ESE 2018 Mock Test CE - 3 PDF

ENGINEERS ACADEMY
Civil Engg. ESE-2018 Mock Test Paper 1
1. Which of the following statement are correct 4. In PERT analysis, the time estimates of activities
(i) A dummy activity is artificially introduced in and probability of their occurance follow
a network when necessary (a) beta distribution
(ii) a dummy activity most necesarily be (b) gamma distribution
introduced in every network (c) normal distribution
(iii) A dummy activity is represented by dotted (d) poisson’s distribution
arrow
5. Total project cost versus time curve is a
(iv) A dummy activity does not consume time
(a) s-shaped curve
(a) (i), (ii) & (iii) (b) (i), (iii) & (iv)
(b) parabola
(c) (i), (ii) (d) (iii) & (iv)
(c) u-shaped curve
2. Match List-I (Chart) with List-II (Facilation) and
(d) straight line
select correct answer using codes given below
6. Sodium Absorption Ratio (SAR) is defined as
List-I List-II
Na  Na 
A. Bar chart 1. Activity dependencies can be
(a) (b)
implied Ca   Mg  2 Ca   Mg 
B. Milestone 2. Resource Na 
2Na 
 
bar chart requirement can be depicited (c) Ca  Mg (d)
Ca   Mg 
C. WBS 3. Higher level autorities can 2
effect monitoring and control 7. The amount of irrigation water required to meet
the evapotranspiration needs of the crop during
D. Linked 4. Trade based site supervision
its full growth is called
bar chart can be assigned (a) effective rainfall
Codes : A B C D (b) consumptive use
(a) 4 3 2 1 (c) consumptive irrigation requirement
(b) 2 3 4 1 (d) net irrigation requirement
(c) 4 1 2 3 8. Trap efficiency of a reservoir is a function of
(a) capacity / in flow ratio
(d) 2 1 4 3
(b) capacity / out flow ratio
3. A linkend bar chart is an improvement over a
(c) out flow / in flow ratio
conventional bar chart, because
(d) None of the above
(i) Resource for individual activities can be
9. The uplift pressure on the face of a drainage
planned
gallery in a dam is taken as
(ii) Floats will be available for utilization as (a) hydrostatic pressure at toe
needed
(b) average of hydrostatic pressure at toe and heel
(iii) Mile stone event need not be specially (c) two-third of hydrostatic pressure at toe plus
monitored one third of hydrostatic pressure at heel
Which of above is/are correct (d) None of the above
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) (iii) only
(c) (ii) only (d) (ii) and (iii)
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10. By providing a top width for roadway and free 16. Unequal top and bottom reinforcement in a
board in the elementary profile of a gravity dam, reinforced concrete section leads to
the resultant force for full reservoir condition will (a) creep deflection
(a) Shift towards the heel
(b) shrinkage deflection
(b) Shift towards the toe
(c) long term deflection
(c) Not shift at all
(d) large deflection
11. Negative moment in reinforced concrete beam 17. The second sfage BOD as sown in figure is due to
at the location of support is generally much higher
than the positive span moment. This is primarily
due to curvature at the support being nd
2 stage BOD
BOD (mg/L)
(a) very high (b) very low st
(c) zero (d) of reversing nature 1 stage BOD
12. A double reinforced beam is considered less
economical than a singly reinforced beam because
(a) tensile steel required is more than that for a
balanced section (a) experimental error
(b) shear reinforcement is more (b) increased activity of bacteria
(c) concrete is not stressed to its full value (c) nitrification demand
(d) compressive steel is under stressed (d) interferance by certain chemical reactions.
13. In limit state design of reinforced concrete,
18. What does high COD to BOD ratio of an organic
deflection is computed by using
pollutant represent
(a) Initial tangent modulus
(b) Secant modulus (a) High biodegradability of the pollutant
(c) tangent modulus (b) Low biodegradability of the pollutant
(d) short and long-term values of Young’s modulus (c) Presence of free oxygen for aerobic
14. A reinforced cantilever beam of span 4m has a decomposition
cross section of 150 × 500mm. If checked for
lateral stability and deflection, the beam will be (d) presence of toxic material in the pollutants
(a) Fail in deflection only 19. From ecological considerations, the minimum level
(b) Fail in lateral stability only of dissolved oxygen (DO) necessary in rivers is
(c) Fail in both deflection and lateral stability (a) 1 mg/L (b) 4 mg/L
(d) Satisfy the requirement of deflection and lateral (c) 2 mg/L (d) 10 mg/L
stability
15. The reduction coefficient of a reinforced concrete
column with an effective length of 4.8 m and
size 250 × 300 mm is
(a) 0.80 (b) 0.85
(c) 0.90 (d) 0.95

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20. Sewage sickness is a term used for 24. A 6 mm thick angle section is jointed to a 10 mm
(a) A treatment plant does not function properly thick gusset plate. The angle is supporting a load
of 55 kN. What is the number of 16 mm diameter
(b) Sewage / polluted water mix with drinking
power driven rivets.
water
(a) 3 (b) 4
(c) A stream where flora and fauna die due to
sewage inflow (c) 5 (d) 6
(d) The condition of land where sewage is 25. Which one of the following is most suitable weld
applied continuously for a long period under alternating stresses
21. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct (a) Convex fillet weld
answer using the codes given below (b) Concave fillet weld
List-I List-II (c) Square butt weld
A. Manning’s 1. Frictional head loss (d) Bevel bult weld
equation estimation in pipe 26. A bult weld (double U-type) is used to connect
B. Darcy- 2. Sanitary sewer design two plates 180 mm × 18 mm each. What is the
weisbach stress developed in the weld if it is subjected to
a moment of 13000 kNmm
C. Hardy-cross 3. Storm sewer design
(a) 130.26 N/mm2 (b) 133.74 N/mm2
method
(c) 140.43 N/mm2 (d) 142.64 N/mm2
D. Rational 4. Water distribution
method system design 27. Elastic critical stress in compression in column is
given by
Codes : A B C D
(a) 1 4 3 2 2 E 2 E
(a) (b)
(b) 2 1 4 3 2 
(c) 2 1 3 4 E E2
(d) 1 4 2 3 (c)  (d)
 
