CODE-B2

KCET – 2016 TEST PAPER WITH ANSWER KEY

(HELD ON WEDNESDAY 4th MAY, 2016)
BIOLOGY
1. Identify from the following group of animals, which 5. Which among these is not a post fertilization event ?
exhibit oestrous cycle. (1) Fruit formation
(1) Monkey, ape, man and elephant (2) Gametogenesis
(2) Lion, deer, dog and cow (3) Seed formation
(3) Lion, dog, monkey and ape (4) Embryogenesis
(4) Cow, monkey, elephant and ape Ans: (2)
Ans: (2) 6. Facultative absorption of water from primary urine is
influenced by the hormone
2. The codons UUU and UUC codes for phenylalanine
only. This feature of genetic code is called (1) Vasopressin
(2) Androgens
(1) Degenerate
(2) Commaless (3) Thyroxine
(4) Epinephrine
(3) Non-ambiguous
(4) Non-overlapping Ans: (1)
Ans: (1) 7. Digestion of proteins is incomplete in the absence of
enterokinase, because
3. Connel’s field experiment on the rocky sea coast of
Scotland, where larger Barnacle balanus dominates (1) Trypsinogen is not converted into trypsin.
the intertidal area and removes the smaller Barnacle (2) Pepsinogen is not converted into pepsin.
cathamalus. This happened due to (3) Prorennin is not converted into rennin.
(1) Parasitism (4) Chymotrypsinogen is not converted into
(2) Predation chymotrypsin.
(3) Mutualism Ans: (1)
(4) Competition
8. The puffed-up appearance of dough is due to
Ans: (4) fermentation by bacteria. Identify the gas liberated
4. The relative contribution of various green house gases during the process.
to total global warming is given in the following (1) Hydrogen sulphide
diagram : (2) Methane
(3) Ammonia
(4) Carbon dioxide
Ans: (4)
9. All the following interactions are mutualism, except
(1) Plant and animal relation for pollination
(2) Association of algae and fungi in lichens
(3) Association of cattle egret and grazing cattle
(4) Association of fungi and roots of higher plants in
mycorrhiza
Identify the green house gases. Ans: (3)
(1) A = CFCs;B= CO2 ;C= CH4 ; D= N2O
(2) A= CO2 ;B= CH4 ;C = CFCs;D= N2O
(3) A = CFCs ; B = CH4 ; C = CO2 ; D = N2O
(4) A= CO2 ;B = CFCs;C= CH4 ;D= N2O
Ans: (2)

