Which condition is least likely to result in syncope or intermittent weakness?

a. sick sinus syndrome

b. Doberman cardiomyopathy
c. chronic renal disease
d. hypoadrenocorticism
e. myasthenia gravis

Cough is a likely clinical sign in all the following disorders except :

a. tracheal collapse
b. right-sided congestive heart failure
c. Bordetella bronchospetica infection
d. balstomycosis
e. acute bacterial bronchitis

Megaesophagus may be associated with all the following disorders except :

a. myasthenia gravis
b. lead poisoning
c. hypothiroidism
d. severe esophagitis
e. hyperadrenocorticism

All the following woukd be useful in differentiating vomiting from regurgitation except :
a. retching
b. prodormal nausea
c. observing bile within the material produced
d. time of occurrence relative to eating
e. abdominal contraction

Which laboratory finding is least likely to indicate abdnormal liver function

a. alkaline phospatase 1473 IU/L (normal 0 to 90 IU/L)
b. albumine 1.3 mg/dl (normal 2.9 to 4.0 mg/dl)
c. blood urea nitrogen (BUN) 5 mg/dl (normal 10 to 28 mg/dl)
d. glucose 40 mg/dl (normal 80 to 120 mg/dl)
e. partial thromboplastin time 25 seconds (normal 7 to 14 seconds)

Which drug does not have antacid effect?

a. famotidine
b. sulfasalazine
c. aluminum hydroxide
d. cimetidine
e. omeprazole

Against which parasitic infection is fenbendazole not effective?

a. trichuriasis
b. giardiasis
c. coccidiosis
d. ancylostomiasis
e. ascariasis
Blood studies in anorectic dog reveal a serum albumin level of 1.9 g/dl (normal 2.5 to 4.0
g/dl), a total plasma proteinlevel of 3.0 g/dl (normal 5.5 to 7.5 g/dl) and a PCV of 38%
(normal 50%). Whats is the most likely cause of these finding?
a. glumerulonephritis
b. chronic gastrointestinal blood loss
c. cirrhocis
d. Rocky Mountain spotted fever
e. lymphangiectasis

Which of the following is least indicated medical management of the dog with
hepatoencephalophaty?
a. lactulose
b. metronidazole
c. neomycine
d. diazepam
e. low-protein diet

Whatis the test of choice in diagnosing iatrogenic Cushing’s disease:

a. low dosage dexamethasone test
b. adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) stimulant test
c. high dosage dexamethasone test
d. glucagon tolerance test
e. assay for blood ACTH level

Which drug is the most appropriate for treatment dog chronic renal disease and
nonregenerative anaemia (PCV 18%)?
a. stanozolol
b. human recombinant epoetin alfa
c. testosterone
d. prednisone
e. estrogen

How much water do normal dogs consume daily?

a. 2,5 to 5 ml/kg
b. 30 to 35 ml/kg
c. 10 to 20 ml/kg
d. more than 40 ml/kg
e. 5 to 35 ml/kg, depending on activity and ambient temperature

Causes of polyuria and polydipsia include all the following except :

a. chronic renal failure
b. pyometra
c. diabetes mellitus
d. hypocalcemia
e. hyperadrenocorticism

Causes of hypercholesterolemia/hyperlipidemia includes all the following except :

a. hypothyroidism
b. hypoglicemia
c. pancreatitis
d. hyperadrenocorticism
e. nephrotic syndrome

Increase fasting and post prandial serum blie acid levels are indicating of :
a. pancreatitis
b. chronic pancreatic insufficiency
c. chronic renal disease
d. liver disease
e. hyperadrenocorticism

What is the drug of choice for treatment Erlichia canis infection?

a. gentamicin
b. enrofloxacin
c. tetracycline
d. penicillin G
e. ampicillin

What the significance bilirubinuria in dogs ?

a. non spesific finding of no particular clinical significant
b. usually indicative of liver disease
c. usually indicative of renal disease
d. indicative of glumerular disease
e. indicative of ichterus

Which clinical pathologic finding is least likely to be observe in a dog that has been treated
with prednisone for the past 2 months?
a. eoasinophilia
b. neutrophilia
c. lymphocytosis
d. monocytosis
e. increased serum alkaline phosphatase activity

Which disorders is the most likely to cause transudative ascites?