22. For combined sewerage system, the egg shaped 28. The concept of continuum in fluid flow assume
sewers preferred because that the characteristic length of the flow is
(a) Their construction is economical (a) Smaller than the mean free path of the
(b) They perform satisfactorily during dry molecules
weather flow
(b) Larger than the dimensions of the suspended
(c) Their maintenance is easier particles
(d) They are structurally more stable than other (c) Larger than the dimensions of the suspended
shape sewer particles
23. A tie bar 50 mm × 8 mm is to carry a load of (d) Larger than the wavelength of sound in the
80 kN. A specimen of the same quality steel of medium
cross sectional area 250 mm2 was tested in the
29. The basic differential equation for the variation
laboratory. The maximum load carried by the of pressure 'p' in the static fluid with vertical
specimen was 125 kN. What is the factor of distance 'y' (measured upwards) is
safety in the design.
(a) dp = –dy (b) dy = –dp
(a) 1.5 (b) 2.0
(c) dp = –dy (d) dp = –dy
(c) 2.5 (d) 3.0
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30. In a steady flow

(a) Stream lines & pathlines are identical but are
different from streak line (a)
(b) Streak line & path line are identical but are
different from steam lines
(c) Stream line, streak line and path line can all
be different from each other (b)
31. Section 'A' and 'B' in a pipe line (as shown in the
figure) are at same elevation of 2.5 m above the
datum level. A valve lies in between 'A' and 'B'.
(c)
The flow parameters at 'A' are; velocity head of
0.5 m and pressure head of 2.5 m. The valve loss
is 0.2 m. The piezometric head at 'B' is
(d)
A B
34. A steel wire of diameter d is bend over a drum of
(a) 5.5 m (b) 5.3 m
radius r as shown in figure. The maximum bending
(c) 5.0 m (d) 4.8 m stress in the wire will be.
32. The dimensionless combination of pressure drop d
P, dynamic viscosity 'µ', velocity 'V' and
length 'L' is
ΔPµL ΔP
(a) (b) µVL
V r
ΔPL ΔPµ
(c) µV (d) 2 Ed Er
V L (a) (b)
2r  d 2r  d
33. A cantilever beam carries the antisymmetric load
shown, where w 0 is the peak intensity of Ed Er
distributed load. Qualitatively, the correct bending (c) (d)
r  2d r  2d
moment diagram for this beam is
w0 35. If a beam with two side horizontal rotates by 45°
about its longitudinal axis then the ratio of bending
A B
strength for beam for situation first to situation
w0 second.
L L
1
(a) 2 (b)
2
1
(c) 2 (d)
2

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36. For a solid circular shaft subjected top twisting 39. A vertical photograph of a chimney was taken
moment then if the length of this shaft is increases from an elevation of 500 m above MSL. The
to some value for same of the properties elevation of the base of the chimney was 250m.
If the relief displacement of the top of chimey
(a) angle of twist will be increase
was 51.4 mm and radial distance of the image
(b) angle of shear will be increase of the top of chimney was 110mm. The height
of chimney is
(c) angle of twist will be decrease
(a) 233.64 m (b) 133.2 m
(d) angle of shear will be decrease (c) 116.82 m (d) 58.41 m
37. Match List-I (Term) with List-II (Defination) 40. In the case of line of levels, the weight varies
and select the correct answer using codes given (a) directly as the length of the route
below : (b) inversaly as the length of route
List-I (c) directly as square root of length of the route
(d) inversaly as square root of the length of the
A. Apparent solar day
route
B. Sidereal day 41. The plan of a map was photocopied to reduced
C. Tropical year size such that a line orginally 100mm, measures
95mm. The original scale of plane was 1 : 1000.
D. Sideroal year
The revised scale will be
List-II (a) 1 : 1053 (b) 1 : 1000
1. The time internal between two successive (c) 1 : 950 (d) 1 : 1111
upper transits of the first point of Aries over
42. A beam AB is supported by spring at C. (Stiffness
the same meridian
of spring = K). Vertical at simple support A is
2. The internal between two successive lower
transits of the centre of sun accross the same given by-
3. Time internal between two successive passage W
of sun over the meridain of any one of the
A C B
fixed star L/2 L/2
4. Time internal between two successive vanl
K
equinoxes.
Codes : A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
W W
(b) 2 1 4 3
 KL3 
(c) 2 1 3 4 (a) 2  1  48EI  (b) 2  1  
 KL3   48EI 
(d) 1 2 4 3
38. If angular measurement of traverse are more
accurate than the linear measurements, balancing
W
of the traverse mostly done by
(c)  KL3  (d) None
(a) Axis method (b) Bowditch method 2 1  
(c) Transit method (d) Arbitrary method  48EI 

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43. A beam AB is fixed at supports. At point C 4m 48. The number of conflict point when two lane
from A, moment 10 kN.m(CW) is applied. roads both are one way is ‘x’ and when one
Moment reaction at A will be road one way and other one is two way is ‘y’
the ratio of x to y is
10 kN.m (a) 0.545 (b) 0.73
A B
4m 2m (c) 0.25 (d) 0.33
49. Consider the following factors regarding
(a) 3.33 kNm (ACW) geometric design of highways
(b) 3.33 kNm (CW) 1. Headligth beam distance