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10. Identify the incorrect statement from the following. 15. Plants obtained through tissue culture are genetically
(1) Response of T-cells is called cell mediated identical and they are obtained by somatic cells. What
immunity. do you call them ?
(2) B-cells produce antibody. (1) Somatic hybrids
(2) Somaclones
(3) Macrophages are the phagocytic cells.
(3) Cross hybrids
(4) Interferons kill viruses.
(4) Monoclones
Ans: (4)
Ans: (2)
11. Elution means
16. A plant is provided with ideal conditions for
(1) Making the DNA bands visible under UV photosynthesis and supplied with isotope l4C02 . When
radiation. the products of the process are analysed carefully,
(2) Separation of DNA fragments on agarose gel. what would be the nature of products ?
(3) Isolating alien DNA from the choice organism. (1) Both glucose and oxygen are normal.
(4) Cutting and extraction of DNA bands from the (2) Both glucose and oxygen are labelled.
agarose gel. (3) Only glucose is labelled and oxygen is normal.
Ans: (4) (4) Only oxygen is labelled but glucose is normal.
12. Choose the correct sequence of events occur in Ans: (3)
human reproduction.
17. Sarcomere is the functional unit of contraction in a
(1) Gametogenesis ® insemination ® fertilization muscle fibre. Identify the portion of myofibril that
® implantation ® gestation ® parturition constitute a sarcomere.
(2) Gametogenesis ® gestation ® insemination ® (1) The portion of myofibril between two successive
fertilization ® implantation ® parturition ‘A’ band.
(3) Gestation ® gametogenesis ® insemination ® (2) The portion of myofibril between two successive
implantation ® fertilization ® parturition ‘Z’ line.
(4) Gametogenesis ® insemination ® % gestation (3) The portion of myofibril between two successive
® implantation ® fertilization ® parturition ‘M’ line.
Ans: (1) (4) The portion of myofibril between two successive
13. What is the role of competitive inhibitor during enzyme ‘I’ band.
action ? Ans: (2)
(1) It alters the active site of the enzyme and 18. Snow blindness is caused due to
prevents the binding of substrate.
(1) Acid rain (2) Ozone hole
(2) It enhances enzyme action.
(3) Green house effect (4) Nuclear winter
(3) It inhibits breaking of chemical bonds of the
Ans: (2)
substrate.
19. In a polysaccharide, number of monosaccharides are
(4) It declines the enzyme action.
linked by
Ans: (4)
(1) Glycosidic bond (2) Peptide bond
14. In which type of interactions, both the interacting
(3) Hydrogen bond (4) Phosphoester bond
organisms do not live close together ?
Ans: (1)
(1) Mutualism
(2) Predation 20. Which one of these is not an accessory glands in male
reproductive system ?
(3) Competition
(4) Parasitism (1) Cowper’s gland (2) Prostate gland
Ans: (3) (3) Bartholin’s gland (4) Seminal vesicle
Ans: (3)

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21. In a dithecous anther, each pollen sac contain 1000 27. The edible part of the fruit of apple is
MMC. What is the total number 6 of pollen-grains (1) Endocarp (2) Thalamus
produced by the anther ?
(3) Involucre (4) Pericarp
(1) 16,000 (2) 4,000
Ans: (2)
(3) 32,000 (4) 8,000
28. Lactational amenorrhea
Ans: (1)
(1) Prevents secretion of prol actin
22. Choose the incorrect statement from the following. (2) Prevents secretion of milk from breast
(1) Adipose tissue is a type of dense connective (3) Prevents spermatogenesis
tissue. (4) Prevents conception
(2) Tendons attach muscle to bone. Ans: (4)
(3) Cartilage is made up of chondrocytes. 29. The gene for haemophilia is located on ‘X’
(4) Ciliated epithelium is the modified columnar chromosome. Hence it is normally impossible for a
epithelium. (1) Carrier mother to pass the gene to her son.
Ans: (1) (2) Haemophilic father to pass the gene to his
23. What is the function of the enzyme ‘recombinase’ daughter.
during meiosis ? (3) Haemophilic father to pass the gene to his son.
(1) Condensation of chromosomes (4) Carrier mother to pass the gene to her daughter.
(2) Formation of synaptonemal complex Ans: (3)
(3) Alignment of bivalent chromosomes on equatorial 30. The primary treatment of sewage water involves
plate
(1) Anaerobic bacterial activity
(4) Crossing over between non-sister chromatids
(2) Sludge digestion
Ans: (4)
(3) Filtration and sedimentation
24. A person admitted to hospital as he had myocardial
(4) Aerobic bacterial activity
infarction. A cardiologist injecting him ‘streptokinase’,
why ? Ans: (3)
(1) It stimulates heart beat. 31. Which one of the following statements is not correct
(2) It reduces hypertension. about a plasmid ?
(3) It acts as clot buster. (1) It has the ability of autonomous replication.
(4) It reduces the level of blood cholesterol. (2) It is a circular DNA.
Ans: (3) (3) It’s DNA is as long as chromosomal DNA.
25. One of the following area is an example for secondary (4) It has antibiotic resistant gene.
succession, if the succession take splace in/on Ans: (3)
(1) Newly created pond 32. A scrubber in the exhaust of a chemical industry
(2) Abandoned farm land removes
(3) Bare rock (1) Nitrous oxide (2) Hydrogen sulphide
(4) Newly cooled lava (3) Carbon monoxide (4) Sulphur dioxide
Ans: (2) Ans: (4)
26. Desired genes have been introduced into transgenic 33. A doctor identifies symptoms of nasal congestion,
animals to obtain large scale production of useful headache, sore throat, hoarseness, cough in a patient.
biological products encoded by these genes. This The conclusion is that, the patient is infected by a
approach is generally referred to as pathogen
(1) Gene therapy (1) Plasmodium (2) Adeno virus
(2) Hybridoma technology
(3) Salmonella (4) Rhino virus
(3) Down stream processing
Ans: (4)
(4) Molecular farming
Ans: (4)