a. nephrotic syndrome
b. pancreatitis
c. hemangiosarcoma
d. dirofilariasis
e. carcinomatosis

Which disorders is least likely to cause regenerative anaemia?

a. babesiosis
b. hypothyroidism
c. hemangiosarcoma
d. autoimmune hemolytic anaemia
e. chronic gastrointestinal blood loss

During surgical correction of gastric dilation volvulus

a. gastrotomy is often required to empty the stomach
b. gastropexy is performed between stomach and left body wall
c. fluorescein dye is very helpful in assesing gastric viability
d. partial gastric invagination may be an alternative to partial gastric resection
e. splenectomy should also be performed if splenic torsion is still present following gastric
derotation

Concerning ear surgery for chronic otitis externa, which statement is most accurate?
a. bilateral total ear canal ablation always results in deafness
b. total ear canal ablation is indicated when hypertrophy has produced stenosis of the horizon
canal
c. bulla osteotomy should be avoided unless there is radiographic evidence of the otitis media
d. lateral ear canal resection may result in damage to the zygomatic salivary gland
e. facial nerve paralysis is a complication of lateral ear canal resection

Castration can be used in treatment or prevention of all the following disorders except:
a. perianal fistula
b. perineal hernia
c. perianal adenoma
d. benign prostatic hyperplasia
e. chronic prostatitis

After reduction of hip luxation, the limb should be maintained in :

a. a Velpeau sling
b. an Ehmer sling
c. a Robinson sling
d. a spica splint
e. a 90-90 flexion sling

A Schroeder-Thomas splint is most appropriate for immobiliizing :

a. a closed, mid-shaft femoral fracture
b. an open, mid-shaft humeral fracture
c. a nondisplced, distal radial fracture in a toy-breed dog
d. a closed, oblique tibialfracture in a Labrador retriever puppy
e. a mandibular fracture

What is the best traetment for a 3-year-old Irish setter with a two-piece, transverse, mid-
diaphyseal femoral fracture?
a. bone palte
b. external fixator
c. intramedullary pin and cerclage wire
d. intramedullary pin alone
e. Schroeder-Thomas splint

The most stable configuration of an external fixation devie is :

a. type I, single bar (unilateral)
b. type I, double bar (unilateral)
c. type II (bilateral, uniplanar)
d. type III (bilateral, biplanar)
e. guadrilateral (unilateral, biplanar)

The strongest type of gastropexy used as treatment of gastric dilation-volvulus in dogs is :

a. tube gastrotomy
b. gastrocolopexy
c. circumcostal gastropexy
d. belt-loop gastropexy
e. gastropexy with scarification of the peritoneum

All the following are accepted general principles of surgical drain placement except :
a. aseptic drain placement with drain maintained under steril bandages
b. drains should nor exit through incision lines
c. increasing the number of drain lumina decreases wound drainage
d. fewest drains possible placed through the least number of holes
e. drains shloud be removed when drainage becomes neglicable

Strongest absorbable suture material at implantation

a. polyglycolic acid
b. nylon
c. stainless steel
d. polypropylene
e. polyglyconate

Which antimicrobial is the most effective for chemoprophylaxis in a cat undergoing

colotomy?
a. penicillin
b. trimethoprim-sulfa
c. clindamycin
d. tetracycline
e. second-generation cephalosporin

Absorbable suture material that should not be exposed to the bladder lumen :
a. stainless steel
b. nylon
c. polyglyconate
d. polyglycolic acid
e. polypropylene

The most common type of dehydration that must be corrected before any surgical procedure
is :
a. Addison-type dehidration (high kalium, low natrium)
b. hypotonic dehydration (low serum natrium)
c. isotonic dehydration with hypokalemia
d. hypertonic dehydration with hypernatremia
e. isotonic dehydration (normal serum natrium)

Which lesion is not associated with wobbler syndrome?

a. intermittent spinal cord compression from hypertrophy of the ventral longitudinal ligament
b. intermittent spinal cord compression hypertrophy of ligamentum flavum
c. spinal cord compression from vertebral malalignment
d. spinal cord compression from intervertebral disc herniation
e. cervival vertebral malformation that cause constant pressure on the cervical spinal cord
In cat, megacolon is most commonly associated with :
a. an external mass, such adenocarcinoma
b. lumbosacral trauma
c. pelvi fracture
d. an intraluminal mass, such as a foreign body
e. unknown factors

