INTRODUCTION TO WASTE MANAGEMENT AND REGULATORY OVERVIEW
AGITATION
A 6-blade turbine agitator with a diameter of 1.5ft is used to mix a
solution with a viscosity of 10cP and a density of 95lb/ft 3. N=120rpm.
Calculate the theo horsepower required if the tank is provided with
4baffles. 2hp.
A double-flight helix impeller 3ft diameter and 3ft high is operating at
30rpm in a 3.2ft diameter tank. 85% full, 1000poise and 65lb/ft 3.
Estimate hp requirement. 7hp
A mixing tank set-up that follows curve 2 of Fig. 18-17 Perry, 8/ed. Is
using vertical blades of H=3in. Width of each baffle. 6inches.
A three-blade propeller is used to mix a fluid in the laminar region.
Da=0.3m; N=1.5Hz. If flat two-bladed paddle Da=0.75m. What is N.
24rpm
An agitation vessel is equipped with a turbine impeller having a
diameter of 30cm. density=1000kg/m3; viscosity=1x10-3 Pa-s;
N=100rpm. What is NRe. 150,000
An agitator with a diameter of 2ft and a speed of 100rpm is mixing
rubber-latex compound with a viscosity of 1250 poise and a density of
70lb/ft3. The NRe for the mixing operation is 5.56
An industrial mixing tank uses a 1.5ft diameter impeller operating at a
speed of 120rpm. If 1000rpm, Da is 6inches..
Decreasing the shape factor, S1, the ratio of the impeller to the tank
diameter Da/Dt, when the baffles are few and narrow will increase the
power requirement.
Following the “standard” proportions in the design of a 6-blade turbine
agitator, if an impeller has a diameter of 20cm, what would be the
recommended tank diameter and the depth of the liquid in the tank, in
cm. 60cm, 60cm.
For a pitched-blade turbine agitator, increasing the shape factor, S2
defined as the clearance from the bottom of the tank, E/ Dt, the power
requirement will decrease.
If the set-up given in prob. 18 is to mix a solution with a viscosity of 5
cP and a density of 65lb/ft3, what will be the hp requirement if the speed
of the impeller is 60rpm. 3.3hp.
If the tank in Prob. 9 is unbaffled, what will be the power requirement.
0.42hp.
If the viscosity of the liquid is reduced by ½ due to heating of the liquid
inside the tank, what will be the percentage reduction in the power
requirement. 54%.
In agitation, for NRe of 1000, the power requirement in a baffled tank is
approx. 55% per cent higher/lower than in unbaffled tank.
In the motion of the impeller blades against the liquid in the mixing tank,
the force acting perpendicular to the surface of the impeller is referred
to as drag force.
In the use of turbines for low-viscosity liquids, rapid currents that
destroys stagnant pockets occur. Near the impeller.
It is desired to agitate a liquid having a viscosity of 1.5x10-3Pa-s and a
density of 969 kg/m3 in a tank having a diameter of 0.91m. W= 0.0381.
Calculate the required kW. 0.190kW
One effective method of preventing vortex formation in a mixing tank
where the shaft of the impeller is vertical, is to install baffles.
Referring to prob.18, what will be the power requirement if the speed is
increased to 80rpm. 7.8 hp
Referring to prob.18, what will be the power requirement if the speed is
reduced to 10rpm. 2.3hp
Relatively, the shape of the mixing tank, say cylindrical compared to a
square or rectangular tank, has practically no effect on the power
requirement. True.
22-11
The dimensionless number that describes the effect of wave motion on
the surface of a liquid especially in agitation and mixing is expressed in
terms of Froude number.
The velocity components induced by the rotation of the impeller in the
mixing process tends to induce the formation of vortex and swirling.
These velocity components are tangential and radial.
Using the data given in prob.15 and referring to Fig.18-17 Perry 8/ed,
determine the power requirement if the mixing system is described by
curve. 5. 5 hp.
What will be the recommended volume of the solution to be charged in
the mixing tank given in prob.18. Neglect the volume occupied by the
mixer and baffles. 170ft3
When blending two or more flammable liquids in a tank, it is appropriate
to use jet mixers.
When strong vertical currents in the mixing tank is desired, it is best to
use propellers
When the NRe in a mixing tank is less than 10, the flow is considered
laminar. In this range, the property that becomes unimportant in
determining the power requirement is density of fluid.
CPI
20% Oleum means that in 100lb, there are 20lb of SO3 and 80lb of
H2SO4.
90% of the NH3 entering an NH3-oxidation unit is converted to HNH3
and 10% loss of NH3 is due to conversion losses, NO in the stack gases
and miscellaneous losses. Kg of NH3 necessary to produce 60,000 kg of
62 wt% HNO3 is 12,000.
A 20% aqueous sol’n of Na2CO3 and 25% aqueous sol’n of Ca(OH)2
were reacted to produce caustic soda sol’n. Precipitate contains 5% H2O,
1% NaOH, 94% CaCO3. The conc. Of NaOH sol’n produced is 10.97%.
A cement clinker with the ff analysis: Cao=64%, SiO2=21%, Fe2O3 and
Al2O3. The MT of silica required for a 300-day operation per year is
20,000.
A cement company uses 3000MT of gypsum a month. Portland cement,
the MT clinker produced monthly by the cement plant is 75,000.
A plant near Maria Cristina Falls is to manufacture NH3 by using a
stoichiometric mixture of N2 and H2. The moles of H2 present in the
mixture if 100mol of pure electrolytic H2 is used is 84.95 moles.
A water solution of molasses contains 10% by weight sucrose
(C12H22O11). The weight percent of C2H6O in the sol’n after 90% of the
sucrose has been converted to C2H6O by fermentation is 5.1%.
An analysis of the gases entering the converter of an ammonia oxidation
nitric acid plant indicates that the gases contain 0.066lb of NH3 and
0.934lb of air per pound of gas. 1lb of the gas leaving the converter
contains 0.00361lbmol of NO (no NO2). % NH3 converted to NO is
93%.
At a plant which produces H2SO4 by the contact process, a large storage
tank currently holds 100,000kg of 20% oleum, where 20% oleum means
that in 100kg of material there is 20kg of SO3 dissolved in 80kg of pure
H2SO4. The weight percent H2SO4 in the final mixture in the tank is
80.4%.
Bauxite containing 61% Al2O3 and 8% SiO2 is roasted and dissolved in
caustic soda to form a solution from which iron present is precipitated
and filtered out. The cost of caustic soda needed to produce 1000kg of
pure Al2O3 assuming 10% more than the theo amount of NaOH needed
is used. P 6065.
Bio-degradable detergents can be readily oxidized.
Builders are added to soap to boost cleaning power.
 INTRODUCTION TO WASTE MANAGEMENT AND REGULATORY OVERVIEW
Catalyst used in hydrogenation of oil is Nickel.
Catalysts used in the manufacture of sulfuric acid by chamber and
contact processes are respectively oxides of nitrogen and V2O5 on a
porous carrier.
Cement mainly contains Cao, SiO2, Al2O3.
Coefficient of thermal expansion of glass is decreased by the addition
of ZnO during its manufacture.
Contact process yields acid of higher concentration than chamber
process.
Cumene is the starting material for the production of phenol and acetone
Economics of “Solvay Process” depends upon the efficiency of
ammonia recovery and size of plant.
Enamels give good glossy finish
Essential oils are usually obtained using steam distillation.
Fat splitting catalyst is ZnO.
Free alkali in toilet soap is less than that in a laundry soap.
Function of thinner in a paint is to suspend pigments and dissolve film-
forming materials.
Fusion of bauxite and Limestone produces high alumina cement.
Glauber’s salt is sodium sulfate decahydrate.
Gypsum is calcium sulfate.
Hydrazine is largely used as rocket fuel.
In a liquid Cl2 plant, chlorine gas with some H2 gas is liquefied, with part
of the Cl2 made to form HCl, according to the ff diagram. The Cl2 sent
to synthesis plant in MT is 22.7.
In contact process, SO3, is absorbed in 97% H2SO4 and not in water
because water forms an acid mist which is difficult to absorb.
In the lime soda process for caustic soda manufacture, lime is made to
react with water and then with soda ash. The metric tons of lime that
will be needed to produce 100MT of 25% liquid NaOH is 31.21 MT.
In the Lurgi coal gasifier large quantity of coal can be processed.
Metallic soap is aluminum or calcium salt of fatty acids.
Oil is a mixture of glycerides of fatty acids.
Oxygen is produced by fraction of air using both Linde’s and Claude’s
process.
Permanent hardness of water is due to the presence of calcium and
magnesium sulfates and chlorides.
Plasticizers are added to paints to give elasticity and prevent cracking of
the film
Producer gas consists mainly of CO, CO2, N2, H2.
Rancidity of oil can be reduced by hydrogenation.
Raw materials for “Solvay Process” for manufacture of the soda ash are
salt, limestone, ammonia, and coke oven gas.
SO2 is bubbled through hot sugar-cane juice to act as an acidifying agent
Soap cannot be used with hard water because they form insoluble
calcium soaps which precipitate.
Solvent used for extraction of oil is methyl ethyl ketone.
The catalyst used in the manufacture of DDT from chloral and
chlorobenzene is oleum.
The electrolytic reaction for the production of aluminum may be written
as Al2O3 + 3/2 C  2Al + 3/2 CO2, 235,000cal of energy (in the form
of electricity) is consumed for the production of 2gmol of Al. Amount
to be paid for elec. power per lb Al produced is P 0.066/lb Al.
The main use of HCl is in the drilling of petroleum wells and pickling
of steel sheets.
The MT of CaCO3 needed to produce 100MT of soda ash daily by the
Solvay process is 93.34.
Trinitro-toluene is an explosive.
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Unsaturated oils compared to saturated oils have lower melting point
and higher reactivity to oxygen.
Using the data given below, the metric tons of rock phosphate
(CaFCa4(PO4)3) needed to produce 6000MT of 90% purity
superphosphate is 9530.
Varnish does not contain pigment.
Wax is a mixture of esters of polyhydric alcohols except glycerin.
Which is the main reducing agent during the production of iron from
iron ore in a blast furnace. CO
Which of the ff is the common pollutant emitted from metallurgical
smelters, thermal power plant and cement plants. SO2
Which of the following is a detergent. Alkyl benzene sulfonate.
Which oil is preferred for paint manufacture. Drying oil
Widely used method for conditioning of boiler feed water is hot-lime
soda process.
Yellow glycerin is made into white, using activated carbon.
Zeolite removes both temporary as well as permanent hardness of water
by precipitating calcium and magnesium present in water as insoluble
zeolites. Sodium chloride.
ENVIRONMENTAL ENGINEERING
A continuous re-circulating aerobic biochemical process that keeps cells
in suspended growth activated sludge process.
A global treaty that aims to diminish and eventually phase out CFCs.
Montreal protocol
A global treaty that aims to protect human health and the environment
from the persistent organic pollutants. Stockholm Convention
A global treaty that aims to regulate emissions of greenhouse gases.
Kyoto Protocol
A neurological disease characterized by trembling, inability to walk and
speak and even serious convulsions that can lead to death due to
ingestion of mercury minimata.
A phenomenon where a cold layer of air becomes trapped by a layer of
warmer air above due to a lack of wind circulation or the presence of
certain topographical features, such as mountains, resulting to air
pollution being trapped in the lower, cooler layers of the troposphere.
Thermal inversion
A stack in an urban area is emitting 80g/s of NO. It has an effective stack
height of 100m. Estimate the ground level conc. At 2km downwind on
the centerline. 63.7 microgram/m3
A trace metal which causes Itai-itai disease is cadmium.
A wastewater with a BOD/COD = 1 indicates that biological treatment
is most practical.
A water sample was analyzed to contain 150mg-L-1CO3-2 and 100 -L-
1
HCO3-2 at a pH of 8.00 at 25OC. Total alkalinity in terms of CaCO3 is
332ppm.
Aeration of water is done to remove dissolved gases.
An electrochemical process used in the removal of colloidal matter in
wastewater through reduction of electrostatic charges surrounding the
solids is called coagulation.
Biomes are distinguished or identified by its dominant plant life.
Calculate the theo oxygen demand (ThOD) of 150ppm glucose. 160ppm
Class of water intended for primary contact recreation such as bathing,
swimming, skin diving, etc. Class B
Component of CFC’s that causes destruction of 100,000 molecules of
ozone. chlorine
Denitrification is carried out when bacteria break down nitrates and
release nitrogen gas. What are these bacteria. Anaerobic bacteria.
 INTRODUCTION TO WASTE MANAGEMENT AND REGULATORY OVERVIEW
During which of the ff operating conditions of an automobile CO
content in the exhaust gas is maximum idle running.
Ecological Solid Waste Management Act of 2000 is otherwise known
as RA 9003
For a given temperature profiles, determine which profile is neutrally
stable.1
From question no. 15, estimate the ground level conc. At 2km
downwind, 0.1 km off the centerline. 60microgram/m3
Gas responsible for the rotten egg of waste water.Hydrogen sulfide.
Generic term used to describe the particulate matter carried in the
effluent gases from furnaces burning fossil fuels fly ash.
Hardness of water is usually expressed as parts per million of CaCO3.
If the three-day BOD (BOD3 ) of a raw sewage is 55ppm (k=0.55/day),
what is the ultimate BOD. 68ppm
Insufficient washing of sand grains in a rapid sand filter causes mud
balls.
Involves the accumulation of trace metals through each species of the
food chain. Biomagnification.
It is a phenomenon that results in the overabundance in the algae growth
in bodies of water. It is also the natural process of nutrient enrichment
that occurs over time in a body of water. Eutrophication.
It is a very unstable gas used for disinfection, a very powerful oxidant
capable of oxidizing 200 to 300 times more than chlorine and can reduce
complex taste, odor and color ozone.
It is defined as the controlled decomposition of organic materials, such
as leaves, grass, and food scraps. composting
It is defined as the role of the organisms in the community. Niche.
It is described as the cloud of air pollution trapped by thermal inversion.
smog
It is used as bonding agents in building and furniture construction which
may cause drowsiness, nausea and headaches when exposed to low level
concentration. formaldehyde
Legislation that presents the revised water usage and classification.
DENR AO no. 34.
Maximum allowable concentration of CO2 in air for safe working is
5000 ppm.
Most aquatic organisms can survive in pH range of about 6 to 9.
Most commonly used coagulating agent. Aluminum sulfate.
Nitrates more than 50ppm in water leads to a disease called
mathenoglobenemia.
Organisms that belong to the second trophic level. Herbivores.
PAN is a powerful lachrymator or tear producer formed from unburned
hydrocarbons, aldehydes, nitrogen oxides and oxygen. PAN stands for
peroxyacetyl nitrate.
Part of the atmosphere where most of the photochemical reactions take
place. Mesosphere.
Particulates (< 1micrometer) remaining suspended in air indefinitely
and transported by wind currents are called aerosols
Problem Solving
Process of converting nitrogen gas to ammonia is called nitrogen
fixation.
Process where decomposers return back the nitrogen to the soils through
the remains and waste of plants and animals. Ammonification.
22-11
Process whereby coarse matter (suspended or floating) of a certain size
can be strained out of flowing water with the aid of bars, fine wires or
rocks. Screening.
Recyclable material labeled as no. 3 PVC.
Removal of all settleable particles rendered settleable under the
influence of gravity, basically the theory of gravity under the influence
of which all particles heavier than water tend to settle down.
Sedimentation.
Temporary hardness is a substance in water is removed by Lime Soda
Process.
The alkalinity of wastewater is due to the presence of the following
except dissolved CO2.
The amount of chlorine available in water after the disinfection is called
residual chlorine.
The liquid produced when water percolates through any permeable
material. leachate
The permissible color for domestic water supply in ppm is 20.
The pH of a water sample was found to be 6.3. The bicarbonate was
measured to be 2.1x10-3 M. Calculate the total carbonate if pKa1 and pka2
are 3.3 and 10.33, respectively. 2.8x10-3
The process of killing infective bacteria in water is called sterilization.
The process where more harmful substances are produced from less
harmful ones. Synergism.
The red brownish color of water is due to the presence of dissolved
impurities of iron and manganese.
The resistance of water to the passage of light through it is a measure of
the turbidity.
The total solids in water are due to the presence of suspended and
dissolved solids.
These are accumulated solids removed from separation equipment such
as settling tanks and clarifiers. sludge.
These are closed compartments that use gravitational force to extract
dust and mist and typically used only for larger particles. Settling
chamber
These organisms feed on the waste of the ecosystem. Detritivores.
These reddish brown oxides in concentrated form may produce an
abnormal accumulation of fluids in the lungs. NOx
This provides the blueprint for action towards sustainable development
Agenda 21
Total uptake of chemicals by an organism from food items as well as via
mass transport of dissolved chemicals. Bioaccumulation.
Type of recycling that involves recovery of chemicals or energy from
post-consumer waste materials. tertiary
Type of wastewater treatment that employs biological methods to
remove fine suspended, colloidal and dissolved organics by biochemical
oxidation. Secondary treatment.
Type of wastewater treatment that employs physical and chemical
treatment methods to remove or reduce a high percentage of suspend
solids and toxic materials. Primary treatment.
Water treatment that destroys disease-causing bacteria, nuisance
bacteria, parasites and other organisms and remove soluble iron,
manganese and hydrogen sulfide from water. Chlorination.
What is the atmospheric condition when the lapse rate is >10OC/km.
Superadiabatic.
When a sample of water is added to a medium of agar and incubated at
37OC for 24hours, colonies of bacteria formed are countered. This test
is called Total Count Test.
Which of the ff is NOT classified as heavy industry in the list of
environmentally critical projects.. Forestry projects
 INTRODUCTION TO WASTE MANAGEMENT AND REGULATORY OVERVIEW 22-11

Which of the following is NOT a physical characteristic of wastewater.

Hardness.
Which of the following is not use for the disinfection of water. Sulfuric
acid.
Which of the following is not used as adsorbent material. Water.
Which of the following maybe used to measure the assimilative capacity
of a stream. BOD.
INTRODUCTION TO WASTE MANAGEMENT AND REGULATORY OVERVIEW 22-11

4 kg of water is placed in an enclosed volume of 1m3 heated until 150C.

Mass vapor is 2.542 kg.

A heat pump provides 75MJ/hr to a house. Compressors require 4kW of

energy. COP is 5.21

A steel casting 40kg at 450C is quenched in 150kg oil. Entropy is 9.8kJ/kg.

Air undergoes isentropic compression from 14.7 psia, 68F to 180.6psia and
621.5F. -94.8Btu/lbm
An ice-making machine operates cyclically between 0-25C. The work done
to freeze 100kg water at 0C to ice is 733.94kcal.
An ideal Otto engine operating at the end of compression (840F) and
expansion (2540F) with compression ratio of 7.5. Efficiency is 55.3%
An Otto cycle compression ratio of 7.5 operates at 14.2psia and 85F. The
pressure and temperature at the end are 238psia, 759F.
 INTRODUCTION TO WASTE MANAGEMENT AND REGULATORY OVERVIEW 22-11

Calculate the entropy of steam at 60psia with a quality 0.6. 1.16
The work polytropic compression pf air from 15psia, 1ft3 to 150 psia and
0.15 ft3 is 5150ft-lb.
The work required to compress a gas reversibly according to pV1.3 is
50000ft-lb. Change in internal energy is 48.2Btu
The work required to compress a gas reversibly according to pV1.3 is
50000ft-lb. Heat loss is -16.1 Btu
There are removed 500Btu/min of heat from 440R to 550R. if COP is ¾ of
Carnot, heat rejected is 667Btu/min.

From 80F and 6ft3, 10lb H2 changes to 150F and 10ft3. Entropy is 8.1Btu/R
From above find volume of vapor 0.9985m3.
From above, heat rejected is 13.3Btu.
From above, work done is 27Btu.
From above, work done is -719btu/lb air
From above, work input is 3.95hp.

How many TOR required to produce 10MT of ice at -10C to 22C if losses
are 15% of the chilling and freezing load. 17TOR
If 150 L of N2 gas expands adiabatically at 1 atm to final volume of 250 L.
0.49 atm If 1lbm of steam at 14.7psia, 63% quality is heated isentropically, at what
In a Carnot cycle operating on N2, heat supplied is 40Btu and expansion pressure. 2585 psia
ratio is 15.6 at 60F. Efficiency is 67%.
In an isentropic compression, P1- 100 psia, P2- 200 psia, V1- 10in3 and y-
1.4. Find V2- 6.1in3

Steam engine is operating at 220-35C and delivers 8hp and efficiency of

30%. What is the actual efficiency. 11.3%
Steam generated in a power plant at 8600kPa and 500C fed to a turbine.
Exhaust at 10kPa is saturated liquid. The efficiency of Rankine cycle is
39.7%.
Steam is expanded from 700F and 200psia to 5psia in an 87% efficient
turbine. Final enthalpy is 1105.23 Btu/lbm
INTRODUCTION TO WASTE MANAGEMENT AND REGULATORY OVERVIEW 22-11
INTRODUCTION TO WASTE MANAGEMENT AND REGULATORY OVERVIEW 22-11
INTRODUCTION TO WASTE MANAGEMENT AND REGULATORY OVERVIEW 22-11

experiment that 1.000 gram of M combines with an excess oxygen to

form 2.019 grams of oxide. The element M is manganese
INTRODUCTION TO WASTE MANAGEMENT AND REGULATORY OVERVIEW 22-11
 INTRODUCTION TO WASTE MANAGEMENT AND REGULATORY OVERVIEW 22-11

mass Fe3O4 = 23g, In the reaction of Fe3O4 with carbon to form carbon
dioxide and iron, the number of moles of carbon required to convert
Fe3O4 to product 0.2.
mass fraction solute = 35 ppm . What is the concentration of chloride ion
in percent in a solution that contains chloride 3.5 E-3%.
mass mixture (Cu2O and CuO) = 1.000g mass Cu = 0.865. The mass of
Cu2O in the original sample of the mixture must have been 0.742g.
mass O2 = 10.0g . What is the theoretical yield of SO2 for the reaction of
27
13 Al  24He  30
15P X the given mass O2 with sufficient S for complete reaction. 20.0g.

Naturally occurring Ga is composed of 60% Ga-69 and 40% Ga-71 atomic

Be 11H  ___ 12H
9 8
4 Be
mass Ga-69 = 68.911 atomic mass Ga-71 = 70.931. Calculate the average
atomic mass of Ga 69.72amu.
roasting of 100g of copper ore yields 75.4g of 89.5% pure copper . If the
ore is composed of Cu2S and CuS with 11% inert impurity, calculate the
percentage of Cu2S in the ore . 62%.

