DATE : 07/05/2017 Test Booklet Code

Q
(TARA)

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Answers & Solutions Max. Marks : 720

for
NEET (UG) - 2017

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 NEET (UG) - 2017 (Code-Q) TARA

1. Homozygous purelines in cattle can be obtained by
(1) Mating of unrelated individuals of same breed
(2) Mating of individuals of different breed
(3) Mating of individuals of different species
(4) Mating of related individuals of same breed
Answer (4)
Sol. Inbreeding results in increase in the homozygosity.
Therefore, mating of the related individuals of same
breed will increase homozygosity.
2. The function of copper ions in copper releasing IUD's
is
(1) They inhibit gametogenesis
(2) They make uterus unsuitable for implantation
(3) They inhibit ovulation
(4) They suppress sperm motility and fertilising
capacity of sperms
Answer (4)
Sol. Cu 2+ interfere in the sperm movement, hence
suppress the sperm motility and fertilising capacity
of sperms.
Sol. Wind pollination or anemophily is favoured by flowers
having a single ovule in each ovary, and numerous
flowers packed in an inflorescence. Wind pollination
is a non-directional pollination.
6. Which one of the following statements is not valid for
aerosols?
(1) They alter rainfall and monsoon patterns
(2) They cause increased agricultural productivity
(3) They have negative impact on agricultural land
(4) They are harmful to human health
Answer (2)
Sol. Aerosols can cause various problems to agriculture
through its direct or indirect effects on plants.
However continually increasing air pollution may
represent a persistent and largely irreversible threat
to agriculture in the future.
7. Which among the following are the smallest living
cells, known without a definite cell wall, pathogenic
to plants as well as animals and can survive without
oxygen?

3. Among the following characters, which one was not (1) Pseudomonas (2) Mycoplasma
considered by Mendel in his experiments on pea? (3) Nostoc (4) Bacillus
(1) Trichomes – Glandular or non-glandular Answer (2)
(2) Seed – Green or Yellow Sol. Mycoplasmas are smallest, wall-less prokaryotes,
(3) Pod – Inflated or Constricted pleomorphic in nature. These are pathogenic on both
plants and animals.
(4) Stem – Tall or Dwarf
8. In Bougainvillea thorns are the modifications of
Answer (1)
(1) Adventitious root (2) Stem
Sol. During his experiments Mendel studied seven (3) Leaf (4) Stipules
characters.
Answer (2)
Nature of trichomes i.e., glandular or non-glandular Sol. Thorns are hard, pointed straight structures for
was not considered by Mendel. protection. These are modified stem.
4. In case of poriferans the spongocoel is lined with 9. DNA replication in bacteria occurs
flagellated cells called :
(1) Within nucleolus
(1) Oscula (2) Choanocytes
(2) Prior to fission
(3) Mesenchymal cells (4) Ostia
(3) Just before transcription
Answer (2)
(4) During S-phase
Sol. Choanocytes (collar cells) form lining of spongocoel Answer (2)
in poriferans (sponges). Flagella in collar cells provide
circulation to water in water canal system. Sol. DNA replication in bacteria occurs prior to fission.
Prokaryotes do not show well marked S-phase due
5. Flowers which have single ovule in the ovary and are to their primitive nature.
packed into inflorescence are usually pollinated by
10. Functional megaspore in an angiosperm develops
(1) Bee (2) Wind into
(3) Bat (4) Water (1) Endosperm (2) Embryo sac
Answer (2)
(3) Embryo (4) Ovule
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 NEET (UG) - 2017 (Code-Q) TARA

Answer (2) 15. An example of colonial alga is

Sol. Megaspore is the first cell of female gametophytic (1) Volvox (2) Ulothrix
generation in angiosperm. It undergoes three
successive generations of free nuclear mitosis to (3) Spirogyra (4) Chlorella
form 8-nucleated and 7-celled embryo sac. Answer (1)
11. Anaphase promoting complex (APC) is a protein Sol. Volvox is motile colonial fresh water alga with definite
degradation machinery necessary for proper mitosis number of vegetative cells.
of animal cells. If APC is defective in a human cell,
which of the following is expected to occur? 16. Zygotic meiosis is characterstic of
(1) Chromosomes will be fragmented (1) Fucus (2) Funaria
(2) Chromosomes will not segregate (3) Chlamydomonas (4) Marchantia
(3) Recombination of chromosome arms will occur Answer (3)
(4) Chromosomes will not condense Sol. Chlamydomonas has haplontic life cycle hence
Answer (2) showing zygotic meiosis or initial meiosis.
Sol. Anaphase Promoting Complex (APC) is a protein 17. Which one of the following statements is correct,
necessary for separation of daughter chromosomes with reference to enzymes?
during anaphase. If APC is defective then the
chromosomes will fail to segregate during anaphase. (1) Holoenzyme = Apoenzyme + Coenzyme

12. Which of the following is made up of dead cells? (2) Coenzyme = Apoenzyme + Holoenzyme
(1) Collenchyma (2) Phellem (3) Holoenzyme = Coenzyme + Cofactor
(3) Phloem (4) Xylem parenchyma (4) Apoenzyme = Holoenzyme + Coenzyme
Answer (2) Answer (1)
Sol. Cork cambium undergoes periclinal division and cuts Sol. Holoenzyme is conjugated enzyme in which protein
off thick walled suberised dead cork cells towards part is apoenzyme while non-protein is cofactor.
outside and it cuts off thin walled living cells i.e.,
phelloderm on inner side. Coenzyme are also organic compounds but their
13. What is the criterion for DNA fragments movement association with apoenzyme is only transient and
on agarose gel during gel electrophoresis? serve as cofactors.
(1) The smaller the fragment size, the farther it 18. A disease caused by an autosomal primary
moves non-disjunction is
(2) Positively charged fragments move to farther end (1) Klinefelter's syndrome
(3) Negatively charged fragments do not move (2) Turner's syndrome
(4) The larger the fragment size, the farther it moves
(3) Sickle cell anemia
Answer (1)
(4) Down's syndrome
Sol. During gel electrophoresis, DNA fragments separate
(resolve) according to their size through sieving effect Answer (4)
provided by agarose gel. Sol. Down’s syndrome is caused by non-disjunction of
14. Identify the wrong statement in context of heartwood. 21st chromosome.
(1) It is highly durable 19. A gene whose expression helps to identify
(2) It conducts water and minerals efficiently transformed cell is known as
(3) It comprises dead elements with highly lignified (1) Vector (2) Plasmid
walls
(3) Structural gene (4) Selectable marker
(4) Organic compounds are deposited in it
Answer (4)
Answer (2)
Sol. In recombinant DNA technology, selectable markers
Sol. Heartwood is physiologically inactive due to
deposition of organic compounds and tyloses helps in identifying and eliminating non-transformants
formation, so this will not conduct water and and selectively permitting the growth of the
minerals. transformants.

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 NEET (UG) - 2017 (Code-Q) TARA

20. Plants which produce characterstic pneumatophores (3) Expiratory Reserve Volume
and show vivipary belong to (4) Residual Volume
(1) Halophytes (2) Psammophytes Answer (4)
(3) Hydrophytes (4) Mesophytes Sol. Volume of air present in lungs after forceful expiration
Answer (1) as residual volume which prevents the collapsing of
alveoli even after forceful expiration.
Sol. Halophytes growing in saline soils show
24. Life cycle of Ectocarpus and Fucus respectively are
(i) Vivipary which is in-situ seed germination
(1) Diplontic, Haplodiplontic
(ii) Pneumatophores for gaseous exchange
(2) Haplodiplontic, Diplontic
21. With reference to factors affecting the rate of
photosynthesis, which of the following statements is (3) Haplodiplontic, Haplontic
not correct? (4) Haplontic, Diplontic
(1) Increasing atmospheric CO2 concentration upto Answer (2)
0.05% can enhance CO2 fixation rate Sol. Ectocarpus has haplodiplontic life cycle and Fucus
(2) C3 plants responds to higher temperatures with has diplontic life cycle.
enhanced photosynthesis while C4 plants have 25. Viroids differ from viruses in having
much lower temperature optimum
(1) DNA molecules without protein coat
(3) Tomato is a greenhouse crop which can be
grown in CO2 - enriched atmosphere for higher (2) RNA molecules with protein coat
yield (3) RNA molecules without protein coat
(4) Light saturation for CO2 fixation occurs at 10% (4) DNA molecules with protein coat
of full sunlight
Answer (3)
Answer (2)
Sol. Viroids are sub-viral agents as infectious RNA
Sol. In C3 plants photosynthesis is decreased at higher particles, without protein coat.
temperature due to increased photorespiration.
26. Which ecosystem has the maximum biomass?
C4 plants have higher temperature optimum because
(1) Grassland ecosystem
of the presence of pyruvate phosphate dikinase
enzyme, which is sensitive to low temperature. (2) Pond ecosystem
22. Select the correct route for the passage of sperms (3) Lake ecosystem
in male frogs :
(4) Forest ecosystem
(1) Testes  Vasa efferentia  Kidney  Seminal
Answer (4)
Vesicle  Urinogenital duct  Cloaca
Sol. High productive ecosystem are
(2) Testes  Vasa efferentia  Bidder's canal 
Ureter  Cloaca – Tropical rain forest
(3) Testes  Vasa efferentia  Kidney  Bidder's – Coral reef
canal  Urinogenital duct  Cloaca – Estuaries
(4) Testes  Bidder's canal  Kidney  Vasa – Sugarcane fields
efferentia  Urinogenital duct  Cloaca
27. Asymptote in a logistic growth curve is obtained
Answer (3)
when
Sol. In male frog the sperms will move from
(1) K = N
Testes  Vasa efferentia  Kidney  Bidder’s
(2) K > N
canal  Urinogenital duct  Cloaca.
23. Lungs are made up of air-filled sacs the alveoli. They (3) K < N
do not collapse even after forceful expiration, (4) The value of 'r' approaches zero
because of :
Answer (1)
(1) Inspiratory Reserve Volume
Sol. A population growing in a habitat with limited
(2) Tidal Volume resources shows logistic growth curve.

