REBLEX Reviewer 2016

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REB Examination Reviewer:
REAL ESTATE BROKER(REB)

EXAMINATION REVIEWER
2014 EDITION
RA 9646 An Act Regulating the Real Estate

Service Practice of The Philippines
Also Includes Coverage on Some Topics

Given In the REB Licensure Examination
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INTRODUCTION
This book is structured for takers of Real Estate Broker Licensure Examination.
The coverage of the topics was based on the RA 9646 (RESA Law). Real Estate Service Practice is
a new Profession under PRC and all who practice and those who will enter into the
practice of real estate needs to take a licensure examination. Hopefully this book could
assists those who will take the examination to gain necessary confidence in taking the
examination and help them in journey to become a licensed real estate service
practitioner.
“ Per Aspera Ad Astra”

The rough road leading to the stars
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TABLE OF CONTENTS
(Based on RESA 9646)
Real Estate Service Act
PAGE
GENERAL / FUNDAMENTALS
 Fundamentals of property ownership 05-16
 Code of ethics and responsibilities 17-26
 Legal requirements for real estate service practice 27-34
 Real estate laws and taxation 35-43
SPECIAL AND TECHNICAL KNOWLEDGE

 Subdivision development 43-52
 Condominium concept and other types of real estate holdings 53-61
 Legal aspect of sale, mortgage and lease 62-70
 Documentation and registration 71-81
PROFESSIONAL PRACTICE
 Real estate brokerage practice 82-90
 Real estate finance and economics 91-99
 Urban and rural land use 100-109
 Planning, development and zoning 110-117
 Basic principles of ecology 118-125
 Basic appraisal for real estate brokers 126-137
ANSWER KEYS 138
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FUNDAMENTALS OF PROPERTY OWNERSHIP
1. Percent of Filipino ownership in a foreign corporation or partnership that are allowed to acquire
land in the Philippines.
a. 60%.
b. 50%
c. 75%
2. The surface of the earth which was unimproved.
a. Land
b. Building
c. Estate
3. The land with all improvement and the rights on it.
a. Real property
b. Real estate
c. Land
4. Also known as personalty, or anything portable and movable.
a. Personal property
b. Movable property
c. Private property
5. Personal property that will become real estate.
a. Fixture
b. Real property
c. Real estate
6. A fixture use for trade or business.
a. Trade fixture
b. Business fixture
c. Furniture
7. Form of ownership with complete rights.
a. Fee simple
b. Life estate
c. Leasehold
8. The land with natural and artificial improvement on it.
a. Real estate
b. Land
c. Real property
9. Fee simple where title won’t pass from one person to another until a condition is met.
a. Condition precedent
b. Conditional
c. Condition subsequent
10. Title remains with new owner while the condition is met.
a. Determinable
b. Conditional
c. Subsequent
11. Ownership on the property for the duration of the life of the possessor or another.
a. Life state
b. State for life
c. State in perpetuity
12. Husband’s right on the property of wife.
a. Curtesy
b. Capital
c. Paraphernal
13. The wife right on the property of the husband.
a. Dower
b. Capital
c. Paraphernal
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14. Protection of a family home against creditor on being ______.
a. Foreclose
b. Collateral
c. Homestead
15. Landlord interest on the real property.
a. Lease fee
b. Leasehold
c. Lease rent
16. Only this classification of land can be subject to alienation.
a. Agricultural
b. Special
c. Commercial
17. Right granted to owner of property bordering a bay, lake or sea.
a. Littoral
b. Riparian
c. Public
18. Right granted to owner of property abutting river and streams.
a. Riparian
b. River right
c. Water right
19. Right granted by special agreement with owner and government.
a. Water right
b. Riparian right
c. Littoral
20. Right to build on the piece of land.
a. Development right
b. Building right
c. Improvement right
21. Right to take mineral out of the ground
a. Mineral right
b. Mining right
c. Golden right
22. Having interest on the piece of real estate.
a. Tenancy
b. Ownership
c. Possession
23. Person who administer property in behalf of the beneficiary.
a. Trustee
b. Agent
c. Owner
24. Two or more people or companies join together to do a single project.
a. Joint venture
b. Partnership
c. Corporation
25. Two or more people or companies join together to do business.
a. Partnership
b. Joint venture
c. Corporation
26. Right to use a property for a limited period of time each year.
a. Timeshare
b. Rent
c. Lease
27. Financial claims against someone property.
a. Lien
b. Adverse claim
c. Collateral
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28. Lien on property with unpaid taxes.
a. Tax lien
b. Mortgage lien
c. Mechanic lien
29. Lien on property for nonpayment of work done on property.
a. Mechanic
b. Debt
c. Mortgage
30. Right to use someone else property for his benefit.
a. Easement
b. Lease
c. Borrow
31. Easement that benefit another person than the property.
a. Gross
b. Net
c. Personal
32. Temporary right to do something on someone’s property.
a. License
b. Leasehold
c. Tenant
33. Power of the state to take private property with just compensation.
a. Eminent Domain
b. Police Power
c. Foreclosure
34. Restriction or regulation on the uses of a particular area.
a. Zoning
b. Traffic
c. Ordinance
35. A code that refers to specification of heights and setbacks.
a. Building Code
b. Height Code
c. Fire Code
36. Evidence of ownership such as tax declaration, tax receipts, deed of sale and others.
a. Title
b. Torrens
c. Paper
37. Population of the following that can be considered urban areas of a central district.
a. 500
b. 1000
c. 800
38. Dual allegiance is _____ to the national interest.
a. Inimical
b. Beneficial
c. Dangerous
39. Former Filipino born citizen can acquire their citizenship by _______.
a. Oath of allegiance to the republic
b. Act of allegiance to Philippines
c. Allegiance to Philippines
40. Dual citizen Filipinos can be allowed to be candidate in a national election upon.
a. Renunciation of foreign citizenship
b. Filing of candidacy
c. Order of the court
41. Grant of agricultural land to tenant farmer through land reform.
a. Emancipation patent
b. Homestead patent
c. Free patent
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42. A will written and signed by the testator himself.
a. Holographic will
b. Oral will
c. Notarial will
43. Property where easement is created.
a. Servient
b. Dominant
c. Gross
44. Prescription of easement take almost how many years.
a. 10 to 21 years
b. 5 to 10 years
c. 3 to 5 years
45. Easement that allow electrical wires or pipelines to pass across.
a. Utility easement
b. Road right of way
c. Easement
46. Extension of property physical structure over property line of other owner.
a. Encroachment
b. Illegal entry
c. Over reaching
47. Deed that conveys title from trustor to trustee.
a. Deed of trust
b. Trustees deed
c. Reconveyance deed
48. Voluntary conveyance of title.
a. Voluntary alienation
b. Foreclosure
c. Voluntary transfer
49. Clause that limits ownership rights such as prohibiting act of gambling and drinking.
a. Habendum clause
b. Limitation clause
c. Prohibiting clause
50. Formal declaration in the presence of a notary public or official designated by law.
a. Acknowledgement
b. Complaint
c. Filing
51. Property is sold to satisfy debt.
a. Foreclosure
b. Payment
c. Redeem
52. Grant of land by person through will of owner.
a. Devise
b. Decedent
c. Devisee
53. Element present for adverse possession except.
a. Perpetual
b. Open
c. Notorious
54. Claim when land titled in the name of owner but another claims ownership of the same.
a. Adverse claim
b. Valid claim
c. Invalid claim
55. Foreigners are allowed to acquire real estate in the Philippines under the following condition,
except.
a. Acquisition after 1935 constitution
b. By hereditary succession
c. Acquisition before 1935 constitution
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56. Former natural born Filipino citizen are allowed to acquire urban land for residential purpose for
a maximum area of _______.
a. 1000 sqm
b. 5000 sqm
c. 1 hectare or 3 hectares
57. Former Filipino citizen can acquire land for purposes, except ______.
a. Buy and Sell
b. Business
c. Agriculture
58. The right to own real property in the Philippines is governed by _____.
a. 1987 Philippine Constitution.
b. 1935 Philippine Constitution.
c. 1988 Philippine Constitution.
59. Acquiring land adjoining the banks of rivers due to the gradual deposit of soil as a result of the
river current.
a. Accretion
b. Avulsion
c. Reclamation
60. Acquisition of alienable lands of the public domain by homestead patent, free patent or other
government awards.
a. Public grant
b. Private grant
c. Government grant
61. System of real estate ownership applied in the Philippines.
a. Torrens system
b. Open system
c. Closed system
62. The right to recover is ______.
a. Jus vindicandi.
b. Jus abutendi.
c. Jus disponendi.
63. Property goes to the government because of no heir and no will.
a. Escheat
b. Eminent domain
c. Foreclosure
64. A principle in ownership wherein the state owns all such as the forest, timber, mineral lands and
etc.
a. Regalian
b. Democratic
c. Communal
65. A concept where a person property is not just for his own exclusive used or benefit but for the
good and general welfare of all
a. Steward concept
b. Sharing concept
c. Ownership concept
66. A kind of ownership that includes all rights.
a. Full
b. Naked
c. Sole
67. Belong the ownership of the hidden treasure.
a. Owner
b. Government
c. Finder
68. Land of public domain are the following, except.
a. Commercial
b. Agricultural
c. National park
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69. Filipino citizens may lease not more than ______.
a. 500 hectares
b. 1000 hectares
c. 800 hectares
70. Maximum area allowed for purchases, homestead or grant.
a. 12 hectares
b. 3 hectares
c. 5 hectares
71. Foreigner may lease land in the Philippines for an allowable initial period of ____.
a. 50 years
b. 25 years
c. 30 years
72. Right given so that an owner of the adjoining land can pass through.
a. Road right of way
b. Road allowance
c. Access road
73. Property relation of married couple is absolute community of property effectivity.
a. August 3, 1988
b. September 1, 1972
c. August 8, 1988
74. Property regime of couple without being married.
a. Co-ownership
b. Single ownership
c. Shared ownership
75. Decision on the administration of conjugal properties if couple has disagreement.
a. Husband
b. Wife
c. Son or daughter
76. If a husband is incapacitated who has the power of administration of their properties.
a. Wife
b. Son or Daughter
c. Court
77. Recourse to the court by wife on the decision of husband on conjugal property can be availed
within _____.
a. 5 years
b. 3 years
c. 4 years
78. Properties of a wife is known as
a. Paraphernal
b. Capital
c. Exclusive
79. All of the following can be part of absolute community property except.
a. Property from previous marriage
b. Donated property
c. Brought exclusively by any spouse
80. Separation of properties of couple married after 1988 can be done through.
a. Judicial separation of property
b. Will of the spouses
c. Will of siblings
81. Properties that belonging to no one.
a. Res Nullius
b. Res Communies
c. Res Alicujus
82. The right to consume is.
a. Jus abutendi
b. Jus vindicandi
c. Jus utendi
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83. Supreme law of the land.
a. The welfare of the people
b. The welfare of the nation
c. The welfare state
84. Limitation imposed by the state are the following, except.
a. Right of way
b. Police power
c. Eminent domain
85. Fruits through cultivation or labor.
a. Industrial
b. Commercial
c. Agricultural
86. A process where a soil is deposited.
a. Accretion
b. Reclamation
c. Alluvium
87. Soil added or deposited to the land adjoining the rivers.
a. Alluvium
b. Erosion
c. Land deposit
88. Rights of the lessee of property.
a. Leasehold
b. Lease fee
c. Lease
89. Action to remove cloud on the title.
a. Quieting of title
b. File in the ROD
c. Redeem title
90. Ownership on an undivided thing by different person
a. Co-ownership
b. Common ownership
c. Shared ownership
91. Co-ownership are presume to be.
a. Equal
b. Unequal
c. Maybe equal or not
92. Unities satisfied to create joint tenancy, except.
a. Ownership
b. Possession
c. Interest
93. Donor can prohibit partition of given property for a period not exceeding.
a. 20 years
b. 10 years
c. 25 years
94. Party wall or fence use commonly by parties are expense by.
a. All party
b. Party who build
c. All or one party
95. Years does prescription to claim title in bad faith take place.
a. 30 years
b. 10 years
c. 5 years
96. Tenancy which has no right of survivorship.
a. Tenancy in Common
b. Tenancy in severalty
c. Tenancy by Entirety
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97. Tenancy where interest cannot unilaterally transfer be transferred.
a. Tenancy by Entirety
c. Tenancy in Common
98. Tenancy available to married couple.
a. Tenancy by Entirety
c. Tenancy in Common
99. Any act, omission, establishment, business, condition of property, or anything else which
endangers the health or safety of others.
a. Nuisance
b. Negligence
c. Denial
100. Owner of fruits that fall on the adjacent land.
a. Owner of land where the fruit fell
b. Owner of the tree
c. The finder
101. Right of the owner of lot where branches of trees of adjacent lot extended.
a. Demand the owner to cut off the branches
b. Cut off the branches
c. Cut off the trees
102. Right of the owner land where roots of trees of adjacent trees extended.
a. Cut off the roots
b. Demand to the owner to cut off the roots
c. Cut off the tress
103. Who provide right of way whenever a piece of land acquired by sale, exchange or partition, is
surrounded by other estates of the vendor, exchanger, or co-owner.
a. Owner
b. Buyer
c. Seller
104. gives a right to enjoy the property of another with the obligation of preserving its form and
substance, unless the title constituting it or the law otherwise provides
a. Unsufruct
b. loan
c. Foreclosure
105. The holding of a thing or the enjoyment of a right.
a. Possession
b. Ownership
c. Bundle of right
106. Owner of a spring or brook that arises.
a. Owner of the land
b. Public
c. Government
107. All of the following are special properties, except.
a. Trees
b. Water
c. Minerals
108. Shoulder expenses on demolition ordered by government on building in danger of falling.
a. Owner
b. Government
c. None
109. Belong the lakes, navigable and floatable rivers.
a. State
b. Owner of adjacent land
c. Government
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110. The spontaneous products of the soil, and the young and other products of animals.
a. Natural
b. Artificial
c. industrial
111. The following are immovable property, except.
a. Shares of Stock
b. Trees
c. Statues
112. Not considered citizen of the Philippines
a. Whose parents are Alien
b. Father is a Filipino citizen
c. Nonresident Filipino parents
113. Its goals are more equitable distribution of opportunities, income, and wealth.
a. National economy
b. Government
c. State
114. Foreign corporation may lease not more than ______.
a. 1000 hectare
b. 500 hectare
c. 200 hectare
115. Citizen of the Philippines may not own more than ______.
a. 12 hectare
b. 5 hectare
c. 3 hectare
116. Share of the wife on property of couple whose husband died with one son left.
a. ½ plus ½ of the remaining property
b. ½ of the property
c. 1/3 of the property
117. Share of the son on the property if the mother died and father is alive.
a. ¼ of the property
b. 1/3 of the property
c. ½ of the property
118. Share of an illegitimate child
a. ½ of the share legitimate siblings
b. ½ of share of mother
c. 1/3 of the share
119. Marital consent on sale of properties is needed in all of the following, except.
a. Absolute separation of property
b. Absolute community property
c. Co-ownership
120. Filing of submerge land.
a. Reclamation
b. Construction
c. seashore
121. In a 50 door unit subdivision an alien are allowed to buy and own a unit up to
a. 40%
b. 50%
c. 60%
122. Right to enjoy the property of another with the obligation of preserving its form and substance.
a. Usufruct
b. Lease
c. Rent
123. Owner of a hidden treasure which is of science or art interest.
a. Can be acquired by the state at their price
b. Can be sold by finder at heir price
c. Can be acquired by buyer at their price
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124. Property which was segregated and transfer to other property is still own by the original owner
up to ____.
a. 2 years
b. 5 years
c. 10 years
125. Trees which was been uprooted and carried belong to the owner up to ____.
a. 6 months
b. 12 months
c. 1 year
126. Donation that take effect after death of the donor.
a. Donation mortis causa
b. Donation inter vivos
c. Onerous donation
127. Holding of a thing or enjoyment of the right.
a. Possession
b. Ownership
c. Bundle of right
128. Failure or neglect for an unreasonable and unexplained length of time, to do that which, by
exercising due diligence, could or should have been done earlier.
a. Laches
b. Lapses
c. prescription
129. Private corporation shall lease for an initial period not exceeding ____.
a. 25 years
b. 50 years
c. 10 years
130. Lands acquired through free patent or homestead cannot be sold for a period.
a. 5 years
b. 10 years
c. 15 years
131. Foreshore land can be lease up to ____.
a. 144 hectare
b. 50 hectare
c. 20 hectare
132. Fruits on the exclusive property of wife shall be ____.
a. Conjugal property
b. Property of wife
c. Paraphernal
133. Termination of conjugal partnership of gains, except.
a. Separation
b. Death of spouse
c. Annulled married
134. Administrator of a conjugal property.
a. Husband
b. Wife
c. Appointed by court
135. In case of annulment of marriage, whose share in conjugal properties are forfeited.
a. Spouse acted in bad faith
b. Couple
c. Spouse acted in good faith
136. Is the dwelling house where a person and his family reside, and the land on which it is situated.
a. Family home
b. Residence
c. Dwelling
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137. Family home can be setup also by ____.
a. An unmarried head of the family
b. Only by the married couple
c. Only by the husband
138. Share of stock are considered.
a. Movable property
b. Commercial property
c. Business property
139. Use of public water is acquired by all, except.
a. By prescription of 5 years
b. Administrative concession
c. By prescription of 10 years
140. Object of possession.
a. Only things that are susceptible to being appropriated
b. All real estate
c. All things and property
141. Prohibits the owner of the servient estate from doing something which he could lawfully do if
the easement did not exist.
a. Negative easement
b. Positive easement
c. Netraul easement
142. Imposes upon the owner of the servient estate the obligation of allowing something to be
done or of doing it himself.
a. Positive easement
b. Negative easement
c. Netraul easement
143. Easement that are established by law.
a. Legal easement
b. Involuntary easement
c. Voluntary easement
144. Easement that is established by will of the owners.
a. Voluntary easement
b. Legal easement
c. Involuntary easement
145. Ownership can be acquire by all, except.
a. Force
b. Law
c. Donation
146. The scientist or technologist has the ownership of his discovery or invention.
a. Even before patented
b. After patented
c. During patenting
147. Acknowledgement of will before a notary public.
a. Does not require copy
b. Require copy of notarized will
c. It depends
148. Is an act by virtue of which a testator designates in his will the person or persons who are to
succeed him in his property and transmissible rights and obligations
a. Institution of heir
b. Institution of beneficiary
c. Institution devisee
149. Is the appointment of another heir so that he may enter into the inheritance in default of the
heir originally instituted
a. Substitution
b. Proxy
c. Legitime
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150. Substitution by virtue of which the fiduciary or first heir instituted is entrusted with the
obligation to preserve and to transmit to a second heir the whole or part of the inheritance,
shall be valid and shall take effect.
a. Fideicommisary
b. Substitution
c. Fiduciary
151. Part of the testator's property which he cannot dispose of because the law has reserved it for
certain heirs who are, therefore, called compulsory heirs.
a. Legitime
b. Inheritance
c. Devise
152. Existing between persons who have the same father and the same mother.
a. Full blood relation
b. Brother
c. Half blood relation
153. Right created by fiction of law, by virtue of which the representative is raised to the place and
the degree of the person represented
a. Representation
b. Proxy
c. Replacement
154. Order of intestate succession
a. Descending line
b. Ascending line
c. Sideward line
155. In the absent of descendant and ascendant, the property goes to ____.
a. Spouse
b. Government
c. Charity
156. Right by virtue of which, when two or more persons are called to the same inheritance, devise
or legacy,
a. Accretion
b. Common
c. Sharing
157. Act of liberality whereby a person disposes gratuitously of a thing or right in favor of another,
who accepts it.
a. Donation
b. Gift
c. Giveaways
158. Existing between persons who have the same father, but not the same mother, or the same
mother, but not the same father.
a. Half blood Relation
b. No blood relation
c. Full blood relation
159. Right of possession that returns to the grantor after the expiration of a limited or contingent
estate.
a. Reversion
b. Escheat
c. Conversion
160. Right of possession that goes to a third party upon the expiration of a limited or contingent
estate.
a. Remainder
b. Excess
c. Beneficiary
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CODE OF ETHICS AND RESPONSIBILITIES
1. A noble profession, calling or an occupation dedicated to the promotions, development and

