Adventist University of the Philippines

Pharma - Drill questions- I

1. Which of the following correctly explains Starling’s Law of the heart?

A. Stretching of a rubber band
B. Pushing and pulling of a rope
C. Flowing of water through a pipe
D. Moving up and down on a staircase

2. As a nurse you explain to your patient that electrocardiogram indicates which of the
following options?
A. “it will help to identify how the heart is working mechanically”
B. “It will show the chambers of the heart in different views.”
C. “it will measure the amount of blood being pumped.”
D. “it will show how the impulses are moving through the heart.

3. Which of the following options is the pacemaker of the heart?

A. SA node
B. AV node
C. Bundle of His
D. Purkinje fibers
4. When explaining the contraction of the heart muscle you describe the basic unit as which of
the following ?
A. Actin
B. Myosin
C. Troponin
D. Sarcomere

5. Which of the following options is responsible for the movement of fluids in the arterial end
of the capillary?
A. Blood pressure
B. Oncotic pressure
C. Hydrostatic pressure
D. Loose endothelial cells

6. Which area of the heart is supplied by the right coronary artery?

https://lookaside.fbsbx.com/file/drill-II%20pharma%20cardio-im…wzut_UnCJYRG0wIRFUq_iVvYKOrKRzNPAJYu-m1OsSY1wYVVloMlc 11/22/17, 12U59

Page 1 of 18
 A. Cardiac septum
B. Left ventricle
C. Conduction system
D. Right side of the heart

7. Blood returning to the heart arrives at the right ventricle by way of which of the following
options?
A. Aorta
B. Vena cava
C. Tricuspid valve
D. Pulmonary valve

8. While reviewing the patient’s electrocardiogram, which of the following would you identify
as indicating depolarization of the bundle of His and ventricles?
A. P wave
B. T wave
C. PR interval
D. QRS complex

9. Sodium ion concentrations are equal inside and outside the cell during which phase of the
action potential of the cardiac muscle?
A. Phase 0
B. Phase 1
C. Phase 2
D. Phase 3
10. When describing the pressures in the cardiovascular system, the nurse would identify
which of the following as the area of highest pressure?
A. Right atrium
B. Right ventricle
C. Left atrium
D. Left ventricle
11. Which of the following would be considered the most important factor in determining
peripheral resistance?
A. Veins
B. Arteries
C. Arterioles
D. Capillaries
12. Which of the following functions continually maintain blood pressure withing a
predetermined range of normal?
A. Medulla
B. Baroreceptors

https://lookaside.fbsbx.com/file/drill-II%20pharma%20cardio-im…wzut_UnCJYRG0wIRFUq_iVvYKOrKRzNPAJYu-m1OsSY1wYVVloMlc 11/22/17, 12U59

Page 2 of 18
 C. Carotid arteries
D. Cardiovascular center
13. A patient develops a severe elevation in blood pressure. The physician orders an ACE
inhibitor to be given intravenously. Which agent would be most likey?
A. Captopril
B. Enalapril
C. Lisinopril
D. Enalaprilat

14. Which of the following options are decreased by diuretic agents?

A. Calcium levels and fluid volume
B. Sodium and potassium levels
C. Sodium levels and fluid volume
D. Chloride levels and fluid volume

15. Which of the following options prevent the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II
leading to a fall in blood pressure?
A. ACE inhibitors
B. Calcium Channel Blockers
C. Angiotensin Receptor blockers
D. Renin inhibitors

16. Which of the following options is an angiotensin II receptor blocker?

A. Moexipril
B. Losartan
C. Minoxidil
D. Amlodipine

17. A patient receiving an ACE inhibitor reports a problem with coughing. The nurse would
ask the patient if he is receiving which of the following?
A. Ramipril
B. Benazepril
C. Lisinopril
D. Quinapril

18. A patient is receiving captopril. Which of the following would be most important for the
nurse to monitor?
A. Electrocardiogram
B. Nutritional status
C. Complete blood count

https://lookaside.fbsbx.com/file/drill-II%20pharma%20cardio-im…wzut_UnCJYRG0wIRFUq_iVvYKOrKRzNPAJYu-m1OsSY1wYVVloMlc 11/22/17, 12U59