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 NEET (UG) - 2017 (Code-Q) TARA

For logistic growth 31. Adult human RBCs are enucleate. Which of the
following statement(s) is/are most appropriate
dN ⎛K – N⎞
 rN ⎜ ⎟ explanation for this feature?
dt ⎝ K ⎠
(a) They do not need to reproduce
K–N (b) They are somatic cells
If K = N then =0
K
(c) They do not metabolize
dN (d) All their internal space is available for oxygen
 the = 0,
dt transport
the population reaches asymptote. (1) Only (a) (2) (a), (c) and (d)
28. Alexander Von Humboldt described for the first time (3) (b) and (c) (4) Only (d)
(1) Laws of limiting factor Answer (4)
(2) Species area relationships Sol. In Human RBCs, nucleus degenerates during
(3) Population Growth equation maturation which provide more space for oxygen
carrying pigment (Haemoglobin). It lacks most of the
(4) Ecological Biodiversity cell organelles including mitochondria so respires
Answer (2) anaerobically.
Sol. Alexander Von Humboldt observed that within a 32. Which of the following in sewage treatment removes
region species richness increases with the increases suspended solids?
in area. (1) Secondary treatment (2) Primary treatment
29. Which of the following statements is correct?
(3) Sludge treatment (4) Tertiary treatment
(1) The descending limb of loop of Henle is
impermeable to water Answer (2)
(2) The ascending limb of loop of Henle is permeable Sol. Primary treatment is a physical process which
to water involves sequential filtration and sedimentation.
(3) The descending limb of loop of Henle is 33. Which of the following components provides sticky
permeable to electrolytes character to the bacterial cell?
(4) The ascending limb of loop of Henle is (1) Nuclear membrane (2) Plasma membrane
impermeable to water (3) Glycocalyx (4) Cell wall
Answer (4) Answer (3)
Sol. Descending limb of loop of Henle is permeable to Sol. Sticky character of the bacterial wall is due to
water but impermeable to electrolytes while glycocalyx or slime layer. This layer is rich in
ascending limb is impermeable to water but glycoproteins.
permeable to electrolytes. 34. The final proof for DNA as the genetic material came
30. The process of separation and purification of from the experiments of
expressed protein before marketing is called (1) Hershey and Chase
(1) Downstream processing (2) Avery, Mcleod and McCarty
(2) Bioprocessing (3) Hargobind Khorana
(3) Postproduction processing (4) Griffith
(4) Upstream processing Answer (1)
Answer (1) Sol. Hershey and Chase gave unequivocal proof which
ended the debate between protein and DNA as
Sol. Biosynthetic stage for synthesis of product in
genetic material.
recombinant DNA technology is called upstreaming
process while after completion of biosynthetic stage, 35. The region of Biosphere Reserve which is legally
the product has to be subjected through a series of protected and where no human activity is allowed is
processes which include separation and purification known as
are collectively referred to as downstreaming (1) Buffer zone (2) Transition zone
processing. (3) Restoration zone (4) Core zone

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 NEET (UG) - 2017 (Code-Q) TARA

Answer (4) 39. Select the mismatch :

Sol. Biosphere reserve is protected area with (1) Cycas – Dioecious
multipurpose activities. (2) Salvinia – Heterosporous
It has three zones (3) Equisetum – Homosporous
(4) Pinus – Dioecious
(a) Core zone – without any human interference
Answer (4)
(b) Buffer zone – with limited human activity
Sol. Pinus is monoecious plant having both male and
(c) Transition zone – human settlement, grazing female cones on same plant.
cultivation etc., are allowed. 40. The association of histone H1 with a nucleosome
36. During DNA replication, Okazaki fragments are used indicates
to enlongate (1) DNA replication is occurring
(1) The lagging strand towards replication fork (2) The DNA is condensed into a Chromatin Fibre
(2) The leading strand away from replication fork (3) The DNA double helix is exposed
(3) The lagging strand away from the replication fork (4) Transcription is occurring
(4) The leading strand towards replication fork Answer (2)

Answer (3) Sol. The association of H1 protein indicates the complete

Sol. Two DNA polymerase molecules work simultaneous
at the DNA fork, one on the leading strand and the
other on the lagging strand.
formation of nucleosome.
Therefore the DNA is in condensed form.
41. Attractants and rewards are required for

Each Okazaki fragment is synthesized by DNA (1) Entomophily (2) Hydrophily

polymerase at lagging strand in 5  3 direction. (3) Cleistogamy (4) Anemophily
New Okazaki fragments appear as the replication Answer (1)
fork opens further. Sol. Insect pollinated plants provide rewards as edible
As the first Okazaki fragment appears away from pollen grain and nectar as usual rewards. While
the replication fork, the direction of elongation would some plants also provide safe place for deposition of
be away from replication fork. eggs.

37. Myelin sheath is produced by 42. Which statement is wrong for Krebs' cycle?

(1) Astrocytes and Schwann Cells
(2) Oligodendrocytes and Osteoclasts
(3) Osteoclasts and Astrocytes
(4) Schwann Cells and Oligodendrocytes
Answer (4)
Sol. Oligodendrocytes are neuroglial cells which produce
myelin sheath in central nervous system while
Schwann cell produces myelin sheath in peripheral
nervous system.
(1) There is one point in the cycle where FAD+ is
reduced to FADH2
(2) During conversion of succinyl CoA to succinic
acid, a molecule of GTP is synthesised
(3) The cycle starts with condensation of acetyl
group (acetyl CoA) with pyruvic acid to yield
citric acid
(4) There are three points in the cycle where NAD+
is reduced to NADH + H+
Answer (3)

38. Which of the following are not polymeric? Sol. Krebs cycle starts with condensation of acetyl CoA
(2C) with oxaloacetic acid (4C) to form citric acid
(1) Proteins (2) Polysaccharides (6C).
(3) Lipids (4) Nucleic acids
43. Which among these is the correct combination of
Answer (3) aquatic mammals?
Sol. – Nucleic acids are polymers of nucleotides (1) Dolphins, Seals, Trygon
– Proteins are polymers of amino acids (2) Whales, Dolphins Seals
– Polysaccharides are polymers of monosaccharides (3) Trygon, Whales, Seals
– Lipids are the esters of fatty acids and alcohol (4) Seals, Dolphins, Sharks

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Answer (2) Answer (1)

Sol. Sharks and Trygon (sting ray) are the members of Sol. Epiphyseal plate is responsible for the growth of
chondrichthyes (cartilaginous fish) while whale, bone which close after adolescence so
Dolphin and Seals are aquatic mammals belong to hypersecretion of growth hormone in adults does not
class mammalia. cause further increase in height.
44. A temporary endocrine gland in the human body is 49. The DNA fragments separated on an agarose gel
(1) Corpus cardiacum (2) Corpus luteum can be visualised after staining with
(3) Corpus allatum (4) Pineal gland (1) Acetocarmine
Answer (2) (2) Aniline blue
Sol. Corpus luteum is the temporary endocrine structure (3) Ethidium bromide
formed in the ovary after ovulation. It is responsible (4) Bromophenol blue
for the release of the hormones like progesterone, Answer (3)
oestrogen etc.
Sol. Ethidium bromide is used to stain the DNA
45. In case of a couple where the male is having a very fragments and will appear as orange coloured bands
low sperm count, which technique will be suitable for under UV light.
fertilisation?
50. Match the following sexually transmitted diseases
(1) Gamete intracytoplasmic fallopian transfer (Column - I) with their causative agent (Column - II)
(2) Artificial Insemination and select the correct option.
(3) Intracytoplasmic sperm injection Column - I Column- II
(4) Intrauterine transfer (a) Gonorrhea (i) HIV
Answer (2) (b) Syphilis (ii) Neisseria
Sol. Infertility cases due to inability of the male partner to (c) Genital Warts (iii) Treponema
inseminate the female or due to very low sperm
(d) AIDS (iv) Human Papilloma
count in the ejaculates, could be corrected by
artificial insemination (AI). virus
46. Coconut fruit is a Options :
(1) Berry (2) Nut (a) (b) (c) (d)
(3) Capsule (4) Drupe (1) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
Answer (4) (2) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
Sol. Coconut fruit is a drupe. A drupe develops from (3) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
monocarpellary superior ovary and are one seeded. (4) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
47. Capacitation occurs in Answer (4)
(1) Epididymis Sol. Gonorrhoea – Neisseria (Bacteria)
(2) Vas deferens Syphilis – Treponema (Bacteria)
(3) Female Reproductive tract Genital Warts – Human papilloma virus (Virus)
(4) Rete testis AIDS – HIV (Virus)
Answer (3) 51. Select the mismatch :
Sol. Capacitation is increase in fertilising capacity of (1) Rhodospirillum – Mycorrhiza
sperms which occurs in female reproductive tract.
(2) Anabaena – Nitrogen fixer
48. Hypersecretion of Growth Hormone in adults does
not cause further increase in height, because (3) Rhizobium – Alfalfa
(1) Epiphyseal plates close after adolescence (4) Frankia – Alnus
(2) Bones loose their sensitivity to Growth Hormone Answer (1)
in adults Sol. Rhodospirillum is anaerobic, free living nitrogen fixer.
(3) Muscle fibres do not grow in size after birth Mycorrhiza is a symbiotic relationship between fungi
(4) Growth Hormone becomes inactive in adults and roots of higher plants.