conservation of land and natural resources.
a. Realty Service Practice
b. Brokerage Service Practice
c. Consulting
2. Since realty service practice is an honorable practice, those who practice are bounded to follow a
________.
a. Code of ethics
b. Code of conduct
c. Government code
3. Utmost fidelity, sincerity, respect for colleagues in the profession, and honesty shall be observed.
a. At all times
b. Special times
c. Any time
4. Level of knowledge, competence and expertise in real estate development and management that
shall be maintained.
a. Adequate
b. Sufficient
c. Complete
5. Upgrading of the standards of practice shall be effected.
a. When the need arises
b. At all times
c. Even when it is not needed
6. The spirit of camaraderie, cooperation and professional relationship by respecting the rights of
other practitioners shall be ____.
a. Promoted
b. Practiced
c. Observed
7. Level of integrity, honesty and competence in the profession of realty service practice.
a. High
b. Highest
c. Average
8. High level of integrity, honesty and competence in the profession for the best interest of the
community and ____.
a. The nation
b. The state
c. The country
9. Level of professional and respect relationship with colleagues in the Realty Service Practice.
a. High
b. Highest
c. Average
10. Fair, honest and just dealing of realty service practice with each other.
a. Always
b. All times
c. Anytime
11. Shall be observed in all the dealings and relation of the practitioners with clients, fellow
practitioners, the organization to which they belong, and the general public.
a. Treat others as you like them to treat you
b. Do not treat others as you like them to treat you
c. Treat others as you do not like them to treat you.
12. Threat others as you like them to treat you is known as the ______.
a. Golden rule
b. Golden mean
c. Supreme rule
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13. Shall embrace and include all persons, partnerships or corporations who are duly licensed by the
Department of Trade and Industry.
a. Realty service practice
b. Brokerage service practice
c. Real estate service
14. He should pay any and all taxes.
a. Government relation
b. Organization relation
c. Public relation
15. The practitioner should secure all the necessary licenses, permits and authority.
c. Public relation
16. Support government projects & land development activities.
c. Public relation
17. He should not encourage, abet, tolerate or participate in the evasion or illegal reduction in the
payment of all taxes.
c. Public relation
18. He should not offer or agree to pay to, split or rebate any commission, fee or valuable
consideration to unlicensed realty service practitioner.
c. Public relation
19. He should indicate the license number of the certificate issued by the Department of Trade and
Industry in his letterhead.
c. Public relation
20. The practitioner should be imbued with a social conscience for he does not live by himself and
his family alone but he is a part of society with definite social responsibilities;
a. Public relation
b. Client relation
c. Customer relation
21. He should ensure the highest and the best use of the land and the equitable distribution of
ownership.
a. Public relation
b. Client relation
22. He should keep himself well informed as to any movement affecting real estate in his
community, city or province.
a. Public relation
b. Client relation
23. He should cooperate with the government in protecting the public against deceptive, unfair and
unconscionable acts and practices.
a. Public relation
b. Client relation
24. He should ascertain all pertinent facts concerning every property, and avoid error, exaggeration,
misrepresentation or concealment of pertinent facts in dealing with the general public
concerning real estate transactions;
a. Public relation
b. Client relation
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25. He should not be instrumental in introducing in a neighborhood a certain character or use of
property which will tend to impair or erode property values within that neighborhood;
a. Public relation
b. Client relation
26. He should not be a party to the naming of a false consideration in a deed of instrument.
a. Public relation
b. Client relation
27. He should keep a special bank account separate and distinct from his own funds.
a. Public relation
b. Client relation
28. In his advertisements, brochures or announcements, he should present a true picture of the
property, its improvements, or rights and interests therein including whatever liens or
encumbrances it may have.
a. Public relation
b. Client relation
29. He should see to it that all agreements, terms and conditions, financial obligations and
commitments in a real estate transaction are in writing, duly signed by all parties concerned.
a. Public relation
b. Client relation
30. The practitioner, in accepting an appointment or authority to act for and in behalf of a client or
customer, should pledge himself with utmost fidelity and good faith.
a. Costumer relation
b. Public relation
c. Practitioner relation
31. For the sake of justice and fairness to his client who have reposed confidence in him, the
Practitioner should endeavor to be well informed of current legislation, policies and programs of
the government.
b. Public relation
32. He should not accept any commission, fee or any valuable consideration from any party in any
transaction except from his client.
b. Public relation
33. He should charge or collect only such fees or commissions as are fair and reasonable in
accordance with usual schedule of commission.
b. Public relation
34. He should not advertise any property without authority and in any offering, the price quoted
should be in accordance with the price agreed with the owners as the offering price.
b. Public relation
35. In the event that more than one formal offer on a specific property is made before the owner
has accepted a proposal, all written offers should be presented to the owner for his decision;
b. Public relation
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36. He should endeavor to make his client and customer conclude a fair contract advantageous to
both;
b. Public relation
37. He should assist his customer acquire possession and ownership of the real property bought in
accordance with the terms and conditions agreed upon;
b. Public relation
38. In case he is called upon to act as witness in a court proceeding he should give his testimonies in
the most unbiased, honest, truthful and professional manner;
b. Public relation
39. As a real estate appraiser, he should not render an opinion without careful and thorough
analysis and interpretation of all factors affecting the value of the property.
b. Public relation
40. As an appraiser, he should not undertake to make an appraisal or render an opinion that is
outside the field of his experience and competence.
b. Public relation
41. He should not solicit a listing which is currently listed exclusively with another broker unless the
listing agreement has expired or revoked by the owner and the owner offers to list the same to
the new broker without soliciting the same;
a. Relation to fellow practitioner
b. Relation to the organization
c. Relation to costumer
42. When he accepts a listing from another broker, the agency of the broker who offers the listing
should be respected until it has expired.
43. Signs giving notice of a property for sale, rent, lease or exchange should not be placed on any
property by more than one broker and only if authorized by the owner;
44. He should not use information obtained by him from a listing broker through offers to cooperate
or received through multiple listing services or other sources authorized.
45. He should cooperate with other brokers on property listed and share the commission on an
agreed basis.
46. He should not solicit or use the services of an employee or salesman of another practitioner
without the knowledge of the employer;
20
47. He should not criticize publicly a competitor nor volunteer an opinion of a competitor's
transaction.
48. The practitioners should seek no unfair advantage over his fellow practitioners and should
willingly share with them the lessons of his experience and study;
49. He should conduct his business properly to avoid any controversy with his fellow practitioners.
50. If the controversy is between practitioners belonging to different organizations or associations,
it should be submitted to an Arbitration Board consisting of one member from each organization
or association chosen by each of the parties to the controversy.
51. In case the practitioners in a controversy are not members of any duly recognized organization
or the Arbitration Boards cannot settle the controversy, the Department of Trade and Industry
shall assume jurisdiction over said controversy;
52. In case a complaint is filed against a practitioner with his organization or association for
unethical or unfair practice, he should voluntarily submit all pertinent facts.
53. In the interest of society and his own profession, calling or occupation, the practitioner should
abide by the Constitution and By-Laws of his association or organization and the National
Association to which it is affiliated;
a. Relation to organization
b. Relation to fellow practitioner
c. Relation to the public
54. Election as officer or member of the governing body of the organization or association carries
with it the moral obligation to serve honorably, unselfishly, diligently and efficiently.
55. He should support his organization morally and financially and actively support its plans,
programs and projects for the benefit of all the members of the organization or association;
56. Any practitioner should first exhaust all administrative remedies available under existing laws,
rules and regulations.
57. Practitioner should indicate in his letterhead, dry seal, signboard, billboard, advertisement or
other announcement.
a. License number
b. Voter ID number
c. CTC Number
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58. He should not offer or agree to pay to, split or rebate any commission to ____.
a. Unlicensed practitioner
b. Unlicensed broker
c. Unlicensed salesman
59. Should secure all the necessary licenses, permits and authority.
a. The practitioner
b. The broker
c. The appraiser
60. Evasion or illegal reduction in the payment of all taxes, fees, dues, levies or charges that may be
imposed by the government.
a. Should not be encourage
b. Should be encourage
c. Is discourage
61. The practitioner should be imbued with a social conscience for he does not live by himself and
his family alone but he is a part of society with ____.
a. social responsibility
b. ethical responsibility
c. political responsibility
62. Level of use of the land and the equitable distribution of ownership.
a. Highest and best used
b. Highest used
c. Best used
63. In order that he may be able to contribute to public thinking on matters of taxation, land use,
city planning, zonification and other programs of the government.
a. He should keep himself well informed.
b. He should attained seminar
c. He should study
64. Protecting the public against deceptive, unfair and unconscionable acts the practitioner should.
a. Cooperate with government
b. Participate with government
c. Assist the government
65. He should not be _____ in introducing in a neighborhood a certain character or use of property
which will tend to impair or erode property values within that neighborhood.
a. Instrumental
b. Part
c. Participative
66. He should not be a party to the naming of a false consideration in a ______.
a. Deed of instrument
b. Official document
c. Government document
67. All money receive for other person should be put in _____
a. Separate bank account
b. Buyer’s bank account
c. Seller’s bank account
68. In his advertisements, brochures or announcements, he should present a true picture of _____.
a. Property
b. Himself
c. Building
69. He should see to it that all agreements, terms and conditions, financial obligations and
commitments in a real estate transaction are in _____.
a. Writing
b. Order
c. Compliance
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70. All agreements, terms and conditions, financial obligations and commitments in a real estate
transaction are duly signed by all parties concerned and if necessary to be properly
authenticated by ____ .
a. the Notary public
b. the Broker
c. the Appraiser
71. The practitioner, in accepting an appointment or authority to act for and in behalf of a client or
customer, should pledge himself with utmost fidelity and ____
a. Good faith
b. Faith
c. Faithfulness
72. Fee or any valuable consideration from any party in any transaction except from his client unless
with the full knowledge and consent of all the parties in the transaction the broker shall ___
a. Not accept any commission
b. Shall accept commission
c. Anytime accept
73. He should charge or collect only such fees or commissions as are fair and reasonable in
accordance with usual ____
a. Schedule of commission
b. Fee
c. Commission
74. An ethical practice describe that practitioner.
a. He should not advertise any property without authority and in any offering
b. He should not charge or collect only such fees or commissions as are fair and reasonable
c. He should accept any commission, fee or any valuable consideration from any party in
any transaction
75. In the event that more than one formal offer on a specific property is made before the owner
has accepted a proposal, all written offers should be ___.
a. Presented to the owner for his decision
b. Presented to the owner for his reference
c. Not presented at all
76. He should endeavor to make his client and customer conclude a ____.
a. Fair contract
b. Equitable contract
c. Fairest contract
77. Practitioner should ____ his customer acquire possession and ownership of the real property
bought in accordance with the terms and conditions agreed upon.
a. Assist
b. Help
c. Support
78. In case he is called upon to act as witness in a court proceeding he should give his testimonies in
the ___.
a. Most unbiased manner
b. Unbiased manner
c. Objective manner
79. He should not render an opinion without careful and thorough analysis and interpretation of all
factors affecting the value of the property.
a. The appraiser
b. The seller
c. The broker
80. As a real estate appraiser, he should not render an opinion without careful and thorough ____.
a. analysis and interpretation of all factors
b. inspection of all factors
c. weighing of all factors
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81. Should not undertake to make an appraisal or render an opinion that is outside the field of his
experience and competence.
a. The appraiser
b. The broker
c. The buyer
82. In case when an appraiser undertake to make an appraisal or render an opinion that is outside
the field of his experience and competence he should.
a. obtains the assistance of another practitioner familiar with such type of property
b. obtains assistance of another buyer familiar with such type of property
c. obtains assistance of another seller familiar with such type of property
83. In case when practitioner solicit a listing which is currently listed exclusively with another broker
he should not accept it unless.
a. owner revoke the agreement and the owner offers to list the same to the new broker
without soliciting the same.
b. owner did notrevoke the agreement and the owner offers to list the same to the new
broker without soliciting the same.
c. Agreement did not expire
84. Signs giving notice of a property for sale, rent, lease or exchange should not be placed on any
property by more than ___.
a. One broker
b. Two broker
c. Three broker
85. He should not solicit or use the services of an employee or salesman of another practitioner ___
a. Without knowledge of the employer
b. Without informing the employer
c. Without permission of the employer
86. If his opinion is sought, it should be rendered with
a. professional integrity and courtesy
b. objectivity
c. without bias
87. The practitioners should seek no unfair advantage over his fellow practitioners and should
willingly share with them the lessons of his ____.
a. experience and study
b. study
c. experience
88. In the event of a controversy between practitioners belonging to the same organization or
association, such controversy should be submitted for arbitration to ____.
a. Organization
b. PRC
c. court
89. If the controversy is between practitioners belonging to different organizations or associations,
it should be submitted to __.
a. Arbitration board
b. PRC
c. DTI
90. In case a complaint is filed against a practitioner with his organization or association for
unethical or unfair practice, he should voluntarily submit all pertinent facts before an
investigating body that may be formed by ___.
a. Organization
b. PRC
c. Court
91. Any practitioner should first exhaust all administrative remedies available under existing laws,
rules and regulations before taking any ____.
a. judicial or quasi-judicial action
b. judicial action
c. quasi judicial action
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92. The Real Estate Service Practitioners shall adhere to the strict compliance to the ____.
a. National Code of Ethics and Responsibilities
b. Organization Code of Ethics
c. Laws
93. To have adequate education, value formation, knowledge, competence and expertise in real
estate service.
a. Required
b. Not required
c. It depends
94. The spirit of unity, harmony, camaraderie, cooperation and professional relationship among the
practitioners is essential, and shall be promoted under the principle of __.
a. Solidarity
b. Unity
c. Harmony
95. The Practitioner shall be imbued with a social responsibility and conscience being part of society
with duties and responsibilities for the promotion of the __.
a. Common good
b. Common welfare
c. Common benefit
96. The Practitioner shall abide the articles of incorporation and by-laws of the ___.
a. AIPO
b. Organization
c. Corporation
97. The one who will assume jurisdiction in case the APO arbitration body cannot settle the
controversy.
a. PRBRES
b. Court
c. Organization officer
98. Authority in putting signages or notices on a property for sale, rent or lease should be in___.
a. Writing
b. Need not written
c. Verbal or oral
99. Only undertake consulting services or engagements in a conduct that is legal, ethical and ___.
a. Moral
b. Ethical
c. Fair
100. Publication of announcement is permitted only.
a. New office
b. Old office
c. It depends
101. Violating any provision of the Code of Ethics and Responsibilities for First Offense.
a. Reprimand or Warning;
b. Suspension
c. Cancellation
102. Violating any provision of the Code of Ethics and Responsibilities for second offense.
a. Suspension of APO membership for Two (2) months
b. Suspension of APO membership for three(3) months
c. Cancellation
103. Violating any provision of the Code of Ethics and Responsibilities for third offense.
a. Suspension of APO membership for Four (4) months;
b. Suspension of APO membership for Five(5) months;
c. Cancellation
104. Violating any provision of the Code of Ethics and Responsibilities for fourth time.
a. Recommended for Suspension of License at the Professional Regulatory Board of Real
Estate Service (PRBRES) and at the PRC
b. Suspension of APO membership
c. Cancellation
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105. Violating any provision of the Code of Ethics and Responsibilities for fifth time.
a. Recommendation for the Cancellation of License at the PRBRES and at the PRC.
b. Recommended for Suspension of License at the Professional Regulatory Board of Real
Estate Service (PRBRES) and at the PRC.
c. Suspension of APO membership for Five(5) months;
106. Violating any provision of the Real Estate Service Act and its implementing rules and
regulations for first offense.
a. Suspension of APO membership for Four (4) months;
c. Cancellation
regulations for second time.
a. Recommended for Suspension of License at the Professional Regulatory Board of Real
Estate Service (PRBRES) and at the PRC;
b. Suspension of APO membership for Four (4) months;
c. Cancellation
regulations for third time.
a. Recommendation for the Cancellation of License at the PRBRES and at the PRC.
c. Suspension of APO membership
109. It is unethical for a professional ____ to review the work of another Appraiser if he/she does
not possesses the competency pertaining to the nature of the work being reviewed.
a. Peer reviewer
b. Appraiser
c. Consultant
110. It is unethical for a professional ____ to review the work of another consultant if he/she does
not possess the competency pertaining to the nature of the work being reviewed.
a. Peer reviewer
b. Appraiser
c. Consultant
26
LEGAL REQUIREMENTS FOR REAL ESTATE SERVICE
1. Real Estate Service Act of the Philippines.
a. RA 9646
b. RA 9464
c. RA 9626
2. Declaration of policy in RA 9646.
a. Section 1
b. Section 2
c. Section 3
3. The ____ recognizes the vital role of real estate service practitioners in the social, political,
economic development and progress of the country.
a. State
b. Government
c. Real Estate Practitioner
4. Also known as valuer, person who conducts valuation / appraisal.
a. Appraiser
b. Assessor
c. Seller
5. Official of LGU who perform assessment and appraisal.
a. Assessor
b. Treasurer
c. Appraiser
6. Development of land for residential, commercial, industrial, agricultural and other purposes
a. Real Estate Development project
b. Improvement
c. Classification
7. Person engages in business of developing real estate project.
a. Real Estate Developer
b. Developer
c. Contractor
8. Licensed natural person offer professional advice related to real estate.
a. Consultant
b. Adviser
c. Broker
9. Acts as an agent of party in the real estate transaction to effect meeting of mind on the sale of
real estate.
a. Broker
b. Seller
c. Buyer
10. Topics covered in the real estate broker examination.
a. Condominium
b. Consulting tools
c. Valuation procedure
11. Acted in behalf of the real estate broker
a. Salesperson
b. Seller
c. Consultant
12. National integrated organization of natural person duly registered and licensed as Real Estate
Practitioners
a. AIPO
b. IAPO
c. APO
13. Accredited organization who perform activities prior to the birth of AIPO
a. Interim Accredited professional Organization
b. Accredited Professional Organization
c. Temporary Accredited Professional Organization
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14. Creation and Composition of PRBRES
a. Section 4
b. Section 5
c. Section 6
15. PRBRES are under the administrative control of the _____.
a. PRC
b. President
c. HLURB
16. Number of nominees per position submitted by AIPO for PRBRES.
a. 5 per position
b. 3 per position
c. 6 per position
17. Number of member in the PRBES.
a. 4
b. 5.
c. 3
18. Qualification of chairperson and member of the board.
a. Section 6
b. Section 4
c. Section 5
19. Examination paper, result and minutes shall be kept by.
a. PRC
b. Board
c. AIPO
20. Subject covered in the real estate appraisal.
a. Methodology of appraisal
b. Fundamental of real estate consulting
c. Fundamental of property ownership
21. Number year as licensed real estate service practitioner as qualification for member and
chairman of PRBRES.
a. 10
b. 3
c. 5
22. Qualification for PRBRES membership except one.
a. 5 years as appraiser
b. Member of good standing in AIPO
c. 10 year experience as license practitioner
23. Chairman of PRBRES will serve for ____.
a. 3 years
b. 2 years
c. 6 years
24. Chairman and Member of the board can be reappointed but in no case will serve more than
____.
a. 6 years
b. 5 years
c. 9 years
25. Prior to assumption of office, the member of the board shall ____.
a. Take proper oath
b. Appointed
c. Elected
26. Removal of chairperson on these grounds except.
a. Being moral
b. Incompetence
c. Neglect of duty
27. All records of PRBRES shall be kept by.
a. PRC
b. Secretary
c. Chairman
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28. Power and function of the Board
a. Section 5
b. Section 6
c. Section 7
29. Submission of report by PRBRES.
a. Annually
b. Quarterly
c. Monthly
30. Scope of examination of real estate brokers except.
a. Land management
b. Planning, development and zoning
c. Code of Ethics
31. Scope of examination of real estate broker examination
a. Legal aspect of sales
b. Feasibility studies
c. Case studies
32. Qualification to take REBLEX.
a. Holder of bachelors degree
b. 60 credit units of training
c. High school graduate
33. Consultant should have at least ____ years of experience.
a. 10 years
b. 5 years
c. 3 years
34. Average to pass the board examination
a. 75%
b. 50%
c. 80%
35. Average of 75% and no grade below ___ to pass the REBLEX
a. 50%
b. 60%
c. 65%
36. Result of the exam shall be release within.
a. 10 days
b. 5 days
c. 30 days
37. Certificate of registration shall bear the signature of _____.
a. Chairman and Member
b. Chairman only
c. Member only
38. Term of office of PRBRES
a. Section 7
b. Section 8
c. Section 9
39. Aside from the certificate of registration issuance.
a. Issuance of PRC ID
b. Rating Card
c. Attendance Sheet
40. PRC ID shall be renewed.
a. Every 3 years
b. Every 5 years
c. Every 6 years
41. The PRC ID bear the following except
a. Date of registration
b. Registration number
c. Date of expiry
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42. The board can refuse to register on any successful candidate.
a. If psychologically unfit
b. If physically unfit
c. If socially unfit
43. Revocation or suspension from the practice of profession except.
a. Passing the board exam
b. Violation of RA 9646
c. Unethical practice
44. Registration without examination
a. Active broker who passed the DTI exam as of July 2009
b. Inactive broker who passed the DTI exam.
c. Active broker but did not passed the DTI exam
45. CPE units to earn to register without examination of any DTI license broker.
a. 15 units
b. 24 units
c. 60 units
46. CPE units to earned to register without examination to those who failed to renew their DTI
license broker prior to July 30, 2009.
a. 24 units
b. 15 units
c. 60 units
47. CPE units to earn to register without examination to those who passed 2008 and 2009 given by
DTI.
a. 24 units
b. 15 units
c. 60 units
48. Scope of Examination of board examination for Real estate practitioner.
a. Section 13
b. Section 12
c. Section 14
49. CPE units to earned to register without examination to those who passed 2007 given by DTI.
a. 18 units
b. 15 units
c. 60 units
50. CPE units to earned to register without examination to those who passed 2006 and prior years
given by DTI.
a. 120 units
b. 15 units
c. 60 units
51. Assessor that can register without examination
a. If holding both of the below
b. Hold permanent position for 5 years
c. Passer of the RPAO exam
52. Registration without Examination in RA 9646.
a. Section 20
b. Section 19
c. Section 21
53. Assessor that can register without examination.
a. 10 years experience plus 120 hours training.
b. 5 years experience plus 120 units of training
c. 10 years experience
54. The board can reinstate the revoke certificate of registration after ____ .
a. 2 years
b. 5 years
c. It depends
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55. A board may issue temporary permit to practitioner if there is unavailability local real estate
practitioner for the purpose of.
a. Enhancing the practice
b. Enhancing the practitioner
c. Enhancing the profession
56. All are required to take an ____ before any board prior to entering into Real Estate Service
Practice.
a. Oath
b. Pass the board
c. Register
57. Surety bond are required for Real Estate Broker and Appraiser.
a. 20,000
b. 30,000
c. 10,000
58. The surety bond shall be renewable every.
a. 3 years
b. 1 year
c. 5 years
59. On those Appraiser working in the Government, in lieu of surety bond.
a. Certificate of employment
b. Cash
c. Certificate of Proficiency
60. Exemption from the acts constituting Real Estate Service, except.
a. Selling
b. Trustee
c. Attorney in fact
61. Person Exempted from act constituting the practice of real estate service.
a. Public Officers
b. Buyer
c. Seller
62. An Exception to the exemption of act constituting real estate service practice.
a. Real Estate Developers
b. Consultant
c. Appraiser
63. All position in the government requiring a registered real estate practitioner shall be filled up
only by a licensed practitioner within.
a. 3 years
b. 5 years
c. 6 years
64. Real estate salesman to be accredited shall be at least.
a. 2 years in college
b. 72 units credit
c. 12 units
65. Real estate salesmen shall have undergone seminar at least.
a. 12 credit
b. 120 hours
c. 60 hours
66. Number of real estate broker for every 40 salesman.
a. 2 broker
b. 1 broker
c. 3 broker
67. Resignation of real estate practitioner shall be reported by the employer to the board within.
a. 15 days
b. 10 days
c. 20 days
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68. When will the IRR of RESA will take effect.
a. 15 days after publication
b. 30 days after publication
c. 10 days after publication
69. All of the following shall be displayed in the Place of Business, except.
a. Passport
b. Certificate of Registration
c. Professional ID
70. Number of AIPO to be recognized by the Board subject to the approval of the PRC.
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
71. Adopt and promulgate the code of ethics and responsibilities of real estate practitioner.
a. Board
b. AIPO
c. PRC
72. CPE council shall be composed of the following from, except.
a. PRC
b. Board
c. AIPO
73. CPE council will composed one of the following.
a. Academe
b. Judiciary
c. PRC
74. Prescribed and issued the code of ethics and responsibilities of real estate practitioner.
a. AIPO
b. PRC
c. Board
75. Other information to be indicated on the document to be signed by the real estate practitioner,
except.
a. Voters ID Number
b. PTR Number
c. AIPO Number
76. When was the IRR of RESA Act was Implemented.
a. July 24, 2010
b. July 15, 2009
c. July 15, 2010
77. Exemption from the acts constituting real estate service
a. Section 28
b. Section 27
c. Section 29
78. Screen, issue and monitor permits to organizations of real estate professionals in the conduct of
seminars.
a. Power of the board
b. Power of PRC
c. Power of AIPO
79. Evaluate periodically the status of real estate service education and profession.
a. Board
b. PRC
c. AIPO
80. RA 9646 was signed on.
a. June 29, 2009
b. July 15, 2009
c. July 30, 2010
81. RA 9646 was published on.
a. July 15, 2009
b. July 30, 2010
c. June 29, 2009
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82. IRR of RESA Act was approved on.
a. July 21, 2010
b. July 24, 2010
c. July 15, 2010
83. All of the following shall prepare the IRR except.
a. PRBRES & Chairman
b. AIPO & DOF
c. CHED & PRC
84. Prepare, update and Maintain roster of RES practitioner.
a. Board
b. AIPO
c. PRC
85. Months after the affectivity of RESA the IRR shall be prepared.
a. 6 months
b. 3 months
c. 12 months
86. Removal of the board on the following cases, except.
a. Professional
b. Incompetence
c. Abuse of duty
87. Those who passed prior exam but failed to comply CPE requirement after July 30, 2011.
a. Shall take the board exam
b. No need to take the board exam
c. Renew PRC ID
88. Ground for suspension.
a. Allowing unqualified person using professional ID.
b. Ethical Conduct
c. Professional Conduct
89. Act shall the IRR shall be prepared.
a. 6 months
b. 3 months
c. 12 months
90. The DTI-BTRCP will transfer all pertinent records to PRC within.
a. 90 days
b. 120 days
c. 30 days
91. Violation of RESA Act shall be penalized by.
a. Penalty of not less than 100,000 or imprisonment of not less than 2 years or both.
b. Penalty of not less than 200,000 or imprisonment of not less than 4 years or both.
c. Depending on the judgment
92. Penal provision of RA 9646
a. Section 39
b. Section 38
c. Section 40
93. Penalty in violation of RESA Act will double if violation were committed by unlicensed RES
practitioner.
a. Penalty of not less than 200,000 or imprisonment of not less than 4 years or both
b. Penalty of not less than 100,000 or imprisonment of not less than 2 years or both
c. Depending on the judgment
94. Prosecutors against illegal practitioner of RESA.
a. Lawyer of PRC
b. Lawyer of the board
c. Lawyer of AIPO
95. Shall create the CPE Council.
a. Board
b. PRC
c. AIPO
33
96. Sales person registered with DTI and active for three years must undergone training.
a. 120 hours
b. 12 hours
c. 24 hours
97. Penalty in violation of RESA Act will double if violation were committed by.
a. Unlicensed Real Estate Service practitioner
b. Real Estate Service practitioner
c. Licensed Real Estate Service practitioner
98. Prohibitive acts by an unlicensed RES practitioner, except.
a. Not practice real estate service
b. Appointed as assessor in LGU
c. Use title conveying as RES practitioner
99. Topics covered in the real estate consulting examination.
a. Investment analysis
b. Appraisal Mathematics
c. Ecology
100. No foreign real estate service practitioner shall be admitted unless their country allows Filipino
practitioner to practice in their country
a. Foreign reciprocity
b. Foreign agreement
c. Foreign Equality
34
REAL ESTATE LAWS AND TAXATION
1. Land covered by the Agrarian Reform Code except.
a. New Areas
b. Tenanted Areas
c. Old Settlements
2. The slow pace of agrarian reform implementation is due to.
a. Political will
b. Social will
c. Economic will
3. Comprehensive Agrarian Reform Law was signed.
a. June 10, 1988
b. July 21, 1990
c. August 8, 1988
4. Philippine state policy that ensures and promotes welfare of landless farmers and farm workers.
a. CARP
b. Homestead
c. Voluntary Sell
5. The lead implementing agency of CARP
a. DAR
b. Landbank
c. DILG
6. Green color in the DAR logo stands for.
a. Fertility and Productivity
b. Life and Vitality
c. Agriculture
7. Refer to natural person whose primary livelihood is the cultivation of land.
a. Farmer
b. Gardener
c. Laborer
8. Women who are engaged directly or indirectly in farming and/or fishing as their source of
livelihood, whether paid or unpaid, regular or seasonal.
a. Rural women
b. Urban women
c. Laborer women
9. Award limit to farmer under PD 27 if the land is not irrigated.
a. 5 hectare
b. 3 hectare
c. 4 hectare
10. Farmer’s amortization under PD 6657 for payment of land.
a. 30 years
b. 25 years
c. 15 years
11. Real property used in trade or business is classified as.
a. Ordinary asset
b. Capital asset
c. Business asset
12. The highest price in terms of money which a property can command if exposed for sale in the
open market.
a. Fair Market Value
b. Market Value
c. Best Value
13. Percentage of fair market value at which the assessed value is set.
a. Assessed level
b. Percent level
c. Base level
35
14. The fair market value of real property multiplied by assessment level. It is synonymous to
taxable value.
a. Assessed value
b. Assessment
c. Tax Assessment
15. Percentage of assessed value at which the realty tax is arrived at.
a. Tax Rate
b. Assess rate
c. Value rate
16. The use to which the property is principally or predominantly devoted.
a. Actual use
b. Principal use
c. Primary use
17. Amount of real property tax in the province.
a. Not exceeding 1%
b. Not exceeding 2%
c. Not exceeding 3%
18. Special education fund tax
a. 1%
b. 2%
c. 3%
19. Discount if payment is made in advance.
a. 20%
b. 30%
c. 35%
20. Most superior lien on real property.
a. Tax lien
b. Mortgage lien
c. Mechanic lien
21. Delinquent taxpayer whose real property sold on public auction can redeem property after
sale.
a. Within 1 year
b. Within 3 months
c. Within 6 months
22. Interest on delinquent real property tax per month.
a. 2 %
b. 3%
c. 4%
23. Interest on unpaid real property tax shall in no case exceed.
a. 36 months
b. 12 months
c. 24 months
24. Asset not part of inventories for sale or used in trade such as the residential lot.
a. Capital Asset
b. Ordinary Asset
c. Personal asset
25. Months required to build new house to avail exemption from capital gain tax
a. 18 months
b. 24 months
c. 36 months
26. Gross selling price of residential lot subject to vat.
a. Exceeding 1,919,500.00
b. 1,900,000.00
c. 3,000,000.00
27. Gross selling price of of other residential dwelling subject to vat.
a. Exceeding 3,199,200.00
b. 1,919,000.00
c. 3,000,000.00
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28. Lease of residential units with a monthly rental per unit subject in order to be exempted from
vat.
a. Below 12,800
b. Below 10,800
c. Below 10,000
29. CARPER signed into law
a. August 7, 2009
b. August 5, 2005
c. July 21, 19888
30. Letter informing a landowner that his/her land is covered by CARP.
a. Notice of Coverage
b. Notice of CARP
c. Notice Landbank
31. Authorized to divide the Philippines into different zones or areas and shall, upon consultation
with competent appraisers both from the private and public sectors, determine the fair market
value of real properties.
a. Commissioner
b. DILG
c. Mayor
32. If fair market valued prepared by assessor is higher than prepared by BIR, the one shall be
followed for taxation.
a. Assessor
b. BIR
c. Court
33. Provided mechanism for the implementation of the Comprehensive Agrarian Reform Program
(CARP).
a. EO 229
b. RA 9700
c. EO 21
34. The responsibility to determine land valuation and compensation for all lands covered by CARP.
a. Land Bank
b. Appraiser
c. DAR
35. Identifies and screens potential beneficiaries and validates their qualifications.
a. DAR
b. DENR
c. Barangay Official
36. Lead agencies in the implementation of carp, except
a. Landbank
b. DAR
c. DENR
37. Shall coordinate and monitor the implementation of the CARP in the province.
a. Provincial Agrarian Reform Coordinating Committee (PARCCOM)
b. CARP Monitoring Committee
c. Provincial CARP Monitoring
38. Exemption on CGT sale of principal residence can be availed only once every.
a. 10 year
b. 5 years
c. 3 years
39. Percentage of payment for an installment sale to pay creditable withholding tax.
a. 25% of selling price
b. 2 %
c. 30%
40. Tax rate for the cooperative registered in CDA.
a. 0%
b. 3%
c. 5%
41. Real property tax share of the barangay.
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a. 25%
b. 30%
c. 40%
42. Real property tax share of the municipality.
a. 40%
b. 50%
c. 60%
43. In general the real property tax share of the barangay.
a. 35%
b. 30%
c. 40%
44. Real property tax share of the barangay in the city.
a. 30%
b. 40%
c. 50%
45. Real property tax share of the city.
a. 70%
b. 60%
c. 40%
46. Seller shall pay to the provincial treasurer the real property tax from date of notarization.
a. Within 30 days
b. Within 60 days
c. Within 90 days
47. Seller shall pay to the provincial treasurer real property tax from date of execution of sale.
a. Within 60 days
b. Within 30 days
c. Within 90 days
48. Right of the delinquent owner to redeem the property from the date of sale.
a. Within 1 year
b. Within 3 years
c. Within 2 years
49. Allowable period for assessment of taxes prior to initial assessment of real property taxes.
a. 10 years
b. 5 years
c. 3 years
50. LGU sanggunian may condone real property tax upon recommendation of local disaster
committee due to reasons, except.
a. Abundance season
b. General failure of crops
c. Calamity
51. The basic real property tax and other taxes can be collected from the date they become due and
no collection shall be made after that period.
a. Within 5 years
b. Within 10 years
c. Within 15 years
52. The basic real property tax and other taxes can be collected from the date they become due and
no collection shall be made after that period if done fraudulently.
a. Within 10 years
b. Within 15 years
c. Within 20 years
53. Shall file a sworn declaration of value of the property once every three (3) years.
a. Owner
b. Tenant
c. Assessor
54. Owner shall file a sworn declaration of the true value of the property being improved.
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a. 60 days after completion
b. 90 days after completion
c. 120 days after completion
55. Donor tax when beneficiary is stranger.
a. 30%
b. 25%
c. 40%
56. Engage in the business of leasing or renting real estate properties.
a. Real estate lessors
b. Developers
c. Manager
57. Engage in the business of developing real estate properties into subdivision or similar units on
subdivided lots.
a. Real estate developer
b. Manager
c. Corporation
58. Before commencing any business and payment of taxes.
a. Register business with BIR
b. Register with the barangay
c. Register with the municipal
59. Registration requirement in BIR for individuals.
a. Birth certificate or ID
b. Articles of Incorporation
c. By laws
60. Registration requirement for general partnership.
a. Articles of partnership
b. Owner ID
c. Voters ID
61. Application form for individual in registering with BIR
a. BIR form 1901
b. BIR form 1902
c. BIR form 1903
62. Application form for partnership
a. BIR form 1903
b. BIR form 1904
c. BIR form 1905
63. VAT register if sale or professional fees is 1,919,500.00
a. 12%
b. 14%
c. 20%
64. Register if sale or professional fees are below 1,919,500.00.
a. Non-Vat or percentage tax
b. Withholding Tax
c. Vat Tax
65. Rate of percentage taxes on gross sales or professional fees.
a. 3%
b. 4%
c. 5%
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66. Form used to update information like address and etc.
a. Form 1905
b. Form 1906
c. For 1903
67. Penalties on failure to pay annual registration fee.
a. 25% surcharges
b. 30%
c. 10%
68. Unlawful pursuit of business or omission.
a. Fine not less than 5,000 but not more than 20,000
b. Fine not more than 5,000 but not more than 20,000
c. Fine not less than 10,000 but not more than 20,000
69. Imprisonment on unlawful pursuit of business or omission.
a. 6 years but not more than 20 years
b. 5 years but not more than 20 years
c. 6 years but not more than 15 years
70. Compromise payment for failure to register.
a. 20,000.00
b. 10,000.00
c. 5,000.00
71. Compromise payment for failure to pay annual registration.
a. 1,000.00
b. 2,000.00
c. 3,000.00
72. Compromise payment for failure to display certificate of registration.
a. 1,000.00
b. 2,000.00
c. 3,000.00
73. Compromise payment for failure to display poster “ask for receipt”
a. 1,000.00
b. 2,000.00
c. 3,000.00
74. Invoicing requirement for sale of goods.
a. Sales invoice
b. Receipt
c. Inspection paper
75. Invoicing requirement for sale of services or professional fees.
a. Official receipts
b. Invoices
c. Inspection paper
76. Maximum optional standard deduction.
a. 40%
b. 30%
c. 20%
77. Tax rate for corporation and partnership
a. 35%
b. 40%
c. 25%
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78. Expanded withholding tax rate if professional fees exceed 720,000.00
a. 15%
b. 20%
c. 25%
79. Expanded withholding tax rate if professional fees below 720,000.00
d. 10%
e. 20%
f. 30%
80. VAT if professional fees exceed 1,500,000.00
a. 12%
b. 15%
c. 20%
81. Professional if there is no payment to be made.
a. Shall still file tax returns
b. No need to file
c. File in advance
82. Due date for percentage taxes.
a. 20th day after end of month
b. 15th day after end of month
c. 10th day after end of month
83. Fiscal due date for income tax of corporation or partnership.
a. 15th day of the 4th month of the succeeding year
b. 20th day of the 4th month of the succeeding year
c. 15th day of the 3th month of the succeeding year
84. Fine on refusal to issue official receipts or invoices upon conviction.
a. 1,000.00 but not more than 50,000.00
b. 1,000.00 but not more than 30,000.00
c. 1,000.00 but not more than 20,000.00
85. Compromise payment for failure to issue receipt for 1st offence.
a. 10,000.00
b. 20,000.00
c. 30,000.00
86. Compromise payment for 2nd offense on the use of unregistered receipts
a. 10,000.00
b. 20,000.00
c. 30,000.00
87. Compromise payment for 1st offense on refusal to issue receipt.
a. 25,000.00
b. 30,000.00
c. 10,000.00
88. Years to preserve books after close of taxable year.
a. 3 years
b. 5 years
c. 6 years
89. Books shall be audited and examined by independent CPA if gross receipts exceed.
a. 150,000.00
b. 120,000.00
c. 160,000.00
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90. Monthly remittance of income taxes withheld on compensation.
a. 10th of the following month
b. 20th of the following month
c. 5th of the following month
91. Monthly remittance of income taxes withheld on compensation for November.
a. 15th of January
b. 15th of December
c. 15th of November
92. Documentary stamp tax.
a. 5th day of the following month
b. 15th day of the following month
c. 25th day of the following month
93. Capital gain tax.
a. Within 30 days after execution
b. Within 20 days after execution
c. Within 10 days after execution
94. Estate tax
a. Within 180 days from death
b. Within 120 days from death
c. Within 100 days from death
95. Donors tax
a. Within 30 days from execution
b. Within 60 days from execution
c. Within 50 days from execution
96. Surcharges if it is done willfully and fraudulently.
a. 50%
b. 20%
c. 10%
97. Creditable withholding tax for habitually engages in business and selling price is over 2million.
a. 5%
b. 3%
c. 1%
98. Creditable withholding tax for habitually engage in business and selling price is over 500,000. 00
to 2 million.
a. 3%
b. 5%
c. 1.5%
99. Creditable withholding tax for habitually engage in business and selling price is below
500,000.00.
a. 1%
b. 3%
c. 5%
100. Creditable withholding tax for not habitually engage in business.
a. 6%
b. 5%
c. 4%
101. Registration fee payment form.
a. BIR form 0605
b. BIR form 0606
c. BIR form 0607
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102. BIR form Certificate of registration.
a. BIR form 2303
b. BIR form 3203
c. BIR form 0203
103. BIR form to apply for authority to print receipts
a. BIR form 1906
b. BIR form 0606
c. BIR form 0601
104. Exempt from withholding tax compensation.
a. Minimum wage earners
b. Maximum wage earners
c. Regular wage earners
105. Detect non filing of tax return and non payment of taxes
a. BIR Integrated Tax System
b. Tax Integrated System
c. BIR computer system
106. Effectivity threshold amount of sales of residential lot, house for sale or lease of property.
a. RR 3-2012
b. RR 4-2013
c. RR 5-2011
107. Created to oversee and monitor the implementation of this RA 9700.
a. Congressional Oversight Committee
b. CARP Oversight Committee
c. Provincial Oversight Committee
108. Person who knowingly or willfully violates the provisions of R 9700 shall be punished by
imprisonment.
a. One month to 3 years
b. Two month to 3 years
c. Three month to 3 years
109. The forcible entry or illegal detainer by persons who are not qualified beneficiaries under RA
9700 to avail themselves of the rights and benefits of the Agrarian Reform Program shall be
penalized of imprisonment.
a. 3 to 6 years
b. 4 to 6 years
c. 1 to 6 years
110. Dwelling place where a family resides is classified as.
a. Capital Asset
b. Ordinary Asset
c. Special Asset
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SUBDIVISION DEVELOPMENT
1. Urban Development and Housing Act of 1992.
a. RA 7279
b. RA 7972
c. RA 7892
2. Refers to the most reasonable price of land and shelter based on the needs and financial
capability of Program beneficiaries and appropriate financing schemes.
a. Affordable cost
b. Discounted cost
c. Low cost
3. Refers to those areas declared as such under existing statutes and pertinent executive issuances.
a. Areas for priority development
b. Declared areas
c. Special area
4. Refers to the areas where the structures are dilapidated, obsolete and unsanitary, tending to
depreciate the value of the land and prevent normal development and use of the area
a. Blighted areas
b. Undeveloped areas
c. Obsolete areas
5. Refers to the constitutionally mandated process whereby the public on their own or through
people’s organizations, is provided an opportunity to be heard and to participate in the decision-
making process on matters involving the protection and promotion of its legitimate collective
interests, which shall include appropriate documentation and feedback mechanisms.
a. Consultation
b. Forum
c. Public Hearing
6. Refers to non-agricultural lands in urban and urbanizable areas on which no improvements, as
herein defined, have been made by the owner, as certified by the city, municipal or provincial
assessor.
a. Idle lands
b. Unimproved land
c. Commercial land
7. Refers to all types of buildings and residential units, walls, fences, structures or construction of all
kinds.
a. Improvements
b. Developments
c. Structures
8. Refers to the commitment or agreement by two (2) or more persons to carry out a specific or
single business enterprise for their mutual benefit, for which purpose they combine their funds,
land resource, facilities and services.
a. Joint ventures
b. Partnership
c. Corporation
9. Refers to the acquisition of lots or varying ownership through purchase or expropriation for the
purpose of planned and rational development and socialized housing programs without
individual property boundary restrictions.
a. Land assembly
b. Land consolidation
c. Land combination
10. Refers to the acquisition of land at values based on existing use in advance of actual need to
promote planned development and socialized housing programs.
a. Land banking
c. Land combination
11. Refers to the process of land acquisition by exchanging land for another piece of land of equal
value, or for shares of stock in a government or quasi-government corporation whose book
value is of equal value to the land being exchanged.
44
a. Land swapping
c. Land combination
12. Refers to the rational approach of allocating available land resources as equitably as possible
among competing user groups and for different functions consistent with the development plan
area and the Program under this Act.
a. Land use plan
b. Land plan
c. Zoning
13. Refers to the process of upgrading and rehabilitation of blighted and slum urban areas with a
view of minimizing displacement of dwellers in said areas, and with provisions for basic services.
a. Onsite development
b. Urban area
c. Development area
14. Refers to individuals or groups who occupy lands without the express consent of the landowner
and who have sufficient income for legitimate housing.
a. Professional squatters
b. Professional land grabber
c. Intruder
15. Refers to areas identified by the appropriate national agency or by the local government unit
with respect to areas within its jurisdiction, which shall be used for the relocation of the
underprivileged and homeless citizens.
a. Resettlement areas
b. Relocation area
c. Privilege area
16. Refers to the degree of protection afforded to qualified Program beneficiaries against
infringement or unjust, unreasonable and arbitrary eviction or disposition.
a. Security of tenure
b. Protection program
c. Security program
17. Refers to the program of the National Housing Authority of upgrading and improving blighted
squatter areas outside of Metro Manila pursuant to existing statutes and pertinent executive
issuances.
a. Slum Improvement and Resettlement Program
b. NHA
c. Development
18. Refers to those whose only real property consists of residential lands not exceeding three
hundred square meters (300 sq. m.) in highly urbanized cities and eight hundred square meters
(800 sq. m. ) in other urban areas.
a. Small property owners
b. Big property owners
c. Average property owners
19. Refers to housing programs and projects covering houses and lots or home lots only undertaken
by the Government or the private sector for the underprivileged and homeless citizens.
a. Socialized housing
b. Special housing
c. Underprivileged housing
20. Refers to groups of persons engaged in the business of squatter housing for profit or gain.
a. Squatting syndicates
b. Developer
c. Squatter
21. Refers to the beneficiaries of this Act and to individuals or families residing in urban and
urbanizable areas whose income or combined household income falls within the poverty
threshold.
a. Underprivileged and homeless citizens
b. Poor
c. Urban citizen
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22. Refers to lands in urban and urbanizable areas which are not registered with the Register of
Deeds, or with the city or municipal assessor’s office concerned, or which are uninhabited by the
owner and have not been developed or devoted for any useful purpose, or appears unutilized
for a period of three (3) consecutive years.
a. Unregistered or abandoned land
b. Urbanizable land
c. Idle land
23. Refers to all cities regardless of their population density and to municipalities with a population
density of at least five hundred (500) persons per square kilometer.
a. Urban areas
b. Rural areas
c. Town areas
24. Refers to sites and lands which, considering present characteristics and prevailing conditions,
display marked and great potential of becoming urban areas within the period of five (5) years.
a. Urbanizable areas
b. Rural areas
c. Town areas
25. Refers to the program of the National Housing Authority of upgrading and improving blighted
squatter areas within the cities and municipalities of Metro Manila.
a. Zonal Improvement Program
b. Town improvement program
c. Rural improvement program
26. Professional squatters or members of squatting syndicates shall be imposed the penalty of
_____.
a. Six (6) years imprisonment or a fine of not less than Sixty thousand pesos (P60,000) but
not more than One hundred thousand pesos (P100,000), or both.
b. Five (5) years imprisonment or a fine of not less than Sixty thousand pesos (P60,000) but
not more than One hundred thousand pesos (P100,000), or both.
c. Four (4) years imprisonment or a fine of not less than Sixty thousand pesos (P60,000)
but not more than One hundred thousand pesos (P100,000), or both.
27. Mortgage financing program of the National Home Mortgage Finance Corporation which assists
legally organized associations of underprivileged and homeless citizens to purchase and develop
a tract of land under the concept of community ownership.
a. Community Mortgage Program
b. NHA mortgage program
c. Finance mortgage program
28. all local government units are hereby authorized to impose socialized housing tax on land whose
value is in excess of 50,000.00
a. 0.5%
b. 1%
c. 2%
29. Penalty on any person who violate RA 7279.
a. six (6) years of imprisonment or a fine of not less than Five thousand pesos (P5,000) but
not more than One hundred thousand pesos (P10,000), or both
b. six (6) years of imprisonment or a fine of not less than Five thousand pesos (P5,000) but
not less than One hundred thousand pesos (P10,000), or both
c. six (6) years of imprisonment or a fine of not less than Fifty thousand pesos (P50,000)
but not more than One hundred thousand pesos (P10,000), or both
30. Price ceilings for socialized housing per HUDCC MC No. 1, Dec. 11, 2008.
a. 400,000.00 and below
b. 300,000.00
c. 250,000.00
31. Price ceilings for Low Cost Level 1 per BP 220 standard.
a. Above 300,000.00 to PHP 1,250, 000.00
b. 300,000.00
c. 250,000.00
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32. Price ceilings for Low cost Level 2 per PD 957 standard.
a. above PHP 1,250,000.00 to PHP 2,000,000.00
b. 3,000,000.00
33. Price ceiling for Medium cost
a. PHP 2,000,000.00 up to PHP 4,000,000.00
b. 450,000,000.00
c. 1,000,000.00
34. Price ceilings for Open Housing
a. above PHP 4,000,000.00
b. 3,000,000.00
c. 2,000,000.00
35. Path walk intended only as pedestrian access to property for socialized housing projects shall
have a maximum length of ___
a. 60 m
b. 50 m
c. 70 m
36. The minimum front setback of dwelling unit both for economic housing.
a. 1.5 m
b. 2 m
c. 3 m
37. The minimum side yard setback of dwelling unit both for socialized housing.
a. 1.5 m
b. 2 m
c. 3 m
38. The minimum rear yard setback of dwelling unit both for economic housing.
a. 2 m
b. 3 m
c. 1.5 m
39. The minimum horizontal dimension of courts and yards shall not be less
a. 2 m
b. 4 m
c. 6 m
40. Ceiling heights minimum headroom clearance.
a. 2 m
b. 3 m
c. 4 m
41. Mezzanine floors shall have a clear ceiling height of not less than.
a. 1.8 m
b. 2 m
c. 3 m
42. Doors shall have a minimum clear height of.
a. 2 m
b. 3 m
c. 4 m
43. Bathroom and mezzanine doors which shall have a minimum clear height.
a. 1.8 m
b. 2 m
c. 3 m
44. Minimum clear width of bed room door.
a. 0.70 m
b. 0.60 m
c. 0.80 m
45. Minimum clear width of bathroom door.
a. 0.60 m
b. 0.70 m
c. 0.80 m
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46. Minimum clear width of main door.
a. 0.80 m
b. 0.90 m
c. 1 m
47. Rooms for habitable use shall be provided with windows with a total free area of openings equal
to at least
a. 10% of the floor area of the room
b. 50% of the floor area of the room
c. 20% of the floor area of the room
48. Bathrooms shall be provided with window/s with an area not less than
a. 1/20 of its floor area
b. 1/10 of its floor area
c. 1/5 of its floor area
49. Stairways shall have a minimum clear width.
a. 0.60 meter
b. 1 m
c. 0.8 m
50. Stairs shall have a maximum riser height.
a. 0.25 m
b. 0.10 m
c. 0.50 m
51. Stairs shall have a maximum thread width
a. 0.20 m
b. 0.30 m
c. 0.40 m
52. Maximum height between landing
a. 3.6 m
b. 3.5 m
c. 4 m
53. The use of ladders may be allowed provided that the maximum distance between landings shall
be ___.
a. 1.80 m
b. 2 m
c. 3 m
54. The firewall shall be of masonry construction.
a. at least 150 millimeters or 6 inches thick
b. at least 100 millimeters or 6 inches thick
c. at least 50 millimeters or 6 inches thick
55. The minimum distance between two buildings wherein the taller building has 3 or 4 storeys,
shall be ____.
a. 6.0 meters
b. 8.0 m
c. 10.0 m
56. the minimum horizontal clearance between the two roof eaves of 3 story building.
a. 2.0 m
b. 3.0 m
c. 4.0 m
57. The minimum distance between buildings with more than 4 storeys.
a. 10 meters
b. 8 m
c. 6 m
58. The minimum horizontal clearance between buildings with more than 4 storeys.
a. 6 m
b. 8 m
c. 10 m
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59. Multi-family dwellings and condominiums, the parking requirement per eight (8) living units.
a. 1 parking slot
b. 2 parking slot
c. 3 parking slot
60. Public way with a width of 2.0 meters intended to break a block and to serve both pedestrian
and for emergency vehicles, both ends connecting to streets.
a. Alley
b. RROW
c. Major road
61. A parcel of land bounded on the sides by streets occupied by or intended for buildings.
a. Block
b. Land division
c. Parcel
62. Single-family detached dwelling unit containing three or more separate living units grouped
closely together to form relatively compact structures.
a. Cluster housing
b. Single family housing
c. Dwelling
63. Facilities or structures intended to serve common needs and for the benefit of the community,
such as neighborhood/ multipurpose center, drugstore, school, livelihood center, and the like.
a. Community facility
b. Common facility
c. Public facility
64. A building designed or used as residence for one or more families.
a. Dwelling
b. Residence
c. Housing
65. A dwelling for 1 family which is completely surrounded by permanent open spaces, with
independent access, services, and use of land.
a. Single detached
b. Duplex
c. Row house
66. A dwelling containing 2 or more separate living units each of which is separated from another by
party or lot lines walls and provided with independent access, services, and use of land.
a. Duplex
b. Row
c. Single
67. A single-attached dwelling containing 3 or more separate living units designed in such a way that
they abut each other at the sides, as in a row, and are separated from each other by party walls.
a. Row house
b. Single
c. duplex
68. A dwelling on 1 lot containing separate living units for 3 or more families, usually provided with
common access, services and use of land.
a. Multi family dwelling
b. Multiple dwelling
c. Multi-dwelling
69. A habitable dwelling unit which meets the minimum requirements for a housing core.
a. Shell house
b. Complete house
c. Full house
70. A habitable dwelling unit which meets the minimum requirements for a shell house.
a. Complete house
b. Full house
c. Partial house
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71. A type of housing project provided to average income families.
a. Economic housing
b. Poor housing
c. Family housing
72. Any wall which separates 2 butting living units and extends vertically from the lowest portion of
the wall.
a. Firewall
b. Fence
c. Boundary wall
73. A wall used only by the party upon whose lot the wall is located, erected at a line separating two
parcels of land each of which is a separate real estate entity.
a. Lot line wall
b. Boundary wall
c. Fence
74. A wall used jointly by two parties under easement agreement, erected upon a line separating 2
parcels of land each of which is a separate real estate.
a. Party wall
b. Firewall
c. Boundary wall
75. A public way intended to be used only as pedestrian access to property for socialized housing
projects. It shall have a width of 3.0 meters and a maximum length of 60 meters.
a. Path walk
b. Alley
c. Minor road
76. Shall mean an area reserved exclusively for parks, playgrounds, recreational uses and other
similar facilities and amenities.
a. Open spaces
b. Free spaces
c. Recreational spaces
77. Minimum level of completion of single detach economic housing.
a. Complete house
b. Full house
c. Shell house
78. Minimum level of completion of single detach socialized housing.
a. Shell house
b. Full house
c. Complete house
79. Minimum level of completion of row house economic housing.
a. Complete house
b. Full house
c. Shell house
80. Minimum level of completion of duplex socialized housing.
a. Shell house
b. Complete house
c. Full house
81. Minimum floor area of shelter component for economic housing single detached
a. 22 sqm
b. 20 sqm
c. 25 sqm
82. Minimum floor area of shelter component for economic housing duplex
a. 22 sqm
b. 20 sqm
c. 25 sqm
83. Minimum floor area of shelter component for economic housing row house
a. 22 sqm
b. 20 sqm
c. 25 sqm
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84. Minimum floor area of shelter component for socialized housing single detached
a. 18 sqm
b. 20 sqm
c. 25 sqm
85. Minimum floor area of shelter component for socialized housing duplex
a. 18 sqm
b. 20 sqm
c. 25 sqm
86. Minimum floor area of shelter component for socialized housing row house
a. 18 sqm
b. 20 sqm
c. 25 sqm
87. Planting strip for BP 220 if right of way is 15 m.
a. 1.3 m
b. 1.2 m
c. 2 m
a. 0.8 m
b. 0.6 m
c. 0.5 m
a. 0.8 m
b. 0.10 m
c. 0.6 m
a. 0.4 m
b. 0.2 m
c. 1 m
91. Side walk for BP 220 if right of way is 15 m.
a. 1.2 m
b. 1 m
c. 1.5 m
a. 1.2 m
b. 1 m
c. 1.5 m
a. 1.2 m
b. 1 m
c. 1.5 m
a. 0.6 m
b. 0.8 m
c. 0.5 m
95. Minimum lot area for economic housing duplex
a. 54 sqm
b. 48 sqm
c. 50 sqm
96. Minimum lot area for socialized housing duplex.
a. 48 sqm
b. 50 sqm
c. 45 sqm
97. Minimum lot area for economic housing detached.

