Chapter 65: Critical Care Lewis: Medical-Surgical Nursing, 10th Edition

Chapter 65: Critical Care
Lewis: Medical-Surgical Nursing, 10th Edition
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. A patient who has been in the intensive care unit for 4 days has disturbed sensory perception
from sleep deprivation. Which action should the nurse include in the plan of care?
a. Administer prescribed sedatives or opioids at bedtime to promote sleep.
b. Cluster nursing activities so that the patient has uninterrupted rest periods.
c. Silence the alarms on the cardiac monitors to allow 30- to 40-minute naps.
d. Eliminate assessments between 2200 and 0600 to allow uninterrupted sleep.
ANS: B
Clustering nursing activities and providing uninterrupted rest periods will minimize sleep-
cycle disruption. Sedative and opioid medications tend to decrease the amount of rapid eye
movement (REM) sleep and can contribute to sleep disturbance and disturbed sensory
perception. Silencing the alarms on the cardiac monitors would be unsafe in a critically ill
patient, as would discontinuing all assessments during the night.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1556

TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Psychosocial Integrity
2. Which hemodynamic parameter best reflects the effectiveness of drugs that the nurse gives to
reduce a patient’s left ventricular afterload?
a. Mean arterial pressure (MAP)
b. Systemic vascular resistance (SVR)
c. Pulmonary vascular resistance (PVR)
d. Pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP)
ANS: B
SVR reflects the resistance to ventricular ejection, or afterload. The other parameters may be
monitored but do not reflect afterload as directly.

TOP: Nursing Process: Evaluation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity
3. While close family members are visiting, a patient has a respiratory arrest, and resuscitation is
started. Which action by the nurse is best?
a. Tell the family members that watching the resuscitation will be very stressful.
b. Ask family members if they wish to remain in the room during the resuscitation.
c. Take the family members quickly out of the patient room and remain with them.
d. Assign a staff member to wait with family members just outside the patient room.
ANS: B
Evidence indicates that many family members want the option of remaining in the room
during procedures such as cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) and that this decreases
anxiety and facilitates grieving. The other options may be appropriate if the family decides not
to remain with the patient.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis) REF: 1558
TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Psychosocial Integrity
4. After surgery for an abdominal aortic aneurysm, a patient’s central venous pressure (CVP)
monitor indicates low pressures. Which action should the nurse take?
a.Administer IV diuretic medications.
b.Increase the IV fluid infusion per protocol.
c.Increase the infusion rate of IV vasodilators.
d.Elevate the head of the patient’s bed to 45 degrees.
ANS: B
A low CVP indicates hypovolemia and a need for an increase in the infusion rate. Diuretic
administration will contribute to hypovolemia and elevation of the head or increasing
vasodilators may decrease cerebral perfusion.

TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity
5. When caring for a patient with pulmonary hypertension, which parameter will the nurse use to
directly evaluate the effectiveness of the treatment?
a. Central venous pressure (CVP)
b. Systemic vascular resistance (SVR)
c. Pulmonary vascular resistance (PVR)
d. Pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP)
ANS: C
PVR is a major contributor to pulmonary hypertension, and a decrease would indicate that
pulmonary hypertension was improving. The other parameters may also be monitored but do
not directly assess for pulmonary hypertension.

6. The intensive care unit (ICU) nurse educator determines that teaching a new staff nurse about
arterial pressure monitoring has been effective when the nurse
a. balances and calibrates the monitoring equipment every 2 hours.
b. positions the zero-reference stopcock line level with the phlebostatic axis.
c. ensures that the patient is supine with the head of the bed flat for all readings.
d. rechecks the location of the phlebostatic axis with changes in the patient’s position.
ANS: B
For accurate measurement of pressures, the zero-reference level should be at the phlebostatic
axis. There is no need to rebalance and recalibrate monitoring equipment every 2 hours.
Accurate hemodynamic readings are possible with the patient’s head raised to 45 degrees or in
the prone position. The anatomic position of the phlebostatic axis does not change when
patients are repositioned.

