. In HCHO carbon atom has hybridisation:
(a) s-p orbitals (b) s-s orbitals
(a) sp (*b) sp2 (c) sp3 (d) None
*(c) p-p orbitals by end to end manner
314. The dipole moment of CHCI3 is 1.05 debye while that of
CCI4 is zero, because CCI4 is: (d) pop orbitals by sides to sides manner

(a) Linear (b) Symmetrical 326. Covalent compounds:

(c) Planar *(d) Regular tetrahedral. (a) Are good conductor of electricity

315. The overlapping ability is maximum in case of: (*b) Are usually bad conductor of electricity

(a) sp3-hybrid orbital (*b) sp-hybrid orbital (c) Conduct electricity only on heating

(c) sp2-hybrid orbital (d) Same in all cases (d) Conduct electricity only when in aqueous form

316. A  -bond is formed by sideways overlapping of: 327. Which of the following atoms in its ground state is likely
to be diamagnetic:
(a) s-s orbitals (b*) p-p orbitals
(*a) Ca (b) (c) N (d) Al
(c) s-p orbitals (d) s-p-s orbitals
328. In dry ice there are in between molecules:
317. The bond between chlorine and bromine in BrCI3 is:
(a) Ionic bond (*b) Covalent bond
(a) Ionic (b) Non-polar
(c) Hydrogen bond (d) None
(c) Polar with negative end on Br-
329. Which does not apply to metallic bond:
(*d) Polar with negative end on CI-
*[(a) Overlapping (b) Mobile valency electrons
318. Which one of the following has not triangular pyramidal
(c) Delocalised electrons (d) None
shape:
330. The geometry of PF5 molecule is:
(a) NH3 (b) NCI3 (c) PF3 *(d) BCI3

319. Which compound shows hydrogen bonding: (a) Planar (b) Square planar

*(c) Trigonal bipyramidal (d) Tetrahedral

(a) HCI (b) C2H6 (c) RCH2CHO *(d) RCH2NHCH3

15
331. Which of the following molecules does not have a linear *(c) High value of lattice energy (d) none of these
arrangement of atoms:
343. A C  C bond is:
(a) C2H2 (b*) H2S(c) BeCl2 (d) CS2
(a) Weaker than C = C bond (b) Weaker than C-C bond (c)
332. In which of the following molecules the central atom has Longer than C-C bond (d*) Shorter than C=C bond
sl-hybridisation:
344. Most covalent halide of aluminium is:
(a) BeF2 (b*) BF3 (c) C2H2 (d) NH3
(a) AICl3 (b*) AlI3 (c) AIBr3 (d) AlF3
333. .Which possesses the largest atomic radius:
*(a) Fe (b) Fe2+ (c) Fe+ (d) Fe3+ 345. Which oxide of nitrogen isoelectronic with CO2:

334. Which molecule is T shaped: (a) NO2 (*b) N2O (c) NO (d) N2O2

(a) BeF2 (b) BCl3 (c) NH3 (*d) ClF3 346. Which statement is correct?

335. H2O has a net dipole moment, while BeF2 has zero
dipole moment, because:
(a) H2O molecule as linear while BeF2 is bent
*(b) BeF2 molecule is linear, while H2O is bent
(c) Fluorine is more electronegative than oxygen
(d) Be is more electronegative than oxygen
*(a) Pi bond always exists with sigma bond
(b) Pi bond can exist independently
(c) Sigma bond is weaker than pi bond
(d) Pi bond is less reactive than sigma bond
347. Which formulae does not correctly represents the
bonding capacity of the atom involved:

336. The electronic configuration of sodium chlorine justifies:

H F
F
(a) Their physical state (b) Their reactivity (a) H P H (b)
O
H
(c*) The formation of electrovalent compound NaCl O
O
(c) O N (d) H C C H
(d) None H
O O D
337. Which of the following has largest size:
348. Which is not characteristic of  -bond:
*(b) S2- (d) F- (a) CI (c) Na+
(a)  -bond is formed when a sigma bond already formed
338. The largest number of unpaired electrons is
*(b)  -bond are formed from hybrid orbitals
present in:
(a*) Nitrogen (b) Fluorine (c) Oxygen (d) S2- (c)  -bond may be formed by the overlapping of p-orbitals

339. If the electron pair forming a bond between two atoms A (d)  -bond results from lateral overlap of atomic orbitals
and B is not in the centre, the bond is:
349. For the formation of covalent bond, the difference in the
(a) Single bond *(b) Polar bond value of electronegativities should be:

(c) Non-polar bond (d)  -bond *(a) Equal to or less than 1.7 (b) More than 1.7

340. Which of the following has the minimum atomic radius: (c) 1.7 or more (d) None

(a) Na (b) K (c)N * (d)F 350. The shape of NO3- is planar. The overlapping of oxygen
orbitals with orbitals of nitrogen forms it:
341. The increase in bond order results in:
(a) sp3-hybridised (*b) sp2-hybridised
(*a) Decrease in bond length and increase in bond energy
(b) Decrease in bond length and bond energy (c) Three p-orbitals (d) None

(c) Increase in bond length and bond energy 351. Which hybridisation results non-planar orbitals:

(d) None (a) sp (b)sp2 (c*) sp3 (d) dsp2

342. The low solubility of BaSO4 in water is due to: 352. Bond energy of covalent O-H bond in water is:

(a) Low dissociation energy (b) Ionic bonds (a*) Greater than bond energy of hydrogen bond

16
(b) Equal to bond energy of hydrogen bond 365. In which molecule all atoms are coplanar:

(c) Less than bond energy of hydrogen bond (d) None (a) CH4 (*b) BF3 (c) PF3 (d) NH3

353. Aqueous solution contains: 366. The bonds present in [Cu(NH3)4]S4 are:

(a) H+ .(b) OH- (*c) H3O+ (d) H2 (a) Ionic (b) Co-ordinate (c) Covalent (*d) All

354. Intermolecular hydrogen bonds are not present in: 367. The bonds present in [Cu(NH3)4]S4 between copper and
(a)CH3CH2OH (b)CH3COOH (c) C2H5NH2 (d*) CH3OCH3 ammonia are:

355. Which of the following has maximum bond energy: (a) Ionic (b) Covalent (c*) Co-ordinate (d) Hydrogen

(a) O2 (*b) O2+ (c) O22- (d) O2- 368. Which is isoelectronic with carbon atom:

356. In melting, lattice structure of a solid: (a) Na+ (b) Al3+ (c) O2- (d*) N+

*(a) Changes (b) Becomes compact 369. How many bonded electron pairs are present in IF?
molecule:
(c) Remains same (d) None
(a) 6 (*b) 7 (c) 5 (d) 8
357. In a crystal, cations and anions are held together by:
370. Metallic bonds do not playa role in:
(a) Electrons (*b) Electrostatic forces
(a)* Brass (b) Copper (c) Germanium (d) Zinc
(c) Nuclear forces (d) Covalent bonds
371. Two lone pairs of elections and two bond pairs are
358. For which of the following hybridisation the bond angle present in:
is maximum:
(a) NH3 (b) BF3 (c) CO32- (*d) NH2-
(a) sp2 (b*) sp (c) sp3 (d) dsp2
372. Which is non directional bond:
359. The bond strength increases:
(a) Covalent bond (b) Co-ordinate bond
(a) With increasing bond order
(*c) Metallic bond (d) None
(b) With increasing extent of overlapping of orbitals
373. When the hybridisation state of carbon atom changes
(c) With decreasing difference between energies of from sp3 to sp2 and finally to sp, the angle between the
overlapping orbitals (*d) All hybridised orbitals:

360. The type of bond formed between H+ and NH3 in NH4+ (a) Decreases gradually (b) Decreases considerably
ion is:
(c) Is not affected (*d) Increases progressively
(a) Ionic (c*) Dative (b) Covalent (d) Hydrogen
374. At ordinary temperature and pressure, among halogens,
361. The hybridisation of carbon in diamond, graphite and the chlorine is a gas, bromine is a liquid and iodine is a solid.
acetylene is: This is because:

(*a) sp3, sp2, sp (b) sp3, sp, sp2 (a) The specific heat is in the order Cl2> Br2 > I2

(c) sp2, sp3, sp (d) sp, sp3, sp2 *(b) Intermolecular . forces among molecules of chlorine are
the weakest and those in iodine are the strongest
362. If a molecule MX3 has zero dipole moment the sigma
bonding orbitals used by M (at. no.< 21) is: (c) The order of density is I2> Br2 > CI2

(a) Pure p (b) sp-hybrid *(c) sp2-hybrid (d) sp3-hybrid (d) The order of stability is Cl2> Br2 > I2

363. The angle between two covalent bonds is maximum in: 375. The intermolecular attractive forces vary in the order:

(a) CH4 (b) H2O *(c) CO2 (d) SO3 (a) Water < Alcohol < Ether (b*) Water> Alcohol> Ether

364. CO2 has the same geometry as: (c) Alcohol> Water < Ether (d) Ether> Water> Alcohol

(A) HgCI2, (B) NO2, (C) SnCI4, (D) C2H2 376. Which is expected to have linear structure:

(a) A and C (b) B and D *(c) A and D (d) C and D (a) SO2 (b) CO2 (c*) CO32- (d) SO42-

17
377. Which of the following phenomenon will occur when two 390. Which of the following has shortest carbon-carbon
atoms of same spin will react: bond length:

(a) Bonding will not occur (b) Orbital overlap will not occur (a) C6H6 (b) C2H6 (c) C2H4 (*d) C2H2

(c*) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these 391. In compound X, all the bond angles are exactly 109°28’,
X is:
378. Which of the following phenomenon will occur when two
atoms of an element with same spin of electron in orbitals (a) Chloromethane (b) Iodoform
approach each other:
(*c) Carbon tetrachloride (d) Chloroform
(a) Orbitals will overlap (b*) Orbitals will not overlap
392. The correct order of bond angles is:
(c) Bonding will take place
(a) PF3 < PCI3 < PBr3 < PI3 (b) PF3 < PBr3 < Pel3 < PI3
(d) A diatomic molecule will be formed
(c) PI3 < PBr3 < PCI3 < PF3 (*d) PF3 > PCl3 < PBr3 < PI3
379. Which is not linear:
393. Which one is electron deficient compound:
(a) CO2 (b) HCN (c) C2H2 (*d) HP (a) NH3 (b) ICI (*c) BCI3 (d) PCI3

380. The atom having smallest covalent radius is: 394. Which pair will form the most stable ionic bond:

(a*) F (b) CI (c) Br () I (a) F and Cl (b) Li and F (c) Mg and Na (*d) Na and F

381. Among liq. HF, liq. NH3, CH4, CH3OH and N2O4, 395. The bond between atoms of two elements of atomic
intermolecular hydrogen bond is expected: number 37 and 53 is:

(a) In all(b) In all leaving one (*c) In three(d) None of these* (a) Covalent *(b) Ionic (c) Co-ordinate (d) Metallic

396. As compared to ethylene, the bond distance between

382. Which property of halogens increase from F to I: the two carbon atoms in acetylene is:

(a) Electronegativity (b) First ionisation energy (a) Longer (*b) Shorter (c) Same (d) None

(c*) Bond length in the molecule (d) None 397. Water has high heat of vaporization due to:

383. Hybridisation involves: (a) Covalent bonding (*b) H-bonding

(a) Addition of an electron pair(d) Removal of electron pair (c) Ionic bonding (d) None of above

(*b) Mixing up of atomic orbitals (c) Separation of orbitals 398. Which bond angle, e would result in the maximum
dipole moment for the triatomic molecule XY2 shown below:
384. Which has the minimum bond energy:
Y
(a) H-Br (b) H-I (c*) I-I (d) H-H

385. Which of the following has square geometry: 

Y
(a) HgCI2 (b) CO32- (c) NH4+ (d*) Ni(CN)42- X

386. The pair having similar geometry is: (a*)  = 90° (b)  = 120° (c)  = 150° (d)  =
(a) BF3, NH3 (*b) BF3, AIF3 180°

(c) BeF2, H2O (d) BCI3, PCl3 399. If the atomic number of element X is 7 the best electron
dot symbol for the element is:
387. CO2 is isostructural with:
.. .
(a) SnCI2 (b*) HgCI2 (c) H2O (d) SCI2 (a) X . (b) X : (c*) X : (d) X :
.

388. The number of lone pairs is same in PCI3 and:

400. Paramagnetism is exhibited by molecules:
(a) BCI3 (*b) NCl3 (c) CCI4 (d) PCl5
(a) Not attracted into a magnetic field
389. Which does not show hydrogen bonding:
(b) Containing only paired electrons
(a) C2H5OH (b) Liquid NH3 (c) H2O (d*) Liquid HBr
(c) Carrying a positive charge

18
(*d) Containing unpaired electrons (*a) Molecular solid (b) Ionic solid

401. The bonds between P atoms and Cl atoms in PCl5 are (c) Covalent solid (d) Does not exist
likely to be:
411. Electron deficient species are known as:
(a) Ionic with no covalent character
(*a) Lewis acids (b) Hydrophilic
*(b) Covalent with some ionic character
(c) Nucleophiles (d) Lewis bases
(c) Covalent with no ionic character
412. van der Waals' forces between molecules depend upon:
(d) Ionic with some metallic character
(a) Number of electrons (b) Charge on nucleus
402. Which compound among the following has more
covalent character: (c) Radius of atoms (d*) All

(a) AICl3 (*b) AII3 (c) MgI (d) NaI 413. van der Waals' forces are applied to:

403. Iron is tougher than sodium because: (a) Inert gases only (b) Rare gases only

(a) Iron atom is smaller *(c) Mixture of gases(d) Elementary gases only

(b) Iron atoms are more closely packed 414. Dipole-dipole attractive forces are between the
molecules of:
*(c) Metallic bonds are stronger in iron (d) None of these
(a) He (b) CH4 (c) CO2 *(d) H2O
404. Electron deficient molecules possess:
415. Strength of metallic bond increases with:
(a) Complete octets (*b) Incomplete octets
(a) Number of valency electrons
(c) Hydrogen bonding (d) None
(b) Decrease in size of the atom
405. Metallic bond can explain:
(*c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None
(a) Ductility (b) Toughness
416. The attraction that non-polar molecules have for each
(c) Malleability (d*) All other is primarily caused by:

406. Transition metals generally metallic bonds because of (a) Hydrogen bonding(b) Difference in electronegativities
their:
(c) High ionisation energy(d*) van der Waals' forces
(a) Large size (b) Small size
417. The diamagnetic molecules are:
(*c) Involvement of (n-1)d electrons in bonding
(a) B2 , C2 , N2 (b) O2 , N2 , F2
(d) Diamagnetism
*(c) C2, N2, F2 (d) B2, O2, N2
407. The weakest among the following is:
418. One would expect the elemental form of Cs at room
(a) Ionic bond (b) Covalent bond temperature to be:

(c) Metallic bond (*d) van der Waals' forces (a) A network solid (*b) A metallic solid

408. Which group of atoms have nearly same atomic radius: (c) Non-polar liquid (d) An ionic liquid

419. Among NH3, BeCl2, CO2 and H2O, the non-linear

(a) Na, K, Rb, Cs (b) Li, Be, B, C molecules are:

*(c) Fe, Co, Ni, Cu (d) F, Cl, Br, I (a) BeCl2 and H2O (b) BeCl2 and CO2

409. The forces present in the crystals of naphthalene are: (*c) NH2 and H2O (d) NH2 and CO2

(*a) van der Waals' forces (b) Electrostatic forces 420. Which does not show inert pair effect:

(c) Hydrogen bonding (d) None (*a) Al (b) Sn (c) Pb (d) Thallium

410. Solid CH4 is: 421. Which shows the highest lattice energy:

19
(a) RbF (*b) CsF (c) NaF (d) KF (a)H (*b)Na (c) Fe (d) O

422. Which has triangular planar shape: 436. A molecule in which sp2-hybrid orbitals are used by the
central atom in forming covalent bond is:
(*a) CH3+ (b) CIO2- (c) H3O+ (d) CIO3-
(a) He2 (*b) SO2 (c) PCl5 (d) N2
423. Which has the highest bond energy:
437. The covalent compound HCl has character because:
(a) Hydrogen bond (b*) Triple bond
(a) The electronegativity of hydrogen is greater than that of
(c) Double bond (d) Single bond chlorine

424. Inert pair effect is shown by: (b) The electronegativity of hydrogen is equal to than that of
chlorine
(a) Pb (b) Sn (*c) Tl (d) All
(*c) The electronegativity of chlorine is greater than that of
425. The electron affinity of the members of oxygen family hydrogen
follow the order:
(d) Hydrogen and chlorine are gases
(a)O>S>Se (b*)S>O>Se (c) S > Se >O (d) Se> O> S
438. Acetic acid exists as dimer in benzene due to:

426. Highest covalent character is found in which of the (a) Condensation reaction (*b) Hydrogen bonding
following:
(c) Presence of carboxyl group
(a) CaF2 (b) CaCl2 (*c) Cal2 (d) CaBr2
(d) Presence of hydrogen atom at a-carbon
427. Which of the following species has four lone pairs of
electrons in its outer shell: 439. Which one of the following is the normal electronic
formula of N2. (Atomic number 7):
(a) I (b)O- (c*) Cl- (d) He
(a):N::N: (*b):N..::N: (c):N::N (d) :N:N:
428. Dipole moment is highest for:
440. The unit of dipole moment is:
(a) CHCl3 (b) CH4 (*c) CHF3 (d) CCl4
(a) Einstein (b) Debye (c) Dalton (*d) Curie
429. An atom with atomic number 2 is most likely to combine
chemically with the atom whose atomic number is: 141. The hybridisation of Ag in the linear complex
[Ag(NH3)2]+ is:
(a) 11 (*b) 16 (c) 18 (d) 10
(a) dsp2 (b*) sp (c) sp2 (d) sp3
430. Which set have strongest tendency to form anions:
442. Oxygen is divalent, but sulphur exhibits variable valency
(b) Na, Mg, Al (d) V, Cr, Mn of 2, 4 and 6, because:

(a) Ga, In, Te (*c) N, O, F (a) Sulphur is less electronegative than oxygen

431. Which compound does not contain double bond or (b) Sulphur is bigger atom than oxygen
triple bond:
(c) Ionisation potential of sulphur is more than oxygen
(a) C2H2 (b*) H2O (c) N2 (d) HCN
(d)* Of the presence of d-orbitals in sulphur
432. Which one pair of atoms or ions will have same
configuration: 443. C-O-C angle in ether molecule is:

(a) Li+ and He- (b*) Cl- and Ar (c) Na and K(d) F+ and Ne (a*) 110° (b) 90° (c) 180° (d) 109°28’

433. Which of the following is largest ion: 444. Which has the highest ionisation potential:

(a) Na+ (b) Mg2+ (c*) O2- (d) F- (a) Na (b) Mg (c) C (*d) F

434. Which of the following molecules does not possess a 445. Which of the following does not involve covalent bond:
permanent electric dipole moment:
(a) PH3 (*b) CsF (c) HCI (d) H2S
(a) H2S (b) SO2 (c) SO3 (*d) CS2
446. Which is correct in the following:
435. Which of the following has unchanged valency:
(a) Radius of CI atom is .99 Å, while that of CI+ ion is 1.54 Å

20
(*b) Radius of Cl atom is .99 A, while that of Na atom is 1.54 (a) O2 (b) O2+ (c) O2- (*d) O22-
Å
457. 1,3-butadiene has:
(c) The radius of CI atom is .95Å, while that of CI- ion is .81 Å
(a) 6  and 2  1t-bonds (b) 2  and 2  -bonds

(d) Radius of Na atom is .95 Å, while that of Na+ ion is 1.54 Å (*c) 9  and 2  -bonds (d) 6  and 2  -bonds

458. Ferromagnetic substances are:

447. Which one is correct:
(a) Magnetic (*b) Strongly magnetic
(a) Dinitrogen is paramagnetic
(c) Non-magnetic (d) All metals
(b) Dinitrogen is paramagnetic
459. As a result of resonance:
(*c) Dinitrogen is paramagnetic
(a) Bond length decreases
(d) Dinitrogen is diamagnetic
(b) Energy of the molecule decreases
448. The electronegativity order of O, F, Cl and Br is:
(c) Stability of the molecule increases
(*a)F>O>Cl>Br (b)F>Cl<Br>O
(*d) All are correct
(c) Br > CI > F>O (d) F < Cl < Br < O
460. The compound with the maximum dipole moment
449. Maximum number of covalent bonds between two like among the following is:
atoms can be:
(a) p-dichlorobenzene (b) m-dichlorobenzene
(*a) Three (b) Two (c) Four (d) One
*(c) o-dichlorobenzene (d) Carbon tetrachloride
450. In the transition of Cu to Cu2+, there is a decrease in:
461. Which of the following has zero dipoli;P1oment:
(a) Atomic number (b) Atomic mass
(a) H2O (*b) CO2 (c) HBr (d) HF
(c) Equivalent weight * (d) Number of valency electrons
462. Greater the dipole moment:
451. The electron affinity order for halogens is:
(*a) Greater is the ionic nature
(a) F < Cl < Br < I (b) F> Cl < Br < I
(b) Lesser the polarity
(c*) F < Cl> Br> I (d) F> Cl> Br> I
(c) Smaller the ionic nature (d) none
452. The electrons in an incomplete outer shell are known
as: 463. Which of the following are not correct:

(a) Kernel electrons *(b) Valency electrons (a) Lone pair of electrons present on central atom can give
rise to dipole moment
(c) Shell electrons (d) None
(b) Dipole moment is vector quantity
453. The bond angle between H-O-H in ice is closest to:(a)
115° (*b) 109°28’(c) 110° (d) 90° (*c) CO2 molecule has dipole moment

454. The predominant intermolecular forces in hydrogen (d) Difference in electronegativities of combining atoms can
fluoride is due to: lead to dipole moment

(a) Dipole-induced dipole interaction 464. The molecules having dipole moment are:

(b) Dipole-dipole interaction (a) 2,2-dimethylpropane (b) Trans-3-hexene

*(c) Hydrogen bond formation  (*c) Trans-2-pentene (d) 2,2,3,3-tetramethylbutane

(d) Dispersion interaction 465. Which have zero dipole moment:

455. Which of the following has largest dipolemoment: (a) 1,1-dichloroethene (b) Cis-1,2-dichloroethene

(a) CH4 (b) NF3 (c) CF4 (d*) NH3 (*c) Trans-1,2-dichloroethene (d) None

456. Which of the following is diamagnetic: 466. Dipole moment is exhibited by:

21
(a) 1,4-dichlorobenzene the decrease in hydration energy

(*b) 1,2-dichlorobenzene (b) The decrease in lattice energy is less predominant than
the decrease in hydration energy
(c) Trans-1,2-dichloroethene
(c) The salts become less ionic
(d) Trans-1,2-dichloro-2-butene
(d) Lattice energy increases and hydration energy
467. Which has zero dipole moment:
477. Which statement is wrong:
(a) CIF (b) PCl3 (c*) SiF4 (d) CFCl3
(a) 2nd ionisation energy shows jump in alkali metals
468. Bond length decreases with:
(b) 2nd electron affinity for halogens is zero
(a) Decrease in size of the atom
(*c) Maximum electron affinity exists for F
*(b) Increase in the number of bonds between the atoms
(d) Maximum ionisation energy exists for He
(c) Decrease in bond order
478. Resonance structures of a molecule should have:
(d) Decrease in the number of bonds between the atoms
(a) Identical arrangements of atoms
469. The molecule with zero dipole moment is:
(b) Nearly the same energy content
(a) SO2 (b) CIO2 (c) NO2 (*d) HgCl2
(c) The same number of unpaired electrons *(d) All
470. Stability of hydrides generally increases with:
479. The number of unpaired electrons in O2 molecule is:
(a*) Increase in bond angle (b) Decrease in bond
angle (a) Zero (b) 1 (*c) 2 (d) 3

(c) Decrease in resonance (d) None 480. The bond that determines the secondary structure of a
protein is:
471. The molecule with largest dipole moment is:
(a) Co-ordinate bond (b) Covalent bond
(a) CH2Cl2 (b) CHCl3 (*c) CH3Cl (d) CCl4
(*c) Hydrogen bond (d) Ionic bond
472. van der Waals' forces are maximum in:
481. In the following molecule, the two carbon atoms marked
(a) HBr (b) LiBr (c) LiCl (*d) AgBr by asterisk (*) possess the following type of hybridised
* *
473. Carbon has a valency of2 in CO and 4 in CO2 and CH4. orbitals: H 3 C  C  C  CH 3
Its valency in acetylene C2H2 is:
(a) sp3-orbital (b) sp2-orbital (*c) sp-orbital (d) s-orbital
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (*d) 4

474. It is thought that atoms combine with each other such 482. A number of ionic compounds, e.g., AgCI, CaF2, BaSO4
that the outermost orbit acquires a stable configuration of 8 are insoluble in water. This is because:
electrons. If stability were attained with 6 electrons rather
than with 8 what would be the formula of the stable fluoride (a) Ionic compounds do not dissolve in water
ions:
(b) Water has a high dielectric constant
(a) F3+ (b*) F+ (c) F- (d) F2-
(c) Water is not a good ionising solvent
475. The enhanced force of cohesion in metals is due to:
*(d) These molecules have exceptionally high
(a) The covalent linkages between atoms attractive forces in their lattice

(b) The electrovalent linkages between atoms 483. Which one of the following will have a tetrahedral
nature:
(c) The lack of exchange of valency electrons
(a) SO2 (b) SO3 (c*) SO42- (d) SO32-
*(d) The exchange energy of mobile electrons
484. The bond order of a molecule is given by:
476. The solubility of hydroxides of alkaline earth metals
increases down the group because: (a) The difference between the number of electrons in
bonding and antibonding orbitals
(*a) The decrease in lattice energy is more predominant than

22
(b) Total number of electrons in bonding and anti bonding    
orbitals (c) C H2= C H-CH=O (*d) C H2=CH-CH= O

(c) Twice the difference between number of electrons in
bonding and antibonding orbitals
(*d) Half the difference between number of electrons in
bonding and antibonding orbitals
495. In a crystal, the atoms are located at the positions of:
(a) Maximum potential energy(c) Zero potential energy
(b*) Minimum potential energy(d) Infinite potential energy

485. Which compound has bond angle as nearly 90°: 496. In the formation of NaCI by combination of Na and Cl:

(a) NH3 (b*) H2S(c) H2O (d) CH4 (a) Sodium and chlorine both lose electrons

486. The hybridisation of P in PO43- is same as in: (b) Sodium and chlorine both gain electrons

(a) I in ICI4- (b) S in SO3 (c) N in NO3- (*d) S in SO42- (c*) Sodium loses but chlorine gains electrons

487. Bond angle between two hybrid orbitals is 15°. Hybrid (d) Sodium gains but chlorine loses electrons
character orbital is:
497. The number of sigma and pi bonds in 1-butene-3-yne
(a) Between 20 –21 % (b) Between 19 –20 % are:

(c) Between 21 –22 % (d*) Between 22 –23 % (a) 5 sigma and 5 pi (b*) 7 sigma and 3 pi

488. Acetate ion contains: (c) 8 sigma and 2 pi (d) 6 sigma and 4 pi

*(a) One C, O single bond and one C, O double bond 498. The covalency of nitrogen in HNO3 is:

(b) Two C, O single bond (a) Zero (b) 3 (c*) 4 (d) 5

(c) Two C, O double bonds 499. Which of the following halides is least stable and has
doubtful existence:
(d) None of the above
(a) CI4 (b) GeI4 (c) SnI4 (*d) PbI4
489. Valency of sulphur in Na2S2O3 is:
500. The electronegativity of Cs is 0.7 and that of F is 4.0.
(a) One (b) Three (c) Four *(d) Six The bond formed between the two is:

490. In a multielectron atom the energy of a 2p-orbital : (a) Covalent (b*) Electrovalent

(a) Less than that of 2s-orbital(c) Equal to that of 2s-orbital (c) Co-ordinate (d) Metallic

(b*) More than that of 2s-orbital(d) Double that of 2s-orbital 501. The bond between carbon atom (1) and carbon atom
(2) in compound.
491. In the cyanide ion the formal negative charge is on:
N  C-CH=CH2 involves the hybrid orbitals:
(a) C (b) N(c)Both C and N(d*) Resonate between C and N
(I) (2)
492. The valency of phosphorus in H3PO4 is:
(a*) sp and sp2 (b) sp2 and sp3
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (*d) 5
(c) sp and sp3 (d) sp and sp
493. In the electronic structure of acetic acid there are:
502. The Cl-C-Cl angle in 1,1 ,2,2-tetra chloroethene and
(a*) 16 shared and 8 unshared valency electrons tetra chloromethane respectively will be about:

(b) 8 shared and 16 unshared valency electrons (a) 109.5° and 90° *(b) 120° and 109.5°

(c) 12 shared and 12 unshared valency electrons (c) 90° and 109.5° (d) 109.5° and 120°

(d) 18 shared and 6 unshared valency electrons 503. The total number of electrons in one molecule of CO2 is:

494.Polarization of electrons in acrolein may be written as: (*a) 22 (b) 44 (c) 66 (d) 88

    504. The number of valency electrons in carbon atom IS:

(a) C H2=CH- C H=O (b) C H2=CH-CH= C
(a) Zero (b) 2 (c) 6 (*d) 4

23
505. The ratio of  and  -bonds in benzene is: (b) Belong to penultimate shell

(a) 2 (b) 6 (c*) 4 (d) 8 (*c) Belong to outermost shell and sometimes to penultimate
shell
506. Nucleus of an element contains 9 protons. Its valency
would be: (d) Belong to penultimate shell and sometimes to outermost
shell
(a) 1 (b) 3 (c) 2 (*d) 5
519. In which of the following process energy is liberated:
507. The hybridisation of carbon atoms in C-C single bond of
HC  C-CH=CH2 is: (a)Cl  Cl+ +e (b) HCI_H+ +Cl

(a) sp3-sp3 (b) sp2-sp3 (*c) sp-sp2 (d) sp3-sp (c)* Cl + e  Cl- (d) O- + e  O2

508. Increasing order (lower first) of size of the various 520. The hydration of ionic compounds involves:
hybridised orbitals is:
(a) Evolution of heat (b) Weakening of attractive forces
(*a) sp, sp2, sp3 (b) sp3, sp2, sp
(c) Dissociation into ions (*d) All
(c) sp2, sp3, sp (d) sp2, sp, sp3
521. Which does not form two or more chlorides:
509. IP1 and IP2 of Mg are 178 and 348 kcal mol-1. The
energy required for the reaction, (a)* Na (b) Hg (c) Cu (d) Fe

Mg  Mg2+ + 2e is: 522. Which is distilled first:

(a) + 170 kcal (*b) +526 kcal (*a) Liquid H2 (b) Liquid CO2

(c) -170 kcal (d) -526 kcal (c) Liquid O2 (d) Liquid N2

510. Which has minimum ionic radius: 523. IP2 for an element is invariably higher than IP1 because:

(a) N3- (b)K+ (*c) Na+ (d) F- (a) The size of cation is smaller than its atom

511. The IP1, IP2, IP3, IP4 and IP5 of an element are 7.1, (b) It is difficult to remove 'e' from cation
14.3,34.5,46.8,162.2 eV respectively. The element is likely to
be: (c) Effective nuclear charge is more for cation

(a) Na (b*) Si (c) F (d) Ca *(d) All

512. The IP1 is maximum for: 524. IP is influenced by:

(a) K (b) Na (c) Be (*d) He (a) Size of atom (b) Charge on nucleus

513. The maximum electron affinity stands for: (c) Electrons present in inner shells (*d) All

(a*) Cl (b) Br (c) F (d) I 525. Which is present in peroxides:

514. The maximum electronegativity stands for: (a) O2 (b) O2- (*c) O22- (d) O22-

(a)Cl (b)Br (c*) F (d) I 526. The correct order of second ionisation potential of
carbon, nitrogen, oxygen and fluorine is:
515. The electron affinity for inert gases is likely to be:
(a) C>N>O>F (b)O>N>F>C (c*) O>F>N>C (d)F>O>N>C
(a) High (b) Small (c*) Zero (d) Positive
527. Which of the following halides is not oxidised by MnO2:
516. Chlorine atom tends to acquire the structure of:
(*a) F- (b) Cl- (c) Br- (d) I-
(a) He (b) Ne (*c) Ar (d) Kr 0
528. Ionization energy of nitrogen is more than oxygen
517. The number of ions formed when a molecule of because:
K4Fe(CN)6 dissociates is:
(a) Nucleus has more attraction for electrons
(a) 4 (*b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 2
(b*) Half-filled p-orbitals are more stable
518. The electrons used in bonding atoms:
(c) Nitrogen atom is small
(a) Belong to outermost shell
24
(d) More penetration effect

529. Ionization potential is lowest for:

(a) Halogens (b) Inert gases

(c) Alkaline earth metals *(d) Alkali metals

530. The element with the highest first potential is:

(a) Boron (b) Carbon

*(c) Nitrogen (d) Oxygen

531. Which of the following statements is most correct.

Effective nuclear charge of an atom depends on:

(a) The atomic number of the atom

(b) The charge on the ion

(c) The shielding effect

*(d) Both the actual .nuclear charge and the shielding effect

532. Ionization potential of Na would be numerically the

same as:

(*a) Electron affinity of Na+ (b) Electronegativity of Na+

(c) Electron affinity of He (d) Ionization potential of Mg

25
550. Proton plays an important role in bonding: (b) Position of elements in electromotive series

(a) Electrovalent (b) Hydrogen (c) Co-ordination number

(c) Covalent (*d) Co-ordinate (d) Dipole moment of various molecules

551. The screening effect of d-electrons is: 561. Which ion is not isoelectronic with O2- :

(a) Equal to the p-electrons (a) N3- (b) Na+ (c) p- *(d) Ti+

(b) Much more than p-electrons 562. Which F the following configuration is associated with
biggest jump between 2nd and 3rd IE:
(c) Same as f-electrons
(a) 1s2 ,2s2 2p2 (b) 1s2 ,2s2 2p6,3s1
*(d) Less than p-electrons
(*c) 1s2 ,2s2 2p6,3s2 (d) 1s2 ,2s2 2p1
552. Which has the largest first ionisation energy:
563. Which of the following does not reflect the periodicity of
(*a) Li (b) Na (c) K (d) Rb elements:

553. Which of the ions has the largest ionic radius: (a) Bonding behaviour (b) Electronegativity

(a) Be2+ (b) Mg2+ (c) Ca2+ (*d) Sr2+ (c) Ionisation potential (*d) Neutron/proton ratio

554. Which of the following statement is not true about the 564. With reference to ionisation potential which one of the
long form of periodic table: following sets is correct:

(a) It reflects the sequence of filling of electrons in order of (*a) Li > K> Cs (b) B < Li > K
sub-energy levels s, p, d and f
(c) Cs > Li > B (d) Cs < Li < K
(b*) It helps to predict the stable valency states of the
elements 565. Which of the following has largest size:

(c) It reflects trends in physical and chemical properties of (a*) AI (b)AI+ (c) Al2+ (d) Al3+
the elements
566. Alkali metals in each period have:
(d) It helps to predict the relative ionicity of the bond between
any two elements (a) Largest size *(b) Lowest IE

555. The correct electronegativity order is: (c) Highest IE (d) Highest electronegativity

(a)C, N, Si, P (b) N, Si, C, P 567. A sudden large jump between the values of second and
third ionisation energy of an element would be associated
*(c) Si, P, C, N (d) P, Si, N, C with the electronic configuration:

556. Which one of the following elements have lower value (a) 1s2 ,2s2 2p6, 3s1 (b) 1s2 ,2s2 2p6,3s2 3p1
of ionisation energy:
(c) 1s2 ,2s2 2p6,3s23p2 *(d) 1s2 ,2s2 2p6, 3s2
(a) Mg (*b) Rb (c) Li (d) Ca
568. Which of the following is isoelectronic with carbon atom:
557. Which of the following element has ionisation energy is: (a) Na+ (b) AI3+ (c) O2- *(d) N+

(a) Boron (b) Carbon (c) Oxygen (*d) Nitrogen 569. The attraction that an atom exerts on a pair of electrons
that are being shared with another atom for forming covalent
558. Which among the following elements has lowest value bond is referred to as its:
of ionisation energy:
(a) Electron affinity *(b) Electronegativity
(a) Mg (b) Ca (c*) Ba (d) Sr
(c) Ionisation energy (d) Valency
559. Which among the following elements has lowest value
of ionisation energy: 570. The correct ionic radii order is:

(a) Pb (*b) Sn (c) Si (d) C *(a) N3- > O2- > F- > Na+ (b) N3->Na+>O2->F-

560. Paulings electronegativity values for elements are (c) Na+ > O2- > N3- > F- (d) O2- > F- > Na+ > N3-
useful in predicting:
571. The element with strong electropositive nature is:
(a*) Polarity of bonds in molecules
26
(a) Cu (*b) Cs (c) Cr (d) Ba orbitals is:

572. Which configuration represents atom having highest (a) Bonding molecular orbitals possess less energy than
second ionisation energy: combining atomic orbitals

(b) 1s2 ,2s2 2p6 (d) 1s2 ,2s2 2p6, 3s2 (*b) Bonding molecular orbitals have low electron density
between the two nuclei 0
(a) 1s2 ,2s2 2p4 (*c) 1s2 ,2s2 2p6, 3s1
(c) Every electron in bonding molecular orbitals contributes
573. The structure of ICl2- is: to attraction between atoms

(a) Trigonal (b) Octahedral (d) They are formed when the lobes of the combining atomic
orbitals have same sign
(c) Square planar *(d) Distorted trigonal bipyramid
584. The diamagnetic molecule is:
574. In H2- ion, the bond order is:
(b) Oxygen molecule *(c) Carbon molecule
(a) Zero (b*) 1/2 (c) -1/2 (d) 1
(d) Unipositive ion of nitrogen molecule (a) Superoxide ion
575. The shape of ClO3- according to VSEPR model is:
585. Amongst H2O, H2S, H2Se and H2Te, the one with
(a) Planar triangle (b*) Pyramidal highest boiling point is:
(c) Tetrahedral (d) Square planar (*a) H2O because of hydrogen bonding

576. In has hybridisation: (b) H2Te because of higher molecular weight

(a) sp (b) sp2 (*c) sp3 (d) dsp2 (c) H2S because of hydrogen bonding

577. H-bonding is not present in: (d) H2Se because of lower molecular weight

(a) Glycerine (b) Water (*c) H2S (d) HF 586. The bond angle in H2S (for H-S-H) is:
+
578. Hybridisation state of I in ICl2 is: (a) Same as that of Cl- Be - Cl in BeCl2

(a) dsp2 (b) sp (c) sp2 *d) sp3 (b) Greater than H - N - H bond angle in NH3

579. Born Haber's cycle is used to determine: *(c) Greater than H - Se - H and less than H-O-H

(a) Lattice energy (b) Electron affinity (d) Same as Cl- Sn - Cl in SnCl2.

(c) Ionisation energy *(d) Either of them 587. The correct order of increasing electropositive character
among Cu, Fe and Mg is:
580. The hybridisation of phosphorus in POCl3 is same as in:
(a) Cu  Fe < Mg (b)Fe < Cu < Mg
*a) P in PCI3 (b) S in SF6
(c) Fe < Mg < Cu (*d) Cu < Fe < Mg
(c) Cl in CIF3 (d) B in BCl3
588. In which molecule the central atom does not use sp 3
581. One among the following is the incorrect order of
hybrid orbitals in its bonding:
increasing ionisation energy:
(a) NH2- (b*) BeF3- (c) SO2Cl2 (d) SO42-
(a) Cl- < Ar < K+ (b) K < Ca < Sc
589. The size of ionic species is correctly given in the order:
*(c) Au < Ag < Cu (d) Cs < Rb < K
(*a) Cl7+ > Si4+ > Mg2+ > Na+ (b) Na+ > Mg2+ > Si4+ > Cl7+ (c)
582. Which of the following statement is correct:
Na+ > Mg2+ > Cl7+ > Si4+ (d) Cl7+ > Na+ > Mg2+ > Si4+
(*a) Polarisation of an anion is maximum by high charged
590. The correct order of bond angles among BF3, PF3, CIF3
cation
is:
(b) Small sized cation minimises the polarisation
(a) BF3 < PF3 < CIF3 *(b) BF3  PF3  ClF3
(c) A small anion brings about a large degree of polarisation
(c) CIF3 > PF3 > BF3 (d) PF3 < BF3 < ClF3
(d) A small anion undergoes a high degree of polarisation
591. If the electronegativity difference between two atoms A
583. The incorrect statements regarding bonding molecular and B is 2,0, then the percentage of ionic character in the
molecule is:
27
(a) 40% (*b) 46% (c) 23% (d) More than 50% (d) One sigma  bond

599. Which of the following statements is correct for CsBr3

592. The energy of  2s-orbital is greater than  *1s orbital
because: (*a) It is a covalent compound

(a*)  2s orbital is bigger than  1s orbital (b) It contains Cs3+ and Br- ions

(b)  2s orbital is a bonding orbital whereas  *1s is an (c) It contains Cs+ and Br3- ions
antibonding orbital
(d) It contains Cs+, Br- and lattice Br2 molecule
(c)  2s orbital has a greater value of n than  *1s orbital
600. Among the following species, identify the isostructural
(d) None
pairs:
593. If the ionic radii of K+ and F- are about 1.34 Å each, then
NF3, NO3-, BF3, H3O+, HN3
the expected values of atomic. radii of K and F should be
respectively: (a) [NF3, NO3-] and [BF3, H3O+]

(a) 1.34 and 1.34 Å (b) 2.31 and 0.64 Å (b) [NF3. HN3] and [NO3-, BF3]

(c) 0.64 and 231 Å (*d) 2.31 and 1.34 Å (c) [NF3, H3O+] and [NO3-, BF3]

594. The critical temperature of water is higher than that of *(d) [NF3, H3O+] and [HN3, BF3]
O2 because H2O molecule has:
601. The incorrect statement among the following is:
(a) Fewer electrons than O2 (*b) Two covalent bonds
(a) The first ionisation potential of AI is less than the first
(c) V shape (d) Dipole moment ionisation potential of Mg

595. The following compounds have been arranged in order (b) The second ionisation potential of Mg is greater than the
of their increasing thermal stabilities. Identify the second ionisation potential of Na
correct order:
(c) The first ionisation potential of Na is less than the first
K2CO3 (I) MgCO3 (II) ionisation potential of Mg

CaCO3 (Ill) BeCO3 (IV) (*d) The third ionisation potential of Mg is greater than the
third ionisation potential of AI
(a) I < II < III < IV (b) IV < II < III < I
602. Among KO2, AIO2-, BaO2 and NO2+, unpaired electron is
(*c) IV < II < I <III (d) II < IV <III <I
present in: (lIT, May 1997]
596. Arrange the following compounds in order of increasing
(a) NO2+ and BaO2 (*b) KO2 and AIO2-
dipole moment:
(c) KO2 only (d) BaO2 only
Toluene (I) m-dichlorobenzene (II)
603. Among the following compounds the one that is polar
o-dichlorobenzene (III) p-dichlorobenzene (IV)
and has the central atom with sp2-hybridisation is:
*(a) I < IV < II< III (b) IV <I< II <III
(a) H2CO3 (*b) SiF4
(c) IV <I < III < II (d) IV < II <I < III
(c) BF3 (d) HCIO2
597. KF combines with HF to form KHF2. The compound
604. Which of the following statements regarding carbon
contains the species:
monoxide is correct:
*(a) K+, F- and H+ (b) K+, F- and HF
(a) It involves sp-orbitals of carbon
(c) K+ and [HF2]- (d) [KHF]+ and F-
(b*) It contains a lone pair only on carbon
598. The number and type of bonds between two carbon
(c) It contains a lone pair only on oxygen
atoms in CaC2 are:
(d) In carbonyl, oxygen end is attached to the metal atoms
(*a) One sigma  and one pi  bond
605. o-hydroxy benzaldehyde, although contains enolic
(b) One sigma  and two pi (  ) bonds group but does not give test of group with FeCI3 because:

(c) One sigma  and one & a half pi (  ) bond *(a) It is steam volatile
28
(b) Of intermolecular H-bonding 5. General electronic configuration of outermost and
penultimate shell of an atom is (n - 1)s2 (n - 1) p6 (n - 1)
(c) Of intramolecular H-bonding dxns2. If n = 4 and x = 5, the number of proton in the
nucleus is:
(d) All
(a) > 25 (b) < 24 (c*) 25 (d) 30
606. The correct order of radii is

*(a) N < Be < B (b) F- < O2- < N3- 6. The elements present in each group form a family
because:
(c) Na < Li < K (d) Fe3+ < Fe2+ < Fe4+
(a) They exhibit different chemical properties
607. The hybridisation of atomic arbitals of nitrogen in NO 2+,
NO3- and NH4+ are: (b*) They possess common pattern of electronic
configuration
(a) Sp, sp3 and sp2 respectively
(c) They come immediately after noble gases
*(b) Sp, sp2 and sp3 respectively
(d) They are very reactive
(c) sp2 , sp and sp3 respectively
7. In the long form of periodic table all the non-metals are
(d) sp2, sp3 and sp respectively placed under:

608. Molecular shape of SF4, CF4 and XeF4 are: (a) s-block (*b) p-block (c) f-block (d) d-block

(a) The same with 2.0 and 1 lone pair of electrons respectively.
8. Long form of the periodic table is based on:
(b) The same with 1, 1 and 1 lone pair of electrons respectively .
(a) Atomic size (b) Atomic mass
(*c) Different with 0,1 and 2 lone pairs of electrons respectively .
(*c) Atomic number (d) Electronegativity
(d) Different with 1,0 and 2 lone pairs of electrons respectively .
9. Elements of group IB and IIB are called:
PERIODIC TABLE
(a) Normal elements (*b) Transition elements
1. According to modern periodic law, the chemical
properties of elements are the periodic function of their: (c) Alkaline earth metals (d) Alkali metals

(a) Density (*b) Atomic number 10. The element cited as an example to prove the validity of
Mendeleef's periodic law is:
(c) Mass number (d) Atomic mass
(a) Germanium (b) Scandium (c) Gallium (*d) All of these
2. According to Mendeleef's periodic law, the properties of
elements were the periodic function of: 11. Element A of group VA combines with element B of
group VIA. The resulting compound may have the formula:
(a*) Atomic weight (b) Atomic number
(a) A2B3 (b) A2B5 (c*) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
(c) Number of electrons (d) None of these
12. Elements of IVA group are:
3. Atomic number of Cr is 24, then Cr3+ will be:
(a) Strongly electropositive
(a) Diamagnetic (*b) Paramagnetic
(b) Strongly electronegative
(c) Ferromagnetic (d) None of these
(c) Weakly electronegative
4. Which statement is true?
(d*) Neither strongly electropositive nor strongly
(a*) The electronegative nature of elements increases along electronegative
the period
13. The element with atomic number 30 is expected to be
(b) The electropositive nature of elements increases along present in:
the period
(a) IB group (b) IA group (c) IIA group (d*) IIB group
(c) The chemical reactivity of elements increases along the
period 14. Zero group was introduced by:

(d) The chemical reactivity of elements decreases along (a) Lothar Meyer (b) Mendeleef (c*) Ramsay (d) Lockyer
the period
29
15. In periodic table from I group to VII group (a) Very high
electronegativity of elements:
(b) Low
(a) Decreases (*b) Increases
(c*) Almost approaching zero
(c) Remains constant (d) All of these
(d) High
16. Higher ionisation potential in a period is shown by:
26. A neutral atom will have the lowest ionization potential
(a) Alkali metals (b) Transition elements when electronic configuration is:

(c*) Halogen family (d) Alkaline earth metals (a) 1s1 (b) 1s2, 2s2 2p6

17. Outermost configuration of K, Cu+ and Cr+ are (*c) 1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s1 (d) 1s2, 2s2 2p2
respectively:
27. The element with the highest first ionization potential is:
(a*) 4s1, 3d10, 3d5 (b) 4s2, 3d10, 3d4
(a) Boron (b) Carbon
(c) 4s1, 3d9, 3d4 (d) 4s1, 3d9, 3d4
(*c) Nitrogen (d) Oxygen
18. Among the following elements, the most electronegative
is: 28. The halogen which has the highest electron affinity is:

(a) Oxygen (b) Chlorine (a) Fluorine (*b) Chlorine

(c) Nitrogen (*d) Fluorine (c) Bromine (d) Iodine

19. In which pair, the second atom is larger than first? 29. The correct order of second ionization potential of C, N,
O and F is:
(a) Br, Cl (b) Na, Mg
(a) C > N > O > F (b) O > N > F > C
(c) Sr, Ca (*d) N, P
(c*) O > F > N > C (d) F > O > N > C
20. An element X occurs in short period having configuration
ns2np1. The formula and nature of its oxide are: 30. An element having electronic configuration 1s2, 2s2 2p6,
3s2 3p1 is:
(a) XO3, basic (b) XO3, acidic
(a) An inert gas
(*c) X2O3, amphoteric (d) X2O3, basic
(b) A transition element
21. Element with atomic number 56 belong to which block?
(c) An inner transition element
(*a) s (b) p (c) d (d) f
(*d) A representative element
22. The smallest atom in the following is:
31. Which one is a metalloid?
(*a) Fluorine (b) Chlorine
(a) Tin *(b) Germanium
(c) Iodine (d) Bromine
(c) Silicon (d) Carbon
23. Sodium cannot exhibit +2 oxidation state because its:
32. Which of the following is not a metal?
(a) IP2 value is less than IP1 value
(a) Gold (b) Mercury
(*b) IP2 value is higher than IP1 value
(c) Scandium (d*) Selenium
(c) IP2 and IP1 values are equal
33. Manganese belongs to......of periodic table.
(d) IP2 value is zero
(a) V block (b) 'p' block
24. 58Ce is a member of:
(*c) 'd' block (d) 'f' block
(a) s-block elements (b) p-block elements
34. Which represents the electronic configuration of the
(c) d-block elements (d*) f-block elements most electropositive element?

25. Electron affinity of noble gases is: (a) [He] 2s1 (*b) [Xe]6s1
30
(c) [He] 2s2 (d) [Xe]6s2 (b*) Continuous increase

35. Which is more electropositive? (c) Periodic one, an increase followed by a decrease

(a*) Mg (b) Al (c) P (d) S (d) Periodic one, a decrease followed by an increase

36. Halogens are placed in same group because they: 43. The ionization energy of nitrogen is more than oxygen
because of:
(a) Are electronegative
(a) More attraction of electrons by the nucleus
(b) Are most reactive
(*b) The extra stability of half filled p-orbitals
(c*) Have 7 electrons in outermost orbit
(c) The size of nitrogen atom is smaller
(d) Are non-metals
(d) More penetrating effect
37. Pauling's electronegativity scale is based on
experimental value of: 44. The correct order of the size of the iodine species is:

(a) Atomic radii (*b) Bond energies (a) I > I > I- (b) I > I > I+

(c) Bond lengths (d) Electron affinity (c) I+ > I- > I (d*) I- > I > I+

38. Elements which generally exhibit multiple oxidation 45. The ionization energy of an atom is the energy needed:
states and whose ions in aqueous medium are usually
coloured are: (a) To add an electron to the atom

(a) Metalloids *(b) Transition elements (b) To transfer an electron from one orbit to another

(c) Non-metals (d) Gases (c) To convert the atom into a radioactive isotope

39. The elements X, Y, Z and J have the indicated electron (*d) To just cause an electron to escape from the isolated
configurations starting with the innermost shell. The most gaseous atom
metallic element is:
46. The first ionisation energy of sodium is 500 kJ mol-1.
(a) X =2, 8, 3 (b) Y =2, 8, 8 This denotes the energy:

(c*) Z = 2, 8, 8, 1 (d) J = 2, 8, 8, 7 (a) Given out when 1 mole of sodium atoms dissolves in
water to form sodium ions
40. A common trend to both groups I and VII elements in
the periodic table, as the atomic number increases is: (b) Required to remove one electron to infinity from one
atom of sodium
(a) Oxidizing power increases
(c) Required to raise the electrons in one mole of gaseous
(b*) Atomic radius increases sodium atoms to a higher energy level

(c) Maximum valency increases (*d) Required to change one mole of gaseous sodium atoms
into gaseous ion (Na+)
(d) Reactivity with water increases
47. An example of a non-stoichiometric compound is:
41. In the periodic table with the increase in atomic number
of elements in a period the ionization energy: (a) Al2O3 (*b) Fe3O4

(a*) Generally increases (c) NiO (d) PbO

(b) Decreases 48. How many (approximately) elements are known?

(c) First increases and then decreases (a) 92 (b) 100 (c*) 104 (d) 80

(d) First decreases and then increases 49. Electronegativity is a measure of the capacity of an atom
to:
42. On going down a main subgroup in the periodic table
(example Li to Cs in IA or Be to Ba in IIA) the expected (a) Repel electrons
trend of change in atomic radius is a:
(*b) Attract shared pair of electron
(a) Continuous decrease
31
(c) Share electrons with another atom 59. Which electronic configurations represent to a transition
element?
(d) Combine with protons
(a) 1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s2 3p6 3d10, 4s2 4p6
50. Which element has the greatest tendency to lose
electrons? (b) 1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s2 3p6 3d10,4s2 4p1

(a) F (*b) Fr (c) S (d) Be (c*) 1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s2 3p6 3d2, 4s2

51. Group number of an element represents the valency (d) 1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s2 3p6,4s2
with respect to:
60. Most of the man-made or transuranic (artificially
(a) Hydrogen (*b) Oxygen prepared) elements occur:

(c) Carbon (d) Helium (a*) In the actinoid series

52. Which element has the highest electronegativity? (b) In the lanthanoid series

(a*) F (b) H (c) Ne (d) La (c) Among the metalloids

53. With respect to chlorine, hydrogen is more: (d) Among the non-metals

(*a) Electropositive (b) Electronegative 61. Which one is most metallic?

(c) Neutral (d) None of these (a) P (b) As (c) Sb (*d) Bi

54. The element whose electronic configuration is 62. Elements of IA and IIA group are called:
1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s2, is:
(a) Actirioids metals (b*) Normal elements
(a) Metalloid (*b) Metal
(c) Rare earth metals (d) Transition elements
(c) Noble gas (d) Non-metal
63. The law of triads is applicable to a group of:
55. Which has the smallest size?
(*a) Cl, Br, I (b) C, N, O
(a) Rb (b) K
(c) Na, K, Rb (d) H, O, N
(c) Na (d*) Li
64. The telluric helix was given by:
56. An element has the configuration 1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s2 3p2.
(a) Newland (b) Mendeleef
To which block in the long form of the periodic table, does
this belong? (c) Lothar Meyer (*d) De-chancourtois

(a) s-block (*b) p-block 65. Each transition series except last one contains:

(c) d-block (d) f-block (a) 12 elements (b*) 10 elements

57. Variable valency is shown by: (c) 8 elements (d) 14 elements

(a) Typical elements (b) Normal elements 66. The law of Octaves is applicable to:

(*c) Transition elements (d) None of these (a) B, N, C (b) Be, Mg, Ca

58. Atomic radii of elements in a period generally.......from (*c) Ar, K, Ca (d) Se, Te, As

right to left. 67. Mendeleef corrected the atomic weight of:

(a) Decrease (a) Be (*b) In

(b*) Increase (c) Os (d) All of these

(c) Remain constant 68. Which group of elements is analogous to the

lanthanoids?
(d) First decrease and then increase
(a*) Actinoids (b) Carbides

32
(c) Borides (d) Hydrides 76. Elements of IA group give flame colour due to:

69. Which is most reactive chemically? (a*) Low IP

(a) Mg (b) Ca (b) Low m.p.

(c) Sr (d*) Ba (c) Softness

70. The IA group metals in a group are arranged in the (d) One electron in outermost shell
order:
77. Mendeleef was a scientist of:
(a) Li, Na, Cs, K, Rb, Fr
(a*) Russia (b) Japan
(b) Fr, Li, Rb, K, Na, Cs
(c) England (d) America
(c*) Li, Na, K, Rb, Cs, Fr
78. Which of the following order is incorrect?
(d) Na, K, Li, Rb, Fr, Cs
(a) Acidic : NH3 < PH3 < AsH3
71. Actinoids are all:
(b*) IE1 : Li < Be < B < C
(a) Synthetic elements
(c) Basic : Al2O3 < MgO < Na2O < K2O
(b) Include elements from 92 onwards
(d) Ionic radius : Li+ < Na+ < K+ < Cs+
(*c) Have variable valency
79. Elements of the same group of the periodic table have:
(d) Have only short lived isotopes
(a) Same atomic size
72. The alkali metals have:
(b) Same electronic configuration
(a) Highest ionization energy
(c*) Same number of electrons in outermost shell of their
(b*) Largest atomic radii atom

(c) Highest density (d) Same number of atoms

(d) Highest electronegativity 80. On the basis of electronic configuration, the known
elements are grouped in:
73. Which statement is false?
(a) 3-blocks
(a) Elements of VB group are transition elements
(b) 2-blocks
(*b) Elements of VA group are all metalloids
(c) 4-blocks + Lanthanoids
(c) Elements of IA and IIA group are normal elements
(*d) 3-blocks + Lanthanoids + Actinoids
(d) Elements of IVA group are neither strongly
electronegative nor strongly electropositive 81. In the long form of periodic table, the elements having

74. The first ionization energy is smallest for the atom with lowest ionization potential are placed in:
electronic configuration:
(*a) I group (b) IV group
(a) ns2 np3 (*b) ns2 np4
(c) VII group (d) Zero group
(c) ns2 np5 (d) ns2 np6
82. Which element has the highest atomic volume?
75. An atom with high electronegativity generally has:
(a) Rn (b) Ra (*c) Fr (d) Ha
(a) Tendency to form +ve ions
83. The number of elements in each long period is:
(b*) High ionization potential
(a*) 18 (b) 10 (c) 8 (d) 32
(c) Large atomic size
84. The lightest metal in the periodic table is:
(d) Low electron affinity
(a) H (b) Mg (c) Ca (d*) Li
33
85. The ionic radii of N3-, O2- and F- are respectively given (c) 7th (d) 2nd
by:
93. Correct increasing order of density is:
(a) 1.36,1.40,1.71 (b) 1.36,1.71,1.40
(a*) Li < K < Na < Rb < Cs (b) Li < Na < K < Rb <
(c*) 1.71,1.40,1.36 (d) 1.71,1.36,1.40 Cs

86. The group in which all the elements do not have same (c) Cs < Rb < K < Na < Li (d) K < Li < Na < Rb <
number of electrons in their valency shell, is: Cs

(*a) Zero (b) Second 94. The maximum tendency to form unipositive ion stands
for the element with the electronic configuration:
(c) First (d) Seventh
(a) 1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s2 (b*) 1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s1
87. In the transition elements, the incoming electron
occupies (n - 1)d sublevel in preference to: (c) 1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s2 3p2 (d) 1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s2 3p3

(*a) np (b) ns 95. The element present in the III group and III period in
periodic table is:
(c) (n - 1)d (d) (n + 1)s
(a) Carbon (b) Phosphorus
88. An element X is placed in group IA of the periodic table
because it forms: (c) Cobalt (*d) Aluminium

(a) An oxide which is acid 96. O2-2 is isoelectroriic with:

(b) A volatile chloride having formula XCl2 (a) H2 (b) N2

(c*) An ionic chloride having formula XCl (c*) F2 (d) S

(d) An insoluble chloride XCl4 97. In the periodic table, the metallic character......with
increase in atomic no.
89. The long form of periodic table has:
(*a) Decreases in a period and increases in a group
(a) 8 horizontal and 8 vertical rows
(b) Increases in a period and decreases in a group
(b*) 7 horizontal and 18 vertical rows
(c) Increases both in a period and the group
(c) 10 horizontal and 14 vertical rows
(d) Decreases in a period and the group
(d) 14 horizontal and 10 vertical rows
98. VIII group of periodic table contains:
90. Identify the least stable ion in the following:
(a) 6 elements (b) 12 elements
(a) Li- (*b) Be-
(c) 3 elements (*d) 9 elements
(c) B- (d) C-
99. Eka aluminium and eka silicon are now known as:
91. The phrase "periodicity in the properties of elements"
means that when elements are arranged in the increasing (a*) Ga and Ge (b) Al and Si
order of their atomic weights or atomic numbers, elements
with similar nature: (c) Fe and S (d) H+ and Si

(a) Repeat after a fixed interval 100. Which electronic configuration represents an inert gas?

(b*) Repeat after certain regular interval (a) 2, 8, 1 (b*) 2, 8, 8

(c) Form vertical groups (c) 2, 1, 7 (d) 2, 8, 2

(d) Form horizontal rows 101. Which are attracted in magnetic field?

92. Element with electronic configuration 1s2, 2s2 2p6, (*a) Co salt (b) Zn salt
3s2 3p6 3d10, 4s2 4p6 4d10, 5s2 5p3 belongs to the.......group
(c) Ba salt (d) None of these
of the periodic table.

(a) 3rd (*b) 5th

34
102. J-block elements in long form of periodic table are 110. Which one is a transition element?
placed:
(a) Al (b) As
(a) On the extreme left (*b) In the middle
(*c) Ni (d) Rb
(c) On the extreme right (d) At the bottom
111. In the series carbon, nitrogen, oxygen and fluorine the
103. Which one of these is basic? electronegativity:

(a) CO2 (b*) SnO2 (a) Decreases from carbon to fluorine

(c) NO2 (d) SO2 (b*) Increases from carbon to fluorine

104. The first ionization potential of aluminium is smaller (c) Remains constant
than that of magnesium because:
(d) Decreases from carbon to oxygen and then increases
(a) Atomic size of Al > Mg
112. The maximum atomic radius exist for:
(b) Atomic size of Al < Mg
(a*) Mg (b) Al (c) Si (d) P
(*c) Al has one electron in p-orbital
113. The name of the element with atomic number 100
(d) None of the above was adopted in honour of: [EAMCET 1995] (a) Alfred Nobel
(*b) Enrico Fermi (c) Dimitri Mendeleef (d) Albert
105. Which statement is incorrect? The d-block elements: Einstein

(a*) Have atomic radii larger than s- and p-block elements 114. Which one has lowest first ionization potential? (a*) B
(b) C (c) N (d) O
(b) Have high melting points, boiling points and tensile
strength 115. A d-block element is:

(c) Have variable oxidation states (a) Sodium (b) Calcium (c*) Copper (d)
Argon
(d) Exhibit catalytic properties
116. If a certain element has an atomic number 19, the
106. The elements which exhibit both vertical and horizontal
element is:
similarities are:
(a) An inert gas
(a) Inert gas elements
(b*) A metal with oxidation number +1
(b) Representative elements
(c) A non-metal with oxidation number -3
(*c) Transition elements
(d) A metal with oxidation number -3
(d) Rare earth elements
117. Most of the known elements are:
107. Characteristic of transition element is that its.......is
(a*) Metals
incomplete.
(b) Non-metals
(*a) ‘d’ orbital (b) 'p' orbital
(c) Transition metals
(c) 'f' orbital (d) 's' orbital
(d) Inner transitional metals
108. The order of decrease in atomic radii for Be, Na and
Mg is: 118. The periodic table of elements was first proposed by:

(*a) Na > Mg > Be (b) Mg > Na > Be (a) Cavendish (b) Scheele (c*) Mendeleef (d) Dalton

(c) Be > Na > Mg (d) Be > Mg > Na 119. In the period the elements are arranged in the strict
sequence of:
109. The metal which is not ferromagnetic, is:
(a*) Increasing charges in the nucleus
(a) Iron (*b) Manganese
(b) Increasing atomic radii
(c) Cobalt (d) Nickel

35
(c) Increasing neutrons 132. Which of the following halides is not oxidised by MnO2?

(d) Increasing ionic radii (*a) F- (b) Cl- (c) Br- (d) I-

120. An element R forms the highest oxide R2O5. R belongs
to:
(a) IV group (*b) V group (c) VI group (d) VII group
121. The element with atomic number 6 is found in:
133. Beryllium shows diagonal relationship with the
element: (a) Sodium (b) Calcium (c*) Aluminium
(d) Carbon
134. As we go down a group in the periodic table, the first
ionization energies of the elements:

(a*) IV group (b) IV period (c) VI period (d) VI group (a*) Gradually decrease

122. Which element has the lowest first ionization energy? (b) Gradually increase

(a) Na (*b) F (c) I (d) Cs (c) First increase and then decrease

123. Which of the following halogens has the largest size? (d) First decrease and then increase

(a) F (b) Cl (c) Br, (*d) I 135. The element among the following having maximum
electronegativity is:
124. Which element possesses the lowest, first ionization
energy? [CET (Karnataka) 1992] (a) Al (b) P (c) Si (d*) S

(a) Mg (*b) Rb (c) Li (d) Ca 136. The largest number of known elements are placed in
period:
125. Lithium shows diagonal relationship with:
(a) IV (b) V (*c) VI (d) VII
(*a) Mg (b) Hg (c) Mg and Hg (d) None of these
137. Which sets of ions represents the collection of
126. In the 6th period of periodic table 14 elements are
isoelectronic species?
placed in the III group of the period. These are known as:
(a) Na+,Mg2+,Al3+,Cr (b) Na+,Ca2+,Sc3+,F-
(a) Alkali metals (b) Alkaline earth metals (c) Rare gases
(*d) Rare earths (c) K+,Cr,Mg2+,Sc3+ (*d) K+,Ca2+,Sc3+,Cl-

127. The element with atomic number 26 is: (a) A non- 138. Which species has the maximum ionic radius?
metal (b) Krypton (c*) Iron (d) Manganese
[NCERT 1990]
128. Which has the highest value of ionic radius?
(a) Na+ (b*) O2- (c) F- (d) Mg2+
[AIEEE 2004]
139. Which one would be expected to be paramagnetic?
(a) F- (b) B3+ (c*) O2' (d) Li+
(a) Cu+ (b*) Cu++ (c) H2 (d) None of
129. Which has largest size? these

(a) Br (b) F (c) I (*d) r 140. As we move along the periodic table from left to right,
the atomic size decreases. However, noble gases have the
130. Zn and Cd do not show variable valency like V block
largest size because of: [NCERT 1990] (a*) Covalent radii
elements due to:
(b) Ionic radii (c*) van der Waals' radii (d) Stable octet
(a) Softness
141. Which of the following is paramagnetic? [CPMT 1992]
(a) O2- (b) CN- (c) CO (d) N0+
(b*) Complete 'd’ orbital
142. Nitrogen exhibits its group valency in: (a) Ammonia (b)
(c) Two electrons in outermost orbit
Hydrazine (c) Nitrogen dioxide (*d) Silver nitrate
(d) Low m.p.
143. Which relation represents the correct relationship of
131. When a neutral atom is converted into the anion, its: the radius of an atom, its cation and its anion?

(*a) Size increases (b) Size decreases (a) Atom = Cation = Anion

(c) Atomic number increases (d) Atomic number decreases (b) Atom > Cation > Anion

(*c) Atom > Cation < Anion

36
(d) Atom<Cation>Anion (a) Na (b) Mg (*c) Fe (d) Al

144. The tendency towards formation of coloured ions is the 157. Which one of the following has the highest melting
maximum in: point?

(a) s-block elements (*b) d-block elements (c) p-block (a) Na (b) Mg (c) K (*d) Al
elements (d) f-block elements
158. Which of the following transition metal ions has lowest
145. The element having 18 electrons in its outermost shell density?
is: (a) 28Ni (*b) 46Pd (c) 29 Cu (d) None of
these (a) Copper (b) Nickel (*c) Scandium (d) Zinc

146. The scientist, whose work on atomic numbers led to 159. Which shows highest magnetic moment? (a) V3+ (b)
the modern periodic table is: (a) Mendeleef (b) Lothar Meyer Cr3+ (c*) Fe3+ (d) Co3+
(c*) Moseley (d) Newland
160. Which statement correctly defines the atomic volume
147. The order of first electron affinity of O, S and Se is: of an element?

(a) O>S>Se (*b) S>O>Se (c) Se>O>S (d) Se>S>O (a) Density divided by relative atomic mass

148. General electronic configuration of the transition (b) Density multiplied by relative atomic mass
elements is given by: [CPMT 1990]
(c) Volume of one atom of the element
(a) ns2 nd1-10 (b) ns2 np6 nd1-10
(d*) Volume of one mole of atoms of the element
(c) (n-1)d1-10 np6 (*d) (n-1)d1-10 ns0~2
161. Among Al2O3,SiO2,P2O3 and SO2, the correct order of
149. The most electronegative element among the following acid strength is: [AIEEE 2004]
is: [CBSE 1991] . (a) Oxygen (b) Sodium (c)
(a*) Al2O3 <SiO2 <P2O3 <SO2
Iodine (d*) Fluorine
(b) SiO2 < SO2 < Al2O3 < P2O3
150. The alkaline earth metals Ba, Sr, Ca and Mg may be
arranged in the order of their decreasing first ionization
(c) Al2O3 < SiO2 < SO2 < P2O3
potential as: [CPMT 1990] (a*) Mg, Ca, Sr, Ba (b)
Ca, Sr, Ba, Mg (c) Sr, Ba, Mg, Ca (d) Ba, Mg, Ca, Sr (d) SO2 < P2O3 < SiO2 < Al2O3

151. Which arrangement for the three halogens Cl, Br and I 162. Which transition metal ion is diamagnetic?
is correct in the order of their increasing electron affinity?
[CPMT 1991]
[CPMT 1990]
(a) Co2+ (b) Ni2+ (c) Cu2+ (*d) Zn2+
(a) Cl, Br, I (b*) I, Br, Cl (c) Br, Cl, I (d) I, Cl,
Br 163. Variable valency is shown by:

152. Amongst the following elements the configuration (a) Na (*b) Cu (c) Mg (d) Al
having the highest ionization energy is: [IIT 1990] (a)
[Ne]3s2 3p1 (*b) [Ne]3i2 3p3 (c) [Ne]3s2 3p2 (d) [Ar]3d10 4s2 164. If atomic number of an element is 17, it will be placed
4p3 in the periodic table in:

153. The maximum number of valency electrons possible for (a) First group (b) Fifth group (c) Eighth group (*d)
atoms in the second period of the periodic table is: (a) 18 Seventh group
(b) 10 (c*) 8 (d) 2
165. Non-stoichiometric compounds have the properties of:
154. The long form of periodic table was developed by: (a)
(a) Insulation (*b) Electrical conductance
Bohr (b) Mendeleef (c) Rutherford (*d) Rang
and Warner
(c) Isolation (d) None of these
155. Which series of elements would have nearly the same
166. The formation of the oxide ion O2- requires first an
atomic radii? [PMT (MP) 1991] (*a) Fe, Co, Ni
exothermic and then an endothermic step as shown below:
(b) Na, K, Rb (c) F, Cl, Br (d) Li, Be, B
O(g) + e  O-(g);
156. Which metal exhibits more than one oxidation state?
This is because : [AIEEE 2004]
[CPMT 1990]

37
(a) O- ion has comparatively larger size than oxygen atom 177. Correct order for solubility is: [III 2002]

(b) Oxygen has high electron affinity (a) CuS > ZnS > Na2S (b) ZnS > Na 2S > CuS

(c*) O- ion will tend to resist the addition of another electron (c) Na2S>CuS>ZnS (*d) Na2S>ZnS>CuS

(d) Oxygen is more electronegative 178. Which pair has elements containing same number of
electrons in the outermost orbit? (a) N, O (b) Na, Ca (c*) As,
167. Of the following, the highest oxidation state is achieved Bi (d) Pb, Sb
by: [AIEEE 2004]
179. The total number of rare earth elements is: (a) 18 (b)
(a*) (n-1)d5ns2 (b) (n-1)d5ns1 (c) (n-1)d3ns2 (d) (n- 32 (c*) 14 (d) 10
1)d8ns2
180. Pauling scale of electronegativity of elements helps to
168. Which of the following sequence regarding the first determine: [CBSE 1991]
ionization potential of coinage metal is correct?
(a) Covalent nature of an element
(a) Cu>Ag>Au (b) Cu<Ag<Au (*c) Cu>Ag<Au (d)
Ag>Cu<Au (b) Position of an element in e.m.f. series

169. The general electronic configuration of elements of p- (c) Dipole moment of molecules
block is represented by:
(d*) Polarity of bond
(a) ns1 to ns2 (b) ns2 to np6
181. The electronic configuration 1s2,2s2 2p6, 3s2 3p4
2 1
(c*) ns np to ns np 2 6
(d) (n-1)d1-10
ns 0-2

represents:
170. The correct order of acid strength is : [IIT 2000]
(a) Calcium (b) Magnesium (c) Oxygen (d*) Sulphur
(*a) Cl2O7 >SO2 > P4O10 (b) CO2 >N2O5 >SO3
182. Correct order for acidic strength is: [IIT 2002]
(c) Na2O>MgO>Al2O3 (d) K2O>CaO>MgO
(a*) CaO <CuO< H2O<CO2
171. In the long form of the periodic table elements with
outer electronic configuration ns2 np2 are placed in the (b) H2O<CuO<CaO<CO2
column:
(c) CaO<H2O<CuO<CO2
(a) At the extreme right (*b) Before the extreme right
(d) H2O<CO2<CaO<CuO
(c) At the extreme left (d) Next to the extreme left
183. Among K, Ca, Fe and Zn, the element which can form
172. The property of pulling of shared electron pair by an more than one binary compound with chlorine is:
element in a bond is called:
(a*) Fe (b) Zn (c) K (d) Ca
(a) Electromeric effect (b) Inductive effect
184. Transuranic elements are those which are:
(*c) Electronegativity (d) None of these
(*a) Of higher atomic number than uranium
173. Alkaline earth metals form ions of the formula:
(b) Lighter than uranium
(*a) M2+ (b) M+ (c) M (d) M2-
(c) Of lower atomic number than uranium
174. The metal that does not show variable valence is:
(d) Of same atomic number as uranium
(a*) Ba (b) Ti (c) Cu (d) Pb
185. Unpaired electrons in [Co(H2O)6]2+are:
175. Sulphur (atomic number 16) belongs to.....block in the
[PMT (MP) 1992]
long form of the periodic table,
(a) 5 (b) 2 (c*) 3 (d) 4
(a) 5 (*b) p (c) d (d) f
186. The difference between ions and atoms is of: (a)
176. Which of the following elements has the electronic
Relative size (b) Configuration (c) Presence of charge (*d)
configuration 1s2,2s2 2p2?
All of these
(a) Chlorine (b) Sodium (c) Neon (*d) Carbon

38
187. The statement that is not correct for the periodic (c) Co3+ (d) Fe2+
classification of elements is: [IIT 1992]
196. Transition elements show:
(a) The properties of elements are the periodic functions of
their atomic number (a) Variable valency (b) Paramagnetism

(b) Non-metallic elements are lesser in number than metallic (c) Catalytic properties (*d) All of these
elements
197. The 3d transition series contains elements having
(c) The first ionization energies of elements along a period atomic number from:
do not vary in a regular manner with increase in atomic
(a) 22 to 30 (b*) 21 to 30
number
(c) 21 to 31 (d) 21 to 29
(d*) For transition elements the </-subshells are filled with
electrons monotonically with increase in atomic number
198. Among the following outermost configurations of
transition metals which shows the highest oxidation state?
188. Which has largest atomic size? [PMT (MP) 1995]
(a) 3d3 4s2 (b) 3d5 4s1
(*a) Al (b) Al2+ (c) Al3+ (d) Al+
(*c) 3d5 4s2 (d) 3d6 4s2
189. The element having the highest first ionization
potential is:
199. Which set has the strongest tendency to form anions?
(a) Argon (b) Hydrogen (c*) Helium (d) Oxygen
(a) V, Cr, Mn (b) Ga, In, Tl
190. The law of octaves in the periodic classification of
(c) Na, Mg, Al (*d) N, O, F
elements was proposed by:
200. One would expect proton to have very large:
(a) Mendeleef (b) Lothar Meyer
(a) lonization potential (b) Radius
(c*) Newland (d) Dobereiner
(c) Charge (d*) Hydration energy
191. Which of the following is diamagnetic?
201. Elements of which group forms anions most readily?
(*a) [Ni(CN)4]2- (b) [NiCl4]2-
(a) Oxygen group (b) Nitrogen group
(c) [Cu(NH3)4]2+ (d) [CoCl4J2-
(c*) Halogens (d) Alkali metals
192. Which statement is correct? [CBSE 1990]
202. Which one of the following is an amphoteric oxide?
(a) X+ ion is larger than X- ion
(a) SO2 (b) B2O3
(*b) X- ion is larger in size than X atom
(c*) ZnO (d) Na2O
(c) X+ and X- have the same size
203. Which is not arranged in the correct sequence?
(d) X+ ion is larger in size than X atom
(a*) d5, d3, d1 ,d4—increasing magnetic moment
193. Among the following series of transition metals ions,
the one where all metal ions have 3d2 electronic (b) MO, M2O3, MO2, M2O5—decreasing basic strength
configuration is:
(c) Sc, V, Cr, Mn—increasing number of oxidation states
(a) Ti3+,V2+,Cr3+,Mn4+ (b) Ti+, V4+,Cr6+, Mn5+
(d) Co2+, Fe3+, Cr3+, Sc3+—increasing stability
(c) Ti4+, V3+,Cr2+, Mn3+ (*d) Ti2+, V3+,Cr4+, Mn5+
204. Electronegativity of beryllium is approximately equal to
194. Which is coloured ion? that of:

(a) [Cu(NH3)4]+ (*b) [Cu(NH3)4]2+ (a*) Aluminium (b) Boron

(c) [Zn(H2O)6]2+ (d) [Ca(H2O)6]2+ (c) Magnesium (d) Sodium

195. Which ion has the lower magnetic moment? 205. Considering the elements from left to right in the
second period of the periodic table, the gram atomic volume
(a*) Cu2+ (b) Ni2+
of the elements:

39
(a*) First increases then decreases (a*) Actinoid series (b) Alkali metal family

(b) Decreases (c) Alkaline earth family (d) Lanthanoid series

(c) Increases at constant rate 215. The number of d-electrons retained in Fe2+:

(d) Remains unchanged (a) 5 (*b) 6

206. An atom having electronic configuration (c) 3 (d) 4

1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s2 3p6,4s1 belongs to: 216. Which trio of elements belongs to the, alkaline earth
family of periodic table?
(a*) Alkali metals (b) Alkaline earth metals
(a) Li, Na, K (*b) Ca, Sr, Ba
(c) Halogens (d) Rare gas
(c) He, Be, Ar (d) Ag, Cu, Au
207. Na+ is smaller than Na atom because:
217. Which element has the highest first ionization
(a) Nucleus in each case contains different nucleons potential?

(b) Sodium atom has an electron lesser than sodium ion (a) Ca (b) Ba

(*c) Sodium atom has 11 electrons and sodium ion has 10 (c) Sr (d*) Mg
electrons
218. Maximum atomic radius stands for:
(d) The force of attraction is less in Na+ ions than in Na
atoms (a) Al (b) Si

208. An element with atomic number 20 will be placed (c) P (d*) Mg

in......period of the periodic table.
219. Which is largest stable atom?
(*a) 4 (b) 3
(a) V (b) Na
(c) 2 (d) 1
(c) Al (*d) Pb
209. Which element exhibits variable oxidation states?
220. The firmness with which an electron is held by an
(a) Al (b) Si atom, is a measure of its:

(*c) Fe (d) Zn (a) Electronegativity (*b) lonization potential

210. Which represents an element? (c) Ionic character (d) Metallic character

(a) Hydrogen peroxide (*b) Oxygen 221. The ionization energy is:

(c) Sand (d) Wood (a) Lowest in the noble gases

211. Atomic radii of fluorine and neon in Angstrom units are (b) Highest in the alkali metals
respectively given by:
(c) Lowest in the alkaline earth metals
(a*) 0.72; 1.60 (b) 1.60; 1.60
(*d) Lowest in the alkali metals
(c) 0.72; 0.72 (d) None of these
222. An element having the electronic configuration of its
212. Which one is typical element? atom ns np2 should have similar properties to those of:

(*a) Magnesium (b) Radium (a) Sodium (*b) Carbon

(c) Copper (d) Mercury (c) Magnesium (d) Oxygen

213. Chromium is: 223. The screening effect of 'd' electrons is:

(a*) Transition metal (b) Inert gas element (a*) Much less than s-electrons

(c) Normal element (d) Inner transition metal (b) Much more than s-electrons

214. The element californium belongs to: (c) Equal to s-electrons

40
(d) Equal to p-electrons 233. The transition elements are more metallic than the
representative elements because they have:
224. Which represents a collection of isoelectronic species?
(a) The electrons in d-orbitals
(a) Be, Al3+,Cl- (b) Ca2+,Cs+, Br
(b) Electron pairs in d-orbitals
(c) Na+ , Ca2+ ,Mg2+ (d*) N3- , F- ,Na+
(*c) Availability of d-orbitals for bonding
225. Which is called a bridge element?
(d) Unpaired electrons in metallic orbitals
(a) Li (b) O
234. Modern periodic table is based on the atomic number
(c*) Al (d) Pb of the elements. The experiment which proved the
significance of the atomic number was:
226. Which of the following is strongest base?
(a) Millikan's oil drop experiment
(a) Be(OH)2 (*b) Mg(OH)2
(*b) Moseley's work on X-rays spectra
(c) Al(OH)3 (d) Si(OH)4
(c) Bragg's work on X-rays diffraction
227. The last member in each period of the periodic table is:
(a) An alkali metal (b) A halogen (d) Discovery of X-rays by Roentgen

(c) A transition element (*d) An inert gas element 235. Which one has the smallest radius?

228. The first ionization potential in electron volts of (a) Cl- (b) S2-
nitrogen and oxygen atoms are respectively given by:
(c) K+ (*d) Ca2+
(a*) 14.61; 13.67 (b) 13.61; 14.6
236. Inert gases (except helium) belong to:
(c) 13.6; 13.6 (d) 14.6; 14.6
(a) s-block (*b) p-block
229. The lowest ionization energy would be associated with
the electronic structure: (c) d-block (d) f-block

(*a) 1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s1 (b) 1s2, 2s2 2p5 237. Element of atomic number 29 is situated in.......:

(c) 1s2, 2s2 2p6 (d) 1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s2 3p2 (a) s-block (b) p-block

230. Which one has the smaller radius? (*c) d-block (d) f-block

(*a) Be2+ (b) Li+ 238. An element having electronic configuration

1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s2 3p6, 4s1 forms:
(c) O2- (d) F-
(a) Acidic oxide (b*) Basic oxide
231. Consider the electronic configuration for neutral atoms,
(A) 1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s1 (B) 1s2, 2s2 2p6, 6s1 (c) Amphoteric oxide (d) Neutral oxide

Which of the following statements is not true? 239. Which isoelectronic ion have the largest radius?

(a) Energy is required to change (A) to (B) (a) S2- (*b) P3-

(b) (A) represents a Na atom (c) Sc3+ (d) Ti4+

(c*) (A) and (B) represent different elements 240. Which pair of elements belongs to same group?