a. 72 sqm
b. 50 sqm
c. 45 sqm
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98. Minimum lot area for socialized housing single detached.
a. 64 sqm
b. 50 sqm
c. 45 sqm
99. Minimum lot area for economic housing row house.
a. 36 sqm
b. 50 sqm
c. 45 sqm
100. Minimum lot area for socialized housing row house.
a. 28 sqm
b. 50 sqm
c. 45 sqm
101. Area for park and playground if dwelling density is 150 and below.
a. 3.5%
b. 4%
c. 5%
102. Area for park and playground if dwelling density is 161 to 175.
a. 5%
b. 3%
c. 1%
103. Under PD 1185, every sleeping room shall have at least _____ outside window.
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
104. Part or end of a lot which abuts a street
a. Frontage
b. Front
c. Entrance
105. Shall mean single family per lot
a. Single family dwelling
b. Double family dwelling
c. Multiple dwelling
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CONDOMINIUM AND OTHER TYPE OF REAL ESTATE HOLDING
1. Ownership consisting of individual co-owners residing in multiunit structures who have joint
ownership in common areas.
a. Condominium
b. Subdivision
c. Corporation
2. Profit from some ventures such as swimming pool fee.
a. Common profit
b. Common element
c. Common ventures
3. Sum assessed by the association but unpaid by a unit owner.
a. Enforceable lien
b. Debts
c. Balance
4. Owners of the apartment in a condominium can do all of the following.
a. Partition the common
b. Lease their unit
c. Mortgage the common property
5. Part of the condominium project intended for any type of independent ownership.
a. Unit
b. Building
c. Stairs
6. Entire parcel of real property divided or to be divided into condominium.
a. Project
b. Building
c. Common unit
7. Entire project excepting units separately granted or held reserve.
a. Common areas
b. Reserve area
c. Project area
8. To divide the ownership thereof or other ownership therein.
a. To divide real estate
b. To subdivide real estate
c. Division of real estate
9. The condominium act.
a. RA 4726
b. RA 4276
c. RA 8799
10. An act amending section four and section sixteen of RA 4726.
a. RA 7899
b. RA 8799
c. RA 4726
11. Maybe amended or revoke upon registration of instrument executed by simple majority of the
registered owners of the property.
a. Master deed
c. By-Laws
12. The term of the condominium corporation is coterminous with the condominium____.
a. Project
b. Building
c. Association
13. The condominium can be dissolved by.
a. Affirmative vote of all member
b. Affirmative vote of majority
c. Affirmative vote of 80%
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14. If there is no provision in the master deed ownership of common areas is _____.
a. Equal
b. Based on floor area being own
c. By unit
15. Lays down the provisions for insurance coverage, management, maintenance and assessment.
a. Deed of restriction
b. Master deed
c. By-Laws
16. Evidence of ownership in a condominium unit.
a. Condominium certificate of title
b. Original certificate of title
c. Certificate of ownership
17. Established the birth of the condominium corporation.
a. Articles of incorporation
b. By-laws
c. Master deed
18. Established birth of the condominium project.
a. Master deed
b. By laws
c. Articles of Incorporation
19. Pays realty tax in condominium project.
a. Individual unit owner
b. Corporation
c. Association
20. Hold title on the land of the condominium project.
a. Condominium Corporation
b. Association
c. Project owner
21. Conflict of provision between article of incorporation and master deed, which shall prevail.
a. Master deed
b. Article of Incorporation
c. Association
22. Formation of Condominium Corporation is.
a. Optional
b. Necessary
c. It depends
23. Foreigner can own up to how many of the total number of units in a condominium.
a. 40%
b. 60%
c. 50%
24. In times when Condominium Corporation involuntarily dissolved, whose rights are superior?
a. Creditors
b. Owners
c. Corporation
25. The corporation shall not be voluntarily dissolved through an action for dissolution under Rule
104 of the Rules of Court until this document is revoked.
a. Master deed
c. Certificate of title
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26. Instances in which corporation shall be voluntarily dissolved.
a. The damage or destruction to the project has rendered one-half or more of the units
therein untenable and that more than 30 percent of the members of the corporation
opposed to the repair
b. The damage or destruction to the project has rendered one-third or more of the units
c. The damage or destruction to the project has rendered one-half or more of the units
27. Instances in which Condominium Corporation shall be voluntarily dissolved.
a. That the project has been in existence in excess of 50 years, that it is obsolete and
uneconomical, and that more than 50 percent of the members of the corporation
b. That the project has been in existence in excess of 30 years, that it is obsolete and
c. That the project has been in existence in excess of 40 years, that it is obsolete and
a. That the project or material part thereof has been condemned or expropriated and that
the project is no longer viable or that the members holding in aggregate more than 70
percent interest in the corporation opposed to the continuation of condominium regime
b. That the project or material part thereof has been condemned or expropriated and that
c. That the project or material part thereof has been condemned or expropriated and that
a. That three years after damage or destruction to the project in which the corporation
owns or holds the common areas, which damage or destruction renders a material part
thereof, unfit for its use prior thereto, the project has not been rebuilt or repaired
substantially to its state prior to its damage or destruction
b. That two years after damage or destruction to the project in which the corporation
owns or holds the common areas, which damage or destruction renders a material part
c. That one year after damage or destruction to the project in which the corporation owns
or holds the common areas, which damage or destruction renders a material part
30. If there is no Zoning Ordinance or approved Comprehensive Land Use Plan what principle shall
follow.
a. Dominant land use
b. Eminent domain
c. Police power
31. Maximum saleable are of open market and medium cost subdivision.
a. 70%
b. 50%
c. 30%
32. Maximum non saleable area of open market and medium cost subdivision.
a. 30 %
b. 40%
c. 20%
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33. Area allocated for parks and playgrounds shall in no case be less than.
a. 100 sqm
b. 80 sqm
c. 50 sqm
34. Allocation in percent for parks and playground if density of unit per hectare is 20 and below.
a. 3.5%
b. 4%
c. 5%
35. Allocation in percent for parks and playground if density of unit per hectare is 21 and 25.
a. 4%
b. 5%
c. 6%
36. Allocation in percent for parks and playground if density of unit per hectare is 51 and 65.
a. 7%
b. 8%
c. 9%
37. Allocation in percent for parks and playground if density of unit per hectare is 65 and above.
a. 9%
b. 8%
c. 7%
38. Major road right of way for open market if project size is 2.5 hectare and below.
a. 10 m
b. 12 m
c. 15 m
39. Major road right of way for open market if project size is above 30 hectares.
a. 15 m
b. 12 m
c. 10 m
40. Major road right of way for medium cost if project size is 2.5 hectare and below.
a. 10 m
b. 12 m
c. 15 m
41. Major road right of way for medium cost if project size is above 30 hectares.
a. 15 m
b. 12 m
c. 10
42. Connecting to a minor road, shall be allowed for blocks not exceeding 60 meters.
a. 6 m
b. 4 m
c. 8 m
43. Interior Subdivision project must secure right-of-way to the nearest public road and the right-of-
way shall be designated as interconnecting road with a minimum width of _____.
a. 10 m
b. 8 m
c. 6 m
44. Subdivision projects abutting main public road must provide a setback at both sides of the
subdivision entrance to accommodate loading and unloading of passengers.
a. 3 m deep by 5 m length
b. 3 m deep by 4 m length
c. 4 m deep by 5 m length
45. Width of Planting Strips for open market if road width is 15 m.
a. 1.3 m
b. 1.2 m
c. 3 m
46. Width of sidewalk for open market if road width is 15 m.
a. 1.2 m
b. 3 m
c. .8 m
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47. Width of Planting Strips for medium cost if road width is 8 m.
a. .4 m
b. .6 m
c. .8 m
48. Width of sidewalk for medium if road width is 8 m.
a. .6 m
b. .8 m
c. 1 m
49. Width of Planting Strips for open market if road width is 12 m.
a. .8 m
b. .6 m
c. 1 m
50. Width of sidewalk for open market if road width is 12 m.
a. 1.2 m
b. 1 m
c. .8 m
51. Width of Planting Strips for medium cost if road width is 10 m.
a. .8 m
b. .6 m
c. 1 m
52. Width of sidewalk for medium if road width is 10 m.
a. 1.2 m
b. 1 m
c. .8 m
53. Minimum thickness of concrete pavement in PD 957.
a. 150 milimeters
b. 120 milimeters
c. 100 milimeters
54. Minimum strength for road pavement
a. 20.7 Mega Pascal
b. 21.7 Mega Pascal
c. 22.7 Mega Pascal
55. Minimum thickness of asphalt pavement in PD 957.
a. 50 millimeters
b. 60 millimeters
c. 70 millimeters
56. Sidewalk pavement shall have a minimum compressive strength.
a. 17.2 Mega Pascal
b. 16.2 Mega Pascal
c. 15.2 Mega Pascal
57. Minimum lot area of single detach open market.
a. 120 sqm
b. 100 sqm
c. 110 sqm
58. Minimum lot area of duplex open market.
a. 96 sqm
b. 120 sqm
c. 110 sqm
59. Minimum lot area of rowhouse open market.
a. 60 sqm
b. 80 sqm
c. 100 sqm
60. Minimum lot area of single detach for medium cost.
a. 100 sqm
b. 110 sqm
c. 120 sqm
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61. Minimum lot area of duplex for medium cost.
a. 80 sqm
b. 100 sqm
c. 120 sqm
62. Minimum lot area of rowhouse for medium cost.
a. 50 sqm
b. 80 sqm
c. 100 sqm
63. Minimum Lot Frontage of open market corner lot.
a. 12 m
b. 8 m
c. 10 m
64. Minimum Lot Frontage of medium cost regular lot
a. 10 m
b. 12 m
c. 8 m
65. Minimum Lot Frontage open market irregular lot
a. 6 m
b. 8 m
c. 10 m
66. Minimum Lot Frontage medium cost interior lot.
a. 3 m
b. 4 m
c. 5 m
67. Minimum Lot Frontage open market duplex
a. 8 m
b. 10 m
c. 12 m
68. Minimum Lot Frontage open market rowhouse.
a. 4 m
b. 5 m
c. 6 m
69. Minimum number of houses per block or cluster.
a. 20 unit
b. 15 unit
c. 10 unit
70. Maximum length of block or cluster.
a. 400 meter
b. 200 meter
c. 300 meter
71. Minimum floor area for open market housing shelter component.
a. 42 square meters
b. 48 square meters
c. 50 square meters
72. Minimum floor area for medium cost housing shelter component.
a. 30 sqm
b. 20 sqm
c. 40 sqm
73. Mandatory distance for provision of street lighting per pole.
a. 50 m
b. 40 m
c. 60 m
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74. Any Person in violation of PD 957 shall be penalized with.
a. Fine of not more than twenty thousand (P20,000.00) pesos and/or imprisonment of not
more than ten (10) years
b. Fine of not more than twenty thousand (P20,000.00) pesos and/or imprisonment of not
more than seven (7) years
c. Fine of not more than twenty thousand (P20,000.00) pesos and/or imprisonment of not
more than six (6) years
75. The registered owner or developer of the subdivision or condominium project, upon completion
of the development of said project may donate the roads and open spaces found within the
project to the city or municipality wherein the project is located.
a. Optional
b. Mandatory
c. Voluntary
76. Shall initiate the organization of a homeowners association among the buyers and residents of
the projects for the purpose of promoting and protecting their mutual interest and assist in their
community development.
a. Developer of condominium project
b. Owners
c. Corporation
77. Real estate tax and assessment on a lot or unit as long as the title has not passed the buyer shall
be paid by.
a. Developer
b. Buyer
c. Seller
78. The rights of the buyer in the event of his failure to pay the installments due for reasons other
than the failure of the owner or developer to develop the project shall be governed by.
a. RA 6552
b. RA 5662
c. RA 6523
79. The owner or developer shall deliver the title of the lot or unit to the buyer upon.
a. Full payment
b. 80% paid
c. 50% paid
80. No owner or developer shall change or alter the roads, open spaces, infrastructures, facilities for
public use and/or other form of subdivision development as contained in the approved
subdivision plan and/or represented in its advertisements, without the permission of the
Authority and the written conformity or consent of the ____.
a. homeowners' association
b. corporation
c. buyer
81. No real estate dealer, broker or salesman shall engage in the business of selling subdivision lots
or condominium units unless he has.
a. Registered with HLURB
b. Registered with DENR
c. Registered with DTI
82. Revocation of Registration Certificate and License to Sell.
a. Upon verified complain by buyer
b. Unverified complain of buyer
c. By seller
83. Suspension of License to Sell.
a. Upon verified complain by buyer
b. Unverified complain of buyer
c. By seller
84. Document showing that developer is authorized to sell any subdivision lot or condominium unit
in the registered project.
a. License to sell
b. Permit to sell
c. Project permit
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85. Weeks that License to sell shall be obtained by developer from registration of project.
a. Two weeks
b. Three weeks
c. Four weeks
86. Shall have exclusive jurisdiction to regulate the real trade and business in accordance with the
provisions of PD 957.
a. NHA
b. HLURB
c. HGC
87. Shall mean any person directly engaged as principal in the business of buying, selling or
exchanging real estate whether on a full-time or part-time basis.
a. Dealer
b. Seller
c. Owner
88. Shall mean the person who develops or improves the subdivision project or condominium
project for and in behalf of the owner thereof.
a. Developer
b. Owner
c. Seller
89. Shall refer to the registered owner of the land subject of a subdivision or a condominium
project.
a. Owner
b. Buyer
c. Seller
90. Shall mean a subdivision plan of a registered land wherein a street, passageway or open space is
delineated on the plan.
a. Complex subdivision plan
b. Simple subdivision plan
c. Compound subdivision plan
91. Shall mean any of the lots, whether residential, commercial, industrial, or recreational, in a
subdivision project.
a. Subdivision lot
b. Condominium lot
c. Project lot
92. Shall mean a tract or a parcel of land registered under Act No. 496 which is partitioned primarily
for residential purposes into individual lots with or without improvements thereon, and offered
to the public for sale, in cash or in installment terms.
a. Subdivision project
b. Project lot
c. Condominium
93. Shall include any contract to buy, purchase, or otherwise acquire for a valuable consideration a
subdivision lot, including the building and other improvements, if any, in a subdivision project or
a condominium unit in a condominium project.
a. Buy and sell
b. Realty
c. Development
94. Shall include every disposition, or attempt to dispose, for a valuable consideration, of a
subdivision lot, including the building and other improvements thereof, if any, in a subdivision
project or condominium unit in a condominium project.
a. Sale or sell
b. Foreclose
c. Auction
95. Shall mean a natural or a juridical person.
a. Person
b. Corporation
c. Partnership
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96. Caliper diameter of shrubs and desirable ground cover per Department of Environment and
Natural Resources (DENR) rules that shall be preserved.
a. 200 millimeter
b. 150 millimeter
c. 100 millimeter
97. Minimum drainage pipe.
a. 30 cm
b. 20 cm
c. 40 cm
98. Minimum water supply requirement per capita household.
a. 150 liters
b. 100 liters
c. 80 liters
99. When a major road used as main access road, it shall not be less than.
a. 10 meters
b. 12 meters
c. 8 meters
100. Crown of the roads shall have a slope of not less than.
a. 1.5%
b. 3%
c. 5%
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LEGAL ASPECT OF SALES, MORTGAGE AND LEASE
1. Characteristic of a contract of sale perfected by mere consent without any further act.
a. Consensual
b. Bilateral
c. Onerous
2. In statute of fraud, sale of personal property at a price not less than ____.
a. P500.00
b. P1100.00
c. P5000.00
3. One who transfer the ownership of the determinate thing.
a. Vendor
b. Buyer
c. Vendee
4. A stipulation where parties agree that despite delivery, the ownership of the thing shall remain
with the seller until the purchaser has fully paid the price
a. Pactum reservati dominii
b. Contract of sale
c. Gross inadequacy of price
5. A seller is an unpaid seller when
a. whole price has not been paid or tendered
b. a lien on the goods or right to retain them for the price while he is in possession of them
c. a right of resale
6. The rule of “caveat emptor” is applicable to execution sales.
a. Yes
b. No
c. Maybe
7. One who buys the property of another without notice that some other person has a right to or
interest in such property.
a. Purchaser in good faith
b. Innocent buyer
c. Ignorant buyer
8. It is hereby declared a public policy to protect buyers of real estate on installment
Payments against onerous and oppressive conditions
a. Realty Installment Buyers Protection Act, section 2
b. Realty Installment Buyers Protection Act , Section 3
c. Realty Installment Buyers Protection Act , section 1
9. Repurchase if there is agreement on pacto de retro sale.
a. 4 years
b. 5 years
c. 6 years
10. Repurchase if there is no agreement on pacto retro sale.
a. 10 years
b. 15 years
c. 14 years
11. The buyer may demand for the deficiency.
a. If the actual area is less
b. If the actual area is more
c. Statement A and B
12. The priority of rights in case of double sale shall be governed by the following rule
a. The buyer who acquired in good faith and was the first to register the sale shall have a
better right
b. Only the more affluent buyer who acquired in good faith and was the first to register
the sale shall have a better right
c. No one of the buyers shall have a better right
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13. Must be set out in the mortgage contract in order for the lender to collect one.
a. Prepayment Penalty Provision
b. Reverse Mortgage
c. Option Contract
14. A contract whereby borrowing money of another, hands over his/her property to the creditor,
allowing the use and occupation thereof, for the interest on the money lent.
a. Contract of Antichresis
b. Contract of Lease for Building Office
c. Special Power of Attorney
15. Essential requisites of a contract of sale.
a. Consent or meeting of the minds, Object or subject matter, Cause or consideration
b. Consent, object, price in money or its equivalent
c. Cause or consideration, consent , ,object
16. The person who rents land or property from a lessor.
a. Tenant
b. Landlord/Landlady
c. Administrator
17. Which of the following best explains Owner Carry back and Financing?
a. Involves balloon mortgage payments, since the monthly payments are frequently
interest-only
b. Does not give ownership or right to exclusive possession
c. Covers two or more pieces of real estate.
18. Tacita reconduccion is also known as___
a. Tacit renewal of a contract of lease
b. Tacit renewal of a contract of sale
c. Tacit renewal of a Consent of Lessor
19. an action instituted by the vendee against the vendor to avoid a sale on account of some vice or
defect in the thing sold
a. Accion redhibitoria
b. Tacita reconduccion
c. Illegal sale
20. An action to procure the return of a part of the purchase price paid by the vendee to the vendor
by reason of such defect
a. Accion quanti minoris
b. Accion redhibitoria
c. Tacita reconduccion
21. A consensual, bilateral, onerous and commutative contract by virtue of which one person binds
himself to grant temporarily the use of a thing or to render some service to another who
undertakes to pay some rent, compensation or price.
a. Lease
b. Sale
c. Contract
22. Requisites for Ejectment of Tenant.
a. 3 months advance notice to lessee
b. 2 months advance notice to lessee
c. 1 month advance notice to lessee
23. Pacto de retro sale is also known as _____.
a. Contract of sale with right to repurchase
b. Contract of real estate mortgage
c. Real Mortgage
24. Similarity of mortgage and pledge.
a. In both cases, the creditor cannot appropriate the property to himself
b. Both constituted on immovables
c. Both guaranty future obligations
25. It is also known as Realty Installment Buyer Protection law
a. Maceda Law
b. Pactum Reservati Domini
c. Real Estate Mortgage
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26. The provision in a mortgage contract that ends the mortgage when all payments are made,
transferring title to the property back to the mortgagor or terminating the lender's interest in
the property
a. Defeasance Clause
b. Real Estate Mortgage
c. Antichresis
27. In Real Estate Mortgage the creditor generally receives fruits while in Antichresis a creditor
does not receive the fruits is TRUE .
a. No , In Antichresis the creditor generally receives fruits while in Real Estate Mortgage a
creditor does not receive the fruits
b. Yes, the statement is CORRECT
c. None of the above
28. Right of redemption on foreclosed property after being sold.
a. 1 year
b. 2 years
c. 3 years
29. A stipulation in a contract of mortgage that the mortgagee shall become the owner of the thing
mortgaged if the mortgagor cannot pay his obligation.
a. Pactum commissorium
b. Daccion en pago
c. Foreclosure sale
30. Agreements between two entities, creating an enforceable obligation to do, or to refrain from
doing, a particular thing
a. Contract
b. Sale
c. Obligation
31. Under maceda law, the unpaid installment payments which are due and demandable shall have
a grace period of ____
a. one (1) month for every one (1) year of installment payments made
b. Three (3) month for every one (1) year of installment payments made
c. 2 (two) month for every one (1) year of installment payments made.
32. A contract whereby a person borrowing money of another, hands over his property to the
creditor.
a. Antichresis
b. Daccion en pago
c. Mortgage
33. Under maceda law, percent of payment every year after fifth year.
a. 5%
b. 10%
c. 20%
34. Maceda law, buyers who paid less than two years entitled to grace period of ___.
a. 60 days
b. 30 days
c. None
35. The conveyance of real estate in payment of an obligation
a. Daccion en pago
b. Antichresis
c. Mortgage
36. A type of listing where the seller also list the property with other and competing brokers on the
belief that this type of arrangement best serves his/her single listing.
a. Open listing agreement
b. Minutes
c. Check list
37. A provision in the blanket mortgage that property whose loan value has been fully paid shall be
released from the mortgage
a. Automatic redemption clause
b. Automatic release
c. Automatic payment
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38. Title passes to a sole heir upon execution of document.
a. Affidavit of adjudication
b. Affidavit of being a son
c. Affidavit of succession
39. Seizure of a property by court order, usually done to have it available in the event of adverse
judgment in a pending suit.
a. Attachment
b. Lien
c. Encumbrance
40. include liens against the property, deed restrictions, easements, and encroachments
a. Mortgage
b. Encumbrance
c. Ejectment
41. By accepting boarders in the apartment, the lessee did not sublease portion of the apartment to
the boarders but only agreed to provide them with meals and/or lodging for a price.
a. Yes
b. No
c. Both A and B
42. A right to use adjoining property that transfers with the land.
a. Appurtenant Easement
b. Easement by prescription
c. Easement in gross
43. Unlike an easement, the license can be rescinded at any time.
a. True
b. False
44. If there is only partial destruction
a. The lessee can choose between reduction of the rent and rescission
b. The lessee can choose rescission only
c. The lessee cannot choose between reduction of the rent and rescission
45. Not true about licenses.
a. License is actually an encumbrance on the real estate and does not transfer with the
title.
b. A license will also terminate upon the death of either the licensee or the licensor, or if
the licensor sells the land
c. Unlike an easement, the license can be rescinded at any time
46. Listed are types of Types of sale which are not covered by Maceda Law except
a. Sale to tenants under RA#3841
b. Sale of Commercial buildings;
c. Sale of Industrial lots;
47. Seller agrees to list the property to only one broker during the listing period.
a. Exclusive Agency Agreement
b. Special agency
c. Sole agency
48. A provision in the listing agreement which stipulates that the broker is entitled to the
commission of the subject property , within a certain period after the lapse of the period of
authority,
a. Hold over clause
b. Extension clause
c. Allowance clause
49. The lessor(landlord) grants the right of possession to the lessee (tenant) but retains the right to
retake possession at the expiration of the lease term.
a. Right of Reversion
b. Lease Option Clause
c. Right of First Refusal
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50. A lease clause that gives the tenant the right to purchase the property under specified
conditions.
a. Lease Option Clause
b. Right of Reversion
c. Right of First Refusal
51. Has the preference to purchase the property over other purchasers if the owner of the property
elects to sell the property.
a. Right of First Refusal
b. Lease Option Clause
c. Right of Reversion
52. A property lease in which the landlord agrees to pay all expenses which are normally associated
with ownership, such as utilities, repairs, insurance, and (sometimes) taxes.
a. Gross Lease
b. Percentage Lease
c. Net Lease
53. A property lease in which the lessee agrees to pay all expenses which are normally associated
with ownership, such as utilities, repairs, insurance and taxes also called closed-end lease.
a. Net Lease
b. Gross Lease
c. Percentage Lease
54. Type of lease where the tenant pays a base rent plus a percentage of any revenue earned while
doing business on the rental premises.
a. Percentage Lease
b. Net Lease
c. Gross Lease
55. An investor that lends money secured by a mortgage on real estate.
a. Lender/mortgagee
b. Borrower/mortgagor
c. Mortgage
56. Has priority over all other liens or claims on a property in the event of default
a. First Mortgage
b. Third Mortgage
c. Second Mortgage
57. A lease (usually long-term) that is periodically adjusted to reflect the appraised value of the
asset being leased.
a. Graduated lease
b. Net Lease
c. Gross Lease
58. Lease that rents the land only.
a. Ground lease
b. Net Lease
c. Property lease
59. A security interest in real property held by a lender as a security for a debt, usually a loan of
money.
a. Mortgage
b. Collateral
c. Security land
60. An investor that lends money secured by a mortgage on real estate.
a. Mortgagee
b. Borrower
c. Investor
61. Carries an interest rate that will be set at the inception of the loan and remain constant for the
length of the mortgage.
a. Fixed rate mortgage
b. Constant rate mortgage
c. Permanent rate mortgage
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62. A mortgage issued to the borrower by the seller of the home as part of the purchase transaction.
a. Purchase money mortgage
b. Sellers mortgage
c. Borrowers mortgage
63. A loan borrowed to finance the construction of a home and typically only interest is paid during
the construction period.
a. Construction mortgage
b. Finance mortgage
c. Interest mortgage
64. A mortgage which covers two or more pieces of real estate.
a. Financing
b. Blanket Mortgage
c. Second Mortgage
65. Is usually used by homeowners to borrow some of the equity in the home.
a. Home Equity Loan
b. Credit
c. Interest
66. Is a charge the borrower pays when a mortgage is repaid before a certain period of time elapses
a. Prepayment Penalty Clause
b. Prepayment Clause
c. Mortgage Contingency Clause
67. A partial payment of the purchase price and considered as proof of the perfection of a sale
a. Earnest Money
b. Account Money
c. Deposit Money
68. The seller lends the buyer the difference between the existing loan and the purchase price.
a. Wrap around loan
b. Net loan
c. Deductable loan
69. Agreements between two entities, creating an enforceable obligation to do, or to refrain from
doing, a particular thing.
a. Resolution
b. Declaration
c. Contract
70. Elements of Contract of Sale
a. Consent, consideration , object
b. Object, consent , seller
c. Consideration ,buyer ,seller
71. A legal recorded claim against a property.
a. Lien
b. Encumbrance
c. Attachment
72. A charge made against property without the consent of the property owner.
a. Involuntary lien
b. Voluntary lien
c. Foreclosure lien
73. A lien that you agree to have recorded against your property.
a. Voluntary lien
b. Involuntary lien
c. Foreclosure lien
74. Legal instrument used to ensure that consumers pay their debts properly.
a. Judgment lien
b. Involuntary lien
c. Foreclosure lien
75. A lien imposed by law upon a property to secure the payment of taxes.
a. Tax lien
b. Involuntary lien
c. Foreclosure lien
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76. A security interest in the title to property for the benefit of those who have supplied labor or
materials that improve the property.
a. Mechanics lien
b. Security lien
c. Labor lien
77. The followings are characteristics of a contract of sale are except
a. Binomial
b. Bilateral
c. Onerous
78. The compensation either in money, provisions, chattels, or labor, received by the lessor from the
lessee.
a. Rent
b. Lease
c. Allowance
79. The right of an owner-lessor to receive the contract rent and reversion of the property at the
end of the lease.
a. Lease fee estate
b. Lease estate
c. Real estate
80. No lessor may demand a deposit for any purposed of any amount in excess of
a. 4 month’s rental in advance
b. 3month’s rental in advance
c. 2 month’s rental in advance
81. The lessor has given the lessee notice of lessor’s intention to repossess the property
a. 2 months in advance
b. 1 month in advance
c. 3 months in advance
82. Lessee does not transmit absolutely his right and obligations to the sub lessee.
a. Contract of Sublease
b. Assignment of Lease
c. Contract of Lease
83. Necessary in an assignment of lease because it involves the transfer not only of rights but also of
obligations
a. Consent of the lessor
b. Consent of the buyer
c. Consent of the lessee
84. An unaccepted unilateral promise to buy or sale.
a. Policitacion
b. Promissory
c. Agreement
85. A partial payment of the purchase price and considered as proof of the perfection of a sale.
a. Earnest money
b. Option money
c. Down payment
86. The act of the lessor in padlocking the office of the lessee and of enclosing with barbed wire the
leased land violated the lessor’s third obligation mandated by
a. par. 3, Art. 1652 of. NCC
b. par. 3, Art. 1654 of. NCC
c. par. 3, Art. 1658 of. NCC
87. A stranger to the sublease agreement.
a. The lessor
b. The lessee
c. The seller
88. The word “mortgage” is derived from the French words “mort” and “gage
a. Mort” means “dead” and “gage” means pledge
b. Mort” means “less” and “gage” means pledge
c. Mort” means “more ” and “gage” means pledge
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89. The absolute owner of the property mortgage.
a. Mortgagor
b. Creditor
c. Contractor
90. The husband and wife cannot sell property to each other, except:
a. when there has been a judicial separation of property
b. when there has been a third party
c. when there no judicial separation of property
91. No lease for more than 99 years shall be valid for foreigner.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
92. If the loan is to be repaid quickly due to a refinance.
a. The lender may have a significant loss
b. the lender may have death penalty
c. the lender may stay away
93. It continues to exist even if dominant or servient tenement is sold
a. Easement Appurtenant
b. Easements in Gross
c. Private restrictions
94. Obligation of seller
a. Transfer ownership of property sold
b. Pay the price
c. Accept delivery of possession
95. Owner transfer interest on the property to the government for any public use.
a. By Dedication
b. By Prescription
c. By Condemnation
96. When someone becomes the owner of both the servient and dominant tenements
a. Merger
b. Release
c. Abandonment
97. Right to use someone else’ s land for a particular purpose.
a. Easement
b. Easement appurtenant
c. Easement in gross
98. A contract whereby a party for consideration binds him to transfer ownership and possession of
a property in favor of another.
a. Sale
b. Property
c. Products
99. Two kinds of contract of sale
a. Absolute and Conditional
b. Quality and Conditional
c. Buy and Sell
100. Obligation of Buyer:
a. Pay the price
b. Transfer ownership of property
c. Warrant against eviction hidden effects
101. The owner at the time the property is supposed to be delivered.
a. Seller
b. Buyer
c. Creditor
102. A lien that you agree to have recorded against your property
a. Involuntary lien
b. Voluntary lien
c. Judgment Liens
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103. Is an extension of some physical structure, such as a building, driveway, fence, or tree over the
property lines from an adjoining property.
a. Encroachment
b. Squatting
c. Illegal entry
104. Perfected by mere consent without any further act.
a. Consensual
b. Bilateral
c. Onerous
105. Characteristic of sale where both parties bound to fulfill obligations toward each other.
a. Bilateral
b. Unilateral
c. Multiple
d.
106. Characteristic of sale where thing sold is with a consideration.
a. Onerous
b. Considerate
c. Paid
107. Characteristic of sale where thing sold is considered the equivalent of the price paid and vice-
versa.
a. Commutative
b. Priced
c. Paid
108. Characteristic of sale where a name is given.
a. Nominate
b. Name
c. Suggestive
109. Characteristic of sale where it does not depend for its existence/validity upon another contract.
a. Principal
b. Major
c. Minor
110. Is the right to be subrogated, upon the same terms and conditions stipulated in the contract.
a. Legal redemption
b. Subrogation
c. stipulated
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DOCUMENTATION AND REGISTRATION
1. Free patent for highly urbanized cities, the land should not exceed
a. 200 square meters
b. 300 square meters
c. 400 square meters
2. Free patent for other cities, it should not exceed
a. 500 square meter
b. 600 square meter
c. 800 square meter
3. Free patent for in first class and second class municipalities, it should not exceed
a. 750 square meters
b. 800 square meters
c. 1000 square meters
4. Free patent for other municipalities, it should not exceed
a. one thousand 1,000 square meters
b. 500 square meter
c. 800 square meter
5. Directing all DAR personnel and LRA to adopt the Joint DAR-LRA Operations Manual on Titling and
Registration of Lands under the Comprehensive Agrarian Reform Program.
a. Memorandum Circular No. 09, Series of 1996
b. Memorandum Circular No. 06, Series of 1996
c. Memorandum Circular No. 09, Series of 1997
6. Premium or tax of any kind shall be charged or imposed in connection with the issuance of an
original Emancipation Patent and for the registration.
a. None
b. Based on assessment
c. Based on valuation
7. The General Banking Act provides that acquired and mortgaged agricultural land foreclosed by
banks shall be disposed within
a. five (5) years after foreclosure
b. 10 years
c. 15 years
8. The act that governed land registration before June 11, 1978
a. act 496
b. act 498
c. act 495
9. The law that replace the Land registration act of 1901.
a. PD 1529
b. PD 1506
c. RA 1529
10. The agency mandated by Philippine laws with the task of preserving the integrity of the land
registration process and protecting the sanctity of the Torrens Title.
a. LRA
b. DENR
c. DAR
11. It is the public repository of records of an instruments affecting registered or unregistered land
and chattel mortgages in the province or city.
a. Registry of deeds
b. LRA
c. Municipal Registry
12. Attachment issued during the progress of a legal action. It may be cancelled any time.
a. Preliminary attachment
b. Cancellable attachment
c. Legal attachment
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13. Attachment issued after final judgment.
a. Levy on execution
b. Final attachment
c. Judgment attachment
14. Administrative reconstitution of lost or destroyed original copies of titles can be availed of when