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52. Frog's heart when taken out of the body continues 56. Which cells of 'Crypts of Lieberkuhn' secrete
to beat for some time antibacterial lysozyme?
Select the best option from the following statements (1) Paneth cells (2) Zymogen cells
(a) Frog is a poikilotherm (3) Kupffer cells (4) Argentaffin cells
(b) Frog does not have any coronary circulation Answer (1)
(c) Heart is "myogenic" in nature
Sol. – Kupffer-cells are phagocytic cells of liver.
(d) Heart is autoexcitable
– Zymogen cells are enzyme producing cells.
Options
– Paneth cell secretes lysozyme which acts as
(1) Only (d) (2) (a) & (b) anti-bacterial agent.
(3) (c) & (d) (4) Only (c)
– Argentaffin cells are hormone producing cells.
Answer (3)
57. Root hairs develop from the region of
Sol. Frog or the vertebrates have myogenic heart having
(1) Elongation (2) Root cap
self contractile system or are autoexcitable; because
of this condition, it will keep on working outside the (3) Meristematic activity (4) Maturation
body for some time. Answer (4)
53. Mycorrhizae are the example of Sol. In roots, the root hairs arise from zone of maturation.
(1) Amensalism (2) Antibiosis This zone is differentiated zone thus bearing root
(3) Mutualism (4) Fungistasis hairs.
Answer (3) 58. Good vision depends on adequate intake of carotene
Sol. Mycorrhizae is a symbiotic association of fungi with rich food
roots of higher plants. Select the best option from the following statements
54. A decrease in blood pressure/volume will not cause (a) Vitamin A derivatives are formed from carotene
the release of
(b) The photopigments are embedded in the
(1) Atrial Natriuretic Factor
membrane discs of the inner segment
(2) Aldosterone
(3) ADH (c) Retinal is a derivative of vitamin A
(4) Renin (d) Retinal is a light absorbing part of all the visual
Answer (1) photopigments
Sol. A decrease in blood pressure / volume stimulates the (1) (a), (c) & (d) (2) (a) & (c)
release of renin, aldosterone, and ADH while
(3) (b), (c) & (d) (4) (a) & (b)
increase in blood pressure / volume stimulates the
release of Atrial Natriuretic Factor (ANF) which Answer (1)
cause vasodilation and also inhibits RAAS (Renin Sol. Carotene is the source of retinal which is involved in
Angiotensin Aldosterone System) mechanism that formation of rhodopsin of rod cells. Retinal, a derivative
decreases the blood volume/pressure.
of vitamin A, is the light-absorbing part of all visual
55. Which one of the following is related to Ex-situ photopigments.
conservation of threatened animals and plants?
59. A baby boy aged two years is admitted to play
(1) Biodiversity hot spots school and passes through a dental check-up. The
(2) Amazon rainforest dentist observed that the boy had twenty teeth.
Which teeth were absent?
(3) Himalayan region
(1) Canines (2) Pre-molars
(4) Wildlife Safari parks
(3) Molars (4) Incisors
Answer (4)
Answer (2)
Sol. Ex-situ conservation is offsite strategy for
conservation of animals and plants in zoological park Sol. Total number of teeth in human child = 20.
and botanical gardens respectively. Premolars are absent in primary dentition.

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60. Presence of plants arranged into well defined vertical Answer (2)
layers depending on their height can be seen best
Sol. Auxins prevent premature leaf and fruit fall.
in
NAA prevents fruit drop in tomato; 2,4-D prevents fruit
(1) Tropical Rain Forest
drop in Citrus.
(2) Grassland
64. Out of 'X' pairs of ribs in humans only 'Y' pairs are
(3) Temperate Forest
true ribs. Select the option that correctly represents
(4) Tropical Savannah values of X and Y and provides their explanation :
Answer (1) (1) X = 12, Y = 5 True ribs are attached
Sol. The tropical rain forest have five vertical strata on the dorsally to vertebral
basis of height of plants. i.e., ground vegetation, column and sternum on
shrubs, short canopy trees, tall canopy trees and the two ends
tall emergent trees.
(2) X = 24, Y = 7 True ribs are dorsally
61. Thalassemia and sickle cell anemia are caused due attached to vertebral
to a problem in globin molecule synthesis. Select column but are free on
the correct statement. ventral side
(1) Both are due to a quantitative defect in globin
(3) X = 24, Y = 12 True ribs are dorsally
chain synthesis
attached to vertebral
(2) Thalassemia is due to less synthesis of globin column but are free on
molecules ventral side
(3) Sickle cell anemia is due to a quantitative (4) X = 12, Y = 7 True ribs are attached
problem of globin molecules dorsally to vertebral
(4) Both are due to a qualitative defect in globin column and ventrally to the
chain synthesis sternum
Answer (2) Answer (4)
Sol. Thalassemia differs from sickle-cell anaemia in that Sol. In human, 12 pairs of ribs are present in which
the former is a quantitative problem of synthesising 7 pairs of ribs (1st to 7th pairs) are attached dorsally
too few globin molecules while the latter is a to vertebral column and ventrally to the sternum.
qualitative problem of synthesising an incorrectly
functioning globin. 65. If there are 999 bases in an RNA that codes for a
protein with 333 amino acids, and the base at
62. GnRH, a hypothalamic hormone, needed in
position 901 is deleted such that the length of the
reproduction, acts on
RNA becomes 998 bases, how many codons will be
(1) Anterior pituitary gland and stimulates secretion altered?
of LH and FSH
(1) 11 (2) 33
(2) Posterior pituitary gland and stimulates secretion (3) 333 (4) 1
of oxytocin and FSH
Answer (2)
(3) Posterior pituitary gland and stimulates secretion
of LH and relaxin Sol. If deletion occurs at 901st position the remaining 98
bases specifying for 33 codons of amino acids will
(4) Anterior pituitary gland and stimulates secretion
be altered.
of LH and oxytocin
66. Which of the following cell organelles is responsible
Answer (1)
for extracting energy from carbohydrates to form
Sol. Hypothalamus secretes GnRH which stimulates ATP?
anterior pituitary gland for the secretion of
gonadotropins (FSH and LH). (1) Ribosome (2) Chloroplast

63. Fruit and leaf drop at early stages can be prevented (3) Mitochondrion (4) Lysosome
by the application of Answer (3)
(1) Ethylene (2) Auxins Sol. Mitochondria are the site of aerobic oxidation of
(3) Gibberellic acid (4) Cytokinins carbohydrates to generate ATP.

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67. DNA fragments are Answer (3)

(1) Negatively charged Sol. Double fertilization is a characteristic feature
exhibited by angiosperms. It involves syngamy and
(2) Neutral
triple fusion.
(3) Either positively or negatively charged depending
71. The water potential of pure water is
on their size
(4) Positively charged (1) Less than zero

Answer (1) (2) More than zero but less than one

Sol. DNA fragments are negatively charged because of (3) More than one
phosphate group. (4) Zero
68. The genotypes of a Husband and Wife are IAIB and IAi. Answer (4)
Among the blood types of their children, how many
Sol. By convention, the water potential of pure water at
different genotypes and phenotypes are possible?
standard temperature, which is not under any
(1) 3 genotypes ; 4 phenotypes
pressure, is taken to be zero.
(2) 4 genotypes ; 3 phenotypes
72. A dioecious flowering plant prevents both:
(3) 4 genotypes ; 4 phenotypes
(1) Autogamy and geitonogamy
(4) 3 genotypes ; 3 phenotypes
(2) Geitonogamy and xenogamy
Answer (2)
(3) Cleistogamy and xenogamy
Sol. Husband  Wife (4) Autogamy and xenogamy
AB A
I I I i
Answer (1)
+ IA IB Sol. When unisexual male and female flowers are present
A A A A B
I II II on different plants the condition is called dioecious
and it prevents both autogamy and geitonogamy.
i IAi IBi
73. Which of the following options gives the correct
Number of genotypes = 4 sequence of events during mitosis?
Number of phenotypes = 3 (1) Condensation  nuclear membrane disassembly
IAIA and IAi =A  arrangement at equator  centromere
IAIB = AB division  segregation  telophase

IBi =B (2) Condensation  crossing over  nuclear

membrane disassembly  segregation 
69. The pivot joint between atlas and axis is a type of telophase
(1) Cartilaginous joint (3) Condensation  arrangement at equator 
(2) Synovial joint centromere division  segregation 
telophase
(3) Saddle joint
(4) Condensation  nuclear membrane disassembly
(4) Fibrous joint
 crossing over  segregation  telophase
Answer (2) Answer (1)
Sol. Synovial joints are freely movable joint which allow Sol. The correct sequence of events during mitosis would
considerable movements. Pivot joint is a type of be as follows
synovial joint which provide rotational movement as
(i) Condensation of DNA so that chromosomes
in between atlas and axis vertebrae of vertebral
become visible occurs during early to
column.
mid-prophase.
70. Double fertilization is exhibited by
(ii) Nuclear membrane disassembly begins at late
(1) Algae (2) Fungi prophase or transition to metaphase.
(3) Angiosperms (4) Gymnosperms (iii) Arrangement of chromosomes at equator occurs
during metaphase, called congression.

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 NEET (UG) - 2017 (Code-Q) TARA

(iv) Centromere division or splitting occurs during 78. Which of the following RNAs should be most
anaphase forming daughter chromosomes. abundant in animal cell?
(v) Segregation also occurs during anaphase as (1) t-RNA (2) m-RNA
daughter chromosomes separate and move to (3) mi-RNA (4) r-RNA
opposite poles.
Answer (4)
(vi) Telophase leads to formation of two daughter
Sol. rRNA is most abundant in animal cell. It constitutes
nuclei.
80% of total RNA of the cell.
74. The vascular cambium normally gives rise to
79. The hepatic portal vein drains blood to liver from
(1) Primary phloem
(1) Stomach (2) Kidneys
(2) Secondary xylem
(3) Intestine (4) Heart
(3) Periderm
Answer (3)
(4) Phelloderm
Sol. In hepatic portal system, hepatic portal vein carries
Answer (2) maximum amount of nutrients from intestine to liver.
Sol. During secondary growth, vascular cambium gives 80. Which of the following represents order of 'Horse'?
rise to secondary xylem and secondary phloem.
(1) Perissodactyla
Phelloderm is formed by cork cambium.
(2) Caballus
75. Which one from those given below is the period for
Mendel's hybridization experiments? (3) Ferus
(1) 1840 - 1850 (4) Equidae
(2) 1857 - 1869 Answer (1)
(3) 1870 - 1877 Sol. Horse belongs to order perissodactyla of class
mammalia. Perissodactyla includes odd-toed
(4) 1856 - 1863
mammals.
Answer (4)
81. MALT constitutes about ___________ percent of the
Sol. Mendel conducted hybridization experiments on Pea lymphoid tissue in human body
plant for 7 years between 1856 to 1863 and his data
was published in 1865 (according to NCERT). (1) 20%

76. Which of the following options best represents the (2) 70%
enzyme composition of pancreatic juice? (3) 10%
(1) Amylase, pepsin, trypsinogen, maltase
(4) 50%
(2) Peptidase, amylase, pepsin, rennin
Answer (4)
(3) Lipase, amylase, trypsinogen, procarboxy-
Sol. MALT is Mucosa Associated Lymphoid Tissue and
peptidase
it constitutes about 50 percent of the lymphoid tissue
(4) Amylase, peptidase, trypsinogen, rennin
in human body.
Answer (3) 82. Which of the following are found in extreme saline
Sol. Rennin and Pepsin enzymes are present in the conditions?
gastric juice. Maltase is present in the intestinal (1) Eubacteria
juice. (2) Cyanobacteria
77. The morphological nature of the edible part of (3) Mycobacteria
coconut is (4) Archaebacteria
(1) Cotyledon (2) Endosperm
Answer (4)
(3) Pericarp (4) Perisperm
Sol. Archaebacteria are able to survive in harsh conditions
Answer (2) because of branched lipid chain in cell membrane
Sol. Coconut has double endosperm with liquid which reduces fluidity of cell membrane.
endosperm and cellular endosperm. Halophiles are exclusively found in saline habitats.

