Class 9

15th

SET A

Year 2012

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15th NSO - SET A
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Mental Ability
 1
 r + 4 
r 9 3 ⋅ 3− r
1. = k , then the value of k is_______.
3 ⋅ 3− r
(A) 3 (B) 32 (C) 33 (D) r
3

4 3 2
2. If f(x) = x – 2x + 3x – ax + b is a polynomial such that when it is divided by (x – 1) and (x + 1), the
remainders are respectively 5 and 19. Determine the remainder when f(x) is divided by (x – 2).
(A) 5 (B) –8 (C) 10 (D) 8

3. Five persons are standing in a queue. One of the two persons at the extreme ends is a professor
and the other is a businessman. An advocate is standing to the right of a student. An author is
to the left of the businessman. The student is between the professor and the advocate.
Counting from the left, the author is at place _______.
(A) First (B) Second (C) Third (D) Fourth

4. In the given figure, if AB || CD and EF || DQ, then ∠PDQ is _______. P Q F

(A) 48°
(B) 34° 34°
D
C
(C) 72° 78°
(D) 68° A E B

5. In the following series, how many times the sum of two consecutive numbers results an even
number ?
1 2 3 4 6 3 4 2 5 9 3 6 7 4 1 2 3 6 7 6 5 4 3
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 2 (D) 5

2 4  5 3 1 5 4
6. Find the value of + 2 ÷ 7 − 5  ÷ 22 + 10 × − .
5 9   12 4 2 18  5
13 16 8
(A) (B) (C) (D) 1
21 35 19
B
7. In the given figure, x + y = _______. C y°

(A) 270° 80°

40° O 70°
(B) 230°
(C) 210° A
D
x°
(D) 190°

8. A triangle and a parallelogram have the same base and the same area. If the sides of the triangle
are 13 cm, 14 cm and 15 cm and the parallelogram stands on the base 14 cm, then the height of
the parallelogram is _______.
(A) 4 cm (B) 8 cm (C) 6 cm (D) 10 cm

9. Select a figure from amongst the options which will continue the series established by Problem
Figures. Problem Figures

?
(A) (B) (C) (D)

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15th NSO - SET A
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10. A retailer increases the selling price by 25% due to which his profit percentage increases from
20% to 25%. The percentage increase in cost price is _______.
(A) 20% (B) 30% (C) 25% (D) 50%
3 3 3
11. If a + b + c = 6, the value of (2 – a) + (2 – b) + (2 – c) – 3(2 – a) (2 – b) (2 – c) is ______.
(A) 1 (B) 0 (C) –1 (D) 2

12. Choose from the options which most closely resembles the water-image of the given combination.
BK50RP62
B 5 RP 2 B 5 RP 2 B 5 R P 2 B 5 R P 2
(A) K 0 9 (B) K 0 9 (C) K 0 9 (D) K 0 9

13. In the adjoining figure, PQRS is square and MS = RN and A, P, Q and B lie
on the same line. Also AP = MS and AP is the radius of the circle. Find the
ratio of the area of two circles to the area of the square.
(A) p : 3 (B) 2p : 3 (C) 3p : 2 (D) 6 : p

14. In DABC, E is the mid-point of median AD such that BE produced meets AC at F. If AC = 10 cm,
then AF =
(A) 3 cm (B) 3.3 cm (C) 2.5 cm (D) None of these

15. A cosmetic company produces five different

products. The sales of these five products
(in lakh of packs) during 1995 and 2000 are
shown in the given bar-graph.
What is the approximate ratio of the sales of
nail enamels in 2000 to the sales of Talcum
powders in 1995 ?
(A) 7 : 2 (B) 5 : 2
(C) 4 : 3 (D) 2 :1

SCIENCE
16. A force F1 acts on a particle to accelerate it from rest to a velocity v. The force F1 is then replaced
by force F2 which decelerates it to rest. Which of the following statements is true?
(A) F1 must be equal to F 2 (B) F1 may be equal to F 2
(C) F1 must be unequal to F 2 (D) None of these

17. A person sitting on a chair in a satellite feels weightless. It is because

(A) The normal force by the chair on the person balances the earth's attraction
(B) The normal force is zero
(C) The person in the satellite is not accelerated (D) Cannot say

18. The velocity-time graph of a body is given in figure.

The maximum acceleration in m/s2 is
(A) 4
(B) 3
(C) 2
(D) 1

19. Which quantity of a two particles system depend only on the separation between the two
particles?
(A) Kinetic energy (B) Total mechanical energy (C) Potential energy (D) Both (A) and (B)

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15th NSO - SET A
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20. An object of mass 10 kg is at a point A on a table. It is moved to a point B by a distance 5 m. If the line
joining A and B is horizontal, then what is the work done on the object by the gravitational force?
(A) 50 J (B) 100 J (C) 60 J (D) Zero.