the certificates lost or destroyed are at least.
a. 10%
b. 15%
c. 20%
15. Symbols and common tie points BLLM means.
a. Bureau of Land Location Monument
b. Barangay Land Location Monument
c. Bureau of Land Location Marking
16. Symbols and common tie points BLBM means.
a. Bureau of Lands Barrio Boundary Monument.
b. Basic Lands Barrio Boundary Monument.
c. Bureau of Lands Barrio Boundary Marking
17. Symbols and common tie points CBM means.
a. City Boundary Monument
b. City Boundary Marking
c. City Barangay Monument
18. Symbols and common tie points PBM means.
a. Provincial Boundary Monument
b. Provincial Boundary Marking
c. Philippine Boundary Monument
19. Symbols and common tie points BBM means.
a. Barrio Boundary Monument
b. Barrio Boundary Marking
c. Barangay Boundary Monument
20. Those lengths made perpendicular to gravity.
a. Horizontal Lengths
b. Perpendicular length
c. Gravity length
21. Those made in the direction of gravity.
a. Vertical Heights
b. Perpendicular length
c. Gravity length
22. An angle in a plane perpendicular to gravity at the point of measurement.
a. Horizontal Angle
b. Perpendicular angle
c. Vertical angle
23. An angle in a plane vertical at the point of measurement.
a. Vertical Angle
b. Horizontal angle
c. Perpendicular angle
24. An angle from a vertical line down to a given point.
a. Zenith Angle
b. Vertical Angle
c. Horizontal angle
25. Refers to any entry made in the book of the registry including the cancellation, annotation, and
even the marginal notes.
a. Registration
b. Contract
c. Title
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26. One of the function of registration that give notice to all persons from time to time of such
registering filing and entering that certain party has or has acquired certain rights or interest in
the property.
a. Publicity
b. Security
c. Priority
27. Refers to a description by which property can be definitely located by reference to government
surveys or approved recorded maps
a. Legal description
b. Economic description
c. Legacy description
28. All are methods of describing real estate for legal description except,
a. Base
b. Metes and bounds
c. Rectangular
29. Method of registration that recording of the certificate of titles of a memorandum or an abstract
of the instruments sought to be registered.
a. Inscription
b. Priority
c. Transcription
30. Refers to those executed against the will or without the consent of the landowner contrary to
his interest or will affect him adversely, such as attachment, levy, on execution, adverse claim,
lis pendens and other liens.
a. Involuntary transaction
b. Transaction
c. Voluntary transaction
31. . It refers to the registering procedure from the filing of the application to the issuance of the
original certificate of title based on the decree o registration, patent, award or grant.
a. Registration of Title
b. Registration of Deeds
c. Registration of Land
32. Registration of Deeds may refer either
a. Both b and C
b. Involuntary transaction
c. Voluntary transaction
33. Listed are the methods of measuring distance of land units. Which does not belong to the
group?
a. Plat map
b. Pacing
c. Taping
34. Refers to contracts or agreements willfully executed by the landowner or his duly authorized
representative such as sales, lease, mortgages, donations, exchanges, trust, or variations
thereof, affecting the real estate.
a. Voluntary transaction
b. Involuntary transaction
c. Registration of Land
35. Examination of the documents, certificates of title and supporting papers by the deed examiner
is one of the registration procedure.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
36. Refers to is the agency mandated by Philippine laws with the task of preserving the integrity of
the land registration process and protecting the sanctity of the Torrens Title.
a. Land Registration Authority
b. Land Registration Title
c. Land Registration Notice
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37. Term refers to a generic word meaning proof, evidence or monument of ownership, such as Tax
Declarations, Real Property Tax Receipts, Deeds of Sale, and the Torrens title.
a. Title
b. Contract
c. Property
38. Kind of registration that refers to the first registration of the land whereby an Original Certificate
of Title is entered in the Registry of Property and a duplicate owner’s copy is issued to the owner
by the Register of Deeds.
a. Original Registration
b. Voluntary Registration
c. Judicial Registration
39. The Land Registration Act, effective Feb. 1, 1903, is a system of registration that was named
after _____.
a. Sir Reinald Torrens
b. Sir Robert Torrens
c. Sir Richard Torrens
40. This law deals with land not registered under Torrens System.
a. Registration under Sec. 194 of the Revised Adm. Code
b. Registration under Sec. 190 of the Revised Adm. Code
c. Registration under Sec. 193 of the Revised Adm. Code
41. Determine the cardinal directions or reference points towards the true north ,south, east ,west
a. Thumb Rule in Map Reading
b. Map Reading and Orientation
c. Titles in Relation Maps/Plans
42. Lands of the public domain are classified into Agricultural, forest or timber, mineral lands ,
national parks .
a. True
b. False
43. Refers to a privilege that pertains only to individuals and corporations or associations legally
qualified to acquire or hold lands of the public domain
a. Land Ownership
b. Land Registration Authority
c. Land Contacts
44. Refers to reference to directional and location needs.
a. Travel guides
b. Appraisal
c. Marketing
45. Refers to the land survey maps containing details of elevation and condition of the land
a. Topographic
b. Geographic
c. Area Maps
46. Refers to the land survey maps of large magnitude covering hundreds / thousands of hectares ;
filed with the Bureau
a. Public land subdivision maps or Cadastral
b. Public land Act
c. Torrens title
47. The sub-division of titled land may be done under the
a. Both B and C
b. Property Registration decree (PD 1529, June 1978)
c. Subdivision and Condominium Buyers Protective decree (PD 957, July 1976
48. The power to approve subdivision plans was devolved to cities and municipalities by the ___.
a. Local Government Code (Art 447, para.2(x), Article 459, para.2(x)
b. Local Government Code (Art 446, para.2(x), Article 459, para.2(x)
c. Local Government Code (Art 448, para.2(x), Article 459, para.2(x)
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49. A book that contain among other particulars, the entry number, the names of the parties, the
nature of the document, the date, hour and minute it was presented and received.
a. Primary Entry Book
b. Contract Book
c. Registration Book
50. Land use allocation of both government-held or privately-owned properties is undertaken by
local government units as authorized by ___.
a. Local government Code of 1991 (Republic Act 7160)
b. Local Government Code (Art 448, para.2(x), Article 459, para.2(x
c. Local government Code of 1992 (Republic Act 7160).
51. Refers to public officials and employees shall remain true to the people at all times and shall not
discriminate against anyone, especially the poor and the underprivileged.
a. Justness and sincerity.
b. Commitment to public interest
c. Political neutrality
52. Under Norms of Conduct of Public Officials and Employees which of the following best describes
professionalism?
a. Public officials and employees shall perform and discharge their duties with the highest
degree of excellence, intelligence and skill
b. Public officials and employees shall provide service to everyone without unfair
discrimination and regardless of party affiliation or preference.
c. Public officials and employees and their families shall lead modest lives appropriate to
their positions and income.
53. This act shall be known as the code of conduct and ethical standards for public officials and
employees
a. Republic Act No. 6713
b. Republic Act No. 6710
c. Republic Act No. 6714
54. Refers to any and all persons related to a public official or employee within the fourth civil
degree of consanguinity or affinity.
a. Relatives
b. Family
c. Staff
55. A system of annual incentives and rewards is hereby established in order to motivate and inspire
public servants to uphold the highest standards of ethics
a. System of Incentives and Rewards
b. System of Prohibited Acts and Transactions
c. System of Statements and Disclosure
56. Violations of Sections 7, 8 or 9 of Republic Act No. 6713 shall be punishable with imprisonment
not exceeding,
a. five (5) years
b. three (3) years
c. six (6) years
57. The following are plans approved by the Land registration Authority except
a. FPA – Free Patent Application
b. PSD – Private Subdivision of titled properties
c. PCS – Private Consolidation-Subdivision of titled properties
58. Refers to the art of using scientific principles to make comparatively large measurements to a
required accuracy
a. Land Surveying
b. Land Contract
c. Land Title
59. Republic act no. 10023 an act authorizing the issuance of free patents to residential lands.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
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60. The restrictions regarding encumbrances, conveyances, transfers or dispositions imposed in
Sections 118, 119,121, 122 and 123 of Chapter XII, Title VI of Commonwealth Act No. 141 as
amended, shall not apply to patents issued under this Act.
a. Removal of Restrictions
b. Period for Application.
c. Period for Authority
61. Effectivity Clause of Republic Act No 10023, shall take effect how many days after its publication
in two (2) national newspapers of general education.
a. sixteen days (16)
b. twenty days (20)
c. fifteen days (15)
62. Refers to All laws, decrees, executive order, executive issuance's or letters of instruction, rules
and regulations or any part thereof inconsistent with or contrary to the provisions of this Act are
hereby deemed repealed, amended or modified accordingly.
a. Repealing Clause
b. Separability Clause.
c. Effectivity Clause
63. The Act which is a consolidation of House Bill No. 5618 and Senate Bill No. 3429 was finally
passed by the House of Representatives and Senate on ___.
a. December 18, 2009
b. July 26,1980
c. March 19,1990
64. Sec. 1 of Republic Act No. 10023 states that in highly urbanized cities, the land should not
exceed
a. Two hundred (200) square meters
b. Three hundred (300) square meters
c. Four hundred (400) square meters
65. Refers to a process where the Original Certificate of Title is canceled and subsequently
registered under a Transfer Certificate of Title in favor of the new owner in cases of land
conveyance such as sale, donation or assignment.
a. Subsequent Registration
b. Administrative
c. Judicial
66. Refers to a thing or a right to dispose of gratuitously, or any act or liberality, in favor of another
who accepts it, and shall include a simulated sale or an ostensibly onerous disposition thereof
a. Gift
b. Money
c. Land
67. Refers to any person who owns, directly or indirectly, shares of stock sufficient to elect a
director of a corporation. This term shall also apply to the parties to a voting trust
a. Substantial stockholder
b. Family of public officials or employees
c. Person
68. The public officials and employees shall always uphold the public interest over and above
personal interest
a. Commitment to public interest
b. Professionalism
c. Justness and sincerity
69. Refers to the evidence of the right of the owner or the extent of his/her interest ,and by which
means he/she can maintain control and as a rule assert right to exclusive possession and
enjoyment of the property.
a. Land Title
b. Land Registration
c. Land Contract
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70. Land title is important because it is the only document that would prove a person’s
ownership over a piece of land
a. Yes
b. No
c. Both A and B
71. Which of the statements refers to the transcript of the decree or registration made by the
register of deeds
a. Certificate of Title
b. Certificate of Authority
c. Certificate of Land
72. A notice of pending litigation; a warning to the whole world that one who buys the property so
annotated does so at his/her own risk
a. Lis pendens
b. Notice of Appreciation
c. Notice of Authority
73. What is the instrument is an instrument use for authorizing another to act as one’s agent or
attorney.
a. Power of Attorney
b. Agent
c. Registration of Deeds
74. Who can issue restraining orders against government agencies in agrarian reform cases
a. Only the Supreme Court
b. DAR
c. DENR
75. What are the three types of attachment?
a. preliminary attachment, Garnishment, Levy on execution
b. attachment, execution
c. garnishment and attachment
76. Refers to the acquisition of lots of varying ownership through purchase or expropriation, for the
purpose of planned and rational development and socialized housing programmes without
individual property restrictions
a. Land Assembly or Consolidation
b. Combination
c. Investing
77. This mode of land disposal was introduce by the American colonizers to expedite settlement of
the undeveloped areas in the country
a. Homestead Patent
b. Free patent
c. Public patent
78. What are the two kinds of registration systems that being used in the Philippines now?
a. Land registration Act (Act496) and Registration under Sec. 194 of the Revised
Administrative Code
b. RA 9700 and RA 8700
c. Carp Law and DENR law
79. Refers to meeting of minds between two persons whereby one binds himself, with respect to
the other, to give something or to render some service.
a. Contract
b. Agreement
c. Promise
80. What article of Civil Code clearly stated that No one may contract in the name of another
without being authorized by the latter, or unless he has by law a right to represent him
a. Under Art.1317 of Civil Code
b. Under Art.1318 of Civil Code
c. Under Art.1319 of Civil Code
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81. Is a contract granting a person the privilege to buy or not to buy certain objects at anytime
within the agreed period at a fixed price
a. Option
b. Reserve
c. Promise
82. An example of mode of land disposal used by the DENR wherein this process is available ONLY
to native born Filipinos.
a. Free Patent
b. Public patent
c. Home patent
83. Who governed the land development activities?
a. Both national laws and local ordinances
b. National laws
c. Local laws
84. An agreement where only the SELLER shall execute the deed of absolute sale and will not be
signed by the buyer
a. Unilateral Deed of Sale
b. Bilateral deed of sale
c. Onerous deed of sale
85. The instrument of documentation and registration must contain a recital to show that such
corporation or association is legally qualified to acquire private lands.
a. If the grantee is a corporation or association
b. If the grantee is a private person or association
c. If the grantee is a foreigner or association
86. In case of juridical persons, such as corporations or partnerships, the document must contain
the following:
a. Capacity to buy land, Authority to buy and sell ,Authority to sign ,Principal Office
b. Capacity to lease land, Authority to buy and sell ,Authority to sign ,Principal Office
c. Capacity to mortgage land, Authority to buy and sell ,Authority to sign ,Principal Office
87. What is the role of the Department of Agriculture’s Integrated Protected Area System (IPAS)
a. To ensure food security and to maintain ecological balance.
b. To ensure food availability and to maintain ecological sustainability.
c. To ensure food scarcity and to maintain ecological imbalance balance.
88. Which of the following best explains the role of Administrative Code of 1987 (EO 292)?
a. Empowers the President to reserve for settlement or public use any of the lands of the
public or private domain.
b. Empowers the judge to reserve for settlement or public use any of the lands of the
public or private domain
c. Empowers the mayor to reserve for settlement or public use any of the lands of the
public or private domain
89. By virtue of PD 982 that disallowed the use of the Spanish title for titling and registration was no
longer in effect after what year?
a. August 16, 1976
b. August 26, 1972
c. September 26, 1972
90. Where to apply to get the original registration of title?
a. Regional Trial Courts
b. Municipal court
c. Supreme court
91. After how many days from the date of receipt of notice of the judgment, the jdugement shall
become final and executor?
a. 30 days
b. 60 days
c. 90 days
92. It refers to the purchase price or the price of the property agreed upon.
a. Consideration
b. Payment
c. Promise
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93. What is the type of attachment that is being issued after the final judgement ?
a. Levy on execution
b. Attachment
c. Lis pendens
94. Can banks and other institutions acquire title to lands subject of a mortgage right or interest ?
a. Yes
b. No
c. maybe
95. What type of power of attorney authorizes your Agent to act on your behalf in a variety of
different situations for administration and general supervision and management
a. General power of attorney
b. Special power of attorney
c. Specific power attorney
96. Is it true that the General power of attorney is for different situation while special power of
attorney is for specific situation?
a. Yes
b. No
c. Maybe
97. What will happen to the contract if there is consent but is vitiated such as error, fraud, or undue
influence, etc?
a. the contract is not VOID, but is merely VOIDABLE
b. the contract is not VOIDable, but is merely VOID
c. the contract is VOID, but is merely not VOIDABLE
98. RA 9700 refers to _____.
a. Comprehensive Agrarian Reform Program Extension with Reforms
b. Comprehensive Agrarian Reform Program
c. Comprehensive Agrarian Reform Program Extension
99. Which of the statements best explains Republic Act No. 7905?
a. An Act to Strengthen the Implementation of the Comprehensive Agrarian Reform
Program, and for Other Purposes. (1995) - Created & funded Office of Support Services
b. An Act to for Agrarian Reform Program, and for Other Purposes. (1995) - Created &
funded Office of Support Services
c. An Act for Comprehensive Agrarian Reform Program, and for Other Purposes. (1995) -
Created & funded Office of Support Services
100. Who is responsible for authorized to approve/ disapprove Conversions for lands exceeding 50
hectares?
a. DAR secretary
b. Director
c. Judge
101. How many percent of total agricultural land area which may be reclassified by LGU for highly
urbanized and independent component cities?
a. 15 %
b. 20%
c. 5%
102. After conducting appropriate public hearings, land conversion from agricultural to other uses is
effected through the power of ____
a. Reclassification of lands by local government units(with ordinance)
b. Memorandum order
c. Office order
103. Land use allocation activities are subject to the standard setting, review of, and conflict
resolution powers of the____
a. Housing and Land use Regulatory Board (HLURB)
b. NHA
c. DENR
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104. What must be contains in the decree of registration and original certificate of title (OCT) as
finally determined by the court?
a. description of the land
b. picture of the land
c. name of the land
105. It refers to the transfer of title or disposal of interest in property by voluntarily, completely and
actually depriving or dispossessing oneself of his right or title to it in favor of a person or persons
other than his spouse and relatives.
a. Divestment
b. Disposal
c. Deprivation
106. Under Republic Act 6713 the public officials and employees and their families shall lead modest
lives appropriate to their positions and income.
a. Simple living
b. Simple life
c. Simple life style
107. Refers to a system of annual incentives and rewards is hereby established in order to motivate
and inspire public servants to uphold the highest standards of ethics
a. System of Incentives and Rewards
b. Standard of Incentives and Rewards
c. System of Incentives and Awards
108. Lands of the public domain are classified into :
a. Agricultural ,forest or timber ,mineral lands and national parks
b. Agricultural ,forest or timber, commercial ,mineral lands and national parks
c. Agricultural ,forest or timber ,mineral lands and national parks, residential
109. The angle from the north or south whichever is nearest.
a. Bearing
b. Direction
c. Vertical Height
110. Refers to the surveys where the shape of the earth is taken into account in computing the
results.
a. Geodetic Surveys
b. Earth survey
c. Land survey
111. A line is the distance it extends north.
a. Latitude
b. Altitude
c. Longitude
112. The distance East is known as
a. Departure
b. East distance
c. Bearing
113. Public land subdivisions or Cadastral land surveys of municipalities, provinces and cities.
a. Surveying Method
b. Land survey
c. Provincial survey
114. Land Registration Office is also known as ___
a. Land Registration Authority
b. ROD
c. DENR
115. Imprisonment not exceeding five (5) years, or a fine not exceeding five thousand pesos
(P5,000), or both refers to punishment of ____
a. Violations of Sections 7, 8 or 9 of this Act.
b. Violations of Sections 1, 2 or 3 of this Act.
c. Violations of Sections 11, 12 or 13 of this Act.
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116. This Act is known as the "Code of Conduct and Ethical Standards for Public Officials and
Employees."
a. Republic act 6713
b. RA 9700
c. RA 8701
117. A notice of adverse claim annotated on a title is valid only for 30 days.
a. TRUE
b. False
c. It depends
118. All government agencies including departments, bureaus, offices, instrumentalities, or
government-owned and/or controlled corporations, or local government or district units shall
set up their respective service standards to be known as ____
a. Citizens charter
b. Service charter
c. Office charter
119. Refers to the written approval or disapproval made by a government office or agency on the
application or request submitted by a client for processing.
a. Action
b. Evaluation
c. Approval
120. Transaction that refer to requests or applications submitted by clients of a government office
which necessitate the use of discretion in the resolution of complicated issues by an officer or
employee of said government office, such transaction to be determined by the office concerned.
a. Complex
b. Simple
c. Compound
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REAL ESTATE BROKERAGE PRACTICE
1. Refers to a contract wherein a person binds himself to render some service on behalf of others.
a. Agency
b. Sales
c. Contract
2. Refers to the stock in trade or the property which a broker is authorized to sell.
a. Listing
b. List
c. Goods
3. A kind of listing, as to form, where it can be through vocal.
a. Verbal listing
b. Documented
c. Written
4. A brokerage is a firm that acts as an intermediary between ______.
a. a purchaser and a seller
b. buyer broker
c. seller and broker
5. Refers to the process of showing the property.
a. Presentation and Demonstration
b. Showing
c. Touring
6. Refers to a record of all important copies of all documents of transaction.
a. Report
b. Archiving
c. Recording
7. Generally, it is separate and distinct from the purchase price.
a. Earnest money
b. Option money
c. Cash
8. Refers to the consideration which is entrusted to the third party.
a. ESCROW
b. Deposit
c. Surrender
9. A real estate dealer is a principal.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
10. To have full knowledge of all facts and circumstances affecting the transaction refers to__
a. Right of the Principal
b. Right of the broker
c. Right of seller
11. The real estate broker must be ____ to the principal.
a. Loyal
b. Honest
c. Sincere
12. Refers to a listing agreement where sellers agree to list the property to only broker one broker.
a. Exclusive listing
b. Close listing
c. Open listing
13. Refers to the type of listing that can be given to more than two brokers
a. Open listing
b. Multiple listing
c. Double listing
14. Has both the willingness and the capacity to buy the property.
a. Prospect
b. Buyer
c. Owner
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15. Authority given by the owner of an income property for the broker to secure tenants.
a. Lease agency
b. Tenant agency
c. Landlord
16. Authority given by a borrower for the broker to secure financing.
a. Mortgage agency
b. Financing agency
c. Borrower agency
17. Broker entitled for a commission if he is the _____.
a. Procuring cause
b. Procuring entity
c. Procuring effect
18. Any person, natural or juridical, who is engaged in the trade of selling
a. Dealer
b. Broker
c. Buyer
19. Real estate broker as profession, real estate dealer as ______.
a. Business
b. Occupation
c. Job
20. Required to be a natural person.
a. Salesman
b. Broker
c. Buyer
21. Provision in a listing contract which entities the broker to commission even if the sale were
closed after the period of his authority
a. Hold over clause
b. Extension clause
c. Allowance clause
22. Professional fee is payable in full upon ____.
a. Consummation of the contract
b. Perfection of the contract
c. Achievement of the contract
23. The relation between one who reposes
confidence in another who acts as
his agent, based on trust and confidence
a. Fiduciary
b. Trustee
c. Administrator
24. The objective is to find and buy a specified property
a. Purchase agency
b. Finding agency
c. Buyer agency
25. Requirement that real estate agent disclose in writing the type of agency relationship to be
performed.
a. Agency disclosure
b. Open
c. Disclosing
26. The _____ for the sale of real estate is determined by agreement between principal and broker.
a. Commission
b. Profit
c. Rate
27. An agreement between an owner and a broker to sell a real estate.
a. Authority to sell
b. Listing
c. License to sell
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28. If the commission is 100,000 what is the price of the property if it sold and the commission rate
is 10%
a. 1,000,000.00
b. 1,200,000.00
29. If the commission is 100,000, the price of the property sold percentage listing and the
commission rate is 10%
30. One who is authorized by someone to act in his behalf under the power of attorney.
a. Attorney in fact
b. Agency
c. Proxy
31. One who is authorized to represent and to act on behalf of another person.
a. Agent
b. Proxy
c. Representative
32. Representing both buyer and seller in a single transaction.
a. Dual agency
b. Double agency
c. Neutral agency
33. An outside broker who joins with another broker in the sale of real property.
a. Cooperating broker
b. External broker
c. Support broker
34. One who is authorized to performed any and all acts associated with the continued operation of
a particular job or business.
a. General agent
b. Administrator agent
c. Managing agent
35. An agent authorized by principal to perform single act like procuring a buyer or finding a house.
a. Special agent
b. General agent
c. Buyer agent
36. The broker influence to turn prospective buyer into an actual owner.
a. Procuring cause
b. Introducer
c. Presentation
37. A clause contained in a listing that provides protection for the broker.
a. Protection clause
b. Protection disclosure
c. Limitation clause
38. The process of removing a tenant from possession of the premises for some breach of contract.
a. Eviction
b. Relocation
c. Expiration
39. Premise accepted by buyer in its existing condition at the time the property is bought with all
physical defects.
a. As is condition
b. Conditional buying
c. Limited buying
40. The transfer of the right or title in the property of assignor to assignee.
a. Assignment
b. Transfer
c. Succession
41. The equitable right to obtain ownership in a property whose legal title is actually in another
person’s name.
a. Equitable title
b. Foreclosure title
c. Substitute title
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42. One who stays on the leased premised after his lease has expired.
a. Hold over tenant
b. Extending tenant
c. Continuing tenant
43. A tenant that continues from period to period such as month to month.
a. Periodic tenant
b. Monthly tenant
c. Timely tenant
44. Money deposited by tenant to be held by landlord to remedy tenant default for damages or
failure to pay rent at the end of tenancy.
a. Security deposit
b. Future deposit
c. Advance deposit
45. A lease with fixed rent for an initial term and provision for predetermined increases at specified
interval.
a. Step up lease
b. Increasing lease
c. Upward lease
46. A estate that exist when tenant wrongfully remains after the expiration of a lease.
a. Tenancy at sufferance
b. Tenant at will
c. Illegal tenant
47. A tenant who hold possession by permission of the owner even without agreement.
a. Tenant at will
b. Legal tenant
c. Non agreement tenant
48. Tenancy that can be cancelled anytime by landlord or tenant.
a. Tenancy at will
b. Tenancy at sufferance
c. Free Tenancy
49. Replacing one party in an existing contract with a new player and releasing the first party of all
liability.
a. Novation
b. Proxy
c. Substitute
50. A promissory note evidencing a loan in which interest only payment made periodically and the
principal paid in one lump sum maturity.
a. Straight note
b. Promissory note
c. Interest note
51. The final payment of a note that is substantially larger than the previous payment and repay the
debt in full.
a. Balloon payment
b. Final payment
c. Full payment
52. A legal procedure whereby property used as security debt is sold to satisfy debt.
a. Foreclosure
b. Auction
c. Default
53. To pledge something as collateral without giving up possession.
a. Hypothecate
b. Pledge
c. Collateral
54. The part of the deed with words “to have and to hold”
a. Habendum clause
b. Limiting clause
c. Holding clause
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55. A legal document in which property is transferred to third party trustee as security for an
obligation.
a. Trust deed
b. Collateral
c. Warranty deed
56. A deed in which grantor warrant a good clear title to the premises.
a. Warrant deed
b. Trust deed
c. Guaranty deed
57. Refers to the land and all those items which are attached to the land.
a. Real Property
b. Real Estate
c. Realty
58. Performs his acts on behalf of another.
a. Broker
b. Appraiser
c. Dealer
59. Major requirements for a real estate broker.
a. Valid license as real estate broker
b. Paid Taxes
c. Attended Seminars
60. Refers to the legal contract between a property owner and a real estate broker.
a. Listing
b. Agreement
c. Deal
61. The process of reconciling the opposing views of the parties to the transaction.
a. Negotiation
b. Reconciliation
c. Forum
62. The amount accompanying an offer to purchase to show desire of the buyer to purchase.
a. Earnest money
b. Option money
c. Down payment
63. The objective of the agency is to find a buyer for the property.
a. Sales agency
b. Finders agency
c. Property agency
64. The system of combining all properties into a common list.
a. Multiple listing
b. Multi- listing
c. Poly-listing
65. The seller and broker agrees to a certain percentage of the selling price as commission
a. Percentage Listing
b. Net listing
c. Gross listing
66. The following are steps in closing a real estate transaction, except
a. Closing
b. Offering
c. Agreement
67. Refers to a potential buyer or costumer
a. Prospect
68. The broker can act as fiduciary.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
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69. Seller sets a minimum acceptable selling price.
a. Net Listing
b. Percentage listing
c. Gross listing
70. Its function is to find a lender and secure a loan for the principal.
a. Loan Agency
b. Lender agency
c. Principal agency
71. Finds a specified property in exchange for the principal’s property.
a. Exchanged Agency
b. Property agency
c. Finders agency
72. Agency to find and buys a specified property.
a. Purchased Agency
b. Buyers agency
c. Sellers agency
73. Refers the system of combining all properties offered into a common list and made available to
all broker participants.
a. Multiple listing
b. Net listing
c. Gross listing
74. A real estate broker engaged in any estate service practice without secure a licensed may be
subject to penalties.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
75. Refers to the trade of buying, selling, leasing and financing, developing real properties by real
estate dealer.
a. Real estate as Business
b. Real estate as profession
c. Real estate as job
76. Any person who earns profit from his investment.
a. Real estate dealer
b. Real estate buyer
c. Real estate manager
77. A person who has obtained either real estate salespersons license or real estate broker license.
a. Real estate agent
b. Real estate developer
c. Real estate manager
78. What is the best form of authority listing
a. Written
b. Verbal
c. Any of A and B
79. Refers to listing where only one broker is authorized t negotiate the sale.
a. Exclusive
b. Special
c. Authorized
80. Sources of listing could be through physical and internet search.
a. True
b. False
c. maybe
81. Employing a reputable brokerage firm generally means that the firm assumes liability for the
seller’s claims.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
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82. An authority granted by the owner to the broker to look for a buyer and negotiate the sale of
the property.
a. Sales agency
b. Buying agency
c. Dealing agency
83. An authority given by a party for the broker to look for joint venture partner.
a. Joint venture agency
b. Partner agency
c. Joint agency
84. One wherein the exclusive broker is entitled to commission even if the owner himself sells the
property.
a. Exclusive Right to Sell
b. Open right to sell
c. Special right to sell
85. Refers to the process where terms and conditions were accepted by both parties.
a. Closing
b. Offering
c. Negotiating
86. The advantage of multiple listing is that the property is better advertised to more brokers at the
soonest time possible.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
87. Date that must be included in the listing agreement.
a. Both b and c
b. Beginning
c. Ending
88. A firm that conduct transactions on behalf of the client.
a. Brokerage firm
b. Agent firm
c. Real estate firm
89. The real estate broker must register with the _____ if he or she sells subdivision lots or
condominium units.
a. HLURB
b. NHA
c. DENR
90. Guide costumers to the process of selecting suitable mortgage package with competitive
package offers.
a. Mortgage broker
b. Property broker
c. Sellers broker
91. Assists individual or firms to trade in the foreign exchange market
a. Forex broker
b. Property broker
c. Real estate broker
92. Refers to a source of contracts of insurance on behalf of their costumers
a. Insurance broker
b. Referral broker
c. Contract broker
93. A real estate dealer is known as a _____ while the broker as agent.
a. Principal
b. Agency
c. Owner
94. A broker receive a ____ all negotiation.
a. Commission
b. Profit
c. Tip
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95. The real estate broker is required to file a bond worth ___.
a. P20,000.00
b. 25,000.00
c. 30,000.00
96. Works under the supervision of the broker or acts on behalf of his employer.
a. Real estate Salesman
b. Sub broker
c. Sub seller
97. The business of making sales and purchases for a commission.
a. Brokerage
b. Buy and sell
c. Business
98. Once the ______ successfully finds a buyer, then he/she receives a commission for his/her
service.
a. Broker
b. Appraiser
c. Dealer
99. Collect personal information about the client for the lender including employment and medical
history.
a. Broker
b. Appraiser
c. Dealer
100. In other areas of business, _______ firms may be employed to acquire and sell real estate.
a. Brokerage
b. Corporation
c. Business
101. Broker or dealer shall deal in or otherwise buy or sell, for its own account or for the account of
customers.
a. Broker only
b. Dealer only
c. Both are prohibited
102. In cases of charges against a salesman or associated person, notice shall also be given the
broker or other associated person.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
103. No ____ shall employ any salesman, who is not registered as such with the Commission.
a. Broker
b. Business
c. Corporation
104. The principal has the right to employ other broker.
a. Open listing
b. Close listing
c. Multi listing
105. The one who protect the interest of the principal.
a. Broker
b. Appraiser
c. buyer
106. Who is liable for all acts of his agents?
a. Principal
b. Middleman
c. Agent
107. A real estate salesperson must pass a licensure exam.