% composition HC C = 84.2% H = 15.8% . What is its empirical formula

C4H.
54.45% carbon 9.09% hydrogen, 36.36% oxygen . What is the empirical
formula. C2H4O.
a 1-L vessel established equilibrium with the following reaction: 2SO2 + O2
= 2SO3 mol SO2 = 0.11 mol O2 = 0.05 mol SO3 = 0.12 another 1-L vessel
is used and contains SO2 mass SO2 = 96g . How much O2 (in grams) must
be added, if at equilibrium, one half of SO2 will be converted to SO3 13.34.
a compound containing only phosphorus and hydrogen was fully
combusted mass yield P4O10 = 17.9g mass yield H2O = 4.80g. What is the
empirical formula of the compound PH2.
GENERAL CHEMISTRY
mass compound sample with C,H,O = 0.95g , when fully combusted in
oxygen gives mass H2O = 0.518g . mass CO2 = 2.13g . What is the simplest
or empirical formula. C5H6O2.
wt % sand = 70, wt % water = 30 density pure quartz = 165 lb/ft3 . What is
the density of the mud, the sand is practically pure quartz 110.4 lb/ft3,
ANALYTICAL CHEMISTRY
[HBr] = 0.1 V HBr = 50 ml [KOH]titrant = 0.1M Vbase = 49mL. Calculate
the pH after the volume of base has been added to 50 ml of HBr 3.0
[HCl] = 0.0015M . What is the concentration of OH in water solution 6.7E-
12M
[HCl] = 0.10M volume HCl = 50.0ml [NaOH] = 0.20M, volume NaOH =
100ml . What is the pH of the resulting solution 13
[HCN] = 0.100M Ka HCN = 7.2E-10 . What is the pH of a solution 5.1
[HF solution] = 0.1M % dissociation = 9.5%. Calculate the Ka for HF
1.0E-3.
[hydronium ion] = 2E-3M . What is the pH the a solution 2.7
[Mg2+] = 0.001M Ksp Mg(OH)2 = 1.2E-11 . Calculate the pH of a
solution necessary to just begin the precipitation of Mg(OH)2 10
[NaOH] = 0.100M V NaOH = 180 ml [HAcetic] = 0.100, V acetic = 200
ml Ka acetic acid = 1.8E-5 . What is the pH of a buffer prepared by
adding NaOH to acetic acid 5.70
[NH3] = 0.0500M Kb NH3 = 1.8E-5 . What is the pH of a solution 11.0
[NH4Cl] = 0.256M [NH3] = 1.8E-5 . What is the pH of NH4Cl 4.92
A metal reacts with water with the evolution of hydrogen and formation
of its hydroxide. mass metal = 1 g atom (the chloride of metal was found
to contain 13.7% chlorine) volume OH solution = 1L [HCl]= 0.9091N
volume HCl = 110ml. The volume of hydrogen gas liberated at STP 11.2.
The atomic weight of the metal 224. Since the solution of the OH of the
metal is normal, the valency of the metal is 1.
buffer pH= 4.0 Ka benzoic acid = 6.5E-5. Which of the following solutions
results in a the given buffer 0.16M benzoate and 0.25M benzoic acid.
C(s) + CO2 = CO(g) Kc = 1.6, equilibrium concentration of CO2 = 0.5M
. What is the equilibrium concentration of CO. 0.89
H2 + I2 = HI Kc for HI equilibrium@425C = 54.5, [H2]0 = 0.00623M
[I2]0 = 0.00414M [HI]0 = 0.0224M . Calculate the concentration of I2 in
equilibrium 0.00267M.
 INTRODUCTION TO WASTE MANAGEMENT AND REGULATORY OVERVIEW
Ka HCN = 7.2E-10 . What is the ratio of acid concentration to anion
concentration needed to produce a buffer of pH 10.0 using HCN and NaCN.
0.14
mass acid = 1.243g volume = 31.72 cm3 of 0.1923N. What is the
equivalent weight of an acid of standard base for neutralization. 204
mass CaCO3 = 1.0kg . The maximum number of kilograms of CaO
produced on heating 0.56kg.
mass impure sample Na2CO3 = 1.2048g (is dissolved and allowed to react
with a CaCl2 solution) mass of resulting precipitate CaCO3 = 1.0362g .
Assuming that the impurities do not contribute to the weight of the
precipitate, calculate the percent purity of the Na2CO3. C%
mass of impure ammonium aluminum sulfate = 759.08mg, the
aluminum in the sample was precipitated as Al(OH)3 and ignited at
1100C to yield Al2O3mass Al2O3 = 387.953mg . Express the result of
analysis in terms of %Al 27%.
mass of KHP = 1.431g necessary in standardizing a solution of NaOH,
mass alkali = 25.5ml mass acidrun back = 8.25ml (1ml=10.75 NaOH). What
is the molarity of the NaOH solution 0.2598.
mass sample (containing Al(NO3)3, AlCl3, and inert) = 1.7483g (divided
into two equal portions) Case 1: portion [AgNO3]titrant = 0.1M V AgNO3
= 50mL excess was titrated back with 28.89ml of 0.1002 M KSCN for
titration Case 2: portion 2, [NaOH]titrant = 0.1193M V NaOH = 26.02 ml
to completely precipitate as Al(OH)3 . Calculate the % AlCl3 in the
sample 10.70%.
mass sample (Na2CO3, NaHCO3, inert) = 1.179g, titrated acid= 0.1N,
HCl volume acid = 24ml, indicator = phenolphthalein . Another
duplicate sample was titrated with HCl; using methyl red as indicator. It
required 50.25ml of the acid for color change. What is the % NaHCO3
in the sample. 18.7.
mass sample = 253.02mg containing NaBr and KBr was dissolved in
water and treated with AgNO3 mass precipitate = 429.85mg. Calculate
the %NBr in a sample 49%.
mass sample crude ammonium salt = 1.00g (treated with hot KOH
solution) [acid] = 0.5N V acid= 50mL [NaOH] = 0.2N, 3.12 mL for
neutralization . Calculate the %NH3 in the sample 41.25%
mass sample mixture (NaOH, Na2CO3, inert impurity) = 1.2g [HCl]titer=
0.5M indicator = phenolphthalein . the solution turns colorless after the
addition of 30ml of the acid as a required for the color change to pink.
Methyl orange is then added and 5ml more of the acid are needed to color
change. What is the % Na2CO3 in the sample. 22.08
mass sample of impure AlCl3 = 1.500g was dissolved in water and
treated with AgNO3 using Mohr method [AgNO3]titrant = 0.1000M V
AgNO3 = 45.32ml . Determine its purity AlCl3 (133.33 g/mol) 13.43%.
mass vinegar = 3g titrated acid = 0.115N KOH, volume acid = 20.50ml
indicator = phenolphthalein. What is the percentage of the total acid
expressed as acetic acid in a sample of vinegar for an end point with the
given indicator 6.72%.
mole AgCN = 0.0010 volume = 1L K HCN = 4E-10, Ksp AgCN = 1.6E-
14 . What (H+) is needed to dissolve completely AgCN 0.025M
n ammonia = 0.25 mol Kb = 1.8E-5 . What is the pH of a solution
prepared from ammonia dissolved in sufficient water to make 1L
solution 11.33.
pH buffer = 5 . What is the ratio of the concentration of acetic acid to
sodium acetate 0.56
solubility barium sulphate = 0.0091g/L @ 25C MW barium sulphate =
233g/mol . What is the solubility product constant of barium sulphate.
1.523E-9.
sp.gr HCl solution (23.81%wt. HCl)= 1.12. How many grams of HCl are
present in each milliliter solution. 0.27
volume of 0.1N NaOH= 10ml volume of 0.1N HAc= 25ml Calculate the
pH of the solution 4.57.
What are the percentages by mass of each element in CaCl2. 36.1%Ca and
63.9% Cl.
22-11
ORGANIC CHEMISTRY
mass alkane = 2.2g mass bromine = 3.2g . The molecular formula of A
C8H16,
moles alkane = I mole, moles water = 7 moles . an alkane reacts with
excess O2 to give water. The alkane could be hexane.
moles alkane = I mole, moles water = 7 moles . moles of CO2 generated
from the same alkane 6.
saponification number of triglyceride = 200 . Average MW of
triglyceride 840.
PHYSICAL CHEMISTRY
Ammonium iodide dissociates reversibly to ammonia and hydrogen
iodide. NH4(s)↔NH3(g) + HI(g) Kp @ 400C = 0.215. If 150g of
ammonium iodide is placed into a 3-L vessel and heated to 400C,
calculate the partial pressure of ammonia when equilibrium is reached.
0.46 atm.
angstrom = 3.92 face-centered cubic crystal density = 21.5 g/ml . What
is its atomic weight 195.
At volume vessel 1 = 1L established equilibrium with the rxn: 2SO2 + O2 =
2 SO3 mol SO2 = 0.11 mol O2 = 0.05 mol SO3 = 0.12 @volume vessel 2 =
1L mass SO2 = 96g initially. How much O2 (in grams) must be added, if at
equilibrium, one half of SO2 will be converted to SO3 13.34.
Calculate the root mean square speed of a helium atom at 298K 1363 m/s
charge = 8.5E3coulombs . How many grams of iron (Fe) could be
deposited from a solution of FeCl2 2.46.
D tube = 3mm Length tube = 78.74 inches, Pressure head = 6.5 N/cm2,
volume fluid = 0.04 m3 passes through the tube every 1 minute. What is the
viscosity of the fluid. 0.097cP.
E = 75,000 cal/mol (pyrolysis of ethane). How much faster is the
decomposition at 650C than at 500C. 2795 times faster.
electrical current = 10 amperes . What is the mass of aluminum produced
in 1 hour in the electrolysis of molten aluminum sulfate 3.36g. t1/2 of
radioactive isotope C-14 = 5720 years mass of sample carbon = 1.00g
undergoes 15 disintegrations per minute per gram. How old is a 10.0g
sample for which the rate is 0.91 disintegrations per minute per gram 4120
years.
frequency: 5.11E+11 Hz . What is the wavelength of radiation 5.87E-4 m.
heat of combustion methanol = -173.7 kcal/mol @18C, heat of combustion
CO = -67.6 kcal/mol @ 18Cn heat of formation of H2O(l) = -68.4 kcl/mol
. Find the heat of reaction at 18C for CO(g) + 2H2(g) = CH3OH(l) -30.7
kcal.
mass calcium nitrate = 11.3g mass water = 115g . What is the freezing
point of a solution -3.34C
mass defect for the triton (tritium nucleus) = 0.00910amu. Calculate the
binding energy per nucleon 2.825 MeV.
mass Fe(s) = 1.67g t = 1.00 hour . What current would be necessary to
deposit Fe(s) from a solution of Fe3+ (aq) 2.40A.
mass gas density bulbevacuated/empty = 29.3215g mass bulb with CO2 gas
@40C, 1 atm = 30.0079g mass bulb with CO and CO2 at same T&P =
29.9332g . Determine the % of CO in the mixture 29.9.
mass hydrogen= 0.504g time the current is liberated= 2 hours. How
many grams of copper can be liberated by the same current flowing for
the same time in a copper sulfate solution. 15.9.
mass isotope = 1 g t1/2 isotope = 15 hours . The half-life of 0.50g sample
15 hours.
mass isotope = 1g t1/2 = 15 hours . The half life of 0.50g sample 7.5
hours.
mass metal = 400g heated to =96.5C mass H2O at calorimeter = 2000g
@20C Tf = 21.5C . What is the specific heat of the metal in cal/g.C 0.10
mass N2O4 = 1.588g total pressure = 1.0133 bar, volume glass vessel @
25C = 500 cm3 . What is the value of Kp. 0.143 bar.
 INTRODUCTION TO WASTE MANAGEMENT AND REGULATORY OVERVIEW 22-11

mass of flask evacuated = 134.567g pressure gas = 735torr @ 310C,
mass of flask after filling with gas @ given P and T = 137.456g mass of
flask filled with water@31C = 1067.9g . Assuming ideal gas equation
applies, calculate the molar mass of the unknown gas 79.7.
mole Cl2 = 1.00 mol V = 1.00L T = 200K, a=0.493L2-atm/mol2
b=0.5622 L/mol . What is the pressure calculated by van der waals
equation 31.0 atm.
moles of electrons = 3.00 potential = 1.74 V, What is the electrical work
done 5.07E5J.
PCl3(g)   PCl3(g) + Cl2(g), dissociates, T = 250C P = 1 atm
heat
density = 4.4g/L at equilibrium . The fraction of PCl5 dissociated is 0.103.
T = 25C . The difference between the heat of combustion of methane at
constant pressure and at constant volume when liquid water forms -1257.4
cal.
T = 27C . The difference between the heat of combustion of methane at
constant pressure and at constant volume at the given temperature when
the liquid water forms. -1192.2 cal.
T1 = 20C T2 = 100C electric current = 10A, voltage = 10V t = 10 hours.
Calculate the mass of water in grams that could be heated 10,755.
viscosity coeff of gaseous Cl = 147.0 micropoise @ 20C. Find the
molecular diameter of the chlorine molecule. 4.22E-8cm.
volume 1 methane= 200ml Temperature= -42C, volume 2 methane=
100ml . Find the final temperature 74.
volume gas mixture (N2 and CO2) = 10.0 L (with 3.00g N2), PT =
0.750atm\ T = 273K . What is the partial pressure of CO2(g) in the
mixture. 0.510 atm.
VP pure benzene @ 25C = 0.1252 atm mass unknown HC= 6.4g mass,
pure benzene (MW=78) = 78g VP benzene in solution = 0.1192 atm.
What is the molar weight of the unknown solid. 128.
VP pure ethyl alcohol @ 30C = 71.2 torr VP pure carbon tetrachloride
= 121.6 torr mass ethyl alcohol = 20g mass carbon tetrachloride = 60g .
Calculate the pressure above a solution assuming ideal behavior 95.0
torr.
Z = 2.50 @ 65.0 atm n gas = 2.00 moles, V gas = 1.00L P = 65.0 atm.
What is the temperature of this gas 158K.
mass of ice = 100g. T1 = 0C (ice) T2 = 100 C @ 1 atm (steam) . Calculate
the change in entropy in converting ice to steam 205.28eu.
mass of oxygen gas = 8 grams @ 27C, 10 atm and expands adiabatically
and reversibly Pfinal = 1.0 atm . The work done in the process -752 J.
moles of ideal gas= 3 @ P = 1 atm @ T = 20C, heated at constant
pressure Tfinal = 80C Cv = 7.50 + 3.2E-2T, cal/mol.K. The change in
internal energy of the process is 3210.50 cal.
P1 = 1 bar (initial condition air is compressed) @ 25C, P2 = 5 bars @
25C . Assume air is ideal gas, calculate the work done in J/mol 3990.
Calculate the heat required in J/mol -3990.
P1 = 200kPa P2 = 150 kPa . For an ideal gas, what is the specific molar
entropy change during an isothermal process. 2.39 J/mol-K.
Psat steam= 350 kPa mixed with water at 15C Thot water = (produced from
mixing) 80C rate mixing = 4 kg/s internal diameter = 50mm (inlet and
outlet lines to the mixing device) . At what rate must steam be supplied
0.41 kg/s.
Q = 1055kJ T = 427C (heat engine absorbs heat), T = 38C (heat engine
rejects heat) . The work done in kJ by the engine if its efficiency is 50%
of the carnot engine is closest to 496.6kJ.
Qabsorb = 1055kJ @ T =427C, Treject = 38C . The work done in kJ by the
engine if its efficiency is 50% of the Carnot efficiency is closest to 293.3
kJ.
refrigerator capacity = 3140 watts input rating = 735 watts. The
coefficient of performance of the refrigerator is 4.27.
T = 100C (water evaporates) @ 1 atm . Calculate the work done by the
system in which 1 kmole of water evaporated 3060 kJ.
Tsteam = 212F mass water = 400lb, Twater = 70F heat losses = 2000 Btu
. Find the amount of steam to make the TF of water to be 212F 60.6 lb.
two carnot engines are operating in series. T1 (absorbs) = 1,111K T2
(rejects), the second engine receives the heat at the intermediate
temperature T and rejects it to Treservoir Treservoir = 300K . Calculate T if
the efficiencies of the two engines are equal. 577K Required 2: From
the data above, calculate T if the work done by the two engines are equal.
705K.
VP acetic acid @ 90C = 293 mmHg VP acetic acid @ 100C = 417
mmHg . Calculate the normal boiling point of acetic acid 391.3K.

THERMODYNAMICS

a closed gaseous system undergoes a reversible process Qrejected = 25

BTU V1 = 5ft3 V2 = 2ft3 P = (constant) 50psia. Find delta U 2.76 BTU.
heat content of 70% NaOH liquor @ 160F = 325 btu/lb is diluted with
20% NaOH liquor @ 80F heat content 20% NaOH liquor = 40 btu/lb
heat content final solution, 40% NaOH = 94 btu/lb . For every 100lb
product, how much heat must be removed to maintain a final product
temperature of 100F. 6000 btu.
heat engine absorbs heat from the combustion of gasoline @ T=2200C,
sp.gr of gasoline = 0.8 heat combustion = 11,200 calories per gram T =
1200C, engine rejects heat . The maximum work in calories that can be
obtained from the combustion of 1L gasoline 3.26E6 cal.
heat of combustion benzoic acid = -770.9 kcal/mol (measured in bomb
calorimeter) @ 25C . Find the heat of combustion of benzoic acid in
kcal/mol at 25C in a stream of oxygen assuming complete condensation
of water vapor to liquid -771.2.
helium is compressed isothermally P= 14.7 psia, T = 68 F compression
ratio = 4 . Determine the change in entropy of the gas in BTU/lb-F -
0.689.
mass Cu = 5lb T = 200F mass water = 10lbm . Copper is submerged in
water and after a period of time, equilibrium is established. What is the
entropy change of the system. 0.0167 BTU/R.
mass ice cubes = 5 lbs (manufacture from water initially at 32F) T,
surrounding air = 80F latent heat of fusion of water = 143.4 btu/lb. The
minimum work 70.0 btu.
INTRODUCTION TO WASTE MANAGEMENT AND REGULATORY OVERVIEW 22-11
INTRODUCTION TO WASTE MANAGEMENT AND REGULATORY OVERVIEW 22-11

HEAT TRANSFER

A fixture containing an ordinary incandescent light bulb is connected

to a dimmer switch. Temperature of the tungsten filament inside the
bulb increases from 1300K- 2600K. Total Power radiated by the bulb.
Increase 16x
A heat exchanger is required to cool 20kg/s of water. T= 360K to 340K.
m=25kg/s. Tentering water = 300K. Overall coefficient of heat transfer= 2
kW/m2-K.Calculate the surface area required in a counter concentric tube
exchanger. 20m2
A method where engineers assure the existence of an exchanger and
make calculations to determine if the exchanger would handle the
process. Rate an exchanger
A popular type of heat exchanger for cooling large quantities of fluid.
Low thermal conductivity
A reaction mixture,Cp= 2.85 kJ/kg-K, flowing at a rate= 7260kg/hr. to be
cooled from 377.6K to 344.3K. Tcooling water= 288.8K, flow rate=
4536kg/hr. OHTC= 653 W/m2-K.Calculate the outlet water temperature.
51.95°C
A single 4-in steel pipe, OD = 4.5 inch, outer surface temperature=
300°F. The horizontal pipe in a large room with ambient temperature=
78°F at standard barometer. The heat total (natural convection and
radiation) for 25ft of length in Btu/hr. 21100
Air Tin=75°C, Tout= 225°F. Hot gas: Tout= 265°F. LMTD= 140°F. Find
the temperature of the hot gas entering. 325°F
An economizer receives hot gas (Cp=0.27 BTU/lb-°R) and water in the
ratio of 1.5 lb gas per lb water. Tgas in= 850°C. Tgas out= 355°F. Twater
in= 120°F. Find the exit temperature of the water if the flow is parallel.
320°F
An insulator should have. Low thermal conductivity
Benzene at 100°F and 1 atm flows at 100ft3/min in a smooth 1” ID tube.
The heat transfer coefficient for the system in BTU/ sec-ft2-°F
Calculate the inside area of the coil in ft2. 2.664 4. Calculate the gpm of
water cooled. 0.380
Composite wall at 2000°F. Outside ambient temperature at 70°F. Three
layers composite wall, 12, 12 and 10 inches. Thermal conductivities:
0.4,0.2 and 0.1BTU/hr-ft-°F. Inside heat transfer is negligible. Outside
air film heat transfer coefficient is 2BTU/hr-ft2-°F. Heat loss through
the composite wall in BTU/hr-ft2 is. 118.2
Composite wall composed of 2” cork on the inside, 6” concrete and 3”
wool on the outside. Thermal conductivities= 0.025,0.8 and 0.065 BTU/
hr-ft-°F. Inside surface temperature= 40°F. outside temp=78°F. What is
the heat flux through the wall in BTU/hr-ft2. 3.41
 INTRODUCTION TO WASTE MANAGEMENT AND REGULATORY OVERVIEW
Determine the rate of conduction of copper rod. Diameter= 2mm,
Length= 150 mm. Temperatures: 300°C at one end and 20°C at the other
end. Ave. thermal conductivity= 1.36E6 J/s-m-K. 7890W
Determine the temperature (in °F) at the junction between the firebrick
and the insulating brick. 1533
Determine the temperature (in °F) at the junction between the insulating
brick and common brick. 328 6.Calculate the heat loss per linear foot
from 2in nominal pipe (2.375 in outside diameter). Covered with 1 inch
of an insulating material. average thermal conductivity= 0.0375
BTU/hr-ft-°F. Temperatures of the insulation= 390°F and 80°F.
120BTU/hr-ft
Dittus-Boelter equation for the determination of heat transfer coeff. is
valid. For fluids in turbulent flow
Film and drop are the terms associated with. Condensation
Find the thermal conductivity of a 0.5m thick material with an area of
5m2 and a temperature difference of 10K if the heat transmitted during
2hrs of test is 2000kJ. 2.78 W/m-K
Flat wall with 6inch layer firebrick( k=0.95BTU/ hr-ft-°F), 4inches
insulating brick (k=0.14), and 4inches common brick (k=0.8). Firewall
temperature= 1800°F, outer surface temperature= 120°F. The heat loss
through the wall in BTU/hr-ft2. 506
Heat loss (W/m2) by radiation & convection from an unlagged
horizontal steam pipe, 50mm, od. At 377K. Air at 283K.1587
Heat transfer area for a natural convection. Horizontal pipe diameter=
0.15m. Surface temperature of 400K to air at 294K. 6.81 W/m2-K
Convection coefficient of heat transfer of nickel wire(0.035 in diameter
at 1700°F) to air is equal to 6 BTU/ hr-ft2-°F. How much heat is lost by
1ft of wire inside an oxidized copper container, the air and container
being 160°F. 85BTU/hr
Hollow metal sphere. Inside wall temperature= 300°F. Internal
diameter= 6 inches and 2inch thick. Outer surface= 212°F. Thermal
conductivity of metal= 8BTU/hr-ft-°F. What is the heat loss from the
sphere. 5529BTU/hr
Hollow sphere. Outside radius= 1m made up of polystyrene foam.
Thickness= 1cm. the inner surface is 5.20°C hotter than the outside
surface. Thermal conductivity of polystyrene foam= 0.033 W/m-°C.
The power produced by the heat source.214 W
How much part of the light is absorbed by the body that transmits and
reflects 80% and 10% respectively. 10%
If a man touches two metals which were kept together at room
temperature, why would one metal feel colder than the other. One has
higher thermal conductivity
In a heat transfer equipment, dirt or scale may be accounted by
introducing a resistance called. Fouling factors
In a steady state heat transfer through a series of materials with varying
resistance, the heat transfer. Is constant throughout the series of
materials
In convection heat transfer, the mechanism of heat transfer where the
fluid moves due to the decrease in its density caused by increased in
temperature. Natural convection
In heat exchanger the area of heat transfer is calculated from. The total
lateral area of the tubes
LMTD. 230°F
Metal rod= 10cm long, diameter= 2cm. One end is in contact with steam
at 100°C while the other end is in contact with ice at 0°C. 320g of ice
melted after 20 mins. The thermal conductivity is. 283.6 W/m-K
Methyl alcohol flowing in the inner pipe of a double pipe exchanger is
cooled with water flowing in the jacket. Inner pipe= 1-inch(25mm),
Sched 40 steel pipe. Steel thermal conductivity= 26 BTU/hr-ft-°F(45
W/m- °C). hi = 180 BTU/hr-ft2-°F(1020 W/m2-°C), hdi= 1000 BTU/ hr-
ft2-°F (5680 W/m2-°C), ho= 600 BTU/ hr-ft2-°F(3402 W/m2-°C), hdo=
500 BTU/hr-ft2-°F(2840 W/m2-°C). What is the overall heat transfer
coefficient based on the outside area of the inner pipe in BTU/hr-ft2-°F).
80.9
22-11
Pipe diameter= 50mm with circular section with walls 3mm thick
covered with two concentric layers of lagging. Inner layer thickness=
25mm with thermal conductivity= 0.08 W/m-K. outer layer thickness=
40mm with thermal conductivity= 0.04 W/m-K. What is the rate of heat
per meter length of pipe. Ti= 550K, To surface temp= 330K. 62.7W/m
Ratio of the molecular diffusivity and momentum in liquid is known as
the. Prandtl no.
Refractory material… Emissivity of 0.40 at 1500K and 0.43 at1420K.
Temperature of 1420K exposed to black furnace walls at 1500K. The
rate of gain of heat by radiation per unit area in Kw/m2. 24.3
Stack gases leave a boiler, pass through a square steel duct 3ft by 3ft and
16ft long. And enter a masonry chimney. Estimate the heat transfer
coefficient (in BTU/hr-ft2-°F) in the duct if the gases are at 900°F and
1 atm. Consider the stack gases to have the same properties as air. The
gas velocity is 50ft/sec.
Steam pipe. Outside diameter= 2inches. Inside surface temperature=
350°F. pipe coating material= 2inch thick. Thermal conductivity: k= 0.5
+ 5E-4T in °F. k in BTU/hr-ft-°F. Outside surface coating= 100°F.
Calculate the heat loss per foot of pipe length. 877 BTU/hr
Surface temperature is. 129.1°F
The area assuming it’s co-current. 6.46m2
The area assuming it’s counter current. 5.43m2
The inside and outside surfaces of window glass are 20°C and -5°C.
Glass: 100cm by 50cm in size and 1.5cm thick. Thermal conductivity=
0.78 W/m-K. Heat loss through the glass at 2hrs. 1.30kWh
The main trunk duct of an air conditioning system is rectangular in
cross-section(16in x 30in) and has air at 15psia and 40°F flowing
through it with velocity of 1400 fpm. Find hi in BTU/ hr-ft2-°F. 4.50
The mode of heat transfer that can take place in a vacuum. Radiation
The overall conductance for a composite material in series is equal to
the. Inverse of the total resistance
The total heat loss by radiation and convection from unlagged
horizontal steram pipe of 50mm diameter at 415K at air= 290K.
384W/m
The transfer of heat through and by means of matter. Conduction
The view factor F21 of a sphere(1) of diameter D inside a cubical
box(2) of length L which is equal to D is. 0.524
Two very large walls at constant temperatures (800°F and 1000°F).
Emissivities: 0.6 & 0.8. Net exchange heat in BTU/hr-ft2. 1825
Water cooler uses 50lb/hr of melting ice to cool running water from 80°F
to 42°F. Ui= 110 BTU/hr-ft2-°F. Find the LMTD. 24.24 °F
What is the reason why Styrofoam is a good insulating material.
Because it contains many tiny air pockets of air
CALCULATIONS 1
2000kg/h of a mixture consisting of 60%wt benzene and 40%wt
toluene is to be separated in a distillation column. The distillate is to
contain 98%wt benzene and 95% of the feed benzene is to be recovered
as distillate. what is the flow rate of the distillate. 1163kg/h
41.78o Be is equivalent to 42.12 oAPI.
A contract was made between a buyer and a paper manufacturer for
paper containing 5% moisture at P450/ton on specification that price
adjustment will be made if the quality is different. How much should
the buyer pay for 1 ton of paper with 8% moisture content. Freight cost
is P45/ton. P434.16
A dehumidifier sprays 50lb/min of cold water into a stream of air.
100lb/min of wet air enters the dehumidifying chamber. The absolute
humidity of the entering air is 0.05lbwater/lb d.a. What is the total of
the liquid water leaving the chamber per minute. 53.81
A mixing tank mixes two inlet streams containing salt. The salt
concentration in stream 1 is 5% by weight and in stream 2 15% by
 INTRODUCTION TO WASTE MANAGEMENT AND REGULATORY OVERVIEW
weight. S1 flows at 25kg/s while S2 at 10kg/s. there is only one exit
stream. Find the salt concentration in the exit. 8%
A solution of gravity of 100o Twadell. Calculate the specific gravity in
degrees Baume. 48.33
A typical mud is 70 wt% sand and 30% wt water. What is its density.
The sand is practically pure quartz (SiO2) for which its density is 165
lb/ft3. 110.4lb/ft3
Ethylene reacts with water to form ethyl alcohol. If 20g of each reactant
is used, 20g of alcohol is produced. What is the percent yield. 60.9%
Fresh orange juice contains 12%wt solids. Initially a single evaporation
process was used for the concentration to 45%wt but volatile
constituents of the juice escaped with water, leaving the concentration
with a flat taste. The present process overcomes this problem by
bypassing the evaporator with a fraction of the fresh juice; the juice that
enters the evaporator is concentrated to 58% solids and the product is
mixed with the bypassed fresh juice to achieve the desired final
concentration of solids. Calculate the fraction of the feed that bypassed
the evaporator. 10%
From data above, calculate the %benzene in the bottom. 7.2%
From the data above, calculate the flow rate of the bottom product.
837kg/h
H2 gas can be prepared by the reaction of zinc metal with HCl solution
according to the equation: Zn + 2HCl  ZnCl2 + H2 How many liters
of H2 gas will be formed at 762mmHg and 15oC if 25.5g Zn was
allowed to react with HCl. 9.44L
How many pounds/day of CaF2 is needed to produce 3000lb of a 60%
HF acid/day if the yield is 90% and the rock contains 95% pure CaF2.
4105.2
One dried will dry a material from 45% (wb) to 20% (db). From here,
the material enters another drier where the water content is further
reduced to give a final product weighing 1000kg. if the total evaporated
water from both driers is 800 kg, the moisture content (wb) of the final
product is 1%.
Pig iron is prepared in a blast furnace from a hematite ore. The ore
contains 83% ferric oxide. The pig iron produced is 96% Fe and the Fe
in the ore slag contains 10% of the iron in the ore. How much pig iron
is produced for every 500tons of ore. 272 tons
The CO2 that will theoretically be formed when a mixture of 50g of
methane and 100g oxygen is ignited is 68.8g.
The equivalent of 45oTw in the Baume scale is 26.63
The waste acid from a nitration plant operation contains 23% HNO2,
57% H2SO4 and 20%H2O. It is specified that the concentrated acid
product contains 27%HNO2, 60% H2SO4 and 13% water. If the H2SO4
available contains 7%H2O and the HNO2 contains 10% water, how
many lbs of the waste acid is needed to produce 1000lb of the product.
418.3lb
CALCULATIONS 2
A fuel containing 75% ethane and 25% propane is burned with dry air.
All the H2 burns to water and CO2 to CO ratio is 10:1. 15% excess air
is supplied. Calculate a) mole stack gas/ 100 mole fuel; b) Orsat
analysis of stack gas; c) complete analysis of stack gas; d) m3 dry air at
28C and 765mmhg per mole fuel. a. 2294.75 moles, b. %CO= 1.038%
%CO2=10.38%, O2=3.47%, N2= 85.11%, c. –, d. 0.521m3/mol
A fuel containing methane and ethane is burned with excess air. The
analysis of the dry stack gas is given as follows: 4.62%CO2, 3.08%CO,
8.91%O2 and 83.39%N2. Determine the %excess air. 49.81%
A furnace is fired with petroleum containing 80%C, 13%H, 3%S, 1%N
and 3%O. Determine the moles of theo air required for the complete
combustion of 1kg of oil. 472
22-11
A pure saturated hydrocarbon is burned with excess air. The analysis
of the product of combustion shows 9.08%CO2, 1.63%CO, 5.28%O2
and no free H2. Determine the hydrocarbon C3H8.
A pure saturated hydrocarbon is burnt with excess air. Orsat analysis
of the stack gas shows 7.9% CO2, 1.18%CO, 0.24% H2 and 85.43% N2.
Air is substantially dry. The stack gases leaves at 750mmHg.
Dry air required for the burning of 1ft3 of CO is 2.4ft3.
From the data above, determine the mole percent of ethane in the fuel.
18.57%
If the test study on the combustion of the cetane-methyl naphthalene
mixture gave a product analysing 7.14% CO2 4.28% CO 8.24%O2 and
the rest N2, what is the cetane number of the diesel. Density of cetane
is 0.775g/ml and n-heptane is 0.684g/ml. 44.71
The analysis of flue gas from a fuel gas is containing no nitrogen is
4.62%CO2, 3.08%CO, 8.91% O2 and 83.39% N2. Calculate the
%excess air if all the fuel is burned. 50
CRYSTALLIZATION
100 lb of sodium carbonate in water at 10C to 30C. 185lb
100lb Sodium sulphate at 40C cooled to 5C. 69.5lb
13% K2Cr2O7 from 1000 lb soln cooled to 20C with 640 evaporated
water. 103.6lb
A solution of NaNO3 in water at 40C contains 49% NaNO3 by weight.
92%
Ammonium chloride at 70C cooled to crystallize 45% of the solution.
9.5%
From above %yield is 95%.
From above, % yield is 10.8%.
From above, concentration of NaNO3 per 100g water. 81.8g
From above, molality of the solution is 9.64m.
From above, molarity of the solution is 7M.
From above, percent yield. 80%
From above, weight sodium nitrate cooled to 0C. 4.84g
From problem above, weight NaNO3 from 1000lbs by reducing
temperature to 10C. 82
Percent yield of the process above. 16.8%
Sodium nitrate at 60C contains 45% sodium nitrate. % saturation is
66%.
LEACHING
1000lb pile of mixture of 20% sand and 80%KCl. Drained solids after
1st leach is 1206lb. Drained solids after 2nd leach is 253.9 solids.
%KCl= 27% or 21%. Collective drained solids is 2806lbs. %KCl from
collective= 28.37%.
A solvent extraction will be performed on a solid B that contains a
soluble component A (Xa= 0.25 Xb=0.75). Lb solute A/lb A&B to
obtain 95% A is 1.67%.
How many stages and how much water is needed for the counter-
current extraction of NaOH of feed of 80lb NaOH,400lb water and
100lbCaCO3. 580lb, 3.14~4stages.
Roasted copper ore with 10%CuSO4 85% gangue and 5% moisture.
Percent CuSO4 underflow 0.13%. %Recovery is 97.96%.
INTRODUCTION TO WASTE MANAGEMENT AND REGULATORY OVERVIEW 22-11
INTRODUCTION TO WASTE MANAGEMENT AND REGULATORY OVERVIEW 22-11
INTRODUCTION TO WASTE MANAGEMENT AND REGULATORY OVERVIEW 22-11
INTRODUCTION TO WASTE MANAGEMENT AND REGULATORY OVERVIEW 22-11
INTRODUCTION TO WASTE MANAGEMENT AND REGULATORY OVERVIEW 22-11