Page 3 of 18
 D. Liver function studies

19. Which of the following options plays an important role in the conversion of angiotensin I
to angiotensin II?
A. Renin
B. Erythropoietin
C. Angiotensinogen
D. Angiotensin Converting Enzyme

20. In reviewing the different kinds of antihypertensive agents available, which of the
following options is a renin inhibitor?
A. Aliskerin
B. Candesartan
C. Captopril
D. Mecamylamine

21. Which of the following statements is TRUE about heart failure (HF)?
A. Treatment for HF does not include diuretics
B. In HF the heart pumps sufficient amount of blood.
C. (Lanoxin) digoxin is contraindicated to patients with HF
D. HF can result from damage to the heart muscle related to Coronary Artery Disease
22. You suspect that your patient is experiencing left-sided heart failure. Which of the
following assessment findings support your observation?
A. Peripheral edema
B. Hepatomegaly
C. Neck vein distention
D. Tachypnea

23. Which of the following would a nurse expect to assess if a patient is experiencing right-
sided heart heart failure?
A. Dyspnea
B. Wheezing
C. Hemoptysis
D. Peripheral edema

24. Your patient is taking digoxin. You are aware of which serum digoxin level indicates
digoxin toxicity?
A. 0.6 ng/ml
B. 1.4 ng/ml
C. 1.8 ng /ml

https://lookaside.fbsbx.com/file/drill-II%20pharma%20cardio-im…wzut_UnCJYRG0wIRFUq_iVvYKOrKRzNPAJYu-m1OsSY1wYVVloMlc 11/22/17, 12U59

Page 4 of 18
 D. 2.3 ng/ml

25. The patient asks you how will he take digoxin ? Which of the following statements would
be most appropriate response?
A. “take the medicine with an antacid at any time of day”
B. “take the drug after eating your breakfast”
C. “eat small snack just before taking the drug”
D. Take the drug on an empty stomach at the same time of each day”

26. Digoxin is ordered to be given intravenously (IV). You are aware that you need to
administer the drug over which time frame?
A. 2 minutes
B. 3 minutes
C. 4 minutes
D. 5 minutes

27. Digoxin increases the movement of calcium into the heart muscle thus decrease the
workload of the heart. Which of the following IS THE EFFECT of digoxin?
A. Increases the heart rate
B. Decreases blood flow to the kidneys
C. Speeds up conduction through AV node
D. Increases the force of contraction of the heart

28. The patient asks what to do with his digoxin if his pulse rate is 52 beats /min. Which of the
following would be an appropriate response?
A. “Take digoxin as ordered and note the pulse rate in a log”
B. “Hold the dose and retake the pulse in 1 hour”
C. “Withhold the drug and call the doctor immediately”
D. “Go the nearest emergency care facility for evaluation”

29. A patient who is taking digoxin would withhold the drug if his pulse rate were which of
the following?
A. 78 beats/minute
B. 70 beats/minute
C. 64 beats/minute
D. 56 beats/minute

30. Which of the following classification of antiarrhythmic agents is CORRECT?

A. Class I antiarrhythmic drugs block sodium channels
B. Class II antiarrhythmic drugs are membrane stabilizer.

https://lookaside.fbsbx.com/file/drill-II%20pharma%20cardio-im…wzut_UnCJYRG0wIRFUq_iVvYKOrKRzNPAJYu-m1OsSY1wYVVloMlc 11/22/17, 12U59

Page 5 of 18
 C. Class III antiarrhythmic drugs block Calcium channels
D. Class IV antiarrhythmic drugs block potassium channels

31. Which of the following agents would be classified as a class I antiarrhythmic?

A. Lidocaine
B. Flecainide
C. Mexiletine
D. Procainamide

32. Which phase of the cardiac muscle action potential is affected by class I antiarrhythmics?
A. Phase 0
B. Phase 1
C. Phase 2
D. Phase 3

33. Which of the following options best describe the effect of calcium channel blockers?
A. “chew the tablet thoroughly before swallowing
B. Swallow the drug whole with a large glass of water
C. Mix the crushed tablet with applesauce to improve the taste
D. Cut the tablet in half to make it easier to swallow.