(d) Less energy is required to remove one electron from (B)
than from (A)
232. If the ionization potential for hydrogen atom is 13.6
eV, then the ionization potential for He+ ion should be:
(a) Elements with at. no. 17 and 38
(b) Elements with at. no. 20 and 40
(c*) Elements with at. no. 17 and 53

(a) 72.2 eV (*b) 54.4 eV (d) Elements with at. no. 11 and 33

(c) 6.8 eV (d) 13.6eV 241. Na+,Mg2+,Al3+,Si4+ are isoelectronics. Their ionic size
follows the order:

41
(a) Na+ < Mg2+ < Al3+ < Si4+ (c) Decrease in electronegativities

(b) Na+ > Mg2+ < Al3+ < Si4+ (d*) Increase in atomic sizes

(c) Na+ < Mg2+ > Al3+ > Si4+ 250. The correct order of decreasing first ionization
potential is:
(d*) Na+ > Mg2+ > Al3+ > Si4+
(a) C > B > Be > Li (*b) C > Be > B > Li
242. Electron affinity of:
(c) B > C > Be > Li (d) Be > Li > B > C
(a) Carbon is greater than oxygen
251. Which transition involves maximum amount of energy?
(b) Sulphur is lesser than oxygen
(a) M- (g)  M (g) + e
(c) Iodine is higher than bromine
(b) M- (g)  M+ (g) + 2e
(*d) Bromine is lesser than chlorine
(c) M+ (g)  M2+ (g) + e
243. Which forms interstitial compounds?
(*d) M2+ (g)  M3+ (g) +e
(a) Fe (b) Co
252. An element having electronic configuration (Ar)3d2 ,4s2
(c) Ni (*d) All of these belongs to:

244. If electronic structure of valency shell for an element is (a) s-block elements (b) p-block elements

ns2 np5, the element will belong to the group of: (c*) d-block elements (d) f-block elements

(a) Alkali metals (b) Inert metals 253. Compared with the alkaline earth metals the alkali
metals exhibit:
(c) Noble gases (d*) Halogens
(a) Smaller ionic radii
245. The element in the VII (A) group of the periodic table
is: (b) Greater hardness

(*a) Astitine (b) Gallium (c) High boiling points

(c) Indium (d) Arsenic (*d) Lower ionization energies

246. The smallest cation is: 254. A sudden jump between the values of second and third
ionization energies of an element would be associated with
(a) Na+ (b) Mg2+
the electronic configuration:
(c) Ca2+ (*d) Al3+
(a) 1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s1 (b) 1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s2 3p1
247. Chloride of an element A gave a neutral solution in
(c) 1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s2 3p2 (*d) 1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s2
water. In the periodic table the element A belongs to:
255. Which one does not exhibit paramagnetism?
(a*) First group (b) Third group
(a) NO (*b) NO2
(c) Fifth group (d) First transition series
(c) ClO2 (d) ClO2
248. The energy released when a neutral gaseous atom
takes up an electron is called: 256. Among the following ions which one has the highest
paramagnetism?
(a) Ionization energy (b) Solvation energy
(a) [Cr(H2O)6]3+ (b*) [Fe(H2O)6]2+
(c) Electronegativity (*d) Electron affinity
(c) [Cu(H2O)6]2+ (d) [Zn(H2O)6]2+
249. In a group of the periodic table the ionization
potentials of elements decrease from the top to the bottom 257. If the atomic number of an element is 33, it will be
because of: placed in the periodic table in the:

(a) Increase in densities (a) First group (b) Fourth group

(b) Decreases in chemical reactivities (c*) Fifth group (d) Seventh group
42
258. Transition elements exhibit variable oxidation states 267. Which noble gas does not have an octet of electrons in
because they release electrons from the following orbits: its outer shell?

(a) ns and np orbits (*b) (n - 1)d and ns orbits (a) Ne (b) Rn

(c) (n - 1)d orbit (d) ns orbit (c) Ar (*d) He

259. The statement that is true for the long form of the 268. Which transition metal cation has maximum unpaired
periodic table is: electrons?

(a) It reflects the sequence of filling the electrons in the (*a) Mn2+ (b) Fe2+
order of sub-energy levels s, p, d and f
(c) Co2+ (d) Ni2+
(b) It helps to predict the stable valency states of the
elements 269. The element with outer electronic configuration 3d6
,4s2 is a:
(c) It reflects trends in physical and chemical properties of
elements (a) Metalloid (b) Non-metal

(d*) All of the above (c*) Transition metal (d) Noble gas

260. Which of the following is used as semiconductor? 270. Ionization potential values of V block elements as
compared to ionization potential value of 'f' block elements
(a) Cr (b*) As are:

(c) Al (d) Bi (*a) Higher (b) Lower

261. N, P, As, Sb and Bi belong to: (c) Equal (d) All of these

(*a) VA group (b) IVA group 271. Low melting point of manganese in the 1st transition
series is due to:
(c) VIII group (d) VB group
(a) Strong metallic bond due to d10 configuration
262. Which of the following is the smallest in size?
(b) Weak metallic bond due to d5 configuration
(a) N3- (b) O2-
(c) Weak metallic bond due to d7 configuration
(c) F- (*d) Na+
(*) None of the above
263. Maximum group valency of halogens with respect to
oxygen is: 272. Which one of the following has largest size?

(a) One (b) Five (a) Na (b) Na+

(c) Six (d*) Seven (c*) Na- (d) None of these

264. Which possesses the tendency of complex formation? 273. The decreasing order of the second ionization energy
of K, Ca and Ba is:
(a*) d-block elements (b) p-block elements
(a*) K > Ca > Ba (b) Ca > Ba > K
(c) s-block elements (d) Elements of zero group
(c) Ba > K > Ca (d) K > Ba > Ca
265. The electronegativity of the following elements
increases in the order: 274. The incorrect statement among the following is:

(a) C, N, Si, P (b) N, Si, C, P (a) The first ionization potential of Al is less than the first
ionization potential of Mg
(c*) Si, P, C, N (d) P, Si, N, C
(b*) The second ionization potential of Mg is greater than
266. The graph between atomic weight and atomic volume the second ionization potential of Na
was first plotted for classifying elements by:
(c) The first ionization potential of Na is less than the first
(a) Dobereiner (b) Mendeleef ionization potential of Mg

(*c) Lothar Meyer (d) Dalton (d) The third ionization potential of Mg is greater than the
third ionization potential of Al
43
275. The diamagnetic species is: (c) FeSO4.6H2O (d) NiSO4.6H2O

(a) O21+ (b) O2 284. f-block elements are called:

(c) O21- (d*) O22- (a) Normal elements

276. The first ionization potential of Na, Mg, Al and Si are in (b) Representative elements
the order:
(c) Transition elements
(*a) Na < Mg > Al < Si (b) Na > Mg > Al > Si
(d*) Inner transition elements
(c) Na > Mg < Al > Si (d) Na > Mg > Al < Si
285. Ionic radii of:
H
 Cl(g); H is:
277. In the process, Cl(g) + e 
(a) Ti4+ < Mn2+ (b) 35Cl- < 37Cl-

(a) Positive (*b) Negative

(c) K+ > Cl- (*d) P3+ > P5+
(c) Zero (d) Unpredictable
286. The elements of light group are also known as:
278. The order of basic character of given oxides is:
(a*) s-block elements (b) p-block elements
(a*) Na 2O > MgO > Al 2O3 > CuO
(c) d-block elements (d) f-block elements
(b) MgO > Al2O3 > CuO > Na2O
287. Each period in the periodic table starts with a subshell
of the new shell and ends with:
(c) Al2O3 > MgO > CuO > Na2O
(a) Small subshell
(d) CuO > Na2O > MgO > Al2O3
(b) Different subshell of the same subshell
279. The outermost electronic configuration of the most
electronegative element is:
(c) The next higher shell
(a) ns2 np3 (b) ns2 np4
(*d) p-subshell of the same shell
(c*) ns2 np5 (d) ns2 np6
288. The most non-metallic element among the following:
280. Maximum oxidation states of transition metal is derived
(a) Be (*b) B
from:
(c) Mg (d) Al
(a) ns electron (b) (n - 1)d electron
289. Which pair of elements is chemically most similar?
(c) (n + 1)d electron (*d) ns + (n - 1)d electrons
(a) Na, Al (b) Cu, S
281. The long form of periodic table has:
(c) Ti, Zr (d*) Zr, Hf
(a) Eight horizontal rows and seven vertical columns
290. Which element has the greatest tendency to lose
(b*) Seven horizontal rows and eighteen vertical
electrons?
columns
(a) F (b) S
(c) Seven horizontal rows and seven vertical columns
(c*) Fr (d) Be
(d) Eight horizontal rows and eight vertical columns
291. One of the characteristic of transition elements is:
282. Which ion is colourless?
(*a) Incomplete d-orbiials (b) Incomplete f-orbitals
(*a) Cu+ (b) Co2+
(c) Incomplete s-orbitals (d) Incomplete p-orbitals
(c) Ni2+ (d) Fe3+
292. Chemist who helped in discovery of maximum number
283. Among the following the lowest degree of
of transuranic element is:
paramagnetism per mole of the compound at 298 K will be
shown by: (a) Robert Thomson (b*) G.T. Seaborg

(a) MnSO4.4H2O (*b) CuSO4.5H2O (c) J.J. Robinson (d) C.N. Hinsbelwood

44
293. Which element was not present in Mendeleef's periodic (a) p3 < d5 < d10 < p6 (b) d5 > p3 > d10 > p6
table?
(*c) d5 < p3 < d10 < p6 (d) p3 < d10 < d5 < p6
(a) Rb (b) U
302. The decreasing order of second ionization potential of
(c) Ce (d*) Fr K, Ca and Ba, is:

294. Mendeleef's periodic table is uprooted by the fact that: (*a) K > Ca > Ba (b) Ca > Ba > K

(a) Noble gases do not form compounds (c) Ba > K > Ca (d) K > Ba > Ca

(b) Atomic weights of elements are not always whole 303. Which group of periodic table consists entirely of
numbers metals?

(c*) Many elements have several isotopes (*a) IIA (b) IVA

(d) Some groups stand divided into two subgroups A and B (c) VIA (d) VIIA

295. The first element of each period in the periodic table 304. In the long form of periodic table all the non-metals
has: are placed in:

(a) Two electrons in the first shell (a) s-block (*b) p-block

(b) One electron in the first shell (c) d-block (d) f-block

(c*) One s-electron in the outermost shell 305. How many ionization energies can carbon have?

(d) 8 electrons in the outermost shell (*a) 6 (b) 2

296. The tenth element in the periodic table resembles: (c) 3 (d) 4

(*a) The second (b) The fourth 306. Which of the following is metalloid?

(c) The fifth (d) The eighth (a) Mg (b) S

297. The least stable cation is: (c*) Si (d) Ar

(a) Li+ (b) K+ 307. Which of the following has least density?

(*c) Al2+ (d) Si2+ (a) Na (b*) Li

298. The polarity is maximum in: (c) Mg (d) K

(a) N - F (*b) C - F 308. The process requiring the absorption of energy is:

(c)O - F (d)F - F (a) F  F- (b) H  H-

299. Among the following group of elements, the one whose (c) Cl  Cl- (d*) O  O2-
elements can have positive as well as negative oxidation
states are: 309. Which of the following is Dobereiner triad?

(a) H, F, O (b) Na, Mg, Al (*a) Cl, Br, I (b) Zn, Cr, Na

(c) He, Li, Be (d*) H, Cl, Br (c) Ne, Ar, K (d) B, C, Si

300. The chemical properties of the elements of matter 310. In Pauling electronegativity scale, element next to
have been found to repeat in regular patterns, which can be fluorine is:
seen in the arrangement of atoms in the:
(a) Cl (b) N
(a) Chemical table (b) Physical table
(*c) O (d) I
(c) Nutrition table (*d) Periodic table
311. On the basis of valencies of elements in a group, the
301. The correct order of relative stability of half filled and formula of compound formed by tin with fluorine is:
completely filled shells is:
(a) SnF (b) SnF3

45
(c) SnF6 (*d) SnF4 (c*) 32 (d) 18

312. In which pair the first atom or ion is not larger than the 321. As we go from left to right in 2nd period of the periodic
second? table, the gram atomic volume of the elements:

(a) N, F (b) Cr, Cl (*a) First decreases then increases

(c) O, S (d*) Fe2+, Fe3+ (b) Decreases

313. In II period most acidic oxide is formed by: (c) Remains unchanged

(a*) F (b) N (d) Will change indefinitely

(c) O (d) Li 322. Which element belongs to the family of elements that
also includes elements Gallium?
314. Lanthanoid contraction explains:
(a) Carbon (*b) Aluminium
(a) Atomic number of the series
(c) Iron (d) Arsenic
(b) Density of the series
323. An atom of an electronegative element becomes an ion
(c) Atomic volume of the series by:

(d*) Ionic radius of series (a) Loss of its radius (b) Loss of electrons

315. Decreasing order of atomic weight of the elements (c) Serving as a reductant (*d) Gains of electrons
given below is:
324. Which one of the sets represents alkaline earth metals?
(a) Fe > Co > Ni (b) Ni > Co > Fe (a) 15, 20, 24 (*b) 4, 12, 20

(*c) Co > Ni > Fe (d) Co > Fe > Ni (c) 7, 17, 32 (d) 2, 10, 18

316. Group number and valency has no relation in: 325. If a diagonal line is drawn in Mendeleef's periodic table
from top left to bottom right, the elements below the
(*a) Zero group (b) First group
diagonal will be:
(c) II group (d) VII group
(a*) Metals (b) Non-metals
317. In III period, the most acidic oxide is formed by:
(c) Metalloid (d) Transition metals
(a) Na (b) P
326. K+, Ar, Ca2+ and S2- have:
(c*) Cl (d) S
(a) Same electronic configuration and atomic volume
318. The elements in the same period in the periodic table
(b) Different electronic configuration but same IP
show increase in:
(c*) Same electronic configuration but different atomic
(a) Metallic nature with increase in atomic number
volume
(b) Electronegativity with increase in metallic nature
(d) None of the above
(*c) Electronegativity with increase in atomic number
327. The element, which is not radioactive is:
(d) Electropositivity with increase in atomic number
(a) Fr (b) U
319. The example of metalloid elements in the periodic table
(*c) Rb (d) Ra
is:
328. Number of liquid elements present in the periodic table
(a) Na and K (b) Cu and Al
(a) 3 (b*) 2
(*c) B and Si (d) Ca and Mg
(c) 14 (d) 6
320. The number of elements in very long periods of
periodic table is: 329. Atomic radius increases in the order:

(a) 2 (b) 8 (a) Mg < K < Na < Rb (*b) Mg < Na < K < Rb

46
(c) Mg < Na < Rb < K (d) Na < K < Mg < Rb 4. Which process is used for the extraction of metals from
their sulphide ores?
330. Which of the following has maximum ionization
potential? (a) Electrolysis (b) Metal displacement (c) Smelting
(*d) Roasting
(*a) Be (b) K
5. Roasting is generally carried out in case of: (a) Oxide ores
(c) Na (d) Mg (*b) Sulphide ores (c) Silicate ores (d) Carbonate
ores
331. Which of the following atoms would be paramagnetic?
6. Metals occur in the native form because of their: (a) High
(a) Ca (b) Be
electronegativity (b) High reactivity (c*) Low reactivity (d)
Low density
(c) Zn (*d) N
7. Which pair of elements can form alloy? (a) Zn and Pb (b)
332. The correct order of radii is:
Fe and Hg (c*) Fe and C (d) C and Pt
(a) N < Be < B (*b) F- < O2- < N3-
8. Specific gravity of slag is:
(c) Na < Li < K (d) Fe3+ < Fe2+ < Fe4-
(a) Always higher than molten metal
333. Among O, C, F, Cl, Br the correct order of increasing
(b*) Always less than molten metal
atomic radii is:
(c) Same as that of molten metal
(a*) F < O < C < Cl< Br (b) F < C < O < Br < Cl
(d) None of the above
(c) F < Cl< Br < O < C (d) C < O < F < Cl < Br
9. Sperrylite is:
334. The radii of F, F-, O and O2- are in the order of:
(a) AgCl (b*) PtAs2 (c) Fe2O3 (d) SnO2
(a) O2- > F- > F > O (b) F- > O2- > F > O
10. Which process is used for the purification of Al metal?
(c) O2- > O > F- > F (*d) O2- > F- > O > F
(a*) Hoop's process (b) Baeyer's process (c) Serpek's
335. The first ionization energy will be maximum for:
process (d) Hall's process
(a) Uranium (*b) Hydrogen
11. Which is not employed for refining of metal?
(c) Lithium (d) Iron
(a) Poling (c) Electrolysis
336. The set representing the correct order of first
(*b) Leaching (d) Liquation
ionisation potential is:
12. Calamine is an ore of:
(a) K > Na > Li (*b) Be > Mg > Ca
(a) Hg (*b) Zn (c) Cd (d) Ca
(c) B > C > N (d) Ge > Si > C

METTALURGY 13. Zinc blende (an ore) is:

(a) ZnO

(*c) ZnS

1. The process of removal of gangue particles from ores is (b) ZnCO3

known as: (a*) Concentration (b) Refining (c) Smelting (d)
None (d) Zn2OCl2

2. Barytes, an ore is: 14. Froth floatation process for the concentration of ores is a
practical application of: (*a) Adsorption (b) Absorption (c)
(a) BeSO4 (b) BeCl2 (*c) BaSO4 (d) BaCl2 Coagulation (d) Sedimentation

3. Which statement is correct? 15. Which element is present in pitch blende?

(a) All minerals are ores (b) A mineral cannot be an ore (a*) U (b) Ce (c) Ba (d) Mg

(c) An ore cannot be a mineral(*d) All ores are minerals 16. The non-fusible impurities of ores are removed by
adding:
47
(a*) Flux (b) Slag (c) Gangue (d) None 27. Which metal can be purified by distillation? (a) Cu (b) Ag
(c) Fe (*d) Hg
17. Which is known as blister copper?
28. The correct statement is:
(a) Pure copper (*b) 98% copper(c) Ore of copper (d) Alloy
of copper (a) Dolomite is the ore of zinc (b) Galena is the ore of
mercury
18. Which process represents the change,
(c) Pyrolusite is the ore of iron (*d) Cassiterite is the ore of
Ti+2I2  TiI4  Ti + 2I2 tin

(a) Cupellation (b*) VanArkel (c) Poling (d) Zone refining 29. Galena is an ore of:

19. The common method of extraction of metals from oxide (a) Zn (b*) Pb (c) Sn (d) Ca
ores involves:
30. To obtain chromium from chromic oxide (Cr2O3), the
(a*) Reduction with carbon (b) Reduction method used is:
with aluminium
(a) Carbon reduction (b) Carbon monoxide reduction
(c) Reduction with hydrogen (d) Electrolytic method
(c*) Alumino thermic process (d) Electrolytic reduction
20. The following equation represents a method of
purification of nickel by, 31. Argentite is a mineral of:

(a) Au (b) Pt (*c) Ag (d) Cu

this method is :
32. Cinnabar is:
(a) Cupellation (b*) Mond's process
(a) CuS (b) Ag2S (c) ZnS (d*) HgS
(c) Van Arkel method (d) Zone refining
33. In the manufacture of iron from haematite, lime stone
21. Smelting is the reduction of oxide to metal by: is added to act as:

(*a) C (b) Al (c) H (d) Electric current (*a) Flux (b) Slag (c) A reducing agent (d) An oxidising
agent
22. Which furnace can be used to get temperature above
3000°C? 34. Which of the following is the heaviest metal? (*a) U (b)
Ra (c) Pb (d) Hg
(a) Blast furnace (*b) Arc furnace (c) Reverberatory furnace
(d) None of these 35. Silicon is the main constituent of: (*a) Rocks (b) Alloys
(c) Animals (d) Plants
23. Heating of pyrite ores in air to remove sulphur is known
as: 36. The furnace which provides the highest temperature is:
(a) Blast furnace (b) Reverberatory furnace (*c) Electrical
(a) Calcination (b) Fluxing (c) Smelting (d*) furnace (d) Muffle furnace
Roasting
37. Which is not a mineral of Al?
24. In froth floatation process many chemicals (frother,
collector, activator and depressent) are used. Which is called (a*) Anhydrite (b) Bauxite (c) Corundum (d)
a frother? Diaspore

(a) CuSO4 (b) NaCN + alkali (*c) Pine oil (d) Potassium 38. Camallite is a mineral of:
xanthate
(a) Ca (b) Na (c*) Mg (d) Zn
25. Which substance is used as basic refractory material in
furnace? 39. Poling process is used:

(a) Al203 (b) Si02 (*c) CaO (d) Fe203 (a*) For the removal of Cu2O from Cu

26. Iron ores are dressed by: (b) For the removal of Al2O3 from Al

(a) Froth floatation process (b*) Magnetic separation (c) For the removal of Fe2O3 from Fe

(c) Hand picking (d) All of the above (d) In all of the above

48
40. Carbon monoxide reduction process is used for the 53. The most abundant element in the earth crust is:
extraction of:
(a*) O (b) Si (c) H (d) C
(a*) Cu (b) Ag (c) Na (d) K
54. The lining in blast furnace are made up of:
41. Heating of carbonate ores to remove carbon is called as:
(a) Graphite (b) Silica (c*) Fireclay bricks (d) CaCO3
(a) Roasting *(b) Calcination (c) Smelting (d)
Fluxing 55. The most abundant metal in the earth crust is:

42. In metallurgical process, the flux used for removing [GET (Karnataka) 1997] (a) Na (b) Ca (*c) Al
acidic impurities is: (d) Fe

(a) Silica (b) Sodium chloride (*c) Lime stone (d) Sodium 56. Gold is extracted using:
carbonate
(a*) Amalgamation process (b) Carbon reduction
43. Which is not an ore of magnesium? process

(a) Camallite (b) Dolomite (c*) Gypsum (d) (c) Oxidation process (d) Electrolytic process
Magnesite
57. Extraction of silver from its ore involving NaCN, air and
44. Which process is used for benefication of ores? an active metal is known as:

(a*) Process of removal of impurities (a) Pattinson's method

(b) Process of heating ore at high temperature (b) Amalgamation method

(c) Extraction of metal from ore (*c) Me Arthur-Forrest method

(d) None of the above (d) Parke's method

45. Radium is obtained from: 58. In the thermite process the reducing agent is: (a) C (b*)
Al (c) Na (d) Mg
(a*) Pitch blende (b) Haematite (c) Monazite
(d) None of these 59. Blanc fixe is:

46. In the metallurgy of iron, when lime stone is added to (a*) BaSO4 (b) BaCl2 (c) BaCO3 (d) None
the blast furnace, the calcium ions are removed as: (a*) Slag
60. Carbon reduction is used for the extraction of: (*a) Fe
(b) Gangue (c) Metallic Ca (d) CaCO3
(b) K (c) Al (d) None
47. From gold amalgam, gold may be recovered by: (a)
61. Froth floatation process is based on:
Addition of Zn metal (b) Electrolytic refining (*c) Distillation
(d) Dissolving Hg in HNO3
(a*) Wetting properties of ore particles
48. An ore of tin containing FeCrO4 is concentrated by: (*a)
(b) Specific gravity of ore particles
Magnetic separation (b) Froth floatation (c) Electrostatic
method (d) Gravity separation (c) Magnetic properties of ore particles

49. Copper pyrite ore is concentrated by: [MLNR 1995] (d) Electrical properties of ore particles

(a) Electromagnetic method (b) Gravity method 62. Which contains both Ca and Mg?

(c*) Froth floatation process (d) All of the (a) Lime stone (b*) Dolomite (c) Chalk (d)
above Felspar

50. Leaching is a process of: 63. Heating of ores with flux to remove non-fusible mass is
called:
(a) Reduction (b*) Concentration (c) Refining (d) Oxidation
(a*) Smelting (b) Calcination (c) Roasting (d)
51. Malachite is an ore of: [PMT (MP) 1998]
Cupellation
(a) Fe (b) Zn (c*) Cu (d) Hg
64. In the electrolysis of alumina, cryolite is added to:
52. Which is not a basic flux?
(a*) Lower the melting point of alumina and to increase the
electrical conductivity
(a) CaCO3 (b) CaO (*c) SiO2 (d) MgO
49
(b) Minimise the anode effect (a) 2Ag+2HCl+[O]  2AgCI + H2O

(c) Remove impurities from alumina (b) 2Zn+O2  2ZnO

(d) None of the above (c) 2ZnS+3O2  2ZnO + 2SO2

65. The process of converting hydrated alumina into (d) MgCO3  MgO+CO2
anhydrous alumina is called: (a) Roasting (b) Smelting (c)
Dressing (d*) Calcination 75. Which consists of only one element? (a) Marble (b)
Sand (c*) Diamond (d) Glass
66. Which of the following statements regarding the
metallurgy of magnesium using electrolytic method is not 76. Metallurgy is the process of:
correct?
(a) Concentrating the ore
(a) Electrolyte is magnesium chloride containing a little of
NaCl and NaF (b) Roasting the ore

(b) Air tight iron pot acts as a cathode (*c) Extracting the metal from the ore

(c) Electrolysis is done in the atmosphere of coal gas (d) Adding carbon to the ore in blast furnace

(*d) Molten magnesium is heavier than the electrolyte 77. The second most common element on the earth is: (a*)
Silicon (b) Hydrogen (c) Nitrogen (d) Oxygen
67. In the metallurgy of zinc, the zinc dust obtained from
roasting and reduction of zinc sulphide contains some ZnO. 78. The main function of roasting is:
It is removed by:
(a) To remove the volatile matter
(a) Absorbance of ultraviolet light and reemission of white
(*b) Oxidation
light
(c) Reduction
(b*) Shock cooling by contact with a shower of molten lead
(d) To make slag
(c) X-ray method
79. A and B are two allotropes of an element. One gram of
(d) Smelting
A will differ from one gram of B in: (a) Oxidation number
68. Nickel is purified by thermal decomposition of its: (a) (b) Chemical composition (c) Total number of atoms (*d)
Hydride (b) Chloride (c) Azide (*d) Atomic arrangement
Carbonyl
80. An element A dissolves both in acid and alkali. It is an
69. Complex formation or cyanide method is used for the example of:
extraction of: [PMT (MP) 1998] (a) Cu
(a) Allotropic nature of A
(b) Fe (c) Hg (d*) Ag
(b) Dimorphic nature of A
70. An essential constituent of amalgam is: (a) Au (b) Ag (c)
Al (*d) Hg (c) Amorphous nature of A

71. Mercury is transported in metal containers made up of: (d*) Amphoteric nature of A
(a*) Fe (b) Pb (c) Zn (d) Sn
81. The least stable oxide at room temperature is:
72. Impurities physically associated with minerals are: (a)
Slag (b) Flux (c) Alloy (*d) Matrix [DCE 2000]

73. In concentration process of minerals by froth floatation (a) ZnO (b) CuO (c) Sb203 (*d) Ag2O
method, the ore particles float because:
82. The metallurgical process in which a metal is obtained
(a) They are light in a fused state is called: (a*) Smelting (b) Roasting (c)
Calcination (d) Froth floatation
(b) They are insoluble
83. Aluminothermic process is used for the extraction of
(*c) Their surface is hydrophobic metals, whose oxides are:

(d) None of the above (a) Fusible

74. Which represents calcination? (b*) Not easily reduced by carbon

50
(c) Not easily reduced by hydrogen Roads (b) Fertilizers (c) Plastics (d) Glass
moulds
(d) Strongly basic
97. Which element occurs in free state in nature?
84. Which metal is extracted by carbon reduction process?
(a) Na (b) Al (*c) Fe (d) Mg (a) Fe (b) Co (*c) Pt (d) Ni

85. Alloys of which metal are light and strong and are used 98. Which of the following is a metal?
in the manufacture of aeroplanes? . (a) Cr (b) Sn (c) Fe
(d*) Mg (a) P (b) As (c*) Bi (d) Sb

86. Alloy is an example of: 99. Leaching process is used to get:

(a) Gel (b) Aerosol (c*) Solid sol (d) Emulsion (a) Ag (b) Au (*c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None

87. Gold when dissolved in aqua-regia gives: 100. Roasting is used in the extraction of:

(a) Auric chloride (b) Aurous chloride (*c) Chloroauric acid (a) Galena (c) Copper glance (b) Iron pyrite (*d) All of these
(d) Tempering
101. Dollucite is an ore of: (a) Li (c)K (b) Rb (*d) Cs
88. Ferric oxide in blast furnace is reduced by: (a) C (b) H2
102. Which among the following has highest electrical
(c*) CO (d) CO2
conductivity?
89. Electric furnaces are lined with magnesia because:
(a) Zn (b) Fe (*c) Ag (d) Cu
(a) It is not affected by acids
103. In the formation of Al2O3 large amount of heat is
(b) It liberates oxygen on heating evolved. This property is used in:

(*c) It melts at very high temperature (a) Deoxidation(b) Confectionary (d*) Thermite welding

(d) It has no effect of electricity (c) Indoor photography

90. High purity copper metal is obtained by: 104. Which is not an ore? (a) Bauxite (c) Zinc blende

[PMT (MP) 1991] (b) Malachite (*d) Wrought iron

(a) Carbon reduction (b) Hydrogen reduction (*c) 105. Which is not an ore? (a) Cinnabar (c) Zinc blende
Electrolytic reduction (d) Thermite process
(b) Malachite
91. Which element is purified by zone refining? (a) Ge (*b)
(d*) Pig iron
Ge and Si (c) Si (d) None
106. Which process is used in the extractive metallurgy of
92. Gold is found usually near........mineral.
Mg? [Ill 2002]
(a) Mica (b) Felspar (*c) Quartz (d) Galena
(a*) Fused salt electrolysis
93. CO is used in the metallurgy of: (a) Cu (b*) Ni (c) Cr
(b) Self reduction
(d) Pt
(c) Aqueous solution electrolysis
94. Chalcogens are:
(d) Thermite reduction
(a) Hydrocarbons
107. Among the following groups of oxides, the group
(b*) Ore forming elements
containing oxides that cannot be reduced by carbon to give
(c) Oxide forming elements the respective metals, is: (a) Cu2O, SnO2 (b) Fe2O3, ZnO (c*)
CaO, K2O (d) PbO, Fe?O4
(d) Those having ability to catenate
108. The electrolytic reduction technique is used in the
95. Wulfenite (a yellow-red mineral) having waxy lustre extraction of: [PMT (MP) 1991]
occur in lead ores, is an important source of: (a) Sulphur
(b*) Molybdenum (c) Helium (d) Lead (a) Highly electronegative elements

96. Slag coming out at the bottom of a blast furnace during (b*) Highly electropositive elements
extraction of iron from its ores, is used in making: (a*)
51
(c) Metalloids (*b) Reduce the number of slide planes

(d) Transition metals (c) Reduce the number of mobile electrons

109. Furnaces are lined with calcium oxide because: (d) Reduce the crystal symmetry

(a) It gives off oxygen on heating (b) It gives light on 118. The phenomenon in which white transparent crystal
heating changes into white powder is known as: (a) Sublimation (b)
Allotropy (*c) Efflorescence (d) Deliquescence
(c*) It is refractory and basic (d) It is not affected by
acids 119. Which substance can be used for drying gases? (a)
CaCO3 (b) Na2CO3 (c) CaHC03
110. The process in which ore is heated in air below its *(d) CaO
melting point is known as: (a*) Roasting (b) Calcination (c)
Reduction (d) Distillation The metal that is 120. The cheap and high melting point compound used in
extracted from sea water is: (a) Na (b) furnace lining, is:
Ca (c) Mg (d) Sn In the commercial electrochemical
process for aluminium extraction, electrolyte used is: [III (a) PbO (*b) CaO (c) HgO (d) ZnO
1999]
121. Which element occurs freely in nature?
(a) Al(OH)3 in NaOH solution (b) An aqueous solution of Al2
(a) Iodine (*b) Sulphur (c) Phosphorus (d) Magnesium
(SO4 )3
122. The lightest metal is: (*a) Li (c) Ca
(c) A molten mixture of Al2O3 and Na3AlF6
(b) Mg
(d) A molten mixture of Al2O3 and Al(OH)3
(d) Na
111. Which of the following processes involves the roasting
process?
123. Which of the elements listed below shows allotropic
forms?
(a) Na (b) Ca (*c) Mg (d) Sn
(a) Iodine (b) Copper (*c) Sulphur (d) Silver
112. In the commercial electrochemical process for
aluminium extraction, electrolyte used is:
124. The most malleable metal is:
(a) Al(OH)3 in NaOH solution
(a) Silver (b) Sodium (c*) Gold (d)
Platinum
(b) An aqueous solution of Al2(SO4)3
125. Concentration of the ore is done:
(c*) A molten mixture of Al2O3 and Na3Alf6
(a) To make the ore porous
(d) A molten mixture of Al2O3 and Al(OH)3
(b) To make the ore fit for electrolysis
113. Which of the following processes involves the roasting
proess?
(c) To drive off the volatile impurities

(*d) To free it from as many as impurities as much possible

C 126. The purpose of smelting of an ore is:

114. Corundum is: (a) To oxidise it

(a) SrO2 (c) CaCl2 (*b) Al2O3 (d) Cu2Cl2 (b) To reduce it

115.Which metal is sometimes found in native state? (a) Al (*c) To separate volatile impurities
(b) Cu (*c) Fe (d) Mg
(d) To obtain an alloy
116. Which element is found in human body?
127. Which ore can be best concentrated by froth floatation
(a) Pb (b*) Fe (c) Cd (d) Al process? [AIEEE 2004] (a) Malachite (b)
Cassiterite (c*) Galena (d) Magnetite
117. Presence of small impurity usually makes a metal quite
hard because the impurities: 128. The metal used in storage batteries is: (a) Cu (b) Sn
(*c) Pb (d) Ni
(a) Change the lattice structure of metals
52
129. In blast furnace, the cup and cone arrangement is (d) Do not require to be replaced
used:
137. The chemical composition of slag formed during the
(a) To escape the gases during charging smelting process in the extraction of copper is:

(b) Not to allow the escape of the gases [IIT 2001]

(c*) To heat the charge with the gases (a) Cu2O + FeS (b*) FeSiO3 (c) CuFeS2
(d)Cu2S + FeO
(d) None of the above
138. Cupellation process is used in the metallurgy of: (a)
130. The chemical process in the production of steel from Copper (b*) Silver (c) Lead (d) Iron
haematite ore involve: [IIT 2000]
139. Crystalline metal can be transformed into metallic glass
(a) Reduction by:

(b) Oxidation (a) Alloying

(c) Reduction followed by oxidation (b) Pressing into thin plates

(d*) Oxidation followed by reduction (c) Slow cooling of molten metal

131. Liquid crystals are best used in: (*d) Very rapid cooling of a spray of the molten metal

(a*) Colour TV (b) Crystallization (c) Extraction 140. An alloy is:

(d) e/m determination
(a) Intermetallic compound
132. The existence of two or more crystalline forms of the
same substance is called: (*a) Polymorphism (b) Isomerism (*b) A solid substance containing two or more elements
(c) Homologues (d) Isomorphism
(c) A solid which contains one non-metal
133. In the reverberatory furnace:
(d) A solid which contains more than one non-metal
(a) The flames do not come in contact with the charge
141. The electrolytic method of reduction is employed for
(b) The flames come in contact with the charge the preparation of metals that:

(*c) Only hot gases come in contact with the charge (a) Are weakly electropositive

(d) The flames are not there at all (b) Are moderately electropositive

134. Two compounds having the same crystal structures (*c) Are strongly electropositive
and analogous formulae, are called: (*a) Isomorphous (b)
Isotopes (c) Isomers (d) Isobars (d) Form oxides

135. Electrolytic reduction of Al2O3 to Al by Hall-Herault 142. Electrometallurgical process (electrolysis of fused salt)
process is carried out: [IIT 2000] is employed to extract: (a) Iron (b) Lead (c*) Sodium
(d) Silver
(a) Tn presence of NaCl
143. The metalloid amongst the following is: (*a) Arsenic
(b) In presence of fluorite (b) Sodium (c) Gold (d) Iron

(*c) In presence of cryolite which forms a melt with lower 144. When lime stone is heated, carbon dioxide is given off.
m.pt. This operation in metallurgy is known as: (a) Smelting (b)
Ore-dressing (c*) Calcination (d) Roasting
(d) In presence of cryolite which forms a melt with high
m.pt. 145. The salt which is least likely to be found in minerals is:
(a) Chloride (b) Sulphate (c) Sulphide (*d)
136. Refractory materials are used for the construction of Nitrate
furnaces because they:
146. When MnO2 is fused with KOH, a coloured compound
(a) Are light in weight is formed, the compound and its colour is: [IIT 2003]

(*b) Can stand with high temperature (a*) K2MnO4, purple green

(c) Are leak proof (b) KMnO4, purple

53
(c) Mn2O3, brown (a) Mg (b) K (c) Na (*d) Ca

(d) Mn3O4, black 160. Liquation is used to purify:

147. By which process Pb and Sn are extracted respectively: (a) Hg (b) Sn (c) Bi (*d) All

[IIT 2004] 161. Which is not a mineral?

(a) Carbon reduction—self reduction (a) Mica (*b) Peat (c) Quartz (d) Felspar

(*b) Self reduction—carbon reduction 162. The chemical composition of camallite is: (*a) KCl-
MgCl2-6H2O (b) MgSO4-7H2O (c) MgCO3-7H2O (d)
(c) Electrolytic reduction—cyanide process MgCO3Extraction of Metals

(d) Cyanide process—electrolytic reduction 163. An important characteristic property of metals is:

148. Hydrometallurgy is useful in the extraction of: (a) Sn (a) Their hardness
(b) Al (c) Hg (*d) Ag
(b*) Their ability to conduct electricity
149. In electro-refining of metal the impure metal is made
the anode and a strip of pure metal, the cathode, during the (c) To form oxides
electrolysis of an aqueous solution of a complex metal salt.
This method cannot be used for refining of: (a) Silver (b) (d) The stability of their compounds
Copper (c) Aluminium (d*) Sodium
164. The ore concentrated by electromagnetic separation is:
150. The region in which metals are found in earth is called:
(a) Wolframine (b) Haematite (c) Casseterite
(a) Atomophil (*b) Lithophil (c) Calcophil (d)
(d*) All of these
Sidrophil
165. Kiesserite is an ore of:
151. The metal that cannot be obtained by electrolysis of
the aqueous solution of their salts is: [IIT 1990] (a) Ag
(a) Cu (b) Al (*c) Mg (d) Fe
(*b) Mg (c) Cu (d) Cr
166. Thomas slag is:
152. The inner lining of a blast furnace is made up of:
(a) Calcium silicate
(a) Graphite bricks (b) Silica bricks (*c) Fire clay bricks
(d) Basic bricks (b) Calcium phosphate

153. Diaspore is: (c*) Tricalcium phosphate and calcium silicate

(*a) Al2O3-H2O (b) Al2O3-2H2O (c) Al2O3 (d) (d) Calcium ammonium phosphate
Al2O3-3H2O
167. Anglesite is an ore of:
154. The metal obtained by self reduction process is: (a) Cu
(b) Hg (c) Pb (*d) All (a) Cd (b) Ni (c) Sb *(d) Pb

155. The substance not likely to contain CaCO3 is: 168. Pentalandite is an ore of:

[AIEEE 2003] (a) Fe (b) Co (c) Cu (*d) Ni

(a) Sea shells (b) Dolomite (c) Marble statue (d*) 169. The ore magnesite is:
Calcined gypsum
(a) MgCO3-CaCO3 (b) MgCl2-KCl-6H2O (c) MgSO4-7H2O
156. Pig iron is converted into steel by decreasing the (*d) MgCO3
amount of carbon contained in it, in a: (a) Blast furnace (b)
Pyrite burner (c*) Bessemer converter (d) None of these 170. Beryl is an important ore of:

157. Carbon reduction method is used in the extraction of: (a) Boron (*b) Beryllium (c) Lead (d)
(a) Sn (b) Zn (c) Pb (*d) All Lithium

158. The pyrolusite ore contains: 171. Rutile is an ore of:

(a) Fe (b) Al (*c) Mn (d) Cu (*a) Ti (b) Zr (c) Mn (d) V

159. Chile saltpetre is the ore of: 172. Indian saltpetre is:

54
(a) KNO2 (b*) KNO3 (c) NaCl (d) Na2CO3 (c*) Dissolution of lead in water containing air

173. Extraction of Ag from commercial lead is possible by: (d) Making lead wires by forcing heated metal through a die

[CPMT 1991] 184. Which metal occurs in free state? (a) Ag (b) Au (c) Pt
(d*) All
(a*) Parke's process (b) Clarke's process (c) Pattinson's
process (d) Electrolytic process 185. The main constituent of steel in India are: (a) Ni and
Mg (b) V and Co (c) Al and Zn (*d) Mn and Cr
174. The chemical composition of 'slag' formed during the
smelting process in the extraction of copper is: 186. The incorrect statement is:

[IIT 2001] (a) Calamine and siderite are carbonates

(a) Cu2O + FeS (*b) FeSiO3 (c) CuFeS2 (d) Cu2S + FeO (b*) Argentite and cuprites are oxides
.
(c) Zn blende and iron pyrites are sulphides
175. Orford process is used in extraction of: (a) Pt (b) Co
(c) Fe (*d) Ni (d) Malachite and azurite are ores of Cu

176. Blister copper is obtained by: 187. Alkaline earth metals are not found free in nature
because of:
(*a) Bessemerisation (b) Roasting (c) Poling
(d) Refining (a) Their high b.p.

177. The grey cast iron contains: (b) Their low b.p.

(a) Iron carbide (b) Silicon carbide (c) Silicon dioxide (c) Thermal instability
(d*) Graphite
(*d) Their great chemical activity
178. Pig iron is manufactured by:
188. Iron is obtained on large scale from Fe2O3 by: (**a)
(a) An electric furnace Reduction with CO (b) Reduction with Al (c) Calcination
(d) Passing H2
(b*) A blast furnace
189. Magnetic separation is used for increasing
(c) An open hearth furnace concentration of the: [PET (MP) 1990] (a) Horn silver
(b) Calcite (*c) Haematite (d) Magnesite
(d) None of the above
190. Which is not an iron ore?
179. Which is acidic flux?
(a) Haematite (b) Limonite (c*) Cassiterite (d)
(a) CaO (b*) SiO2 (c) Al203 (d) Fe203 Magnetite

180. In India thorium deposits are found mainly in the 191. Platinum, palladium, indium, etc., are called noble
forms of: metals because:

(a) Lignite (b) Rutile (c*) Monazite (d) None (a) Alfred nobel discovered them

181. Bessemer converter is used in the manufacture of: (*b) They are inert towards many common reagents

[CPMT 1991] (c) They are shining, lustrous and pleasing to look at

(a) Pig iron (*b) Steel (c) Wrought iron (d) Cast (d) They are found in native state
iron
192. Purest form of iron is:
182. Which of the following metal is thrown as anode mud
during electrolytic refining of copper? (a) Zn (b) Fe (*c) Ag (a) Cast iron (b) Hard steel (c) Stainless steel (d*)
(d) Ni Wrought iron

183. Plumbo-solvency refers to: 193. Sapphire is a mineral of:

(a) Oxidation of lead to lead oxide (a) Zn (b) Cu (c) Hg (d*) Al

(b) Oxidation of lead to red lead 194. The main ore of zinc is:

55
(a) Zinc blende (b) Zincite (c) Calamine (d*) All 208. In Serpek's process, by product obtained in the
purification of bauxite is: (a) Al203 (b) N2
195. Calcium occurs in nature as:
(c*) NH3
(a) Lime stone (b) Marble (c) Dolomite (*d) All
(d) None
196. Which metal cannot be extracted by smelting process?
(a) Pb (b) Fe (c) Zn (*d) Al 209. The sand stone in some iron ores is removed by: (a)
Carbon filters (b) Compressed air (c*) Lime stone
197. Which does not contain aluminium? (a) Bauxite (b) (d) Sulphuric acid
Emery (*c) Rutile (d) Corundum
210. Which is metalloid?
198. Which is incorrect as the uses of lime stone in
industries are concerned? (a) Na (b) Au (*c) As (d) Fe

(a) For making cement 211. Blood haemoglobin contains:

(*b) In the extraction of Sn from its ore (a) Al (b) Mg (c) Cu (*d) Fe

(c) In the extraction of Fe from its ore 212. Which set of elements is called chalcogens? (a) Cl, Br,
I (b*) O, S, Se (c) N, P, As (d) C, Si, Ge
(d) In the manufacture of glass
213. In the electrorefming, the impure metal is made: (a)
199. Which is not a silver ore? Cathode (b*) Anode (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of
these
(a) Argentite (*b) Siderite (c) Horn silver (d)
Ruby silver 214. Iron obtained from blast furnace is known as: (a) Steel
(b) Cast iron (c*) Wrought iron (d) Pig iron
200. Iron is made inactive or passive by:
215. Which is not an ore of nickel?
(a) H3PO4 (*b) Conc.HNO3 (c) Cone. H2SO4 (d) Dil.
HNO3 (a) Nickel glance (b) Garnerite *c) Haematite
(d) Pentlandite
201. The mineral of copper is:
216. Amalgams are:
(a) Azurite (b) Malachite (c) Copper pyrites (*d) All
(a) Highly coloured alloys
202. Granulated zinc is obtained by:
(b) Always in liquid state
(a) Suddenly cooling molten zinc
(c*) Alloys which contain Hg as one of the constituents
(*b) Adding molten zinc to water
(d) Alloys which have a great resistance to abrasion
(c) Heating zinc to 100 -150°C
217. When pyrolusite is fused with KOH in presence of air,
(d) Dropping molten zinc drop by drop
the fused mass becomes: (a*) Pink (b) Green (c) Red
(d) Black
203. After partial roasting, the sulphide of copper is reduced
by: [PMT (MP) 1993] (a) Cyanide process (b)
218. Tin is extracted from tin stone by heating it in a
Electrolysis (c) Reduction with carbon (*d) Self reduction
furnace with:
204. Which process is not used in purification of bauxite?
(a) CaCO3 (b) CaO (c) Steam (d*) Coal
(a) Hall's method (b) Baeyer's method (c) Serpek's method
(*d) Frankland's method 219. Smelting is done in:

205. Electrolysis of fused camallite gives: (a) Mg (b) K (c) K (a*) Blast furnace (b) Muffle furnace (c) Open hearth
and CO2 (d*) K, Mg and C12 furnace (d) Electric furnace

206. Which is not an ore of lead? 220. The process of calcination and roasting are carried out
in:
(a) Galena (*b) Cassiterite (c) Anglesite (d)
Cerussite (a) Blast furnace (b) Muffle furnace (c*) Reverberatory
furnace (d) Open hearth furnace
207. Coating of zinc on iron objects is commonly known as:
(a) Electroplating (b) Surface coating (c*) Galvanising
(d) Sheardising
56
221. In the extraction of lead from its ore galena, an (a*) Copper pyrites (b) tMalachite (c) Carnallite
important element recovered is: (a) Au (*b) Ag (c) Cr (d) Magnetite
(d) C
235. One of the fertilizer is:
222. Lepidolite is an ore of:
(a) CaC2 (b) CaCO3 (c*) CaCN2 (d) CaSO4
(a) K (b) Na (c) Li (*d) All
236. The matte is impure substance obtained during
223. Which is used for the extraction of cadmium from extraction of:
cadmium sulphide?
(a*) Cu (b) Fe (c) Pb (d) Al
(a) Roasting (b*) Reduction (c) Oxidation (d)
Electrolysis 237. Which metal is a liquid at room temperature? (a*)
Mercury (b) Potassium (c) Sodium (d)
224. In Goldschmidt aluminothermic process, thermite Titanium
mixture contains:
238. The process of concentrating silver ore is based on its
(a) 3 parts Fe2O3 and 2 parts Al solubility in:

(b) 3 parts Al2O3 and 4 parts Al (a) HC1 (b) HNO3 (*c) KCN (d) NaOH

(c) 1 part Fe2O3 and 12 parts Al 239. Before introducing FeO in blast furnace, it is converted
to Fe2O3 by roasting so that:
(*d) 3 parts Fe2O3 and 1 part Al
(a*) It may not be removed as slag with silica
225. From which form of iron, other forms of iron can be
produced? (b) It may not evaporate in the furnace

(a) Cast iron (b) Wrought iron (c*) Pig iron (c) Presence of it may increase the m.p. of charge
(d) Steel
(d) None of the above
226. Silver obtained by argentiferrous lead is purified by: (a)
Distillation (b) Froth floatation (c*) Cupellation 240. During bessemerisation of copper, the reaction taking
(d) Reacting with KCN place in the bessemer converter is:

227. Boron is found in form of: (a*) Cu2S+2Cu2O  6Cu+SO2

(a) Borax (b) Colemanite (*c) Both (a) and (b) (d) (b) Cu2O + FeS  Cu2S + FeO
None of these
(c) FeO + SiO2  FeSiO3
228. Which metal is not silver white? (a) Ni (*b) Cu (c) Na
(d) Sn (d) None of the above

229. Antimony occurs mainly in form of: (a) Sulphide (b*) 241. Lepidolite, a lithium ore, also contains: (a) Ru (b)
Stibnite (c) Realgar (d) Fluoropatite MgSO4 (*c) Na (d) Cs

230. Wolframite ore contains: 242. Softening of lead means:

(a) Zn (b*) W (c) Hf (d) Au (a) Conversion of lead into PbO

231. Zinc metal is refined by: (b) Conversion of lead into Pb3O4

(a) Crystallisation (b) Sublimation (c) Heating (*c) Removal of metallic impurities from lead
(*d) Distillation
(d) Washing lead with HNO3 followed by dilute alkali solution
232. Oxidation method is used for refining of: (a) Pb (b) Cu
243. Pitch blende is the main source of: (a*) U (b) Ce (c) Th
(c) Hg (*d) All
(d) Mg
233. Mispickel is the ore of:
244. Passivity of iron is due to the formation of thin film
(a) Sb (b) Bi (c) P (d*) As of.......on its surface.

234. Sulphide ore is: (*a) Oxide (b) Carbonate (c) Nitride (d)
Hydroxide

57
245. Which is not essential for rusting? (a) Oxygen (b) 258. The salt which is least likely to be found in minerals is:
Water (c*) Carbon dioxide (d) Iron
(a) Sulphate (*b) Acetate (c) Chloride (d)
246. The smelting of iron in a blast furnace involves all the Sulphide
steps except:
259. Main ore of aluminium is:
(a) Reduction (b) Fusion (c) Decomposition (*d)
Sublimation (a) Cryolite (*c) Bauxite(b) Kaolin (d) Felspar

247. CO on passing over heated nickel gives: 260. The cryolite is: (a) Al203 (c) KAlSi3O8

(a) NiC03 (c) CO2+H2 (b*) Na3AlF6 (d) Al3O2OH20

(*b) Ni(CO)4 (d) CO + H2 261. Zinc is obtained on large scale by:

248. The main ore of iron is: (a) Electrolysis of ZnCl2 (b*) Reduction of ZnO

(a) Chloride (b) Sulphate (c) Nitrate (*d) Oxide (c) Precipitation with Ag (d) All are correct

249. Alloy formation gives rise to:
(a) Decrease in corrosion
(c) Decrease in conductivity
262. In the Hall's process for extraction of Al, the ore is
fused with:
(b) Increase in hardness
(a) NaHCO3 (b*) Na2CO3 (c) NaF (d)
(*d) All are correct Na3AlF6

250. Spelter is: 263. The process of extraction of sodium on a commercial

scale by the electrolysis of fused sodium chloride is called:
(a*) Impure zinc (b) Impure iron (c) Pure zinc (d) Impure Al
(a*) Down's process (b) Solvay process
251. The phenomenon of removing layers of basic oxides
from metals before electroplating is called: (a) Galvanising (c) Nelson process (d) Castner process
(b) Anodising (c*) Pickling (d) Poling

252. Most of the plants contain:

INORGANIC PROBLEMS

(a) Fe (b) Zn (c) Na (*d) K

EXERCISE 22 THEORETICAL PROBLEMS
253. A common metal used as reductant for the extraction
1. The lightest gas is:
of metals from their oxides is:
(a) Nitrogen (b) Helium (c) Oxygen (*d) Hydrogen
(a) Cr (*b) Al (c) Co (d) Fe
2. Heavy water (D2O) is:
254. Calcination and roasting are: •
(a) A product of oxygen and hydrogen
(a) Different names of the same operation
(b) Ordinary water containing dissolved salts of heavy metals
(b) Used for the purification of metals
(c) Water of mineral springs
(*c) Usually carried out in reverberatory furnace
(*d) Water produced by repeated distillation and
(d) Employed for the concentration of the ore
condensation
255. Chloride ore among the following is:
3. Ionic hydrides are formed by:
(a) Malachite (b) Magnesite (c) Magnetite (d*) Rock salt
(a) Transition metals
256. Which radioactive element is more abundant in India?
(b*) Elements of very high electropositivity
(*a) Thorium (b) Uranium (c) Radium (d)
(c) Elements of very low electropositivity
Radon
(d) Metalloids
257. The group containing oxides that cannot be reduced by
carbon to give the respective metal is: 4. Hydrogen peroxide is now generally prepared on
industrial scale by the: [Roorkee 1992]
(a) Cu2O,SnO2 (b) Fe2O3 (*c) Na2O,Al2O3 (d) PbO, Fe2O3
(a) Action of H2SO4 on barium peroxide
58
(b) Action of H2SO4 on sodium peroxide (d) Denser than water

(*c) Electrolysis of 50% H2SO4 14. Temporary hardness is caused due to the presence of:
(a) CaSO4 (b) CaCl2 (c) CaCO3 *(d)
(d) Burning hydrogen in excess of oxygen Ca(HCO3)2

5. Heavy water has found application in atomic reactor as: 15. Both temporary and permanent hardness in water are
removed by:
(a) Coolant
(a) Boiling (b) Filtration (*c) Distillation (d)
(*b) Moderator
Decantation
(c) Both coolant and moderator
16. The decomposition of H2O2 can be slowed down by the
addition of small amount of phosphoric acid which acts as:
(d) Neither coolant nor moderator
(a) Stopper (b) Detainer (c*) Inhibitor (d)
6. Heavy water possesses:
Promoter
(a) Insoluble impurities like silica
17. Both temporary and permanent hardness are removed
(b) Impurities like carbonates and bicarbonates of calcium on boiling water with:
and magnesium
(a) Ca(OH)2 (*b) Na2CO3 (c) CaCO3 (d) CaO
(*c) High density and different physical properties than
18. Hard water is not fit for washing clothes because:
those of water
(a) It contains Na2SO4 and KCl
(d) The capacity to expedite the rate of nuclear reactions
(*b) It gives precipitate with soap
7. Hard water becomes free from......ions when passed
(c) It contains impurities
through ion exchange resin containing RCOOH groups,
(d) It is acidic in nature
(a) Cl- (b) SO42- (c) H30+ (*d) Ca2+
19. The bleaching properties of H2O2 are due to its: (a)
8. Hydrogen is not obtained when zinc reacts with:
Reducing properties (b*) Oxidizing properties (c) Unstable
(*a) Cold water (b) Oil. H2SO4 (c) Oil. HCl (d) Hot 20% NaOH nature (d) Acidic nature

9. The gas used in the hydrogenation of oils in presence of 20. The ortho and para hydrogen possess:
nickel as a catalyst is: (a) Methane (b) Ethane (c) Ozone
(a) Same physical properties but different chemical
(*d) Hydrogen
properties
10. Hydrogen adsorbed on palladium is known as: (a)
(*b) Different physical properties but same chemical
Atomic H (b) Nascent H (c*) Occluded H (d)
properties
Heavy H
(c) Same chemical and physical properties
11. In solid hydrogen, the intermolecular bonding is:
(d) Different physical and chemical properties
[Roorkee 1991]
21. Para hydrogen is:
(a) Ionic (b*) van der Waals (c) Metallic (d) Covalent
(*a) Less stable than ortho hydrogen
12. The conversion of atomic hydrogen into ordinary
hydrogen is:
(b) More stable than ortho hydrogen
(a*) Exothermic change (b) Endothermic change (c)
(c) As stable as ortho hydrogen
Nuclear change (d) Photochemical change
(d) None of the above
13. Heavy water is qualified as heavy because it is:
22. Tritium atom has:
(a) A heavy liquid
(*a) Two neutrons and one proton
(b) An oxide of a heavier isotope of oxygen
(b) One neutron and two protons
(c*) An oxide of deuterium
(c) Two neutrons and two protons
59
(d) None of the above (b) Glass container after addition of stabilizer

23. Benzene is oxidized by H2O2 in presence of FeSO4 to: (*c) Plastic container after addition of stabilizer

(a*) Phenol (b) Cyclohexane (c) Benzaldehyde (d) Benzole (d) None of the above
acid
35. Acidified KMnO4 is decolourised by: (a) Oxygen (b)
24. The most abundant isotope of hydrogen is: (a) Tritium Hydrogen (c) Nitric oxide (*d) Nascent hydrogen
(b) Deuterium (*c) Protium (d) Para-hydrogen
36. .Heavy water freezes at:
25. Fluorine reacts with water to form: (a) Fluorine water
(b) Oxygen (c) Ozone (*d) Oxygen, ozone (a) -3.8°C (b*) 3.8°C (c) 0°C (d) 3.2°C

26. The oxidizing property of H2O2 is best explained by 37. In aqueous solution, H2 does not reduce: (a) Fe3+ (b)
assuming that two oxygen atoms in its molecule are: Cu2+ (*c) Zn2+ (d) Ag+

(a*) Bonded differently 38. Hydrogen can be placed in halogen's group because:

(b) Bonded similarly (a) H is light

(c) Bonded covalently (b) H contains one electron only

(d) Bonded by hydrogen bonds (*c) It forms hydrides like chlorides

27. The formula of heavy water is: (d) It has isotopes D and T

(a) H2O18 (b*) D2O (c) T20 (d) H2017 39. Acidified solution of chromic acid on treatment with H2O2
yields:
28. Decomposition of H2O2 is retarded by: (a) Acetanilide (b)
Alcohol (c) H3P04 (*d) All of these (a) CrO3 + H2O + O2 (b) Cr2O2 + H2O+O2

29. The rubber foam is produced by passing oxygen through (*c) CrO5 +H2O + K2SO4 (d) H2Cr2O7 + H2O+O2
rubber foaming material. This oxygen is released from: (a)
40. The melting points of most of the solid substances
Nitric oxide (*b) Hydrogen peroxide (c) Water
increase with an increase of pressure. However, ice melts at
(d) CO2
a temperature lower than its usual melting point when the
30. Which of the following acts as both reducing and pressure is increased. This is because:
oxidising agents? [CPMT 2001]
(a*) Ice is less denser than water
(a) H2S04 (b*) H202
(b) Pressure generates heat
(c) KOH (d) KMn04
(c) The chemical bonds break under pressure
31. An inorganic compound gives off O2 when heated, turns
(d) Ice is not a true solid
an acid solution of KI violet, and reduces acidified KMnO4.
The compound is: (a) SO3 (b) KNO3 (*c) H2O2
41. Hydrogen combines directly with: (*a) Ca (b) Cu (c) Zn
(d) All
(d) Fe
32. Atomic hydrogen is obtained by:
42. H2O2 converts potassium ferrocyanide to ferricyanide.
The change observed in the oxidation state of iron is:
(a) Electrolysis of heavy water
(a*) Fe2+  Fe3+ (b) Fe  Fe 2+
(b) Reaction of water with heavy metals
(c) Fe3+  Fe2+ (b) Fe2+  Fe+
(c) Thermal decomposition of water
43. Tritium emits:
(d*) Passing silent electric discharge through hydrogen at
low pressure
(a) -particles (b*) -particles (c) -rays (d) Neutrons
33. The ratio of electron, proton and neutron in tritium is:
44. The structure of H2O2 is:
(a) 1 : 1 : 1 (b*) 1 : 1 : 2 (c) 2 : 1 : 1 (d) 1 : 2 : 1
Figure
34. H2O2 is stored in:
45. Which does not react with cold water?
(a) Iron container after addition of stabilizer

60
(a) Mg3N2 (*b) CaC2 (c) COCl2 (d) SiC (*b) BaO2 is added toCO2 bubbling through cold water

46. Which method cannot be used to remove hardness of (c) PbO2 is added to an acidified solution of KMnO4
water?
(d) Na2O2 is added to boiling water
(a) dark's method (b) By adding washing soda
54. Which can adsorb large volumes of hydrogen gas?
(c) Calgon process (*d) Filtration
(*a) Colloidal solution of palladium
47. In which reaction hydrogen is not formed?
(b) Finely divided nickel
(a*) Copper and hydrochloric acid
(c) Colloidal ferric hydroxide
(b) Iron and sulphuric acid
(d) Finely divided platinum
(c) Magnesium and steam
55. Hydrogen is not used for:
(d) Sodium and alcoholHydrogen and Its Compounds
(a) Manufacture of vegetable ghee
48. H2O2 acts as a reducing agent in its:
(b) Production of high temperature
(a) Reaction with a ferrous salt
(*c) As rocket fuel with kerosene
(b) Reaction with iodides
(d) As a reducing agent
(c) Reaction with lead sulphide
56. Pure H2 is obtained by the action of:
(*d) Reaction with KMnO4 in acid medium
(a) Al over KOH
49. Pure water can be obtained from sea water by:
(b) NaH over H2O
(a) Centrifugation (b) Plasmolysis
(c) Electrolysis of warm solution of Ba(OH)2 using Ni
(c*) Reverse osmosis (d) Sedimentation electrodes

50. Point out the incorrect statement: (*d) All of the above

(a) Hardness of water depends upon its soap consuming
power
(b) Temporary hardness is due to bicarbonates of calcium
and magnesium
(c) Permanent hardness is due to soluble sulphates,
chlorides and nitrates of Ca and Mg
57. Manufacture of H2 is made by:
(a) Lane's process (b) Bosch process (c) From natural gas
(*d) All of these
58. The hardness of water is due to......metal ions.
[BHU 1992] (a) Ca2+ and Na+ (b) Mg2+ and K+

(*d) Permanent hardness can be removed by boiling water (*c) Ca2+ and Mg2+ (d) Zn2+ and Ba2+

51. H2O2 turns an acidified solution of......to orange red. 59. When silicon is boiled with caustic soda solution, the gas
evolved is: [Roorkee 1990] (a) 02 (b)
(a) BaO2 (b) PbO2 (c) Na2O2 (d*) TiO2 SiH4 (c*) H2 (d) None of these

52. The best method to test whether a clear liquid is water, 60. The percentage by weight of hydrogen in H2O2 is:
is to:
[ANNS 2001]
(a) Taste the liquid (b) Smell the liquid
(a*) 5.88 (b) 6.25 (c) 25 (d) 50
(c) Add litmus paper
61. The best explanation for not placing hydrogen with the
(d*) Add few drops on anhydrous copper sulphate and look group of alkali metals or halogens is:
for colour change
(a) Hydrogen can form compounds with all other elements
53. H2O2 is prepared in the laboratory when:
(b) Hydrogen is much lighter element than the alkali metals
(a) MnO2 is added to dilute cold H2SO4 or the halogens

61
(c*) The ionization energy of hydrogen is too high for group (d) O—H bonds are polar but molecule is non-polar
of alkali metals but too low for halogen group

(d) None of the above

71. Ionic hydrides react with water to give:
62. Water is permanently hard when it contains:
(a) Acidic solutions (*b) Basic solutions
(a*) Nitrates of magnesium and calcium
(c) Hydride ion (d) Protons
(b) Carbonates of sodium and potassium
72. Maximum density of heavy water is at:
(c) Bicarbonates of magnesium and calcium
(a) 0°C (b) 4°C (c*) 11.6°C (d) 3.8°C
(d) Phosphates of sodium and potassium
73. Which reaction shows oxidizing nature of H2O2?
63. The acidified solution of FeCl3 is reduced by passing: (a)
Ordinary H2 (b) O2 (*c) Nascent H (d) H2 (a*) H2O2 +2KI  2KOH + I2

64. What is formed when calcium carbide reacts with heavy (b) Cl2 +H2O2  2HCl+O2
water?
(c) H2O2 + Ag2O  2Ag + H2O+O2
(a*) C2D2 (b) CaD2 (c) Ca2D2O (d) CD2
(d) NaClO + H2O2  NaCl + H2O+O2
65. Which of the following statements is correct?
74. Heavy water is not used for drinking because:
[BHU 1997]
(a) It is poisonous (b) It is costly
(a) Hydrogen has same ionization potential as sodium
(c*) Its physiological action is different from ordinary water
(b) H has same electronegativity as halogens
(d) Its chemical properties are different from ordinary water
(c) It will not be liberated at anode
75. When H2O2 is added to acidic ferrous sulphate solution:
(d*) H has oxidation state +1, -1 and zero
(a) Electrons are gained by Fe2+
66. Which of the following is correct for hydrogen?
(*b) Electrons are lost by Fe2+
[AFMC 1997]
(c) There is no loss or gain of electrons
(a) It can form bonds in +1 as well as -1 oxidation state
(d) Iron hydroxide precipitates
(b) It is collected at cathode
76. Heavy hydrogen is used:
(c) It has a very high ionization potential
(a) In filling the balloons
(d*) All of the above
(*b) In studying reaction mechanism
67. The n/p ratio for , H1 is:
(c) In calculating heat of formation
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (*d) Zero
(d) As oxidant
68. In periodic table tritium is placed in group:
77. In the preparation of hydrogenated oil the chemical
(a*) I (b) II (c) III (d) IV reaction involving hydrogen is called:

69. Heavy water was discovered by: (a*) Hydrogenation (b) Reduction

(a) Nernst (b) Haber (*c) Urey and Washburn (d) Aston (c) Dehydrogenation (d) Oxidation

70. In the hydrogen peroxide molecule: 78. Ordinary hydrogen has preponderance of:

(a) Two hydrogen atoms are connected to one of the oxygen (a*) Hydrogen atoms (b) Deuterium atoms

(b) All the four atoms are in the same plane (c) Tritium .atoms

(c*) The four atoms are arranged in a non-linear and non- (d) The above three are in equal proportions
planar manner
62
79. The oxygen atom of H2O2 used for oxidation is bound 89. Which is not a water softener?
by:
(a) Calgon (b) Permutit
(a) Electrovalent bond (b) Co-ordinate bond (*c)
Covalent bond (d) None of these (c) Na2CO3 (*d) Na2SO4

80. Density of water is maximum at:
(a) 0°C (b) 100°C (*c) 4°C
81. Ordinary hydrogen is a mixture of:
(a*) 75%ortho-H2+25%para-H2
(b) 25%ortho-H2 +75%para-H2
(c) 50% ortho-H2 + 50% para-H2
(d) 99%para-H2 + l%ortho-H2
82. A mixture of hydrazine and 40 to 60 per cent of H2O2
solution is:
90. Decolourisation of acidified potassium permanganate
occurs when H2O2 is added to it. This is due to:
(d) OK
(a) Oxidation of KMnO4 (b*) Reduction of KMnO4
(c) Both oxidation and reduction of KMnO4
(d) None of the above
91. The reaction, H2S + H2O2  S +2H2O manifests:
(a) Acidic nature of H2O2 (b) Alkaline nature of H2O2
(c*) Oxidizing nature of H2O2 (d) Reducing nature of H2O2
92. Hydrogen reacts with.......even in the dark.

(a) Antiseptic (*b) Rocket fuel (c) Germicide (d) Insecticide (a) Br2 (b*) F2 (c) I2 (d) Cl2

83. The volume strength of 1.5 N H2O2 solution is: 93. When zeolite (hydrated sodium aluminium silicate) is

(a) 4.8 (*b) 8.4 (c) 3.0 (d) 8.0 treated with hard water the sodium ions are exchanged

84. The oxide that gives H2O2 on treatment with a dilute with:
acid is:
(a) H+ ions (*b) Ca2+ ions (c) SO42- ions (d) OH-
(a) PbO2 (b) MnO2 (*c) Na2O2 (d) TiO2
94. The species that does not contain peroxide ions is:
85. Hydrogen gas will not reduce:
(*a) PbO2 (c) SrO2 (b) H2O2 (d) BaO2
(a) Heated cupric oxide
95. The percentage by weight of hydrogen in H2O2 is:
(b) Heated ferric oxide
(a) 50 (b) 25 (c) 6.25 (*d) 5.88
(c) Heated stannic oxide
96. H2O2 reduces K.3Fe(CN)6 in:
(d*) Heated aluminium oxide
(a) Neutral solution (b) Acidic solution (c*) Alkaline solution
86. Calgon is an industrial name given to: (d) Non-polar medium

(a) Normal sodium phosphate 97. When the same amount of zinc is treated separately
with excess of sulphuric acid and excess of sodium
(b) Sodium meta-aluminate hydroxide, the ratio of volumes of hydrogen evolved is: (*a)
1 : 1 (b) 1 : 2 (c) 2 : 1 (d) 9 : 4
(c*) Sodium hexa meta-phosphate
98. Hydrogen may be prepared by heating a solution of
(d) Hydrated sodium aluminium silicate caustic soda with: (a) Mg (b*) Zn (c) Fe
(d) Ag
87. Permutit is: [CPMT1991]
99. The volume of '10 vol' of H2O2 required to liberate 500
(*a) Hydrated sodium aluminium silicate
mL O2 at NTP is:
(b) Sodium hexa meta-phosphate
(a*) 50 mL (b) 25 mL (c) 100 mL (d) 125 mL
(c) Sodium silicate
100. The exhausted permutit is generally regenerated by
percolating through it a solution of:
(d) Sodium meta-aluminate
(*a) Sodium chloride (b) Calcium chloride
88. For the bleaching of hair, the substance used is:
(c) Magnesium chloride (d) Potassium chloride
(a) SO2 (b) Bleaching powder (c*) H2O2 (d) O3
63
101. Ka for H2O2 is of the order of: 112. Sodium zeolite is:

(*a) 10-12 (b) 10-14 (c) 10-16 (d) 10-10 (a) NaAlSi2O6 (b) Na2Al2Si2O3 (c*) Na2Al2Si2O8 (d)
NaAl2Si2Og
102. Hydrogen peroxide does not:
113. Hydrogen peroxide works as:
(a) Liberate iodine from KI
(a) An oxidant only (b) A reductant only
(b) Turn the titanium salt yellow
(c) An acid only (*d) An oxidant, a reductant and an acid
(*c) Give silver peroxide with moist silver oxide
114. Under what condition of temperature and pressure the
(d) Turn the mixture of aniline, KClO3 and dil. H2SO4 violet formation of atomic hydrogen from molecular hydrogen will
be favoured most? [MLNR 1992]
103. The sum of number of neutrons and protons in one of
the isotopes of hydrogen is: (a) High temperature and high pressure

(a*) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6 (b) Low temperature and low pressure

104. Hydrogen peroxide for the first time was prepared by:
(a) Priestley (*b) Thenard (c) Gay-Lussac (d) Bernard
105. Ortho and para-hydrogen differ in the:
(a) Number of protons (b) Molecular weight
(c*) High temperature and low pressure
(d) Low temperature and high pressure
115. Hydrogen peroxide is manufactured by the auto-
oxidation of:

(c*) Nature of spins of protons(d) Nature of spins of (a*) 2-ethylanthraquinol (b) Anthraquinone
electrons
(c) Naphthalene (d) Anthracene
106. Hydrogen was discovered by:
116. Nascent hydrogen consists of:
(a) Scheele (b) Berzelius (*c) Cavendish (d) Priestley
(a*) Hydrogen atoms with excess energy
107. H2O2 acts as an oxidizing agent in:
(b) Hydrogen molecules with excess energy
(a) Neutral medium (b) Acidic medium
(c) Hydrogen ions in excited state
(c) Alkaline medium (*d) Acidic as well as in alkaline medium
(d) Solvated protons
108. H2O2 acts as antiseptic due to its:
117. Hydrogen molecules are: [CBSE 1991]
(a) Reducing property (*b) Oxidising property
(a) Monoatomic and form X22- ions
(c) Bleaching property (d) Acidic property
(b) Diatomic and form X22- ions
109. The pair that yields the same gaseous product on
reaction with water: (*c) Diatomic and form X- ions

(a) K and KO2 (*b) Ca and CaH2 (d) Monoatomic and form X- ions

(c) Na and Na2O2 (d) Ba and BaO2 118. An inorganic compound liberates O2 when heated,
turns an acid solution of KI brown and reduces acidified
110. The metal that does not displace hydrogen from an KMnO4. The substance is: [AIIMS 1992]
acid is:
(a*) H2O2 (b) D2O (c) KNO3 (d)
(a*) Hg (b) Zn (c) Al (d) Ca Pb(NO3)2

111. Zeolites are extensively used in: 119. Water acts as excellent solvent due to:

(a*) Softening of water and catalyst(b) Preparing heavy (a) Hydrogen bonding
water
(b) Neutral nature
(c) Increasing the hardness of water
(*c) High dielectric constant
(d) Mond's process
(d) None of the above

64
120. The hair dyes available in the market generally contain 132. The maximum possible number of hydrogen bonds a
two bottles, one containing the dye and the other hydrogen water molecule can form is: [IIT 1992]
peroxide. Before applying the dye, the two solutions are
mixed. The hydrogen peroxide: (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (*d) 4

(a) Is added to dilute the solution of the dye 133. The most reactive state of hydrogen is:

(b*) Oxidises the dye to give the desired colour (*a) Atomic hydrogen (b) Heavy hydrogen (c)
Molecular hydrogen (d) Nascent hydrogen
(c) Reduces the dye to give the desired colour
134. The life period of atomic hydrogen is:
(d) Acidifies the solution of the dye
(a) Only five minute
121. The amount of H2O2 present in 1 L of 1.5 N H2O2
solution is: (a) 2.5 g (*b) 25.5 g (c) 3.0 g (b*) Only one third of a second
(d) 8.0 g
(c) Only two hour
122. Which does not cause hardness of water? [CPMT 1991]
(d) 10 second
(a) CaCl2 (b) MgSO4 (c*) Na2SO4 (d) FeSO4
135. Permanent hardness of water can be removed by
123. 30 volume hydrogen peroxide means:
adding calgon (NaPO3)n This is an example of:
(a) 30% H2O2 solution
(a) Adsorption (*b) Exchange of ion
(b) 30cm3 of the solution contains 1 g of H2O2
(c) Precipitation (d) None of these
(c*) 1 cm3 of the solution liberates 30cm3 of O2 at STP
136. The percentage of para hydrogen in ordinary hydrogen
(d) 30cm3 of the solution contains 1 mole of H2O2 increases when:

124. An aqueous solution of hydrogen peroxide is: (a*) Temperature is lowered

(a) Alkaline (b) Neutral (c) Strongly acidic (*d) Weakly acidic (b) Temperature is increased

125. Moist hydrogen cannot be dried over concentrated (c) Pressure is increased and temperature is decreased
H2SO4 because: [CPMT 1991]
(d) None of the-above
(a) It can catch fire (b) It is reduced by H2SO4
137. Of the two solvents H2Oand D2O, NaCl dissolves:
(c*) It is oxidized by H2SO4 (d) It decomposes H2SO4
(a) Equally in both (b) Only in H2O
126. Which hydride is an ionic hydride?
(c) More in D2O (*d) More in H2O
(a) NH3 (b) H2S (c) TiH1.73 (*d) NaH
138. The bond energy of covalent O—H bond in water is:
127. The molarity of a 100 mL solution containing 5. Ig of
(a) Equal to bond energy of hydrogen bond
hydrogen peroxide is: (a) 0.15 M (*b) 1.5M (c) 3.0 M
(d) 50.0 M
(*b) Greater than bond energy of hydrogen bond
128. Hydrogen burns with:
(c) Lesser than bond energy of hydrogen bond
(a) Smoky flame (b) Yellow flame
(d) None of the above
(c*) Blue flame (d) Pale yellow flame
139. At absolute zero:
129. The most reactive isotope of H is:
(a*) Only para hydrogen exists
(a*) 1H1 (b) 1H2 (c) 1H3 (d) All have same reactivity
(b) Only ortho hydrogen exists
130. H2 acts as an oxidant in its reaction with:
(c) Both para and ortho hydrogen exist
(a) Br2 (b*) Ca (c) N2 (d) S
(d) None of the above
131. The most dangerous method of preparing hydrogen
140. H2O2 on treatment with chlorine gives:
would be by the action of dil. HCl and: (a) Zn (b) Fe (*c) K
(d) Al (a) H2 (*b) Oxygen (c) Hypochlorous acid (d) ClO2
65
141. High boiling point of water is due to: 153. The geometry of water molecule is same as that of:

(a) Its high specific heat (*b) Hydrogen bonding (a) C02 (b) C2H4 (*c) Chlorine oxide (d) Boron trifluoride

(c) High dielectric constant (d) Low dissociation constant 154. Decomposition of H2O2 is accelerated by:

142. Ozone reacts with H2O2 to give oxygen. One volume of (a) Traces of acids (b*) Finely divided metals (c) Acetanilide
ozone gives: (d) Alcohol

(a) One volume of oxygen 155. Which of the following will not give H 2O2 on
hydrolysis?
(b) Half volume of oxygen
(*a) HClO4 (b) H2S2Og (c) H2SO5 (d) HNO4
(c) 1.5 volume of oxygen (pernitric acid)

(d*) Two volumes of oxygen 156. Which matter contains only two chemical elements? (a)
Tea (b) Coffee (*c) Water (d) Sugar
143. When hydrolith is treated with water it yields:
157. Tritium is obtained by:
(a*) H2 (b) H202 (c) N2 (d) NaH
(*a) Nuclear reactions
144. Hydrogen gas is used on industrial scale in the
manufacture of: (b) Passing steam over heated C

(a) H2S04 (b) C2H2 (c*) Margarine (d) Water (c) Action of NaOH on Al

145. Which is not present in clear hard water? (d) Action of H2SO4 on Zn

(a) Mg(HC03)2 (b) CaCl2 (c) MgSO4 (*d) MgCO3 158. Hydrogen is evolved by the action of cold dilute HNO3
on: [Roorkee 1994; GET (Punjab) 1997]
146. Hydrogen produced in contact with substance which is
to be reduced is (b*) Acts as oxidizing agent

(a) Ortho H2 (b) Para H2 (d*) Nascent H (c) Active H (a) Fe (b) Mg or Mn (c) Cu (d) Al

147. Ammonium persulphate reduced pressure gives:
(a*) H2O2 (b) O2 (c) H2
148. The O—O bond length in H2O2 is:
(a) 1.54 A (*b) 1.48 A (c) 1.34 A
149. H2O2 restores the colour of old lead paintings,
blackened by the action of H2S gas, by:
159. One mole of calcium phosphide on reaction with excess
water gives: [HT 1999]
(d) (NH4)2SO4
(a) One mole of phosphene
(b) Two moles of phosphoric acid
(d) 1.01 A
(*c) Two moles of phosphine
(d) One mole of phosphorus pentaoxide

(a) Converting PbO2 to Pb (*b) By oxidising PbS to PbSO4 160. H2O2 is:

(c) Converting PbCO3 to Pb (d) Oxidising PbSO3 to PbSO4 (*a) Diamagnetic (b) Paramagnetic (c) Ferromagnetic
(d) None of these
150. Hydrogen has a tendency to gain one electron in order
to acquire helium configuration. It thus, resembles: 161. Which loses weight on exposure to the atmosphere?