2. Sight distance requirement
(c) Zero
3. Deviation angle
(d) None
4. Drainaje
44. For a structural member having EI elastic
Which of the following is used for determining
curve is represented by the length of summit curve.
(a) Parabolic curve (a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 3
(b) Circular curve (c) 1 and 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) Straight line 50. Composite sleeper index is the index of
(a) hardness and strength
(d) None
(b) strength and toughness
45. If members are extensible then
(c) toughness and war resistance
Number of independent displacements at A is
(d) hardness and wear resistance
51. Surkhi is added to lime mortar to
A
(a) Prevent shrinkage
(a) 3 (b) 4
(b) Decrease setting time
(c) 5 (d) 6
(c) Increase bulk
46. RC-2, MC-2 and SC-2 related as
(d) Impart hydraulicty
(a) Same viscosity
52. The role of superplasticizer in a cement paste is to
(b) Viscosity in decreasing order from RC-2 to (a) disperse the particles
SC-2
(b) disperse the particles and to remove air
(c) Viscosity in increasing order from SC-2 to bubbles
RC-2
(c) disperse the particles, remove air bubbles
(d) None of the above and to retard setting
47. Marshal flow value is expressed in unit of (d) refard setting
(a) 25 mm (b) 0.25 mm
(c) 8 mm (d) 2 mm

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53. During the conversion of timber by sawing, in 58. For an overconsolidated clay soil deposit, the
order to obtain strong timber pieces, the cuts pressure under which the deposit has been fully
should be made by consolidated in the past is 125 kN/m2 and the
(a) ordinary sawing (b) tangential sawing present overburden pressure is 75 kN/m2, the
overconsolidation ratio of the soil deposit is
(c) quarter sawing (d) radial sawing
75 50
54. The approximate ratio between the strengths of (a) (b)
cement concrete at 7 days and 28 days is 125 75
125 200
(a) 3/4 (b) 2/3 (c) (d)
75 75
(c) 1/2 (d) 1/3
59. Given that
55. Principle setllement is relatively higher for
n = natural frequency of foundation soil system
(a) Isolated fottings on clays
cu = coefficient of elastic uniform compressional soil
(b) Isolated footings on sands
(c) Rafts on clays A = contanct area of foundation with soil and
(d) Rafts on sands m = mass of machive plus foundation

56. Figure shows the relation between void ratio and Natural frequency of foundation soil system for
shear strain for sand under two density analysis of machine foundation shall be
conditions. The void ratio corresponding to the determined by Barken's method using the
dashed line in called equation.
A A
(a) n  c u (b) n  c u
loose m m
Void ratio
A cu A
Dense (c) n  cu (d) n 
m m
60. Which one of the following diagram correctly

shear strain illustrates the Mohr ’s stress conditions of
(a) optimum void ratio unconfined shear test on cohesive soil ?
(b) critial void ratio (x – axis normal stress ; y -axis shear stress)
(c) residual void ratio
y y
(d) undistrarbed void ratio
57. The time 't' required for attaining a certain degee
(a) (b)
of consolidation of a clay layer is proportional to
(a) H2 and Cv (b) H2 and 1/Cv x x
(c) 1/H2 and Cv (d) 1/H2 and 1/Cv

y y
(c) (d)
x x
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61. The difference between maximum void ratio and 65. Which of the following techniques most suitable
minimum void ratio of a sand sample is 0.30. If in case of research and development type of
the relative density of this sample is 66.6% at a activity
void ratio of 0.40, then the void ratio of this
(a) Critical path method
sample at its loosest state will be
(b) Bar chart
(a) 0.40 (b) 0.60
(c) Graphical evaluation and reiew technique
(c) 0.70 (d) 0.75
(d) Project evaluation and review technique
62. A vane shear test on a soil sample gives moment
of total resistance M. the shear stress failure, ‘s’ 66. Slack time in PERT analysis
being more or less uniform at top, bottom and (a) is minimum for critical activities
surface of cylinder at soil, is given by (where H
= height of vane, D = diameter of vane) (b) an never be less than zero
2M 2M (c) can never be greater than zero

(a) S  (b) S 2
D 2 H D (H  D) (d) is always zero for critical activity
2M 67. Consider the following statement of network

S 2M
(c) 2 D (d) S  1. Only one time estimate is required for each
D  H  
 3 D 2 H activity
63. The critical path of the network shown below is 2. Three time estimate for each activity
2 9 4 3. Time and cost both are controlling factor
6
1 14
4. It is build-up of event oriented diagram
8 14 12
9 Which of the following statement are correctly
3 5 7 9
applicable to CPM netwrok
10 15
13 (a) 1 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
6 8
(a) 1 – 3 – 5 – 7 – 9 (c) 2 and 4 (d) 3 and 4
(b) 1 – 3 – 6 – 8 – 9 68. Overhead expensed on a project are included in
(c) 1 – 2 – 4 – 7 – 9 (a) indirect cost (b) direct cost
(d) 1 – 3 – 5 – 6 – 8 – 9 (c) variable cost (d) fixed cost
64. Which of the following statement is not correct 69. In the time cost optimisation of a project, the
(a) Interfering floats is the excess of total float project can be crashed by expediting
over free float (a) all activities on the critical path
(b) For each critical activity total, free and (b) critical activities having minimum cost slope
independent float are equal to zero (c) activities on sub critical path
(c) Total float is the sum of the free, interfering (d) critical activities having maximum cost slope
and independent float
(d) An activity with some free float cannot be
a critical activity

