Fundamentals Of Criminal Investigation Reviewer

1
1. America's most famous private investigator and founder of
Criminal Investigation.
A. Alec Nayhem
B. Allan Pinkerton
C. Thomas Byrnes
D. None of these

2. The first woman detective in the history of criminal investigation.

A. Kathleen Jacob
B. Candy Miles
C. Kate Wayne
D. Pines Hamilton

3. He was known to be the creator of the "bow street runners", a

group of police officers attached to the Bow Street Court, and not
in uniform, performing criminal investigative functions.
A. Henry Fielding
B. John Fielding
C. John Howard
D. Robert Peel

4. The founder and chief organizer of the London Metropolitan Police,

the Scotland Yard, which became famous police organization
in the world.
A. Henry Fielding
B. John Fielding
C. John Howard
D. Robert Peel

5. As a rule, do not touch, alter or remove anything at the crime

scene until the evidence has been processed through notes,
sketches and photographs, with proper measurements.This refers to
A. the golden rule in investigation
B. the number one SOP in investigation
C. the act of note taking
D. the act of crime scene preservation

6. An Englishman who published a handbook for Examining Magistrates

in Munich, Germany and advocated the use of scientific methods
in criminal investigation process.
A. Hans Gross
B. Thomas Byrnes
 C. Alphonse Bertillon
D. Francis Galton

7. The SC ruled the illegally obtained evidence is inadmissible in

state criminal prosecutions in the famous case of
A. Miranda vs Arizona
B. Otit vs Jeff
C. Mapp vs Ohio
D. Milkey vs Wett

8. The continues accountability of persons handling evidences, and

having responsibility of taking care and preserving the evidences
from the time it was found until brought to court for presentation
is called
A. Chain of events
B. Key events
C. Chain of custody of evidence
D. Chain of command

9. In England, he was a buckle maker then a brothel operator; a

master criminal who became London's most effective criminal
investigator. He was the most famous Thief-Catcher in 1720s.
A. Alexander Macanochie
B. Jonathan Wild
C. Billy Cook
D. John Howard

10. What is the Latin term for criminal intent?

A. Mens Rea
B. Magna Culpa
C. Inflagrante Delicto
D. Mala Vise

Answers:Fundamentals of Criminal Investigation

1. B
2. C
3. A
4. D
5. A
6. A
7. C
8. C
9. B
10.A
Fire Technology and Investigation
Fire - exothermic reaction involving the oxidation of some substance (fuel) resulting in the release of energy in t
form of light and heat.

Fire Quadrangle

1. Fuel
2. Oxygen
3. Heat
4. Ignition energy

Triangles of Fire

1. Fuel
2. Oxygen
3. Heat

- removal of any of these results in the suppression of the

fire.

Some major products of combustion

1. water
2. carbon dioxide
3. carbon monoxide
4. oxides of sulfur

Definition of terms

1. Vapor Density - the density of the vapor relative to the density of air and is calculated by dividing the
molecular weight of the gas by that of air.
2. Flash point - the lowest temperature at which
liquid fuel produces a flammable vapor.

3. Fire point/flame point - the lowest temperature at which

liquid fuel produces a flammable vapor in sufficient quantity
such that if a source of ignition is introduced, the vapor
will ignite and is usually a few degrees above the flash point
4. Ignition/auto-ignition temperature - the temperature at
 which a fuel will ignite on its own with out any additional
source ignition.
5. Thermal inertia - the ease at which a material can be ignited.
6. Heat release rate - is a measure of the amount of energy a
specific type of fuel can contribute to the heat flux in a fire.
7. Heat transfer - the mechanism in which fire can spread from
its origin to other sources of fuel.

Methods of heat transfer

1. Conductive/conduction heat transfer - heat is transferred by direct contact and the rate of transfer is
dependent on factors such as the thermal conductivity of the material and the temperature difference
between the cooler and warmer areas.
2. Convective/convection heat transfer - transfer of heat through physical movement of materials and occu
only in liquids and gases. Hot gases rise and spread heat to nearby ceilings and walls.
3. Radiative/radiation heat transfer - heat is transferred if the form of electromagnetic energy directly fro
one object to another. ex. infrared radiation from the sun.

8. Combustion - or burning - is the sequence of

exothermic chemical reaction between fuel and an oxidant
accompanied by the production of heat and conversion of
chemical species.The result of the heat can result in the
form of either glowing or flame.

 Glowing combustion - occurs when solid fuels are not capable of producing sufficient quantities of gas
during pyrolysis to sustain a flame. If access to the oxidant (air) is limited, glowing combustion may resu
 Flaming combustion -commonly recognized type of fire and occurs with gaseous fuel sources only. The
color of the flame can give some indication of the composition of the fuel.
 Spontaneous combustion - the ignition of organic matter with out apparent cause, typically through heat
generated internally by rapid oxidation.A process whereby a material self heats.
 Explosive combustion - can occur when vapors, dust of gases, premixed with appropriate amount of air a
ignited.

Definition of Terms:

Arson - intentional or malicious destruction of property by fire.

Fire analysis - the process of determining the origin, cause and responsibility as well as the failure analysis of fi
or explosion.

Fire cause - the circumstances or agencies that bring a fuel and an ignition source together with proper air or
oxygen.
Fire spread - the movement of fire from one place to another.

Flash fire - a fire that spreads with extreme rapidity such as the one that races over dust, over the surface of
flammable liquids or through gases.

Fuel load - the total quantity of combustible contents of the building, spaces or fire area, including interior finish
and trim expressed in heat units or the equivalent weight in wood.

Point of origin - the exact physical location where a heat source and fuel comes in contact with each other and a
fire begins.

Rekindle - a return to flaming combustion after incomplete extinguishment of a fire reigning at some time after
being put out.

Spalling - chipping or pitting of concrete or masonry surfaces.

Definition of terms - (RA no.9514)

Abatement - any act that would remove or neutralize fire hazard.

Administrator - any person who acts as agent of the owner and manages the use of a building for him.

Blasting Agent - any material or mixture consisting of a fuel and oxidizer used to set off explosives.

Cellulose nitrate or Nitro cellulose - a highly combustible and explosive compound produced by the reaction of
nitric acid with a cellulose material.