21. A plane lamina is freely suspended from point P.

The weight of the lamina is 2.0 N and the centre of gravity is at C. PC = 0.50 m,
PQ = 0.40 m and QC = 0.30 m. The lamina is displaced to the position shown.
What is the moment that will cause the lamina to swing?
(A) 0.60 Nm clockwise (B) 0.80 Nm anticlockwise
(C) 1.0 Nm clockwise (D) 1.0 N m anticlockwise

22. Read the given statements and mark the correct option.
Statement 1 : A person seated in a moving train is at rest with respect to another train moving in
the opposite direction.
Statement 2 : If the train covers equal displacement in equal intervals of time then it moves with
uniform acceleration.
(A) Both statements 1 and 2 are true and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1.
(B) Both statements 1 and 2 are true but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1.
(C) Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false. (D) Both statements 1 and 2 are false.

23. A sound wave passes from a medium A to a medium B. The velocity of sound B is greater than
that in A. Assume that there is no absorption or reflection of the boundary. As the wave moves
across the boundary, the ______.
(A) Frequency of sound will increase (B) Wavelength of sound will increase
(C) Wavelength of sound will decrease (D) Intensity of sound will increase

24. The energy required to change liquid water into water vapour at the same temperature is called
latent heat of vaporisation. What does this energy do?
(A) It increases the average separation of the water molecules.
(B) It decreases the average speed of the water molecules.
(C) It raises the temperature of the air near the water.
(D) It splits the water molecules into their separate atoms.

25. An artificial satellite is moving in a circular orbit of radius 42250 km. Find its speed if it takes
24 hours to revolve around the earth.
(A) 3.07 km s–1 (B) 5.67 km s–1 (C) 6.14 km s–1 (D) 1.57 km s–1

26. Read the given statements and mark the correct option.
Statement 1 : The sun seems to rise before it actually rises above horizon and it seems to set
after some time it actually sets below horizon.
Statement 2 : A light ray bends towards the normal when it passes from a rarer to denser medium.
(A) Both statements 1 and 2 are true and statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1.
(B) Both statements 1 and 2 are true but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of statement 1.
(C) Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false. (D) Both statements 1 and 2 are false.

27. A man who is standing at a point X between two parallel walls

as shown in the diagram, fires a starting pistol.
He hears the first echo after 0.6 s and another one after 0.8 s.
How long after firing the pistol will he hear the next echo?

(A) 1.2 s (B) 1.4 s (C) 1.6 s (D) 2.4 s

28. In which conversion do H2O molecules lose speed? Steam

(A) Ice → Water (B) Ice → Steam

(C) Steam → Ice (D) Water → Steam Water Ice

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15th NSO - SET A
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29. The table shows the results of adding weighed pieces of iron to solutions M and S.
What could the aqueous solutions M and S been?
M S Solution Initial mass Mass of iron after
(A) Copper(II) sulphate Silver nitrate of iron (g) 15 minutes (g)
(B) Dilute hydrochloric acid Sodium chloride
M 5 4
(C) Iron(II) chloride Calcium chloride
(D) Magnesium chloride Dilute sulphuric acid S 5 4

30. Few properties of gases Gas X : An extremely suffocating and corrosive gas, released
X, Y and Z are given. by burning coal and diesel.
Gases X and Y dissolve Gas Y : Given off by petrol engines.
in rain water and produce
Gas Z : Produced by incomplete combustion of fuels.
acid rain.
Identify gases X, Y and Z respectively on the basis of the given properties.
(A) CO2, H2, SO2 (B) SO2, NOx, CO (C) NOx, SO2, CO (D) H2, SO2, CO

31. Two particles X and Y have the composition as shown in the table.
The particles X and Y are
Particle Number of Number of Number of
(A) Metal atoms
electrons neutrons protons
(B) Non-metal atoms
X 10 8 8
(C) Negative ions
Y 18 18 17
(D) Positive ions