34. Part of your health teaching to the patient who is receiving quinidine is to avoid which of
the following foods?
A. Milk
B. Antacids
C. Apple juice
D. Citrus juices

35. Which of the following statements is TRUE ?

A. Prinzmetal angina results when a coronary artery is completely occluded.
B. Angina pectoris occurs when the narrowed blood vessels cannot accommodate the
myocardial demand for oxygen.
C. Myocardial infarction is a spasm of coronary vessel that decreases the flow of blood
through the narrowed lumen
D. Nitrates are drugs that act directly on smooth muscle to cause contraction and to
increase muscle tone.

36. Majority of deaths related to Myocardial infarction results from which of the following?
A. Shock
B. Stroke

https://lookaside.fbsbx.com/file/drill-II%20pharma%20cardio-im…wzut_UnCJYRG0wIRFUq_iVvYKOrKRzNPAJYu-m1OsSY1wYVVloMlc 11/22/17, 12U59

Page 6 of 18
 C. Arrhythmias
D. Heart failure

37. Which of the following drugs would you identify as a nitrate?

A. Isosorbide
B. Amlodipine
C. Metoprolol
D. Nicardipine

38. Which of the following conditions would contraindicate the use of nitrates?
A. Hypotension
B. Hepatic disease
C. Cardiac tamponade
D. Cerebral hemorrhage

39. As a nurse you instruct the patient that he can repeat the dose of nitroglycerine every 5
minutes up to a maximum total of how many doses?
A. Two doses
B. Three doses
C. Four doses
D. Five doses

40. Which of the following options would you identify as being responsible for breaking up
dietary fats into smaller units?
A. Micelles
B. Bile acids
C. Cholesterol
D. Chylomicrons

41. Which of the following would be classified as one of the bile acid sequestrants?
A. Ezetimibe
B. Lovostatin
C. Gemfibrozil
D. Cholestyramine

42. Which of the following drugs work in the brush border of the small intestine to prevent the
absorption of dietary cholesterol?
A. Ezetimibe
B. Atorvastatin
C. Cholestyramine

https://lookaside.fbsbx.com/file/drill-II%20pharma%20cardio-im…wzut_UnCJYRG0wIRFUq_iVvYKOrKRzNPAJYu-m1OsSY1wYVVloMlc 11/22/17, 12U59

Page 7 of 18
 D. Gemfibrozil (Lopid)

43. The patient who has been taking verapamil for several months complained of dizziness,
light-headedness, and fatigue associated with episodes of nausea and swelling of ankles.
Drug toxicity is suspected. Which of the following questions would be appropriate to ask?
A. “Have you been taking grapefruit juice lately?”
B. “Are you splitting or crushing your pills?
C. When did you take the last dose of verapamil?
D. “ are you taking over- the-counter pain reliever like ibuprofen?”

44. The patient is receiving nitroprusside. The nurse suspect that the patient is experiencing
dug toxicity based on which assessment findings?
A. Chest pain
B. Increased hair growth
C. Absence of reflexes
D. Pupil constriction

45. Which of the following options is referred to as the transformation of fluid blood into a
solid state to seal breaks in the vascular system?
A. Clot
B. Coagulation
C. Fibrinolysis
D. Platelet aggregation

46. Anemia is described as :

A. A lack of iron in the body
B. An excessive number of platelets
C. A lack of vitamin B12 in the body
D. A decrease in number of red blood cells

47. In a healthy person, very little iron is needed on a daily basis. Which of the following
options will not predispose the patient to iron deficiency?
A. Heavy menstrual flow
B. Internal bleeding
C. Bile duct obstruction
D. Traumatic injury and loss of blood

48. For which of the following indications will Epogen (epoetinalfa) be the drug of choice?
A. For acute blood loss during surgery
B. For treatment of anemia during lactation

https://lookaside.fbsbx.com/file/drill-II%20pharma%20cardio-im…wzut_UnCJYRG0wIRFUq_iVvYKOrKRzNPAJYu-m1OsSY1wYVVloMlc 11/22/17, 12U59