Cellulose nitrate plastic (Pyroxylin) - any plastic substance,materials or compound having cellulose nitrate as
base.

Combustible/Flammable or Inflammable - Descriptive of materials that are easily set on fire.

Combustible fiber - any readily ignitable and free burning fiber such as cotton,oakum,rags,waste cloth,waste
paper,kapok,hay,straw,Spanish moss,excelsior,and other similar materials commonly used in commerce.

Combustible liquid - any liquid having a flash point at or above 37.8 degrees Celsius or 100 degrees Fahrenheit

Corrosive liquid - any liquid which causes fire when in contact with organic matter or with certain chemicals.

Curtain board - a vertical panel of non-combustible or fire resistive materials attached to and extending below t
bottom chord of the roof trusses, to divide the underside of the roof into separate compartments so that heat and
smoke will be directed upwards to a roof vent.

Cryogenic - descriptive of any material which by its nature or as a result of its reaction with other elements
produces a rapid drop in temperature of the immediate surroundings.
Damper - a normally open device installed inside an air ductsystem which automatically closes to restrict the
passage of smoke or fire.

Distillation - the process of first raising the temperature to separate the more volatile from the less volatile parts
and then cooling and condensing the resulting vapor so as to produce as nearly purified substance.

Duct system - a continuous passageway for the transmission of air.

Dust - a finely powdered substance which when mixed with air in the proper proportion and ignited will cause an
explosion.

Electrical arc - an extremely hot luminous bridge formed by passage of an electric current across a space betwee
two conductors or terminals due to the incandescence of the conducting vapor.

Ember - a hot piece or lump that remains after a material has partially burned and is still oxidizing without the
manifestation of flames.

Finishes - materials used as final coating of a surface for ornamental or protective purposes.

Fire - the active principle of burning characterized by the heat and light of combustion.

Fire Trap - a building unsafe in case of fire because it will burn easily or because it lacks adequate exits or fire
escapes.

Fire Alarm - any visual or audible signal produced by a device or system to warn the occupants of the building o
the fighting element of the presence or danger of fire to enable them to undertake immediate action to save life an
property and to suppress the fire.

Fire door - a fire restrictive door prescribed for openings in fire separation walls or partitions.

Fire Hazard - any condition or act which increases or may cause an increase in the probability of the occurrence
of fire or which may obstruct,delay,hinder or interfere with firefighting operations and the safeguarding of life an
property.

Fire Lane - the portion of a roadway or public way that should be kept opened and unobstructed at all times for t
expedient operations of firefighting units.

Fire Protective and Fire Safety Device - any device intended for the protection of buildings or persons to includ
but not limited to built in protection system such as sprinklers and other automatic extinguishing system,detector
for heat,smoke and combustion products and other warning system components,personal protective equipment
such as fire blankets,helmets,fire suits,globes and other garments that may be put on or worn by persons to protec
themselves during fire.

Fire Safety Constructions - refers to design and installations of walls,barriers,doors,windows,vents,means of

egress etc. integral to and incorporated into a building or structure in order to minimize danger to life,from
smoke,fire,fumes or panic before the building is evacuated.
Flash Point - the minimum temperature at which any material gives off vapor in sufficient concentration to form
an ignitable mixture with air.

Forcing - a process where a piece of metal is heated prior to changing its shape or dimensions.

Fulminate - a kind of stable explosive compound which explodes by percussion.

Hazardous operation/process - any act of manufacturing, fabrication, conversion etc., or produces materials
which are likely to cause fires or explosions.

Horizontal exit - passage way from one building to another or through or around a wall in approximately the sam
floor level.

Hose Box - a box or cabinet where fire hoses, valves and other equipment are stored and arranged for firefighting

Hose Reel - a cylindrical device turning on an axis around which a fire hose is connected.\.

Hypergolic fuel - a rocket or liquid propellant which consist of combinations of fuels and oxidizers which ignite
simultaneously on contact with each other.

Industrial Baking and Drying - the industrial process of subjecting materials to heat for the purpose of removin
solvents or moisture from the same and,or to fuse certain chemical salts to form a uniform glazing the surface of
materials being treated.

Jumper - a piece of metal or an electrical conductor used to bypass a safety device in an electrical system.

Occupancy - the purpose for which a building or portion thereof is used or intended to be used.

Occupant - any person actually occupying and using a building or portions thereof by virtue of a lease contract
with the owner or administrator or by permission or sufferance of the latter.

Organic Peroxide - a strong oxidizing organic compound which release oxygen readily. It causes fire
when in contact with combustible materials especially under conditions of high temperature.

Overloading - the use of one or more electrical appliances or devices which draw or consume electrical current
beyond the designed capacity of the existing electrical system.

Owner - the person who holds the legal right of possession or title to a building or real property.

Oxidizing Material - a material that readily yields oxygen in quantities sufficient to stimulate or support
combustion.

Pressurized or Forced Draft Burning Equipment - type or burner where the fuel is subjected to pressure prior
discharge into the combustion chamber and /or which includes fans or other provisions for the introduction of air
above normal atmosphere pressure into the same combustion chamber.
Public Assembly Building - any building or structure where 50 0r more people congregate, gather or assemble f
any purpose.

Public Way - any street, alley or other strip of land unobstructed from the ground to the sky, dedicated for public
use.

Pyrophoric - descriptive of any substance that ignites spontaneously when exposed to air.

Refining - a process where impurities and,or deleterious materials are removed from a mixture in order to produc
a pure element of compound. It shall also refer to partial distillation and electrolysis.

Self Closing Doors - automatic closing doors that are designed to confine smoke and heat and delay the spread o
fire.

Smelting - melting or fusing of metallic ores or compounds so as to separate impurities from pure metals.

Sprinkler System - an integrated network of hydraulically designed piping installed in a building, structure or ar
with outlets arranged in a systematic pattern which automatically discharges water when activated by heat or
combustion products from a fire.

Standpipe System - a system of vertical pipes in a building to which fire hoses can be attached on each floor,
including a system by which water is made available to the outlet as needed.

Vestibule - a passage hall or ante chamber between the outer doors and the interior parts of a house or building.

Vertical Shaft - a enclosed vertical space of passage that extends from floor to floor as well as from the base to t
top of the building.
RA no.9514 - Revised Fire Code of the Philippines of 2008 (Dec. 19, 2008).

