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Unit 1

1. What’s the appropriate combination of sciences in the health field?


A. Health & physical B. Physical & chemical
C. Health & chemical D. Health & physiological

2. Which practice belongs to traditional role of pharmacy practice?


A. Reviewing B. Researching C. Dispersing D. Information providing

3. What’s the difference between a drug & a medicine?


A. They are chemically basic
B. They are aimed at disease treatment.
C. A medicine works in separation with drugs.
D. A drug is a component while a medicine is a commercial product.

4. Which sentence is false?


A. Pharmaceutical care has been one traditional role.
B. Pharmacy is a multidisciplinary field.
C. Pharmacy knowledge is a combination of natural sciences, health sciences & social sciences.
D. Pharmacists cooperate with physicians for better results.

5. Who should patients contact on first point with health inquiries?


A. Medical health workers. B. Physician.
C. Pharmacists D. Health professionals.

6. What do pharmacists do in disease state management?


A. Take medical prescription. B. Monitor drug therapy.
C. Direct responsibility. D. Dispense medication

7. Which practice can’t a general chemist perform?


A. Supply OTC drugs & medications. B. Trained in medicine – related fields.
C. Fulfill prescription. D. Supply health related goods

8. What’s the most crucial responsibility of pharmacists?


A. Researching drugs, medicines & development.
B. Compounding & dispensing medication
C. Improving the outcome for each individual patient.
D. Collaborating with physicians & other health professionals.

9. How useful are medicines?


A. Cure a disease. B. Treat a disease. C. Prevent a disease. D. All of them

10. Which place can’t pharmacists apply their critical source of medical knowledge?
A. Clinics B. Community pharmacies C. Hospitals D. Supermarket
Unit 2
1. Which value of drugs is studied in pharmacology?
A. Anatomical B. Therapeutic C. Chemical D. Physiological

2. What does “therapeutic” mean in relation with chemical effects?


A. Harmful B. Neutral C. Beneficial D. Flexible

3. What are natural origins?


A. Plant B. Animal C. Mineral D. A or B or C

4. What does clinical pharmacology study?


A. Medical effects on nervous system function. B. Medical effects on animals.
C. Medical effects in a big population. D. Medical effects on human beings.

5. What do you know about LADME?


A. Pharmacokinetic properties of a chemical.
B. Chemical effects on the body.
C. The disposition of a pharmaceutical compound within an organism.
D. An acronym from liberation – absorption – distribution – metabolism – excretion.

6. How can drug administration mostly occur?


A. Orally B. Intravenously C. By inhalation D. A or B or C

7. Which factors can reduce the extent to which a drug is absorbed after oral administration?
A. Poor compound solubility
B. Chemical instability in the stomach
C. Inability to fermeat the intestinal wall
D. All of the above

8. What do metabolites or new compounds come from?


A. Parents compounds
B. Initial compounds
C. A & B
D. A or B

9. How many ways can drug excretion phrase be performed?


A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

10. What factors help smoothen absorption?


A. Blood stream
B. High – quality medicines
C. Endocrine system
D. None of the above.
Unit 3

1. What is the main difference between endogenous biochemicals and medicines?


A. when to use them B. their effects
C. the substance D. where they come from

2. Which purpose may recreational drugs be used for?


A. medical B. spiritual C. treating D. All are correct

3. How many categories are medicinal drugs subdivided into?


A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

4. What is needed when buying BTC drugs?


A. a prescription B. a doctor C. a supermarket D. a licensed pharmacist

5. What can recreational drugs cause?


A. addiction B. sleepiness C. potentiation D. antagonism

6. What’s the difference between BTC & POM?


A. They can be bought easily.
B. Pharmacists or physician, either can prescribe
C. Physicians have the complete authority on POM
D. Patients must have a prescription for BTC

7. Why do people use medicinal drugs?


A. to have fun B. to have new experience
C. to treat a disease D. to enhance an already positive experience

8. Which drugs are chemical substances that affect the central nervous system?
A. Recreational B. Recreation C. Recreate D. Recreationally

9. Which of the followings are the recreational drugs?


A. Hallucinogens B. Pain killers
C. Cold remedies D. Depressants

10. Which of the followings is illegal?


A. Cannabis B. Ventolin C. Insulin D. Paracetamol
Unit 4
1. What is the informal name of depressants?
A. Uppers B. Downers C. Depression D. Antipypertensives

2. In which category are alcohol & tobacco listed?


A. Legal drug B. Illegal drug C. Medicinal drug D. None is correct

3. What’s the similarity between legal & illegal drugs?


A. They have the same drug use B. They help treat diseases
C. They may possibly lead to drug misuse D. They are medicinal drugs

4. Which of the followings belongs to depressants?


A. Barbiturates B. Caffeine C. Tobaco D. Ephedrine

5. How does a person’s reaction in a drug tolerance behave?


A. Maintain B. Accelerate C. Decrease D. Balance

6. When do people need stimulants?


A. when they cannot sleep B. when they suffer from fatigue
C. when they are anxious D. when they are worried

7. What is the most commonly used stimulant?


A. Benzodiazepine B. Caffeine C. Barbiturate D. Tranquillizer

8. Which of the followings easily cause addiction?


A. Depressants B. Paracetamol C. Antihistamines D. Insulin

9. Which human system is affected by stimulants?


A. The nervous system B. The blood system C. The endocrine system D. The exocrine system

10. What doesn’t drug tolerance depend on?


A. Genetics B. Prescription C. Drug dose D. Frequency of drug use

11. When do withdrawal symptoms occur?


A. when people suddenly stop using a drug B. When people are hypersensitivitive to a drug
C. When people are tolerant to a drug D. When people abstain from a drug they are dependent on

12. Which symptoms can be cured by depressants?


A. Anxiety B. Insomnia C. A or B D. None

13. When does drug misuse occur?


A. taking drugs too much B. taking drugs as recommended
C. taking drugs at the recommended dose D. taking drugs as prescribed

14. Which of these is NOT mal-treatment?


A. dependence B. abuse C. ill-usage D. ill-treatment
Unit 5

1. What is also called “Potentiation”?


A. Synergistic B. Antagonism C. Opposition D. Additive Effect

2. To whom should barbiturates & tranquilizers be given to prevent withdrawal symptoms?


A. Alcoholics B. Insomnia patients
C. Patients with depression D. Heavy smokers

3. Who easily becomes hypersensitivitive to drugs?


A. A nurse B. A pharmacist C. A vetenarian D. All are correct

4. What happens when 2 drugs are taken together and one of them intensifies the action of the
other?
A.Cross tolerance B. Cross dependence C. Potentiation D. Antagonism

5. What does antagonism indicate?


A. Contrasting effect on the body B. Balancing effect on the body
C. Supporting effect on the body D. Neutral effect on the body