(a) Alkali metals (b) Noble gases (*c) Halogens (a) Concentrated H2SO4
(d) Alkaline earth metals
(b) Solid NaOH
151. In the case of H2O2, the angle between the planes
containing the hydrogen atom is: (c*) A saturated solution of CO2

(a) 100° (b*) 90° (c) 109°28' (d) 180° (d) Anhydrous sodium carbonate

152. Water contracts on heating: 162. Smell of H2O2 resembles:

(a) To 100°C (*b) From 0°C to 4°C (a) Alcohol (b) Alkali

(c) To 273 K (d) From 10°C to 20°C (*c) Nitric acid (d) Chloroform

66
163. MnO2 liberates oxygen from a solution of H2O2 (the 173. Hydrogen combines withO2 to form H2O. In this
action being catalytic) only if the solution is: (a) Basic (*b) reaction:
Acidic (c) Neutral (d) None
(a) Hydrogen gets reduced (*b) Hydrogen gets oxidized
164. The reaction, 2H2O2  2H2O+O2, shows that H2O2:
(c) Oxygen is oxidized (d) None of the above
(a*) Is decomposed (c) Acts as reducing agent (d) None of
these 174. The boiling point of heavy water is: (a) 100°C (*b)
101.4°C (c) 104°C (d) 102.5°C
165. H2O2 is concentrated by:
175. The ionization of hydrogen atom gives: [CBSE 1990]
(a) Steam distillation (a) Hydride ion (b) Hydronium ion (*c) Proton
(d) Hydroxyl ion
(b) Fractional distillation
176. During hydrogenation of oil the catalyst commonly
(c) Freezing in freezing mixture used is:

(*d) Distillation under reduced pressure (a) Pd on CuCl2 (*b) Ni (c) Fe (d) V205

166. Deuterium, an isotope of hydrogen is: 177. Atomic hydrogen produces formaldehyde when it
reacts with:
(a) Radioactive (*b) Non-radioactive (c) Heaviest
(d) Lightest (a) CO2 (b*) CO (c) 02 (d) C2H2

167. The hybridisation of the orbitals of oxygen in H2O2 is: 178. Which is not true in case of H2O2?
(a) sp3d (b) sp (c) sp2 (d*) sp3
(a*) It is more stable in basic solution
168. Which statement is not correct for hydrogen peroxide?
(b) It acts as strong oxidizing agent in acid and basic
(a) Pure H2O2 is fairly stable solutions

(b) It sometimes acts as a reducing agent (c) It is decomposed by MnO2

(c) It acts as an oxidizing agent (d) It behaves as reducing agent towards KMnO4

(*d) Aqueous solution of H2O2 is weakly basic 179. The heaviest among the following is: (a) Deuterium
(*b) Helium (c) Tritium (d) Hydrogen
169. The ionization energy of hydrogen is:
180. Nucleus of deuterium contains:
(a) Lower than alkali metals
(a*) One proton and one neutron
(b) Lower than halogens
(b) One proton and one electron
(c) Closer to alkali metals
(c) Two protons
(*d) Closer to halogens
(d) Two protons and one neutron
170. If water is boiled for sometime it becomes free from:
181. Density of heavy water is:
(a) Permanent hardness
(a*) Higher than ordinary water
(b*) Temporary hardness
(b) Lower than ordinary water
(c) Suspended matter
(c) Same as that of ordinary water
(d) Temporary hardness and dissolved gases
(d) None of the above
171. 1000 g aqueous solution of CaCO3 contains 10 g of
calcium carbonate. Hardness of the solution is: 182. Deuterium resembles hydrogen in chemical properties
but reacts:
(a) 10 ppm (b) 100 ppm (c) 1000 ppm (*d) 10000 ppm
(a*) Slower than hydrogen
172. Metal which does not react with cold water but evolves
H2 with steam is: (b) Faster than hydrogen

(a) Na (b) K (c) Pt (d*) Fe (c) More vigorously than hydrogen

67
(d) Just as hydrogen 193. Experimental evidence for the presence of ortho and
para hydrogen was shown by: (a) Davy (*b) Melceman and
183. Which hydride is neutral? McLeod (c) Cavendish (d) Denison

(a) H2S (*b) H2O (c) H2Se (d) H2Te
184. Hydrogen resembles in many of its properties with:
(a) Alkali metals (b) Halogens (c*) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of
these
185. The electronic configuration of deuterium is:
194. Hydrogen loses its electron to form H+ ion. In this
respect it resembles to: (a) Transition metals (*b)
Alkali metals (c) Halogens (d) Noble gases
195. A given solution of H2O2 is 30 volume. Its
concentration in terms of molarity is: (a) 91M (*b) 2.68 M
(c) 25 M (d) 26.8 M

(a) 1s2 (b) 1s1,2s2 (c) 1s2,2s1 (*d) 1s1 196. Heavy water is manufactured in India at: (a) Delhi (b*)
Trombay (c) Bhilai (d) None of these
186. Decomposition of H2O2 is accompanied by:
197. Deuterium was discovered by:
(a*) Decrease in free energy
(*a) Urey (b) Aston (c) Rutherford (d) Chadwick
(b) Increase in free energy
198. Oxygen and hydrogen "react to form water. This
(c) No change in free energy discovery was made by: (a) Priestley (*b) Cavendish (c)
Scheele (d) Newton
(d) Evolution of heat
199. The catalyst used in Bosch process of manufacture of
187. The weight percentage of deuterium in heavy water is: H2 is:
(a) 22 (b) 11.11 (c) 4 (*d) 20
(a) Finely divided Ni (b) V2O5 (c) Pd (d) Fe2O3 +Cr2O3
188. 10 volumes of H2O2 has a strength of approximately:
(a*) 3% (b) 30% (c) 10% (d) 5% 200. The number of radioactive isotopes of hydrogen is:
(*a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) None
189. Which of the following is correct about heavy water?
201. The number of protons, electrons and neutrons
[DCE 2002] respectively in a molecule of heavy water is: (*a) 10, 10, 10
(b) 8, 10, 11 (c) 10, 11, 10 (d) 11, 10, 10
(a) Water at 4°C having maximum density is known as
heavy water 202. Hydrogen is obtained by the action of an alloy of silicon
and iron with NaOH. The process is called: (a) Wood process
(b) It is heavier than water (H2O)
(b) Bosch process (c) Haber process (*d) Silicol
process
(*c) It is formed by the combination of heavier isotope of
hydrogen and oxygen
203. The O—O bond is present in:
(d) None of these
(a) Ether (b) Ester (c) Carboxylic acid (d*) Peroxide
190. Pure H2O2 is:
204. When different metals like Zn, Sn, Fe are added to
dilute sulphuric acid, same gas, which burns explosively in
(a) Colourless liquid (b) A gas
air, is evolved. The gas is: (a) 02 (b) N2 (c) Cl2
(c) Blue syrupy liquid (*d) Pale blue syrupy liquid (d*) H2

191. Tailing of mercury is a laboratory test for: 205. Polyphosphates are used as water softening agents
because they: [III 2002]
[PMT (Delhi) 1997] (*a) 03 (b) Hg (c) Cl2
(d) 02 (a) Form soluble complexes with anionic species

192. A molten ionic hydride on electrolysis gives: (b) Precipitate anionic species

(a) H+ ion moving towards the cathode (*c) Form soluble complexes with cationic species

(b) H+ ion moving towards the anode (d) Precipitate cationic species

(c*) H2 is liberated at anode 206. Which of the following pairs will not produce
dihydrogen gas? [Ill 1994] (a*) Cu + HCl (rfi/.) (b)
(d) H2 is liberated at cathode Fe + H2SO4 (c) Mg+steam (d) Na +alcohol

68
207. Hydrolysis of one mole of peroxodisulphuric acid (*d) Some of the SiO44- units are replaced by AlO45- and ions
produces: [III 1996] in zeolites

(a) Two moles of sulphuric acid 214. Which of the following could act as a propellant for
rockets?
(b) Two moles of peroxomonosulphuric acid
(*a) Liq. H2 + Liq.O2 (b) Liq. N2 + Liq.O2 (c) Liq. H2 +
(c*) One mole of sulphuric acid and one mole of Liq. N 2 (d) Liq. O2 + Liq. Ar
peroxomonosulphuric acid
215. Which will produce hard water? [AIEEE 2003]
(d) One mole of sulphuric acid, one mole of
peroxomonosulphuric acid and one mole of hydrogen (*a) Saturation of water with CaSO4
peroxide
(b) Addition of Na2SO4 to water
208. The critical temperature of water is higher than that of
O2 because H2O molecule has: [IIT 1997] (c) Saturation of water with CaCO3

(a) Fewer electrons than oxygen (d) Saturation of water with MgCO3

(b) Two covalent bonds IA GROUP ELEMENTS

(c) V-shape

(*d) Dipole moment 1. Alkali metals are powerful reducing agents because:

209. When two ice cubes are pressed over each other, they (a) These are metals
unite to form one cube. Which of the following forces is
(b) These are monovalent
responsible to hold them together? [AFMC 2001]
(c) Their ionic radii is large
(*a) Hydrogen bond formation
(*d) Of low ionisation enthalpy
(b) van der Waals' forces
2. Sodium forms Na+ and not Na2+ because:
(c) Covalent attraction
(a) Sodium contains only one electron in outermost shell
(d) Ionic interaction
(b*) First ionization potential is small and the difference in
210. TiH1.73 is an example of:
first and second ionization potentials is very large
(a) Ionic hydride (b) Covalent hydride (*c) Metallic hydride
(c) Radius of Na2+ is much smaller than of Na+
(d) Polymeric hydride
(d) None of the above
211. The molarity of pure water at 4°C is: (a) 1 M (b) 2.5 M
(c) 5 M (d*) 55.5 M
3. Strongest reducing agent among the following is:
212. Which one is correct for perhydrol?
(*a) K (b) Na
(a) It is 30% H2O2 or 100 vol H2O2
(c) Al (d) Mg
(b) Its molarity is 8.8 M
4. When a crystal of caustic soda is exposed to air, a liquid
layer is deposited because:
(c) It is used as antiseptic and germicide
(a) Crystal melts
(d) All of the above
(b) Crystal loses water
213. Which statement about zeolite is false?
(c*) Crystal absorbs moisture and CO2
(a) They are used as cation exchanger
(d) Crystal sublimes
(b) They have open structure which enables them to take up
small molecules
5. Hypo is chemically:
(c) Zeolites are alumino silicates having three dimensional
(a) Na2S2O3 .2H2O (b) Na2S2O3 .3H2O
network
(c) Na2S2O3 .4H2O (*d) Na2S2O3 .5H2O

69
6. The products of the electrolysis of concentrated aqueous (d) Cone, solution of alum
solution of common salt are:
15. Alkali metals contain:
(a) Na+Cl2 (b) H2 +O2
(a) 7 valency electrons (*b) 1 valency electron
(*c) NaOH + H2 + Cl2 (d) NaOH + Cl2 + O2
(c) 4 valency electrons (d) 2 valency electrons
7. Sodium carbonate on heating gives:
16. Which is known as crystal carbonate?
(a) Water vapours
(a) Na2CO3 (*b) Na2CO3 .H2O
(b) Carbon dioxide
(c) Na2CO3 .10H2O (d) None of these
(c) Carbon dioxide + water vapour
17. On heating sodium metal in a current of dry ammonia
(*d) None of the above gas the compound formed is:

8. Fire extinguishers contain H2SO4 and: (a) Sodium nitrate (b) Sodium hydride

(a*) NaHCO3 and Na2CO3 (b) NaHCO3 solution (c*) Sodium amide (d) Sodium azide

(c) Na2CO3 (d) CaCO3 18. Sodium reacts with water less vigorously than potassium
because:
9. The principal products obtained on heating iodine with
concentrated caustic soda solution are: (a) It has higher atomic weight

(a) NaOI + NaI (b*) NaIO3 + NaI (b*) It is less electropositive

(c) NaOI + NaIO3 + NaI (d) NaIO4 + NaI (c) It is more electronegative

10. Most reactive metal among the following is: (d) It is a metal

(*a) K (b) Li 19. The most soluble compound in water is:

(c) Na (d) Mg (a) CuS (b) MnS

11. Sodium nitrate decomposes above 800°C and does not (*c) K2S (d) ZnS
give:
20. Alkali metals are characterised by:
(a*) N2 (b) O2
(a*) Good conductors of heat and electricity
(c) NO2 (d) Na2O
(b) High melting points
12. Sodium metal is obtained by:
(c) Low oxidation potentials
(a) The electrolysis of concentrated NaCl (aq)
(d) High ionisation potentials
(b) Heating Na2O with H2
21. The most homogeneous family in Periodic table is of:
(c) Heating fused sodium chloride
(*a) Alkali metals (b) Alkaline earth metals
(d*) Electrolysis of fused sodium chloride
(c) Volatile metals (d) Coinage metals
13. Caustic soda is:
22. The most basic oxide among the following is:
(a) Efflorescent (*b) Deliquescent
(a*) Na2O (b) BaO
(c) Hygroscopic (d) Oxidant
(c) As2O3 (d) Al2O3
14. Brine is chemically:
23. A colourless salt gives violet colour to Bunsen flame and
(a) Cone, solution of Na2CO3 also turns moistured litmus paper blue. It is:

(b) Cone, solution of Na2SO4 (a) Na2CO3 (b) KNO3

(*c) Cone, solution of NaCl (*c) K2CO3 (d) Cu(OH)2

70
24. The pair of compounds which cannot exist together in 34. Soda ash is chemically:
solution is:
(a) Na2CO3 .H2O (b) NaOH
(a*) NaHCO3 and NaOH (b) Na2CO3 and NaHCO3
(c) NaHCO3 (d*) Na2CO3 (anhydrous)
(c) Na2CO3 and NaOH (d) NaHCO3 and NaCl
35. Sodium bicarbonate is manufactured by:
25. Which element of IA group is most abundantly found in
combined state? (a) Cyanide process (b) Thermite process

(a) Li (*b) Na (c) Contact process (*d) Solvay process

(c) Cs (d) K 36. Sodium carbonate is manufactured by Solvay process.

The products those are recycled are:
26. NO2 is obtained by heating:
(a*) CO2 and NH3 (b) CO2 and NH4Cl
(a) CsNO3 (b) KNO3
(c) NaCl and CaO (d) CaCl2 and CaO
(c*) LiNO3 (d) NaNO3
37. Na2CO3 can be manufactured by Solvay process but
27. Lithium is the only alkali metal which is not placed in K2CO3 cannot be prepared because:
kerosene but is wrapped in paraffin wax, because:
(a) K2CO3 is more soluble
(a) It reacts with kerosene
(b) K2CO3 is less soluble
(*b) It floats to the surface of kerosene because of low
density (c*) KHCO3 is more soluble than NaHCO3

(c) It does not react with air and H2O (d) KHCO3 is less soluble than NaHCO3

(d) None of the above 38. Which is more basic in character?

28. How many elements are included in IA group? (*a) RbOH (b) KOH

(a) 4 (b) 5 (*c) 6 (d) 7 (c) LiOH (d) NaOH

29. The most dangerous method of preparing hydrogen 39. Black ash is:
would be by the action of HCl on:
(a) NaOH + CaS (b) NaHCO3 +CoS
(a) Zn (b) Fe
(c*) Na2CO3 +CaS (d) Na2CO3 + CoS
(c*) K (d) Al
40. The electrolyte employed in the extraction of sodium by
30. Gun powder is: Down's electrolysis method is:

(*a) KNO3 + Charcoal + S (b) NaNO3 + KNO3 + S (a) An aqueous solution of NaCl

(c) NaNO3 + S (d) None of these (b*) Molten NaCl

31. Which one is the highest melting point halide? (c) Molten NaOH

(a) NaCl (b) NaBr (d) A molten mixture of MgCl2 and NaCl

(*c) NaF (d) NaI 41. Which statement is false for alkali metals?

32. Which alkali metal reacts with nitrogen to form nitride? (a) Lithium is the strongest reducing agent

(a*) Li (b) Na (*b) Sodium is amphoteric in nature

(c) Cs (d) None of these (c) Li+ is exceptionally small

33. Microcosmic salt has the formula: (d) All alkali metals give blue solution in liquid ammonia

(a) Na2HPO4 .2H2O
(c*) Na(NH4)HPO4 .4H2O
(b) (NH4)2HPO4 .2H2O 42. Alkali metals are soft and have relatively low m.p. and
low density. This is because:
(d) None of these
(*a) Interatomic bonds are weak
71
(b) Interatomic bonds are strong (a) Cationic part

(e) Of their ionization potential (b*) Anionic part

(d) Of their position in the periodic table (c) Both in cationic and anionic parts

43. Baking soda or baking powder is: (d) There is no zinc left in the solution

(a) Washing soda (b) Caustic soda 52. Highly pure dilute solution of sodium in liquid
ammonia:
(c) Soda ash (d*) Sodium bicarbonate
(a*) Shows blue colour
44. An aqueous solution of salt of sodium (NaX) on boiling
with MgCl2 gives white precipitate, hence anion X is: (b) Do not exhibit electrical conductivity

(a*) HCO-3 (b) NO3- (c) Produces sodium amide

(c) CO32- (d) SO42- (d) Produces hydrogen gas

45. Fusion of AgCl with Na2CO3 gives: 53. Chile saltpetre is the ore of:

(a) Ag2CO3 (b) Silver carbide (a) Iodine (b) Bromine

(c*) Ag (d) Ag2 (c*) Sodium (d) Magnesium

46. Which one is not a correct formula? 54. Addition of excess of sodium hydroxide solution to a
solution of nickel sulphate results in the formation of a:
(a) H2S (b) NaHSO4
(*a) Green precipitate (b) Pink colouration
(c) SiO2 (d*) NaSiO3
(c) Blue precipitate (d) Violet colouration
47. Tin dissolves in boiling caustic soda solution because of
the formation of soluble: 55. An alloy of Na + K is:

(a) Sn(OH)2 (b) Sn(OH)4 (a) Liquid at room temperature

(*c) Na2SnO3 (d) None of these (b) Used in specially designed thermometers

48. Sodium metal cannot be stored under: (*c) Both (a) and (b)

(a) Benzene (b) Kerosene (d) None of the above

(c*) Alcohol (d) Toluene 56. The element which does not dissolve in caustic soda is:
(a) Silicon (b) Aluminium
49. NaOH is prepared by the electrolysis of:
(c) Zinc (*d) Cadmium
(a) Aqueous solution of sodium chloride with platinum
electrode 57. Indian saltpetre is:

(*b) Molten sodium chloride with graphite anode and iron (a*) KNO3 (b) NaNO3
cathode
(c) NaCl (d) Na2CO3
(c) Sodium carbonate with platinum electrodes
58. Water glass is:
(d) Sodium carbonate with nickel electrodes
(a*) Another name for sodium silicate
50. When carbon monoxide is passed over solid caustic soda
heated to 200°C, it forms: (b) A special form of glass to store water only

(a) Na2CO3 (b) NaHCO3 (c) Hydrated form of glass

(*c) HCOONa (d) None of these (d) Hydrated silica

51. If NaOH is added to an aqueous solution of Zn2+ ions, a 59. Which has lowest thermal stability?
white precipitate appears and on adding excess NaOH, the
(a*) Li2CO3 (b) Na2CO3
precipitate dissolves. In this solution zinc exists in the:

72
(c) K2CO3 (d) Rb2CO3 (d) Lower melting point

60. A mixture of Al(OH)3 and Fe(OH)3 can be separated 68. Pearl ash and caustic potash are chemically:
easily by treating it with:
(a) K2CO3 and KOH (b) KOH and K2CO3
(a) HCl (b) NH4OH
(c) Na2CO3 and KOH (d) Na2CO3 and NaOH
(c*) HNO3 (d) NaOH
69. Sodium metabisulphite is not:
61. The process associated with sodium carbonate
manufacture is known as......process. (a) An antichlor (b) A bleaching agent

(a) Chamber (b) Haber (*c) An oxidizing agent (d) A reducing agent

(c*) Leblanc (d) Castner 70. The main reason for using a mercury electrolytic cell in
NaOH manufacture is that:
62. In the manufacture of sodium hydroxide, byproduct
obtained is: (a) Hg is toxic

(a) O2 (*b) Cl2 (*b) Na+ is discharged at cathode

(c) Na2CO3 (d) NaCl (c) Hg has a high vapour pressure

63. The alkali metal which acts as a nutrient for plants is: (d) Hg is a good conductor of electricity
(a) Na (b*) K
71. The raw materials in Solvay process are:
(c) Li (d) Rb
(a) NaOH, CaO and NH3
64. Sodium cannot be extracted by the electrolysis of brine
(b) Na2CO3, CaCO3 and NH3
solution because:
(c) Na2SO4, CaCO3 and NH3
(a) Sodium liberated reacts with water to produce NaOH +
H2
(d*) NaCl, NH3, CaCO3
(b*) Sodium being more electropositive than hydrogen, H2 is
72. Which substance gives a different flame colouration from
liberated at cathode and not sodium
the others?
(c) Electrolysis cannot take place with brine solution
(a) Nitre (b) Caustic potash
(d) None of the above
(c) Potassium chloride (*d) Table salt
65. Which property increases in magnitude as the atomic
73. In certain matters, lithium differs from other alkali
number of alkali metals increases?
metals, the main reason for this is:
(a) Electronegativity (b) First ionization energy
(a*) Small size of lithium atom and Li+ ion
(c*) Ionic radius (d) Melting point
(b) Extremely high electropositivity of Li
66. When sulphur is heated with NaOH (aq) the compounds
(c) Greater hardness of Li
formed are:
(d) Hydration of Li+ ion
(a) Na2S + H2O
74. What would you observe if excess of dilute NaOH
(b) Na2SO3 + H2O
solution is added and shaken with an aqueous solution of
aluminium chloride?
(*c) Na2S + Na2S2O3 + H2O
(a) A permanent white precipitate is formed
(d) Na2S2O3 + H2O
immediately
67. Sodium has…... as compared to potassium.
(b) No change at first but a white precipitate is formed on
(a) Less eleetronegativity standing

(*b) More ionization enthalpy (c*) A white precipitate is formed which later dissolves

(c) Large atomic radius (d) A green precipitate which turns red on standing in air

73
75. The byproduct of Solvay process is: (c) The hydration energy of sodium sulphate is less than its
lattice energy
(a) CO2 (*b) CaCl2
(d) None of the above
(c) NH3 (d) CaCO3
84. Acidified solution of sodium thiosulphate is unstable
76. The compound used in photography is: because in thiosulphate:

(a) Na2SO5 (b) Na2S2O8 (a) The sulphur atoms are at unstable oxidation state of +2

(c) Na2S2O6 (*d) Na2S2O3 (b*) The two sulphur atoms are at different oxidation states
of +6 and -2
77. Manufacture of NaOH is done by:
(c) The S—S bond are unstable bonds
(*a) Castner-Kellner process
(d) Thio compounds contain sulphur in zero oxidation state
(b) Solvay process
85. Washing soda is:
(c) Brine process
(a) Na2CO3 (b) Na2CO3 .H2O
(d) Mond process
(c) Na2CO3 .7H2O (d*) Na2CO3 .10H2O
78. Identify the correct statement:
86. Common table salt becomes moist and does not pour
(a) Elemental sodium can be prepared and isolated by
easily in rainy season because:
electrolysing an aqueous solution of sodium chloride
(a*) It contains magnesium chloride
(b) Elemental sodium is a strong oxidising agent
(b) It contains magnesium carbonate
(c) Elemental sodium is insoluble in ammonia
(c) It melts slightly in rainy season
(d*) Elemental sodium is easily oxidised
(d) Sodium chloride is hygroscopic
79. Molecular formula of Glauber's salt is:
87. Which alkali metal is most metallic in character?
(a) MgSO4 .7H2O (b) CuSO4 .5H2O
(a) Li (b) Na (c) K (*d) Cs
(c) FeSO4 .7H2O (*d) Na2SO4 .10H2O
88. Na2SO3 and NaHCO3 may be distinguished by treating
80. Causticisation process is used for the preparation of:
their aqueous solution with:
(*a) Caustic soda (b) Caustic potash
(a) Litmus solution (b) Dil. acid
(c) Baryta (d) Slaked lime
(c) MgO (*d) MgSO4
81. An ore of potassium is:
89. Sodium bums in dry air to give:
(*a) Carnallite (b) Cryolite
(a) Na2O (b*) Na2O2
(c) Bauxite (d) Dolomite
(c) NaO2 (d) Na3N
82. Which one of the following is formed on dissolving I2 in
90. Caesium oxide will be:
aqueous solution of KI?
(*a) Very strongly basic (b) Acidic
(a) KIO4 (b) KIO
(c) Weakly basic (d) Amphoteric
(*c) KI3 (d) KIO3
91. An inorganic compound first melts then resolidifies and
83. Sodium sulphate is soluble in water whereas barium
then liberates a gas. It may be:
sulphate is sparingly soluble because:
(a*) KClO3 (b) KMnO4
(*a) The hydration energy of sodium sulphate is more than
its lattice energy (c) Al2O3 (d) MnO2

(b) The lattice energy has no role to play in solubility

74
92. Excess of dilute sodium hydroxide solution is gradually (c*) MgCl2 (d) CaF2
added with shaking to an aqueous solution of zinc sulphate.
What would you observe? 99. The alkali metals:

(a) A light blue precipitate is first formed which finally (*a) Form salt like hydrides
dissolves to give a deep blue solution
(b) Form salts which are predominantly covalent
(b*) A white precipitate appears which dissolves to give a
(c) Show decreased chemical reactivity with dry oxygen
colourless solution
in going from Li to Cs
(c) A white precipitate is formed which does not dissolve
(d) Show increasing electronegativity from Li to Cs
(d) No change takes place and the solution remains clear
100. Which of the following statements is false regarding
93. K2CS3 can be called as potassium: saline hydrides?

(a) Sulphocyanide (b) Thiocarbide (a) In the molten state they conduct electricity

(c*) Thiocarbonate (d) Thiocyanate (b) They dissolve in water giving off hydrogen

94. Which is industrially prepared by the electrolysis of (c) They are used as reducing agents
aqueous NaCl?
(*d) They are covalent in nature
(a) Na2CO3 (b) NaHCO3
101. A solution of KOH in water is called:
(c*) NaOH (d) NaOCl
(a*) Potash lye (b) Soda lye
95. Which ion forms a hydroxide highly soluble in water?
(c) Salt cake (d) None of these
(a) Ni2+ (b*) K+
102. Sodium thiosulphate, Na2S2O3 .5H2O is used in
(c) Zn2+ (d) Al3+ photography to:

96. Sodium chloride imparts a golden yellow colour to the (a) Reduce the silver' bromide grains to metallic silver

Bunsen flame. This can be interpreted due to: (b) Convert the metallic silver to silver salt

(a) Low ionization potential of sodium (*c) Remove undecomposed AgBr as soluble silver
thiosulphate complex
(b) Photosensitivity of sodium
(d) Remove reduced silver
(c) Sublimation of metallic sodium to give yellow vapour
103. When sodium is heated in flame it gives:
(*d) Emission of excess of energy absorbed as a radiation in
the visible region (a*) Golden yellow colour (b) Crimson red colour

97. Sodium is manufactured by the electrolysis of a fused (c) Brick red colour (d) Violet colour
mixture of sodium and calcium chlorides in a steel cell using
104. Which of the following compounds on reaction with
a graphite anode and an iron cathode. Calcium is not
NaOH and H2O2 gives yellow colour?
liberated since:
(a) Zn(OH)2 (*b) Cr(OH)3
(a) It belongs to a higher group in the periodic table
(c) Al(OH)3 (d) None of these
(b) It combines with the liberated chlorine to form calcium
chloride again
105. When K2O is added to water, the solution is basic
because it contains a significant concentration of:
(*c) Its discharge potential under these conditions is higher
than that of sodium
(a) O22- (b) O3-
(d) It is more readily fusible than sodium chloride
(c*) OH- (d) K+
98. Which of the following has minimum values of cation-
106. Sodium reacts with water more vigorously than lithium
anion size ratio?
because it:
(a) NaCl (b) KCl
(a) Has higher atomic weight

75
(b) Is more electronegative 115. The oxide of which metal is most stable to heat?

(*c) Is more electropositive (*a) K (b) Ag (c) Hg (d) All of these

(d) Is a metal 116. Among the following, which has minimum solubility in
water?
107. When sodium metal is dissolved in liquid ammonia, a
blue solution is formed. The blue colour is due to: (a) KOH (b) CsOH

(a) Solvated Na+ ions (*b) Solvated electrons (*c) LiOH (d) RbOH

(c) Solvated NH2 ions (d) Solvated protons 117. Zinc carbonate can be obtained from a solution of zinc
chloride by adding:
108. The chemistry of lithium is very much similar to that of
magnesium even though they are placed in different groups. (*a) NaHCO3 (b) Na2CO3
The reason is:
(c) CaCO3 (d) MgCO3
(a) Both have nearly the same size
118. Anhydrous mixture of KF and HF contains which type
(b*) The ratio of their charge to size is nearly the same of ions?

(c) Both have similar electronic configuration (a) K+, H+, F- (b) (KF)+ (HF)-

(d) Both are found together in nature (c) KH+, F- (*d) K+ (HF2)-

109. Lithium is strongest reducing agent among alkali 119. Tincal is:
metals due to which of the following factor?
(a) Na2CO3 .10H2O (b) NaNO3
(a) Ionization energy (b) Electron affinity
(c*) Na2B4O7 .10H2O (d) NaCl
(c*) Hydration energy (d) Lattice energy
120. When chlorine is passed through concentrated solution
110. Some large white transparent crystals are left out in a of KOH, the compound formed is:
bowel for several days. They are then observed to have
changed their form into white powder. The crystals may (a) KClO (b) KClO2
have been of:
(c*) KClO3 (d) KClO4
(a) Ammonium chloride (b) Sodium chloride
121. The salt on heating does not give brown coloured gas
(c*) Sodium carbonate (d) Calcium oxide is:

111. The colour of iodine solution is discharged by shaking it (a) LiNO3 (*b) KNO3
with aqueous solution of:
(c) Pb(NO3)2 (d) AgNO3
(a) H2SO4 (b) Sodium sulphide
122. Sodium carbonate is:
(c) Sodium sulphate (*d) Sodium thiosulphate
(*a) Efflorescent (b) Deliquescent
112. The reaction of sodium thiosulphate with I2 gives:
(c) Hygroscopic (d) Oxidant
(a) Sodium sulphide (b) Sodium sulphite
123. The reaction of sodium with water is highly
(c) Sodium sulphate (*d) Sodium tetrathionate exothermic. The rate of reaction is lowered by:

113. An element having electronic configuration (a) Lowering the temperature

1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s2 3p6, 4s1 will form:
(b) Mixing with alcohol
(a) Acidic oxide (*b) Basic oxide
(c) Mixing with acetic acid
(c) Amphoteric oxide (d) Neutral oxide
(*d) Making an amalgam
114. Potassium when heated strongly in oxygen, it forms:
124. When ammoniacal solution of common salt is saturated
(a) K2O (b*) KO2
with carbon dioxide we get:
(c) K2O2 (d) KO
(a) NH4HCO3 (b) (NH4)2CO3

76
(*c) NaHCO3 (d) MgCO3 (c) Photography (*d) All of these

125. Oxone is name given to: 135. The lightest metal among the following is:

(a) Ozone (*b) Sodium peroxide (a) Na (b) Ca

(c) Sodium oxide (d) Sodamide (*c) Li (d) Mg

126. Na2CO3 + Fe2O3  A + CO2; A is: 136. The ashes of plants contain alkali metals, 90% of
which is:
(a*) NaFeO2 (b) Na3FeO3
(a) Li (*b) K
(c) Fe3O4 (d) Na2FeO2
(c) Na (d) Rb
127. Sodium carbonate solution in water is alkaline due to:
137. The chloride that can be extracted with ether:
(a) Hydrolysis of Na+
(a) NaCl (*b) LiCl
(b*) Hydrolysis of CO3-
(c) BaCl2 (d) CaCl2
(c) Hydrolysis of both Na+ and CO32- ions
138. Sodium chloride is known as:
(d) None of the above
(a) Rock salt (b) Common salt
128. Magnesium has polarizing power closer to that of:
(c) Table salt (*d) All of these
(a*) Lithium (b) Sodium
139. The nitride ion in lithium nitride is composed of:
(c) Potassium (d) Caesium
(a) 7 protons + 7 electrons
129. The ion having maximum value of hydration energy is:
(b) 10 protons + 7 electrons
(a*) Li+ (b) Na+
(c*) 7 protons +10 electrons
(c) K+ (d) Cs+
(d) 10 protons +10 electrons
130. LiAlH4 is used as:
140. The reaction of water with sodium and potassium is:
(a) An oxidizing agent (b*) A reducing agent
(a) Reversible
(c) A mordant (d) A water softener
(b) Irreversible and endothermic
131. Which liberates SO2 with dilute H2SO4?
(c*) Exothermic
(a) Na2SO4 (b) NaHSO4
(d) Endothermic
(c*) Na2SO3 (d) Na2S
141. Which hydride is most stable?
132. A white solid reacts with dil. HCl to give colourless gas
that decolourises aqueous bromine. The solid is most likely (a) CsH (b) NaH
to be:
(c) KH (*d) LiH
(a) Sodium carbonate (b) Sodium chloride
142. Sodium atom differs from sodium ion in the number of:
(c) Sodium acetate (d*) Sodium thiosulphate (a) Protons (b) Neutrons

133. Which electronic configuration represents the (*c) Electrons (d) Neutrons and protons
configuration of the most electropositive element?
143. When NaCl is dissolved in water, the sodium ions
(a) [He]2s1 (b*) [Xe]6s1 becomes:

(c) [He]2s2 (d) [Xe]6s2 (a) Oxidized (b) Reduced

134. Hypo is used in: (c) Hydrolysed (*d) Hydrated

(a) Iodimetric titrations (b) Iodometric titrations

77
144. A and B are two salts. A with dilute HCl and A and B (c) Body centred cubic lattice
with cone. H2SO4 react to give reddish brown vapours, hence
A and B respectively are: (d) Octahedral lattice

(a) NaBr, NaNO3 (b) NaNO3, NaBr 153. In the Down's cell KCl is added in NaCl to:

(c) NaBr, NaNO2 (d*) NaNO2, NaBr (a*) Lower its m.p.

145. Elements of group 1 and group VI in the periodic table (b) Dissolve more of NaCl
have one thing common. That is with the increasing atomic
(c) Increase conductivity
number, the:
(d) Increase the dissociation
(a) Maximum valency increases
154. Which alkali metal emits largest wavelength in the
(b) Reactivity increases
flame test?
(*c) Atomic radius increases
(a) Na (*b) Li
(d) Oxidizing power increases
(c) K (d) Cs
146. Molten NaCl conducts electricity due to the presence
155. Most abundant salt of sodium in nature is:
of: (a) Free molecules (b) Free electrons
(a) NaNO3 (b) Na2SO4
(c) Free ions (d) Atoms
(c) NaOH (*d) NaCl
147. Which does not form double salt?
156. Which alkali metal bicarbonates does not exist as solid?
(a*) Li2SO4 (b) Na2SO4
(*) LiHCO3 (b) KHCO3 (c) CsHCO3 (d) NaHCO3
(c) K2SO4 (d) Rb2SO4
157. Caustic soda solution is an absorbent for:
148. The salt added to table salt to make it flow freely in
(a) NH3 (b*) CO2 (c) CO (d) N2O
rainy season is:
158. Caesium was discovered by:
(a) KCl (b) NH4Cl
(a) Davy (*b) Bunsen and Kirchhoff
(c*) Ca3(PO4)2 (d) NaHCO3
(c) Perry (d) Morrison
149. Which of the following is not known?
159. The non-metal which is not affected by NaOH:
(a) K2O (b) K2O2
(a*) C (b) Si (e) P (d) S
(*c) KO4 (d) KO3
160. Francium was discovered by:
150. When KCl is heated with cone. H2SO4 and solid
K2Cr2O7, we get:
(*a) Perry (b) Davy (c) Rutherford (d) Sheele
(*a) Chromyl chloride (b) Chromous chloride
161. On prolonged exposure to air, sodium finally changes
to: (a*) Na2CO3 (b) Na2O (c) NaOH (d)
(c) Chromic chloride (d) Chromic oxide
NaHCO3
151. The metallic lustre exhibited by sodium is due to:
162. Which on heating with NaOH solution gives
(a) Diffusion of Na+ ions inflammable gas? (a) S (*b) Zn (c) NH4C1 (d) I2

(*b) Oscillation of loose electrons 163. Which of the following has the largest size in aqueous
solution?
(c) Excitation of free protons
(a) Rb+ (b) Na+ (c) K+ (*d) Li+
(d) Existence of body centred cubic lattice
164. Sodium thiosulphate is formed when: [Roorkee
152. NaCl crystals possesses: 1992J

(a) Simple cubic lattice (a) NaOH is neutralised by H2SO4

(*b) Face centred cubic lattice (b) Na2S is boiled with S

78
(c*) Na2SO3 is boiled with Na2S and I2 (c) NaCl>KCl>LiCl>CsCl (d*) KCl>CsCl>NaCl>LiCl

(d) Na2SO4 is boiled with Na2S 177. Nitrates of I group (except LiNO3) on heating give:

165. Compared with alkaline earth metals, the alkali metals (*) 02 (b) N2 (c) NO (d) NO2
exhibit: [CBSE1990]
178. When CO2 is bubbled into an aqueous solution of
(a) Smaller ionic radii Na2CO3 the following is formed: (a) H2O (b) OH- (*c) NaHCO3
(d) NaOH
(b) Greater hardness
179. Which of the following acts as reducing agent as well
(c) High boiling point as oxidising agent?

(d*) Lower ionization energies (a) Na2O (b*) Na2O2 (c) NaNO3 (d) KNO3

166. Which alkali metal is frequently used in solar cells? (a) 180. The only element which is radioactive among alkali
Na (b) Li (c) K (*d) Cs metals is:

167. Which pair of element would form the most ionic (a) Cs (*b) Fr (c) Rb (d) Li
bond? (a) H, Cl (*b) K, Cl (c) B, N (d) C, O
181. Soda lime is:
168. Ionic hydrides:
(a) Na2CO3 +CaO (b) NaOH + NaHCO3
(*a) Conduct electricity in fused state
(c*) NaOH + CaO (d) NaH + Na2CO3
(b) Are formed with elements of high ionization energy
182. Which possesses highest lattice energy?
(c) Do not exist
(a) NaCl (b*) LiF (c) Csl (d) KF
(d) Occupy the vacant spaces in metallic lattice
183. Sodium carbonate contains:
169. Which group of elements lose electrons more readily?
(a*) Li, Na, K (b) F2,C12, Br2 (c) N, P, As (d) O, S, Sc (a) 5 molecules of crystalline water

170. Lithium iodide is: (b*) 10 molecules of crystalline water

(a) Ionic (*b) Covalent (c) Partially covalent (d) None of (c) 3 molecules of crystalline water
these
(d) No molecule of crystalline water
171. Sodium carbonate reacts with SO2 in aqueous solution
to give: 184. The outermost electron is most loosely held in:

(a) NaHCO3 (b) NaHSO3 (*c) Na2SO3
NaHSO4
172. Which ion has closed shell electronic configuration?
(a) Li (b*) Li+ (c) Li2+ (d) Li-
173. NaOH is not used in:
(d) (a) Li (b) Na (c) K (*d) Cs
185. Sodium peroxide in contact with moist air turns white
due to the formation of: (a) Na2O (b) Na2CO3 (c) NaHCO3
(d*) NaOH
186. Which of the following alkali metal ion in aqueous
solution is the best conductor of electricity?

(a) Soap (b*) Synthetic petrol (c) Paper (d) Synthetic fibre (a) Li+ (b) Na+ (c*) Cs+ (d) K+

174. In a sodium chloride crystal, each chloride ion is 187. In which of the following, sodium carbonate is not
surrounded by: used? (a) In soap making (b) In paper making (*c) In tyre
making (d) In baking of bread
(a) 4Na+ ions (*b) 6Na+ ions (c) One Na+ ion (d) 2Na+ ions
188. Li, Na among alkali metals show properties of:
175. Which decomposes on heating?
(a) Noble gases
(a) NaOH (b) KOH (c*) LiOH (d) CaOH
(b) Transition metal
176. The stability of the following alkali metal chlorides
follows the order: (c) Inner transition metals

(a) LiCl>KCl>NaCl>CsCl (b) CsCl>KCl>NaCl>LiCl (*d) Representative elements

79
189. Alkali metal chloride soluble in pyridine is: (*a) LiCl (b) 3. Property of the alkaline earth metals that increases with
CsCl (c) NaCl (d) KC1 their atomic number is: [IIT (May) 1997]
(a) lonisation energy (*b) Solubility of their hydroxides
190. The chloride ion is isoelectronic with potassium. The
size of chloride ion is: (c) Solubility of their sulphates

(a*) Larger than K+ ion (b) Smaller than K+ ion (d) Electronegativity

(c) Same as that of K+ ion (d) None of the above 4. Plaster of Paris hardens by:

191. IA group elements react violently with water and the (a) Giving off CO2 (c) Uniting with water
solution becomes:
(b) Changing into CaCO3 (d) Giving out water
(a) Acidic (*b) Basic (c) Neutral (d) Amphoteric
5. Who discovered radium? (a) Bohr (*c) Curie
192. Siedlitz powder contains:
(b) Fermi (d) Rutherford
(a) CaCO3 (b) MgCO3 (c*) NaHCO3 (d) KNO3
6. Alloys of which metal are light and strong and are used in
193. The yellow light for illumination of lamps is from: the manufacture of aeroplane parts?

(a) Mercury vapour lamp (*b) Sodium vapour lamp (a) Cr (b) Sn (c) Fe (d) Mg

(c) Neon gas lamp (d) None of these 7. A piece of magnesium ribbon was heated to redness in an
atmosphere of N2 and then treated with H2O, the gas
194. Which metal does not form ionic hydride? evolved is:

(a) Na (b) Rb (c) Ca (*d) Be (*a) Ammonia (b) Hydrogen (c) Nitrogen (d) Oxygen

195. Which one has highest lattice energy? 8. Flash bulbs contain wire or foil of Mg packed in an
atmosphere of:
(a) NaBr (*b) NaF (c) NaCl (d) Nal
(a) S03 (b) 02 (c) Air (d) N2
196. Which of the following statements is correct for CsBr3 ?
9. Sodium bicarbonate solution on adding to magnesium
(a) It is a covalent compound
sulphate solution forms:
(b) It contains Cs2+ and Br- ions
(a) Magnesium bicarbonate (b) Magnesium hydroxide
(c) It contains Cs+, Br- and Br2 lattice molecules
(c) Basic magnesium carbonate (*d) Magnesium carbonate
(d*) It contains Cs+ and Br3- ions
10. Commonly used laboratory desiccant is: [CBSE 1992]
(*a) Calcium chloride (b) Sodium carbonate (c) Sodium
197. Fusion mixture is comprised of: [AFMC 1995]
chloride (d) Potassium nitrate
(a*) K2CO3 + Na2CO3 (b) KHSO4 +NaHSO4 (c) K2CO3 +
11. Magnesium metal is prepared by:
NaHSO4 (d) KHSO4 +Na2SO3
(a) Reduction of MgO by coke
198. Excess of Na+ ions in human system causes:
(b) Electrolysis of aqueous solution of Mg(NO3 )2
(a) Diabetes (b) Anaemia
(c) Displacement of Mg by iron from magnesium sulphate
(c) Low blood pressure (*d) High bl
solution
METTALURGY-II
(*d) Electrolysis of molten magnesium chloride
1. The metal, that is extracted from sea water is:
12. The plaster of Paris is: [CPMT 1990; BHU 1992]
(a) Cl (b) Ca (*c) Mg (d) Br
(a) CaSO4.2H2O (b) CaSO4 (c) 2CaSO4.2H2O (*d)
2. An aqueous solution of KI does not give a precipitate 2CaSO4.H2O
with:
13. Epsom salt or epsomite is:
(*a) Mg2+ (b) Pb2+ (c) Hg2+ (d) Cu2+
*a) MgS04-7H2O (b) MgSO4-2H2O

(c) MgSO4-H2O (d) CaSO4-2H2O

80
14. Mortar is a mixture of: (a) MgSO4-7H2O (b) CaSO4-H2O

(a) CaCO3 and CaO (b) Slaked lime and water (*c) CaSO4-2H2O (d) CaSO4-3H2O

(*c) Slaked lime, sand and water (d) None of the above 25. Oxygen is obtained from bleaching powder by:

15. The weakest base among the following is: (*a) The action of dilute acid (b) The action of alkali

(a) NaOH (*b) Ca(OH)2 (c) KOH (d) Ba(OH)2 (c) Heating it with lime (d) Heating it with cobalt salt

16. Gypsum on heating at 120-130°C gives: 26. From which mineral Ra is obtained? (a) Limestone (b)
Rutile (*c) Pitch blende (d) Haematite
(*a) Hemihydrate (b) Monohydrate (c) Dihydrates
(d) Anhydrous salt 27. Which has maximum electropositive character? (*a) Mg
(b) Al (c) P (d) S
17. Gypsum is added to clinker during cement manufacture
to: 28. Which ion forms hydroxide easily soluble in water? (a)
Zn2+ (*b) Ba2+ (c) Mg2+ (d) A13+
(*a) Decrease the rate of setting of cement
29. The compound which is insoluble in hot water and NH 3
(b) Make the cement impervious is:

(c) Bind the particles of calcium silicate (a) PbCl2 (b) AgCl (*c) BaSO4 (d) None

(d) To facilitate the formation of colloidal gel 30. A chloride dissolves appreciably in cold water. When
placed on a platinum wire in Bunsen flame, no distinctive
18. Hesenclever's process is a method for the manufacture
colour is noticed. Which one is cation?
of: (a) NaOH (b) HNO3 (c) H2SO4 (*d) Bleaching powder
[PMT (Punjab) 1998] (*a) Mg2+ (b) Ba2+
19. Which gives least basic oxide?
(c) Pb2+ (d) Ca2+
(a) Mg (b) Ba (*c) Be (d) Ra
31. Which of the following will liberate hydrogen by its
20. The first ionization energies of alkaline earth metals are
reaction with hydrochloric acid? [PMT (Delhi) 1994] (a)
higher than those of the alkali metals. This is because:
Copper (b) Phosphorus (c) Mercury (d)
Magnesium
(*a) There is increase in the nuclear charge of the alkaline
earth metals
32. Portland cement does not contain:
(b) There is decrease in the nuclear charge of the alkaline
(a) CaSiO4 (b) Ca2SiO5 (c) Ca2Al206 (*d)
earth metals
Ca3(P04)2
(c) There is no change in the nuclear charge
33. A firework gave bright crimson light. It is probably a salt
of:
(d) None of the above
(a) Ca (*b) Sr (c) Ba (d) Mg
21. A radioactive element X decays giving two inert gases is:
34. When magnesium is burnt in air, compounds of
magnesium formed are magnesium oxide and: (a) MgC03 (b)
b Mg(N02)2 (c) Mg(N03)2 (*d) Mg3N2

22. Magnesium form Mg2+ and not Mg+ because: 35. Slaked lime is used in the manufacture of: (a) \Cement
(b) Fire-bricks (c) Pigment (*d) White wash
(a) Magnesium (II) carbonate is insoluble in water
36. Salt used as a purgative is:
(b) Generally higher oxidation states are preferred by metals
(a)NaCl (*b) MgS04-7H20 (c) Ca3Al2O6 (d) MgCl2-6H2O
(c) Ionic radius of Mg(II) is smaller than of Mg (I)
37. Slaked lime is:
(d*) Hydration energy of divalent magnesium ion is higher
(a) CaCO3 (b) CaO (*c) Ca(OH)2 (d) Ca(C204)
23. Bleaching powder is obtained by interaction of Cl 2 and:
(*a) Dil.Ca(OH)2(aq) (b) Dry CaO (c) Conc.Ca(OH)2 (aq) 38. The most reactive element among the following is:
(d) Dry slaked lime
(a) Mg (b) Ca (c) Sr (*d) Ba
24. Gypsum is:
81
39. Dolomite is a carbonate ore of: 47. At high temperature nitrogen combines with CaC 2 to
give:
(a) Ca (b) Mg (*c) Both Ca and Mg (d) Neither Ca nor Mg
(a) Calcium cyanide (b*) Calcium cyanamide (c) Calcium
40. One mole of magnesium nitride on the reaction with carbonate (d) Calcium nitride
excess water gives:
48. Which represents nitrolime?
(a) Two mole of nitric acid
(a*) CaCN2 +C (b) CaC2 +N2 (c) Ca(CN)2 +Ca(NO3)2 (d)
(b) One mole of nitric acid None

(*c) Two mole of ammonia 49. Be resembles very much in its properties with: (a) Zn (b)
Ra (*c) Al (d) Hg
(d) One mole of ammonia
50. Which on mixing with water gives a hissing sound and
42. Setting of plaster of Paris involves:
becomes very hard?
(a) Oxidation with atmospheric oxygen
(a) Slaked lime (*b) Quick lime
(b) Combination with atmospheric CO2
(c) Limestone (d) Superphosphate of lime
(c) Dehydration
51. Chlorophyll contains:
(d) Hydration to yield another hydrate
(a) Na (b) K (c*) Mg (d) Mn
43. Which configuration corresponds to alkaline earth
52. The activity of alkaline earth metals as reducing agents:
metals?
(a) Increases from Be to Ca and decreases from Ca to Ba
(a) [Ne]3s23p2 (b) [Ar]3d2,4s2
(b* Increases from Be to Ba
(c) [Ar]3d10,4s2 (*d)[Ar]4s2
(c) Decreases from Be to Ba
44. Be and Al exhibit many properties which are similar. But
the two elements differ in: [AIEEE 2004] (d) Decreases from Be to Ca and increases from Ca to Ba

(a) Exhibiting amphoteric nature of oxides 53. The highest oxidation potential stands for:

*) Forming polymeric hydrides (*a) Li (b) Be (c) Ba (d) Ra

(c) Forming covalent halides 54. Which removes temporary hardness of water and is
used in the manufacture of bleaching powder?
(d) Exhibiting maximum covalence in compounds
(*a) Slaked lime Ca(OH)2 (b) Plaster of Paris
45. H2O is dipolar whereas BeF2 is not. It is because:
(c) Epsom (d) Hydrolith
[CBSE (PMT) 2004]
55. Metals belonging to the same group in the periodic table
(a) The electronegativity of F is greater than O
are:
(b) H2O involves H-bonding whereas BeF2 is discrete
(a) Magnesium and sodium (b) Magnesium and copper
molecule
(c*) Magnesium and barium (d) Magnesium and potassium
(c) H2O is linear and BeF2 is angular
56. Magnesia is:
(*d) H2O is angular and BeF2 is linear
(*a) MgO (b) CuS04 (c) FeS04 (d) MgSO4
46. Ra is placed at the bottom of alkaline earth metals. The
element should: 57. Fluorspar is:

(*a) Have the highest atomic volume (a*) CaF2 (b) CaO (c) H2F2 (d) CaCO3

(b) Possess the minimum density 58. Which salt will not impart colour to flame?

(c) Be less easily ionizable (a) LiCl (*b) MgCl2 (c) CaCl2 (d) KI

(d) Be least electropositive 59. Superphosphate of lime is a mixture of:

82
(a) Primary calcium phosphate and epsom (*a) Fused mixture of CaCl2 and CaF2 (b) CaCl2 solution

(b) Primary magnesium phosphate and epsom (c) Fused mixture of CaCl2 and NaF (d) Ca3(PO4)2 solution

(c) Primary magnesium phosphate and gypsum
(*d) Primary calcium phosphate and gypsum
60. The bleaching action of bleaching powder is due to the
formation of:
71. A substance which gives a brick red flame and breaks
down on heating giving oxygen and a brown gas is:
(a) Calcium carbonate (b) Magnesium nitrate
(c) Magnesium carbonate (*d) Calcium nitrate

(b) CaSO4 (d) Ca(ClO3)2 72. Which is used in preparation of portland cement?

(a) CaCl2 (*c) HClO (a) Limestone, clay and sand

61. Alkaline earth metals are not found free in nature (b) Limestone, gypsum and sand
because of their:
(c) Limestone, gypsum and alumina
(a) Low melting point (c) Thermal instability
(*d) Limestone, clay and gypsum
(b) High boiling point (d*) Great chemical activity
73. Iceland spar is:
62. Beryl is:
(a) CaSiO4 (*b) CaCO3 (c) CaF2 (d) NaAlF6
(a) BaSO4 (b) BaCl2.2H2O (d) BaCO3 (*) BeO
74. Concrete is a mixture of:
63. Least abundant metal in IIA group is:
(a) Cement, lime and water (b) Cement, sand and water
(a) Sr (b) Ca (*c) Ra (d) Be
(*c) Cement, sand, gravel and water
64. Alkaline earth metal compounds are less soluble in water
than corresponding alkali metal compounds because former (d) Cement, slaked lime and water
have:
75. Ordinary blackboard chalk is made up of:
(a) Lower lattice energy (b) Higher I.P.
(a) CaCO3 (b*) Gypsum (c) Fluorspar (d) Ca3(PO4)2
(c*) Higher covalent character (d) Lower covalent character
76. Calcium phosphide is:
65. Which gives apple green colour in fireworks?
(*a) Ca3P2 (b) Ca2P3 (c) CaP2 (d) Ca3P
(a) Na (b) K (c*) Ba (d) Ca
77. The main constituent of bones is:
66. Alkaline earth metal salts are:
(a) CaCO3 (b) CaF2 (c) CaSO4 (*d)Ca3(PO4)2
(a) Paramagnetic (*b) Diamagnetic
78. Ca on exposure in moist air forms a layer on surface of:
(c) Ferromagnetic (d) All of these (a) CaCO3 (b) Ca(OH)2 (*c) CaCO3-Ca(OH)2 (d) CaO

67. Milk of lime is: 79. If CO2 is passed in excess into lime water, the milkiness
first formed disappears due to:
(a) CaCO3 (b) CaHCO3 (*c) Ca(OH)2 (d) CaSO4.2H2O
(a) Reversal of original reaction
68. One of the important use of quicklime is:
(b) Formation of volatile calcium derivative
(a) As a purgative (b) In bleaching silk
(c*) Formation of soluble calcium bicarbonate
(c*) In drying gases and alcohol (d) In dyeing cotton
(d) Formation of soluble magnesium hydroxide
69. Disodium hydrogen phosphate in presence of NH4Cl and
NH4OH gives a white ppt. with a solution of Mg2+ ion. The 80. Which is used to remove N2 from air?
precipitate is:
(a*) Mg (b) P (c) H2SO4 (d) CaCl2
(a) Mg(H2PO4)2 (b)Mg3(PO4)2 (c*) MgNH4P04 (d) MgHPO4
81. Lithopone is a mixture of:
70. Calcium is extracted by the electrolysis of:
(a*) Barium sulphate and zinc sulphide

83
(b) Barium sulphide and zinc sulphide 91. Which metal does not form ionic hydride? (a) Ba (*b)
Mg (c) Ca (d) Sr
(c) Calcium sulphate and zinc sulphide
92. Calcium cyanamide reacts with steam to form ammonia
(d) Calcium sulphide and zinc sulphide and..........

82. Baryta water is: (a) Ca(OH)2 (b) CaO (c) Ca(HCO3 )2 (*d) CaCO3

(a) BaO (b) Ca(OH)2 (*c) Ba(OH)2 (d) BaSO4 93. The compound which is not soluble in dil. HC1 is:

83. Magnesium wire burns in the atmosphere of CO2 [GET (Punjab) 1998] (*a) BaSO4 (b) MnS (c) ZnS
because: (d) BaCO3

(a) Magnesium acts as an oxidizing agent 94. Electric cookers have a coating of.........that protects

(b) Magnesium has 2 electrons in the outermost orbit them against fire.

(*c) Magnesium acts as a reducing agent and removes (a) Heavy lead (*b) Magnesium oxide
oxygen from CO2 (d) None of the above
(c) Zinc oxide (d) Sodium sulphate
84. On strong heating CaO and C, the products formed are:
(a) Ca and CO (*b) CaC2 and CO 95. The hydration energy of Mg2+ ions is larger than that of:
(a) Al3+ (b*) Na+ (c) Be2+ (d) Mg3+
(c) Ca(OH)2 (d) CaC2 andCO2
96. Baryta is:
85. Magnesium has polarising power closer to that of:
(a*) BaO (b) BaSO4 (c) BaCO3 (d) Ba(OH)2
(a*) Li (b) Na (c) K (d) Cs
97. When hydrated MgCl2.6H2O is strongly heated:
86. The compound X on heating gives a colourless gas. The
residue is dissolved in water to obtain Y. Excess CO2 is (a*) MgO is formed (b) Mg(OH)2 is formed
bubbled through aqueous solution of Y, Z is formed. Z on
gentle heating gives back X. The compound X is: (a*) CaCO3 (c) Mg(OH)Cl is formed (d) Anhydrous MgCl2 is formed
(b) Na2CO3 (c) CaSO4-2H2O (d) K2CO3
98. Amongst the following hydroxides, the one which has
87. Several blocks of Mg are fixed to the bottom of a ship the lowest value of Ksp is:
to:
(a) Mg(OH)2 (b) Ca(OH)2 (c) Ba(OH)2 (d*) Be(OH)2
(a) Prevent action of water and salt
99. Aqueous solution of MgCl2 in water has pH:
(b) Prevent puncturing by under sea rocks
(a*) < 7 (b) > 7 (c) = 7 (d) 14.2
(c) Keep away the sharks
100. Which of the following represents calcium chlorite?
(*d) Make the ship lighter
(*a) Ca(Cl02)2 (b) CaClO2 (c) Ca(ClO3)2 (d) Ca(ClO4)2
88. The metal X is prepared by the electrolysis of fused
101. The highly efficient method of obtaining beryllium is:
chloride. It reacts with hydrogen to form a colourless
(a) Reduction of beryllium halide with Mg
solid from which hydrogen is released on treatment with
(*b) Reduction of beryllium oxide with carbon
water. The metal is:
(c) Electrolysis of fused beryllium chloride
(a) Al (*b) Ca (c) Cu (d) Zn
(d) Dissociation of beryllium carbide
89. The main constituent of egg-shells is:
102. Which chloride is covalent and soluble in ether?
(a*) CaCO3 (b) CaSiO3 (c) CaSO4 .1/2H2O (d) CaSO4.2H2O
(a*) BeCl2 (b) CaCl2 (c) CrCl3 (d) BaCl2
90. The compound insoluble in acetic acid is:
103. The correct order of solubility of fluorides of alkaline
(a) Calcium oxide (b) Calcium carbonate
earth metals is:
(c) Calcium hydroxide (*d) Calcium oxalate
(a) MgF2 > BaF2 > SrF2 > CaF2 > BeF2

84
(*b) BeF2 > MgF2 > CaF2 > SrF2 > 3aF2
(c) BaF2 > SrF2 > CaF2 > MgF2 > BeF2
(d) None of the above
104. Beryllium shows diagonal relationship with aluminium.
Which of the following similarity is incorrect?
(a) Be2C like A1C3 yields methane on hydrolysis
(b) Be like Al is rendered passive by HNO3
(c*) Be(OH)2 like Al(OH)3 is basic
(d) Be forms beryllates and Al forms aluminates
105. When HCl gas is passed through saturated solution of
BaCl2 a white ppt. is obtained. This is due to:
(a) Impurities in BaCl2 (b) Impurities in HC1
(*c) Precipitation of BaCl2 (d) Formation of complex
106. Sedimentary rocks laid down under water mainly
contain:
(a) CaO (b) Ca(OH)2 (*c) CaC03
107. BaS04 on fusing with Na2CO3 gives:
(a) BaO (*b) BaCO3 (c) BaHCO3 (d) CO2
108. Dead burnt is:
(*a) CaSO4 (b) Na2CO3
(c) Anhydrous Na2SO4 (d) Anhydrous CuSO4
109. Which reagent would enable you to remove SO2- ions
from solution containing both SO42- and Cl- ions?
(a) NaOH (b) Pb2+ (c*) Ba(OH)2 (d) BaSO4
110. Which decomposes on heating?
(a) K2CO3 (b) Rb2CO3 (c) Na2C03 (d*) MgC03
111. Mixture of MgCl2 and MgO is called:
(a) Portland cement (*b) Sorel's cement
(c) Double salt (d) None of these
112. Alkaline earth metals are:
(*a) Reducing agent (b) Oxidizing agent
(c) Amphoteric (d) Acidic
113. The function of sand in mortar is:
(a) To decrease the hardness
(b) To make the mass compact
(c) To decrease the plasticity of the mass
(*d) To prevent the excess shrinkage because of which
cracks may result
114. Ca, Sr and Ba dissolve in liquid ammonia giving
a........solution.
(a) Highly conducting (b) Highly reducing
(c) Paramagnetic (d) Deep blue in colour (e*) All are correct
115. A gas reacts with CaO and not with NaHCO3 is:
(*a) C02 (b) Cl2 (c) O2 (d) N2
116. The decreasing order of second ionization energy of K,
Ca and Ba is: [IIT 1993]
(a) Ca>Ba>K (b) Ba>K>Ca (*c) K>Ca>Ba (d) K>Ba>Ca
117. When one mole of bleaching powder is completely
decomposed in presence of CO2 then the mass of chlorine
gas that is liberated will be:
(a) 35.45 g (*b) 70.90 g (c) 17.72 g (d) 88.60 g
(d) CaSO4 118. Barium is extracted from its ore:
(a) Dolomite (*b) Witherite (c) Carnallite (d) Gypsum
119. Milk of magnesia is:
(a*) Mg(OH)2 (b) Ca(OH)2 (c) Ba(OH)2 (d) None
120. Portland cement has......in its composition:
(a) Maximum amount of SiO2 (b) Minimum amount of A12O3
(c) Minimum amount of Fe2O3 (*d) Maximum amount of CaO
121. Setting of cement is an:
(a*) Exothermic process (b) Endothermic process
(c) Neither endotnermic nor exothermic
(d) None of the above
122. Which alkaline earth metal nitride is volatile?
(a*) Be3N2 (b) Mg3N2 (c) Ca3N2 (d) None
123. Which will react with acid and alkalies both (Le.,
amphoteric)?
(a) MgO (b) CaO (c) BaO (d*) BeO
124. Anhydrous magnesium chloride can be prepared by
heating MgCl2-2H2O:
(*a) In a current of dry HC1 gas
(b) With carbon
(c) Until it fuses
85
(d) With lime 135. Electrolysis of fused KC1.MgCl2.6H2O gives:

125. The correct order of hydration energy of alkaline earth (a) Potassium only (b) Magnesium only
metal ions is:
(c) Magnesium and chlorine

(d*) Potassium, magnesium and chlorine

a 136. A metal carbonate is sparingly soluble in water and

evolves CO2 on heating. The metal is:
126. Which component of cement sets at the slowest rate?
(a*) An alkali metal (b) A noble metal
(a*) Dicalcium silicate (b) Tricalcium silicate
(c) An alkaline earth metal (d) None of the above
(c) Tricalcium aluminate (d) Tetracalcium alumino ferrite
137. Solubility of alkaline earth metal hydroxides increases
127. Which statement is correct for alkaline earth metals? from Be(OH)2 to Ba(OH)2 because:

(a) They are diatomic and form ions of the type M2- (*) Hydration energy > Lattice energy

(b) They are highly electronegative elements (b) Lattice energy > Hydration energy

(c) They are monoatomic and form ions of the type M2+ (c) Hydration energy is equal to lattice energy

(d) They are diatomic and form ions of the type M2+ (d) None of the above

128. The atomic numbers of four elements are given below.
Which is an alkaline earth metal? (a) 10 (*b) 20 (c) 30
(d) 40
129. In the presence of cobalt chloride, bleaching powder
decomposes to form:
(a) CaCO3 and O3 (b) C1O2 and CaO (c) C12O and CaO
(*d) CaCl2 and O2
138. The cation which forms a yellow precipitate with
potassium chromate in acetic acid is:
(a) NH4+ (*b) Ba2+ (c) Ca2+ (d) Na+
139. Which alkaline earth metal forms complex salts? (*a)
Be (b) Mg (c) Ca (d) Ba
140. The low solubility of BaSO4 in water is due to:

130. Which one is most soluble in water? [CPMT 1992] (a) Ionic bond in BaSO4
(a) Mg(OH)2 (b) Sr(OH)2 (c) Ca(OH)2 (*d)
(b) Low lattice energy of BaSO4
Ba(OH)2
(*c) High lattice energy of BaSO4
131. Limestone is not used in which of the following
manufacturing processes?
(d) Dissociation energy of BaSO4
(a*) Phosphorus from phosphorite
141. Element found in plant systems which forms an
important constituent of photosynthesis is:
(b) Ordinary (soda lime) glass
(a) Fe (b) Cu (c) Na (*d) Mg
(c) Iron from haematite
142. Beryllium hydride is obtained by.
(d) Solvay process of sodium carbonate
(a) Heating Be in atmosphere of H2
132. The mineral of magnesium is: [GET (Karnataka) 1993]
(a) Bauxite (b) Malachite (*c) Camallite (d)
(*b) The action of BeCl2 with LiAlH4
Haematite
(c) The action of Be with CaH2
133. Which alkaline earth metal shows some anomalous
behaviour and has the same electronegativity as aluminium? (d) None of the above

(a) Ba (b) Sr <c) Ca (*d) Be 143. Which compound gives acetylene on reaction with
water?
134. The weakest base among NaOH, Ca(OH)2, KOH and
Be(OH)2 is: (a) A14C3 (b) Mg3N2 (c*) CaC2 (d) CaH2

(a) NaOH (b) Ca(OH)2 (c) KOH (*d) 144. MgBr2 and MgI2 are soluble in acetone because of:
Be(OH)2

86
(a) Their ionic nature (a) Phosphorus pentoxide

(*b) Their covalent nature (b) Active charcoal

(c) Their co-ordinate nature (*c) Anhydrous calcium chloride

(d) None is correct (d) Na3PO4

145. The biggest ion is: 159. The ionic carbide is:

(a) Al3+ (*b) Ba (c) Na+ (d) Mg2+ (a*) CaC2 (b) ZnC (c) SiC (d) TiC

146. A linear molecule is: 160. A sudden large jump between the values of second
and third ionization energies of an element would be
(a) C12O (b) H2O (c) C1O2 (*d) BeCl2 associated with the electronic configuration:

147. Celestine is an ore of: (a) 1s2,2s22p6,3s1 (b) 1s22s22p6,3s23p1

(a) Ba (b) Ca (c*) Sr (d) Mg (c) Is22s22p6,3s23p2 (*d) 1s22s22p6,3s2

148. The correct order of radii of Ca,Ca+,Ca2+ is: 161. The Ca2+ ion has the same number of electrons as:

(a) Ca>Ca2+ >Ca+ (b*) Ca>Ca+ >Ca2+ (a*) Mg2+ (b) C2H6 (c) Cu2+ (d) Ne

(c) Ca2+ >Ca+ >Ca (d) Ca2+ >Ca>Ca+ 162. Magnesium bums in CO2 to form:

149. The wire of flash bulbs are made up of: (a*) Mg (b) Ba (a) MgO and CO (b) MgCO3 (c*) MgO and C (d) MgO2
(c) Cu (d) Ag
163. Which of the following is incorrect?
150. Chemical A is used for water softening to remove
temporary hardness. A reacts with sodium carbonate to (a) Mg bums in air releasing dazzling light rich in UV rays
generate caustic soda. When CO2 is bubbled through A, it
turns cloudy. What is the chemical formula of A? (b) CaCl2 -6H2O when mixed with ice gives, freezing mixture

[AIIMS 1999] (*c) Mg cannot form complexes

(a) CaCO3 (b) CaO (*c) Ca(OH)2 (d) Ca(HCO3)2 (d) Be can form complexes due to its very small size

151. Calcium does not combine directly with: (a) O2 (b) N2 164. The ion having smallest radius is:
(c) H2 (*d) Carbon
(a) Na+ (*b) Mg2+ (c) O2- (d) N3-
152. When zeolite, (hydrated sodium aluminium silicate), is
165. Which alkaline earth metal forms peroxide on burning
treated with hard water, the sodium ions are exchanged
in air? (a) Be (b) Ca (c) Sr (d*) Ba
with: [IIT1990] (a)H+ ions (*b) Ca2+ions (c) SO42- ions (d)
OH-ions
166. Which metal dissolves in NaOH with the evolution of
H2? (a*) Be (b) Ca (c) Mg (d) Sr
153. Scarlet flame colour of Bunsen flame is characteristic
of: (a) Sn (b*) K (c) Sb (d) Sr
167. The solubility of sulphates of alkaline earth metals in
water shows the order:
154. The calcium salt used as manure is:
(a) Be>Ca>Mg>Ba>Sr (b) Mg>Be>Ba>Ca>Sr
(a) CaC2 (b*) CaCN2 (c) CaCO3 (d) CaSO4
(c*) Be>Mg>Ca>Sr>Ba (d) Mg>Ca>Ba>Be>Sr
155. The element that forms a solid basic oxide at room
temperature is:
168. Which category of salts of alkaline earth metals is not
found in solid state, but found in solution state?
(a*) Mg (b) S (c) H (d) P
(a) Carbonates (*b) Bicarbonates
156. Oxygen can be obtained by heating: (a) Na2O (b)
Fe2O3 (c) Fe3O4 (d*) BaO2
(c) Hydroxides (d) Sulphates
157. The most soluble halide in water is: (a) CaF 2 (b) CaCl2
169. The formula of Norweign saltpetre is:
(c) CaBr2 (*d) CaI2
(a) NaNO3 (b) KNO3 (*c) Ca(N03)2-CaO (d) Ba(NO3)2
158. Which substance is used in the laboratory for a fast
drying of neutral gases? [CBSE 1992]
87
170. Ba(OH)2 is used to estimate the amount of: (a) Cs (*b) Cu (c) Rb (d) K

(a) N2 (b*) C02 (c) CO (d) N20 181. Which can undergo both oxidation and reduction?

171. Thermal decomposition of which compound yields a (a) Ba2+ (b) BaCl2 (*c) Ba+ (d) BaH2
basic and acidic oxide simultaneously?
182. Melting point is highest for: [AFMC 1994]
(a) KClO3 v (b) NH4NO3 (c) NaNO3 (*d)
CaC03 (a*) Be (b) Mg (c) Sr (d) Ca

172.Mg bums with a brilliant flame. This property is used in: 183. Thermal stability of BaCO3,CaCO3 and MgCO3 is:

(a) Fireworks (b) Military signals (a) CaCO3 > MgCO3 > BaCO3 (b) MgCO3 >CaCO3 >BaCO3

(c) Photographic flash bulbs (*d) All of the above (c) BaCO3>MgCO3>CaCO3 (*d) BaCO3 > CaCO3 > MgCO3

173. The action of dilute HNO3 on magnesium gives: 184. The metal present in Grignard reagent is:

(a) NO (b*) H2 (c) NO2 (d) NH4NO3 (a) Ca (b*) Mg (c) Zn (d) Fe

174. Alkaline earth metal oxide having the co-ordination 185. BeF2 is soluble in water whereas fluorides of other
number four is: alkaline earth metals are insoluble because of:

(a) BeO (b) MgO (*c) Sr (d) CaO (a) Ionic nature of BeF2 (b) Covalent nature of BeF2

175. Which alkaline earth metal is the most abundant in the (c*) Greater hydration energy of Be2+ ion as compared to its
earth's crust? lattice energy (d) None of these

(a) Mg (b*) Ca (c) Sr (d) Ba 186. When SiCl4 vapours are passed over hot Mg, the
products formed are:
176. Halides of alkaline earth metals form hydrates such as
MgCl2-6H2O, CaCl2-6H2O, BaCl2-2H2O and SrCl2 -2H2O. This (a) SiCl2 + MgCl2 (b) Mg2Si+Cl2
shows that halides of group 2 elements: [Roorkee 2000]
(*c) Si + MgCl2 (d) MgSiCl6
(a) Are hygroscopic in nature (b) Act as dehydrating agent
187. Which of the following process is used in the extractive
(c) Can absorb moisture from air (*d) All of the above metallurgy of magnesium?

177. Elements of IIA group having electronic configuration (*a) Fused salt electrolysis (b) Self reduction
ns2 are called alkaline earth elements because:
(c) Aqueous solution electrolysis (d) Thermite reduction
(a) They only occur in earth
188. The solubility in water of sulphates down the Be group
(b) Their salts form only alkaline solution is Be>Mg>Ca>Sr> Ba. This is due to :

(c) They all form divalent cations only (a) Increase in m.p.

(d*) Their oxides are non-fusible like earth matter (b) High ionisation energy

178. In between the metals A and B, both form oxide but B (c*) Higher co-ordination number
also forms nitride, when both burn in air. So A and B are:
(d) All of the above
(a) Cs, K (b) Mg, Ca (c) Li, Na (*d) K, Mg
189. Molecular formula of Glauber's salt is : [IIT 1994]
179. The correct order regarding the solubility of alkaline (a*) MgSO4.7H2O (b) CuSO4.5H2O
earth metal chlorides in water is :
(c) FeSO4.7H2O (d) Na2SO4.10H2O
(a) BeCl2 <MgCl2 <CaCl2 <SrCl2 <BaCl2
190. The active constituent of bleaching powder is:
(b) MgCl2 >CaCl2 > BeCl2 > BaCl2 >SrCl2
(a) Ca(OCl)2 (*b) Ca(OCl)Cl (c) Ca(ClO2)2 (d) Ca(ClO2)Cl
(c) BaCl2 > MgCl2 > CaCl2 > BeCl2 > SrCl2
191. Bleaching powder loses its power on keeping for a long
(*d) BeCl2 > MgCl2 >CaCl2 >SrCl2 > BaCl2 time because:

180. Magnesium can displace: (a) It changes into calcium hypochlorate

88
(b) It changes into CaCl2 and Ca(OH)2 (c) Na 2 B4O7.7H2O (*d) Na 2 B4O7.1OH2O

(c) It absorbs moisture 6. Sapphire is a mineral of:

(*) It changes into calcium chloride and calcium chlorate. (a) Cu (b) Zn (*c) Al (d) Hg

192. Which of the following is different from the other 7. Borax on heating with cobalt oxide forms a blue bead of:
three? (*a) Co(BO2)2 (b) CoBO2 (c) Co3(BO3)2 (d) Na3Co(BO3)2

(*) MgO (b) SnO (c) ZnO (d) Cr2O3 8. Alumina on heating with carbon in nitrogen atmosphere
gives:
193. Calcium cyanide reacts with steam to form ammonia
and: (a) Al + CO (b) Al + CO2 (c*) AlN + CO (d) Al +CO + N2

(a) CaO (b) Ca(HCO3)2 (*c) CaCO3 (d) 9. Hoope's process is used in the refining of:
Ca(OH)2
(a*) Al (b) Zn (c) Ag (d) Cu
194. Which out of the following statements is not correct for
anhydrous calcium chloride? 10. The correct order of decreasing hardness of the
following compounds is:
(a) It is prepared by heating hydrated calcium chloride
above 533 K (a*) Diamond > Borazon > Carborundum > Corundum

(*b) It is used for drying alcohols and NH3 (b) Borazon> Diamond > Carborundum > Corundum

(c) It is used as a dehydrating agent to control snow and ice (c) Corundum > Carborundum > Borazon > Diamond
on highways and pavements
(d) None of the above
(d) When mixed in concrete, it gives quicker initial setting
11. Which of the following has the minimum heat of
and improves its strength.
dissociation?
195. Both Be and Al become passive on reaction with cone,
(a) [(CH3)3 N  3 BF3] (b)[(CH3)3N  B(CH3)F2]
nitric acid due to:
(c) [(CH3)3N  B(CH3)2F] (*d) [(CH3)3N  B(CH3)3]
(a) The non reactive nature of the metal
12. The number of electrons present in the valency shell of
(b) The non reactive nature of the acid
group 13:
(*c) The formation of an inert layer of oxide on the surface
(a) One (b) Two (*c) Three (d) Zero
of the metals (d) None of the above
13. On adding ammonium hydroxide solution to
IIIA GROUP ELEMENTS
Al2(SO4)3(aq):
1. Metal protected by a layer of its own oxide is:
(*a) A precipitate is formed which does not dissolve in
(*a) Al (b) Ag (c) Au (d) Cu excess of ammonium hydroxide

2. When orthoboric acid (H3 BO3) is heated the residue left () A precipitate is formed which dissolves in excess o:
is: ammonia solution

(a) Boron (b) Metaboric acid (*c) Boric anhydride (d) Borax (c) No precipitate is formed (d) None of the above

3. Molecular weight of anhydrous aluminium chloride is: 14. Aluminium becomes passive in nitric acid because it:

(a) 133.5 (b*) 267.0 (c) 241.5 (d) 483.0 (a) Is a noble metal (b*) Forms a thin film of oxide

4. On heating Al at 800°C in air, Al2O3 is formed. The (c) Positive reduction potential (d) None of the above
reaction is:
15. Al reduces most of the metallic oxides due to its greater
(a) An endothermic reaction (*b) An exothermic reaction affinity for:

(c) Reduction of aluminium (d) None of the above (*a) Oxygen (b) Metals (c) Electrons (d) Protons

5. Borax is: 16. Al dissolves in molten NaOH with the formation of:

(a) Na2B4O7 (b) Na2B4O7.4H2O (*a) Sodium aluminate (Na3AlO3)

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(b) Sodium meta-aluminate (NaAlO2) (*a) Al (b) Ga (c) Tl (d) B

(c) Aluminium hydroxide 28. Alumina is...........in nature.

(d) Alumina (a) Acidic (b) Basic (*c) Amphoteric (d) Neutral

17. Aluminium is mainly extracted from: (a) Magnetite (b*) 29. All alums contain:
Bauxite (c) Alumina (d) Haematite
(*a) One monovalent and one trivalent metal
18. Which is not a mineral of aluminium?
(b) Both monovalent metals
(*a) Anhydrite (b) Bauxite (c) Corundum (d) Diaspore
(c) One divalent and one monovalent metal
19. Thermite a mixture used for welding is:
(d) Both divalent metals
(a) Fe and Al
30. Which member of group 13 is liquid at 30°C?
(*b) Ferric oxide and aluminium powder
(a) B (b) Al (*c) Ga (d) Tl
(c) Barium peroxide and magnesium powder
31. The protective film of oxide on the surface of Al metal
(d) Cu and aluminium may be strengthened by:

20. Aluminothermy is a process involving: (a) Galvanizing (b) Cathodizing

(a) Reduction of oxide of a metal by heating with sodium (c) Sheradizing (*d) Anodizing

(*b) Exothermic reduction of metal oxides by heating with Al 32. Aluminium is not present in which of the following
mineral? (a) Cryolite (b) Felspar (c) Fluorspar (d) Mica
(c) Reduction of oxides of a metal by heating with carbon
33. An acid among the following is:
(d) None of the above
(*a) B(OH)3 (b) Al(OH)3 (c) Fe(OH)3 (d) None
21. Al2O3 formation involves large quantity of heat evolution
which makes its use in: 34. The blue coloured mineral 'Lapis Lazuli' used as semi
precious stone is:
(a) Deoxidizer (b) Confectionary
(*a) Sodium alumino silicate (b) Zinc cobaltate
(c) Indoor photography (*d) Thermite welding
(c) Prussian blue (d) Basic copper carbonate
22. Al and Ga have the same covalent radii because of:
35. The catalyst used in Friedel-Craft's reaction is:
(a) Greater sheilding power of s-electrons of Ga atoms
(a) Finely divided nickel (b) Finely divided platinum
(b) Poor sheilding power of s-electrons of Ga atoms
(c*) Anhydrous aluminium chloride (d) Pt
(*c) Poor sheilding power of d-electrons of Ga atoms
36. Red liquor is:
(d) Greater sheilding power of d-electrons of Ga atoms
(*a) (CH3COO)3 Al (b) Al(OH)3 (c) Al2(CO3)3 (d) Al2(SO4)3
23. Al-Bronze contains Al and:
37. The borax bead is chemically:
(a) Zn (b) Sb (*c) Cu (d) Ni
(a) B2O3 (b) Na2B4O7 (c) Na3BO3 (*d) B2O3 + NaBO2
24. Which is used as mordant?
38. The purification method used for mineral Al2O3.2H2O is:
(a) AlCl3 (b) Al2(SO4)3 (*c) Alum (d) Al2O3
(a) Froth floatation (*b) Leaching
25. Corundum is:
(c) Liquation (d) Magnetic separation
(a) SiO2 (*b) Al2O3 (c) CaF2 (d) Cr2O3
39. The process used for purification of bauxite ore
26. Aqueous solution of potash alum is: containing high silica content as impurity is:

(a) Alkaline (*b) Acidic (c) Neutral (d) Sopy (a) Baeyer's process (b) Hall's process

27. The more electropositive element is : (c) Hoope's process (*d) Serpeck's process
90
40. The state of hybridisation of boron and oxygen atoms in (a) NaAlO2 (b*) Na2SO4.Al2(SO4)3.24H20
boric acid (H3BO3) are respectively:
(c) KCl.MgCl2.6H2O (d) FeSO4.(NH4)2SO4.6H2O
(a) sp3 and sp3 (*b) sp2 and sp3
48. Be and Al exhibits many properties which are similar.
(c) sp3 and sp2 (d) sp2 and sp2 But the two elements differ in:

41. When Al is added to potassium hydroxide solution: (a) Exhibiting amphoteric nature ia their oxides

(a) No reaction takes place (b) Oxygen is evolved (*b) Forming polymeric hydrides

(c) Water is produced (*d) Hydrogen is evolved (c) Forming covalent halides

42. Purification of alumina is essential because: (d) Exhibiting maximum covalency in compounds

(a) Impure alumina is a very poor conductor of electricity 49. The process used for purification of bauxite ore
containing iron oxide impurity is known as:
(b) Impure alumina has a very high melting point
(a) Hoope's process (b) Serpeck's process
(c) Impure alumina cannot react with the oxidizing agent
(c*) Baeyer's process (d) Electrolytic process
*(d) It is difficult to purify aluminium metal
50. Which species does not exist?
43. Boron carbide, B4C is widely used for:
(a*) [BF6]3- (b) [AlF6]3-
(a) Making acetylene
(c) [GaFJ3- (d) [InF6]3-
(b) Making plaster of Paris
51. Thallium shows different oxidation states because:
(*c) As a hardest substance after diamond
(a) It is a transition metal (b*) Of inert pair effect
(d) Making boric acid
(c) Of its amphoteric character (d) Of its high reactivity

52. Which statement is correct?

44. Which reaction cannot give anhydrous AlCl3?
(*a) Bauxite is an ore of aluminium
(*a) Heating of AlCl3-6H2O
(b) Magnetite is an ore of manganese
(b) Passing dry HCl over heated aluminium powder
(c) Haematite is an ore of mercury
(c) Passing dry Cl2 over heated aluminium powder
(d) Pyrite is an ore of phosphorus
(d) Heating a mixture of alumina and coke in a current
ofdryCl2 53. Aluminium chloride exists as dimer, Al2Cl6 in solid state
as well as in solution of non-polar solvent such as benzene.
45. Which one is explosive? When dissolved in water it gives:

(a) PCl5 (b) Pb(NO3)2 (c*) NH4NO3 + Al powder (d) C6H5NO2 (a) Al2O3 + 6HCl (b*) [Al(H2O)6]3+ + 3CT

46. BCl3 does not exist as dimer but BH3 exist as dimer (c) [Al(OH)6]3 + 3HCl (d) Al3+ +3CP
(B2H6) because:
54. Stable compounds in +1 oxidation state are formed by:
(a) Chlorine is more electronegative than hydrogen (a) B (b) Al (c) Ga (d*) Tl

(*b) There is p- p back bonding in BCl3 but BH3 does not 55. Which metal powder if spread in air, becomes
contain such multiple bonding hazardous?

(c) Large sized chlorine atoms do not fit in between the (a*) Al (b) B (c) Ca (d) K
small boron atoms whereas small sized hydrogen atoms get
fitted between boron atoms 56. In the alumino-thermic process, aluminium acts as:

(d) None of the above (a) An oxidizing agent (b) A flux

47. Which of the following is called alum? (c*) A reducing agent (d) A solder

91
57. Electrolytic reduction of alumina to aluminium by Hall-
Heroult process is carried out:
(a) In the presence of NaCl (b) In the presence of fluorite
(c*) In the presence of cryolite which forms a melt with
lower melting temperature
(d) In the presence of cryolite which forms a melt with
higher melting temperature
58. IUPAC name of complex K3[Al(C2O4)3] is:
(a) Potassium alumino-oxalate
(b*) Potassium trioxalatoalurninate (III)
(c) Potassium aluminium (III) oxalate
(d) Potassium trioxalatoalurninate (VI)
59. Boric acid when burnt with ethyl alcohol gives a green
edged flame due to the combustion of:
(a) Boric anhydride (b) Metaboric acid
(*c) Ethyl borate (d) Orthoboric acid
60. Amorphous boron on burning in air forms:
(a) B(OH)3 (*b) Mixture of B2O3 and BN
(c) Only B2O3 (d) Only BN
61. Alum is not used:
(a) As a mordant in dyeing (b*) As an insecticide
(c) In the purification of water (d) In tanning of leather
62. Aluminium is obtained by:
(a) Reducing Al2O3 with coke
(b*) Electrolysing Al2O3 dissolved in Na3AlF6
(c) Reducing Al2O3 with chromium
(d) Heating Al2O3 and cryolite
63. Aluminium vessels should not be washed with materials
containing washing soda because:
(a) Washing soda is expensive
(b) Washing soda is easily decomposed
(c*) Washing soda reacts with aluminium to form soluble
aluminate
(d) Washing soda reacts with aluminium to form insoluble
aluminium oxide
64. Which statement is not true about potash alum?
(a) Its empirical formula is KAl(SO4)2.12H2O
92
(*b) Its aqueous solution is basic in nature
(c) It is used in dyeing industries
(d) On heating it melts and loses its water of crystallization
65. Aluminium is more reactive than iron. But aluminium is
less easily corroded than iron because:
(a) Aluminium is a noble metal
(*b) Oxygen forms a protective oxide layer
(c) Iron undergoes reaction easily with water
(d) Iron forms both mono and divalent ions
66. The role of fluorspar (CaF2) which is added in small
quantities in the electrolytic reduction of alumina dissolved in
fused cryolite (Na3AlF6) is:
(a) As a catalyst
(*b) To make the fused mixture very conducting
(c) To increase the temperature of the melt
(d) To decrease the rate of oxidation of carbon at the anode
67. The correct Lewis acid order for boron halides is:
(a) BF3>BCl3>BBr3>BI3 (b) BCl3>BF3>BBr3>BI3
(*c) BI3>BBr3>BCl3>BF3 (d) BBr3>BCl3>BI3>BF3
68. In Gold Schmidt reaction, certain metallic oxides are
reduced to the metallic state by heating with:
(a) Metallic magnesium (*b) Metallic aluminium
(c) Metallic iron (d) Sodium metal
69. A particular element belongs to group 13 and II period
of the periodic table. It is:
(a) Gas, slightly metallic (b) Liquid, metallic
(c*) Solid, non-metallic (d) Solid, less metallic
70. The hardest compound of boron is:
(a) Boron oxide (b) Boron nitride
(c*) Boron carbide (d) Boron hydride
71. In the reaction, LiH + AlH3  LiAlH4, AlH3 and LiH act
as:
(a*) Lewis acid and Lewis base (b) Lewis base and Lewis
acid
(c) Bronsted base and Bronsted acid (d) None of the above
72. Aluminium appears like gold when it is mixed with:
(*a) 90% Cu (b) 50% Ni (c) 90% Sn (d) 50% Co
73. In the electrolysis of alumina, cryolite is added to: (c) It sublimes at 100°C under vacuum

(a) Lower the melting point of alumina (*d) It is not easily hydrolysed

(b) Increase the electrical conductivity 84. Colemanite is a mineral of:

(c*) Both (a) and (b) (a) Mg (b*) B (c) Al (d) Mn

(d) Remove impurities from alumina 85. Alum is:

74. The cryolite is: (*a) Double salt (b) Mixed salt (c) Normal salt (d) Basic salt

(a) NaAlO3 (*b) Na3AlF6 (c) Na3AlO3 (d) Na2AlF5 86. Borax bead test is responded by:

75. The dissolution of Al(OH)3 by a solution of NaOH results (a) Divalent metals (b) Heavy metals
in the formation of:
(c) Light metals (*d) Metal which forms coloured
(a) [Al(H2O)4(OH)]2+ (b*) [Al(H2O)2(OH)4r] metaborates

(c) [Al(H2O)3 (OH)3] (d) [Al(H20)6(OH)3] 87. Electrolytic reduction of pure alumina is not possible
because:
76. Which mixed sulphate is not analum?
(a) It is amphoteric (b) It dissociates on fusion
(a) K2SO4.Al2(SO4)3.24H2O (b) K2SO4-Cr2(SO4)3.24H2O
(*c) It melts at very high temperature (d) None of the above
(c) Na2SO4.Fe2(SO4)3.24H2O (d*) CuSO4.Al2(SO4)3.24H2O
88. Aluminium forms:
77. Which of the following exists as a dimer?
(a) Electrovalent compounds only
(*a) Aluminium chloride (b) Aluminium bromide
(b) Covalent compounds only
(c) Aluminium iodide (d) Magnesium chloride
(c*) Electrovalent and covalent compounds both
78. Duralumin is an alloy of:
(d) Co-ordinate compounds only
(a) Al and Mg (b) Mg and Cu
89. Specify the coordination geometry around and
(c*) Al, Mg, Mn and Cu (d) Al and Cu hybridization of N and B atoms in a 1:1 complex of BF3 and
NH3:
79. The alloy used in preparation of balance beam:
(*a) N : Tetrahedral, sp3; B : tetrahedral, sp3
(*a) Magnalium (b) Duralumin
(b) N : Pyramidal, sp3; B : pyramidal, sp3
(c) Aluminium bronze (d) Nickeloy
(c) N : Pyramidal, sp3; B: planar, sp3
80. Which of the following is pseudoalum?
(d) N : Pyramidal, sp3; B : tetrahedral, sp3
(a) (NH4)2SO4.Fe2(SO4)3.24H2O (b) K2SO4.Al2(SO4)3.24H2O
90. In Hall's process, the ore is mixed with:
(*c) MnSO4.Al2(SO4)3.24H2O
(a) Coke (b) Calcium carbonate
(d) None of the above Aluminium belongs to:
(c) Sodium hydroxide (*d) Sodium carbonate
81. Aluminium belongs to:
91. ........ is the byproduct obtained in the Serpeck's
(a) s-block elements (b*) s-block elements
process.
(c) s-block elements (d) s-block elements
(a) Oxygen (b*) Ammonia (c) Nitrogen dioxide (d) Nitric
oxide
82. Aluminium does not react with:
92. Which is not an alloy of aluminium?
(a) NaOH (b) HCl (c) N2 (*d) HNO3
(a) Magnalium (b) Duralumin
83. Which of the following statements about anhydrous
aluminium chloride is correct?
(c*) German silver (d) Aluminium bronze
(a) It exists as AlCl3 molecule (b) It is a strong Lewis acid
93
93. Alumina may be converted into anhydrous aluminium (*a) BF3 (b) BCl3 (c) BBr3 (d) BI3
chloride by:
104. Which is false in case of boric acid (H3BO3)?
(a) Heating it with cone. HCl
(a) It is soluble in hot water (b*) It acts as a tribasic acid
(b) Heating in a current of dry chlorine
(c) It has a planar structure (d) It acts as a monobasic acid
(c) Heating it with rock salt
105. Inorganic benzene is:
(*d) Mixing it with carbon and heating the mixture in a
current of dry chlorine (a) BN (b) BF4 (c) B2H6 (*d) B3N3H6

94. Boric acid is prepared from borax by the action of:
*(a) Hydrochloric acid (b) Sodium hydroxide
(c) Carbon dioxide (d) Sodium carbonate
95. When a solution of sodium hydroxide is added in excess
to the solution of potash alum, we obtain:
106. Aluminium metal is corroded in coastal places near to
the sea, because protective oxide film:
(a) Is removed by sea water
(b) Reacts with sea water
(c*) Is attacked by salt present in sea water

(a) A white precipitate (b) Bluish white precipitate (d) Reacts with sand particles

(*c) A clear solution (d) A crystalline mass 107. Which of the boron compound is optically active?