MOMENTUM, HEAT AND MASS TRANSFER

a cooling coil, consisting of a single length of tubing through which

water is circulated, is provided in a reaction vessel, the contents of which
are ket uniformly at 360K by means of a stirrer. Tinlet cooling water = 280K,
Toutlet cooling water = 320K. What would be the outlet water temperature if
the length of the cooling coil were increased by 5 times. Assume the
overall heat transfer coefficient to be constant over the length of the tube
and independent of the water temperature. 357.5K
a shell-and-tube heat exchanger consists of 120 tubes of internal
diameter 22mm and length 2.5m. It is operated as a single pass
condenser with benzene condensing at 350K on the outside of the tubes
and water of inlet temperature 290K passing through the tubes. Initially
there is no scale on the walls, rate of condensation = 4 kg/s, water
velocity = 0.7m/s, scale resisitance = 0.0002m2-K/W (formed on the
inner surface of the tubes), latent heat of vaporization benzene =
400kJ/kg. To what value must the water velocity be increased in order
to maintain the same rate of condensation on assumption that the transfer
coefficient on the water side is proportional to the velocity raised to the
0.8 power, and that the coefficient for the condensing vapor is 2.52
kW/m2-K, based on the inside area. 2.06m/s
a shell-and-tube heat exchanger is used for preheating the feed to an
evaporator. liquid specific heat = 4.0kJ/kg-K, density liquid = 1100
kg/m3, Tsteam condensing= 395K on the outside The exchanger heats liquid at
295K to an outlet temperature of 375K when the flowrate is 1.75x10-4
 INTRODUCTION TO WASTE MANAGEMENT AND REGULATORY OVERVIEW
m3/s and to 370K when the flowrate is 3.25x10E-4 m3/s. What is the
heat transfer area and the value of the overall coefficient when the flow
rate is 1.75x10-4 m3/s. 0.136kW/m2; 9.09m2
a thermometer is immersed in a liquid which is heated at the rate of
0.05K/s, Uto the bulb = 735 u 0.8 W/m2-K, area of the bulb = 0.01m2. If the
thermometer and the liquid are both initially at 290K, what rate of
passage of liquid over the bulb of the thermometer is required if the error
in the thermometer reading after 600s is to be no more than 1 deg K.
Take the water equivalent of the thermometer as 30g. 0.82 m/s
benzene is to be condensed in a vertical shell and tube type of heat
exchanger fitted with tubes of 25mm outside diameter and 2.5 long, rate
= 1.25kg/s, *vapor condenses on the outside of the tubes, Tcooling water enter
= 295K, rate cooling water = 1.05 m/s, tube wall thickness = 1.6mm.
Calculate the number of tubes required if the heat exchanger is arranged
for single pass of the cooling water. 60 tubes are required
Calculate the time for the distant face to reach 470K under the same
conditions as, except that the distant face is not perfectly lagged but a
very large thickness of material of the same thermal properties as the
brickwork is stacked against it. t=2.26x10E5 s or 0.226 Ms (62.8h;
t=2.38x10E5s or 0.238 Ms (66.1h)
co-current flow cooler, T1 oil = 370K, T2 oil = 350K, *temperature is
reduced by lengthening the cooler, Twater enter = 285K, Toil enter = 420K,
Twater leaving = 310K (original cooler), *the oil and water flowrates, inlet
temperatures and other dimensions of the cooler will remain constant.
If the original length is 1m, what must be the new length. 1.86m
countercurrent-flow heat exchanger, benzene is cooled using water,
mass flow rate benzene = 1.25kg/s, density benzene = 880 kg/m3,
specific heat benzene = 1.9 kJ/kg-K, T1 = 350K, T2 = 300K, Twater =
290K, external diameter heat exchanger = 25mm, internal diameter
heat exchanger = 22mm, *water passes through the tubes, film
coefficient water = 0.85kW/m2-K, film coefficient benzene = 1.70
kW/m2-K, *scale resistance is neglected. What total length of tube will
be required if the minimum quantity of water is to be used and its
temperature is not to be allowed to rise above 320K. 165.8m
Density HC = 950 kg/m3; Specific heat capacity = 2.5 kJ/kg.K; T1 HC
= 363 K; T2HC = 313 K; T1 water = 293 K; T2 water = 323 K; flowrate
HC = 0.56 kg/s HC is cooled in heat exchanger with water
countercurrently. What is the required flowrate of water. G=0.56 kg/s.
After plant modifications, the heat exchanger is incorrectly connected
so that the two streams are in co-current flow. What are the new outlet
temperatures of HC and water, if the overall heat transfer coefficient is
unchanged. 324.2 K; 315.8K
depth longitudinal fin = 75mm, thickness fin = 3mm, Tpipe surface = 400K,
coefficient of heat transfersurface = 5W/m2(constant), thermal
conductivity fin = 50W/m-K, Tbase of the fin = 400K. Calculate the heat
dissipated per meter length from the fin to the atmosphere at 290K, the
heat loss from the extreme edge of the fin may be neglected. 6.23 W/m
diameter cast-iron vessel = 1m, diameter propeller agitator = 0.3m,
frequency propeller = 2 Hz, mass flow rate circulating cooling water =
0.5 kg/s, outside diameter steel coil = 25mm, inside diameter steel coil
= 22mm, diameter helix = 0.81 m, mean water temperature = 290K
*the conditions are such that the reacting material may be considered
to have the same physical properties as 75% sulphuric acid/ What is
the overall heat transfer coefficient. 458.7 W/m2-K
diameter one end of metal bar = 25mm, length bar = 0.3 m, Tbar = 375K,
*heat is dissipated from the whole length of the bar to surroundings at
295K, coefficient of heat transfer from the surface = 10 W/m2, thermal
conductivity metal = 85 W/m-K. What is the rate of loss of heat. 12.5
W liquid is heated in a vessel by means of steam which is supplied to an
Diameter open bowl = 0.3 mm; T=350K (evaporating water into the
atmosphere); mass water = 10 kg. If the air currents are sufficiently
strong to remove the water vapor as it is formed and if the resistance to
its mass transfer in air is equivalent to that of a 1mm layer for
22-11
conditions of molecular diffusion, what will be the rate of cooling due
to evaporation. 0.026 deg K/s
diameter open cylindrical tank = 500mm,depth tank = 1 m (three
quarters filled with a liquid),liquid density = 980 kg/m3, specific heat
capacity = 3 kJ/kg-k, overall heat transfer coefficient for the coil = 100
W/m2-K, Tsurrounding = 288K. If the heat transfer coefficient from the
cylindrical walls and the base of the tank is 10 W/m2-K and from the
surface is 20 W/m2-K, what area of heating coil, fed with steam at
383K, is required to heat the contents from 288K to 368K in half hour.
5.0m2
dimension rectangular ingot = 15cm x 15cm x 30cm, Tinitial of ingot = 290K,
T = 1400K (silica brick), emissivitytotal =0.78 (oxidized iron surface),
density of iron = 7.2 mg/m3, specific heat capacity of iron = 0.50 kJ/kg-
K. How long will it take to heat the ingot to 600K, it may be assumed
that the furnace is large compared with the ingot, and that the ingot is
always at uniform temperature throughout its volume. convection effects
are negligible. 200s
distance between two large parallel plates (gray body) = 75mm,
emissivity 1 = 0.8 @ 350K, emissivity 2 = 0.4 @ 300K. Calculate the
net rate of heat exchange by radiation per square meter taking the Stefan-
Boltzmann constant as 5.67x10E-8 W/m2-K. 143.7 W/m2
emissivity of refractory material = 0.40 @ 1500K, emissivity of
refractory material = 0.43 @ 1420K, T = 1500K (black furnace wall).
What is the rate of gain of heat by radiation per unit area.. 24.3kW/m2
flow rate gas = 2.5 kg/m2-s, Re = 20, 000, specific heat of gas @ constant
pressure = 1.67 kJ/kg-K. What will be the heat transfer coefficient be.
h=13.4 W/m2-K
heat is transferred from one fluid to a second fluid across a heat transfer
surface. film coefficients for two fluids = 1.0 and 1.5kW/m2-K, thickness
metal = 6mm, thermal conductivity metal = 20 W/m-K, scale coefficient
= 850 W/m2-K. What is the overall heat transfer coefficient.. 317.5W/m2-
K or 0.318 kW/m2-K
in a shell-and-tube type of heat exchanger with horizontal tubes 25mm
external diameter and 22mm internal diameter, benzene is condensed on
the outside of the tubes by means of water flowing through the tubes,
rate = 0.03m3/s, Twater enter = 290K, Twater leaves = 300K, heat transfer
coefficient = 850W/m2-K. What total length of tubing will be required.
526m
internal diameter smooth tube in a condenser = 25mm, length tube = 10
m, pressure drop over the length of the tube = 2x10E4 N/m2, coefficient
for the condensing vapor = 15,000 W/m2-K, latent heat of vaporization
= 800 kJ/kg. If vapor at a temperature of 353K is condensing on the
outside of the tube and the temperature of the cooling water rises from
293K at inlet to 333K at outlet, what is the value of the overall heat
transfer coefficient based on the inside area of the tube. what is the film
coefficient for the water. what is the rate of condensation of vapor.
U=6.57 kW/m2; hi=11.68 kW/m2-K;0.235 kg/s
internal diameter spherical insulated vessel = 2m, *vessels are well
lagged on the outside, thermal conductivity = 0.07 W/m-K, latent heat
of vaporization of oxygen = 215kJ/kg, boiling point oxygen = 90K,
density pf liquid oxygen = 1140 kg/m3, atmospheric temperature=288K,
heat transfer coefficient from the outside surface of the lagging surface
to atmosphere = 4.5 W/m2-K.. What thickness of magnesia lagging must
be used so that no more than 1% of the liquid oxygen evaporates during
a journey of 10ks (2.78h) if the vessel is initially 80% full. 0.25m
internal diameter steam pipe = 150mm, T steam = 444K *lagged with
50mm of 85% magnesia. What will be the heat loss to the air at 294K.
132 W/m; 90% by the addition of 50mm of lagging
internal coil in the vessel, mass of liquid in the vessel = 1000kg, *it takes
half an hour to heat the contents from 293 to 368K if the coil is supplies
with steam at 373K. the process is modified so that the liquid at 293K is
continuously fed to the vessel at the rate of 0.28 kg/s. the total contents
of the vessel are always being maintained at 1000kg. What is the
 INTRODUCTION TO WASTE MANAGEMENT AND REGULATORY OVERVIEW
equilibrium temperature which the contents of the vessel will reach, if
heat losses to the surroundings are neglected and the overall heat transfer
coefficient remains constant. T=360.7K
mass flow rate air = 0.9kg/s , T1 = 283K, T2 = 366K, Tflue gas entering = 700K,
Tflue gas leaving = 366K, free flow mass velocity flue gas = 10 kg/m2s, inner
and outer diameter pipe = 12mm, specific heat capacity of air and flue
gases = 1.0 kJ/kg-K, *air passing through the pipes of a bank consisting
of 20 rows with 20 pipes in each row. the arrangement is in-line with
center to center spacing, in both directions, equal to twice the pipe
diameter. Neglecting gas radiation, how long should the pipes be. Values
of k and which may be used for both air and flue gases, are given below.
1.73m
mass flow rate crude oil = 37.5 kg/s, T1 = 295K, T2 = 330K, mass flow
rate bottom product = 29.6 kg/s, T1 = 420K, T2 = 380K, shell diameter
= 0.60m (tubular exchanger), having one pass on the shell side and two
passes on the tube side., number of tubes = 324, outside diameter =
19mm, wall = 2.1mm, length = 3.65m, square pitch = 25mm *supported
by baffles with a 25% cut, spaced at 230mm intervals. Would this
exchanger be suitable. 0.234m2-K/kW
mass of pure iso-butane = 7.5 kg/s , T = 331.7K (condensed
temperature), Tinlet water = 301K, outside diameter tube = 19mm, wall=
1.6mm, triangular pitch = 25mm, scale resistance = 0.0005m2-K/W.
Determine the number and arrangement of the tubes in the shell. 8.5%
Order of reaction = 2nd order; diffusivity of gas = 10E-8 m2/s; rate of
absorption at the interface = 4x10E-6 kmol/m2-s. In a continuous steady
state reactor, a slightly soluble gas is absorbed into a liquid in which it
dissolves and reacts, the gas concentration in the liquid falls to one half
of its value in the liquid over a distance of 1mm, calculate the reaction
rate constant on the assumption that the liquid is semi-finite in extent
and that mass transfer resistance in the gas phase is negligible. 212
m3/kmol-s
Outside diameter pipe = 50mm; T steam = 413K; Coefficient of heat
transfer (from its outer surface to the surroundings) = 10 W/m2.K @
288K. What is the heat loss per unit length. Q = 196W/m. It is desired
to add lagging of thermal conductivity 0.03 W/m-K as a thick layer to
the outside of the pipe in order to cut heat losses by 90%. If the heat
transfer from the outside surface of the lagging is 5 W/m2-K, what is the
thickness of lagging. x=52.5mm
outside diameter unlagged horizontal pipe = 50mm. Calculate the total
heat loss by radiation and convection from unlagged horizontal steam
pipe at 415K to air at 290K. 163.7 W/m; 344.7 W/m
outside temperature = 293K, thermal conductivity of lagging D = 0.05
W/m-K, coefficient for heat loss by radiation and convection from
outside surface vessel = 10 W/m2-K, outside area of vessel = 8m, coil
area = 0.2 m2, overall heat transfer coefficient for steam coil=300 W/m2-
K. The contents of a reaction vessel are heated by means of steam at
393K supplied to a heating coil which is totally immersed in the liquid.
When the vessel has a layer of lagging 50mm thick on its outer surfaces,
it takes one hour to heat the liquid from 293 to 373K. How long will it
take if the thickness of lagging is doubled. 3147s(0.87H)
pipe diameter=50mm (covered with two concentric layers of lagging),
thickness pipe wall = 3mm, inner layer thickness = 25mm, thermal
conductivity inner layer = 0.08 W/m-K, outer layer thickness = 40mm,
thermal conductivity outer layer = 0.04 W/m-K. What is the rate of heat
loss per meter length of pipe if the temperature inside the pipe is 550K
and the outside surface temperature is 330K. 62.7 W/m
t = 100s; diffusivity of CO2 in ethanol = 4x10E-9 m2/s. A deep pool of
ethanol is suddenly exposed to an atmosphere consisting of pure carbon
dioxide and unsteady state mass transfer, governed by Fick’s law, what
proportion of the absorbed carbon dioxide will have accumulated in
1mm thick layer of ethanol closest to the surface. 0.83 or 83%
t =1800s (0.5h) to heat a tank of liquid using steam supplied to an
immersed coil; T1 = 293K; T2 = 323K; Tsteam = 383K *the overall heat
transfer coefficient from the steam coil to the tank is 10 times the
22-11
coefficient from the tank to surroundings at a temperature of 293K. How
long will it take when the steam temperature is raised to 393K. 1578s
(0.44h)
T distillation column = 350K; P distillation column = 500 mmHg; mol
A (more volatile) = 0.7 (at the interface with the liquid) = 0.5 (in the
bulk of the vapor); diffusivity in the vapor mixture = 2x10E-5 m2/s *the
molar latent heat of the more volatile component is 1.5 times that of the
less volatile *the resistance to mass transfer in the vapor may be
considered to lie in a stagnant film of thickness 0.5mm at the interface.
R = 8314 J/kmol-K. Calculate the mass transfer rates kmol/m2-s of the
two components. Xa = 0.598. Calculate the mol fractions and
concentration gradients of the two components at the midpoint of the
film. Assume that the ideal gas law is applicable. 9.16 kmol/m4
T packed column = 295K; P = atmospheric ; [ammonia-air mixture]initial
= 10%; [ammonia-air mixture]final = 0.1 % after scrubbing with water;
partial pressure ammonia = 660 N/m2, at some intermediate point where
the ammonia concentration is reduced to 5%; transfer rate = 10E-3
kmol/m2.s. If the whole of the resistance to mass transfer may be
regarded as lying within a thin laminar film on the gas side of the gas-
liquid interface, derive from first principles an expression for the rate of
absorption at any position in the column. 0.24 cm2/s. What is the
thickness of the hypothetical gas film if the diffusivity af ammonia in
air is 0.24 cm2/s. 0.043 mm
T1 air = 289K; T2 air = 313K *warming the air by passing it through a
number of parallel metal tubes; inner diameter tubes = 50mm @ 373K;
pressure drop = not exceed 250 N/m2; density air @ 301K = 1.19 kg/m3;
k (convection) = 45, 62, 77 W/m2-K; velocity @ 301K = 20,24,30 m/s.
How long should the individual tubes be.. 1.95
the radiation received by the earth’s surface on a clear day with the sun
overhead is 1kW/m2 and an additional 0.3kW/m2 , approximate radius
earth = 700, 000km, distance between sun and earth = 150, 000, 000km.
The temperature of the sun, the sun may be assumed to behave as black
body. 5710K
thermal conductivity brick=1.0 W/m-K, thickness brick = 230mm,
thermal conductivity plaster = 0.4W/m-K, thickness plaster = 10mm. If
a temperature difference of 30K is maintained between the two outer
faces, what is the heat flow per unit area of wall. 129W
thermal diffusivity, DH = 0.0042 cm2/s, thickness ID = 0.45m, Tinitial
=290K, T2 = 470K , if the near face is suddenly raised to a temperature
of 870K and maintained at that temperature. Assume that all the heat
flow is perpendicular to the faces of the wall and that the distant face is
perfectly insulated, calculate the time taken for the distant face of a brick
wall. t=0.120 Ms (33.5h)
thickness firebrick furnace = 0.2m, T = 1573K (inside furnace wall), T
=293K (ambient air adjacent to the furnace exterior), ho =3.0T E 0.25
W/m2-K (natural convection heat transfer coefficient at the exterior
surface), thermal conductivity of firebrick = 1.5 W/m-K, thermal
conductivity insulating brick = 0.4 W/m-K. The heat loss through a
firebrick furnace wall is to be reduced by addition of a layer of insulating
brick to the outside. What is the thickness of insulating brick necessary
to reduce the heat loss to 400 W/m2. x=1.18m
Tsteam reaction vessel = 393K, area of steam coil = 2.5 m2, area external surface
= 40 m2. overall heat transfer coefficient from the coil to the liquid in the
vessel = 400 W/m2-K. It takes 1800s to heat the contents from 293 to
373K when the outside temperature is 293K. When the outside and
initial temperatures are 278K, it takes 2700s to heat the contents to
373K, show that the overall coefficient for transfer from the vessel to
the surroundings is about 5W/m2-K. 5 W/m2-K
Twater = 293K, length coil = 6.1m, internal diameter pipe = 25mm,
thermal conductivity of the pipe wall = 20 W/m-K, wall thickness =
3.2mm, Tsteam = 373K, film coefficient = 8 kW/m2-K, water velocity in
pipe = 1 m/s, Toutlet = 309K. What will the outlet temperature be if the
velocity is increased to 1.3 m/s, if the coefficient of heat transfer to the
 INTRODUCTION TO WASTE MANAGEMENT AND REGULATORY OVERVIEW
water in the tube is proportional to the velocity raised to the 0.8 power.
K=976; T=307.7K
Velocity air = 12.2 m/s; T air = 66 K; density air @ 310K = 1.14 kg/m3;;
What will be the corresponding pressure drop for a pipe temperature of
420K and an air temperature of 310K. 101.8 (N/m2)/m
velocity air thru pipe = 12 m/s, inside diameter = 25mm, k (convection)
= 60 W/m2-K. Neglecting the effects of temperature variation, estimate
the pressure drop per meter length of pipe. 115.2 N/m2 per meter
velocity water = 1.2 m/s (through series of 25mm diameter tubes 5m
long maintained at 320K), Tinlet = 290K. At what temperature would it
leave. 306.4K; 306.06K
volume jacketed reaction vessel = 0.25 m3, density liquid inside vessel =
900 kg/m3, specific heat = 3.3 kJ/kg-K, *the contents of the tank are
agitated by a stirrer rotating at 3 Hz, heat transfer area =2.5 m2, Tsteam =
380K, outside film heat transfer coefficient = 1.7 kW/m2, tank wall =
10mm, thermal conductivity tank wall = 6.0 W/m-K, inside film
coefficient = 1.1kW/m2-K, for a stirrer speed of 1.5Hz and proportional
to the two-thirds power of the speed of rotation. Neglecting heat losses
and the heat capacity of the tank, how long will it take to raise the
temperature of the liquid from 295 to 375K. 2381s (40min)
volume liquid = 0.1 m3. specific heat capacity = 3kJ/kg-K, density = 950
kg/m3, heat transfer area = 1m2, Tsteam supplied = 383K, overall heat transfer
coefficient in coil = 2000 W/m2-K, heat transfer coefficient to
surroundings = 311.8K. How long will it take to heat the liquid from
293K to 368K, if the tank, of external area 20m2 is losing heat to the
surroundings at 293K. To what temperature will the system fall in 1800s
is the steam is turned off.. 1559 s(0.43h); 311.8K
volume liquid = 0.18m3, density liquid = 900kg/m3, specific heat liquid
= 2.1kJ/kg-K, T1 = 293K, T2 = 377K, Tsteam feed= 383K, overall heat
transfer coefficient = (constant) 0.5 kW/m2-K, external surface vessel =
2.5m, coefficient for heat transfer to the surroundings = 5W/m 2-K @
293K, how long will it take to heat the liquid, 2085s (0.58h). The batch
system of heating is to be replaced by a continuous countercurrent heat
exchanger in which the heating medium is a liquid entering at 388K and
leaving at 333K. If the heat transfer coefficient is 250W/m2-K, what heat
exchange area is required. Heat losses may be neglected. 2.44m2
x firebrick = 225mm, k=1.4 W/m-K, x insulating brick = 120mm, k=0.2
W/m-K, x building brick = 225mm, k=0.7 W/m-K, Tinside = 1200K,
Toutside = 330K. Find the heat loss per unit area and the temperature at
the junction of the firebrick and insulating brick. 803.3 W/m2; 589K
EVAPORATION
A 10%wt NaOH sol’n at 80oF… the heating surface required in ft2… 91
A 7wt% NaOH sol’n enters an evap. at 98oF… the number of BTU
required to evap. 1.5lb H2O… 1670 BTU
A certain evap. is boiling a solution… after 4hrs and 10min…
coefficient at the start of operation… 652
A double effect evap. is heated w/ steam at 250oF. The 2nd effect is under
vacuum… Boiling Point in 1st… 208oF
A heat transfer device that is normally used to liquefy vapors…
condenser
A liquor containing 15% solids is concentrated to 55%. The feed rate is
2.5kg/s… evaporation in 1st in kg/min? 52.5
A sol’n of organic colloids is concentrated from 20 to 65%... the steam
consumption in kg/hr… 11,400
A triple effect evap. is supplied with 250 oF sat. steam… the area of the
first effect in ft2… 3300
22-11
Estimate the boiling point… 15-mol% NaCl, 10-mol%MgCl2 and 18-
mol% CaCl2… 140oF
For the same duty and heat transfer area, the feedforward flow
evaporator is ___ compared to backward feed… less efficient
If the OHTC of the evap. of prob 10 is 200 BTU/hr-ft2-oF… the heating
area in ft2 … 38
If the sol’n to be evaporated tends to strongly scale… forced circulation
In a country where capital is scarce and energy cost is low… single effect
evaporator
In evaporation operation, the valuable product is… thick liquor
Referring to prob 13, economy of evap… 0.80
Referring to prob 13, estimated heating surface in m2… 0.70
Referring to prob. 21, heat transfer area of the 1 st? 66.1
Referring to prob. 21, heat transfer area of the 2nd? 68.8
Sat. steam at 25psia enters a surface… the required cooling water in
lb/hr? 4130
The BPR of 30%wt NaCl at 1 atm… 20oF
The concentration of glycerine from water solution… evaporation
The temp. driving force in an evap. is determined as difference between
condensing steam and… boiling point of the sol’n
Water enters the bottom of a vertical evaporator tube 20ft long…
fraction of the liquid water entering the bottom? 0.0217
When the pressure of the evaporator chamber is decreased, the boiling
point inside will decrease
Which of the two evaporator…needs fluid motive devices to transfer
solutions… backward feed
FILTRATION
A P&FFP contains 24 frames, each 1 in thick … the capacity of the press
is? 936 ft3/day
A P&FFP is used to filter a certain sludge for 2hrs at constant pressure.
Time of washing is? 96 mins
A P&FFP is used to filter a compressible sludge (s=0.45) at 50 psifor 2
hrs… the washing time is? 127 min
A P&FFP with 10 frames is used to filter a slurry at a constant
pressure… the time to produce 400lb of filtrate, assuming Rm=0 is? 7.5
min
A rotary drum filter with 35% of its filtering area submerged in the
slurry turns at 0.5 rpm… estimated area of the filter cloth in m2? 1.6
A rotary vacuum filter w/ negligible filter medium resistance delivers
125 ft3 of filtrate per minute… the volume of filtrate delivered per hour
is? 10,620 ft3
 INTRODUCTION TO WASTE MANAGEMENT AND REGULATORY OVERVIEW
A small leaf filter is run at constant rate… the filtrate collected in 20
minutes is? 41.5 gallons
A standard leaf filter gives 20 ft3 of filtrate in 2 hrs of filtration time per
cycle… the capacity of leaf filter in ft3/hr is? 4.4
During filtration of slurry, the filtration will start to fall once the pressure
… becomes constant
During filtration on a rotary filter, the precipitate is continuously
removed by scrapper in order to … keep the filter clean
For a non-washing constant pressure filtration where the resistance of
the medium is negligible, max. capacity is attained when the filtration
time is… equal
If a duplicate pump were installed in parallel with the present pump in
prob 15, the percent reduction in filtration time is? 7.7%
If only ½ of the original filtrate volume of prob 15 were to be collected,
the new filtration is? 24.4 min
In a constant rate filtration test, the pressure rises from 4 to 45 psi in 10
mins collecting 3 ft3 of filtrate… the equivalent resistance in ft3 is? 0.293
In a Plate&Frame filter press, the rate of filtration is directly
proportional to… cross section of the filter press
In filtration operation, the flow rate is directly proportional to …
pressure applied
In filtration, the coarser the filtration medium… the longer
In P&FFP, the rate of washing is equal to? ¼
In the filtration of Al(OH)3, the following data were obtained: the pump
is operated at 50 psia… the total filtration time is? 38.3 mins
Referring to prob. 9, if the drum has diameter of 1.0m, the width in cm?
51
The capacity of a rotary vacuum filter will change by a factor of 1.1 if
the submerged area is increased by 20%.
The eq’n: Vf2=22.5x103(θf +0.11)… the total cycle time for maximum
filtrate output during 24 hr is? 12 hrs
The equation that is applied to describe the flowof a fluid through a
porous medium… Kozeny-Karman Eqn.
The filter fabric (or filter medium) to use in which strong breaking
tenacity and strong abrasion resistance are req’d is? Nylon
The operation by which solids are separated from liquids due to
difference in densities… sedimentation
LEACHING
A countercurrent multiple contact extraction system is to treat 50 tons/hr
of wet sliced sugar beets… water=0.48, pulp=0.40, sugar=0.12…
number of extraction cells req’d if each ton of dry pulp retains 3 tons of
sol’n? 16
22-11
A multiple contact extraction system is to treat 1.25 tons (2,500 lbs)/hr
of dry black ash containing 40% Na2CO3… the number of ideal stage
req’d is? 2 stages
a slurry of flaked soybeans weighing 100kg contains 75kg inert solids
and 25kg solution… composition of underflow leaving the extraction?
0.8
A unit op. in which a soluble component is removed from an inert solid
by solvent which dissolves the soluble matter is known as… leaching
Agitation in liquid influences the rate of extraction. Agitation of solvent
is important because… it increases the transfer material…
Coconut oil is to be produced from dry copra in two stages… dry copra
cake contains 20% residual oil… number of ideal stages required is? 5
stages
Composition of salt in weight percent in the final underflow is? 0.89%
Extraction of coffee from its seed is done by… leaching
In a salt recovery plant, rock salt is being leached to produce industrial
salt… inerts=70%, soluble salts=25%, moisture=5%... quantity of salts
recovered in MT/day is? 12.1
In ideal leaching conditions, the tie slant to the right indicating that the
solute is more highly concentrated in the underflow because…
equilibrium solubility/incomplete leaching
In leaching, the particle size influences the extraction rate, the smaller
the size… greater interfacial area and smaller the distance (both a and
b)
Leaching of sugar from sugar beets is done using… hot water
Number of extraction cells req’d if each ton of dry pulp retains 3 tons of
water? 17
Powdered limestone (CaCO3) containing 10,000ppm NaOH… the
NaOH content of the washed and dried limestone in ppm is? 0.8
Raw gypsum from a fertilizer plant is being leached out of its salt
(NaCl)… raw gypsum = 10MT/day, Salt content=1%wt, water feed
rate=90m3/day… the % of the salt removed is? 99.9%
Roasted copper ore containing the copper as CuSO4 is to be extracted in
a countercurrent stage extractor… 10 tons gangue, 1.2 tons CuSO4, 0.5
tons of water… the number of stages req’d is? 10
Stage efficiency in a leaching process depends on the… both a and b
Tea percolation employs? Leaching
The major problem in leaching is to promote diffusion of the solute out
of the solidand into the liquid. The most effective way is? to use
countercurrent operation
The rate of leaching increases with increasing… temperature
The resulting salt content in the overflow in weight % is? 0.112
 INTRODUCTION TO WASTE MANAGEMENT AND REGULATORY OVERVIEW
The temp. also affects the rate of extraction. In most cases, the solubility
of the material which is being extracted will increase with temp. to? Both
a and b
There are two underflow-overflow leaching conditions namely ideal and
non-ideal. Ideal leaching condition exist if? All of these
Tung meal containing 55% oil is to be extracted at a rate of 4,000 kg/hr
using n-hexane… theoretical number of stages is? 4 stages
Which of the following operations does not involve leaching? Removing
nicotine from water sol’n by kerosene
DRYING
A wet material having a critical moisture content of 15% (d.b.) and an
equil. Moisture content of 3% (d.b.)… 4.9 hours
Drum driers are used for drying… pastes
Given a solid material containing 120% moisture on a dry basis, the
equivalent moisture in % moisture is… 54.5%
If there’s no heat transfer by radiation and conduction from adjoining
surfaces, the temp. of the solid subjected… nearly equal to the wet bulb
temp of drying medium
In the absence of radiation and heat conduction through the solid during
the constant drying rate period… wet bulb temp. of the gas
In the constant rate period, the rate of drying is established by… a
balance of heat requirements…
In the drying at the falling rate period, the rate at which moisture is
removed from the solid material… decreases with time
It is a unit operations which involves the mass transfer of soluble
materials from the liquid phase to gaseous phase… desorption
It is the rate of drying under constant drying conditions with air at 140 oF
and absolute humidity of 0.03lb water/lb dry air… R=0.5-e-60X lb
H2O/hr-ft2… equilibrium moisture content of material… 0.01155
the choice of equipment to be used for drying of solids can be classified
according… all of these
The critical moisture content of a solid depends on the drying history
and the thickness of the material… true
the equipment is operated immediately under unsteady state
conditions… batch drying
The estimated mass transfer coefficient for the above drying conditions
is… 50lb H2O/hr-ft2-ΔH
The first point of the falling rate period corresponds to… critical
moisture drying
the free moisture content of the solids does not depend upon… the
nature by which heat is supplied
The portion of water in the wet solid that cannot removed by the air in
direct contact with the solid is called… equilibrium moisture content
22-11
The topic of drying and driers is taken up as part of Unit Operations in
ChE since… the quality of the solid product is affected by moisture
The value of constant drying rate, Rc, varies directly with the quantity…
therefore, increasing the humidity… decreases the rate of drying
This is the moisture in the solid that exerts the equilibrium vapor
pressure of the liquid at the prevailing conditions… unbound moisture
This type of drier is used for drying pasty materials such as wet filter
cakes and lumpy soils… tray drier
Unbound moisture in granular and porous solid moves through the
interstices of a solid by a mechanism involving… moisture diffusivity
under normal operating conditions, when a solid material to be dried is
placed inside a batch dryer, the material is usually subjected… under
constant drying conditions
Wet solids are to be dried from 40% to 10% in 5 hours under constant
drying conditions… The time needed to dry 15% to 5% under same
conditions… 1.6 hours
When a porous solid is subjected to constant drying conditions starting
w/ bound moisture, the removal of moisture from the solid is initiated
by pendular state followed by funicular state… false
when a solid material is being dried in a continuous tunnel drier under
low temperature drying, the mechanism is considered to be…
simultaneous mass and heat transfer
When a solid material is said to be “dry”, it means… the solid still
contains very small amount of moisture
when a wet granular solid material contained in a metal tray w/ insulated
edges… the heat transfer mechanism involved in the drying operation
is… by convection and radiation
When a wet solid is brought in contact with air, the solids tends to lose
moisture if the humidity in air is… lower than the humidity
corresponding to the moisture cont. of the solid
When drying a banana chips under the sun, the rate of drying is faster
on a… hot and windy day
When the solid is non porous… liquid diffusion
GAS ABSORPTION
A 25 mm ID wetted wall column is used to absorb dilute SO2 in air at
293 K with a velocity of 2.2 m/s. if Dv= 0.455 ft2/hr, the gas film coeff…
0.0373
A wetted wall column is usually preffered over a packed column to
determine mass transfer coefficient experimentally because for a wetted
wall column The mass transfer area
Assuming that the penetration theory applies in an interfacial mass
transfer contact, the liquid phase mass transfer coeff will increase by a
factor…. 2
Co- current gas- liquid up flow contacting device is highly characterized
by dispense bubble flow regime
 INTRODUCTION TO WASTE MANAGEMENT AND REGULATORY OVERVIEW
Flooding condition is the only consideration that dictates the minimum
column diameter that can be used for a specified gas absorption in a
packed column False
For an absorber (mass transfer from gas gas to liquid) the operating line
always lies above the equilibrium solubility curve
For moderately soluble gas with relatively little interaction between the
gas and liquid molecules, the law which applies most to establish
equilibrium relationship is Henry’s Law
Given the individual mass transfer coeff and equilibrium eqn at 250C ,
kxa=60, kya=15 mol/hr. ft3mole fraction and x*=0.3226y…. 8.45
if the solute free gas flow rate is 500 kg-mole/hr of 0.10 mole ratio of
solute entering the plate absorber at 1 atm, what is the minimum water..
103
In a gas absorption column, the pressure of the lean gas is expected to
be lower than
In a gas absorption packed tower, the most economical gas velocity is
considered to be about half
In a gas absorption tower, mass transfer occurs primarily from the gas
phase to the liquid phase
In a stripping or desorption operation, the equilibrium curve is above the
operating line
In an absorption tower packings are placed inside to provide a bigger
mass transfer area
In gas absorption, packings are used to increase the area of contact
between the gas and the liquid
In gas absorption, the use of a liquid rate far above the minimum value
will result in fewer number of plates
In gas absorption, when the conditions at the bottom of the tower are
fixed and the gas flow rate is given, the limiting flow rate based on equil
conditions that will require infinitely tall tower is maximum liquid flow
rate
In mass transfer, a transfer unit means that the concentration range is
equal to the average driving force
In packed columns, the pressure drop for irrigated packings is always
greater than the pressure drop for dry packings because the flow area of
dry packing is greater
In the case of a straight or concave downward operating line and a
straight or concave upward equilibrium line, the minimum liquid rate is
that at which the operating line just touches the equil line at the bottom
of the tower
In the choice of a solvent for gas absorption, one of the properties to be
considered is solvent should have a low vapour pressure
It has been determined that the equivalent HTU and NTU of a packed
absorption tower are 0.85 ft and 15 respectively. If the same …. 1.275
It is a unit operation which involves the mass transfer of soluble
materials from the solid phase to the liquid phase leaching
It is not very necessary to correct the rate eqn for the phase drift
encountered during gas absorption, since the height calculated will be
slightly over designed anyway
Pressure drop is one of the most important parameters in the design of
two phase concurrent bed because all of these
The analogy between mass and heat transfer is complete when no
convective flus or phase drift is involved
The interfacial concentration yl in a gas absorber corresponding to y=
0.05 mole fraction is _ mole fraction. The slope of the operating line is
1.3.. 0.02
The mass transfer rate of a material from one phase to another across an
interface is increased by increasing
The mechanism of mass transfer in a gas absorber is best described by
the Two-Film Theory
The method of separating a particular gaseous component from a
mixture of gases due to their differences in solubility I a liquid phase is
absorption
22-11
The mole fraction of solute entering a gas absorber is 0.25. if the
percentage recovery is 75% , then the mole fraction of the solute
leaving…. 0.0769
The overall height of a transfer unit based on the gas phase will equal
the gas phase individual HTU, Hy when the liquid phase resistance is
very small compared with the gas phase
The pressure drop along a packed tower is directly proportional to the
square of the mass flow rate
The rate eqn in terms of the gas phase mass transfer coefficient is used
in design calculations instead of that in terms of the liquid phase when
the controlling resistance is that of the gas phase
The total weight of a 13 mm ceramic raschig rings that can be contained
in a cylindrical gas absorption tower 5m high and 0.55m in diameter ….
1045
When dilute sol’ns are involved in gas absorption, one of thw following
𝑽
is not applicable 𝑯𝑳 =
𝑺𝒌𝒚 𝒂
When the gas flow rate induces flooding in a packed column gas
absorber, this is best remedied…. increasing the diameter of the column
When the liquid flow rate is fixed and the composition of the liquid and
gas at the bottom of the absorption tower are fixed, the limiting flow rate
to give ifinitely tall tower becomes the minimum flow rate of the vapor
When the two film theory is applied to gas absorption, the overall
resistance can be expressed in terms…. the slope of the equil curve near
the tie line is linear
HUMIDIFICATION
A sling psychrometer is whirled on a fast spin when measuring the wet
bulb temperature of ambient air to minimize the effect of radiation on
the temperature reading
Air conditioning involves dehumidification
Air supplied at the rate of 1200 cfm to a refrigerated coil, has a relative
humidity of 20% and dry bulb temp of 1500F. The mass flow rate of dry
air entering per minute is 74.1
An air-carbon tertrachloride-vapor mixture at 1000F dry bulb and 600F
wet bulb is heated until the temperature reaches 180 0F. The final
percentage relative humidity is about 5%
An indication of the moisture content of ambient air is its wet bulb
temperature
Besides measuring the dry bulb and wet bulb temperature in determining
the humidity of air, another method may be used. This is by measuring
the dew point of the air
Fogging is a result of a condition whereby the gas becomes
supersaturated with vapor
For a cooling tower with a circulating water flow of 5000 gpm, an inlet
and outlet water temperature of 1000F and 800F, respectively and 0.5%
drift loss, the estimated make-up water is 110 gpm
For a dehumidifier, the slope of the tie line is 2.5 for a liquid to gas ratio
of 1.0. air enters the dehumidifier at 800F db and 780F wb while water
leaves at 760F. Estimate the interfacial temperature at a point …. 63.50F
For air-benzene vapor mixture at 1 atm, the dry bulb temperature is
1000F and wet bulb temperature of 90 0F. the absolute humidity at this
condition is 0.52
For an air flow rate of 5000 lb/hr and a water flow rate of 7500 lb/hr, the
temperature of the cold water is 800F using air with temperature of 900F
dry bulb and 700F wet bulb. The estimated…. 880F
For dehumidification, when the top liquid flow rate is fixed and the top
conditions of water temperature and air enthalpy.. maximum air flow
rate
For the air-water vapor system, the Lewis relation hy/kyc3 takes a value
of essentially equal to unity
Given a counter flow induced-draft cooling tower with the following
operating data: hot water temperature= 1150F, cooling range= 300F, wet
 INTRODUCTION TO WASTE MANAGEMENT AND REGULATORY OVERVIEW
bulb temperature= 700F, water flow rate= 500 gal/min. Assuming…. 7
hp
If 100 lb of dry air at 500F db and 500F wb is mixed with 300 lb of dry
air at 1100F db and 800F wb, the resulting mixture will have a dry bulb..
950F
If the air flow rate is 1000 lb/hr, the maximum water rate needed for the
tower in the previous problem is about 3400 lb/hr
If the mass transfer coefficient, KGa= 230 lbs water/hr-ft3-atm, then the
MTC in lb water/hr-ft3-absolute humidity is 370.6
If the partial pressure of the vapour in a gas- vapour mixture is, for any
reason, less than the equil vapor pressure of the liquid at the same
temperature, the mixture is unsaturated
If the temperature of the air entering the tower of the previous problem
(problem 24) is 1000F, the exit temperature of the air is estimated to be
(use Mickley’s graphical method) 1050F
In adiabatic humidification, it is possible to maintain the temperature of
water constant since the system can be well insulated from the
surroundings
In an air water contact equipment, the individual gas phase mass transfer
coefficient is equal to the over-all mass transfer coefficient since the
mass transfer resistance in the liquid phase is small
In an air-water contact operation, when the temperature and humidity of
the air both decrease the process is dehumidification
In dehumidification, where the Lewis number is equal to one, the
operating line on the gas-enthalpy-liquid temperature graph is above
the equilibrium curve
In order for the gas to be dehumidified, as in the water vapor air mixture,
the humidity of the gas must be greater than the gas-liquid interface
In terms of heat transfer, the use of a cooling tower is said to be more
efficient and more economical compared to an ordinary heat exchanger
since temperature profiles of air and water can cross each other
Moist air is found to contain 8.1 grams of water vapor per cubic foot at
a temperature of 300C. Calculate the temp to which it must be
heated…570C
The air in the room is at 26.70C and a pressure of 101.32 kPa and
contains water vapor with a partial pressure Pa=2.76kPa. calculate the
%.... 78.3%
The dew point of air indicates the temperature at which its water
content will start to condense
The enthalpy entering and leaving a cooling tower is 52.0 and 75
BTU/lb, respectively. If the inlet and outlet water temperature are 1200F
and 1000F, respectively, the estimated overall…. 0.76
The enthalpy transfer eqn based on Merkel’s procedure of determining
the volume of a cooling tower is a convenient way of eliminating the
determination of interfacial temperature and humidity
The enthalpy transfer equation as proposed by Merkel is applicable to
air-water system only because the ratio of he convective heat transfer
coefficient and the mass transfer coefficient, kyMB is equal to the humid
heat
The height to diameter ratio of a cooling tower is much less compared
to that of a gas absorber because the gas flow rate is larger
The process which illustrates the principles of adiabatic humidification
is spray chamber
The ratio between partial pressure of water vapour in air and the vapor
pressure of the water at the air temperature multiplied by 100 is
percentage relative humidity
The relative humidity of air at a given temperature is the the ratio of the
partial pressure of the water-vapor and the vapor pressure of water
The relative humidity of unsaturated air-water vapor mixture is always
greater than
The temperature at which the moisture in humid air exerts a partial
pressure equal to its vapor pressure is called the dew point
22-11
The tons refrigeration needed to supply air in a room 20 ft by 20 ft by
10 ft charged every 5 min at 700F dry bulb and 650F wet bulb by cooling
outside air at 1200F db and 1000wb is 14.3
The wet bulb temperature of the resulting mixture for the mixed air for
the previous problem is 750F
This is a steady-state temperature reached by a small amount of liquid
evaporating into a large amount of unsaturated vapor-gas mixture wet-
bulb temperature
This is the temperature at which a vapour gas mixture becomes saturated
when cooled at constant humidity. dew point temperature
This is the temperature of a vapour-gas mixture as ordinarily determined
by immersion of a thermometer in the mixture dry bulb temperature
Which of the following processes is followed by unsaturated air (with
dry bulb temperature 120C and relative humidity 47%) passing through
water spray washer (temp of water being constant at 400C). both heating
and humid
Without adding or removing any water vapor, a sample of air
experiencing an increase in temperature will have lower relative
humidity
CRYSTALLIZATION
1200 lb of barium nitrate is dissolved in sufficient water to form a
saturated solution at 900C. Assuming that 5% of the weight of the
original solution is lost through evaporation, calculate the crop of
crystals obtained.. 962.4lbs
A batch of 1000 kg of KCl is dissolved in sufficient water to make a
saturated solution at 363K, where the solubility is 35% wt \k\cl in water.
The solution is cooled to 293K at which temperature the solubility is
25.4% wt… 400g
A diluent is added to the mixture, the solution is then directly or
indirectly cooled and/or solvent is evaporated to effect crystallization
solution crystallization
A plant produces 30,000 MT of anhydrous sodium sulphate annually by
crystallizing process sulphate brine at 00C. Yields of 95% and 90% in
the crystallization and calcination operations are obtained,…. 2387
A solution of magnesium sulphate containing 43g solids per 100g watter
is to be fed to a vacuum crystallizes at 2200F. The vacuum in the
crystallizer corresponds to a water boiling temperature of 43 0C… 5235
lbs per hour
A solution of MgSO4 at 2200F containing 43g of MgSO4 per 100 g H2O
is fed to a cooling crystallizer operating at 50 0F. If the solution.. 3.71
tons/h
A Swenson-Walker crystallizer is fed with a saturated solution of
magnesium sulphate at 1100F. The solution and its crystalline crop are
cooled to 400F. The inlet solution contains 1 g of seed crystals per 100g
of solution. The seeds are 80-mesh. Assuming ideal growth, the mesh
size of the ..28
A Swenson-Walker crystallizer is to be used to produce 1 ton/hr of
copperas crystals by cooling a saturated solution which enters the
crystallizer at 1200F. The slurry leaving the crystallizer will be at 800C..
Compounds whose solubility increase with increasing temperature
results in absorption of heat when the compound dissolves
Cooling water required is.. 52 gpm
Crystals of Na2CO3-10H2O are dropped into a saturated solution of
Na2CO3 in water at 1000C. What percent of the Na2CO3 in the Na2CO3-
H2O is recovered in the precipitated solid? The precipitated solid is….
25%
During crystallization, formation of crystal can occur in __ solution only
supersaturated
Equilibrium in crystallization process is reached when the solution is
saturated
Glaubers salt is made by crystallization from a water solution at 20 0C.
The aqueous solution at 200C contains 8.4% sodium sulfate. How many
 INTRODUCTION TO WASTE MANAGEMENT AND REGULATORY OVERVIEW
grams is 1.077 so that when the residue solution after evaporation is
cooled at 20 degrees Celsius… 801.52
How much CaCl26H2O must be dissolve in 100 kg of water at 200C to
form a saturated solution? The solubility of CaCl2 at 200C is 6.7 gmol
anhydrous salt (CaCl2) per kg of water 535 kg
If an aqueous solution of 25% wt MgSO4 at 1400F is cooled to 300F, the
mother liquor concentration will be _ %wt MgSO4 18
In industrial crystallization from a solution, the two phase mixture of
mother liquor and crystals of all sizes, which occupies the crystallizer
and is withdrawn as product is called magma
Most modern crystallizers fall in the category of__ units in which
adiabatic evaporative cooling is used to create supersaturation Vacuum
One ton of Na2S2O3-5H2O is to be crystallized per hour by cooling a
solution containing 56.5% sodium thiosulfate to 300C in a Swenson-
Walker crystallizer. Evaporation is negligible. The product is to be
sized….1138.5
Referring to (previous problem), the type of crystals formed is MgSO4-
2H2O
The concentration difference between that of the supersaturated solution
in which the crystal is growing and that of a solution in equilibrium with
the crystal is called supersaturation
The enthalpy of a 25% wt of MgSO4 at 82.20C in BTU/lb solution is 40
The enthalpy of MgSO4-7H2O at 26.670C in BTU/lb solution is -150
The enthalpy of saturated MgSO4 at 1500F in BTU/lb solution is -25
The equation relating the solubility of the substance to its particle size
is called Kelvin
The formation of a new solid phase either on an inert particle in the
solution or in the solution itself is called nucleation
The heat of solution of hydroxybenzene in g-cal/gmol is -2,605
The heat of solution of saltpeter in kg-cal/gmol is -8.633
The latent heat evolved when solid forms from solution which varies
with both temperature and concentration is called heat of crystallization
The number of crystallizer units to be used is.. 7
The solubility of Epsom Salt in equilibrium with the saturated solution
at 100C in g/100g water is 30.90
The solubility of sal ammoniac at 700C in g/100g water is 60.2
The solubility of soda ash at 300C in g/100g water is 38.3
The solubility of sodium bicarbonate in water is 9.6g/100g of water at
200C and 16.4g/100g of water at 600C. If a saturated solution of NaHCO3
at 600C is cooled to 200C, the percentage of the dissolved salt that
crystallizes. 41.5%
This crystallizer uses the method of supersaturation by evaporation of
solvent Oslo
Which of the following solute may be crystallized by cooling without
evaporation, evaporation without cooling or a combination of cooling
and evaporation Sodium Nitrate
CHEMICAL ENGINEERING CALCULATIONS
80g of F2 is reacted with 40g P4 to form 90 g of product PF3.
A flue gas from a certain furnace burning a fuel of negligible nitrogen
content is found by analysis to contain 12% CO2, 7.5% O2, and 80.5%
N2. Calculate the percent excess air. 54.6%
A mixture of acetone vapor and nitrogen contains 14.8% acetone by
volume. Calculate the relative saturation and the % saturation of the
mixture at a temperature of 20 C and pressure of 745 mmHg. 59.7%,
52.9%
A sample of lignite was found to contain 34.55% moisture, 22.93% FC,
7.2% ash, 1.2% S, and 0.57% N with a calorific value of 16.45 MJ/kg.
Calculate percent net H. 0.52%
Calculate the percentage conversion. 92%
Determine the percentage yield. 79%
Hydrogen in fuel that needs oxygen from air for its combustion is known
as. Net Hydrogen
22-11
In the combustion of solid fuels, what is the key component between the
feed and the refuse? Ash
In ultimate analysis, calculate percent H. 5.46%
In ultimate analysis, calculate percent O. 39.52%
It is normally used to determine the quality of combustion gases. Orsat
Analysis
It is the portion of the coal which when heated in the absence of air under
prescribed conditions is liberated as gases or vapour. Volatile matter
Pig iron is produced in a blast furnace from hematite ore containing 80%
Fe2O3. The pig iron produced is 96% Fe. The slag contains 10% of iron
present in the ore. How many tons of pig iron is produced per 500 tons
of ore? 272
The flue gas from the combustion of a hydrocarbon fuel has the
following Orsat analysis: 5.66% CO2, 2.43% CO, 6.4% O2, and 85.4%
N2. The percent excess air supplied is. 30%
This is the empirical relation which allows one to compute for the net
hydrogen in a given solid fuel. Dulong’s Formula
Which of these is not a form of hydrogen present in solid fuels? None
of the above
CHEMICAL REACTION KINETICS
A catalyst increases the rate of a chemical reaction by. Lowering the
activation energy of the reaction
A certain temperature dependent reaction proceeds 10 times faster at
500 K than it does at 300 K. How much factor will it react at 1000 K
than it does at 300 K. 56.23 times faster
A gas decomposes at 900 C according to the reaction 2A → 2R + 5
with a rate constant of 1000 cm3/mol-s. Using pure A, the time it will
take to react 74.25% of A in a constant volume batch reactor at 900 C
and 1 atm in minutes is __. 7.43
A liquid phase double-replacement reaction between bromide cyanide
(A) and methylamine takes place in a PFR at 10 C and 101 kPa. The
reaction is first order with respect to each reactant, with KA = 2.22
L/mol-s. If the residence time or space time is 4 sec, and the inlet
concentration of each reactant is 0.1 mol/L. determine the concentration
of bromine cyanide at the outlet of the reactor. 0.053mol/L
A liquid polymerization of a certain monomer at constant temperature
showed that after 34 minutes conversion is 20% when the initial
concentration used is 0.04 mol/L. When the initial concentration used is
0.9 mol/L, conversion is 20% after 34 minutes. What is the specific rate
constant for this reaction? 0.0066/min
A substance A decomposes by first order kinetics. In a batch reactor,
70% A is converted in 10 min. How much longer would it take to reach
99.9% conversion? 57.4 min
In a potential energy diagram, the difference between the potential
energy of the products and the potential energy of the reactants is equal
to the. Heat of reaction
In steady-state backmix flow reactor, composition is not. Constant
throughout the reactor
The homogenous gas decomposition of phosphine 4PH3 (g) → P4 (g) →
6H2 (g) proceeds at 1200 F with first-order rate, rA= (10/hr) CA. What
size of PFR operating at 1200 F and 4.6 atm can produce 80%
conversion of a feed consisting of 2.75 lbmol phosphine per hour? 160ft3
The irreversible reaction takes place in a CSTR under the following
conditions. FTo = 40 mol/min, Cao = 2 mol/dm3. The feed is 40% A. K
(400K) = 0.1/min and V = 600 dm3. Calculate conversion of A. 0.87
What is the order of the reaction if the graph C vs t gives a straight line?
zero order
What is the reaction rate constant for the third order reaction? L2/mol2-s
What plot generates a straight line for a zero order reaction? [A] vs time
Which even must always occur for a chemical reaction to take place?
Effect collisions bet. reacting particles
 INTRODUCTION TO WASTE MANAGEMENT AND REGULATORY OVERVIEW
UNIT OPERATIONS
A centrifuge with a 20-in diameter bowl, 14-in deep operates at 1200
rpm giving a 2-in thick liquid layer when used with a sludge whose
liquid has a specific gravity of 1.2 and a viscosity of 2.5 cp. The solid
component of the sludge has a specific gravity of 1.7. If the cut size of
the particles is 35 microns, what is the capacity of the centrifuge in
gallons per minute? 843
The boiling temperature of ethylbenzene is 136 C. Estimate the
enthalpy of vaporization of ethylbenzene at this temperature. 35KJ/mol
Oil flows under laminar conditions inside a steam heated copper pipe.
The overall heat transfer coefficient is approximately. Equal to the heat
transfer coefficient of the steam
200 mesh screens means. 200 openings/in2
We must cool 2500 gallons per minute of water from 120 F to 80 F. A
cooling tower at 70 F and 1 atm is to be designed to operate with
entering air of 40% RH. How many cubic feet per minute of entering air
must be supplied? 1.61x105cfm
Estimate the terminal free settling velocity in air at 20 C if a dust sphere
with a diameter of 1 micron and specific gravity of 2. 1.97x10-4ft/s
A solution of sodium sulfate in water is saturate at a temperature of 40
C.
Calculate the weight of crystals obtained by cooling 100 lb of this
solution to a temperature of 5 C. 69.5% (or 69.82%)
Calculate the percentage yield obtained by cooling 100 lb of this
solution to a temperature of 5 C. 90%
The distillation process involves. Heat and mass transfer
A mixture containing 60 mols of n-pentane and 40 mols n-heptane is
subjected to differential distillation at 1 atm until 40 mols are distilled.
Assuming the relative volatility is 8.0, what is the concentration of the
distillate? 0.925
Moisture content at which the drying rate first begins to drop. Critical
moisture content
Consider the frying operations with critical moisture content of 0.10 and
an equilibrium moisture content of 0.005 and for a solid loading (db) of
50 kg/m2 with a constant drying rate of 5 kg/m2-hr. The falling rate of
drying is linear with moisture content. The drying time (hrs) required to
reduce an initial moisture content of 25% to a final moisture content of
2% is ____. 3.25
If the air leaves the dryer 50% saturated and if the dryer operation is
adiabatic, obtain with the use of the relative humidity chart the
following:
Dew point in F of fresh air. 59.6
Percent relative humidity of fresh air. 58%
Humidity in lb water vapor per pound dry air of fresh air. 0.0109
An engineer designed an engine that has an efficiency of 25% and will
absorb heat at a temperature of 267C. Compute the temperature at the
exhaust considering that this is an ideal engine. 132C
A Venturi meter is being used to determine the flow of soyabean oil at
65 C in a pipe. The particular pipe is 15 cm in diameter, which
decreases to 6 cm in the throat of the Venturi. The differential pressure
is measured as 14 cm of water.
Estimate the volumetric flow rate of the soyabean oil. 0.17 m3h-1
Estimate the mass flow rate of the soyabean oil. 153 kg h-1
22-11
A bed consists of uniform spherical particles of diameter 3 mm and
density of 4200 kg/m3. What will be the minimum fluidizing velocity in
a liquid of viscosity 3 mPa-s and density of 1100 kg/m3? 36.4 mm/s
CHEMICAL PROCESS INDUSTRIES
Production of potassium, named after a place in US. Trona process
Starch has the formula. (C6H10O5)n
Kraft process is a common name for, sulfite pulping
The name “rubber” was apparently given by ______, who first observed
the ability of the material to “rub out” a pencil mark. Joseph Priestly
Produced by fermenting potatoes and then by distillation (Russia).
Vodka
In the Philippines, sulfur for sulfuric acid manufacturing is sourced from
_______ industry. Paper
Production of wet-processed phosphoric acid which uses HCL to
acidulate raw phosphate rock then an organic solvent is used to extract
the phosphoric acid. Haifa
Which of the following is also known as black diamond? Carbonado
What is the other for blue gas? Water gas
The gasification reaction represented by C + H2O = CO + H2, is an a/an.
Endothermic
BIOCHEMICAL ENGINEERING
Which of the following is an essential amino acid? Methionine
There is DNA or RNA coated protein that may or may not be considered
as living things. Virus
Process in central dogma wherein DNA is replicated in the form of
mRNA. Transcription
The chemical messenger released by the endocrine gland into
bloodstream and transported there to reach its target cell is called
________. Hormones
What is the enzyme present in cheese? Rennin
An enzyme catalyses a reaction at a velocity of 20 mol/min when the
concentration of substrate [S] is 0.01 M. The KM for this substrate is
1x10-5 M, assuming that Michaelis-Menten kinetics is followed. What
will the reaction velocity be when the concentration of [S] is 1x10 -6 M?
1.82x10-6 mol/min
These are mixtures of triglycerides containing high proportion of long
chain, unsaturated fatty acids or short chain, saturated fatty acids. Oils
The microorganism utilized in the production of pickles is. Lactic acid
bacteria
Which of the following vitamins is lethal in high doses? Vitamin D
ENVIRONMENTAL ENGINEERING
What is quickest to become rancid? Butter
The source that fives the highest %CO and NOx emissions to the
atmosphere. Transportation facilities
The hierarchy of solid waste management is. Reduce – Reuse – Recycle
– Treatment – Disposal
The act of preparing a landfill for long-term inactivity, including
placement of a cover over the landfill to prevent infiltration of surface
water. Closure
Which of the following are the major components of photochemical
smog? Ozone and oxygen
This is the total amount of oxygen required to oxidize any organic matter
present in water, i.e. after an extended period such as 20 or 30 days.
Ultimate BOD
Glutamic acid (C5H9NO4) is used as one of the reagents for standard to
check the BOD test. Determine the theoretical oxygen demand of 150
mg/L of glutamic acid. Assume the following reactions apply.
 INTRODUCTION TO WASTE MANAGEMENT AND REGULATORY OVERVIEW 22-11