6. When does allergic reaction occur?


A. First time he takes the drug B. First time he has been exposed to the drug
C. He has used the drug for a long time D. He acts as an individual handling drugs
E. All are correct F. None is correct

7. What is aplastic anemia normally associated with?


A. Cold B. Flu C. Tolerance D. aspirin

8. What does Additive Effect mean?


A. The combined effect of two drugs taken together is greater than the sum of individual effects
B. The combined effect of two drugs taken together is smaller than the sum of individual effects
C. The combined effect of two drugs taken together is less than the sum of individual effects
D. The combined effect of two drugs taken together is the same as the sum of individual effects

9. Which factor determines the main & side effects of a drug?


A. Components B. Substances C. Administration purpose D. Individual patient

10. Which is the side effect of antihistmines as sleep aid tablets?


A. Drowsiness B. Sleeplessness C. Nasal passage drying D. Allergies

11. Which may cause stomach bleeding if consuming too much ?


A. Sleeping pill B. Aspirin C. Antihistamines D. Cocaine
Unit 6
1. Which of the following is medication development related to?
A. economy B. policy C. A & B are correct D. Neither A nor B is correct

2. Which function don’t many governments regulate regarding to medication regulation?


A. Manufacturing B. Sale C. Safety regulation D. Administration

3. Which sentence is incorrect?


A. FDA creates guidelines for approval & use of drugs
B. It takes 10 years to obtain FDA approval
C. All drugs must fulfill 2 standards
D. Clinical trials consist of 4 phases for test drugs

4. Which features doesn’t testing done on animals focus on?


A. Effectiveness B. Safety criteria C. Toxicity D. Marketing strategies

5. Where’s the original office of EMEA situated?


A. Rome B. London C. Paris D. Lion

6. Which of the following can the European Commistion base on so that it authorizes the sale of
the company’s product throughout the Union?
A. FDA’s evaluation B. EMEA’s evaluation
C. FDA’s authorisation D. EMEA’s authorisation

7. What service does the EMEA offer customers and pharmacists apart from evaluating new
medicinal products?
A. It stimulates the development of innovative medicines
B. It assists pharmaceutical companies with approval procedures
C. It constantly monitors products once they are on the market
D. All are correct

8. European basic pharmaceutical legislation needs to be adapted to new scientific progress. What
does “adapted” mean?
A. Altered B. Improved C. Changed D. All

9. What advantage does one single marketing authorization through the centralized procedure
bring to patients in EU member states?
A. Lower price B. Latest medicines C. Balanced quality D. Competitive strategies

10. Which of the following is Europe’s basic pharmaceutical legislation suitable for ?
A. the new scientific progress
B. the international competition
C. the prospect of new therapies & the enlargement of the Union
D, all of them
Unit 7
1. How can medicines be prescribed ?
A. by their chemical name B. by their brand name C. A & B D. neither A nor B

2. Which sentence IS NOT correct about medicines?


A. They are safe as long as taken appropriately B. You can buy them anywhere easily
C. Some medicines look the same with different names & uses.
D. They help patients relieve painful symptoms

3. Why will the pharmacists need to know some facts before giving patients the right choice?
A. Because it’s important. B. Because pharmacists are trained to do that
C. Because each patient is unique D. Because it is their duty

4. What are low sugar or salt meals referred to as ?


A. A diet B. Special diets C. Dietary supplement D. Non-prescription medicine

5. What should I do if I forget to take the medicine before meals?


A. You can take medicine anytime before meals
B. You had better take medicines after rather than before meals if you happen to forget.
C. Stomach can digest both medicine or food without decreasing the effects of medicine
D. It’s always better to take medicine with an empty stomach

6. How can we minimize the irritating effects of medicines on stomach?


A. Take medicines before meals B. Take medicines at anytime in a day
C. Take medicines after meals D. Take medicines within 5 to 10 minutes after meals

7. Which of the following should patients use to take medicines with ?


A. wine B. alcohol C. water D. beer

8. Which information is incorrect about the special coating of some tablets or capsules?
A. Protect all medicinal substances
B. Maintain unaffected while traveling through your stomach
C. Does harm to your stomach
D. Some types of coatings can’t be released immediately but throughout the day.

9. How effective of chewing is to tablets or capsules with special coatings?


A. Protect the features of gradual release B. Destroy the features of gradual release
C. Maintain the features of gradual release D. Cover the features of gradual release

10. Which of the following are thought to be killed when antibiotics rapidly help you feel better ?
A. germs B. antibodies C. antitoxines viruses

11. Why must we take regular dose & finish the course for antibiotics?
A.To feel better as soon as possible B. To prevent resistance of germs to the medicine
C. To kill the germs quickly D. To cure the disease
Unit 8
1. What does “using medicines properly” mean ?
A. At the right dose B. The right way C. The right time D. All of them are correct

2. What happens if medicines are not used properly?


A. Patients meet another physician or pharmacists B. Patients buy another alternative
C. Unpleasant side effects from this misuse occur D. Stop using this medicine

3. Which common mistake from patients leads to over dosage?


A. Take less than the prescribed doses B. Double up medicines
C. Use some other people’s medicine D. Mix all kinds of medicines together

4. Which diseases can antibiotics cure completely?


A. Diseases caused by bacteria B. Diseases caused by viruses
C. A or B D. Neither A nor B

5. In which situations can some medicines be harmful?


A. Excessive dose B. Over long time C. Mixture
D. Self – medication E. All of them are corect F .None of them is correct

6. Which of the following isn’t caused by some medicines when cured frequently?
A. Ecstasy B. Tolerance C. Dependence D. Addiction

7. In which situation, must a cough be treated?


A. Daytime cough B. Nighttime cough
C. Occasional cough D. Nighttime cough with sleep disturbance

8. Which sentence is incorrect?


A. Short illnesses need natural courses
B. Uncomplicated colds can be cured on their own
C. We have to spend lots of time on complicated illnesses
D. Most sore throats must be treated in a longer time compared to others.