96. The two type of bonds present in B2H6 are covalent (a) Boron trifluoride (b) Boron anhydride
and......
(c*) Borosalicylic acid (d) Sodium tetraborate
(a) Ionic (b) Co-ordinate
108. Which compound can make fire proof clothes?
(c*) Hydrogen bridge (d) None of these
(*a) Aluminium sulphate (b) Ferrous sulphate
97. Which metal is powdered, suspended in oil and used as
(c) Magnesium sulphate (d) Cuprous sulphate
paint? (a) Fe (b) Sn (c) Ag (*d) Al
109. Nickeloy is an alloy containing:
98. Which of the following does not belong to group 13?
(a) Ni + Cu + Cr (b) Al + Cu + Cr
(a) B (b) Al (c*) Ge (d) In
(*c) Ni + Al + Cu (d) None of these
99. The product formed in the reaction, BCl3 + H2O 
Product, is:
110. Which of the following is not an ionic trihalide?
(a*) H3BO3 + HCl (b) B2O3 + HOCl
(a) AlF3 (b*) BF3 (c) InF3 (d) GaF3
(c) B2H6 + HCl (d) No reaction
111. The geometry and the hybridisation present about the
central atom in BF3 is:
100. The structure of BF3 is:
(a) Linear, sp (*b) Trigonal planar, sp2
(a) Tetrahedral (*c) Equilateral triangle
(c) Tetrahedral, sp3 (d) Pyramidal, sp3
(b) Pyramidal (d) None of these
112. The first I.P. of Al is smaller than that of Mg because:
101. The composition of mica is:
(a) Atomic size of Al > Mg (*b) Al has one electron in p-
(a) NaAlSiO4.3H2O (*b) K2O.3Ai2O3.6SiCy2H2O
orbital
(c) K2HAl(SiO4)3 (d) NaK.SiO4.10H2O
(c) Atomic size of Al < Mg (d) Not known
102. An alumina-silica clay, called bentonite is dropped from
113. Aluminium deposited as vapours on glass forms a good
aeroplanes in the slurry form for:
mirror, essentially because:
(a) Fertilizing the soil (b) Spreading water over fires
(a) It has better shine than Ag (b) It does not scratch
(c) Cooling the soil (d*) Fumigation
(c) Coating is much smoother (d*) It does not tarnish in air
103. Which of the following is a gas?
114. Covalency and hybridisation of B in BF4- is:
94
(a) 5, sp (*b) 4, V (c) W (d) 2, sp2

115. Hydrogen forms a bridge in the chemical structure of: A

(a) Hydrogen peroxide (b) Lithium hydride
128. Pure H2S gas can be obtained by the action of water
(*c) Diborane (d) Sodium peroxide on: (a) CuS (b) FeS (c) Flower of sulphur (d*) Al2S3

116. Which of the following is not correct in case of boron 129. Orthoboric acid when heated to red hot gives:
nitride?
(a) Metaboric acid (b) Pyroboric acid
(a) It is also called borazon (b) It is chemically unreactive
(c) Boron and water (d*) Boric anhydride
(c) It is hard because it has diamond like structure
130. Boron was isolated by:
(d*) It has magnetic properties
(a) Moseley (*b) Davy (c) Rutherford (d) Moisson
117. In aluminates co-ordination number of Al is:
131. Anodised aluminium is:
(a) 4 (b*) 6 (c) 3 (d) 1
(a) Al obtained at anode (b) Al prepared electrolytically
118. Boron nitride on reacting with caustic alkali gives:
(c) Alloy of Al containing 95% Al
(*a) NH3 (b) N2O (c) Na3BO3 (d) NO2
(*d) Al electrolytically coated with aluminium oxide
119. B—H—B bridge in B2H6 is formed by the sharing of:
132. Boron differs from the other members of group 13
(a*) 2 electrons (b) 4 electrons (c) 1 electron (d) 3
because it:
electrons
(a) Has much lesser radius (*b) Is non-metal
120. Diborane does not undergo cleavage reaction with:
(c) Is covalent in its compounds
(a) Trimethyl amine (b) Ammonia (c) CO (*d) CO2
(d) Has maximum covalency of 6(B2H6)
121. Eka aluminium is:
133. Which cannot be prepared by B2H6?
(*a) Gallium (b) Germanium (c) Indium (d) Scandium
(a) NaBH4 (b) H3BO3 (c*) B2(CH3)6 (d) 2(CH3)2N.B2H6
122. Which is used in high temperature thermometry?
134. Boron compounds behave as Lewis acids because of
(a) Na (b) Tl (*c) Ga (d) Hg
their: (a) Acidic nature (b) Covalent nature
123. B2O3 is: (a) Ionic (b) Basic (*c) Acidic (d) Amphoteric
(*c) Electron deficiency (d) Ionization property
124. Diaspore is:
135. Which is amphoteric compound?
(a) Al2O3.2H2O (b) Al2O3.3H2O (c) Al2O3 (d*) Al2O3.H2O
(a) Cr2O3 (b) Mn2O3 (*c) Al2O3 (d) Fe2O3
125. The boron, carbon, nitrogen and oxygen have their
136. Which does not react with water?
increasing ionization energy in the order:
(a*) B2S3 (b) B4C (c) Al4C3 (d) Al2S3
(a*) B, C, O, N (b) N, O, B, C
137. The precious stone aquamarine is:
(c) B, N, C, O (d) 0, B, C, N
(a) Mg-Al silicate (b*) Be-Al silicate
126. On the addition of mineral acid to an aqueous solution
of borax, the compound formed is: (c) Na-Al silicate (d) Fluoro silicate of Al

(a) Borodihydride (b*) Orthoboric acid 138. Boron readily dissolves in:

(c) Metaboric acid (d) Pyroboric acid (a) Cone. HCl (b) Fused NaOH at 673 K

127. NaBH4 is used in organic chemistry to convert: (c) Fused Na2CO3 at 1173 K

(d*) A mixture of cone. HNO3 and cone. H2SO4 (1:2)

139. Which of the following is not a Lewis acid?

95
(a) SiF4 (b) FeCl3 (c) BF3 (d*) C2H4 (a) Al has greater I.P. (b) Al has larger radius

140. Diborane reacts with water to form: (c) High charge nucleus (*d) Incomplete p-orbital

(a) HBO2 (b) H3BO3 (c*) H3BO3+H2 (d) H2 153. Which one is ionic?

141. The element placed in the group 13 and HI period of (a*) Al2O3 (b) AlN (c) Al2Cl6 (d) Al2S3
the periodic table is:
154. In the reaction :
(a) B (*b) Al (c) Mg (d) Na
BF3 + 3LiBH4  3LiF + X;X is:
142. Cone. HNO3 can be stored in container of:
(a) B4H10 (*b) B2H6 (c) BH3 (d) B3H8
(a) Cu (*b) Al (c) Zn (d) Sn
155. Which statement is correct?
143. Aluminium is not used:
(a*) BCl3 and AlCl3 are both Lewis acids and BCl3 is stronger
(a) In thermite welding (*b) As oxidiser in metallurgy than AlCl3

(c) For making utensils (d). In silvery paints
144. Alane is chemically:
(a) AlH3 (*b) (AlH3)n (c) LiAlH4 (d) None
145. Aqueous ammonia is used as a precipitating reagent
for Al3+ ions as Al(OH)3 rather than aqueous NaOH, because:
(b) BCl3 and AlCl3 are both Lewis acids and AlCl3 is stronger
than BCl3
(c) BCl3 and AlCl3 are both equally strong Lewis acids
(d) Both BCl3 and AlCl3 are not Lewis acids
156. Which statement regarding H3BO3 is not correct?

(a) NH4 is a weak base (b) NaOH is a very strong base [CBSE 1994]

(*c) NaOH forms [Al(OH)4]- ions (a*) It is a strong tribasic acid

(d) NaOH forms [Al(OH)2]+ ions (b) It is prepared by acidifying an aqueous solution of borax

146. Which of the following does not have a tetrahedral (c) It has a layer structure in which planar BO3 units are
structure? (*a) BH3 (b) NH4+ (c) BH; (d) CH4 joined by H-bonds

147. Elements of group 13 form oxides of the general (d) It does not act as proton donor but acts on Lewis acid by
formula: accepting OH- ions

(a) M4O5 (b) MO (*c) A/203 (d) M204 157. Which of the following undergoes sublimation?

148. Borazole is obtained by reaction of: (a*) NH3 +B2H6 in (a) AlCl3 (b) NH4Cl (c) Dry ice (*d) All
2 (b) NH3 + B2H6 in 2:1 ratio (b) NH3 + B2H6 in 1:2 ratio
158. There are two H-bridge bonds in diborane molecule
(c) NH3 +B2H6 in 1:4 rati. (d) NH3 + B2H6 in 4 :1 ratio. because there are:

149. Boric acid is not used: (a) Only 12 electrons (b) 14 electrons

(a) As an antiseptic (b*) As a flux in soldering (c*) 2 electrons less than required for bonding

(c) In making optical glasses (d) Two electrons more than required for bonding

(d) In making enamels and pottery glazes 159. In B2H6:

150. Which of the following is most abundant in the earth (a) There is a direct boron-boron bond
crust?
(b) The structure is similar to that of C2H6
(a) In (b) Ga (c) B (d*) Al
(c*) The boron atoms are linked through hydrogen bridges
151. Hardest element of III A group or gp. 13 is:
(d) All the atoms are in one plane
(a*) B (b) Ga (c) Al (d) In
160. The precious Ruby stone is:
152. AlCl3 exists in dimer because:
(a*) Alumina (b) Aluminium silicate

96
(c) Sodium aluminium silicate (d) Sodium silicate (a) One type of ions (b) Two types of ions

161. Which does not exist? (c*) Three types of ions (d) Four types of ions

(a*) B3+ (b) Al3+ (c) Ga3+ (d) In3+ 173. Borax bead test is not given by:

162. Borax is prepared by treating colemanite with: (*a) An aluminium salt (b) A cobalt salt

(a) NaNO3 (b) NaCl (*c) Na2CO3 (d) NaHCO3 (c) A copper salt (d) A nickel salt

163. Which is used as disinfectant? 174. Identify the statement that is not correct as far as
structure of diborane is concerned:[PMT (Punjab) 1998]
(*a) Boric acid (b) Sulphuric acid
(a) There are two bridging hydrogen atoms in diborane
(c) Phosphorus acid (d) Phosphoric acid
(b) Each boron atom forms four bonds in diborane
164. Among the halides:
(c) The hydrogen atoms are not in the same plane in
1. BCl3 2. AlCl3 3. GaCl3 4. InCl3 diborane

The order of decreasing Lewis acid character is: (*d) All B—H bonds in diborane are similar

(a) 1, 2, 3, 4 (b*) 4, 3, 2, 1 175. Which is not correct?

(c) 3, 4, 2, 1 (d) 2, 3, 4, 1 (a) Al acts as a reducing agent

165. An aqueous solution of BCl3 is: (b) Al does not react with steam even at higher temperature

(a*) Weak acid (b) Weak base (c) Neutral (c) Al forms a number of alloys with other metals
(d) Strong base
(d*) Al is ionic in all its compounds
166. BF3 is an example of Lewis acid because it behaves as:
(a) Nucleophile (b*) Electrophile (c) Free radical 176. The molecules of aluminium chloride in vapour state:
(d) Lyophilic
(a) Have no shape
167. B—F bond order in BF3 is: (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3
(*d) 4/3 (*b) Are shaped like a plane triangle

168. Fluorine is more electronegative than either boron or (c) Are round
phosphorus. What conclusion can be drawn from the fact
(d) Are like randomly broken bricks
that BF3 has no dipole moment but PF3 has?
177. The main factor responsible for weak acidic nature of
[PMT (Punjab) 1998]
B—F bonds in BF3 is:
(a) BF3 is not spherically symmetrical, PF3 is not
(a) Large electronegativity of F
(b) BF3 molecule must be linear
(b) Three centred two electron bonds in BF3
(c)The atomic radius of P is larger than the atomic radius of
(c) p -d back bonding
B
(*d) p-p back bonding
(*d) The BF3 molecule must be planar triangular
178. In Al2Cl6, which statement is incorrect?
169. One that marks the paper like lead is:
(*a) Four Al—Cl bonds are of same length and two of
(a) Ga (b) Ti (c) B (*d) Tl
different length
170. Boric acid on heating at 150°C gives: (a) B2O3 (*b)
(b) Six Al—Cl bonds are of same length and two of different
H2B4O7 (c) HBO2 (d) H?BO3
length
171. The hybridization of boron atom in orthoboric acid is:
(c) The angle Cl—Al—Cl is 110° and 93°
(a) sp (b*) sp1 (c) sp3 (d) Sp3d
(d) The angle Al—Cl—Al is 87°
172. Potash alum is water soluble and ionises in aqueous
solution to give:
179. Aluminium reacts with nitrogen to form:

97
(*a) AlN (b) Al2N3 (c) Al2N (d) Al4N6 191. BF3 acts as acid according to: [AFMC 1997] (*a) Lewis
(b) Bronsted (c) Arrhenius (d) None
180. Structure of boric acid (H3BO3) is:
192. Which of the following processes does not involve a
(a) Trigonal (b) Tetragonal catalyst? [AIIMS1997] (a*) Thermite process (b)
Ostwald process (c) Contact process (d) Haber
(c) Layer structure in which BO3 units are linked with oxygen
process
(*d) Layer structure in which BO3 units are linked by H-
193. Reactivity of borazole is greater than that of benzene
bonding
because:
181. Boric acid is polymeric because of:
(a) Borazole is non-polar compound
(a) Its acidic nature
(b*) Borazole is polar compound
(b*) Presence of hydrogen bonds (c) Its monobasic nature
(c) Borazole is electron deficient compound
(d) Its geometry
(d) Of localized electrons in it
182. Oxides of group 13 elements are:
194. AlCl3 on hydrolysis gives: [PMT (Delhi) 1997]
(a) Acidic (b) Basic (c) Amphoteric *(d) All
(a) Al2O3-H2O (*b) Al(OH)3 (c) Al203 (d) AlCl3-6H20
183. The bonds present in borazole are:
195. Thallium shows different oxidation states because:
*a) 12,3 (b) 9,6 (c) 6, 6 (d) 9, 9
(a) Of its high reactivity (*b) Of inert pair of electron
184. Which of the following cannot liberate H2 with acids?
(c) Of its amphoterip nature (d) It is a transition metal
(a) Al (b) In (c) Ti (*d) B
196. Which is used as control rods in nuclear reactors?
185. Borax bead test depends on the formation of:
(a) Al (b) Ga (c) Tl (*d) B
(a) Boron oxide (b) Boron metal
197. The correct formula of borax is:
(c*) Metal metaborates (d) All of these
(a*) Na2[B4O5(OH)4].8H2O (b) Na2B4O7-4H2O
186. Which of the following shows variable valency?
(c) Na2[B4O5(OH)4].10H2O (d) Na2B4O7-8H2O
(a) B (b) Al (c*) Tl (d) None
198. H3BO3 is:
187. An element R is in group 13. Which is true with respect
of RX2? (*a) Monobasic and Lewis acid

(a) It is a gas at room temperature (b) Monobasic and Bronsted acid

(b) It has an oxidation state of + 4 (c) Monobasic and strong Lewis acid

(c*) It forms an oxide of the type R2O3 (d) Tribasic and weak Bronsted acid

(d) It forms a halide of the type RX2 199. The colour of copper metaborate and chromium
metaborates are respectively:
188. Which is covalent compound?
(*a) Blue, green (b) Green, blue
(a) Aluminium oxide (b) Aluminium fluoride
(c) Red, green (d) Brown, blue
(c)* Aluminium chloride (d) Aluminium sulphate
IV A GROUP ELEMENTS
189. Mineral of aluminium that does not contain oxygen is:
(a) Corundum (b) Diaspore (c) Bauxite (*d) 1. Tendency of catenation is strongest in:
Cryolite
(a*) C (b) 0
190. Melting point is highest for: [AFMC 1994]
(c) N (d) Si
(a*) B (b) Al (c) Ga
(d) In 2. Metalloid among the following is:

98
(a) Si (b) C (d) Melting point of silica is very high

(c*) Ge (d) Pb 9. The anhydride of carbonic acid H2CO3 is:

3. The element forms neutral as well as acidic oxides is: (a) C2O2 (*b) CO2

(a) Sn (b) Si (c) CO (d) Na2CO3

(*c) c (d) p 10. CCl4 does not show hydrolysis but SiCl4 is readily
hydrolysed because:
4. Carbon burns in air and forms two oxides CO and CO2.
This shows that carbon has: (a*) Carbon cannot expand its octet but silicon can expand

(a) Two allotropic forms (b) Electronegativity of carbon is higher than of silicon

(*b) Two oxidation states (c) IP of carbon is higher than of silicon

(c) Two isotopes (d) Carbon forms double and triple bonds but not silicon

(d) 4 electrons in valency shell 11. Pyrene (a fire extinguisher) is:

5. Graphite is good conductor of current but diamond is non- (a) SiCl4 (*b) CCl4
conductor because:
(c) GeCl4 (d) SbCl5
(a) Diamond is hard and graphite is soft
12. Addition of excess of sodium hydroxide solution to
(b) Graphite and diamond have different atomic stannous chloride solution, we obtain:
configuration
(a) Sn(OH)2 (b) SnO2-H2O
(c) Graphite is composed of positively charged carbon ions
(c) Na2SnO3 (*d) Na2iSnO2
(*d) Graphite has hexagonal layer structure with mobile -
electrons while diamond has continuous tetrahedral covalent 13. An ionic compound is:
structure with no free electrons
(a) CCl4 (*b) SnCl2
6. The number of carbon compounds is very large because
(c) SiCl4 (d) CeCl4
it:
14. The main constituents of coal gas are:
(a) Is tetravalent
(a*) CH4 + CO + H2 (b) CO2 + CO + H2
(b) Forms double and triple bonds
(c) CO + CO2 (d) CO + N2
(c) Is non-metal
15. Which acid is formed when SiF4 reacts with water:
(*d) Shows catenation
(a) H2SO4 (b) H2SiF4
7. Feldspar is:
(*c) H2SiF6 (d) None
(*a) Potassium sodium alumino silicate
16. The calorific value of carbon is about.......kcal:
(b) A mixture of potassium, aluminium and silicon oxides
(*a) 7.8 (b) 15.6
(c) Hydrated calcium silicate
(c) 47 (d) 94
(d) None
17. The substance used in pigment is:
8. Carbon dioxide is a gas but silica is a solid because:
(a) Lithopone (b) Borax
(*a) Carbon dioxide is composed of discrete covalent CO2
molecules whereas silica has continuous tetrahedral
(c) Alumina (*d)None
structure
18. Lead sugar is:
(b) CO2 molecules are lighter than SiO2 molecules
(a) PbCl2 (b) Pb(NO3)2
(c) CO2 is more acidic than SiO2
(c) PbSO4 (*d) (CH3COO)2Pb
99
19. Iodine is decolourised by: 27. Carbon tetrachloride has zero dipole moment because
of:
(a) ZnCl2 (b) HgCl2
(a) Planar structure
(*c) SnCl2 (d) AlCl3
(b) Smaller size of C and Cl atoms
20. CO2 is called dry ice or drikold because:
(c*) Regular tetrahedral structure
(a) It wets the surface
(d) None
(b) It does not melt
28. Mica is chemically:
(*c) At atmospheric pressure solid CO2 changes directly into
the gas and the liquid phase is not formed and does not wet (a*) Potassium alumino silicate having sheet structure
the surface
(b) Calcium alumino silicate having fibrous structure
(d) It is gaseous in nature
(c) Calcium magnesium silicate having three dimensional
21. Good conductor of heat and current is: network

(a) Anthracite (b) Diamond (d) Hydrated sodium alumino silicate having three
dimensional network
(c) Charcoal *(d) Graphite
29. Asbestos is chemically:
22. Man dies in an atmosphere of carbon monoxide,
because it: (*a) Silicate of calcium and magnesium

(a) Combines with the O2 present in the body to form CO2 (b) Calcium alumino silicate

(b) Reduces the organic matter of tissues (c) Magnesium alumino silicates

(*c) Combines with haemoglobin of blood, making it (d) Calcium silicate + calcium aluminates
incapable of absorbing O2
30. The nature of chemical bonding in diamond is:
(d) Dries up the blood
(a) Metallic (b) Co-ordinate
23. Graphite is used in nuclear reactors:
(*c) Covalent (d) Ionic
(a) As a lubricant (b) As a fuel
31. Which element shows more pronounced inert pair effect:
(*c) As moderator (d) None
(a) N (b) Sn
24. A substance has a very large fuel value. 1 g of its
complete combustion will give more of: (*c) Pb (d) C

(a) CO2 (b) Water vapour 32. Lead pipes are readily corroded by:

(c) Ash (d) Calories (a) H2SO4 (b) HCl

25. The greatest percentage of CO is in: (*c) CH3COOH (d) Pure water

(a) Coal gas (b) Producer gas 33. The colour of blue glass is due to the presence of the
oxide of:
(c*) Water gas (d) Oil gas
(a) Cr (b) Ni
26. Chemically zeolites are:
(c*) Co (d) Fe
(a) Alumino silicate
34. Which is used for the manufacture of optical
(b) Calcium alumino silicate instruments:

(*c) Hydrated sodium alumino silicate (a) Water glass (b) Pyrex glass

(d) None (*c) Flint glass (d) Jena glass

100
35. The variety of glass, used for the preservation of eggs (a) PbO (b) Pb2O3
is:
(c)Pb3O4 (*d) PbO2
(a) Jena glass (b) Safety glass
45. Producer gas, a fuel and also a source of nitrogen is
(*c) Water glass (d) Bottle glass obtained by:

36. Ultra violet rays are not allowed to pass through: (a) Passing steam over incandescent coke

(a) Flint glass (b) Crown glass (b*) Restricted supply of air through a bed of incandescent
coke
(c*) Crookes glass (d) Safety glass
(c) Passing a mixture of steam and air over incandescent
37. Glass is a: coke

(a) Liquid (d) Spraying oil into hot retorts

(b) Solid 46. The hottest part of the Bunsen burner flame is:

(*c) Supercooled liquid (a) Top of the outer zone

(d) Transparent organic polymer (b*) A little below the tip of the flame

38. The structure and hybridisation of Si(CH3)4 is: (c) Above the inner zone

(a)Bent, sp (b) Trigonal, sp2 (d) Blue zone

(c) Octahedral, sp3 (d*) Tetrahedral, sp3 47. What happens when steam is passed over red hot
carbon :
39. The acid used for etching the glass is:
(a) C + 2H2  CO2 + 2H2
(a) Sulphuric acid (b) Perchloric acid
(*b) C + H2O  CO + H2
(*c) Hydrofluoric acid (d) Aqua-regia
(c) Water vapour dissociates into H2 and O2
40. A metallic oxide which imparts purple colour to pottery
is: (d) None

(a) Lead oxide 48. Which element occurs in free state:

(b) Copper oxide (*a) C (b) Si

(c) Sodium oxide (c) Ge (d) Sn

(d*) Manganese dioxide 49. The elements of IVB group or gp. 14 are:

41. A potter wishes to make a deep blue glaze. Which one (a) p-block elements
of these available chemicals should be mix :
(b*) d-block elements
(a) Iron oxide (b) Cuprous oxide
(c) Transition elements
(*c) Cobalt oxide (d) Nickel oxide
(d) f-block elements
42. Glass is soluble in:
50. Which statement is correct with respect to the property
(a*) HF (b) H2SO4 of the elements with increase in atomic number in the
carbon family:
(c) HClO4 (d) Aqua-regia
(a) Their metallic character decreases
43. Carbon reacts with strong electropositive metal oxides to
form: (b*) The stability of + 2 oxidation state increases

(*a) Carbide (b) Carbonate (c) Their ionisation energy increases

(c) Hydroxide (d) Oxide (d) Their atomic size decreases

44. The compound used in lead accumulators is:

101
51. Diamond and graphite are: 61. C and Si belong to IV group or gp 14. The maximum co-
ordination number of carbon in commonly occurring
(a) Isomers (b) Isotopes compounds is 4, whereas that of silicon is 6. This is due to:

(*c) Allotropes (d) Polymers (a) Large size of silicon

52. Highest electronegativity among the following is for: (*b) Availability of vacant d-orbitals in silicon

(*a) C (b) Si (c) More electropositive nature of silicon

(c) Sn (d) Pb (d) Silicon being vulnerable to attack by nucleophilic

reagents
53. Silicon carbide is used as:
62. Coke is obtained from coal by:
(a) Dehydrating agent (*b) Abrasive
(a) Cracking
(c) Solvent (d) Catalyst
(b) Fractional distillation
54. Most ionic chloride is:
(c*) Destructive distillation
(*a) PbCl2 (b) CCl4
(d) None
(c) PbCl4 (d) SiCl4
63. Chrome yellow is:
55. Which of the following shows bond in silicone:
(a*) PbCrO4 (b) K2Cr2O7
(a) Si — C — Si — O — Si
(c) PbMoO4 (d) Pb3O4
(b) Si —C —Si —C —Si
64. Silica dissolves readily in:
I I I
(a) HF (b) HCl
(*c) —Si —O —Si —O —Si—
(c) HI (*d) HNO3
(d) Si — Si — Si — Si
65. Litharge is:
56. The general electronic configuration of group 14
elements is: (*a) PbO (b) PbO2

(a*) ns2,np2 (b) ns2 (c) Pb3O4 (d) Pb(CH3COO)2

(c) ns2,np6 (d) None 66. The hybridisation of carbon in carbon monoxide is:

57. The inert form of carbon is: (a) sp3 (b) sp2

(*a) Diamond (b) Graphite (c*) sp (d) dsp2

(c) Coal (d) Charcoal 67. Which glass has the highest percentage of lead:

58. Which metal is an important component of transistors: (a) Soda glass (*b) Flint glass

(a) Ag (*b) Ge (c) Pyrex glass (d) Jena glass

(c) Os (d) Ra 68. Silicon is an important constituent of:

59. The most reactive form of carbon is: (a) Chlorophyll (b) Haemoglobin

(a) Diamond (b) Graphite (*c) Rocks (d) Amalgams

(c) Coal (d*) Charcoal 69. Which compound is solid:

60. CO reacts with chlorine in presence of sunlight to give: (a) CO2 (b) NH3

(a*) COCl2 (b) CO2 (c) PH3 (*d) SiO2

(c) CCl4 (d) CHCl3 70. Crystalline silicon was obtained by:

102
(a) Berzelius (b) Wohlar (a) CI4 (b) GeI4

(c*) Deville (d) Winkler (c) SnI4 (d*) PbI4

71. Red lead is: 80. Hot and cone. HNO3 react with carbon to form:

(a) PbO (*b) Pb3O4 (a) CO2 (b) CO

(c) PbO2 (d) HgS (c) C6H5COOH (*d) NO2 + CO2

72. Teflon is: 81. Carbon differs from other elements of the group. Which
is the false statement:
(*a) Fluorocarbon (b) Hydrocarbon
(a) Due to its limitation of co-ordination number 4
(c) Pesticide (d) Insecticide
(*b) Due to d-orbitals in penultimate shell
73. Which is not a characteristic property of carbon:
(c) Due to its unique ability to form multiple bonds
(a) Catenation
(d) Due to its marked tendency to form long chains
(b) Multiple bond formation (catenation)

(*c) Availability of d-orbitals for bonding 82. The correct explanation of combustion was given by:

(d) Highest electronegativity in the group (a) Priestley (b) Davy

74. Which element does not exhibit allotropy: (c) Stahl (d*) Lavoisier

(a) C (b) Sn 83. R3SiCl on hydrolysis forms:

(c) Si (*d) Pb (a) R3SiOH (*b) R3Si - O - SiR3

75. Basic lead carbonate is: (c) R2Si = O (d) None

(*a) Pb(OH)2.2PbCO3 84. Aqueous solution of sodium silicate is:

(b) Pb(OH)2.Pb(CH3COO)2 (a) Acidic (b*) Alkaline

(c) PbCO3 (c) Neutral (d) Insoluble

(d) PbCO3.Pb(OH)2 85. Which melts in boiling water:

76. Elements of group IV B are: (a) Gun metal (*b) Wood's metal

(a) Strongly electropositive (c) Monel metal (d) Bell metal

(b) Strongly electronegative 86. Commercially important ore of lead is:

(*c) Weakly electronegative (a) Haematite (*b) Sphalerite

(d) Neither strong nor weak electronegative (c) Siderite (d) Galena

77. A salt which gives CO2 with hot H2SO4 and also 87. Which type of forces bind together the carbon atoms in
decolourises acidified KMnO4 on warming is: diamond:

(a) HCO3 (b) CO3_ (a) Coulombic forces

(c*) Oxalate (d) Acetate (b) Dipole-dipole forces

78. The ability of a substance to assume two or more (c) van der Waals' forces
crystalline structures is called:
(*d) Covalent forces
(a) Isomerism (b) Amorphism
88. The most abundant gas in ordinary air among the
(c*) Polymorphism (d) Isomorphism following is:

79. Which halide is least stable and has doubtful existence: (a*) Argon (b) Helium
103
(c) Carbon dioxide (d) Carbon monoxide (b) The atoms in each have different masses

89. If carbon dioxide is passed in excess into limewater the (c*) The crystal structure in diamond is different from that in
milkiness first formed disappears due to: graphite

(a) Reversal of the original reaction (d) All

(b) Formation of volatile calcium derivatives 97. Suppose you have to determine the percentage of
carbon dioxide in a sample of a gas available in a container.
(*c) Formation of water soluble calcium bicarbonate Which is the best absorbing material for the carbon dioxide:

(d)The solution getting heated by exothermic reaction (*a) Cold, solid calcium hydroxide

90. In laboratory burners we use: (b) Cold, solid calcium chloride

(a) Producer gas (*b) Oil gas (c) Heated copper oxide

(c) Coal gas (d) Gobar gas (d) Heated charcoal

91. Producer gas is a mixture of: 98. Which statement is correct:

(*a)CO + N2 (b) CO + H2 (a) Lithium carbonate is soluble in water

(c) N2 + CH4 (d) CO + H2 + N2 (*b) Carbonates of Ca, Sr and Ba are soluble in water

92. Incomplete combustion of petrol or diesel oil in (c) Basic carbonates of Mg and Cu are soluble in water
automobile engines can be best detected by testing the fuel
gases for the presence of: (d) Carbonates of Na, K and NH4 are soluble in water

(a) CO + H2O (b*) CO 99. The metal which does not form a polynuclear carbonyl
is:
(c) NO2 (d) SO2
(*a) Sodium (b) Manganese
93. Which of the following is methamide :
(c) Iron (d) Cobalt
(a) Be2C (b) Al4C3
100. It is impossible to fuse strips of copper, silver or iron
(c) Mg2C3 (*d) Both (a) and (b) into soda glass because of a difference in the properties of
glass and the metal. The property concerned is:
94. Which gas turns limewater milky:
(a*) Coefficient of expansion
(*a) Carbon dioxide
(b) Melting point
(b) Nitrogen dioxide
(c) Ignition point
(c) Hydrogen sulphide
(d) Heat of fusion
(d) Carbon monoxide
101. Animal charcoal is used for decolourisation of sugar
95. Which statement is false:
because:
(a) Water gas is a mixture of hydrogen and carbon monoxide
(a) It oxidises coloured material
(b) Producer gas is a mixture of carbon monoxide and
(b) It reduces coloured material
nitrogen
(c) It converts coloured material into colourless
(c*) Water gas is a mixture of water vapour and hydrogen
(d*) It adsorbs coloured material
(d) Natural gas consists of methane, ethane and gaseous
hydrocarbons 102. Wood charcoal is used in gas masks because it:

96. Difference between diamond and graphite is due to: (a) Is poisonous (b) Liquifies gas

(a) Graphite combines with oxygen to form carbon dioxide (c) Is porous (*d) Adsorbs gases
but diamond does not

104
103. Which gas is essential constituent of almost all fuel (b) Sodium, calcium silicate
gases:
(c*) Sodium silicate
(a) CO2 (b) N2
(d) Magnesium silicate
(c*) CO (d) H2O
113. Bell metal is an alloy of:
104. Which gas is used in aerated water:
(a) Sn + Pb (*b) Cu + Sn
(a) Water vapours (*b)CO2
(c) Sn + Sb (d) None
(c) CO (d) SO2
114. Which gas present in atmosphere darkens the surface
105. Oil gas is obtained in laboratory by: painted by white lead:

(a) Heating of alcohol (a) SO2 (b) NH3

(b) Cracking of kerosene (c) CO2 (*d) H2S

(*c) Heating castor oil 115. The chemical formula of phosgene or carbonyl chloride
is:
(d) Heating coconut oil
(a) PH3 (b*) COCl2
106. Semi water gas is a mixture of:
(c) POCl3 (d) PCl3
(*a) Water gas and producer gas
116. The coal form containing maximum percentage of
(b) Water gas and CO2 carbon is:

(c) Producer gas and CO2 (a) Lignite (*b) Anthracite

(d) Producer gas and oil gas (c) Bituminous (d) Peat

107. Butter of tin is: 117. CeO2 is present in:

(a) SnCl2.5H2O (*b) SnCl4.5H2O (*a) Crookes glass (b) Pyrex glass

(c) SnBr2.2H2O (d) SnBr4.5H2O (c) Flint glass (d) All

108. Which form of carbon has a two-dimensional sheet-like 118. Carborundum is the commercial name of:
structure:
(a) Al2O3 (b) Ca(H2PO4)2
(a) Coal (b) Coke
(c) H3PO4 (*d) SiC
(c) Diamond (*d) Graphite
119. Which poisonous gas is present in the exhaust of car:
109. Which does not exist:
(a) Methane (*b) Carbon monoxide
(a)[SnCl6]2- (b) [GeCl6]2-
(c) Acetylene (d) Ethene
(c) [SiCl6]2- (*d) [CCl6]2-
120. Carbon in CO2 is:
110. During day time plants absorb:
(*a) sp-hybridised (b) sp2-hybridised
(*a) Carbon dioxide (b) Carbon monoxide
(c) sp3-hybridised (d) dsp3-hybridised
(c) Nitrogen (d) Oxygen
121. Newly shaped glass articles when cooled
111. Which is the hardest element: suddenly become brittle, therefore these are cooled slowly,
this process is known as:
(a) Iron (b) Silicon
(a) Tempering (b*) Annealing
(c*) Diamond (d) Aluminium
(c) Quenching (d) Galvanising
112. Water glass is:
122. Destructive distillation of coal does not give:
(a) Calcium silicate
105
(a) C2H2 (b) C2H4 (c) Both hard and soft water

(c*) Carbides (d) Coal gas (d) None

123. Mark the correct statement: 131. A colourless gas which burns with blue flame and
reduces CuO to Cu is:
(*a) Water gas is used in the manufacture of methyl alcohol
(a) N2 (*b) CO
(b) Water gas has the highest calorific value
(c) CO2 (d) NO2
(c) Water gas burns with luminous flame
132. Ordinary glass is:
(d)The production of water gas is exothermic process
(a) Sodium silicate
124. Carbon has valency four in CH4. Its valency in
acetylene is: (b) Copper silicate

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) Calcium silicate

(*c) 3 (d) 4 (*d) Amixture of calcium and sodium silicates with silica

125. Solder is an alloy of: 133. Rose metal is an alloy of:

(a) Pb, Sb and Sn (*b) Pb and Sn (a*) Sn + Pb + Bi (b) Sn + Cu

(c) Pb, Bi and Sn (d) Sn, Sb and Cu (c) Sn + Sb + Cu (d) None

126. H2SO4 is not used for the preparation of CO2 from 134. Coal gas:
marble chips because:
(a) Burns with a smoky flame
(a) It does not react
(*b) Bruns with non-smoky flame
(b) Huge amount of heat is evolved
(c) Is not used for lighting purposes
(c) The reaction is vigorous
(d) Is not a good fuel
(d*) Calcium sulphate is sparingly soluble and gets deposited
on marble chips and stops the reaction 135. Lead pipes are not suitable for drinking water,
because:
127. Carbon dioxide is used for extinguishing fire because:
(a) Lead forms basic lead carbonate
(a) It has a relatively high critical temperature
(*b) Lead reacts with water containing air to form Pb(OH)2
(b) In solid state, it is called dry ice
(c) A layer of lead dioxide is deposited over pipes
(*c) It is neither combustible nor a supporter of combustion
(d) Lead reacts with air to form litharge
(d) It is a colourless gas
136. Silicon hydrides are named as:
128. CO forms a volatile compound with:
(a) Silicones (b) Silicates
(a*) Nickel (b) Copper
(c) Silicols (*d) Silanes
(c) Sodium (d) Aluminium
137. The use of diamond as a gem depends on its:
129. Pewter is an alloy of:
(a) Hardness (*b) High refractive index
(a*) Pb and Sn (b) Pb, Sb and Sn
(c) Purest form of carbon (d) Chemical inertness
(c) Pb, Bi and Sn (d) Pb, Bi, Sn and Cd
138. Which is a true acid anhydride:
130. Lead pipes can be used for:
(a) Al2O3 (b) CO
(a) Soft water
(c) CaO (*d) CO2
(*b) Hard water
139. Pb shows oxidation states of:
106
(a*) +2 + 4 (b) +1, + 2 (a) More gas (b*) More air

(c) +3, + 4 (d) Only + 4 (c) Less air (d) None

140. The fraction by volume of carbon monoxide in 147. When sodium or potassium oxide is heated in a current
producer gas is about: of CO2 at 360°C we get:

(a) 1/2 (*b) 1/3 (a) Sodium formate (b) Sodium oxalate

(c) 1/4 (d) 2/3 (c) Sodium acetate (d*) Sodium carbonate

141. CO2 and N2 are non-supporters of combustion. 148. A kettle which becomes furred-up in use has inside it a
However, for putting out fires CO2 is preferred over N2 deposit composed mainly of:
because CO2:
(a*) Calcium carbonate
(a) Does not burn
(b) Magnesium bicarbonate
(b) Forms non-combustible products with burning
substances (c) Magnesium sulphate

(*c) Is denser than nitrogen (d) Sodium sulphate

(d) Is a more reactive gas 149. Graphite conducts electricity because of:

142. The fuel gas having volume composition equal to 34% (a) Weak van der Waals' forces between layers
CH4 + 48% H2 + 15% O2 + 3% CO is:
(b)Covalent bonding between carbon atoms of layers
(a) Oil gas (b) Water gas
(c) Delocalized electrons in each layer
(c*) Coal gas (d) Petrol gas
(*d) sp2-hybridisation of carbon atoms in each layer
143. The dry ice is:
150. Which is the least pure form of carbon :
(a) Solid ice without any water
(a) Graphite (b) Lamp black
(b) Solid sulphur dioxide
(c) Wood charcoal (*d) Animal charcoal
(c*) Solid carbon dioxide
151. Carbon monoxide will not reduce:
(d) Solid benzene
(a) Litharge (b) Cupric oxide
144. Water gas cannot be prepared by a continuous process
(*c) Zinc oxide (d) Ferric oxide
because:
152. Tin plague is the:
(a) More coke must be added from time to time
(a) Conversion of stannous to stannic
(b) The furnace must be allowed to cool occasionally
(b*) Conversion of white tin to grey tin
(c) It cannot be manufactured without producer gas
(c) Emission of sound while bending a tin rod
(*d) The reaction ceases when coke is too cool
(d) Atmospheric oxidation of tin
145. The core of a non-luminous Bunsen burner flame is
observed to be yellow in colour. This is because of:
153. Diamond and graphite both are made of carbon atoms.
Diamond is extremely hard whereas graphite is soft. This is
(a) Contamination from the metal of the burner
because:
(b) Impurities in the fuel
(a) The chemical bonds between any two carbon atoms in
(c*) Incomplete combustion diamond are stronger

(d) None (b) Diamond is ionic whereas graphite is covalent

146. If the flame of a gas stove burns with yellow tips, the (*c) Each carbon atom in diamond is chemically bonded to a
burner must be adjusted to provide: greater number of neighbouring carbon atoms

107
(d) Certain atoms in diamond are smaller is size (d) Hydrogen and methane

154. Carbon monoxide on heating with sulphur gives: 164. The substance used to impart green colour to glass is:
(a) Cu2O (b) CdS
(a*) COS n (b)SO2 p (c)SO3 p (d)None p
(c) MnO2 (*d) Cr2O3
155. Activation of charcoal:
165. In SnCl2, Sn has hybridized state and structure
(a) Can be achieved only with charcoal from nut shells p respectively:

(b*) Increases the adsorbing power of the charcoal (a) sp3, bent (b) sp, linear

(c) Is accomplished by giving powdered charcoal an (*c) sp2,bent (d) sp3, tetrahedral
electrical charge
166. By chlorinating carbon disulphide with chlorine in
(d) Is achieved by heating the charcoal in air presence of aluminium chloride, we get:

156. A gas does not turn lime-water milky, supports the (a*) Carbon tetrachloride (b) Chloroform
combustion of burning magnesium. It has no smell and is
colourless. It extinguishes a glowing splint but under some (c) Chloral (d) Methylene chloride
circumstances reacts with oxygen and hydrogen. It is not
poisonous. The gas is likely to be: 167. Which of the following reactions occurs at the cathode
during the charging of lead accumulator?
(a) Water vapour (b*) Nitrogen
(a) Pb2+ + 2e  Pb
(c) Carbon dioxide (d) Helium
(b) Pb2++SO42-  PbSO4
157. Which is pseudo solid:
(c) Pb  Pb2+ + 2e
(a*) Glass(b) Diamond (c) Sodium chloride (d)CaCO3
(*d) PbSO4 + 2H2O  PbO2 + 4H+ + SO42- + 2e
158. Tetrahalides of IV B group or gp 14 elements are:
168. Which property is common in diamond and graphite?
(a) Ionic (*b) Covalent (c) Polar (d) Co-ordinate covalent
(a) Electrical conductivity
159. An example of a major air pollutant is:
(b*) Relative atomic weight
(a) Oxygen (b) Carbon dioxide
(c) Crystal structure
(c*) Carbon monoxide (d) Helium
(d) Density
160. When SnCl2 reacts with HgCl2, the product formed are:
169. Which fuel has the highest calorific value?
(a) Sn + HgCl4 (b)Sn + Cl2 + Hg2Cl2
(*a) Coal gas (b) Water gas
(*c) SnCl4 and Hg2 (d) None
(c) Producer gas (d) Carbon dioxide gas
161. In the manufacture of glass, addition of MnO2 gives:
170. On doping Ge metal with a little of In, one gets:
(a*) Yellow colour (b) Red colour
(*a) p-type semiconductor (b) n-type
(c) Violet colour (d) Pink colour semiconductor

162. Which fuel has the highest calorific value (kJ/kg)? (c) Insulator (d) Rectifier

(a) Charcoal (*b) Kerosene 171. In graphite, electrons are:

(c) Wood (d) Cow dung (a) Localized on each carbon atom

163. Synthetic gas is a mixture of: (*b) Spread out between the sheets

(a) Steam and carbon monoxide (c) Localized on every third carbon atom

(b) Carbon monoxide and nitrogen (d) Present in antibonding orbital

(c*) Hydrogen and carbon monoxide 172. Water gas is produced by:

108
(*a) Passing steam through a red hot coke bed (b) Sodium carbonate and sand

(b) Saturating hydrogen with moisture (c*) Sodium carbonate, lime stone and sand

(c) Mixing oxygen and hydrogen in the ratio of 1 : 2 (d) Potassium carbonate, sand and lime stone

(d) Heating a mixture of CO2 and CH4 in petroleum refineries 181. Tin(II) chloride (anhydrous) can be obtained:

173. Which is correct for SiO2? (a) By melting tin in an atmosphere of Cl2

(a) Linear, acidic (b) Linear, basic (b) By treating tin with cone. HCl and heating the product to
dryness
(c*) Tetrahedral, acidic (d) Angular, disc
(c) By treating tin with dil. HCl and heating the product to
174. Which is not an ore of lead? dryness

(a) Galena (b) Anglesite (d*) By treating tin with HCl(gas)

(c*) Calamine (d) Cerussite 182. Among the following the hardest substance is:

175. The correct statement with respect to carbon (a) Peat (b) Lignite
monoxide is:
(c) Graphite (d*) Anthracite
(a) It combines with water to give carbonic acid
183. Tin(IV) chloride (anhydrous) can be obtained:
(*b) It reacts with haemoglobin in red blood cells
(a*) By action of molten tin and Cl2
(c) It is a powerful oxidizing agent
(b) By heating tin and cone. HCl and dehydrating the
(d) It is used to prepare aerated drinks product in an atmosphere of HCl(g)

176. 'Lead pencil' contains: (c) By treating tin with dil. HCl and heating the product to
dryness
(a) Pb (b) FeS
(d) None of the above
(*c) Graphite (d) PbS
184. Vapour density of which gas is near to air? (a*) CO
177. Zn on heating with barium carbonate gives:
(b) CO2
(a) BaO (b) ZnO
(c)NH3 (d)SO2
(c) CO (*d) All
185. Colour is imparted to glass by mixing:
178. Stannous oxide can be obtained by:
(a) Synthetic dyes (*b) Metal oxides
(a) Heating tin strongly in air
(c) Oxides of non-metal (d) Coloured salt
(b) Heating meta-stannic acid
186. Among the following the purest form of carbon is:
(*c) Heating tin(II) oxalate
(a) Bituminous coal (b) Coal-tar
(d) None of the above
(c) Coal gas (d*) Graphite
179. Pyrex glass is a mixture of:
187. The metal used in acid storage batteries is:
(*a) Sodium borosilicate and barium borosilicate
(a) Copper (b) Tin
(b) Sodium silicate and calcium silicate
(c) Magnesium (*d) Lead
(c) Sodium silicate and lead silicate
188. The glass having smallest coefficient of thermal
expansion is:
(d) Sodium silicate and aluminium borosilicate
(a) Soda lime glass (b) Soft glass
180. The materials for manufacture of ordinary glass are:
(c) Safety glass (d*) Pyrex glass
(a) Gypsum, sand and sodium carbonate

109
189. Cassiterite is an ore of: (a) Conversion of white to grey tin

(a*) Tin (b) Mercury (b) Tin plating

(c) Lead (d) Iron (c) Conversion of white tetrahedral tin to white
rhombohedral tin
190. Crystalline varieties of carbon is:
(*d) Emission of sound while bending a tin rod
(a*) Graphite (b) Coke
198. Carbogen is:
(c) Peat (d) Gas carbon
(a) Mixture of O2 + 5-10% CO2
191. Tin sulphide is:
(b) Used by pneumonia patients for respiration
(a) Yellow solid
(c) Used by victims of CO for respiration
(b) Soluble in yellow ammonium sulphide
(d*) All of the above
(c) Precipitated by H2S in acidic medium
199. When Sn (IV) chloride is treated with excess of cone.
(*d) All of the above HCl, the complex [SnCl6]2- is formed. The oxidation state of
Sn in this complex is:
192. The approximate composition of soda glass is:
(a) + 6 (*b) + 4
(*a) SiO2 75%, Na2O 15%, CaO 8%, Al2O3 2%
(c) -2 (d) + 2
(b) SiO2 45%, Na2O 4%, CaO 3%, K2O 4%, PbO 44%
200. CO2 is bubbled into an aqueous solution of Na2CO3, to
(c) SiO2 80%, Na 2O 4%, CaO 0.5%, K2O 0.5%, B2O3 12%,
give:
Al2O3 3%
(a) NaOH (*b) HCO3-
(d) None of the above
(c) H2O (d) OH-
193. Carbon dioxide dissolves under pressure in water to
give: 201. If a person is injured by the shot of a gun and all the
pellets could not be removed, it may cause poisoning by:
(a) An alkaline solution
(a*) Hg (b) Pb
(*b) An acidic solution
(c) Fe (d) As
(c) A neutral solution
202. Sesquioxide of lead is:
(d) A highly alkaline solution
(a) PbO (b) PbO2
194. Which oxide has three dimensional structure?
(c) Pb2O (*d) Pb2O3
(a) CO (b) CO2
203. Purest form of silica is:
(c*) SiO2 (d) SO2
(*a) Quartz (b) Flint
195. The C—X bond energy order for carbon tetra halides is:
(c) Sandstone (d) Keiselguhr
(*a) CF4 > CCl4 > CBr4 > CI4
204. The thermal stability order for group 14 halides is:
(b) CCl4 > CBr4 > CI4 > CF4
(a*) CX4 > SiX4 > GeX4 > SnX4
(c) CI4 > CBr4 > CCl4 > CF4
(b) SnX4 > GeX4 > SiX4 > CX4
(d) None of the above
(c) SiX4 > CX4 > GeX4 > SnX4
196. Which is not a crystalline form of silica?
(d) None of the above
(a) Quartz *(b) Azurite
205. Gun shots are made of lead with a little arsenic. The
(c) Crystobalite (d) Tridymite
function of As is to increase:
197. Tin cry refers to:
110
(a) Range of fire (b) Power of fire (a) Pb4+ (b) Sn4+

(c*) Brittleness (d) Weight of fire (c) Ge4+ (*d) Si4+

206. Tetra ethyl lead is used as: 216. Diamond is hard because:

(a) Fire extinguisher (b*) Antiknock compound (a) It is made up of carbon atoms

(c) Painkiller (d) Mosquito killer (b) All the valency electrons of each carbon atom are
involved in bonding
207. In the sale of diamonds the unit of weight is carat. One
carat is equal to: (c*) It is giant molecule

(a) 100 mg (b) 300 mg (d) It is colourless

(c) 400 mg (*d) 200 mg 217. Oxides of silicon are:

208. Plumbo-solvency means dissolution of lead in: (a) Liquids (*b) Solids

(a) Hot water (b) Acids (c) Gases (d) None

(*c) Ordinary water (d) Alkalies 218. Which of the following is better fuel?

209. Compound of lead used in match industry is: (a) Solid (b) Liquid

(a) PbO (*b) PbO2 (c*) Gaseous (d) Semi solid

(c) PbCl2 (d) None 219. Which is neutral to litmus?

210. Annealing of glass is done to: (a) ZnO (b) SnO

(a) Make it more brittle (c*) CO (d) SiO

(b) Make it opaque 220. The reducing power of divalent species decreases in
the order:
(*c) Check it from becoming brittle
(a*) Ge > Sn > Pb (b) Sn > Ge > Pb
(d) Make it transparent
(c) Pb > Sn > Ge (d) None of these
211. Tin(II) fluoride (anhydrous) can be obtained by: (a)
Treating tin with F2 (b) Treating tin with HF 221. Which form of carbon is used in making boot polish,
printing ink, paint and black varnish?
(c*) Dissolving SnO in HF (d) None of these
(a) Bone black (b) Graphite
212. Lead(IV) oxide is obtained by:
(c) Gas carbon (*d) Lamp black
(a) Heating lead (II) oxide strongly in air
222. Which of the following has structure similar to
(b) Heating lead strongly in pure oxygen graphite?

(c) Oxidising lead with cone. HNO3 (*a) BN (b) B

(d*) Heating Pb3O4 with cone. HNO3 (c) B4C (d) B2H6

213. Density is highest for: 223. The refractive index of diamond is highest among
solids. Its value is:
(a) Si (b) Ge
(a) 2.225 (b) 3.235
(c) Sn (d*) Pb
(c) 2.15 (*d) 2.417
214. CO2 is liberated during:
224. Solid CO2 is used as:
(a) Combustion of coke (b) Fermentation
(a) Poison (b) Fire extinguisher
(c) Respiration (d*) All of these
(c*) Refrigerant (d) Artificial respirant
215. Which of the following is more stable?
111
225. Which gas has more percentage in coal gas? (*d) Lead storage battery

(a) CO (b) H 234. Least stable hydride is:

(c*) H2 (d) CH4 (a) Methane (b*) Plumbane

226. Bond energy is highest for: (c) Silane (d) Stibine

(a) Sn—Sn (b) Ge—Ge 235. The metallic character of the elements of IV A group or
group 14:
(*c) C—C (d) Si—Si
(a) Decreases from top to bottom
227. Which is/are fire extinguishers?
(b) Has no significance
(a) Dry powder containing sand + NaHCO3
(c) Does not change
(b) NaHCO3 + H2SO4
(*d) Increases from top to bottom
(c) Foamite extinguishers containing
236. Carbon reacts with cone. H2SO4 to give:
NaHCO3 + Al2 (SO4)3
(a*) CO2, SO2, H2O (b) SO2, H2O, CO
(*d) All of these
(c) CO, H2O (d) CO2, H2O
228. When sugar is treated with cone. H2SO4, we get a pure
form of: 237. The total number of electrons in one molecule of CO 2
is:
(a*) Carbon (b) Hydrogen
(*a) 22 (b) 44
(c) Oxygen (d) None
(c) 66 (d) 88
229. Ordinary sand (SiO2) is attacked by:
238. (Me)2SiCl2 on hydrolysis will produce:
(a) Cone. HCl (b) Cone. HBr
(a) (Me)2 Si(OH)2
(c*) Hot KOH (d) None
(b) (Me)2 Si=O
230. When a mixture of sand and KNO3 is heated strongly
the product(s) is/are: (*c) –[-O—(Me)2Si—O-]-n

(a) NO2 (b) O2 (d) Me2SiCl(OH)

(c) K2SiO3 (*d) All of these 239. Which is not used as pigment in paints?

231. Lead sulphate is soluble in: (a*) Lead dioxide (b) White lead

(a) Cone. HNO3 (b) KMnO4/H+ (c) Lead chromate (d) Pb3O4

(c) K2Cr2O7 /H+ (*d) None of these 240. Lead may be replaced from its salt solution by:

232. Among the various allotropes of carbon: (a) Cu (b) Au

(a) Diamond is the hardest and graphite is the softest (c) Ag (d*) Mg

(b) Diamond is the hardest and coke is the softest 241. CO2 is isostructural with:

(c*) Diamond is the hardest and lamp black is the softest (a) SnCl2 (b) SO2

(d) Coke is hardest and diamond is softest (c*) HgCl2 (d) None

233. Litharge is not commonly used in: 242. Silicon is usually found in:

(a) Manufacture of special glasses (*a) Sand (b) Coal

(b) Glazing pottery (c) Lime (d) Lime stone

(c) Preparing paints 243. Which of the following is amphoteric?

112
(a) CO2 (b*) PbO2 (c) Si (d) Ge

(c) SiO2 (d) GeO2 253. Massicot is prepared by:

244. An insulator is: (a) Heating tin in air at about 300°C

(a) Silicon (b) Graphite (b) Heating litharge

(c) Aluminium (*d) Diamond (c) Heating red lead

245. Tin dissolves in dilute HNO3 forming: (*d) Heating lead nitrate

(a) Metastannic acid (b) Nitrous oxide 254. Graphite is made by heating coke with silica for many
hours in a:
(*c) Ammonium nitrate (d) Stannic nitrate
(a) Blast furnace
246. Carbon atom in excited state contains:
(b) Blast of steam under pressure
(a*) One s-and three unpaired p-electrons
(c) In presence of air
(b) Four unpaired p-electrons
(*d) High electric arc furnace
(c) Two unpaired and two paired p-electrons
255. The correct order of decreasing ionic nature of lead
(d) None of the above dihalides is:

247. Tin reacts with cone. H2SO4 to give: (*a) PbF2 > PbCl2 > PbBr2 > PbI2

(a) -stannic acid (b) Stannous sulphate (b) PbF2 > PbBr2 > PbCl2 > PbI2

(c) -stannic acid (*d) Stannic sulphate (c) PbF2 < PbCl2 > PbBr2 < PbI2

248. PbO is......oxide. (d) PbI2 < PbBr2 < PbCl2 < PbF2

(a) Basic (b) Acidic 256. Newton's alloy contains:

(c*) Amphoteric (d) Neutral (a*) Bi, Sn, Pb (b) Bi, Fe, Cr

249. Which is formed when SiO4 vapours are passed over (c) Bi, Sn, Cd (d) Pb, Sn, Cd
hot Mg?
257. Lead is not affected by dilate HCl in cold, because:
(a) SiCl2 + MgCl2 (*b) Si + MgCl2
(a) Pb is less electronegative than H
(c) Mg2Si + Cl2 (d) MgSiCl6
(b) PbO film is formed which resists chemical attack by acid
250. Pure CO can be obtained from:
(*c) A protective coating of PbCl2 is formed on Pb surface
(a) Sodium oxalate
(d) PbO2 film is always present on Pb surface, which resists
(*b) Nickel tetracarbonyl chemical attack

(c) Formic acid 258. Which has highest b.p?

(d) Carbon dioxide and hydrogen (a*) Diamond (b) Graphite

251. The carbon of microphones used in public address (c) Charcoal (d) Lamp black
systems is:
259. CO2 is not used in:
(a*) Graphite (b) Charcoal
(a) Making Na2CO3 (b) Fire extinguishers
(c) Coke (d) Lamp black
(c) Making aerated water (d*) Disinfecting water
252. Which element has a limited co-ordination number of
four? 260. Tin, a silvery white metal exists in:

(a) Sn (*b) C (a) Four allotropic forms (*b) Three allotropic forms

113
(c) Five allotropic forms (d) Two allotropic forms 271. In the series carbon, nitrogen, oxygen and fluorine, the
electronegativity:
261. CO 2 is obtained by heating:
(a) Decreases from C to F (*b) Increases from C to F
(a) Na2CO3 (b) K2CO3
(c) Remains constant (d) None of these
(*c) NaHCO3 (d) None
272. Carbon is soluble in:
262. Which is not an allotrope of carbon?
(a) Cone. HCl (b) Oil. HNO3
(a) Graphite (b) Diamond
(c*) H2SO4 (d) Oil. HCl
(c) Soot *(d) Carborundum
273. Cane sugar reacts with cone. HNO3 to give:
263. Which of the following is obtained on heating,
potassium ferrocyanide with H2SO4? (a) CO2 and H2O (*b) Oxalic acid

(a) CO2 (b*) CO (c) CO and H2O (d) H2CO3

(c) C2H2 (d) (CN)2 274. Quartz is made of silicon and oxygen joined in a
network arrangement that is similar to:
264. A solution of a salt in water on addition of dilute HCl
gives a white ppt. soluble in hot water. The salt contains: (a*) Diamond (b) Graphite

(a) Ag+ (*b) Pb2+ (c) O2 (d) None

(c) H2+ (d) Fe2+ 275. What is formed when oxalic acid is dehydrated by
cone. H2SO4?
265. The percentage of carbon is least in:
(a) C + CO2 (b) CO
(a) White cast iron (b) Grey cast iron
(c) CO2 (*d) CO + CO2
(c*) Wrought iron (d) Steel
276. Bleaching powder on treatment with CO2 gives:
266. Bone black is an allotrope of:
(a) O2 (*b) Cl2
(a) P (*b) C
(c) HCl (d) H2
(c) S (d) Bone
277. The common semiconductor is:
267. When chlorine is passed through molten tin, the
product obtained is: (a) Fe (b) Se

(a) SnCl2 (b) [SnCl4]2- (*c) Ge (d) C

(c) [SnCl6]2- (*d) SnCl4 278. Living in the atmosphere of CO is dangerous because:

268. Thermodynamically most stable form of carbon is: (a) It reduces organic matter of tissues

(a) Diamond (b) Coke (b) Dries up the blood

(c) Charcoal (*d) Graphite (c*) Combines with O2 present inside to form CO2

269. Which can be directly brought into solid state from (d) Combines with haemoglobin and makes it incapable to
gaseous state? absorb O2

(a) CO (b*) CO2 279. On strong heating lead nitrate gives:

(c) PH3 (d) CO + H2 (a) PbO, NO, O2 (b) PbO, NO, NO2

270. Which element of group 14 forms only one hydride? (c) PbO2, PbO, NO2 (d*) PbO, NO2, O2

(a) C (b) Si 280. Which gas is responsible for green house effect?

(c) Sn (*d) Pb (a) CO2 (b) SO2

(c) CO (d*) SO3

114
281. Minium is: 290. Aluminium carbide reacts with dil. HCl to give:

(a) PbO (b*) Pb3O4 (a) C2H2 (b) C2H4

(c) PbO2 (d) All (c*) CH4 (d) C2H6

282. Tin reacts with: 291. Which is not correct?

(a) Hot cone. HCl (b) Cone. HNO3 (a) Ge(OH)2 is amphoteric

(c) HgCl2 on heating (*d) All of these (*b) GeCl2 is more stable than GeCl4

283. Ammonical CuCl absorbs: (c) GeO2 is weakly acidic

(a) CO2 (b) SO2 (d) GeCl4 in HCI forms [GeCl2]2- ion

(c) H2SO4 *(d) CO 292. Which is not the property of diamond?

284. Lead chromate is.......in colour. (a) It is insoluble in all solvents

(a) Red (b*) Yellow (b*) It is an isomer of graphite

(c) White (d) Black (c) It is purest form of carbon

285. The elements of IV A group or group 14 have 4 (d) It is oxidized with a mixture of K2Cr2O7 and H2SO4 at
electrons in their outermost orbit. They: 200°C

(a) Form M4+ ions

(b) Form M4+ and M4- ions V A GROUP

(c*) Exhibit oxidation state of + 4 and + 2 EXERCISE 27 THEORETICAL PROBLEMS

(d) Exhibit oxidation state of + 4 1. The group 15 or VA group elements are commonly known as:

286. PbO2 is: (a) Halogens (b) Normal elements (*c) Pnicogens
(d) None of these
(a) Acidic (b) Basic
2. The number of P—O—P bonds in cyclic
metaphosphoric acid is:
(c) Neutral (*d) Amphoteric
(a) Zero (b) Two (c*) Three
287. Bucky ball or buck minster fullerene is: (d) Four

(a) An allotrope of carbon 3. Which oxide of N is neutral?

(b) It is referred as C - 60 (a) N2O3 (b) N2O5 (c) N2O4

(d*) N2O
(c) It has sp2 -hybridized nature and resembles with soccer
ball 4. The outermost electronic configuration of group 15 or VA
elements is:
(*d) All of the above
(a) ns2 np1 (b) ns2 np2 (c*) ns2 np3
288. In H2SiF6 oxidation no. of Si is: (d) ns2 np4

5. Which of the following occurs in free state?

(a) + 2 (b*) + 4
(*a) N (b) P (c) As (d)
(c) + 6 (d) + 8
Sb

289. Mg2C3 has the following characteristics: 6. On heating a salt with NaOH, smell of NH3 is obtained. The salt
contains:
(a) It is called magnesium allylide
*(a) NH4+ (b) NO3 (c) NO2 (d)
(b) It contains Mg2+ and C34- ions CH3OO-

(c) It on hydrolysis gives propyne 7. The conjugate base of H2PO4 is:

(*d) All of the above

115
(a*) HPO43- (b) P2O5 (c) H3PO4 (c) Give ferric nitrate and ammonium nitrate(d) Give ferric nitrate
(d) PO43- and nitrogen dioxide

8. An inorganic compound producing organic compound on heating 19. The catalyst used in the manufacture of HNO3 by Ostwald's
is: process is:

(a) Sodamide (*b) Ammonium cyanate (c) Sodalime (d) (a) Platinum black (b) Finely divided nickel (c) Vanadium pentoxide
Potassium cyanide (*d) Platinum gauze

9. In the reduction of HNO3 to N 2O, the number of mole of 20. Arsenic acid is:
electrons involved per mole of HNO3 is:
(a) H3AsO3 (*b) H3AsO4 (c) H2AsO4
(a) 8 (b*) 4 (c) 3 (d) (d) HAsO4
6
21. The molecular formula of phosphorus solid or vapour is:
10. Phosphine on reaction with hydrobromic acid gives:
(a) P1 (*b) P4(c) NH4Cl (d) P5
(a) PBr3 (*b) PH4Br (c) PBr5
(d) P2H4 22. The chemical used for cooling in refrigeration or in

11. The starting material in Birkeland and Eyde process for the manufacture of ice is:
manufacture of HNO3 is:
(a) CS2 (b) NH4OH (c) NH4Cl
(a) NH3 (b) NO2 (c*) Air (d*) Liquid NH3
(d) Chile saltpetre
23. Most acidic oxide is:
12. Which metal liberates H2 with dil. nitric acid?
(a) As2O3 (*b) P2O3 (c) Sb2O3 (d) Bi2O3
(a) Zn (b) Cu (*c) Mn (d)
Hg 24. An important method of fixation of atmospheric N2 is;

13. Density of nitrogen gas prepared from air is slightly greater than (a) Fischer-Tropsch's process (b*) Haber's process
that of nitrogen prepared by chemical reaction from a compound of
nitrogen because aerial nitrogen contains: (c) Frasch's process (d) Solvay's
process
(a) CO2(b*) Argon(c) Some N2 molecules analogous to O2
25. The essential element of nitrogen fixation is:
(d) Greater amount of N2 molecules derived from N isotope15

(a) Zn (b) Cu (c*) Mo

14. Which is not correct for N2O? (d) B

(a) It is laughing gas and is used as anaesthetic agent(b) It is 27. Nitric acid is generally light yellow due to the presence of:
nitrous oxide
(a) NH3 (b) NO (*c) NO2
(*c) It is not a linear molecule (d) N2O5

(d) It is least reactive of all the oxides of nitrogen 28. Which does not give ammonia with water?

15. N2O is formed on reaction with dil. HNO3 with: (a) Mg3 N2 (b) AlN (c) CaCN2
(d*) Ca(CN)2
(a) Cu (b) Hg (c) Ag
(*d) Fe 29. In the treatment of leukaemia..... is used.

16. Which of the following equations is not correctly formulated? (a) White phosphorus (b) Red phosphorus

(a) 3Cu + 8HNO3 (dil)  3Cu(NO3)2 + 2NO + 4H2O (c) Scarlet phosphorus (d*) P32 isotope

(b*) 3Zn + 8HNO3 (very dil.)  3Zn(NO3)2 + 2NO + 4H2O 30. Metaphosphoric acid is:

(c) 4Sn + 10HNO3 (dil.)  4Sn(NO3)2 + NH4NO3 + 3H2O (a) H3PO2 (*b) HPO3 (c) H3PO3 (d) H3PO4

(d) As + 3HNO3 (dil,)  H3AsO3 + 3NO2 31. On heating (NH4)2Cr2O7, the gas evolved is 'X". The same gas is
obtained by heating:
17. Which halide of nitrogen is least basic? (*a) NF3 (b) NCl3 (c) NI3
(d) NBr3 (a*) NH4NO2 (b) NH4NO3

18. Cone. HNO3 reacts with iron to: (c) Mg3N2 + H2O (d) Na2O2 + H2O

(*a) Render iron passive(b) Give ferrous nitrate and nitric oxide 32. A hydride of nitrogen having lowest oxidation number of N:

(a*) NH3 (b) N3H

116
(c) N2H4 (d) N2H2 (c) CO (*d) NO

33. Which one is not an acid salt? 44. When silver chloride dissolves in ammonia, it forms?

(*a) NaH2PO2 (b) NaH2PO3 (a) Ag(NH3)Cl (b*) Ag(NH3)2Cl

(c) NaH2PO4 (d) None of these (c) Ag(NH3)3Cl (d) Ag(NH3)4Cl

34. One mole of calcium phosphide on reaction with excess water 45. White smoke is formed when ammonia gas meets with: (a)
gives: Water (b*) HCl

(a) One mole of phosphine (c) H2SO4 (d) HNO3

(b) Two moles of phosphoric acid 46. The deep blue colour produced on adding excess of ammonia to
copper sulphate solution is due to the presence of:
(c*) Two moles of phosphine
(a) Cu2+ (b) [Cu(NH3)2]2+
(d) One mole of phosphorus pentoxide
(*c) [Cu(NH3 )4 ]2+ (d) [Cu(NH3 )6 ]2+
35. Sodium nitrate on heating with zinc dust and caustic soda gives:
47. The Nessler's reagent contains:
(a) NaNO2 (*b) NH3
(a) Hg22+ (b) Hg2+
(c) NO2 (d) N2O
(c) HgI-2 (*d) HgI42-
36. Ammonia reacts with excess of chlorine to form:
48. In the compounds of type ECl3, where E = B, P, As, or Bi, the
(a) N2 and NH4Cl (b*) NCl3 and HCl angle Cl—E—Cl for different E are in the order:

(c) NH4Cl and NO3 (d) N2 and HCl (a) B > P = As = Bi (*b) B > P > As > Bi (c) B < P = As = Bi (d) B
< P < As < Bi
37. Ammonia was first prepared by:
49. Which is cyclic phosphate?
(a) Lavoisier (b*) Priestley
(a) Na5P3O10 (b) Na6P4O13 (c*) Na4P4O12
(c) Scheele (d) Cavendish (d) Na7P5O16

38. Nitric acid may be kept in a bottle of: 50. An example of tetrabasic acid is:

(a) Ag (b) Sn (a) Orthophosphorous acid (b) Orthophosphoric acid

(c) Metaphosphoric acid (*d) Pyrophosphoric acid
(c) Pb (d*) Al
51. On heating silver nitrate strongly..... is obtained finally.
39. The hydroxide of which metal is soluble in excess of ammonia:
(a) NO2 (b) O2
(a) Cr (*b) Cu
(c) Silver metal (*d) All
(C) Fe (d) Bi
52. Coloured oxide of nitrogen is:
40. When SO2 reacts with nitrous acid, the compound formed is:
(a) N2O (b) NO
(a) H2S (b) S
(c) N2O4 (*d) NO2
(c) SO3 (*d) H2SO4
53. Nitrogen is produced when NaNO2 is heated with:
41. Non-combustible hydride is:
(a*) NH4Cl (b) NH4NO3
(a) PH3 (b) AsH3
(c) (NH4)2CO3 (d) NH4OH
(c) SbH3 (d*) NH3
54. Dinitrogen tetroxide, N2O4, is a mixed anhydride because it:
42. The catalyst used in Haber's process for synthesis of NH3 is:
(a) Is a mixture of N2O3 and N2O5
(a) Pt (b) V2O5
(b) Decomposes into two oxides of nitrogen
(*c) Fe (d) Mo
(c) Reacts with water to form nitric acid
43. The gas which is absorbed by ferrous sulphate solution giving
blackish brown colour is: (*d) Reacts with water to form two acids

(a) NH3 (b) N2 55. Which forms new compound in air?

117
(a) H2O in air (b) O2 in air (c) Lead nitrate (d) Potassium nitrate

(c) N2 in air (d*) Phosphorus in air 67. Lead nitrate on heating gives lead oxide, nitrogen dioxide and
oxygen. The reaction is known as:
56. Which hydride is the strongest base?
(a) Combustion (b) Combination
(a) AsH3 (b*) NH3
(c) Displacement (*d) Decomposition
(c) PH3 (d) SbH3
68. Phosphorus is manufactured by heating..... in a furnace.
57. Phosphorus is present in bones as:
(a) Bone-ash, sodium chloride and coke
(a*) Ca3(PO4)2 (b) FePO4
(b*) Bone-ash, silica and coke
(c) Ca3P2 (d) Cu3P2
(c) Bone-ash, silica and lime
58. Which of the following has highest proton affinity?
(d) Bone-ash, coke and limestone
(*a) NH3 (b) PH3
69. Nitrogen does not combine directly with:
(c) H2O (d) H2S
(a) Ca (b) Al
59. The percentage of N2 in air is:
(c*) Ag (d) Mg
(a) 75% by weight (b) 78.7% by volume
70. Yellow phosphorus is kept in:
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
(a*) Water (b) Ether
60. Ammonium nitrate decomposes on heating to give:
(c) Alcohol (d) Kerosene
(a) Ammonia and nitric acid
71. Superphosphate of lime is used in:
(b) Nitrogen, hydrogen and ozone
(a) Cement industry (b) Glass industry
(c) Nitric oxide, nitrogen dioxide and hydrogen
(c*) Agriculture (d) Metallurgy
(*d) Nitrous oxide and water
72. NH3 can be collected by the displacement of:
61. Ammonia is soluble in water because it is:
(a*) Mercury (b) Water
(a) A polar molecule (b) Bronsted base
(c) Brine (d) Cone. H2SO4
(*c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
73. Light blue colour of nitrous acid is due to dissolved:
62. In the compound of type POX3, P atoms show multiple bonding
of the type: (a) O2 (b) N2

(*a) p —d (b) d —d (c) p —p (c) N2O (d*) N2O3

(d) No multiple bonding
74. The dipole moment of NF3 is less than NH3 because:
63. Anhydride of nitric acid is:
(a) F is more reactive than H
(a) NO (b) N2O3 (c) N2O4
(*d) N2O5 (b) NH3 forms associated molecules

64. Ammonia on catalytic oxidation gives an oxide from which nitric (c) The resultant of the bond polarity is less
acid is obtained. The oxide is:
(*d) The resultant of the individual polarities is opposed by the
(*a) NO (b) NO2 (c) N2O3 (d) polarity of lone pair
N2O5
75. Which hydride does not exist?
65. Which gas can be collected over water?
(a) SbH3 (b) AsH3
(a) NH3 (*b) N2 (c) SO2
(d) HCl (c*) PH5 (d) N2H4

66. The nitrate which when heated gives off a gas or a mixture of
gases which cannot relight a glowing splinter is:
(a) Sodium nitrate (*b) Ammonium nitrate
76. Skin turns yellow in contact with cone. HNO3, because:
(*a) Proteins are converted into xanthoproteins
(b) Water is removed by the acid

118
(c) Skin gets burnt 85. The basicity of orthophosphoric acid is:

(d) Nitrocellulose is formed (a) 2 (*b) 3

77. The bond angle H—N—H in ammonia molecule is: (c) 4 (d) 5

(a) 109°28' (b) 104°31' 86. Cane sugar reacts with concentrated HNO3 to give:

(c) 120° (*d) 106°51' (a) CO2 and H2O (b*) Oxalic acid

78. What may be expected to happen, when phosphine gas is mixed (c) Carbonic acid (d) CO and H2O
with chlorine gas?
87. Complete fertilizer is that supplies to the soil:
(*a) PCl5 and HCl are formed and the mixture cools down
(a) S, K and N (*b) N, K and P
(b) PH3 .Cl2 is formed with warming up
(c) S, K and P (d) S and N
(c) The mixture cools down only
88. Liquid ammonia bottles be opened after cooling them in ice for
(d) PH3 and HCl are formed and the mixture warms up some time. It is because liquid NH3:

79. Man dies, when nitrous oxide is inhaled in large quantities (a) Brings tears to the eyes
because it:
(*b) Has a high vapour pressure
(a) Is poisonous
(c) Is a corrosive liquid
(*b) Causes laughing hysteria
(d) Is a mild explosive
(c) Decomposes haemoglobin
89. The lightning bolts in atmosphere cause the formation of:
(d) Reacts with organic tissues
(*a) NO (b) O3
80. Mg on heating to redness in an atmosphere of N2 and then on
treating with H2O gives: (c) CO2 (d) H2O2

(*a) NH3 (b) H2 90. The most reactive allotropic form of phosphorus is:

(c) N2 (d) O2 (a) Red phosphorus (*b) Yellow phpsphorus

81. Which halide does not hydrolyse? (c) Black phosphorus (d) Violet phosphorus

(a) SbCl3 (b) AsCl3 91. Which hydride possesses the maximum complex forming
nature?
(c) PCl3 (*d) NF3
(*a) NH3 (b) PH3
82. Bones glow in the dark, because:
(c) BiH3 (d) SbH3
(a) They contain a shining material
92. The formula of zinc phosphite is:
(b) They contain red phosphorus
(a*) ZnHPO3 (b) Zn(PO4)3
(c) White phosphorus changes into red phosphorus
(c) Zn2(PO4)3 (d) Zn3(PO3)2
(*d) White phosphorus undergoes slow combustion with air
93. NH3 molecule can enter into complex formation through:
83. Bottle of PCl5 is kept stoppered because it:
(a) Ionic bond (b) Covalent bond
(a) Explodes (b) Gets oxidized
(c*) Co-ordinate bond (d) Electron deficient bond
(c) Is volatilized (d*) Reacts with moisture
94. Calcium carbide when heated with nitrogen forms:
84. In modern process phosphorus is manufactured by:
(a) Ca3N2 (b) Ca(CN)2
(*a) Heating a mixture of phosphorite mineral with sand and coke in
electric furnace (c*) CaCN2 (d) Ca(CNO)2

(b) Heating calcium phosphate with coke 95. Which property of white phosphorus is common to red P?

(c) Heating bone-ash with coke (a) It is soluble in carbon disulphide

(d) Heating the phosphate mineral with sand (b) It shows chemiluminescence

119
(c) It reacts with hot caustic soda solution to give phosphine 105. Which is not the property of nitrogen?

