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5.

Mengoperasikan sistem listrik, sistem elektronik dan sistem


kontrol (Operate electrical,electronic andcontrol systems)
1. An important quantity which is useful in circuit analysis is known as
conductance G (Siemens). Which of the formulas A to D expresses the
conductance for this circuit?
A. G = 1 / R
B. G = 2 R
C. G = I / R
D. G = R * V

2. In terms of instrumentation and measurement, what is an I/P Transducer?


A. A transducer that converts a known electric current to a
pressure proportional to the current.
B. A transducer that increases a pressure signal which is too low
to give the desired effect.
C. A transducer that is inverting a pressure signal.
D. A transducer that converts a pressure to a proportional electric
signal.

3. Measuring instruments must be routinely calibrated. What is the meant by


instrument calibration?
A. Comparing input and output values against a documented
standard
B. Comparing two instruments of the same type
C. Adjusting size to fit process connection
D. Turning gauge too an easy reading position

4. Thermistors are temperature sensitive devices. A positive temperature


coefficient thermistor will typically have
A. Relatively non linear characteristic
B. Relatively linear characteristic
C. Inaccurate measurement
D. Variable reliability

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5. This block diagram illustrates an elementary control system. What is the


common name for this type of system?
A. Closed loop feed back system
B. Open loop feed back system
C. Feed forward system
D. Scmitt trigger

6. Transducers are devices which translate the value of one measured value
into diferent measurement units (for instance units of temperature to
millivlots). What is the meant by the “Range” of a transducer?
A. The difference between possible maximum and minimum
measurement
B. The maximum output signal
C. The type of measurement
D. The maximum length of the connecting leads

7. What is a ZENER BARRIER?


A. A zener barrier is a unit made to obtain intrinsic safety in
installations for instrumentation in hazardous areas.
B. A zener barrier is a device which limits the current drawn
byan induction motor.
C. A zener barrier is a diode bridge used in rectifiers.
D. A zener barrier is a device that allows the current to pass only
one direction.

8. What is the resistance value of this resistor:


A. 10 M ohm
B. 230 k ohm
C. 2,3 k ohm
D. 68 k ohm

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9. What type of component does this graphical symbol illustrate?


A. Pressure-reducing regulator.
B. Pressure relief valve
C. Pressure switch
D. Flow controller

10. What will be the probable outcome, if the amplification is set too high on a
temperature controller?
A. The process will oscillate and get out of control
B. Nothing
C. The process response will be very slow
D. The set-point will change

11. Which component does this graphical symbol illustrate?


A. Pressure indicator, installed on panel/console
B. Pressure instument, installed locally
C. Pressure relief valve, self-contained
D. PH analyzer

12. Which of the following instruments is normally part of a control-loop?


A. Transducer
B. Indicator
C. Plotter
D. Gauge

13. Which of the following systems will include a D/P transmitter in the
control-loop
A. Pressure
B. Temperature
C. Smoke indication
D. Oil mist

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14. Why is it important that a transmitter has been correctly installed at the
correct location
A. The control system is depending on the best possible process
signal
B. It is important to have easy access to the transmitter for
maintenance
C. It must be easy to observe for troubleshooting
D. Can be installed anywhere in the piping system

15. A resistor has three red bands. If they all carry information about
resistance value as opposed to tolerance, what is the indicated resistance?
A. 2200 ohm
B. 22 ohm
C. 222 ohm
D. 220 ohm

16. A thermistor may be used to measure temperature. Which of the following


descriptions most accurately describes this device?
A. Temp sensitive semi-conductor
B. Junction of two dissimilar metals
C. Capacitance probe
D. Platinium wire resistor

17. During routine checking of alarm functions of main and auxiliary


equipment, some setpoints are cancelled due to a mistake. What is the
appropriate routine to ensure correct setpoints are set?
A. Consult with the instruction manual for the equipment in
question for correct values.
B. Ask your colleague if he remembers the correct setpoint
C. Check from previous records for correct values
D. Select a setpoint based on present condition allowing for a
reasonable safety margin.

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18. In installations of INTRINSICALLY SAFE equipment it is required that


all cabling should be separated from non-intrinsically safe equipment, and
(where colour coding is relied upon) to be of a special colour. What
colour is that?
A. Blue
B. Green/yellow
C. Red
D. Orange

19. In measurement systems there is often a need to specify performance


characteristics. One such characteristic may be referred to as 'dead band'.
What is the definition of DEAD BAND?
A. The change needed in the input signal to produce a change
in the output signal.
B. The change in the output signal produced by a certain
change in the input signal.
C. The largest difference in the output signal for the same
change in the input signal.
D. A missing electrical signal with no output.

20. In measurement systems, which of the listed sensors is suitable for


physical displacement?
A. Strain gauge
B. Thermocouple
C. Thermistor
D. Pt 500

21. In terms of electronic hardware, what is the meaning of the abbreviation


PCB?
A. Printed Circuit Board
B. Power Control Bridge
C. Positive Colour Board
D. Positive Current Biased

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22. In terms of instrumentation and measurement, what is a digital signal?


A. A signal with discrete levels such as 0 = "low" and 1 = "High"
B. A signal indicating Revolutions per minute (RPM)
C. A signal used by multimeters to measure resistance.
D. The reading of a multimeter when indicating voltage, current
or resistance.

23. It is common practice to connect a resistor over an alarm contact (see


diagram) in many applications. Why is this connection used?
A. To monitor the cable/wires for break.
B. To avoid sparks on the contacts when opening and closing.
C. To stabilise power consumption.
D. Enable measuring the total resistance of the circuit.

24. Measurement and transmission of electronic values may be in the form of


digital or analogue signals. What is an analogue signal?
A. A continually variable electric signal.
B. A measure of electric current or voltage
C. A measure of voltage using an oscilloscope.
D. A stable electric signal.

25. P = U x I x Root of 3) x cos (fi) What is the formula for I ?


A. Formula 1
B. Formula 2
C. Formula 3
D. Formula 4

26. PT-100 sensors are some times used with 3 or 4 wires. What is the reason
for this?
A. Higher measuring accuracy.
B. Higher mechanical strength of the cable.
C. Because of power-consumption.
D. For fault indication.

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27. Radio frequency signals can carry information from one place to another if
they are modulated. There are several ways to modulate a carrier. Which
modulating method is illustrated here?
A. Amplitude modulation (AM)
B. Frequency modulation (FM)
C. Pulse-width modulation (PWM)
D. Pulse-code modulation (PCM)

28. Some areas of ships require that any electrical equipment used must be
intrinsically safe. What is meant by being intrinsically safe?
A. Can not produce enough energy to ignite a gas (explode)?
B. Electric wiring executed by approved manufacture?
C. Any electrical product, being water resistant?
D. Explosion proof product having a special wiring system?

29. Some equipment may be marked with the following symbol: What does it
mean?
A. Intrinsically safe.
B. Explosion proof.
C. Internally explosion proof.
D. Not safe in gas dangerous area.

30. The circuit consists of two inductors, L(1) = 6 H and L(2) = 12H,
connected in parallel. Calculate the equivalent L(S) of the two inductors.
A. L(S) = 4H
B. L(S) = 18 H
C. L(S) = 1,5 H
D. L(S) = 0,667H

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31. The figures show a graphical symbol for a particular electronic


component and a typical operating characteristic for the same. Which
component?
A. Transistor
B. Tunnel diode
C. Thyristor
D. Zener diode

32. The figures show a graphical symbol for a particular electronic component
and a typical operating characteristic for the same component. Which
component?
A. Triac
B. Zener diode
C. Tunnel diode
D. Field effect transistor

33. The physical size of a resistor is an indicator of what aspect of it's


specification?
A. Power dissipation capability
B. Total resistance
C. Resistivity
D. Tolerance

34. The range of a transducer is 0-200 bar. The output signal is 4-20 mA.
What is the span of the output signal?
A. 16 mA
B. 20 mA
C. 24 mA
D. 4 mA

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35. Thermocouples are often used for measuring temperatures. Which of the
following descriptions explains the principle of operation of a
thermocouple?
A. A junction between two dissimilar metals generates a
small voltage.
B. A semi-conductor device that exhibits a negative
coefficient of resistance with temperature.
C. A resistance device that exhibits a positive coefficient
of resistance with temperature.
D. A quartz crystal that changes its resonant frequency
with temperature.

36. This circuit is widely used for rectification of AC into DC. Which of the
diagrams is correct for the out- put voltage when the input voltage is sine-
shaped as shown?
A. Figure 1
B. Figure 2
C. Figure 3
D. Figure 4

37. This circuit consists of two capacitors, C(1) = 6 µF and C(2) = 12 µF, in
series. Calculate the equivalent C(S) of the two capacitors.
A. C(S) = 4 µF
B. C(S) =2µF
C. C(S)=1,5µF
D. C(S) =18µF

38. This circuit consists of two resistances, R1 = 6 ohm and R2 = 12 ohm ,


connected in series. Calculate the equivalent resistance R(S) .
A. R(S) =18 ohm
B. R(S) = 4 ohm
C. R(S) = 72 ohm
D. R(S) =1,5 ohm

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39. This circuit consists of two resistances, R(1)= 12 ohm and R(2) = 6 ohm,
connected in parallel. Calculate the equivalent value R(S) of the two
resistances.
A. R(S)= 4 ohm
B. R(S) =18 ohm
C. R(S)=2ohm
D. R(S) =1,5 ohm

40. This circuit is a logic gate with two input signals, A and B, and one output
signal Q. Which type of logic function does the gate perform?
A. NOR gate
B. NAND gate
C. OR gate
D. AND gate

41. This graphical symbol is a logic gate with truth table. Which gate?
A. OR
B. AND
C. NOR
D. NAND

42. This is the graphical symbol and truth table for a logic gate. Which gate?
A. NOR
B. NAND
C. OR
D. AND

43. This resistor has the value of 68 k ohm. Which colour code should be
marked on the rings (assume ring d is the tolerance ring)?
A. a. blue b. grey c. orange
B. a. black b. red c. orange
C. a. violet b. green c. yellow
D. a. red b. black c. yellow

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44. Two reference points for pressure exist, absolute zero and atmospheric
pressure. What is the common name pressures measured relative to
atmospheric pressure?
A. Gauge pressure
B. Atmospheric pressure
C. Absolute pressure
D. Pressure drop

45. Use Kirchoff's voltage law and Ohm's law to calculate the voltage V2
across the resistance R2.
A. 4,5V
B. 0,75V
C. 6V
D. 2V

46. What can be measured by means of a manometer?


A. Pressure
B. Strain
C. Temperature
D. Motion

47. What function is this operational amplifier circuit performing?


A. Inverting amplifier
B. Non-inverting amplifier
C. Integrator
D. Differentiator

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48. What is the difference between a PRESSURE SWITCH and a PRESSURE


TRANSMITTER, if any?
A. The pressure switch has contact(s) that will change
between open and closed position.The pressure
transmitter converts a pressure signal into an electric
signal.
B. There is no difference.
C. The pressure switch gives out an analogue signal
depending on the switch setting.The pressure
transmitter gives out a binary signal depending on the
pressure.
D. The pressure switch gives out a digital signal
dependent on pressure and temperature.The pressure
transmitter converts a pressure signal to a digital
signal.

49. What is the main difference between a THERMOSTAT and a


TEMPERATURE TRANSMITTER, if any?
A. The thermostat has one or more contacts (open or
closed) depending on the temperature/setting. The
temperature transmitter converts a temperature signal
to an electric signal.
B. There is no difference.
C. The thermostat gives out an analogue signal depending
on the switch setting. The temperature transmitter
gives out a binary signal depending on the temperature.
D. The temperature transmitter is a digital component
while the thermostat is an analogue component.