Page 8 of 18
 C. To replace blood loss from traumatic injury
D. For treatment of anemia associated with renal failure

49. Which of the following options, will hinder the absorption of Iron from the gastrointestinal
tract when taken simultaneously with it?
A. Protein
B. Dairy products
C. Anticoagulants
D. Any other drugs

50. Which of the following options will enhance the absorption of Iron from the
gastrointestinal tract when taken simultaneously with it?
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin B
C. Vitamin C
D. Vitamin D

51. The student is correct when he says that the life span of RBC is which of the following
options?
A. 24 hours
B. 60 days
C. 120 days
D. Three months

52. Which of the following options best describe Warfarin, as an oral anticoagulant?
A. It acts directly to prevent conversion of prothrombin to thrombin
B. It acts to decrease the production of vitamin K clotting factors in the liver.
C. It acts as a catalyst in the conversion of plasminogen to plasmin
D. Its immediate effect makes it a drug of choice during emergency situations

53. Which of the following options is true about Heparin?

A. It’s available in oral and parenteral forms
B. It takes about 72 hours to cause a therapeutic effect
C. Its effects are reversed with the injection of vitamin K
D. Its effects are reversed with the administration of protamine sulfate

54. Nurse Paula is evaluating a patient who is taking an anticoagulant for blood loss. Which of
the following assessment findings is not indicative of bleeding?
A. Dark-colored urine
B. The presence of petechiae

https://lookaside.fbsbx.com/file/drill-II%20pharma%20cardio-im…wzut_UnCJYRG0wIRFUq_iVvYKOrKRzNPAJYu-m1OsSY1wYVVloMlc 11/22/17, 12U59

Page 9 of 18
 C. Yellow color of the sclera or skin (jaundice)
D. Bleeding gums while brushing the teeth

55. Which of the following statements is part of your health teaching for the patient who is
taking Warfarin?
A. Avoid eating green leafy vegetables
B. It is best given to hemophiliac patients
C. Warfarin is the drug of choice in acute situations
D. It is safe to take warfarin during pregnancy.

56. Which of the following options is true about the importance of cholesterol in the body?
Cholesterol helps in:
A. The production of water-soluble vitamins
B. The formation of steroid hormones
C. The mineralization of bones
D. The development of dental plaques

57. The formation of atheromas in the blood vessels precedes the signs and symptoms of
A. Hepatitis
B. Diabetes
C. Coronary Artery Disease
D. Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD)

58. High cholesterol level is considered to be which of the following?

A. Related to stress levels
B. Normal finding in adult males
C. Side effect of cigarette smoking
D. A treatable risk factor in the development of heart disease

59. Which of the following options is non- modifiable risk factor of Coronary Artery Disease?
A. Stress
B. Genetic predisposition
C. Cigarette smoking
D. Obesity

60. What is considered to be normal for total cholesterol level?

A. <200 mg/dl
B. <250 mg/dl
C. <300 mg/dl

https://lookaside.fbsbx.com/file/drill-II%20pharma%20cardio-im…wzut_UnCJYRG0wIRFUq_iVvYKOrKRzNPAJYu-m1OsSY1wYVVloMlc 11/22/17, 12U59

Page 10 of 18
 D. <350 mg/dl

61. After reviewing about lipoproteins, a group of students demonstrate understanding of the
topic when they identify which of the following as being loosely packed?
A. LDLs
B. HDLs
C. Lipids
D. Triglycerides

62. After reviewing the information about bile acid sequestrants tablet , which of the following
statements indicates the need to re-educate the patient?
A. I am not supposed to cut the tablet
B. These tablets should not be crushed.
C. These tablets should be swallowed whole with plenty of fluid.
D. These tablets could be chewed and taken with a lot of water.
​
63. The nurse prepares to administer a dose of hydralazine intravenously (IV) to a patient.
Which of the following measures is a priority assessment after the initial dose?
A. checking the Cardiac rhythm
B. checking the Blood pressure
C. checking the Oxygen saturation ​ ​ ​ ​
D. checking the Respiratory rate