a. False
b. True
c. Maybe
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108. Pays the commission on property being sold.
a. Owner
b. Buyer
c. Government
109. The ______ is the one who receive commission on property being sold.
a. Broker
b. Cashier
c. seller
110. The sharing of commission may vary, depend on both co-brokers agreement.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
90
REAL ESTATE FINANCE AND ECONOMICS
1. Basically a result of the interplay of supply and demand of a certain product, such as real
estate housing.
a. Price
b. Area
c. Construction
2. Another element which affects the movement of real estate
a. statement b and c
b. the availability financing, both for the production side or the developers
c. the demand side which is the buying market
3. Involves generally the acquisition of property through loan financing sources
a. Real Estate Financing
b. Real Estate Service Practice
c. Real Estate Economics
4. The application of economic techniques to real estate markets.
a. Real estate economics
b. Real Estate Financing
c. Real Estate Service Practice
5. Simply means the effect of one aspect of the economy with the other economic activities.
a. Multiplier effect of Real estate
b. Binding effect
c. Repulsion effect
6. If a corporation builds a factory, it will employ construction workers and their suppliers as
well as those who work in the factory. The statement best explains ____.
a. an effect in Economics
b. an effect in Society
c. an effect in Macroeconomics
7. Real estate Economics tries to describe, explain, and predict patterns of___
a. prices, supply, and demand
b. prices, income , and demand
c. prices, consumer , and demand
8. In the case where there are more buyers than sellers, then it is considered a seller’s market as
there are fewer real properties available vis-à-vis a higher demand for it. In this case,
a. the movement of prices will tend to go up because of the higher demand
b. the movement of prices will tend to go down because of the higher demand.
c. the movement of supply will tend to go up because of the higher demand
9. The price of real estate has a tendency to go down in view of the excess in supply vs. the
actual demand of the market, is normally referred to as
a. Buyers Market
b. Suppliers Market
c. Wet Market
10. Real estate financing involves generally the acquisition of property through loan financing
sources, which may be sourced from the following ,except
a. Pilfering from Relatives/Friends
b. Bank Financing and lending companies
c. Assumption of Loan/Mortgages and Government Financing
11. The movement of prices will tend to go up because of the higher demand.
a. Sellers Market
b. Public market
c. Buyers Market
12. Refers to the total quantity of goods and services that the nations businesses willingly
produce and sell in the given period.
a. Aggregate Supply
b. Consumption
c. Investment
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13. Which occurs because a good becomes relatively more expensive when its price rises?
a. Substitution effect
b. Market demand
c. Income effect
14. A key determinant of demand
a. Size of the market
b. Special Influences
c. Average Income
15. When the price of a commodity is raised, buyers tend to buy less of commodity.
a. Law of downward –sloping demand
b. Law of Demand
c. Law of Supply
16. When there are changes in factors other than a good’s own price which affect the quantity
purchased, we call these changes _____.
a. Shifts in Demand
b. Shifts in Supply
c. Shifts in Income
17. If demand rises ,the demand curve shifts to the____.
a. Right
b. Left
c. center
18. If supply falls ,the supply curve shifts to the left, and __.
a. Price rises and quantity goes down
b. Price rises and quantity goes down
c. Price falls and quantity goes down
19. The price at which quantity demanded equals quantity supplied.
a. Market equilibrium
b. Demand curve
c. Shifts in Supply
20. The equilibrium price is also called ___.
a. Market –clearing price
b. Equilibrium cost
c. Increased supply
21. Shifts in the supply and demand curves change the___.
a. Equilibrium price and quantity
b. Equilibrium price and demand
c. Equilibrium price and supply
22. An increased in supply ,which shifts the supply curve to the right ,will
a. Decrease price and increase quantity demanded
b. Increase price and increase quantity demanded
c. Decrease price and decrease quantity demand
23. Quantity supplied generally responds positively to price ,so the supply curve is ___.
a. Upward-sloping
b. Downward-sloping
c. No slope
24. The spirit of unity, harmony, camaraderie, cooperation and professional relationship among
the practitioners is essential, and shall be promoted under _____.
a. The principle of solidarity
b. Standards of the practice
c. Government authorities
25. Net revenues, or the difference between total sales and total costs.
a. Profits
b. Price
c. Demand
26. The change in revenue that is generated by an additional unit of sales .
a. Marginal revenue
b. Total revenue
c. Average revenue
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27. Important kinds of market structures are ___.
a. Monopoly , oligopoly, monopolistic and perfect competition .
b. Monopolistic competition and perfect competiton
c. oligopoly, monopolistic and perfect competition
28. The pag-ibig maximum loan amount.
a. P3 Million
b. P1 Million
c. P6 Million
29. Pagibig Principal borrower’s age shall not exceed ___.
a. 70 years old at date of loan maturity
b. 48 years old at date of loan maturity
c. 55 years old at date of loan maturity
30. Penalty of the amount due for everyday of delay of pag-ibig loan.
a. 1/20 of 1%
b. 1/20 of 2%
c. 1/20 of 5%
31. The primary asset of modern commercial banks, accounting for nearly two thirds of assets.
a. Loans
b. Securities
c. Funds
32. Government credit agencies that provide loans directly for farmers and home mortgagors.
a. Government-sponsored enterprises
b. Finance companies
c. Securities firm
33. Take deposits and make loans; they are what most people think of as bank.
a. Depository Institutions
b. Insurance Company
c. Pension Funds
34. Listed are the different depository institutions except
a. Insurance companies
b. Commercial banks
c. Saving banks
35. A financial institution that include brokers, investment banks, under writers and mutual fund
companies.
a. Securities firms
b. Pension funds
c. Saving banks
36. Issue stocks and bonds to the corporate customers, trade them, and advise costumers.
a. Brokers and investment banks
b. Real estate
c. Mutual fund companies
37. The structure of the financial industry that includes insurance companies, securities firms,
and mutual fund companies and pension funds.
a. Financial Institutions
b. Depository Institutions
c. Nondepository institutions
38. Which of the statement is not correct
a. Not all securities firms are very much in the business of producing information
b. Finance companies are in the lending business.
c. Brokers also provide loans to the customers
39. The shares of stock of the REIT must be registered with the Commission and listed in
accordance with the rules of the Exchange.
a. Registration and Listing
b. Investment in the REIT
c. Nationality Requirement
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40. Income payment to a REIT shall be subject to a lower creditable withholding tax of 1%.
a. Creditable Withholding Tax
b. Income Taxation of REIT
c. Transfer of Real Property
41. Which of the following does not describe the loans purpose
a. Analyzes financial and economic conditions ,both domestic and international
b. Refinancing of an existing mortgage, specifically a lot loan, with house construction
c. Purchase of a residential house and lot, townhouse or condominium unit
42. Which of the following statement is not true about policy declaration
a. Use the capital market as an instrument to help finance only
b. Promote the development of the capital market;
c. Democratize wealth by broadening the participation of Filipinos in the ownership of real
estate in the Philippines
43. Basic borrower eligibility requirements
a. Not more than 65 years old upon filing, not more than 70 years old upon loan maturity
b. Not more than 65 years old upon filing, not more than 80 years old upon loan maturity
c. more than 65 years old upon filing, not more than 70 years old upon loan maturity
44. Which statement is true
a. Maximum of three qualified pag ibig members may be tacked into a single loan
b. Maximum of two qualified pag ibig members may be tacked into a single loan
c. Maximum of five qualified pag ibig members may be tacked into a single loan
45. Loans over P400 to P3M maybe subject to repricing
a. Every 3 years but not to exceed 2% from the original rate
b. Every 2 years but not to exceed 2% from the original rate
c. Every 4 years but not to exceed 2% from the original rate
46. What is the maximum loan term
a. 30 years
b. 20 years
c. 50 years
47. Failure to pay 3 consecutive monthly amortizations and/or membership contributions.
a. Default
b. Redemption
c. Inflation
48. Refinancing loan 5% of the loan amount retained to ensure cancellation of mortgage/s
prior to PAG-IBIG Fund is referred to
a. Retail Accounts
b. Real Interest Rate
c. Investment
49. Which of the statement is not true
a. Borrower will start the 3 construction if the total cost is lower than the approval loan
b. Borrower will start the 3 construction if the total cost is higher than the approval loan
c. Borrower to request inspection prior to every release of loan proceeds
50. A REIT that owns land located in the Philippines must comply with the foreign ownership
limitations imposed under the Philippine law.
a. Nationality Requirement
b. Registration and Listing
c. Investment in the REIT
51. A REIT must have a minimum paid-up capital of P300,000,000.00.
a. Capitalization
b. Profit
c. Finance
52. Provides and sets of a domino effect on other economic activities which can be referred to
the “multiplier effect of real estate”.
a. The housing or real estate sector
b. Real Estate Finance
c. Real Estate Economics
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53. In pag-ibig, the six months interim insurance and 2k processing fee is referred to as .
a. Deductions on the first loan release
b. Deductions on final loan releases
c. Deductions on prospective loan releases
54. Must have at least 2 years repayment history with current bank/institution
a. Refinancing
b. Capitalization
c. Insurance
55. In REIT, A fine of not less than P200,000 nor more than P5,000,000.00 or imprisonment of
not less than 6 years and 1 day nor more than 21 years referred as
a. Penal Provision
b. Penalty
c. Imprisonment
56. It is said that for every P1 million invested in housing it is translated to P16.6 million of
economic housing activity in the country
a. True
b. Maybe
c. False
57. Pag-ibig loan charges and deductions processing fee.
a. P3,000.00
b. P2,000.00
c. P4,000.00
58. To be deducted from the loan proceeds
a. Interim Mortgage Redemption Insurance
b. One year prepayment insurances
c. Retail Accounts
59. Is a stock corporation established in accordance with the Corporation Code of the
Philippines and the rules and regulations promulgated by the Commission principally for the
purpose of owning income-generating real estate assets.
a. Real Estate Investment Trust
b. Investment in the REIT
c. Nationality Requirement
60. Deductions on the first loan release:
a. 6 months interim insurance and 2k processing fee
b. 2 months interim insurance and 2k processing fee
c. 3 months interim insurance and 2k processing fee
61. The 1st release of loan is based on lot value or 40% of the approved loan whichever is lower
a. Incorrect
b. Correct
c. Statement a and B
62. Refinancing must have how many years for repayment history with current bank/institution
a. at least 2 years
b. at least half year
c. at least 4 years
63. Interim interest and advance one year insurances.
a. Deductions on final loan releases
b. Deductions on first loan releases
c. Deductions on second loan releases
64. NOT ALLOWED for Pag-IBIG Housing Loan
a. Less than 28 sqm. Lot area
b. Less than 30 sqm. Lot area
c. Less than 50 sqm. Lot area
65. Married individuals not legally separated and cannot secure marital consent or Special
Power of Attorney (SPA) from spouse is allowed for Pag ibig housing.
a. No
b. Yes
c. Maybe
95
66. Revenues will increase when price
a. Decreases
b. Increases
c. Unchanged
67. Percentage change in quantity demanded greater than percentage change in price.
a. Elastic demand
b. Inelastic demand
c. Unit elastic demand
68. The percentage change in quantity supplied divided by the percentage change in price .
a. Price elasticity of supply
b. Price elasticity
c. Price elasticity of demand
69. Is by definition equal to price times quantity (PxQ)
a. Total Revenue
b. Total Sales
c. Total Income
70. Properties with “Rights” instead of “Title” as proof of ownership.
a. NOT ALLOWED for Pag-IBIG Housing Loan
b. Maybe ALLOWED for Pag-IBIG Housing Loan
c. ALLOWED for Pag-IBIG Housing Loan
71. When demand is price inelastic ,a price decrease and makes the total revenue
a. Reduces
b. Unchanged
c. Increases
72. The practice of charging different prices for the same service to different customers
a. Price Discrimination
b. Price
c. Price Elasticity
73. We mean the ultimate economic effect of a tax on the real incomes of producers and
consumers by
a. Incidence
b. Choice
c. Random
74. A tax is shifted forward to consumers if the demand is inelastic relative to supply
a. The statement is correct
b. The statement is not true
c. Statement A & B is correct
75. Whether or not the country provides equal health care for all its residents ,health care must
be rationed because ___.
a. Supply is limited
b. Supply is available
c. Public goods is needed
76. Takes large individual risks and spreads them so broadly that they become acceptable to a
large number of individuals
a. Insurance
b. Loans
c. Banks
77. Is the largest insurance program