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50. What type of signal output is derived from a NiCr/Ni thermocouple?


A. mV.
B. Ohm.
C. mA.
D. Watt

51. When a diode is used to convert AC to DC, it is usually referred to as


which of the following?
A. Rectifier
B. Controller
C. Alternator
D. Regulator

52. When measuring level of liquids with a differential pressure meter, the
name of the sensing device is:
A. Pressure diaphragm
B. Float
C. Capacitance probe
D. Positive displacement tube

53. When calibrating a pressure transducer we have to adjust both SPAN and
ZERO. Please indicate in which order these adjustments should be done.
A. First Zero adjustment and the Span adjustment. Then
Zero should be rechecked.
B. First Span adjustment and then Zero adjustment. After
that Span setting should be checked again.
C. First Span adjustment and then Zero adjustment. Then
do not adjust anything.
D. The order of adjustment is of no importance.

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54. When calibrating an instrument what is the most common first step in the
procedure ?
A. Adjustment of Zero-point
B. Adjustment of span
C. Adjustment of range
D. Adjustment of linearity

55. When calibrating an instrument what is the most common second step in
the procedure?
A. Check linearity
B. Adjustment of span
C. Adjustment of range
D. Adjustment of Zero-point

56. When measuring flow of fluids with a fixed area flow meter, the name of
the sensing device is?
A. Orifice plate
B. Float
C. Turbine rotor
D. Positive displacement rotor

57. Which component does this graphical symbol illustrate?


A. Resistance temperature sensor
B. Potentiometer
C. Thermocouple
D. Triac

58. Which device does this graphical symbol illustrate?


A. Remote level controller with indicator
B. Local level controller with indicator
C. Level switch for centre-tank
D. Low carbon incinerator

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59. Which diagram is the symbol for a THYRISTOR?


A. Figure 2.
B. Figure 1.
C. Figure 3:
D. Figure 4.

60. Which electronic component does this graphical symbol illustrate?


A. Bipolar transistor
B. Silicon controlled rectifier
C. Diode
D. Field Effect Transistor

61. Which electronic component does this graphical symbol represent:


A. Resistor, 3300 ohms
B. Electric heater, 3.3 kilowatts
C. Capacitor, 3.3 Uf
D. Inductive reactor, 3.3 kH

62. Which electronic component does this graphical symbol represent?


A. Capacitor
B. Transformer
C. Resistance
D. Temperature sensor

63. Which electronic component does this graphical symbol represent?


A. Potentiometer, 10 kilo-ohms
B. Variable electrical heater, 10 kilo-watts
C. Auto transformer,10kVA
D. Variable inductive reactor

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64. Which electronic component does this graphical symbol represent?


A. Transistor
B. Silicon controlled rectifier
C. Diode
D. Tunnel diode

65. Which electronic component is this graphical symbol illustrating:


A. Zener diode
B. Transistor
C. Silicon controlled rectifier
D. Triac

66. Which electronic component or system of components does this graphical


symbol illustrate ?
A. Inverter
B. Battery charger
C. Low pass filter
D. Auto transformer

67. Which electronic component or system of components is this graphical


symbol illustrating:
A. Operational amplifier
B. Electronic counter
C. Flip-flop
D. Cathode ray tube

68. Which function is this operational amplifier performing?


A. Non-inverting amplifier
B. Inverting amplifier
C. Integrator
D. Differentiator

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69. Which of the 4 alternatives shows the symbol for a PNP transistor?
A. Figure 2.
B. Figure 1.
C. Figure 3.
D. Figure 4.

70. Which of the following detectors is commonly used for sensing if a


watertight steel door is closed or open?
A. Proximity switch
B. Synchro
C. Strain gauge
D. Transducer

71. Which of the following detectors would you choose for measuring the
torque of a steel shaft?
A. Strain gauge
B. Ultrasonic gauge
C. Synchro
D. Pyrometer

72. Which of the following letter combinations represents a flow indicating


controller on a process and instrumentation diagram
A. FIC
B. LIR
C. FLO
D. FIR

73. Which of the following letter combinations represents a temperature


controller on a process and instrumentation diagram?
A. TC
B. TIC
C. PIC
D. FIC

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74. Which type temperature sensors are shown on the picture?


A. Resistance sensors
B. Thermocouple sensors
C. Thermistors type NTC
D. Thermistor type PTC

75. A 450 volt 3 phase brushless alternator will have the following
combination of items mounted on the rotor:
A. 3 phase excitation winding/rectifier bank/main field
winding
B. 3 phase excitation winding/ main field winding
C. 1 phase excitation field winding/rectifier bank/main
field winding
D. Excitation field winding/main field winding

76. A second alternator has just been synchronized onto the main switchboard,
and it is necessary to equally share the load between the "running" and
incoming alternators. What should be done first?
A. Raise the governor speed controller of the incoming
alternator and reduce the governor speed controller of
the alternator already on the switchboard
B. Adjust voltage rheostat for the incoming alternator on
the front of the switchboard
C. Lower the governor speed controller of the incoming
alternator and increase the governor speed controller of
the alternator already on the switchboard
D. Trip the circuit breaker of the incoming alternator and
check the voltage and speed adjustments before trying
again

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77. After successful synchronising an incoming machine the kW and kVar


loading are respectively transferred by the following controls:
A. Speed governor and voltage regulator
B. Current regulator and voltage regulator
C. Voltage regulator and synchroscope
D. Speed governor and load power factor

78. Alteration of the excitation voltage (or field current) of one alternator
operating in parallel, will cause which change in that alternators output:
A. Reactive load (kVAR)
B. Active load (kW)
C. Frequency
D. None of the mentioned alternatives

79. Before taking insulation resistance readings of generator windings the


automatic voltage regulators should be isolated and all semiconductor short
circuited or disconnected in order to:
A. Prevent damage to sensitive electronic components
from high voltage tester
B. Protect insulation resistance tester and leads from
being damaged
C. Prevent charging of capacitive components within the
automatic voltage regulator causing false regulation
when generator restarts
D. Prevent operation of automatic voltage regulator
during insulation testing

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80. Consider a 450 volt, 859 kW rated generator has not been in operation for
several weeks. Prior to starting, insulation resistance readings are taken.
The minimum acceptable insulation resistance reading on the main stator
winding to allow you to proceed with running the generator is:
A. 1 000 000 Ohms
B. 10 Ohms
C. 1000 Ohms
D. 10 000 Ohms

81. Consider generator 1 and 2 to be initially working in parallel. If prime-


mover 2 suffers a total fuel loss what is the likely outcome?
A. No.2 generator trips on reverse power
B. Generator set 2 trips on reverse speed
C. No.1 machine overloads and trips out on overspeed
D. No.1 machine overspeeds and trips out on overload

82. Due to failure of one of the carbon brushes the excitation voltage is lost on
one alternator that is operating in parallel. Will that alternator then:
A. Completely lose its share of the load causing the
auxiliary engine to speed up
B. Overload due to reduced voltage output and increased
current
C. Continue to share the active load (kW) but have very
high reactive load (kVAR)
D. Try to take all the load and so trip the main circuit
breaker

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83. During regular inspection of alternator windings it is found that windings


are always covered with a heavy oil film coming from the atmosphere
surrounding the auxiliary engine. After cleaning with an approved solvent,
what should be done?
A. Improve material of intake air filters
B. Take no additional action
C. Blank off intake air filters
D. Reinsulate the windings after each cleaning

84. Electrical generators must provide electrical power at a steady, regulated


voltage. Automatic voltage regulators are used to control the output
voltage of alternators at varying load conditions, by which of the
alternative actions shown below?
A. Varying the excitation field strength by regulating
excitation voltage/current
B. Regulating the voltage signal to the engine governor to
regulate the speed to the desired load condition
C. Supplying variable current to compounding and no load
transformers in the alternator stator winding circuit
D. All of the mentioned alternatives

85. For ideal synchronising as the incomer circuit breaker contacts make, the
phase angle difference between the incomer e.m.f. and the busbar voltage
should be:
A. 0°
B. 30° behind
C. 90° lag
D. 30° ahead

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86. Generators must be synchronised before they can operate in parallel.


During synchronising, the incoming generator should be running slightly
"fast" compared to the bus bar frequency. This is to ensure that the:
A. Incoming machine picks up as a generator
B. Most rapid synchronising action is achieved
C. Incomers reverse power trip is tested
D. Incomer picks up as a motor

87. Generators work on the principle of electromagnetic induction. The


internal e.m.f. generated in the phase windings of an a.c. generator is
controlled by:
A. The diesel speed and excitation current.
B. The internal volt drop and the load current.
C. The diesel speed, magnetising force and load current.
D. The internal volt drop and the residual magnetism.

88. Great care must be taken when manually paralleling two or more
alternators. At which point would you engage the main circuit breaker of
the incoming alternator when paralleling two alternators?
A. With the pointer of the synchroscope moving slowly
clockwise and almost at 0° (12 O'clock) or both
synchronizing lamps dark (off)
B. With the pointer of the synchronizer stopped at any
position and both synchronizing lamps bright (on)
C. With the pointer of the synchroscope rotating fast and
both synchronizing lamps flashing on and off
D. With the pointer of the synchroscope stopped at 0 (12
O'clock) or both synchronising lights bright

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89. If the A.C. line current in a generator stator is doubled, the heating effect
in the stator windings will:
A. Quadruple
B. Remain about the same.
C. Half.
D. Double.

90. It is possible to operate two similar generators in parallel at equal power


(kW) but at different power factors. The generator with lower power factor
will run:
A. Hotter due to increased current
B. Slower due to increased current
C. Faster due to increased voltage
D. Cooler due to increased speed

91. Regular (at least weekly) testing of the emergency generator must be
performed to check:
A. Its readiness to perform as specified.
B. Its environmental noise factor during emergency fire-
drills.
C. Its voltage/current and prime mover characteristics.
D. Its compliance with the shipbuilder's
recommendations.

92. Ship's generators must be synchronised before they can be connected to


the same supply network. Prior to synchronising, the generator voltage and
frequency are respectively adjusted by:
A. AVR and speed governor
B. Voltmeter and frequency meter
C. Speed governor and load power factor controller
D. Synchroscope and speed governor

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93. The internal e.m.f. generated in the phase windings of a lightly loaded a.c.
generator is controlled by:
A. The prime mover speed and excitation current.
B. The internal volt drop and the load current.
C. The prime mover and load current.
D. The internal volt drop and the residual magnetism.

94. The power requirements for the excitation winding/circuit for a 3-phase
alternator operating at rated output power are supplied by:
A. The alternators output itself via the automatic voltage
regulator and the prime mover
B. Independent battery supply with the AVR
C. Independent power supply and rectifier unit
D. The main switchboard via a three phase rectifier

95. The speed of ship's generator is regulated by the governor. A 10%


reduction in generator speed occurs due to a faulty governor. The likely
consequence for all motors powered from this generator is to:
A. Reduce motor speed by about 10%’
B. Increase motor power by about 10%
C. Increase motor speed by about 10%
D. Reduce motor volt drop by about 10%

96. The two instruments necessary for generator synchronising are:


A. Voltmeter and synchroscope
B. kW meter and frequency meter
C. Amp-meter and volt-meter
D. Synchroscope and kVar-meter

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97. Two alternators are operating in parallel at 75% load capacity, but then
one of them trips without any warning. What is the first action that should
be taken?
A. Trip/stop all nonessential loads that are connected to
the switchboard
B. Check the circuit breaker of the tripped alternator
C. Restart and connect the tripped alternator immediately
D. Start and connect the emergency alternator

98. Under normal conditions, the electric power for services supplied from the
emergency switchboard is supplied from:
A. The main generating plant.
B. Emergency batteries
C. An emergency battery charger.
D. A compressed air driven generator.