(*d) It burns when heated in air (a) Hydrogen bonding (b) Catenation

96. The lone pair present on N family hydrides more easily (*c) Supporter of life (d) Low b.p.
participates in bond formation in:
106. The vapour density of NH4Cl is almost half the expected value
(a) AsH3 (b) PH3 because it:

(c*) NH3 (d) SbH3 (a) Is salt of a strong acid

97. Which is a poison? (b) Sublimes on heating

(a) Hg2Cl2 (b*) As2O3 (*c) Dissociates completely

(c) NaHCO3 (d) NaCl (d) None of the above

98. NH4Cl is used to clean metal surfaces because: 107. Ammonia and phosphine resemble each other in:

(a*) It dissociates into NH3 and HCl on heating (a) Solubility in water (*b) Forming salt with acid

(b) NH3 forms a soluble complex with the metal (c) Stability (d) Reducing character

(c) NH4Cl forms a volatile chloride 108. Labourer's working with phosphorus suffer from a disease in
which bones decay. It is known as:
(d) None of the above
(a) Arthritis (*b) Phossy jaw
99. In smoke screens calcium phosphide is used, because it:
(c) Rickets (d) Cancer
(a) Catches fire easily
109. The largest bond angle is in:
(b) Bums and gives soot
(a*) NH3 (b) PH3
(c*) Forms phosphine which gives smoke
(c) AsH3 (d) SbH3
(d) None of the above
110. Which one is most important in fertilizer production?
100. Ammonia on heating with carbon dioxide under pressure
gives: (*a) NH3 (b) H3PO4

(a) NH4HCO3 (b) (NH4)2CO3 (c) (NH4)2SO4 (d) CO(NH2)2

(*c) NH2COONH4 (d) (NH4)2CO 111. A glass tube containing molten antimony breaks upon
solidification of antimony due to:
101. Nitrolim, a nitrogeneous fertilizer, is:
(*a) Expansion (b) Exothermic reaction
(a) Ca3H2 (b) Ca(CN)2
(c) Endothermic reaction (d) None of these
(c) CaCN2 (*d) CaCN2 + C
112. Nitrogen forms ..... oxides.
102. Smelling salt is:
(a) 3 (b) 4
(a) (NH4)2SO4 (b) (NH4)3PO4
(c*) 5 (d) 6
(c*) NH4Cl (d) (NH4)2CO3
113. Nitric acid whether diluted or concentrated:
103. PCl5 exists but NCl5 does not because:
(a) Reacts with Al to give H2
(a*) Nitrogen has no vacant 'd' orbitals
(b) Reacts with Al to give NO2
(b) NCl5 is unstable
(c) Reacts with Al to give NH4NO3
(c) N2 is inert
(*d) Hardly affects Al
(d) None of the above
114. Which is not correct for white phosphorus (P4) ?
104. I2 on rubbing with liquor NH3 forms with explosion:
(a) Six P—P sigma bonds
(a) NH4I (b) N2
(b*) Four P—P single bonds
(*c) NH4I + N2 +I2 (d) NI3NH2

120
(c) Four lone pair of electrons (a) 2NH4Cl + Ca(OH)2  CaCl2+2H2O + 2NH3

(d) P—P—P angle of 60° (b) By passing an electric discharge in a mixture of N2 and H2

115. N2 combines with metal to form: (c) By reducing the byproduct nitric acid

(a) Nitrite (b) Nitrate (*d) By passing a mixture of N2 and H2 under high pressure and
moderate temperature over a catalyst
(c*) Nitride (d) Nitrosyl chloride
125. On heating copper nitrate strongly..... is finally
116. Nitrogen molecule is chemically less active because it has a obtained.
..... between two nitrogen atoms,
(a) Copper (b*) Copper oxide
(a) Single bond (b) Double bond
(c) Copper nitrite (d) Copper nitride
(c*) Triple bond (d) Co-ordinate bond
126. Cone. HNO3 is heated with P2O5 to form:
117. Fixation of nitrogen means:
(a) N2O (b) NO (c) NO2 (*d) N2O5
(a) Reaction of nitrogen with oxygen
127. NH3 gas is dried over:
(*b) Conversion of free atmospheric nitrogen into nitrogen
compounds (a) Anhydrous CaCl2 (b) P2O5 (c*) Quick lime (d) Cone. H2SO4

(c) Decomposition of nitrogeneous compounds to yield free nitrogen 128. Phosphorus pentoxide cannot be used to dry:

(d) The action of denitrifying bacteria on nitrogen compounds [CBSE 1993]

118. Sequence of acidic character is: (a) Nitrogen (*b) Ammonia (c) Hydrogen sulphide (d) Sulphur
dioxide
(a) SO2 > CO2 > CO > N2O5
129. The hydrolysis of PCl3 produces:
(b) SO2 > N2O5 > CO > CO2
(a) H3PO3 +HClO (b*) H3PO3 + HCl (c) H3PO4 + HCl (d) PH3
(c) N2O5 > SO2 > CO > CO2 + HClO

(*d) N2O5 > SO2 > CO2 > CO 130. H3PO2 has the name and basicity respectively:

119. The anhydride of nitrous acid is: (a) Phosphorous acid and two

(a*) N2O3 (b) NO (b) Hypophosphorous acid and two

(c) N2O (d) N2O4 (c*) Hypophosphorous acid and one

120. Ammonia is: (d) Hypophosphoric acid and two

(a*) Polar solvent (b) Non-polar 131. The metal which forms amide on passing NH3 on it at 300°C
is: (a) Magnesium (b) Lead (c) Aluminium (*d) Sodium
(c) Paramagnetic (d) None of these
132. Which among the following gives nitrogen on heating?
121. The oxidation states of phosphorus vary from:
(a) NaNO2 (*b) AgNO2 (c) Ba(NO2)2 (d) NH4NO2
(a) -1 to +3 (b) -3 to +3
133. Phosphine is produced by adding water to:
(c*) -3 to +5 (d) -5 to +1
(a) CaCl2 (b) HPO3 (*c) Ca3P2
122. A certain element forms a solid oxide which when dissolved in
water forms an acidic solution. The element is: (a) Neon (d) P40IOGroup
(b) Sodium
134. Nitrogen gas is absorbed by: [BHU 1993] (a) Aluminium
(c*) Phosphorus (d) Sulphur carbide (*b) Calcium carbide (c) Ferrous sulphate (d)
Calcium hydroxide
123. Nitric acid (cone.) oxidizes phosphorus to:
135. NO2 cannot be obtained by heating: [PMT (MP) 1993] (*a)
(a*) H3PO4 (b) P2O3 KNO3 (b) Pb(NO3)2 (c)Cu(N03)2 (d)AgN03

(c) H3PO3 (d) H4P2O7 136. Fertilizer having the highest nitrogen percentage is: . (a)
Calcium cyanamide (b*) Urea
124. Ammonia is generally manufactured for fertilizers by the
reaction: (c) Ammonium nitrate (d) Ammonium sulphate

121
137. Which compound does not give NH3 on heating? (a) NH3 (b) N2H4 (c) N2H2 (*d) N3H

[Roorkee 1993] 149. To make nitrogen dioxide free from oxygen it is passed
through U-tube:
(a) (NH4)2S04 (b) (NH4)2C03 (c*) NH4N02 (d) NH4Cl
(a) Containing FeSO4 solution
138. Nitrogen can be purified from the impurities of oxides of
nitrogen and ammonia by passing through: (b) Containing NaOH solution

(a) Cone. HCl (b) Alkaline solution of pyrogallol (*c) Kept in freezing mixture

(c) A solution of K2Cr2O7 acidified with H2SO4 (d) Kept in boiling water

(d*) A solution of KOH (aq.) 150. Which acid is not formed by the action of water on phosphorus
pentoxide? (a) HP03 (b) H4P207 (c) H3P04 (*d) H3P03
139. NH3 has a much higher boiling point than PH3 because:
151. Red phosphorus is chemically unreactive because:
(a) NH3 has a higher molecular weight
(a) It does not contain P—P bonds
(b) NH3 undergoes umbrella inversion
(b) It does not contain tetrahedral P4 molecules
(c*) NH3 forms hydrogen bond
(c) It does not catch fire in air even upto 400°C
(d) NH3 contains ionic bonds whereas PH3 contains covalent bonds
(d*) It has a polymeric structure
140. Which of the following is not a drying and dehydrating agent?
152. When Zn reacts with very dilute nitric acid it produces?
(a) Silica gel (b) P2O5 (c) Cone. H2SO4 (*d) HydratedCaCl2
[PMT (MP) 1990]
141. NO and NO2 are:
(a) NO (*b) NH4NO3 (c) N02 (d) H2
(a) Even electron molecules
153. The percentage of nitrogen in air remains almost constant
(b*) Odd electron molecules due to:

(c) Diamagnetic (a) The fixation of nitrogen

(d) Paramagnetic (b) The activity of symbolic bacteria

142. Superphosphate of lime is obtained from the reaction of: (c) The effect of lightning and bacteria

(a) Calcium carbonate with phosphoric acid (d*) The nitrogen cycle in nature

(b) Calcium phosphate with hydrochloric acid 154. Phosphine is generally prepared in the laboratory:

(c*) Calcium phosphate with sulphuric acid [CPMT 1993]

(d) Bones with gypsum (a) By heating phosphorus in a current of hydrogen

143. H3P03 is: (*b) By heating white phosphorus with aqueous solution of caustic
potash
(a) A tribasic acid (*b) A dibasic acid (c) Neutral (d)
Basic (c) By decomposition of P2H4 at 110°C

144. When HNO3 reacts with metals, nitrogen dioxide is usually (d) By heating red phosphorus with an aqueous solution of caustic
evolved if the acid is: (a) Dilute (b) Very dilute (c) Moderately strong soda
(*d) Concentrated
155. Ammonium dichromate is used in some fireworks. The green
145. On heating ammonium dichromate, the gas evolved is: [CBSE coloured powder blown is: [IIT 1997]
1993; PMT (MP) 1993; IIT 1999] (a) Oxygen (b) Ammonia (c*)
Nitrogen (d) Nitric oxide (a) CrO3 (*b) Cr2O3 (c) Cr (d) CrO(O2)

146. Bacteria convert molecular nitrogen into: (a) NO3 (b) Amino 156. P2O5 when treated with cold water gives:
acids (c*) N02 (d) NH3
(a) Orthophosphoric acid (b*) Metaphosphoric acid (c)
147. The non-metallic element whose molecules contain maximum Pyrophosphoric acid (d) Hypophosphoric acid
number of its atoms is: (a) O (b) Si (c) As (d*)
P 157. Which acid possesses oxidizing, reducing and complex forming
properties?
148. An acidic hydride of nitrogen is:
(a) HNO3 (b) H2SO4 (c) HCl (*d) HNO2

122
158. White phosphorus is: 171. Phosphoric acid on reaction with sufficient quantity of NaOH
gives:
(a) Strong poison (b*) Mild poison
(*a) Na3PO4 (b) Na2HPO4 (c) NaH2PO4 (d) NaHPO3
(c) Non-poisonous (d) None of these
172. Which one of the following cations does not form a complex
159. PCl5 is prepared by the action of Cl2 on: with ammonia? (a) Ag+ (b) Cu2+

(a) P2O3 (b) P2O5 (c) H3PO3 (*d) PCl3 (c) Cd2+ (d*) Pb2+

160. Phosphorus when exposed to air burns spontaneously 173. Which pentafluorides cannot be formed? (a) PF5 (b) AsF5 (c)
because: SbF5 (d*) BiF5

(a) The reaction is endothermic 174. Which possesses least stable covalent P—H bond?

(b) The reaction is exothermic (a) PH3 (b) P2H6 (c) P2H5 (*d) PH;

(c*) The activation energy is very low 175. Paramagnetic oxide is:

(d) Air contains some catalytic agent (a*) NO (b) N2O4 (c) P406 (d) N205

161. Phosphine is not obtained by the reaction: 176. The oxide of nitrogen which reacts with NaOH solution giving
both sodium nitrate and sodium nitrite is:
(a) White P is heated with NaOH
(*a) NO2 (b) N2O5 (c) N2O3 (d) NO
(b*) Red P is heated with NaOH
177. The oxidizing property of nitric acid is due to:
(c) Ca3P2 reacts with water
(a) Its concentration
(d) Phosphorus trioxide is boiled with water
(b) The positive valency of N
162. Orthophosphoric acid on heating gives:
(c) Its dilution
(a) Phosphine (b) Phosphorus pentoxide (c) Phosphorus acid
(*d) Metaphosphoric acid (*d) The unstability of its molecule and the presence of nitrogen in
its highest state of oxidation
163. Mixture used on tips of matchsticks is:
178. Which chloride is explosive?
(a) S + K (b) Antimony sulphide
(a) PCI 3 (b) AsCl3 (c*) NCl3 (d) SbCl3
(c*) K2Cr2O7 + S + red P (d) K2Cr2O7 + K + S
179. N2O4 molecule is completely changed into 2NO2 molecules at:
164. Which element is most metallic?
(a) -10°C (*b) 140-150°C (c) 420°C (d) -40°C
(a) Phosphorus (b) Arsenic (c) Antimony (*d) Bismuth
180. The chemical formula for tartar emetic is:
165. Aqua-regia is a mixture of: [GET (Karnataka) 1991, 92] (*a)
3HCl + HNO3 (b) 3HNO3 + HCl

(c) H3PO4+H2SO4 (d) HCl + CH3COOH

166. Arsine is a:
d
(a) Solid (b) Liquid (c) Supersaturated liquid (*d) Gas
181. Which reacts rapidly with oxygen in the air at ordinary
167. P2O5 is used extensively as a: [BHU 1993] temperature?

(a*) Dehydrating agent (b) Catalytic agent (*a) White P (b) Red P (c) N2 (d) N2O

(c) Reducing agent (d) Preservative 182. Phosphine is not evolved when:

168. The non-existent compound is: (a) White phosphorus is boiled with a strong solution of Ba(OH)2
(b) Phosphorus acid is heated
(a) PH4I (b) AsH3 (c*) SbCl2 (d) As2O3
(c) Calcium hypophosphite is heated
169. In pyrophosphoric acid the number of hydroxy groups present
are: [GET (Karnataka) 1993] (*a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 5 (*d) Metaphosphoric acid is heated
(d) 7
183. The number of molecules of water needed to convert one
170. Concentrated nitric acid on heating decomposes to give: (a) O2 molecule of P2O5 into Orthophosphoric acid is:
andN2 (b) NO (c) O2 (*d)NO2andO2

123
(a) 2 (*b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5 (a) Cl- (*b) NO3- (c) SO42- (d) All

184. In nitroprusside ion, the iron and NO exist as Fe11 and NO+ 195. Select the correct statement: [CBSE 1992]
rather than Fem and NO. These forms can be differentiated by: [IIT
1998] (*a) Sodium metal is stored under kerosene

(a) Estimating the concentration of iron (b) One of the oxides of carbon is a basic oxide

(b) Measuring the concentration of CN- (c) Metals can form only basic oxides

(*c) Measuring the solid state magnetic moment
(d) Thermally decomposing the compound
185. Orthophosphoric acid has the formula:
(a) HPO3 (*b) H3PO4 (c)H3P03
186. Acidic nature of pentoxide in group 15 ..... down the group.
(b*) Decreases (d) None of these
(d) To prevent combination of white phosphorus with oxygen it is
kept in kerosene
196. The structure of white phosphorus is: [PMT (MP) 1992] (a)
Square planar (b) Pyramidal (c*) Tetrahedral (d)
Trigonal planar
(d) H4P206
197. The anhydride of Orthophosphoric acid is:
[AMU (Aligarh) 1992] (a*) P4010 (b) P205 (c) P406
(d) P203

(a) Increases (c) Remains same 198. The fertilizer named 'Nitrolim' is prepared by the use of:

187. Solid PCl5 exists as: (a)CaO + N2 (b) CaC + N2 (c) CaC2 + N (*d) CaC2 +N2

(a) PCl5 (c) PCl6- (b) PCl4+ (d*) PCl4 and PCl6-
188. P4O10 has short and long P—O bonds. The number of short P—
O bonds in this compound is:
[PMT (MP) 1992] (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (*d) 4
189. Which has the lowest boiling point? (a) NH3 (*b) PH3 (c) SbH3
(d) BiH3
199. Among the phosphatic fertilizers, superphosphate of lime is a
mixture of Ca(H2PO4)2 and: (a*) CaSO4.2H2O (b) CaSO4.H2O (c)
CaSO4-iH2O (d) CaSO4
200. HNO3 has the following properties:
(a) Oxidizing and bleaching *b) Acidic and oxidizing
(c) Basic and reducing (d) Reducing and bleaching

190. Nitrogen is a relatively inactive element because: 201. Nitrogen (I) oxide is produced by:

[CBSE 1992] (*a) Thermal decomposition of ammonium nitrate

(a) Its atom has a stable electronic configuration (b) Disproportionation of N2O4

(b) It has a low atomic radius (c) Thermal decomposition of ammonium nitrite

(c) Its electronegativity is fairly high (d) None of the above

(*d) Dissociation energy of its molecule is fairly high 202. The reagent used for testing ammonia is:

191. Which statement is not correct for nitrogen? [PMT (MP) 1991]

[CBSE 1990] (a) Bayer's reagent (*b) Nessler's reagent (c) Fenton's reagent
(d) Molisch reagent
(a) Its electronegativity is very high
203. Correct statement about white phosphorus is:
(*b) d-orbitals are available for bonding
[PMT (MP) 1991]
(c) It is a typical non-metal
(a) It ignites at 240°C (b) It is violet-red solid (c) It is not
(d) Its molecular size is small poisonous (*d) It ignites at 30°C

192. In P4O6 the number of oxygen atoms bonded to each P atom 204. Which of the following oxides will be the least acidic?
is: [PMT (MP) 1990] (a) 1.5 (b) 2 (*c) 3
(d) 4 [PMT (MP) 1990]

193. Red and yellow phosphorus are: (a) P406 (b) P4010 (*c) As4O<j (d) As4O10

(a)* Allotropes (b) Isobars (c) Isomers 205. Which cation gives a clear coloured solution with excess of
(d) Isotopes aqueous ammonia? (*a) Cu2+ (b) Fe3+ (c) Al3+ (d)
Mg2+
194. Which ion cannot be precipitated from water?
206. HNO3 is manufactured by:
124
(*a) Birkeland and Hyde's process electrons on nitrogen atom are:

(b) Haber's process (a) 2, 2 (b) 3, 1 (c) 1, 3 (*d) 4, 0

(c) Contact's process 217. Which is not poisonous?

(d) Fischer-Tropsch's process (*) NH3 (b) PH3 (c) AsH3 (d) SbH3

207. CN- ion and N2 are isoelectronic but in contrast to CN-, N2 is 218. Pure phosphine is not combustible while impure phosphine is
chemically inert because of: combustible, this combustibility is due to presence of:

(a) Low bond energy (a*) P2H4 (b) N2 (c) PH5 (d) P205

(b*) Absence of bond polarity 219. If 20% nitrogen is present in a compound, its minimum
molecular weight can be: (a) 144 (*b) 70 (c) 100
(c) Unsymmetrical electron distribution (d) 140

(d) Presence of more number of electrons in bonding orbitals 220. Which species has the largest dipole moment?

208. Liquid ammonia is used in refrigerators because: (a*) NH3 (b) PH3 (c) AsH3 (d) SbH3

(a) It has a high dipole moment 221. Atomicity of phosphorus is:

(b*) It has high heat of evaporation (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (*d) 4

(c) Of its basicity 222. Schweitzer's reagent is:

(d) Of its stability (a*) [Cu(NH3)4]S04 (c) Cu(NH3)2Cl

209. Among the following species, identify the isostructural pairs (b) [Ag(NH3)2]Cl (d) K4Fe(CN)6

NF3, NO3-,BF3,H3O+,HN3 223. Structure of ammonia is:

(a) [NF3,NO3-] and [BF3,H3O+] (a) Trigonal (b) Tetrahedral

(b) [NF3,HN3]and[NO3,BF3] (c*) Pyramidal (d) Trigonal bipyramidal

(c*)[NF3,H3O+]and[NO3-,BF3] 224. The largest bond angle exists in:

(d) [NF3, H3O+ ] and [HN3, BF3] (a) H2Se (*b) NH3 (c) H20 (d) H2S

210. Which would not give a precipitate with dilute AgNO3 solution? 225. The percentage of nitrogen in urea is about:

(a*) HNO3 (b) NaCl (c) Na2C03 (d) HCl (a) 70 (b) 63 (*c) 47 (d) 28

211. Glacial phosphoric acid is: 226. A white precipitate is obtained on hydrolysis of: (a) PCl5 (b)
NCl3 (*c) BiCl3 (d) AsCl3
(a) H3P04 (*b) HPO3 (c) H4P207 (d) H3PO2
227. Wrong statement about HNO3 is:
212. Which coagulates white of an egg?
(a) The proteins are converted into xanthoproteins
(a) Orthophosphoric acid (b*) Metaphosphoric acid (c)
Hypophosphoric acid (d) Pyrophosphoric acid (*b) HNO3 acts as a dehydrating agent

213. Fuming nitric acid is: (c) It exists in two canonical forms

(*a) Cone. HN03 + NO2 (b) Cone. HNO3 + NO3 (d) HNO3 acts as an oxidizing agent

(c) Cone. HNO3 + N2O3 (d) Cone. HNO3 + NO 228. White phosphorus reacts with caustic soda to give PH3 and
NaH2PO2. This reaction is an example of: (a) Oxidation (b) Reduction
214. Substance used in Holme's signal is: (c) Neutralisation (*d) Oxidation and reduction

(a) NH3 (*b) PH3 (c) PH5 (d) P2O5 229. The bonds present in N2O5 are:

215. Phosphine reacts with copper sulphate solution to form: (a) (a) Only ionic (b) Only covalent
Copper (*b) Copper phosphide
(*c) Covalent and co-ordinate (d) Covalent and ionic
(c) Copper phosphate (d) Copper phosphite
230. The gas obtained when urea reacts with nitrous acid is: (*a)
216. In NO3 ion, the number of bond pair and lone pair of N2 (b) NO (c) N2O (d) NO2

125
231. PH3 produces smoky rings when it comes in contact with air. (d) Potassium chromium sulphate
This is because:
241. Calcium phosphide is:
(a) It is inflammable
(a) Ca3P (b*) Ca3P2
(b) It combines with water vapours
(c) Ca2P3 (d) CaP2
(c) It combines with nitrogen
242. Pearl white is:
(d*) It contains impurity of P2H4
(*a) BiOCl (b) SbOCl
232. When phosphine is bubbled through solution of silver nitrate
..... is precipitated, (c) NOCl (d) AsOCl

(a) Silver (*b) Silver phosphide (c) Silver oxide (d) None 243. Ammonium salts are oxidized in the soil to nitrites by: (a)
Denitrifying bacteria (*b) Nitrifying bacteria
233. The brown yellow colour often shown by nitric acid can be
removed by: (c) Ammonifying bacteria (d) Nitrosifying bacteria

(*a) Bubbling air through the warm acid (b) Boiling the acid 244. Nitrogen was discovered by:

(c) Passing ammonia through acid (a) Cavendish (b) Lavoisier

(d) Adding a little Mg powder (c) Scheele (d*) Daniel Rutherford

234. Phosphate + cone. HNO3 +(NH4)2MoO4 solution  Yellow 245. Nitric acid oxidizes sulphur to:
precipitate.
(a) SO2 (b) SO3
The composition of yellow precipitate is:
(c) H2SO3 (d*) H2SO4
(a) (NH4)3PO4.MoO3 (*b) (NH4)3PO4-12MoO3
246. Nitrosyl chloride is:
(c) (NH4)2P04.12MoO3 (d) NH4PO4.MoO3
(*a) NOCl (b) NOCl2
235. Orthophosphoric acid is ionized in ..... steps,
(c) NO2Cl2 (d) N2OCl2
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c*) 3 (d) 4
247. Antimony dissolves in aqua-regia to give:
236. Concentrated nitric acid reacts with iodine to give:
(a) SbCl3 (b) Sb2O5
(a) HI (b) HOI
(*c) SbCl5 (d) Sb(NO3)3
(c*) HOIO2 (d) HOIO3
248. The bonds present in pernitric acid are:
237. Rain water sometimes Contains NH4NO3 because lightning in
file sky causes the air to react and produce oxide of nitrogen and; (a) Ionic bonds

(a) H2 (*b) NH3 (b) Covalent bonds

(c) CO2 (d) Noble gases (c) Semipolar bonds or dative bonds

238. Which of the following gives M3- ion most readily? (d*) Co-ordinate and covalent bonds

(a) P (*b) N 249. White phosphorus may be separated from red

phosphorus by:
(c) Sn (d) As
(a) Sublimation (b) Distillation
239. Which sulphide is used in the manufacture of "strike
anywhere" matches? (c*) Dissolving in CS2 (d) None of these

(a) P2S5 (b) P2S3 250. A cold, green flame can be made by passing CO2 over warm:

(c*) Sb2S3 (d) None (a) Bronze (*b) White P

240. Graham's salt is: (c) Grey Sn (d) Green candles

(a) Sodium alumino silicate 251. Phosphide ion has the electronic structure similar to that of:

(*b) Sodium hexameta phosphate (a) Nitride ion (*b) Chloride ion

(c) Ferrous ammonium sulphate (c) Fluoride ion (d) Sodium ion

126
252. Thomas slag is: (a) NH3 is a Lewis base

(a*) Ca3 (PO4 )2 (b) CaCHNH2 (b*) NH3 molecule is triangular planar

(c) CaSiO3 (d) FeSiO3 (c) NH3 does not act as reducing agent

253. Calcium cyanamide on treatment with steam under pressure (d) NH3 (liquid) is used as a solvent
gives NH3 and:
264. When heated to 800°C, N2O gives:
(*a) CaCO3 (b) Ca(OH)2
(a) NO + O2 (b) NO2 + O2
(c) CaO (d) CaHCO3
(c*) N2 + O2 (d) None
254. When cone. H2SO4 is added to dry KNO3, brown fumes are
evolved. These fumes are of: 265. The number of sigma bonds in P4O10 is:

(a) SO2 (b) SO3 (a) 6 (*b) 16

(c) N2O (*d) NO2 (c) 20 (d) 7

255. Oxidation of metals by HNO3 does not depend on: 266. In.the atmosphere N2 is present as element with O2 because:

(a) Nature of metal (b) Cone, of HNO3 (a) N2 is more reactive

(c) Temperature (d*) Catalyst (*b) N2 is inert

256. Colloidal sulphur is obtained by the action of HNO3 on: (*a) (c) N2 does not react with O2
H2S (b) HgS
(d) N2 is actively participating in the reaction
(c) CaS2 (d) CaS2O3
267. Nitrous acid reacts with H2SO4 to give:
257. When cone. H2SO4 is distilled with P4O10, the product formed
is? (*a) NO2 + SO2 (b) NO + SO2

(a) SO2 (b) S2O4 (c) NO + SO3 (d) None of these

(*c) SO3 (d) S2O3 268. Claude process is used in the manufacture of:

258. Phosphorus in +1 oxidation state is found in: (*a) N2 (b) NH3

(a) H3PO3 (b) H3PO4 (c) N2O (d) NO2

(*c) H3PO2 (d) H4P2O7 269. Aqua fortis is:

259. Which of the following gives M3+ ion most readily? (*a) HNO3 (b) HNO2

(a) P (b) N (c) H2NO2 (d) H2N2O2

(c) Sn (*d) Bi 270. Molecule with a three electron bond is:

260. Oxide of nitrogen used as catalyst in lead chamber process for (a) Cl2 (b*) NO
the manufacture of H2SO4 is:
(c) H2O (d) Cl2O
(a*) NO (b) N2O
271. Nitric oxide is prepared by the action of cold dil. HNO3 on:
(c) N2O3 (d) N2O5
(a) Fe (b*) Cu
261. Antimony burns in chlorine to form:
(c) Sn (d) Zn
(a*) SbCl3 (b) SbCl2
272. Nitric oxide is:
(c) SbOCl2 (d) SbCl5
(a) Acidic towards litmus (b) Basic towards litmus
262. Which forms strong p —p bonds?
(*c) Neutral towards litmus (d) Amphoteric
(a*) N (b) As
273. In H3PO3:
(c) P (d) Bi
(a) Each hydrogen atom is attached to oxygen
263. Which statement is false?
(b*) Two hydrogen atoms are attached to oxygen atoms

127
(c) One atom of H is attached to oxygen 281. In Birkeland and Eyde process, the temperature of the electric
arc is about:
(d) None of the above
(a) 1500°C (b) 4000°C
274. The correct order of bond angles and stability of hydrides
given below is: (c*) 3000°C (d) 2000°C

(*a) NH3 > PH3 > AsH3 > SbH3 282. PH4I + NaOH forms:

(b) NH3 > AsH3 > PH3 > SbH3 (a*) PH3 (b) NH3

(c) SbH3 > AsH3 >PH3 >NH3 (c) P4O6 (d) P4O10

(d) PH3 > NH3 > AsH3 > SbH3 283. Monoatomic element in V A group is:

275. The general formula of hypophosphorous acid is: (a*) Bismuth (b) Phosphorus

(c) Antimony (d) None of these

284. The number of electrons present in the valency shell of P in

PCl3 is:
A

(a) 12 (b) 10

(c*) 8 (d) 18

285. Which form of P shows cheiniluminescence?

276. HNO3 oxidises:
(a*) White P (b) Black P
(a) H2O2 (b) H2S
(c) Red P (d) None
(c) SO2 (*d) All
286. Which form of phosphorus is most stable?
277. In nitrogen family the H—M—H bond angle in the hydrides
MH3 gradually becomes closer to 90°C on going from N to Sb. This (a*) Red P (b) White P
shows that gradually:
(c) Black P (d) All are stable
(a) The basic strength of the hydrides increases
287. Hyponitrous acid is:
(b) Almost pure p-orbitals are used for M—H bonding
(a) HNO2 (b) HNO4
(c) The bond energies of M—H bond increase
(*c) H2N2O2 (d) CaN2
(d*) The bond pairs of electrons become further apart from the
central atom 288. Least malleable and ductile metal is:

278. The acid which forms two series of salts: (a) Au (b) Ag

(a) H3PO4 (*b) H3PO3 (c) Ni (*d) Bi

(c) H3BO3 (d) H3PO2 Heat

289. HPO3 + H2O 
 ? The product is:
279. Some of the reasons of reacting NH3 with hydrogen chloride
are given below. The incorrect is: (a) H4P2O7 (b) H3PO3

(*a) The nitrogen atom of NH3 gains electrons (*c) H3PO4 (d) P2O5

(b) NH3 can give a pair of electrons 290. The strongest acidic oxide is:

(c) A proton in HCl can accept an electron pair from NH3 (a) SO2 (*b) SO3

(d) The Cl- ion formed has a stable configuration (c) P2O5 (d) Sb2O3

280. In PO43- ion, the formal charge on each oxygen atom and P—O 291. PCl5 does not react with:
bond order respectively are:
(a) CH3COOH (*b) C2H5NH2
(*a) -0.75, 1.25 (b) -3, 1.25
(c) C6H5OH (d) H2SO4
(c) -0.75, 1.0 (d) -0.75, 0.6
292. Which of the following is a metalloid?

(a) N (b) Bi
128
(c*) As (d) P (c) P2O3 (d) N2O3

293. Oxide of nitrogen which is soluble in alcohol is: 304. Fluorapatite is a mineral of:

(a) NO2 (*b) N2O (a) F2 (b) Br2

(c) N2O3 (d) NO (c*) P (d) As

294. NH3 is an example of: 305. Which of the following is correct, with reference to protonic
acids?
(a*) Molecular hydride (b) Polymeric hydride
(a) PH3 is more basic than NH3
(c) Metallic hydride (d) Interstitial hydride
(*) PH3 is less basic than NH3
295. The metallic form of phosphorus is:
(c) PH3 is as basic as NH3
(a) White P (b) Red P
(d) PH3 is amphoteric while NH3 is basic
(c) -black P (*d) -black P
306. What would happen when a solution of potassium chromate is
296. Nitrogen is an essential constituent of all: treated with an excess of dil nitric acid?

(a*) Proteins (b) Fats (a) CrO42- is reduced to +3 state of Cr

(c) Proteins and fats (d) None of these (b) CrO42- is oxidised to +7 state of Cr

297. By warming a paste of bleaching powder with a solution of (c) CrO3+ and Cr2O72- are formed
ammonia we get:
(d*) Cr2O72- and H2O are formed
(a) H2 (b*) N2
307. In nitrogen family, the H—M—H bond angle in the hydrides
(c) N2O3 (d) N2O4 gradually becomes closer to 90° on going from N to Sb. This shows
that gradually:
298. Reactivity of NO is due to:
(a) The basic strength of the hydrides increases
(a) Its low molecular weight
(b) Almost pure p-orbitals are used for M—H bonding
(b) Its gaseous state
(c) The bond energies of M—H bonds increase
(c*) Odd electron
(*d) The bond pair-lone pair of electrons show lesser repulsion due
(d) None of the above to decreasing electronegativity trend

299. The catalyst used in the preparation of red P from yellow P is: 308. NaOH can absorb:

(a*) I2 (b) Ni (*a) N2O5 (b) NO

(c) ZnO (d) Fe (c) N2O (d) All

300. Elements of group 15 showing allotropic forms are: 309. Which sulphide is insoluble in yellow ammonium sulphide?

(a) N, Sb, Bi (b*) N, P, As, Sb (a) SnS (b) As2S3

(c) As, Sb, Bi (d) P, As, Bi (c) Sb2S3 (d*) Bi2S3

301. Dilute HNO3 reacts with limestone to yield: 310. Which statement is not correct?

(a) Ca(OH)2 .Ca(NO3)2 (b*) CaO.Ca(NO3)2 (a*) White and red phosphorus react with chlorine at room
temperature
(c) 2CaO . Ca(NO3) 2 (d) None of these
(b) White phosphorus is metastable, while red phosphorus is
302. CaN pellets are coated with calcium silicate because: stable

(a) CaN is explosive (*b) CaN is hygroscopic (c) White phosphorus is lighter than red phosphorus

(c) CaN is water-soluble
303. Basic oxide is:
(*a) Bi2O3
(d) None of these (d) White phosphorus is highly poisonous, while red phosphorus is
not
311. Hydrolysis of PI3 yields:
(b) As2O3
(a) Monobasic acid and a salt

129
(*b) Monobasic acid and dibasic acid 320. Ammonia water is a good cleaning agent because it:

(c) Dibasic acid and tribasic acid (a) Is weakly basic

(d) Monobasic acid and tribasic acid (b) Emulsifies grease

312. Calcium phosphide is used in smoke screens because it: (c) Leaves no residue when wiped out

(a) Bums to form soot (*d) All are true

(b*) Gives PH3 which forms smoke 321. Which is correct statement?

(c) Immediately catches fire in air (a) Nitric oxide is isoelectronic with CO2

(d) Is a gas which brings tears in eyes (b) Nitric oxide is diamagnetic

313. The oxidation states of nitrogen in NH4NO3 are: (c*) Nitric oxide is an endothermic compound

(a*) -3, + 5 (b) + 3, -5 (d) Nitric oxide gas is used as general anaesthetic

(c) + 5 (d) + 3 322. The number of -bonds present in NCl3 is:

314. The N—H bond in NH3 is: (a) 1 (b) 2

(a*) Covalent (b) Ionic (c) 3 (*d) None

(c) Dative (d) Hydrogen 323. Substance used to remove nitrogen from air is:

315. Oxidation of ammonia by CuO yields: (a) P (b*) Mg

(a*) N2 (b) N2O5 (c) CaCl2 (d) Cone. H2SO4

(c) NO (d) NO2 324. In PCl5, phosphorus undergoes:

316. Which of the following statements is not true? (a) sp2 -hybridisation (b) sp3 -hybridisation

(a) NO2 can be prepared by heating Pb(NO3)2 (c*) sp3 d-hybridisation (d) sp3 d2 -hybridisation

(b) NO2 is red-brown gas 325. Pure N2 can be obtained by:

(c*) NO2 is paramagnetic (a) Heating barium azide (b) NH3 and CuO

(d) NO2 readily dimerises to N2O4 (*c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these

317. Which reaction can be used to prepare phosphoric acid? 326. Liquor ammonia is:

(a) Ammonium hydroxide

(b) Liquefied ammonia gas

D
(c*) Concentrated solution of NH3 in water
318. BCl3 is a planar molecule whereas NCl3 is pyramidal because:
(d) A solution of NH3 in alcohol
(a*) BCl3 has no lone pair of electrons but NCl3 has a lone pair of
electrons 327. Which element reacts with chlorine to give
pentachloride?
(b) B—Cl bond is more polar than N—Cl bond
(a) P (b) As
(c) Nitrogen atom is smaller than boron atom
(c) Sb (d*) All
(d) N—Cl bond is more covalent than B—Cl bond
328. NCl3 on hydrolysis yields:
319. Red P is used in making:
(a) N2 and NOCl (b) NO and HCl
(a) Air freshners
(c*) NH3 and HOCl (d) N2O and NH3
(b) Red plastics
329. Which element does not form stable diatomic
(c) Red dyes for plastics molecules?

(*d) Safety match-striking surface (a) Iodine (*b) Phosphorus (c) Nitrogen (d) Oxygen

130
330. Which reagent can separate nitric oxide from nitro oxide? (c) 3Ca3(PO4)2CaF2 (d) 3Ca3(PO4)2.CaCl2

(a) Sodium nitroprusside solution (*b) FeSO4 solution 343. The gas used in the manufacture of ice-cream is:

(c) Nessler's reagent (d) Ammonical silver nitrate solution (*a)CO2 (b) N2O (c) NO (d) N2O3

331. Each of the following is true about white and i phosphorus 344. Phosphine is not collected in air because:
except that they:
(a) It is poisonous (b) It absorbs moisture
(*) Are both soluble in CS2
(c*) It catches fire spontaneously in air (d) It is combustible
(b) Can be oxidised by heating in air
345. The total number of unpaired electrons present in phosphorus
(c) Consist of same kind of atoms in ground state is: (*a) 8 (*b) 3 (c) 5 (d) 9

(d) Can be converted into one another 346. Phosphine is:

332. The gas which is supporter of combustion is: (a*) Basic (b) Acidic (c) Amphoteric (d) Neutral

(a) NH3 (*b) N2O (c)N02 (d)N205 347. Ammonium chloride is removed from its mixture by: (a)
Filtration (b) Distillation (*c) Sublimation (d) A magnet
333. The oxide which is solid at room temperature is: (a) N2O (b)
NO (c) N204 (d*) N205 348. Heat of vaporisation of NH3 is high due to: (a) Its basic nature
(b) Its polar nature (*c) Hydrogen bonding (d) Solubility in
334. Bones glow in dark. This is due to: water

(a) The presence of red phosphorus 349. The arrangement of oxygen atoms around phosphorus atoms
in P4O10 is: (a) Pyramidal (c) Square planar(b) Octahedral (*d)
(b) Conversion of white P into red P Tetrahedral

(*c) Slow combustion of white P in contact with air 350. Which is not an acid salt?

(d) Conversion of red P into white P (a) NaH2PO3 (c) Na3HP2O6 (b) NaH2PO4 (*d) Na4P2O7

335. When ammonia is dissolved in water: 351. Phosphorus compound used as drying agent and
desiccating agent is:
(a) It loses a proton (b) It loses an electron
(a) PCl3 (b) PCl5(*c) P4O10 (d) P4O6
(c*) It gains a proton from water molecule
352. The gas which does not show oxidizing and bleaching
(d) It gains an electron from water molecule properties is:

336. A compound which leaves behind no residue on heating (a) Chlorine (b) Ozone (c) Sulphur dioxide (d*) Nitrous oxide

(a) Cu(NO3)2 (b) KNO3 (*c) NH4NO3 (d) None 353. The strongest acid is:

337. Which one of the following formulae does not represent a salt (a) H3PO2 (b) H3PO3 (*c) H4P2O7 (d) H3PO4
derived from phosphorous acid, H3PO3?
354. The acid used in soft drinks is:
(a) NaH2PO3 (b) Na2HPO3 (*c) Na3PO3 (d) None
(b) H3P03 (d) H3P04 (a) H3P04 (c) HP03
338. The strongest oxidizing agent is:
355. Nitre cake is: (a*) NaHS04 (c) NaNO2(b) NaNO2 (d) Na2So4
(a) H3PO4 (b*) HNO3 (c) H3PO3 (d) HNO2
356. Amphoteric oxide is:
339. The colourless gas liberated by passing excess < chlorine
through NH3 gas is: (a) NCl3 (*b) HCl (c) N2 (d) H2 (a*) Sb4O6 (c) Bi2o3 (b) N205 (d) Na2O

340. Good conductor of electricity is: 357. The P—P—P bond angle in white phosphorus is:

(a) Yellow P (b) Red P (c) Violet P (*d) Black P (a) 120° (b) 90° *c) 60° (d) 109°28'

341. Sulphuric acid reacts with PCl5 to yield: 358. Which acid has P—P linkage?

(a) Thionyl chloride (*b) Sulphuryl chloride (*a) Hypophosphoric acid (b) Pyrophosphoric acid

(c) Phosphoric acid (d) Sulphur monochloride (c) Metaphosphoric acid (d) Orthophosphoric acid

342. Phosphate mineral of phosphorus is: 359. Nitric acid is used in the manufacture of:

(a) Fe3(PQ4)2H2O (*b) Ca3(PO4)2 (a) TNT (b) Picric acid (c) NH4NO3 (d*) All of these

131
360. PCl5 is kept in well stoppered Bottle because: (b) H3PO3 is dibasic and non-reducing agent

(a) It is highly volatile (b) It reacts with oxygen (c) H3PO4 is tribasic and reducing agent

(*c) It reacts readily with moisture (d) It is explosive (d) H3PO3 is tribasic and non-reducing agent

361. There is very little difference in acid strength in the acids 372. The oxidation state of N is highest in:
H3PO4, H3PO3 and H3PO2 because:
(*a) N3H (c) N2H (b)NH3 (d) NH2OH
(a) Phosphorus in these acids exists in different oxidation states
373. Pure nitrogen can be prepared from:
(b/) The hydrogen in these acids are not all bound to the
phosphorus and have same number of unprotonated oxygen (a) NH4OH (b) Ca3N2 (c*) NH4N02 (d) Ba(N02)2

(c) Phosphorus is highly electronegative element 374. Which of the following may result in it PCl5 shows Lewis acid
nature?
(d) Phosphorus oxides are less basic
(a) PCl3 (b) [PCl4+] (*c) [PCl6]- (d) [PCl5]-
362. Phosphoric acid is syrupy liquid due to:
375. The M — Cl bond energies are different in:
(a) Strong covalent bond (b) van der Waals' forces
(a*) PCl5 (b) PCl3 (c) CCl4 (d) NCl3
(*c) Hydrogen bonding (d) None of these
VI A GROUP ELEMENTS
363. The correct order for decreasing acidic strength of oxoacids of
gp 15 is: 1. Oxygen molecule is:

(a) HNO3 > H3SbO4 > H3AsO4 > H3PO4 *(a) Paramagnetic (b) Diamagnetic

(b) H3PO4 > H3 AsO4 > H3SbO4 > HNO3 (c) Ferromagnetic (d) Ferrimagnetic

(c*) HNO3 > H3PO4 > H3AsO4 > H3SbO4 2. Which of the following oxides are acidic? (a) Mn2O7 (b) CrO3 (*c)
Both (a) and (b) (d) None
(d) HNO3 > H3AsO4 > H3PO4 > H3SbO4
3. Which metal loses its meniscus after reaction with ozone?
364. The smell of nitrogen dioxide is:
(a) Ag (b*) Hg (c) Pb (d) Cu
(a) Pleasant (*b) Pungent (c) Not known (d) All are wrong
4. Which statement is false for ozone?
365. Which of the following elements is good conductor of
electricity? (a) It is obtained by silent electric discharge on oxygen

(a) As (b) Sb (c*) Bi (d) All (b) It is an endothermic compound

366. Non-polar molecule is: (c) It can be obtained by the action of ultraviolet rays on oxygen

(a*) BCl3 (b) H2O (c) NCl3 (d) PCl3 (*d) It cannot be regarded as an allotrope of oxygen

367. Ammonium compound not used as a fertilizer is: 5. Ozone reacts with dry iodine to give: (a) IO2 (b) I2O3 (c) I2O4
(d*) I4O9
(a) (NH4)2SO4 (*b) (NH4)2C03
6. Which does not liberate O2 on heating?
(c) NH4NO3 (d) CAN (calcium ammonium nitrate)
(*a) MgO (b) NaN03 (c) Pb304 (d) KCl03
368. Blasting of TNT is done by mixing it with:
7. Which bums to form an oxide which is gas at room temperature?
(a) NH4Cl (*b) NH4NO3 (c) NH4N02 (d) (NH4)2S04
(a) Hydrogen (b) Phosphorus (c) Sodium (d*) Sulphur
369. Sal volatile is:
8. Ozone turns benzidine paper:
(a) NH4Cl (b) (NH4)2SO4 (*c) (NH4)2CO3 (d) NH4NO3
(a) Violet (b) Brown (*c) Blue (d) Red
370. Which set of elements has the strong tendency to form
anions? 9. Sulphur does not combine with which of the following halogens to
form a compound?
(a*) N,O,F (b) P, S, Cl (c) As, Se, Br (d) Sb, Te, I
(a) Cl2 (b) Br2 (*c) I2 (d) F2
371. For H3PO3 and H3PO4 the correct choice is :[IIT2003]
10. The number of S—S bonds in sulphur trioxide trimer (S3O9)is:
(a*) H3PO3 is dibasic and reducing agent
(a) Three (b) Two (c) One (*d) Zero

132
11. When SO2 gas is passed through an acidified solution of 23. In the contact process of H2SO4,SO3 dissolves in sulphuric acid
K2Cr2O7: to give:

(a) The solution becomes blue (a) Permonosulphuric acid (b) Thiosulphuric acid

(b) The solution becomes colourless (c*) Pyrosulphuric acid (d) Perdisulphuric acid

(c) SO2 is reduced (*d) Green Cr2(SO4)3 is formed 24. Which statement is correct?

12. The least stable oxide at room temperature: (a) Ozone is a resonance hybrid of oxygen

(a) CuO (*b) Ag20 (c) ZnO (d) Sb2O3 (*b) Ozone is an allotropic modification of oxygen

13. Which metal forms an amphoteric oxide? (c) Ozone is an isomer of oxygen

(a) Cr (b) Fe (c) Cu *(d) Zn (d) Ozone has no relationship with oxygen

14. Which oxide is more acidic? 25. A considerable part of the harmful ultraviolet radiatior of the sun
does not reach the surface of the earth. This is because high above
(*a) A12O3 (b) Na2O (c) MgO (d) CaO the earth's atmosphere there is i layer of

15. Oxygen gas can be prepared from solid KMnO4 by: (a) Carbon dioxide (b) Hydrogen

(a) Dissolving the solid in dil. HCl (c*) Ozone (d) Ammonia

(b) Dissolving the solid in dil. H2SO4 26. The blue coloured gas is:

(c) Treating the solid with H2 gas (a) F2 (*b) O3 (c) NO (d) Cl2

(*d) Strongly heating the solid 27. Poison for platinum, a catalyst in contact process of H2S04 is:

16. Starch paper moistened with KI solution turns blue in ozone (a) S (b) P (c*) As (d) C
because of:
28. The crystals of ferrous sulphate on heating give:
(a*) Iodine liberation
(a) FeO + SO2+H2O (b) Fe2O3+H2SO4+H2O
(b) Oxygen liberation
(*c) Fe203 +SO2 +H2SO4 + H2O (d) FeO+SO3+H2SO4+H2O
(c) Alkali formation
29. The percentage of ozone in ozonized oxygen is about: (a) 10%
(d) Ozone reacts with litmus paper (b) 40% (c) 80% (d) 100%

17. Which member of group 16 has the highest catenation ability? 30. Sulphate ion has ..... geometry.

(a) Oxygen (b*) Sulphur (c) Selenium (d) Tellurium (a) Trigonal . (b) Square planar (*c) Tetrahedral
(d) None of these
18. Which element forms the oxide of highest valency?
31. Ozone molecule has ..... geometry.
(a)V (b)Cr (c*) Mn (d) Fe
(a) Linear (b*) Triangular (c) Tetrahedral (d) None of
19. The acid used in lead storage battery is: these

(a) Nitric acid (*b) Sulphuric acid (c) Hydrochloric acid (d) 32. The chamber acid contains ..... H2SO4. (a) 10.20% (b) 35.45%
Phosphoric acid (c*) 67.80% (d) 82.90%

20. Which would quickly absorb oxygen? 33. In sulphate ion the oxidation state of sulphur is +6 and the
hybridization state of sulphur is: (a) sp2 (*b) sp3 (c) d2sp3
(*a) Alkaline solution of pyrogallic acid (d) sp3d2

(b) Concentrated sulphuric acid 34. Oxygen is gas but sulphur is solid because:

(c) Lime water (d) Alkaline solution of copper sulphate (*a) Oxygen is composed of discrete molecules while sulphur is
polymeric
21. O2 is denser than air and therefore it is collected in: (a) Spirit
(*b) H2O (c) Mercury (d) Kerosene (b) Molecular weight of sulphur is much higher than that of oxygen

22. FeCl3 solution on reaction with SO2 changes to: (c) Oxygen is a stronger oxidizing agent than sulphur

(*a) FeCl2 (b) Fe2(S04)3 (c) Fe2(S03)3 (d) FeS04 (d) Boiling point of sulphur is much higher than that of oxygen

133
35. On passing H2S through acidified FeCl3 solution, FeCl3 is (b) NH3<H2S<SiH4<BF3
converted into: [Roorkee 1991]
*(c) H2S < NH3 < SiH4 < BF3
(a*) FeCl2 (b) Fe2(SO4)3 (c) FeS (d) FeSO4
(d) H2S < SiH4 < NH3 < BF3
36. Oleum or fuming H2SO4 is:
50. When oxygen is passed through a solution of Na2SO3 we get:
(a) A mixture of cone. H2SO4 and oil
(*a) Na2SO4 (b) Na2S (c) NaHSO4 (d) NaH
(b) Sulphuric acid which gives fumes of sulphur dioxide
51. Most abundant element in earth crust is: (*a) O (b) Se (c) S
(*c) Sulphuric acid saturated with sulphur trioxide,/.a, H2S2O7 (d) Te

(d) A mixture of sulphuric acid and nitric acid 52. SO2 oxidises:

37. In the reaction H2S + O3 …., the products are: (a*) Mg (b) K2Cr207 (c) KMnO4 (d) All of these

(*a) H2O, SO2 (b) H2SO4+O2 53. Bleaching action of SO2 is due to:

(c) H2O + S (d) SO2+H2 (a) Oxidation (*b) Reduction

38. SF4 has ..... geometry (c) Hydrolysis (d) Its acidic nature

(a) Octahedral (*b)-See-saw 54. SO2 reduces:

(c) Square planar (d) Tetrahedral (a) Mg (b) H2S (c*) KMnO4 (d) AII

39. Which hydride has the lowest boiling point? 55. Sulphur molecule exists as: [AFMC 1993] (a) S2
(b) S4 (c) S6 (*d) S8
(a) H2O (*b) H2S (c) H2Se (d) H2Te
56. The bond angle in H2S is:
40. In the reaction CaS + H2S ..., the products are: (a)CaS2+H2
(b) CaS3+H2 (*c) CaS5+H2 (d) Ca + S (a) 109°28' (b) 104°51' (c) 120° (*d) 92.5°

41. Hybridization in SF6 is: 57. Which sulphides are not precipitated in acid or alkaline medium?

(a) sp3d3 (b*) sp3d2 (c) d2sp3 (d) sp3d (a) K (b) Ca (c) Al (d*) All

42. A salt X gives white precipitates with lead acetate solution,
insolnble in hot water and nitric acid. The salt X most probably
contains: (a) Cl- (b) Ba2+ (*c) SO42- (d) CO32-
43. Elements O, S, Se and Te are usually known as:
58. Concentrated sulphuric acid does not act as: *(a) Efflorescent
(b) Hygroscopic (c) Oxidizing agent (d) Sulphonating agent
59. Ozone is manufactured by carrying silent electric discharge
using:

(a) Metals (b) Rare earth metals (c) Coinage metals (d*) (a) Siemens ozonizer
Chalcogens
(b) Brodie's ozonizer
44. The VIA group or group 16 elements are characterised by the
electronic configuration: (*a) ns2np4 (b) ns1np1 (c) ns1np3 (*c) Siemens and Halske's ozonizer
(d) ns2nps
(d) All of the above
45. Oxygen was discovered by :
60. Which characteristic is not correct about H2SO4? (*a) Reducing
(*a) Priestley (b) Boyle (c) Scheele (d) Cavendish agent (b) Oxidizing agent (c) Sulphonating agent (d) Highly
viscous
46. ..... liberates oxygen from water.
61. Which one can be used to test for H2S gas?
(a) P (b) Na (c*) F2 (d) I2
(a) A smell of rotten egg
47. Sulphurous acid can be used as:
(b) A violet colouration with sodium nitroprusside
(a) Oxidizing agent (b) Reducing agent (c) Bleaching agent
(d*) All of these (c) Turning lead acetate paper black

48. Which element shows polymorphism? [PMT (MP) 1985] (a) O (*d) All of the above
(b) S (c) Se (d*) All
62. H2SO4 is added while preparing a standard solution of Mohr's
49. The correct order of bond angles in H2S, NH3, BF3 and SiH4 is: salt to prevent: (a) Hydration (b) Reduction (*c) Hydrolysis
[AIEEE 2004] (d) Complex formation

(a) H2S < NH3 < BF3 < SiH4 63. In which process sulphur is not used?

134
(a) Protection of grape wines (c) NaCl + H2SO4  NaHSO4 +HCl

(b) Manufacture of H2SO4 (*d) 2HI + H2SO4  I2 + SO2 +2H2O

(c*) Manufacture of black shoe polish 75. In the upper layers of the atmosphere ozone is formed by the:

(d) Vulcanisation of rubber (a) Combination of oxygen molecules

64. King of chemicals is: (b) Action of electric discharge on oxygen molecules

(a) HNO3 (b*) H2SO4 (c) HCl (d) None of these (*c) Action of ultraviolet rays on oxygen

65. Low volatile nature of H2SO4 is due to: (d) None of the above

(*a) Hydrogen bonding (b) van der Waals' forces (c) Strong 76. When PCl5 reacts with sulphuric acid, sulphuryl chloride (SO2Cl2)
bonds (d) None of these is formed as the final product. This shows that sulphuric acid:

66. Oil of vitriol is: (a) Is a dibasic acid

(*a) H2S04 (b) H2S03 (c) H2S207 (d) H2S2O8 (b) Has great affinity for water

67. Approximately what percentage of air by volume gets used in a (c*) Has two hydroxyl groups in its structure
process of combustion? (*a) 20% (b) 10% (c) 35%
(d) 55% (d) Is a derivative of sulphur dioxide

68. In the preparation of O2 from KClO3, MnO2 acts as: (a) Activator 77. When SO2 is passed through acidified solution of H2S: (a) H2SO3
(*b) Catalyst is formed (b) H2SO4 is formed *(c) Sulphur sol is formed (d)
H2SO5 is formed
(c) Oxidizing agent (d) Dehydrating agent
78. Dry bleaching is dons by:
69. Acetic acid is added while preparing a standard solution of
CuSO4 -5H2O to prevent: (a) Cl2 (b) SO2 (*c) O3 (d) H2O2

(a) Hydration (*c) Hydrolysis (b) Reduction 79. Conc. H2SO4 displaces HCl from sodium chloride

(d) Complex formation (a*) Cone. H2SO4 is stronger man HCl

70. SO2 can be used as: (b) HCl is a gas whereas H2SO4 is a liquid

(a) Bleaching agent (c) Antichlor (c) 'Sulphates are more soluble in water than chlorides

(b) Disinfectant (d*) All of these (d) Sulphates are less soluble in water than chlorides

71. Among H2O, H2S, H2Se and H2Te, the one with highest boiling 80. The reaction,
point is: [IIT 2000
2SO2 +O2 +2H2O  2H2SO4 is an example of:
(*a) H2O because of H-bonding
(*a) Synthesis of H2SO4 (b) Analysis of H2SO4
(b) H2Te because of high mcl. wt.
(c) Displacement reaction (d) Double decomposition
(c) H2S because of H-bonding
81. Which is most basic of the following oxides?
(d) H2Se because of low mol. wt.
(a*) Na2O (b) BaO (c) As2O3 (d) Al2O3
72. The most stable allotropic form of sulphur is:
82. Paramagnetic molecule is:
(a*) Rhombic sulphur (b) Monoclinic sulphur
(a*) Oxygen (b) Nitrogen
(c) Plastic sulphur (d) Flowers of sulphur
(c) Hydrogen (d) Chlorine
73. [X] + H2SO4  [Y] a colourless gas with irritating smell. [Y] +
K2Cr2O7 + H2SO4  Green solution 83. Acidified iodates are reduced to ... by SO2. (a) lodites (b) Iodide
(*c) Iodine (d) None
[X] and [Y] are:
84. Sulphurous anhydride is:
(*a) SO32-,SO2 (b) Cl-,HCl (c) S2-,H2S (d) CO32-,CO2
*(a) S02 (c) HSOJ
74. Which reaction represents the oxidizing behaviour of H2SO4?
(b)S03
(a) 2PCl5+H2SO4- (b) 2NaOH + H2SO4
(d) so?-

135
85. Which gives carbon with cone. H2SO4? (b) Formation of ions

(a) Formic acid (b) Ethyl alcohol (c) Number of electrons in the outermost orbit

(c) Oxalic acid (d*) Starch (*d) Nature of hydrides

86. In the reaction K + SO2  …, the products are: 93. Peroxy compound is: [IIT 2004) (*a) H2S208 (b)
H2S4Og (c) H2S206 (d) H2S203
(a) KO2 + S *(b) K2SO3 + K2S2O3
94. Which oxide reacts with both HCl and NaOH?
(c) K2SO4 (d) None of these
(*a) CO2 (b) CaO (*c) ZnO (d) N2O5
86. In the reaction K + SO2
95. Generally H2O exists as a liquid while H2S as a gas because:
*(a) KO2 + S (b) K2SO3 + K2S2O3 [CPMT 1991]

(c) K2SO4 (d) None of these (a*) H2O shows hydrogen bonding

87. Concentrated H2SO4 is not used to prepare HBr from KBr (b) Molecular weight of H2S is higher
because it:
(c) Bond angle in H2O is larger
*(a) Oxidizes HBr (b) Reduces HBr
(d) Size of 'O' atom is smaller than 'S' atom
(c) Causes disproportionation of HBr
96. The sulphur molecule (S8) possesses:
(d) Reacts too slowly with KBr
(a) Cubical structure (b) Spherical structure
88. Sodium thiosulphate is formed when:
(c) Tetrahedral structure (*d) W-shaped ring structure
(a) NaOH is neutralized by H2SO3
97. Oxide of nitrogen used as a catalyst in the lead chamber
(b) Na2S is boiled with S process for the manufacture of sulphuric acid is: (a*) NO (b) N2O (c)
N203 (d) N205
(c*) Na2SO3 is boiled with S
98. Chromium dissolves in dil. H2SO4 to form Cr(H2O)62+.
(d) Na2SO3 is boiled with Na2S
The colour of the ion is:
89. The oxide that is not reduced by hydrogen in the hot is:
(a*) Blue (b) Green (c) Yellow (d) Orange
(a) Ag2O (b) Fe203
99. Which is a saline oxide?
(c) CuO (*d) K20
(a) Na2O2 (b) BaO2 (*c) Na20 (d) Fe2O3
90. There is an ozone layer at a height of about 29 kilometers
above the surface of the earth. Which of the following statements is 100. Sodium chromite is:
true?
(a) Na2CrO4 (*b) Na2Cr2O4 (c)Na2Cr2O7 (d) Cr2(SO4)3
(a) It is harmful because ozone is dangerous to living organisms
101. Which compound has an incorrect formula?
(b) It is beneficial because oxidation reactions can proceed faster in
the present of ozone (a) Thionyl chloride—SOCl2 (b) Sulphuryl chloride—SO2Cl2

(c*) It is beneficial because ozone cuts out the ultraviolet radiation (*c) Oleum—H2S2O6 (d) Phosphorus oxychloride—POCl3
of the sun
102. The gases absorbed by alkaline pyrogallol and oil of turpentine
(d) It is harmful because ozone cuts out the important radiations of respectively are:
the sun which are vital for photosynthesis
(a) O3,CH4 (*b) O2,O3 (c) SO2,CH4 (d) N2O,O3
91. Which is not true for ozone?
103. Which is an amphoteric oxide?
(a) It oxidizes lead sulphide
(a) SO2 (b) 8,0, (c*) ZnO (d) Na2O
(b) It oxidizes potassium iodide
104. The bond angle O—S—O and hybridization of sulphur in SO2
(c) It oxidizes mercury are:

(*d) It cannot act as bleaching agent (a) 119.5°, sp3 (*b) 119.5°, sp2

92. Oxygen differs from sulphur in: (c) 109°28', sp3 (d) None of these

(a) Allotropy 105. Which oxide is neutral? [PMT (MP) 1986]

136
(a*) N2O (b) NO2 (c) P2O5 (d) Bi2O3 (a) VA or 15 (b) VIA or 16 (c)VIIAor17 (*d) None of these

106. Gas that cannot be collected over water is: 118. SO2 can act as strong oxidizing agent in:

(a) N2 (b) 02 (c*) S02 (d) PH3 (a) Acidic medium (b) Basic medium (*c) Neutral medium (d)
None of these
107. H2S is far more volatile than water because:
119. The reaction between copper and hot cone. H2SO,| gives:
(a) Sulphur atom is more electronegative than oxygen atom
(a) SO3 (*b) SO2 (c) Cu(OH)2 (d) H2
(b*) Oxygen atom is more electronegative than sulphur atom
120. H2SO4 acts as dehydrating agent in its reaction with: (a)
(c) H2O has bond angle of nearly 105° Ba(OH)2 (b) Zn (c) KOH (*d) H2C2O4

(d) Hydrogen is loosely bonded with sulphur 121. In SeF6 selenium is:

108. H2SO4 reacts with sugar and acts as: (a) spd-hybridized (b) d2sp3 -hybridized

(*a) A dehydrating agent (b) An oxidizing agent *(c) sp3d2-hybridized (d) dsp3-hybridized

(c) A sulphonating agent (d) None of these 122. Bond angle in O3 molecule is:

109. When sugar is treated with concentrated sulphuric acid, the (a) 108°29' (b) 108°28' (*c) 116W (d) 120°
sugar is charred. In this process, sugar is:
123. Oxygen reacts with each of the following elements readily,
(a) Oxidized (b*) Dehydrated except:

(c) Reduced (d) Sulphonated (a) P (b) Na (c) S (*d) Cl

110. The oxidation number-of S in Sg,S2F2 and H2S are respectively: 124. Sulphur is soluble in:
[III 1999]
(a) Water (b) Dilute HCl (c) Ether (*d) CS2
(a*) 0, +1 and -2 (b) -2, +1 and -2
125. Ozone reacts with moist iodine giving:
(c) 0, +1 and +2 (d) -2, +1 and +2
(a*) HIO3 (b) I409 (c) I05 (d) I205
111. In the manufacture of H2SO4 the nitrated acid from the Gay-
Lussac's tower is chemically: 126. Dithionic acid has the formula:

(a) H2SO4 -NO2 (b) H2SO4 -NO (a*) H2S206 (b) H2S05 (c) H2S2Og (d) H2S205

(c) H2SO4 -2NO (*d) HSO4 -NO 127. Peroxy linkage is present in:

112. Which gives off oxygen on moderate heating? (a*) Caro's acid (b) Pyrosulphuric acid (c) Sulphurous acid (d)
Dithionic acid
[PMT (MP) 1991]
128. H2S is a:
(a) Cupric oxide (*b) Mercuric oxide
(a*) Weak dibasic acid (b) Weak monobasic acid
(c) Zinc oxide (d) Aluminium oxide
(c) Strong dibasic acid (d) Strong monobasic acid
113. SO3 on reacting with cone. HCl gives:
129. The only element in VIA group or group 16 elements, which is
(a*) Chlorosulphonic acid (b) Cl2 + H2SO3 (c) Cl2 +H2SO4 (d) None definitely a metal, is: (a) Tellurium (b) Selenium (c) Sulphur
of these (*d) Polonium

114. H2S on passing through KMnO4 solution gives: 130. Metal reacts with sulphur to give:

[CPMT 199 (a*) Sulphide (b) Sulphite (c) Sulphate (d)

Thiosulphate
(a) K2SO3 (*b) S (c) K2MnO4 (d) MnO2
131. For chrome plating the electrolytic bath contains:
115. The hybridization and bond angle in SO3 are:
(a) HCl04 and cone. H2SO4
(a*) sp2,120° (b) sp3,109°2V (c) sp2,109°28' (d) None
(b*) Chromic acid and cone. H2SO4
116. Which is an ozonide?
(c) K2Cr207
(a) KO3 (b) NH4O3 (c) Cr2O3 (*d) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Chromic sulphate
117. Ozone belongs to ..... group of the periodic table.

137
132. Potassium chlorate on heating with cone. H2SO4 gives : (a) 146. Oxygen exhibits positive oxidation state with: (*a)F (b)Br (c)
Chlorine dioxide (b) HClO4 (c) KHS04 (*d) All of these Cl (d) I

133. Hydrolysis of one mole of peroxodisulphuric acid produces: 147. Sulphur forms the chlorides S2Cl2 and SCl2. The equivalent
[IIT1996] mass of sulphur in SCl2 is 16 g/mol. Therefore, the equivalent mass
of sulphur in S2Cl2 is: *(a) 32 g/mol (b) 16 g/mol (c) 64 g/mol
(a) Two moles of sulphuric acid (d) 8 g/mol

(b) Two moles of peroxomonosulphuric acid 148. If Na2SO3 is left open in air, we get: (a) Na2S (*b) Na2SO4 (c)
NaHSO4 (d) NaHSO3
(c*) One mole of sulphuric acid and one mole of
peroxomonosulphuric acid 149. The ratio of the gases obtained on dehydration of HCOOH and
H2C2O4 by cone. H2SO4 is: *(a) 1 : 2 (b) 2 : 1 (c) 1 : 3
(d) One mole each of sulphuric acid, (d) 3 : 1
peroxomonosulphuric acid and hydrogen peroxide
150. Six volumes of oxygen, on complete ozonisation, form .....
134. Oxygen is manufactured by fractional distillation of: (a) H20 (b) volumes of ozone, (a) 2 (b*) 4 (c) 6 (d) 3
H20? (c) Na202 (*d) Liquid air
151. Yellow ammonium sulphide is:
135. An element forms a gaseous oxide which on dissolving in
water gives an acid solution. The element is: (*a) S (b) Na (c) P (a) (NH4)2S (b*) (NH4)2S, (c) (NH4)2Sg (d) (NH4)2S4
(d) H
152. Formation of ozonide is:
136. SO2 reacts with Cl2 to yield:
(a*) Addition reaction (b) Substitution reaction
(a) Thionyl chloride (b) Carbonyl chloride (c*) Sulphuryl chloride
(d) Sulphur monochloride (c) Decomposition (d) None of these

137. Which does not give oxygen on heating? (a) HgO (b) KMnO4 153. The maximum number of unpaired electrons exists in: (*a) O2
(c) KClO3 (*d) (NH4)2Cr2O7 (b) O2- (c) O22- (d) O22+

138. H2S exhibits: 154. Oxygen is paramagnetic. The unpaired electrons are present
in:
(a) Oxidizing properties (*b) Reducing properties
(a*) Antibonding orbitals (b) Bonding orbitals
(c) Basic properties (d) None of these
(c) p-orbitals (d) f-orbitals
139. H2SO4 and H2SO3 can be distinguished by the addition of:
155. Liquid oxygen is:
(a) Litmus solution (b*) FeCl3 solution (c) NaHSO4 solution (d)
Magnesium powder (a) Colourless (b) Pale-yellow

140. Compound of sulphur used in electrical transformer is: (a) SO2 (*c) Pale-blue (d) Dark blue
(b) H2S (c) S03 (d*) SF6
156. SO2 is dried by:
141. A colourless gas on passing through bromine water
decolourises it. The gas is: (a) HCl (b) HBr (c) C02 (a) CuO (b) HNO3 (c*) P2O5 (d) Anhyd. CaCl2
(*d) S02
157. When SO2 gas is passed through cupric chloride solution:
142. In the preparation of H2SO4:
(a) The solution becomes colourless
(a) SO2 is dissolved in H2SO4
(b) A white precipitate is formed
(b) SO 2 is dissolved in water
(c) No change takes place
(c*) SO3 is dissolved in cone. H2SO4
(*d) Solution becomes colourless and a white precipitate is formed
(d) SO3 is dissolved in dilute H2SO4
158. Which loses weight on exposure to the atmosphere?
143. When a mixture of SO2 and O2 is passed over..... the reaction
rate increases, (a) Fe + Mo (b) ZnO+Cr2O3 (*c) V2O5 (a) Cone. H2SO4 (b) NaOH
(d) Zymase
(c) Anhyd. A1Cl3 (d*) Saturated aqueous solution of CO2
144. Mixture of O2 and N2O is used as:
159. When water is added in cone. H2SO4 the reaction is exothermic
(a) Fuel (*b) Anaesthetic (c) In welding (d) Oxidizing because:
agent
(a) H2SO4 is viscous (*b) Hydrates of H2SO4 are formed
145. Normality of pure sulphuric acid is:
(c) H2SO4 is corrosive (d) None of the above
(a) 4N (b) 12 N (c) 24 N (*d) 36 N
138
160. Which does not react with KMnO4 solution? 171. Which statement is wrong?

(a*) O3 (b) H202 (c) H2S (d) H2SO3 (a) Oxygen and sulphur belong to the same group of periodic table

161. The element which evolves two gases on reacting with cone. (b) Oxygen is a gas while sulphur is solid
H2SO4 is:
(*c) Both show + 2, + 4 and + 6 oxidation states
(a) Si (*b) C (c) S (d) P
(d) H2S shows no hydrogen bonding
162. H2SO4 has very corrosive action on skin because:
172. In OF2 molecule, the total number of bond pairs and lone pairs
(a) It reacts with proteins of electrons present respectively are: (a) 2, 6 (*b) 2, 8 (c) 2, 10
(d) 2, 9
(b) It acts as an oxidizing agent
173. When a lead storage battery is discharged:
(c) It acts as dehydrating agent
(a) SO2 is evolved
(*d) It acts as dehydrating agent and absorption of water is highly
exothermic (b) Lead sulphate is consumed

163. When concentrated H2SO4 is added to dry KNO3, brown fumes (c) Lead is formed
evolve. These fumes are of: (a) SO2 (b) SO3 (*c) NO2
(d) NO (*d) H2SO4 is consumed

164. Sulphur on oxidation with hot sulphuric acid gives: (a) SO3 (*b) 174. The reaction in the Kipp's apparatus stops on closing the
SO2 (c) H2SO4 (d) None of these outlet, because:

165. Oxygen can be obtained from bleaching powder by: (a) The acid becomes weak

(a) Adding dilute acid (b) Gas starts coming out from top

(b) Passing carbon dioxide (e) A protective film is formed on iron sulphide

(c*) Heating with a cobalt salt (d*) The contact between sulphide and the acid is broken

(d) Adding alkalies by the presence of gas collected in the free surface

166. There is no S— S bond in: of the middle chamber

(a) S2O42- (b) S4O62- (c) S2O3 (*d)S2O72- 175. In the reaction,

167. There is O—o bond in: 2Ag+2H2S04-H2SO4 is: (a) Reducing agent (c) Catalyst

(a*) S2o82- (b) S4o62- Ag2SO4+2H2O + SO2,

(c) SO32- (d) S2O72- (*b) Oxidant

168. Anhydride of sulphuric acid is: (d) Dehydrating agent

(a) SO2 (*b) SO3 (c) H2S203 (d) H2SO3 176. Reagent used to distinguish H2O2 and O3 is: (a) PbS (b) Starch
and iodine (c*) KMnO4 (d) Bleaching powder
169. Which of the following is incorrect?
177. In presence of moisture, SO2 can:
(a) O2 is weaker oxidant than O3
(*a) Lose electron (b) Gain electron
(b) O2 has larger bond length than O3
(c) Act as oxidant (d) Not act as reductant
(*c) Both O2 and O3 are paramagnetic
178. A salt of sulphurous acid is called:
(d) O2 is linear and O3 is angular in shape
(a) Sulphate (b) Sulphurate (*c) Sulphite (d) Sulphide
170. When Na2S is added to sodium nitroprusside solution:
179. HI cannot be prepared by heating KI with cone. H2SQ4
(a) Beautiful violet colour is produced because:

(b) A complex [Fe(CN)5NOS]4- is formed (a) H2SO4 is stronger acid than HI

(c) The complex Na4[Fe(CN)5NOS] is formed (b) HI is stronger acid than H2SO4

(d*) All of the above (*c) H2SO4 is an oxidizing agent

139
(d) HI is more volatile than H2SO4 (c) Thiosulphuric acid (d) Thiosulphurous acid

180. Which does not react with H2SO4 to form H2? 193. In contact process impurities of arsenic are removed by:

(a) Al (*b) Pb (c)Zn (d) Mg (a) Al(OH)3 (*b) Fe(OH)3

181. Vegetable colouring matter in Presence of moisture is bleached (c) Cr(OH)3 (d) Fe2O3
by SO2 due to:
194. SO2 reduces cupric ion to cuprous ion in presence of:
(a) Oxidation (*b) Reduction
(a) KOH (b) H2O (*c) KCNS (d) H2S04
(c) Sulphonation (d) Unsaturation
195. Which one has the highest bond energy?
182. S—S bond is present in:
(a) O—O (b*) S—S
(a) S2O72- (b) S3O9 (c*) S2O42- (d) S2O32-
(c) Se—Se (d) Te—Te
183. Which of the following is riot tetrahedral?
196. A radioactive element is:
(*a) SCl4 (c)Ni(CO)4
(a) Sulphur (b*) Polonium
184. In the reaction,
(c) Tellurium (d) Selenium
2KI + H2O+O3 the compound A is:
197. When H2S is passed through nitric acid solution, the product
(a) KIO3 (c) HI03 (b) I2O5 (*d) I2 formed is:

185. Which gas is used to improve the atmosphere of crowded (a) Milk of sulphur (b*) Colloidal sulphur
places?
(c) y-sulphur (d) p-sulphur
(a) H2 (b) O2 (*c) O3 (d) N20
198. Caro's acid is:
186. Liquid oxygen:
(a) H2S203 (b) H2S208 (c) H2S03 (d*) H2S05
(a) Is an important constituent of rocket fuels
199. Marshall's acid is:
(b) Is used for artificial respiration with CO2
(a) H2S2O5 (b*) H2S2Og (c) H2SO3 (d) H2SO5
(c) Mixed with finely divided carbon is explosive
200. A solution of SO2 in water reacts with H2S precipitating
(d*) All of the above sulphur. Here SO2 acts as:

187. Which metal sticks to a glass plate after treatment with ozone? (a*) An oxidizing agent (b) A reducing agent
(a) Silver (c) Copper
(c) An acid (d) A catalyst
(*b) Mercury (d) Lead
201. The geometry of H2S and its dipole moment are:
188. Ozone reacts with:
[IIT 1999]
(a) C2H4 (c) C6H6 (b) C2H2 (*d) All of these
(a*) Angular and non-zero (b) Angular and zero (c) Linear and zero
189. The product A in the following equation (d) Linear and non-zero

2KMnO4  A + MnO2 +O2, is: 202. The allotrope of sulphur stables below 90°C is:

(a) K2Mn2O7 (b*) K2MnO4 (c) K2O (d) K2O2 (a*) Rhombic sulphur (b) Monoclinic sulphur (c) Plastic sulphur
(d) Flowers of sulphur
190. A black sulphide when treated with ozone becomes white. The
white compound is: 203. Oxygen is more electronegative than sulphur, yet H2S is acidic
while H2O is neutral. This is because:
(a) ZnSO4 (b) CaSO4(c) BaSO4 (*d) PbSO4
(a) Water is a highly associated compound
191. A depolarizer used in dry batteries is:
*(b) H—S bond is weaker than H—O bond
(a) KOH (b) NH2OH
(c) H2S is a gas while H2O is a liquid
(c*) MnO2 (d) Na3PO4
(d) The molecular weight of H2S is more than that of H2O
192. Solution of SO2 in water is known as:
204. Ozone is readily dissolved in:
(a*) Hydrosulphuric acid (b) Sulphurous acid

140
(a) Water (b*) Turpentine oil (c) Carbon disulphide (d) (d) III group radicals are precipitated as hydroxides
Ammonia
218. Sulphuric acid is used:
205. Which of the following causes damage to the building
containing calcium and responsible for cough and choking in (a) In lead storage batteries
human?
(b) As a dehydrating agent
(a) Sulphur (b) Carbon
(c) In making fertilizers
(c) Nitrogen dioxide (d*) Sulphur dioxide
*(d) All of the above
206. In Kipp's apparatus, H2S is prepared:
219. K2CS3 can be called potassium:
(*a) Continuously (b) By FeS+conc.H2SO4 (c) By FeS + dil. H2SO4
(d) By Fe + dil. H2SO4 (a) Sulphocyanide (b) Thiocarbide

207. Which oxide is of different type than others? (c*) Thiocarbonate (d) Thicyanate

(a) MnO2 (b) PbO2 (c) TiO2 (d*) Na2O2 220. Polyanion formation is maximum in:

208. Which of the following does not react with AgCl? (a) N (b) O (c*) S (d) B

(a) Na2S2O3 (b) NH4OH 221. Anomalous behaviour of oxygen is due to:

(*c) NaNO3 (d) Na2CO3 (a) High electronegativity

209. H2S does not produce metallic sulphide with: (b) Small atomic size

(a) CdCl2 (b) ZnCl2 (*c) COCl2 (d) CuCl2 (c) Non-availability of d-orbitals

210. Which is more suitable for storing concentrated H2SO4? (a) (*d) All of the above
Copper vessel (b) Aluminium vessel (c) Earthen vessel (d)* Glass
vessel 222. The O—O bond length in ozone is:

211. All the elements of the oxygen family are: (*a) 1.27 A (b) 1.21 A (c) 1.34 A (d) 1.48 A

(a) Non-metals (b) Metalloids (c) Radioactive (*d) 223. The anhydride of pyrosulphuric acid is:
Polymorphic
(a) SO2 (b) S2O3 (c*) S03 (d) S2O7
212. Ozone oxidises moist sulphur to: (a) S02 (b) SO3 (c*) H2SO4
224. Which is stronger acid?
(d) None

(a) H2SeO4 (*b) H2SO4 (c) H2TeO4 (d) H2O

213. Best absorbent for SO2 is:

225. When KBr is treated with cone. H2SO4 reddish-brow gas is

(a) H2SO4 (*b) KOH(aq) (c) Water (d) CaCl2 anhyd.
evolved. The gas is: (*a) Br2 (b)Br2+HBr (c) N02
214. On heating ozone its volume: (d) H202

(a) Decreases to half (b) Becomes double 226. The second most electronegative element in periodic table is:

*(c) Increases to 3/2 times (d) Remains unchanged (a) F (*b) O (c) Cl (d) N

215. Ozone acts as: 227. SF6 exists but OF6 does not because:

(a) An oxidizing agent (b) A reducing agent (c) Bleaching agent (*a) J-orbitals of sulphur are vacant and are available for bonding
(*d) All of these
(b) More bonding electrons can be accommodated ii orbitals with n
216. The catalyst used in the manufacture of sulphuric acid by =3
contact process is: (a) Platinised asbestos (b) Fe2O3 (c) V2O5
(c) Sulphur has larger ionization energy than oxygen
(*d) All of these

(d) The difference of electronegativity is less between oxygen and

217. Sometimes a yellow turbidity appears while passing H2S gas
fluorine
even in the absence of II group radicals. This is because:
[AFMCl994]
228. Oxygen is divalent, whereas sulphur exhibits valency o; 2, 4
and 6 due to:
(a) Sulphur is present in the mixture as impurity

(a) S is bigger atom

(b) IV group radicals are precipitated as sulphides

(b) Ionization potential of sulphur is more

(*c) Of the oxidation of H2S gas by some acid radicals

141
(c) S being less electronegative than O (c*) Form covalent hydrides

(*d) Presence of d-orbitals in S (d) Form covalent compounds with metals

229. One gas bleaches the colour of the flowers by reduction while 243. The strongest oxidizing agent is: -
the other by oxidation. The gases are: (a) CO and CO2 (b) H2S and
Br2 (c*) S02 and Cl2 (d) NH3 and SO3 (a*) HNO3 (b) H2SO4 (c) H2S03 (d) H2S2O3

230. Reaction of solid KMnO4 with cone. H2SO4 produces 244. When fluoride is heated with cone. H2SO4 and MnO2 the gas
manganese heptoxide (Mn2O7) in: (*a) Solution state (b) Solid state evolved is:
(c) Fine powder (d) None of these
(a) HF (b) MnF2 (c) F2 (*d) None of these
231. A certain compound when burnt gave three oxides. The first
turned lime water milky, the second turned cobalt chloride paper 245. Ordinary oxygen contains:
pink and the third formed an aqueous solution of pH 3 nearly. The
elements present in the compound are: [NTSE 1994J (a) C, S, O (b) (a) Only O16 isotope (b) Only O17 isotope
C, H, Na (c*) C, H, S (d) C, H, Ca
(*c) A mixture of O16,017 and O18 isotopes
232. Which substance chars when wanned with cone. H2SO4?
(d) Only O18 isotope
(a) Protein (b) Fat
246. Number of valency electrons used in the Lewis structure
(c) Hydrocarbon (*d) Carbohydrate
of SO4- are:
233. Rhombic and monoclinic sulphur are:
(a) 22 (b) 20 (c) 18 (d*) None
(a) Isobars (b) Isomers (c) Isotopes *(d) Allotropes
247. The oxide insoluble in water is:
234. Large deposits of sulphur in nature are found in the form of:
(a) TeO2 (b) SO2 (c*) PoO2 (d) SeO2
(a) Flowers of sulphur (b) H2SO4 (c) H2S03 (*d) Free sulphur
248. Number of isotopes of oxygen are:
235. Number of hydroxyl groups present in pyrosulphuric acid is:
(a) 1 *(b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 0
(a) 3 (b)4 (c*) 2 (d) 1
249. What happens to the colour of litmus paper when a drop of
236. All the three atoms of ozone are used up when it reacts with: H2SO4 is added to it?

(a) H2O2 (b) PbS (c) KI *(d) SO2 (a) It turns red to blue (*b) It turns blue to red (c) It gets
destroyed (d) It is unaffected In
237. On heating sodium as well as sulphur can be melted. Molten
sodium and molten sulphur are used as: 250. which reaction does SO2 act as oxidizing agent? (a) Acidified
KMnO4 (b) Acidified K2Cr2O7 (c) Acidified C2H5OH (d*) H2S
(a) Medium for extracting metals (b) Catalysts
251. Ozone is formed by the interaction of water with: (a) Chloride
(c) Metal refiners (b) Chlorine (*c) Fluorine (d) Fluoride

(*d) Electrodes in batteries 252. Ozone turns tetramethyl base paper: (a) Green (*b) Violet (c)
Red (d) Black
238. Ozonization of water is carried out to remove:
253. Generally oxygen is converted into its ion by:
(a*) Bacterial impurities(b) Bad taste
(a) Losing electrons
(c) Excess of chlorine present
(b) Increasing oxidation number
(d) Calcium and magnesium salt present in it
(c) Decreasing atomic size
239. Concentrated H2SO4 has great affinity for: (a) H2S (*b) H20 (c)
CO2 (d) O2 (*d) Gaining electrons

240. Which is used in vulcanisation of rubber? (a) SF6 (b) SF4 (c) SF2 254. Metalloid among the following is:
(d*) S2Cl2
(a) O (*c)Te (b) S (d) Po
241. Presence of sulphide ion cannot be confirmed by: (a*) BaCl2
(b) (CH3COO)2Pb (c) Sodium nitroprusside (d) Dil. H2SO4 255. The weakest acid is:

242. Oxygen and sulphur are alike in that they can: (a) H2Se (b) H2Te (*c) H2O (d) H2S

(a) Exist in diatomic state 256. The compound of sulphur that can be used as refrigerant is:

(b) Have atoms of same size (a) S2Cl2 (*b) SO2 (c) SO3 (d) H2SO4

142
257. 98% H2SO4 is: 268. H2S cannot be dried by passing over cone. H2SO4 because:

(a) Pyrosulphuric acid (b) Oleum (*a) The acid oxidises it

(c*) Azeotropic mixture (d) None of these (b) The acid combines with H2S to form a salt

258. Bond angle is minimum in: (a) H2O (b) H2S (c) H2Se (*d) H2Te (c) Both form complex

259. In which reaction there is no change in valency and the (d) It dissolves in the acid
oxidation state?
269. Which of the following has p-d bonding?
(a) SO2 +H2S  2H2O + 3S
(a) NO3- (*b) SO32- (c) BO33- (d) CO32-
(b) 2Na+O Na2O
270. Different allotropic forms of sulphur differ in: (a*) Crystalline
(*c) Na2O2 + H2SO4  Na2SO4 +H2O2 structure (b) Molecular weight

(d) 4KClO3  3KClO4 + KCl (c) Chemical properties (d) Chemical structure

260. Hypo is used in photography to: 271. Oxide of a non-metal possesses the following characteristics:

(a) Reduce AgBr grains to metallic Ag (i) It is both a proton donor and proton acceptor, (ii) It is poor
conductor of electricity, (iii) reacts readily with basic and acidic
(b) Convert metallic Ag to silver salt oxides, (iv) oxidises Fe at boiling point. The oxide is:

(c*) Remove undecomposed AgBr as soluble complex (d) (a*) H2O (b) CO2 (c) H2O2 (d) NO
Remove reduced Ag
272. Oxalic acid when heated with cone. H2SO4 gives:
261. Strongest reducing agent is;
(a) H2O and CO2 (*b) CO, CO2 and H2O
(a) H2O (b) H2S (c) H2Se (*d) H2Te
(c) CO2 and H2S (d) Oxalic sulphate
262. Which hydride is most acidic?
273. Which of the following isotopes is present in larger amount?
(a) H2O (b) H2S (*c) H2Te (d) H2Se
(*a) O16 (b) O17 (c) O18 (d) All in equal amounts
263. Formula of rhombic sulphur is:
274. Which of the following has pp—dp bonding?
(a) S2 (b) S (c) S4 (*d) S8
(a) NO3- (*b) SO32- (c) BO33- (d) CO32-
264. It is possible to obtain oxygen from air by fractional distillation
because: 275. Which of the following species possesses the highest bond
order?
(a) Oxygen is in different group of periodic table from nitrogen
(a) O2 (*b) O2+ (c) O2- (d) O22-
(b) Oxygen is more active than nitrogen
276. In the species O2, O2+, O2- and O22-, the correct decreasing
*(c) Oxygen has higher boiling point than nitrogen order of bond strength is: a) O2 >O2 >O2 >O22- (b) O2 >O2
>O2 >O2 2-

(d) Oxygen has lower density than nitrogen

(c) O22- >O2 >O2 >O2 (*d) O22- >O2- >O2 >O2+
265. The elements S, Se, Te can have two positive oxidation states.
Which one of the following is correct? 277. What is the number of sigma () and pi () bonds present in
sulphuric acid molecule?
(a*) +4 and +6 (b) +2 and + 4
(*a) 6,2 (b) 6,0 (c)2,4 (d) 2,2
(c)+4 and +8 (d) +2 and+6
278. Iron sulphide is heated in air to form A, an oxide of sulphur. A
266. On exposure to light electrical conductivity of selenium: is dissolved in water to give an acid. The basicity of this acid is ......