C5 H9 NO4 + 4.5O2 → 5CO2 + 3H2 O + NH3 A sample of radioactive material...0.01% disintegrated after 50 years.
NH3 + 2O2 → NO3 − + H+ + H2 O What...half-life...material. 8.7 yrs
212mg/L
Among...Chalcogen Family, which...non-metallic? Oxygen
A liquid generated in landfills is called. Leachate
A wastewater treatment plant discharges a flow of 1.5 m3/s (water plus Arrange...increasing Ionization energy: C(1) Na(2) Mg(3) B(4) N(5).
solids) at a solids concentration of 20 mg/L (20 mg solids per liter of 23415
flow, solids plus water). How much solids is the plant discharging each
day? 2600kg Arrange...proton,neutron,electron...mass.E<P<N
A 5 mL wastewater sample was analyzed for its BOD content using the
Atomic weight of chlorine is 35.45...isotope...Cl-35 and Cl37.
standard BOD test. Initial and fifth day dissolved oxygen was measured Percentage abundance of Cl-35. 77.5%
as 7.5 and 2.5 respectively. What is the BOD of this sample? 300
Atoms...same atomic but different mass number. Isotopes
INSTRUMENTATION AND PROCESS CONTROL
It is used to convert one signal or energy form into another. Transducer Balmer series (m=2). 27434 cm-1
It eliminates the offset describe by the proportional controller output.
Integral action Brackett series (m=4). 6859 cm-1
It is a signal which tends to adversely affect the value of the output of
the system. Disturbances Change in energy...electron is accepted by a gaseous atom to form an
The use of binary (1’s and 0’s). Digital anion. Electron Affinity
A device that translates the control signal action of the final control
Compound...molecules...not associated...hydrogen bonding is.
device in the process. Actuator
(CH3)3COCH3
A controller whose output is a function of the duration of error. Integral
Control Consider the reaction: PCl5(g) PCl3(g) + Cl2(g) ΔHθrxn = 87.9 kJ/mol.
Which of the following flow sensors that causes to rotate with an angular Which...will result...increase...concentration of Cl2 gas? Add PCl5
velocity? Turbine
An inherent disadvantage of this control system is that its results in Consider...1600°C: Br2(g) 2Br(g). When 1.05 moles of Br2(g)...2 L
continuous cycling of the controlled variable and thus produces flask, 2.50% of Br2...dissociation. Calculate... Kp for the reaction.
excessive wear in the final control element. On-off control 0.020689
A 5mL wastewater sample was analyzed for its BOD content using the
standard BOD test. Initial and fifth day dissolved oxygen was measured Constant...fundamental number of hydrogen is. Balmer constant
as 7.5 and 2.5 respectively. What is the BOD of this sample? 300
It refers to the process of making a product of higher-quality that it needs Equivalent to the rate of disintegration of 1 gram of radium. Curie
to be to meet specifications. Padding
Half-life of 90Sr is 29 years. What fraction...would remain 100 years
later? 0.09
CHEMICAL ENGINEERING LAWS AND ETHICS
If 23892U...decay...produce 23490Bi, what...particle was emitted? Alpha
Who is the new chairman of PRC? Teofilo Pilando Jr. (But if Pilando is
not in the choices choose Florentino Doble or go to the proctor) Minimum wavelength of light...work functions. Li(ϕ = 2.90 eV). 428
Professional Regulations Commission as created under. P.D. No. 223 nm Ge(ϕ=5.00 eV). 248 nm
An integrated national professional organization that is duly accredited
and recognized by the corresponding Board and the Professional NaClO2 is. Sodium chlorite
Regulations Commission is referred to as. Accredited Professional
Organization Osmotic pressure of a dilute aqueous ethyl alcohol solution at 25°C is
The new chairman and new commissioner of PRC were both sworn into 38 mmHg. Calculate...boiling point elevation...solution. 0.0011°C
office on _____. December 9,2014
A section of the patent application containing detailed descriptions of Oxalic acid + sodium hydroxide. Na2C2O4
the benefits obtained from using the invention is called. Claims
The design of the dry seal that is required of chemical engineering in Pertains to single bond, double bond, triple bond... Between single and
order to practive the profession must be authorized by: Board of double bonds, etc. Bond Order
Chemicals
The new PRC commissioner is ______. Architect Yolanda Reyes Potassium-40 decays to argon-40 with half-life of 1.27 x109 years.
RA 9297 is also known as. Chemical engineering Law of 2004 What...age of the rock...mass ratio of 40Ar to 40K is 4. 2.9 x109 years
The keystone of professional conduct is. Integrity
Quantum number...allowable value of 0,1,2, etc. Angular Momentum
The members of the Board of the Chemical Engineering are empowered
Quantum Number
to decide on which of the following cases brought before them. None of
these Ra-226...alpha emission. What...decay product? 22286Rn

Radium-226, which undergoes alpha decay, has a half-life of 1600 years.