64. The nurse is caring for a client with chronic angina pectoris who is receiving metoprolol 100
mg daily. Which client manifestation would the nurse conclude is a sided effect of this
medication?
A. Dry mouth
B. Diaphoresis
C. Bradycardia
D. Difficulty swallowing

65. Which condition results when the output of the heart is insufficient to supply adequate levels
of oxygen for the body?
A. .Hypertension
B. Angina Pectoris
C. Myocardial Infarction
D. Congestive Heart Failure

66. Which of the following drug is a beta blocker?

​A. guanabenz
B. metoprolol
​C. prazocin
D. enalaprilat

67. Which is an ACE inhibitor?

​A. atenolol

https://lookaside.fbsbx.com/file/drill-II%20pharma%20cardio-im…wzut_UnCJYRG0wIRFUq_iVvYKOrKRzNPAJYu-m1OsSY1wYVVloMlc 11/22/17, 12U59

Page 11 of 18
 B. propranolol ​ ​ ​
C. captopril
D. ranitidine

68. A patient is receiving metroprolol for hypertension. The nurse should ask the client about a
history of which of the following conditions?

A. Seizure ​ ​ ​ ​
B. Hypertension
C. Bronchospasm ​ ​ ​ ​ ​
D. Myasthenia Gravis
69. Which of the following statements of the patient who is taking peripheral vasodilators
indicates a need for further instructions?
A. “It is expected that the desired therapeutic response of the medication may take 1.5 to 3
months.”
B. “I am not allowed to smoke while taking this medication.”
C. Both A and B
D. None of the above
70.After teaching a group of students about fats and biotransformation, the instructor determines
that the teaching was successful when the students identify which of the following as the storage
location of bile acids?
A. Liver
B. Gallbladder
C. Small intestines
D. Stomach

Immune System
71. One of the body defenses that is considered the first line of defense that protects the
internal tissues and organs of the body.
A. Skin
B. Mucous membranes
C. Gastric acid
D. None of the above

72. One of the leukocytes (WBC) which is capable of phagocytosis (engulfing and digesting
of foreign material). When the body is injured or invaded by a pathogen, they are rapidly
produced and move to the site of the insult to attack the foreign substance.
A. Neutrophils
B. Eosinophils
C. Basophils
D. Macrophages

73. The inflammatory response is activated whenever cell injury occurs. Which of the
following options is an inflammatory response?
A. Vasoconstriction in the area of injury

https://lookaside.fbsbx.com/file/drill-II%20pharma%20cardio-im…wzut_UnCJYRG0wIRFUq_iVvYKOrKRzNPAJYu-m1OsSY1wYVVloMlc 11/22/17, 12U59

Page 12 of 18
 B. Change in capillary permeability resulting to fluid leaks into the tissues (tumor)
C. Absence of effect on the pain fibers by histamine and kinin system
D. Production B cells and T cells as an important part of the immune system.

74. B and T cells are similar in that they both

A. secrete antibodies
B. play an important roles in the immune response
C. are activated in the thymus gland
D. release cytotoxins to destroy cells

75. Interleukins are

A. Chemicals released when a virus enters a cell
B. Chemical secreted by activated leukocytes
C. Part of kinin system
D. Activated by arachnoid acid

76. Treating fever remains a controversial subject because:

A. Fever makes people feel ill
B. Higher temperatures act as catalyst to many of the body’s chemical reactions, so the
inflammatory and immune responses will be more effective.
C. Higher temperature can suppress the body’s normal metabolism
D. Higher temperature can alter the body’s hormone levels. Particularly progesterone

77. An analgesic is a drug that:

A. Reduces fever
B. Reduces redness
C. Reduces swelling
D. Reduces pain

78. An antipyretic is a drug that can:

A. Block pain
B. Block fever
C. Block swelling
D. Block inflammation

79. Which of the following statements best describes Aspirin as a popular anti-inflammatory
agent?
A. Aspirin increase platelet aggregation thus promote blood clotting
B. Aspirin are best taken with empty stomach

https://lookaside.fbsbx.com/file/drill-II%20pharma%20cardio-im…wzut_UnCJYRG0wIRFUq_iVvYKOrKRzNPAJYu-m1OsSY1wYVVloMlc 11/22/17, 12U59

Page 13 of 18
 C. Aspirin are best for patients with flu-like symptom
D. It is a prostaglandin inhibitor that decreases the inflammatory process.