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 NEET (UG) - 2017 (Code-Q) TARA

83. Which of the following facilitates opening of stomatal
aperture?
(1) Decrease in turgidity of guard cells
(2) Radial orientation of cellulose microfibrils in the
cell wall of guard cells
(3) Longitudinal orientation of cellulose microfibrils in
the cell wall of guard cells
(4) Contraction of outer wall of guard cells
Answer (2)
Sol. Cellulose microfibrils are oriented radially rather than
longitudinally which makes easy for the stoma to
open.
84. Which of the following is correctly matched for the
product produced by them?
(1) Methanobacterium : Lactic acid
(2) Penicillium notatum : Acetic acid
(3) Saccharomyces cerevisiae : Ethanol
(4) Acetobacter aceti : Antibiotics
Answer (3)
Sol. Saccharomyces cerevisiae is commonly called
Brewer’s yeast. It causes fermentation of
carbohydrates producing ethanol.
Sol. Pre-synaptic membrane is involved in the release of
neurotransmitter in the chemical synapse. The
receptors sites for neurotransmitters are present on
post-synaptic membrane.
87. An important characteristic that Hemichordates
share with Chordates is
(1) Ventral tubular nerve cord
(2) Pharynx with gill slits
(3) Pharynx without gill slits
(4) Absence of notochord
Answer (2)
Sol. Pharyngeal gill slits are present in hemichordates as
well as in chordates. Notochord is present in
chordates only. Ventral tubular nerve cord is
characteristic feature of non-chordates.
88. Transplantation of tissues/organs fails often due to
non-acceptance by the patient's body. Which type of
immune-response is responsible for such rejections?
(1) Cell-mediated immune response
(2) Hormonal immune response
(3) Physiological immune response
(4) Autoimmune response

85. Artificial selection to obtain cows yielding higher milk Answer (1)
output represents Sol. Non-acceptance or rejection of graft or transplanted
(1) Directional as it pushes the mean of the tissues/organs is due to cell mediated immune
character in one direction response.
(2) Disruptive as it splits the population into two one 89. Spliceosomes are not found in cells of
yielding higher output and the other lower output (1) Fungi (2) Animals
(3) Stabilizing followed by disruptive as it stabilizes (3) Bacteria (4) Plants
the population to produce higher yielding cows
Answer (3)
(4) Stabilizing selection as it stabilizes this Sol. Spliceosomes are used in removal of introns during
character in the population post-transcriptional processing of hnRNA in
Answer (1) eukaryotes only as split genes are absent as
Sol. Artificial selection to obtain cow yielding higher milk prokaryotes.
output will shift the peak to one direction, hence, will 90. Phosphonol pyruvate (PEP) is the primary CO2
be an example of Directional selection. In stabilizing acceptor in
selection, the organisms with the mean value of the
(1) C4 plants
trait are selected. In disruptive selection, both
extremes get selected. (2) C2 plants
86. Receptor sites for neurotransmitters are present on (3) C3 and C4 plants
(1) Pre-synaptic membrane (4) C3 plants
(2) Tips of axons Answer (1)
(3) Post-synaptic membrane Sol. PEP is 3C compound which serves as primary CO2
(4) Membranes of synaptic vesicles acceptor in the mesophyll cell cytoplasm of C4
plants like maize, sugarcane, Sorghum etc.
Answer (3)

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 NEET (UG) - 2017 (Code-Q) TARA

91. Suppose the charge of a proton and an electron differ (1) In all the four cases the work done is the same.
slightly. One of them is –e, the other is (e + e). If (2) Minimum work is required to move q in
the net of electrostatic force and gravitational force figure (a).
between two hydrogen atoms placed at a distance
(3) Maximum work is required to move q in
d (much greater than atomic size) apart is zero,
figure (b).
then e is of the order of [Given mass of hydrogen
mh = 1.67 × 10–27 kg] (4) Maximum work is required to move q in
figure (c).
(1) 10–23 C
Answer (1)
(2) 10–37 C
Sol. Work done w = qV
(3) 10–47 C V is same in all the cases so work is done will be
(4) 10–20 C same in all the cases.
94. The de-Broglie wavelength of a neutron in thermal
Answer (2)
equilibrium with heavy water at a temperature T
Sol. Fe = Fg (Kelvin) and mass m, is

1 e2 Gm 2 h 2h
 2 (1) (2)
40 d 2 d 3mkT 3mkT

9 × 109 (e2) = 6.67 × 10–11 × 1.67 2h h

(3) (4)
mkT mkT
× 10–27 × 1.67 × 10–27
Answer (1)
6.67  1.67  1.67
e  2
 10 74 Sol. de-Broglie wavelength
9
h
e  10 37 
mv
92. A potentiometer is an accurate and versatile device h
= 2m(KE)
to make electrical measurements of E.M.F, because
the method involves : h

(1) Potential gradients 3
2m( kT )
(2) A condition of no current flow through the 2
galvanometer h

(3) A combination of cells, galvanometer and 3mkT
resistances 95. Two blocks A and B of masses 3m and m
respectively are connected by a massless and
(4) Cells
inextensible string. The whole system is suspended
Answer (2) by a massless spring as shown in figure. The
Sol. Reading of potentiometer is accurate because during magnitudes of acceleration of A and B immediately
taking reading it does not draw any current from the after the string is cut, are respectively
circuit.
93. The diagrams below show regions of equipotentials.
20 V 40 V 20 V 40 V 10 V 30 V 40 V
20 V

A 3m
A B A B A B A B

B m
10 V
30 V
10 V 30 V 10 V 30 V 20 V 40 V g
(a) (b) (c) (d) (1) ,g (2) g, g
3
A positive charge is moved from A to B in each g g g
diagram. (3) , (4) g,
3 3 3
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 NEET (UG) - 2017 (Code-Q) TARA

Answer (1) Answer (1)

kx Sol. Two successive frequencies of closed pipe

nv
 220 ...(i)
4l
Sol. 3m
 n  2 v  260
T ...(ii)
4l
3mg Dividing (ii) by (i), we get
Before the string is cut
n  2 260 13
kx = T + 3mg ...(1)  
n 220 11
T = mg ...(2)
11n + 22 = 13n
T
n = 11

m v
So, 11  220
4l
mg v
 kx = 4mg  20
4l
After the string is cut, T = 0 So fundamental frequency is 20 Hz.
kx  3mg kx 98. Preeti reached the metro station and found that the
a=
3m escalator was not working. She walked up the
stationary escalator in time t1. On other days, if she
3m m remains stationary on the moving escalator, then the
4mg  3mg escalator takes her up in time t2. The time taken by
a=  a = g
3m her to walk up on the moving escalator will be
mg
3mg t1t2 t1t2
g (1) t – t (2) t  t
a=  2 1 2 1
3
96. The ratio of resolving powers of an optical t1  t2
(3) t1 – t2 (4)
microscope for two wavelengths 1 = 4000 Å and 2
2 = 6000 Å is Answer (2)
(1) 9 : 4 (2) 3 : 2
d
(3) 16 : 81 (4) 8 : 27 Sol. Velocity of girl w.r.t. elevator   v ge
t1
Answer (2)
1 d
Sol. Resolving power  Velocity of elevator w.r.t. ground v eG  then
 t2

R1  2 velocity of girl w.r.t. ground


R2 1   
v gG  v ge  v eG
6000 Å

4000 Å i.e, v gG  v ge  v eG
3
 d d d
2  
t t1 t 2
97. The two nearest harmonics of a tube closed at one
end and open at other end are 220 Hz and 260 Hz. 1 1 1
 
What is the fundamental frequency of the system? t t1 t2
(1) 20 Hz (2) 30 Hz t1t2
t
(3) 40 Hz (4) 10 Hz (t1  t2 )

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 NEET (UG) - 2017 (Code-Q) TARA

99. A capacitor is charged by a battery. The battery is 100. The given electrical network is equivalent to
removed and another identical uncharged capacitor
is connected in parallel. The total electrostatic A Y
energy of resulting system B

(1) Decreases by a factor of 2 (1) OR gate (2) NOR gate

(2) Remains the same (3) NOT gate (4) AND gate
Answer (2)
(3) Increases by a factor of 2

(4) Increases by a factor of 4 Sol. Y  A  B

Answer (1) 101. Thermodynamic processes are indicated in the

following diagram.
Sol. C P
IV
i f
I III
f
f II
V 700 K
f 500 K
Charge on capacitor 300 K
V
q = CV Match the following
when it is connected with another uncharged Column-1 Column-2
capacitor. P. Process I a. Adiabatic
C q Q. Process II b. Isobaric
R. Process III c. Isochoric
S. Process IV d. Isothermal
(1) P  c, Q  a, R  d, S  b
C (2) P  c, Q  d, R  b, S  a
q1  q2 q0 (3) P  d, Q  b, R  a, S  c
Vc  
C1  C2 C  C (4) P  a, Q  c, R  d, S  b

V Answer (1)
Vc 
2 Sol. Process I = Isochoric
Initial energy II = Adiabatic
III = Isothermal
1
Ui  CV 2 IV = Isobaric
2
102. A physical quantity of the dimensions of length that
Final energy
2 2 e2
1 ⎛V ⎞ 1 ⎛V ⎞ can be formed out of c, G and is [c is velocity
Uf  C ⎜ ⎟  C ⎜ ⎟ 40
2 ⎝2⎠ 2 ⎝2⎠
of light, G is universal constant of gravitation and e
2
CV is charge]