a. Health care
b. Social
c. Educational
78. Refers to the flow of wages ,interest payments ,dividends ,and other things of value
accruing during a period of time .
a. Income
b. Salary
c. Status
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79. The earnings in the market economy are distributed to the owners of the economy’s factors
of production in the form of :
a. Wages ,profit, rent , and interest
b. National income corporate profits and rental income
c. National income ,salaries and labor income
80. The largest source of wages ,rents and interest payment at every level form
a. Government
b. Bank
c. International income
81. It tries to describe, explain, and predict patterns of prices , demand and supply
a. Real Estate Market Economy
b. Real Estate economics
c. Real Estate
82. Real Estate Investment Trust Act of 2009
(R.A. no. 9856)
a. An act providing the legal framework for real estate investment trust and for other
purposes
b. An act Providing areas and facilities
c. An act for maintenance and insurance policies,including power to enforce the provision
of declarations of restrictions
83. Use as an instrument to help finance and develop infrastructure projects
a. Capital Market
b. Economic Market
c. Community
84. What is the interest rate if the pag-ibig loan amount is over P2M-P3.0M ?
a. 11.5%
b. 12%
c. 10%
85. Income payment to a REIT shall be subject to a lower creditable withholding tax of
a. 1%
b. 0.5%
c. 25%
86. Based on Pag-IBIG Membership Contribution if you have loan entitlement up to 500,000
,how much is the Monthly Contribution?
a. 200
b. 350
c. 250
87. The sale or transfer of real property to REITs, which includes the sale or transfer of any and
all security interest thereto, shall be subject to 50% of the applicable DST.
a. True
b. False
88. To carry out the purposes of this Act the Commission shall retain and use 50% of all fees
paid to it, relative to the establishment of REITs and the registration of their securities to
annual budget.
a. Use of Registration Fees
b. Registration
c. Transfer of Real Property
89. A very important formula for the computation involving real estate financing is:
MONTHLY AMORTIZATION [ M A ] = Principal to be financed x Amortization Factor
a. True
b. False
c. Both A and B
90. Refinancing must have at least 2 years repayment history with current bank/institution
a. True
b. False ,at least 3 yrs
c. False , at least 4 yrs
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91. In refinancing latest one year amortization must reflect default is true
a. No ,must not reflect default
b. Yes
c. A & B is correct
92. Based on the Pag-ibig membership Contribution if the loan entitlement over P1.7 M to 1.8
M ,what will be the monthly contribution ?
a. 850
b. 950
c. 700
93. Retail and Developer Accounts with Transferred Titles Under Borrower’s Name (REM
Accounts) referred as
a. Effects of default
b. Effects of sales
c. Effects of loan
94. To be paid upon filing of pag-ibig Housing Loan Application, non-refundable
a. 1,000.00
b. 10,000.00
c. 2,000.00
95. To be deducted from the loan proceeds of pag-ibig loan