*(a) Increases (b) Decreases (*a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 1 (d) zero

(c) Remains same VII A GROUP ELEMENTS

(d) First decreases then increases

1. Halogen molecules are:
267. Hydrogen sulphide reacts with lead acetate forming a black
(a) Monoatomic and form X2- ions
compound which reacts with H2O2 to form another compound. The
colour of the compound is:
*(b) Diatomic and form X- ions
(a) Black (b) Yellow (c*) White (d) Pink

143
(c) Diatomic and form X2- ions (b) lonisation enthalpy

(d) Monoatomic and form X- ions (c*) Hydration enthalpy

2. As the atomic number of the halogens increases, the (d) Electron affinity
halogens:
12. The electron affinity of halogens shows the order:
(a) Lose the outermost electrons less readily
(a) I > Cl > F > Br (b*) Cl > F > Br > I
(b) Become lighter in colour
(c) F > Cl > I > Br (d) F > I > Cl > Br
(c) Become less dense
13. Paramagnetic oxide of chlorine is:
(*d) Gain electrons less readily
(*a) ClO3 (b) Cl2O6
3. Diamagnetic oxide of chlorine is:
(c) Cl2O (d) None of these
(a) ClO3 (*b) Cl2O6
14. The halide which does not give a precipitate with AgNO 3
(c) ClO2 (d) None is:

4. Chlorine was discovered by: (a*) F- (b) Cl-

(a) Priestley (b) Davy (c) Br- (d) I-

(c*) Scheele (d) Cavendish 15. Highest oxidation number of iodine is in the compound:

5. Which is bad conductor of electricity? (*a) KIO4 (b) IF5

(a*) H2F2 (b) HCl (c) KI2 (d) KI

(c) HBr (d) HI 16. Which of the following species is not a pseudo halide?

6. Cl(OH)is: (a) CNO- (*b) RCOO-

(a) An oxide (b) A chloride (c) OCN- (d) NNN-

(c) A hydride * (d) An acid 17. Fluorine can be free from HF by passing the mixture
through:
7. The halogen that is most readily reduced is:
(*a) H2O (b) An alkaline solution
(a) Chlorine (b) Bromine
(c) Cone. H2SO4 (d) NaF
(c) Iodine (d*) Fluorine
18. Fluorine absorbs..... portion of light and appears yellow,
8. Which of the following acids does not attack Cu and Ag?
(a) Yellow (b) Green
(a) Dilute HNO3 (b*) Dilute HCl
(*c) Violet (d) Red
(c) Cone. H2SO4 (d) Aqua regia
19. Which radical can bring about the highest oxidation
9. Halogen acid used in the preparation of aqua regia is: state of a transition metal?

(a) HF (b) HBr (*a) F- (b) Cl-

(c*) HCl (d) HI (c) Br- (d) I-

10. The element having nine protons and 10 neutrons is: 20. Halogens are placed in the VIIA group or gp. 17 of the
periodic table, because:
(a) N (b) Cl
(a) They are non-metals
(c) Br (*d) F
(b) They are very reactive
11. Which property is most important in making fluorine the
strongest oxidising halogen? (c) They are electronegative

(a) Bond dissociation energy (d*) They have 7 electrons in outermost orbit
144
21. Bleaching powder on standing forms mixture of: 31. The halogen having smallest covalent radius is:

(a) CaO + Cl2 (b) HOCl + Cl2 (a) I (b) Cl

*(c) CaCl2 + Ca(ClO3 )2 (d) CaO + CaCl2 (c) Br (*d) F

22. In which is chlorine not used? 32. When fluoride is heated with cone. H2SO4 and MnO2 the
gas evolved is:
(a) As germicide (b) As oxidant
(a*) HF (b) F2
(*c) As cutting tool (d) As disinfectant
(c) SF (d) None
23. F2 combines with all non-metals directly except:
33. F2 on treatment with methane gives:
(*a) N2 (b) P
(a) CH2F2 (b) CH3F
(c) Xe (d) Kr
(c) CHF3 *(d) All of these
24. Which halogen does not form any oxoacid?
34. Which of the following has no action with starch
(a) Br2 (b) Cl2 solution?

(c*) F2 (d) I2 (*a) F2 and Cl2 (b) Br2

25. Chlorous acid and its salts (chlorites) are: (c) I2 (d) None

(a) Good oxidising agents 35. Cl2 is used in the manufacture of:

(b) Good reducing agents (a) Chloroform (b) CCl4

(c) Good bleaching agents (c) Westron *(d) All

(*d) Good oxidising and bleaching agents 36. Which acts as a powerful oxidizing agent?

26. The X—X bond dissociation energy is minimum in: (a) H2S (b) COOH—COOH

(a) F2 (b) Cl2 (c) FeSO4 (d*) Cl2

(c) Br2 (d*) I2 37. Which indicates the common laboratory method for the
preparation of chlorine?
27. Oxidizing action increases from left to right in the order:
(a) 4HCl + O2  2H2O + 2Cl2
(a) Cl2 < Br2 < I2 < F2 (b) Cl2 < I2 < Br2 < F2 (c) I2 < F2
< Cl2 < Br2 *(d) I2 < Br2 < Cl2 < F2 (b) 2NaCl + 2H2O  2NaOH + H2 +Cl2

28. Which halogen can replace iodine from KI? *(c) MnO2 + 4HCl  MnCl2 + Cl + 2H2O

(a) F2 (b) Cl2 (d) 2Mg2OCl2 + O2  4MgO + 2Cl2

(c) Br2 (*d) All 38. The reaction of chlorine with CO in the presence of
sunlight gives:
29. Which of the following statements is correct?
(a*) COCl2 (b) CO2 Cl2
(*a) All halogens form oxoacids
(c) HOCl (d) H2Cl2O2
(b) Only chlorine and bromine form oxoacids
39. Which non-metal does not combine directly with Cl2, Br2
(c) All halogens except fluorine form oxoacids
and I2?
(d) Only iodine forms oxoacid
(a) Carbon (b) Nitrogen
30. Which halogen does not react with water?
(c) Oxygen (*d) All of these
(a) F2 (b) Cl2
40. Cl2 is used in the extraction of:
(c) Br2 (*d) I2
(a) Pt (b) Au

145
(c*) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these 51. Fermy's salt is:

41. When KBr is treated with cone. H2SO4 a reddish-brown (a) HF (b*) KHF2
gas is evolved. The gas coming out is:
(c) NaCl (d) KClO3
(a*) Br2 (b) Br2 + HBr
52. Which has maximum pH in aqueous solution?
(c) H2O2 (d) NO2
*(a) NaClO (b) NaClO2
42. F2 is largely used in:
(c) NaClO3 (d) NaClO4
(a) Making freon (b) Making teflon
53. The halogen which is solid at room temperature is:
(c) Rocket fuels (*d) All of these
(a) F (b) Cl
43. On boiling an aqueous solution of KClO3 with iodine the
product formed is: (c) Br (*d) I

*(a) KIO3 (b) KClO4 54. The strongest oxidizing agent among the following is:

(c) KIO4 (d) KCl (a) Ozone (b) Oxygen

44. The following acids have been arranged in the order (c*) Fluorine (d) Chlorine
decreasing acid strength. Identify the correct order:
55. Javelle water is:
ClOH (I) BrOH (II) IOH (III)
(a) Aqueous solution of NaOCl
*(a) I > II > III (b) II > I > III
(b) Used as bleaching agent
(c) III > II > I (d) I > III > II
*(c) Both (a) and (b)
45. The only halous acid known is of:
(d) None of the above
(a) F2 *(b) Cl2
56. Bromine reacts with NaOH to produce:
(c) Br2 (d) I2
(a) NaBr only in cold solution
46. Berthelot's salt is:
(b) NaBrO only in cold solution
(*a) KClO3 (b) KIO3
(c) NaBr only in hot solution
(c) KBrO3 (d) None
(*d) NaBr and NaBrO3 in hot solution
47. Which halogen shows only one oxidation state?
57. Colour of iodine solution can be discharged by shaking it
(a*) F (b) Cl with aqueous solution of:

(c) Br (d) I (a) H2O2 (b) Sodium sulphide

48. Highest bond energy exists for: *(c) Sodium thiosulphate (d) Sodium sulphate

(a) F2 *(b) Cl2 58. A solution of chlorine in water contains:

(c) I2 (d) Br2 (a) HOCl only (b) HCl only

49. Most electropositive halogen is: (c) HCl and HOCl (*d) HCl, HOCl and chlorine

(a) F (b) Cl 59. Out of the elements with atomic numbers given below
which one would be a halogen?
(c) Br *(d) I
(a) 25 *(b) 35
50. Solid Cl2O6 exists as:
(c) 45 (d) 55
(a*) ClO2+.ClO4- (b) Covalent species
60. Excess of KI reacts with CuSO4 solution and then
(c) (ClO3)2 (d) None of these Na2S2O3 solution is added to it. Which of the statement is
incorrect for this reaction?
146
(a) Evolved I2 is reduced *(b) CuI2 is formed (c) Common salt (d) Cryolite

(c) Na2S2O3 is oxidised (d) Cu2I2 is formed 68. Chlorine gas can be dried by passing over:

61. Cl2O is an anhydride of: (a) Quicklime

(a) HClO4 *(b) HOCl (b) Soda lime

(c) Cl2O3 (d) HClO2 (c) Caustic potash sticks

62. At ordinary temperature and pressure, among halogens, *(d) Concentrated sulphuric acid
chlorine is a gas, bromine is a liquid and iodine is a solid.
This is because: 69. Which halogen can be purified by sublimation?

(a) The specific heats are in the order Cl2 > Br2 > I2 (a) F2 (b) Cl2

(*b) Intermolecular forces among molecules of chlorine are (c) Br2 (*d) I2
the weakest and those of iodine the strongest
70. When Cl2 is passed through hot and cone, solution of
(c) The order of density is I2 > Br2 > Cl2 KOH, the compound formed is:

(d) The order of stability is I2 > Br2 > Cl2 (a) KClO5 (b*) KClO3

63. Among the properties (a) reducing, (b) oxidising (c) (c) KClO2 (d) KClO4
complexing, the set of properties shown by CN- ion towards
71. Bromine vapour turns moist starch-iodide paper:
metal species is:
(a) Brown (b) Red
(a) a, b, c (b) b, c
(c*) Blue (d) Colourless
*(c) c, a (d) a, b
72. Which is incorrect for bleaching powder?
64. Fluorine does not show positive oxidation states
because:
(*a) Highly soluble in water
*(a) It is most electronegative element
(b) Light yellow coloured powder
(b) It forms only anions in ionic compounds
(c) Oxidizing agent
(c) It cannot form multiple bonds
(d) Reacts with dilute acid to release chlorine
(d) It shows non-bonded electron pair repulsion due to small
73. Which of the following is a pseudo halogen?
size
(a) ICl3 (b) ICl2-
65. Bleaching powder has the molecular formula:
*(c) (CN)2 (d) N3-
(a) CaClO3 (b) CaClO
74. The bleaching action of bleaching powder is due to the
(*c) CaOCl2 (d) Ca(OCl)2
formation of:
66. Molecular shape of SF4, CF4 and XeF4 are:
*(a) OCl- (b) O2
(a) The same with 2, 0 and 1 lone pair of electrons
(c) Cl2 (d) Cl-
respectively
75. Iodine deficiency in diet causes:
(b) The same with 1, 1 and 1 lone pair of electrons
respectively (a) Beri-beri (*b) Goiter

(c) Different with 0, 1 and 2 lone pair of electrons (c) Rickets (d) Night blindness
respectively
76. The oxidation of thiosulphate ion by iodine gives:
(*d) Different with 1, 0 and 2 lone pair of electrons
respectively (a) SO32- (b) SO42-

67. Bromine is obtained on a commercial scale from: (c) S2O82- (*d) S4O62-

(a) Caliche (*b) Camallite 77. The solubility of iodine in water is greatly increased by:
147
(a) Adding an acid (b) Boiling the solution (d) It is composed of diatomic molecules

(c) Cooling the solution *(d) Adding potassium iodide 86. Which one is the strongest acid?

Alkaline solution
78. In the reaction, MnO4- + I- is:   [X]; *(a) ClO3(OH) (b) ClO2(OH)
[X]
(c) SO(OH)2 (d) SO2(OH)2
*(a) IO3- (b) IO4-
87. Cl2O6 is an anhydride of:
(c) I2 (d) IO-
(a) HClO3
79. When iodine reacts with NaF, NaBr and NaCl:
(b) HClO2
(a) It gives mixture of F2, Cl2 and Br2
(c) HClO4
(b) It gives chlorine
*(d) Mixed anhydride of HClO3 and HClO4
(c) It gives bromine
88. Which of the following is responsible for depletion of the
ozone layer in the upper strata of atmosphere?
(*d) None of the above
(a) Polyhalogens (b) Ferrocene
80. Which compound most readily forms hydrogen bonds
between its molecules in the liquid state?
(c) Fullerenes *(d) Freons
(a) HCl (b) HBr
89. Formula of calcium chlorite is:
(c) HI (*d) HF
(a) CaClO2 *(b) Ca(ClO2)2
81. Bad conductor of electricity is:
(c) Ca(ClO3)2 (d) Ca(ClO4)2
*(a) H2F2 (b) HCl
90. A radioactive element resembling iodine in properties is:
(c) HBr (d) HI
*(a) Astatine (b) Lead
82. Fluorine is usually obtained from:
(c) Radium (d) Thorium
*(a) Fluorspar (b) Fluorapatite
91. Which is not an oxoacid of chlorine?
(c) Cryolite (d) Tetrafluoromethane
(a) HClO (b) HClO2
83. Potassium manganate (K2MnO4) is formed when:
(c) HClO3 * (d) HClO5
(a) Chlorine is passed into aqueous KMnO4 solution
92. In the known interhalogen compounds the maximum
number of halogen atoms is:
*(b) Manganese dioxide is fused with potassium hydroxide in
air
(a) 4 (b) 5
(c) Potassium permanganate reacts with cone, sulphuric acid
(c) 7 (d*) 8
(d) None of the above
93. Cl2 gas is evolved as byproduct in the manufacture of all
the following elements except:
84. Which is the true covalent oxide of iodine?
(a) Mg (b) Na
(a) I2O4 (*b) I2O5
(*c) Al (d) K
(c) I2O8 (d) I4O9
94. The weakest acid among the following is:
85. Which statement is not true for astatine?
(a) HClO (b) HBr
(a) It is less electronegative than iodine
(c) HClO3 *(d) HCl
(*b) It exhibits only -1 oxidation state
95. The hydrogen fluoride is liquid unlike the other hydrogen
(c) Intermolecular forces between the astatine molecules will
halides, because:
be larger than between the iodine molecules
(a) Fluorine is smaller atom
148
(b) HF is weakest acid (c) 5 *(d) 6

(*c) HF molecules are associated due to hydrogen bonding 103. Bleaching powder is mixed calcium salt of:

(d) F2 is highly reactive (a*) HCl and HClO (b) HClO2 and HCl

96. Bromine is prepared in the laboratory by heating a (c) HClO and HClO2 (d) HCl and HClO3
mixture of:
104. The anhydride of hypochlorous acid is:
(a) MgBr + H2SO4 (b) MgBr2 + Cl2
(a) ClO3 (b) ClO2
(*c) KBr + MnO2 + H2SO4 (d) KBr + HCl
(c) Cl2O5 * (d) Cl2O
97. Concentrated hydrochloric acid when kept in open air
sometimes produces a cloud of white fumes. The 105. Which of the following halogen oxides is ionic?
explanation for it is that:
(a*) I4O9 (b) I2O5
*(a) Strong affinity of HCl gas for moisture in air results in
(c) BrO2 (d) ClO3
forming of droplets of liquid solution which appears like a
cloudy smoke
106. Which of the following halogen acids has the lowest
melting point?
(b) Due to strong affinity for water cone. HCl pulls moisture
of air towards itself. The moisture forms droplets of water
(a) HF *(b) HCl
and hence the cloud
(c) HBr (d) HI
(c) Cone. HCl emits strongly smelling gas all the time
107. KF combines with HF to form KHF2. The compound
(d) Oxygen in air reacts with the emitted HCl gas to form a
contains the species:
cloud of chlorine gas
(a) K+, F- and H+ (b) K+, F- and HF
98. Anhydrone is:
(c*) K+ and [HF2]- (d) [KHF]+ and F-
(a) HClO4
108. Which is weakest acid?
(b) HClO3
(*a) HF (b) HCl
*(c) Anhydrous magnesium perchlorate
(c) HBr (d) HI
(d) Anhydrous calcium perchlorate
109. HF is a weak acid but HCl is a strong acid because:
99. An interhalogen compound is:
(a) HF is less ionic than HCl
(*a) IF5 (b) I3-
(b) HF attacks glass but HCl does not
(c) CN- (d) (CN)2
(*c) Bond energy of HF is higher than HCl
100. KMnO4 is prepared by:
(d) Electron affinity of fluorine is lower than chlorine
*(a) Passing Cl2 through K2MnO4 solution
110. A greenish-yellow coloured gas is liberated on heating
(b) Passing O2 through K2MnO4 solution
a mixture of two substances which are:
(c) Reaction of KOH with KMnO4
(a)KBr + HCl (b) KI + HCl
(d) Fusing KOH with MnO2
(c*) MnO2 + HCl(d) NaCl + H2SO4
101. HBr and HI reduce sulphuric acid; HCl can reduce
111. The pale-yellow coloured gas is: (a) Cl2 (b*) F2 (c) Br2
KMnO4 and HF reduces:
(d) I2
(a) H2SO4 (b) KMnO4
112. Arrange the acids (I) H2SO3, (II) H3PO3 and (III) HClO3
in the decreasing order of acidity. [Ill 1993] (a)I>III>II (b)
(c) K2Cr2O7 (*d) None
(c*) III>I>II (d)
102. The number of different oxides of chlorine is:
113. When Cl2 water is added to an aqueous solution of
(a) 3 (b) 4 potassium halide in presence of chloroform a violet colour is

149
obtained. On adding more of Cl2 water, the violet colour *(a) Calcium chloro hypochlorite
disappears and a colourless solution is
(b) Calcium hypochlorite
obtained. This test confirms the presence of the
(c) Calcium chlorate
following in aqueous solution:
(d) Calcium perchlorate
(a*) Iodide (b) Bromide(c) Chloride (d) Iodide and bromide
126. One atom of..... combines with one atom of bromine.
114. ClO4- ion is:
(a) AT (b*) Rb (c) Mg (d) HCl
(a*) Tetrahedral (b) Angular (c) Pyramidal (d) None
127. Which bond has the greatest polarity?
115. Which one is strongest oxidizing agent?
(a) H—Cl (b) H—Br (c) H—I (*d) H—F
(*a) HClO (b) HClO2 (c) HCl03 (d) HCl04
128. Bleaching properties of bleaching powder are due to
116. In which of the following interhalogen compounds the its:
central atom is sp3rf-hybridized?
*(a) Oxidizing properties (b) Reducing properties
(a)ClF3 (b)BrF3 (*c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None
(c) Basic properties (d) Disinfecting properties
117. The catalyst used in Deacon's process for Cl2 is:
129. Bleaching powder is a mixture of:
(*b) CuCl2 (d) MnO2
(a) Calcium hypochlorite and calcium chloride
(a) Al2O3 (c) AlCl3
(b) Calcium chlorate and calcium chloride
118. The reaction 3ClO- (aq) example of:
(c*) Calcium hypochlorite and basic calcium chloride
(a) Oxidation reaction (b) Reduction reaction
(d) Calcium chlorate and calcium hydroxide
(c*) Disproportioanation reaction
130. The percentage of available chlorine in a commercial
(d) Decomposition reaction sample of bleaching powder is: (a) 12% (b*) 35% (c) 58%
(d) 85%
119. When excess of KI is added to copper sulphate
solution: 131. Fluorine oxidises HSO4- to:

(a) Cuprous iodide is formed (b) I2 is liberated (a) S2O32- (b*) S2O82- (c) S4O62- (d) SO2

(c) Potassium iodide is oxidized (*d) All of the above 132. One can draw the map of a building on a glass plate
by: (a) HI (b*) HF (c) HBr (d) HCl
120. Which halogen does not show bleaching property?
(a)F2 (b)C!2 (c)Br2 (d*)I2 133. The colour of I2 is violet because it:

121.Fluorisis disease is caused due to the reaction of ...... (a) Absorbs violet light (b) Does not absorb light

with excess of fluorine in the body. (c*) Absorbs yellow and green light (d) None of the above

(*a) Ca (b) Mg (c) Fe (d) K 1
122. A substance X when heated with sulphuric acid
liberates a gas which turns starch paper blue. The substance
is:
134. The boiling points of halogens increase with increase in
molecular weight, it is because:
(a) As the size increases molecules undergo association
leading to higher stability

(a) NaCl (b) NaBr *(c) Nal (d) NaNO3 (b) Bond strength increases due to increase in
electronegativity
123. Which one is least soluble in water?
*(c) van der Waals' forces increase with increase in number
(*a) BaF2 (b) CaF2 (c) SrF2 (d) MgF2 of electrons per mole

124. Iodine solution stained on clothes can be removed by: (d) None of the above
(a) NaCl (b) NaBr (*c) Na2S2O3 (d) Na2S4O6
135. The tetrahedral nature of the three bonds in a chlorate
125. The chemical name of bleaching powder is: ion (ClO3) is due to:
150
(a) The presence of a lone pair of electrons (b) They are quite unstable but none of them explosive

(*b) sp3 -hybridization (c) They are covalent in nature

(c) sp2 -hybridization (d*) They have low boiling points and are highly volatile

(d) Trigonal bipyramidal shape of ion 146. The silver halide, which is least soluble in NH4OH,

136. Available chlorine is liberated from bleaching powder (a) AgF (b) AgCl (c) AgBr *(d) Agl
when it:
147. Bleaching powder is an example of:
(a) Is heated (b) Reacts with water (*c) Reacts with acid
(d) Reacts with alkali (a) An acidic salt (b) A complex salt (c) A double salt
(*d) A mixed salt
137. Hydrogen bromide is dried by passing the gas through:
(a) Quicklime (*b) Anhydrous CaCl2 (c) KOH pellets 148. Iodine displaces chlorine from which one of
(d) Cone. H2SO4 compounds?

138. One mole of fluorine is reacted with two moles of and (a) KCl (b) CaCl2 (c) CCl4 (*d) KClO3
concentrated KOH. The products formed are H2O and O2.
149. Among the fluorides given below which will further
The molar ratio of KF, H2O and respectively is:
react with F2? Group 17 or VIIA : The Halogen Family
(a) 1:1:2 (b*) 2:1:0.5 (c) 1:2:1 (d) 2:1:2
(a) NaF (b) CaF2 (c)SF6 (*d)IF5
139. Weldon mud is:
150. Iodine may be liberated from sodium iodate by:
(a) MnO2 (b) Mn(OH)2 (*c) 2CaO-MnO2 (d) Mn2O3
(a) H2SO4 (*b) NaHSO3 (c) KMnO4 (d) HCl
140. Which of the following has highest affinity
151. Bromine can be liberated from potassium bromide
hydrogen?
solution by:
*(a) F2 (b) Cl2 (c) Br2 (d) I2
(a) Iodine solution *(b) Chlorine water
141. A greenish yellow gas reacts with an alkali m<
(c) Sodium chloride (d) Potassium iodide
hydroxide to form a halate which can be used in works and
safety matches. The gas and halate respectively are:
152. Which of the following was previously known as
muriatic acid?
(a) Br2,KBrO3 (b*) Cl2,KClO3 (c)I2,Na!O3
(d) Cl2,NaClO3
(a) Cl2 (b) Br2 (*c) HCl (d) H2SO4
142. The reaction of KMnO4 and HCl results in:
153. Halogens are:
(a) Oxidation of Mn and production of Cl2
(a) Gases under ordinary conditions
(b) Reduction of Mn and production of H2
(*b) Electronegative in nature
(c) Oxidation of Mn and production of H2
(c) Fuming liquids (d) The gases found in atmosphere
(d*) Reduction of Mn and production of Cl2
154. Bromargyrite is a mineral of:
143. Bleaching powder is not used:
(a) Pb (b) Sn (c) I2 (*d) Br2
(a) As a disinfectant (*b) As a reducing agent
155. In a given sample of bleaching powder the percentage
of available chlorine is 49. The volume of chlorine obtained if
(c) For bleaching purposes
10 g of the sample is treated with HCl at NTP is: *(a) 1.5
(d) For manufacturing chloroform litre (b) 3.0 litre (c) 15.0 litre (d) 150 litre

144. Which of the following is not oxidized by MnO2? 156. When bleaching powder is treated with carbon dioxide:

(a*) F- (b) Cl- (c) Br- (d) I- *(a) Chlorine is evolved

145. Which of the following is not the characteristic (b) Calcium chloride is formed
interhalogen compounds?
(c) No reaction occurs
(a) They are more reactive than halogens
151
(d) It absorbs the gas (a) Electrolysis of HF

157. The outermost electronic configuration of the most (b*) Electrolysis of KHF2
electronegative element is:
(c) Electrolysis of Na 3 AlF6
(b) ns2np3 (a) ns2np4 (c*) ns2 np5 (d) ns2np6
(d) Electrolysis of NaF/HF
158. Gaseous HCl is a poor conductor of electricity, while its
aqueous solution is a good conductor. This is because: 168. Sea weeds are important sources of: (a) Iron (b)
Chlorine *(c) Iodine (d) Bromine
(a) H2O is a good conductor of electricity
169. Photographic plates are coated with a film of:
(b) A gas cannot conduct electricity, but a liquid can
(a) Silver chloride (b*) Silver bromide
(c) HCl gas does not obey Ohm's law, whereas the solution
does (c) Silver iodide (d) Silver oxide

(*d) HCl ionizes in aqueous solution 170. When NaCl or KCl is heated with cone. H2SO4 and solid
K2Cr2O7, we get:
159. Among the following the pseudo halide is:
(a) Chromic chloride
(a*) CN- (b) ICl (c) I3- (d) IF5
(b) Chromous chloride
160. Interhalogen compounds are:
*(c) Chromyl chloride (CrO2Cl2)
(a) Ionic compounds
(d) Chromic sulphate
(b) Co-ordinate compounds
171. Antichlor is a compound:
(c) Molecular compounds
(a) Which absorbs chlorine
(*d) Covalent compounds
(*b) Which removes Cl2 from a material
161. Which halogen gives a brown colour with starch?
(c) Which liberates Cl2 from bleaching powder
(a) F2 (b) Cl2 (c*) Br2 (d) I2
(d) Which acts as a catalyst in the manufacture of Cl2
162. HIO3 on heating gives:
172. Which on heating with cone. H2SO4 gives violet
(a) I2 (b) O2 (*c) I2O5 (d) HI vapours?

163. Pure Cl2 is prepared on heating: *(a) Iodide (b) Nitrate (c) Sulphate (d)
Bromide
(a) NaCl *(b) PtCl4 (c) CuCl2 (d) All of these
173. Cl2 on passing through Na2SO3 solution gives: (a) Na2S
164. The ionization potential of X- ion is equal to: (*b) Na2SO4 (c) NaHSO3 (d) NaHS

(a*) The electron affinity of X atom 174. The electrolysis of brine solution to manufacture
chlorine is carried out in the: (a) Dennis cell (b) Gray cell
(b) The electronegativity of X atom
(c*) Nelson cell (d) Solvay cell
(c) The ionization potential of X atom
175. Chlorine bleaches only in the:
(d) None of the above
(a) Absence of acid (b) Presence of alkali (c) Absence of
moisture (*d) Presence of moisture.
165. I2 can exist in the oxidation states:
176. Bleaching powder is obtained by the interaction of Cl2
(a) -1,+1,+3,+5 (b) -1,+1, + 3
with a:
(c)+3,+5, + 7 (*d) -1, + 1,+3,+ 5,+ 7
(a) Dilute solution of Ca(OH)2
166. Euchlorine is a mixture of:
(b) Concentrated solution of Ca(OH)2
(a) Cl2 and SO2 (*b) Cl2 and ClO2 (c) Cl2 and CO
(c) Dry CaO
(d) None of these
*(d) Dry slaked lime
167. F2 is isolated by:
152
177. Which shows sp3 -hybridization? (a) ClO2 (b) ClO3- (b) Bleaching agents

(c) ClO4- (*d) All (c) Undergo disproportionation on heating

178. Most of the elementary gases are obtained by chemical
reaction of their compounds. For example, chlorine is
obtained by allowing KMnO4 to react with hydrochloric acid.
Fluorine, however, can be obtained only by the electrolysis
of a fluoride. This is because:
[PMT (MP) 1990]
(a) Fluorine is a highly reactive gas
(*b) Fluorine is the strongest chemical oxidizing agent
(c) Fluorine is highly poisonous
(d) It is easy to electrolyse a fluoride
179. Which element is extracted commercially by the
electrolysis of an aqueous solution of one of its compounds?
(a) Sodium (b) Aluminium
(*) Chlorine (d) Bromine
(d*) All of the above
184. Which reaction yields the greatest quantity of chlor
from a given quantity of hydrochloric acid?
(a) Warming cone. HCl with MnO2
(b) Warming cone. HCl with PbO2
(c) Mixing cone. HCl with KMnO4
(*d) Treating bleaching powder with HCl
185. Pure HBr gas may be obtained by heating sodium
bromide with syrupy phosphoric acid and not w concentrated
sulphuric acid because concentrated sulphuric acid is:
(a) More volatile (b) Less stable (c) A weaker acid
(*d) An oxidizing agent
186. Two pungent smelling gases bleach a certain
substance The gases may be:

180. Hydrofluoric acid is not preserved in glass bottles (*a) Cl2 and SO2 (b) Cl2 and NH3
because:
(c) NH3 and PH3 (d) O2 and CO2
(a) It reacts with the visible part of light
187. Which chemical contains chlorine?
(b) It reacts with the sodium oxide of the glass
composition (a) Fischer salt (b) Epsom salt

(c) It reacts with the aluminium oxide of the glass (c) Fermy's salt (*d) Spirit of salt
composition
188. Aqueous solution of which of the following has
*(d) It reacts with the silicon dioxide of glass maximum pH?

181. In case of halogen family, which trend occurs as the *(a) NaClO (b) NaClO2 (c) NaClO3 (d) NaClO4
atomic number increases?
189. Halogen used as an antiseptic is:
(a) Ionic radius decreases
(a) Fluorine (b) Chlorine (c) Bromine (d*) Iodine
(b*) lonization potential decreases
190. Freons are used as:
(c) Covalent character in MX2 decreases (where M = metal
*(a) Refrigerant (b) Catalyst (c) Oxidant (d) None
and X = halogen)
191. Which of the following is incorrect with respect to
(d) None of the above
property indicated?
182. Which reaction cannot be used for the preparation of
(a) E.N. :F>Cl>Br (b) E.A. :Cl>Br<F
the halogen acid?
(c) Oxidising power : F2 >Cl2 > Br2

*(d) Bond energy : F2 >Cl2 > Br2

192. Which is chemically most active non-metal?

A (a*) Fluorine (b) Nitrogen (c) Oxygen (d) Sulphur

183. The chloric acid and chlorates are: 193. Boiling of dil. HCl acid does not increase its
concentration beyond 20.24 per cent because
(a) Good oxidizing agents
hydrochloric acid:
153
(a) Is very volatile (b) Is extremely soluble in water (c) HCl03 (d*) HClO4

(*c) Forms a constant boiling mixture 204. Which of the following interhalogen anions is linear?
(a) I2 (b) ICl2 (*c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None
(d) Forms a saturated solution at this concentration
205. In the periodic table in going down in fluorine group:
194. Mark the wrong statement. Halogens are all coloured
(a*) Ionic radius increases
(a) This is due to absorption of visible light by their
molecules resulting in the excitation of outer electrons to (b) Electronegativity increases
higher energy levels
(c) lonization potential increases
(b) The small F2 molecules absorb high energy viol radiation
and appear yellow (d) Reactivity increases

(c) Large I2 molecule absorb low energy yellow and green 206. When an aqueous solution of hypochlorite is heated:
radiations and appear violet in colour
(a) Chlorine is evolved
*(d) The excitation energy required by the small fluorine
(b) Chlorite is formed
atoms is smaller than required by the large iodine atom
(*c) Chlorate is formed
195. Which has the highest heat of vaporization?
(d) Chlorine peroxide is formed
*(a) HF (b) HCl (c) HBr (d) HI
207. By the action of concentrated hydrochloric acid en
196. The correct decreasing order of acidic character is:
potassium chlorate we get this mixture of gases:
*(a) HClO>HBrO>HIO (b) HIO>HBrO>HClO (c)
(a) C02 +Cl2 (b) 02 +Cl02
HBrO>HIO>HClO (d) HClO>HIO> HBrO
(c*) Cl2 + Cl02 (d) 02 +Cl2 + Cl02
197. Which of the following is not a hydride? *(a) HCl (b)
CaH2 (c) CsH (d) LiH
208. Which halogen acid is a liquid?
198. The compound used as refrigerant is:
(a*) HF (b) HCl (c) HBr (d) HI
(a) CCl4 (b) COCl2 (c) CF4 (*d) CF2Cl2
209. Chlorine is mixed with drinking water so that: (*a)
Bacteria are killed (b) Dirt is removed (c) Water is
199. Which halide has the highest boiling point?
cleaned (d) Suspension is removed
(a) HI (b) HBr (c) HCl (*d) HF
210. Mark the halogen which shows electropositive
200. Chlorine, bromine and iodine are placed in the seventh character:
group of the periodic table because:
(a) F (b) Cl (c) Br (*d) I
(a) They are non-metals
211. Fluorine does not show positive oxidation due to the
(b) They are electronegative absence of:

(c)* They have seven electrons in the outermost shells of (a) p-orbitals (b*) d-orbitals (c) s-orbitals (d) None of these
their atoms
212. Which halogen do not form polyhalide ion?
(d) They are generally univalent
*(a) F (b) Cl (c) Br (d) I
201. When a colourless gas is passed through bromine
213. Freons are:
water, decolourization takes place. The gas is: (a) HCl (b)
HBr (c) H2S (*d) S02
(a) CCl2F2 (b) CFCl3 (c) CClF3 (d*) All
202. Bleaching action of chlorine is due to: (a) Reduction
214. Which can act as an acid in sulphuric acid?
(*b) Oxidation
(a) HNO3 (b) H3PO4 (c)* HClO4 (d) H2O
(c) Chlorination (d) Hydrogenation
215. The bond angle in Cl2O molecule is:
203. Which oxoacid of chlorine is the least oxidizing in
nature? (a) 180° (*b) 105° (c) 90° (d) 111°

(a) HOCl (b) HClO2

154
216. The type of hybrid orbitals used by chlorine atom in *(a) d-d overlapping (b) p-p overlapping

ClO2- ion: (c) d-p overlapping (d) Either of these

*(a) sp3 (b) sp2 (c) sp (d) None 228. The reaction showing endothermic nature and
reduction of halogen is:
217. Which one is correct if HCl and HF are present together
in liquid state?

*(a) HCl + HF  H2Cl+ + F-

(b) HCl + HF  No reaction A

(c) HCH-HF  H2F+ +Cl- 229. The bond Br—Cl is: *(a) Polar (c) True covalent

(d) None of the above (b) Non-polar (d) Co-ordinate

218. Caliche is: 230. The shape and hybridisation of ICl3 is:

*(a) Crude saltpetre (b) Impure nitre (a) Triangular planar, sp3 (b) Pyramidal, sp3d2 (c)
Tetrahedral, sp (*d) Bent T, sp d
3 3

(c) Impure camallite (d) Ashes of sea weeds

231. Which possesses highest percentage of ionic
219. Minimum bond length will be in: character? (a) HCl (b) HBr (c*) HF (d)
HI
(a) H2S (*b) HF (c) H20 (d) ICl
232. Which of the following oxoacids of chlorine is formed
220. Tincture of iodine is: on shaking chlorine water with freshly precipitated yellow
oxide of mercury? (a) HClO3 (b) HClO2 (*c) HClO
(a) I2, KI and rectified spirit . *(b) I2 and rectified (d) HClO4
spirit
233. The equation, 2KClO3  2KCl + 3O2 indicates all of the
(c) KI and rectified spirit (d) I2 and water
following, except:

221. The bond in a molecule of HCl is formed due to the (a) New compounds are formed
overlapping of:
(*b) The reaction is exothermic
(*a) s- and p-orbitals (b) s- and p-orbitals
(c) The law of conservation of mass is obeyed
(c) p- and p-orbitals (d) None of these
(d) The amount of KClO3 decomposes
222. Swimming pools are disinfected by bubbling through
water with a controlled quantity of: 234. The electronic configurations of four elements are
given below. Which element does not belong to the same
(a) Br2 (b*) Cl2 (c) O2 enriched air (d) N2 family as others?

223. A gas reacts with CaO, but not with NaHCO3. The gas
(a) [Xe]4f10, 5d10, 6s2 (b) [Kr]4d10, 5s2
is:
(c*) [Ne]3s2 3p5 (d) [Ar]3d10,4s2
(a) CO2 (b*) Cl2 (c) N2 (d) O2
235. In which of the following is bleaching powder not used
224. Colour of bromine in CS2 is:
?

(a) Green (*b) Orange (c) Yellow (d) Red (a) For bleaching paper pulp

225. Treatment of CS2 with excess of Cl2 gives:

(b) For water sterilisation

*(a) CCl4 (b) CHCl3 (c) Carbon black (d) C2HSCl (c) For making chloroform

226. Halogen used in the preparation of insecticides is: (*d) For sugar decolourisation

(a) I2 (*b) Cl2 (c) Br2 (d)F2

236. Oxidation number of iodine in IF3 is:

227. In oxoacids of halogen, X=O bond is formed as a result (a) - 5 *(b) + 3

of:
(c) - 1 (d) + 1
155
237. Pure HF does not attack: 247. Late discovery of F2 is due to its:

(a) Glass (b) Fe (*a) High reactivity

(c) SiO2 *(d) Polythene (b) High ionization potential

238. ClO2 is an anhydride of: (c) High electronegativity

(a) Chlorous acid (HClO2) (d) High electron affinity

(b) Chloric acid (HClO3) 248. Which of the following halogens has basic properties?
(a) Fluorine (b) Chlorine
*(c) Mixed anhydride of HClO2 and HClO3
(c) Bromine *(d) Iodine
(d) None of the above
249. Formula of iodine phosphate is:
239. Size of ionic species follows the order:
(a) I3PO4 (b) I2(PO4)3
(a) I- < I+ < I (b) I- < I < I+
(*c) IPO4 (d) I2PO4
(*c) I+ < I < I- (d) I+ < I- < I
250. The formula of iodine acetate is:
240. The perhalate ion with maximum oxidising power is:
(a) CIO4- (*b) BrO4- (a) I(CH3COO) *(b) I(CH3COO)3

(c) IO4- (d) ClO- (c) I2(CH3COO) (d) (CH3COO)2I

241. Tear gas is: 251. Least stable oxide of chlorine is:

(a) COCl2 (b) CaOCl2 *(a) Cl2O (b) ClO2

(c) NH3 *(d) CCl3 . NO2 (c) Cl2O6 (d)Cl2O7

242. When H2S reacts with halogens, halogens: 252. Iodine is placed between two liquids C6H6 and water:

(a) Are oxidized (*b) Are reduced (a*) It dissolves more in C6H6

(c) Form sulphur halides (d) None of these (b) It dissolves more in water

243. With excess of chlorine, ammonia forms: (c) It dissolves equally in both

*(a) NCl3 (b) NOCl2 (d) Does not dissolve in both

(c) N2 (d) NH4Cl 253. In the oxoacids of chlorine Cl—O bond contains:

244. Bleaching powder slowly loses its activity when it (a) d—d bonding *(b) p—d bonding
stands in air. This is due to:
(c) p—p bonding (d) None of these
(a) Reaction with moisture to liberate O2
254. Which pair gives Cl2 at room temperature?
(*b) Auto oxidation
(*a) Cone. HCl + KMnO4 (b) NaCl + Conc. H2SO4
(c) Loss of CaCl2
(c) NaCl + MnO2 (d) NaCl + Cone. HNO3
(d) Formation of Ca(OH)2
255. The compound insoluble in water is:
245. In ordinary Cl2 gas Cl35 and Cl37 are in the ratio:
*(a) CaF2 (b) CaCl2
(a) 1 : 3 *(b) 3 : 1
(c) CaBr2 (d) CaI2
(c) 1 : 1 (d) 1 : 2
256. Which is soluble in water?
246. Super halogen is:
(a) AgCl (b) AgBr
(*a) F2 (b) Cl2
(c) Agl (*d) AgF
(c) Br2 (d) I2
156
257. Iodine imparts brown colour to: 266. Which statement is not correct about (CN)2?

(a) Water (b) Benzene (a) It is poisonous gas

(*c) Alcohol (d) Chloroform (b) It is called pseudo halogen

258. Chlorine water on cooling deposits greenish-yellow (c) It is named as cyanogen

crystals of:
*(d) None of the above
(a) Cl2.2H2O (b) Cl2.H2O
267. The acidic nature of HF can be increased in presence
(c) Cl2.3H2O *(d) Cl2.8H2O of:

259. Which are solid? (a*) SbF5 (b) H2O

(a) XeF2 (b) XeF4 (c) HClO4 (d) None of these

(c) XeF6 *(d) All 268. Uranium isotopes are usually separated by using
compounds of the halogen:
260. Which are hydrolysed by water?
*(a) F2 (b) Cl2
(a) XeF2 (b) XeF4
(c) Br2 (d) I2
(c) XeF6 *(d) All
269. Which of the following bonds will be most polar?
261. K2[HgI4 ] detects the ion/group:
(a) N—Cl (b) O—F
(a) NH2 (b) NO
(c*) N—F (d) N—N
*(c) NH4+ (d) Cl-
270. Among halogens maximum oxides are formed by:
262. Which of the following halogens can replace others
from their salt solutions? (a) Fluorine (*b) Chlorine

(a) I2 (b) Br2 (c) Bromine (d) Iodine

*(c) F2 (d) Cl2 271. SO2 reacts with chlorine to form:

263. The element that oxidizes water to oxygen with (a) Sulphur monochloride (b) Sulphur dichloride
evolution of heat is:
(c*) Sulphuryl chloride (d) Sulphur trichloride
(a*) Fluorine (b) Chlorine
272. Which acid can combine with its own salt again?
(c) Iodine (d) Bromine
(*a) HF- (b) HBr
264. Mixture of sand and iodine can be separated by:
(c) HCl (d) HI
(a) Dissolving in water and filtering
273. The element present in combined state in Laminaria
(b) Fractional crystallization stenophylla is:

(*c) Sublimation (a) Bromine *(b) Iodine

(d) Separation is not possible (c) Fluorine (d) Chlorine

265. In the halogen group chlorine is a gas, bromine is a 274. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
liquid and iodine exists as solid crystals. Then the next
halogen astatine (At) would be: (a) A halogen which is liquid at room temperature— bromine

(*a) Solid at room temperature (b) The most electronegative element—fluorine

(b) Having higher electronegativity (c) The most reactive halogen—fluorine

(c) Solid with higher IP (*d) The strongest oxidizing agent—iodine

(d) Least atomic size 275. The non-metal other than graphite having metallic
lustre
157
*(a) I2 (b) Si (a) The potential required for the discharge of the fluoride
ions is the lowest
(c) Cl2 (d) Br2
(b) Fluorine reacts with most glass vessels
276. In the manufacture of bromine from sea water the
mother liquor containing bromides is treated with: (c) Electrolysis of aqueous HF gives ozonised oxygen

(a) CO2 *(b) Cl2 (d)* All of the above

(c) SO2 (d) I2 284. HI reacts with HNO3 to form:

277. The ion that cannot undergo disproportionation is: (a) O2 (b) N2O

(*a) ClO4- (b) ClO3- (c) HIO3 (*d) NO2 + I2

(c) ClO2- (d) ClO4 285. Which halogen gives two gases on reacting with water?

278. When dry chlorine is passed over silver chlorate at 460 (a) Cl2 *(b) F2
K, the product is:
(c) Br2 (d) I2
(a) Cl2O (*b) ClO2
286. HF present as impurity in gaseous F2 can be removed
(c) ClO3 (d) ClO4 by passing over:

279. During bleaching of chlorine an antichlor is used to: (a) P2O5 *(b) NaF

(a) Enhance bleaching action (c) H2SO4 (d) CaCl2

(*b) Eliminate last traces of bleaching agent 287. HCl cannot form H2Cl2, while HF can form H2F2 reason
is:
(c) Remove greases from the fibre
(a) Fluorine is more reactive
(d) Liberate oxygen
(b) HF is more reactive
280. If Cl2 gas is passed into aqueous solution of KI
containing some CCl4 and the mixture is shaken, then: *(c) Fluorine atom is small and can form hydrogen bonds

(a) Upper layer becomes violet (d) None of the above

(*b) Lower layer becomes violet 288. Which acid on keeping for long time acquires brown
colour?
(c) Homogeneous violet layer is formed
(a) HF (b) HCl
(d) None of the above
(c) HBr (*d) HI
281. Which statement is incorrect?
289. The van der Waals' forces in halogens decrease in the
(a) Chlorine can bleach a wet piece of cloth order:

(b) Iodine stain can be removed by hypo solution (a) F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2 (b*) I2 > Br2 > Cl2 > F2

(c) Bromine can be prepared from camallite (c) Br2 > Cl2 > F2 > I2 (d) Cl2 > Br2 > I2 > F2

(*d) Bromine is liberated when iodine is passed through an 290. The shape of IF7 molecule is:
acidified KBr solution
(a) Octahedral *(b) Pentagonal bipyramidal
282. The substance which is solid at room temperature
forms ionic compounds and reacts with hydrogen forming a (c) Tetrahedral (d) Trigonal bipyramidal
hydride, the aqueous solution of which is acidic, could be:
291. Fluorine reacts with water to form:
(a) Al (b) Na
(a) HF and O2 (b) HF and OF2
(c) Br2 *(d) I2
(c) HF and O3 (d*) HF, O2 and O3
283. In the isolation of fluorine, a number of difficulties
were encountered. Which statement is correct?

158
292. Which oxide of chlorine is most powerful oxidizing (c) 15 (d) 12
agent?
302. Fluorine gas is stored in:
(*a) Cl2O (b) ClO2
(a) Copper vessels (b) Steel vessels
(c) Cl2O6 (d) Cl2O7
(*c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
293. Which forms maximum compounds with xenon?
303. A 500 g toothpaste sample has 0.2 g fluoride
(a*) F (b) Cl concentration. What is the concentration of F- in ppm?

(c) Br (d) I (a) 250 (b) 200

294. The strongest hydrogen bond is in: (*c) 400 (d) 1000

(a) H2O (b) H2S 304. Increasing order of acid strengths of hydrogen halides
is:
(c) NH3 *(d) HF
(*a) HF < HCl < HBr < HI (b) HCl < HI < HBr < HF
295. Which has maximum vapour pressure or most volatile
low b.p.? (c) HCl < HBr < HI< HF (d) None of these

(a*) HCl (b) HI 305. The decreasing order of b.p. or m.p. of halogens is:
(*a) I2 > Br2 > Cl2 > F2 (b) F2 > Cl2 > I2 > Br2
(c) HF (d) HBr
(c) Cl2 > Br2 > I2 > F2 (d) F2 > I2 > Cl2 > Br2
296. Bond length is maximum in:
306. Increasing order of strength of oxoacids of chlorine is:
(*a) HI (b) HBr
(a) HClO < HClO2 < HClO3 < HClO4
(c) HCl (d) HF
(b) HClO4 < HClO2 < HClO < HClO3
297. A positive chromyl chloride test is given by a salt
containing: (*c) HClO < HClO2 < HClO3 < HClO4

(a) Br- *(b) Cl- (d) None of the above

(c) SO32- (d) I- 307. The increasing order of reactivity of halogens is:

298. The interatomic distances in H2 and Cl2 molecules are (*a) I2 < Br2 < Cl2 < F2 (b) Cl2 < F2 < Br2 < I2
74 and 198 pm respectively. The bond length of HCl is:
(c) Cl2 < Br2 < I2 < F2 (d) I2 < Cl2 < Br2 < F2
(a) 272 pm (*b) 136 pm
308. Decreasing order of reducing power of hydrogen
(c) 124 pm (d) 248 pm halides is:

299. Among the C—X bond (where X = Cl, Br, I) the correct (*a) HI > HBr > HCl > HF (b) HF > HI > HBr > HCl
bond energy order is:
(c) HI > HF > HBr > HCl (d) None of these
(a*) C—Cl > C— Br > C—I
309. Which one is most basic in character?
(b) C—I > C—Cl > C—Br
(a*) F- (b) Cl-
(c) C—Br > C—Cl > C—I
(c) Br- (d) I-
(d) C—I > C—Br > C—Cl
310. When chlorine water is exposed to sunlight, O2 is
300. The halide that cannot act as Lewis acid is: liberated. Hence:

(a) SiCl4 (b) SnCl4 (a) Hydrogen has little affinity to O2

(c*) CCl4 (d) SF4 (b) Hydrogen has more affinity to O2

301. The number of p-electrons in bromine atom is: (c*) Hydrogen has more affinity to chlorine

*(a) 17 (b) 7 (d) It is a reducing agent

159
311. Bromine water is decolourised by: (c) HOCl is stronger acid than HOBr

(a) SO2 (b) C2H4 (d*) HF is a stronger acid than HCl

(c) C2H2 (*d) All 320. Melting point of hydrogen halide follow the order:

312. Atom that requires high energy of excitation is: (a) HI > HBr > HCl > HF *(b) HI > HF > HBr > HCl

*(a) F (b) Cl (c) HI > HBr > HF > HCl (d) HF > HCl > HBr > HI

(c) Br (d) I 321. On bubbling F2 in 2% solution of NaOH, the product

formed are:
313. Phosgene is the name of:
(a) OF2 (b) NaF
(a) A phosphorus compound
(c) H2O *(d) All of these
(b) A phosphonium compound
322. The bond angles in OF2, OCl2 and OBr2 show the order:
(*c) Carbonyl chloride
(a) OF2 > OCl2 > OBr2 (b) OF2 > OBr2 > OCl2
(d) Phosphorus halide
(c*) OBr2 > OCl2 > OF2 (d) OCl2
314. The number of electrons in a halogen in its outermost
orbit in comparison with corresponding noble gas is: VIII GROUP

*(a) One electron less (b) One electron more 1. Which configuration represents a noble gas?

(c) Two electrons less (d) Two electrons more (a) 1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s2

315. Which molecule does not possess distorted geometry? (b) 1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3p5
(a) Cl—F (b) IF3
(*c) 1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s2 3p6
(c) IF5 (d)* IF7
(d) 1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s2 3p6 3d10, 4s2
316. Which is an essential trace element involved in
physiology of thyroid glands? 2. Noble gases possess:

(a) Fe (b) Ca (a) High ionization potential

(c) Na (d*) I2 (b) Zero electron affinity

317. Interhalogen compounds are more reactive than the (c) High electrical conductance
individual halogen because:
(d*) All of the above
(a) Two halogens are present in place of one
3. The Poisson's ratio for inert gases is:
(b) They are more ionic
(a) 1.40 *(b) 1.66
(*c) Their bond energy is less than the bond energy of the
(c) 1.34 (d) None
halogen molecule
4. Noble gases are adsorbed by:
(d) They carry more energy
(a) Finely divided Pd and Pt
318. The compound that gives chlorine like smell is:
(b) Colloidal Pd
(a) CHCl3 (b*) CaOCl2
(c) Coconut charcoal
(c) Chloretone (d) None of these
(*d) All of the above
319. Which one of the following statements is not true?
5. The fluoride which does not exist is:
(a) Among halide ions, iodine is the most powerful reducing
agent
(a) CF4 (b) SF6
(b) Fluorine is the only halogen that does not show variable
(*c) HeF4 (d) XeF4
oxidation state

160
6. Which shows the least chemical reactivity? (a) H2 (*b) He

(a) Ammonia (b) Methane (c) N2 (d) Ar

(c*) Argon (d) Hydrogen sulphide 16. Major credit for the discovery of noble gases is given to:
(a) Cavendish *(b) Ramsay
7. XeF6 on complete hydrolysis gives:
(c) Rayleigh (d) None
(*a) XeO3 (b) XeO
17. Helium was discovered by:
(c) XeO2 (d) Xe
(a)* Frankland and Lockyer (b) Rayleigh
8. The non-existent species is:
(c) Ramsay (d) None of these
(*a) XeF5 (b) BrF5
18. Argon was discovered by:
(c) SbF5 (d) PF5
(a) Cavendish (b) Lavoisier
9. The zero group members are collectively known as:
(*c) Rayleigh (d) Thomson
(a) Inert gases (b) Rare gases
19. The most abundant inert gas in air is:
(c) Noble gases (*d) Either of these
(a) He (b) Ne
10. Density of nitrogen gas prepared from air is slightly
greater than that of nitrogen prepared by chemical reaction *(c) Ar (d) Kr
from a compound of nitrogen due to the presence of:
20. The principal source of helium is:
(*a) Argon
(a) Air (b*) Monazite sand
(b) Carbon dioxide
(c) Radium (d) All of these
(c) Some N3 molecules analogous to O3
21. A radioactive element X decays to give two inert gases.
(d) Greater amount of N2 molecules derived from N-15 X is:
isotope
(a) 238 U
92 (*b) 22688Ra
11. Which gas is filled in electric bulbs/tubes?
(c) 90Th (d) 89Ac
(a) O2 (b) N2
22. The lightest, non-inflammable gas is:
(c*) Ar (d) He
(a) H2 *(b) He
12. In colour discharge tubes, which is used?
(c) N2 (d) Ar
(a) Ne (*b) Ar
23. The gaseous mixture used by deep sea divers for
(c) Kr (d) He respiration is:

13. The highest ionization potential in a period is shown by: (a) N2 +O2 mixture (*b) He + O2 mixture
(a) Alkaline earth metals (b) Alkali metals
(c) Ar + O2 mixture (d) Neon + O2 mixture
(c) Halogens *(d) Noble gases
24. Xenon tetrafluoride has hybridisation and structure as:
14. The noble gases are unreactive because they:
(a) sp3 tetrahedral *(b) sp3d2 square planar
(a) Have the same number of electrons
(c) sp3d2 pyramidal (d) sp3d3 octahedral
(b) Have an atomicity of one
25. Xenon difluoride is:
(c) Are gases with low densities
(*a) Linear (b) Angular
(d*) Have stable electronic configuration or closed valency
shell (c) Trigonal (d) Pyramidal

15. The gas used for inflating the tyres of aeroplanes is: 26. The rare gases are:

161
(*a) Monoatomic (b) Diatomic (a) XeF6 (b) XeF4

(c) Triatomic (d) Polyatomic (c) XeO3 (*d) KrF6

27. Which noble gas does not form clathrates? 37. Xenon directly combines with:

(a) Xe (b) Kr (a) Oxygen (b) Rubidium

*(c) He (d) Ar *(c) Fluorine (d) Chlorine

28. The element having highest ionization potential is: 38. Xenon best reacts with:

(a) H (b) N (a) The most electropositive element

(c) O *(d) He (b*) The most electronegative element

29. Noble gases can be separated by: (c) The hydrogen halides

(a) Passing them through some solutions (d) Non-metals

(b) Electrolysis of their compounds 39. Radon was discovered by:

(*c) Adsorption and desorption on coconut charcoal (a*) Dom (b) Ramsay

(d) None of the above (c) Rayleigh (d) None of these

30. Coconut charcoal at -100°C adsorbs a mixture of: 40. Asthma patients use a mixture of..... for respiration.

(a) He and Kr *(b) Ar, Kr and Xe (a) O2 and H2 *(b) O2 and He

(c) Kr and Xe (d) He and Ne (c) O2 and Ar (d) O2 and Ne

31. Coconut charcoal at -180°C is used to separate a 41. The noble gas used in the preparation of first noble gas
mixture of: compound was:

(a) Ar and Kr (b) Ne and Ar *(a) Xe (b) He

(c) He and Kr (*d) He and Ne (c) Cr (d) Rn

32. Which noble gas has highest and least polarisability 42. If two litre of air is passed repeatedly over heated
respectively? copper and heated Mg till no further reduction in volume
takes place, the volume finally obtained will be
(a) He, Xe (b) Ne, Kr approximately:

(c) Kr, Ne (*d) Xe, He (a) 200 mL *(b) 20 mL

33. Which is monoatomic? (c) Zero (d) 10 mL

(a) Oxygen (b) Fluorine 43. Which statement is false?

(*c) Neon (d) Nitrogen (a) Radon is obtained from the decay of radium

34. Which of the following does not react with fluorine? (b) Helium is an inert gas

(a) Kr *(b) Ar (c*) The most abundant noble gas in the atmosphere is He

(c) Xe (d) All (d) Xe is the most reactive among the noble gases

35. In the clathrates of xenon with water, the nature of 44. The forces of cohesion in liquid helium are:
bonding between xenon and water molecule is:
(a) Covalent (b) Ionic
(a) Covalent (b) Hydrogen bonding
(*c) van der Waals' (d) Metallic
(c) Co-ordinate *(d) Dipole-induced dipole
45. Which characteristic of zero group elements is common?
36. Which species is not known?
(a) Each of them has the same atomic number
162
(b) Each of them has the same atomic mass (a) 10 per cent

(*c) The outermost orbit of electron of each is saturated (b) 0.1 percent

(d) Each of them has the same number of electrons (c) Much less than 0.1 per cent

46. The word argon means: (*d) 1 per cent

(a) Noble (b) Now 56. Noble gases are prepared by the:

(c) Strange (d*) Lazy (a) Condensation of gases of the air

47. Electron affinity for a noble gas is approximately equal
to:
(a) That of halogens *(b) Zero
(c) That of oxygen family (d) That of nitrogen family
48. First stable compound of inert gas was prepared by:
(a) Rayleigh and Ramsay *(b) Bartlett
(b) Fractionation of liquid oxygen
(c) Removal of nitrogen and oxygen from air
*(d) Fractionation of liquid air
57. Inert gases such as helium behave like ideal gases over
a wide range of temperature. However, they condense into
the solid state at very low temperatures. It indicates that at
very low temperature there is a:

(c) Frankland and Lockyer (d) Cavendish (a) Weak attractive force between the atoms

49. The inert gas obtained from monazite sand is: (b) Weak repulsive force between the atoms

(*a) He (b) Ne *(c) Strong attractive force between the atoms

(c) Ar (d) Kr (d) Strong repulsive force between the atoms

50. Welding of magnesium can be done in an atmosphere 58. The atomic weight of noble gases is obtained by using
of: the relationship:

(a) O2 *(b) He (a) Atomic weight = equivalent weight x valency

(c) N2 (d) All (b) Atomic weight = equivalent weight/valency

51. .....is the compound which can remove both oxygen and (c) Atomic weight = Valency/Equivalent weight
nitrogen of the air when it is passed over it at 1000°C. (a*)
CaC2 (b) CaCl2 *(d) 2 x VD = molecular weight = atomic weight

(c) CaCN2 (d) Ca(CN)2 59. The mixture of noble gases is separated by:

52. The first noble gas compound obtained was; (a) Ramsay-Rayleigh's first method

(a) XeF2 (b) XeF4 (b) Ramsay-Rayleigh's second method

*(c) XePtF6 (d) XeOF4 (c) Fischer and Ringe's method

53. Which fluoride of xenon is impossible? (*d) Dewar's coconut charcoal adsorption method

(a) XeF2 *(b) XeF3 60. The solubility of noble gases in water shows the order:

(c) XeF4 (d) XeF6 (a) He > Ar > Kr > Ne > Xe

54. The inert gases present in atmosphere are: (b) He > Ne > Ar > Kr > Xe

(a) He and Ne *(c) Xe > Kr > Ar > Ne > He

(b) He, Ne and Ar (d) None of the above

(c) He, Ne, Ar and Kr 61. Compounds formed when the noble gases get entrapped
in the cavities of crystal lattices of certain organic and
(*d) He, Ne, Ar, Kr and Xe inorganic compounds are known as:

55. Percentage of argon in air is about:

163
(a) Interstitial compounds *(b) Clathrates (c) sp3 d 2 *(d) sp3 d 3

(c) Hydrates (d) Picrates 72. The m.p. and b.p. is lowest for:

62. Which compound is prepared by the following reaction? *(a) He (b) Ne

(c) Xe (d) Ar

73. The ease of liquefaction of noble gases decreases in the

(a) XeF2 (b) XeF6 order:

(c*) XeF4 (d) XeOF2 (a) He > Ne > Ar > Kr > Xe

63. The last member of inert gas family is: (*b) Xe > Kr > Ar > Ne > He

(a) Krypton *(b) Radon (c) Kr > Xe > He > Ar > Ne

(c) Xenon (d) Argon (d) Ar > Kr > Xe > He > Ne

64. A dathrate is defined as a: 74. The two electrons in helium atom:

*(a) Cage compound (b) Liquid crystal (a) Occupy different shells

(c) Mixture (d) Solid solution (b*) Have different spins

65. Which noble gas has the least tendency to form (c) Have the same spins
compounds?
(d) Occupy different subshells of the same subshell
(a*) He (b) Ne
75. Which is called stranger gas?
(c) Kr (d) Xe
(a) Kr *(b) Xe
66. Which noble gas was first of all detected in solar
chromosphere? (c) He (d) Ne

(a*) Helium (b) Neon 76. Helium gives a characteristic spectrum with:

(c) Argon (d) Krypton (a) Orange and red lines (b) Orange lines

67. Which noble gas is not found in atmosphere? *(c) Yellow lines (d) Green lines

*(a) Rn (b) Kr 77. Geometry and hybridisation of Xe in XeOF4 molecule is:

(c) Ne (d) Ar (a) Square planar, sp3 d2

68. Which noble gas is more soluble in water? (*b) Square pyramidal, sp3 d2

(a) He (b) Ar (c) Tetrahedral, sp3

(c) Ne * (d) Xe (d) None of the above

69. Who observed helium first on the earth? 78. Noble gases do not occur in:

(a) Lothar Meyer *(b) Ramsay (a) Nature (b) Ores

(c) Sheele (d) Rutherford (c) Atmosphere (*d) Sea water

70. The noble gas which behaves abnormally in liquid state 79. XeF4 exists as......under ordinary atmospheric
is:
conditions.
(a) Xe (b) Ne
(*a) Solid (b) Liquid
*(c) He (d) Ar
(c) Gas (d) None
71. Hybridization on Xe atom in XeF6 is:

(a) sP3 (b) sp3 d

164
80. In order to prevent the hot metal filament from getting
burnt, when the electric current is switched on, the bulb is
filled with:

(a*) CH4 (b) An inert gas

(c) CO2 (d) Cl2

(a) A -4,B-1,C-3,D-2 (b) A-2,B-3,C-1,D-4
81. The source of most of the noble gases is:
(c) A-1,B-4,C-2,D-3 (*d) A-3,B-1,C-4,D-2
(a) Decay of radioactive minerals
91. The symbol Rn represents:
(*b) The atmospheric air
(a) Radium (b*) Radon (c) Rhenium (d) Rhodium
(c) The natural gases coming out of the earth
92. The atom larger in size as compared to oxygen is:
(d) The decay of rocks
(*a) Ne (b) F (c) He (d) All
82. Radon is a noble gas. Its radioactivity is used in the
treatment of: 93. Which compound is prepared by the following reaction

(a) Typhoid (*b) Cancer Ni,673K

Xe + F2 

(c) Cough and cold (d) Thyroid
(2:1 volume ratio)
83. How many lone pairs are associated with xenon atom in
XeF2, XeF4 and XeF6 respectively? (a) XeF4 (b*) XeF2 (c) XeF6 (d) None

(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 1 94. Helium is used in gas balloons instead of hydrogen
because:
(*c) 3, 2 and 1 (d) 4, 3 and 2
(a) It is lighter than H2
84. In Kroll and ICl process of the production of titanium,
the inert gas used is: *(b) It is non-combustible

(a) Ne *(b) Ar (c) It is more abundant than H2

(c) Kr (d) Xe (d) Its leakage can be detected easily

85. InXeO3, Xe is: 95. A helium atom on losing an electron becomes:

(a*) sp3-hybridized (b) sp2 -hybridized (a) -particle (b) Hydrogen atom

(c) sp-hybridized (d) sp3 d-hybridized (*c) Positively charged helium ion

86. The gas used in gas thermometer is: (d) Negatively charged helium ion

*(a) He (b) O2 96. What are the products formed in the reaction of xenon
hexafluoride with silicon dioxide?
(c) Xe (d) Ne
(a) XeSiO4 +HF (b) XeF2 +SiF4
87. Liquid flow from a higher to a lower level. Which of the
following liquids can climb up the wall of the glass vessel in (c*) XeOF4 + SiF4 (d) XeO3 +SiF2
which it is placed? (a) Alcohol *(b) Liquid He (c) Liquid N2
97. In solid state xenon atoms are held together by:
(d) Water
(a) Hydrogen bonds *(b) Van der Waals' forces
88. The spectrum of helium is similar to: (a) H (*b) Na (c)
Li+ (d) He+ (c) Ionic bonds (d) Covalent bonds

89. The compound that attacks pyrex glass is: (a) XeF2 (b) 98. The noble gas having the lowest atomic number is;
XeF4 (*c) XeF6 (d) None
(a) Ne (*b) He (c) Kr (d) Xe
90. Match List I with List II and select the answer using the
codes given below: 99. The mineral clevite on heating gives:

(a) He (*b) Xe (c) Ar (d) Ra

165
100. Which of the following has zero valency? (d) None of the above

*(a) Be (b) Sc (c) Li (d) Ar 111. Nuclear fusion produces:

101. Which is planar molecule? (a) Argon (b) Deuterium (*c) Helium (d) Krypton

(a) XeO4 (b) XeF4 (c) XeOF4 (d*) XeO2F2 112. Ramsay was awarded Nobel Prize for the discovery of
rare gases in:
102. Which statement is correct?
(a) 1900 (b) 1902 (c*) 1904 (d) 1910
(a) Noble gases are not found in nature
113. Neon is extensively used in:
(*b) Some compounds of noble gas elements are known
(a) Cold storage units
(c) Atmospheric air is free from noble gases
(b) Organic compounds
(d) None of the above
(c) Medicines
103. Which statement is not correct?
(d*) Coloured electric discharge lamps
(a) Xe is the most reactive among the rare gases
114. The discovery of isotopes began with the experiments
(b) He is an inert gas with:

(c) Radon is obtained from decay of radium (a) Xe (b) Kr (c) Ar *(d) Ne

(*d) The most abundant rare gas found in atmosphere is He 115. Which statement about noble gases is not correct?

104. Which of the following cannot be formed? (a) Xe forms XeF6

(a) He2+ (b) He+ (c) He (d*) He2 (b) Ar is used in electric bulbs

105. The elements with atomic number 10, 18, 36, 54 are (*c) Kr is obtained during radioactive disintegration
known as:
(d) He has the lowest b.p. among all the noble gases
(a) Halogens (*b) Rare gases (c) Rare earths (d) Alkali metals
116. In solid argon, the atoms are held together by: (a)
106. The word Neon signifies: Ionic bonds (b) Hydrogen bonds (c)* van der Waals' forces
(d) Hydrophobic forces
(*a) New (b) Old (c) Strange (d) None
117. The van der Waals' forces are the greatest in: (a) Neon
107. The oxidation state of Xe in XeF4 is:
(b) Argon (c) Krypton * (d) Xenon
(a) +2 (*b) +4 (c) Zero (d) +5
118. Electronegativity of an inert gas is: (a) High (b) Low (c)
108. Most stable configuration exists for: Negative * (d) Zero

(a) Alkali metals (*b) Noble gases 119. Which has the same electronic configuration as of
inert gas?
(c) Halogens (d) Alkaline earth metals
(a) Ag3+ (b)Cu2+ (c) Pb4+ (*d) Ti4+
109. Noble gases are:
120. Which statement regarding He is incorrect?
(a) Colourless (b) Odourless
[AIEEE 2004]
(c) Tasteless and non-inflammafble
(a) It is used in gas cooled nuclear reactor
*(d) All of the above
(b) It is used as a cryogenic agent for carrying out
110. The idea which prompted Bartlett to prepare first ever experiment at low temperature
compound of noble gas was:
(c) It is used to produce and sustain powerful
(a) High bond energy of Xe—F superconducting magnets

(b) Low bond energy of F—F in F2 (*d) It is used to fill gas balloons instead of H2 because it is
lighter and non-combustible
*(c) lonization energies of 02 and xenon were almost similar
166
121. How many lone pair of electrons are present on Xe in *(a) Basic copper acetate
XeOF4? [IIT 2004] (*a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3
(d) 4 (b) Basic lead acetate

D-BLOCK-I (c) Ferrous ammonium sulphate

1. Group 11 or IB elements are commonly known as: (d) Potassium ferrocyanide

*(a) Coinage metals (b) Transition metals 10. Which of the following compounds is expected to be
coloured? [IIT, July 1997] (a) Ag2SO4 (b*)
(c) Typical elements (d) Representative elements CuF2 (c) MgF2 (d) Cud

2. All metal chlorides are soluble in water except those of: 11. Which one of the following properties would you not
expect copper to exhibit?
*(a) Ag, Pb, Hg (b) Na, K, Ca
(a) Malleability
(c) Zn, Cu, Cd (d) Ba, Sr, Li
(b) High thermal conductivity
3. The correct formula for diammine silver (I) chloride is:
(c*) Low electrical conductivity
(a) [Ag(NH3 )]Cl (b*) [Ag(NH3 )2 ]Cl
(d) Ductility
(c) [Ag(NH2 )2 ]Cl (d) [Ag(NH4 )2 ]Cl
12. What effect is noticed on shaking dilute sulphuric acid
4. The solubility of silver bromide in hypo solution is due to with a small quantity of anhydrous copper sulphate?
the formation of:
(a) The white solid dissolves to form a colourless solution
(a) Ag2SO3 (b) Ag2S2O3
(b) The white solid dissolves to form a green solution
(c) [Ag(S2O3)]- (*d) [Ag(S2O3)2]3-
(c) The white solid turns blue but does not dissolve
5. Which one is more soluble in water?
*(d) The white solid dissolves to form a blue solution
(a) Agl *(b) AgF
13. Schweitzer's reagent used for dissolving cellulose in the
(c) AgBr (d) AgCl manufacture of artificial silk is: [Roorkee 1999]

6. An aqueous solution of CuSO4 and NH4OH gives a deep (a) CuSO4 -5H2O
blue complex of:
(b) Cul
(*a) Cuprammonium sulphate
(*c) Cu(NH3)4SO4
(b) Cuprammonium hydroxide
(d) Cu(CH3COO)2 -Cu(OH)2
(c) Sodium hexametaphosphate
14. Addition of KI to a solution of copper sulphate gives: (a)
(d) None of the above CuI2 (b) Cul22+

7. The mineral from which copper is manufactured? (a) (*c) Cu2I2+I2 (d) CuI+I2
Galena (b) Pyrite
15. Bronze is an alloy composed of:
(c) Malachite * (d) Chalcopyrite
*(a) Cu+Sn (b)Cu + Zn (c)Pb + Sn+Zn (d) Pb + Zn
8. In the extraction of copper, the metal formed in the
Bessemer's converter is due to the reaction: 16. Percentage of silver in German silver is:

(a) Cu2S  2Cu + S (a) 1.5% (b) 2.5% (c) 10% (*d) Zero per cent

(b) 2Cu2O  4Cu + O2 17. A yellow precipitate will be obtained if AgNO3 is added to
a solution of:
(c) 2Cu2S + 3O2  2Cu2O + 2SO2
(a) KIO3 (*b) KI (c) CHI3 (d) CH2I2
(*d) 2Cu2O + Cu2S  6Cu + SO2
18. In the electrolytic purification of copper some gold is
9. Verdigris is: found in the:

167
(a) Cathode (b) Cathode mud (d) The formation of a complex compound

(c*) Anode mud (d) None of these 29. Cuprous chloride is obtained from cupric chloride:

19. Auric chloride on reaction with ferrous sulphate changes (a) By heating cupric chloride with chlorine
to:
(b) By the electrolysis of cupric chloride containing HC1
(*a) Au (b) AuCl (c) Au2SO4 (d) Au3(SO4)2
(*c) By heating cupric chloride with cone. HC1 and copper
20. Gun metal is an alloy of: turnings

(a) Cu and Al (*b) Cu, Sn and Zn (d) By passing H2 over CuCl2

(c) Cu, Zn and Ni (d) Cu and Sn 30. From sodium argentocyanide Na[Ag(CN)2], silver is
precipitated by adding a powder of:
21. Bell metal is an alloy of:
(a) Tin (b*) Zinc (c) Mercury (d) Calcium
(a) Zinc and copper (b) Copper and nickel
31. German silver is an alloy of:
(c) Zinc and lead (*d) Copper and tin
(*a) Copper, zinc and nickel
22. An aqueous solution of CuSO4 turns blue litmus to:
(b) Copper and silver
(a) Blue (b) Green (c) Yellow (d*) Red
(c) Copper and tin
23. A blue colouration is not obtained when:
(d) Copper, zinc and silver
(a) Ammonium hydroxide dissolves in copper sulphate
32. Silver nitrate solution gives a red precipitate with: (a)
*(b) Copper sulphate solution reacts with K4[Fe(CN)6] Sodium iodide (b) Potassium chloride (c) Calcium nitrate (*d)
Sodium chromate
(c) Ferric chloride reacts with sodium ferrocyanide
33. Percentage of gold in 21.6 carat gold is: (a) 21.6 *(b) 90
(d) Anhydrous white CuSO4 is dissolved in water
(c) 10 (d) 70
24. Silver is extracted from argentiferous lead by:
34. Lunar caustic is chemically:
(a) Mond process (b*) Parkes process
(a) Silver chloride (*b) Silver nitrate (c) Sodium hydroxide
(d) Potassium nitrate
(c) Haber process (d) Bergius process
35. In the extraction of Ag, Ag2S is dissolved in:
25. Copper can be extracted from:
[AFMC 2001]
(a) Kupfer-nickel (b) Dolomite
(a) HC1 (b) HNO3 (c*) KCN (d) H2SO4
(c*) Malachite (d) Galena
36. The white anhydrous copper sulphate on heating
26. The blue complex ion formed on addition of cone.
decomposes to give:
NH4OH solution to a Cu2+ salt solution is:
(a) CuSO4.5H2O (b) CuSO4.H2O (c*)CuO + SO3 (d)
(a) [Cu(NH4 )2 ]2+ (b) {Cu(NH3 )2 ]2+
SO3
(*c) [Cu(NH3 )4 ]2+ (d) [Cu(NH4)3 ]2+
37. The reaction between copper and hot concentrated
21. Blister copper is: sulphuric acid produces:

(a) Pure copper (b*) Copper containing 2% impurity *(a) SO2 (b) SO3 (c) H2 (d) Cu+ ions

(c) Alloy of copper (d) None of the above 38. Copper sulphate is commercially made from copper
scrap by:
28. Silver nitrate produces a black stain on skin due to:
(a) Dissolving in hot concentrated sulphuric acid
(a) Its corrosive action
(b*) Action of dilute sulphuric acid and air
*(b) Its reduction to metallic silver
(c) Heating with sodium sulphate
(c) Its strong reducing action
168
(d) Heating with sulphur 49. An ore of silver is: (a*) Argentite (c) Haematite

39. Which method is based on distribution law? (b) Stibnite (d) Bauxite

(a) Mond's process (c) Cupellation process 50. A developer used in photography is:

(*b) Parkes process (d) Poling process (a) A weak acid (b) A weak base

40. Ruby copper is: (c*) A mild reducing agent (d) An oxidizing agent

*(a) Cu2O (c) CuCl2 (b) Cu(OH)2 (d) Cu2Cl2
41. The co-ordination number of copper in the complex
formed by adding excess of NH3 to CuSO4 solution is:
(*a) 4 (b) 2 (c) 6 (d) 5
42. Which of the following does not react with AgCl?
51. Which of the following statements regarding copper salts
is not true?
(a) Copper(I) disproportionates into Cu and Cu(II) in
aqueous solution
(b) Copper(I) can be stabilised by the formation of d-Block
Elements or The Transition Metals

(a) Na2S2O3 (b) NH4OH (c*) NaNO3 (d) Na2CO3 insoluble complex compounds such as CuCl^ and Cu(CN)z

43. For which one of the following ions, the colour is not (c*) Copper(II) oxide is red powder
due to a d-d transition?
(d) Hydrated CuSO4 is [Cu(H2O)4 ]SO4.H2O
(a*) CrO4- (b) Cu(NH3)4+
52. An alloy which does not contain copper is:
(c) Ti(H2O)63+ (d) CoF63-
*(a) Solder (b) Bronze (c) Brass (d) Bell metal
44. Silver chloride dissolves in a solution of ammonia but
53. In order to refine "blister copper" it is melted in a
not in water because: furnace and is stirred with green logs of wood. The purpose
is:
(a) Ammonia is a better solvent than water
(a) To expel the dissolved gases in the blister copper
*(b) Silver ion forms a complex ion with ammonia
(b) To bring the impurities to surface and oxidise them
(c) Ammonia is a stronger base than water
(c) To increase the carbon content of copper
(d) The dipole moment of water molecule is higher than that
of ammonia molecule (*d) To reduce the metallic oxide impurities with
hydrocarbon gases liberated from the wood
45. In the purification of copper by electrolysis, which is
incorrect? 54. The process used in obtaining metallic silver from
argentite is:
(a) Acidic solution of Cu(II) sulphate is used
(a) Fused mixture of Ag2S and KC1 is electrolysed
*(b) H3O+ ion is discharged at cathode
(b) Ag2S is reduced with CO
(c) Anode is made of impure copper
(c) Ag2S is roasted to Ag2O which is reduced with C
(d) OH- is discharged at anode
*(d) Treating with NaCN solution followed by metal
46. In photography we use:
displacement with zinc
(a) AgCl (b*) AgBr (c) Agl (d) NH3
55. The slag obtained during the smelting process in the
extraction of copper from copper pyrites is composed mainly
47. Which is known as purple of Cassius?
of:
(a) Colloidal silver solution (*b) Colloidal gold solution
(a) Cu2S *(b) FeSiO3 (c) CuSiO3 (d) SiO2
(c) Aqueous solution of soap
56. AgCl dissolves in ammonia solution giving:
(d) As2S3 colloidal solution
(a) Ag+,NH4+ and Cl- (b) [Ag(NH3)]+and Cl-
48. Brass is an alloy of: (*a) Zn and Cu (c) Zn and Sn
(c) [Ag2(NH3)2]+ and Cl- *(d) [Ag(NH3)2]+and Cl-
(b) Cu and Sn (d) Cu, Zn and Sn
169
57. Cu2O is: (a) Reduction by carbon (b) Electrolysis

(a) Black oxide of copper (b) Copper(II) oxide (*c) Self-reduction (d) Cyanide process

(c*) Red oxide of copper (d) Cupric oxide 67. Powdered silver ore is treated with NaCN solution and
air is bubbled through the mixture to give:
58. Cu2+ ions would be reduced to cuprous ion if their
solutions are mixed with an aqueous: (a) AgCN (b) Ag (c) Ag(CN)2 (d*) Na[Ag(CN)2]

(*a) KI solution (b) KC1 solution 68. When excess of sodium thiosulphate is added to dil.
AgNO3 solution a soluble compound X is formed. However,
(c) K2CO3 solution (d) K2SO4 solution when dil. Na2S2O3 solution is added to cone. AgNO3 solution
a white ppt. turning yellow and finally black ppt. of Y is
59. Which method is used to remove lead impurities from
obtained. Which is correct pair?
silver?
(a) X is Ag2S and Y is Na3[Ag(S2O3)2]
(a) Leaching with dilute NaCN solution
(*b) X is Na3 [Ag(S2O3 )2 ] and Y is Ag2S
(b*) Parkes process
(c) X is Ag2S2O3 and Y is Ag2S
(c) Leaching with dilute NaCN in presence of air
(d) X is Ag2S2O3 and Y is Na3[(S2O3)2]
(d) Electrolytic purification using AgNO3
69. CuSO4 solution reacts with KCN to form a complex:
60. Mac Arthur and Forest cyanide process is used in the
extraction of: (a) Cu(CN)2 (b) Cu(CN) (c) K2[Cu(CN)4] (*d) K3[Cu(CN)4]

(a) Cu (*b) Ag and Au (c) Fe (d) Cr 70. Rio Tinto process is used for extraction of:

61. Gold dissolves in aquaregia forming: (*a) Cu (b) Ag (c) Al (d) Au

(a) Auric chloride (b) Aurous chloride 71. A metal which is 'not' affected by cone. H 2SO4, HNO3 or
alkalies forms a compound X. This compound A can be used
(c*) Chloroauric acid (d) Aurous nitrate
to give a complex which finds its application for toning in
photography. The metal is:
62. An extremely hot copper wire reacts with steam to give:
(*a) CuO (b) Cu2O (c) Cu202 (d) CuO2
(*a) Au (b) Ag (c) Hg (d) Cu
63. Silver halides are used in photography because they are:
72. Which is not correct regarding copper sulphate?
(*a) Photosensitive (b) Soluble in hypo solution
(a) It reacts with NaOH and glucose to give Cu2O
(c) Soluble in NH4OH (d) Insoluble in acids
*b) It reacts with KC1 to give Cu2Cl2
64. Silver nitrate solution is kept in brown bottles in
laboratory because: (c) It gives CuO on strong heating in air

(a) It reacts with ordinary white bottles (d) It reacts with KI to give iodine

(*b) Brown bottles cut the passage of light through it 73. Molten Ag absorbs about.........times of O2.

(c) Brown bottles do not react with it (a) 10 (*b) 20 (c) 40 (d) 80

(d) Ordinary bottles catalyse its decomposition 74. In Cu(Z = 29):

65. Which statement is incorrect? (a) 13 electrons have spin in one direction and 16 electrons
in other direction
(a) Silver glance mainly contains silver sulphide
(*b) 14 electrons have spin in one direction and 15 electrons
(b) Gold is found in native state
in other direction
(*c) Zinc blende mainly contains zinc chloride
(c) All the electrons have spin in one direction
(d) Copper pyrites also contain Fe2S3
(d) None of the above
66. After partial roasting the sulphide ore of copper is
75. Copper metal of high purity is obtained by:
reduced by:

170
(a) Carbon reduction (b) Hydrogen reduction *(a) Cu (b) Cd

(*c) Electrolytic method (d) Thermite process (c) Sn (d) Hg

76. Which of the following reactions represents developing 86. Which oxide is least stable at room temperature?
in photography?
(a) CuO *(b) Ag2O
(a) AgNO3 +NaBr  AgBr + NaNO3
(c) ZnO (d) Sb2O3
(b) AgBr+2NH3  [Ag(NH3)2]Br
87. Density, malleability and ductility in coinage metals
(c) AgBr+2Na2S2O3 Na3[Ag(S2O3)2] + NaBr increase in the order:

*d)C6H4(OH)2 + 2AgBrx  C6H4O2 +2HBr +2Ag (a*) Cu, Ag, Au (b) Au, Ag, Cu

77. Silver obtained from argentiferous lead is purified by: (c) Ag, Au, Cu (d) Ag, Cu, Au

(a) Distillation *(c) Cupellation 88. Duraluminium an alloy contains:

(b) Froth floatation (a) Mg + Al *(b) Mg + Cu + Al + Mn + Si

(d) Reaction with KCN (c) Mg + Cu (d) Cu + Al

78. Anhydrous CuCl2 and CuBr2 exist as: 89. Paris green is:

(b) Dimer *(d) Polymer (a) Monomer (c) Trimer (a) Cu(CH3COO)2

79. Which is obtained when SO2 is bubbled through a (b) Cu3(AsO3)2.2H2O

solution of CuCl2? (*c) Cu(CH3COO)2 .3Cu(AsO2)2

(a) Cu (b*) Cu2Cl2 (c) CuSO4 (d) CuS (d) Co(AlO2)2

80. Aufbau law is not valid for: 90. Which metal does not react with CuSO4 solution?

(a) Cu and Ar (*b) Cu and Cr (c) Cr and Ar (d) Fe and Ag (a) Fe (b) Zn

81. The geometry of [Cu(H2O)4]2+ is: (c) Mg *(d) Ag

(a*) Square planar (b) Tetrahedral 91. The most stable oxidation state of copper is: (*a) +2
(b) +1
(c) Octahedral (d) Distorted rectangle
(c) +3 (d) +4
82. The central ion in [Cu(H2O)4]2+ ion is:
92. Which is used for electrical purposes?
(*a) Cu2+ (b) O+ (c) H + (d) None
(a) German silver (b) Beryllium bronze
83. Which may be consumed in the elemental form by
human beings? (c*) Constantan (d) Fool's gold

(a) Zn (b) Cu (*c) Ag and Cu (d) Fe 93. The number of 3rf-electrons in Cu+ ion is:

84. The standard electrode potentials of Zn, Ag and Cu are - (a) 8 *(b) 10
0.76 V, +050 V and +034 V respectively. Which is correct?
(c) 6 (d) 12
*(a) Ag+ can oxidize Zn and Cu
94. Which substance can be used in the preparation of
(b) Ag can reduce Zn and Cu marking ink?