9. What should you do if you miss a dose?


A. Double the next dose
B. Just resume the usual schedule
C. Wait until the next dose
D. Wait until the next day

10. How should you store your medicine?


A. Throw the package away in order to use the medicine
B. Throw the package away in order to keep the house clean
C. Keep the medicine in the original pakage in order to protect it from light
D. Keep the medicine in the original pakage in order to use it on time
Unit 9

1. Sometimes medicines cause problems when taken together. What is this called?
A. Drug side effect B. Drug tolerance C. Drug interaction D. Drug dependence

2. Which sentence is true about generic medicines?


A. Generic medicines have the same price as that of brand ones.
B. Generic & brand medicines have similar ingredients & amounts
C. Pharmacists will give you the best advice to take
D. Brand medicines are consumed more slowly than generic medicines

3. Why does an open medicine container affect badly to the medicines?


A. Medicines may fall over B. Medicines may be heated
C. Medicines may be expired faster D. Medicines may be moisturized

4. Which of the following may require medical attention?


A. Some of side effects B. All of side effects
C. Some of intended effects D. All of intended effects

5. Which of the following have connection to your medication?


A. Your emotion B. Your dietary habits C. Your lifstyle D. All are correct

6. What kind of reaction can mostly occur when you do too much outdoor activities?
A. Sun effect B. Sun sensitivity C. Sun heat D. Sun blocker

7. What should you do when travelling?


A. Carry your medicine with you B. Put your medicine in your checked luggage
C. Leave your medicine in the bedroom D. Leave your medicine in your living room

8. Why shouldn’t the medicine be kept in damp places?


A. Because heat may cause the medicine to break down
B. Because moisture may cause the medicine to break down
C. Because places may cause the medicine to break down
D. Because the dam may cause the medicine to break down

9. Why should you store the medicine away from direct heat and light?
A. Because heat may cause the medicine to break down
B. Because moisture may cause the medicine to break down
C. Because places may cause the medicine to break down
D. Because the lice may cause the medicine to break down

10. Who can give you more detailed information on the undesired effects?
A. Your doctor B. Your pharmacist C. A & B are correct D. A & B are incorrect

UNIT 10
1. What is OTC ?
A- Short for Over-The-Counter B- Bought with a prescription
C- Found anywhere D- Bought without a prescription

2. “We don’t completely understand the way acetaminophen works”. What does the sentence
mean?
A- we don’t know much B- little do we know about
C- A or B D- Neither A nor B

3. Which of these is not most popular ?


A- Pain relievers B- Preventive drug C- Decongestant D- Cough medicines

4. Which of these has no connection with NSAIDS ?


a/ Anemia b/ kidney c/ Blood pressure d/ Stomach

5. Which pair of words is synonymous ?


a/ Repeat _ Reduce b/ Reply _ Reduce c/ Reply _ Reply d/ Reduce _ Relieve

6. What’s the main side effect of NSAIDS ?


A- Heart disease B- Upset stomach
C- Gastrointestinal bleeding D- Gastrointestinal problems

7. What’s the relationship in meaning between “Advantages & Risks” ?


A- Supporting B- Similarity C- Contradiction D- Identity

8. How many categories are NSAIDS divided into ?


A- 1 B- 2 C- 3 D- 4

9. What are the 2 main subdivisions of pain relievers ?


A- Antihistamines & NSAIDS
B- Antihistamines & Acetaminophen
C- NSAIDS & Acetaminophen
D- NSAIDS & Decongestant

10. Why do prostaglandins cause pain sensation?


A- Because they treat rheumatoid degenerative arthritis.
B- Because they affect negatively on nerve endings
C- Because they are natural chemicals in the body
D- Because they irritate hair endings
UNIT 11

1. Which isn’t a symptom of cold & cough condition?


A- Nasal irritation B- Bleeding C- Sneezing D- Mucous production

2. Which is the safest recommended daily dose for Acetaminophen ?


A- 4g/ per day B- ≤ 4g/ per day C- >4g/ per day D- None

3. Which of these is true for antihistamines?


A- Drivers feel safe to use them B- Be cautious after using them
C- You can’t sleep better after using them D- You feel more alert after using them

4. Which kind of OTC medicines is associated with liver injury ?


A- OTC Antihistamines B- Acetaminophen
C- Aspirin D- Codeine

5. What is the most important side effect of Antihistamines?


A- Sedation B- Drowsiness C- A or B D- None

6. Which of these is in products such as Allermed, Genaphed and Sudafed?


A- diphenhydramine B- pseudoephedrine C- dextromethorphan D- codeine

7. What does “temporary” mean ?


A- Short - term B- Acute C- long - term D- Chronic

8. What happens when combining OTC antihistamines & alcohol ?


A- Sleeplessness B- GI bleeding C- Drowsiness D- Irritability

9. Which medicine is related to “narrowing blood vessels” ?


A- Antihistamines B- Cough medicine C- Decongestants D- Pain relievers

10. When does a patient suffer from greater side effects ?


A- When he prescribes himself
B- When he takes medicines without any advice
C- When he uses many kinds of drug at the same time
D- All are correct

11. How does the body process or metabolize every drug ?


A- Similarly B- Changeably C- Differently D- Identically

12. Which of these may cause feelings of confusion, agitation, nervousness, or irritability?
A- diphenhydramine B- pseudoephedrine C- dextromethorphan D- codeine

13. Which of these may possibly cause higher risk of addiction if used inappropriately ?
A- Guaifenessin B- Codeine C- Dextromethorphan D- Pseudoephedrine
UNIT 12

1. Which of these are considered as special populations?


A- Children B-elderly people C- pregnant or breastfeeding women D- all

2. Which detail shouldn’t be included in children personal medical records ?


A- Medicine name B- Side effects caused
C- Dosage direction D- Length of taking medicine

3. Children especially those younger than 2, must be given more attention. What does it
mean?
A- Children, at any age, should be taken good care.
B- The younger they are, the more we have to care
C- The older they are, the less we care
D- More care must be paid for children under 24 months old.

4. Which of these are kinds of measuring devices ?


A- teaspoons & milliliters B- syringes & cups
C- teaspoons D- B & C are correct

5. Why is Acetaminophen the best treatment ?


A- Appropriate metabolic drug reaction suitable for children.
B- Best for pain relief.
C- Fewer side effects compared to others.
D- All of them

6. What’s the right order of 4 times taking medicines a day ?


A- Breakfast – Supper – Lunch – Bedtime
B- Breakfast – Bedtime – Lunch - Supper
C- Breakfast – Lunch – Supper – Bedtime
D- Breakfast – Lunch – Bedtime – Supper

7. Which of these may cause problems for children allergic to aspirin?


A- ibuprofen B- acetaminophen C- paracetamol D- codeine

8. What is double “dosing” ?


A- Giving to much medicine B- Giving medicine too often
C- A or B D- None

9. Which of the following is not a symptom of Reye’s Syndrome?


A- Spleen injury B- Kidney swelling
C- Vomiting D- Fever

10. When the doctor says “every 8 hours”, what does it mean?
A- 8 times a day B- 4 times a day C- 3 times a day D- 2 times a day
UNIT 13

1. Which sentence is incorrect about Pseudoephedrine ?


A- Its overuse may possibly lead to glaucoma.
B- It can cause blockage in urinary tracts worse.
C- Its combination with beta blockers causes negative effects.
D- Pseudoephedrine can be mixed with some medications treating low blood sugar.