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34. Most suitable method of introducing alien DNA into a 40. ‘A’ and ‘B’ are the two adjacent living cells. The cell
plant cell is ‘A’ has solute potential ( y s) of - 9 bars and pressure
(1) Lipofection (2) Biolistics potential ( y p) of 4 bars, whereas cell ‘B’ has solute
(3) Heat shock method (4) Microinjection
potential ( y s) of -8 bars and pressure potential ( y p)
Ans: (2)
of 5 bars. What will be the direction of water
35. Some of the events occur during life cycle of movement between these cells ?
Plasmodium are given below. Identify the correct
(1) Do not move in any direction.
statement.
(2) Cell A to Cell B
(1) Female mosquito take up sporozoites with blood
meal. (3) Moves in both the directions.
(2) The sporozoites reproduce sexually in liver cells. (4) Cell B to Cell A
(3) When mosquito bites a man, gametocytes are Ans: (4)
injected. 41. From the following pedigree chart of a family, one
(4) The gametocytes develop in RBC. can make an analysis that,
Ans: (4)
36. The phenomenon called ‘Apical dominance’ in plants
is due to a phytohormone
(1) Cytokinins (2) Auxins
(3) ABA (4) Gibberellins
Ans: (2)
37. Match the plant structures given in the column-I with
their plants given in the column-II.
Column-I Column-II (1) It is an allosomal dominant trait.
A. Prothallus P. Bryophytes (2) It is an autosomal dominant trait.
B. Microsporophyll q. Pteridophytes (3) It is an allosomal recessive trait.
C. Protonema r. Angiosperms (4) It is an autosomal recessive trait.
D. PEN s. Gymnosperms Ans: (4)
(1) A-q, B-s, C-r, D-p (2) A-r, B-p, C-s, D-q 42. Find the mis-match from the following pairs :
(3) A-q, B-s, C-p, D-r (4) A-s, B-r, C-p, D-q (1) Natural selection ® Industrial melanism
Ans: (3) (2) Divergent evolution ® thorn of bougainvillia and
38. Pick the hormone which is not secreted by human tendril of cucurbita
placenta. (3) Genetic drift ® Constant gene frequency
(1) Prolactin (2) hCG (4) Adaptive radiation ® Australian marsupials
(3) Estrogen (4) hPL Ans: (3)
Ans: (1) 43. The hormone ‘melatonin’ is secreted by the gland
39. The gene disorder phenylketonuria is an example for (1) Pineal (2) Thyroid
(1) Multiple allelism (2) Polygenic inheritance (3) Pituitary (4) Adrenal
(3) Multiple factor (4) Pleiotropy Ans: (1)
Ans: (4)