99. What determines the power factor of an alternator when it is connected


singularly to the switchboard?
A. The load connected to the switchboard
B. The generated voltage and AVR setting
C. The excitation voltage
D. Number of pairs of pole coils in the excitation winding

100. What is the purpose of the alternator reverse power trip?


A. To prevent the alternator from "motoring" by being
supplied power from other parallel alternator and thus
being damaged
B. To prevent parallel operation if the excitation field
voltage is reversed
C. To prevent the alternator from being paralleled if it is
out of phase with the main switchboard
D. To give automatic disconnection of the circuit breaker
when you are taking the alternator off the switchboard

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101. When 3 phase alternators are operating in parallel, it is very important that
the reactive load is evenly shared so that the total alternator loads are
evenly shared. If the total alternator load is the vector sum of active and
reactive loads, which side of the vector diagram (power triangle) shown
represents the reactive load?
A. (Y)
B. (X)
C. Either (X) or (Y)
D. None of the mentioned alternatives

102. When a large motor load suddenly is disconnected from the switchboard
and the generator is AVR controlled, what will the output voltage do?
A. Initially rise, then reset to the set value.
B. Remain approximately constant, due to AVR action.
C. Initially fall, then reset to the set value.
D. Remain approximately constant, due to governor
action.

103. When manually paralleling two alternators the pointer of the synchroscope
may slowly stop rotating and remain stopped in one position before the
circuit breaker is closed. This would indicate:
A. The frequency of the incoming alternator is the same
as that of the main switchboard
B. The synchroscope is not functioning properly and
should be checked
C. The voltage of the incoming alternator is the same as
that of the main switchboard
D. The incoming alternator is in phase with the
switchboard, but the frequency is not the same

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104. When paralleling two alternators they must have:


A. Equal number of phases, phase sequence and
frequency
B. Same number of phases, phase rotation and power
rating
C. Same phase rotation and voltage rating
D. Same frequency, voltage and power factor

105. When unloading a generator, it is necessary to gradually decrease the load


in order to avoid:
A. Undue overspeeding.
B. Undue overload on the switchboard.
C. Undue overcurrent
D. Undue temperature rise.

106. Which group of electrical services are likely to be supplied from an


emergencygenerator?
A. Steering gear and engine room alarm system
B. Engine room lighting and bow thruster
C. Galley and air conditioning
D. Sound powered telephone system

107. With two alternators running in parallel, and one is to be disconnected.


The first step is to:
A. Remove the load from the alternator to be stopped
B. Make sure the load is evenly shared
C. Trip the main circuit breaker
D. Increase the frequency on the switchboard

108. In extreme circumstances what is the allowable max & min voltage tolerance?
A. 85% - 120%
B. 90% - 110%
C. 75% - 125%
D. 70% - 130%

1232
DPKP

109. Where is a generator's Reverse Power protection relay fitted?


A. Between the generator and the consumers
B. Between the breaker and the consumers
C. Between the generator and the bus bars
D. Between the breaker connecting bars

110. Line to line voltage of a Delta connected 3 phase alternator is found to be 448
Volt. What is the phase voltage?
A. 311.13 Volt
B. 440 Volt
C. 220 Volt
D. 254.33 Volt

111. The phase current in a Delta connected alternator is found to be 127 A. What is
the line current?
A. 73.32 Amps
B. 127 Amps
C. 219.97 Amps
D. 153.52 Amps

112. The kWatt indicator indicates 300 kWatt and the kVAR indicator shows 200
kVAR. What is the Power Factor?
A. 0.864
B. 0.832
C. 0.799
D. 0.766

113. What can happen with only one generator on load when several large fans are
started at the same time?
A. The fans will not start
B. The preferential trips will operate
C. The generator engine may fail
D. The generator engine may trip on over speed

1233
DPKP

114. How many seconds time delay is considered normal before a generator's Reverse
Trip Relay operates?
A. 3 - 5 seconds
B. 5 - 7 seconds
C. 1 - 3 seconds
D. 7 - 8 seconds

115. For instantaneous operation of preference overload tripping, at what percentage


of the total rated current is the device usually set?
A. 125%
B. 110 %
C. 120 %
D. 115%

116. With large load change what maintains steady voltage?


A. Automatic voltage regulator &flywheel
B. Governor & automatic voltage regulator
C. Automatic voltage regulator
D. Flywheel & governor

117. How is the power output of an alternator controlled?


A. By the excitation current in the stator
B. By the resistance bridge in the main switchboard
C. By the excitation current in the rotor
D. By the alternator speed

118. Fan alternator runs at 900 RPM and delivers AC current at 60 Hz, how many
pole pairs does this alternator have?
A. Two
B. Four
C. Eight
D. Six

1234
DPKP

119. The principle of an automatic voltage regulator (AVR) is to produce an excitation


current proportional to what?
A. The speed of the alternator
B. The output voltage and the output current of the alternator
C. The output voltage of the alternator
D. The output current of the alternator

120. Name the three conditions which must prevail to put two alternators in parallel?
A. Voltage equal, frequency equal, frequency in phase
B. Same current, same type of alternator, same frequency
C. Voltage equal, current equal, frequency equal
D. Same type alternator, same frequency, frequency in phase

121. Two generators are running in parallel. One is delivering 300 Amps more than
the other. What is the best course of action?
A. Adjust the speed of one generator
B. Adjust the speed of both generators
C. Replace the AVR of the generator which has the highest current output
D. Adjust the excitation of the two generators to bring them level

122. How is the excitation current transmitted to the rotor?


A. Generated from within the rotor
B. Via slip rings and brushes
C. Via the tacho generator
D. Via a commutator and brushes

123. Why are alternator poles fabricated in laminated form?


A. Prevent build up of unwanted eddy currents
B. Prevent distortion due to temperature variation
C. For ease of manufacture
D. Makes adjustment of stator weight easier

1235
DPKP

124. How will the plastic insulation in a cable be affected if the temperature exceeds
100 ° Celsius?
A. The insulation is likelyto be severely damaged
B. Nothing as the insulation is designed to withstand more than 500 °Celsius
C. The life-span of the cable will be reduced in accordance with the conductor
life span formula
D. The insulation resistance is increased as the heat will remove any trace of
humidity

125. What will happen when an earth fault occurs on one line of an insulated
distribution system?
A. The system will be in overload and both line fuses trip
B. No fuses will trip, the system is isolated from the earth
C. The opposite line fuse will trip due overload
D. The line will short circuit with the earth and the line fuse trips

126. What is the purpose of the cable gland in addition to providing a watertight seal?
A. To maintain the mechanical properties of the cable
B. To provide a gas tight seal
C. To allow minor sliding movements of the cable
D. As bulkhead or penetrating plate reinforcement

127. What do wire size numbers indicate?(e.g. sizes 10,12 etc.)


A. Wire outside diameter in millimetres
B. Mre section in square millimetres
C. Progressive numbering in Amps
D. Retrogressive numbering in " AWG"

128. If a cable length 100m, dia.1.25 mm has a resistance of 30 Ohm, what length
cable of same material with dia.0.75 mm has a resistance of 25 Ohm?
A. 25 metres
B. 30 metres
C. 15 metres
D. 20 metres

1236
DPKP

129. What is a Clamp meter used for?


A. To measure cable resistance
B. To measure current in a single cable
C. To measure cable voltage
D. To measure current in a three phase cable

130. Except when used as bus-bars, which conductor number (AWG), or larger should
always be stranded?
A. No12 AWG
B. No 10 AWG
C. No 6 AWG
D. No 8 AWG

131. Which of the following is not a requirement for the Navigation light distribution
board?
A. Location on the Bridge
B. Always supplied from batteries
C. Audible and visual lamp failure alarm
D. Double pole switch.

132. In a fluorescent lamp what is used to improve the power factor?


A. Capacitor
B. Thyristor
C. Mercury gas
D. Coil

133. In incandescent lights what is the filament constructed from?


A. Chromium
B. Tungsten
C. Nickel
D. Carbon

1237
DPKP

134. What is the danger of fitting too high wattage lamps in flameproof fittings?
A. Internal heat generated will damage the fitting
B. Increase in surface heat of fitting
C. Seal could be damaged by extra heat
D. Extra power could overload the cable

135. When two masthead lights are fitted what is the required relationship between
them?
A. Frd must be at least 2 metres higher than the aft.0
B. Both must be at the same leue1.0
C. Frd must be at least 4.5 metres higher than the aft.
D. Aft must be at least 4.5 metres higher than the frd.

136. What gases are present in the modern incandescent lamp?


A. Argon and Nitrogen
B. Neon and Nitrogen
C. Vacuum
D. Argon and neon

137. Why is a ballast resistor fitted in fluorescent lamps?


A. Stabilize current and power
B. Performs all of these functions
C. Pre heat the electrodes
D. Provide high starting voltage

138. In an incandescent lamp how much of the energy is converted to light?


A. 20%
B. 40%
C. 80%
D. 60%

1238
DPKP

139. In internal alleyways what is the light spacing regulation?


A. Lights spaced at 2 X alleyway height
B. Lights spaced at 1.5 X alleyway height
C. Lights spaced every 2.5 metres
D. Lights spaced every 2 metres

140. Which of the following is a requirement for the Navigation lighting Distribution
board?
A. Fuse located on the main switchboard
B. Alarm must sound in the engine room
C. Indicator lamps must be in series with the navigation light
D. An alternate supply must be available

141. What is the unit of lighting intensity?


A. Lambert
B. Angstrom
C. Lumen
D. candela

142. What is the purpose of the reverse power trip fitted to an AC alternator?
A. To prevent voltage drop
B. To prevent cycle fluctuation
C. To prevent the alternator being run as a motor
D. To protect the diesel engine in case of overload

143. Why must each voltage system have its own earth fault lamps?
A. To accurately locate the earth fault
B. To make tracing the earth easier
C. Earth faults are not transmitted through the transformers
D. In case of failure of one set

1239
DPKP

144. What is the purpose of the preference load tripping system?


A. Re-connect essential equipment after a blackout
B. Disconnect essential equipment before a short circuit can cause damage
C. To disconnect non-essential equipment in case of generator overload
D. To trip the generator before the overload damages the engine

145. What is most likely cause of an earth indication?


A. A switched off motor has developed a short circuit
B. A deck fitting has been affected by seawater
C. Emergency generator, which is on stand-by, has been C splashed with
seawater
D. Earth fault on the navigation lights

146. When both a fuse and breaker are used on one circuit, when will the fuse blow?
A. A very high short circuit current a
B. An earth fault
C. Continuous moderately high over-current
D. A break in the motor winding

147. What is the wire made from in an HRC fuse?


A. Silver
B. Tungsten
C. Platinum
D. Nickel

148. Why must a stationary generator not be connected to live bus-bars?


A. The alternator will be short-circuited
B. Because the alternator will attempt to run as a motor
C. The breaker will be damaged
D. The alternator already connected will come off the board

1240
DPKP

149. What is the purpose of thermistors fitted to motor windings?


A. Short circuit protection
B. Prevent high starting current
C. Prevent over-speeding
D. Protect from overheating

150. What will be the most likely equipment to be disconnected by the preferential
trip?
A. General Seruice pump
B. Galley
C. Seawater circulating pumps
D. Steering pumps