PD. 1185 - known as the fire code of the Philippines, was enacted into law 1977, repealed by RA no. 9514.

RA no. 9263 - Bureau of Fire Protection and Bureau of Jail Management and Penology Professionalization Act o
2004.

BFP Powers/Functions

1. Preventions and suppression of all destructive

fires on
a. buildings
b. houses
c. other structure
d. forest
e. land transportation vehicles
f. ships/vessels
g. petroleum industry installations
 h. plane crashes and similar incidents
2. Enforcement of the Fire Code of the Philippines
3. Investigate all causes of fire
4. File proper complaints with the prosecutors office

 note: Vessel/Ship must be docked at piers or wharves or anchored in major seaport.

BFP Organization

 Headed by a Chief who shall be assisted by a Deputy Chief. It shall composed of a Provincial, District,
City and Municipal stations.
 In large provinces, district offices may be established to be headed by a district fire marshall.
 In large cities and municipalities, district offices may be established with subordinate fire stations headed
by a district fire marshall.
 There shall be at least one fire station in every provincial, capital, city and municipality.
 The local government unit shall provide the site of the fire station.

BFP Key Positions

 The Chief of the Fire Bureau - rank is Director.

 The Deputy Chief of the Fire Bureau - rank is Chief Superintendent.
 Assistant Regional Director for Fire Protection - rank is Senior Superintendent.
 District Fire Marshall of NCR District Offices - rank is Senior Superintendent.
 Provincial Fire Marshall - rank is Superintendent.
 District Fire Marshall of Province - rank is Chief Inspector.
 Chief of City/Municipal Fire Station - rank is Senior Inspector.

Key Positions - Qualifications

1. Municipal Fire Marshal - should have the rank of
Senior Inspector.
a. Must have finished at least 2nd year Bachelor of
Laws or earned at least 12 units in a masters
degree program in public administration,
management, engineering, public safety,
criminology or other related discipline.
b. Must have satisfactory passed the necessary
training of career courses for such position as
may be established by the fire bureau.
2. City Fire Marshal - should have the rank of Chief
Inspector.
a. Must have finished at least 2nd year Bachelor of
 Laws or earned at least 24 units in a masters
degree program in public administration,
management, engineering, public safety,
criminology or other related disciplines.
b. Must have satisfactory passed the necessary
training or career courses for such position as
may be established by the fire bureau.
3. District Fire Marshal/Provincial Fire Marshal/
Assistant Regional Director for Administration/
Assistant Regional Director for Operations/
Chief of Directorial Staff - should have the rank of
Superintendent.
a. Must be a graduate of Bachelor of Laws or a
holder of a Masters degree in public
administration, management, engineering,
public safety, criminology, or other related
disciplines.
b. Must have satisfactory passed the necessary
training or career courses for such position as
may be established by the fire bureau.
4. District Fire marshal for the NCR/Regional
Director for Fire Protection/Director of the
Directorate of the National Headquarters Office -
should have at least the rank of Senior
Superintendent.
a. Must be a graduate of Bachelor of Laws or a
holder of masters degree in public administration,
management, engineering, public safety,
criminology, or other related disciplines.
b. Must have satisfactory passed the necessary
training or career course for such position as may
be established by the fire bureau.
5. Deputy Chief for Administration and
Deputy Chief for Operation of the Fire Bureau -
should have the rank of Chief superintendent.
a. Must be a member of the Philippine Bar or must
be a holder of a masters degree in public
administration, management, engineering,
public safety, criminology or other related
disciplines.
b. Must have satisfactory passed the necessary
training or career courses as may be established
by the fire bureau.
6. Chief of the Fire Bureau - should have the rank
of Director.
a. Must be a member of the Philippine Bar or a
 masters degree in public administration,
management, engineering, public safety,
criminology or other related discipline.
b. Must satisfactory passed the necessary
the training or career courses for such position
as may be established by the fire bureau.
Fire Technology and Investigation Reviewer 1
1. Combustion or burning in which substances combine chemically with
oxygen from the air and typically give out bright light,heat and
smoke.
A. Flame
B. Heat
C. Fire
D. Smoke
Ans. C
2. A hot glowing body of ignited gas that is generated by something
on fire.
A. Flame
B. Heat
C. Fire
D. Smoke
Ans. A
3. An extensive fire that destroys a great deal of land or property.
A. Conflagration
B. Burning
C. Fire
D. Combustion
Ans. A
4. Means on fire or very hot or bright.
A. Flame
B. Burning
C. Fire
D. Combustion
Ans. B
5. The rapid chemical combination of a substance with oxygen
involving the production of heat and light.
A. Flame
B. Burning
C. Fire
D. Combustion
Ans.D
6. The quality of being hot or high temperature at which fuel will
continue to burn for atleast 5 seconds after ignition by an open
flame.
A. Flame
 B. Heat
C. Fire
D. Smoke
Ans. B
7. The natural agent that stimulates sight and makes things visible.
A. Flame
B. Heat
C. Light
D. Smoke
Ans. C
8. Is one of the 4 fundamental states of matter, the other being
solid,liquid and gas.
A. Flame
B. Plasma
C. Light
D. Smoke
Ans. B
9. The lowest temperature a which the vapor of a combustible liquid
can be ignited in air.
A. Flash point
B. Ignition temperature
C. Fire point
D. Boiling point
Ans. A
10. Is the temperature at which fuel will continue to burn for at least
five seconds after ignition by an open flame.
A. Flash point
B. Ignition temperature
C. Fire point
D. Boiling point
Ans. C

Remember the following:

1. Fire - Combustion or burning in which substances combine

chemically with oxygen from the air and typically give out bright
light,heat and smoke.

2. Flame - A hot glowing body of ignited gas that is generated by

something on fire.

3. Conflagration - An extensive fire that destroys a great deal of

land or property.

4. Burning - Means on fire or very hot or bright.

5. Combustion - The rapid chemical combination of a substance with
oxygen involving the production of heat and light.

6. Heat - The quality of being hot or high temperature at which fuel

will continue to burn for at least 5 seconds after ignition by an
open flame.

7. Light - The natural agent that stimulates sight and makes things
visible.

8. Plasma - Is one of the 4 fundamental states of matter, the other

being solid,liquid and gas.