TOP: Nursing Process: Evaluation MSC: NCLEX: Safe and Effective Care Environment
7. When monitoring the effectiveness of treatment for a patient with a large anterior wall
myocardial infarction, the most pertinent measurement for the nurse to obtain is
a.central venous pressure (CVP).
b.systemic vascular resistance (SVR).
c.pulmonary vascular resistance (PVR).
d.pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP).
ANS: D
PAWP reflects left ventricular end diastolic pressure (or left ventricular preload) and is a
sensitive indicator of cardiac function. Because the patient is high risk for left ventricular
failure, the PAWP must be monitored. An increase will indicate left ventricular failure. The
other values would also provide useful information, but the most definitive measurement of
changes in cardiac function is the PAWP.

8. Which action should the nurse take when the low pressure alarm sounds for a patient who has
an arterial line in the left radial artery?
a. Fast flush the arterial line.
b. Check the left hand for pallor.
c. Assess for cardiac dysrhythmias.
d. Re-zero the monitoring equipment.
ANS: C
The low pressure alarm indicates a drop in the patient’s blood pressure, which may be caused
by cardiac dysrhythmias. There is no indication to re-zero the equipment. Pallor of the left
hand would be caused by occlusion of the radial artery by the arterial catheter, not by low
pressure. There is no indication of a need for flushing the line.

TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity
9. Which nursing action is needed when preparing to assist with the insertion of a pulmonary
artery catheter?
a. Determine if the cardiac troponin level is elevated.
b. Auscultate heart sounds before and during insertion.
c. Place the patient on NPO status before the procedure.
d. Attach cardiac monitoring leads before the procedure.
ANS: D
Dysrhythmias can occur as the catheter is floated through the right atrium and ventricle, and it
is important for the nurse to monitor for these during insertion. Pulmonary artery catheter
insertion does not require anesthesia, and the patient will not need to be NPO. Changes in
cardiac troponin or heart and breath sounds are not expected during pulmonary artery catheter
insertion.
10. While assisting with the placement of a pulmonary artery (PA) catheter, the nurse notes that
the catheter is correctly placed when the balloon is inflated and the monitor shows a
a. typical PA pressure waveform.
b. tracing of the systemic arterial pressure.
c. tracing of the systemic vascular resistance.
d. typical PA wedge pressure (PAWP) tracing.
ANS: D
The purpose of a PA line is to measure PAWP, so the catheter is floated through the pulmonary
artery until the dilated balloon wedges in a distal branch of the pulmonary artery, and the
PAWP readings are available. After insertion, the balloon is deflated and the PA waveform will
be observed. Systemic arterial pressures are obtained using an arterial line, and the systemic
vascular resistance is a calculated value, not a waveform.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand (comprehension) REF: 1564

TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity
11. Which assessment finding obtained by the nurse when caring for a patient with a right radial
arterial line indicates a need for the nurse to take action?
a. The right hand feels cooler than the left hand.
b. The mean arterial pressure (MAP) is 77 mm Hg.
c. The system is delivering 3 mL of flush solution per hour.
d. The flush bag and tubing were last changed 2 days previously.
ANS: A
The change in temperature of the right hand suggests that blood flow to the right hand is
impaired. The flush system needs to be changed every 96 hours. A mean arterial pressure
(MAP) of 75 mm Hg is normal. Flush systems for hemodynamic monitoring are set up to
deliver 3 to 6 mL/hr of flush solution.

12. The central venous oxygen saturation (ScvO2) is decreasing in a patient who has severe
pancreatitis. To determine the possible cause of the decreased ScvO2, the nurse assesses the
patient’s
a. lipase level. c. urinary output.
b. temperature. d. body mass index.
ANS: B
Elevated temperature increases metabolic demands and O2 use by tissues, resulting in a drop
in O2 saturation of central venous blood. Information about the patient’s body mass index,
urinary output, and lipase will not help in determining the cause of the patient’s drop in
ScvO2.

13. An intraaortic balloon pump (IABP) is being used for a patient who is in cardiogenic shock.
Which assessment data indicate to the nurse that the goals of treatment with the IABP are
being met?
a. Urine output of 25 mL/hr
b. Heart rate of 110 beats/minute
c. Cardiac output (CO) of 5 L/min
d. Stroke volume (SV) of 40 mL/beat
ANS: C
A CO of 5 L/min is normal and indicates that the IABP has been successful in treating the
shock. The low SV signifies continued cardiogenic shock. The tachycardia and low urine
output also suggest continued cardiogenic shock.