151. What prevents a stationary alternator from being connected to live bus-bars?
A. Reverse power trip
B. Low cycle trip
C. No volt trip
D.Overload trip

152. How will an earth fault be noticed in an insulated distribution system?


A. The fuse in the faulty circuit will blow
B. The fuse located in the system's neutral point will blow
C. The voltage will drop
D. The system insulation meter will indicate a drop in resistance

153. In the formula e = B I ØSin . What does sin represent?


A. Instantaneous rotational velocity
B. Average rotational velocity
C. Maximum rotational velocity
D. Cycles/second

1241
DPKP

154. The phase current in a Delta connected alternator is found to be 127 A. What is
the line current?
A. 153.52 Amps
B. 127 Amps
C. 73.32 Amps
D. 219.97 Amps

155. The line-to-line current of a Star connected motor is measured at 28 Amps. What
is the phase current?
A. 48.44 Amps
B. 22.72 Amps
C. 16.18 Amps
D. 18.00 Amps

156. What term describes the effective value of an alternating current?


A. RMS
B. Peak
C. Mean
D. Average

157. Give the reason why shore power and ship's power should never be run in
parallel?
A. The shore frequency is rigid, the ship's frequency is not
B. No common earth is available
C. Ship's supply is in STAR, shore supply is in DELTA
D. Voltage drop from shore is different from the ship

158. In the formula e = B I ØSin. What does 'e' represent?


A. Instantaneous voltage
B. RMS voltage
C. Average voltage
D. Maximum voltage

1242
DPKP

159. For value 0 - max in the AC sin wave how far does the rotating vector (phasor)
travel?
A. 180 deg
B. 270 deg
C. 360 deg
D. 90 deg

160. In the AC sin wave what is periodic time?


A. Time for zero to max voltage
B. Cycles/second
C. Time for zero to zero voltage
D. Time for one complete cycle

161. What is the amplitude of the AC sin wave?


A. Phasor value
B. Cycle length
C. Cycles/second
D. Peak value

162. Line to line voltage of a Delta connected 3 phase alternator is found to be 440
Volt. What is the phase voltage?
A. 220 Volt
B. 311.13 Volt
C. 440 Volt
D. 54.33 Volt

163. How does the RMS voltage compare to peak voltage?


A. 0.707 of peak value
B. 0.805 of peak value
C. 0.666 of peak value
D. 0.777 of peak value

1243
DPKP

164. Which is true in a Star-connected 3-phase motor?


A. The line current is equal to the phase current
B. The phase voltage is higher than the line uoltage^
C. The phase current is higher than the line current
D. The line voltage is equal to the phase voltage

165. In a shunt generator the armature current is 100 Amps and the field current 5
Amps. What is the load current of the generator?
A. 95 Amps
B. 100 Amps
C. 105 Amps
D. 110 Amps

166. When a DC generator is short circuited, how is the output voltage affected?
A. Increases to max
B. Falls to zero
C. Remains constant
D. Drops slightly

167. What units is the output of DC generators rated in?


A. HP
B. KW
C. KVA
D. KwA

168. Why are interpoles fitted to DC generators?


A. To counter field distortion
B. To prevent shaft magnetism
C. To prevent burning of the brushes
D. To enable the same size generator to carry more load

1244
DPKP

169. DC generator is short circuited, what limits the short circuit current
A. There is no iirnit
B. The generator's internal resistance (ER)
C. When the cables start melting
D. The mechanical size of the switch

170. In a series wound generator what is the connection between field and armature
currents?
A. Parallel connection
B. No connection
C. Shunt connected
D. Series connected

171. If the insulation fails on a major distribution cable, which alternator breaker trip
will operate?
A. The high/low frequency trip
B. The overload trip
C. The reverse current trip
D. The short circuit protection

172. Which area of the DC generator requires the most maintenance?


A. Bearings
B. Switchboard breaker
C. Commutator and brushes
D. Main field windings

173. The failure of an AC generator to pick up voltage may be caused by:


A. A tripped bus circuit breaker
B. Failure of the exciter generator
C. The generator's rotating speed is 10% below rated
D. Excessive prime mover speed

1245
DPKP

174. How many slip rings with carbon brushes are fitted on the rotor of a three-phase
alternator?
A. Two
B. Six
C. Three
D. Four

175. What are ideal conditions for taking Megger test readings of an alternator?
A. Cooled down to ambient temperature
B. Cooled down to hand-warm
C. Hot after stopping
D. Running

176. What danger is associated with excess shaft magnetism?


A. Arcing at commutator
B. Failure of the generator to self excite
C. Insulation breakdown
D.Damage to bearing surfaces

177. In DC generators what effect can be caused by 'armature reaction'?


A. Arcing at the brushes
B. Breakdown of the mica insulation
C. Voltage variation
D. Inability of the generator to carryfull load

178. The commutator of a DC generator is examined and is found to have a smooth


appearance and a dark chocolate colour. What action would you take?
A. Clean the commutator with emery cloth until the colour changes to clean
metal
B. Change the brush springs
C. None
D. Change the brushes

1246
DPKP

179. Why are Arc chutes fitted in circuit breakers?


A. To extinguish the arc and prevent carbon formation
B. To isolate the breaker segments so the arc does not blow over
C. To control the temperature and molecular structure of the arc
D. To confine the arc, control its movement and provide rapid cooling

180. In oil type circuit breakers, what is the purpose of the oil?
A. To smother the arc
B. Acts as insulation
C. All of these.
D. To release hydrogen gas in the oil will extinguish the arc

181. The governor of the driving machine of an alternator malfunctions, which safety
device will trip the main breaker ?
A. The under voltage trip
B. The reverse current trip
C. The overload trip
D. The highilow frequency trip

182. What problem can arise from auto starting electric equipment?
A. Overload the generator prime mover
B. Trip preferential trips
C. Trip reverse power trip
D. Over speeds the generator prime mover

183. In the event of total immersion of an electric motor in sea water or oils, what
corrective action should you take to make the motor operational again?
A. Wash with tetrachloride, wipe dry and re-varnish windings
B. Wash with tetrachloride, heat to 80° C and change bearings
C. Clean with air, wash with fresh water and heat by lamp
D. Wash with fresh water, wipe dry and re-varnish windings

1247
DPKP

184. How is the direction of a three-phase induction motor reversed?


A. Change the capacitor connection to another line
B. Change the position of the entry cable on two terminals
C. Change the position of the entry cable on all terminals RST
D. Reverse the polarity of the armature

185. What are ideal conditions for taking Megger test readings of a motor or
alternator?
A. Running
B. Cooled down to hand-warm
C. Hot after stopping
D. Cooled down to ambient temperature

186. What method should be used for achieving 'reduced voltage starting' for large AC
motors?
A. Line resistance starter
B. Any of the given options
C. Star-Delta motor starter
D. Auto transformer

187. The maximum allowable temperature for normal Class A insulation type?
A. 55 degree C
B. I80 degree C
C. 45 degree C
D. 105 degree C

188. What is the result if a motor is run at a frequency higher than its designed
operating frequency
A. It will run faster and overspeed
B. It will run slower with too high a current
C. It will run slower and at too high a voltage
D. It will run faster and be overloaded

1248
DPKP

189. An unidentified feeder supplies three motors with full load currents of 15, 40 and
52 Amps each. What is the minimum size of the motor feeder in "AMPACITY "?
A. 120 Amps
B. 235 Amps
C. 350 Amps
D. 175 Amps

190. In an emergency, what would be the lowest acceptable insulation resistance


readings?
A. 0.5 Meg Ohm
B. 5.0 Meg Ohm
C. 1.0 Meg Ohm
D. 10.0 Meg Ohm

191. A 20 Amp motor operates from a 240 V insulated system. The cable impedance
is 0.01 Ohm. What current will flow in case of an earth fault?
A. 20 Amps
B. 2400 Amps
C. 240 Amps
D. 0 Amps

192. Which is the best way to give an electric motor a complete winding and
insulation test?
A. Megger test each phase to phase separately
B. All of these.
C. Megger test each phase separately to earth
D. Conduct drop (mini-Volt) test on each phase

193. How will you find out if an electric motor has developed an earth fault?
A. By carrying out a Drop test (mini-volt test)
B. By carrying out Continuity test (one Ohm range on AVO meter)
C. By carrying out a Megger test
D. By carrying out a Phase balance test

1249
DPKP

194. How many times full load current are motor fuses rated in order to withstand the
large starting current?
A. 5 - 7 times
B. 3 - 5 times
C. 7 - 9 times
D. 2 - 3 times

195. How much higher than full load current is motor starting current when starting
direct on-line?
A. 12 to 15 times
B. 9 to 12 times
C. 5 to 7 times
D. 2 to 3 times

196. How will you find out if an electric motor has developed an earth fault?
A. By carrying out a Megger test
B. By carrying out a Drop test (mini-volt test)
C. By carrying out Continuity test (one Ohm range on AVO meter)
D. By carrying out a Phase balance test

197. What could cause sparking and grooving of the commutator in a DC motor?
A. Wrong types of brushes
B. Any of the other options
C. The strength of the field
D. Current overload

198. What can cause etched or burned bands on the contact faces of brushes in a DC
motor?
A. High mica segments
B. Copper drag on the commutator
C. Brushes improperly positioned
D. Copper embedded in the brushes

1250
DPKP

199. What units measure counter electromotive force or back EMF?


A. Volts
B. Ohms
C. Ampere
D. Farads

200. Which of the following groups of motors are all DC motors?


A. Shunt, series and compound
B. Induction and synchronous
C. Synchronous and compound
D. Series and induction

201. A DC series motor is used to operate a pump driven with a belt, what happens if
the belt breaks?
A. The motor will continue to run at its original speed
B. The motor will stop
C. The motor will slow down
D. The motor will over speed and run out of control

202. Before starting any maintenance on an electrical motor what should you do?
A. Hang a sign on the main switchboard to indicate that the motor should not be
started
B. Switch off the main switch and remove fuses for the motor
C. Inform the duty engineer not to switch on the motor
D. All of these.