9. Flash point - The lowest temperature a which the vapor of a

combustible liquid can be ignited in air.

10.Fire point - Is the temperature at which fuel will continue to burn

for at least five seconds after ignition by an open flame.

Fire Technology and Investigation Reviewer 2

1. The use of one or more electrical appliances or devices which draw
or consume electrical current beyond the designed capacity of the
existing electrical system
A. self-closing door
B. jumper
C. overloading
D. oxidizing material

2. An enclosed vertical space of passage that extends from the floor

to floor, as well as for the base to the top of the building is called
A. sprinkle evidence
B. vertical shaft
C. flash point
D. standpipe system

3. A wall designated to prevent the spread of fire having a fire

resistance rating of not less than four hours with sufficient
structural stability to remain standing even if construction on either
side collapses under the fire conditions.
A. Wood rack
B. Fire wall
C. Post wall
D. Fire trap

4. Any act that would remove or naturalized a fire hazard

 A. Allotment
B. Combustion
C. Distillation
D. Abatement

5. The ____ shall be conducted as a pre-requisite to grant permits

and/or license by local governments or other government agencies.
A. Fire safety inspection
B. Fire protection assembly
C. Fire alerting system
D. Fire service

6. An instance that may cause fires from the heat accumulated from
the rolling, sliding or friction in machinery or between two hard
surfaces, at least one of which is usually a metal is called.
A. static electricity
B. overheating of machine
C. friction heat
D. heat from arching

7. Method of heat transfer by direct contact

A. nuclear fission
B. conduction
C. convection
D. Radiation

8. Instrument used to open and close a fire hydrant

A. hydrant key
B. kilowatts
C. key board
D. bunch of key

9. Energy is transferred from one body to another by thermal

interactions.
A. Fire
B. Smoke
C. Heat
D. Ember

10.The transfer of heat from one place to another by the movement

of fluids.
A. Convection
B. Radiation
C. Conduction
D. None of the above
Answer: Fire Technology and Investigation

1. C
2. B
3. B
4. D
5. A
6. C
7. B
8. A
9. C
10.A
Traffic Operation And Accident Investigation Reviewer 1

1. In arresting the traffic violator or when it involved arrest due to

traffic violation, the following procedures are followed except:
A. bring the suspended person before the court
B. detention of the arrested person may take place
C. arrest can be effected even without a warrant
D. impose the probable penalty that might be imposed

2. A person can escape from the scene of the accident on

one of the following ground:
A. offense committed is serious
B. bringing the person to your custody
C. bring the suspect before the court to answer a charge of
violation
D. if the person is under the imminent danger

3. In the examination of the scene of accident, which of the

following evidence will show how the accident happened?
A. hole on the road pavement
B. the driver under the influence of liquor
C. point of impact
D. vehicle has break failure

4. The basic principle behind selective enforcement in traffic control is

A. selection of geographical areas for strict enforcement
B. concentration of enforcement activities at peak traffic hours
C. a shifting emphasis on different types of violations
D. a warning rather than a citation will act as preventive
measure for future violation

5. The general principle of traffic accident investigation is to

A. consider road conditions as limiting conditions rather than
 as causes KVB
B. consider violation as primary causes and any other factors
as secondary causes
C. regard any unfavorable factor existing immediately prior to
the accident as a cause
D. look for the "key event" that cause the accident

6. It is customary for the police to keep records of lost or stolen

automobile license plates. The best reason for this practice is to
A. permit the promote issuance of new plate
B. prevent cards from being stolen
C. keep record of all outstanding license plate in use
D. detain any person found using or attempting to use any of
these plates.

7. One of the following statements that best indicates the main

purpose of traffic law enforcement is
A. reduce traffic by punishing violators of traffic rules
B. keep traffic moving at a steady rate to avoid bottlenecks
C. control the speed limited in densely populated areas
D. prevent traffic accidents and expedite the flow of traffic

8. The traffic accident investigator is chiefly concerned with

accidents that involves one or both of the elements namely
A. motor vehicles and traffic way
B. motor vehicle and victim
C. victim and traffic way
D. victim and traffic unit

9. With respect to minor traffic violations, the traffic police officers

should be guided foremost by the consideration that
A. some traffic violation are intended
B. the aim is to discourage violations
C. same traffic violations are caused by negligence
D. violations must be punished

10. A number representing the resistance to sliding of two surfaces

in contract is known as:
A. coefficient of friction
B. traffic jam
C. attribute
D. contract damage

11. The first action taken by a traffic unit to escape from collision
course or otherwise avoid a hazard
A. state of evasive action
 B. point of possible perception
C. point of no escape
D. final position
12. Any motor vehicle accident that result in injuries other than fatal
to one or more persons.
A. non-fatal injury accident
B. fatal accident
C. traffic law enforcer
D. property damage accident

13. Which of the following types of accident is most decreased

by the installation of traffic light?
A. Cross traffic accidents
B. Misunderstanding between motorist and traffic officers
C. Accidents of confusion
D. Accidents of decision of right of way

14. A certain intersection, for several reasons, has more traffic

accidents than any other part in the area. The Police unit
assignment to the area should.
A. Park near the intersection, in plain view, and wait for violators.
B. Park your motorcycle at the center of intersection to
caution motorist
C. Park near the intersection, more or less hidden from view
D. Cruise all the assigned area but give extra attention to
the intersection

15. Every device which is self-propelled and every vehicle which

is propelled by electric power obtained from overhead trolley
wires, but not operated upon rails.
A. Skating
B. Bicycle
C. Tricycle
D. Motor vehicles

16. The main reason why both traffic officers and signal lights
are used on some intersection is that
A. motorist are discourage from "jumping signals"
B. traffic can be kept moving at a faster rate
C. greater safety to pedestrians and motorist is effected
D. an officer can stop and start as necessity demands

17. All lines, patterns, words, colors or other gadgets EXCEPT

signs set into the surface or applied upon or attached to the
pavement or curbing officially place for the purpose of regulating
traffic is called _____
 A. warning signs
B. traffic management
C. traffic engineering
D. pavement marking

18. Prohibitive traffic signs and restrictive traffic signs shall have
A. blue background and white symbols
B. a red background and white symbols and black border
C. white background with black symbols and red border
D. green background with white and black symbols