14. The nurse is caring for a patient who has an intraaortic balloon pump in place. Which action
should be included in the plan of care?
a. Avoid the use of anticoagulant medications.
b. Measure the patient’s urinary output every hour.
c. Provide passive range of motion for all extremities.
d. Position the patient supine with head flat at all times.
ANS: B
Monitoring urine output will help determine whether the patient’s cardiac output has
improved and also help monitor for balloon displacement blocking the renal arteries. The head
of the bed can be elevated up to 30 degrees. Heparin is used to prevent thrombus formation.
Limited movement is allowed for the extremity with the balloon insertion site to prevent
displacement of the balloon.

15. While waiting for heart transplantation, a patient with severe cardiomyopathy has a
ventricular assist device (VAD) implanted. When planning care for this patient, the nurse
should anticipate
a. preparing the patient for a permanent VAD.
b. administering immunosuppressive medications.
c. teaching the patient the reason for complete bed rest.
d. monitoring the surgical incision for signs of infection.
ANS: D
The insertion site for the VAD provides a source for transmission of infection to the
circulatory system and requires frequent monitoring. Patients with VADs are able to have
some mobility and may not be on bed rest. The VAD is a bridge to transplantation, not a
permanent device. Immunosuppression is not necessary for nonbiologic devices such as the
VAD.
16. To verify the correct placement of an oral endotracheal tube (ET) after insertion, the best
initial action by the nurse is to
a. obtain a portable chest x-ray.
b. use an end-tidal CO2 monitor.
c. auscultate for bilateral breath sounds.
d. observe for symmetrical chest movement.
ANS: B
End-tidal CO2 monitors are currently recommended for rapid verification of ET placement.
Auscultation for bilateral breath sounds and checking chest expansion are also used, but they
are not as accurate as end-tidal CO2 monitoring. A chest x-ray confirms the placement but is
done after the tube is secured.

17. To maintain proper cuff pressure of an endotracheal tube (ET) when the patient is on
mechanical ventilation, the nurse should
a. inflate the cuff with a minimum of 10 mL of air.
b. inflate the cuff until the pilot balloon is firm on palpation.
c. inject air into the cuff until a manometer shows 15 mm Hg pressure.
d. inject air into the cuff until a slight leak is heard only at peak inflation.
ANS: D
The minimal occluding volume technique involves injecting air into the cuff until an air leak
is present only at peak inflation. The volume to inflate the cuff varies with the ET and the
patient’s size. Cuff pressure should be maintained at 20 to 25 mm Hg. An accurate assessment
of cuff pressure cannot be obtained by palpating the pilot balloon.

18. The nurse notes premature ventricular contractions (PVCs) while suctioning a patient’s
endotracheal tube. Which next action by the nurse is indicated?
a. Plan to suction the patient more frequently.
b. Decrease the suction pressure to 80 mm Hg.
c. Give antidysrhythmic medications per protocol.
d. Stop and ventilate the patient with 100% oxygen.
ANS: D
Dysrhythmias during suctioning may indicate hypoxemia or sympathetic nervous system
stimulation. The nurse should stop suctioning and ventilate the patient with 100% O2. There is
no indication that more frequent suctioning is needed. Lowering the suction pressure will
decrease the effectiveness of suctioning without improving the hypoxemia. Because the PVCs
occurred during suctioning, there is no need for antidysrhythmic medications (which may
have adverse effects) unless they recur when the suctioning is stopped and patient is well
oxygenated.

19. Which assessment finding obtained by the nurse when caring for a patient receiving
mechanical ventilation indicates the need for suctioning?
a. The patient was last suctioned 6 hours ago.
b. The patient’s oxygen saturation drops to 93%.
c. The patient’s respiratory rate is 32 breaths/min.
d. The patient has occasional audible expiratory wheezes.
ANS: C
The increase in respiratory rate indicates that the patient may have decreased airway clearance
and requires suctioning. Suctioning is done when patient assessment data indicate that it is
needed and not on a scheduled basis. Occasional expiratory wheezes do not indicate poor
airway clearance, and suctioning the patient may induce bronchospasm and increase
wheezing. An O2 saturation of 93% is acceptable and does not suggest that immediate
suctioning is needed.