How many alpha particles are emitted in 10 min by 10 mg sample of
radium-226? Assume 1 year to have 365 days. 2.2 x 1011
GENERAL CHEMISTRY
Region in space...electron is most likely to be found. Orbital
 INTRODUCTION TO WASTE MANAGEMENT AND REGULATORY OVERVIEW
Rutherford’s experiment, which is true. The atom is almost an empty space.
Speed of an electron...Rb(ϕ = 2.16 eV) when 350 nm...vacuum. 7.00 x 10
m/s
Starting... 1.000 gram of Sr-90, 0.953 gram will remain after 2 years.
Calculate...initial activity of Sr-90 in Ci? 1 Curie(Ci) = 3.70 x 10 10
disintegration/sec. 140
States...no two atoms will have the same set of quantum #s. Pauli’s
Exclusion Principle
Sum of # of protons,neutrons and electrons...zinc ion, Zn+2. 93
Type of equilibrium...similar phases is called. Homogeneous equilibria
Vapor pressure of water at 25°C is 23.756 torr. A solution... 18.913
grams...non-volatile...36 grams of water...vapor pressure of 20.234 torr.
What is the molecular weight of the solute? 56
2 10 3
What group...electron configuration?[Ar] 4s 3d 4p . 5A
10
What....activity... mCi? (1Ci = 3.7 x 10 disintegration/atom-sec). 99 mCi
What...binding energy per nucleon for C-13 (13.003355 amu) in MeV? 7
What...freezing point of a 0.205 molal solution...urea (60 g/mol) when 200
grams...250 grams of water? -0.168°C
What...freezing point...30% wt urea, (NH2)2CO solution in water?
13.29°C
What...max number of electrons...atom...quantum number: n=2, ms= -1/2.
4
Which...acidic oxide? SO2
Which...following sets...quantum numbers...incorrect. n=1,l=0,ml=-1,
ms=-1/2
Which...isoelectronic. S-2 and Cl-1
Which...its Kp equal to its Kc? H2(g) + I2(g) 2HI(g)
Which...molecules/compounds is formed by covalent bonds? NO2
Which...most electronegative? F
Which...particles cannot be accelerated in a particle accelerator?
Neutron
Which...properties do not depend...electronic configuration...atoms.
Nuclear
Which...will have the highest boiling point elevation? Na2SO4
DISTILLATION
A 50% by weight benzene-toluene mixture is fed to a column at 180°F
and 1 atm. The condition of this feed is. Sub cooled liquid
A binary mixture of 2 moles benzene and 8 moles toluene will boit at.
102°C
22-11
A binary solution, where A is a low boiler exhibting a maximum
boiling point, is subjected to flash distillation. If the feed has a
5
concentration in A less than the azeotropic point, the concentration of
the distillate will be. Higher in B
A debutanizer is a. Mass transfer equipment
A distillation column with a partial condenser is composed of 7
theoretical stages in the rectifying section and 8 theoretical stages in
the stripping section. If the overall plate effeciency is 60%, the the
actual feed plate is. 11th
A heat transfer equipment to convert vapor to liquid is an/a. Condenser
A liquid mixture...45% benzene and 55% toluene by weight is to be fed
to a fractionating column at a rate of 5000 kg/hr. The feed rate in kg
mol/hr is. 58.74
A reboiler provides heat to the. The bottom of a distillation column
At minimun reflux ratio, the number of plates is. Infinite
Desorption is another tem for. Stripping
For a mass tranfer to take place, there must be. Concentration gradient
For a non-azeotropic solution being distilled, the temperature in the
distillation column, from bottom to top. Decreases
For nearly pure products in a stage operationg, the theoretical number
of plates may be estimated using the. Tiller-Tour Equation
-
If the enthalpy os saturated vapor at 200°F reffered to 32°F 1300
BTU/lb while the enthaply os saturated liquid (Cp = 1) referred to 0°F
is 400 BTU/lb, then the latent heat of vaporization of the component at
200°F is. 932 BTU/lb
If the HETP of the column of previous problem is 2 ft the the height of
an equivalent packed column is. 26 ft
In a distilling column, the highest pressure will be at. the bottom
In a simple batch distillation, the boiling point of the distillate product
compared to residue is. Lower
In a two-component. Flash distillation process, when the operating
pressure is specified, the concentration of the distillate may be
improved in the more volatile component if. The operating
temperature is decreased
In a vacuum distillation column the vacuum is usually created by a.
Vacuum pump
In batch open distillation, the solution to be open steam distilled should
be. Completely immiscible in water
In distillation, the cooled liquid stream returned to the column to cool
a plate or stage is called. Reflux
In distillation, where there are two components and both components
are found in both phases, only one variable such as liquid phase
concentration can be changed independently if the pressure is fixed and
the remperature and vapor phase concentration will follow. This
statement is. True
Increasing the operating pressure of a distillation column. Make
separation difficult
 INTRODUCTION TO WASTE MANAGEMENT AND REGULATORY OVERVIEW
McCabe-Thiele method to determine the theoritical number of stages
may be applied with acceptable result if. the system follow Trouton’s
Rule
One hundred moles per hour of solution contating 80 moles of A, the
rest B is subjected...simple continuous distillation. D moles of
distillate...72 moles A is obtained. If A is five times more volatile than
B, the concentration of A in the distillate is. 0.85
Open steam binary rectification may be applied with the success if the
less volatile component is. Water
Strictly speacking, the relative volatility of most ideal binary solutions
is. Slightly affected by temperature
The activity coefficient of a component in a non-ideal liquid solution
at low pressure is approximated to be equal to. None of these
The approximate minimun number of stages for a binary system with
relative volatility of 2.35, fractionally distilled to yield compositions of
0.98 in the distillate and 0.045 in the bottom is. 8.1
The degrees of freedom associated with a ternary distillation process,
according to the Gibbs’ phase rule, is. 3
The difference between stage operation (A) and a continuous phase
contact operation (B) is that. (A) yields discreet concentration changes
while (B) yields infinitesimal concentration changes
The distillation process involves. Heat and mass transfer
The distribution coefficient of n-hexane at 10 atm abs and 200°C is.
1.4
The ease or difficulty of separating components by distillation is
determined by the. Relative volatility
The percentage change in the boiling point of a 20-mole benzene-
toluene solution when the pressure is increased from 1 atm to 2 atm is.
25.5% increase
The physical separation of components in a miscible mixture by
simultaneous evaporation and condensation is. Distillation
The primary reason why close steam is used in an open batch steam
distillation is to. Increase the number of degrees of freedom
The recent availability of digital computer resulted in the development
of many analytical expressions for the evaluation of K-values. Which
of the items below is a source of analytical method for K-values? All
of these
The relative volatility of the mixture at the azeotropic point where the
solution exhibits minimum boiling point is. Equal to 1
The temperature of the solution in problem 2 as distillation progresses
at constant operating pressure. Constant
The theoritical minimum reflux ratio in a distillation column is attained
if the column has. An infinite number of plates
The total actual number of plates of the distillation column of the
previous problem is. 22
The unit operation by which miscible liquid are separated from on
another through heat and mass transfer is. Distillation
22-11
The unit operation by which the lighter components in a
multicomponent solution of a volatile liquids are separated from the
heavier components is called. Distillation
To improve the degree of separation of thee more volatile component
from the less volatile component through distillation, the chemical
engineer may, without changing the other variables. Reduce the column
pressure
Using Antoine’s equation, the vapor pressure of tetrahydrofuran at
80°C is estimated to be at ___ torrs. 1173
Vacuum distillation is resorted to in order to. Avoid high feed and
reboiler temperatures
When the feed to the rectifying column is a saturated liquid, the feed
line is. Vertical
When the molal latent heat of vaporization of the binary system is very
much dependent on concentration, the most appropriate method to use
to determine the number of ideal stages is. Ponchon-Savarit Method
When the relative volatility of two miscible components close to 1.00,
the components can be separated by. Extractive distillation
PLANT DESIGN
A chemical engineer was commisioned to design vertical cylindrial with
a flat bottom and a conical roof. The tank...height of 16.5 m...tank
cylinder. Normal...90% of the total tank volume. The tank roof has a
10% incline. Suitable... 4’ x 8’ sheets. The number of sheets needed is.
540
A cylindrical water tank with a hemispherical dome has the dimensions
shown below.(pic) the tank is full. The total force, in lbf, extered by the
water on the base of the tank is most nearly. 590,000
A horizontal cylindrical tank is used for the storage of motor
gasoline...Pandacan. The tank...inside diameter of 3m...inside length of
10m. The suction...30 cm...sludge. To prevent overfilling, the maximum
height...exceed 90% of the vertical height. The working capacity of the
tank in kiloliters is. 63.32
A major classification group of stainless steels 6% to 22% nickel in
addition to 16% to 26% chromium. This group differs from the other
two major groupings in that steels. Are non-magnetic
A reactor will operate at 300 psi and 600°F. Height = 12 ft; crown radius
= 66 in; diamter = 6ft; double welded butt joint, efficiency = 80%.
Allowable tensile strength of material is 12,000 psi. The thickness of the
shell is. 1-3/16”
A spherical carbon steel storage tank for ammonia...diameter of 30 ft.
All joints...backing strip. If the tank...pressure of 50 psig... 80°F,
estimate...wall thickness. Assume no corrosion is necessary,
efficiency...80%...tensile strength...13,700 psi. 7/16 in
A thin wire is subject to a tensile stress. If the temperature is constant,
the electric resistance of the stressed wire with respect to the electric
resistance of the unstressed wire will. Increase
A water tank 30 ft. in diameter...3/8 inch thick. Assume the allowable
stress of steel is 15,000 psi and a joint efficiency of 80%. Provide a
corrosion allowance of 1/16 inch. The maximum height of the water
tank is. 48.03 ft
 INTRODUCTION TO WASTE MANAGEMENT AND REGULATORY OVERVIEW
Bracket supports are most suitable for. Thick walled vertical vessels
Circular cylindrical cans of volume Vo are to be manufactured with both
ends closed. The ratio of the diamter and height that will require the
minimum amount of metal to make in each can is. D/h = 1.0
Four inch (4.0 inch) shedule 40 steel pipes are to be used to transport
high pressure steam. The pipe joints are to be butt-welded. The safe
working fiber stress for butt welded pipes is 457.1 kg/cm2. The
maximum steam pressure in, kg/cm2, the pipes can handle is. 18.28
kg/cm2
If an engineering structure is to be designed against rupture of any of its
members under steady load, the factor of safety is a ratio based on
working stress and. Ultimate strength
In the construction of a vinegar tank, one of these metals of construction
is not recommended. Brass
Normally the diamter of a rivet is 1/16 in. less than that of the hole in
which it is to fit. This is to ensure easy entrance of a hot rivet. In boiler
calculations, the rivet is assumed to. Fill the hole after driving
Skirt support is most suitable for. Tall horizontal vessel
The Brinell Number of a material is a measure of. Hardness
The chief difference between exterior grade plywood and interior grade
plywood is. That different types of glue are used
The intermittent welds generally used to hold material in place
temporarily are called. Double vee
The offset method is used to find a property of metals that do not have
a well-defined stress-strain curve such as steel. This property is called
the. Yield point
The only strength of stress grade lumber that can be precisely
determined without breaking the piece is. Stiffness
The stress in an elastic material is. Proportional to the displacement of
the material acted on by the force
The thickness of the head is. 3/2”
The ultimate strength divided by the allowable stress is. Factor of safety
The unit lateral deformation of a body under stress divided by the unit
longitudinal deformation is known as. Poisson’s Ratio
Warp, wane and checks are all factors that help determine the quality of.
Stress grade lumber
GENERAL CHEMISTRY
An endothermic reaction is one in which. Heat is absorbed
Which of the following has the largest radius? C
Data: -890.3 kJ
Which of the following species is not isoelectronic with any other? V3+
Ammonium iodide dissociates reversibly to ammonia and hydrogen
iodide. If 150g of NH4I is placed into a 3-L vessel and heated to 400C,
calculate the partial pressure of ammonia when equilibrium is reached,
kp= 0.215. 0.46 atm
22-11
Absolute zero maybe regarded as the temperature at which. Molecular
motion in a gas would cease
In the reaction of Fe3O4 with C to form CO2 and Fe, the number of
moles of carbon required to convert 23g of Fe3O4 to product is. 0.2
Tyndall effect is shown by. Colloidal solution
What is the concentration of Cl- in a solution that contains 35ppm
chloride? 3.5x10-3%
H2 + I2  2HI. If the pressure is increased by reducing the volume
of the flask. The amount of HI will remain the same
Determine the number of moles of aluminum in 2.154x10-1 kg of Al.
7.984 mol
Write the symbol of the species with 28 protons, 26electrons, 32
neutrons. 60Ni2+
Arrange the following according to increasing ionization energy.
Na<Mg<Al
A volumetric analysis of a gaseous mixture is as follows: 12%CO2,
4%O2, 82%N2, 2%CO. What is the percentage of CO in mass basis?
1.9%
A typical mud is 70%wt and 30%wt water. What is the density of the
mud? The sand is pure quartz which density is 165 lb/ft3. 110.4 lb/m3
Given 6 mol of each reactant, which one would be the limiting in the
reaction? NaCN
Which of the following compounds are correctly named? Al2O3 –
Aluminum oxide
The molarity of a solution prepared by adding 7.1g of Na2SO4 to
enough water to make 100 mL of solution is. 0.5 M
In the direct reaction of silicon with Cl2, the yield of SiCl4 is 50%. How
many grams of silicon must be reacted with excess chlorine in order to
obtain 17g SiCl4? 2.8g
If two moles of an ideal gas at 546K occupies a volume of 44.8 liters,
the pressure must be. 2 atm
ORGANIC CHEMISTRY
What is the name of the compound ? 1-propoxycyclohexane
or Cyclohexylpropyl ether
Which of the following contains sp-hybridized carbon? C5H8
Which of the following is the ester formed from a two carbon alcohol
and a five carbon acid? Ethyl pentanoate
It is the bond formed in the head-on overlap of two orbitals? Sigma
Which of the following alkenes is gas at room temperature? Propane
Choose the incorrect statement
CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2NH2 is an amine
CH3CH2OCH2CH2CH3 is an ether
CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2OH is an alcohol
 INTRODUCTION TO WASTE MANAGEMENT AND REGULATORY OVERVIEW
CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2O is ketone
When ethyl bromide is treated with sodium in dry ether, the product is.
Butane
What is the correct name of the molecule . (2R,3S) –
2 – bromo – 3 – chlorobutane
According to Markovnikov’s rule, addition of HBr to 2-pentene will
give. Both 2 – bromopentene and 3 – bromopentene
How many isomers does xylene have? 3
2-methyl, 3-pentanol
Which of the following will distinguish 1-propanol from 2-propanol.
Lucas Test
Natural rubber is a polymer of. Isoprene
Which of the following carbonyl compounds produce a secondary
alcohol with LiAlH8? Ketone
Williamson Synthesis is the procedure for producing. Alkanes using
sodium metal
Which compounds are isomers? 1 – propanol and 2 – propanol
Which of the following alkynes contain acidic hydrogen? Propyne
Compounds with general formula (C5H8)n. Terpenes
Oxidation of isopropyl alcohol with potassium permanganate yields.
Acetone
Calcium carbide on interaction with water gives. Acetylene
ANALYTICAL CHEMISTRY
The roasting of 100 g of a copper ore yielded 75.4 g of 89.5% pure
copper. If the ore is composed of Cu2S and CuS with 11% inert
impurity, calculate the percentage of Cu2S in the ore. 62%
A proton donor is. Bronsted-Lowry Acid
What is the pH of a buffer prepared by adding 180 mL of 0.100 M
NaOH to 200 mL of 0.100 M acetic acid (ka=1.8x10-5). 5.70
What is the pH of a 0.10 M solution of (HNO2)? 2.09
Which of the following solutions results in a buffer pH = 4.0? Assume
that the ka value of benzoic acid is 6.5x10-5. 0.16 M benzoate and 0.25
M benzoic acid
With the presence of Pb2+ ion, what is the color of its precipitate?
Yellow
In a 0.1 M HF solution, the percent dissociation is determined to be
9.5%. calculate ka,. 1x10-3
22-11
A metal reacts with water with the evolution of hydrogen and formation
of its hydroxide. One mole of the metal was allowed to react completely
with water. The hydroxide solution formed was made up to one liter.
One hundred mL of this solution require 110 mL of 0.9091 N HCl for
neutralization. The chloride of the metal was found to contain 13.7%
chlorine. The volume of hydrogen gas liberated at STP is. 11.2 L The
atomic weight of the metal is. 224 Since the solution of the hydroxide
of the metal is normal, the valency of metal is. 1
A 1.208-g sample of impure Na2CO3 is dissolved and allowed to react
with solution of CaCl2. The resulting CaCO3, after precipitation,
filtration, and drying was found to weigh of the precipitate, calculate
the % purity of Na2CO3. 91.1%
The color of Cu in the flame. Bright green
Calculate the pH of a solution necessary to just begin the precipitation
of Mg(OH)2 when [Mg2+]=0.001 M. kspMg(OH)2=1.2x10-11. 10
Which of the is not a correct analytical method-titrant pair? Volhard-
AgNO3
It is an ion that bears both positive and negative charge. Zwitterion
Consider the titration of 50mL of 0.1M HBr with 0.1M KOH. Calculate
the pH of 49mL of the base that has been added to 50mL of HBr. 3.0
If 1.000g mixture of Cu2O and CuO is quantitatively reduced to 0.865g
of Cu. The mass of Cu2O in the original sample of the mixture must
have been. 0.742g
Silver chromate, Ag2CrO4, is soluble to the extent of 0.0259 mol/L.
Calculate the solubility product constant.
2.5x10-4
9.6x10-5
6.7x10-4
6.9x10-5
A sample containing NaBr and KBr only weighs 253.03mg. The
sample was dissolved in water and treated with AgNO3. The precipitate
formed was found to weigh 429.85 mg. Calculate the %NaBr in the
sample. 49%
When 5.50g of biphenyl (C12H10) is dissolved in 10g benzene, the
boiling point increases by 0.903C. What is the kb of benzene in
K/molal? 2.53
PHYSICAL CHEMISTRY
Given the mass defect for the triton (tritium nucleus) to be 0.00910
amu, calculate the energy per nucleon. 2.825 MeV
Water has surface tension of 0.4 N/m in a 3mm diameter vertical tube
if the liquid rises 6 mm above the liquid outside the tube. Calculate the
contact angle. 83.7
Calculate the mass of water in grams that could be heated from 20C to
100C by the energy generated by an electric current of 10A across a
voltage of 10V for 10 hours. 10,755
The rate of decay of 79Au195 is such that 79.8% of a sample of this
nuclide remains as 79Au195 after 60 days have elapsed. What is the half-
life of 79Au195? 184.31 days
 INTRODUCTION TO WASTE MANAGEMENT AND REGULATORY OVERVIEW
The radioactive isotope C-14 has a half life of 5720 years. As a result
of the natural abundance of C-14, a 1g sample of carbon from a living
organism undergoes 15 disintegrations/minutegram. How old is a
10.0g sample for which the rate is 0.91 disintegrations/minutegram?
4120 years
An atom which undergoes a nuclear reaction resulting in an increase in
atomic number has emitted. β particle
In an electrolytic cell, how many grams of Cu could be plated out of a
CuSO4 solution at a current of 5.00 A for 2 min? (F=96,500 C/mol).
0.198g
What is the electrical work done by 3.00 moles of electrons at a
potential of 1.75V? 5.07x105 J
This states that “For solid element (with few exceptions), the product
of atomic weight multiplied by specific heat (atomic heat)
approximates a constant value of 6.4”. Dulong and Petit’s Law
The molecular diameter of CO is 3.19x108 cm at 300K and pressure of
100mmHg. What is the mean free path of the gas in cm? 6.86x10-6
The difference between the heat of combustion of methane at constant
pressure and at constant volume at 27C when the liquid water forms is
-1192.2 cal
-2314.5 cal
1257.4 cal
-1257.4 cal
The Van der Waals constants for HCl are a=3.67 atm-L2/mol2 and
b=40.8 mL/mol. Find the critical constants of the substance. 81.65 atm,
324.83K
All of the following are true about crystals except. A crystal softens and
melts over a wide range of temperature
What is the lowest possible temperature of matter? Absolute zero
What current would be necessary to deposit 1.67g of Fe(s) from a
solution of Fe3+(aq) in 1 hour? 2.40A
What is the potential cell for Zn/Zn2+ (0.01M//Ag+(0.1M)/Ag? The
standard cell potential is 1.562V?
0.763V or 0.263V (dilimaklaro HAHAHA)
1.473V
0.749V
1.6V
What is the wavelength of radiation that has a frequency of 5.11x10 11
Hz? 5.87 x10-4 m
The ability of gas that tends to expand indefinitely into a vacuum or
another. Diffusion
Benzene boils at 80C under normal conditions and diethyl ether at
34.6C. At what temperature does the benzene have the same vapor
pressure as does the ether at 25C? 69C
Which of the following completely fills the blank in this nuclear
reaction? 8Be
THERMODYNAMICS
If ΔG < 0, then. A spontaneous reactions is possible
22-11
A total of 165 J of work is done on a gaseous refrigerant as it undergoes
compression, if the internal energy of the gas increased by 123 J during
the process, what is the total amount of energy transformed as heat? -
42 J
Helium is compressed isothermally from 14.7 psia and 68F. The
compression ratio is 4. Determine the change in entropy of the gas in
BTU/lbF. -0.689
If one mole of silver weighs 108 grams and its heat of vaporization is
250 kJ/mol, how much energy is given off if 20 grams of silver are
condensed to liquid at its boiling point? 46 kJ
The Carnot engine are operating in series. The first one absorbs heat at
1,111 K and rejects heat to the second engine at temperature T. The
second engine received the heat at the intermediate temperature T and
rejects it to a reservoir at 300 K.
Calculate T if the efficiencies of the two engine are equal. 577 K
Calculate T if the work done by the two engines are equal. 705 K
A heat engine absorbs heat from the combustion at 2200C. The
gasoline has a specific gravity of 0.80 and heat combustion of 11200
cal/gal. The engine rejects heat at 1200C. The maximum work is in
calories that can be obtained from the combustion of 1 liter of gasoline
is. 3.62 x106 cal
During the adiabatic reversible expansion of an ideal gas, the amount
of heat absorbed by the gas is equal to. Zero
At standard temperature and pressure, what is the heat of formation of
water vapor? -241.82 kJ
For an ideal gas what is the specific molar entropy change during an
isothermal process in which the pressure changes from 200 kPa to 150
kPa? 2.39 J/mol-K
How is conservation of internal energy expressed from system during
an adiabatic process? Q = 0, So U = -W
A closed gaseous system undergoes a reversible process during which
25 BTU are rejected, the volume changing from 5 ft 3 to 2ft3 and the
pressure remains constant at 50psia. Find U. 2.76 BTU
What is the unique state at which solid, liquid, gaseous phases co-exist
in equilibrium? Triple point
A 5-lb block of copper at 200F is submerged in 10 lbm of H2O at 50F
and after a period of time, equilibrium is established. If the container is
insulated what is the entropy change of the system? 0.0167 BTU/R
1 kg of water (C=4.2 kJ/kgK) is heated by 300 BTU energy. What is
the change in temperature in K? 75.4
Which of the following thermodynamic quantities gives a finite
quantity when integrated? Heat
How much energy in (kJ) is required to vaporize 0.5 kg H2O which is
originally at 24C and 1 atm? 1287.57
The net work accomplished by an engine undergoing adiabatic
compression is equal to. –ΔU
 INTRODUCTION TO WASTE MANAGEMENT AND REGULATORY OVERVIEW
A diesel engine has a compression ratio of 20:1 with an inlet of 95 kPa,
290 K, state 1, with volume of 0.5L. The maximum cycle temperature
is 1800 K. Find the maximum pressure. 6298 kPa. Find the net specific
work. 220.5 kJ/kg
LAWS and ETHICS
Organization of ChE accredited by PRC. PIChE
The PRC has supervisory power in BOChE. True
55 % ChE, 50 % in Phy. and Chem., 90 % in Gen. Engineering. Fail the
exam
No one can practice ChE unless licensed by BoChE. True
Doctorate degree can secure license without examination. False
Foreigners who on the date of the approval R.A. 6511 had been
practicing chemical engineering law are exempt from the registration.
False
A chemical engineer who designed and built a new reactor and for three
years sold many units to the public can still patent his reactor. True
A ChE can review the work of another ChE without his permission for
the same client. False
It is right to compete with another ChE provide ed inadequate
compensation is made. False
Exchange of information among ChEare allowed except for confidential
information. True
The ChE can work only in Unit Operations. False
ChE are guided by RA 9297.
A foreign ChE can practice ChE in Phil. Provided he is given
exemption by PRC.
The life of patent is 17 years.
To be a ChE board examiner, one must be at least 30 years of age.True
As a general rule, a foreign ChE can practice his profession in Phil.
False
Term duty of BoChE is 3 years only. True
The PRC formulates the examination questions. True
Changing the process of a patented invention without the inventor’s
permission is an act of infringement. False
A BochE Examiner should not be connected with a school where he has
a pecuniary interest. True
22-11
It is unethical to undervalue ones professional services compared with
others just to get a given contract. True
An invention that is for public good could be developed even without
the permission of the inventor especially if he refuses to license the
invention for a reasonable royalty. False
Two countries can allow their professionals to practice even without a
license provided there is a reciprocity agreement. True
A chemical engineer can do work of a chemist. True
The act regulating the practice of ChE in Phil. RA 9297
A chemical engineer must be guided in his profession and relationship
with others by The highest standard of honor and integrity.
Specifications means. All of these
To publicly criticize work of another ChE is allowed or ethical. False
An employee can claim exclusive ownership of an invention produced
during his employment in a company. False
A foreign ChE is allowed to practice in Phil. If requested by the Phil.
Government. True
The New Code of Ethics for the Practice of ChE was approved by
BoChE in 2009.
The BoChE may inspect the facilities, faculty, equipment and other
aspects. CHED
A chemical engineer who violates the provisions of ChE Law, upon
convivtion, 5 years.
The ChE shall report any infraction PRC
New Intellectual Property Code, RA 8293, January 1, 1998
Compositions or forms giving distinct appearance pattern in a product
can be protected as industrial design
Copyright works are protected during the life of the author and 50 years
after his death.
According to ChE Law of 2004, at least one ChE shall be included in
the personnel of .All of these
Approved patents are published in IPO Gazette
A document issued by DENR, EIA.
It is the meeting of the mind between two persons Contract.
It is a juridical necessity to give Obligation
Not essential element of contract. Declaration of third party
Not cause of inexistence and nullity of contracts. Those are which
previously ratified by the contracting parties
Contract wherby the debtor,s property is given as a security for his debt.
Mortgage
 INTRODUCTION TO WASTE MANAGEMENT AND REGULATORY OVERVIEW
The PRC Modernization Act of 2000. RA 8981.
Serves as a collective recognition by members of a profession of its
responsibilities. Code of Ethics
Unethical for a chemical engineers do. Compete with another engineer
unfairly
Why we support the Code of Ethics? All of these
When there’s an engineer’s conference and an engineer was asked to
give additional information and suggestions, what is the right thing to
do? He should voice out his knowledge about the topic and make
suggestions
Liquid- Liquid Extraction
Concepts
To determine the minimum ratio of extraction solvent to feed solvent,
one has to know The distribution coefficient.
In LLE process, extraction solvent has no selectivity when the ratio of
the two component. 1.0
In an extraction process the greater the weight of solute. The more is.
Unit operation by which soluble components of a liquid mixture are
dissolved in another liquid. Solvent extraction
LLE is based on Solubility.
Heat sensitive materials with high heat of vaporization Liquid
extraction.
Fractional solvent extraction. Employs 2 solvent
Selectivity of solvent. >1
In liquid extraction, if selectivity is unity. No separation will occur
When the solvent dissolves very little of the solute then. Large quantity
of solvent is required to extract the solute
Most suitable for extraction having very low density difference.
Centrifugal extractor
In extraction, as the temperature increases, the area of heterogeneity.
Decreases
Solution of solute A in diluent B mixed in solvent S, extract Rich S,
poor in B, rich in A
Problem
30 kg solute, 100 L water, 35 L ether, K=4 mass solute=2.45 kg If 3-
stage counter current extraction. Mass solute= 27 kg
Extract benzoic acid from toluene using water, benzoic acid =10 %,
toluene = 90 % Rate of feed= 120 gpm, rate of solvent= 20gpm K=0.125
% of the acid extracted. Single stage= 59%, 2 stage= 79 %
22-11
M in water, 9 kg of S , X/Z= 3% M that will remain . Single batch=
25%, two successive= 16.6 %
Benzoic acid is 9 times more soluble in chloroform than water. %
benzoic will remain . Each quantity of chloroform= 10 %, twice as
much as chloroform= 5.3 %, if followed by two extraction= 0.35 %
Acetic acid by isopropyl alcohol. F= 10,000 kg/hr of 28 % acetic acid.
S= 30,000 kg/hr, E= 8% acetic # of stages = 8
Solvent to feed ratio= 1.75
ORGANIC CHEMISTRY
What is the name of the compound? 1-propoxycyclohexane or
Cyclohexylpropyl ether
Which of the following contains sp-hybridized carbon? C5H8
Which of the following is the ester formed from a two carbon alcohol
and a five carbon acid? Ethyl pentanoate
It is the bond formed in the head-on overlap of two orbitals? Sigma
Which of the following alkenes is gas at room temperature? Propane
When ethyl bromide is treated with sodium in dry ether, the product is.
Butane
What is the correct name of the molecule. (2R,3S) – 2 – bromo – 3 –
chlorobutane
According to Markovnikov’s rule, addition of HBr to 2-pentenewill
give. Both 2 – bromopentene and 3 – bromopentene
How many isomers does xylene have? 3
2-methyl, 3-pentanol
Which of the following will distinguish 1-propanol from 2-
propanol. Lucas Test
Natural rubber is a polymer of. Isoprene
Which of the following carbonyl compounds produce a secondary
alcohol with LiAlH8? Ketone
Williamson Synthesis is the procedure for producing. Alkanes using
sodium metal
Which compounds are isomers? 1 – propanol and 2 – propanol
Which of the following alkynes contain acidic hydrogen? Propyne
Compounds with general formula (C5H8)n. Terpenes
 INTRODUCTION TO WASTE MANAGEMENT AND REGULATORY OVERVIEW
Oxidation of isopropyl alcohol with potassium permanganate yields.
Acetone
Calcium carbide on interaction with water gives. Acetylene
REVIEWER
Which of the following contains sp-hybridized carbon? C5H8
Bond formed in the head-on overlap of two orbitals. sigma
Part of a molecule where most of its chemical reactions occur.
Functional group
Which of the following molecule is unsaturated? C5H10
Name the alkane. 2,3,4-trimethylhexane
Which of the following alkanes is gas at room temperature? propane
When ethyl bromide is treated with sodium in dry ether, the product is
butane
For the following alkanes, the one with the lowest boiling point is 3.
The following reagents will produce an alkane from an alkyl halide
except alcoholic KOH
How many possible monochlorinated product is expected from the
chlorination of propane? 2
Name the alkene: 2-methyl-2-butene
The name of the saturated hydrocarbon isomer of cis-3-hexene is
cyclohexane
For which of the compounds below are cis-trans isomers possible? Both
2 and 3
When 1-bromo-2-methylcyclobutane is treated with alcoholic KOH, the
dominant product is
Among the following alcohols, methylpropene can be
obtained from 2-methyl-2-propanol
Alkenes are commonly prepared via elimination reaction, which of the
following is not an elimination reaction? Hydrogenation of alkynes
22-11
The following reagents will yield an alkyl halide from an alkene except
Br2/UV or light
The acid-catalyzed addition of water to 1-butene will form 2-butanol
The rule which states that, “In the addition of HX to alkenes, the halogen
attaches to the doubly bonded carbon with more alkyl substituent.”
Markovnikoff’s Rule
Starting with 2-methyl-2-butene, which of the following processes must
be used to produce a secondary alcohol? Hydroboration-oxidation
Which of the following reagents will yield a diol from a given alkene?
OsO4 in NaHSO4
Hydrogenation of alkynes in the presence of a poisoned palladium
catalyst produces alkene
Addition of HBr to alkynes results in the formation of germinal dihalide
When 2-butyne undergoes ozonolysis, the main product is acetic acid
In hydration of alkynes, the enol formed is found to transform into a
ketone. This form of isomerism is known as keto-enol tautomerism
Name the alkyne: 4-methyl-2-butyne
Which of the following alkynes contain acidic hydrogen? propyne
Among the molecules, which is not aromatic?
All of the following are ortho and para directing substituents except –
NO2
How many isomers does xylene have? 3
Vinylbenzene is also known as styrene
Which of the following carbonyl compounds produce a secondary
alcohol with LiAlH4? ketone
Addition of methyl magnesium bromide to acetaldehyde produces 2-
propanol
Oxidation of isopropyl alcohol with KMnO4 will yield acetone
Which of the following alcohols will undergo bimolecular nucleophilic
substitution? 1-propanol
In Williamson synthesis of methyl isopropyl ether, the alcohol used is
isopropyl alcohol
Acid-catalyzed ring opening of an epoxide will result in the formation
of a/an dihydric alcohol
Which is NOT a physical property of alcohols or phenols? The hydroxyl
group of an alcohol is non-polar
 INTRODUCTION TO WASTE MANAGEMENT AND REGULATORY OVERVIEW
Hydrocarbon derivatives used as a main ingredient in automobile
antifreeze. Ethylene glycol
Which of the following will distinguish 1-propanol from 2-propanol?
Lucas test
The following reagents will give an alkyl halide from alcohol except
NaCl
Which among the following is a ketone? CH3COCH3
Which of the following processes will yield an aldehyde? Ozonolysis of
alkenes
A tertiary alcohol is produced using Grignard Reagent using a/an ketone
Carbonyl compounds can be obtained by reduction using the following
except amide
Addition of hydrazine to carbonyl compounds produces a/an hydrazone
Reduction of alkyl phenyl ketones to aromatic hydrocarbons done by
Wolf-Kishner Reduction uses NH2NH2,KOH
With the same molecular weight, a carboxylic acid will have a/an higher
boiling point than an alcohol.
Acid anhydride upon hydrolysis yield carboxylic acid
Hexanedioic acid is also known as adipic acid
Reaction of alcohol and a carboxylic acid is known as esterification
Name the acyl halide: butanoyl chloride
Addition of an alcohol to acyl halides produces ester
Name the acidic anhydride: acetic propionic anhydride
Addition of ammonia to acid anhydrides produces amide
Name the ester: ethyl propanoate
An unknown ester was hydrolyzed with water and acid to produce an
acid, X and alcohol, Y. Oxidation of the alcohol with hot KMnO4
yielded acid X. Ozonolysis of the alcohol produced acetaldehyde. Name
the ester. Ethyl ethanoate
When an ethyl acetate is reduced by LiAlH4 the product is acetaldehyde
Cyclic esters are known as lactones
The scent of a banana is due to the ester i-pentyl acetate
EXAM
22-11
It was first used as an anesthetic in 1824. It produces unconsciousness
and insensitivity to pain by inhibiting activity of the central nervous
system. Diethyl ether
They are a class of cyclic ethers in which the ether oxygen is included
in a three-membered ring. epoxides
The acidic ingredient in vinegar and the pure acid is useful solvent and
manufacturing intermediate. Acetic acid
These are different compounds that have the same molecular formula
but different structural formula. isomers
This geometric isomer indicate that a particular group are on the same
side of the molecules. Cis-isomer
Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding the reaction
between Cl2 and C2H6? The reaction will give a single product of C2H5Cl
What is the expected product formed from the reaction between 2-
butene and Cl2? 2,3-dichlorobutane
The most acidic hydrogen in an alpha carbon occurs in alkyne
A carbonyl group occurs in all of the following except ether
The reason why some alcohols are soluble in water. Hydrogen bonding
Which of the following alcohols will undergo a 1,2-methyl shift when it
is heated with acid? 3-methyl-2-butanol
The interconversion between the keto and enol forms is a special kind
of isomerism. tautomerism
The reaction of carboxylic acids in their conversion into esters by
reaction with an alcohol (the substitution of an –OH group with an –
OR). Fischer esterification
Ethers can also exists as cyclic molecules. epoxides
The addition of alcohols (in excess) to aldehydes yields this product.
acetals
It is the reaction when an enolate ion is prepared from an aldehyde,
remaining un-ionized aldehyde is attacked by the formed enolate ion.
Aldol Condensation
It is the reaction of sodium alkoxides with alkyl halides producing an
ether. Williamson synthesis
In the reaction of 1-bromooctane with thiourea, what product would you
get? Octanethiol
How would you prepare pentanal from pentanol? Oxidation using PCC
Name the organic compound. trans-2-Methylcyclohexanecarbaldehyde
Derivatives of carboxylic acid. Acid halide, acide anhydride, ester,
amide thioester, acyl phosphate
Name the organic compound. 3-(Ethylthio)cyclohexanone
 INTRODUCTION TO WASTE MANAGEMENT AND REGULATORY OVERVIEW
What product would you obtain from hydration reaction of 2,4-
dimethyl-2-pentene? 2,4-dimethyl-2-pentanol by oxymercuration using
mercury (II) acetate followed by sodium borohydride
What alkyne would you start to prepare the compound by
hydroboration/oxidation reaction? C6H5C≡CH
In the catalytic hydrogenation of alkyne to produce an alkene, one
should used Lindlar’s catalyst
Predict whether the substitution reaction undergoes SN1 or SN2. SN1
reaction because the substrate is secondary and benzylic, the
nucleophile is weakly basic, and the solvent is protic.
Identify whether this is an R or S configuration. S
Predict the major product of the sulfonation of toluene. o-
toluenesulfonic acid and p-toluenesulfonic acid
What major and minor products would you expect from elimination
reaction of the alkyl halide? Major: 2,3,5-trimethyl-2-hexene; Minor:
2,3,5-trimethyl-3-hexene and 2-isopropyl-4-methyl-1-pentene
How would you synthesize a secondary alcohol? By reduction of a
ketone using NaBH4 or LiAlH4
How would you prepare ethyl phenyl ether? Either a or b
Claisen rearrangement is specific to allyl aryl ethers
What is the major product formed from the reaction of benzene with
isobutyl chloride and AlCl3? isobutylbenzene
The product of the reaction CH3CH=CH2 + H2 is CH3CH2CH3
This test determines a primary, secondary, and tertiary alcohols by
observing the differences in the reaction rates. Lucas test
Which of the following is the most reactive? 2-pentanone
22-11
The reagent needed to convert a ketone or an aldehyde into an oxime.
hydroxylamine
An alkyl group is attached to an aromatic ring on reaction with an alkyl
chloride, RCl, in the presence of AlCl3 catalyst, a process called Friedel-
Crafts alkylation reaction
A compound whose molecular structure rotates polarized light
counterclockwise: is designated as being levoratatory
Which of the following characteristics of chirality is not true? The chiral
carbon atom is said to be unsaturated
The following are ortho-, para- directors except -CN
Methyl groups, although it does not possess a pair of non-bonded p
electrons are ortho- and para- directing because they undergo a special
type of resonance. hyperconjugation
FLUID FLOW
A 15 inclined manometer containing mercury is connected to two taps
A and B containing water. Tap B is 4 ft vertically higher than Tap A.
When the pressure in Tap B is 6 psi, the manometer reads 5 inches along
the inclined tube. Calculate the new manometer reading (in inches) if
the pressure in Tap A is increased by 2.0 psi. 20.7
A cylindrical tank 1 ft in diameter discharges through a nozzle
connected to the base. Find the time needed for the water level in the
tank to drop from 4 ft to 2 ft above the nozzle. The diameter of the nozzle
is 1 inch and its discharge coefficient may be taken as unity. 30 s
A device for measuring differential pressure is a manometer
A fluid flowing at a rate of 25 cubic meters per hour in a 60-mm inside
diameter pipe has an average velocity in meters/second equals to 2.5
A horizontal annulus is 27 ft. long. The outside radius of the inner
cylinder is 0.495 in.; the inside radius of the outer cylinder is 1.1 in. A
60% aqueous solution of sucrose is to be pumped though the annulus at
20C. At this temperature the fluid density is 80.3 lb/ft3 and its viscosity
is 136.8 lbm/ft-hr. what is the volume rate of flow when the impressed
pressure drop is 5.39 psi? 0.11 ft3/s
A pitot tube with a U-tube water manometer is attached to a horizontal
oil pipe of 4 in. inside diameter. If the manometer reading is 15 in.,