19. Motor vehicle propelled by an internal combustion engine

shall be equipped with a ____ as said motor vehicle passes
through a street of any city, municipality or thickly populated
district or barrio.
A. wiper
B. light
C. muffler
D. windshield

20. A traffic police officer stationed the route of a parade has been
ordered by his superior to allow no cars to cross the route.
While the parade is in progress, an ambulance driver on an
emergency run attempts to drive his ambulance across the
route while the parade is passing. Under these circumstances
the traffic police officer should.
A. ask the driver to wait until the traffic police officer contact
his superior and obtains decisions
B. stop the parade long enough to permit the ambulance to
cross the street
C. hold up the ambulance in accordance with the superior's order
D. direct the ambulance driver to the shortest detour which
will add at least then minutes to run

Answers:Traffic Operation and Accident Investigation

1. D
2. D
3. C
4. A
5. D
6. D
7. D
8. A
9. C
10. A
11. A
12. B
13. D
14. D
15. D
16. D
17. D
18. D
19. C
20. B
Drug Education And Vice Control Reviewer 1
1. The group of drugs that are considered to be mind altering and
gives the general effect of mood distortion are generally called
A. Sedatives
B. Hypnotic
C. Hallucinogens
D. Tranquillizers

2. Drugs like glue, gasoline, kerosene, ether, paint, thinner, etc. are
called:
A. Solvents
B. Deliriants
C. Inhalants
D. All of these

3. Cocaine is a stimulant drug; LSD is a

A. Hallucinogen
B. Narcotic
C. Solvent
D. Depressant

4. What opium preparation is combined with camphor to produce a

household remedy for diarrhea and abdominal pain?
A. Tincture of opium
B. Raw opium
C. Paregoric
D. Granulated opium

5. The group of drugs that when introduced into the system of the
body can produce mental alertness and wakefulness
A. Stimulants
B. Uppers
C. Speeds
D. All of these
6. The hallucinogenic alkaloid from a small Mexican mushroom used
by Mexican Indians to induce nausea and muscular relaxation is
called:
A. Psilocybin
B. STP
C. DMT
D. Ibogaine

7. What do you call the most powerful natural stimulant?

A. Erythroxylon coca
B. Heroin
C. Beta Eucaine
D. Cocaine Hydrochloride

8. What is the most important constituent of opium?

A. Morphine
B. Heroin
C. Codeine
D. Cocaine

9. What drug is known as the "assassins of the youth"?

A. Heroin
B. Cocaine
C. Marijuana
D. Shabu

10. The presence of drug paraphernalia at the drug scene in the form
of syringe and needle, tourniquet, spoon or bottle top "cookies"
and tinfoil packet reveals that the drug being administered are:
A. tablet drugs
B. capsule drugs
C. liquid drugs
D. marijuana leaves

11. 64. From among the following, which is correct?

A. RA 6975, Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs Act of 2002
which took effect on June 7, 2002
B. RA 9165, Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs Act of 2002
which took effect on July 4, 2002
C. RA 6975, Dangerous Drugs Act of 1972, took effect on
March 2, 1972
D. RA 6425, Dangerous Drugs Act of 2002 which took effect on
July 4, 2002

12.The drug that is obtained from the alkaloid of the leaves of the
Erythorxylon coca and the other species of Erthroxlon Linne, or by
 synthesis from ecgoine and its derivatives is called:
A. Heroin
B. Sodium Carbonate
C. Codeine
D. Cocaine

13. The presence of the symptom of alcohol intoxication with out

smell of alcoholic breath is a sign that the suspected person is
under the influence of:
A. Amphetamine drug
B. Barbiturates
C. Hallucinogens
D. Narcotics

14. The burning of a small quantity of the suspected substance and

determining the odor or smell having similar to burnt banana leaves
or has a sweetish odor is a field test that can reveal the drug ___.
A. Marijuana
B. Opium
C. Coca leaves
D. Peyote Cactus

15. Bennies and dexies are for amphetamines; red devils and
double trouble are for ___.
A. Demerol
B. Sulfates
C. Barbiturates
D. Deliriants

Answers: Drug Education and Vice Control

1. C
2. D
3. A
4. C
5. D
6. A
7. D
8. A
9. C
10. C
11. B
12. D
13. B
14. A
15. C
 Police Report Writing (Technical English)
Definition of Terms:
 Affidavit - summary judgment. The kind of
affidavit necessary to support a summary
judgement is that affidavit from which it may
be clearly drawn that certain facts pleaded by
either party are certain, undisputed and
indubitable which dispense with the hearing or
trial of the case.(PNP definition).
 After operation report - it is a report that may
be rendered after any successful police
operation that leads to the arrest of any member
or some members of syndicated crime group.
 After soco report - it is a report rendered by
the team leader of the SOCO that conducted the
scene of the crime operations, processing or
investigation.
 Agents report - it is a report rendered by
adocumented agent who answers an
intelligence requirement.
 Agreement - Proposal. A proposal remains an
offer even if not answered and irrespective of
the length of time that haspassed. It only
becomes an agreement when accepted by the
other party.(PNP definition).
 Book of account - a book containing charges
and showing a continuous dealing with persons
generally. To be admissible in evidence, it must
be kept as an account book and the charges
made in the usual course of business.
 Case officer - the person responsible for and in
charge of the investigation of the case.
 Police blotter - a record or log where all types
of operational and under coverdispatches shall
be recorded containing the 5 "W" and 1
"H"(Who, What, Where, When, Why, and How
of an information.
 Spot report - refers to an immediate initial
investigative or incident report addressed to
higher headquarters pertaining to the
commission of the crime, occurrence of natural
or man-made disaster or unusual incidents
involving loss of lives and damage of
 Police Report - report made by the police
containing the initial statement made by the
victim at the time she or he reported the crim
A police report consists of a testament, specif
details of the event and names of people
involved.
 Index Crime - are very serious crimes that
happen frequently or regularly that they can
serve as index of the crime situation. Index
Crime is basically anything that is physically
pursued by the person committing the crime
while non index crimes consists of non
physical confrontation.
 Non Index Crime - refers to all crime not
classified as index crime. These crimes are
mostly victimless.
 Crime Solution Efficiency - means the
number of crimes solved after the arrest of th
suspects and filing of charges against them.
 Crime Clearance Efficiency - means the
number of crimes considered solved because
the suspects have been identified and charged
but they remain at large.
 Crime Incidence - the number of crimes
reported as index or non index crimes within
given period.
 Crime Volume - is a basic indicator of the
frequency of known criminal activity. It
represents the number of reported offenses.
 Crime Trend - represents the percentage
change in crime based on data reported in a
prior equivalent period.
 Crime Rate - the measure that gives an index
of crime occurring in a particular jurisdiction
for a specific time period.
 properties.
 Tactical interrogation report - the report
rendered by an interrogator which contain the
following information: 1. Personal and family
background 2. Educational background
3.Professional background 4. Criminal
activities,associates/armaments 5. Plans
 Summary of information (SOI) - an
intelligence report rendered regarding any
illegal activity or violation of laws being
observed by intelligence operatives within a
given area of responsibility. This is the usual
basis of case operations hence, information
received should be cared, validated,
countered checked, analyzed and evaluated.