80. Your patient has been receiving ibuprofen for many years to relieve the pain from
Osteoarthritis. Which of the following assessment needs to be done?
A. An electrocardiogram
B. Respiratory auscultation
C. CBC with differential
D. Renal evaluation

81. Organ transplants are often rejected by the body because the T cells recognized the
transplanted cells as foreign and try to destroy them. Treatment with an immune suppressant
is intended to:
A. Activate antibody production
B. Stimulate interleukin release
C. Stimulate thymus secretions
D. Block the inflammatory reaction

82. Vaccines are used to stimulate:

A. Passive immunity to a foreign protein
B. Serum sickness
C. Active immunity to a foreign protein
D. A mild disease in healthy people

83. Which of the following is a common adverse effects associated with routine
immunizations?
A. Difficulty of breathing
B. Cough and shortness of breath
C. alertness and sense of well being
D. Pain, redness, swelling

84. A client is taking aspirin for arthritis. Which of adverse reaction should the nurse teach the
client to report to the health care provider?
A. tinnitus
B. seizures
C. sinusitis
D. palpitations

85. The Non Steroidal Anti-Inflammatory Drugs block the signs and symptoms of
inflammation at the site of injury or trauma. By blocking COX-1 enzymes, these drugs block
A. fever regulation

https://lookaside.fbsbx.com/file/drill-II%20pharma%20cardio-im…wzut_UnCJYRG0wIRFUq_iVvYKOrKRzNPAJYu-m1OsSY1wYVVloMlc 11/22/17, 12U59

Page 14 of 18
 B. prostaglandin that protects the stomach lining
C. swelling in the periphery
D. liver function

86. A salicylate is contraindicated in patients who have had surgery within the past week for
which reason?
A. Increased risk for allergic reaction
B. Increased risk for toxicity
C. Increased risk for bleeding
D. Increased risk for fluid imbalance

87. A man who was working on his outside deck comes to the emergency department after
sustaining a puncture wound of his hand from a large nail. Which of the following would the
nurse expect to administer?
A. Zoster vaccine
B. Hepatitis A vaccine
C. Lymphocyte immune globulin
D. Tetanus toxoid

88. Which of the following options best describes Anemia?

a. A decrease in number of red blood cells
b. A lack of iron in the body
c. A lack of vitamin B12 in the body
d. An excessive number of platelets

89. In a healthy person, very little iron is needed on a daily basis. Which of the following
options will not predispose the patient to iron deficiency?
a. Heavy menstrual flow
b. Internal bleeding
c. Bile duct obstruction
d. Traumatic injury and loss of blood

90. For which of the following indications will Epogen (epoetinalfa) would be the drug of
choice?
a. For acute blood loss during surgery
b. To replace blood loss from traumatic injury
c. For treatment of anemia during lactation
d. For treatment of anemia associated with renal failure

91. Which of the following options will hinder the absorption of Iron from the gastrointestinal
tract when taken simultaneously with it?

https://lookaside.fbsbx.com/file/drill-II%20pharma%20cardio-im…wzut_UnCJYRG0wIRFUq_iVvYKOrKRzNPAJYu-m1OsSY1wYVVloMlc 11/22/17, 12U59

Page 15 of 18
 a. Protein
b. Dairy products
c. Anticoagulants
d. Any other drugs

92. Which of the following options will enhance the absorption of Iron from the
gastrointestinal tract when taken simultaneously with it?
a. Vitamin A
b. Vitamin C
c. Vitamin B
d. Vitamin D

93. Which of the following statements best refers to Chemotaxis?

a. It is the ability to attract neutrophils and to stimulate them and other macrophages in
the area to be very aggressive.
b. It is a common signs of various inflammatory diseases which also cause reduced
activity and save energy.
c. It refers to humoral immunity
d. It refers to the action of Leukotrienes that affect the brain to induce slow-wave sleep,