203. How will an earth failure be noticed in an insulated distribution system?


A. The fuse in the faulty circuit will blow
B. The voltage will drop in proportion to the earth leakage
C. The system insulation meter will indicate a drop in resistance
D. The fuse located in the system's neutral point will blow

1251
DPKP

204. When using a Megger Tester to test equipment rated 440 Volt, what test voltage
should you ensure that the Instrument indicates?
A. 250 volts
B. 1000 volts
C. 750 volts
D. 500 volts

205. What is the required minimum Megger test reading for MCCB' S circuit
breakers?
A. 5 - 8 Megohm
B. 4 - 6 Megohm
C. 1 - 3 Megohm
D. 7 - 10 Megohm

206. What may happen if a Megger tester is used to measure the insulation in a circuit
containing electronic components?
A. The wrong internal resistance maybe shown
B. The Megger may give an indication on how much current the circuit will
consume
C. The connections between components will show a high r. insulation value
D. The components in the circuit may be destroyed

207. When would you undertake resistance tests on an AC motor?


A. 'Menthe motor has been warmed up 5°C above normal operating temperature
B. When the motor has been carefully cleaned
C. When the motor has reached its normal operating temperature
D. When the motor has cooled down after use

208. In the event of total immersion of an electric motor in sea water what corrective
action should you take to make the motor operational again?
A. Wash with tetrachloride, heat to 80°C and change bearings
B. Clean with air, wash with fresh water and heat by lamp
C. Wash with tetrachloride, wipe dry and re-varnish windings
D. Wash with fresh water, wipe dry and re-varnish windings

1252
DPKP

209. Why hould an earth failure be checked and cleared as soon as possible?
A. There may be a circulating current around the vessel's hull
B. It may damage the monitoring instruments
C. A conflicting earth failure may occur and cause fuses to blow
D. The Unattended Machinery Space (UMS) certificate may be withdrawn

210. How would you initiate a test, if found necessary, to find out if an alternator
preference system is working?
A. By lowering the alternator voltage
B. By raising the generator frequency
C. By lowering the generator frequency
D. By raising the alternator voltage

211. How will you find out if an electric motor has developed an earth fault?
A. By carrying out Continuity test (one Ohm range on AVO meter)
B. By carrying out a Megger test
C. By carrying out a Drop test (mini-volt test)
D. By carrying out a Phase balance test

212. What is the normal output voltage range of an insulation meter?


A. Between 200 and 500 Volts
B. Between 400 and 500 Volts
C. Between 200 and 300 Volts
D. Between 500 and 800 Volts

213. Nhat will happen when an earth fault occurs on one line of an insulated
distribution system?
A. The line will short circuit with the earth and the line fuse trips
B. No fuses will trip, the system is isolated from the earth
C. The opposite line fuse will trip due to overload
D. The system will be in overload and both line fuses trip

1253
DPKP

214. Which conductor would produce the greatest inductance?


A. Plain coiled
B. Coiled multi strand
C. Coiled with copper core
D. Coiled with iron core

215. In a non-reactive circuit which statement applies?


A. Impedance is equal to resistance
B. Impedance is greater than resistance
C. Impedance is less than resistance
D. Impedance is zero

216. What is the unit for inductance?


A. Weber
B. Farad
C. Henry
D. Coulomb

217. What produces an induced E.M.F.?


A. Change in vottage.
B. Change in current.
C. Change in resistance.
D. Change in flux linkage.

218. What is impedance?


A. Induction of an electrical circuit
B. Resistance provided by the cable in an electrical circuit
C. Total resistance in an electrical circuit
D. Induced E.M.F. of a circuit

1254
DPKP

219. Which statement is true for induced E.M.F.?


A. Is a function of resistance
B. Always assists change in current
C. Always resists change in current
D. Always equal to the current

220. In a purely resistive circuit what is the phase difference between vottage and
current?
A. 180 degrees
B. 90 degrees
C. 0 degrees
D. 45 degrees

221. The ratio of active power to apparent power is known as?


A. RMS voltage
B. Power factor
C. Angle of phase difference
D. Circuit inductance

222. On an electrical drawing what symbol represents impedance?


A. Z
B. I
C. R
D. L

223. What units is impedance expressed in?


A. Weber
B. Ohm
C. Farad
D. Henry

1255
DPKP

224. nduced E.M.F. is out of phase with current by what degree?


A. 60 degrees
B. 90 degrees
C. 180 degrees
D. 0 degrees

225. On an electrical drawing what symbol represents Inductance?


A. F
B. L
C. R
D. I

226. If the outlet temperature “Tout" is kept constant at 65 degrees C and during
normal sea speed the inlet temperature “Tin” is 62 degree C, what would 'Tin"
show during engine slow down ?

A. Inlet temperature “Tin" will fluctuate


B. Inlet temperature "Tin" will decrease
C. Inlet temperature "Tin" will be kept constant by controller
D. Inlet temperature "Tin" will increase

1256
DPKP

227. What kind of temperature control system is fitted in this lubrication oil system ?

A. Controlling the inlet by regulating the inlet


B. Controlling the outlet by regulating the outlet
C. Controlling the outlet by regulating the inlet
D. Controlling the inlet by regulating the outlet

228. What is the component marked “W” ?

A. A WAX by-pass temperature controller


B. A water strainer
C. A manual 3-way water by-pass valve
D. A water by-pass buffer

1257
DPKP

229. For this auxiliary diesel fresh water system, what method of temperature control
is used ?

A. Controlling the outlet by regulating the outlet


B. Controlling the inlet by regulating the inlet
C. Controlling the outlet by regulating the inlet
D. Controlling the inlet by regulating the outlet

230. What part of a pneumatic control system is this ?

A. A differentiator assembly
B. An amplifier
C. An integrator assembly
D. A nozzle/flapper assembly

1258
DPKP

231. In this nozzle/flapper assembly (part of a pneumatic control system) at what


distance away from the nozzle oes the flapper need to be mooed in order not to
have any influence on the HEW (nozzle back pressure) ?

A. h = 0.25 D
B. h=D
C. h = 0.4 D
D. h = 0.5 D

232. What is the meaning of the pressure indicated by NBP on this nozzle/flapper
assembly ?

A. Nozzle Balance Pressure


B. Nominal Balance Pressure
C. Normal Basic Pressure
D. Nozzle Back Pressure

233. What is the most common reason for malfunctioning or erratic functioning of a
pneumatic nozzle/Flapper ) assembly ?

A. Oil or moisture in the back pressure line (NBP)


B. The flapper is broken or distorted
C. Dirty air passages of restrictor and nozzle
D. The nozzle is worn out

1259
DPKP

234. If the flapper is pushed against the nozzle so that h = 0, what will the reading of
NBP become ?

A. 3 psi
B. 0 psi
C. 20 psi
D. 15 psi

235. This characteristic shows that only linear part a-b can be used. This means that
the normal effective travel the flapper is only …… for the full measuring range.

A. 0.05 mm
B. mm
C. 0.10 mm
D. 0.005 mm

1260
DPKP

236. As we can use only the linear part of the characteristic, this shows that the flapper
can only travel 0.01 mm, therefore DELTA psi obtained can only be less than 1
psi. Can we use the flapper nozzle system ?

A. Yes, but the readings obtained between DELTA psi need to be amplified
B. No , the flapper system will gives erratic readings
C. No, the nozzle/flapper assembly needs modification
D. Yes, but the valves need a servo booster

237. The proportional linear signal for a pneumatic nozzle/flapper assembly is only
less than 1 psi for 0.01 mm flapper travel. How do we make use of this signal ?

A. By using a regulator on the servo of the pneumatic valve


B. By sending it to a Pneumatic Amplifier
C. By changing the diameter of the Pneumatic valve actuator
D. By sending the signal to another flapper/nozzle

1261
DPKP

238. What pneumatic control device is shown here ?

A. A pneumatic controller
B. A pneumatic amplifier
C. A pneumatic flapper / nozzle assembly
D. A pneumatic booster aggregate

239. On which part of the Pneumatic Amplifier is the nozzle back pressure of the
nozzles / flapper (NBP) acting ?

A. On spring S
B. On valve V
C. On ball valve B
D. On membrane M

1262
DPKP

240. By what parts is the outlet pressure Pu of this pneumatic transmitter directly
controlled ?

A. spring tension in S
B. By the restriction R
C. By the stand of the valves V and B
D. By slight fluctuation of supply pressure

241. What is the function of ball value B in relation to the outlet pressure Pu of this
pneumatic amplifier?

A. To counteract the pressure on the membrane M , decrease Pu


B. To push the atmospheric vent close, increase Pu
C. To push the membrane back in place after each movement
D. Opening port of 20 psi supply air access

1263
DPKP

242. What is the function of value V in relation to the outlet pressure Pu of this
pneumatic amplifier?

A. To allow venting of pressure Pu to the atmosphere


B. To push spring S open via the ball B
C. To allow stabilising feedback pressure on the membrane
D. To transmit the pressure Pu to the membrane

243. What would be the result if after period of time the tension of spring S should
weaken on this pneumatic amplifier ?

A. It would increase the output pressure Pu


B. It will not have any effect
C. It would decrease the output pressure Pu
D. It will destabilise the amplifier

1264
DPKP

244. These characteristics show Pu in relation to flapper distance and LISP of a


pneumatic nozzle
flapper and transmitter; thus with the smallest distance movements it fluctuates
sharply. What is the result and the remedy ?

A. Unsteady operation .Springs are to be fitted on all moving parts


B. Tendency to open. Fit elongated flappers in output
C. Unsteady operation. Bellows are to be fitted in pneumatic lines.
D. Tendency to close. Fit by pass nozzle to amplifier

245. This an actual lay-out drawing of a pneumaticblock. Where is the 20 psi supply
air admitted ?

A. At air passage item 15


B. At air passage item 13
C. At air passage item 12
D. At air passage item 14

1265
DPKP

246. Where is the output pressure Pu taken from this pneumatic amplifier shown here
?

A. Air passage 15
B. Air passage 13
C. Air passage 14
D. Air passage 12

247. Via which air passage is the nozzle back pressure from the nozzle/Flapper
admitted for this pneumatic amplifier ?

A. Air passage 14
B. Air passage 15
C. Air passage 13
D. Air passage 12

1266
DPKP

248. Which is the exhaust or air vent port to the atmosphere shown on this pneumatic
transmitter?

A. Air passage 13
B. Air passage 14
C. Air passage 12
D. Air passage 15

249. What is item No 3 shown of this pneumatic amplifier?

A. Nozzle flappers
B. Blade (feather) springs to load the ball and the vent valve
C. Ball valve securing blades
D. Retaining plates for the ball valve

1267
DPKP

250. Flow can the output pressure Pu of this pneumatic amplifier be initially adjusted
?

A. By screw item 10
B. By screw item 1
C. By screw item 11
D. By screw item 4

251. Which important pneumatic control accessory is shown here ?

A. A transmitter
B. An nozzle /flapper assembly
C. A pressure regulator
D. An amplifier

1268
DPKP

252. What is part No 4 shown in this drawing of a pneumatic amplifier ?

A. The output air compartment


B. The air supply compartment
C. The exhaust or vent compartment
D. The nozzle back pressure supply compartment

253. For what purpose is spring ball adjustment screw item No 2 fitted on the spring
blade of this pneumatic amplifier ?

A. To adjust the spring blade and output pressure Pu initially


B. To control the rate of amplification response
C. To control the nozzle back pressure
D. To adjust the valve stem distance

1269
DPKP

254. What is the most common reason for malfunctioning of a pneumatic amplifier ?

A. Diaphragma No 7 bursts
B. Valve stem No 6 defective
C. Internal passages blocked by oil mixed with dirt.
D. Gasket No 8 blown

255. This shows a pneumatic control unit which forms the basis of pneumatic control
engineering. It is.........

A. a pneumatic transmitter assembly


B. a totaliser or summator unit
C. a nozzle/flapper assembly with amplifier
D. a pneumatic basic controller unit

1270
DPKP

256. These small pneumatic pipes are connected to the different parts of pneumatic
system so they can be easily dismantled, using ............ ?

A. clamps with bellow packing


B. plugs and O-rings
C. sleeves and copper gaskets
D. retainer springs and silicon

257. Which part shown here is the nozzle in this pneumatic assembly ?

A. Part No 2
B. Part No 4
C. Part No 3
D. Part No 5

1271
DPKP

258. What will be the existing pneumatic pressure in connecting pipe item 110 6 from
flapper nozzle assembly to the pneumatic amplifier ?

A. Between 0 and 20 psi


B. 20 psi
C. Between 3 and 15 psi
D. Between 2 and 2.75 psi

259. Pneumatic instruments have an air filter fitted so that any impurity present is
removed. Where is this filter fitted ?

A. In the base of the amplifier, filter plug No 4


B. In air connecting line, plug No 5
C. In front of the nozzle item No 2
D. In the main supply line to each individual instrument

1272
DPKP

260. What is the output pressure of this pneumatic amplifier ?

A. 15 to 25 psi
B. 7 to 15 psi
C. 3 to 20 psi
D. 3 to 15 psi

261. What is the amplification factor (K) of a pneumatic amplifier

A. K=4
B. K = 12
C. K = 16
D. K = 20

1273
DPKP

262. What important periodical maintenance checks are required on nozzle/flapper


assemblies of pneumatic instruments ?