a. 2,000.00
b. 3,000.00
c. 4,000.00
96. The loan amount retained to ensure cancellation of mortgage/s prior to PAG-IBIG Fund.
a. 5%
b. 2%
c. 3%
97. Loan charges and deduction Processing Fee of pag-ibig
a. P3,000.00
b. P1,000.00
c. P2,000.00
98. Loan purpose is Refinancing of an existing mortgage with home improvement
a. Yes
b. No
c. Maybe
99. For something to have value, it must first have ____.
a. Utility
b. Scarce
c. Demand
100. Even if a thing has utility, it will not have value if it is overabundant.
a. Scarcity
b. Demand
c. Market
101. Number of contribution inorder that a borrower elible for pag-ibig loan.
a. 24
b. 12
c. 48
102. Not more than ______ years old at the date of loan application and must be insurable;
provided further, that he is not more than seventy (70) years old at loan maturity.
a. 65
b. 70
c. 75
103. Pag-ibig monthly repayment shall not exceed ___________ of the borrowers gross
monthly income for loans not exceeding P1,250,000.
a. 35%
b. 30%
c. 25%
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104. The pag-big ratio of the loan amount to the appraisal value of the collateral up to
1,250,000.00
a. 90%
b. 80%
c. 50%
105. REIT act of 2009
a. RA 9856
b. RA 9756
c. RA 9586
106. REIT distribute at least _____ of its distributable income as dividend.
a. 90%
b. 80%
c. 50%
107. Minimum total stock public ownership of shareholders in REIT

a. 50,000 shares
b. 1,000 shares
c. 5,000 shares
108. Refers to a professional administrator of real properties who is engaged by the REIT to
provide property management services and lease management services.
a. Property Manager
b. Property owner
c. Property administrator
109. Refer to funds of the REIT that can be placed in investment vehicles other than income
generating real estate
a. Investible Funds
b. Investment fund
c. Investors fund
110. Means a corporation that directly or indirectly, through one or more intermediaries, is
controlled by, or is under the common control of another corporation, which thereby
becomes its parent corporation.
a. Affiliate
b. Subsidiary
c. intermediary
99
URBAN AND LAND USE
1. Refers to the proper administration and efficient management of our land resource for the
general welfare of the public
a. Land Governance
b. Land Administration
c. Land Survey
2. What is the term refers to the reference monument, like BLLM or BBM, where the corner no. 1 of
the lot is connected
a. Tie Point
b. Tie Line
c. Distance
3. What percent of total agricultural land area which may be reclassified by LGU for highly urbanized
and independent component cities
a. 15%
b. 20%
c. 10%
4. Who is authorized to approve/ disapprove Conversions for lands exceeding 50 hectares?
a. DAR Secretary
b. Regional Director
c. Both A & B
5. Refers to acquisition were land values are determined based on land classification, market value
and assessed value taken from existing tax declarations.
a. Land swapping
b. Land titling
c. Land survey
6. To increase the pool of land resources the Urban Development and Housing act 1992 must
provide modes of acquiring lands.
a. True
b. False
7. An acquisition of land at values based on existing use and socialized housing programs.
a. Land Banking
b. Land swapping
c. Land Survey
8. What is an act that issues leases over public lands to corporations?
a. The Public Land Act
b. People Rights Act
c. Corporation Act
9. The Local Government Code of 1991 shall have a comprehensive of only one sectoral
development plan
a. False, must have multi -sectoral development plan
b. False,
c. True
10. Refers to the rational and judicious approach of allocating available land resources to different
land using activities
a. Land Planning
b. Land Survey
c. Land Banking
11. Refers to embodying specific proposals for guiding, regulating growth and development of a
city or municipality
a. Comprehensive Land Use Plan (CLUP)
b. Land Use Policy Administration
c. Land Sub-Classification
12. The power to zone is derived from the __
a. Police Power of the State
b. Power of Attorney
c. LGU
100
13. It prescribes standards on sanitation and safety of establishments and undertakings
a. The Sanitation Code
b. Environmental Law
c. Health Law
14. What code provides a framework of minimum standards and requirements to regulate and
control their location, site, design, quality of materials, construction, use, occupancy and
maintenance for all buildings and structures.
a. National Building Code
b. Zoning
c. Building law
15. Refer to a group of people or homogenous societies identified under Republic Act No. 8371.
a. Indigenous cultural communities /Indigenous peoples
b. Native
c. Local settlers
16. Presidential Decree No. 1067, otherwise known as __.
a. the "Water Code of the Philippines";
b. IPRA
c. RA 98700
17. Refer to lands where mineral including energy resources are found.
a. Mineral land
b. Resources
c. Energy resources
18. Refers to a private, non-profit voluntary organization that is committed to the task of political,
socio-economic, physical, cultural and environmental development
a. Non government organization
b. Private organization
c. Developer
19. The place where the lot is situated.