94. The nurse is preparing to administer varicella vaccine to a young woman. Which factor
has the greatest implication for this young woman’s care?
A. The patient tells the nurse she is “afraid of needles”
B. The medical record indicates that she is allergic to eggs
C. The medical history indicates that the patient had a history of leukemia as a young child
D. The patient appears to be pregnant

95. Which of the following options best describe s Erythropoietin-stimulating agents like
Epoetin Alpha?
A. It is a Biologic response modifier
B. It is a Non Steroidal Anti Inflammatory drug (NSAID)
C. It is a Uric Acid Inhibitor
D. It inhibits phagocytosis.

96. Which of the following options best describe Colchicine?

a. is an antiinflammatory gout drug
b. It inhibits the final steps of uric acid biosynthesis and therefore lowers serum uric
acid levels, preventing the attack.
c. Used as prophylactic to prevent gout
d. Indicated for gout patients with renal impairment.

97. Which of the following options best describe Allopurinol (Zyloprim)

https://lookaside.fbsbx.com/file/drill-II%20pharma%20cardio-im…wzut_UnCJYRG0wIRFUq_iVvYKOrKRzNPAJYu-m1OsSY1wYVVloMlc 11/22/17, 12U59

Page 16 of 18
 a. It is a uric acid inhibitor
b. It inhibits the migration of leukocytes to the inflamed site
c. It does not inhibit uric acid synthesis
d. It should not be used if patient has severe renal, cardiac or GI problem.

98. A patient is taking ibuprofen, the nurse understands that COX-1 and COX -2inhibitors are
different in that ibuprofen is more likely than celecoxib to cause which adverse effect?
a. Fever
b. Constipation
c. Peptic ulcer disease?
d. Metallic taste when eating

99. When teaching patient receiving allopurinol, what should the nurse encourage the patient
to do?
a. Eat more meat
b. Increase vitamin c intake
c. Have annual eye examination
d. Take medication 2 hours before meals

100. A patient admitted to the hospital with an acute gout attack. The nurse expects that
which medication will be ordered to treat acute gout?
a. Colchicine
b. Allopurinol
c. Probenecid
d. Sulfinpyrazone

101. Which of the following options affects the brain to induce slow-wave sleep, which is
believed to be an important energy conservation measure for fighting the invader?
a. Leukotrienes
b. Prostaglandin
c. thymosin
d. interferon

102. Which of the following immune cells responds to chemical indicators of immune
activity and stimulate lymphocytes, including B cells, to be more aggressive and responsive?
a. Helper T-cells
b. Cytotoxic T cells
c. Suppressor T cells
d. Natural killer cells

https://lookaside.fbsbx.com/file/drill-II%20pharma%20cardio-im…wzut_UnCJYRG0wIRFUq_iVvYKOrKRzNPAJYu-m1OsSY1wYVVloMlc 11/22/17, 12U59

Page 17 of 18
 103. Which of the following Immunoglobulins responds to first exposure to infectious
microorganism?
a. IgM
b. IgG
c. IgA
d. IgD

104. Which of the following options is secreted by cells that have been invaded by viruses
and other stimuli to prevent viral replication, suppress malignant cell replication and tumor
growth?
a. Interferon
b. Interleukin I
c. Interleukin II
d. Prostaglandin

105. Which of the following options best describesnon steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
(NSAIDs)
a. NSAIDs inhibits prostaglandin synthesis by blocking cyclooxygenase-1 and -2
receptor sites, leading to an anti-inflammatoryeffect, analgesia, and antipyretic
effects.
b. NSAIDs acts directly on the hypothalamus to cause vasodilation and sweating,
which will reduce fever.
c. NSAIDs inhibit phagocytosis
d. NSAIDs assist the immune system to fights specific pathogens or cancer cells.

https://lookaside.fbsbx.com/file/drill-II%20pharma%20cardio-im…wzut_UnCJYRG0wIRFUq_iVvYKOrKRzNPAJYu-m1OsSY1wYVVloMlc 11/22/17, 12U59

Page 18 of 18