determine the volumetric flow rate, in gpm of oil in the pipe. The pitot
reading is placed at the center of the pipe. The oil has a specific gravity
of 0.84 and a viscosity of 0.0336 lb/ft-sec. 77
A pump delivers 40 gpm of water with a total head of 40 ft. The
efficiency of the pump is 65%. What is its BHP? 0.62
 INTRODUCTION TO WASTE MANAGEMENT AND REGULATORY OVERVIEW
A rectangular duct 4 m x 1.5 m in a cross-section carries conditioned
air. Its hydraulic diameter is 2.18 m
A right angled triangular weir is used to measure the flow rate of water
flowing in an open channel. If the height of the water in the weir is 7.8
inches, the flow rate of water is 380 gal/min.
A rotameter having a stainless float (sp. gr = 8.0) is calibrated to handle
a maximum flow of 3.0 m3/min of water. What is the maximum flow
3
rate of CCl4 can it handle in m /min? 2.3
A sharp edged orifice meter is to be fabricated to measure water flowing
at a rate no to exceed 1,200 cu.ft per hour, with a differential head of 30
in. Hg. What orifice diameter in inches is required if D2/D1 is made 1/5?
1.5
A water storage tank supplies water into a factory. Water is supplied to
the tank through a booster pump installed in the water line. The
theoretical pump horsepower is 3.25 hp. What is the monthly operating
cost of the pump, if electric power cost on the average is Php3.73/kWh.
The pump is 65% efficient and operates for 12 hours a day. Php5000
Air is flowing at a constant mass rate through a horizontally arranged
pipe heater and heated from 70F to 170F. The pressure is normal at
the inlet and the outlet pressure dropped by 1 inch H2O. the average air
velocity at the inlet is 20 ft/s.
Air is to be delivered at a rate of 200 cfm and a pressure of 10 kPa. The
appropriate equipment to use is blower
An axial flow pump operating at a speed of 880 rpm can supply water
at a rate of 3000 gpm. The maximum head that this pump can deliver in
feet of water is 36
Assuming that Cp = 0.24 and perfect gas, the net heat input is 24
BTU/lbm
At a given flow rate through an orifice meter the differential pressure
across the orifice will increase when the orifice flow area is decreased
At low Reynolds number viscous forces control and inertial forces are
unimportant
Calculate the radius of the capillary tube in mm, such that it is a flow of
a viscous fluid. Kinematic viscosity = 0.000043 m2/s, length of tube =
50.2 cm, mass flow rate = 0.003 kg/s, density of fluid = 955 kg/m3,
pressure drop = 4.77 atm. 0.75
Cavitation occurs in a centrifugal pump when suction is lost.
Dimension of kinematic viscosity is L2T-1.
Four-inch (4 inch.) Sch. 40 steel pipes are to be used to transport high-
pressure steam. The pipe joints are to be butt-welded. The safe working
fiber stress for butt-welded pipes is 457.1 kg/cm2. Calculate the
maximum steam pressure, in kg/cm2 the pipes can handle. 18.3
22-11
If the speed of a centrifugal pump is doubled, the energy requirement
becomes approximately 8 times the original energy requirement.
In a certain chemical plant, the carbonate solution used in the absorption
tower is pumped continuously from the bottom of the lye storage tank
through a standard 4” pipe and then through sprays head at the top of
the scrubber. Calculate the efficiency of the pump. 44%
In a high pressure piping systems where joints are regularly broken, for
maintenance, flanged joints are used.
In a reciprocating pump, the ratio of the quantity of liquid actually
pumped to that which corresponds to the piston displacement is called
volumetric efficiency
Machine which need electricity to run are motors
Mass velocity is the independent of temperature and pressure when the
flow is steady and the cross-section is unchaged
Natural gas at 70F is flowing at a steady mass rate through a steel pipe
with an inside diameter of 12 inches. Absolute pressure drops from 30
to 15 atm in 400 miles of horizontal pipe. M = 17, μ = 0.01 cP. The
volumetric flow rate per hour at 70F and normal barometric pressure is
520,000 ft3
Newton’s law of viscosity relates shear stress and velocity.
Oil with a viscosity of 30 cP and a density of 60 lb/ft3 flows through a
½ inch inside diameter pipe. Determine the velocity in ft/s below which
flow will be laminar. 16.90
Steam flows at a steady through a converging insulated nozzle, 25 cm
long and with an inlet diameter of 5 cm at the nozzle entrance, the
temperature and pressure are 325C and 700 kPa, and velocity is 30m/s.
At the nozzle exit, the steam temperature and pressure are 240C and
350kPa. What is the velocity of the steam at the nozzle exit? 578 m/s
The absolute pressure exerted by water 2 m below the surface of a
swimming pool is 120 kPa.
The absolute pressure of water one meter below the surface of a lake is
105 Pa.
The bursting pressure of a pipe is directly proportional to its schedule
number
The differential height between two points where a fluid has to be
transferred is the potential head
The dimensionless number that characterizes the flow of fluids in a
conduit is Reynolds number
The higher the BWG rating of a tube is, the lower is the strength
The inside surface of the a pipe has no effect on the friction factor when
the flow is streamline
 INTRODUCTION TO WASTE MANAGEMENT AND REGULATORY OVERVIEW
The power requirement of a 4-stage compressor (in kW) in order to
supply air at 25C at a rate of 500 cu m per hour at a total discharge
pressure of 200 psig is 63.0 if the efficiency of the compressor is 66%.
The power requirement of a fan in kW in order to supply air at a rate of
3 the outlet end is more than the velocity at the inlet.
500 m /hr at a total discharge pressure of 05 psia is 0.46 kW.
The pressure after the pump in a 6-inch inside diameter smooth pipe
conducting water is 20 psia. The water is discharged at an open tank 100
3 volumetric flow rate is changed by approximately a factor of 1/32
ft from the pump. Calculate the rate of discharge of water in ft /s 3.58
The pressure drop in a pipeline changes by a factor of 4 when the
velocity of the flowing fluid is doubled.
The prime mover of a jet pump is a/an fluid momentum
The required NPSH of a pump is specified to be 8 ft. Determine the
allowable vertical distance above (or below) the pump axis from a
vented surface of water (25C) in a supply tank if suction side friction
losses are equivalent to 3.8 ft. 16 ft
The resistance of a layer of fluid to flow over the next layer ismeasured
by viscosity
The schedule number of the pipe is an indicator of the pipe’s thickness
The weight rate of floe of a fluid stream per unit of cross section
perpendicular to the direction of flow is the mean mass velocity of the
stream
Turbulent flow generally occurs for cases involving none of these
Two centrifugal pumps, a 5-in delivering 129 gpm and a 4-1/2 in
delivering 140 gpm are connected in parallel. If the pump characteristics
of both represented by Fig. 10-38 Perry 8/ed, determine the overall
efficiency of the pump set. 76%
Water at 20C enters an inclined 1-inch ID pipe where the upstream
point is at 10 psig. The downstream point is ½ inch ID and 40 ft below
the upstream point where the water discharges at 30 gpm to the
atmosphere. What is the friction in ft of water? 28.1
Water at 60F is flowing through a 3-inch inside diameter smooth
horizontal pipe. If the Reynolds number is 353,000, calculate the ratio
of maximum velocity to average velocity. 1.22
Water at 80F flows at 10 ft. per second through a 6-inch Sch. 40 steel
pipe with length of 1000 ft. the Reynolds number is 500,000
What is the differential reading in pitot tube inserted in an 8-in nominal
pipe carrying 1600 gpm of water? Assume mercury to be the fluid in the
pitot tube. 2.10 in Hg
What is the entrance length in a 2-inch Sch. 40 pipe if the Reynolds
number is 1800? 17 ft
What type of pump would you recommend if the capacity is 5000
gal/min at a head of 15 ft of water? Axial flow pump
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What will be the rated capacity (in gpm) of a 4-1/2 inch impeller
centrifugal pump operating at a speed of 3450 rpm capable of generating
a head of 40 ft of water? 248
When a fluid flows through a reducer in a piping system, the velocity at
When the ID of the pipe through which a fluid flows is doubled, the
pressure loss due to friction per unit length of pipe and for the same
When the impeller speed of an ideal centrifugal pump is doubled, the
volumetric flow rate of the discharge is increased by a factor of 2.0
When the movement of a gas vapor is effected at a low pressure say, up
to 0.1 kg/cm2, the equipment used is a blower
When two bodies lost the same amount of weight when immersed in a
fluid, it means that the two bodies have the same volume.
When two centrifugal pumps are connected in series, the discharge
changes by a factor of 1.
When two reciprocating pumps are connected in parallel, the volumetric
capacity of the system changes by a factor of 2
Which of the following is not true? The power loss due to friction in a
venturi meter is greater than in an orifice meter.
SCREENING
The material passing one screening surface and retained on a subsequent
surface is called intermediate material.
The minimum clear space between the edges of the opening in the
screening surface and is usually given in inches or millimeters. aperture
The screen used in making size separation smaller than 4-mesh and
larger than 48-mesh. vibrating screen
When the object is to recover an oversize product from the screen,
efficiency may be expressed as ratio of the amount of oversize obtained
to the amount of true oversize.
The wire diameter of a 14-mesh screen (Tyler Standard) is 0.025 in.
Box-like machines, either round or square with a series of screen clothes
nested atop one another. Gyratory screen
The removal of a small amount of oversize from a feed which are
predominantly fines is called scalping.
Removal of free water from a solids-water mixture and is generally
limited to 4 mesh and above. Dewatering
Making a size separation smaller than 48-mesh is called ultrafine
separation.
Another name for revolving screen is trommel screen.
 INTRODUCTION TO WASTE MANAGEMENT AND REGULATORY OVERVIEW
The mesh number of a screen denotes the number of openings per linear
inch of screen.
Materials which remain on a screen surface are called oversize.
The wire diameter of a 10-mesh screen whose aperture is 0.065 in is
0.035 in.
It is desired to separate a mixture of sugar crystals into two fractions, a
coarse fraction retained on an 8-mesh screen, and a fine fraction passing
through it. Feed=0.46,coarse=0.88,fine=0.32. the overall effectiveness
is 45%.
(15-16) Limestone is crushed by six units operating in parallel and the
products separated by six 35-mesh. effective dimension=6ft by 20ft,
50tons/hour.
The efficiency of screen operation is 52.8%.
The capacity of each screen in lb/24 hour per sq. ft is 5750.
(17-18) 1800 lbs of dolomite per hour is produced by crushing and then
screening through a 14-mesh screen.
The total load to the crusher is 6320 lbs/hour
The effectiveness of the screen 62.5%
Granular feldspar is produced by beneficiation of high alumina river
sand. After screening, drying and magnetic separation, the recovery is
only 21%. The MT of river sand with 10% moisture that would have to
be beneficiated is 12.2 MT.
(20-22) Fine silica is fed at 1500 lbs/hour to a double-deck vibrating
screen combination to obtain a 48/65 mesh (Tyler) product.
The effectiveness of the screening equipment is 48.7%
If the screens measure 5ft x 8ft each, the capacity in MT/day-ft2-mm of
the 65 mesh screen. 0.901
The capacity in MT/day-ft2-mm on the basis of the actual performance
of the 48 mesh screen. 1.09
If the percentage of particles larger that the screen opening in the feed,
product, and undersize are 36%, 89% and 3% respectively, the
effectiveness of the screen is 88.5
The Tyler Standard screen series is characterized by twice the area ratio
between successive screens.
The ratio of the clear opening corresponding to a mesh size in the Tyler
Standard screen series to that of the next screen is sqrt(2).
The clear opening of a 200-mesh screen in the Tyler Standard screen
series is 0.0074 cm
The ratio of the area of the opening in one screen (Tyler Series) to the
opening of the next smaller screen is none of these.
The Cumulative Screen Analysis for determining the surface area of
particles is more precise than the differential screen analysis because of
22-11
the assumption that all particles in a single fraction are equal in size is
not needed.
Increasing the capacity of a screen decreases the screen effectiveness.
The screen efficiency is none of these.
As the particle size is reduced screening becomes more progressively
more difficult.
A screen is said to be blinded when the screen is plugged with solid
particles
Size measurement of ultrafine particles can be best expressed in terms
of surface area per unit mass.
Trommels separate a mixture of particles depending on their size.
Screen capacity is expressed in terms of tons/h-ft2
MRII 2nd EDITION
SIZE REDUCTION
A 6,000 lb of a material., Screen analysis shows a surface area of product
of 500 sq ft. The Rittinger number of the material is 163 sq in. The total
powr to be delivered to the set of equipment is. 38.4hp
A fluid energy mill is used for. Ultragrinding
A material is crushed in a Blake Jaw Crusher and the average size of the
particles reduced from 50 mm to 10 mm. The consumption of energy
needed to crush the same material of an average size 25 mm assuming
Kick’s Law applies is. 8.88kW/(kg/s)
Based on Bond’s Crushing Law, the power required to crush a certain
material will change by ___ % if the diameter of the product is made
smaller by 50%. 41%
Bond Crushing Law. Calls for relatively less energy for the smaller
product particle than does the Rittinger Law
Cement clinker is commonly reduced to fine size using a. Ball Mill
Crushing efficiency is the ratio of. Surface energy created by the
crushing to the energy absorbed by the solid
Defined as the efficiency of technical grinding compared with
laboratory crushing experiments. Practical Energy Efficiency
Equivalent diameter of a particle is the diameter of the sphere having
the same. Ratio of surface to volume as the actual volume
For coarse reduction of hard solids, use. Compression
Hardness of a mineral is a criterion of its resistance to crushing. Which
of the ff is a hard material. sapphire
Hp required by the ball mill when loaded is. 5.4hp
 INTRODUCTION TO WASTE MANAGEMENT AND REGULATORY OVERVIEW
If 20% of pulverized limestone with a work index of 12.74 kWh ton is
retained by a 150 mesh screen from original 35 mesh, the energy
required in kW to process 1 ton/hr is.6.25
In comminution, the energy requirement is determined theoretically by.
The initial and final sizes of the particles
In crushing a certain ore, the feed is.. 80% is less than 50.8mm in size
and the product size is 80% less than 6.35mm. The power required is
89.5 kW. Based on Bond eqn, power required using the same feed so
that 80% is less than 3.18 mm is. 146.7kW
Problems 12-14. A ball mill is to grind 250 tons/day of calcite having a
specific surface of 90.34 sq cm/g. Energy effectiveness is 7.5%. Given
table. The specific surface of the product is. 179.2sq cm/g
Rittinger’s Crushing Law states that.Work required in crushing is
proportional to the new surface created
Shape factors are important in characterizing.. The specific surface in sq
cm/g for quartz with diameter of 2 in, density of 165 lb/cu ft and a shape
factor of 20 is. 4.47
Size reduction is important since.It prepares raw materials of the
desired sizes prior to processing
Soft and non-abrasive materials can be made into fines by. Attrition
Sphericity for a cylinder whose length equal its diameter is. 0.87
States that energy required for crushing is proportional to the new
surface area. Rittinger’s Law
The average diameter of sphalerite is 1000 microns, the ration of
specific surfaces is. 4
The critical speed of a ball mill with 12 in diameter, grinding balls
diameter of ½ in. 80
The operating speed of a ball mill should be.Less than the critical speed
The term applied to all ways in which particles of solids are cut or
broken into smaller pieces. size reduction
Theoretical horse power requirement to grind the calcite. 1.38hp
Wet grinding in revolving mill. Increases capacity compared to dry
grinding
Work index is defined as.. 80% of product passes a 100 microns screen.
What is the work index of gypsum rock? 6.73
Work index is defined as.Gross energy (kWh/ton of feed) needed to
reduce very large feed to such a size that 80% of the product passes a
100 micron screen
HEAT TRANSFER
A 2-4 shell and tube heat exchanger means that there are. 2 baffles and
4 tubes
A 6 in thick wall is 12 ft high and 16 ft long. One face is at 1500F and
the other at 300F. The total heat loss in BTU/hr is. 69,120 BTU/hr
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A composite three layered wall is formed of a 0.5cm thick aluminum
plate, a 0.25cm thick layer of sheet asbestos. Given a table for values of
temp and k. Determine the heat flow per unit area. 1085 W/m2
A composite wall consists of 2” corkboard, 6” concrete and 3” wood.
What are the temperatures between the cork and concrete and between
the concrete and wood? 62.7F, 64.9F
A composite wall consists of W1(outer layer) and W2 (inner). W1 and
W2 are both 5 in thick. The temp of the outer layer is 500F while that of
the inner is 1500F. Find qtotal in BTU/ hr ft2. 218
A furnace wall is constructed of firebrick 6 in thick. If the mean thermal
conductivity under these condition is 0.17 BTU/h ft F. What is the rate
of heat loss through 10 sqft of wall surface? 3825 BTU/hr
A pipe with an outside diameter of 2.5 inch is insulated with a 2 inch
layer of asbestos followed by a layer of cork 1.5 inch thick. Calculate
the heat lost per 100 ft of insulated pipe. 2847.4 BTU/hr
A reaction mixture having a Cp = 2.85kJ/kg K flowing at a rate of 7260
kg/hr. The overall Uo is 653 W/m2 K. Calculate the area assuming flow
is countercurrent. 5.43m2
A semi-infinite solid in heat conduction is one where. Only the
conduction on one side affects the temp distribution
A theoretical body where the absorptivity and emissivity are.
Wavelength over the spectral region of the irradiation. Gray Body
A thick walled copper cylinder has an inside radius of 1 cm and outside
radius of 1.8cm. Assume k varies linearly with temperature. Determine
the heat loss per unit length. 40 kW
Air flowing inside the annular space of a double pipe heat exchanger is
being heated by steam inside the inner pipe. For this case, the U in the
heat transfer equation should be based on. The outside area of the inner
pipe
Air is cooled in a double pipe counter current heat exchanger from 120
F to 100 F with water entering at 60 F and leaving 75 F. The largest
temperature range in the heat exchanger is. 20F
An ideal surface that absorbs all incident radiation, regardless of
wavelength and direction and is also considered to be a perfect emitter
is referred to as a. Black Body
An industrial furnace wall is constructed of 0.7ft thick fireclay having k
= 0.6BTU/hrft F. Outer surface with a 0.1 ft thick layer of insulating
material. Calculate the steady heat transfer per square foot. 464 BTU/hr
ft2
Assuming Reynold’s Number analogy applies, estimate the heat transfer
coefficient for water flowing inside a 2 in ID smooth horizontal pipe at
a velocity of 4 fps and andave temp of 78F. 2240
Determine the steady state heat transfer per unit area through a in thick
homogenous slab with its two faces maintained at uniform temp of 100
and 70. The thermal conductivity of the material is 0.11 BTU/hrft F.
26.40 BTU/hr ft2
For a furnace constructed with 0.7ft thick of fireclay brick having k –
0.6 BTU/hrft F. How thick must the insulator be to maintain a maximum
allowable heat transfer rate of 300 BTU/hrft2? 0.20ft
 INTRODUCTION TO WASTE MANAGEMENT AND REGULATORY OVERVIEW
If a man touches two metals which were kept together at room
temperature, why would one metal feel colder than the other? One has
a high thermal conductivity
If the thermal conductivity of the fluid increases, the heat transfer
coefficient will. Increase
If the viscosity of the fluid will increase, the heat transfer coefficient in
a turbulent flow system. Decrease
In a 1 shell pass 1 tube pass heat exchanger with horizontal tubes 25 mm
external diameter and 22 mm internal. Assume atmospheric pressure.
What will be the total length of the tubing required? 526m
In a fluid, if the currents are set in motion by the action of a mechanical
device, and the flow is independent of density gradients, the
phenomenon is called. Forced Convection
In boiling the stage when the rate of bubble formation increases so that
the velocity of circulation increases and the heat flux also increase is
referred to as. Nucleate Boiling
In heat transfer by conduction, due to symmetry the heat flow at a point
is perpendicular to the isothermal surface through the point. This mode
of conduction is characteristic of. Isotropic Solids
In using the design equation of heat transfer. For a system where air is
flowing inside a pipe while being heated by condensing steam outside
the pipe, the proper U and A to be used is. Based on the inside area
It is a method of developing the design for a heat exchanger wherein the
engineer assures the existence of an exchanger and makes calculation to
determine if the heat exchanger would handle the process
requirements..Rating a heat exchanger
The amount of radiation emitted in all directions and over all
wavelengths by a perfect emitter is proportional to the fourth power of
the absolute temp of the emitter. This is the statement of. Stefan-
Boltzman Law
The driving force in heat transfer is. Temperature gradient
The equation q/A = -k dT/dx is called. Fourier’s Law
The heat transferred radially across an insulated pipe per unit area.
Decreases from pipe to the thermal conductivity
The LMTD for the heat exchanger of Prob 42 is. 42.5F
The measure of the relative effectiveness of momentum and energy
transport by diffusion in the velocity and thermal boundary layers is
given by.Prandtl Number
The property of the solid that provides a measure of the rate of heat
transfer relative to the energy storage is referred to as. Thermal
Diffusivity
The range of wavelengths of electromagnetic waves that is associated
with thermal radiation is from. 0.1 to 100 micrometer
The ratio of the emissive power of a body. Same for all radiating bodies
in a confined.. This is a statement of.Kirchoff’s Law
The ration of the internal thermal resistance of a solid to the boundary
layer thermal resistance is described by. Biot Number
22-11
The smallest temp approach in the heat exchanger of Prob 42 is. 40F
The spectral distribution of a perfect emitter has a maximum and that
the corresponding wavelength depends on temperature. The maximum
spectral emissive power is displaced to shorter wavelengths with
increasing temperature. These statements refer to. Wien’s Law
The term hD/k is known as. Nusselt Number
The transfer of heat from a point to another within a fluid, or between a
fluid and a solid or another fluid, by the movement or mixing of the
fluids involves. Convection
The triangular center to center distance of a bank of 2 in OD tubes in a
furnace is 6 inches. Estimate the total view factor. 0.72
The view factor F21 of a sphere of diameter D inside a cubical box if L
= D. 0.524
Thermal lumped analysis may be applied if. The conductive resistance
is very small compared with the convective resistance
Two parallel infinite walls at diff temperatures are radiating energy to
each other. The heat transferred by radiation between the two walls.
Decreases
Water is flowing inside a ¾ inch 14 BWG condenser tube (hi = 20
kW/m2 C) and saturated steam (ho = 35) condensing outside. If k of the
tube is 120 the value of Uo is. 10.8
When water inside a beaker is being heated over a hot plate, the
mechanism of heat transfer through the water is considered to be.
Natural Convection
Which among the gases listed is transparent to gas radiation. Oxygen
ANALYTICAL CHEMISTRY
All of the following is used as a hygroscopic material in desiccators
EXCEPT. H2SO4
Chemicals which are tested by the manufacturers showing the actual
percentages of impurities and labeled on the containers are called. All of
these
Platinum crucibles can be used for the ff processes without significant
loss EXCEPT. Heating with sulfides
What grade of water as defined by the British Standard is suitable for
the determination of trace quantities which can be prepared by the
distillation of deionized water? Grade 2
The following describes colloidal suspensions formed during
precipitation except. They settle readily from a given solution
Which of the ff does not describe the correct way to wash precipitates?
For very soluble precipitates, ionic salts containing common ion must
be added to the washing liquid
Analytical methods classified as micro analyses use sample mass
ranging from.1-10mg
It is expressed as the volume of a solution chemically equivalent to a
mass of a solid reagent. Titer
Process by which an agglomerated colloid return to its dispersed state
during washing due to leaching of electrolyte responsible for its
coagulation. Peptization
Which of the ff statements is not correct? In general, alkaline buffering
capacity is maximum over a pH range of pKb +-1
 INTRODUCTION TO WASTE MANAGEMENT AND REGULATORY OVERVIEW
The conjugate base of H2PO4 is. HPO4
In the standardization of an acid solution with primary standard sodium
carbonate, why is it necessary to boil the solution before completing the
titration? All of these
Which of the ff aqueous solutions of the same concentration will have
the largest pH value at 25? NH3
Which of the ff solutions at 25C will have the lowest pH value? 0.01 M
NH4Cl
Which of the ff acid base pairs will result in the formation of a buffer
solution when titration is done before the equivalence point? NH3 - HBr
What is the best basis for choosing the right indicator for a given acid-
base titration from among the following? pH at equivalence point
In the titration of a weak acid with a strong base, which of the following
is the best indicator to be used? Phenolphthalein
Process of determining the nitrogen content of organic materials by
mixing the sample with powdered copper oxide and ignited to a
combustion tube giving CO2, H2O N2 and small amounts of nitrogen
oxides. Dumas Method
A 500 mg sample of each mixture was analyzed for its alkaline content
using 0.1025 M HCl via double indicator method. Table is given. Which
of the following mixture contains NaHCO3? Mixtures 1 and 2
In the analysis of nitrogen using Kjeldahl Method, which of the ff is
added to decompose organic matrices present in the sample? HgO
Which of the ff is not used as primary standard for the standardization
of alkali solutions? HgO
Which of the ff is not a correct analytical method-titrant pair? Volhard-
AgNO3
In Volhard Method, why is it necessary to carry out titration in acidic
solution? To prevent precipitation of iron as hydrated oxide
With the presence of Pb2+ ion, what is the color of the precipitate?
Yellow
A solution has a pH of 6 will give ___ color if added with a drop of
methyl red. Yellow
Which of the ff ions is best titrated with EDTA at minimum pH less than
7? Fe3+
Which of the ff statements is true? Ca-EDTA complex is more stable
than Mg-EDTA complex.
Commonly, the analyte in a sample is present in two different oxidation
states. One of the metallic reductors is zinc soaked in a dilute solution
of mercuric chloride. This reductor is known as. Jones Reductor
Which of the ff is false about iodine as an oxiding agent in titration?
Iodine is very soluble in water and losses are minimal
All of the following is used in redox titrations except. Iodide
Which of the ff metal is not reduced by Walden reductor? Cr
Which of the ff is used as pre-oxidant? All of these
22-11
Which of the ff situations will result in a solution with the lowest value
of pH? A high concentration of an acid with a high value of Ka.
What effect will the addition of pure water to a water solution of an acid
have on the pH of this acid solution? The pH level will increase
Which of the ff will form a basic solution when dissolved in water? The
salt of a weak acid and a strong base
A 750.25 gram alloy of nickel was dissolved and treated to remove
impurities.. Determine the % Ni in the alloy. 10.53%
What proportion by weight of Na2C2O4 to that of KHCO4 etc that must
be mixed in a solution so that the normality of the resulting solution as
a reducing agent is three times the normality as an acid? 0.65
What volume of water must be added to concentrated HCL solution to
prepare 100 mL 0.955 M HCl solution?92.1mL
A 20% wt/wt aqueous soln of NaCl at 25C has a density of 1.145 g/mL.
Express the amount of solute in this solution as %wt/vol. 23
Molarity.1.96
Molality.6.84
A 1.5176 g sample of CaCO3 was dissolved in acidic solution. What is
the percentage of CaO in the sample?23.8%
A mixture containing FeCl3 and AlCl3 only weighs 750.8 mg. Calculate
the percentage Al in the sample.41.2%
What is the extent of ionization of the second proton of 0.5M H2SO4 at
25C?2%
What weight of Mn ore should be taken si that the percentage of MnO2
in the ore would be twice the mass of Mn3O4 precipitate obtained in
milligram?57 mg
What volume of 0.1025M HCl must be added to 15.64mL of 0.0956 M
NH3 to produce a solution of pH = 9?9.3 mL
Approximately how many grams of NH4Cl should be dissolved in a liter
of 0.125 F NH3 to reduce the concentration of hydroxide ions to one-
thousandth of its original value?79.1g
Calculate the molarity of NaOH solution if 12.25 mL was used to titrate
0.2615 gram of primary standard KHP.0.1045
In standardizing a solution of NaOH against 1.431 grams KHP. 35.5mL
alkali. What is the molarity of the NaOH solution?0.2598M
A 0.2055g sample of calcite is treated with 27.18 mL of 0.0712 N HCl.
Calculate the percentage purity of calcite in terms of % wt/wt CaCO3.
35.6%
Calculate the purity of the sample containing NaHCO3 only. 10.64%
What is the %wt of NaOH for the sample containing a mixture of NaOH-
Na2CO3? 1.82%
A 7.279 gram sample of meat was analyzed for its nitrogen content using
Kjeldahl Method. The resulting solution was titrated with 37.25mL of
0.3122M HCl using mixed indicator. Determine the % protein in the
sample using 6.25 as factor for meat products. 13.98%
 INTRODUCTION TO WASTE MANAGEMENT AND REGULATORY OVERVIEW
A 1.5 gram sample of impure aluminum chloride was dissolved in water
and treated with 45.32mL of 0.1000M AgNO3 using K2CrO4 as
indicator. Express the analysis in %AlCl3. 13.43%
A mixture of LiBr and BaBr2 weighing 800 mg is treated with 50 mL
of 0.1879 M AgNO3. What is the percentage of BaBr2 in the sample?
67.95%
A 500 mg sample containing NaCN required 23.5 mL of 0.1255 M
AgNO3 to obtain a permanent faint turbidity. Express the result of this
analysis as % CN. 30.67%
An EDTA solution was prepared by dissolving the disodium salt in 1L
of water. The standard solution was used to determine the hardness of a
2L sample of mineral water which required 35.7mL of EDTA solution.
Express the analysis in terms of ppm CaCO3. 316ppm
The 300 mg sample of impure Na2SO4 was dissolved in sufficient water
and the sulfate was precipitated by the addition of 35 mL of 0.1022 M
BaCl2. Calculate the purity of the sample. 90%
At pH = 7 and a pressure of 1 bar, the potential for the half reaction 2H
+ 2e = H2 is. -0.414V
What is the molality of a KMnO4 solution standardized against 1.356
gram Na2C2O4 requiring 25.1mL of the solution in acidic medium?
0.161M
A sample of iron ore weighing 385.6mg was dissolved in acid and
passed through a Jones reductor. Calculate %Fe3O4 in the ore sample.
90.30%
A sample of pyrolusite weighing 0.24 gram was treated with excess KI.
The iodine liberated required 46.24 mL of 0.1105M Na2SO3 solution.
Calculate the % MnO2 in the sample. 92.54%
A 10 gram sample of cooked ham was pureed with 200mL of water,
filtered and the resulting solution containing dissolved potassium nitrite
was acidified. Calculate the amount of nitrite. 900
A 100 mL water sample was analyzed by Winkler Method. If 7.52 mL
of 0.0124M Na2S2O3 was used for titration, determine the ppm of O2
in the water sample. 7.5
A 500 mg sample of a solution containing cobalt and nickel was
dissolved and diluted to 50 mL. Given table. Calculate the concentration
of Co in the solution in ppm. 2343ppm
What is the concentration of the Ag+ ion in a saturated solution of AgCl?
Ksp = 1.7x-10. 1.3x10-5 M
A 0.2M solution of weak acid HA is 0.6% ionized. What is the value of
Ka for this acid? 7.2x10-6
Calculate the pH of an aqueous buffer solution which contains
0.10mol/L NH3 and 0.2 mol/L NH4Cl. 9
100 mL of NaOH solution is added to 150 mL of 0.2M HAc solution.
Calculate the final H+ ion concentration. 3.7x10-5M
A 5.82 gram silver is dissolved in nitric acid. When sodium chloride is
added to the solution, all
the silver is precipitated as AgCl. Determine the % silver in the coin.
93.1%
22-11
What volume of a 1M solution HCl is required to neutralize 80 mL of
0.5M NaOH? 40 mL
A 1 gram sample of a mixture contains only NaCl and KCl gave a
precipitate of AgCl which weighed 2 g. What is the %K in the mixture?
45%
In standardizing a solution of HCl, it is found that 47.26 mL of the acid
are equivalent to 1,216 g of pure Na2CO3. What is the normality of the
acid? 0.4855N
What is the pH of a solution of 0.0500 M NH3? Kb for NH3= 1.8E-5.
11
A mixture containing only KCl and NaBr is analyzed by the Mohr
method. A blank titration requires 0.71mL of titrant to reach the same
end point. Report the %w/w KCl in the sample. 82.6%
The concentration of a solution of EDTA was determined by
standardizing against a solution of Ca2+ prepared using a primary
standard of CaCO3. After adding calmagite as an indicator, the solution
was titrated with the EDTA, requiring 42.63mL to reach the end point.
Molar concentration of EDTA in the titrant. 9.53E-3
A 0.917 g sample of canned tuna was analyzed by modified Kjeldahl
method. Calculate the percentage of nitrogen in the sample. 3.93%
A 0.7535 g sample of wheat flour was analysed by the Kjeldahl method.
Calculate mass of nitrogen in the sample in grams. Given that proteins
are 5.7% nitrogen by mass, calculate the percentage protein in the flour.
39.2%
The concentration of LiOH is 0.50M. If 25mL of LiOH is needed to
titrate 40 mL of HNO3 what is the concentration of the acid? 0.3125M
What is the pH of a solution composed of 0.20M NH3 and 0.15M
NH4Cl? 9.38
A 50mL of 0.050M HCl is to be titrated with 0.10M NaOH. Before the
addition of any titrant what is the pH of the solution? 1.3
After the addition of 10 ml of NaOH, what is the new pH of the
solution? 1.6
After the addition of 30 ml of NaOH, what is the new pH of the
solution? 11.8
How many grams of solid KF (MW = 58.1 g/mol) should be added to
1.00 L of 0.250 M HF to make a buffer of pH = 3.143? Ka for HF = 7.20
x 10-4. 14.5g
THERMODYNAMICS
It is defined as the fraction 1/273.16 of the temperature of the triple point of
water. Kelvin
The amount of heat absorbed when CO2 gas reacts with a solid CaO to form
solid CaCO3 is measured in a bomb calorimeter. The data obtained give a
direct measure of. ΔU
Heat required to raise the temperature of one pound mass of a substance by
1ºF. BTU
Which of the following physical quantities is not conserved in a given
process? Entropy
 INTRODUCTION TO WASTE MANAGEMENT AND REGULATORY OVERVIEW
During adiabatic expansion of an ideal gas, work is done by the system and
its internal energy decreases
All of the following have standard enthalpy of formation values equal to zero
at 25ºC except. Na
The work that may be performed on a system ___ when the opposing
pressure differs only infinitesimally in magnitude from the internal pressure
of the gas itself. Minimum
Which of the following statements is true?(a)work or mechanical energy can
spontaneously be converted completely to heat or thermal energy.(b)thermal
energy with some effort, can only be partially converted to mechanical
energy.(c)For a closed system operating adiabatically, work is obtained from
the direct conversion of internal energy of the fluid to work. (d) all of these
A Carnot cycle operates on the following processes. two isothermal and two
isentropic processes
The natural flow of heat is described in the statement of Clausius
Which of the following is true about the Otto cycle? The thermal efficiency
is greatly influenced by the compression ratio and the specific heat ratio of
the working fluid.
Which of the following statements is false in terms of increasing the
efficiency of the ideal Rankine cycle? Increasing the boiler pressure will
increase the efficiency and reduces the moisture content of the steam.
A sample of an ideal gas is allowed to escape reversibly and isothermally
into a vacuum. Which statement is correct? W=Q=ΔU=0
The ratio of coefficient of thermal expansion, α and isothermal
compressibility, қTis equivalent to. (𝜕P/𝜕T)V
Which of the following reaction will result to an increase in entropy?I2(s)↔
I2(l)
If a forward reaction is observed to be spontaneous, which of the following
is possible if its reverse reaction is spontaneous at high temperature?ΔH(-)
and ΔS(-)
In a Rankine cycle, the condition of steam leaving the turbine could be any
one of the following except. saturated liquid
(18)A refrigerant whose molecular formula is CBrF2CBrF2 is labeled as R-
114B2
Calculate the Joule-Thomson coefficient, μ (K-MPa-1) of a
chlorofluorocarbon (Cp=0.6923 kJ-kg-1-K-1) using the following data at
25ºC. 28.8
A 400 mg sample of liquid ethanol was burned in a bomb calorimeter
resulting to a rise of 2.86ºC. Calculate the molar heat of combustion of
ethanol at constant pressure…-1367 kJ-mol-1
Refer to the following data for two moles of nitrogen gas which obey the van
der Waals equation of state: T1= 250K, V1= 5L, T2= 100K, Cv= 28 J-mol-1-
K-1, a= 0.1408, b= 3.913x10-5. What is the change in the internal energy (kJ)
accompanying the reversible expansion of this gas to a final volume of 80L?
-8.3. If the expansion was adiabatic, what is the final volume (L) of the gas?
107.8
Calculate the work (J) done by a sample of 0.10 mole Ne gas that expands
isothermally from 0.6L to 1.2L at 0ºC according to the following conditions:
against a constant external pressure of 0.9 atm. 55. against a variable pressure
which varies with volume according to the expression PVn=k and with the
22-11
given data: 7 reversibly assuming gas is ideal. 157. reversibly assuming gas
obeys van der Waals equation of state(a=0.86). 151
Twenty grams of oxygen gas at 25ºC expands adiabatically and reversibly
from an initial pressure of 0.1 atm to 3 atm. Final temperature (ºC) of the
gas. -85. If expansion was done against a constant external pressure of 1atm,
calculate the work (J) done by the gas. 1428
Steam at 300ºC and 2MPa enters a nozzle with inlet diameter of 5cm at a
steady state flow rate og 0.5 kg-sec-1. If heat is lost is lost at a rate of 10kJ/s
and steam leaves the nozzle at 200ºC and 1.4 MPa, determine the outlet
diameter of the nozzle.1.2cm
It is proposed to warm a collector plate with solar energy. The collected
energy is then transferred as heat to a fluid in a heat engine which in turn
rejects heat to the atmosphere. If 200BTU/hr-ft2 of energy can be collected
when the plate is operating at 190ºF...92ft2
What is the minimum work (BTU) required to produce 10lbs of ice from
water initially at 32ºF assuming that the surrounding air is at 85ºF…155
A certain process requires cooling of a brine solution continuously from 70ºF
to 30ºF. The atmospheric temperature is 80ºF. There is an available
refrigerator with a power requirement of 40kW.Can this refrigerator…no
Ice cube initially at -5ºC weighs 20g and dropped into an insulated vessel
conta8ining 100g of water at 90ºC. What is the final temperature of the water
after the ice melted and a constant temperature has been reached? 61.3ºC.
What is the entropy change (J/K) accompanying this process? 7.7
Calculate the change in molar Gibbs free energy of liquid water treated as
incompressible fluid when pressure is increased from 1 bar to 2 bar at 298K.
1.8J/mol
Steam at 300ºC and 1MPa enters a turbine at a rate of 5kg/s. The turbine is
well insulated and operates at steady state. The steam outlet pressure is 0.7
MPa. Using the following data, calculate the following:
Calculate the work obtained from the turbine if the process is isentropic.
442kW. If the outlet temperature was measured to be 225ºC at the same outlet
pressure, what is the isentropic efficiency of the turbine? 98.5%
An ideal Otto cycle has a compression ratio of 10. Air at 100kPa and 25ºC
undergoes isentropic compression and 1000kJ/kg of heat was transferred to
air at constant volume. Assume air behaves like an ideal gas and its
properties remain constant with Cp= 1.005 kJ/kg-K and ϒ=1.4, calculate the
following: thermal efficiency, ƞ.0.60. mean effective pressure (kPa). 781
An ideal Diesel engine uses air initially at 20ºC and 90 kPa at the beginning
of the compression process. If the compression ratio is 15 and the maximum
temperature in the cycle is 2000ºC, determine the:. net work (kJ) produced.
812. mean effective pressure (kPa). 930. cut-off ratio. 2.6
A simple Rankine cycle operates such that the condenser produces saturated
water at 70ºC. Water is compressed to 5MPa and heated in the boiler to
produce saturated steam. Assume pump and turbine to operate isentropically.
Using the following steam table, calculate the following:
Quality of steam produced from the turbine. 0.74 Thermal efficiency of the
cycle. 0.31. What is the mass flow rate (kg/s) of steam required to produce
500 kW net power using this cycle? 0.65. Is the thermal efficiency of the
cycle is 25%, calculate the steam quality leaving the turbine. 0.80
An ideal vapor-compression refrigerant cycle operates between 0.1 MPa and
0.8 MPa uses refrigerant-134a as working fluid. Using the data below,
determine the following:
Quality of the vapor from the throttling valve. 0.36. COP 3.21. If the
throttling valve is replaced by an expansion turbine, calculate the COP of the
 INTRODUCTION TO WASTE MANAGEMENT AND REGULATORY OVERVIEW 22-11