2. Which of these isn’t a side effect of Antihistamines on nursing infants ?


A- Irritability B- Rash C- Sleep disturbances D- Nausea

3. What are the commonly used ingredients of MAOIs?


A- guafenesin and codeine
B- isocarboxazid and diphenhydramine
C- dextromethorphan and isocarboxazid
D- phenezyl sulfate and tranylcypromine sulfate

4. In which trimester of pregnancy, mustn’t women take NSAIDs?


A- 1st B- 2nd C- 3rd D- none is correct

5. Which of these in the least dangerous medicine for pregnant women?


A- Acetaminophen B- NSAIDs C- Aspirin D- MAOIs

6. Who may experience some changes in their milk production if using long-term
antihistamines?
A- Infants B- Women C- Children D- Bachelors

7. Why should breast feeding women pay attention to medicine?


A- Dangerous to women B- Dangerous to infants
C- Dangerous to family D- Dangerous to embryos

8. Which can cause heart abnormalities in the baby during pregnancy?


A- Acetaminophen B- Aspirin C- Tylenol D- paracetamol

9. What may pseudoephedrine negatively interact with in older people?


A- insulin B- beta blockers
C- A and B are correct D- A and B are not correct

10. What can increase blood pressure and the pressure in the eyes in elderly?
A- aspirin B- pseudoephedrine C- ibuprofen D- dextromethorphan
Unit 14
1. Which of the following dugs have label warnings against their use during pregnancy
especially during the last trimester?
A- Acetaminophen and aspirin B- Aspirin and ibuprofen
C- Acetaminophen and ibuprofen D- Acetaminophen, aspirin and ibuprofen

2. Which of the following products contain ketoprofen?


A- Advil B- Aleve C- Orudis KT D- Motrin

3. Which of the following statements is/are true of regular insulin?


A- It is a clear product B- It may be administered either SC or IV
C- It is a short-acting insulin D- All are correct

4. What can the methotrexate therapy be used to treat?


A- diabetes B- diarrhea C- arthropathies D- manic depression

5. How are the sulfonylureas (eg, Diabinere, Glucotrol) believed to exert their hypoglycemic
effect ?
A- by decreasing the desire for sugar consumption
B- by inhibiting the breakdown of endogenous insulin
C- by increasing the peripheral utilization of glucose
D- by stimulating the release of insulin from the pancreas

6. Which one of the following oral hypoglycemic drugs has the longest serum half-life?
A- Acetohexamide (Dymelor) B- Tolbutamide (Orinase)
C- Glyburide (Diabeta, Micronase) D- Chlorpropamide (Diabinese)

7. What do agents useful in the treatment of bronchial asthma usually do?


A- block both alpha- and beta-adrenergic receptors
B- stimulate alpha and/or beta receptors
C- stimulate beta receptors but block alpha receptors
D- stimulate alpha receptors but block beta receptors

8. Which one of the following has methotrexate been shown to manage in the clinical use?
A- venereal warts B- seborrhea C- psoriasis D- acne

9. Which one of the following are large overdoses of acetaminophen likely to cause ?
A- tinnitus B- seizures C- renal tubular necrosis D- hepatic necrosis

10. Which should NOT asthmatic patients with a documented allergy to aspirin receive ?
A- propoxyphene (Darvon) B- acetaminophen (Tylenol)
C- nalbuphine (Nubain) D- ibufrofen (Motrin)

11. What is the therapeutic class of sulfonylurea derivatives?


A- antihypertensive drugs B antidepressant drugs
C- antidiabetic drugs D- antihistamines
UNIT 15

1. What’s the similarity between equivalent brand name & generic medicines ?
A- Same chemical name B- Same therapeutic effect
C- Both A & B D- A or B

2. Which of the following is not required when comparing between brand name product &
generic ones?
A- Quality B- Symbol C- Strength D- Ingredients

3. What’s incorrect about drugs ?


A- Generic or chemical name indicates the chemical substances of that drug
B- A brand name is for business purpose
C- Brand name drugs are less popular than generic ones.
D- Generic & brand names refer to one medicine with same active ingredients.

4. Which factors completely make up the levels of a specific brand name product ownership?
A- Design B- Term C- Name D- All

5. Which factors is the least important to consider in drug administration ?


A- Dosage B- Form C- Route D- Purity

6. Which means “losing validity”?


A- Expect B- Export C- Expire D- Exhale

7. Which terminology describes the same extent in the body when taken or administered ?
A- Bio-balance B- Bio-combination
C- Bio-equivalent D- Bio-generic

8. When can a generic competitor occur ?


A- Never
B- After long enough time
C- After Expired date of any brand name drug
D- A or B or C

9. What’s your opinion about “More expensive equals better quality” ?


A- Necessarily true B- Logical concept
C- Unnecessarily true D- Accepted concept

10. Which of the following is true for Prozac ?


A- It is generic name B- It is a kind of anti - depressant drug
C- It lowers serotonin activity D- It is a popular medicine
UNIT 16

1. How much percentage of prescription is filled in for generic medicines ?


A- 50% B- Less than 50 % C- Over 50% D- None

2. What are patients encouraged to accept or take ?


A- generic medicines over brand name counterparts
B- expensive medicines over brand name counterparts
C- brand name medicines over generic counterparts
D- generic medicines over cheaper counterparts

3. What happens when top selling pharmaceuticals become patent expired ?


A- Increasing the purchase of generic medicines
B- Patients in both community prescription & hospital sectors have more advantages.
C- A or B D- A & B

4. What does “narrow therapeutic index” mean ?


A- The index is narrow B- It’s doesn’t cost much money.
C- Only doctors can prescribe these
D- Great care should be paid when taking these problematic drugs

5. Which phase doesn’t need to be included in generics manufacturing ?


A- Discovery of final product B- Public release
C- Product promotion D- Research & development of innovative medicines

6. Which problems are caused when taking “narrow therapeutic index” drugs ?
A- Too little effectiveness B- Too many side effects C- A or B D- none

7. When do simple bioequivalence studies take place ?


A- In the initial discovery stage B- To replace the clinical tests & clinical trials
C- Before being sold to the market
D- To replace pre-clinical tests & clinical trials for generics manufacturing phase.

8. Which sentence is true about generic pharmaceuticals & their brand name counterpart ?
A- They are completely similar B- They are totally different
C- Some details are different
D- Although they have same active ingredients of their brand name counterparts their
appearances (shape or color) are quite different.

9. Which factor doesn’t cause high cost of brand name counterpart ?


A- Monopolism B- Long – term investment & research
C- Patent protection D- Exclusivity in the market

10. In which medical field are generic medicines mostly encouraged to be taken ?
A- Personal prescription B- Public health care program
C- Insurance plans D- None
UNIT 17

1. The new regulation helps making lower – priced generic medicines more available &
increases the market protection for pharmaceutical companies. When was it adopted?
A- in March 2004 B- in March 2005 C- in March 2006 D- in March 2007

2. Which are most paid attention to when producing a generic medicine following in brand
name counterpart?
A- Quality B- safety C- effectiveness D- All are correct

3. What does “The final outcome has reached a fair compromise among the various interests”
mean ?
A- The regulation is totally fair. B- It’s interesting C- It’s a compromise
D- It can combine all different ideas to come to the final result.