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70. Which of the following pairs is not correctly (a) 11.7 (b) 8.8
matched ?
(c) 6.5 (d) 7.5
(a) Bowditch’s rule : Employed to adjust closing
error of a closed traverse 74. A truss is shown below, total strain energy of
(b) Declination : Horizontal angle between K
truss is given by , where K is (Nearest
magnetic meridian and true meridian AE
(c) Angle of dip : The vertical angle of magnetic integer)
flux direction with respect to horizontal line 12kN 12kN
(d) Reconassaince : Employed for detalied and
precise survey
71. The sensitiveness of a bubble tube in a level
would decrease is 3m
(a) Increase in radius of curvature of internal
surface
(b) Increase in diameter of level tube
(c) Decrease in viscosity of liquid 4m 4m 4m 4m
(d) Decrease in length of bubble tube (a) 4072 (b) 6072
72. Degree of static indterminacy of following frame is (c) 5072 (d) 8080
75. Degree of curve of BMD of following cantilever
which is loaded by parabolic loading as shown,
below is
2°parabola
w
A B
(a) 3 (b) 4
(a) 7 (b) 9
(c) 5 (d) 6
(c) 5 (d) 6
76. A cantilever AB is loaded as shown in following
73. A continuous beam ABC is fixed at A and simply WL3
figure. Slope at free end B is given by K. ,
supported at B & C as shown below support C EI
settles by 3mm them induced moment at support where K is. (upto two digits after decimal)
A is (in kNm, upto two digits after decimal )
B C
A 2w
4m 3m
3mm settlement w
B A
L
E = 105 N/mm2 EI = constant
I = 3 × 108mm4 (a) 0.21 (b) 1.11

(c) 0.45 (d) 6.5
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77. Force in the member PQ of following pin jointed (a) Avoid reversal of flow
truss is (in kN, upto two digits after decimal ) (b) Reduce the water hummer effect in pipe line
Q (c) Prevent occurrence of mass oscillation of water
(d) None of these
4m
84. Timber can be made more fire resistance by
P (a) Dipping and steeping process
10 kN
6@4m (b) Sir Abel’s process
(a) 6.6 (b) 7.07 (c) Charring
(d) Hot and cold open tank treatment
(c) 1.52 (d) 2.82
85. For a given environment, the most significant
78. The following boundary condition exist at the wall factor that influences the total shrinkage of
(y = 0) in a boundary layer concrete is
dP  (a) cement content of mix
(a) u = U (b)  Ve
dx
(b) total amount of water added at the time of
(c) τ 0  0 (d) u = 0, v = 0 mixing
79. Pressure drag result due to (c) size of the member concreted
(a) Formation of wake (d) maximum size of the coarse aggregate used
(b) Turbulence in wake 86. The aggregate crushing value of coarse
(c) Existence of stagnation point in front of a body aggregates which is used for making concrete,
(d) High Reynold’s number which in turn is used for purposes other than
80. Shear stress in turbulent flow is due to wearig surfaces, should not exceed
(a) The viscous property of the fluid (a) 30 % (b) 40 %
(b) The fluid density (c) 45 % (d) 50%
(c) Fluctuation of velocity in the direction of flow 87. Which of the following cements is suitable for
(d) fluctuation of the velocity in the direction of use in massive concrete structures such as large
flow as well as transverse to it dam ?
81. Three pipes are connected in series, then (a) ordinary portland cement
(a) The head loss in each pipe is the same (b) low heat cement
(b) The total discharge is the sum of the discharge (c) rapid hardening cement
in the individual pipes (d) sulphate resisting cement
(c) The discharge through each pipe is the same 88. Match List-I (curve) with List-II (design factor)
(d) The Reynolds number for each pipe is same and select the correct answer using codes given
82. In a venturimeter, the coefficient of discharge Cd below
is related to the head loss between the inlet and
List-I List-II
throat as
A. summit curve 1. super elevation
 2
(a) 1  Cd Δh  (b) 1  C d 2 Δh B. Sag curve 2. Setback distance
2 C. Horizontal cruve 3. right of way
2
 1 
(c) 1  C d Δh  (d)   1 Δh
 Cd  D. Transition cruve 4. headlight sight distance
83. The function of surge tank is to
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5. passing sight distance (a) 3000 mm (b) 1900 mm