cycle4.25. Evaluate the expansion coefficient, α for an ideal gas at STP. A centrifuge with a bowl which is 500mm long and has an inside radius of
3.6610x10-3/K 50.5 mm is to be used to separate crystals from a dilute aqueous mother
liquor. The optimum speed of rotation for the centrifuge is 60,000 rpm, and
the discharge weir is adjusted so that the depth of liquid at the bowl wall is
38.5 mm. The crystals are approximately spherical and none are smaller that
Centrifugation 2x10-6 m in diameter. The maximum volumetric flow rate in m3/s of the
mother liquor that can be processed by this centrifuge if all the crystals have
The capacity in cubic meters per hour of a clarifying centrifuge operating to be removed is 0.054
under these conditions is 210m3/h
A centrifuge with a radius of 76.2 mm rotates at a peripheral velocity of
Diameter of the bowl= 600mm 53.34m/s. The centrifugal force developed compared to gravitational force
Thickness of liquid layer= 75mm in the bowl centrifuge is 3800g
Depth of the bowl= 400mm
Speed= 1200rpm A centrifuge bowl is spinning at a constant speed of 2000 rpm. The radius of
Specific gravity of liquid= 1.2 bowl in cm needed to create a force of 455g is 10.2
Specific gravity of solid= 1.6
Viscosity of liquid= 2cp For the separation of sugar solution from settled out mud, we use centrifugal
Cut size of particles= 30μm filter
If a centrifuge is 3ft diameter and rotates at 1000rpm, the speed of laboratory Moisture can be removed from lubricating oil using tubular centrifuge
centrifuge of 6 in.diameter be ran if it is to duplicate plant conditions is
2449rpm Which of the following can be most effectively used for clarification of lube
oil and printing ink? Sharpless supercentrifuge
A centrifuge with a phosphor bronze basket, 380 mm in diameter, is to be
run at 67 Hz with a 75 mm layer of liquid of density 1200kg/m3 in the basket. If the radius of a basket centrifuge is halved and the rpm is doubled, then the
What thickness of wall is required in the basket? The density of phosphor centrifugal force is doubled
bronze is 8900kg/m3 and the maximum safe stress for phosphor bronze is
87.6 MN/m2. 15.1mm Where the difference in density of the two liquid phases to be separated is
very small (as in milk cream separator), the most suitable separator is disc
In a test conducted using a laboratory centrifuge, it was found that the bond centrifuge
optimum recovery of protein from coconut oil was achieved with an rpm of
2,500. Industrial size centrifuge comes in 3.5, 3.0, 3.5, 4.0, and 5.0 ft
diameter with warranty if the centrifuge is operated not over 1000 rpm. For Diffusion
optimum commercial operations, the centrifuge size you will recommend is.
3.0 ftper ft The enrichment of ethyl alcohol in the vapor phase from an aqueous ethyl
alcohol solution during rectification is an example of
Determine the filtration rate that can be expected from a basket centrifugal equimolalcounterdiffusion
filter using the data below:
Basket height= 12in The diffusivity of a binary system as given in the equation of Fick’s Law is
Inside basket diam.= 26 in usually measured relative to the volume-mean velocity of components A and
Rotation rate= 2000rpm B
Material to be filtered: gypsum slurry,α= 2.52x1011/lb;Ɛ= 0.5
Specific gravity of CaSO4•2H2O = 2.65 The molecular diffusion flux of A is 4.0x10-7 gmoles/s-cm2 at 298 K and 1
Assume that the cake is incompressible, filter medium resistance is atm. What will be the bulk velocity in cm/s if the diffusion flux relative to a
negligible and the liquid surface corresponds to the filter cake surface and stationary observer is 8.0x10-7 gmole/s-cm2 and the mole fraction of A is
the thickness of the cake is 1in. 0.60gpm 0.015? 0.65
A batch centrifugal filter having a bowl diameter of 750 mm and a bowl The diffusivity of a component A relative to itself, that is DAA. has a physical
height of 450mm is used to filter a suspension having the following meaning and can be measured
properties:
The Reynolds Analogy is applied when the Prandtl Number is unity
Temperature: liquid, water= 25ºC; Porosity of cake= 0.435
Final thickness of cake= 150mm The molar flux of component A in molecular diffusion is independent of
Specific cake resistance= 9.5x1010ft/lb mass transfer area
Filter medium resistance= 2.6x1010 per ft
Speed of centrifuge=2000 rpm A dimensionless number that represents the ratio of the mass transferred by
Density of dry solid in cake= 2000kg/m3 molecular diffusion to the total mass transferred. (a)Sherwood No.
Conc.of solids in feed= 60g/L (b)Reynolds No. (c)Schmidt No. (d) None of these
The final cake is washed with water under such conditions that the radius of The molar diffusion flux of A relative to a stationary plane is a combination
the inner surface of the liquid is 200mm. Assuming that the rate of flow of of phase drift + molecular diffusion
wash water equals the final rate of flow of filtrate, the rate of washing in
m3/hr?0.60 The Fick’s Law of Diffusion gives the rate of diffusion based on
concentration driving force
The capacity of a Sharples centrifuge is estimated to increase/decrease by
___% if its speed is doubled and the cut size of the particles is reduced by Equimolar counter-diffusion means that the bulk in terms of moles is not
20%. 156% moving
 INTRODUCTION TO WASTE MANAGEMENT AND REGULATORY OVERVIEW
For a gas phase diffusion, unicomponent diffusion through gas-liquid
interface will likely to occur if one component is soluble and the other is not
The rate of mass transfer of component A through an interface in a turbulent
flow system is less affected by the flow rate of gas and liquid
For a binary unicomponent diffusion, the concentration profile of the
diffusing component along the diffusion path is logarithmic
The transport analogy among mass, heat and momentum transfers is
complete when no convective flux or phase drift is involved
A wetted-wall column is usually used to determine mass transfer coefficient
experimentally because the mass transfer are can be measured accurately
It provides the basis for the quantitative description of the diffusional
phenomena of molecules.Kinetic Theory of Gases
The method of solute transfer which involves rapid movement of large
chunks of fluid in turbulent motion eddy diffusion
Ammonia (A) being absorbed from air (B) into water is an example of steady
state unicomponent diffusion
In steady-state equimolalcounterdiffusion, the following are true: NA=-
NB;NA+NB is zero
It represents the total mass transferred to mass transferred by molecular
diffusion. Sherwood Number
The flux of A in unicomponenrt diffusion is different from that of
equimolalcounterdiffusion because of the bulk motion of the phase
It is a measure of the diffusive mobility of individual molecules in solution.
Diffusion coefficient
The volumetric diffusivity of a binary mixture is 0.934 ft 2/hr at 30ºC and 2
atm. The molal diffusivity for a similar mixture is ___lbmole/ft-hr. 4.688x10-
3
The diffusivity of benzene in air at 0ºC and 1 atm is 0.299ft 2/hr. The
diffusivity of benzene in air at 22ºC and 1atm is. 0.089 cm2/s
Ethyl alcohol is diffusing into an alcohol-water solution at 18ºC. The
concentration of alcohol in the bulk of the solution is negligible, while that
at the surface of the solution is 0.12g/cc. The film thickness is 0.15cm and
the diffusivity is 1x10-5 cm2/s. The mass of alcohol diffusing through 100 ft2
of interface per hour is. 6 lb
The diffusivity of ethyl alcohol in air at 25ºC and 1atm is 0.135cm2/s. Based
on Chen and Othmer diffusivity empirical correlation, the diffusivity at 80ºC
and 1atm, in cm2/s is. 0.1834
The diffusivity of the air in ethyl alcohol at 25ºC and 3 atm in ft2/hr is 0.1744
Using the appropriate transport analogy, estimate the MTC in ft/hr for NH3-
air-water system in a wetted wall column where Nre=25 000, Nsc=1.8 and the
average velocity of the gas is 1.2 ft/s. 8.904
Acetic acid is diffusing in aqueous solution at 298K inside a 2-cm diameter
tube 100cm long. Determine the total diffusion rate of acetic acid in gmole/s
if the concentration at one end is 0.125 and on the other end 0.051
gmole/cm3. 2.93 x 10-8
A 4mm diameter tube, 40cm long, closed at one end and standing vertically
on its closed end, is partially filled with a liquid up to 18mm from the open
top. A gentle stream of air is flowing across the top of the tube. The
22-11
temperature of the liquid remains constant at 17ºC. Diffusion takes
place…1.91 x 10-5m2/s
A sphere of naphthalene having a radius of 2 mm is suspended in a large
volume of still air at 318 K and 1 atm. The surface temperature of the
naphthalene can be assumed to 318 K. The diffusivity at 318 K and 1 atm is
6.92 X 10-6 m2/s and its vapor pressure at 318 K is 0.555 mm Hg. The rate
evaporation of naphthalene in gmole/s is. 4.9 x 10-9
The unicomponent mass transfer coefficient is 3.25 x 10-5kgmole/s-m2-mole
at 300 K and 2 atm. If YA1=0.26 and YA2=0.01, the equimolal MTC is ___
kgmole/s-m2-mole. 2.792 x 10-5
The equivalent equimolal MTC for the above problem in lbmole/hr-ft2-atm
is 0.0205
Based on the penetration theory, the MTC will increase/decrease by a factor
of __ if the contact time of the diffusing phases is tripled. 0.5773
The time it will take to evaporate a 10 mm unknown liquid at 25ºC (density=
40 lb/ft3, MW = 60) in a 5-m diameter circular tank is ___hr. The vapor
pressure at 25ºC is 180 mm Hg, pressure is atmospheric and DV=0.0329
ft2/hr. Stagnant air film is 10 mm. 31.6hr
Process Control
The simplest mode of control which is characteristic of a two-position
control commonly utilized in a thermostat for controlling the temperature of
heaters, air-conditioners, refrigerators,etc. on-off control
It is a control system in which the control action is independent of the output.
Open-loop system
An arrangement of physical components connected or related in such a
manner as to command, direct or regulate itself or another system. Control
system
It is the actual response obtained from the control system. It may or may not
be equal to the specified response implied by the input. Output
A control system in which the control action is somehow dependent on the
output. Closed-loop control system
A property of a closed-loop system which permits the output (or some other
controlled variable) to be compared with the input to the system (or the input
to some other internally situated component or subsystem) so that the
appropriate control action may be formed as some fraction of the output and
input. Feedback control system
A frequency response measure of how well the system responds to variations
in the input signal. Bandwidth
A signal defined at, or of interest at, only discrete (distinct) instants of the
variable (upon which it depends). a digital signal
A device that converts an analog or continuous signal into a discrete or
digital signal. analog-to digital (A/D) converter
It is used to convert one signal or energy form into another. Transducer
The part of the deviation of the response which approaches zero as time
approaches infinity. Steady state response
The integral of a unit step function is also known as. Unit ramp function
 INTRODUCTION TO WASTE MANAGEMENT AND REGULATORY OVERVIEW 22-11