4 1 1
Loss of energy = Ui – Uf ⎡ e2 ⎤ 2 1 ⎡ e2 ⎤ 2
(1) c 2 ⎢G ⎥ (2) 2 ⎢ ⎥
⎣ 40 ⎦ c ⎣ G 40 ⎦
CV 2
 1
4 1 e2 1 ⎡ e2 ⎤ 2
i.e. decreases by a factor (2) (3) G (4) 2 ⎢G ⎥
c 40 c ⎣ 40 ⎦
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 NEET (UG) - 2017 (Code-Q) TARA

Answer (4) Brms = 2 × 10–8

e2 B0
Sol. Let  A  ML3 T –2 Brms =
40 2

l = CxGy(A)z B 0  2  Brms
L = [LT–1]x [M–1L3T–2]y [ML3T–2]z
–y + z = 0  y = z ...(i)
= 2  2  10 –8

x + 3y + 3z = 1 ...(ii) = 2.83 × 10–8 T

–x – 4z = 0 ...(iii) 105. The x and y coordinates of the particle at any time
From (i), (ii) & (iii) are x = 5t – 2t2 and y = 10t respectively, where x
and y are in meters and t in seconds. The
1 acceleration of the particle at t = 2 s is
z=y= , x = –2
2 (1) 5 m/s2
103. A rope is wound around a hollow cylinder of mass (2) –4 m/s2
3 kg and radius 40 cm. What is the angular
acceleration of the cylinder if the rope is pulled with (3) –8 m/s2
a force of 30 N? (4) 0
(1) 0.25 rad/s2 (2) 25 rad/s2
Answer (2)
(3) 5 m/s2 (4) 25 m/s2
Sol. x = 5t – 2t2 y = 10t
Answer (2)
dx dy
40 = 5 – 4t = 10
Sol. cm dt dt

vx = 5 – 4t vy = 10

F = 30 N dv dv
x–4 y  10
=I dt dt
F × R = MR2 ax = – 4 ay = 0
30 × 0.4 = 3 × (0.4)2 
Acceleration of particle at t = 2 s is = –4 m/s2
12 = 3 × 0.16 
106. Two discs of same moment of inertia rotating about
400 = 16  their regular axis passing through centre and
 = 25 rad/s2 perpendicular to the plane of disc with angular
velocities 1 and 2. They are brought into contact
104. In an electromagnetic wave in free space the root mean
face to face coinciding the axis of rotation. The
square value of the electric field is Erms = 6 V/m. The
expression for loss of energy during this process is
peak value of the magnetic field is
(1) 2.83 × 10–8 T (2) 0.70 × 10–8 T 1
(1) I (1  2 )2
(3) 4.23 × 10–8 T (4) 1.41 × 10–8 T 4
Answer (1) (2) I(1 – 2)2
Erms
Sol. c I
Brms (3) (1  2 )2
8
Erms
Brms 
c 1
(4) I (1  2 )2
2
6

3  108 Answer (1)
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 NEET (UG) - 2017 (Code-Q) TARA

109. An arrangement of three parallel straight wires

1 I1I2
Sol. KE  (1   2 )2 placed perpendicular to plane of paper carrying same
2 I1  I2
current ‘I’ along the same direction is shown in Fig.
Magnitude of force per unit length on the middle wire
1 I2 ‘B’ is given by
 (   2 )2
2 (2I ) 1 B d C

90°
1
 I (1   2 )2
4 d

107. Young’s double slit experiment is first performed in A

air and then in a medium other than air. It is found
that 8th bright fringe in the medium lies where 5th 20I 2 20I 2
(1) (2)
dark fringe lies in air. The refractive index of the d d
medium is nearly 0I 2 0I 2
(3) (4)
(1) 1.59 (2) 1.69 2d 2d
Answer (3)
(3) 1.78 (4) 1.25
Sol. Force between BC and AB will be same in
Answer (3) magnitude.
D d C
Sol. X1 = X5th dark = (2 × 5 – 1) B
2d F
90°
D
X2 = X8th bright = 8 d F
d
X1 = X2 A

9 D D  0I 2
8 FBC  FBA 
2 d d 2d

16 F  2FBC
  1.78
9 0 I 2
108. A spherical black body with a radius of 12 cm  2
2 d
radiates 450 watt power at 500 K. If the radius were
 0I 2
halved and the temperature doubled, the power F
radiated in watt would be 2d

(1) 450 (2) 1000 110. A gas mixture consists of 2 moles of O 2 and
4 moles of Ar at temperature T. Neglecting all
(3) 1800 (4) 225 vibrational modes, the total internal energy of the
Answer (3) system is
Sol. Rate of power loss (1) 15 RT (2) 9 RT

r  R 2T 4 (3) 11 RT (4) 4 RT
Answer (3)
r1 R12T14

r2 R22T24 f f
Sol. U = n1 1 RT  n2 2 RT
2 2
1
= 4 5 3
16
= 2 RT  4  RT
2 2
450 1

r2 4 = 5 RT + 6 RT

r2 = 1800 watt U = 11 RT

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 NEET (UG) - 2017 (Code-Q) TARA

111. The bulk modulus of a spherical object is ‘B’. If it is Answer (2*)

subjected to uniform pressure ‘p’, the fractional
decrease in radius is R3
L1 R2
Sol  +
–
B 3p
(1) (2) R1 L2 C
3p B
p p At t = 0, no current flows through R1 and R3
(3) (4)
3B B i
Answer (3)
p +
Sol. B   
⎛ V ⎞ – R2
⎜ V ⎟
⎝ ⎠
V p

V B 
i
r p R2
3 
r B
18
r p =
 9
r 3B
=2A
112. In a common emitter transistor amplifier the audio
signal voltage across the collector is 3 V. The Note : Not correctly framed but the best option out
resistance of collector is 3 k. If current gain is 100 of given is (2).
and the base resistance is 2 k, the voltage and 114. Two cars moving in opposite directions approach
power gain of the amplifier is each other with speed of 22 m/s and 16.5 m/s
(1) 15 and 200 (2) 150 and 15000 respectively. The driver of the first car blows a horn
(3) 20 and 2000 (4) 200 and 1000 having a frequency 400 Hz. The frequency heard by
the driver of the second car is [velocity of sound
Answer (2) 340 m/s]
Sol. Current gain () = 100
(1) 361 Hz (2) 411 Hz
R
Voltage gain (AV) =  c (3) 448 Hz (4) 350 Hz
Rb
Answer (3)
⎛ 3⎞
= 100 ⎜⎝ ⎟⎠ ⎡v  vo ⎤
2
Sol. fA  f ⎢ ⎥
= 150 ⎣ v  vs ⎦
Power gain = AV  ⎡ 340  16.5 ⎤
 400 ⎢ ⎥
= 150 (100) ⎣ 340  22 ⎦
= 15000 fA = 448 Hz
113. Figure shows a circuit contains three identical 115. Radioactive material 'A' has decay constant '8' and
resistors with resistance R = 9.0  each, two material 'B' has decay constant ''. Initially they
identical inductors with inductance L = 2.0 mH each, have same number of nuclei. After what time, the
and an ideal battery with emf  = 18 V. The current ratio of number of nuclei of material 'B' to that 'A' will
'i' through the battery just after the switch closed is
1
be ?
R R e
L
+
–
R L 1 1
C (1) (2)
7 8
(1) 0.2 A (2) 2 A
1 1
(3) (4)
(3) 0 ampere (4) 2 mA 9 
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 NEET (UG) - 2017 (Code-Q) TARA

Answer (1) (1) (a) and (b) (2) (b) and (c)
Sol. No option is correct (3) (c) and (d) (4) (b) and (d)
NA 1 Answer (4)
If we take 
NB e Sol. Centre of mass may or may not coincide with centre
Then of gravity.

N A e 8 t 118. Two rods A and B of different materials are welded

 t together as shown in figure. Their thermal
NB e
conductivities are K 1 and K 2 . The thermal
1
 e 7 t conductivity of the composite rod will be
e
–1 = –7t A K1
T1 T2
B K2
1
t=
7 d
116. The photoelectric threshold wavelength of silver is 3  K1  K 2 
3250 × 10–10 m. The velocity of the electron ejected (1) (2) K1 + K2
2
from a silver surface by ultraviolet light of wavelength
2536 × 10–10 m is K1  K 2
(3) 2(K1 + K2) (4)
(Given h = 4.14 × 10–15 eVs and c = 3 × 108 ms–1) 2

(1)  0.6 × 106 ms–1 Answer (4)

(2)  61 × 103 ms–1 Sol. Thermal current
(3)  0.3 × 106 ms–1 H = H1 + H2
(4)  6 × 105 ms–1 K1A(T1  T2 ) K 2 A(T1  T2 )
= 
Answer (1 & 4)* Both answers are correct. d d
Sol. 0 = 3250 × 10–10 m K EQ 2 A(T1  T2 ) A(T1  T2 )
 K1  K2 
 = 2536 × 10–10 m d d
1242 eV-nm ⎡ K  K2 ⎤
 =  3.82 eV K EQ  ⎢ 1 ⎥
325 nm ⎣ 2 ⎦
1242 eV-nm 119. The acceleration due to gravity at a height 1 km
h =  4.89 eV
253.6 nm above the earth is the same as at a depth d below
the surface of earth. Then
KEmax = (4.89 – 3.82) eV = 1.077 eV
1 3
mv 2  1.077  1.6  10 19 (1) d = 1 km (2) d  km
2 2
1
2  1.077  1.6  10 19 (3) d = 2 km (4) d  km
v= 2
9.1  10 31
Answer (3)
v = 0.6 × 106 m/s
Sol. Above earth surface Below earth surface
117. Which of the following statements are correct?
⎛ 2h ⎞ ⎛ d ⎞
(a) Centre of mass of a body always coincides with g  = g ⎜⎝ 1 – R ⎟⎠ g  = g ⎜⎝ 1 – R ⎟⎠
the centre of gravity of the body. e e