4. Brand name medicines have another competitive name?


A- Biosimilar medicine B- Reference medicine C- A or B D- A & B

5. What’s the short name of “European generic Medicine Association” ?


A- EGMA B- EJMH C- EGA D- EJH

6. What’s another name of biosimilar medicine ?


A- Brand name medicines B- Generic drugs C- A & B D- A or B

7. If generic medicine were taken out of the pharmaceutical market, the EU’s health care
systems would become financially unsustainable.What does the sentence mean?
A- The health care system is unstable now.
B- There is no generic medicines on the market.
C- Generic medicines help stabilize the health care system.
D- Without generic medicines, nothing happens to health care system.

8. Which of the following market do market conditions, pricing structures, dispensing


traditions & requirements decide ?
A- generic B- general C-genetic D- generally

9. What’s the meaning of “ Self - medication area” ?


A- Patients buy OTC medicine
B- Patients take care of health themselves
C- Doctors have no role on their patient’s health
D- Patients themselves pay for their medical costs.

10. Which sentence is incorrect ?


A- Panadol TM or Paracetamol can cure pain relief
B- Claritin TM or Loratadine can tackle hay fever or allergies.
C- All the four above medicines have same disease treatment.
D- Low-priced generic medicines are preferred by personal patients.
UNIT 18
1. In which field was biotechnology primarily used ?
A- Food processing B- Agriculture C- A & B D- Neither A or B

2. Why is transgenic organism modification disapproved ?


A- Unpredictable success opportunity B- Morality standard C- A or B D- A & B

3. Which element is the most crucial & fundamental in biotechnology application ?


A- Molecule B- Organism C- Derivation D- None

4. Which raises more debating issues ?


A- Transgenic organism modification B- Transgenic mammal reaction
C- Transgenic organism structure D- Transgenic mammal structure

5. What’s the important role of biotechnology ?


A- Biological research technique application B- Higher productivity
C- Human & animal health improvement D- All

6. What does GMO stand for?


A- Genetically modified organs B- Genetically modified organism
C- Generally modified organs D- Generally modified organism

7. Which isn’t practical discipline in biotechnology ?


A- Generics B- Robotics C- Chemical engineering D- Information technology

8. Why was the medical discovery in 1978 so advancing & outstanding ?


A- Synthetic humanized insulin B- Vast quantities
C- Low cost D- All

9. Which information is correct about Biopharmaceuticals ?


A- It has been developed for a long time
B- It refers to simple biological medical products
C- It focuses on biotechnology – engineering technology
D- It focuses on biotechnology processes – generic engineering technology of 21st century.

10. In which field was the first genetically engineered product design ?
A- Food science B- Human disease treatment
C- Human organ transplantation D- New medical therapies

11. Which of the following considered as Biopharmaceuticals ?


A- Enzymes B- Antibodies C- Vaccines
D- Blood product E- A or B F- C or D

12. Which factors decide a biopharmaceuticals ?


A- Recombinant proteins B- Monoclonal antibody – based
C- Engineered tissue implants D- Complex biological medical products
UNIT 19
1. Which of the following is true for Gaucher’s disease ?
A- It is a hereditary disease
B- It reflects HGH deficiency
C- It is characterized by chemical substance accumulation
D- It is more dangerous when salt is accumulated

2. Which system controls the consistency & required quality of medicine ?


A- GDP B- GMP C- EGA D- EMEA

3. Which pair of words have similar meanings ?


A- Leukocytes – Erythrocytes B- Leukocytes – Red Blood Cells
C- Red Blood Cells - Erythrocytes D- Red Blood cells – White Blood Cells

4. Which character best describes the principle test between brand reference medicines & bio-
similar ones ?
A- Similarity B- Comparability C- Identicalness D- All

5. Which information isn’t correct about fibroblast ?


A- Fibroblast is a kind of connective cell
B- Fibroblast secretes protein, fiber & molecular collagen
C- Interferon beta made from fibroblasts is used to treat multiple sclerosis
D- Fibroblast is the biological active substance

6. Which can be obtained from human pituitary gland?


A- Erythropoietin B- Human insulin C-Somatropin D- Imiglucerase

7. Which of the following can prevent cancers?


A- Interferon Beta from fibroblasts B- Interferon Alpha from peripheral leukocytes
C- Somatropin from pituitary gland D- Erythropoietin from specialised cells in the kidneys

8. What will happen when medicines’ 20 - year - patent expires ?


A- A competition on the market among different pharmaceutical companies.
B- All patients access to safe, effective & more affordable medicines.
C- People spend more on pharmaceuticals.
D- More patients to cost effective biopharmaceuticals & biosimilar medicines

9. Why is 25 % of total population concerning to the number of elderly people over 60 years
old a big serious issue to many governments ?
A- These aging persons rely more on governments
B- Costs of accessing to medicines are accelerating.
C- Elderly persons spend 3 to 4 times more on medicines
D- Elderly persons have long – term diseases/ conditions.

10. What’s the full name of GDP ?


A- General Development Production B- General Development Product
C- Gross Domestic Product D- Gross Domestic Production
Unit 20

1. Which of the following is any sensation in bodily function experienced by a patient and
associated with a disease?
A- Allergy B- Symptom C- Syndrome D- Reaction

2. Which of these is not maltreatment?


A- Abuse B- Ill-treatment C- Dependence D- Ill-usage

3. Which of these may cause adverse reactions?


A- Medication errors B- Drug absorption
C- Side effects D- Patient awareness

4. Which of the followings is a printout that contains specific information on a particular drug?
A- A prescription insert B- A patient package insert
C- A particular presentation D- A & B are correct

5. Which of these go with “withdrawal”?


A- syndromes B- symptoms C- diagnosis D- over dosage

6. Which of the followings is a medication which dilates a spasmodic bronchial tube?


A- bronchodilator B- bronchospasm C- Bronchodilation D- bronchoscopy

7. Studying the information in the inserts will help avoid errors and increase patient awareness
of potential problems. What does the sentence mean?
A- They help the patient get rid of diseases
B- When people understand this, they’ll know what to shy away from and enhance their
recognition
C- It’s the problem they need to solve
D- Patient awareness is necessary

8. Which of the followings is the hypersensitivity reaction to a particular drug or substance?


A- reaction B- elimination C- allergy D- analgesic

9. The product inserts for many drug products contain cautionary statements. Which one of the
following sequences lists the three types of cautions in the order of least serious to most
serious?
A- contraindication, precaution, warning
B- precaution, warning, contraindication
C- warning, contraindication, precaution
D- warning, precaution, contraindication