(c) Zn can reduce Ag and Cu (a) Ag (b*) AgNO3

(d) Cu can oxidize Zn and Ag (c) AgBr (d) PbCO3 .Pb(OH)2

85. A chocolate brown coloured compound with acetic acid 95. Silver iodide is used to produce artificial rain because:
and potassium ferrocyanide is obtained from a salt solution
containing: (a) It is easily prepared

171
*(b) Its structure is ice-like (c) Gold nitride (*d) AuCl

(c) It can easily be sprayed at high altitude 105. A metal is left exposed to air for sometime. It becomes
coated with basic green carbonate. The metal is:
(d) It is insoluble in rain water
(a) K *(b) Cu
96. Which shows a jump in second ionization potential?
(c) Zn (d) Al
(a) Co (b) Ni
106. The short hand configuration of Cu (Z = 29) is:
(c) Zn * (d) Cu
(a) 3d9, 4s2 (b) 3d8, 4s2
97. In the electroplating of gold the electrolyte used is:
(c*) 3d10, 4s1 (d) None
(a) Gold chloride (b) Gold nitrate
107. In solid CuSO4 .5H2O, copper is co-ordinated to:
(c) Gold sulphate *(d)Potassium aurocyanide
*(a) 4 water molecules (b) 5 water molecules (c) 1
98. The nitrate of which metal leaves metallic globule on sulphate molecule (d) 1 water molecule
heating strongly?
108. The fraction of chlorine precipitated by AgNO3 solution
(a) Cu(NO3)2 (b*) AgNO3 from [Co(NH3]5Cl]Cl2 is:

(c) NaNO3 (d) Pb(NO3)2 (a) 1/2 (*b) 2/3

99. On strongly heating AgNO3 we get: (c) 1/3 (d) 1/4

(a) AgNO2 (b) Silver nitride 109. Gold and silver are called noble metals, because:

(*c) Ag (d) Ag2O *(a) They do not normally react

100. Cuprous ion is colourless while cupric ion is coloured (b) Even acids cannot dissolve them
because:
(c) They are used in jewellery
(a) Both have half filled p- and d-orbitals
(d) They are worn by noble men
(b) Cuprous ion has incomplete d-orbital and cupric ion has a
complete d-orbital 110. Bordeaux mixture consists of lime and:

(c) Both have unpaired electrons in the d-orbitals (a) FeSO4 *(b) CuSO4

(d)* Cuprous ion has a complete d-orbital and cupric ion has (c) Cu(NO3)2 (d) AgNO3
an incomplete d-orbital
111. Photographic films or plates have ..... as an essential
101. Copper nitrate on strongly heating gives: ingredient.

(a) Cu (b) Cupric oxide *(a) Silver bromide (b) Silver oxide

(c) Cuprous oxide *(d) Cupric nitrate (c) Silver thiosulphate (d) Silver nitrate

102. From gold aurocyanide Na[Au(CN)2], gold can be 112. Which metal is not used for making coins?
precipitated by adding powder of:
(a) Gold (b) Silver
(a*) Zn (b) Hg
(c) Nickel (*d) Tungsten
(c) Ag (d) None
113. In vapour state Cu(NO3 )2 and Cu2 (CH3COO)4 .2H2O
103. Coinage alloy has the composition of: exist as:

(a*) Ag + Cu + Ni (b) Au + Ag + Cu (a) Dimer, Monomer (b*) Monomer, Dimer

(c) Au + Zn + Ag (d) Ag + Fe + Cu (c) Monomer, Monomer (d) Dimer, Dimer

104. AuCl3 when heated in air gives: 114. Which metal shows variable valency?

(a) Gold oxide (b) Gold perchlorate (a) Na (b) Cd

172
(c) Zn * (d) Cu 122. Cuprous salts are generally colourless while cuprous
oxide is:
115. Blue vitriol is:
(a) Green (b) Blue
(a) CuSO4 . 7H2O (b) ZnSO4 . 7H2O
(*c) Red (d) Yellow
*(c) CuSO4 . 5H2O (d) FeSO4 . 7H2O
123. Silver halides are used in photography because they
116. It is always advisable not to cover egg yolk or mustard are:
with silver cutlery because:
*(a) Photosensitive
(a) Silver reacts with water of egg yolk to form AgOH
(b) Soluble in hyposolution
(b*) Silver reacts with sulphur of egg yolk forming black
Ag2S (c) Soluble in NH4OH

(c) Silver reacts with egg yolk forming Ag2SO4 which is a (d) Insoluble in acids
poisonous substance
124. The chemical formula of azurite is:
(d) Silver attracts UV light of the atmosphere, thereby
spoiling the food (*a) Cu(OH)2 .2CuCO3 (b) CuSO4 .3Cu(OH)2

117. Magnetic moment of [Ag(CN)2 ]- is zero. How many (c) Cu(OH)2 .CuCO3 (d) CuFeS2
unpaired electrons are there?
125. Copper cannot replace ..... from solution.
(*a) Zero (b) 4
(a) Ag (b) Hg
(c) 3 (d) 1
(c) Au *(d) Fe
118. Fulminating gold is:
126. Gold exhibits the variable oxidation states of:
(a) CuFeS2
(a) +2, +3 *(b) H + 3
(b) FeS2
(c) +2, + 4 (d) H + 2
(*c) Au(NH2)=NH o rAuN2H3
127. Which metal does not react with water or steam? (a) K
(d) AuCl3 (b) Na

119. H2S is passed through acidified solution of CuSO4 and a (c) Ca *(d) Cu
black ppt. is formed. This is due to: (a) Oxidation of Cu 2+
128. The metal that does not liberate H2 from dilute H2SO4
is:
(b) Reduction of Cu2+
(a) Al (b) Mg
(*c) Double decomposition
(*c) Cu (d) Zn
(d) Reduction and oxidation
129. Articles made of copper and bronze slowly tarnish in air
120. Copper metal is not used: and turn green. The green colour is due to the formation of:

(a) In taps and water connections (a) Copper oxide (b) Copper sulphide

*b) As an alloy in high speed drills (c) Copper oxalate *(d) Basic copper carbonate

(c) In electric motor coils 130. NH3 does not form complex with:

(d) In brass utensils (*a) AgI (b) AgBr

121. The common metal in brass, bronze and German silver (c) AgCl (d) None
is:
131. NH3 forms complex with:
*(a) Cu (b) Mg
(a) CuSO4 (b) CdSO4
(c) Al (d) Zn
(c) AgCl *(d) All

173
132. The process of extraction of Au and Ag ores is based 141. Which gas is absorbed by CuCl?
on their solubility in:
(a) CO2 (*b) CO
(a) NH3 (b) HCl
(c) SO2 (d) SO3
(c) HNO3 * (d) KCN
142. Hair dyes contain:
133. Metallic silver may be obtained from AgCl by:
(a) Copper nitrate (b) Gold chloride
(a) Heating it in a current of H2
(c* Silver nitrate (d) Copper sulphate
(b) Fusing it with sand
143. Silver nitrate is usually supplied in coloured bottles
(c) Treatment with Cd and H2SO4 because it is:

*(d) Fusing it with Na2CO3 (a) Oxidized in air

134. Which of the following is paramagnetic? (*b) Decomposed in sunlight

(*a) CuCl2 (b) CaCl2 (c) Explodes in sunlight

(c) CdCl2 (d) None (d) Reactive towards air in sunlight

135. Each coinage metal has: 144. Preparation of looking mirrors involves the use of:

(*a) 18 electrons in their penultimate shell (a) Red lead

(b) 8 electrons in the outermost shell (b) Ammoniacal silver nitrate

(c) 2 electrons in the outermost shell (c) Ammoniacal AgNO3 + red lead

(d) 8 electrons in penultimate shell *(d) Ammoniacal AgNO3 + red lead + HCHO

136. The element that does not form a nitride is: 145. Silver amalgam is used in:

(a) Al (b) Mg (a) Silvering of mirror (b) Filling of teeth

(*c) Ag (d) Ca *(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these

137. .........is the best conductor of electricity among 146. Sterling silver:

coinage metals. (a) Is an alloy of Ag + Cu

(*a) Ag (b) Cu (b) Contains 80% Ag + 20% Cu

(c) Au (d) All (c) Is used in jewellery

138. The matte obtained in the extraction of copper (*d) All of the above
contains:
147. Which metal is used to add to gold to make it hard?
(a) FeSiO2 (b) SiO2 + FeS
*(a) Cu (b) Ag
(c*) FeS + Cu2S (d) CuS + SiO2 + FeO
(c) Ni (d) Zn
139. The flux used in the smelting of copper is:
148. Which is not an ore of gold?
(a) Limestone (b) Magnesia
(a) Syvanite (b) Calaverite
(c*) Silica (d) Coke
*(c) Covellite (d) Bismuth aurite
140. Fool's gold is:
149. Horn silver is:
(a) FeS 2 (b) CuFeS2
*(a) AgCl (b) Ag2S
(c*) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
(c) SnS (d) AgNO3

174
150. Silver possesses metallic lustre because: Ag 2O + H2O + 2e-  2Ag + 2OH-

(a) It is a noble metal (a) Water is oxidised (b) Electrons are reduced

(b) It is coated with the oxide of silver (c) Silver is oxidised (*d) Silver is reduced

(c) Valency electrons absorb white light completely 159. The final step in the metallurgical extraction of Cu
metal from Cu pyrites takes place in a Bessemer converter.
*(d) Valency electrons absorb and eject white light The reaction taking place is:

151. Muntz metal is an alloy of: (a) Cu2S + O2  2Cu + SO2

(a) Cu and Sn *(b) Cu and Zn (b) 4Cu2O + FeS  8Cu;+FeSO4

(c) Ag and Zn (d) Zn and Mn *(c) 2Cu2O + Cu2S  6Cu+SO2

152. A substance which turns blue when treated with water (d) Cu 2S + 2FeO  2CuO+2Fe + SO2
is:
160. In the equation;
*(a) CuSO4 (b) CuSO4 .5H2O
4M + 8CN- +2H2O+O2  4[M(CN)2]- + 4OH-
(c) CoSO4 (d) Au2(SO4)3
Identify the metal M. It is:
153. Which is used as substitute for platinum in jewellery?
(a) Copper (*c) Gold (b) Iron (d) Zinc
(*a) Rolled gold (b) White gold
D-BLOCK-II
(c) Purple of Cassius (d) Faraday's gold
1. Zinc, cadmium and mercury are:
154. Oxygen is absorbed by molten Ag, which is evolved on
cooling and the silver particles are scattered; the *(a) d-block elements (b) p-block elements
phenomenon is known as:
(c) s-block elements (d) f-block elements
(a) Silvering of mirror *(b) Spitting of silver
2. Essential constituent of an amalgam is:
(c) Frosting of silver (d) Hairing of silver
(a) Fe (b) An alkali metal (c) Silver (*d) Mercury
155. Cu2+ ions give precipitate with K4Fe(CN)6. The colour of
precipitate is: 3. The white solid that turns black on addition of NH 4OH is:
(a) AgCl (b) PbCl2 (*c) Hg2Cl2 (d) Hg2I2
(a) Blue (b) Green
4. Calomel may be freed from traces of metallic mercury by
(c) Red (*d) Brown washing with:

156. The material used for the lining of Bessemer's (a*) Dil. HNO3 (b) Dil. H2SO4 (c) Water (d) Aquaregia
converter in the extraction of copper is:
5. Spelter is:
(a) Silica (b*) Lime
(a) Impure Cu (*b) Impure zinc
(c) Iron (d) Cu
(c) ZnO (d) CuO
157. In the process of extraction of gold,
6. Amalgams are:
Roasted gold ore +CN- +H2O O2
[X] + OH-
(a) Always solid (b) Highly coloured alloys
Identify the complexes [X] and [Y]:
(*c) Alloys which contain mercury as one of the contents
*(a) X = [Au(CN)2]-, Y = [Zn(CN)4 ]2-
(d) Compounds of mercury
(b) X = [Au(CN)4 ]3-, Y = [Zn(CN)4 ]2-
7. Chemical name of corrosive sublimate is:
(c) X = [Au(CN)2 ]-, Y = [Zn(CN)6 ]4-
(a) Mercurous chloride (b) Zinc chloride
(d) X = [Au(CN)4 ]-, Y = [Zn(CN)4 ]2-
(*c) Mercuric chloride (d) Aluminium chloride
158. In the chemical reaction;
175
8. A lady's 18 carat gold wedding ring has become (a) Passing CO2 *(b) Warning with NaHCO3
discoloured with some minute drops of mercury from a
broken thermometer. Which of the following treatments (c) Adding Na2CO3 (d) Boiling with CaCO3
would restore it to its original condition?
17. The substance that sublimes on heating is:
(a) Place it in hot strong nitric acid
(a) MgCl2 (b) AgCl
(b) Place it in cold dilute hydrochloric acid
*(c) HgCl2 (d) NaCl
*(c) Heat it gently in a sand-bath
18. Calamine is:
(d) Heat it in chlorine
(a) ZnSO4 *(b) ZnCO3
9. Mercury sulphide on heating with aquaregia yields:
(c) ZnO (d) CaCO3
(a) Hg(NO3)2 *(b) HgCl2
19. Mercury is transported in metal containers made of:
(c) Hg(NO2)2 (d) Hg2Cl2
(a) Silver (b) Lead
10. The meniscus of mercury in a glass tube is:
(*) Iron (d) Aluminium
*(a) Convex upwards (b) Concave
20. Which compound does not dissolve in hot, dil. HNO3?
(c) Plane (d) Convex inwards
(a)* HgS (b) PbS
11. Which statement about corrosive sublimate is incorrect?
(c) CuS (d) CdS
(a) It is prepared by heating mercury in chlorine
21. Zn cannot displace the following ions from their aqueous
*(b) It reduces stannic chloride solutions:

(c) It oxidizes stannous chloride (a) Ag+ (b) Cu2+

(d) It sublimes readily (c) Fe2+ (d*) Na+

12. One of the following is false for Hg: 22. Nessler's reagent is:

(a) It can evolve hydrogen from H2S (a) KHgI4 (b) K2HgI4

(b) It is metal *(c) K2HgI4 + NaOH (d) KHgI4 + NaOH

(c) It has high specific heat 23. Rinnmann's green is:

*(d) It is less reactive than H2 (a) ZnO. CoO (b) A green pigment

13. Calomel is: *(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these

(a) Hg2Cl2 and Hg (b) HgCl2 24. Calomel reacts with ammonium hydroxide to form:

(c) Hg + HgCl2 *(d) Hg2Cl2 (a*) Hg(NH2)Cl (b) H2N—Hg—Hg—Cl

14. Cinnabar is an ore of: (c) Hg2O (d) HgO

(a) Lead (b) Zinc 25. Mercury forms amalgams with all except:

(c) Silver * (d) Mercury (a) Al (b) Zn

15. The colour of solution obtained by adding excess of KI in (c) Ni * (d) Fe

the solution of HgCl2 is:
26. Which statement about group 12 elements is wrong?
(a) Orange (b) Brown
(a) Zinc forms an alloy with copper
(c) Red (*d) Colourless
(*b) Zn2+ is stable
16. From an aqueous solution of zinc sulphate, normal zinc
(c) Mercury gives compounds with +1 and +2 valencies
carbonate may be precipitated by:

176
(d) Hg is a liquid element (c) A neutral oxide (*d) An amphoteric oxide

(b) Hg2Cl2 and HgCl2 and HgCl2 36. A compound is yellow when hot and white when cold.
The compound is:
27. Which metal cation forms stronger complex salt?
(a) Al2O3 (b) PbO
(a) Zn2+ (b) Cd2+
(c) CaO (*d) ZnO
(c*) Hg2+ (d) All of same strength
37. In the reaction SnCl2 + 2HgCl2  A + SnCl4, A is:
28. A metal gives two chlorides 'A' and '5'. 'A' gives black
precipitate with NH4OH and 'B' gives white. With KI '5' gives *(a) Hg2Cl2 (b) Hg
a red precipitate soluble in excess of KI. ‘A' and 'B' are
respectively: (c) HgCl (d) HgCl3

(a) HgCl2 and Hg2Cl2 *(b) Hg2Cl2 and HgCl2 38. The colour of zinc sulphide is:

(c) HgCl2 and ZnCl2 (d) ZnCl2 and HgCl2 (a) Yellow (*b) White

29. Mercury is purified by: (c) Brown (d) Black

(a) Solidifying 39. The metal which liberates hydrogen from hot NaOH
solution is:
(b) Distillation in vacuum
*(a) Zn (b) Cu
(c*) Treatment with dil. HNO3
(c) Ag (d) Fe
(d) Electrolytic method
40. In the extraction of Zn, the formation of blue film is due
30. H2S is passed in aqueous solution of.....to give a white to the burning of:
precipitate of ZnS.
(a) ZnO (b) C
(a) ZnCl2 (b) Zn(NO3)2
(c) Zn (*d) CO
(*c) (CH3COO)2Zn (d) None
41. Which compound cannot be prepared?
31. An element which is highly toxic for plants and animals
is: (a) Zn(OH)2 (b) Cd(OH)2

(a) Au (b) Mn *(c) Hg(OH)2 (d) HgCl2

(c)* Hg (d) Ca 42. Black HgS:

32. Zinc sulphate is known as: (a) Dissolves in cone. HCl on boiling

(a) Zinc blende *(b) White vitriol (*b) Dissolves in boiling HCl + a crystal of KClO3

(c) Blue vitriol (d) Calamine (c) Dissolves in NaOH

33. Lithopone, a white pigment, consists of: (d) None of the above

(a) Al2O3 and CaCO3 (b) BaS and PbSO4 43. Which is known as philosopher's wool?

(*c) ZnS and BaSO4 (d) PbS and MgO (a) HgO (b) CdO

34. The lowest degree of paramagnetism per mol of the (c) BaO *(d) ZnO
compound in the following will be shown by:
44. Which compound is deliquescent?
(a) MnSO4 . 4H2O *(b) ZnSO4 . 7H2O
(a) Hg2Cl2 (b) HgCl2
(c) FeSO4 . 7H2O (d) NiSO4 .6H2O
(c*) ZnCl2 (d) CdCl2
35. Zinc oxide is:
45. Zinc white is a better white pigment than lead white
(a) A basic oxide (b) An acidic oxide because it:

177
(a) Has more covering power than lead white (a) ZnCl2 (b) CuSO4

(*b) Is not blackened by the action of H2S (*c) Hg2Cl2 (d) HgCl2

(c) Is soluble in water 55. The formula of mercurous ion is:

(d) Becomes yellow when heated (a) Hg+ (b) Hg2+

46. Which statement is correct? *(c) Hg22+ (d) None

(a) Cd rods are used in atomic reactors to slow down nuclear 56. A scarlet red precipitate is obtained on treating mercuric
reaction chloride solution with:

(b) Cd is a good absorber of neutrons (a) H2S *(b) KI

(c) CdS is used as pigment (c) NaOH (d) NH4OH

*(d) All of the above 57. The formula of the zinc complex with ammonia is:

47. Chemical name of vermilion is: (a) [Zn(NH3)2]Cl (b) (NH4)2ZnO2

*(a) Mercuric sulphide (b) Mercurous sulphide *(c) [Zn(NH3 )4 ]Cl2 (d) [Zn(NH3 )6 ]Cl2

(c) Zinc sulphide (d) Cadmium sulphide 58. Addition of NaOH on Zn 2+ ion gives a white ppt. which
on adding excess of NaOH dissolves. In this solution Zn
48. ZnS containing minute traces of MnS becomes: exists in:

(a) Deliquescent (*b) Phosphorescent (a) Cationic part (b*) Anionic part

(c) Hygroscopic (d) None of these (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these

49. 'Mercury' tree can be prepared: 59. Zinc reacts with very dilute nitric acid to produce:

(a) By mixing up mercuric thiocyanate and gum (a) NO *(b) NH4NO3

(b) By adding Nessler's reagent to a ammonium salt solution (c) NO2 (d) H2

(c*) By pouring little mercury into AgNO3 solution 60. Which statement about Hg is correct?

(d) By heating mercuric chloride (a) Hg is the only liquid metal

50. The pair of metals which dissolves in NaOH(aq) is: (b) Hg2+ salts are more stable than Hg22+ salts

(a) Al, Cu (b) Zn, Cd (c) Hg forms no amalgam with iron and platinum

(c) Pb, Sn *(d) Zn, Al (*d) All of the above

51. Which compound is used as a purgative in medicine? 61. The metal present in insulin is:

(a) HgCl2 *(b) Hg2Cl2 (a) Cu (b) Fe

(c) CuCl (d) CuCl2 (*c) Zn (d) Mg

52. Thermal decomposition of zinc nitrate gives: 62. HgCl2 is reduced to Hg2Cl2 by:

(a) Zn *(b) ZnO (a) CH3COOH (b) CCl4

(c) Zn(NO2)2 (d) NO (c*) HCOOH (d) NH3

53. Which of the following is a poison? 63. Volatile metals are:

(a) Hg2Cl2 (b) BaSO4 (a) Cu, Ag, Au *(b) Zn, Cd, Hg

(c*) HgCl2 (d) NaHCO3 (c) C, Pb (d) Fe, Co, Ni

54. The compound widely used in making reference 64. Volatile metals are purified by:
electrode is:
178
(a) Liquation *(b) Distillation (b) Zinc protects iron but gets corroded itself

(c) Cupellation (d) Electrolysis (c) Tin plating is cheap but unreliable

65. Iodide of Millon's base is: *(d) None of the above

74. Which sulphide has a yellow colour?

(a) K2[HgI4] *
(a) CuS (b) PbS
(c) [Hg2O . NH2OH] . H2O (d) Hg(NH2 )I + Hg
(c) ZnS * (d) CdS
66. Cosmetic powders and zinc ointments contain:
75. Philosopher's wool when heated with BaO at 1100°C
gives the compound:
(a) ZnCl2 *(b) ZnO
*(a) BaZnO2 (b) Ba + ZnO2
(c) ZnCO3 (d) ZnSO4
(c) BaCdO2 (d) BaO2 +Zn
67. Substance used in glazing pottery is:
76. Which set represents an example of non typical
*(a) ZnO (b) ZnCl2
transition elements?
(c) Alum (d) Calomel
*(a) Zn, Cd, Hg (b) Sc, Ti, V
68. Zn gives H2 gas with H2SO4 and HCl but not with HNO3
(c) Cu, Ag, Au (d) Cr, Fe, Mn
because:
77. Which metal sulphide is not black?
(a) Zn acts as an oxidising agent when react with HNO3
*(a) NiS (b) CoS
(b) HNO3 is weaker acid than H2SO4 and HCl
(c) CuS (d) ZnS
(c) In electrochemical series Zn is above hydrogen
78. When iron or zinc is added to CuSO4 solution, copper is
*(d) NO3- ion is reduced in preference to hydronium ion
precipitated. It is due to:
69. Which of the following is used for sterilization of surgical
(a) Hydrolysis of CuSO4 (b) Oxidation of Cu2+
instruments?
(*c) Reduction of Cu2+ (d) lonization of CuSO4
*(a) HgCl2 (b) ZnCl2
79. The metal that does not displace hydrogen from an acid
(c) Hg2Cl2 (d) ZnO
is:
70. The compound which gives oxygen on moderate heating
*(a) Hg (b) Zn
is:
(c) Al (d) Ca
(a) Zinc oxide (b*) Mercuric oxide
80. A yellow ppt. is formed when H2S is passed through an
(c) Aluminium oxide (d) Ferric oxide
acidified solution of:
71. Acidic nature of Zn(OH)2 is shown from the formation of
(a) Co2+ ions *(b) Cd2+ ions
the following compound with the formula:
(c) Cu2+ ions (d) Ni2+ ions
*(a) Na2ZnO2 (b) Na2CO3
81. Complete dissociation of ZnCl2 gives:
(c) NaZnO2 (d) None
*(a) 3 ions (b) 5 ions
72. White vitriol is:
(c) 4 ions (d) 2 ions
(a) CuSO4 . 5H2O (b) FeSO4 . 7H2O
82. Galvanised iron is rust proof due to the electroplating of
(*c) ZnSO4 . 7H2O (d) NiSO4 .5H2O
iron with:
73. Various methods have been employed for protecting iron
(*a) Zn (b) Ni
from rusting. Which of the following is incorrect?
(c) Cr (d) Sn
(a) Zinc plating is more permanent than chrome plating

179
83. Which of the following is coated over iron articles to (*a) Zero (b) One
protect iron from corrosion?
(c) Two (d) Three
(a) Paint (b) Zinc metal
93. ZnSO4 on heating to 800°C gives:
(c) Tin metal *(d) All of these
*(a) ZnO + SO2 + O2 (b) Zn + SO2
84. Cadmipone is a mixture of:
(c) ZnS+O2 (d) Zn + SO2 + O2
*(a) CdS and BaSO4 (b) CaSO4 and BaS
94. Which does not give a precipitate with excess of NaOH?
(c) CaS and ZnSO4 (d) CaSO4 and ZnS
(a) HgCl2 (b) HgNO3
85. Which alloy contains Cu and Zn?
(c) FeSO4 *(d) ZnSO4
(a) Bronze (b) Solder
95. The one which has lowest ox. no. of Hg:
(*c) Gun metal (d) Type metal
(a) Hg(NO2)2 (b) HgCl2
86. The valency of mercuric ion is:
(c) Hg(NO3)2 *(d) Hg2Cl2
(a) One *(b) Two
96. Which metal loses meniscus on exposure to ozone?
(c) Four (d) All
(a) Mg (b) Zn
87. Zn(OH)2 is:
(*c) Hg (d) Cu
(*a) Amphoteric (b) Monobasic
97. Ozone can be detected using:
(c) Dibasic (d) None
(a) Ag (b*) Hg
88. Chinese white is:
(c) AgCl (d) NaCl
(a) ZnS (b) ZnCO3
98. A reagent that can separate Fe from Zn is:
(c) ZnS + BaSO4 *(d) ZnO
(*a) NaOH (b) HCl
89. Silver, mercury and lead have been placed in same
group of qualitative analysis, because they form: (c) H2S (d) NaNO2

(a) Carbonates soluble in dilute HNO3 99. Colourless transition metal ion is:

(b) Nitrates (a) Zn2+ (b) Cu+

(*c) Insoluble chlorides (c) Ti4+ (*d) All

(d) Same type of coloured compounds 100. Which of the following is correct?

90. Which metal is used in making cathode containers of dry (a) Calomel is mercuric chloride
cell?
(b) Calomel is widely used as an antiseptic
*(a) Zn (b) Bi
(c*) Calomel is used medically as purgative
(c) Cr (d) Fe
(d) Calomel is freely soluble in water
91. Zn and Cd do not show variable valency, because:
101. When excess of SnCl2 is added to a solution of HgCl2, a
(a) They have only two electrons in outermost subshells white ppt. turning to grey is obtained. This grey colour is
due to the formation of:
*(b) Their d-subshells are complete
(a) Hg2Cl2 (b) SnCl4
(c) Their d-subshells are incomplete
(c) Sn *(d) Hg2
(d) They are relatively soft metals
102. Melting of Zn metal and then pouring it into cold water
92. Oxidation state of Hg in amalgam is: gives:

180
(a) Zn dust (*b) Granulated Zn (c) Formaldehyde reacts with KMnO4 in presence of strong
alkali
(c) Hard Zn metal (d) Soft Zn metal
(d) KMnO4 reacts with concentrated H2SO4
103. Zinc reacts with cone. H2SO4, to produce:
3. A solution of Cr(NO3)2 slowly turns green when
*(a) ZnSO4 (b) ZnCO3 concentrated HCl is added to it. It is due to the formation of:
(a) CrCl3 (b) Cr2O3 (c) CrO4- (*d) Chloro complexes
(c) Zn (d) None
4. In the manufacture of iron from an iron oxide ore,
104. On heating ZnCl2 . H2O, the compound obtained is:
limestone is added because it acts as:
(a) ZnCl2 *(b) Zn(OH)Cl
(a) An oxidizing agent (b) A reducing agent
(c) Zn(OH)2 (d) ZnO
(c*) A flux (d) A precipitating agent
105. The compound used in preservation of wood is:
5. Steel contains:
(a) NaCl (b) HgCl2
(a) 2.5-4.5%C (*b) 0.5-1.5%C (c) 0.12-0.25% C (d) 1-2% C
(c)* ZnCl2 (d) CaCl2
6. Stainless steel contains:
106. Granulated Zn is obtained by:
(a) 50% Cr (b) 2.5% Cr (c)* 14% Cr (d) 2% Cr
(a) Suddenly cooling molten Zn
7. Ammonium dichromate is used in some fire works. The
green coloured powder blown in air is:
(*b) Adding molten Zn to water
(a) CrO3 *(b) Cr2O3 (c) Cr (d) CrO(O2)
(c) Heating Zn 100 to 150°C
8. The alloy which contains nickel is:
(d) Dropping molten Zn drop by drop
(a) Brass (b) Bell metal (c) Bronze (*d) German silver
107. Roasting of HgS in air produces:
9. The metal used for making armoured steel for tanks and
(a) HgO (b) HgSO3
domestic safes is:
(c) HgSO4 *(d) Hg
(a*) Manganese (b) Aluminium
108. The flux used in soldering is:
(c) Lead (d) Chromium
(a) HgO *(b) ZnO
10. The process of nitriding used in the treatment of steel is:
(c) CdO (d) None
(*a) Heating steel in an atmosphere of ammonia
109. Which is not true?
(b) Heating steel to a bright redness and then cooling
(a) ZnS is white solid which turns yellow on exposure to light
(c) Heating steel to bright redness and then cooling by
(b) ZnS is precipitated on passing H2S to aqueous Na2ZnO2 plunging in air

(c) Basic zinc carbonate is ZnCO3 . 3Zn(OH)2 (d) None of the above

Alk.med.
(d*) HgCl2 reacts with NH3 (g) to give [Hg(NH3 )4 ]Cl2 11. In Mn04 + I-   X; X is:

D-BLOCK-III (a*) IO3- (b) IO4 (c) I2 (d) IO-

1. Ferric oxide in furnace is reduced by: 12. Pig iron is converted into steel by reducing the amount
of carbon contained in it, in a: (a) Blast furnace (b) Pyrite
(a) C (b) H2
burner (*c) Bessemer's converter (d) None of these
*(c) CO (d) CO2
13. Mond process is used in the extraction of: (a) Co (b*) Ni
(c) Mo (d) Zn
2. Potassium manganate (K2MnO4) is formed when:
14. Manganese steel contains:
(a) Cl2 is passed into an aqueous KMnO4 solution
(*a) Fe + C + Mn (b) Fe + C + Al
*(b) MnO2 is fused with KOH in air
181
(c) Fe + Mn (d) Fe + Mn +Cr 25. Substances which do not react with cold water but react
with steam are:
15. Iron is rendered passive in concentrated:
(a)C, Ca, SO2 (b) Fe, Al, Cl2(c) CO2,Na, Mg *(d) C, Fe, Mg
(a) H2SO4 (b) H3PO4 (c) HCl (*d) HNO3
26. The following reaction describes the rusting of iron,
16. Most common oxidation states shown by cerium are: 4Fe+3O2  4Fe3++6O2-.

(a) +2, +4 (*b) +3, +4 (c) +3, +5 (d) +2, +3 Which one of the following statements is incorrect?

17. Platinum, palladium, irridium, etc., are called noble
metals because:
(a) Alfred Nobel discovered them
(*b) They are inert towards many common reagents
(c) They are shining, lustrous and pleasing to look
(d) They are found in native state
(a) This is an example of a redox reaction
(*b) Metallic iron is reduced to Fe2+
(c) Fe3+ is an oxidizing agent
(d) Metallic iron is a reducing agent
27. Which is formed when FeSO4 reacts with an oxidizing
agent?

18. Which of the following is a ferrous alloy? (a) Fe(OH)SO4 (b) FeSO4NO (c) Fe(OH)2 (*d) Fe2(SO4)3

(*a) Invar (b) Solder (c) Magnalium (d) Type metal 28. Iron sheets are galvanized mainly to:

19. The raw materials fed into the blast furnace for making (a) Harden the surface (b) Increase lustre
iron are:
(c) Prevent action of water
(a) FeO, CaCO3 and coke (b) Fe2O3, CaO and coke
*(d) Prevent action of oxygen and water
(c*) Fe2O3,CaCO3 and coke (d) Fe3O4,Ca(OH)2 and coke
29. An aqueous solution of FeSO4,Al2(SO4)3 and chrome
20. A clock spring is heated to a high temperature and then alum is heated with excess of Na2O2 and filtered. The
suddenly plunged into cold water. This treatment will cause materials obtained are: [IIT 1996]
the metal to become: [AFMC 2002]
(a) A colourless filtrate and a green residue
(a) Soft and ductile (b) More springy than before
(b) A yellow filtrate and a green residue
*(c) Hard and brittle (case hardening)
(*c) A yellow filtrate and a brown residue
(d) Strongly magnetic
(d) A green filtrate and a brown residue
21. The process of covering iron sheets with a layer of zinc
is called: 30. Correct formula of potassium ferricyanide is:

*(a) Galvanizing (b) Zinc plating (a) K4[Fe(CN)6] (*b) K3[Fe(CN)6]

(c) Tempering (d) Dressing (c) KFe[Fe(CN)6-H20] (d) K2Fe[Fe(CN)6]

22. Which form of iron has lowest percentage of carbon? 31. Number of electrons transferred in each case when

(a) Cast iron (*b) Wrought iron KMnO4 acts as an oxidising agent to give MnO2, Mn2+,
Mn(OH)3 and MnO4-, are respectively:
(c) Steel (d) All have same percentage
(*a) 3, 5, 4 and 1 (b) 4, 3, 1 and 5
23. A substance which is not paramagnetic is:
(c) 1,3, 4 and 5 (d) 5, 4, 3 and 1
(a) Cr(ClO4)3 *(b) KMnO4 (c) TiCl3 (d) VOBr2
32. The colour of Mohr's salt, (NH4)2SO4Fe(SO4)-6H2O is:
24. Maximum oxidation state is presented by:
(a) White *b) Green (c) Violet (d) Blue
(*a) CrO2Cl2 and MnO4- (b) MnO2
33. Which is not an ore of iron?
(c) [Fe(CN)6]3- and [Co(CN)6]3- (d) MnO
(a) Haematite (b) Magnetite

182
(*c) Cassiterite (d) Limonite (a) The formation of Ni(CO)4

34. In India iron is obtained from the ore: (b) The decomposition of Ni(CO)4

(a) Cassiterite (b) Azurite (c*) The formation and thermal decomposition of Ni(CO)4

*(c) Haematite (d) Cryolite (d) The formation and catalytic decomposition of Ni(CO)4

35. Platinum metal can be dissolved in: 43. In the metallurgy of iron, when limestone is added to
the blast furnace, the calcium ion ends up as:
(a) Hot concentrated hydrochloric acid
(*a) Slag (b) Gangue
(b) Hot concentrated nitric acid
(c) Metallic calcium (d) Calcium carbonate
(c) Hot dilute sulphuric acid
44. Rusting of iron is a chemical reaction. The reaction is:
(d*) A mixture of hydrochloric and nitric acids (a) Analysis (b) Displacement (c*) Oxidation of Fe (d)
Double decomposition
36. The stainless steel developed in India contains the
following special components: 45. Which of the following elements shows maximum
number of different oxidation states in its compounds?
(a) Vanadium and cobalt
(a) Eu (b) La (*c) Gd (d) Am
(b) Nickel and magnesium
46. The properties of cast iron, wrought iron and steel are
*(c) Manganese and chromium
different because they have:
(d) Aluminium and zinc
(a) Different contents of sulphur
37. Among the following series of transition metal ions, the
(*b) Different contents of carbon
one where all metal ions have 3d2 electronic
configuration is: (c) Traces of different elements

(a) Ti3+,V2+,Cr3+,Mn4+ (b) Ti+, V4+,Cr6+, Mn7+ (d) Traces of different iron oxidise

(c) Ti4+,V3+,Cr2+,Mn3+ (*d) Ti2+, V3+,Cr4+, Mn5+
38. Which one of the following ionic species will impart
colour to an aqueous solution? [CBSE 1998] (a) Fe 4+
(b) Cu+ (c) Zn2+ (*d) Cr3+
39. The. alloy of steel that is used for making automobile
parts and utensils is:
47. A hard and resistant alloy generally used in tip of nib of
pen is:
(a) Os, Ir (*b) Pt, Cr (c) V, Fe (d) Fe, Cr
48. Which occurs in nature in free state ?
(a) Fe (b) Co (c) Ni (*d) Pt

(a*) Stainless steel (b) Nickel steel (c) Tungsten steel 49. The general electronic elements is:
(d) Chromium steel
(a) (n-1)d1-5 (b) (n-1)d1-10 ns1
40. Which of the following statements is not correct?
(c)* (n-1)d1-10 ns0-2 (d) None of these
*(a) La(OH)2, is less basic than Lu(OH)3
50. Transition elements are good conductors of current
(b) In lanthanoid series ionic radius of Ln3+ ions decreases because:

(c) La is actually an element of transition series rather than (a) They are metals (b) They are all solids
lanthanoid series
(c) They have free electrons in outer energy orbits
(d) Atomic radii of Zr and Hf are same because of lanthanoid
contraction *(d) All of the above

41. A metal forms a volatile carbonyl compound and this
property is taken advantage of its extraction. The metal is:
(a) Iron (b*) Nickel (c) Cobalt (d) Titanium
42. The extraction of nickel involves:
183
51. The temperature of blast furnace to produce iron from
its ore Fe2O3 varies from 500°C at the top of the furnace to
about 1900°C at the bottom of the furnace. The reaction
between the ore Fe2O3 and CO at the lowest temperature (–
500°C) is: [CBSE (PMT) 2002]
(a) 3Fe2O3 +CO  2Fe3O4 +CO2
(b) Fe2O3 +CO  2FeO + CO2 (a) Wrought iron (*b) Cast iron

(*c) Fe2O3 + 3CO  2Fe+3CO2 (c) Malleable iron (d) Steel

(d) Fe2O3 +CO  2Fe+CO2 +½O2 63. Which statement is incorrect?

52. Transition elements are coloured due to: (a) Iron belongs to 3d-transition series of the periodic table
(b*) Iron belongs to f-block of the periodic table
(*a) Small size (b) Metallic nature
(c) Iron belongs to first transition series
(c) Unpaired d-electrons (d) None of these
(d) Iron belongs to group VIII of the periodic table
53. A transition element X has a configuration [Ar]3d4 in its
+3 oxidation state. Its atomic number is: 64. Addition of K4[Fe(CN)6] solution to FeCl3 solution gives:
(a) Ferro-ferricyanide (b*) Ferri-ferrocyanide
(*a) 25 (b) 26 (c) 22 (d) 19
(c) Ferri-ferricyanide (d) None of these
54. Elements of group 11 and 12 are:
65. Fe ore is concentrated by:
(a) Normal elements *(b) Transition elements
(a) Magnetic treatment *(b) Froth floatation
(c) Alkaline earth metals (d) Alkali metals
(c) Electrolysis (d) Roasting
55. Formation of interstitial compounds makes the transition
metal: 66. Finely divided iron combines with CO to give:

(b) More ductile (d*) More brittle (a) Fe(CO)4 (b*) Fe(CO)5 (c) Fe(CO)6 (d) Fe(CO)7

(a) More soft (c) More metallic 67. The term 'fool's gold' is used for a mineral which shines
like gold. It is: *(a) Iron pyrite (b) Copper glance
56. K3[Co(N02)6]is:
(c) Cinnabar (d) Cadmium sulphide
(*a) Fischer's salt (c) Rinnmann's green
68. The formula of sodium nitroprusside is:
(b) Thenard's blue (d) Blue vitriol
(a) Na4[Fe(CN)5NOS] (b*) Na2[Fe(CN)5NO]
57. Prussian blue is: (a) K3[Fe(CN)6] (c) K2Fe[Fe(CN)6]
(c) NaFe[Fe(CN)6] (d) Na2[Fe(CN)6NO2]
(b*) Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3 (d) K4[Fe(CN)6]
69. Magnetite is:
58. Ferrous sulphate is called as:
(a) 2Fe2O3-3H2O (b) FeS2 *(c) Fe3O4 (d) Fe2O3
(a*) Green vitriol (b) White vitriol
70. Automobile engine blocks are made up of:
(c) Jeweller's rouge (d) Glauber's salt
(a) Stainless steel (b) Nickel-chromium steel
59. Percentage of nickel in nickel steel is:
(*c) Cast iron (d) Wrought iron
(a) 1.5% *(b) 3.5% (c) 6.5% (d) 8.5%
71. A compound of a metal ion Mx+ (Z = 24) has a spin only
60. Iron is obtained on large scale from haematite (Fe2O3):
magnetic moment of 15 Bohr Magnetons. The number of
(a) By reduction (*b) By oxidation unpaired electrons in the compound are:

(c) By reduction followed by oxidation (a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 5 (*d) 3

(d) By oxidation followed by reduction 72. Pig iron: *(a) Contains carbon and other impurities

61. In comparison to ferrous salts, ferric salts are: (b) Is pure form of iron

(*a) More stable (b) Less stable (c) Is same as wrought iron

(c) Equally stable (d) None of these (d) Is same as steel

62. Which form contains the maximum percentage of 73. The formula of haematite is:
carbon?
(a) Fe3O4 (*b) Fe2O3 (c) FeCO3 (d) FeS2
184
74. Iron rusts in the presence of: 85. The lanthanoids contraction is responsible for the fact
that: (a) Zr and Y have about the same radius
(a) O2 and N2 *(b) O2 and moisture
(b) Zr and Nb have similar oxidation state
(c) Moisture only (d) O2 only
*(c) Zr and Hf have about the same radius
75. Which match is incorrect?
(d) Zr and Zn have the same oxidation state
*(a) Ammonia soda process—manufacture of potassium
carbonate 86. Other forms of iron can be produced from:

(b) Bessemer's process—manufacture of steel (a) Cast iron (b) Wrought iron (*c) Pig iron (d) Steel

(c) Mac Arther and Forest process—extraction of silver 87. Which form of iron is least ductile?

(d) Dow's process—manufacture of phenol (a) Hard steel (b*) Cast iron (c) Mild steel (d) Wrought iron

76. Iron, once dipped in concentrated H2SO4, does not 88. The colour of CuCr2O7 solution in water is green
displace copper from sulphate solution, because: because:

(a) It is less reactive than copper (a) Cr2O72- ions are green (b) Cu2+ ions are green

(b) A layer of sulphate is deposited on it (c) Both ions are green

(*c) A layer of oxide is deposited on it (*d) Cu2+ ions are blue and Cr2O72- ions are yellow

(d) None of the above 89. Stainless steel does not rust because:

77. Which of the following elements shows maximum (a) Nickel present in it does not rust
number of different oxidation states in its compounds?
(b) Iron forms a hard chemical compound with
(a) Eu (b) La (c) Gd (d*) Am chromium present in it

78. The grey cast iron contains: (c) Chromium and nickel combine with iron

(a) Iron carbide (b) Silicon carbide (d*) Chromium forms an oxide layer that protects iron from
rusting
(c) Silicon dioxide (*d) Graphite
90. Among the lanthanoids which was obtained by synthetic
79. Soft and pliable steel is obtained by: methods? (a) Lu (*b) Pm (c) Pr (d) Gd

(a) Tempering (b) Nitriding (c*) Annealing (d) None 91. Among the following, the compound that is both
paramagnetic and coloured is:
80. Pig iron is manufactured using:
(a) K2Cr2O7 (b) (NH4)2[TiCl6] (*c) VOSO4 (d) K3[Cu(CN)4]
(a) An electric furnace (*b) A blast furnace
92. Hard steel contains:
(c) An open hearth furnace (d) None of the above
(a) No carbon (*b) 0.6-1.5% carbon
81. Which one of the following ionic species will impart
colour to an aqueous solution? (c) 5% carbon (d) 0.5-0.2% carbon

(a) Ti4+ (b) Cu+ (c) Zn2+ (*d) Cr3+ 93. The sandstone in some iron ores is removed by:

82. Which of the following manganese oxide is amphoteric? (a) Carbon filters (b) Compressed air

*(a) MnO2 (b) Mn2O3 (c) Mn2O7 (d) MnO (c*) Limestone (d) Sulphuric acid

83. Steel that is resistant to acids is: 94. Actinoids: (a) Are all synthetic elements

(a) Carbon steel *(b) Molybdenum steel (b) Include element 114

(c) Stainless steel (d) Nickel alloy steel (c) Have only short life radio isotopes

84. Which metal does not form amalgam? (*d) Have variable valence

*(a) Fe (b) Cu (c) Ag (d) Zn

185
95. Mn belongs to: (d) Preparation of sulphur dioxide

(a) s-block (b) p-block (c)* d-block (d) f-block 106. Blood red colour solution is produced when ferric
chloride solution is treated with:
96. Oxford process is used in extraction of:
(a) KCN (b*) KSCN (c) KCNO (d) K3[Fe(CN)6]
(a) Fe (b) Co (c) Pt (*d) Ni
107. The group of metals which is known as ferrous metals
97. The percentage of carbon is same in: is: (*a) Fe, Co, Ni (b) Ru, Rh, Pd

(*a) Cast iron and pig iron (b) Cast iron and steel (c) Os, Ir, Pt (d) Cr, Mn, Cu

(c) Pig iron and steel (d) Pig iron and wrought iron 108. Which group of metals is known as Pt-metals?

98. The highest magnetic moment for transition metals (a) Fe, Co, Ni (b) Ag, Au, Cu (c) Zn, Cd, Hg (d*) Ru, Rh, Pd
exists for: (a) 3d9 (b) 3d7 (*c) 3d5 (d) 3d3
109. Which is used for stopping bleeding?
99. The carbon content of:
(*a) Ferric chloride (b) Mohr's salt
(a) Cast iron is in between that of steel and wrought iron
(c) Green vitriol (d) Sodium nitroprusside
(b) Pig iron is in between that of steel and wrought iron
110. Which is formed when iron reacts with carbon?
(c)* Steel is in between that of cast iron and wrought iron
(a) FeC2 (b*) Fe3C (c) FeC3 (d) Fe2C
(d) Wrought iron is in between that of steel and cast iron-
Block Elements or The Transition Metals 111. Which will reduce acidified potassium dichromate
solution?
100. Near the top of a blast furnace employed for the
extraction of iron the metal oxides are reduced to spongy (a) Potash alum *(b) Mohr's salt
iron by: (a) Carbon (*b) CO (c) CO2 (d) Limestone
(c) Chile saltpetre (d) White vitriol
101. Cast iron is manufactured by remelting:
112. Which one of the following does not decolourise an
*(a) Pig iron and pouring into moulds acidified KMnO4 solution?

(b) Steel and pouring into moulds (a) SO2 (b*) FeCl3

(c) Wrought iron and pouring into moulds (c) H2O2 (d) FeSO4

(d) Iron ore and pouring into moulds 113. Ferrous sulphate forms Turnbull's blue with:

102. Which metal is used for filament of electric bulb? (a) KCN (b) NH4SCN

(a) Pt (b) Fe (*c) W (d) Cu (c*) K3[Fe(CN)6] (d) K4[Fe(CN)6]

103. Bessemer's converter is used in the manufacture of: 114. The first man-made atom is:

(a) Cast iron (b) Pig iron (*c) Steel (d) Wrought iron (a) Os (b) Na

104. Anhydrous ferric chloride is prepared by: (c) Zr *(d) Tc

(a) Dissolving ferric hydroxide in dil. HCl 115. The variety of iron having highest melting point is: (a)
Pig iron (b) Cast iron
(b) Dissolving ferric hydroxide in cone. HCl
*(c) Wrought iron (d) Steel
(c*) Passing dry chlorine gas over heated scrap iron
116. Blueprint papers have a coating of:
(d) Passing dry HCl gas over heated scrap iron
(*a) Mixture of potassium ferricyanide and ammonium ferric
105. One of the important uses of ferrous sulphate is in the: citrate or ferric oxalate

*(a) Manufacture of blue-black ink (b) Sodium nitroprusside

(b) Manufacture of chalks (c) Prussian blue

(c) Preparation of hydrogen sulphide

186
(d) None of the above 126. The tempering of steel makes it:

117. The impurity of sulphur makes the iron: (a) Hard *(b) Soft

(a) Fibrous *(b) Red short (c) Heavy (d) Brittle

(c) Cold short (d) Malleable 127. The element which acts as a good catalyst for several
reactions has atomic number:
118. The axles are made by heating rods of iron embedded
in charcoal powder. This process is known as: (a) 16 (b) 20

(a) Tempering (b) Annealing (*c) 28 (d) 37

(c) Nitriding (*d) Case hardening 128. Which one of the elements is a d-block element? (a) As
*(b) Pt
119. Red hot steel rod on suddenly immersing in water
becomes: (c) Pb (d) Ra

(a) Soft and malleable *(b) Hard and brittle 129. Ni2+ ion is:

(c) Tough and ductile (d) Fibrous (a) Diamagnetic *(b) Paramagnetic

120. When steel is heated red hot and then slowly cooled, (c) Colourless (d) None of these
the process is known as:
130. The element which forms a coloured chloride is: (a) Sb
*(a) Annealing (b) Hardening (*b) Na

(c) Tempering (d) Nitriding (c) Zn (d) Cr

121. In nitroprusside ion, the iron and NO exist as FeII and 131. The elements which exhibit both vertical and horizontal
NO+ rather than FeIII and NO. These forms can be similarities are:
differentiated by:
(a) Inert gas elements (b) Representative elements (c)
(a) Estimating the concentration of iron Rare elements *(d) Transition elements

(b) Measuring the concentration of CN- 132. Variable valency is a general feature of..... elements,

(c*) Measuring the solid state magnetic moment (a) s-block (b) p-block

(d) Thermally decomposing the compound (c)* d-block (d) All of these

122. In blast furnace the highest temperature is in: 133. Which of the following elements is responsible for
oxidation of water to O2 in the biological process?
(a) Reduction zone (b) Slag zone
(a) Fe (*b) Mn
*(c) Combustion zone (d) Fusion zone
(c) Cu (d) Mo
123. The process of heating of steel to temperature much
below redness and then slowly cooling is called: (a) 134. The smelting of iron in a blast furnace involves the
Annealing (b) Hardening following processes:

(*c) Tempering (d) Case hardening (a) Combustion (b) Reduction

124. Rust is: (c) Slag formation *(d) All of these

(*a) Fe2O3 . xH2O (b) FeO . xH2O 135. Which ion in aqueous medium has orange colour? *(a)
Cr2O72- (b) Cr3+
(c) Fe3O4 . xH2O (d) Fe2O3
(c) MnO4- (d) MnO42-
125. The common oxidation state of the elements of
lanthanoid series is: 136. The lanthanoid contraction is responsible for the fact
that:
(a) + 2 (*b) + 3
(a) Zr and Y have almost the same radius
(c) + 4 (d) + 1
(b) Zr and Nb have similar oxidation state
187
(c*) Zr and Hf have almost the same radius (*a) K2MnO3 + O2 + MnO2

(d) Zr and Zn have same oxidation state (b) K2MnO4 + MnO2 + O2

137. Mohr's salt is a: (c) MnO2 + O2

(a) Normal salt (b) Acid salt (d) None of the above

(c) Basic salt *(d) Double salt 146. Addition of high proportions of manganese makes steel
useful in making rails of rail roads because manganese:
138. The iron obtained from the blast furnace is called: *(a)
Pig iron (b) Cast iron (*a) Gives hardness to steel and can remove oxygen and
sulphur
(c) Wrought iron (d) Steel
(b) Helps the formation of oxides of iron
139. The brown ring complex compound is formulated as
[Fe(H2O)5(NO)]SO4. The oxidation state of iron is: (c) Can show highest oxidation state of +7

(*a) +1 (b) + 2 (d) None of the above

(c) + 3 (d) + 4 147. Spiegeleisen is an alloy of:

140. Ferrous sulphate on heating gives: (a) Fe and Mn *(b) Fe, Mn and C

(a) SO3 (b) SO2 (c) Fe, Mn and Cr (d) Fe and Cr

(c) Fe2O3 * (d) All 148. As percentage of carbon increases in iron, its hardness:

141. Which of the following statements is not true for (a) Decreases (*b) Increases
Mohr's salt?
(c) Remains same (d) None of these
(a) It decolourises KMnO4 solution
149. Pudding process is used in the manufacture of:
(b) It is a double salt
(a) Steel (b) Cast iron
(c*) Oxidation state of iron is +3
*(c) Wrought iron (d) Pig iron
(d) It is a primary standard
150. Useful lanthanoid member is:
142. Permanent magnet is made from:
(*a) Cerium (b) Lanthanum
(a) Cast iron (*b) Steel
(c) Neodymium (d) Lutetium
(c) Wrought iron (d) All of these
151. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct with
143. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct, reference to the ferrous and ferric ions?
when a mixture of NaCl and K2Cr2O7 is gently warmed with
cone. H2SO4? (a) Fe3+ gives brown colour with potassium ferricyanide

(a) A deep red vapour is evolved (b) Fe3+ gives blue precipitate with potassium
ferricyanide
(b) The vapour when passed into NaOH solution gives a
yellow solution of Na2CrO4 (c) Fe3+ gives red colour with potassium ferricyanide

(c) Chromyl chloride is formed (*d) All of the above

(*d) All of the above 152. Chromium is used in making:

144. Ferric sulphate on heating gives: (a) Bronze (b) Brass

(a) SO2 and SO3 (b) SO2 only *(c) Stainless steel (d) Electrodes

(c*) SO3 only (d) S only 153. The element present in gun metal is:

145. KMnO4 on heating above 200°C gives: (a*) Cu (b) Co

(c) Ti (d) Sc
188
154. Which metal is ferromagnetic? (c) Large ionic charge (d*) All are correct

(a) Cr *(b) Fe 164. Fe2+ ion can be distinguished by Fe3+ ion by:

(c) Zn (d) Al (a) BaCl2 (b) AgNO3

155. The transition element with least atomic number is: *(c) NH4SCN (d) None

(a) Zr *(b) Sc 165. The element present in red blood cells of human blood
is:
(c) Os (d) Pt
(a*) Fe (b) Ra
156. Which is less reactive?
(c) Co (d) All
(a) Fe (b) Ni
166. d-block elements are arranged in ..... of periodic table,
*(c) Pt (d) Co
(a) Three series (b) Six series
157. The transition metal present in vitamin B12 is:
(c) Two series *(d) Four series
(a) Fe *(b) Co
167. Which oxide of Mn is acidic in nature?
(c) Ni (d) Na
(a) MnO (*b) Mn2O7
158. Number of electrons present in the outermost orbit of
Fe atom is: (c) Mn2O3 (d) MnO2

(a) 3 (b) 1 168. The element showing oxidation states of + 2, + 3, + 4,

+ 6 and + 7 is:
*(c) 2 (d) 4
(a) Cr *(b) Mn
159. The most correct statement for transition metals is:
(c) Co (d) V
(a) They possess low b.p.
169. When steam is passed over heated iron, one of the
(b) They exhibit inner pair effect products is:

(c*) They exhibit variable oxidation states (a) FeO (b) Fe2O3

(d) They do not possess catalytic property (c*) Fe3O4 (d) FeSO4

160. The tendency to show complex formation is maximum 170. Rusting of iron in moist air involves:
in:
(*a) Loss of electrons by Fe
(a) s-block elements (b) p-block elements
(b) Gain of electrons by Fe
(c*) d-block elements (d) f-block elements
(c) Neither gain nor loss of electrons
161. Maximum number of oxidation states of the transition
metals is derived from the following configuration: (d) Hydration of Fe

(a) ns electrons (b) (n - 1)d electrons 171. d-block elements generally form:

(c) (n + 1)d electrons (*d) ns + (n - 1)d electrons (a) Covalent hydrides (b) Metallic hydrides

162. Which is not correct for transition metals? *(c) Interstitial hydrides (d) Salt-like hydrides

(a) Variable oxidation states 172. Second series of transition elements starts with:

(b) Complex formation *(a) Yttrium (b) Chromium

(c) Partially filled d-orbitals (c) Zinc (d) Scandium

(*d) All the ions are colourless 173. The number of incomplete orbitals in inner transition
elements is:
163. Transition elements form complexes because of: (a)
Small cation size (b) Vacant d-orbitals *(a) 3 (b) 4
189
(c) 2 (d) 1 (c) Very dark green (d) Yellow

174. The catalyst used for the hydrogenation of vegetable 183. Which metal makes steel suitable for cutting purposes
oils for making margarine is: by maintaining the cutting edge of the blade? (a) Mn
(b) Al
(a) Cu (b) Na
(*c) W (d) C
*(c) Ni (d) Zn
184. Which does not possess allotropic forms?
175. An explosion takes place when cone. H2SO4 is added to
KMnO4. Which of the following is formed? (a) C (b) Sn

*(a) Mn2O7 (b) MnO2 (*c) Fe (d) P

(c) MnSO4 (d) Mn2O3 185. Heteropoly acids are formed by:

176. The brown ring obtained in ring test for nitrate is due (a) Be (b) Fe
to the formation of:
*(c) Mo (d) Cr
(a) Fe2SO4 (b) FeSO4
186. Densities of transition metals are:
*(c) FeSO4 . NO (d) Fe2SO4 . 2NO2
(a) Low (b) Very low
177. The highest oxidation state is achieved by which of the
following? (c) High (*d) Very high

(*a) (n - 1)d5, ns2 (b) (n - 1)d5 , ns1 187. CrO3 dissolves in aqueous NaOH to give:

(c) (n - 1)d3, ns2 (d) (n - 1)d8, ns2 *(a) CrO42- (b) Cr(OH)2

178. Chromium compound used in tanning of leather is: (c) Cr2O72- (d) Cr(OH)3

(a) Cr2O3 188. Invar steel, which is very little affected by temperature
changes, contains 36%:
(b) CrO2Cl2
(a) Co (*b) Ni
(c) CrCl3
(c) Cu (d) Al
(*d) K2SO4 . Cr2(SO4)3 . 24H2O
189. Blow holes of steel are removed by adding:
179. The stability of ferric ion is due to:
(a) C (b) Ni
(a) Completely filled d-orbitals
(c) Sand * (d) Spiegeleisen
(*b) Half filled d-orbitals
190. Which statement is not correct?
(c) Half filled f-orbitals
(a) Fe(CO)5 reacts with Br2Cl4
(d) Completely filled f-orbitals
(b) Carbonyl complexes are usually formed with
180. Which transition element shows the highest oxidation transition metals
state?
*(c) All transition metals form mono metallic carbonyls
(a) Fe *(b) Mn
(d) The decomposition of Ni(CO)4 to give Ni is used in the
(c) V (d) Cr extraction of Ni by Mond's process

181. Chromium has most stable oxidation state of: 191. The density of transition metals.....in a series.

(*a) + 5 (b) + 3 *(a) Gradually increases (b) Gradually decreases

(c) + 2 (d) + 4 (c) Remains constant (d) None of these

182. The Fe2+ ion is: 192. Each transition series contains:

(a) Blue (*b) Light green (a) 12 elements *(b) 10 elements

190
(c) 14 elements (d) 8 elements (c) 8 (d) 3

193. Most of the transition metals are paramagnetic due to 202. Transition elements form alloys easily because they
the presence of: have:

(a) Completed d-orbitals (b) Completed f-orbitals (a) Same atomic number

*(c) Unpaired electrons (d) None of these (b) Same electronic configuration

194. Transition metals in their compounds show: (*c) Nearly same atomic size

(a) Ionic bonds (d) None of the above

(b) Covalent bonds 203. Acidified potassium dichromate is treated with

hydrogen sulphide. In the reaction the oxidation number of
(*c) Ionic and covalent bonds chromium:

(d) Ionic and co-ordinate bonds (a) Increases from + 3 to + 6

195. Transition metals and their oxides are used in industrial *(b) Decreases from + 6 to + 3
processes as:
(c) Remains unchanged
(a) Detergents (b) Insecticides
(d) Decreases from + 6 to + 2
*(c) Catalysts (d) None
204. The radius of La3+ (Atomic no. 57) is 1.06 A Which one
196. Which statement is incorrect about transition of the following value is closest to radius of Lu3+ (at. no.
elements? 71)?

(a) All elements form complexes (a) 1.60 Å (b) 1.40 Å

(*b) All are paramagnetic (c) 1.06 Å (*d) 0.85 Å

(c) All show variable valency 205. The correct order of ionic radii of Y3+, La3+, Eu3+ and
Lu3+ is:
(d) All are not coloured ions
(a) Y3+ < La3+ < Eu3+ < Lu3+
197. When MnO2 is fused with KOH, a coloured compound
is formed, the product and its colour is: (*a) K2MnO4, (*b) Y3+ <L u3+ < Eu3+ < La3+
purple-green (b) KMnO4, purple
(c) Lu3+ < Eu3+ < La3+ < Y3+
(c) Mn2O3, brown (d) Mn3O4, black
(d) La3+ < Eu3+ < Lu3+ < Y3+
198. In the first transition series, the differentiating electron
enters: 206. Which is not true in case of transition metals?

(a) 5d-orbital (b) 4d-orbital (a) They are malleable and ductile

(*c) 3d-orbital (d) 2d-orbital (b) They have high melting and boiling points

199. The ionization potential of transition metals is ..... than *(c) They crystallise with body centred cubic and hexagonal
p-block elements. close packed structure only

(a*) Less (b) More (d) They show variable oxidation states although not always

(c) Equal (d) None 207. In the dichromate dianion:

200. The 3d-transition series contains elements from atomic (a) 4 Cr—O bonds are equivalent
number:
*(b) 6 Cr—O bonds are equivalent
(a) 22 to 30 (*b) 21 to 30
(c) All Cr—O bonds are equivalent
(c) 21 to 31 (d) 21 to 29
(d) All Cr—O bonds are non-equivalent
201. The number of d-electrons present in Fe2+ ions is: *(a)
6 (b) 4 208. Adam's catalyst is:

191
(a*) Pt and PtO (b) Pt 217. Transition metals are placed in the long form of
periodic table between:
(c) Pt and PtO2 (d) Pt2O and PtO
(a) 3rd and 4th group (b) 1st and 3rd group
209. In the case of d-block elements:
*(c) 2nd and 13th group (d) 1st and 2nd group
(*a) Outermost and penultimate shells are incomplete
218. The number of ions formed on dissolving one molecule
(b) Both penultimate and prepenultimate shells are of FeSO4(NH4)2SO4.6H2O is:
incomplete
(a) 4 (b*) 5 (c) 3 (d) 6
(c) Outermost shell is incomplete
219. Standard reduction potential of most of the transition
(d) Innermost shell is incomplete elements is generally: (a*) Negative (b) Positive (c) Zero
(d) None
210. The oxidation state of metal in metal carbonyl is: (*a)
0 (b) 1 220. Which one of the following elements constitutes a
major impurity in pig iron?
(c) 2 (d) 3
(a) Silicon (b) Oxygen (c) Sulphur (d*) Graphite
211. Which is the common oxidation state of the first
transition series of elements? 221. Which of the following has highest b.p.?

*(a) + 2 (b) + 6 (a) Cr (b*) Ti (c) Fe (d) Co

(c) + 8 (d) + 4 222. Most abundant transition element is: *(a) Fe (b) Sc (c)
Os (d) None
212. Hardness of transition elements is due to:
223. Ruthenium carbonyl is:
(a) Large atomic size (b) Metallic bonding
(a) Ru(CO)4 (*b) Ru(CO)5 (c) Ru(CO)8 (d) Ru(CO)6
*(c) Covalent bonds (d) High ionization energy
224. The lowest degree of paramagnetism is shown by: (a)
213. VIII group of the Mendeleef’s periodic table contains:
MnSO4.4H2O (b) FeSO4.6H2O
(a) 6 elements (b) 12 elements
(*c) CuS04.5H20 (d) NiSO4.6H20
(c) 3 elements (*d) 9 dements
225. A reduction in atomic size with increase in atomic
number is a characteristic of elements of:
214. Non-stoiehiometric compounds are formed by:
(a) High atomic mass (b) d-block
(a) Alkali metals
(*c) f-block (d) Radioactive
(*b) Transition elements
226. Prussian blue is formed when:
(c) Noble gases
(a) Ferrous sulphate reacts with FeCl3
(d) More than one of the above elements
(*b) Ferric sulphate reacts with K4[Fe(CN)6]
215. Transition metals are less reactive because of their:
(c) Ferrous ammonium sulphate reacts with FeCl3
(a) High ionization potential and low melting point
(d) Ammonium sulphate reacts with FeCl3
*(b) High ionization potential and high melting point
227. In haemoglobin the iron shows oxidation state :
(c) Low ionization potential and low melting point
(a) +2 (*b) +3 (c) +1 (d) +4
(d) Low ionization potential and high melting point
228. An example of double salt is:
216. Which of the following electronic configurations belong
to transition elements?
(a) Bleaching powder (b) K4[Fe(CN)6]
(a*) KL 3s2 p6 d5, 4s1 (b) KL 3s2 p6 d10, 4s2 p3
(c) Hypo (*d) Potash alum
(c) KL 3S 2 p6 d10 ,4s2 4p1 (d) KLM 4s2 p6 d10 , 5s2 5p1
229. Which one of the following pairs of substances on
reaction will not evolve H2 gas ? [CBSE 1998]
192
(a) Iron and H2S04 (aq) (b) Iron and steam (d) Reaction of metallic iron with hydrochloric acid

(*c) Copper and HCl(g) (d) Sodium and ethyl alcohol 241. The most stable ion is:

230. The most abundant ore of iron is: *(a) Mn2+ (b) Sc4+ (c) Fe2+ (d) Mn3+

(*a) Haematite (b) Limonite 242. Which is not an interstitial compound?

(c) Magnetite (d) Siderite (a) Tin (b*) Fe2O3 (c) Mn2C3 (d) W2C

231. Which transition metal is used for the reduction of 243. Mn7+ involves two ..... and five ..... electrons in bond
steam to hydrogen? formation

(a) Mg *(b) Fe (c) Sc (d) Pt (a) 3d, 4s (*b) 4s, 3d (c) 4f, 3d (b) 3d, 4f

232. A magnetic moment of 1.73 B.M. will be shown by one 244. Transition elements exhibit positive oxidation states
among the following compounds: only. This is because of:

(a*) [Cu(NH3)4]2+ (b) [Ni(CN)4]2- (a) Their large size of the atoms

(c) TiCl4 (d) [C6Cl6]4- *(b) Their electropositive nature

233. If a compound absorbs violet colour from light, it will (c) Their electronegative nature
be:
(d) Their paramagnetic nature
(a) Yellow (*b) Orange (c) Blue (d) Green
245. The two outside energy levels of an atom have the
234. If orange-red colour is absorbed from white light, the configuration s2p6d5,s2. The atom belongs to:
observed colour is:
(a) Copper family (b) Zinc family
(a) Yellow (b) Orange (c*) Blue (d) Violet
(c) Iron family (d*) Manganese family
235. Which transition elements exhibit +8 oxidation states?
246. 5f-level is successively filled up in:
(a) Cu, Zn (b*) Ru, Os (c) Ag, Au (d) Cu, Cr
(a) Lanthanoids (*b) Actinoids
236. Colour in transition metal compounds is attributed to:
(c) Rare gases (d) Transition elements
(a) Small sized metal ions
247. Which sets are the transition elements?
(b) Absorption of light in the UV region
(a) Ti, Zr, Hf (b) V, Nb, Ta
(c) Complete cis-subshell (d*) d-d transition
(c) Rh, Rb, Pd *(d) All
237. In acidic solution, KMnO4 is reduced to:
248. Lightest transition element is:
(*a) Mn2+ (b) MnO2 (c) MnO (d) MnO42-
(a) Fe (*b) Sc (c) Os (d) Co
238. Thermite is a mixture of iron oxide and:
249. Which metal adsorbs hydrogen?
(a) Zn powder (b) K metal
(*a) Pd (b) K (c) Al (d) Zn
(c) Na—Hg (*d) Al powder
250. An alloy of Co, Ni and Fe used in permanent magnets
239. Maximum paramagnetism in 3d-series is shown by: is:
(*a) Mn (b) Co (c) Ni (d) Fe
(a) Invar (b) Nichrome (*c) Alnico (d) None
240. Anhydrous ferric chloride is prepared by :
251. Aquaregia reacts with Pt to yield:
(a) Heating hydrated ferric chloride at a high temperature in
a stream of air (a) Pt(N03)4 (b*) H2PtCl6 (c) PtCl4 (d) PtCl2

(*b) Heating metallic iron in a stream of dry chlorine gas 252. Which is not ferromagnetic?

(c) Reaction of ferric oxide with hydrochloric acid (a) Fe (b) Co (c) Ni (*d) V

193
253. Which series of elements have nearly the same atomic 263. Platinum black is:
radii?
(a) Platinum metal mixed with MnO2
(a) F, Cl, Br, I (b) Na, K, Rb, Cs
(*b) Velvety black powder obtained by reduction of platinum
(c) Li, Be, B, C *(d) Fe, Co, Ni, Cu tetrachloride with glucose or sodium formate

254. Which of the following metals has been used in making (c) Platinum metal coated with black colour
boats because it has resistance to corrosion by sea water?
(d) None of the above
(a) W (b) Cu (c) Ni (d*) Ti
264. Which of the following represents ammonium
255. Blue colour/precipitate will be obtained when molybdate?
K4[Fe(CN)6] reacts with:
(*a) (NH4)2Mo04 (b) (NH4)MoO2
(a) Fe(II) ions (b) Cu(II) ions
(c) (NH4)2MoO3 (d) NH4.12MoO3
(c*) Fe(III) ions (d) Cu(I) ions
265. Which chromium compound is widely used in tanning
256. When KMnO4 reacts with acidified FeSO4: of leather?

(a) Only FeSO4 is oxidized (b) Only KMnO4 is oxidized (a) Cr2O3 (b) CrO2Cl2 (c) CrCl3 (*d) K2SO4.Cr2(SO4)3-24H20

*(c) FeSO4 is oxidized and KMnO4 is reduced 266. Which metal has the highest melting point?

(d) None of the above (a) Pt (*b) W (c) Pd (d) Au

257. Metallic bond is stronger in transition metals than alkali 267. Which has the lowest melting point?
and alkaline earth metals because of:
(a) Cs (b) Na (*c) Hg (d) Sn
*(a) More number of electrons including d-electrons
268. The equilibrium Cr2O72- +2e 2CrO42-
(b) Large size of the atoms
(a) Exists in acidic medium
(c) Paramagnetism (d) Diamagnetism
(*b) Exists in basic medium
258. K2Cr2O7 on strong heating gives:
(c) Exists in neutral medium
(a) K2CrO4 (b) Cr2O3 (c) O2 (d*) All
(d) Does not exist
259. The properties of Zr and Hf are similar because:
269. Which of the following compounds is used as the
(a) Both belong to d-block starting material for the preparation of potassium
dichromate?
(b) Both belong to same group of the periodic table
(a) K2SO4.Cr2(SO4)3 -24H2O (Chrome alum)
*(c) Both have similar radii
(b) PbCrO4 (Chrome yellow)
(d) Both have same number of electrons
(c*) FeCr2O4 (Chromite)
260. In general, the transition elements exhibit their highest
oxidation states in their compounds with elements like: (d) PbCrO4.PbO (Chrome red)

(a) C (b) S (c) S and P (d*) F and O 270. Which of the following belongs to the actinoid series of
elements? (a) Y (b) Ta *(c) U (d) Lu
261. From a solution of CuSO4, the metal used to recover
copper is: 271. The reaction MnO4 + e  MnO4- takes place in:

(a) Na (b) Ag (c) Hg (*d) Fe *(a) Basic medium (b) Acidic medium

262. Transition metals form complexes in their zero (c) Neutral medium (d) Both acidic and basic medium
oxidation state. The example of the above fact is:
272. The highest magnetic moment is shown by the
(*a) Mn2(CO)10 (b) [Cu(NH3)4]Cl2 transition metal ion with the outer electronic configuration:

(c) Zn2[Fe(CN)6] (d) [Ag(NH3 )2 ]OH (a) 3d2 (b*) 3d5 (c) 3d7 (d) 3d9
194
273. Which of the following oxides of chromium is 282. The electronic configuration of actinoids cannot be
amphoteric in nature? assigned with degree of certainty because of:

(a) CrO (*b) Cr2O3 (c) Cr03 (d) Cr05 (*a) Small energy difference between 5f and 6d-levels

274. An acidified solution of KMnO4 oxidizes: (b) Overlapping of inner orbitals

(a) Sulphates (b*) Sulphites (c) Free movement of electrons over all the orbitals

(c) Nitrates (d) Ferric salts (d) None of the above

275. Which of the following statements is wrong? 283. The inner transition elements are the elements in
which the added electrons go to:
(a) An acidified solution of K2Cr2O7 liberates iodine from
iodides (a) (n -1) d-orbitals *(b) (n-2)f-orbitals

(*b) In acidic solution dichromate ions are converted to (c) (n - 1)d-orbitals and (n-1) f-orbitals
chromate ions
(d) (n -1) d-orbitals and ns-orbitals
(c) Ammonium dichromate on heating undergoes
exothermic decomposition to give Cr2O3 284. Steel resistant to acid is:

(d) Potassium dichromate is used as a titrant for Fe+ ions (a) Carbon steel *(b) Molybdenum steel

276. The correct statement(s) among the following is/are; (c) Stainless steel (d) Nickel steel

(i) All the d and f-block elements are metals 285. Which of the following is a lanthanoid?

(ii) All d and f-block elements form coloured ions (a) Ta (b) Rh (c) Th (*d) Lu

(iii) All d and f-block elements are paramagnetic 286. Cerium (Z = 58) is an important member of the
lanthanoids. Which of the following statements about it is
(a*) (i) only (b) (i) and (ii) (c) (ii) and (iii) (d) All incorrect?

277. Cerium can show the oxidation state of +4 because:(a) (a) Ce(IV) acts as an oxidant
It resembles alkali metals
(b) The +3 oxidation state of Ce is more stable than +4
(b) It has very low value of IE oxidation state

(c) Of its tendency to attain noble gas configuration of xenon (c*) The +4 oxidation state of Ce is not known in solution
state
*(d) Of its tendency to attain /° configuration
(d) The common oxidation states of Ce are +3 and +4
278. In aqueous solution Eu2* acts as:
CO-ORDINATION COMPOUNDS
(a) An oxidizing agent *(b) Reducing agent
1. All ligands are:
(c) Can act as either of these(d) Can act as redox agent
(a) Lewis acid (*b) Lewis base
279. Which of the two have almost similar size?
(c) Neutral (d) None of these
(a) 22Ti and 40Zr (b*) 41Nb and 73Ta
2. Scientist who explained the structures and isomerism in
(c) 39Y and 57La (d) 20Ca and 31Ir the complex compound was:

280. The lanthanoid contraction relates to: (a) Sidgwick (b) Pauling

(a) Atomic radii (*b) Atomic as well as M3+ radii (c) Powell (*d) Werner

(c) Valence electrons (d) Oxidation states 3. A bridging ligand possesses:

281. Permanent magnets are generally made of alloys of. (a) Polydentate or monodentate nature

(*a) Co (b) Zn (c) Sb (d) Pb (b) Two or more donor centres

195
(c)The tendency to get itself attached to two metal ions 13. According to effective atomic number rule the central
(*d) All of the above metal acquires:

4. Diethylene triammine is: (*a) Inert gas configuration (b) Duplet

(a) Chelating agent (b) Polydentate ligand (c) Octet (d) Quartet

(c) Tridentate ligand (*d) All of these 14. The BAN of nickel in K2[Ni(CN)4] is:

5. Each metal possesses: (a) 35 (*b) 34 (c) 36 (d) 38

(a) Primary valencies satisfied by anions only 15. The hybridization of Fe in K4[Fe(CN)6] complex is: (a)
d2sp2 (*b) d2sp3 (c) dsp2 (d) sp3
(b) Secondary valencies satisfied by donor molecules
16. The structure of iron pentacarbonyl is:
(c) Co-ordination number (*d) All of the above
(a) Square planar (*b) Trigonal bipyramidal
6. Which has regular tetrahedral geometry?
(c) Triangular (d) None of these
(a) [Ni(CN)4]2+ (b) SF4 (*c) [BF4]- (d) XeF4
17. The number of ions formed in aqueous solution by the
7. The IUPAC name of [Cr(NH3)4Cl2]NO3 is: compound [Co(NH3 )4Cl2 ]Cl is:

(a) Tetraamino dichloro chromium nitrate (*a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 7

(b) Tetraamino dichloro chromium(III) nitrate 18. The groups satisfying the secondary valencies of a
cation in a complex are called:
(*c) Dichloro tetraammine chromium(III) nitrate
(*a) Ligands (b) Radicals
(d) Tetraamino dichloro chromium(II) nitrate
(c) Primary valencies (d) None of these
8. The co-ordination number of a central metal atom in a
complex is determined by: 19. AgO in Ag(II) complex which is:

(a) The number of only anionic ligand bonded to metal ion (a*) Diamagnetic (b) Paramagnetic

(b) The number of ligands around a metal ion bonded by pi (c) Ferromagnetic (d) Neutral
bonds
20. Nickel(II) tetracyanide complex has ..... geometry.
(c) The number of ligands around a metal ion bonded by
sigma and pi bonds (a) Linear (b) Tetrahedral

(*d) The number of ligands around a metal ion bonded by (*c) Square planar (d) None
sigma bonds
21. The charge on cobalt in [Co(CN)6]3- is:
9. The BAN of nickel in Ni(CO)4 is:
(a) -6 (*b) +3
(a*) 36 (b) 38 (c) 28 (d) 54
(c) -3 (d) +6
10. The number of isomers possible for square planar
complex K2 [PdClBr2SCN] is: 22. Which statement is not correct?

(a) 2 (b) 3 (*c) 4 (d) 6 (a) Fe(CO)5 reacts with Br2Cl4

11. Which one is an outer orbital complex? (b) Carbonyl complexes are usually formed with transition
metals
(*a) [Ni(NH3 )6]2+ (b) [Mn(CN)6 ]4-
(*c) All transition metals form monometallic carbonyls
(c) [Co(NH3)6]3+ (d) [Fe(CN)6]4-
(d) The decomposition of Ni(CO)4 to give Ni is used in the
12. The BAN of platinum in potassium hexachloroplatinate extraction of Ni by Mond's process
(IV) is:
23. Complex forming tendency increases with:
(a) 46 (*b) 86 (c) 36 (d) 84
(a) Increase in size of cation

196
(*b) Decrease in size of cation 30. Co-ordination no. of Fe in K3[Fe(CN)6] is:

(c) Increase in size of anion (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (*d) 6

(d) None of the above 31. EAN of Fe in K3[Fe(CN)6] is:

24. The complex ion which has no 'd' electrons in the central (a) 36 (b) 37 (c) 38 (*d) 35
metal atom is:
32. EAN of Cr in [Cr(NH3 )6]Cl3 is:
(*a) [MnO4]- (b) [Co(NH3)6]3+
(a) 32 (*b) 33 (c) 34 (d) 35
(c) [Fe(CN)6]3- (d) [Cr(H2O)6]3+
33. Exchange of co-ordination group by a water molecule in
25. Co-ordination compounds have great importance in complex molecule results in:
biological systems. In this context, which statement is
incorrect? (a) lonization isomerism (b) Ligand isomerism (*c)
Hydration isomerism (d) Geometrical isomerism
(a) Carboxypeptidase — A is an enzyme and contains zinc
34. The solubility of AgCN increases by the addition of KCN
(b) Haemoglobin is the red pigment of blood and contains because of:
iron
(*a) Complex formation (b) Redox change
(c) Cyanocobalmin is B12 and contains cobalt
(c) Salt formation (d) None of these
(*d) Chlorophylls are green pigments in plants and contain
calcium 35. [Cr(H2O)6]3+ ion has d-electrons equal to:

26. [Cr(NH3)6]3+ ion is: (a) 2 (*b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5

(*a) Paramagnetic (b) Diamagnetic 36. An imperfect complex of a complex compound is 100%
ionized; the compound is called:
(c) Square planar (d) None of these
(*a) Double salt (b) Complex salt (c) Acid salt(d) Normal salt
27. Chlorophyll is a co-ordination compound having central
atom of: 37. In SCN ligand if N is attached to central atom, the name
of ligands is:
(a) Ca (*b) Mg
(*a) Thiocyanato-N (b) Cyanato-N
(c) Na (d) K
(c) Thiocyanato-S (d) Cyanato-S
28. Among [Ni(CN)4 ]2- , [NiCl4 ]2- and [Ni(CO)4 ] :
38. Aqueous solution of nickel sulphate on treating with
(*a) [Ni(CN)4]2- is square planar and [NiCl4]2-, Ni(CO)4 pyridine and then adding a solution of sodium nitrite gives
are tetrahedral dark blue crystals of:

(b) [NiCl4]2- is square planar and [Ni(CN)4]2-, Ni(CO)4 (a) [Ni(py)4 ]SO4 (b) [Ni(py)2 (NO2 )2 J (*c) [Ni(py)4](NO2)2
are tetrahedral (d) [Ni(py)3(NO2)]2SO4

(c) Ni(CO)4 is square planar and [Ni(CN)4]2-, [NiCl4]2- 39. The co-ordination number of Ct m
are tetrahedral [Cr(NH3)3(H20)3]Cl3is:

(d) None of the above (a) 3 (b) 4 (*c) 6 (d) 2

29. Among Ni(CO)4, [Ni(CN)4]2- and [Ni(Cl)4]2- 40. [Co(NH3)4Cl2] possesses:

(a) [Ni(CO)4], [NiCl4]2- are diamagnetic and [Ni(CN)4]2- is (a) Square planar geometry
paramagnetic.
(b) Tetrahedral geometry
(b) [NiCl4]2-, [Ni(CN)4]2- are diamagnetic and [Ni(CO)4] is
paramagnetic. (c) Tetrahedral nature

(*c) [Ni(CO)4], [Ni(CN)4]2- are diamagnetic and [Ni(CN)4]2- is (d*) Octahedral geometry
paramagnetic.
41. The two compounds sulphato pentaammine cobalt(III)
(d) Ni(CO)4 is diamagnetic and [NiCl4]2- [Ni(CN)4]2- are bromide and sulphato pentaammine cobalt(III) chloride
paramagnetic represent:
197
(a) Linkage isomerism (a) 4 (*b) 5 (c) 3 (d) 6

(b) lonization isomerism 51. Which is colourless complex?