(b) Centre of mass of a body is the point at which 2h d

the total gravitational torque on the body is zero g  = g R …(1) g = g R …(2)
e e
(c) A couple on a body produce both translational From (1) & (2)
and rotational motion in a body.
d = 2h
(d) Mechanical advantage greater than one means
that small effort can be used to lift a large load. d = 2 × 1 km
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Answer (4)
1
120. A Carnot engine having an efficiency of as heat
10 Sol. W = MB (cos1 – cos2)
engine, is used as a refrigerator. If the work done on When it is rotated by angle 180º then
the system is 10 J, the amount of energy absorbed
from the reservoir at lower temperature is W = 2MB
(1) 90 J W = 2 (NIA)B
(2) 99 J = 2 × 250 × 85 × 10–6[1.25 × 2.1 × 10–4] × 85
(3) 100 J
× 10–2
(4) 1 J
= 9.1 J
Answer (1)
123. Two Polaroids P1 and P2 are placed with their axis
1  perpendicular to each other. Unpolarised light I0 is
Sol.  =
 incident on P1. A third polaroid P3 is kept in between
P1 and P2 such that its axis makes an angle 45º
1 9
1 with that of P1. The intensity of transmitted light
 10  10
1 1 through P2 is
10 10 I0
(1)
=9 4
Q2 I0
= (2)
W 8
Q2 = 9 × 10 = 90 J I0
(3)
121. The resistance of a wire is ‘R’ ohm. If it is melted 16
and stretched to ‘n’ times its original length, its new
resistance will be I0
(4)
2
R
(1) (2) n2R Answer (2)
n
R P1 P3 P2
(3) (4) nR
n2 I2
Sol.
Answer (2) I0 I1 I3
R2 l 22
Sol. R  90°
1 l12
45°
n 2l12

l12
I0
R2 I2  cos2 45
 n2 2
R1
I0 1
R2 = n2R1  
2 2
122. A 250-Turn rectangular coil of length 2.1 cm and
width 1.25 cm carries a current of 85 A and I0

subjected to a magnetic field of strength 0.85 T. 4
Work done for rotating the coil by 180° against the I0
torque is I3  cos2 45
4
(1) 4.55 J (2) 2.3 J
I0
I3 
(3) 1.15 J (4) 9.1 J 8
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124. A U tube with both ends open to the atmosphere, is 126. If 1 and 2 be the apparent angles of dip observed
partially filled with water. Oil, which is immiscible with in two vertical planes at right angles to each other,
water, is poured into one side until it stands at a then the true angle of dip  is given by
distance of 10 mm above the water level on the other
(1) tan2 = tan21 + tan22
side. Meanwhile the water rises by 65 mm from its
original level (see diagram). The density of the oil is (2) cot2 = cot21 – cot22
Pa Pa (3) tan2 = tan21 – tan22
F
A
10 mm (4) cot2 = cot21 + cot22
E
Final water level Answer (4)
65 mm Sol. cot2 = cot21 + cot22
Oil D
Initial water level
127. Which one of the following represents forward bias
65 mm diode?
B C
–4 V R –3 V
(1)
Water
–2 V R +2 V
(2)
(1) 425 kg m–3
(2) 800 kg m–3 3V R 5V
(3)
(3) 928 kg m–3
0V R –2 V
(4) 650 kg m–3 (4)
Answer (3)
Answer (4)
Sol. hoil oil g = hwater water g
140 × oil = 130 × water Sol. In forward bias, p-type semiconductor is at higher
potential w.r.t. n-type semiconductor.
13
oil = × 1000 kg/m3 128. Consider a drop of rain water having mass 1 g falling
14 from a height of 1 km. It hits the ground with a speed
oil = 928 kg m–3 of 50 m/s. Take g constant with a value
10 m/s2. The work done by the (i) gravitational force
125. A thin prism having refracting angle 10° is made of
and the (ii) resistive force of air is
glass of refractive index 1.42. This prism is combined
with another thin prism of glass of refractive index (1) (i) 1.25 J (ii) –8.25 J
1.7. This combination produces dispersion without
deviation. The refracting angle of second prism (2) (i) 100 J (ii) 8.75 J
should be (3) (i) 10 J (ii) –8.75 J
(1) 6°
(4) (i) – 10 J (ii) –8.25 J
(2) 8°
Answer (3)
(3) 10°
(4) 4° Sol. wg + wa = Kf – Ki
Answer (1)
1
Sol. (  1)A  (  1)A  0 mgh + wa = mv 2  0
2

(  1)A  (  1)A

1
10–3 × 10 × 103 + wa =  10 3  (50)2
(1.42  1)  10  (1.7  1)A 2

4.2 = 0.7A' wa = –8.75 J i.e. work done due to air resistance and
A' = 6° work done due to gravity = 10 J

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129. One end of string of length l is connected to a 131. A long solenoid of diameter 0.1 m has 2 × 104 turns
particle of mass ‘m’ and the other end is connected per meter. At the centre of the solenoid, a coil of 100
to a small peg on a smooth horizontal table. If the turns and radius 0.01 m is placed with its axis
particle moves in circle with speed ‘v’, the net force coinciding with the solenoid axis. The current in the
on the particle (directed towards center) will be solenoid reduces at a constant rate to 0 A from 4 A
(T represents the tension in the string) in 0.05 s. If the resistance of the coil is 102 , the
total charge flowing through the coil during this time
m v2 is
(1) T 
l (1) 16 C (2) 32 C
(3) 16C (4) 32C
m v2
(2) T  Answer (2)
l
(3) Zero d
Sol.   N
dt
(4) T
Answer (4)  N d

R R dt
⎛ mv 2 ⎞
Sol. Centripetal force ⎜⎜ l ⎟⎟ is provided by tension so
⎝ ⎠ N
dq  d
the net force will be equal to tension i.e., T. R

130. A particle executes linear simple harmonic motion N ( )

with an amplitude of 3 cm. When the particle is at Q 
R
2 cm from the mean position, the magnitude of its
velocity is equal to that of its acceleration. Then its total
time period in seconds is Q 
R
5
(1) (NBA)
2 
R
4
(2)
5 0 ni r 2

R
2
(3) Putting values
3

5 4  107  100  4    (0.01)2

(4) 
 102
Answer (2)
Q  32 C
Sol. v   A2 – x 2 132. A beam of light from a source L is incident normally
a = x2 on a plane mirror fixed at a certain distance x from
the source. The beam is reflected back as a spot on
v a a scale placed just above the source L. When the
mirror is rotated through a small angle , the spot of
 A2 – x 2  x 2 the light is found to move through a distance y on
⎛ 2 ⎞ the scale. The angle  is given by
(3)2 – (2)2  2 ⎜ ⎟
⎝T ⎠
y x
4 (1) (2)
5 x 2y
T
4 x y
T  (3) (4)
5 y 2x

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Answer (4) 134. The ratio of wavelengths of the last line of Balmer
Sol. When mirror is rotated by  angle reflected ray will series and the last line of Lyman series is
be rotated by 2. (1) 1
(2) 4
2
(3) 0.5

x (4) 2
Answer (2)
Sol. For last Balmer series
y
1 ⎡1 1 ⎤
y  R⎢ 2  2⎥
 2 b ⎣2  ⎦
x

y 4
 b 
2x R

133. A spring of force constant k is cut into lengths of ratio For last Lyman series
1 : 2 : 3. They are connected in series and the new
force constant is k. Then they are connected in parallel 1 ⎡1 1 ⎤
and force constant is k. Then k : k is  R⎢ 2  2⎥
l ⎣1  ⎦
(1) 1 : 9
(2) 1 : 11 1
l 
(3) 1 : 14 R

(4) 1 : 6
4
Answer (2) b R

l 1
1
Sol. Spring constant  length R

1 b
k 4
l l
i.e, k1 = 6k
k2 = 3k 135. Two astronauts are floating in gravitational free space
after having lost contact with their spaceship. The
k3 = 2k
two will
In series
(1) Move towards each other
1 1 1 1
  
k ' 6k 3k 2k (2) Move away from each other

1 6 (3) Will become stationary


k ' 6k (4) Keep floating at the same distance between
k' = k them
k'' = 6k + 3k + 2k Answer (1)
k'' = 11k
Sol. Both the astronauts are in the condition of
k' 1 weightness. Gravitational force between them pulls
 i.e k ' : k ''  1: 11
k '' 11 towards each other.
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136. Which one of the following pairs of species have the Answer (2)
same bond order?
Sol. Since 'A' gives positive silver mirror test therefore, it
(1) O2, NO+ (2) CN–, CO must be an aldehyde or -Hydroxyketone.
(3) N2, O2– (4) CO, NO
Reaction with semicarbazide indicates that A can be
Answer (2) an aldehyde or ketone.
Sol. CN(–) and CO have bond order 3 each. Reaction with OH – i.e., aldol condensation (by
137. Which of the following pairs of compounds is assuming alkali to be dilute) indicates that A is
isoelectronic and isostructural? aldehyde as aldol reaction of ketones is reversible
and carried out in special apparatus.
(1) Tel2, XeF2 (2) IBr2 , XeF2
(3) IF3, XeF2 (4) BeCl2, XeF2 These indicates option (2).
+ –
Answer (2) Cu [Ag(NH3)2] ,OH
CH3–CH2OH 573 K
CH3–CHO CH3–COOH

Sol. IBr2–, XeF2 (X) (A)
ethanal
Total number of valence electrons are equal in both O
OH
the species and both the species are linear also. H2N – NH – C – NH2 OH
–

CH3 – CH – CH2 – CHO

138. Which is the incorrect statement? O
3-Hydroxybutanal
(1) Density decreases in case of crystals with CH3 – CH = N – NH – C – NH2 
Schottky's defect (Z)
CH3 – CH = CH – CHO
(2) NaCl(s) is insulator, silicon is semiconductor, (Y)
But-2-enal
silver is conductor, quartz is piezo electric
crystal 140. The element Z = 114 has been discovered recently.
It will belong to which of the following family group
(3) Frenkel defect is favoured in those ionic
and electronic configuration?
compounds in which sizes of cation and anions
are almost equal (1) Carbon family, [Rn] 5f146d107s27p2
(4) FeO0.98 has non stoichiometric metal deficiency
(2) Oxygen family, [Rn] 5f146d107s27p4
defect
Answer (3 & 4) (3) Nitrogen family, [Rn] 5f146d107s27p6

Sol. Frenkel defect occurs in those ionic compounds in
which size of cation and anion is largely different.
Non-stoichiometric ferrous oxide is Fe0.93–0.96O1.00
and it is due to metal deficiency defect.
(4) Halogen family, [Rn] 5f146d107s27p5
Answer (1)
Sol. Z = 114 belong to Group 14, carbon family