Crime Detection Review Questions

1. An extra judicial confession obtained from a suspect is admissible
in a court of law if it was made in the presence of a counsel
of his own choice and must be in
A. the presence of a fiscal
B. the presence of a police investigator
C. writing
D. front of a judge

2. Fiscals and Prosecutors are under the control and supervision

of the
A.National Bureau of Investigation
B. Department of the Interior and Local Government
C. Supreme Court
D.Department of Justice

3.The questioning of a person in a formal and systematic way and is

most often used to question criminal suspects to determine their
probable guilt or innocence.
A. Inquiry
B. Interview
C. polygraph examination
D. interrogation

4.A form of investigation in which the investigator assume a

different and unofficial identity.
A. Tailing
B. Casing
C. Espionage
 D. Undercover work

5.A type of surveillance in which extreme precautions and actions

are taken in not losing the subject.
A. loose tail
B. casing
C. pony tail
D. close tail

6.A type of shadowing employed when a general impression of the

subject’s habits and associates is required.
A. loose tail
B. casing
C. pony tail
D. close tail

7.A surveillance activity for the purpose of waiting the anticipated

arrival of a suspect or observing his actions from a fixed location.
A. Casing
B. Tailing
C. Stake out
D. Espionage

8.An examination of an individual’s person, houses, or effects or a

building, or premises with the purpose of discovering contraband's
or personal properties connected in a crime.
A. Search
B. Raid
C. Investigation
D. Seizure

9.A kind of evidence that tends to prove additional evidence of a

different character to the same point.
A. Corroborative evidence
B. Circumstantial evidence
C. Direct evidence
D. Real evidence

10.The process of bringing together in a logical manner all evidence

collected during the investigation and present it to the
prosecutor.
A. case preparation
B. order maintenance
C. crime prevention
D. public service
11.Ways and means are resorted for the purpose of trapping and
capturing the law breaker during the execution of a criminal act.
A. Instigation
B. Inducement
C. Buy bust operation
D. Entrapment

12.A special qualification for an undercover agent.

A. excellent built
B. excellent eyesight
C. excellent looks
D. excellent memory

13.The discreet observation of places, persons and vehicles for the

purpose of obtaining information concerning the identities or
activities of suspects.
A. close observation
B. espionage
C. tailing
D. surveillance

14. The questioning of a person by law enforcement officers after

that person has been taken into custody.
A. preliminary investigation
B. interrogation
C. custodial investigation
D. cross examination

15.As a general rule, a warrant of arrest can be served at

A. day time
B. night time
C. any day and at any time of the day or night
D. weekdays

16.Measures through which police seek to detect crimes, or

attempts to be present when they are committed, through the
use of the undercover agents, electronic devices for wiretapping
or bugging, and stakeouts.
A. preventive measures
B. countermeasures
C. pro-active measures
D. tape measures

17.A police activity directed toward the identification and

apprehension of alleged criminals and the accumulation,
preservation, and presentation of evidence regarding their
 alleged crimes.
A. police patrol
B. police intelligence
C. Criminal procedure
D. Criminal investigation

18.An extension or continuation of the preliminary investigation.

A. initial investigation
B.custodial investigation
C.secondary investigation
D.follow-up investigation

19.To obtain admission and confession of guilt is the primary purpose

of
A. Interview
B. Surveillance
C. Investigation
D.Interrogation

20.Such facts and circumstances that would lead a reasonably

discreet and prudent man to believe that an offense has been
committed and that the object sought in connection with the
offense are in the place sought to be searched.
A. prima facie evidence
B. probable cause
C. prejudicial question
D.res ipsa loquitur

21.A search warrant shall be valid for _____ days from its date.
Thereafter, it shall be void.
A. 10
B. 15
C. 30
D. 45

22.It means that a specific crime was committed at a specified time,

date and place, and that the person named in his report
committed the crime.
A. corpus delicti
B. sufficiency of evidence
C. stare decisis
D. parens patriae

23.Police seek to prevent crime by being present in places where

crimes might be committed and by alerting citizens to refrain from
practices that make them or their property vulnerable.
 A. opportunity denial
B. order maintenance
C. criminal investigation
D. police intelligence

24.A statement of the suspect directly acknowledging his guilt.

A. Admission
B. Confession
C. Deposition
D. Accusation

25.It may be a direct acknowledgement of the truth of the guilty

fact as charge or of some essential part of the commission of the
criminal act itself.
A. Admission
B. Confession
C. Deposition
D. Accusation

26.It may be a self-incriminatory statement by the subject falling

short of an acknowledgement of guilt.
A. Admission
B. Confession
C. Deposition
D. Accusation

27.The simplest type of interview which concerns with the gathering

of information regarding the personal circumstances of a
person who is the subject of investigation.
A. background interview
B. personal interview
C. intimate interview
D. pre-game interview

28.It means method of operation.