(c) Co-ordination isomerism (a)Cu2(CH3COO)4.H2O (*b) Cu2Cl2

(*d) No isomerism (c) CuSO4.5H2O (d) [Cu(NH3)4]SO4.SO4.4H2O

42. Which one has largest number of isomers? 52. The structure of [Cu(H2O)4]2+ ion is:

[AIEEE 2003] (*a) Square planar (b) Tetrahedral

(a*) [Co(en)2Cl2f (b) [Co(NH3)5Cl]2+ (c) [Ir(PR3 )2 H(Co)]2+ (c) Octahedral (d) Distorted rectangle
(d) [Ru(NH3 )4Cl2 f
53. The complex [Pt(NH3)6]Cl4 furnishes:
43. EDTA is a ..... ligand.
(*a) 5 ions (b) 6 ions (c) 4 ions (d) 2 ions
(a) Monodentate (*b) Hexadentate
54. K4[Fe(CN)6] is used to detect the presence of:
(c) Bidentate (d) Tridentate
(a) Metallic ion (b) Ferrous ion
44. The complex [Co(NH3)5Br]SO4 will give white ppt. with:
(*c) Ferric ion (d) None of these
(*a) PbCl2 (b) AgNO3 (c) KI (d) None
55. Aquaregia reacts with Pt to yield:
45. Which one is the most likely structure of CrCl3.6H2O, if
1/3 of total chlorine of the compound is precipitated by (a) Pt(NO3)4 (*b) H2[PtCl6] (c) PtCl4 (d) PtCl2
adding AgNO3 to its aqueous solution?
56. The shape of cobalt hexaammine cation, which has its
(a) CrCl3.6H2O (b) [Cr(H2O)3Cl3]-(H2O)3 (*c) central cobalt atom surrounded by six ammonia molecules is:
[CrCl2(H2O)4].Cl.2H2O (d) [CrCl(H2O)5 ]Cl2.H2O
(a) Tetrahedral (*b) Octahedral
46. Complexes with bidentate ligands are called:
(c) Square planar (d) Trigonal
(a) Ligands (*b) Chelates
57. Blue colour/precipitate will be obtained K 4[Fe(CN)6]
(c) Complexes (d) None of these reacts with:

47. The correct order of magnetic moments (only spin value (a) Fe(II) ions (*c) Fe(III) ions
in BM) among is:
(b) Cu(II) ions (d) Cu(I) ions

58. Ligand in the complex [Fe(CN)6] ion is:

(*a) CN- (b) N (c) Fe (d) C

D 59. The oxidation state of Fe in Na3[Fe(NH3) (CN)5].2H2Ois:

48. The geometry of Ni(CO)4 and Ni(PPH3)2Cl2 are: (a) -1 (b) +1 (*c) +2 (d) +3

(a) Both square planar 60. The primary valency of Fe in K3[Fe(CN)6] is:

(*b) Tetrahedral and square planar, respectively (*a) 3 (b) 2 (c) 1 (d) Zero

(c) Both tetrahedral 61. The shape of [Cu(NH3)4]Cl2 is:

(d) Square planar and tetrahedral, respectively (a) Tetrahedral (b) Octahedral (c) Square planar
(*d) Pyramidal
49. In which of the following compounds, the transition
metal is in oxidation state of zero? 62. If a compound absorbs violet colour from the sunlight,
then the observed colour is:
(a) [Fe(H2O)3(OH)3] (*b) [Ni(CO)4]
(*a) Yellow (b) Orange (c) Blue (d) Green
(c) [Fe(H2O)6]SO4 (d) [Co(NH)3 ]6Cl3
63. Fe2(CO)9 is diamagnetic. Which of the following reasons
50. The number of ions formed on dissolving one molecule is correct?
of FeSO4(NH4 )2SO4.6H2O in water is:
198
(a) Presence of one CO as bridge group (c) K4[Fe(CN)6] (*d) [Co(NH3)4]SO4

(b) Presence of monodentate ligand 74. The complex [Co(NH3)3O3] when dissolved in water
gives how many ions?
(*c) Metal-metal (Fe-Fe) bond in molecule
(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 3 (*d) Zero
(d) Resonance hybridization of CO
75. Turnbull's blue is:
64. Which will give a white precipitate with AgNO3 in
aqueous solution? (a) Ferricyanide (b*) Ferrous ferricyanide

(a) [Co(NH3)5Cl](NO2)2 (*b) [Pt(NH3)6]Cl4 (c) Ferrous cyanide (d) Ferri ferrocyanidc

(c) [Pt(en)Cl2] (d) [Cu(NH3)4]SO4 76. The number of isomeric forms in which [Co(NH3)4Cl2]+
ion can occur is:
65. In [Co(NH3 )4Cl2]Cl the co-ordination number of cobalt
is: (*a) 2 (b) 3 (c) -4 (d) 1

(a) 4 (*b) 6 (c) 2 (d) 7 77. IUPAC name of the complex compound K3[Fe(CN)6J is:

66. The co-ordination number of Cu in copper ammonium (*a) Potassium hexacyanoferrate (III)
sulphate is:
(b) Potassium ferrocyanide ion (III)
(a) 2 (*b) 4 (c) 3 (d) 6
(c) Potassium hexacyanoferrate (II)
67. The number of ions given by [Co(NH3)4]Cl3 in aqueous
solution is: (d) Potassium cyanohexaferrate (II)

(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 1 (*d) 4 78. Among the following, identify the species with an atom
of +6 oxidation state:
68. Which ligand is expected to be bidentate?
(a) [MnO4]- (b) [Cr(CN)6]3-
(*a) C2O42- (b) CH3C  N (c) Br- (d) CH3NH2
(c) [NiF6]2- (*d) CrO2Cl2
69. A group of atoms can function as a ligand only when:
79. Which molecule has tetrahedral geometry?
(a) It is a small molecule
(a) [Co(NH3)6]3+ (b) [Ni(CN)4]2+
(*b) It has an unshared electron pair
(c) Fe(CO)5 (*d) [NiCl4]2-
(c) It is negatively charged ion
80. Oxidation number of Fe in K3[Fe(CN)6] is:
(d) It is positively charged ion
(*a) +3 (b) +2 (c) +10 (d) 1
70. In [Cr(NH3 )4Cl2 ]Cl the ligands are:
81. The complex [Co(NH3 )3Cl3 ] is:
(a) NH3 only (b) Cl- only
(*a) Neutral (b) Cationic (c) Anionic (d) None
(c*) Both NH3 and Cl- (d) Cr, NH3,Cl-
82. Complexation is shown by:
71. Which will not give the usual test for iron?
(a) Ag (b) Au (c) Cu (*d) All
(a) K2Fe2(SO4)4.24H2O (b) (NH4)2Fe(SO4)2.6H2O (*c)
K3[Fe(CN)6] (d) Fe2(SO4)3 83. A solution of CuCl in NH4OH is used to measure the
amount of which gas is a sample by simply measuring
72. Which complex is likely to show optical activity? change in volume?

(a) Trans-[Co(NH3)4Cl2]+ (b) [Cr(H2O)6]3+ (a) CO2 (b) H2 (*c) CO (d) All

(*c) Cis[Co(NH3) 2(en)2]3+ 84. Ionization of K[Ag(CN)2] will give: [NTSE 1994]

(d) Trans-[Co(NH3)2(en)2]3+ (*a) K+ and [Ag(CN)2]- ion (b) KCN and AgCN

73. Pick a poor electrolytic conductor complex in solution: (c) K+, Ag+, CN- (d) None of the above

(a) K2[PtCl6] (b) [Co(NH3)3](NO2)3 85. The probable formula for prussian blue is:

199
(a) Fe3[Fe(CN)6]2 (b) Fe2[Fe(CN)6]3 (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (*d) 1

(*c) Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3 (d) Fe3[Fe(CN)6]4 98. [Co(NH3)5Br]SO4 and [Co(NH3)5SO4]Br are the examples
of:
86. The number of ions given by [Pt(NH3)2Cl4] in aqueous
solution is: (a) Linkage isomerism (b) Geometrical isomerism

(*a) Zero (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 4 (*c) Ionization isomerism (d) Optical isomerism

87. Which possesses tetrahedral shape (sp3 -hybridization of 99. The hybridization involved in K3 [Fe(CN)6 ] is:
central atom)?
(a) sp2 (*b) d2sp3 (c) d3sp2 (d) sp3
(a) [Zn(NH3)4]2+ (b) [Ni(CO)4]
100. Which is expected to be paramagnetic?
(c) [Cd(NH3)4]2+ (*d) All are correct
(*a) [Ni(H2O)6]+ (b) [Ni(CO4)]
88. Which of the following is n complex?
(c) [Zn(NH3)4]2+ (d) [Co(NH3)6]3+
(a) Trimethyl aluminium (*b) Ferrocene
101. One mole of Co(NH3)5Cl3 gives 3 moles of ions on
(c) Diethyl zinc (d) Nickel carbonyl dissolution in water. One mole of this reacts with two moles
of AgNO3 to give two moles of AgCl. The complex is:
89. The hybridization involved in [CoF6]3- is:
(a) [Co(NH3)4Cl2]Cl-NH3 (b) [Co(NH3)4Cl]Cl2-NH3
(a) d2sp3 (b) d3sp2 (c) dsp3 (*d) sp3d2
(c*) [Co(NH3)5Cl]Cl2 (d) [Co(NH3)3Cl3]-2NH3
90. The co-ordination number of cobalt in [Co(NH3)3Cl3] is:
102. Transition metals can form complexes in:
(*a) 6 (b) 5 (c) 4 (d) 3
(a) Zero oxidation state (b) Cation form
91. The number of ions given by K2[PtCl6] in aqueous
solution is: (c) Anion form (*d) All of these

(a) 2 (*b) 3 (c) 4 (d) Zero 103. Bidentate ligand is:

92. Which complex has square planar shape dsp1- (a) CN- (*b) Ethylene diamine
hybridization?
(c) EDTA (d) SCN-
(a) [Ni(CN)4]2- (b) [Cu(NH3)4]2- (c) [PtCl4]2- (*d) All of
these 104. Which will give Fe3+ ions in solution?

93. Formula of ferrocene is: (a) [Fe(CN)6]3- (*b) Fe2(SO4)3

(a) [Fe(CN)6]4- (b) [Fe(CN)6]3+ (c) [Fe(CN)6]4- (d) NH4(SO4)2.FeSO4.6H2O

(c) [Fe(CO)5] (*d) [(C6H5)2Fe] 105. The co-ordination number of cobalt in [Co(en)2 Br2]Cl2
is:
94. The number of ions given by K[Pt(NH3)5Cl5] in aqueous
solution is: (a) 2 (b) 4 (*c) 6 (d) 8

(*a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 1 106. The neutral ligand is:

95. Which is the strongest field ligand? (a) Chloro (b) Hydroxo (*c) Ammine (d) Oxalato

(a*) CN- (b) NO2 (c) NH3 (d) En 107. The cation that does not form an ammine complex
with excess of ammonia is:
96. Which have octahedral shape (d2sp3) hybridization of
central atom? (*a) Al3+ (b) Ag+ (c) Cu2+ (d) Cd2+

(a) [Cr(NH3)6]2+ (b) [Fe(CN)6]3- 108. The oxidation number of Pt in [Pt(C2H4)Cl3]- is:

(c) [Cu(NH3)6]+ (*d) All are correct (a) +1 (*b) +2 (c) +3 (d) +4

97. The number of precipitable halide ions in 109. The BAN of Ni in [Ni(CN)4]2- is:
[Pt(NH3)Cl2Br]Cl is:
(*a) 34 (b) 35 (c) 36 (d) 28

200
110. Which does not obey BAN rule? (a) Rh3+ (b) Mn3+ (c) Ru2+ (*d) All are correct

(*a) [Cu(NH3)4]2+ (b) [Zn(OH)4]2- 121. Which ligand produces a high crystal field splitting (a
strong ligand field)?
(c) [HgI4]2- (d) Fe(CO)5
(a) CO (b) NO2 (c) CN- (*d) All are correct
111. Which statement about co-ordination number of a
cation is true? 122. Of the following complexes, the one with the largest
value of the crystal field splitting is:
(a) Most metal ions exhibit only a single characteristic co-
ordination number (a) [Fe(H2O)6]3+ (*b) [Ru(CN)6]3-

(b) The co-ordination number is equal to the number of (c) [Fe(H2O)6]2+ (d) [Fe(NH3)6]3+
ligands bonded to the metal atom
123. Which ion shows only the co-ordination number 4 in
(c) The co-ordination number is determined solely by the complexes?
tendency to surround the metal atom with the same number
of electrons as one of the rare gases (*a) Pt2+ (b) Cr3+ (c) Fe3+ (d) Pt4+

(*d) For most cations, the co-ordination number depends on 124. Complexes with halide ligands are generally:
the size, structure and charge of the ligands
(*a) High spin complexes (b) Low spin complexes
112. Which complex is diamagnetic?
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
(*a) [Fe(CN)6]4- (b) [Cu(NH3)4]2+
125. The formula of sodium nitroprusside is:
(c) [Ti(H2O)6]3+ (d) None
(a) Na4[Fe(CN)5NO2] (*b) Na2[Fe(CN)5NO]
113. Which ion shows usually the co-ordination number 6?
(c) NaFe[Fe(CN)6] (d) Na2[Fe(CN)6NO2]
3+ 3+ 2+
(a) Cr (b) Fe (c) Fe (*d) All
126. [Co(NH3)6]Cl3 is called:
114. For which transition metal ions are low spin complexes
(*a) Hexaammine cobalt(III) chloride
impossible?
(b) Amino cobalt chloride(III)
(a) Zn2+ (b) Zr2+ (c) Ag+ (*d) All are correct
(c) Cobalt chloride hexaammine
115. Which ion produces a small crystal field splitting (a
weak ligand field)?
(d) Hexaammine tri cobalt chloride
(a) I- (b) Cl- (c) F- (*d) All
127. Which is correct in the case of [Ni(CN)4]2- complex?
116. Chromium carbonyl is:
(a) It involves dip2-hybridization
(a) Cr(CO)4 (b) Cr(CO)5 (*c) Cr(CO)6 (d) None
(b) It has square planar shape
117. The formula of a carbonyl complex of (CO)n Co—
(c) It is diamagnetic
Co(CO)n in which there is a single covalent Co—Co bond is?
(*d) All are correct
(a) Co2(CO)4 (*b) Co2(CO)8
128. Which is correct in the case of [NiCl4]2- complex?
(c) Co2(CO)10 (d) Co2(CO)6
(a) 5p3-hybridization (b) Paramagnetic
118. Which one has tetrahedral geometry?
(c) Tetrahedral (d) Two unpaired electrons
(a) [Pd(CN)4]2- (*b) [NiCl4]2-
(*e) All are correct
(c) [Ni(CN)4]2- (d) [PdCl4]2-
129. The IUPAC name of [Pt(NH3)4NO2Cl]SO4 is:
119. Ruthenium carbonyl is:
(a) Chloronitro platinum(IV) sulphate
(a) Ru(CO)4 (*b) Ru(CO)5 (c) Ru(CO)8 (d) Ru(CO)6
(b) Tetraammine chloronitrito platinum (IV) sulphate
120. For which transition metal ions are low spin complexes
possible? (*c) Chloronitro tetraammine platinum (IV) sulphate

201
(d) Platinum (IV) tetraammine nitrochloro sulphate (a) [Cr(H2O)6]3+ (*b) [Fe(H2O)6]2+

130. Formation of complex compound can be detected by: (c) [Cu(H2O)6]2+ (d) [Zn(H20)6]2+

(a) Change in colour (b) Change in solubility 139. Colour of transition metal complexes can be explained
by:
(c) Change in pH (*d) All are correct
(a) Completely filled d-orbitals
131. Which is correct in the case of [Fe(CN)6]4- complex?
(b) Vacant d-orbitals
(a) Diamagnetic (b) Octahedral
(*c) d-d transition
(c) d2sp3 (*d) All are correct
(d) None of the above
132. The no. of ions given by [Pt(NH3)4Cl2]Cl2 in aqueous
solution is: (a) 2 (*b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5 140. In complexes, metal atom acts as:

133. Which statement is not correct in the case of (a) Lewis base (b) Bronsted acid
[Co(NH3)6]3+ complex?
(c) Bronsted base (*d) Lewis base
(a) It is octahedral in shape
141. Glycinato Ligand is:
(*b) It involves d2sp2-hybridization

(c) It has diamagnetic nature

(a) (b) Bidentate ligand (c)
(d) None of the above
Two donor sited N and O- (*d) All of the above
134. Which is true in the case of [Ni(CO)4] complex?
142. The IUPAC name of [Cr(H2O)4Cl2]Cl is:
(a) Hybridization of Ni is sp3
(a) Tetrahydro dichloro chromium(III) chloride
(b) Tetrahedral shape of the molecule
(*b) Tetraaquo dichloro chromium(III) chloride
(c) Diamagnetic (*d) All are correct
(c) Tetraaquo dichloro chromium(I) chloride
135. Which is considered to be an anticancer species?
(d) None of the above

143. The element which does not form mononuclear

carbonyl is:

(a) Fe (*b) Mn (c) Ni (d) W

144. Iron has lowest oxidation state in:

C
(*a) Fe(CO)5 (b) Fe2O3
136. IUPAC name of ~Na 3 [Co(ONO) 6 ] is:
(c) K2FeO4 (d) FeSO4.(NH4)2SO4.6H2O
(a) Sodium cobaltinitrite
145. The charge on cobalt in [Co(CN)4]3- is:
(*b) Sodium hexanitritocobaltate(III)
(a) -6 (b) +6 (*c) +1 (d) -3
(c) Sodium hexanitrocobalt(III)
146. Which is not true ligands metal complex?
(d) Sodium hexanitritocobaltate(II)
(*a) Larger the ligand, the more stable is the
137. Which is true in the case of [Fe(CN)6]3-complex? metal-ligand complex

(a) d2sp3-hybridization of Fe (b) Paramagnetic (b) Highly charged ligand forms stronger bonds

(c) One unpaired electron (d) Octahedral shape
(*e) All are correct
138. Which has highest paramagnetism?
(c) Larger the permanent dipole moment of ligand, the more
stable is the bond
(d) Greater the ionization potential of central metal, the
stronger the bond

202
147. Which is not a K-bonded complex? (a) F- (b) NO2- (c) H2O (*d) All are correct

(a) Zeise salt (b) Ferrocene 157. The oxidation no. of nickel in K2[Ni(CN)4]is:

(c) Dibenzene chromium (*d) Tetraethyl lead (a) -2 (*b) +2 (c) -1 (d) Zero

148. The compound which does not show paramagnetism 158. In which complex is the transition metal hi zero
is: oxidation state?

(a) [Cu(NH3)4]Cl2 (*b) [Ag(NH3)2]Cl (a) [Co(NH3)6]Cl2 (b) [Fe(H20)6S04]

(c) NO (d) NO2 (*c) [Ni(CO)4] (d) [Fe(H20)3](OH)2

149. The possible number of isomers for the complex 159. The number of ions formed when copper ammonium
[MCl2Br2]SO4 is: sulphate is dissolved in water is:

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 4 (d*) 5 (a) 1 (*b) 2 (c) 4 (d) Zero

150. Ligands in a complex salt are: 160. The brown ring complex compound is formulated as
[Fe(H2O)5NO]SO4. The oxidation state of Fe is:
(a) Anions linked by co-ordinate bonds to a central metal
atom or ion (*a) +1 (b) +2 (c) +3 (d) Zero

(b) Cations linked by co-ordinate bonds to a central metal 161. Which compound exhibits optical isomerism?
atom or ion
(a) Pentaammine nitro cobalt (III) iodide
(c) Molecules linked by co-ordinate bonds to a central metal
atom or ion (b) Diammine dichloroplatinum (II)

(*d) Ions or molecules linked by co-ordinate bonds to a (c) 7ra«5-dicyano-W5-(ethylene diamine) chromium (III)
central metal atom or ion chloride

151. Among [Ni(CO)4], [Ni(CN)4]2- and [NiCl4]2- species the (*d) Tris-(ethylene diamine) cobalt (III) bromide
hybridisation states of Ni atom are respectively:
162. NH2 -NH2 serves as:
(a) sp3, dsp2, dsp2 (*b) sp3, dsp2, sp3
(a) Monodentate ligand (b) Chelating ligand
(c) sp3,sp3,dsp2 (d) dsp2,sp3,sp3
(c) Bridging ligand (*d) Both (a) and (c)
152. The correct IUPAC name of AlCl3 (EtOH)4 is:
163. The oxidation state of Ni in [Ni(CN)4]2- ion is:
(a) Aluminium(H) chloride-4-ethanol
(a) -2 (*b) +2 (c) +4 (d) Zero
(*b) Aluminium(III) chloride-4-ethanol
164. The oxidation state of Mo in its oxo-complex species
(c) Aluminium(IV) chloride-4-hydroxy ethane [Mo2O4 (C2H4 )2(H2O)2 ]2- is:

(d) Aluminium chloride-4-ethanol (a) +2 (*b) +3 (c) +4 (d) +5

153. Oxidation number of Fe in the compound 165. Which one is bidentate ligand?
Na4[Fe(CN)5NO]SO4.2H2O is:
(a) C2O42- (b) NH2.CH2.CH2.NH2
(a) 0 (b) 4-1 (*c) 4-2 (d) +3
(*c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
154. Which follows BAN rule?
166. The value of x on the [Ni(CN)4]x is:
(a) Fe(CO)5 (b) Ni(CO)4
(a) +2 (*b) -2 (c) Zero (d) 44
(c) K4[Fe(CN)6] (*d) All are correct
167. The IUPAC name of Ni(CO)4 is:
155. In haemoglobin the iron shows oxidation state:
(a) Tetracarbonyl nickelate(O)
(*a) +2 (b) +3 (c) +1 (d) 44
(b) Tetracarbonyl nickelate(II)
156. Which one is monodentate ligand?
(c*) Tetracarbonyl nickel(O)

203
(d) Tetracarbonyl nickel(II) (a) Is extremely weak

168. Which of the following compounds is not coloured? (b) Has a covalent character

(a) Na2[CuCl4] (*b) Na2[CdCl4] (*c) Has a large amount of ionic character

(c) K4[Fe(CN)6] (d) K3[Fe(CN)6] (d) None is correct

169. K4[Fe(CN)6] is a: 180. Which is low spin complex?

(a) Double salt (b*) Basic salt (a) [Fe(CN)6]3- (b) [Co(NO2)6]3-

(c) Complex compound (d) Simple salt (c) [Mn(CN)6]3- (*d) All of these

170. In triethylenediamine cobalt(III) chloride the co- 181. Which exhibits highest molar conductivity?
ordination number of cobalt is:
(*a) [Co(NH3)6]Cl3 (b) [Co(NH3)5Cl]Cl2
(a) 3 (b) 4 (*c) 6 (d) 7
(c) [Co(NH3)4Cl2]Cl (d) [Co(NH3)3Cl3]
171. The number of geometrical isomers of [Co(NH3)3
(NO2)3 ] are: 182. Which ligand is capable of forming low spin as well as
high spin complexes?
(a) Zero (*b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
(a) CO (b) NO2 (c) CN- (*d) NH3
172. The EAN of Cr in [Cr(SCN)6]3' is:
183. The tetrahedral crystal field splitting is only..... of the
(a) 35 (*b) 33 (c) 34 (d) 37 octahedral splitting

173. In which of the following ions has the metal atom EAN (a) 1/9 (b) 2/9 (*c) 4/9 (d) 5/9
as 36?
184. Which order is correct in spectrochemical series of
(*a) [Fe(CN)6]4- (b) [Fe(CN)6]3- ligands?

(c) [PdCl4]2- (d) [Pd(CN)6]2-

174. The hybridization of [PtCl6]2- ion is:

(a) d2sp3 (b) sp2d3 (c) sp3d (*d) sp3d2 A

175. The tendency to show complex formation is maximum 185. Which is high spin complex?
in.....elements.
(a) [CoCl6]3- (b) [FeF6]3-
(a) s-block (b) p-block (*c) d-block (d) f-block
(c) [Co(NH3)6]2+ (*d) All are correct
176. The complex that violates the EAN:
186. A complex shown below can exhibit:
(a) Potassium ferrocyanide (*b) Potassium ferricyanide

(c) Nickel carbonyl

(d) Cobalt(III) hexaammine chloride

177. Which ion is paramagnetic? [AFMC 1997]

(*a) [Ni(H2O)6]2+ (b) [Fe(CN)6]4- (*a) Optical isomerism only (b)

Geometrical isomerism only
(c) [Ni(CO)4] (d) [Ni(CN)4]2-
(c) Both optical and geometrical isomerism (d) None of the
178. Complexes with CN- ligands are usually:
above
(a) High spin complexes (*b) Low spin complexes
187. Silver dissolves in the solution of an alkali cyanide in
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these the presence of oxygen, forming:

179. The effective atomic number rule is less likely to apply (a*) [Ag(CN)2]- (b) [Ag(CN)4]3-
if the metal-ligand bond:
(c) [Ag(CN)2]2- (d) [Ag(CN)3]2-
204
188. Which ion is paramagnetic? 199. The fraction of chlorine precipitated by AgNO3 solution
from[Cu(NH3)5Cl]Cl2 is:
(*a) [Ni(NH3)4]2+ (b) [Ni(CO)4]
(a) 1/2 (*b) 2/3 (c) 1/3 (d) 1/4
(c) [Co(NH3)6]3+ (d) [Ni(CN)4]2-
200. [Fe(CN)6]4- ion is:
189. Point out the central ion ligand in the complex
(*a) Octahedral (c) Bipyramidal
K2[Cd(CN)J:
(b) Square planar (d) Tetrahedron
(a) Cd+, CN1- (*b) Cd2+,CN1-
201. CuSO4 solution reacts with excess of KCN solution to
(c) Cd2+, CN4- (d) Cd 2+ , CN 2-
form:

190. Which one of the following does not give a white (a) Cu(CN)2 (b) K2[Cu(CN)4]
precipitate with silver nitrate solution?
(*c) K3[Cu(CN)4] (d) K[Cu(CN)2]
(a) [Co(NH3)JCl3 (b) [Co(NH3)5Cl]Cl2
202. An octahedral complex is formed when central metal
(c) [Co(NH3 )4Cl2 ]Cl (d*) [Co(NH3 )3Cl3 ] atom undergoes hybridization amongst the ..... orbitals.

191. In solid CuSO4.5H2O copper is co-ordinated to: (a) sp3 (b) dsp2 (c) sp3d (*d) sp3d2

(*a) 4 water molecules (b) 5 water molecules 203. Which one does not belong to ligand?

(c) 1 sulphate molecule (d) 1 water molecule (a) PH3 (b) NO+ (*c) BF3 (d) Cl-

192. CuCl is sparingly soluble in H2Obut it dissolves in KCl 204. Which of the following has the highest molar
solution due to the formation of: conductivity in solution?

(a) K2(CuCl4) (*b) K3(CuCl4) (*a) [Pt(NH3)6]Cl4 (b) [Pt(NH3)5Cl]Cl3

(c) K(CuCl2) (d) None of these (c) [Pt(NH3 )4Cl2 ]Cl2 (d) [Pt(NH3 )3Cl3]Cl

193. The co-ordination number of copper in the complex 205. CuCl dissolves in ammonia forming a complex. The co-
formed by adding excess of NH3 toCuSO4 solution is: ordination number of copper in the complex is:

(*a) 4 (b) 2 (c) 6 (d) 5 (a) 1 (*b) 2 - (c) 4 (d) 6

194. In the complexes [Fe(H2O)6]3+, [Fe(CN)6]3-, 206. Geometrical isomerism is found in co-ordination
compounds having co-ordination number:
[Fe(C2O4)3]3- and [FeCl6]3-, more stability is shown by:
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (tetrahedral) (*d) 6
(a) [Fe(H2O)6]3+ (b) [Fe(CN)6]3-
207. Cis-trans-isomerism is found in square planar
(*c)[Fe(C2O4)3]3- (d)[FeCl6]3-
complexes of the molecular formula: (a and b are
monodentate ligands)
195. Magnetic moment of [Ag(CN)2]- is zero. How many
unpaired electrons are there?
(a) Ma4 (b) Ma3b (*c) Ma2b2 (d) Mab3
(a*) Zero (b) 4 (c) 3 (d) 1
208. The two complexes given below are:
196. CuCl reacts with KCN solution forming a complex. Co-
ordination number of copper in the complex is:

(a) 2 (o) 3 (*c) 4 (d) 6

197. The unpaired electrons in [Ni(CO)4] are:

(*a) Zero (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3
198. The shape of the complex [Ag(NH3)2]+ is:
(a) Octahedral
(c) Tetrahedral
(a) Geometrical isomers (b) Position isomers
(c) Optical isomers (*d) Identical
209. Hexafluoroferrate (III) ion is an outer orbital complex.
(b) Square planar
The number of unpaired electrons present in it is:
(*d) Linear
(a) 1 (*b) 5 (c) 4 (d) Unpredictable
205
210. The oxidation state of Ag in Tollen's reagent is: (c) [Co(NH3)5Cl]Cl2 (d) [Co(NH3)6]Cl2

(a) Zero (*b) +1 (c) +2 (d) +1.5 220. The total number of possible isomers of the compound
[Cu11(NH3 )4 ][Pt11Cl4 ] are:
211. From the stability constant (hypothetical values) given
below, predict which is the strongest ligand? (a) 3 (b) 5

(a) Cu2+ + 4NH3 [Cu(NH3)4]2+,(K = 4.5 x 1011) (*c) 4 (d) 6

(*b) Cu2++4CN [Cu(CN)4]2-,(A:= 2.0 x 1027) 221. The phenomenon of optical activity will be shown by:

(c) Cu2+ +2en [Cu(en)2]2+, (A: = 3.0 x 1015)

(d) Cu2+ +4H20 [Cu(H2O)4]2+,(A: = 9.5 x 108)

*
212. A square planar complex is represented as:

(a) Geometrical isomers (b) Optical isomerism

(c) Linkage isomerism (*d) None of these

222. The compound [Co(NO2)(NH3)5]Cl2
213. Which of the following complex species do not involve [Co(ONO)(NH3)5]Cl2 are examples of:
d2sp3-hybridization?
(a) Geometrical isomers (*b) Linkage isomers
(*a) [CoF6]3- (b) [Co(NH3)6]3+
(c) Ligand isomers (d) Ionization isomers
(c) [Fe(CN)6]3- (d) [Cr(NH3)6]3+
223. K3CoF6 is high spin complex. What is the hybrid state
214. In the complex Fe(CO)x, the value of x is and it is: of Co atom in this complex?

(a) 3, octahedral (b) 4, tetrahedral (a) sp3d (*b) sp3d2

(c*) 5, trigonal pyramidal (d) 6, square pyramidal (c) d2sp3 (d) dsp2

215. The complex ion [Cu(NH3 )4 ]2+ has: 224. Which of the following compounds would exhibit co-
ordination isomerism?
(a) The tetrahedral configuration with one unpaired electron
configuration (a) [Cr(H2O)6]Cl2 (*b) [Cr(NH3 )6][Co(CN)6] (c)
[Cr(en)2 ]NO2 (d) [Ni(NH3 )6 ][BF4 ]2
(*b) Square planar configuration with one unpaired electron
225. A complex of platinum, ammonia and chlorine
(c) Tetrahedral configuration with all electrons paired
produces four ions per molecule in the solution. The
structure consistent with the observation is:
(d) Square planar configuration with all electrons paired
(a) [Pt(NH3)4]Cl4 (b) [Pt(NH3)2Cl4]
216. The hardness of water is estimated by:
(*c) [Pt(NH3)5Cl]Cl3 (d) [Pt(NH3)4Cl2]Cl2
(a) Conductivity method (*b) EDTA method
226. Which of the following represents a chelating ligand?
(c) Titrimetric method (d) Distillation method
(a) Cl- (*b) DMG
217. en is an example of a:
(c) OH- (d) H2O
(a) Monodentate ligand (*b) Bidentate ligand
227. Which one of the following will be able to
(c) Tridentate ligand (d) Hexadentate ligand
show cis-trans-isomerism?
218. A reagent used for identifying nickel ion is:
(a) MA3B (b) M(AA')2 (*c) MA2BCD
(a) Potassium ferrocyanide (b) Phenolphthalein (d) MA4

(*c) Dimethyl glyaoxime (d) EDTA (AA’ is unsymmetrical bidentate ligand, ABCD are unidentate
ligands.)
219. Which of the following is non-ionizable?
228. The IUPAC name of the compound [Cu(NH3 )4 (NO3 )2 ]
(a*) [Co(NH3)3Cl3] (b) [Co(NH3)4Cl2]Cl is:
206
(a) Cuprammonium nitrate (c) sp3d (*d) sp3d2

(*b) Dinitrato tetraammine copper(II) 237. The IUPAC name of K2[Zn(OH)4] is:

(c) Tetraammine copper(II) dinitrite (*a) Potassium tetrahydroxyzinc(II)

(d) Tetraammine copper(III) dinitrite (b) Potassium tetrahydroxozincate(II)

229. Nickel metal is in highest oxidation state in: (c) Potassium tetrahydroxyzincate(IV)

(a) Ni(CO)4 (*b) K2NiF6 (d) Potassium hydroxozinc(II)

(c) [Ni(NH3 )6 ](BF4)2 (d) K4[Ni(CN)6] 238. A complex of cobalt has five ammonia molecules, one
nitro group and two chlorine atoms for each cobalt atom.
230. [(C6H5 )2 Pd(SCN)2 ] and [(C6H5 )2 Pd(NCS)2 ] are: One mole of this compound produces three mole ions in
aqueous solution which on treating with excess of AgNO 3
(*a) Linkage isomers (b) Co-ordination isomers
give two mole of AgCl. The formula of the compound is:
(c) Ionization isomers (d) Geometrical isomers
(a) [Co(NH3)4NO2Cl][(NH3)Cl]
231. The co-ordination number and oxidation number of X
(b) [Co(NH3)5Cl][ClNO2]
in the following compound [X(SO4 )(NH3) 5]Cl will be:
(c*) [Co(NH3)5NO2]Cl2
(a) 10 and +3 (b) 2 and +6
(d) [Co(NH3)5][(NO2)2Cl2]
(*c) 6 and +3 (d) 6 and +4
239. In lithium tetrahydroaluminate, the ligand is:
232. The type of isomerism shown by [Co(en)2 (NCS)2]Cl
and [Co(en)2 (NCS)CI]NCS is: (a) Al+ (b) H

(a) Co-ordination (*b) Ionization (c*) H- (d) None

(c) Linkage (d) All of these 240. In which of the following compounds does the central
atom obey BAN rule?
233. When ammonia is added to green aqueous solution of
nickel(II) sulphate, the colour of the solution changes to blue (a) K3Fe(CN)6 (*b) K4Fe(CN)6
violet. This is caused by:
(c) Cu(NH3)4SO4 (d) All of these
(a) Nickel undergoing a change in oxidation state
241. The formula of dichlorobis (urea) copper(II) is:
(*b) Ammonia molecules replacing water molecules
surrounding nickel (a) [Cu(O=C(NH2)2]Cl2

(c) Change in co-ordination number of nickel (*b)[CuCl2{O=C(NH2)}]

(d) Change in pH value of the solution (c) [Cu{0=C(NH2)2}Cl]Cl

234. Which of the following cations does not form an (d)[CuCl2][O=C(NH2)2]H2

ammine complex with excess of ammonia?
242. Which of the following complexes will show
(a) Ag+ (b) Cu2+ geometrical as well as optical isomerism? (en = ethylene
diamine)
(c) Cd2+ (*d) Na+
(a) [Pt(NH3 )2Cl2 ] (b)[Pt(NH3)2Cl4] (c)[Pt(en)3]4+
235. In hexacyanomanganate(II) ion the Mn atom assumes (*d) [Pt(en)2Cl2]
d2sp3-hybrid states. The number of unpaired electrons in the
complex is: 243. The correct IUPAC name of the complex

(*a) 1 (b) 2

(c) 3 (d) 0

236. Hexafluorocobaltate(III) ion is found to be high spin

complex, the probable hybrid state of cobalt in it is:
(*a) Dichlorodimethylglyoximato cobalt(II)
(a) d2sp3 (b) sp3
207
(b) Bis(dimethylglyoxime) dichloro cobalt(II) (*d) Potassium trioxalato aluminate(III)

(c) Dimethylglyoxime cobalt(II) chloride 250. In sodium tetrafluorooxochromate(.....), Na3[Cr(O)F4]

the left out place should be filled with which of the following
(d) Dichloraodimethylglyoxime-N,N-cobalt(II) Roman numerals?

(a) VI (*b) III

244. The correct name of (CO)3 (CO)3 is:
(c) IV (d) None of these
(a*) Tri--carbonyl bis (tricarbonyl) iron(0)
251. The correct name of the compound [Cu(NH3 )4 ](NO3
(b) Hexacarbonyl iron(III) -tricarbonyl ferrate(0) )2, according to IUPAC system is:

(c) Tricarbonyl iron(0)-tricarbonyl iron(0) tricarbonyl (a) Cuprammonium nitrate

(d) Nonacarbonyl iron (b) Tetraammine copper(II) dinitrate

245. The complex Hg[Co(CNS)4] is correctly named as: (*c) Tetraammine copper(II) nitrate

(a*) Mercury tetrathiocyanato cobaltate(II) (d) Tetraammine copper(I) dinitrate

(b) Mercury cobalt tetrasulphocyano(II) 252. Lithium tetrahydridoalummate is correctly represented

as:
(c) Mercury tetrasulphocyanide cobaltate(II)
(a) Al[LiH4] (b) Al2[LiH4]3
(d) Mercury sulphocyanato cobalt(II)
(*c) Li[AlH4] (d) Li[AlH4]2
246. The correct IUPAC name of Fe(C5H5)2 is:
253. In [Cr(C2O4)3]3-, the isomerism shown is:
(a) Cyclopentadienyl iron(II)
(a) Ligand (*b) Optical
(*b) Bis (cyclopentadienyl) iron(II)
(c) Geometrical (d) Ionization
(c) Dicyclopentadienyl ferrate(II)
254. In hexacyanomanganate (II) ion the Mn atom assumes
(d) Ferrocene d2sp3-hybrid state. The number of unpaired electrons in the
complex is:
247. The correct IUPAC name of Mn3(CO)12 is:
(*a) 1 (b) 2
(a) Dodecacarbonyl manganate(0)
(c) 3 (d) 0
(b) Dodecacarbonyl manganic(II)
255. The correct IUPAC name of KAl(SO4)2 . 12H2O is:
(c*) Dodecacarbonyl trimanganese(0)
(a) Aluminium potassium sulphate-12-water
(d) Manganic dodecacarbonyl(0)
(*b) Potassium aluminium(III) sulphate-12-water
248. The IUPAC name of [CoCl(NO2) (en)2 ] Cl is:
(c) Potassium aluminate(III) sulphate hydrate
(a) Chloronitro bis (ethylene diamine) cobaltic(III) chloride
(d) Aluminium(III) potassium sulphate hydrate-12
(b) Chloronitro bis (ethylene diamine) cobalt(II)
chloride 256. Out of the following the metal which forms polynuclear
carbonyl is:
(c*) Chloro bis (ethylene diamine) nitro cobalt(III) chloride
(a) Na (b) Mg
(d) Bis (ethylene diamine) chloronitro cobalt(III)
chloride (*c) Mn (d) All

249. K3[Al(C2O4)3] is called: 257. Ferrocene is:

(a) Potassium alumino oxalate (*a) Fe(5-C5H5)2 (b) Fe(2-C5H5)2

(b) Potassium alumino(III) oxalate (c) Cr(5-C5H5)5 (d) Os(5-C5H5)2

(c) Potassium trioxalato aluminate 258. Number of electrons gained by Pd in [PdCl4]-2:

208
(a) 4 (*b) 8 (*c) Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3 (d) K3[Fe(CN)6]

(c) 10 (d) 0 266. Which of the following is not an organometallic

compound?
259. Name the metal M which is extracted on the basis of
following reactions, (*a) NaOC2H5 (b) (CH3)3Al

4M + 8CN- + 2H2O + O2  4[M(CN)2]- + 4OH- 2[M(CN)2- + (c) (C2H5)4Pb (d) RMgX

Zn  [Zn(CN)4]2- + 2M:
267. In the silver plating of Cu, K[Ag(CN)2 ] is used instead
(a) Nickel (*b) Silver of AgNO3. The reason is:

(c) Copper (d) Mercury (a) A thin layer of Ag is formed on Cu

260. The colour of [Ti(H2O)6]3+ is due to: (b) More heat is required

(a) Transfer of an electron from one Ti to another (c) Ag+ ions are completely removed from solution

(b) Presence of water molecule (*d) Less availability of Ag+ ion as Cu cannot displace Ag
from Ag(CN)2
(*c) Excitation of electrons from d  d
268. Some salts although containing two different metallic
(d) Intramolecular vibration elements give test for only one of them in solution. Such
salts are:
261. If NH4OH is added to the (PtCl4)2- ion, the complex
formed represents: (*a) Complex salts (b) Double salts

(a) Zero dipole (*b) Finite dipole (c) Normal salts (d) None of these

(c) Infinite dipole (d) All of these 269. A similarity between optical and geometrical isomerism
is that:
262. Mixture X = 0.02 mole of [Co(NH3 ) 5 SO4 ]Br and 0.02
mole of [Co(NH3 )5 Br]SO4 was prepared in 2 litre of solution. (a) Each gives equal number of isomers for a gives
compound
1 litre of mixture X + excess AgNO3  Y.
(b) If in a compound one is present then so is the other
1 litre of mixture X + excess Bad 2  Z. No. of moles of Y
and Z are: (c*) Both are included in stereoisomerism

(*a) 0.01, 0.01 (b) 0.02, 0.01 (d) They have no similarity

(c) 0.01, 0.02 (d) 0.02, 0.02 270. Which of the following will give maximum number of
isomers?
263. The hypothetical complex chloro diaquatriammine
cobalt(II) chloride can be represented as: (a) [Co(NH3)4Cl2] (b) [Ni(en)(NH3)4]2+

(*a) [CoCl(NH3)3(H2O)2]Cl2 (c) [Ni(C2O4 )(en)2 ] (*d) [Cr(SCN)2 (NH3 )4]2+

(b) [Co(NH3)3(H2O)Cl3] 271. A square planar complex is formed by hybridization of

which atomic orbitals?
(c) [Co(NH3)3(H2O)2Cl]
(a) s, px, py, dyz (*b) s, px, py, dx2-y2
(d) [Co(NH3)3(H2O)3]Cl3
(C) S, px, py, dz2 (d) s, px, py, dxy
264. Among the following which is not -bonded
organometallic compound? 272. Co-ordination number of Ni in [Ni(C2O4)3]4- is:

(a) K[PtCl3(2-C2H4)] (b) Fe(5-C5H5)2 (a) 3 (*b) 6 (c) 4

(d) 5
(c) Cr(6-C6H6)2 (*d) (CH3)4Sn
273. The type of isomerism present in|
265. Ferric ion forms a prussian blue coloured solution due nitropentaamminechromium(III) chloride is:
to the formation of:
(a) Optical (*b) Linkage
(a) K4[Fe(CN)6] (b) Fe(CNS)3
(c) Ionization (d) Polymerization
209
274. The colour of CoCl3. 5NH3. H2O is: (b) On boiling a solution having K+, Ca2+ and HCO3- ions, we
get a precipitate of K2Ca(CO3)2
(a) Orange yellow (b) Orange
(c) Manganese salt give a violet vortex test in reducing fame
(c) Green (*d) Pink
(*d) From a mixed precipitate of AgCl and AgI, ammonia
275. Atomic numbers of Cr and Fe are respectively 24 and solution dissolves only AgCl
26. Which of the following is paramagnetic with the spin of
the electron? 282. The IUPAC name of K3Fe(CN)6 is:

(a) [Cr(CO)6] (b) [Fe(CO)5] (a) Potassium hexacyanoferrate (II)

(c) [Fe(CN)6]4- (*d) [Cr(NH3)6]3+ (*b) Potassium hexacyanoferrate (III)

276. Which one of the following will not show geometrical (c) Potassium hexacyano iron (II)
isomerism?
(d) Tripotassium hexacyano iron (II)
(a) [Cr(NH3)4Cl2]Cl (b) [Co(en)2Cl2]Cl
283. Which of the following will show optical isomerism?
(*c) [Co(NH3)5NO2]Cl2 (d) [Pt(NH3)2Cl2]
(a) [Cu(NH3)4]2+ (b) [ZnCl4]2- (*c) [Cr(C2O4 )3 ]3-
277. Which of the following organometallic compound is  (d) [Co (CN)6 ] 3-

and -bonded?
284. Which one of the following has lowest value of
(a) [Fe(5-C5H5)2] (b) [PtCl3(2-C2H4)] paramagnetic behaviour?

(c*) [Co(CO)5NH3]2+ (d) Al(CH3)3 (a) [Cr(CN6]3- (b) [Mn(CN)6]3- (c) [Fe(CN)6]3-
(*d) [Co(CN)6]3-
278. Which statement is incorrect?
285. The value of 'spin only' magnetic moment for one of
(*a) Ni(CO)4-tetrahedral, paramagnetic the following configuration is 2.84 BM. The correct one is:

(b) [Ni(CN)4]2- -square planar, diamagnetic (a) d4 (in strong field ligand)

(c) Ni(CO)4-tetrahedral, diamagnetic (*b) d2 (in weak field ligand)

(d) [NiCl4]2--tetrahedral, paramagnetic (c) d3 (in weak as well as strong field ligand)

279. Which of the following will exhibit maximum ionic (d) d5 (in strong field ligand)
conductivity?
286. The complex ion which has no 'd' electron in the
(*a) K4[Fe(CN)6] (b) [Co(NH3)6]Cl3 central metal atom is:

(c) [Cu(NH3)4]Cl2 (d) [Ni(CO)4] (*a) [MnO4J- (b) [Co(NH3)6]3+ (c) [Fe(CN)6]3-
(d) [Cr(H2O)6]3+
280. Ammonia forms the complex [Cu(NH3)4]2+ with copper
ions in alkaline solution but not in acid solution. The reason 287. The spin magnetic moment of cobalt in Hg[Co(SCN)4J
for it is: is:

(a) In alkaline solution Cu(OH)2 is precipitated which .is (a) 3 (b) 8 (*c) 15
soluble in excess of alkali
(d) 24
(b) Copper hydroxide is amphoteric
288. Which kind of isomerism is exhibited by octahedral
(c) In acidic solution hydration protects Cu2+ ions [Co(NH3 )4 Br2] Cl?

(*d) In acidic solution protons coordinates with ammonia (*a) Geometrical and ionisation
molecule forming NH4 ions and NH3 molecules are not
available (b) Geometrical and optical

281. Which one of the following statement is correct? (c) Optical and ionisation

(a) Ferric ions give a deep green precipitate on adding (d) Geometrical only.
potassium ferrocyanide solution.
289. CN- is a strong field ligand. This is due to the fact:

210
(a) It carries negative charge 297. How many EDTA (ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid)
molecules are required to make an octahedral complex with
(*b) It is a pseudohalide a Ca2+ ion?

(c) It can accept proton from metal (a) Six (b) Three (*c) One
(d) Two
(d) It forms high spin complexes with metal
ANALYTICAL CHEMISTRY
290. Considering H2O as a weak field ligand, the number of
unpaired electrons in Mn(H2O)62+ will be: 1. AgNO3 (aq) gives yellow ppt. with:

(a) 3 (*b) 5 (c) 2 (d) 4 (a) KIO3 (aq) (*b) KI (aq) (c) CHI3 (d) CH2I2

291. In an octahedral structure, the pair of d-orbitals 2. Which reagent is used to remove SO4- and Cl-?
involved in d2 sp3 hybridisation is:
(a) NaOH (*b) Pb(NO3)2 (c) BaSO4 (d) KOH

* 3. AgCl with NH3 forms a complex:

(*a) Ag(NH3)2Cl (b) AgNO3 (c) AgNH2Cl (d) Ag mirror

292. Which one of the following is expected to exhibit
4. Acidic solution of a salt produced deep blue colour with
optical isomerism?
starch and KI. The salt is:

(a) trans - [Co(en)2 Cl2 ] (b) trans - [Pt (NH3 )2Cl2] (c) (a) Chloride (*b) Nitrite (c) Acetate (d) Bromide
Cis- [pt (NH3 )2 Cl2 ] (*d) Cis-[Co(en)2 Cl2]
5. CuSO4 reacts with NH4OH to give deep blue complex of:
293. Which one of the following is an inner orbital complex
as well as diamagnetic in nature: *(a) Cuprammonium sulphate (b) Cuprammonium
hydroxide
(a) [Cr(NH3 )6]3+ (*b) [Co(NH3 )6]3+
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of the above
(c) [Ni(NH3)6]2+ (d) [Zn(NH3)6]2+
6. Which salt would give SO2 with hot and dil. H2SO4 and
294. [Co(NH3)4 (NO2)2] Cl exhibits:
also decolourize Br2 water?

(a) Ionization isomerism, geometrical isomerism and optical *(a) Na2SO3 (b) NaHSO4 (c) Na2SO4 (d)
isomerism Na2S

(b) Linkage isomerism, geometrical isomerism and optical 7. Prussian blue is formed when:
isomerism
(a) Ferrous sulphate reacts with FeCl3
(c) Linkage isomerism, ionization isomerism and optical
isomerism (*b) Ferric sulphate reacts with K4Fe(CN)6

(c) Ferrous ammonium sulphate reacts with FeCl3

(*d) Linkage isomerism, ionization isomerism and
geometrical isomerism (d) Ammonium sulphate reacts with FeCl3

295. Nickel (Z = 28) combines with a uninegative 8. The most probable formula of Prussian blue is:
monodentate ligand X- to form a paramagnetic complex
[NiX4]2-. The number of unpaired electron (s) in the nickel (a) Fe3[Fe(CN)6]2 (b) Fe2[Fe(CN)6]3 (*c) Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3
and geometry of this complex ion are, respectively: (d) Fe3[Fe(CN)6]4

(a) One, tetrahedral (*b) Two, tetrahedral (c) 9. Which compound will not give positive chromyl
chloride test?
One, square planar (d) Two, square planar
(a) Copper chloride, CuCl2 (*b) Mercuric chloride, HgCl2
296. In Fe(CO)5, the Fe — C bond possesses:
(c) Zinc chloride, ZnCl2 (d) Anilinium chloride, C6H5NH3Cr
(a) -character only
10. A metal salt solution forms a yellow precipitate with
(*b) Both  and  characters potassium chromate in acetic acid, a white precipitate with
dil. sulphuric acid, but gives no precipitate with sodium
(c) Ionic character chloride or iodide. The white precipitate obtained when
sodium carbonate is added to the metal salt solution
(d) -character only consists of:

(a) Lead carbonate (b) Basic lead carbonate

211
(c*) Barium carbonate (d) Strontium carbonate
11. An inorganic salt solution gives a yellow precipitate with
silver nitrate. The precipitate dissolves in dil. nitric acid as
well as in ammonium hydroxide. The solution contains:
23. In the precipitation of the iron group in qualitative
analysis, ammonium chloride is added before adding
ammonium hydroxide to:
(*a) Decrease concentration of OH- ions

(a*) Bromide (b) Iodide (c) Phosphate (d) Chromate (b) Prevent interference by phosphate ions

12. A pale-green crystalline inorganic salt (A) dissolves (c) Increase concentration of Cl- ions
freely in water. It gives a brown precipitate on addition of
aqueous NaOH. The solution of (A) also gives a black (d) Increase concentration of NH4 ions
precipitate on bubbling H2S in alkaline medium. An aqueous
solution of (A) decolourizes the pink colour of the 24. H2S gas, on passing through an alkaline solution, forms
permanganate solution. The metal in the salt solution is: a white precipitate. The solution contains ions of:
(a) Copper (b) Aluminium (c) Lead (*d) Iron
(a) Pb (*b) Zn (c) Cu (d) Ni
13. Tumbull's blue is a compound:
25. The aqueous solution of which salt is coloured?
(a) Ferricyanide (b) Ferrous ferricyanide
(a) Zn(N03)2 (b) LiNO3 (c*) Co(N03)2 (d) Potash alum
(c) Ferrous cyanide *(d) Ferri ferrocyanide
26. Which gives violet colour with borax?
14. Which cation is detected by the flame test?
(a) Fe (b) Pb (c) Co (d*) Mn
(a) NH4+ (b*) K+ (c) Mg2+ (d) Al3+
27. Yellow ammonium sulphide solution is a suitable
15. Chromyl chloride test is made for the confirmation of reagent used for the separation of:
the presence of.....in a mixture.
(a) HgS and PbS (b) PbS and Bi2S3
(a) Sulphate (b) Chromium
(c) Bi2S3 and CuS * (d) CdS and As2S3
(c*) Chloride (d) Chromium and chloride
28. When Cl2 water is added to an aqueous solution of
16. Strongly acidified solution of barium nitrate gives a potassium halide in presence of chloroform, a violet colour
white precipitate with.....which did not dissolve even after is obtained. On adding more of Cl2 water, the violet colour
large addition of water, disappears and a colourless solution is obtained. This test
confirms the presence of....in aqueous solution.
(a) Sodium phosphate (b) Sodium carbonate
(*a) Iodide (b) Bromide (c) Chloride (d) Iodide and bromide
(c*) Sodium sulphate (d) Sodium chloride
29. The silver sulphate solution is used to separate:
17. A substance on treatment with dil. H2SO4 liberates a
colourless gas which produces (i) turbidity with baryta *(a) Nitrate and bromide (b) Nitrate and chlorate
water and (ii) turns acidified dichromate solution green. The
reaction indicates the presence of: (c) Bromide and iodide (d) Nitrate and nitrite

(a) CO32- (b*) S2- (c) SO32- (d)N02 30. Fe(OH) 3 can be separated from Al(OH) 3 by addition of:

18. The reaction of NaCl and K2Cr2O7 mixture with cone. (a) Dil. HCl (b) NaCl solution
H2SO4 results in the formation of;
*(c) NaOH solution (d) NH4Cl and NH4OH
(*a) CrO2Cl2 (b) CrOCl2 (c) CrO2Cl (d) (CrOCl)2
31. Which sulphide is insoluble in dilute acids but soluble in
19. Ca, Ba and Sr ions are precipitated in fifth group as alkalies? (a) PbS (b) CdS (c) FeS (d*) As2S3
their:(a*) Oxides (b) Sulphates (c) Carbonates (d)
32. An orange red precipitate obtained by passing H2S
Sulphides
through an acidified solution of an inorganic salt indicates
20. Cone. H2SO4 on addition to dry KNO3 gives brown the presence of:
fumes of: (a) SO2 (b) SO3 (c) NO (d*) NO2
(a) Cadmium (b) Tin (c*) Antimony (d)
21. A reagent used to distinguish between a chloride and a Bismuth
peroxide is:
33. The reagents NH4Cl and aqueous NH3 will precipitate:
(a) Water *(b) Dil. H2SO4 (c) KOH solution (d) NaCl
(a) Ca2+ (*b) Al3+ (c) Mg2+ (d) Zn2+
22. Ferric ion forms a prussian blue coloured ppt. due to
34. A white crystalline substance dissolves in hot water. On
the formation of:
passing H2S in this solution, a black precipitate is obtained.
(a) K4[Fe(CN)6] *b) Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3 (c) KMnO4 (d) Fe(OH)3 The black precipitate dissolves completely in hot HNO3. On

212
adding a few drops of cone. H2SO4 a white precipitate is 45. Which of the following sulphides has the maximum
obtained. This precipitate is: solubility product? (a) HgS (b) PbS (c) CuS (*d) MnS

(a) BaSO4 (b) SrSO4 (*c) PbCl2 (d) CdSO4 46. Which is insoluble in water at room temperature but
soluble in boiling water?
35. The presence of NH4 radical in solution can be detected
by: (a) Fehling's solution (b) Benedict's solution (a) GaCl2 (b) BaCl2 (c) SrCl2 (*d) PbCl2

(c) Schiff's reagent (*d) Nessler's reagent 47. The presence of magnesium is confirmed in the
qualitative analysis by the formation of a white
36. Chloride of which element will be coloured? crystalline precipitate of:

(a) Ag (b) Hg (c) Zn (*d) Co (a) Mg(HCO3)2 (b*) MgNH4PO4 (c) MgNH4(HC03)3 (d) MgCO3

37. Concentrated sodium hydroxide can separate a mixture 48. In qualitative inorganic analysis phosphate, if present,
of: (a) Al3+ and Cr3+ *(b) Cr3+ and Fe3+ is to be eliminated in the appropriate group in order to
detect the radical:
(c) Al3+and Zn3+ (d) Zn2+and Pb2+
(a) Pb2+ (b) As3+ (*c) Ca2+ (d) Cd2+
38. Potassium thiocyanate solution reacts with ferric
chloride to give: 49. A white metal sulphide soluble in water is:

(a) Pink colour (b) Deep blue colour (a) CuS (b*) Na2S (c) PbS (d) ZnS

(c) Green colour * (d) Blood-red colour
39. The solution of a chemical compound X reacts with
AgNO3 solution to form a white precipitate of Y which
dissolves in NH4OH to give a complex Z. When Z is treated
with dil, HNO3, Y reappears. The chemical compound ‘X’ can
be:
50. A salt which gives CO2 with hot cone. H2SO4 and also
decolourizes acidified KMnO4 on warming is:
(a) HCO3- (b) CO32- (*c) Oxalate (d) Acetate
51. The ion not precipitated by H2S in the presence of HCl
is: (a) Cu+ (b) Ag+ (c) Pb2+ (*d) Al3+

*(a) NaCl (b) CH3Cl (c) NaBr (d) Nal 52. Al3+, Fe3+ and Cr 3+ are grouped together for qualitative
analysis because their:
40. A green mass is formed in the charcoal cavity test
when a colourless salt (X) is fused with cobalt nitrate. (X) (a) Carbonates are insoluble in NH3
may contain:
*(b) Hydroxides are insoluble in NH3
(a) Aluminium (b) Copper (c) Barium *(d) Zinc
(c) Sulphides are soluble in acid
41. On the addition of a solution containing CrO4- ions to
the solution of Ba2+, Sr2+ and Ca2+ ions, the precipitate (d) None of the above
obtained first will be of:
53. Lead has been placed in qualitative group analysis 1st
(a) CaCrO4 (b) SrCrO4 (*c) BaCrO4 (d) A mixture of all the and 2ad because:
three
(a) It shows die valency one and two
42. Which of the following statements is not correct?
(b) It forms insoluble PbCl2
(a) Lead(II) chloride is soluble in hot water and reappears
on cooling (c) It forms lead sulphide

(b) In dilute HCl, the solubility of PbCl2 is diminished in
comparison to that in water
(c*) In concentrated HCl, the solubility of PbCl2 is very
much diminished in comparison to that in water
(*d) It is partly soluble in water
54. The brown ring formation in NO3 test is of:
(a) FeSO4 (b*) FeSO4.NO (c) FeSO4.NO2 (d) None of these

(d) Lead(II) chloride forms the complex [(NH4)2PbCl] 55. As2S3 is: (a) Black (b*) Yellow (c) Orange (d) White

43. A yellow precipitate obtained in II group of the 56. SnS2 is: (a) Black (*b) Brown (c) Orange (d) None
qualitative analysis was soluble in aq, NaOH and insoluble
57. Sb2S3 is: (a) Black (b) Yellow (*c) Orange (d) None
in dil. HNO3. This shows the presence of:

58. A black sulphide is formed by the action of H2S on:

(a) Tin (b) Antimony (*c) Arsenic (d) Cadmium

(a*) CuCl2 (b) CdCl2 (c) ZnCl2 (d) NaCl

44. Which gives blue bead in borax bead test?

59. Which can be used in place of NH4Cl in III group

(a) Or2+ (b*) Co3+ (c) Ni3+ (d) Cd2+

precipitation?
213
(*a) NH4NO3 (b) (NH4)2CrO4 A (c) (NH4)2SO4 (d) NaCl
60. Pick the odd man:
(a) CaCl2 (b) P2O5 (c) H2SO4 *(d) CaCO3
61. Pb(CH3COO)2 gives....colour with H2S.
(*a) Black (b) White (c) Red (d) Orange
62. Which combines with Fe2+ to form brown complex?
(a) N2O (*b) NO (c) N2O3 (d) N2O5
63. Na2CO3 cannot be used in place of (NH4)2CO3 for the
precipitation of V group because:
(a) Na+ interferes in the detection of V group
(b) Cone, of CO32- is very low
(c) Na will react with acid radicals
(*d) Mg will be precipitated
64. CoCl2 is: (a*) Pink (b) Black (c) Green (d) Colourless
65. Acidified K2Cr2O7 turns green by:
(a) CO2 (b) CO (*c) SO2 (d) HCl
66. Chemical volcano is produced on heating:
(a) K2Cr2O7 (b*) (NH4)2Cr2O7 (c) ZnCr2O7 (d) K2CrO4
67. Which on mixing gives deep brown colour?
(a) N2O+O2 (b*) NO+O2 (c) N2O3 +O2 (d) None
68. NaCl, NaBr, Nal mixture on adding H2SO4 gives gases
respectively:
(*a) HCl, Br2,l2 (b) HCl, HBr, HI
(c) Cl2,Br2, l2 (d) None of these
69. Sodium nitroprusside when added to an alkaline
solution of sulphide ions produces purple colouration due to
the formation of:
*(a) Na4[Fe(CN)5NOS] (b) Na3[Fe(CN)5NOS]
(c) Na2[Fe(H2O)5NOS] (d) Na[Fe(H2O)5NOS]
70. H2S on passing through ammoniacal solution gives
white ppt. The white ppt. is of:
(a) CoS (b) NiS (c) MnS (*d) ZnS
71. Preparation of Na2CO3 extract is made for acid radical
analysis because: Analytical Chemistry
(*a)All anions react with Na to give water
compounds
(b) Na is more reactive
(c) Na2CO3 is water soluble (d) None of the above
72. H2S and SO2 can be distinguished by:
(a) Litmus paper (b) Lime water (*c) Pb(CH3COO)2 (d) HCl
73. On passing CrO2Cl2 in water and then adding
(CH3COO)2 Pb, the ppt. formed is:
*(a) PbCrO4 (b) PbCl2 (c) CrCl3 (d) None
74. Which gives blood red colour with ammonium
thiocyanate? (a*) Fe3+ (b) Fe2+ (c) Cu2+ (d) Cd2+
75. A salt having BO3- on burning with alcohol and cone.
H2SO4 gives ..... edge flame.
(*a) Green (b) Yellow (c) Red (d) White
76. Carbonates of Ba, Sr and Ca are:
(*a) White (b) Blue (c) Green (d) Black
77. The II group precipitates soluble in yellow ammonium
sulphide may be: (*a) As, Sb, Sn (b) Cu, Hg, Bi, Cd
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None
78. CaC2O4 is ....in water.
*(a) Insoluble (b) Soluble (c) Complex (d) None
79. Which of the following anions is not easily removed
from aqueous solutions by precipitation?
(a) Cl- (b) SOU- *(c) NO3- (d) CO23-
80. Sulphuric acid is not used for preparation of original
solution in analysis of basic radicals because:
(a) It is a reducing agent
(*b) It forms insoluble sulphate with certain basic radicals
(c) It forms a soluble complex (d) It is viscous in nature
81. Nitric acid is generally not used for preparation of
original solution in analysis of basic radicals, because it:
(a*) Is oxidizing agent (b) Is reducing agent
(c) Forms insoluble nitrates (d) Forms soluble nitrates
82. A solution on treatment with NH3 turns blue; it
contains: (*a) Cu2+ (b) Ni2+ (c) Co2+ (d) Mn2+
83. Solution of ZnS in dil. HCl when treated with NaOH
solution a white ppt. is formed which dissolves in excess of
NaOH due to formation of:
(a) ZnCl2 (b) Zn(OH)Cl *(c) Na2ZnO2 (d) None
84. Fe is precipitated as Fe(OH)3 and not Fe(OH)2 because:
(a*) Fe(OH)2 is not precipitated as it is soluble
soluble (b) Fe(OH)3 is soluble
(c) Fe(OH)2 is insoluble (d) None of the above
85. Disodium hydrogen phosphate is used to test:
(*a) Mg2+ (b) Na+ (c) Ca2+ (d) All
86. Reddish-brown (chocolate) ppt. are formed with:
214
(*a) Cu2+ and Fe(CN)64- (b) Ba2+ and SO42-
(c) Pb2+ and I- (d) None
87. Addition of KI to Pb salt in water gives ..... ppt.
(a*) Yellow (b) Black (c) White (d) Red
88. Which radicals are precipitated in
presence of alkali?
(a*) Ca, Ba, Sr (b) Mg (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of
these
89. Addition of SnCl2 to HgCl2 gives ppt:
(*a) White turning to grey (b) Black turning to white
(c) White turning to red (d) None of these
90. A mixture on treating with NaOH gives pungent
smelling gas fuming with HCl; the mixture contains:
(*a) NH+ (b) Na+ (c) Cd2+ (d) Cl-
91. Few drops of HNO3 are added to II group before
proceeding to III group in order to:
(a*) Convert Fe2+ to Fe3+ (b) Convert Fe3+ to Fe2+
(c) Ppt. Ill group (d) None of these
92. A salt when heated with H2SO4 liberates violet gas
which turns starch paper blue; the salt may be:
(a) NaNO3 (b) NaBr (*c) Nal (d) NaCl
93. The aqueous solution of salt gives white ppt. with lead
acetate solution which is insoluble in hot water and nitric
acid. The salt contains:
(a) Cl- (b) Ba2+ (c) CO32- (*d) SO42-
94. Ammonium molybdate is used to test the radical:
(a) PO43- (b) As (c*) Both (a) and (b) (d) None
95. When dimethyl glyoxime solution is added to an
aqueous solution of nickel chloride in presence of
ammonium hydroxide:
(a) A black ppt. is formed (b) A blue ppt. is formed
(c*) A rose red ppt. is formed (d) No ppt. is formed
96. Which of the following pairs cannot be separated by
H2S in dil. HCl?
(*a) Cu 2+
and Cd 2+
(b) Cu 2+
and Ni2+
(c) Cu2+ and Zn2+ (d) Hg2+ and A13+
97. An inorganic salt solution on treatment with HCl gives a
white precipitate of which metal ions?
(*a) Hg 2
2+
(b) Hg2+ (c) Cd2+
98. Which does not dissolve in concentrated ammonium
hydroxide solution?
(a) AgF (b) AgCl (c) AgBr (d*) Agl
99. A white salt soluble in NH4OH but insoluble in water is:
(a) BaSO4 (b) CuSO4 (c) PbSO4 (*d) AgCl
100. The sulphide not soluble in hot dilute nitric acid is:
(a) CuS (b) ZnS (c) CdS (d*) HgS
101. KBr, on reaction with cone. H2SO4, gives reddish
(NH4)2CO3 in brown gas:
*(a) Bromine (b) Mixture of bromine and HBr (c) HBr (d)
NO2
102. When bismuth chloride is poured into a large volume
of water, the white precipitate produced is:
(a) Bi(OH)3 (b) Bi2O3 (*c) BiOCl (d) Bi2OCl3
103. Sometimes yellow turbidity appears while passing H2S
gas even in the absence of second group radicals. This is
because:
(a) Sulphur is present in the mixture as an impurity
(b) The fourth group radicals get precipitated as sulphide
*(c) Of the oxidation of H2S gas by some radicals acting as
oxidant (d) The third group radicals get precipitated
as hydroxides
104. If HCl is not added before passing H2S in the second
group, it may result in the:
(a) Incomplete precipitation of second group sulphide
(b*) Precipitation of sulphides of cations belonging to
subsequent groups (c) Precipitation of sulphur
(d) Precipitation of lead as lead sulphide
105. Some pale-green crystals are strongly heated. The
gases given off are passed into a container surrounded by
ice and then through a solution of acidified KMnO4. The
KMnO4 is decolourized, a waxy white solid is formed in the
ice container; this is dissolved in water. The solution will:
(a) Give a precipitate with silver nitrate solution
(b*) Give a precipitate with barium chloride solution
(c) Turn red litmus blue
(d) Give blue colour with starch solution
106. Formation of a green-edged flame on igniting the
vapours evolved by heating a given inorganic salt with a
few mL of ethyl alcohol and cone. H2SO4 indicates the
presence of a:
(a) Tartrate (b) Oxalate (c) Acetate (*d) Borate
107. The compound which turns black with NH4OH is:
(a) Lead chloride (b*) Mercurous chloride
(c) Mercuric chloride (d) Silver chloride
108. Which metal gives blue ash when its salt is heated
with Na2CO3 solid and Co(NO3)2 on a charcoal piece?
215
(a) Cu (b) Mg (c*) Al (d) Zn
109. To avoid the precipitation of hydroxides of Ni2+, Co2+,
Zn2+ and Mn2* along with those of Fe3+,Al3+ and Cr3+ the
third group solution should be:
(a) Heated with a few drops of cone. HNO3
(b*) Treated with excess of NH4Cl
(c) Concentrated (d) None of the above
110. Which gives a white precipitate with a solution of
AgNO3, a white precipitate with dil. H2SO4 and a green
flame test? (a) Copper chloride (b) Copper nitrate
(c) Lead nitrate *(d) Barium chloride
111. In qualitative inorganic analysis of basic radicals,
hydrochloric acid is preferred to nitric acid for preparing a
solution of given substance. This is because:
(a) Nitrates are not decomposed to sulphides
(b) Nitric acid contains nitrogen
*(c) Hydrochloric acid is not an oxidizing agent
(d) Chlorides are easily converted to sulphides
112. Some white crystals are heated. A crackling sound is
heard and brown fumes are given off. The residue after
heating is seen to be yellow-brown in colour. When a
glowing splint is held in the fumes it is relighted. The fumes
consist of:
(a) Bromine only (b) Nitrogen dioxide only
(c) Oxygen only (*d) A mixture of nitrogen dioxide and
oxygen
113. Which pair would be expected to form precipitate
when solutions are mixed?
(a) K+,SO42- (b) Na+,S2-(c) Ag+.NO3- (d*) Al3+,OH-
114. Formation of a rose-red precipitate when a slightly
alkaline solution of an inorganic salt is treated with dimethyl
glyoxime confirms the presence of:
(a) Cobalt (*b) Zinc (c) Iron (d) Nickel
115. The metal that does not give the borax bead test is:
(a) Cr (b) Ni (c*) Pb (d) Mn
116. H2S will precipitate the sulphides of all the metals
from the solution of chlorides of GUJ Zn and Cd if:
(*a) The solution is aqueous (b) The solution is acidic
(c) The solution is dilute acidic
(d) Any of the above solutions is present
117. To a solution of a substance, gradual addition of
ammonium hydroxide results in a brown precipitate which
does not dissolve in excess of NH4OH. However, when HCl
is added to the original solution a white precipitate is
formed. The solution contained:
216
(*a) Lead salt (b) Silver salt (c) Mercurous salt (d) Copper salt
118. Addition of solution of oxalate to an aqueous solution
of mixture of Ba2+, Sr2+ and Ca2+ will precipitate:
(a) Ca2+ (b) Ca2+ and Sr2+ (c) Ba2+ and Sr2+ (*d) All the
three
119. Nessler's reagent is used to detect the presence of:
(a) CrO42- (b) PO3-(c) MnO4- (*d) NH4+
120. Which of the following pairs of ions cannot be
separated by H2S in dilute hydrochloric acid?
(*a)Bi3+,Sn4+ (b) Al3+, Hg2+ (c) Zn2+,Cu2+ (d) Ni2+, Cu2+
121. Group reagent for the precipitation of group II basic
radicals for the qualitative analysis is:
(*a) Dil. HCl + H2S
(b) NH4Cl (solid) + NH4OH (solution) + H2S
(c) (NH4)2CO3 solution (d) None of the above
122. Black precipitates are obtained on passing H2S gas
through a solution of:
(a) Acidified zinc nitrate (b) Ammoniacal barium chloride
(c) Magnesium nitrate (*d) Copper nitrate
123. In the second group of qualitative analysis, H2S is
passed through a solution acidified with HCl in order to:
(*a) Limit the concentration of S2- ions
(b) Increase the solubility of H2S
(c) Increase the concentration of S2- ions
(d) Add the Cl- ions
124. Two colourless gases on mixing formed dense white
fumes. These are:
(a) NH3 and SO2 (b) SO2 and steam
(c*) NH3 and HCl (d) NH3 and HNO2
125. Few drops of a salt solution are shaken with
chloroform, chlorine water. Chloroform layer becomes
violet. Solution contains:
(a) NO2 ion (b) NO; ion (c) Br- ion *(d) I- ion
126. The reagent that distinguishes between silver and lead
salt is:
(a) H2S gas (b*) Hot dil. HCl solution
(c) NH4Cl (solid)+ NH4OH (solution)
(d) NH4Cl (solid) + (NH4)2CO3 solution
127. A compound is soluble in water. If ammonia is added
to aqueous solution of compound a red precipitate appears
which is soluble in dil. HCl. The compound has:
(a) Aluminium (b) Zinc (c*) Iron (d) Cadmium
128. Blue borax bead is given by: (d) Colourless compounds

(a) Zn (*b) Cobalt (c) Chromium (d) Fe 139. Manganese salt + PbO2+conc. HNO3the solution
acquires purple colour. The colour is due to:
129. The salt used for performing 'bead' test in qualitative
inorganic analysis is: (*a) HMnO4 (b) A lead salt (c) Mn(NO3)2 (d) H2MnO4

(a) K2SO4. Al2(SO4)3.24H2O (b) FeSO4.(NH4)2SO4 .4H2O 140. Soda extract is prepared by:

(c*) Na(NH4)HPO4.4H2O (d) CaSO4.2H2O (a) Fusing soda and mixture and then extracting with water

130. A light green coloured salt soluble in water gives black (b) Dissolving NaHCO3 and mixture in dil. HCl
precipitate on passing H2S which dissolves readily in HCl.
The metal ion present is: (c) Boiling Na2CO3 and mixture in dil. HCl

(a) Co2+ (*b) Fe2+ (c) Ni2+ (d) Mn2+ (*d) Boiling Na2CO3 and mixture in distilled water

131. Concentrated aqueous sodium hydroxide can separate 141. Sulphide ions react with Na2[Fe(NO)(CN)5] to form a
a mixture of: purple coloured compound Na4[Fe(CN)5(NOS)]. In the
reaction, the oxidation state of iron:
(a) Al3+ and Sn2+ (b*) Al3+ and Fe3+
(a) Changes from +2 to +3 (b) Changes from +3 to +2
(c) Al3+ and Zn2+ (d) Zn2+ and Pb2+
(c) Changes from +2 to +4 (d*) Does not change
132. Ferric ion forms a prussian blue coloured precipitate
with K4Fe(CN)6 due to the formation of: 142. Some salts, although containing two different metals
give test for only one of them in solution, such salts are:
(a) K3[Fe(CN)6] (b*) Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3 (a) Normal salts (b) Double salts (c*) Complex salts
(d) Basic salts
(c) Fe(OH)3 (d) KFe[Fe(CN)6]
143. Which sulphides are soluble only in aquaregia?
133. For the test of halides, the soda extract is acidified
with: (a) NiS (b) CoS (c) HgS * (d) All

(a) Dil. H2SO4 (b*) Dil. HNO3 (c) Dil. HCl (d) Any of the 144. In qualitative analysis of I group radicals a white
three precipitate is formed which is insoluble in boiling water but
when treated with NH4OH it turns black; the precipitate
134. An inorganic salt when heated evolves coloured gas may be: (a) PbCl2 (b) AgCl (c) HgCl2 * (d) Hg2Cl2
which bleaches moist litmus paper. The evolved gas is: *(a)
N02 (b) Cl2 (c) N20 (d) I 2 145. Two test tubes containing a nitrate and a bromide are
treated separately with H2SO4; brown fumes evolved are
135. An aqueous solution contains Hg2+,Hg2+, Pb2+and passed in water. The water will be coloured by vapours
evolved from the test tube containing: (a) Nitrate *(b)
Cd2+. The addition of HCl (6 N) will precipitate: Bromide (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None

(a) Hg2Cl2 only (b) PbCl2 only 146. A minute quantity of cupric salt is heated on borax
bead in reducing flame of bunsen burner; the colour of
(c*) PbCl2 and Hg2Cl2 (d) PbCl2 and HgCl2 bead after cooling will be:

136. A mixture when rubbed with an organic acid smells
like vinegar. It contains: (a) Sulphur (b) Nitrate (c) Nitrite
* (d) Acetate
137. All ammonium salts liberate ammonia when:
(a) Blue (*b) Brown red (c) Colourless (d)
Green
147. For testing sodium carbonate solution for the presence
of sulphate ions as impurities one should add:

(a) Heated (a) Excess hydrochloric acid and silver nitrate solution

*(b) Heated with caustic soda (b) Excess sulphuric acid and silver nitrate solution

(c) Heated with H2SO4 (c) Excess nitric acid and silver nitrate solution

(d) Heated with NaNO2 *(d) Excess hydrochloric acid and barium chloride solution

138. Silver, mercury (ous) and lead are grouped together 148. An orange precipitate of II group is dissolved in cone.
in a scheme of qualitative analysis because they form:
HCl; the solution when treated with excess of water
(a) Nitrates
turns milky due to formation of:
(b) Carbonates which dissolve in dil. HNO3
(a) Sn(OH)Cl (b) Sb(OH)Cl2 (c*) SbOCl (d) Sb(OH)2Cl
*(c) Insoluble chlorides
217
149. Which pair of ions would be expected to form 159. In qualitative analysis Cd is under:
precipitate when their dilute solutions are mixed?
(a) I group (b*) II group (c) III group (d) IV group
(a) Na+.SO32- (b) NH4+CO32-
160. A reddish-pink substance on heating gives off a
(c) Na+,S2- (*d) Fe3+PO43- vapour which condenses on the sides of the test tube and
the substance turns blue. If on cooling water is added to
150. Which sulphide is not soluble in dil. HNO3? (a) PbS the residue it turns to its original colour. The substance is:
(b*) HgS (c) ZnS (d) Bi2S3
(a) Iodine crystals (b) Copper sulphate crystals
151. Borax when heated on platinum wire forms a glass
like bead which is made up of: (*c) Cobalt chloride crystals (d) Zinc oxide

(a) Sodium tetraborate
(b) Sodium metaborate
(*c) Sodium metaborate and boric anhydride
(d) Boric anhydride and sodium tetraborate
152. Aqueous solution of an acetate salt when treated with
ferric chloride solution gives a blood-red solution due to
formation of:
(a) Fe(CNS)3 (*b) (CH3COO)3Fe (c) (CH3COO)2Fe (d)
Fe(OH)3
153. A white salt is insoluble in cold Water but soluble in
boiling water. Its solution when treated with potassium
chromate solution gives yellow precipitate. The salt may be:
(a) BaCl2 (b) SrCl2 (c*) PbCl2 (d) Hg(N03)2
154. Which of the following solutions gives precipitate with
Pb(NO3 )2 but not with Ba(NO3 )2?
161. Two colourless solutions are mixed. The mixture is
densely coloured white. The two solutions are of:
(a) Copper sulphate and sodium carbonate
(b) Sodium carbonate and calcium nitrate
*(c) Ferrous sulphate and barium nitrate
(d) Sodium chloride and sodium carbonate
162. A solution of white crystals gives a precipitate with
AgNO3 but no precipitate with a solution of Na2CO3. The
action of cone. H2SO4 on the crystals yields a brown gas.
The crystals are of:
(a) NaNO3 (b) KCl
(c) Ca(NO3)2 * (d) NaBr
163. [X] + H2SO4  [Y] a colourless gas with irritating
smell, [Y] + K2Cr2O7 +H2SO4  Green solution, [X] and [Y]
is: [IIT 2003]

(*a) Sodium chloride *(a)SO32-, SO2 (b) Cl-, HCl

(b) Sodium sulphate (c)S2- , H2S (d) CO32- , CO2

(c) Sodium nitrate 164. A gas ' X' is passed through water to form a saturated
solution. The aqueous solution on treatment with silver
(d) Sodium hydrogen phosphate nitrate gives a white precipitate. The saturated aqueous
solution also dissolves magnesium ribbon with evolution of
155. Mercurous chloride turns black on treatment with a colourless gas 'Y'. Identify 'X' and 'Y':
ammonium hydroxide. This is due to the formation of
(a) X =CO2, Y = Cl2 (b) X = Cl2, Y = CO2
(a) Hg(NH2)Cl (b) Hg2Cl2 . NH4OH
(*c) X = Cl2, Y = H2 (d) X = H2, Y = Cl2
(*c) Hg and HgNH2Cl (d) HgCl2.NH4OH
165. An aqueous solution of a substances gives a white
156. The colour developed when sodium sulphide is added precipitate on treatment with dilute hydrochloric acid, which
to sodium nitroprusside is: (a*) Violet (b) Yellow (c) Red dissolves on heating. When hydrogen sulphide is passed
(d) Black through the hot acidic solution, a black precipitate is
obtained. The substance is a:
157. A salt which gives violet vapours on heating with
cone. H2SO4 is: (a) Hg22+ salt (b) Cu2+ salt

(a) A sulphate (b) A bromide (*c) An iodide (d) A nitrate (c) Ag+ salt (d*) Pb2+ salt

158. A white powder when strongly heated gives off brown 166. Identify the correct order of solubility of Na2S, CuS
fumes. A solution of this powder gives a yellow precipitate and ZnS in aqueous medium:
with a solution of KI. When a solution of barium chloride is
added to a solution of powder, a white precipitate results. (a) CuS > ZnS > Na2S (b) ZnS > Na2S > CuS
This white powder may be:
(c) Na2S > CuS > ZnS * (d) Na2S > ZnS > CuS
(a) A soluble sulphate (b) KBr or NaBr
167. [X] + H2SO4  [Y], a colourless gas with irritating
(c) Ba(NO3)2 (d*) AgNO3 smell.

218
[Y] + K2Cr2O7 + H2SO4  green solution.

Thus, [X] and [Y] are:

(*a)SO32- , SO2 (b) Cl- , HCl

(c) S2-, H2S (d) CO32- , CO2

168. A salt of NaX 

MgCl2
 White ppt. on boiling. Thus,
anion X is:

*(a) HCO3- (b) NO3-

(c) CO32- (d) SO42-

169. A solid compound X on heating gives CO2 gas and a

residue. The residue mixed with water forms Y. On passing
excess of CO2 through Y in water, a clear solution Z is
obtained. On boiling Z, compound X is reformed. The
compound X is:

(a) Ca(HCO3)2 *(b) CaCO3

(c) Na2CO3 (d) K2CO3

170. A red solid is insoluble in water. However, it becomes

soluble if some KI is added to water-heating the red solid in
a test tube results in liberation of some violet coloured
fumes and droplets of a metal appear on the cooler parts of
the test tube. The red solid is:

(a) HgO (b) Pb3O4

(c) (NH4)2Cr2O7 *(d) HgI2

171. Ammonia forms the complex Cu(NH3 )42+ with copper

ion in alkaline solution but not in acidic solution. This is due

to:

(a) In alkaline solution insoluble Cu(OH)2 is

precipitated which is soluble in excess of any alkali

(b) Cu(OH)2 is amphoteric

(c) In acidic solution hydration protects Cu2+ ion

*(d) In acid solution proton coordinate with NH3 forming

NHJ ion and NH3 is not available

172. Which of the following statement is correct?

(a) Fe3+ give a deep green ppt on adding K4Fe(CN)6 solution

(b) On boiling a solution having K+, Ca2+ and HCO3-

ion we get a precipitate of K2Ca(CO3)2

(c) Manganese salts give a violet borax bead test in

reducing flame

*(d) From a mixed precipitate of AgCl and Agl ammonia

solution dissolves only AgCl

219