139. Consider the reactions : Electronic configuration = [Rn]5f146d107s27p2

+
Cu / [Ag(NH3)2] 141. In the electrochemical cell
X A Silver mirror observed
573 K –OH, 
(C2H6O)
–OH,  Zn|ZnSO4(0.01M)||CuSO4(1.0 M)|Cu, the emf of this
Y
O Daniel cell is E1. When the concentration of ZnSO4
NH2 – NH – C – NH2 is changed to 1.0 M and that of CuSO4 changed to
Z 0.01 M, the emf changes to E2. From the following,
Identify A, X, Y and Z which one is the relationship between E1 and E2?
(1) A-Methoxymethane, X-Ethanol, Y-Ethanoic acid, RT
Z-Semicarbazide (Given, = 0.059)
F
(2) A-Ethanal, X-Ethanol, Y-But-2-enal,
Z-Semicarbazone (1) E1 < E2

(3) A-Ethanol, X-Acetaldehyde, Y-Butanone, (2) E1 > E2

Z-Hydrazone
(3) E2 = 0 ≠ E1
(4) A-Methoxymethane, X-Ethanoic acid, Y-Acetate
ion, Z-hydrazine (4) E1 = E2

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Answer (2) 144. It is because of inability of ns2 electrons of the

valence shell to participate in bonding that
Sol. Zn|ZnSO4(0.01 M)||CuSO4(1.0 M)|Cu
(1) Sn2+ is oxidising while Pb4+ is reducing
o 2.303RT (0.01)
 E1  Ecell –  log (2) Sn2+ and Pb2+ are both oxidising and reducing
2F 1
(3) Sn4+ is reducing while Pb4+ is oxidising
When concentrations are changed
(4) Sn2+ is reducing while Pb4+ is oxidising
o 2.303RT 1
 E2  Ecell –  log Answer (4)
2F 0.01
Sol. Inability of ns 2 electrons of the valence shell to
i.e., E1 > E2
participate in bonding on moving down the group in
142. The reason for greater range of oxidation states in heavier p-block elements is called inert pair effect
actinoids is attributed to
As a result, Pb(II) is more stable than Pb(IV)
(1) Actinoid contraction
Sn(IV) is more stable than Sn(II)
(2) 5f, 6d and 7s levels having comparable energies
 Pb(IV) is easily reduced to Pb(II)
(3) 4f and 5d levels being close in energies
 Pb(IV) is oxidising agent
(4) The radioactive nature of actinoids
Sn(II) is easily oxidised to Sn(IV)
Answer (2)
 Sn(II) is reducing agent
Sol. It is a fact.
145. Correct increasing order for the wavelengths of
143. The equilibrium constants of the following are absorption in the visible region for the complexes of
Co3+ is


N2 + 3H2 
 2NH3 K1
(1) [Co(H2O)6]3+, [Co(en)3]3+, [Co(NH3)6]3+


N2 + O2 
 2NO K2
(2) [Co(H2O)6]3+, [Co(NH3)6]3+, [Co(en)3]3+
1 (3) [Co(NH3)6]3+, [Co(en)3]3+, [Co(H2O)6]3+
H2  O2  H2O K3
2 (4) [Co(en)3]3+, [Co(NH3)6]3+, [Co(H2O)6]3+
The equilibrium constant (K) of the reaction
Answer (4)
5 K

2NH3  O2  2NO  3H2O, will be Sol. The order of the ligand in the spectrochemical series
2
H2O < NH3 < en
(1) K2K33 / K1 (2) K2K3 / K1
Hence, the wavelength of the light observed will be
in the order
(3) K32K3 / K1 (4) K1K33 / K2
[Co(H2O)6]3+ < [Co(NH3)6]3+ < [Co(en)3]3+
Answer (1)
Thus, wavelength absorbed will be in the opposite
2 order
[NH3 ]
Sol. (I) 

N2  3H2 
 2NH3 ; K1 
[N2 ] [H2 ]3 i.e., [Co(en)3]3+, [Co(NH3)6]3+, [Co(H2O)6]3+
146. Mechanism of a hypothetical reaction

 [NO]2
(II) N2  O2 
 2NO; K 2  X2 + Y2  2XY is given below :
[N2 ] [O2 ]
(i) X2  X + X (fast)
1 [H2 O]
(III) H2  O2  H2 O; K 3 
2 [H2 ] [O2 ]1/2 

(ii) X + Y2 
 XY + Y (slow)
(II + 3  III – II) will give (iii) X + Y  XY (fast)
5 K
 The overall order of the reaction will be
2NH3  O2  2NO  3H2O;
2 (1) 2 (2) 0
 K K 2  K33 / K1 (3) 1.5 (4) 1

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Answer (3) 149. Identify A and predict the type of reaction

Sol. The solution of this question is given by assuming OCH3

step (i) to be reversible which is not given in question NaNH2
A
Overall rate = Rate of slowest step (ii)
Br
= k[X] [Y2] ...(1) OCH3
NH2
k = rate constant of step (ii)
(1) and elimination addition reaction
Assuming step (i) to be reversible, its equilibrium
constant, OCH3
1 1 Br
[X]2 (2) and cine substitution reaction
k eq  ⇒ [X]  k eq 2 [X2 ] 2 ...(2)
[X2 ]

Put (2) in (1) OCH3

1 1
(3) and cine substitution reaction
Rate = kk eq 2 [X2 ] 2 [Y2 ]

1 3 OCH3
Overall order = 1
2 2
147. Which one of the following statements is not (4) and substitution reaction
correct? NH2
(1) The value of equilibrium constant is changed in Answer (4)
the presence of a catalyst in the reaction at OCH3 OCH3 OCH3
equilibrium
Sol. H
NH2
(2) Enzymes catalyse mainly bio-chemical reactions
(3) Coenzymes increase the catalytic activity of Br Br
enzyme Benzyne

(4) Catalyst does not initiate any reaction OCH3

NH2
Answer (1) OCH3 X
a
Sol. A catalyst decreases activation energies of both the (Less stable)
NH2
forward and backward reaction by same amount, OCH3
therefore, it speeds up both forward and backward OCH3
reaction by same rate. b H–NH2

Equilibrium constant is therefore not affected by

NH2
catalyst at a given temperature. NH2
148. An example of a sigma bonded organometallic More stable as –ve charge is close to electron
compound is withdrawing group

(1) Grignard's reagent ∵ Incoming nucleophile ends on same ‘C’ on which

‘Br’ (Leaving group) was present
(2) Ferrocene
 NOT cine substitution.
(3) Cobaltocene 150. Concentration of the Ag+ ions in a saturated solution
(4) Ruthenocene of Ag2C2O4 is 2.2 × 10–4 mol L–1. Solubility product
of Ag2C2O4 is
Answer (1)
(1) 2.66 × 10–12 (2) 4.5 × 10–11
Sol. Grignard's reagent i.e., RMgX is -bonded
organometallic compound. (3) 5.3 × 10–12 (4) 2.42 × 10–8
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Answer (3) 154. A first order reaction has a specific reaction rate of
10–2 second–1. How much time will it take for 20 g

  2
Sol. Ag2C2O4 (s)  2 Ag (aq)  C2O4 (aq) of the reactant to reduce to 5 g?
2s s
(1) 138.6 second (2) 346.5 second
KSP = [Ag+]2 [C2O42–]
(3) 693.0 second (4) 238.6 second
[Ag+] = 2.2 × 10–4 M
Answer (1)
4
2.2  10 0.693
 [C2O24 ]  M  1.1 104 M Sol. t1/2  second
2 10–2
 KSP = (2.2 × 10–4)2 (1.1 × 10–4) For the reduction of 20 g of reactant to 5 g, two t1/2
is required.
= 5.324 × 10–12
0.693
151. The heating of phenyl-methyl ethers with HI produces.  t  2 second
10 –2
(1) Iodobenzene (2) Phenol
= 138.6 second
(3) Benzene (4) Ethyl chlorides
155. A gas is allowed to expand in a well insulated
Answer (2) container against a constant external pressure of 2.5
atm from an initial volume of 2.50 L to a final volume
O – CH3 OH of 4.50 L. The change in internal energy U of the
HI
gas in joules will be
Sol. + CH3I
(1) –500 J (2) –505 J
(3) +505 J (4) 1136.25 J
152. The most suitable method of separation of 1 : 1
mixture of ortho and para-nitrophenols is Answer (2)

(1) Chromatography Sol. U = q + w

(2) Crystallisation For adiabatic process, q = 0

 U = w
(3) Steam distillation
= – P·V
(4) Sublimation
= –2.5 atm × (4.5 – 2.5) L
Answer (3)
= –2.5 × 2 L-atm
Sol. Steam distillation is the most suitable method of
separation of 1 : 1 mixture of ortho and para = –5 × 101.3 J
nitrophenols as there is intramolecular H-bonds in = –506.5 J
ortho nitrophenol.
 –505 J
153. Which one is the most acidic compound?
156. Which of the following is dependent on temperature?
OH OH
(1) Molarity (2) Mole fraction

(1) (2) (3) Weight percentage (4) Molality

Answer (1)
NO2
Sol. Molarity includes volume of solution which can
OH OH change with change in temperature.
O2N NO2
157. The species, having bond angles of 120° is
(3) (4)
(1) CIF3
NO2 CH3 (2) NCl3
Answer (3) (3) BCl3
Sol. –NO2 group has very strong –I & –R effects. (4) PH3

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Answer (3) Answer (1)

Cl Sol. ∵ G = H – TS
120°
Sol. B For a reaction to be spontaneous, G = –ve
Cl Cl
i.e., H < TS
158. Which of the following is a sink for CO?
(1) Micro-organisms present in the soil H 35.5  103 J
 T 
(2) Oceans S 83.6 JK –1
(3) Plants
i.e., T > 425 K
(4) Haemoglobin
162. Which one is the correct order of acidity?
Answer (1)
(1) CH  CH > CH3 – C  CH > CH2 = CH2 > CH3
Sol. Micro-organisms present in the soil is a sink for CO. – CH3
159. Extraction of gold and silver involves leaching with (2) CH  CH > CH2 = CH2 > CH3 – C  CH > CH3
CN– ion. Silver is later recovered by – CH3
(1) Distillation (2) Zone refining (3) CH3 – CH3 > CH2 = CH2 > CH3 – C  CH >
(3) Displacement with Zn (4) Liquation CH  CH

Answer (3) (4) CH2 = CH2 > CH3 – CH = CH2 > CH3 – C 
CH > CH  CH
Sol. Zn being more reactive than Ag and Au, displaces
them. Answer (1)

From Native ore, Sol. Correct order is

Leaching
4Ag + 8NaCN + 2H2O + O2  H – C  C – H  H3 C – C  C – H  H2C  CH2  CH3 – CH3
(Two acidic (One acidic
hydrogens)
4Na[Ag(CN)2 ]  4NaOH hydrogen)

Soluble
Sodium dicyanoargentate(I) 163. Name the gas that can readily decolourises acidified
Displacement KMnO4 solution:
2Na[Ag(CN)2] + Zn  
(1) SO2
Na2[Zn(CN)4] + 2Ag
(2) NO2
160. Mixture of chloroxylenol and terpineol acts as
(1) Antiseptic (3) P2O5

(2) Antipyretic (4) CO2

(3) Antibiotic Answer (1)

(4) Analgesic Sol. SO2 is readily decolourises acidified KMnO4.