A. corpus delicti
B. parens patriae
C. stare decisis
D. modus operandi

29.It is one which induces the criminal to act and need not be
shown in order to obtain conviction.
A. Intent
B. Motive
C. Opportunity
D. Inducement
30.The three tools in criminal investigation, whereby their
application varies in proportion on their necessity to establish
the guilt of the accused in a criminal case.
A. information, interrogation, instrumentation
B. detection, apprehension, conviction ‘
C. inquiry, observation, conclusion
D. magnifying glass, pencil, tape measure

31.The simple questioning of a person who is cooperating in the

investigation.
A. Interview
B. Inquiry
C. Interrogation
D. Instrumentation

32.It involves a number of persons who might have handled

evidence between the time of the commission of the alleged
offense and the disposition of the case, should be kept to
a minimum.
A.chain of command
B.chain of custody
C.evidence tracking
D.tracing evidence

33.A kind of evidence which may link the suspect to the crime scene
or offense. Examples are fingerprints, impressions, blood etc.
A. physical evidence
B. associative evidence
C. tracing evidence
D. factual evidence

34.Articles and materials which are found in connection with an

investigation and which help in establishing the identity of the
perpetrator or the circumstances under which the crime was
committed or which in general, assist in the prosecution of the
criminal.
A. physical evidence
B. documentary evidence
C. tracing evidence
D. testimonial evidence

35.The following are different techniques in interrogation except

one:
A. sympathetic approach
B. emotional appeal
 C. financial assistance
D. friendliness

36.This may be applicable to a crime scene which is approximately

circular or oval. The searchers gather at the center and proceed
outward along radii or spokes.
A. strip method
B. wheel method
C. spiral method
D. zone method

37.The area to be searched is divided into quadrants and each

searcher is assigned to one quadrant.
A. strip method
B. wheel method
C. spiral method
D. zone method

38.The searchers follow each other in the path of a crime scene

beginning in the outside and circling around a central point.
A. strip method
B. wheel method
C.spiral method
D.zone method

39.A kind of gathering information whereby a subject is being

followed.
A. Convoy
B. Caravan
C. Tailing
D. Surveillance

40.Another term for tailing.

A.Impersonating
B.Backing
C.Supporting
D.Shadowing

41.A person who gives necessary information to the investigator.

He may give the information openly and even offer to be a
witness or he may inform the investigator surreptitiously and
request to remain anonymous.
A. Witness
B. Expert witness
C. Hostile witness
D. Informant
42.The use of an equipment or tool to listen and record discreetly
conversations of other people.
A. Bugging
B. Dubbing
C. Mimicking
D. Tapping

43.The questioning of persons not suspected of being involved in a

crime,but who knows about the crime or individuals involved in it.
A. Interrogation
B. rumor mongering
C. interview
D. inquiry

44.An objective of criminal investigation.

A. determine the motive
B. identify criminals
C. rehabilitate criminals
D. prevent crimes

45.A term used to describe a transition which occur in the

development of a fire, when, for example, most of all the
combustible surfaces within a room are heated above their
ignition temperature at the same time.
A. Intensity
B. Ignition
C. Flash over
D. Starter

46.A term of the start of the combustion, its detailed process of

a solid is very complicated, since the proportion of different
flammable vapors varies from one material to another and
contact with oxygen must take place before combustion can
begin.
A. Intensity
B. Ignition
C. Flash over
D. Starter

47.The term describes the transfer of heat through a gas or vacuum

in a similar way to that of light.
A. Ignition
B. Convection
C. Radiation
 D. Conduction

48.The transfer of heat within a solid material from hotter to

cooler parts.
A. Ignition
B. Convection
C. Radiation
D. Conduction

49.The greatest concern of the firemen at the fire/crime scene is to

A. interview witnesses
B. view the site of the crime
C. preserve the fire/crime scene
D. opportunity in the fire/crime scene

50.Most malicious fires are set by individuals secretly; it is

either set for revenge or self aggrandizing; or set by psychotic
fire setter, or for sexual gratification.
A. group fire setter
B. arson for profit
C. fire starter
D. solitary fire setter

51.The primary course of action in case of a fire.

A. pack up and flee
B. run for your life
C. call an ambulance
D. raise the alarm Answer: D

52.The main product of the combustion of carbon. It is not

poisonous but is an asphyxia which lowers the proportion of
oxygen available for breathing.
A. carbon oxide
B. carbon monoxide
C. carbon paper
D. carbon dioxide Answer: D

53.A normal product of combustion, and is poisonous, especially

when the air supply to the fire is restricted.
A. carbon oxide
B. carbon monoxide
C. carbon paper
D. carbon dioxide Answer: B

54.The fire resisting property of structural elements and the

behavior of a building material in a fire, it is used to predict
 how long it will resist the effect of a fire before it fails.
A. fire resistance
B. fire duration
C. fire proof
D. fire strength Answer: A

55.A type of fire that is the result of the combustion of certain

metals in finely divided forms; magnesium, potassium, zinc, etc….
A. class A
B. class B
C. class C
D. class D Answer: D

56.A type of fire which results from burning of wood, paper,

textiles, and other carbonaceous materials.Extinguishment of
this fire is by quenching and cooling.
A. class A
B. class B
C. class C
D. class D Answer: A

57.The following are components of fire except one:

A. Gas
B. Fuel
C. Oxygen
D. Heat Answer: A

58.It is observed in structural fires and can be an indicator of

the fire travel and point of origin.
A. Charring
B. Alligatoring
C. V pattern
D. Pour pattern Answer: A

59.A pattern or network of fine, irregular lines in glass and wood.

A. Crazing
B. Spalling
C. Light bulbs
D. Charring Answer: A

60.A tool employed by an arsonist to delay the start of the fire

and allow him to establish an alibi.
A. Accelerants
B. delaying tactic
C. timing device
D. stopper Answer: C
61.It can be readily identified by their distinctive odors, and the
most common examples are gasoline, turpentine and kerosene.
A. Accelerants
B. Trailers
C. timing device
D. Stopper Answer: A

62.This catalytic combustion device is the most common means

employed to detect flammable vapors.
A. Accelerant
B. Sniffer
C. timing device
D. stopper Answer: B

63.The irresistible impulse or compulsion to start a fire and

experience gratification and satisfaction from it.
A. fire starter syndrome
B. pyrotechnic disease
C. pyromania
D. pyrophobia
Answer: C

64.It is known as the “Fire Code of the Philippines.”