Codes : A B C D (c) 1600 mm (d) 1500 mm
94. Torsion resisting capacity of a given RC section
(a) 5 1 3 2
(a) decreases with decrease is stirrup spacing
(b) 4 3 2 1
(b) decreases with increase in longitudinal bars
(c) 5 2 3 1
(c) does not depends open stirrup and
(d) 5 4 2 1 longitudinal steels
89. The maximum and minimum gradient provided (d) increase with the increase in stirrup and
for station and yards are longitudinal steels
(a) 1 in 400 and 1 in 1000 95. Lacey's regime scour depth is given by
1/3 1/6
(b) 1 in 1000 and 1 in 400 q  q2 
(a) 1.35   (b) 1.35  
(c) 1 in 400 and 1 in 500 f   f 
(d) 1 in 500 and 1 in 400 1/3 1/6
 q2   q2 
90. Which of the following distance the minimum (c) 1.35   (d) 1.3  
required sigth distance in valley curve?  f   f 
(a) Design speed Where q is discharge per unit width and f is silt
factor
(b) Height of obstacle
96. Wetted perimeter of a regime channel for a
(c) Height of driver eye level discharge of 64 cumecs as per Lacey's theory
(d) Night time driving condition will be
(a) 19 m (b) 38 m
91. What is the ratio of deflection at centre for a
flexible plate and rigid plate of same diameter ? (c) 57 m (d) 76 m
97. The maxsimum rainfall depth of 300 mm in 24
(a) 0.79 (b) 1.18 hours has a return period of 100 years. The
(c) 1.27 (d) 1.5 probability of 24 hours rainfall equal to or greater
92. The load carrying capacity of a column designed than 300 mm occuring at least once in 10 years
by working stress method is 500 kN. The is given by
collapse load of the column is (a) (0.99)10 (b) 1–(0.99)10
(c) (0.9)100 (d) 1–(0.9)100
(a) 500.0 kN (b) 662.5 kN
98. The stage of river carrying a discharge of Q
(c) 750.0 kN (d) 1100.0 kN
m3/sec at a point is 10m and slope of water
93. A T-beam roof section has the following particulars  1 
Thickness of slab = 100 mm surface is   . The discharge of a flood at
 4000 
Width of rib = 300 mm the same point and same stage of 10m with a
depth of beam = 500 mm  1 
water surface slope of   will be
Centre to centre distance of beam = 3.0 m  1000 
3
Effective span of beams = 6.0 m (a) 2 Q m /sec (b) 0.5Q m3/sec
Distance between points of contraflexure =3.60 m (c) 2Q m3/sec (d) 4Q m3/sec
The effective width of flange of the beam is 99. The peak of a 4 hour flood hydrograph is 240
m3/sec. If the rainfall excess is 80mm and base
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3
flow which is constant is 40m /sec, then the seen
peak of 4-hours unit hydrograph will be w (UDL)
3 3
(a) 20 m /sec (b) 25 m /sec
(c) 30 m3/sec (d) 35 m3/sec
L
100. According to indian standards, the number of
(a)
raingauge station for an area of 5200 km2 in
plastic plastic
plains should be hinge hinge
(a) 10 (b) 15
(c) 20 (d) 40 (b)
101. What is the maximum slenderness ration () for The value of w1 (plastic moment of resistance =
compression flange of a beam Mp) is
(a) 250 (b) 300 (a) 24 Mp/L (b) 16 Mp/L
(c) 350 (d) 400 (c) 12 Mp/L (d) 8 Mp/L
106. The thickness of web for unstiffened plate girder
102. The angle of dispersion of a concentrated load with clear distance of between the flanges shall
on the flange to the web plate of a steel beam is not be less than
(a) 90° with the horizontal (a) d/200 (b) d/85
(b) 60° with the vertical
(c) d/100 (d) d/160
(c) 45° with the horizontal
107. High yield deformed bars have a
(d) 30° with the vertical
103. The connection of intermediate vertical stiffeness (a) Definite yield value
to the web not subjected to external loads, shall (b) Chemical composition different from mild steel
be designed for a minimum shear force of (c) Percentage elongation less than that of mild
(a) 75 t2/h (b) 125 t3/h2 steel
(c) 125 t2/h (d) 175 t2/h
(d) Percentage elongation more than that of mild
Where t = the web thickness in mm
steel.
h = the outstand of stiffener in mm
108. Main gases liberated from anaerobic sludge
104. In the T-section shown in fig. (dimension in mm)
digestion tank would include
the distance of plastic neutral axis from top is
(a) ammonia and carbon dioxide
40
(b) carbon dioxide and methane
10
(c) ammonia and methane
(d) methane and hydrogen sulphide
50 109. The correct sequency of sludge disgestion steps is
(a) Hydrolysis  acid formation  methane
formation
10 (b) Methane formation  acid formation 
(a) 10 (b) 15 hydrolysis
(c) 20 (d) 30 (c) Hydrolysis  methane formation  acid
105. A fixed beam as shown in fig (a) is loaded with formation
a U.D.L. over the entire span; the total load
(d) acid formation  hydrolysis  methane
being w; When load was just increased to w1,
formation
the deformed shape as shown in fig (b) was
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110. Which of the following cation imparts pseudo- thickness is t, the Poisson’s ratio for vessel
hardness to water material is  then what is the volumetric strain
(a) Calcium for this vessel is modulus of elasticity is E
(b) Magnesium
3PD 3PD
(c) Calcium and magnesium (a) (1  ) (b) (1  )
2tE 4tE
(d) Sodium
111. For a cylindrical pressure vessel with spherical PD PD
(c) (5  4) (d) (5  4)
end if the hoop strain at junction is same the what 4tE 2tE
will be ratio of thickness for spherical to cylindrical
115. The energy absorbed in a body, when it is strained
part of vessel. If Poisson’s ratio for pressure vessel
within the elastic limit is known as
material is m
(a) strain energy (b) resilience
m 1 2m  1
(a) (b) (c) proof resilience (d) modulus of resilience
2m  1 m 1
116. Match List-I (types of test and material) with
m 1 2m  1 List-II (types of fractures) and select the correct
(c) (d)
2m  1 m 1 answer using the codes given below
112. Two identical cantilever beams are supported as List-I
shown, with their free ends in contact through a (a) tensile test on CI
rigid roller. After the load P is applied the free
(b) torsion test on MS
ends will have
(c) tensile test on MS
P
(d) torsion test on CI
List-II
1. Plain fracture on transverse plain
2. Granular helicoidal fracture
(a) equal deflection but not equal slopes
3. Plain granular at 45° to the axis
(b) equal slopes but not equal deflection 4. cup and cone
(c) equal slopes as well as equal deflection 5. Granular fracture on a transverse plane
(d) neither equal slopes nor equal deflection
Codes : A B C D
113. If a triangular section subjected to transverse shear
(a) 4 2 3 1
then the distance between the centroid and
(b) 5 1 4 2
maximum shear stress line if the height of section
is h (c) 4 1 3 2
(d) 5 2 4 1
h h 117. Which one of the following properties cannot be
(a) (b)
6 3 evaluated by static tension test
(a) shear strength (b) modular of elasticity
h h
(c) (d) (c) ductility (d) Poisson’s ratio
2 8
118. A vane 20 cm long and 10 cm in diameter was
114. A thin spherical vessel is subjected to internal fluid pressed into a soft marine clay at the bottom of
pressure P the inner dia of vessel is D and
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a bore hole. Torque was applied gradually and WL

failure occured at 1000 kg/cm. The cohension o (c) (d) None
2
2
the clay in kg/cm is.
122.Moment ‘M’ to be applied at supports to make
1 6 1 5 zero deflection at mid span C is-
(a)  (b) 
 7  7 P
1 4 1 3 A B
(c)  (d)  C
 7  7 M
L L
119. A building is supported on shallow foundation in 2 2
sand at 1 m below ground level. The water table
PL PL
at 5m below the ground surface. For which one (a) (b)
of the following foundation will the net bearing 6 3
capacity of the soil be a maximum. PL
(c) (d) zero
(a) 2 m wide strip footing 2
(b) 2m × 2m square footing 123.A pully is fixed at joint D of the truss as shown
(c) 2m diameter circular footing in figure. Force in member AB is given by
(d) 4m × 1m rectangular footing String