A. Exchange packings on the nozzle and flapper


B. Exchange of nozzle and flapper
C. Cleaning of the nozzle and the flapper
D. Redrilling of the nozzle

263. What is the correct name of item No 2 shown here ?

A. Flapper nozzle
B. Connecting plug
C. Filter plug
D. Restrictor nozzle

1274
DPKP

264. What pneumatic device is shown here ?

A. A feedback controller
B. A feedback amplifier
C. A proportional controller
D. A proportional transmitter

265. What is the name of the bellow P, which indicates its purpose ?

A. Equalising bellow
B. Lifting bellow
C. Feedback bellow
D. Absorbing bellow

1275
DPKP

266. If the length of "a" is equal to the length of "b" what will be the proportional
band "PB" of this pneumatic controller ?

A. 0%
B. 50%
C. 100%
D. 25%

267. With what part is the degree of feedback controlled on this pneumatic
Proportional Controller ?
A. By lengths of arms "a" and 'b" (shifting of amplifier)
B. By "desired valve" input
C. By the spring tension
D. By the bellow

268. If Q1 is the filling volume of the tank and Q2 the outflow volume of the tank and
the level L is constant by controller output pressure Pu = 9 psi, the valve V2 will
be open for ...

A. 25%
B. 50%
C. 100%
D. 75%

1276
DPKP

269. I the input flow Q1 increases to Q1' and level L increases to L' what will initially
happen ?

A. The amplifier will increase its air output pressurising bellow P


B. The output pressure Pu will increase proportionally to L'
C. The proportional band PB will change
D. The amplification factor K will change

270. What do you call the pneumatic mode of operating of the pneumatic controlled
valve V2 ?

A. Positive activation
B. Negative activation
C. Air to Close
D. Air to Open

1277
DPKP

271. If we shift the nozzle / flapper assembly to the left so that the length of "a" is half
of length "b", to what level will L' rise before it stabilizes ?

A. Half the height from Level L


B. Four times the height from level L
C. Twice the height from level L
D. 1/4th the height from level L

272. What is the level difference between L and L' called in this process ?

A. The offset
B. The range
C. The amplification
D. The span

1278
DPKP

273. This characteristic shows the output pressure of a controller effecting valve lift. If
PB = 100 % is the graph shown in "a". What is the graph of PB = 50 % ?

A. Graph b
B. Graph d
C. Graph e
D. Graph f

274. This characteristic shows output pressure of a controller effecting valve lift. If P8
= 100 % is the graph shown in "a ". What is the amplification factor and the
proportional band represented by graph "I" ?

A. Amplification 0, Proportional Band infinitive


B. Amplification 50 %, Proportional Band 100 %
C. Amplification infinitive, Proportional band 0
D. Proportional band 50 %, amplification 100 %

1279
DPKP

275. Graph "d" of this characteristic showing output pressure Pu of a controller


effecting valve lift, represents ZERO proportional band over INFINITIVE
amplification. How does the system works ?

A. It works with intolerable offsets


B. It works with maximum range offsets
C. It does not regulate the level at all
D. It works FULL OPEN/FULL CLOSE, unsteady, offset NIL

276. If the pressures in the MV and the SV bellows are equal, what will be the output
pressure Pu of this pneumatic P-controller ?

A. 9 psi
B. 6 psi
C. 12 psi
D. 3 psi

1280
DPKP

277. If the measured value bellow is connected to the output of the jacket CW
temperature transmitter and thePu of the controller is 9 psi, and we reduce the
temperature setting from 75 to 72 degree C what happens tosigj the Pu ?

A. It will increase above 9 psi


B. It will increase to 20 psi
C. It will decrease to 0 psi
D. It will decrease below 9 psi

278. Between which values (expressed in psi) can setting of the Su (set value or
desired value) bellow of this pneumatic P controller be affected?

A. Between 0 and 15 psi


B. Between 0 and 20 psi
C. Between 2 and 2.75 psi
D. Between 3 and 15 psi

1281
DPKP

279. Suppose the variation of INPUT is 1 psi down instead of 1 psi up on this
pneumatic P-Controller. If the proportional band PB is 25 % what will be the
output pressure ?

A. 2 psi
B. 3 psi
C. 6 psi
D. 0 psi

280. Suppose the INPUT of the pneumatic controller is 4 psi and the PB is 25 %. If
variation on the input is 1psi down, what is the variation on the output expressed
in psi ?

A. 2 psi
B. 1 psi
C. 6 psi
D. 4 psi

1282
DPKP

281. What would be the variation of output on this pneumatic controller if


Proportional B and PB = infinity, by varying the input as shown here ?

A. Infinity, full open, full close control system


B. No response, nil
C. 1 psi
D. Between 3 and 15 psi

282. Suppose the Proportional Band of this pneumatic controller is increased to 500 %
and the input variation remains the same. What would be the output variation ?

A. 5 psi
B. 0.5 psi
C. 0.2 psi
D. 1 psi

1283
DPKP

283. This characteristic shows output pressure of a pneumatic controller controlling


water level. The level is fluctuating. What is wrong with the setting of the
controller.?

A. The amplification is too small


B. The range is too large
C. The proportional band is too small
D. The span is too narrow

284. Something is wrong with the controller setting of this water level control system.
Suppose the Proportional and is 12.5 %, to what value would you reset it ?

A. 500%
B. 50%
C. 100%
D. 20%

1284
DPKP

285. In this electrical amplifier drawing, what takes the place of the flapper/nozzle
unit used by the pneumatic control unit with amplifier ?

A. R2
B. U2
C. U1
D. R1

286. What takes the place of the 20 psi input used by pneumatic nozzle/flapper units
in this electrical amplifier equivalent ?

A. Resistance R2

B. Voltage U1
C. Voltage U2
D. Resistance R1

1285
DPKP

287. What takes the place of the output pressure of the pneumatic nozzle/flapper unit
in this electrical amplifier equivalent ?

A. Voltage U2
B. Voltage U1
C. Resistor R2
D. Resistor R1

288. What control equipment drawing is shown here ?

A. An electric pressure transmitter system


B. An electric P-controller
C. An electric differentiating amplifier
D. An electric temperature measurement scanner

289. The working pressures used by pneumatic control components are between 3 and
15 psi. What are the equivalent currents used by electric control equipment ?
A. Between 0 and 5 or 3 and 9 mA
B. Between 0 and 20 mA or 4 and 20 mA
C. Between 20 and 60 mA or 25 and 75 mA
D. Between 10 and 50 mA or 15 and 50 mA

1286
DPKP

290. What does a thick articulated line represent in automation schematic diagrams ?
(the top articulated line shown here)

A. A measuring line
B. A process line
C. An instrument line
D. A steering line

291. What does a broken or dotted line represent in automation schematic diagrams ?
(the second line from top shown here)

A. A pneumatic line
B. A steering line
C. An instrument line
D. A measuring line

1287
DPKP

292. What does a non-articulated full line indicate in an automation schematic


drawing ? (the third line from top shown here)

A. A pneumatic steering line


B. An electric steering line
C. An instrument line
D. A measuring line

293. What does the symbol drawn on the fourth line form the top (a blank circle)
indicate in an automation schematic diagram ?

A. A controller
B. An indicator
C. A transmitter
D. An instrument

1288
DPKP

294. What does the symbol shown on the fifth line from the top (a circle with a
horizontal line through it of the drawing indicated an automation schematic
diagram ?

A. An electronic instrument
B. An instrument fitted in a central panel
C. An instrument fitted in the main control console
D. A pneumatic instrument

295. What do the letters "PT" shown in this instrument symbol (drawn on the bottom
line) indicate if found in an automation schematic drawing

A. First letter: Measuring, Second letter: Steering


B. First letter: Monitoring, Second letter: Controlling
C. First letter: Monitoring, Second letter: Working function
D. First letter: Measuring function, Second letter: Working function

1289
DPKP

296. As part of an automation schematic drawing, what kind of instrument might be


fitted on the measuring line as indicated on the top right drawing ?

A. A thermometer
B. A temperature transmitter
C. A temperature controller
D. A manometer

297. As part of an automation schematic drawing, what kind of instrument might


befitted on the measuring line as indicated on the top centre drawing ?

A. A limit control swicth


B. A line capacitor
C. A level controller
D. A Low Pressure cut-out

1290
DPKP

298. What kind of valve is valve A, shown in the left bottom ?

A. A spring loaded solenoid valve, activation to close


B. An hydraulic control valve, pressure to open
C. An electric motor driven control valve
D. A pneumatic control valve, air to close

299. What components of the Lubricating Oil Control System shown here ?

For No. 74

A. Temperature transmitter and controller, pneumatic control valve


B. Temperature controller, indicator, pneumatic control valve
C. Cooler temp indicator, transmitter, electric control valve
D. Temperature recorder, transmitter, electronic control valve

1291
DPKP

300. Which are the parameters that steer the level control automatic system of the
boiler shown here?

A. Feed valve and feed by-pass valve


B. The level controller
C. Water level and steam consumption
D. The level transmitter

301. The feedwater valve and the feedwater by-pass values are...........

A. electronic controlled values working in tandem


B. pneumatic controlled values working in opposition.
C. electronic controlled values working in opposition.
D. pneumatic controlled values working in reverse.

1292
DPKP

302. This drawing shows a simple mechanical controller controlling the water level in
the tank. Level "L" is the DESIRED water level in the tank, in automation this is
called the .....

A. set point.
B. set level.
C. measured value.
D. proportional point.

303. Suppose that in the system drawn the water inflow Q1 increases so that the float
is pushed up by the water to level L'. The value of level L' is called the ......

A. increased value.
B. actual value.
C. level value.
D. measured value.

1293
DPKP

304. The difference between the desired value (level L) and the measured value (level
L') is called.........

A. the differential value.


B. the inclination.
C. the measuring fault.
D. the offset.

305. Here 'S' is the support point in the middle of pivoting arm 'AB'. For a given
increase in water level the valve is opened by the same distance, therefore the
amplification is 1. What will happen if b = 2 x a ?

A. The water will drop twice as fast in the tank


B. The valve will open twice the distance of the increased level
C. The amplification is increased by 50 %
D. The process will not longer working

1294
DPKP

306. In the top integrator drawing the bellows fill with air through the Restrictor
Valve 'R'. In the electrical equivalent ......

A. the capacitor takes the place of the bellow.


B. the current increases over time.
C. the Voltage U2 represent the equivalent of the input air.
D. the capacitor allows Voltage built up over the resistor.

307. In these integrator circuits the air flow through the restrictor and the current
through the resistance.........
A. remains constant
B. is negative
C. decreases with time
D. increases with time.

308. What is the difference in function between these electrical and the pneumatic
integrators ?
A. The pneumatic integrator is slower
B. They work in opposite directions
C. The electric integrator is slower
D. None

1295
DPKP

309. The characteristics shown here indicate a ramp input on the left together with the
corresponding output the right of....

E. A a pure integrator
F. B a pure differentiator
G. C a proportional integrating controller
H. D a proportional controller

310. Explain the function of a capacitor that loads up compared with a bellow that fills
up with air ?

A. They have both the same function


B. The capacitor is a differentiator, the bellow is an integrator
C. They perform opposite functions
D. The capacitor is an integrator, the bellow is a differentiator

1296
DPKP

311. This drawing shows which kind of pneumatic controller ?

A. A proportional controller
B. A proportional integrating-differential controller
C. A proportional differentiating controller
D. A proportional integrating controller

312. These graphs are, left, the step input and, right, the output response of a
controller. What characteristics are shown ?