10. Where in a refrigerator we can store pharmaceuticals according to USP standards?


A- a freezer only B- a cold place only
C- a freezer place and a cool place only D- a cool place and cold place only

11. If a bottle of tablets has an expriration date of “Dec 2013”, how long may the pharmacist
continue to dispense the product?
A- up to 1 year after the expiration date B- only through January 31st, 2014
st
C- only through December 31 , 2013 D- only through December 15th, 2013
Unit 21

1. Children from 6 years to under 12 years can take not more than 6 tablets per day
A- The medicine is taken orally
B- Six tablets a day is not enough for them
C- Children from 6 to 12 years take 1 tablet every 4 to 6 hours
D- Children from 6 to 12 years can take more than six tablets a day

2. It’s recommended to ask your doctor before using antihistamines


A- You are free to use
B- You don’t need your doctor’s advice
C- The doctor will give the patient advice
D- You should ask the doctor before taking it

3. Broadly speaking, OTC anti-histamines work as well as prescription medicines


A- OTC antihistamines work more effectively.
B- Prescription medicines always work well.
C- Both work equally well
D- The medicine is broadly mentioned fighting against histamines

4. Moisture might damage the substance


A- The substance should be put under the sunlight
B- If it’s wet, it’ll spoil the substance
C- It should be stored at 00 C
D- The substance is cleaner if it is stored in a wet place

5. Which of these goes together with “drowsy”?


A- have B- suffer C- catch D- feel

6. Which of these is an inactive ingredient?


A- Doxylamine B- Brompheniramine
C- Magnesium stearate D- Chlorpheniramine

7. Which of the following may increase drowsiness when using with antihistamines?
A- Alcohol, anagesics and antipyretics B- Sedatives, analgesics and antipyretics
C- Tranquillizers analgesics and antipyretics D- Alcohol, sedatives and tranquillizers

8. Which of the following is sometimes also referred to as indications?


A- Directions B- Warning C- Uses D- Administration

9. Which of the following will tell you what other medications, foods or situations to avoid
when taking this medicine?
A- Directions B- Warning C- Uses D- Administration

10. Which can always be found at the first item on the label?
A- Active ingredients B- Inactive ingredients
C- Excipients D- B & C are correct
Unit 22

1. Which is the term for a hollow gelatin container that holds a powdered medication?
A- tablet B- capsule C- syrup D- paste

2. What’s the way the powders are usually administered?


A- topical administration B- enteral route C- parenteral route D- intramuscular injection

3. Which of the followings are designed to melt at body temperature?


A- Tablets B- Pills C- Capsules D- Suppositories

4. Which of the followings are medications mixed with sugar and water?
A- Syrups B- Elixirs C- Suspensions D- Solutions

5. Which of the followings are medcations dissolved in alcohol and water?


A- Syrups B- Elixirs C- Suspensions D- Solutions

6. Which of the followings are stiffer preparations which contain more powdered solids?
A- Creams B- Ointments C- Pastes D- Lotions

7. Which of the followings are spreadable, greasy preparations used for local application?
A- Creams B- Ointments C- Pastes D- Lotions

8. Which of the followings are solutions or suspensions used in areas such as the scalp as they
would not adhere to the hair?
A- Creams B- Ointments C- Pastes D- Lotions

9. Which of the followings come in forms of rectal, vaginal or urethral applications?


A- Tablets B- Pills C- Capsules D- Suppositories

10. Which is the sterile solution or suspention administered by a dropper directly into the eye?
A- Eye drops B- Eye ointment C- Ophthalmic solution D- A&C are correct

11. Which of the followings are greasier and thicker than creams?
A- Creams B- Ointments C- Pastes D- Lotions

12. Why may the rectal route of administration be preferred over the oral route for some
systemic-acting drugs ?
A- the drug does not have to be absorbed B- absorption is predictable and complete
C- a portion of the absorbed drug does not pass through the liver before entering the
systemic circulation
D- inert binders, diluents, and excipients cannot interfere with absorption

13. Which of the followings injection is NOT suspension a suitable dosage form for?
A- intra-articular B- intradermal C- intramuscular D- intraveneous

14. Which one of the following routes of administration is NOT considered suitable for Heparin
Sodium Injection USP?
A- Continuous IV infusion B- Intermittent IV infusion
C- Intramuscular D- Subcutaneous
Unit 23
1. How are drugs absorbed from the GI tract ?
A- They are generally absorbed into the portal circulation and pass through the liver before
entering the general circulation.
B- They are generally filered from the blood by the kidney.
C- They are generally absorbed into the portal circulation and are distributed by an
enterohepatic cycle
D- They are generally not affected by liver enzymes

2. What does it indicate if a drug appears in the feces after oral administration?
A- the drug cannot have been completely absorbed from the GI tract
B- the drug must not have completely dissolved in the GI fluids
C- the drug must have complexed with materials in the GI tract
D- parenteral administration of the drug may determine the contribution of the biliary system
to the amount of drug in the feces

3. Which one of the followings may be considered as a viral disease?


A- Pertussis B- Tuberculosis C- Hepatitis D- Cholera E- Typhoid fever

4. Which one of the followings is also called cholecyst?


A- Gall bladder B- Pancreas C- Urinary bladder D- Liver

5. Which one of the followings is used to treat flare-ups of atopic eczema?


A- Aminoglycosides B- Phenylephrine C- Benzodiazepines D- Corticosteroids

6. Which ones of the followings are a group of antibiotics?


A- Aminoglycosides B- Phenylephrine C- Benzodiazepines D- Corticosteroids

7. Which ones of the followings are the most commonly used anxiolytics and hypnotics?
A- Aminoglycosides B- Phenylephrine C- Benzodiazepines D- Corticosteroids

8. Which one of the following secretes both glucagon and insulin?


A- Liver B- Pancreas C- Urinary bladder D- Gall bladder

9. Cocaine was one of the first effective local anesthetics in ophthalmic surgery in 1884 at the
suggestion of Sigmund Freud.
A- Sigmund Freud was the first to suggest Cocaine as local anesthetics in eye surgery in 1884
B- Cocaine was used in a surgery by Sigmund Freud
C- Cocaine was very effective as local anesthetics
D- Sigmund Freud started his job as a surgeon in 1844

10. Which ones of the followings may be prescribed when a normal immune response is
undesirable, such as in autoimmune diseases?
A- Immunostimulators B- Immunosuppressants C- A or B D- Neither A nor B