What is an isograft:
a. graft in which donor and recipient are genetically unrelated individuals of the same species
b. graft in which donor and recipient are different individuals but genetically identical
c. graft in which tissue is tranferred to a new position on the same individual
d. graft in which donor and recipient are individuals of different species
e. a graft in which the donor tissue is of the same organ type as the recipient

Stongest available suture material :

a. nylon
b. polyglycolic acid
c. polypropykene
d. stainless steel
e. polyglyconate

Which of the following is most likely to contribute to postoperative aspiration pneumonia in a

cat subjected to surgery for correction of sever pyloric outflow disease caused by benign or
neoplastic tumor?
a. concurrent megaoesophagus caused by vagal nerve involvement by tumor
b. dysphagia
c. postoperative use of a vagolytic agent
d. gastric retention of fluids
e. impingement of the diafragma by the distended stomach

An 8-month-old St Bernard has hind limb lameness with mild muscle atrophy, hip pain and a
positive Ortolani sign. There is no radiographic evidence of degenerative joint disease. Which
treatment is most appropriate at this time?
a. femoral head and neck osteotomy
b. pectineomyotomy
c. total hip replacement
d. triple pelvic osteotomy
e. limited activity, with administration of antiinflammatories and chondroprotectives

Following vasectomy, a tomcat may have viable sprerm in its ejaculate for up to :
a. 50 days
b. 15 days
c. 3 days
d. 6 month
e. 1 year

When incised, which tunic differentiates a “closed” castration from an “open” castration?
a. parietal testicular tunic
b. spermatic tunic
c. parietal vaginal tunic
d. visceral vaginal tunic
e. double vaginal tunic

Of the following antibacterials, which is the best choice for perioperative use in a cat with
pyometra?
a. cefoxitin
b. tetracycline
c. metronidazole
d. erythromycin
e. clindamycin

Which cat breed has a greater prevalence of cryptochidism than other breed?
a. Burmese
b. Persian
c. Devon Rex
d. domestic long hair
e. Siamese

Stretching and thinning og the skin surrounding a contracted wound are called:
a. epithelial migration
b. intussuseptive growth
c. bolstered growth
d. collagenolysis
e. epidermolytic migration

Which surgical procedur is designed to enlarge the vulvar opening?

a. celiotomy
b. episiotomy
c. vaginotomy
d. stomostomy
e. hysterotomy

A 6 year old Persian cat is depressed, slightly anorectic and lame. Finding of physical
examination are unremarkable except for the skin. You find marked crusting of the inner
aspects of the pinnae, intact pustules, periocular and nasal dcrusting and exudative
paronychia. The hair coat is matted, with marked exfoliation. Result of a complete blood
count, serum chemistry panel, and urinalysis are within normal limits. An antinuclear
antibody test is negative. Cytologic examination of the contents of an intact pustules reveals
full fileds of neutrophiles, no bacteria, and rafts of acantholytic cells. Histopathologic
examination reveals subcorneal and intrangular pustular dermatitis with acantholysis but no
evidence of bacteria. Direct immunofluorescence testing reveals deposition of
immunoglobulins intercellualrly. The most likely cause of these finding is :
a. systemic lupus erytemaosus
b. drug eruption
c. pemphigus foliaceus
d. discoid lupus erythematosus
e. pemphigus vulgaris

Which of the following is not a cutaneus sign of hypoadrenocorticism in cats or dogs?

a. calcinosis cutis
b. thin, fragile skin
c. symmetric alopecia
d. commedones
e. hypertrichosis

Concerning atopy in dogs or cats, which statement is least accurate?

a. Atopy is a familial disease with definite breed predisposistions in dogs, such as terriers.
b. Atopic animals typically show facial, pedal, axillary and inguinal pruritus, but some dogs
may show only pruritus of the ears.
c. Clinical sign may be seasonal or non seasonal
d. The primary skin lessions in atopy are hair loss, superficial pyoderma, milliary dermatitis,
and seborrhea.
e. Treatment for non seasonal atopy includes hyposensiitization, which may takes as long as 9
month to produce a response.