A. The controller response output characteristics


B. The PI characteristics
C. The integrator characteristics
D. The integrator differential characteristics

1297
DPKP

313. For which type of controller are the input and output characteristics shown here ?

A. A pressure indicating controller


B. A pneumatic indicating controller
C. A proportional integrating controller
D. A PI differentiating controller

314. The measuring signal obtained to carry out flow measuring is a Differential
pressure signal. This is obtained by a certain medium flowing through a...........

A. oriface plate
B. a right-angled nozzle system
C. nozzle system
D. capillary tube

1298
DPKP

315. Since the output of the pressure transmitter is not linear with the flow in the pipe
as measured over the wring flange the output signal should be sent to a................

A. root extractor.
B. equaliser.
C. summator.
D. balancing valve.

316. To which channel is the nitrogen-filled thermal bellow in this pneumatic


temperature transmitter fitted ?

A. Channel 10
B. Channel 5
C. Bellow 8
D. Channel 8

317. What is item Ho.; of this pneumatic temperature transmitter ?

A. The range control setting


B. The equaliser block
C. The pneumatic amplifier
D. The compensator

1299
DPKP

318. Which is the fitter of the instrument on this transmitter part drawing ?

A. Item No 3
B. Item no 2
C. Item No 4
D. Item No 1

319. On this pneumatic transmitter part drawing, which part is amplifying the signal ?

A. Part No 2
B. Part No 4
C. Part No 3
D. Part No 1

1300
DPKP

320. What is part 110 11 on this transmitter drawing ?

A. The feedback bellow


B. The balance arm tensioner
C. The transmitter bellow
D. The regulating bellow

321. Which part adjusts the proportional band of this pneumatic transmitter ?

A. Part No 9
B. Part No 7
C. Part No 8
D. Part No 10

1301
DPKP

322. On which part of this pneumatic transmitter does the pressure of the process
(steam,oil,water) act ?

A. Item No 1
B. Item No 3
C. Item No 2
D. Item No 4

323. The span of this pneumatic transmitter is set by adjusting or tensioning.......

A. part No 10.
B. part No 9.
C. part No 15.
D. part No 11.

324. From this drawing of a pneumatic pressure transmitter, what is the Proportional
Band setting ?
A. Proportional Band more than 100 %, amplification K less than 1
B. Proportional Band less than 100 %, amplification K more than 1
C. Proportional Band = 100 %, amplification K = 1
D. Proportional Band 0%, amplification infinitive

1302
DPKP

325. For which type of controller are these the input (left) and the response (right)
characteristics ?

A. A pneumatic integrator
B. A pressure integrating controller
C. A pneumatic inverter
D. A proportional integrating controller

326. In this drawing, the triangle marked "A" represents.......

A. an ampere-differential transmitter
B. a current converter
C. an operational amplifier
D. an analog converter

1303
DPKP

327. Which resistor determines the proportional band on this electronic proportional
integrating controller ?

A. R2
B. Rf
C. R1
D. R3

328. Fitting a restriction RI in the supply to the proportional feedback of this PID
controller ensures that for an initial small variation on the input, the initial
response on the output will be .....

A. proportional
B. zero
C. very weak
D. strong

1304
DPKP

329. For which control instrument are these the input (left) and the output or response
(right) characteristics ?

A. A pressure controlling data register


B. A pneumatic differentiating controller
C. A pressure differentiator
D. A proportional differentiating controller

330. For this PID controller to act only as a P (proportional) controller, what should be
the arrangement of restricting values R1 and R2 ?

A. R1 fully open, R2 fully open


B. R1 closed, R2 fully open
C. R1 closed, R2 closed
D. R1 fully open, R2 closed

1305
DPKP

331. which kind of controller are the input and output characteristics shown here ?

A. A proportional indicating differentiator


B. A proportional integrating-differentiating controller
C. A pressure indicating controller
D. A pneumatic differential summator

332. In the output characteristics (right) of this controller, which response lines are
clearly shown ?

A. The proportional, integration and differentiation


B. The proportional, variation and integration
C. The output, variation and differentiation
D. The proportional output, offset and integration

1306
DPKP

333. How is the differentiating action of this PID controller obtained ?

A. By C and RL
B. By C and RL
C. By C and R3
D. By C and R2

334. Where would you find this instrument on board a ship ?

A. Near the Fuel, oil or water piping


B. In the Boiler Control Panel
C. In the Engine Control Room
D. In the Manoeuvring Remote Panel

1307
DPKP

335. How is the zero setting of this temperature transmitter adjusted ?

A. By calibration of items 1, 2 and 3


B. By item No 3
C. By item No 2
D. By item No 1

336. How is the range of this instrument adjusted ?

A. With item No 3
B. With item No 2
C. With item No 1
D. With items 1, 2 and 3.

1308
DPKP

337. This is a.....

A. temperature calibration system.


B. Wheatstone bridge.
C. temperature compensation system.
D. rectifier bridge.

338. The three conductor system used by Wheatstone Bridge lay-outs is intended to
provide........

A. balancing of the bridge by very high or very low temperatures.


B. conversion of an electrical signal into a pneumatic signal.
C. compensation for changing conductor resistance by
changing temperature.
D. zero setting at all times by variable resistances to be measured.

1309
DPKP

339. The function of this measuring system is to..........

A. convert a digital signal into a pressure.


B. convert Field Effect Transistor readings into a temperature reading.
C. convert Wheatstone Bridge readings into remote pressure readings.
D. convert an electric temperature measurement into a pneumatic signal.

340. The resistance characteristic of Platinum is linear. The resistance characteristic of


Nickel is non-linear. How can the characteristic of Nickel be made linear ?

A. By fitting a compensation cable


B. By fitting another resistance in parallel
C. By using a three-wire system Wheatstone Bridge
D. By fitting another resistance in series

1310
DPKP

341. Item No 2 of this Wheatstone Bridge is ..........

A. the thermal resistance fed by the output of amplifier A


B. the field balance indicating field wire of amplifier output
C. the field wire fed by amplifier A
D. the feed-back coil fed by amplifier

342. The potential of this thermocouple bridge is zero if all connections are kept at the
same temperature. Why is the indication of the potentiometer zero ?

A. Because of the copper (Cu) calibration wiring connected to C and D.


B. Because A and B couples are opposed.
C. Because the connections in A and B and in C and D are opposed
D. Because of the second balancing couple B.

1311
DPKP

343. Compensation wires are electrical conductors made of special metal alloy and
have as characteristics that............

A. between these and the metals of the thermoelement no thermocouple


exists.
B. the current is calibrated by a compensation system.
C. thermal faults within the copper wires (connections E and F) are
compensated for.
D. minor thermocouples exist which can be compensated n for by a
regulator/compensator.

344. Control valves in a controlled process can be either pneumatic, electrically or


hydraulically operated. What of medium is used to control this valve ? When is it
used ?

A. Pneumatic, when an accurate valve response is required


B. Hydraulic, when a big force or torque is required
C. Pneumatic, when a big force or torque is required
D. Hydraulic, when an accurate valve response is required.

1312
DPKP

345. The two valves shown on the left of this picture are called flat valves and give a
high throughput for a small lift in height. They are mostly used for.......

A. self correcting flow valve, by changing pressures in the system the


throughput the same.
B. a stop (zero flow) valve.
C. open - close regulation.
D. process stability, for a certain percentage in lift changes the throughput by
the same percentage.

346. The two valves shown in the centre of the drawing are.....

A. pear shaped valves


B. flat top valves
C. egui-percentage valves
D. linear valves

347. The two valves shown at the right of the picture are .........type valves.

A. linear
B. egui-percentage
C. flat shaped
D. stop flow
1313
DPKP

348. The two valves on the left of this picture are ......, the two valves on the right are
...... valves.

A. flat top, linear


B. linear, curved
C. linear, equi-percentage
D. pear shaped, equi-percentage

349. The operating function of the valve on which this pneumatic valve motor is fitted
will be ......

A. air to open (bottom connection).


B. pressure to open (positive manometer reading).
C. vacuum to open (negative manometer reading).
D. air to close (top connection).

1314
DPKP

350. This automatic control system shows one temperature controller steering two
value motors (fitted in different process components) by using different working
ranges. This is called ...... control.

A. feedback
B. separated range
C. diverted
D. split range

351. The valve positioner acts on the principle of the balance of forces. The tension of
part ..... ( .......) is to be inbalance with the force of the controller pressure which
acts on part....... (........).

A. 9 (spring), 18 (membrane)
B. 4 (relays), 12 (membrane)
C. 9 (spring), 11 (supply valve)
D. 12 (membrane), 6 (feedback lever)

1315
DPKP

352. Why does the output (instrument supply) pressure of a reducer fluctuate ?

A. Because the movement of the membrane follows the input pressure


B. Because of the variation of the output capacity
C. Because of the characteristic of the spring
D. Because of the variation on the output pressure

353. A pressure reducing value works according to the principle of balance of forces,
in this case theforce P2 acting on the membrane is in balance with the force of
the.......

A. the ball valve


B. inlet pressure P1
C. the membrane spring
D. the ball value spring

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DPKP

354. The manometer with scale indication shown here is fitted in the .....line of a
controller or valve positioner which supplies a pneumatic valve motor with
"Pressure to......" function.

A. input, "Close"
B. output, "Open "
C. input, " Open "
D. supply, " Close "

355. This is the drawing of a Machinery Monitoring and Alarm System. What is the
heart and brain of this Scanning Unit ?

A. The LSU's
B. The CPU
C. The MAD
D. The LAD'S

356. Which port of this machinery scanning system collects the incoming data from
instruments and transducers ?
A. The CPU
B. The TWM
C. The LSU'e
D. The MAD

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357. If the engine room is in UMS mode and one of the measuring points collected by
a LSU and fed into the CPU exceeds its preset value parameter, the CPU will.........
A. activate the LAD in operation and
its visible and audible alarm will set
off.
B. activate the MAD (main Alarm
Display) and Visible and alarms will
be activated.
C. activate the TWM (Type Writer
Monitor) and print out the obtained
error value, measuring point number
and time.
D. activates all of these.

358. The LSU's (Local Scanning Units) have to measure temperature, pressure, flow,
level, RPM, torque, horsepower, circuit and salinity and do so via analog and
digital tranducers. What is a digital transducer ?

A. A digital transducer gives a continue signal , example 0 - 100 mV


B. A Digital Transducer gives a direct "on " or "off "signal and involve logic
transducers
C. A digital transducer works on AC voltage
D. A digital transducer is an electronic instrument opposed to an Analog
tranducer which is pneumatic operated 3 to 15 psi

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DPKP

359. The latest obtained system values are fed into the computer and compared with
previous ones. The analysis obtained before has to be compared with the latest
analysis. This is called......

A. wear down and maintenance scheduling.


B. trend analysis and maintenance prediction.
C. material fatigue and maintenance scheduling.
D. wear down and breakdown prediction.

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DPKP

360. If a fault occurs in this power supply system, the best and fastest way to locate
this fault is by...........

A. checking supply volts, fuses then the Trouble Shooting Chart.


B. checking the input voltage.
C. checking the fuses.
D. calling the electrician.

361. On this commonly used electric pressure transmitter, how will you adjust the
range ?

A. With item No 7
B. With item No 5
C. With item No 1
D. With item No 2

362. How do you adjust the zero setting on this commonly used electrical pressure
transmitter?
A. By item No 5
B. By item No 7
C. By item No 2
D. By item No 1
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DPKP

363. In an automated engine the center from which the ship's engine room is
controlled is called:
A. the control plant station (CPS).
B. the main engine nerve and control station (MENS).
C. the power plant station control station (PPCS).
D. the engineering control room (ECR).