11. Why may elixirs be preferred over syrups when preparing a liquid oral dosage form?
A- Because elixirs have better solvent properties for weak organic acids
B- Because elixirs have better solvent properties for weak organic bases
C- Because elixirs have better solvent properties for flavoring oils
D- All are correct
Unit 24
1. People don’t die of serious infections thanks to the discovery of penicillin
A- People would die if penicillin had not been discovered
B- Penicillin has just been discovered so not many people die
C- If penicillin shall be discovered, they won’t die
D- Penicillin can prevent serious infections

2. Initially insulin was of animal derivation


A- Insulin was derivated from animal for the first time
B- Insulin was discovered from animal
C- Originally animals were the first to support insulin
D- Animals could hardly support insulin

3. After the discovery of Ether, many other effective anesthetics were developed.
A- Ether was discovered after many other effective anesthetics
B- Many other effective anesthetics were discovered after Ether
C- Many other effective anesthetics were derivatives of Ether
D- Many other effective anesthetics were developed after the discovery of Ether

4. In spite of the risk of drug addiction, morphine has alleviated a lot of suffering to people
with serious pains
A- Morphine has lessened the pain although it can cause drug addiction
B- Morphine has increased the serious pain
C- People suffering from severe pain can take morphine
D- Despite the fact that morphine has a risky effect, people take it to relax

5. In contrast to aspirins, morphine is used to treat serious pains


A- Unlike morphine, aspirins are used to treat minor pains
B- Aspirins as well as morphine are used to reduce pains
C- Morphine is more effective than aspirins
D- Aspirins are different from morphine

6. Before the 1950s people suffering from psychoses were cured in asylums
A- They were put in jail B- They were sent to mental hospitals
C- They were trained in hospitals D- They worked in asylums

7. By which of the following mechanisms are penicillins believed to exert their antibacterial
effect?
A- Detergent effect on the bacterial cell membrane B- Inhibition of protein synthesis
C- Inhibition of bacterial cell wall synthesis D- Destruction of the bacterial cell nucleus

8. Which of the followings can morphine be expected to produce ?


A- constriction of the pupil B- respiratory depression C- constipation D- All

9. How are insulin preparations usually administered ?


A- intradermally B- subcutaneously C- intravenously D- intramuscularly

10. Which of the following agents is NOT likely to reduce blood sugar in a patient with type II
diabetes mellitus?
A- Tolazamide B- Metformin C- Glucagon D- A & B are correct
Unit 25
1. Patient should take antibiotics only when necessary in order to limit resistance to bacteria
A- Don’t abuse antibiotics, this makes the patient irritable
B- You should take antibiotics when needed because the bacteria can become resistant to the
drug
C- Patients are advised to take this medicine
D- To fight against this bacterium, the patients have to take antibiotics

2. Which of these is not side effect of antibiotics?


A- stomach upset B- diarrhea C- allergic reaction D- high blood pressure

3. They can identify the infecting bacterium by analyzing samples of blood taken from the patient
A- Blood test is needed to identify the infecting bacterium
B- The infected patient must be observed
C- They analyzed blood samples to diagnose the disease
D- The patient whose blood was taken has been treated

4. Patients with the same infections may give different responses to specific antibiotics.
A- Patients who have the same infections will give the same responses to the medicine
B- Patients who have different infections will give different responses to the medicine
C- Responses to the drug may not be the same in patients with the same infections
D- Drug absorption depends on the patient’s health condition

5. Over time, strains of Staphylococcus aureus developed an enzyme able to break down penicillin
A- The bacterium became ineffective
B- The bacterium adapted and made the drug ineffective
C- Penicillin breaks down Staphylococcus
D- Staphylococcus whose susceptibility to penicillin is unpredictable developed an enzyme

6. Bacteria can be killed more easily than viruses.


A- It’s easier to kill bacteria than viruses B- You can kill bacteria or viruses easily
C- Viruses are not as hard as bacteria D- Bacteria are not as hard as viruses

7. Which of the followings do aminoglycosides include?


A- amikacin, gentamicin, neomycin B- amikacin, gentamicin, tetracycline
C- amikacin, gentamicin, doxycycline D- amikacin, gentamicin, lymecycline

8/ Which of the followings can antibiotics fight ?


A- infections caused by colds B- infections caused by most coughs
C- infections caused by flus D- infections caused by sore throats caused by strep

9/ Which of the following functions may some antibiotics disrupt?


A- functions of kidneys B- functions of liver C- functions of bone marrow D- All are correct

10. Which one of the following antimicrobial agents would be MOST useful in the treatment of
an infection caused by beta-lactamase- producing staphylococci?
A- Amoxicillin B- Cephapirin C- Cephalexin D- Dicloxacillin

11. Which one of the following tetracyclines has the longest duration of action?
A- Doxycycline B- Tetracycline C- Demeclocycline D- Minocycline
Unit 26

1. Which of these is a non-selective beta blocker used in the treatment of hypertension?


A- Coversyl B- Vastarel C- propranolol (INN) D- amlodipin

2. Which of these is not a symptom of heart failure?


A- breathlessness B- edema of the legs
C- inadequate pumping action D- rash

3. Which of the followings does high blood pressure also affect?


A- the kidneys B- the eyes C- A & B D- neither A nor B

4. Which of the followings are medications that expand or widen blood vessels, reducing blood
pressure against the walls of the vessels?
A- Diuretics B- Beta blockers C- ACE inhibitors D- Vasodilators

5. Which of the followings are medications that cause an increase in the flow of urine?
A- Diuretics B- Beta blockers C- ACE inhibitors D- Vasodilators

6. Which of the followings are medications that block the production of angiotensin II, which
results in lowering the resistance of the blood vessel ot the flow of blood from the heart?
A- Diuretics B- Beta blockers C- ACE inhibitors D- Vasodilators

7. Of which do the thiazide diuretics decrease the excretion?


A- uric acid B- urea C- sodium D- bicarbonate

8. Which of the followings can moexipril HCl be best classified as?


A- angiostensin-converting enzyme inhibitor
B- potassium-sparing diuretic
C- beta-adrenergic blocing agent
D- alpha-adrenergic blocing agent

9. Which of the followings are the group of drugs that block the activity of a beta-receptor to
decrease the heart rate and force of contractions and lower high blood pressure?
A- Diuretics B- Beta blockers C- ACE inhibitors D- Vasodilators

10. Which of the followings may be used for the management of hypertension in pregnancy?
A- Methyldopa B- Metaraminol C- Noradrenaline D- Thiazides
Unit 27

1. What is the active ingredient in Amias tablets?


A- candesartan cilexetil B- hydroxypropyl cellulose
C- lactose monohydrate D- magnesium stearate

2. How many strengths are available for Amias tablets?


A- 3 B- 5 C- 6 D- 7

3. What does the hormone angiotensin II cause?


A- It causes the blood vessels to relax B- It causes the blood vessels to expand
C- It causes the blood vessels to tighten D- It causes the blood vessels to widen

4. Who should not take Amias tablets?


A- Athletes B- Veterinary surgeons C- Veterans D- Pregnant women

5. Which of the following diseases can Amias tablets treat?


A- hypotension B- hypertension C- heart failure D- B & C are correct

6. When will you know you have high blood pressure?


A- When you have had your blood pressure measured
B- When you lie flat
C- When you see your doctor or pharmacist
D- When you talk to your doctor or pharmacist

7. What may you be encouraged to do if you suffer from heart failure?


A- You may be encouraged to take more strenuous exercise
B- You may be encouraged to take more mild exercise
C- You may be encouraged to take a bit more strenuous exercise
D- You may be encouraged to take more moderate exercise

8. Which group does Amias belong to?


A- ACE inhibitors B- Beta blockers
C- Calcium channel blockers D- Angiotensin II receptor antagonists

9/ Which of the following sentences is NOT true?