Which of the following has not been implicated in the pathogenesis of flea-allergy
dermatitis?
a. Type-1 hypersensitivity
b. Type-4 hypersensitivity
c. Late-phase immediate hypersensitivity reactions
d. Type-3 reactions
e. Cutaneous basophil hypersensitivity

Cutaneous asthenia is characterized by:

a. Abnormal skin elasticity and fragility
b. Exfoliation
c. Abnormal haircoat shedding and hair replacement
d. Hyperesthesia and self-trauma
e. Alopecia

Which of the following is not a common skin tumor of cats?

a. Basal-cell carcinoma
b. Squamous-cell carcinoma
c. Lipoma
d. Mast-cell tumor
e. Fibromsarcoma

A 12-week-old Labrador retriever puppy is extremely depressed and anorectic. It has a rectal
temperature of 40,28 C and the skin is painful to the touch. The ears, face and muzzle are
swollen, and intact vesicles and pustules are present. There is periocular swelling and
ulceration. Marked generalized lymphodenopathy is present, and numerous lymph nodes
have abscessed. Nodular draining lesions are present on the trunk. According to the owner,
lesions developed 4 days after vaccination. A complete blood count reveals leukocytosis and
neutrophilia. Lymph node aspiration reveals suppurative inflammation. Cytologic
examination of material from a pustule shows degenerative neutrophils but no bacteria. A
skin scraping is negative for Demodex mites. The most likely cause of these findings is:
a. Occult juvenile demodecosis
b. Juvenile cellulitis
c. Septichemia
d. Systemic lupus erythematosus
e. Drug reaction

Concerning of structure and functions of skin in dogs and cats, which statement is least
accurate?
Langhan’s cell are part of the skin pigmentary system
The epidermis of dogs and cats is thinner that that of people
Melanocytes are fewer in number in feline skin than in canine skin.
The tails gland (supracaudal gland, preen gland) in dogs and cats produces an oily substance
believed to be important in olfactory recognition

The most common underlying cause of deep pyoderma in dogs is :

a. demodecosis
b. dermatophytosis
c. inadequatly treated superficial pyoderma
d. Proteus infection
e. hypothyroidism

Concerning intradermal testing in dogs and cats, which statement is least accurate?
a. Antihistamine and acepromazine may cause a flase-negative reaction.
b. Oral or parenteral glucocorticoids, but not topical glucocorticoids, may cause a flase-
negative reaction.
c. Fear, pseudopregnancy or estrous may cause a flase-negative reactions
d. Infalmmation associated with severe superficial pyoderma may cause a flase-positive
reaction.
e. Testing with antigen mixtures, or overdiluted allergen concentration may cause a false-
negative reaction.

A dog has extreme pruritus of the feet, with some foot pads crusted and some not crusted.
The least likely cause of these signs is :
a. hookworm dermatitis
b. Peloderma dermatitis
c. irritan contact reaction
d. contact allergy
e. biotin deficiency

Concerning dermatophyte culture, which statement is least accurate?

a. Cultures of samples obtained by hair-coat brushing with a toothbrush are the most reliable
method for cats, especially suspected asymptomatic carriers
b. When culturing isolated lesion from dogs, it is best to swab the area with alcohol to
minimized the number of contaminant fungi

Concerning mite infestation in cats and dogs which statement is least accurate?
a. Cheyletiellosis is characterized by scalling with or without pruritus
b. Scabies in dogs is an inetensively pruritic skin disease with a predilection for thinly haired
areas of the body
c. Otodectes infestation in cats and dogs require treatments of the ears and the body for
eradicatiod.
d. Demodecosis is a contagious mite infestation
e. Notoedric mange in cats has a predilection for the head, and mites are easily found on skin
scrapings

Of the following of disease and causative microorganisms, which set is incorrect?

a. cat bite abscess, Pasteurella multocida
b. feline dermatophytosis, Microsporum canis
c. bubonic plaque, Yersinia pestis
d. Lyme disease, Ixodes dammini
e. bacterial granulomas (botryomycosis), coagulase-positive staphylococcus

Concerning the stucture and functions of the skin in dogs and cats, which statement is least
accurate?
a. Langhan’s cell are part of the skin pigemntary system
b. The epidermis of dogs and cats is thinner than that the people
c. Melanocytes are fewer in number in feline skin than in canine skin
d. Ctas and dogs do not have accrine sweat glands in haired skin
e. The tails gland (supracaudal gland, preen gland) in dogs and cats produces an oily
substance believed to be important in olfactory recognition