D C
120. Terzaghi's equation of ultimate bearing capacity
for a strip footing may be used for square footing
resting on pure caly soil with the correction factor
(a) 0.4 (b) 0.6 10kN 4m
(c) 1.2 (d) 1.3

121.In the following frame a cable DCE is attached A B
at D and C with the members AD & BE
respecitvely. AD & BE are fixed at A & B 4m
respectively. Induced fixed end moment at support (a) 10 kN (C) (b) 10 kN (T)
A when load W acts at C, is-
A B (c) 10 2 kN (T) (d) None
124.Which type of equilibrium the member AB is in?

L Hinge
A
D E
60°
30°
C
B
W W
WL WL 3 (a) Stable (b) Unstable
(a) (b)
4 4
(c) Neutral (d) All of the above
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ENGINEERS ACADEMY
125.Which type of instability is present in the following (c) resource levelling

structure (d) updating
131. Which of the following rules should be followed
while doing the resource scheduling ?
1. CPM network logic must be maintained
(a) Static instabilitty (b) Geometric instability 2. Activities on the critical path must use normal
crew size
(c) Both (d) None
3. Activities on non-critical path must use
126. Francis turbines are available in the following minimum crew size
range of specific speed
Select correct answer using the codes given below :
(a) 8–30 (b) 40–420
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 380–950 (d) 10–300
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 3
127. The condition of no slip at rigid boundaries is 132. Reinforced concrete door and window frame
applicable to can be compacted using
(a) Flow of Newtonian fluids only 1. needle vibrator 2. plate vibrator
(b) Flow of ideal fluids only 2. form vibrator 4. tamping
(c) Flow of all real fluids the correct sequence of these equipment in order
(d) Flow of non-Newtonian fluids only of preference (from the best to the worst) is
(a) 2, 3, 1, 4 (b) 3, 2, 1, 4
128. Aneroid barometer measures
(c) 2, 3, 4, 1 (d) 3, 2, 4, 1
(a) local atmospheric pressure
133. Grader is used mainly for
(b) standard atmospheric pressure
(a) trimming and finishing
(c) gauge pressure
(b) shaping and trimming
(d) difference between the standard and local
(c) finishing, shaping and trimming
atmospheric pressure
(d) finishing and shaping
129. In a cylinder containing a liquid is rotated about a
134. What is efflorescence
vertical axis coinciding with the axis of the cylinder,
the pressure in vertical direction (a) Formation of white patches on the brick
surface due to insoluble salts in the brick
(a) Decreases as depth clay
(b) Increases as depth (b) Swelling of brick due to presence of
(c) Increases as square root of depth carbonaceous matter and gas
(c) Deformaiton of brick due to exposure to rain
(d) Decreases as square root of depth
(d) impurities in the brick clay which show after
130. What is the process of incorporating changes burning.
and rescheduling or replanning called ?
135. The coefficient of linear expansion of granite is
(a) Resource allocation in the ragne of that of
(b) resource smoothing (a) glass (b) mild steel
(c) high carbon steel (d) bamboo
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ENGINEERS ACADEMY
136. To make one cubic metre of 1 : 2 : 4 by volume 5. Filtration

concrete, the volume of course aggregates (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2, 3 and 5
required is
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 4
(a) 0.95 m3 (b) 0.85 m3
142. For a deep beam whose overall depth is 5.0 m
(c) 0.75 m3 (d) 0.65 m3
and effective span is 6m, the lever arm for simply
137. The most important purpose of frog in a brick is to
supported beam will be
(a) emboss manufactures's name
(b) reduce the weight of brick (a) 3.2 m (b) 3.6 m
(c) from keyed joint between brick and mortar (c) 2.7 m (d) 3.0 m
(d) improve insulation by providing 'hollows' 143. A beam of balanced section has to be
138. Bureau of indian standard classifies bitumen into construction along a sea-cost. Find the stress
grades 65/25, 85/40 etc. The first and second in steel at failure as per working stress
numbers respectively refer to method (Assume minimum grade of concrete
(a) soffening point and penetration is used for given condition as per
(b) penetration and softening point IS 456 : 2000, and Fe 415)
(c) flash point and penetration (a) 215 MPa (b) 230 MPa
(d) flash point and softening point (c) 245 MPa (d) 260 MPa
139. Blast furance slag has approximately
144. Due to circumferential action of the spiral in a
(a) 45% calcium oxide and about 35% silica
spirally reinforced column
(b) 50% alumina and 20% calcium oxide
(c) 25% magnesia and 15% silica (a) Capacity of column is decreased
(d) 25% calcium sulphate and 15% alumina (b) Ductility of column reduces
140. Consider the following statements. (c) Capacity of column is decreased but ductility
1. Carbonate hardness is due to bicarbonates of column increases
2. Non-carbonate hardness is due to sulphates (d) Both the capacity of column and ductility
and chlorides of Ca and Mg of column increases
3. Both the hardness can be removed by lime
145. In T-shaped R.C. rataining walls, the main
soda method
reinforcement in the stem is provided on
4. Both the hardness can be removed by ion-
exchange method (a) the front face in one direction
Which of these statement are correct (b) the front face in both direction
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (c) the inner face in one direction
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4 (d) the inner face in both direction
141. Which of the following treatment reduce salinity 146. Due to shrinkage stresses, a simply supported
of water ? beam having reinforceemnt only at bottom tends
1. Flash mixing and sedimentation to
2. Electrolysis (a) deflect downward
3. Reverse osmosis
4. Freezing
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ENGINEERS ACADEMY
(b) deflect upward (b) y-y axis
(c) deflect downward or upward (c) the diagonal of the section