A. PD 1108
B. PD 1017
C. PD 1081
D. PD 1185 Answer: D

65.Any material or mixture consisting of a fuel and oxidizer used

to set off explosives.
A. blasting agent
B. blasting cap
C. gun powder
D. explosive primer Answer: A

66.These are description of materials or compounds that are

easily set on fire except one:
A. Combustible
B. Corrosive
C. Flammable
D. Inflammable Answer: B

67.Any material having a flash point at or above 37.80 degree

Celsius or 100 degree Fahrenheit.
A. combustible liquid
 B. flammable liquid
C. inflammable liquid
D. corrosive liquid Answer: A

68.Any liquid that causes fire when in contact with organic matter.
A. combustible liquid
B. flammable liquid
C. inflammable liquid
D. corrosive liquid Answer: A

69.An extremely hot luminous bridge formed by the passage of an

electric current across the space between two conductors.
A. electrical arc
B. damper
C. duct system
D. ember Answer: A

70.The active principle of burning, characterized by the heat

and light combustion.
A. explosion
B. arson
C. combustion
D. fire Answer: D

71.A type of fire, of flammable liquid and gasses.

A. class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. Class D Answer: B

72.A mass movement in a fluid, an example a liquid or a gas where

fluid at one temperature and density moves under the influence
of gravity at different temperatures.
A. Conduction
B. Convection
C. Radiation
D. Combustion Answer: B

73.The temperature at which a liquid is transformed or converted to

vapor.
A. burning point
B. melting point
C. freezing point
D. boiling point Answer: B

74.The first action taken by a traffic unit to escape from a

 collision course or to avoid hazard.
A. point of no return
B. point of no escape
C. start of evasive action
D. final position Answer: C

75.The movement of vehicles, and pedestrians in a road or highway.

A. Traffic
B. Flight
C. Trip
D. Journey Answer: A

76.A method of locating a spot in the area by measurements from

two or more reference points.
A. traffic report
B. spot report
C . triangulation
D. accident investigation Answer: C

77.The force that tends to pull all objects to the center of the
earth.
A. Inertia
B. Friction
C. Energy
D. Gravity Answer: D

78.Any motor vehicle accident that results in no death, but only

injuries to one or more persons.
A. Fatal
B. Chronic
C. Non fatal
D. Injurious Answer: B

79.The “Traffic and Land Transportation Code of the Philippines”

A. RA 7160
B. RA 8551
C. RA 6425
D. RA 4136 Answer: D

80.An occurrence in a sequence of events, which usually produces

unintended injury, death or property damage.
A. traffic incidents
B. traffic accidents
C. traffic hazards
D. traffic events Answer: B
81.Any motor vehicle accident occurring on a traffic way.
A. non motor vehicle traffic accident
B. non motor vehicle non-traffic accident
C. motor vehicle non-traffic accident
D. motor vehicle traffic accident Answer: D

82.An order wherein a violator is commanded to appear in court,

but without detaining him.
A. traffic citation
B. traffic request
C. traffic warrant
D. D. traffic violation Answer: A

83.The first accidental touching of an object collision course

or otherwise avoid a hazard.
A. primary contact
B. secondary contact
C. disengagement
D. initial contact Answer: D

84.The following are the three E’s of Traffic Management and

Operation except one:
A. Engineering
B. Education
C. Enforcement
D. Evaluation Answer: D

85.The “Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs Act of 2002.”

A. RA 9870
B. RA 9165
C. RA 1017
D. RA 6195 Answer: B

86.Drugs that produce perceptual alteration, varying emotional

change, thought disruption and ego distortion. They are called
psychedelics.
A. Tranquillizers
B. Hallucinogens
C. Stimulants
D. Depressants Answer: B

87.Drugs which produce insensibility, stupor, melancholy or

dullness of the mind with delusions.
A. Stimulants
B. Narcotics
C. Depressants
 D. Hallucinogens Answer: B

88.The practice or profession of having sexual intercourse for

money or profit.
A. Gynecology
B. Prostitution
C. White Slavery
D. Sex Trade Answer: B

89.The scientific name of Indian hemp plant.

A. cannabis sativa L
B. Papaver somniforum
C. deoxyribonucleic acid
D. methamphetamine HCl Answer: A

90.The original components of heroin and morphine.

A. Codeine
B. Caffeine
C. Opium
D. Methamphetamine Answer: C

91.An inter department agency that enforce and carry out the law
against illegal drugs.
A. Philippine Drug Enforcement Agency
B. Bureau of Foods and Drugs
C. Dangerous Drug Board
D. Food and Drug Administration Answer: A

92.A harmful conduct or habit, the indulgence of which leads to

depravity, wickedness and corruption of the mind and body.
A. Vice
B. Abuse
C. Addiction
D. Virtue Answer: A

93.The most common form of stimulant.

A. Heroin
B. Codeine
C. Morphine
D. Shabu Answer: D

94.It is chemically known as methamphetamine hydro chloride.

A. Heroin
B. Codeine
C. Morphine
D. None of these Answer: D
95.A derivative of opium which is used a cough reliever.
A. Codeine
B. Heroin
C. Morphine
D. Caffeine Answer: A

96.Any part of the plant of the papaver somniferum, including the

seeds.
A. opium poppy
B. marijuana
C. caffeine components
D. codeine Answer: A

97.Another term for psychological drug addiction.

A. drug habituation
B. drug net consciousness
C. drug pushing
D. drug dependence Answer: D

98.Commercially produced drugs that can be legally sold or

dispensed only by a physician’s order.
A. illegal drugs
B. prohibited drugs
C. regulated drugs
D. prescription drugs Answer: D

99.Any chemical substance that by virtue of its chemical nature

alters the structure and functioning of living organism.
A. Alcohol
B. Poison
C. Drug
D. Vice Answer: C

100.It is, in most cases, the initial step for obtaining information
to determine the origin and cause of fire.
A. Evidence collection
B. laboratory examination of evidence
C. interview witnesses
D. interrogation of suspects Answer: C
1. C 26. A
2. D 27. A
3. D 28. D
4. D 29. B
5. D 30. A
6. A 31. A
7. C 32. A
8. A 33. C
9. A 34. A
10. A 35. C
11. D 36. B
12. D 37. D
13. D 38. C
14. B 39. C
15. C 40. B
16. C 41. D
17. D 42. A
18. D 43. C
19. D 44. B
20. B 45. C
21. A 46. B
22. A 47. C
23. A 48. D
24. B 49. C
25. B 50. D