Answer (1) 164. Which of the following statements is not correct?

Sol. Mixture of chloroxylenol and terpineol acts as (1) Ovalbumin is a simple food reserve in egg-white
antiseptic. (2) Blood proteins thrombin and fibrinogen are
161. For a given reaction, H = 35.5 kJ mol –1 and involved in blood clotting
S = 83.6 JK–1 mol–1. The reaction is spontaneous
(3) Denaturation makes the proteins more active
at : (Assume that H and S do not vary with
temperature) (4) Insulin maintains sugar level in the blood of a
human body
(1) T > 425 K
Answer (3)
(2) All temperatures
Sol. Due to denaturation of proteins, globules unfold and
(3) T > 298 K
helix get uncoiled and protein loses its biological
(4) T < 425 K activity.
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 NEET (UG) - 2017 (Code-Q) TARA

165. If molality of the dilute solution is doubled, the value Answer (3)
of molal depression constant (Kf) will be OH
(1) Halved (2) Tripled Sol. H3C – C  CH H3C – C = CH
(A)
(3) Unchanged (4) Doubled
O
Answer (3) Tautomerism
H3C – C – CH3
Sol. Kf (molal depression constant) is a characteristic of (B)
solvent and is independent of molality. 169. Pick out the correct statement with respect
166. Ionic mobility of which of the following alkali metal [Mn(CN)6]3–
ions is lowest when aqueous solution of their salts (1) It is sp3d2 hybridised and tetrahedral
are put under an electric field?
(2) It is d2sp3 hybridised and octahedral
(1) K (2) Rb
(3) It is dsp2 hybridised and square planar
(3) Li (4) Na
(4) It is sp3d2 hybridised and octahedral
Answer (3)
Answer (2)
Sol. Li+ being smallest, has maximum charge density
Sol. [Mn(CN)6]3–
 Li+is most heavily hydrated among all alkali metal
Mn(III) = [Ar]3d4
ions. Effective size of Li+ in aq solution is therefore,
largest. CN – being strong field ligand forces pairing of
electrons
 Moves slowest under electric field.
4 0
167. Which of the following reactions is appropriate for This gives t2g eg
converting acetamide to methanamine?
 Mn(III) = [Ar]
(1) Hoffmann hypobromamide reaction
(2) Stephens reaction
(3) Gabriels phthalimide synthesis 4s 4p
3d
(4) Carbylamine reaction 2
d sp
3

Answer (1) ∵ Coordination number of Mn = 6

O

 Structure = octahedral
Sol. CH3 – C – NH2 + Br2 + 4NaOH
[Mn(CN)6]3– =
CH3 – NH2 + 2NaBr + Na2CO3 + 3H2O
This is Hoffmann Bromamide reaction.
[Ar]      
168. Predict the correct intermediate and product in the
following reaction d sp
2 3

H2O, H2SO4
H 3C C CH HgSO4
intermediate product 170. Match the interhalogen compounds of column I with
(A) (B)
the geometry in column II and assign the correct
(1) A : H3C C CH2 B : H3C C CH2 code
OH SO4 Column I Column II
(2) A : H3C C CH3 B : H3C C CH (a) XX (i) T-shape

O (b) XX3 (ii) Pentagonal

(3) A : H3C C CH2 B : H3C C CH3 bipyramidal

(c) XX5 (iii) Linear

OH O
(4) A : H3C C CH2 B : H3C C CH3 (d) XX7 (iv) Square-pyramidal

SO4 O (v) Tetrahedral

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 NEET (UG) - 2017 (Code-Q) TARA

Code : Answer (4)

(a) (b) (c) (d) O O
(1) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii) C 2
Sol. H 3 4
(2) (v) (iv) (iii) (ii) 1
5 6
(3) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
Aldehydes get higher priority over ketone and alkene
(4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
in numbering of principal C-chain.
Answer (1)
 3-keto-2-methylhex-4-enal
Sol. XX  Linear
174. Which one is the wrong statement?
XX3  Example : CIF3  T-shape
h
XX5  Example : BrF5  Square pyramidal (1) The uncertainty principle is E  t 
4
XX7  Example : IF7  Pentagonal bipyramidal (2) Half-filled and fully filled orbitals have greater
171. HgCl2 and I2 both when dissolved in water containing stability due to greater exchange energy, greater
I– ions the pair of species formed is symmetry and more balanced arrangement
(1) HgI2 , I– (2) HgI2– –
4 , I3
(3) The energy of 2s orbital is less than the energy
of 2p orbital in case of Hydrogen like atoms
(3) Hg2I2 , I– (4) HgI2 , I3–
h
Answer (2) (4) de-Broglie's wavelength is given by   ,
mv
Sol. In a solution containing HgCl2, I2 and I–, both HgCl2 where m = mass of the particle, v = group
and I2 compete for I–. velocity of the particle
Since formation constant of [HgI4]2– is 1.9 × 1030 Answer (3)
which is very large as compared with I3– (Kf = 700)
Sol. Energy of 2s-orbital and 2p-orbital in case of
 I– will preferentially combine with HgCl2. hydrogen like atoms is equal.
HgCl2 + 2I–  HgI2 + 2Cl– 175. With respect to the conformers of ethane, which of
Red ppt
the following statements is true?
HgI2 + 2I–  [HgI4]2– (1) Bond angle changes but bond length remains
soluble
same
172. In which pair of ions both the species contain
(2) Both bond angle and bond length change
S – S bond?
(3) Both bond angles and bond length remains
(1) S4O62–, S2O32– (2) S2O72–, S2O82– same
(3) S4O62–, S2O72– (4) S2O72–, S2O32– (4) Bond angle remains same but bond length
Answer (1) changes
O O O Answer (3)
Sol. O– S S S S O– , S Sol. There is no change in bond angles and bond lengths
S O – in the conformations of ethane. There is only change
O O O– in dihedral angle.
[S4O6]2(–) [S2O3]2(–) 176. A 20 litre container at 400 K contains CO2(g) at
173. The IUPAC name of the compound pressure 0.4 atm and an excess of SrO (neglect the
volume of solid SrO). The volume of the containers
O O
is now decreased by moving the movable piston
C fitted in the container. The maximum volume of the
H is ________. container, when pressure of CO 2 attains its
maximum value, will be
(1) 5-formylhex-2-en-3-one 

(Given that : SrCO3(s)  SrO(s) + CO 2(g).
(2) 5-methyl-4-oxohex-2-en-5-al Kp = 1.6 atm)
(3) 3-keto-2-methylhex-5-enal (1) 10 litre (2) 4 litre
(4) 3-keto-2-methylhex-4-enal (3) 2 litre (4) 5 litre
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 NEET (UG) - 2017 (Code-Q) TARA

Answer (4) Answer (1)

Sol. Max. pressure of CO2 = Pressure of CO2 at equilibrium O O
For reaction, H
(i) OH(–)
Sol. + H

 (ii) 
 SrO(s)  CO2
SrCO3 (s) 
O
Kp  PCO2  1.6 atm = maximum pressure of CO2
179. The correct statement regarding electrophile is
Volume of container at this stage, (1) Electrophile is a negatively charged species and
can form a bond by accepting a pair of electrons
nRT
V …(i) from another electrophile
P
(2) Electrophiles are generally neutral species and
Since container is sealed and reaction was not
can form a bond by accepting a pair of electrons
earlier at equilibrium
from a nucleophile
 n = constant
(3) Electrophile can be either neutral or positively
PV 0.4  20 charged species and can form a bond by
n  …(ii) accepting a pair of electrons from a nucleophile
RT RT
Put equation (ii) in equation (i) (4) Electrophile is a negatively charged species and
can form a bond by accepting a pair of electrons
⎡ 0.4  20 ⎤ RT from a nucleophile
V⎢ ⎥ =5L
⎣ RT ⎦ 1.6 Answer (3)
177. The correct order of the stoichiometries of AgCl
Sol. Fact.
formed when AgNO3 in excess is treated with the
complexes : CoCl36NH3, CoCl35NH3, CoCl34NH3 180. The correct increasing order of basic strength for the
respectively is following compounds is

(1) 3 AgCl, 1 AgCl, 2 AgCl NH2 NH2 NH2

(2) 3 AgCl, 2 AgCl, 1 AgCl

(3) 2 AgCl, 3 AgCl, 1 AgCl
(4) 1 AgCl, 3 AgCl, 2 AgCl NO2 CH3
(I) (II) (III)
Answer (2)
(1) III < I < II
Sol. Complexes are respectively [Co(NH 3 ) 6 ]Cl 3 ,
(2) III < II < I
[Co(NH3)5Cl]Cl2 and [Co(NH3)4Cl2]Cl
(3) II < I < III
178. Of the following, which is the product formed when
cyclohexanone undergoes aldol condensation (4) II < III < I
followed by heating?
Answer (3)
Sol. –NO2 has strong –R effect and –CH3 shows +R
(1) (2) effect.
 Order of basic strength is
O OH
NH2 NH2 NH2
O

< <
(3) (4)

O O OH NO2 CH3

  
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