32. Mark the correct sequence of substances obtained during fractional distillation of petroleum in
ascending order of their boiling points.
(A) Petroleum gas, Kerosene, Petrol, Diesel, Paraffin wax
(B) Petrol, Petroleum gas, Kerosene, Light oil, Diesel
(C) Petroleum gas, Petrol, Kerosene, Diesel, Lubricating oil
(D) Petroleum gas, Petrol, Lubricating oil, Diesel, Kerosene

33. Read the following statements and mark the correct answer.
I. Artificially prepared synthetic fibre which resembles silk is known as terylene.
II. Rayon is not considered as a synthetic fibre as it is regenerated from cellulose.
III. PET bottles and jars are made up of polyesters.
(A) Statement I is false, II and III are true. (B) Statement I is true, II and III are false.
(C) Statements I and II are false, III is true. (D) Statement II is true, I and III are false.

34. A piece of charcoal is burnt and kept in a watch glass.

The burning charcoal is covered by an inverted gas jar. It is
observed that the charcoal stops burning after some time.
Take out the jar and add some water to it. Test the solution
with red and blue litmus paper. What do you observe?
(A) Solution turns red litmus blue, hence the oxide formed by burning of charcoal was basic oxide.
(B) Solution turns blue litmus red, hence the oxide formed by burning of charcoal was acidic oxide.
(C) Solution does not change the colour of litmus paper, hence the oxide formed by burning charcoal was neutral.
(D) Solution turns blue litmus red, hence the oxide formed by burning charcoal was basic oxide.

35. The relative atomic mass of naturally occurring chlorine is not a whole number. What is the reason
for this?
(A) Chlorine atoms can have different numbers of neutrons.
(B) Naturally occurring chlorine cannot be obtained pure.
(C) Chlorine is unstable. (D) The mass of the electrons has been included.

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15th NSO - SET A
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36. Match the Column-I with Column-II and select the correct option from the codes given below.
Column-I (Mixture) Column-II (Technique used to separate the components)

(a) Ammonium chloride and salt (i)

(b) Iron in its ore (ii)

(c) Drugs in blood (iii)

(d) Ethyl alcohol and water (iv)

(A) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv) (B) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
(C) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i) (D) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)

37. The given diagram shows a boat made from iron.

Some magnesium blocks are attached to the iron
below the water line to prevent rusting. Why?
(A) Magnesium reacts in preference to the iron.
(B) The magnesium forms an alloy with the iron.
(C) Magnesium reacts to form a protective coating of magnesium hydroxide on the iron.
(D) The magnesium stops oxygen in the water from getting to the iron.

38. Plastids differ from mitochondria on the basis of which of the following features?
(A) Presence of two layers of membrane (B) Presence of green pigments
(C) Presence of DNA
(D) Plastids are present in plant cell while mitochondria are present in animal cell.

39. Given below are four statements regarding external fertilization.

(i) The male and female gametes are formed and released simultaneously.
(ii) Only a few gametes are released into the medium.
(iii) Water is the medium of fertilization in majority of organisms exhibiting external fertilization.
(iv) Offsprings developed from external fertilization have better chances of survival than those
developed from internal fertilization.
Which of the given statements are correct?
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii) (B) (i), (iii) and (iv) (C) (iii) and (iv) (D) (i) and (iii)

40. Harvesting in our country is either done manually by ___(i)_ or by a machine called ___(ii)_ . In the
(iii)
next step, the grain seeds are separated from the cut crop. This process is called _____ . This is
(iv)
carried out with the help of a machine called ___ __.
Select the correct sequence of words to complete the above paragraph.
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(A) Hoe Cultivator Winnowing Combine
(B) Sickle Cultivator Threshing Seed drill
(C) Hoe Harvester Winnowing Seed drill
(D) Sickle Harvester Threshing Combine

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15th NSO - SET A
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41. Select the incorrect statement regarding AIDS.

(A) It is an immunodeficiency disease. (B) HIV has RNA as its genetic material.
(C) AIDS can be transmitted to an infant from the infected mother through her milk.
(D) The time-lag between the infection and appearance of AIDS symptoms may vary from week to month.

42. Which of the following options is correct about India alligator and Indian giant squirrel?
(A) Both are examples of extinct species. (B) Both are found in Satpura National Park.
(C) Both are examples of endemic species. (D) Both are examples of exotic species.