(d) None of the above (d) x-x - or y-y without any preference
147. Match List-I (water treatment) with list-II 150. A circular shaft shown in the figure is subjected
(operating problem) and select the correct answer to torsion T at two points A and B. The torsional
using the coes given below the list rigidity of portions CA and BD is GJ1 and that of
portion AB is GJ2 the rotation of shaft at points A
List-I List-II
and B are 1 and 2. Then the rotation  is
A. Trickling filter 1. Negative head
C A B D
B. Activated sludge 2. Fly breeding
process T T
L L L
C. Rapid gravity 3. sludge bulking
filter TL TL
D. Anaerobic sludge 4. pH reduction (a) GJ  GJ (b) GJ
1 2 1
digester
Codes : A B C D
TL TL
(c) GJ (d) GJ  GJ
2 1 2
(a) 4 3 1 2
(b) 4 1 3 2
(c) 2 1 3 4
(d) 2 3 1 4
148. Which one of the following is the correct
expression for maximum shear stress induced in
the wire of a closed-coiled helical spring of wire
diameter d and mean coil radius R which carries
an axial load w?
16wR w
(a) 3 (b)
d  d 2 
 
 4 
w
  16wR
2
(c) (d)
 d 2  d
 
 4 
149. A column of rectangular section (I xx > Iyy) is
subjected to an axial load. What is the axis about
which the column will have a tendency to buckle
(a) x-x axis

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ANSWER & EXPLANATION

1. Ans.(b) 20. Ans. (d)
2. Ans.(b) 21. Ans. (b)
3. Ans.(a) 22. Ans. (b)
4. Ans.(a) 23. Ans. (c)
5. Ans.(c) Yield strength for the steel
6. Ans.(c)
maximum load
7. Ans.(c) =
cross-sectional area
8. Ans.(a)
9. Ans.(c) 125  1000
10. Ans.(a) = = 500 N/mm2
250
11. Ans.(a)
80  1000
12. Ans.(d) Working stress = = 200 N/mm2
50  8
13. Ans.(d)
14. Ans.(c) yield strength 500
Factor of safety = = = 2.5
working stress 200
L
For failure in deflection 7
D 24. Ans. (a)
For lateral stability, L should not be greater than Gross dia of rivet
25 b = d = 16 + 1.5 = 17.5 mm
Strength of rivet in single shear
L 4000
Since = = 8 and 25b = 3750 mm
D 500  2
= d  vf
beam fails both in deflection and lateral stability 4
15. Ans.(b)

Reduction coefficient is given by =  (17.5) 2  100  103
4
Le = 24.052 kN
= 1.25 –
48b Using minimum thickness of the section
t = 6mm
4800
= 1.25 –  Strength of rivet in bearing
48  250
= 0.85 = d.t. pf
16. Ans.(b) = 17.5 × 6 × 300 × 10–3
17. Ans. (c) = 31.50 kN
18. Ans. (b) Strength of rivet = min of strength in shear and

bearing
19. Ans. (b)
= (24.052, 31.50)

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ENGINEERS ACADEMY
Rv = 24.052 kN 37. Ans. (a)

Number of rivets 38. Ans. (c)
P 55 29. Ans. (c)
n= R = = 2.287  3
v 24.052 40. Ans. (b)
25. Ans. (b) 41. Ans. (a)
26. Ans. (b) 42. Ans. (c)
The section modulus of the bult weld 43. Ans. (a)
18  1802 44. Ans. (c)

= = 97.2 × 103 mm3
6 45. Ans. (b)
Permissible bending stress, bf = 165 N/mm2 46. Ans. (a)
47. Ans. (b)
13000  103
bf,cal =
97.2  103 48. Ans. (a)
= 133.74 N/mm2 49. Ans. (b)

50. Ans. (a)
27. Ans. (a) 51. Ans. (d)
28. Ans. (b) 52. Ans. (c)
29. Ans. (a)
53. Ans. (b)
30. Ans. (d)
54. Ans. (b)
31. Ans. (d)
55. Ans. (c)
56. Ans. (b)
A B
57. Ans. (b)
PA VA2 PB VB2
  ZA =   ZB  h L 58. Ans. (c)
g 2g g 2g
2.5+0.5+2.5 = 59. Ans. (d)
 PB  60. Ans. (d)
  ZB   0.5  0.2
 g  61. Ans. (b)
PB Relative density is given by
 g  ZB = 4.8 m
 emax  e 
32. Ans. (b) =  e max  e   100%
 min 
33. Ans.(d)
 e max  e 
34. Ans.(a)  66.6 =    100
 0.3 
35. Ans.(c)
 emax  0.6
36. Ans.(d)

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62. Ans. (c) 96. Ans.(b)