20. The nurse notes thick, white secretions in the endotracheal tube (ET) of a patient who is
receiving mechanical ventilation. Which intervention will most directly treat this finding?
a. Reposition the patient every 1 to 2 hours.
b. Increase suctioning frequency to every hour.
c. Add additional water to the patient’s enteral feedings.
d. Instill 5 mL of sterile saline into the ET before suctioning.
ANS: C
Because the patient’s secretions are thick, better hydration is indicated. Suctioning every hour
without any specific evidence for the need will increase the incidence of mucosal trauma and
would not address the etiology of the ineffective airway clearance. Instillation of saline does
not liquefy secretions and may decrease the SpO2. Repositioning the patient is appropriate but
will not decrease the thickness of secretions.

21. Four hours after mechanical ventilation is initiated, a patient’s arterial blood gas (ABG)
results include a pH of 7.51, PaO2 of 82 mm Hg, PaCO2 of 26 mm Hg, and HCO3– of 23
mEq/L (23 mmol/L). The nurse will anticipate the need to
a. increase the FIO2. c. increase the respiratory rate.
b. increase the tidal volume. d. decrease the respiratory rate.
ANS: D
The patient’s PaCO2 and pH indicate respiratory alkalosis caused by too high a respiratory
rate. The PaO2 is appropriate for a patient with COPD and increasing the respiratory rate and
tidal volume would further lower the PaCO2.

22. A patient with respiratory failure has arterial pressure–based cardiac output (APCO)
monitoring and is receiving mechanical ventilation with peak end-expiratory pressure (PEEP)
of 12 cm H2O. Which information indicates that a change in the ventilator settings may be
required?
a. The arterial pressure is 90/46.
b. The stroke volume is increased.
c. The heart rate is 58 beats/minute.
d. The stroke volume variation is 12%.
ANS: A
The hypotension suggests that the high intrathoracic pressure caused by the PEEP may be
decreasing venous return and (potentially) cardiac output. The other assessment data would
not be a direct result of PEEP and mechanical ventilation.

23. A nurse is weaning a 68-kg patient who has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
from mechanical ventilation. Which patient assessment finding indicates that the weaning
protocol should be stopped?
a. The patient’s heart rate is 97 beats/min.
b. The patient’s oxygen saturation is 93%.
c. The patient respiratory rate is 32 breaths/min.
d. The patient’s spontaneous tidal volume is 450 mL.
ANS: C
Tachypnea is a sign that the patient’s work of breathing is too high to allow weaning to
proceed. The patient’s heart rate is within normal limits, but the nurse should continue to
monitor it. An O2 saturation of 93% is acceptable for a patient with COPD. A spontaneous
tidal volume of 450 mL is within the acceptable range.

24. The nurse is caring for a patient receiving a continuous norepinephrine IV infusion. Which
patient assessment finding indicates that the infusion rate may need to be adjusted?
a. Heart rate is slow at 58 beats/min.
b. Mean arterial pressure (MAP) is 56 mm Hg.
c. Systemic vascular resistance (SVR) is elevated.
d. Pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP) is low.
ANS: C
Vasoconstrictors such as norepinephrine will increase SVR, and this will increase the work of
the heart and decrease peripheral perfusion. The infusion rate may need to be decreased.
Bradycardia, hypotension (MAP of 56 mm Hg), and low PAWP are not associated with
norepinephrine infusion.

25. When evaluating a patient with a central venous catheter, the nurse observes that the insertion
site is red and tender to touch and the patient’s temperature is 101.8° F. What should the nurse
plan to do?
a. Discontinue the catheter and culture the tip.
b. Use the catheter only for fluid administration.
c. Change the flush system and monitor the site.
d. Check the site more frequently for any swelling.
ANS: A
The information indicates that the patient has a local and systemic infection caused by the
catheter, and the catheter should be discontinued to avoid further complications such as
endocarditis. Changing the flush system, continued monitoring, or using the line for fluids
will not help prevent or treat the infection.