43. Inorganic fertilizers are applied each year to fields bordering a lake. The fertilizers run off into the
lake and cause the following six changes which together cause high mortality of fishes.
(i) Aerobic bacteria feed on dead plants. (ii) Algae reproduce faster.
(iii) Light cannot penetrate the water. (iv) Oxygen level falls.
(v) Water becomes green. (vi) Plants under water die.
Which of the following shows the correct order of the changes taking place?
(A) (iv) → (vi) → (i) → (ii) → (v) → (iii) (B) (ii) → (v) → (iii) → (vi) → (i) → (iv)
(C) (v) → (ii) → (iii) → (vi) → (i) → (iv) (D) (ii) → (iii) → (v) → (iv) → (vi) → (i)

44. The given box contains some diseases caused by different pathogens such as bacteria, virus, fungi
and protozoa.
(i) Typhoid, (ii) Athlete’s foot, (iii) Tuberculosis, (iv) Anthrax, (v) Malaria,
(vi) Common cold, (vii) Amoebic dysentery, (viii) Yellow vein mosaic, (ix) Influenza, (x) Pneumonia

Which of the following shows the correct category of diseases and their causative agents?
Viral Protozoan Bacterial Fungal
(A) (vi) (vii) (iv) (ii)
(B) (i) (vi) (iv) (iii)
(C) (v) (viii) (x) (ii)
(D) (x) (vi) (ix) (iii)

45. Leech, Nereis, Scolopendra, prawn and scorpion all have segmented body organization, but still they
cannot be classified in one group. Which of the following is the correct basis for the classification
of these organisms into different groups?
(A) Leech and Nereis belong to the phylum annelida because they have metamerically segmented body.
(B) Scolopendra, prawn and scorpion belong to phylum arthropoda, as they possess jointed appendages.
(C) Leech, Nereis and Scolopendra belong to phylum annelida because they possess closed blood vascular
system.
(D) Both (A) and (B).

46. Refer the given figure and read the following statements.
(i) The part labelled P modifies into pseudopodia in WBC and helps in movement.
(ii) The part labelled Q is absent in mature red blood cells in humans. U
(iii) The parts labelled R and U help in production of energy. P

(iv) The part labelled S enlarges during maturity. Q

(v) The part labelled T is spindle shaped with pointed ends in S
muscle cells.
Which of the given statements are incorrect regarding this? T

(A) (iii), (iv) and (v) (B) (i) and (ii) R

(C) (iii) and (v) (D) (i), (iii) and (iv)

47. Goitre can occur either due to hypothyroidism (endemic goitre) or hyperthyroidism (exophthalmic
goitre). Which of the following is a correct comparison among the both?
Hypothyroidism Hyperthyroidism
(A) High body temperature Low body temperature
(B) Low blood pressure High blood pressure
(C) Increased appetite Bulging of eye balls
(D) Bulging of eyeballs Tendency towards obesity

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15th NSO - SET A
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48. Given below are some characteristics of vessels and tracheids.

(i) Multicellular with wide lumen (ii) Dead cells
(iii) Cell walls are lignified
(iv) Discontinuous lumen due to presence of end walls
(v) Long, cylindrical tube-like structure (vi) Elongated cells with tapering ends
Categorize the above characteristics with vessels (X) and tracheids (Y) and select the correct
option.
(A) X – (i), (ii), (iii), (v); Y – (ii), (iii), (iv), (vi) (B) X – (i), (iii), (vi); Y – (ii), (iii), (iv), (v)
(C) X – (i), (iv), (v); Y – (ii), (iv), (v), (vi) (D) X – (i), (ii), (v), (vi); Y – (i), (iii), (iv), (vi)

49. Which of the following is incorrect for the given

figure?
(A) It is a type of cropping pattern called intercropping.
(B) The given cropping pattern increases the productivity
of crops per unit area.
(C) The given cropping pattern helps in maintaining soil
fertility and makes better use of resources.
(D) None of these.

50. An ecologist studied the effects of sewage effluent

Increase (arbitrary unit)

on the levels of oxygen concentration, bacterial
population and algal growth in a fresh water stream.
The given graph is plotted based on his findings.
Select the correct statement regarding the given graph.
(A) There is a fall in oxygen concentration between
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13
point Y and 4 km downstream because it is utilized
by algae for respiration during day. Point Y Distance down the stream (km)
(Entry
(B) There is a rise in oxygen concentration between 4 km of Key: Oxygen concentration
Sewage) Algae
and 8 km downstream because bacterial usage of oxygen
Bacteria
for respiration is lower.
(C) Bacterial population never recovers from 8 km onwards because all the oxygen is used up by algae.
(D) There is decrease in the level of bacteria between 5 km and 7 km downstream because all the oxygen and
organic matter has been used up by algal population.

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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