63. Ans. (b)
It is gives by 4.75 Q = 4.75 64 = 38 m
64. Ans. (c)
97. Ans.(b)
65. Ans. (d)
98. Ans.(c)
66. Ans. (a)
67. Ans. (a) For a given stage Q  s
68. Ans. (a)
s2 1 / 1000
69. Ans. (b) Q2 = Q1 s  Q 1 / 4000  2Q
1
70. Ans. (d)
71. Ans. (d)
99. Ans.(b)
72. Ans. (c)
Peak of direct run off
73. Ans. (d) = 240 – 40 = 200 m3/sec
74. Ans. (c) peak of 4-hour unit hydrograph
75. Ans. (b) 200
= = 25 m3/sec
76. Ans. (a) 8
77. Ans. (b ) 100. Ans.(a)
78. Ans. (d) In plains 1 station per 520 km2 is recommended
79. Ans. (a) 101. Ans (b)
80. Ans. (c)

102. Ans. (b)
81. Ans. (c)
103. Ans. (c)
82. Ans. (a)
104. Ans. (b)
83. Ans. (b)
105. Ans. (c)
84. Ans. (b)
106. Ans. (b)
85. Ans. (b) 107. Ans. (c)
86. Ans. (c) 108. Ans. (b)
87. Ans. (b) 109. Ans. (a)
88. Ans. (d) 110. Ans. (d)
89. Ans. (a) 111. Ans.(c)
90. Ans. (d) 112. Ans.(a)
91. Ans. (c) 113. Ans.(a)
92. Ans.(c) 114. Ans.(b)
93. Ans.(d) 115. Ans.(b)
94. Ans.(d) 116. Ans.(b)
95. Ans.(c) 117. Ans.(a)

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ENGINEERS ACADEMY
118. Ans. (a) 

It is given by z = 0.2 (1+2D) for 1.0  <2
D
2T 
= And z = 0.61 for <1
 d D
d 2  h  
 3
 6.0
Since = = 1.2
2  1000 6 D 5.0
= 
 10  7  z = 0.2 (6 + 2 × 5) = 3.2 m
  102  20  
 3 143. Ans.(b)
119. Ans. (a) As per IS 456 : 2000 minimum grade of concrete

is M30 for a RCC structure near sea cost
120. Ans. (d)
Hence at failure
121.Ans. (b)
122.Ans. (b)  cbc t/m
xe = (d  x e )
123.Ans. (b)
124.Ans. (a)
280 280 28
125.Ans. (b) m = 3 = =
cbc 3  10 3
126. Ans. (b)
127. Ans. (c)  mcbc 
xe =  m    d
128. Ans. (a)  cbc st 
129. Ans. (b)

130. Ans. (d)  28 
  10 
3
131. Ans. (a) =  28  d = 0.289 d
  10  230 
132. Ans. (b)  3 
133. Ans. (c)
134. Ans. (a) 10 t / 28 / 3
 =
0.289d (1  0.289)d
135. Ans. (a)
136. Ans. (b)  t = 230 N/mm2
137. Ans. (c) 144. Ans.(d)
138. Ans. (a) 145. Ans.(c)
139. Ans. (a) 146. Ans.(a)
140. Ans. (d) 147. Ans.(d)
141. Ans. (c) 148. Ans.(a)
142. Ans.(a) 149. Ans.(b)
lever arm for simply supported beam 150. Ans.(b)

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ENGINEERS ACADEMY

Civil Engg. ESE-2018 Mock Test Paper 1

# 40-Kailashpuri, Near Khandaka Hospital # 100-102, Ram Nagar, Bambala Pulia,

30. In a steady flow

# 40-Kailashpuri, Near Khandaka Hospital # 100-102, Ram Nagar, Bambala Pulia,

# 40-Kailashpuri, Near Khandaka Hospital # 100-102, Ram Nagar, Bambala Pulia,

(b) 3.33 kNm (CW) 1. Headligth beam distance

# 40-Kailashpuri, Near Khandaka Hospital # 100-102, Ram Nagar, Bambala Pulia,

(d) Rafts on sands m = mass of machive plus foundation

60. Which one of the following diagram correctly

(c) 1/H2 and Cv (d) 1/H2 and 1/Cv

2M 2M (c) can never be greater than zero

2M 67. Consider the following statement of network

# 40-Kailashpuri, Near Khandaka Hospital # 100-102, Ram Nagar, Bambala Pulia,

I = 3 × 108mm4 (a) 0.21 (b) 1.11

5. passing sight distance (a) 3000 mm (b) 1900 mm

a bore hole. Torque was applied gradually and WL

(d) 4m × 1m rectangular footing String

(c) 1.2 (d) 1.3

124.Which type of equilibrium the member AB is in?

125.Which type of instability is present in the following (c) resource levelling

136. To make one cubic metre of 1 : 2 : 4 by volume 5. Filtration

(b) deflect upward (b) y-y axis

(c) deflect downward or upward (c) the diagonal of the section

# 40-Kailashpuri, Near Khandaka Hospital # 100-102, Ram Nagar, Bambala Pulia,

ANSWER & EXPLANATION

16. Ans.(b) = 17.5 × 6 × 300 × 10–3

17. Ans. (c) = 31.50 kN

18. Ans. (b) Strength of rivet = min of strength in shear and

# 40-Kailashpuri, Near Khandaka Hospital # 100-102, Ram Nagar, Bambala Pulia,

Rv = 24.052 kN 37. Ans. (a)

18  1802 44. Ans. (c)

= 133.74 N/mm2 49. Ans. (b)

# 40-Kailashpuri, Near Khandaka Hospital # 100-102, Ram Nagar, Bambala Pulia,

62. Ans. (c) 96. Ans.(b)

80. Ans. (c)

# 40-Kailashpuri, Near Khandaka Hospital # 100-102, Ram Nagar, Bambala Pulia,

118. Ans. (a) 

119. Ans. (a) As per IS 456 : 2000 minimum grade of concrete

129. Ans. (b)

# 40-Kailashpuri, Near Khandaka Hospital # 100-102, Ram Nagar, Bambala Pulia,

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