26. An 81-yr-old patient who has been in the intensive care unit (ICU) for a week is now stable
and transfer to the progressive care unit is planned. On rounds, the nurse notices that the
patient has new onset confusion. The nurse will plan to
a. give PRN lorazepam (Ativan) and cancel the transfer.
b. inform the receiving nurse and then transfer the patient.
c. notify the health care provider and postpone the transfer.
d. obtain an order for restraints as needed and transfer the patient.
ANS: B
The patient’s history and symptoms most likely indicate delirium associated with the sleep
deprivation and sensory overload in the ICU environment. Informing the receiving nurse and
transferring the patient is appropriate. Postponing the transfer is likely to prolong the delirium.
Benzodiazepines and restraints contribute to delirium and agitation.

TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Psychosocial Integrity
27. The family members of a patient who has been admitted to the intensive care unit (ICU) with
multiple traumatic injuries have just arrived in the ICU waiting room. Which action should the
nurse take first?
a. Explain ICU visitation policies and encourage family visits.
b. Escort the family from the waiting room to the patient’s bedside.
c. Describe the patient’s injuries and the care that is being provided.
d. Invite the family to participate in an interprofessional care conference.
ANS: C
Lack of information is a major source of anxiety for family members and should be addressed
first. Family members should be prepared for the patient’s appearance and the ICU
environment before visiting the patient for the first time. ICU visiting should be
individualized to each patient and family rather than being dictated by rigid visitation policies.
Inviting the family to participate in a multidisciplinary conference is appropriate but should
not be the initial action by the nurse.

OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation
MSC: NCLEX: Psychosocial Integrity
28. The nurse is caring for a patient who has an arterial catheter in the left radial artery for arterial
pressure–based cardiac output (APCO) monitoring. Which information obtained by the nurse
requires a report to the health care provider?
a. The patient has a positive Allen test result.
b. There is redness at the catheter insertion site.
c. The mean arterial pressure (MAP) is 86 mm Hg.
d. The dicrotic notch is visible in the arterial waveform.
ANS: B
Redness at the catheter insertion site indicates possible infection. The Allen test is performed
before arterial line insertion, and a positive test result indicates normal ulnar artery perfusion.
A MAP of 86 mm Hg is normal, and the dicrotic notch is normally present on the arterial
waveform.

OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment
MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity
29. The nurse responds to a ventilator alarm and finds the patient lying in bed gasping and
holding the endotracheal tube (ET) in her hand. Which action should the nurse take next?
a. Activate the rapid response team.
b. Provide reassurance to the patient.
c. Call the health care provider to reinsert the tube.
d. Manually ventilate the patient with 100% oxygen.
ANS: D
The nurse should ensure maximal patient oxygenation by manually ventilating with a bag-
valve-mask system. Offering reassurance to the patient, notifying the health care provider
about the need to reinsert the tube, and activating the rapid response team are also appropriate
after the nurse has stabilized the patient’s oxygenation.

30. The nurse notes that a patient’s endotracheal tube (ET), which was at the 22-cm mark, is now
at the 25-cm mark, and the patient is anxious and restless. Which action should the nurse take
next?
a. Check the O2 saturation.
b. Offer reassurance to the patient.
c. Listen to the patient’s breath sounds.
d. Notify the patient’s health care provider.
ANS: C
The nurse should first determine whether the ET tube has been displaced into the right
mainstem bronchus by listening for unilateral breath sounds. If so, assistance will be needed
to reposition the tube immediately. The other actions are also appropriate, but detection and
correction of tube malposition are the most critical actions.

31. The nurse educator is evaluating the care that a new registered nurse (RN) provides to a
patient receiving mechanical ventilation. Which action by the new RN indicates the need for
more education?
a. The RN increases the FIO2 to 100% before suctioning.
b. The RN secures a bite block in place using adhesive tape.
c. The RN asks for assistance to resecure the endotracheal tube.
d. The RN positions the patient with the head of bed at 10 degrees.
ANS: D
The head of the patient’s bed should be positioned at 30 to 45 degrees to prevent ventilator-
associated pneumonia. The other actions by the new RN are appropriate.