A- Hypertension is a chronic disease
B- Hypertension means the blood pressure is abnormally high
C- Hypertension can be controlled by medicines
D- Hypertension is unlikely to damage your heart and blood vessels

10. What complications may derive when high blood pressure is not treated?
A- hepatitis B- Blindness C- fever D- depression
Unit 28

1. Which of the followings is a drug that makes a person or an animal unable to feel anything,
especially pain, either in the whole body or in a part of the body?
A- An anesthetic B- An analgesic C- A pain killer D- An antipyretic

2. Which of the followings is an orange substance produced in the liver?


A- Bile B- A bile pigment C- bilirubin D- B & C are correct

3. Which of the followings is a condition where there is ineffective pumping of the heart
leading to an accumulation of fluid in the lungs?
A- heartache B- heart attack C- heart failure D- heart break

4. Which is abnormally low pressure of the blood also called low blood pressure?
A- hypertension B- hypotension C- hyperglycaemia D- hypoglycaemia

5. Which is abnormally frequent intestinal evacuations with more or less fluid stools?
A- diarrhea B- constipation C- Vomiting D- nausea

6. Which is the forcible voluntary or involuntary emptying of the stomach contents through the
oral cavity?
A- diarrhea B- constipation C- Vomiting D- nausea

7. Which is a medical condition in which the skin and the white parts of the eyes become
yellow?
A- Bile B- A bile pigment C- Bilirubin D- Jaundice

8. Which of the following are involved in the immune system for fighting infection?
A- White blood cells B- Red blood cells Erythrocytes D- Hematocytes

9. When should you take Amias tablets?


A- At any time you like
B- At the same time each day
C- When you are tired
D- When you have had your blood pressure measured

10. What may Amias tablets combined with anesthetics cause?


A- a rise in blood pressure B- an increase in blood sugar leves
C- a drop in blood pressure D- a drop in blood sugar level
Unit 29

1. It’s a sensation of unsteadiness or inability to maintain normal balance in a standing or


seated position
A- sleeplessness B- insomnia C- dizziness D- drowsiness

2. How are tricyclic antidepressants believed to exert their antidepressant action?


A- by increasing the effect of neurotransmitters on postsynaptic receptor sites
B- by blocking alpha-adrenergic receptors
C- by increasing the metabolic breakdown of biogenic amines
D- by blocking beta-adrenergic receptors

3. Which of the followings has the tricyclic antidepressant imipramine (Tofranil) been
approved to treat?
A- manic-depressive illness B- hypertension
C- enuresis D- supraventricular tachycardias

4. Who should NOT also use tricyclic antidepressants ?


A- Patients taking phenytoin (Dilantin) B- Patients taking methyldopa (Aldomet)
C- Patients taking guanethidine (Ismelin) D- Patients taking furosemide (Lasix)

5. Which of the following are MAOIs?


A- Pargyline (Eutonyl) and Cyclobenzaprine (Flexeril)
B- Tranylcypromine (Parnate) and Cyclobenzaprine (Flexeril)
C- Pargyline (Eutonyl) and Tranylcypromine (Parnate)
D- Pargyline (Eutonyl), Tranylcypromine (Parnate) and Cyclobenzaprine (Flexeril)

6. How does haloperidol (Haldol) differ from chlorpromazine (Thorazine) ?


A- Haloperidol is not an antipsychotic agent
B- Haloperidol does not produce extrapyramidal effects
C- Haloperidol is not a phenothiazine
D- Haloperidol does not cause sedation

7. Which is prolonged and usually abnormal inability to obtain adequate sleep?


A- sleepiness B- insomnia C- dizziness D- drowsiness

8. Which is a very sleepy state?


A- sleeplessness B- insomnia C- dizziness D- drowsiness

9. Which is the place at which a nervous impulse pass from one neuron to another?
A- synapse B- neuron C- nerve cell D- nerve tissue

10. Which is used or tending to relieve or prevent psychic depression?


A- antidepressant B- anticonvulsion C- antibiotic D- antitoxin
Unit 30

1. Which of these does not belong to mind-body medicine?


A- Meditation B- Taichi C- Music therapy D- Massage therapy

2. Which of the followings is a system of medicine which uses various remedies derived from
plants & plant extracts?
A- phytotherapy B- homoeopathy C- naturopathy D- osteopathy

3. Which of the followings is any form of a family of practices in which practitioners train their
minds or self-induce a mode of consciousness to realize some benefit?
A- Meditation B- Taichi C- Music therapy D- Massage therapy

4. Which of the followings is a system of health care which fosters a cooperative relationship
among all those involved, leading towards optimal attainment of the physical, mental
emotional, social and spiritual aspects of health?
A- folk medicine B- holistic medicine C- homeopathic medicine D- faith healing

5. Which of the followings is based on the theory that certain energy fields surround and penetrate
the body?
A- folk medicine B- holistic medicine C- energy medicine D- faith healing

6. Which of these is stressed on the third syllable?


A- allopathy B- anesthetics C- hypnosis D- acupuncture

7. Which is a food or food product that reportedly provides health and medical benefits, including
the prevention and treatment of disease?
A- Allopathy B- Chiropratic C- Naturopathy D- Nutraceutical

8. Which of the following practices would NOT be classified as “alternative medicine” in the
United States?
A- Allopathy B- Chiropratic C- Naturopathy D- Nutraceutical

9. Which of the followings is an alternative medical pratice that stresses the use of extremely
small doses of drugs?
A- folk medicine B- holistic medicine C- homeopathic medicine D- faith healing

10. Which is an allied health profession and one of the expressive therapies, consisting of an
interpersonal process in which a trained music therapist uses music and all of its facets-
physical, emotional, mental, social, aesthetic, and spiritual-to help clients to improve or
maintain their health?
A- Meditation B- Taichi C- Music therapy D- Massage therapy

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