364. In automation, RTD & CV stands for:


A. resistance temperature drop & control event.
B. return time delay.
C. resistance temperature detector and control valve.
D. None of these.

365. The monitoring system that tests the plant for readings of the temperature,
pressure etc. is called:
A. the demand display unit.
B. the scanning unit.
C. the loop back system.
D. the comparing unit.

366. A pressostat as well as a thermostat are sources of....... type output signals ?
A. impulse
B. digital
C. analog
D. binary

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DPKP

367. The second potentiometer of this electric command system is located in the
steering gear. What moves this potentiometer ?

A. The telemotor
B. The rudder angle indicator
C. The rudder position via the trunion connection
D. The eccentric pushrod on the HELE-SHAW pump

368. What is part No 1 ?

A. The Differentiator
B. The Pressure knob
C. The Measuring scale
D. The Adjusting knob

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369. What is Part No 5 ?

A. The Pressure bearing


B. The Spring holder
C. The Differential adjusting nut
D. The Pressure adjuster

370. What will be the binary output at E ?

A. 1
B. 0
C. 11
D. 10

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DPKP

371. Indicate the correct characteristic of the amplifier "A".

A. A frequency range less than 1 kHz


B. A voltage gain greater than 100,000
C. An input impedance lower than 1,000 Ohm
D. An output impedance greater than 10,000 Ohm

372. What is this symbol ?

A. A binary flip-flop
B. A binary register
C. A digital amplifier
D. A differential trigger

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DPKP

373. What kind of temperature control mode is fitted here ?

A. Controlling outlet by regulating the inlet


B. Controlling inlet by regulating the inlet
C. Controlling inlet by regulating the outlet.
D. Controlling outlet by regulating the outlet

374. Comparing this pneumatic control unit with the equivalent electrical amplifier.
What takes the place of the air restrictor passage used in the pneumatic
nozzle/flapper unit in the electrical equivalent ?

A. Voltage U2
B. Voltage U1
C. Resistor R1
D. Resistor R2

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DPKP

375. When an automatic power supply system is provided with an auxiliary diesel
stand-by system, and the power supply trips at time ZERO, which of the
following is a feasible sequence of activities ?
A. Time zero + 10 sec: the stand-by diesel starts. + 20 sec: the stand- by
diesel runs. + 40 sec: the power is restored
B. Time zero + 30 sec: he stand-by diesel starts. « 45 sec: he stand-by diesel
runs. + 60 sec : the power is restored
C. Time zero + 5 sec: the stand-by diesel starts. + 10 sec: the stand-by diesel
runs. + 25 sec: the power is restored
D. Time zero: the stand-by diesel starts. + 7 sec: the stand-by diesel runs, + 8
sec: the power is restored

376. The best way of testing the "stand-by' function of the emergency diesel alternator
is by…..
A. starting the emergency diesel manually from the spot and check for any
leakages or deficiencies.
B. causing a total black-out on the ship, example in drydock or when time is
available in port.
C. by switching off the emergency switch board supply breaker on the main
switch board.
D. switching on the lest run' button on the emergency diesel switchboard.

377. In which part of a large alternator is the electric power produced ?


A. In the rotor
B. In the sliprings
C. In the stator
D. In the excitatory

378. How is the voltage output of an alternator controlled ?


A. By the excitation current in the rotor
B. By the resistance bridge in the main switchboard
C. By the excitation current in the stator
D. By the alternator speed

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DPKP

379. How many slip rings with carbon brushes are fitted on the rotor of a separately
excited three-phase alternator ?
A. Three
B. Two
C. Six
D. Four

380. If an alternator runs at 900 RPM and delivers AC current at 60 Hz, how many
pole pairs has this alternator got…
A. Four
B. Two
C. Eight
D. Six

381. The principle of an automatic voltage regulator (AVR) is to produce an excitation


current proportional to…
A. the output voltage and the output current of the alternator
B. the speed of the alternator
C. the output voltage of the alternator
D. the output current of the alternator

382. When parallel running alternators, what effects the reactive power of each
alternator (10/AR) ?
A. The number of pole pairs of each paralleled alternator
B. The temperature of the windings due to load distribution
C. The power throttle of the driving units
D. The excitation current

383. Name the three conditions which must prevail to put two alternators in parallel ?
A. Voltage equal, current equal, frequency equal
B. Same type alternator, same frequency, frequency in phase
C. Voltage equal, frequency equal, voltage in phase
D. Same current, same type of alternator, same frequency

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DPKP

384. Which of the following safety devices fitted on the main switch breaker will trip
the alternator if a major cabled line should fail to the distributors and the insulation
should break through ?
A. The reverse current trip
B. The high/low frequency trip
C. The short circuit protection
D. The under voltage relay

385. If the governor of the driving machine of an alternator malfunctions, which


safety device will trip the main Switch breaker ?
A. The overload trip
B. The reverse current trip
C. The high/low frequency trip
D. the under voltage/over voltage trip

386. What happens to the terminal voltage of a generator when it supplies a leading
power factor load ?
A. It falls
B. It fluctuates
C. It rises
D. It remains steady

387. Line to line voltage of a Delta connected 3 phase alternator is found to be 440
Volt. What is the phase voltage ?
A. 220 Volt
B. 440 Volt
C. 311.13 Volt
D. 254.33 Volt

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DPKP

388. The phase to phase voltage of a Star connected alternator is 254.34 Volt. What is
the equivalent line to line voltage ?
A. 147 Volt
B. 440 Volt
C. 230 Volt
D. 254.34 Volt

389. Two 3 phase 4160 Volt, 60 Hz alternators are operated in parallel. The total load
of the system is 1050 kW with power factor 0.75 lagging. If alternator Ho 1 is
carrying 700 kW at 80 % power factor lagging .....
A. the Power Factor of alternator 110 2 is lagging 0.7064
B. the Power Factor of alternator Ho 2 is lagging 0.6914
C. the Power Factor of alternator lbco 2 is lagging 0.658
D. the Power Factor of alternator Ho 2 is lagging 0.7352

390. Alternator (A) 100 kVA runs parallel with alternator (B) 125 kVA, both are 3
phase, 240 V, 60 Hz. The load of A s 60 kW, 90% power factor and the load of B
is 80 kW, 70 % power factor. What is the total load ?
A. 458.8 Amps
B. 429.8 Amps
C. 472.8 Amps
D. 416.8 Amps

391. It is said sometimes that alternators are operating as a load, i.e. as a motor. What
are the circumstances for this to occur ?
A. Where three generators are running in parallel.
B. Where two generators are running in parallel.
C. Any of the above but the alternator in question has lost prime mover
input.
D. Where parallel operation with deck generator or outside power supply
occurs

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392. How would you initiate a test, if found necessary, to find out if an alternator
preference system is working ?
A. By lowering the generator frequency
B. By rising the generator frequency
C. By rising the alternator voltage
D. By lowering the alternator voltage

393. What are the functions of the Under Voltage Release Unit as generator circuit
breaker ?
A. It trips the alternator by under voltage
B. It disallows breaker to be put on load by under voltage
C. All of these.
D. It prevents breaker operation in the absence of voltage

394. If a total short circuit occurs on a 3 phase alternator and the short-circuit trip fails
to operate, what back-up safety device will activate ?
A. The over speed trip
B. The preferential trip
C. The under voltage trip
D. The low frequency trip

395. A generator's Reverse Power protection relay is fitted between ...


A. the breaker and the consumers.
B. the breaker connecting bars.
C. the generator and the bus bars.
D. the generator and the consumers

396. The pick up and the time settings of reverse power relays are adjustable. If the
prime mover of the alternator is a steam turbine what is the trip level setting ?
A. 0.5 - 1%
B. 6 - 7%
C. 2 - 3%
D. 4 - 6%

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DPKP

397. How many seconds time delay is considered normal before a generator's Reverse
Trip Relay operates ?
A. 1 - 2 seconds
B. 3 - 5 seconds
C. 5 - 7 seconds
D. 7 - 8 seconds

398. If the prime mover of an alternator is a diesel engine, what should the Reverse
Power Relays pick up setting be ?
A. 10 - 15 %
B. 5 -10 %
C. 5 -12 %
D. 8 - 10 %

399. How can you monitor the correct instant for synchronising alternators should
your synchronising system (synchronoscope or lamps) be defective ?
A. By fitting a voltmeter over one phase
B. By fitting lamps crossed over two phases
C. By fitting two voltmeters crossed over two phases
D. By fitting lamps over the three phases

400. What can happen if only one generator is connected to the mains and several
large fans are started at the same time ?
A. The exhaust temperature of the auxiliary engine will raise
B. The lights may be a dimmed a little
C. Nothing special
D. The generator may trip on overload

401. Two generators are running in parallel. Generator one is delivering 300 Amps
more than the second generator. What is the best course of action ?
A. Adjust the excitation of the two generators to bring them level
B. Adjust the speed of both generators
C. Replace the A.V.R of the generator which has the highest current output
D. Adjust the speed of one generator

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DPKP

402. When two generators are being manually synchronized, when should the circuit
breaker be closed ?
A. When the synchroscope indicator is rotating fast and at 11 o'clock position
B. When the synchroscope indicator is rotating slowly clockwise and at 11
o'clock position
C. When the synchroscope indicator is rotating slow and at 3 o'clock position
D. When the synchroscope indicator is rotating fast and at 12 o'clock position

403. Why should a stationary alternator not be connected to live bus bars ?
A. Because the voltage of other alternators may fluctuate
B. Because the bus bars will be short circuited
C. Because the alternator is likely to run as a motor
D. Because the alternator will decrease the bus bar voltage

404. The voltage in an 60Hz AC generator is adjusted by:


A. the number of series conductors
B. the speed of the engine of the generator
C. the magnetic field strength
D. the number of poles

405. What is the function of the voltage regulator fitted to AC generators operating in
parallel ?
A. To cut in generators automatically as they are needed
B. To divide the KVA load equally between all connected generators
C. To divide the reactive current equally between the generators
D. To cut out generators not needed because of reduction in load

406. The failure of an AC generator to pick up voltage may be caused by:


A. A tripped bus circuit breaker
B. Failure of the exciter
C. Excessive prime mover speed
D. The generator's rotating speed is 10% below rated

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DPKP

407. What is the first step when removing a generator from parallel operation with
other generators?
A. Switch off all connected loads
B. Remove the load from the generator to be stopped
C. Increase the cycles of the generator(s) which remain on the line
D. Trip off the generator from the switchboard

408. What is the purpose of the reverse power relay connected to an AC diesel
generator ?
A. To maintain good load sharing
B. To prevent over speeding
C. To prevent the generator running as a motor
D. To prevent main circuit overload

409. Why is synchronization required when two diesel generators are due to be
connected to each other ?
A. If not, the electrical net voltage may be out of phase after generators have
been connected.
B. If two unsynchronized generators are connected, both the diesel prime
mover and the generator can be damaged.
C. Two generators which are not synchronized cannot be connected.
D. The overall insulation resistance can go down if no synchronization is
carried out.

410. What happens to the terminal voltage of an alternator producing 440 Volt when it
supplies a lagging power actor load, example induction motors ?
A. The terminal voltage will fluctuate around 440 Volt
B. The terminal voltage will drop below 440 Volt
C. The terminal voltage will be exactly 440 Volt
D. The terminal voltage goes above 440 Volt

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DPKP

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