OBJ: Special Questions: Supervision TOP: Nursing Process: Evaluation
MSC: NCLEX: Safe and Effective Care Environment
32. A patient who is orally intubated and receiving mechanical ventilation is anxious and is
“fighting” the ventilator. Which action should the nurse take next?
a. Verbally coach the patient to breathe with the ventilator.
b. Sedate the patient with the ordered PRN lorazepam (Ativan).
c. Manually ventilate the patient with a bag-valve-mask device.
d. Increase the rate for the ordered propofol (Diprivan) infusion.
ANS: A
The initial response by the nurse should be to try to decrease the patient’s anxiety by coaching
the patient about how to coordinate respirations with the ventilator. The other actions may also
be helpful if the verbal coaching is ineffective in reducing the patient’s anxiety.

33. The nurse educator is evaluating the performance of a new registered nurse (RN) who is
providing care to a patient who is receiving mechanical ventilation with 15 cm H2O of peak
end-expiratory pressure (PEEP). Which action indicates that the new RN is safe?
a. The RN plans to suction the patient every 1 to 2 hours.
b. The RN uses a closed-suction technique to suction the patient.
c. The RN tapes the connection between the ventilator tubing and the ET.
d. The RN changes the ventilator circuit tubing routinely every 48 hours.
ANS: B
The closed-suction technique is used when patients require high levels of PEEP (>10 cm H2O)
to prevent the loss of PEEP that occurs when disconnecting the patient from the ventilator.
Suctioning should not be scheduled routinely, but it should be done only when patient
assessment data indicate the need for suctioning. Taping connections between the ET and
ventilator tubing would restrict the ability of the tubing to swivel in response to patient
repositioning. Ventilator tubing changes increase the risk for ventilator-associated pneumonia
and are not indicated routinely.

OBJ: Special Questions: Delegation TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation
MSC: NCLEX: Safe and Effective Care Environment
34. The nurse is caring for a patient with a subarachnoid hemorrhage who is intubated and placed
on a mechanical ventilator with 10 cm H2O of peak end-expiratory pressure (PEEP). When
monitoring the patient, the nurse will need to notify the health care provider immediately if
the patient develops
a. O2 saturation of 93%.
b. green nasogastric tube drainage.
c. respirations of 20 breaths/minute.
d. increased jugular venous distention.
ANS: D
Increases in jugular venous distention in a patient with a subarachnoid hemorrhage may
indicate an increase in intracranial pressure (ICP) and that the PEEP setting is too high for this
patient. A respiratory rate of 20, O2 saturation of 93%, and green nasogastric tube drainage are
within normal limits.

35. A patient who is receiving positive pressure ventilation is scheduled for a spontaneous
breathing trial (SBT). Which finding by the nurse is most likely to result in postponing the
SBT?
a. New ST segment elevation is noted on the cardiac monitor.
b. Enteral feedings are being given through an orogastric tube.
c. Scattered rhonchi are heard when auscultating breath sounds.
d. hydromorphone (Dilaudid) is being used to treat postoperative pain.
ANS: A
Myocardial ischemia is a contraindication for ventilator weaning. The ST segment elevation is
an indication that weaning should be postponed until further investigation and/or treatment for
myocardial ischemia can be done. Ventilator weaning can proceed when opioids are used for
pain management, abnormal lung sounds are present, or enteral feedings are being used.

36. After change-of-shift report on a ventilator weaning unit, which patient should the nurse
assess first?
a. Patient who failed a spontaneous breathing trial and has been placed in a rest mode
on the ventilator
b. Patient who is intubated and has continuous partial pressure end-tidal CO2
(PETCO2) monitoring
c. Patient who was successfully weaned and extubated 4 hours ago and has no urine
output for the last 6 hours
d. Patient with a central venous O2 saturation (ScvO2) of 69% while on bilevel
positive airway pressure (BiPAP)
ANS: C
The decreased urine output may indicate acute kidney injury or that the patient’s cardiac
output and perfusion of vital organs have decreased. Any of these causes would require rapid
action. The data about the other patients indicate that their conditions are stable and do not
require immediate assessment or changes in their care. Continuous PETCO2 monitoring is
frequently used when patients are intubated. The rest mode should be used to allow patient
recovery after a failed SBT, and an ScvO2 of 69% is within normal limits.

OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization | Special Questions: Multiple Patients
TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Safe and Effective Care Environment
37. After change-of-shift report, which patient should the progressive care nurse assess first?
a. Patient who was extubated this morning and has a temperature of 101.4°F (38.6°C)
b. Patient with bilevel positive airway pressure (BiPAP) for obstructive sleep apnea
and a respiratory rate of 16
c. Patient with arterial pressure monitoring who is 2 hours post–percutaneous
coronary intervention and needs to void
d. Patient who is receiving IV heparin for a venous thromboembolism and has a
partial thromboplastin time (PTT) of 101 sec
ANS: D
The findings for this patient indicate high risk for bleeding from an elevated (nontherapeutic)
PTT. The nurse needs to adjust the rate of the infusion (dose) per the health care provider’s
parameters. The patient with BiPAP for sleep apnea has a normal respiratory rate. The patient
recovering from the percutaneous coronary intervention will need to be assisted with voiding
and this task could be delegated to unlicensed assistive personnel. The patient with a fever
may be developing ventilator-associated pneumonia, but addressing the bleeding risk is a
higher priority.

OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization | Special Questions: Multiple Patients
TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Safe and Effective Care Environment
COMPLETION
1. A patient’s vital signs are pulse 90, respirations 24, and BP 128/64 mm Hg, and cardiac output
is 4.7 L/min. The patient’s stroke volume is _____ mL. (Round to the nearest whole number.)
ANS:
52
Stroke volume = Cardiac output/heart rate

52 mL = (4.7 L x 1000 mL/L)/90

OTHER
1. When assisting with oral intubation of a patient who is having respiratory distress, in which
order will the nurse take these actions? (Put a comma and a space between each answer
choice [A, B, C, D, E].)
a. Obtain a portable chest-x-ray.
b. Position the patient in the supine position.
c. Inflate the cuff of the endotracheal tube after insertion.
d. Attach an end-tidal CO2 detector to the endotracheal tube.
e. Oxygenate the patient with a bag-valve-mask device for several minutes.
ANS:
E, B, C, D, A
The patient is pre-oxygenated with a bag-valve-mask system for 3 to 5 minutes before

intubation and then placed in a supine position. After the intubation, the cuff on the
endotracheal tube is inflated to occlude and protect the airway. Tube placement is assessed
first with an end-tidal CO2 sensor and then with chest x-ray examination.
2. The nurse is caring for a patient who has an intraaortic balloon pump (IABP) after a massive
heart attack. When assessing the patient, the nurse notices blood backing up into the IABP
catheter. In which order should the nurse take the following actions? (Put a comma and a
space between each answer choice [A, B, C, D].)
a. Confirm that the IABP console has turned off.
b. Assess the patient’s vital signs and orientation.
c. Obtain supplies for insertion of a new IABP catheter.
d. Notify the health care provider of the IABP malfunction.
ANS:
A, B, D, C
Blood in the IABP catheter indicates a possible tear in the balloon. The console should shut
off automatically to prevent complications such as air embolism. Next, the nurse will assess
the patient and communicate with the health care provider about the patient’s assessment and
the IABP problem. Finally, supplies for insertion of a new IABP catheter may be needed
based on the patient assessment and the decision of the health care provider.

OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization TOP: Nursing Process: Planning

Chapter 65: Critical Care Lewis: Medical-Surgical Nursing, 10th Edition

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Chapter 65: Critical Care Lewis: Medical-Surgical Nursing, 10th Edition

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Chapter 65: Critical Care

Lewis: Medical-Surgical Nursing, 10th Edition

DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1556

DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1560

DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1564

DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1560

DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1560

DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1563

DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1564

DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand (comprehension) REF: 1564

DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1565

DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1565

DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1569

DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1569

DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis) REF: 1570

DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand (comprehension) REF: 1571

DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1571

DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1571

DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1572

DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis) REF: 1571

DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1571

DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1582

DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1560

DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1562

DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1557

DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis) REF: 1558

DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1562

DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis) REF: 1573

DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis) REF: 1573

DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1579

DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis) REF: 1579

DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1571

DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1579

DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1582

DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis) REF: 1582

DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis) REF: 1556

Stroke volume = Cardiac output/heart rate

DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand (comprehension) REF: 1559

The patient is pre-oxygenated with a bag-valve-mask system for 3 to 5 minutes before

DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis) REF: 1568

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