a. Location
b. Site
c. Place
20. Refers to areas frequently visited and or prone to experience natural calamities.
a. Disaster Prone area
b. Critical areas
c. Dangerous area
21. What makes the lot or survey number unique?
a. No duplicate
b. Numbered
c. Coded
22. Amount of square meters enclosed in the closed figure/polygon.
a. Area
b. Square
c. Size
23. The determination of the real ownership on the land
a. Land title
b. Land ownership
c. Land holding
24. A scheme whereby a group of homeowners occupying a contiguous parcel of land.
a. Neighborhood Ownership
b. Township
c. Barangay
25. Refers to a grant of residential land within an urban land reform zone made by the state.
a. Residential freehold
b. Free patent
c. Free land
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26. Refers to a disposition technique which will enable occupants of government-owned land to
exercise ownership over occupants?
a. Tenure in improvement
b. Permanent occupation
c. Grant
27. Which have a population density of at least 1000persons per square kilometer
a. Urban lands
b. Rural land
c. City
28. What is the requirement for every development, use or change and construction on land within
the urban zone?
a. Development Use Permit
b. Building Permit
c. Construction permit
29. Their function is to assist the Ministry in the exercise of its power of eminent domain?
a. Urban zone committee
b. Urban zone group
c. Zonal committee
30. A type of land tenure that also known as fee simple or freehold?
a. Absolute ownership
b. Ownership
c. Leasehold
31. It describes the land where possession or occupation is without rental?
a. Usufruct
b. Free occupant
c. Free land
32. How many percent of the total land can be reclassified by the LGU for the 4th and 6th class
municipalities?
a. 5%
b. 3%
c. 4%
33. Refers to the technical measurements of the directions and distances from one corner to the
other?
a. Bearing and distances
b. Distance
c. Bearing
34. Refers to the general definition of lot boundaries?
a. Textual description
b. Boundary description
c. Lot boundary
35. A kind of draft that shows the arrows pointing to a particular direction?
a. Maps or survey plans
b. Compass
c. Elevation
36. What is the method used to determine direction using your bare foot?
a. Pacing
b. Walking
c. Running
37. It refers to the method of knowing your direction using your bare hands?
a. Fingering
b. Pointing
c. Handling
38. Refers to the study of population characteristics?
a. Demography
b. Statistic
c. PopEd
102
39. The determination of the real ownership on the land.
a. Land titling
b. Land ownership
c. Land survey
40. What kind of arrangement provides sharing of management responsibilities according to equity
contribution?
a. Joint venture
b. Partnership
c. Corporation
41. Refers to the rightful occupants of residential land and structure?
a. Tenants
b. Occupier
c. Owner
42. Who will provide the Ministry with cadastral maps and other important information needed in
the Development Registry?
a. Bureau of Land and Land Registration commission
b. Bureau of land survey
c. DENR
43. Which have a population density of at least 500 persons per square kilometer?
a. Poblacions or Central districts of municipalities or Cites
b. Town
c. Rural
44. Refers to the areas where the structures are dilapidated obsolete and unsanitary
a. Blighted areas
b. Old areas
c. Abandoned areas
45. The value of improvements shall not be less than fifty percent (50%) of the assessed value of the
property.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
46. The process of land acquisition by exchanging land for another piece of land of equal value.
a. Land swapping
b. Exchanging
c. Barter
47. A program upgrading and improving blighted squatter areas
a. Slum Improvement and resettlement Program
b. NHA
c. HMDF
48. The residential land of property owners in urbanized cities?
a. Not exceeding 300 sq. meters
b. 400 sqm
c. 500 sqm
49. Refers to lands which are not registered with the Register of Deeds
a. Unregistered or abandoned land
b. Idle land
c. Open land
50. An act otherwise known as the Comprehensive Agrarian Reform Law
a. Republic Act No. 6657
b. RA 9700
c. RA 5667
51. Refer to the comprehensive plan for urban and urbanizable areas aimed at achieving the
objectives
a. Housing framework
b. Urban framework
c. Planning framework
103
52. An inventory of lands must be updated every after how many years?
a. Three (3)years
b. 2 years
c. 4 years
53. Who will give budgetary priority to on-site development of government lands?
a. Local government units
b. National
c. Agencies
54. The only land that can be titled is called ____.
a. Agricultural lands
b. Forest
c. Shorelines
55. Forest or timber, foreshore lands, fishponds parks are some lands that can be titled.
a. False
b. True
c. Maybe
56. The primary strategy in providing shelter for the underprivileged and homeless.
a. Socialized housing
b. Special housing
c. Poor housing
57. The pre-emptive right of the tenant or resident to buy the leased premises sold by the owner
a. Right of First Refusal
b. Privileged
c. Reserve
58. Right of the tenant or resident to waive of first refusal through sworn statement.
a. Waiver of Right
b. Giveway
c. Surrender
59. Sufficient and affordable food for all.
a. Food security
b. Food supply
c. Food production
60. Refers to non-agricultural lands in urban areas with no improvement.
a. Idle lands
b. Unimproved land
c. Undeveloped land
61. Refers to the acquisition of lands at values based on existing use in advanced of actual need to
promote plan development and socialized housing program.
a. Land banking
b. Consolidation
c. Accumulation
62. Refers to groups/individual who occupies the lands without the consent of the owner?
a. Professional squatters
b. Illegal entry
c. Illegal occupant
63. Generally owned the ancestral domains?
a. Indigenous peoples
b. People
c. National
64. Refers to lands where naturally occurring energy resources exist.
a. Energy resources lands
b. Power plant
c. Energy production
65. Land areas frequently visited calamities.
a. Environmentally critical areas.
b. Dangerous prone area
c. Landslide areas
104
66. Refers s to permanent collection of building and inhabitants
a. Settlement
b. Residence
c. Dwelling
67. What are the systems to acquire land titles?
a. Administrative and Judicial
b. Squatting
c. Buying
68. It consists of the zoning and subdivision regulations and other enforcement guidelines.
a. Development regulations
b. Building regulation
c. Enforcement regulation
69. Who are qualified beneficiaries for socialized housing program?
a. Filipino citizen
b. Foreigner
c. Alien
70. How many percent from the annual net income of the public estate authority must be given to
the National Housing Authority?
a. 50%
b. 60%
c. 70%
71. Refers to a program that assists the homeless individual to own the lots occupy.
a. Community Mortgage Program
b. Land for homeless program
c. Socialized housing program
72. Refers to the legitimate lessees of houses.
a. Residents
b. Owner
c. Occupants
73. Method for collecting means from different sectors for specific purposes.
a. Funding
b. Taxation
c. Gift
74. Refers to the land of public domain which has been delineated.
a. Alienable and disposable land
b. Special land
c. Free land
75. What area shall be used for relocation for homeless and underprivileged?
a. Resettlement sites
b. Relocation sites
c. Transfer sites
76. Refers to the real estate service for maintaining the value of the natural resources.
a. Conserving
b. Sustaining
c. Preserving
77. Refers to the area that is known for its unique visitor’s attributes and activities.
a. Tourist spot
b. Special spot
c. Tourist area
78. Distribution limit per child.
a. 3 hectares
b. 4 hectares
c. 5 hectares
79. The degree of protection afforded to qualified programs beneficiaries against unjust.
a. Security Of Tenure
b. Security of occupation
c. Security of ownership
105
80. Which of the following best illustrates the meaning of PTA?
a. Philippine Tourism Authority
b. Parent Teacher Associate
c. Philippine tourist attraction
81. Establishment of miniforest for the improvement of the environment in the urban areas.
a. Urban forestry
b. City forest
c. Urban trees
82. Aims to determine efficient and equitable manner of developing and managing land for
productive purposes.
a. Production Land Use
b. Development
c. Improvement
83. The highest policy making body on land use and final arbitrator on land use conflicts between or
among agencies, branches, or levels of the government
a. Land Use Policy Administration (LUPA)
b. NHA
c. DENR
84. The LUPA executive boards shall be composed of how many members.
a. 15
b. 10
c. 8
85. Have the right to act as the executive head of the LUPA and Secretary of the Board and perform
the powers and function.
a. Administrator
b. Manager
c. supervisor
86. Administrator must have a background of development and planning for at least how many
years.
a. 5years
b. 10years
c. 15 years
87. Who will appoint the Administrator for LUPA board?
a. President of the Philippines
b. Senate
c. Congress
88. Who files the petition for cadastral hearing.
a. Director of lands
b. Judge
c. ROD
89. Refers o a program that will outline areas in the Philippines which are prone to liquefaction and
other natural hazards.
a. National Geo-hazard Mapping Program
b. Critical mapping
c. Dangerous mapping
90. Constitutionally directed to legislate the limits and boundaries on the ground of forest lands and
national parks.
a. Legislative body
b. LGU
c. Mayor
91. Land ownership is a _____.
a. Privilege
b. Right
c. Hereditary
92. The act of specifying how agricultural lands shall be utilized for non-agricultural uses.
a. Reclassification
b. Conversion
c. Development
106
93. The undertaking of any development activity which modifies or alters the physical characteristics
of agricultural lands to render them suitable for non-agricultural purposes.
a. Conversion
b. Classification
c. Development
94. Authorized to approved coversion of land above 50 hectare.
a. DAR secretary
b. Regional Director
c. President
95. Authorized to approved coversion of land less than 5 hectare.
a. Regional Director
b. Secretary
c. President
96. Authorized to approved coversion of land more than 5 hectare but less than 50 hectare.
a. DAR undersecretary
b. DAR secretary
c. Regional director
97. Forest reform code
a. RA 705
b. RA 975
c. RA 795
98. Directed for the formulation of the municipal development plan, with the assistance of the
municipal development council, and upon approval thereof by the sangguniang bayan.
a. Mayor
b. Vice mayor
c. Sanggunian
99. Rationale approach of allocating available land resources as equitably as possible among
competing user groups and for different functions consistent with the development plan of the
area and the program under this Act.
a. Land use plan
b. Land development
c. Land improvement
100. Mandated the city or municipal development council (CDC/MDC) to initiate the formulation or
updating of its land use plan, in consultation with the concerned sectors in the community.
a. EO 72
b. EO 71
c. EO 70
101. UDHA refers to
a. RA 7279
b. RA 7972
c. RA 2779
102. Establishing Priorities and Procedures in Evaluating Areas for Land Conversion in Regional
Agricultural/Industrial Centers, Tourism Development Areas Sites for Socialized Housing
a. EO 124
b. EO 125
c. EO 126
103. A document embodying specific proposals for guiding, regulating growth and development of a
city or municipality.
a. CLUP
b. Plan
c. Development plan
104. The power to zone is derived from the
a. police power of the state
b. eminent domain
c. taxation
107
105. Developers of proposed subdivision projects shall be required to develop an area for socialized
housing equivalent to at least _______ of the total subdivision area.
a. 20%
b. 10%
c. 30%
106. Professional squatters or members of squatting syndicates shall be imposed the penalty.
a. 6 years imprisonment
b. 5 years imprisonment
c. 3 years imprisonment
107. (1) Notice upon the effected persons or entities at least _______days prior to the date of
eviction or demolition.
a. 30 days
b. 45 days
c. 60 days
108. Under CARP the retention limit of owner of land.
a. 5 hectare
b. 6 hectares
c. 3 hectares
109. Retention limit of every son of owner
a. 3 hectares
b. 2 hectares
c. 1 hectare
110. Retention limit of a corporation
a. 1,000 hectares
b. 500 hectares
c. 800 hectares
111. Retention limit of legally married couple.
a. 5 hectare
b. 10 hectare
112. Land areas belonging to IPs.
a. Ancestral domains
b. Native land
c. Forest land
113. Refers to a band of dry land and the adjacent ocean space (water and submerged land) in
which terrestrial processes and uses directly affect oceanic processes and uses, and vice versa.
a. Coastal areas
b. Shorelines
c. Seaside
114. Refers to a watershed supporting existing and proposed hydro-electric power and irrigation
works needing immediate rehabilitation as it is being subjected to fast denudation causing
accelerated erosion and destructive flood.
a. Watershed
b. Power plant river
c. River
115. Refers to a document that defines the activities or measures that the national government or
local government units (LGU’s) intend to implement in order to achieve a defined set of
development goals.
a. Development plan
b. Improvement plan
c. Plan
116. Refers to lands within the critical watershed, brackish and freshwater wetlands, pasture lands,
and croplands which require rehabilitation and whose continued unsustainable use would
adversely affect the productivity of lowland agricultural areas and the stability of the upland
system.
a. Ecologically fragile land
b. Critical land
c. Dangerous land
108
117. Refers to the policy objective of meeting the food requirements through intensive local food
production in a sustainable manner based on the country's existing and potential resource
endowments and related production advantages.
a. Food self sufficiency
b. Food security
c. Food sustenance
118. Refer to nature and man-induced geological processes that have potential to cause destruction
and pose a threat or risk to human life and property.
a. Geohazards
b. Dangerous prone
c. Critical prone areas
119. Refers to the development objective of meeting the needs of the present generation without
compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs consistent with the
principles of social equity, efficiency, and environmental integrity.
a. Sustainable development
b. Sustainability
c. Sufficiency
120. Refer to specific sites for tourism development located in areas identified as priorities in the
national and regional tourism master plans as well as those designated through legislative and
executive issuances as tourist spots and tourist zones which can be developed into tourism
estates or integrated resort, leisure, and recreation complexes, and other tourism related
facilities.
a. Tourism development areas
b. Tourism area
c. Tourism spot
121. Land distribution limit per legally married couple.
a. 5 hectare
b. 10 hectare
c. 15 hectare
109
PLANNING, DEVELOPMENT AND ZONING
1. Who utilizes the country’s land and water resources?
a. Food security
b. Farmer
c. Worker
2. What is the meaning of HLURB?
a. Housing and Land Use Regulatory Board
b. Housing and Land Use Regulation Board
c. Housing and Land User Regulatory Board
3. What is the meaning of RLUC?
a. Regional Land Use Committee
b. Regional Land User Committee
c. Regional Land Use Council
4. Who will appraise the comprehensive land use plans of cities, provinces, etc.?
a. Regional land use committee
b. HLURB
c. Appraiser
5. A private commodity which can be owned, used, bought or sold?
a. Land
b. Property
c. Real estate
6. Refers to the rational and judicious approach of allocating available land resources to different
land using activities.
a. Land Use Planning
b. Land Planning
c. Land using plan
7. Key to orderly and rational land development in any local government unit.
a. Planning
b. Analyzing
c. Implementing
8. How many percent of the total land can be reclassified in the urbanized independent cities?
a. 15%
b. 20%
c. 30%
9. The acronym ADSDP means Ancestral Domain Sustainable Development Plan.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
10. It is mandated to promulgate zoning and other land use control standards and guidelines.
a. Housing and Land Use Regulatory Board
b. NHA
c. HMDF
11. Refers to a document embodying specific proposal for guiding, regulating growth and
development of a city or municipality
a. Comprehensive Land Use Plan
b. Land plan
c. Growth plan
12. All local plans shall be reliable with the existing national agency plans.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
13. Who shall regulate the right to use property among other rights?
a. State
b. Government
c. Philippines
110
14. Refers to an accumulation of sand ridges of the beach formed by natural processes and usually
parallel to the shoreline
a. Dunes
b. Shoreline
c. Dike
15. Central concern of sustainable development.
a. Poverty
b. Sustainability
c. Effeciency
16. Refers to the allocation of resources on the bases of efficiency and equity to achieve balance
development.
a. Social Equity
b. Efficiency
c. Balance
17. These may be mud flats /sand flats
a. Tidal flats
b. Shoreline
c. Mud sand
18. Refers to the precondition of informal choices.
a. Empowerment
b. Motivation
c. Reason
19. It refers to the necessary precondition of empowerment.
a. Good Service
b. Efficient service
c. Effective service
20. Refers to establishing pragmatic appropriate flexible and dynamic structures that involves
participation of stakeholders.
a. People Empowerment
b. Stakeholders empowerment
c. Community empowerment
21. The path towards enhancing the integrity of the country’s ecological domain.
a. Ecological Integrity
b. Domain integrity
c. Country integrity
22. What is the meaning of PHIVOLCS?
a. Philippine Institute of Volcanology and Seismology
b. Philippine Institute of Volcanist and Seismologist
c. Philippine Incorporated of Volcanology and Seismology
23. It ensures the proper selection of site to minimize the damage both to the environment and
human health
a. Environmental stability and Ecological integrity
b. Stability and ecological integrity
c. Environmental stability and integrity
24. Refers to the linking of the consumption and production areas through appropriate
infrastructure system.
a. Spatial Integration
b. Infrastructure integration
c. Production integration
25. Providing equal opportunities to all Filipino in the use and acquisition of land and other
resources.
a. Equitable access to physical and natural resources
b. Equitable land use
c. Equitable acquisition of land
26. It focused on the economic production from extractive to modern service sector.
a. Production land use
b. Extractive land use
c. Modern land use
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27. Refers to the improvement or restoration of identified blighted areas.
a. Rehabilitation
b. Restoring
c. Improvising
28. It deals with capital investment that supports spatial integration, production efficiency and
social service delivery.
a. Infrastructure development
b. Social integrity
c. Production integrity
29. What does NPFP mean?
a. National Physical Framework Plan
b. National Physical Frame Plan
c. National Physics Framework Plan
30. This allows collaborative partnership among the local government, business and society.
a. Local Governance
b. Local execution
c. Local implementation
31. How many years would the CLUP covers a planning period?
a. Minimum of 10 yrs
b. 5 years
c. 3 years
32. Refers to the graphic presentation of the zone classification and designation
a. Zoning Map
b. Classification man
c. Zone graphic
33. A comprised detailed documents of the sectoral studies conducted that provide the bases for
the preparation of the CLUP.
a. Sectoral studies
b. Category studies
c. Documental studies
34. Refers to areas containing deposits of metallic and non-metallic minerals
a. Mineralized areas
b. Metallic areas
c. Deposits area
35. A body of water where seawater of oceanic origin is diluted by freshwater from land drainage
areas.
a. Estuary
b. River
c. Seashore
36. Economic sector covers health, education and sports.
a. False
b. True
c. Maybe
37. The important first step to take before doing the actual plan preparation activities
a. Getting organized
b. Setting objective
c. Monitoring
38. The planning team must have planning core group assisted by technical working groups.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
39. Refers to the planning process that ensures the involvement of all stakeholders.
a. Identifying stakeholders
b. Stakeholders participation
c. Stakeholders planning
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40. Who plays an important role in decision making and give significant impact to the plan
a. Stakeholders
b. Implementer
c. Planner
41. What is DBM?
a. Department of Budget and Management
b. Department of Budget Management
c. Department of Budget Manager
42. Refers to the clarity of its spatial organizations and ease with which people can read its
structure.
a. Legibility
b. Readability
c. Easiness
43. Legislators, employees local executives are considered stakeholders
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
44. Refers to a participative process whereby the municipalities and cities define its future that it
wants.
a. Setting the Vision
b. Planning
c. Organizing
45. What method of land survey is done through riding a vehicle?
a. Windshield survey
b. Car survey
c. Vehicle survey
46. What is the best way to perform actual ground survey and ground truthing?
a. Global Positioning System (GPS)
b. Measuring
c. Surveying
47. Refers to a synthetic perceptual measure based on resident ratings of local trends of change
over time.
a. Quality of Life
b. Population
c. Income
48. Refers to an area contains a woodland ecosystem
a. Forest zone
b. Woodland zone
c. Forest area
49. This needs to be formulated in a participatory manner and arrived at in a consensus.
a. Vision
b. Organizing
c. Monitoring
50. Refers to a land usually bounded by streets.
a. Block
b. Division
c. Street division
51. What method where members of the group allow sharing their ideas in a non-confrontational
manner.
a. Discuss method
b. Open forum
c. Brainstorming
52. What is the most extensive flood
a. Maximum probable flood
b. Extensive flood
c. Remote flood
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53. Refers to an effective way of building group consensus and moving it to joint resolve and action.
a. Workshop method
b. Participatory method
c. Cooperation method
54. Refers to building of concrete plan and initiate group action
a. Action Planning Method
b. Initiating method
c. Building method
55. Which of the following serves as the transition zone between coral reefs and mangroves
a. Sea grass bed
b. Shore
c. Sandy areas
56. Marginal land is lands subject to flooding, over 15% in slope.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
57. Refers to a fourth step of planning process where assessment involves technical and
participatory methods
a. Analyzing the Situation
b. Processing the situation
c. Selecting the situation
58. Data on vacant lands can be presented through maps and statistical tables.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
59. It is applied to calculate frontage distance for each structure in the block/zone being surveyed.
a. Pace Factor
b. Landline
c. Lot line
60. Refers to lines that form the boundary between the land and water, especially or sea or ocean.
a. Coastline
b. Shore
c. Sand
61. What type of marine lands where we culture fishes/aquatic species?
a. Brackish water fishpond
b. Fresh water fishpond
c. Pure water fish pond
62. An expert who studies the flooding areas.
a. Hydrologist
b. Environmentalist
c. Forestry
63. Its purpose is to identify Indigenous Knowledge Systems and practices.
a. Analyzing the situation
b. Identifying IP
c. Knowledge of IP
64. What method of land use survey done by walking
a. Foot survey
b. Pace survey
c. Actual survey
65. An urban renewal action that refers to rebuilding and clearance of areas.
a. Redevelopment
b. Renovation
c. Improvement
66. Refers to an in-design evaluation method for planning areas that retain important natural
environmental features.
a. Land Suitability Analysis
b. Land applicability
c. Land retainability
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67. What process is use to project future land development?
a. Market forecast
b. Project forecast
c. Land forecast
68. What is a process to determine the best location for new site and service scheme?
a. Suitability mapping
b. Location mapping
c. Site mapping
69. Is enacted into zoning ordinance for purposes of enforcement
a. CLUP
b. Zoning plan
c. Land use plan
70. Refers to the division of a community into zones or districts.
a. Zoning
b. Purok
c. Street
71. Refers to an area within a city or municipality intended for cultivation and pastoral activities.
a. Agricultural zone
b. Pastoral zone
c. Cultivation zone
72. Refers to an area within the city for dwelling /housing purposes.
a. Residential
b. Dwelling
c. Housing
73. CLUP and ordinances serves as primary reference documents in land use conversation.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
74. Where to find particular information needed for analysis purposes?
a. Aspect map
b. Analysis map
c. Information map
75. A tool used for the recording of all sectoral group scores.
a. Matrix
b. Sectoral analysis
c. Recording analysis
76. Goal-achievement analysis refers to approach use to determine goals and objectives
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
77. Who will prepare a detailed proposal?
a. Office of the city/municipal planning and development coordinator
b. Lgu
c. Government
78. Getting organized ensures needed resources for the activities readily available.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
79. What is the meaning of CENRO?
a. Community Environment and Natural Resources office
b. Community Environment and Natural Resourcing office
c. Community Environment and Natural Resources officer
80. This base on factual data from the surveys.
a. Technical assessment
b. Data assessment
c. Survey assessment
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81. Refers to the area available within the city/municipalities for expansion.
a. Land supply
b. Land area
c. Area availability
82. Refers to a tip of land alternately covered and uncovered by the tidal movements.
a. Foreshore area
b. Sandy areas
c. Dike
83. The purpose of this step is to establish a preferred land use alternative.
a. Establishing the Development Thrust and Spatial Strategies
b. Establishing the Thrust and Spatial Strategies
c. Establishing the Development and Spatial Strategies
84. This is needed in order to address the dependence of communities on forest resources.
a. Community-based Forest management
b. Forest management
c. Forest dependency
85. This analysis mainly concerned with the strategy effects on the welfare of the community rather
than any smaller group.
a. Social cost –benefit analysis
b. Economic analysis
c. Cost benefit analysis
86. Who are the participants in conducting Goal-achievement analysis?
a. Stakeholders
b. People
c. Citizen
87. Deals with determining accurate information about the supply of available lands.
a. Developability analysis
b. Land analysis
c. Land information analysis
88. The important aspects that deals with how an individual’s respond to urban initiatives.
a. Attractiveness
b. Responsiveness
c. Initialibility
89. Refers to the meanings that people attach to various parts of urban area.
a. Symbolism
b. Map
c. Picture
90. What are the basis for projecting demand for urban land
a. For industrial, residential ,institutional and commercial use
b. Agricultural land
c. Commercial land
91. Refers to a statement that indicates guidelines and rules.
A. Policy
B. Laws
C. Rules
92. Its purpose is to develop other development controls to ensure an objective implementation of
the CLUP
a. Drafting the Zoning ordinance
b. Zoning ordinance
c. Ordinance approval
93. What is the meaning of MZO?
a. Model Zoning Ordinance
b. Model Zoning organizing
c. Model zonal ordinance
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94. An area within the city intended primarily for integrated farm operations and related product
processing activities
a. Agro- industrial
b. Large agriculture
c. Economic agriculture
95. An area designed for open space recreational facilities and maintenance of ecological balance in
the community
a. Park and other recreation
b. Park
c. Recreation areas
96. A provision stipulating the compliance of environmentally critical projects
a. Environmental Compliance Certificate
b. Environmental compliance
c. Environmental certificate
97. Its purpose is to encourage ownership of the plan and gain support for plan implementation.
a. Final hearing for the CLUP
b. Forum
c. Approving
98. LCE means Local Chief Execution.
a. No ,LOCAL CHIEF EXECUTIVE
b. Yes
c. Maybe
99. Land use planning helps to conserve areas of ecological, aesthetic, historical and cultural
significance
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
100. Review and approve clup of component cities.
a. HLURB
b. DENR
c. DAR
101. Shall continue to formulate and update their clup.
a. Cities and municipalities
b. Barangay
c. Province
102. Provide technical support services in the preparation of clup.
a. MPDC
b. Municipal engineer
c. Assessor
103. Who shall assess the sanggunian panlalawigan in reviewing clup.
a. Provincial Land Use Committee
b. Provincial CLUP committee
c. Provincial Planning Office
104. Issue guidelines for the implementation of EO 124.
a. DAR and NEDA
b. DENR and DAR
c. DENR and DILG
105. Authorizing Cities/Municipalities to Reclassify Lands into Non-Agricultural Uses.
a. MC 54
b. MC 50
c. MC 90
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ECOLOGY
1. The term used to describe the exchange of carbon (in various forms, e.g., as carbon dioxide)
between the atmosphere, ocean, terrestrial biosphere, and geological deposits.
a. Carbon cycle
b. Nitrogen cycle
c. Water cycle
2. What is the correct term for plants releasing water from their leaves, which then evaporates?
a. Transpiration
b. Evaporation
c. Precipitation
3. The study of the interactions that take place among organisms and their environment
a. Ecology
b. Biology
c. Zoology
4. All the organisms in an ecosystem that belong to the same species is referred to as
a. Population
b. Community
c. productivity
5. It refers to all the populations in an ecosystem.
a. Community
b. Productivity
c. Population
6. The technique used for collecting bottom-dwelling marine organisms (e.g., shellfish) or harvesting
coral, often causing significant destruction of reef and ocean-floor ecosystems.
a. Dredging
b. habitat destruction
c. Drift-net fishing
7. The contamination of a healthy environment by man-made waste.
a. Pollution
b. Siltation
c. Salination
8. The removal of soil by the action of water or wind, compounded by poor agricultural practices,
deforestation, overgrazing, and desertification.
a. Soil erosion
b. Soil Degradation
c. Surface run off
9. The illegal killing of animals or fish, a great concern with respect to endangered or threatened
species.
a. Poaching
b. Shooting
c. Poisoning
10. The nonliving chemical and physical factors such as temperature, light, water, and nutrients.
a. Abiotic component
b. Biotic component
c. Organisms
11. This is concerned about the way in which an individual interacts with its environment.
a. Organismal ecology
b. Community ecology
c. Population ecology
12. It occurs in neritic zones of warm, tropical water, dominated by cnidarians, very productive and
protects land from storms.
a. Coral reefs
b. Deep-sea vent
c. Seashore
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13. Occurs in benthic zone; diverse, unusual organisms; energy comes not from light but from
chemicals released from the magma
a. Deep-sea vent
b. coral reefs
c. Oligotrophic Lake
14. A terrestrial biome that is usually vertical stratification with trees in canopy blocking light to
bottom strata.
a. Tropical forest
b. Temperate deciduous forest
c. Coniferous forest
15. It occurs when water channels and reservoirs become clotted with silt and mud, a side effect of
deforestation and soil erosion.
a. Siltation
b. Salination
c. Purification
16. A science that deals with applying ecological concepts and principles to the design,
development and management of agricultural environment
a. Agroecology
b. Behavioral ecology
c. Entomology
17. The effect of biota on global chemistry, and the cycles of matter and energy that transport the
earths chemical components in time and space
a. Biogeochemistry
b. Biochemistry
c. Organic chemistry
18. Which of the following is true about BIODIVERSITY ?
a. A diversity among and within plant and animal species in an environment
b. All the populations in an ecosystem
c. Anything that restricts the number of individuals in a
population
19. The increase of concentration of a substance .
a. Biological magnification
b. Molecular magnification
c. Atomic magnification
20. The study of the geographic distributions is called _____.
a. Biogeography
b. Biography
c. Biology
21. This deals with the ecological role of biological chemicals used in a wide range of areas including
defense against predators and attraction of mates.
a. Chemical ecology
b. Agroecology
c. Microbial ecology
22. What is the biological community of plants and animals that has reached a constant occurring
when the species is best adapted to average conditions in the area?
a. climax-pattern model
b. climax community
c. climax
23. Which one correctly explains about endangered species?
a. species that contains numbers so low that it risks becoming extinct
b. species that contains numerous numbers
c. species that are extinct
24. process by which tissues of dead organisms break down to more simplistic forms of mater and
organic material, freeing up the limited space in the biome
a. Decomposition
b. Digestion
c. Production
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25. Why are ecosystems with high biodiversity more stable than those with few species ?
a. They recover from negative events more quickly.
b. They have a higher carrying capacity
c. They have a number of species
26. Which is the method that uses organisms to clean up to toxic waste?
a. Bioremediation
b. Monoculture
c. Carrying capacity
27. What combine with atmospheric moisture to create acid precipitation?
a. Sulfur dioxide and nitrogen dioxide
b. Sulfur dioxide and carbon dioxide
c. Methane and nitrogen dioxide
28. The maximum number of individuals an environment's resources can support, including the food
and water available for the environment
a. Carrying capacity
b. Monoculture
c. Cogeneration
29. What is the organism, usually an animal, that feeds on plants or other animals
a. Consumer
b. Decomposer
c. Producer
30. This of the following refers to meeting the needs of the present without compromising the
ability of future generations to meet their own needs.
a. Conservation
b. Reproduction
c. Bioremediation
31. What is the organisms that breakdown substances into simpler substances?
a. Decomposer
b. Producer
c. Consumer
32. A group of organisms interrelated by the fact that each member of the group feeds upon the
one below it
a. Food chain
b. Food pyramid
c. Food web
33. Choose a possible food chain .
a. Corn -> rat -> cat
b. Corn -> man ->cat
c. Rice -> rat -> man
34. What gas is released during photosynthesis?
a. Oxygen
b. Carbon dioxide
c. Hydrogen
35. A biological interaction between individuals of two different species, where each individual
derives a fitness benefit.
a. Mutualism
b. Commensalism
c. Parasitism
36. The first person to use the word to name the study of how organisms fit into their environment
a. Ernst Haeckel
b. Sigmund Freud
c. Isaac Newton
37. Uses energy from the sun or energy stored in chemical compounds to produce energy
a. Autotrophs
b. Heterotrophs
c. Photoautotrophs
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38. Which of the following best illustrates DENR?
a. Department of Environment and Natural Resources.
b. Department of Ecological and National Resources.
c. Department of Educational and Natural Resources.
39. It refers to the entire process of organization administration and procedure institutionalized for
the purpose of assessing the significance of the effects of physical developments on the quality
of the environment.
a. Environmental Impact Statement System
b. Environmental Management System
c. Environmental Impact Assessment
40. Refers to those areas which are environmentally sensitive and are listed in Presidential
Proclamation 2146, dated Dec 14, 1981.
a. Environmental Critical Areas
b. Environmentally Critical Project
c. Environmental Impact Assessment
41. Another term for water cycle, is driven by the Sun’s heat energy, which causes water to
evaporate from water reservoirs (the ocean, lakes, ponds, rivers), condense into clouds, and
then precipitate back to water bodies on Earth
a. Hydrologic cycle
b. Hydrous cycle
c. Hydroxyl cycle
42. Fifty million years ago, the archipelago of more than 7,000 islands did not exist yet is now known
____
a. Philippines
b. Thailand
c. China
43. What does Luzviminda stands for ?
a. Luzon ,Visayas ,Mindanao
b. Luzon ,Vietnam ,Mindoro
c. Lingayen ,Visayas,Manila
44. The policy of the State to pursue sustainable development for poverty reduction, food
security, biodiversity conservation, and climate change mitigation and adaptation.
a. Declaration of Policy
b. Coverage
c. Strategy
45. DA. DAR. DENR are the stakeholders , whose responsibilities includes the following EXCEPT,
a. Provision of extension service
b. Nursery establishment and seedling production
c. Site identification and site preparation
46. The Department of lnterior and Local Government (DILG) responsibilities includes
a. Provision of transportation, security and fire protection amenities
b. Establishment of nurseries and production of planting material
c. Development of greening plan for urban and sub urban area
47. The stakeholder that is responsible in provision of transport for partcipants and provision of
communication facilities
a. Department, of Transportation,and Comrnunications
b. Department of National Defense
c. Department of Justice
48. The lowering of soil and water pH due to acid precipitation and deposition usually through
precipitation.
a. Acidification
b. Condensation
c. Precipitation
49. Plant or animal species whose presence, abundance, and health reveal the general condition of
its habitat.
a. Bio-indicators
b. Biodiversity
c. Binomial nomenclature
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50. The total weight or volume of living matter in a given area or volume.
a. Biomass
b. Density
c. Biomolecules
51. The chemicals which cause plants to lose their leaves artificially; often used in agricultural
practices for weed control, and may have detrimental impacts on human and ecosystem health.
a. Defoliants
b. Oxidants
c. Tryptophan
52. All rules and regulations and other issuances or parts thereof, which are inconsistent with this
Executive Order, are hereby repealed or modified accordingly.
a. Repealing Clause
b. Separability Clause
c. Implementing Guidelines
53. A layer of the atmosphere composed of ozone gas (O3) that resides approximately 25 miles
above the Earth's surface and absorbs solar ultraviolet radiation that can be harmful to living
organisms.
a. Ozone shield
b. Hemisphere
c. Thermosphere
54. The disease in which bacteria survive in, and are transmitted through, H2O; always a serious
threat in areas with an untreated water supply.
a. Water-born diseases
b. Air –born diseases
c. Personal contact diseases
55. An area that is environmentally sensitive and is so listed under Presidential Proclamation (Pres.
Proc.) No. 2146, Series of 1981 as well as other areas which the President of the Philippines may
proclaim as environmentally critical in accordance with section 4 of P.D. No. 1586.
a. Environmentally Critical Area
b. Environmentally Critical Project
c. Environmentally Critical Population
56. The document required of proponents describing the environmental impact of, and mitigation
and enhancement measure for, project or undertakings located in an ECA. Shall replace the
Project Description required under DAO 21, series of 1992.
a. Initial Environmental Examination
b. Multipartite Monitoring Team
c. Social Acceptability
57. A certification issued by the EMB certifying that, based on the submitted project description, the
project is not covered by the EIS System and is not required to secure an ECC.
a. Certificate of Non-Coverage
b. Certificate of Teaching
c. Certificate of Coverage
58. The project or program that has high potential for significant negative environmental impact.
a. Environmentally Critical Project
b. Ecologically Critical Project
c. National Project
59. Which of the following best illustrates Environmental Monitoring Fund (EMF)?
a. Shall be immediately accessible and easily disbursable
b. Any activity, regardless of scale or magnitude, which may have significant impact on the
environment
c. Any natural or juridical person intending to implement a project or undertaking
60. The entities who may be directly and significantly affected by the project or undertaking.
a. Stakeholders
b. Administrator
c. Proprietor
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61. The phase in the EIA process whereby the document submitted is subjected to technical
evaluation by the EIARC.
a. Substantive Review
b. Project or Undertaking
c. Public Participation
62. The following are requirements for Securing Environmental Compliance Certificate (ECC) and
Certificate of Non-Coverage (CNC), EXCEPT,
a. Manual of Procedures
b. Forms and Contents of EIA Study Reports and Other Documents Required Under the EIS
System
c. documentary Requirements for Proponents
63. A group composed of representatives of the proponent and of stakeholder groups, including
representatives from concerned LGU's, locally accredited NGOs/POs, the community, concerned
EMB Regional Office, relevant government agencies, and other sectors that may be identified
during the negotiations.
a. Multipartite Monitoring Team
b. Legislative
c. Executive
64. Any portion or provision of this Executive order that maybe declared unconstitutional shall
not have the effect of nullifying other provisions hereof, as long as such remaining
portions can still subsist and can be given effect in their entirety
a. Separability Clause
b. Repealing Clause
c. Funding Mechanisms
65. This Order hereby supersedes Department Administrative Order No. 96-37, Department
Administrative Order No. 2000-37, DAO 2000-05 and other related orders, which are
inconsistent herewith.
a. Repealing Clause
b. Separability Clause
c. Sanctions
66. This Executive Order shall take effect immediately upon its publication in a newspaper of
general circulation
a. Effectivity
b. Implementing guidelines
c. Oversight Committee and Lead Agency
67. Imitative behavior of animal species resembling one another.
a. Mimicry
b. Imitation
c. Camouflage
68. The movement of organisms from one place to another.
a. Migration
b. Immigration
c. Voyage
69. The study of small scale ecological phenomena.
a. Microecology
b. Microbiology
c. Microbial ecology
70. The coastlines in the tropical and subtropical regions fringed with a strip of swampland which is
inundated every high tide with marine and brackish waters.
a. Marine wetlands
b. Mangrove wetlands
c. Marine ecology
71. Type of animal territory in which males of a certain species gather to demonstrate their
prowess before or during mating season
a. Lek
b. Lake
c. Dessert
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72. The body of liquid on the surface of the Earth; it is considered a lake when it is not part of an
ocean, is inland, and is fed by a river.
a. Lake
b. Pond
c. Sea
73. A large, undeveloped, humid forest that is home to many wild plants and animal
a. Jungle
b. Forest
c. Island
74. Occurs when an animal has a particular internal state while it is in the presence of an external
stimulation called a releaser
a. Instinctive behavior
b. Commensalism
c. Interspecific competition
75. A reversible chemical reaction when ions with the same charge can be switched. This can be
used in purification of a substance.
a. Ion exchange
b. Molecular exchange
c. Covalent exchange
76. Any biological species that defines a trait or characteristic of the environment
a. Indicator species
b. illegitimate receiver
c. illegitimate signaler
77. This Order shall take effect 15 days after its publication in a newspaper of general circulation.
a. Effectivity
b. Transitory provision
c. Imprinting
78. A non-native species whose introduction to an area is likely to cause economic or
environmental harm or harm to human health.
a. Invasive species
b. R-selected species
c. Endangered species
79. The flow of water over land from rain, melting snow, or other sources.
a. Run off
b. Land slide
c. Soil erosion
80. A science which seeks to understand the relationships between species in fossil assemblages
a. Paleoecology
b. Entomology
c. Ichthyology
81. Is a relationship between two or more individuals in a species mainly concerning food.
a. Symbiosis
b. Competition
c. Mutualism
82. The ultimate source of energy for every ecosystem.
a. Sun
b. Star
c. Galaxy
83. Photo synthesizers such as algae and green plants that produce most of the organic nutrients for
the biosphere pioneer species are ______.
a. Photoautotrophs
b. Heterotrophs
c. Autotrophs
84. Happens over a long period of time and is defined as a certain trait and how species with this
trait can or cannot survive, and how it effects the reproduction of this good or bad trait.
a. Natural selection
b. Binomial nomenclature
c. Natural resource
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85. Conversion of nitrogen into nitrogen compounds (ex. nitrate and nitrite) that is carried out
naturally by certain bacteria and algae
a. Nitrogen fixation
b. Neutralism
c. Nitritification
86. the large body of salt water which covers almost 75% of the earths surface
a. Ocean
b. River
c. Sea
87. The lead agency in the implementation of agrarian reform and sustainable rural development
programs.
a. Department of Agrarian Reform
b. Department of environment and Natural Resources
c. Department of Agriculture
88. In order to ensure the successful implementation of the a National Greening Program (NGP), the
following strategies shall be adopted EXCEPT,
a. Funding Mechanism
b. Social Mobilization
c. Harmonization of Initiatives
89. This issue is recognized as the most serious threat to the remaining areas of Philippine forest?
a. Illegal logging
b. Loss of biodiversity
c. Mining
90. What part of earth is thought to be composed of iron and nickel?
a. Core
b. Asthenosphere
c. Lithosphere
91. Which of the following does NOT destroy coral reefs?
a. mangrove preservation
b. aquarium fish collection
c. Oil spill
92. Prohibit the dumping of waste into a river.
a. Anti dumping law
b. Fisheries act
c. Mining act
93. As people become wealthier, they tend to
a. do statement A and B
b. consume more resources
c. produce more waste
94. What is the production of two usable forms of energy at the same time from the same process?
a. Cogeneration
b. Conservation
c. Sustainable energy
95. Which of the following statement is NOT an effect of increased urbanization ?
a. Preservation of natural habitats
b. Flooding
c. Decrease of wetlands
96. Which one correctly explains global warming?
a. An increased in Earth’s average surface temperature
b. An increased in the concentration of ozone
c. A decreased in Earth’s average surface temperature
97. How is biogas produced?
a. Conversion of plant and animal waste in a digester
b. By mixing methane and oxygen
c. Conversion of anaerobic bacteria to carbon dioxide.
98. The advancement of science and technology has ushered economic growth and convenience to
man. How can you help preserve and conserve the environment through science and
technology?
125
a. Cook your food with the use of non polluting fuels
b. Turn on home appliances at the same time.
c. Ride in a vehicle instead of walk ,for short distances
99. Which of the following is incorrectly paired with its description?
a. Philippine Assembly and Gaming Corporation-- (PAGCOR)
b. Technical Education and Skills Development Authority --(TESDA)
c. Department of Public Works and Highways-- (DPWH)
100. A pitcher plant is an example of
a. a carnivorous plant
b. a omnivorous plant
c. a herbivorous plant
101. A certification issued by the EMB certifying that, based on the submitted project description,
the project is not covered by the EIS System and is not required to secure an ECC.
a. Certificate of non coverage
b. Certificate of coverage
c. Certificate semi coverage
102. Document issued by the DENR/EMB after a positive review of an ECC application, certifying
that based on the representations of the proponent, the proposed project or undertaking will
not cause significant negative environmental impact.
a. Environmental compliance certificate
b. Environmental certificate of compliance
c. Compliance certificate
103. Area delineated as environmentally sensitive such that significant environmental impacts are
expected if certain types of proposed projects or programs are located, developed or
implemented in it.
a. Environmentally critical area
b. Critical area
c. Critical environment
104. Project or program that has high potential for significant negative environmental impact.
a. Environmentally critical project
b. Environmentally critical area
c. Environmentally critical program
105. Process that involves evaluating and predicting the likely impacts of a project (including
cumulative impacts) on the environment during construction, commissioning, operation and
abandonment.
a. Environmental Impact Assessment
b. Impact assessment
c. Environmental assessment
106. Document, prepared and submitted by the project proponent and/or EIA Consultant that
serves as an application for an ECC.
a. Environmental impact assessment
b. Environmental Impact Assessment
c. Impact assessment
107. Section in the EIS that details the prevention, mitigation, compensation, contingency and
monitoring measures to enhance positive impacts and minimize negative impacts and risks of a
proposed project or undertaking.
a. Environmental Management Plan
b. Management plan
c. Environmental plan
108. Refers to the EMB PEPP EMS as provided for under DAO 2003-14, which is a part of the overall
management system of a project or organization that includes environmental policy,
organizational structure, planning activities, responsibilities, practices, procedures, processes
126
and resources for developing, implementing, achieving, reviewing and maintaining an improved
overall environmental performance.
a. Environmental Management Systems
b. Environmental certificate of compliance
c. Compliance certificate
109. Assessment, through the use of universally accepted and scientific methods, of risks associated
with a project.
a. Environmental Risk Assessment
b. Environmentally critical project
c. Environmentally critical area
110. National greening program
a. EO 26
b. EO 28
c. EO 30
111. Student and Government employees are required to plant at least.
a. 10 plants
b. 5 plants
c. 3 plants
112. In EO 26, the duty of Mobilization and participation of the indigenous people.
a. NCIP
b. LGU
c. DILG
113. The duty of transportation, security and fire protection for national greening program.
a. DILG
b. DENR
c. AFP
114. Provision of transportion and medical support for EO 26
a. DOH
b. Philhealth
c. Government Hospital
115. The duty of nursery establishment and production of planting materials for National greening
program(NGP)
a. DOJ
b. DENR
c. DA
116. Target number of trees to plant for NGP
a. 1.5 billion
b. 1 billion
c. 1 million
117. The duration of the implementation of NGP
a. 2011 to 2016
b. 2013 to 2015
c. 2013 to 2015
118. Provision of Conditional Cash Transfer to NGP beneficiaries
a. DSWD
b. DBM
c. DOF
119. Succession that occurs after the original population has been destroyed or disturbed, as with a
forest fire.
a. Secondary succession
b. Primary succession
c. Tertiary succession
120. a body of independent technical experts and professionals of known probity from various
fields organized by the EMB to evaluate the EIS and other related documents and to make
appropriate recommendations regarding the issuance or non-issuance of an ECC.
a. Environmental Impact Assessment Review Committee
b. Environmental Impact Assessment Reviewer
127
c. Environmental Impact Assessment Review council
121. Document similar to an EIS, but with reduced details and depth of assessment and discussion.
a. Initial Environmental Examination (IEE) Report
b. Initial Environmental Assessment Report
c. Environmental Assessment Report
122. Community-based multi-sectoral team organized for the purpose of monitoring the
proponent’s compliance with ECC conditions, EMP and applicable laws, rules and regulations.
a. Multipartite Monitoring Team
b. Multipartite Monitoring group
c. Multipartite Monitoring worker
123. Any natural or juridical person intending to implement a project or undertaking.
a. Proponent
b. Developer
c. Owner
124. Amendment for application of ECC shall not exceed.
a. 30 days
b. 60 days
c. 40 days
125. ECC deem automatically approve if no decision is made within specified timeframe and
approving authority shall issue ecc within _____.
a. 5 days
b. 7 days
c. 10 days
128
BASIC APPRAISAL FOR REAL ESTATE BROKERS
1. Estimate or opinion of value.
a. Appraisal
b. Estimating
c. Valuing
2. Employment and interest rate.
a. Economic Factors
b. Political factor
c. Economic Factors
3. Presence of pollutant in the area
a. Environmental factors
b. Area factors
c. Ecological factors
4. The real estate location, size and condition.
a. Physical
b. Environmental
c. Description
5. Demand for an aging population.
a. Social factors
b. Population factors
c. Demand factors
6. The value that appraisers deal with most often.
a. Market Value
b. Economic Value
c. Appraisal value
7. Implies that no relationship exists between the parties and that the buyer and seller each act in
his or her own best interest.
a. Arms length transaction
b. Free from biases
c. Act of Freedom
8. Value a property holds to a specific person who may use it for a specific purpose that’s generally
unavailable to the typical buyer.
a. Value in use
b. Market value
c. Sentimental value
9. Value to a specific investor with a specific plan for the property.
a. Investment value
b. Investor value
c. Specific value
10. Value used on property for tax purposes.
a. Assessed value
b. Tax value
c. Property value
11. All property value is created by the _____ of the future benefits the property will provide.
a. Anticipation
b. Forecasting
c. Speculating
12. You never want to build a house that costs 100,000.00 on a piece of vacant land that costs
500,000.00
a. Balance
b. Anticipation
c. Conformity
13. The idea that nothing remains the same.
a. Change
b. Constant
c. Constant change
129
14. If that building is a success other builders are likely to follow with more office buildings until the
last office building a builder erects remains partially vacant because the suppliers have created a
surplus of office space.
a. Competition
b. Competitor
c. Copy
15. If you live in a neighborhood of single-family houses, you don’t want an office building to be
built across the street from your house.
a. Conformity
b. Balance
c. Zoning
16. Use that result in the highest value for that property.
a. Highest and best use
b. Profitable use
c. Economic use
17. The whole is sometimes greater than the sum of its parts.
a. Plottage
b. Summation
c. Combination
18. The higher values of larger homes tend to have a positive effect on the lesser value of the
smaller home.
a. Progression
b. Regression
c. Degradation
19. That a buyer will try to pay as little as possible for the property that meets the buyer’s needs.
a. Substitution
b. Affordability
c. Thriftiness
20. The positive difference between selling price and cost
a. Surplus productivity
b. Profit
c. Net income
21. Involves calculating the cost of construction by multiplying the square footage of the structure
by the construction cost for that particular type of building.
a. Square footage method
b. Unit in place method
c. Quantity method
22. Provides the cost to construct a building by estimating the installation costs, including materials,
of the individual components of the structure.
a. Unit in place method
b. Square footage method
c. Quantity method
23. It requires you to break down all the components of a building and estimate the cost of the
material and installation separately.
a. Quantity survey method
b. Unit in place method
c. Square footage method
24. The loss in value to any structure due to a variety of factors, such as wear and tear, age, and
poor location.
a. Depreciation
b. Net loss
c. Old
25. The normal wear and tear that a building experiences as it ages and it depends on the original
quality of construction and the level of ongoing maintenance.
a. Physical deterioration
b. Depreciation
c. Quality
130
26. Form of deterioration that is economically feasible to repair.
a. Curable
b. Depreciation
c. Quality
27. Outmoded design in older structures or unacceptable design in newer structures usually points
to a type of depreciation.
a. Functional obsolescence
b. Economic obsolescence
c. Technological obsolescence
28. Estimating depreciation is a way to calculate depreciation caused by wear and tear on the
structure that presumes that structures wear at the same rate each year.
a. Straight line method
b. Sum of digit year
c. Diminishing
29. The number of years a building contribute to the value of the land.
a. Economic life
b. Profitable life
c. Serviceable life
30. Estimate of how old the building appears to be.
a. Effective age
b. Physical age
c. Appearance
31. Analyzes the future financial benefits of a piece of real estate and converts it into an estimate of
present value.
a. Income approach
b. Cost approach
c. Financial approach
32. Technique for estimating value is based on the idea that a property value can be calculated as a
multiple of the gross rent.
a. Gross rent multiplier
b. Rent multiplier
c. Net rent multiplier
33. Uses the gross annual rent rather than monthly
a. Gross income multiplier
b. Net income multiplier
c. Income multiplier
34. Method for appraising real estate based on its income.
a. Income capitalization approach
b. Income-Expense Approach
c. Capital approach
35. The income that the building generates when rented at 100 percent occupancy.
a. Potential gross income.
b. Potential income
c. Potential profit
36. The result of subtracting the vacancy and collection loss from potential gross income.
a. Effective gross income
b. Net profit
c. Net income
37. The process of analyzing and weighing the results of the various approaches as applied to an
appraisal problem.
a. Reconciliation
b. Analysis
c. Balancing
38. Valuation approach use in the unique properties such as the church
a. Cost approach
b. Income approach
c. Value approach
131
39. Valuation approach use in investment properties such as office space or commercial space.
a. Income approach
b. Rent approach
c. Cost approach
40. Valuation approach use in the single family homes.
a. Sales comparison approach
b. Cost approach
c. Income approach
41. Valuation approach use in the unique properties such as the church
a. Cost approach
b. Income approach
c. Sales approach
42. Value is determine by the interaction of forces in the appropriate market
a. Principle of demand and supply
b. Market
c. Forces
43. The value of an element or component of property depends on how much it contributes to the
whole.
a. Contribution
b. Balance
c. Plottage
44. When successive element of one or more factor of production added to a fix amount of factor
there is a resulting in income up to a point of maximum return.
a. Increasing and diminishing return
b. Succession
c. Income
45. Value is created by expectation of future benefits.
a. Anticipation
b. Forecasting
c. Prediction
46. Value of superior property is adversely affected by the value of inferior property.
a. Regression
b. Progression
c. Detraction
47. The key criterion in the valuation of real property or personal property.
a. Utility
b. Profit
c. physical
48. Tasked with the professionalizing and raising the level of property valuation industry by
developing valuation standard for public and private use.
a. DOF
b. DENR
c. DTI
49. The often market measure of agriculture or farm properties.
a. Per hectare
b. Per square meter
c. Per foot
50. Cost to create a virtual replica of the existing structure.
a. Reproduction
b. Replacement
c. Recopy
51. Cost of constructing a structure with comparable utility.
a. Replacement
b. Reproduction
c. Construction
132
52. A mass appraisal process which facilitate the appraisal of multiple properties at a given date.
a. Preparation and Application of SMV
b. Mass appraisal
c. Appraisal facilitation
53. Process of valuing many properties at the same time.
a. Mass appraisal
b. Numerous appraisal
c. Current appraisal
54. Very open and most transparent method of selling property.
a. Auction sale
b. Open sale
c. Free sale
55. The seller is under financial or other pressure to sell quickly.
a. Forced Sale
b. Coercive sale
c. Emergency sale
56. When the seller help finance part or all of the purchase price.
a. Seller financing
b. Buyer financing
c. Financer
57. The seller receives the full payment from the buyer.
a. Cash sale
b. Full sale
c. Option sale
58. The amount for which an asset could be exchanged between knowledgeable, willing parties in
an arm’s length transaction.
a. Fair value
b. Market value
c. Book value
59. An amount above the Market Value that reflects particular attributes of an asset that are only of
value to a Special Purchaser.
a. Special value
b. Purchaser value
c. Market value
60. Additional element of value created by the combination of two or more interests where the
value of the combined interest is worth more than the sum of the original interests.
a. Synergistic value
b. Plottage value
c. Market value
61. Describes a situation where an entire business is transferred as an operational entity.
a. Going concern value
b. Business value
c. Operational value
62. This describes a situation where a group of assets employed together in a business are offered
for sale separately, usually following a closure of business.
a. Liquidation value
b. Closing value
c. Losing value
63. Describes the value of an asset that has reached the end of its economic life for the purpose it
was made.
a. Salvage value
b. Economic value
c. Disposal value
64. Final step in the valuation process.
a. Valuation report
b. Analyzing report
c. Reconciliation
133
65. The present value of the future cash flows expected to be derived from an asset or cash-
generating unit.
a. Value in use
b. Derivation value
c. Transposable value
66. Provide a framework for valuations of assets that are to be offered or taken as loan security.
a. PVA 2
b. PVA 3
c. PVA 1
67. In the absence of sufficient direct market evidence, acceptable method of arriving value of
specialized property.
a. DRC
b. Income method
c. Cost method
68. Resulting from external influences may affect the value of the asset.
a. Obsolescence.
b. Depreciation
c. Physical
69. Individual properties, such as hotels, fuel stations, and restaurants that usually change hands in
the marketplace while remaining operational.
a. Trade Related Property
b. Operational property
c. Changeable property
70. A revenue-raising procedure, based on the assessed value of property related to a scale of
charges defined by statute within a specified timeframe.
a. Ad Valorem Property Taxation
b. Assessment
c. Taxation
71. The process of analyzing sets of property and market data to determine the specific parameters
operating upon a model.
a. Calibration
b. Reconciliation
c. Analysis
72. Approaches in valuing historic properties, except.
a. Income approach
b. Sales comparison,
c. Cost and income capitalization approaches
73. A valuation review performed by a Valuer to form an opinion as to whether the analyses,
opinions, and conclusions in the report under review are appropriate, reasonable, and
supportable.
a. Technical Review
b. Peer review
c. Review
74. A valuation review that includes inspection of the exterior and sometimes the interior of the
subject property and possibly inspection of the comparable properties to confirm the data
provided in the report.
a. Field review
b. Peer review
c. Technical review
75. A valuation review that is limited to the data presented in the report, which may or may not be
independently confirmed.
a. Desk review
b. Peer review
c. Technical review
134
76. A valuation review performed by a client or user of valuation service as an exercise in due
diligence when the valuation is to be used for purposes of decision-making such as underwriting,
purchasing, or selling the property.
a. Administrative review
b. Desk review
c. Peer review
77. Review of a Valuer’s work undertaken by another Valuer exercising impartial judgment.
a. Valuation review
b. Desk review
c. Peer review
78. Comparative approach that considers the sales of similar or substitute assets and related market
data.
a. Direct market comparison approach
b. Market approach
c. Sales approach
79. Considers the income that an asset will generate over its remaining useful life and estimates
value through a capitalization process.
a. Income approach
b. Market approach
c. Sales approach
80. Applies the basic economic principle that a buyer will pay no more for an asset than the cost to
obtain an asset of equal utility, whether by purchase or by construction.
a. Cost approach
b. Market approach
c. Sales approach
81. Refers to a price expressed in terms of money payable for the asset in an arm’s length market
transaction.
a. Estimated amount
b. Payment amount
c. Selling amount
82. Refers to one who is motivated, but not compelled to buy.
a. Willing buyer
b. Free buyer
c. Motivated buyer
83. Establishes that each party is motivated to undertake the transaction, but neither is forced or
unduly coerced to complete it.
a. Without compulsion
b. Willingness
c. Freedom
84. Refers to the process of analyzing sets of property and market data to determine the specific
parameters of a model.
a. Calibration
b. Reconciliation
c. Analysis
85. Method of land valuation in the absence of vacant land sales, whereby improvement values
obtained from the cost model are subtracted from sales prices of improved parcels to yield
residual land value estimates.
a. Abstraction method
b. Desk method
c. Sale price method
86. The distribution of the appraised value of the property between land and building.
a. Allocation
b. Matching
c. Distribution
135
87. The period of time over which the structure may reasonably be expected to perform the
function for which it was designed or intended.
a. Useful life
b. Economic life
c. Serviceable life
88. The amount of money necessary to purchase the finished goods or item of property when
offered for sale in the open market.
a. Price
b. Payment
c. Tender
89. Conditions and assumptions under which appraisal is made.
a. Limiting condition
b. Limitation
c. Assumption
90. The process of converting into present value (or obtaining the present worth of) a series of
anticipated future periodic installment of net income. In real estate appraising, it usually takes
the form of discounting.
a. Capitalization
b. Discounting
c. Present value
91. Statement that appraisers, in their professional capacity, personally conducted the appraisal in
an objective manner.
a. Certification of value
b. Appraisal report
c. Valuation report
92. Difference between the value of the property and current debt.
a. Equity
b. Net income
c. Net payable
93. Is the use of borrowed money to finance all or part of purchase price of the real estate.
a. Leverage
b. Financing
c. Borrowing
94. Influence outside of the property boundary that may affect its value.
a. Externalities
b. Internalities
c. Outsiders
95. Risk due to uncertainty in rent, vacancies and operating expenses.
a. Business risk
b. Financial risk
c. Operational risk
96. Risk due to uncertainty in future interest.
a. Interest risk
b. Business risk
c. Operational risk
97. Risk due to the use of debt financing.
a. Financial risk
b. Business risk
c. Operational risk
98. Land that has been improved for specific purpose.
a. Site
b. Project area
c. Improved area
99. Tract of land divided into lots suitable for home building.
a. Subdivision
b. Condominium
c. Plot
136
100. Prepared the first documented valuation manual in Ireland.
a. Sir William Petty
b. Sir William Benjamin
c. Sir Thomas Preston
101. The difference between property value and debt value.
a. Equity
b. Down payment
c. Deposit
102. Identify the market supply and demand of a particular product
a. Market analysis
b. Supply and demand analysis
c. Situation analysis
103. It assumed that deterioration and wear occur at a constant average annual rate
a. Straight line depreciation
b. Average depreciation
c. Constant depreciation
104. Loss in value due to factors outside the properties
a. Economic obsolescence
b. External obsolescence
c. Physical obsolescence
105. Poor layout is an example of _____.
a. Functional obsolescence
b. Physical obsolescence
c. Material obsolescence
137
ANSWER KEYS
 ALL LETTER “A” OF EVERY CHOICES IS THE SUGGESTED ANSWER.
 For practicality and simplicity, the compiler of this review book wish to inform the
reader that the suggested answer for every question is all letter “a” choices”.
Hopefully this strategy will help the reviewer in achieving efficiency of studying the
topics in every subject and reducing the time of reading the questions and scanning
the back of the book in order to look for the answer key. Later on as you will study,
especially when time is constraint, you will be tempted to use a highlighter to mark
the correct answer. It is for this reason that this strategy of putting the correct answer
on letter “a” will eliminate the need of this effort.
 Remember practice makes perfect, and do not underestimate the power of repetition.
As long as possible try to study and repeat reading all of this topics covered in order to
retain the knowledge and information.
Good luck
“Per Aspera Ad Astra”
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1

REB Examination Reviewer:

REAL ESTATE BROKER(REB)

RA 9646 An Act Regulating the Real Estate

Also Includes Coverage on Some Topics

“ Per Aspera Ad Astra”

SPECIAL AND TECHNICAL KNOWLEDGE

ANSWER KEYS 138

1. A noble profession, calling or an occupation dedicated to the promotions, development and

97. Minimum lot area for economic housing detached.

107. A real estate salesperson must pass a licensure exam.

77. Is the largest insurance program

95. To be deducted from the loan proceeds of pag-ibig loan

107. Minimum total stock public ownership of shareholders in REIT

19. The place where the lot is situated.

“Per Aspera Ad Astra”

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