When the total number of variables in a process is greater than the number
of independent equations that can be set-up, the process is said to be.
Underspecified
A control structure with two feedback controllers with the output of the
primary controller changing the set-point of the secondary controller whose
output goes to the final controller. Cascade control
Consider the characteristic equation of a certain closed-loop control system,
S3 + 3S2 + ( K + 2)S + 4 = 0. The range of K so that system is stable is.
K>0.5328
Write the transfer function of a system with a gain factor of 2, poles at 0, -3
and at -1±2j and zeroes -2±j. 2(s2 + 4s + 5)/ s(s+3)( s2 + 2s +5)

A type of advanced control system that identifies continuously online the
parameters of the process as they change and returns the controller
appropriately. Adaptive control
A sensor usually made of a semiconductor that utilizes the effect of
temperature on the resistance to current is called a. thermistor
Given the characteristics equation of a closed loop transfer function, 2s3+4s2
+4s+12= 0. The system is. Unstable
A system has poles at -1, -5 and zeroes at 1 and -2. Is the system stable or
not? Stable
The amplitude ratio for the transfer function 2/(s + 2) for ω=2 is. 0.707
The phase angle for the transfer function given in the Problem is__degrees.
-45
A sinusoidal input X= 2sin2t is applied to a system with the transfer function
G(s) = 2/s (s + 2). The steady state output as a function of t is.
Y= 0.707 sin (2t – 135)
The gain margin of a system with a transfer function of 1/(s +1)3 is. 8
The phase margin of the system in the Problem is___ degrees. -180

If a step function is applied to the input of a system and the output is of the The range of value of K for a system with characteristics equation given by
form Y=t, is the system stable or unstable? Unstable s4 + 6s3 + 11s2 + 6s + K = 0 is. 0<K<10

If a step function is applied to the input of a system and the output remains
below a certain level for all time, is the system necessarily stable? False

Is the system with a transfer function Y(s) = (s-1)/(s+2) (s2+4) stable or

unstable? Stable

A proportional controller exhibits a large offset. This offset can be eliminated

without altering the proportional constant KC by. adding an integral control

If a step function is applied to the input of a system and the output is of the
form Y=etsint, the system is. Unstable

A spring motion is described by the differential equation x’’(t) + 5x(t) + 6x(t)

= 0. The motion of the spring is. Overdamped

A PI controller of a first order process is subjected to a unit step input. If the

integral constant is fixed, decreasing the proportional gain will. Increase the
overshoot

In the control of pressure in a distillation column, there is no need to include.

Derivative control

The integral of a Dirac function is a. Step function

A PID controlled process has a highly oscillating response. The process can
be stabilized by. Decreasing proportional gain.

A PI controller of a first order process is subjected to a unit step input. If the

integral constant is fixed, increasing the proportional gain will. Decrease the
overshoot

A pneumatic proportional controller is used to control the temperature within

the range of 60ºF to 100ºF. The controller is adjusted so that the output
pressure goes from 3 psi, with the valve fully open, to 15 psi, with the valve
fully closed, as the measured temperature goes from 71ºF to 75ºF with the
set point held constant. The gain of the control element in psi/ºF is. 3

The proportional band of the above controller is. 10%

A thermometer with a time constant of 0.2 min is placed in a temperature

bath, and after the thermometer comes to equilibrium with the bath, the
temperature of the bath is increased linearly with the time at a rate of 1 degree
per min. The difference between the indicated temperature and the bath
temperature after 1.0 min is. 0.20º