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44. Which one of the following statement is correct ? 50. Read the following statements carefully and choose
(1) Chasmogamous flowers never exhibits autogamy. the correct statements :
(2) Chasmogamous flowers always exhibits a. In a transcription unit, the promoter located at
geitonogamy. the 5' end of coding strand.
(3) Cleistogamous flowers exhibits both autogamy b. The single strand DNA having the polarity 5' ® 3'
and geitonogamy. is the template strand.
(4) Cleistogamous flowers always exhibits autogamy. c. RNA polymerase binds to the operator during
transcription.
Ans: (4)
d. Single base DNA differences occur in humans
45. In plants, lateral roots arise from
are called Single Nucleotide Polymorphism (SNPs).
(1) Endodermis (2) Epidermis
(1) Statements b and d
(3) Pericycle (4) Hypodermis (2) Statements a and b
Ans: (3) (3) Statements a and d
46. Identify a micro-organism that can produces biomass (4) Statements b and c
of protein. Ans: (3)
(1) Methylophilus methylotrophus 51. In a taxonomic hierarchy, the number of common
(2) Monoscus purpureas characters will increase as we go from,
(3) Trichoderma polysporum (1) Class to Order
(4) Aspergillus niger (2) Species to Kingdom
Ans: (1) (3) Genus to Species
47. Identify the correct equation for Hardy-Weinberg law. (4) Kingdom to Species
(1) (p + q)2 = l (2) p + q= l Ans: (4)
2
(3) (p-q) = l (4) p-q = l 52. A human male is heterozygous for autosomal genes
Ans: (2) ‘A’ and ‘B’. He is also hemizygous for haemophilic
48. A population is correctly defined as having which of gene ‘h’. What percentage of sperms will carry ‘abh’
the following characteristics ? genotype ?
a. Inhabiting the same geography area (1) 75% (2) 25%
b. Individuals belonging to same species (3) 0% (4) 50%
c. Possessing a constant and uniform density and Ans: (BONUS)
dispertion 53. Find the sequence of binding of the following
(1) a and c only (2) a and b only aminoacyl t-RNA complexes during translation to m-
RNA transcribed by a DNA segment having the base
(3) b only (4) b and c only sequences 3’TACATGGGTCCG5'.
Ans: (2)
49. Offsprings formed during sexual reproduction exhibits
more variation than those formed by asexual method,
because,
(1) Sexual reproduction is more complicated.
(2) Genetic material comes from two different
individuals.
(3) Genetic material comes from male parent.
(4) Greater amount of DNA is involved.
Choose the answer showing the correct order of
Ans: (2)
alphabets.
(1) C, D, B, A (2) A,B,D,C
(3) D,C,A,B (4) B, A, D, C
Ans: (4)

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57. Amniocentesis is one of the methods
54. Some desert beetles can survive on “metabolic water”,
without ever drinking liquid water which (1) For foetal sex determination
(2) Adapted for MTP
(1) Is a breakdown product of pyruvate inside the
mitochondria, along with carbon dioxide. (3) Used for safe parturition
(4) Of birth control
(2) Was produced as water in the organisms they
eat. Ans: (1)
(3) Is a breakdown product from glycolysis in the 58. The rate of formation of new organic matter by deer
cytoplasm. in a forest ecosystem is called
(4) Is absorbed from the air along with respiratory (1) Standing crop
oxygen. (2) Primary productivity
Ans: (1) (3) Net Primary productivity
(4) Secondary productivity
55. Which one of the following statement is wrong with
respect to separation of DNA fragments on gel Ans: (4)
electrophoresis ? 59. One of the breeding techniques useful to eliminate
(1) The DNA fragments resolve according to their harmful recessive genes by selection is
size. (1) In-breeding (2) Artificial insemination
(2) The DNA fragments move towards anode under (3) MOET (4) Out-breeding
electric field through the matrix. Ans: (1)
(3) The smaller DNA fragments separate first. 60. A person who has allergy, the type of antibody
(4) The commonly used matrix is agarose gel. produced in his body is
Ans: (BONUS) (1) IgE (2) IgA
56. E. coli bacteria grew in l5NH4Cl medium for several (3) IgM (4) IgG
generations are allowed to grow in l4NH4Cl medium. Ans: (1)
After 2 generations, the bacteria are isolated from
the medium and DNA of bacteria centrifuged in CsCl.
The result of the density gradient of DNA is
(1) Both heavy and light DNA
(2) Only hybrid DNA
(3) Both hybrid and light DNA
(4) Both hybrid and heavy DNA
Ans: (3)

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