39 Velocity head in a critical flow is equal to

(a) Half the depth of flow (b) Two times the depth of flow (c) Equal to the depth of flow
40 Froude No. for a critical flow will be
(a) Equal to 1 (b) Less than one (c) Equal to the velocity of flow
41 Reynolds No. has
(a) Same units as that of the velocity (b) Not any units (c) Units of distance
42 Reynolds No. is higher in case of
(a) Laminar flow (b) Turbulent flow (c) Transitional flow
43 For a water flow velocity of √2g ft/sec the velocity head will be
(a) 1 ft of water (b) 9.8 ft of water (c) 2g
44 For an open channel flow the hydraulic grade line is
(a) The same as water surface profile (b) The same as energy grade line (c) The same as the bed
profile of the channel (d)
45 For an open channel flow the most efficient cross section is
(a) The semi circular section (b) The rectangular section (c) The trapezoidal section
46 Standard penetration test is recommended for determining the bearing capacity of
(a) Sandy soil (b) Clayey soil (c) Soil containing boulders (d) Rocks
47 Field density of gravelly soil is accurately determined by
(a) Core cutter method (b) Sand cone method (c) Cassagrande apparatus (d) Pycnometer
48 Common range of specific gravity of soil is
(a) 2.6-2.8 (b) 60-70 (c) 13.6-14.6 (d) 100-120
49 The angle of internal friction of soil is greater if the particles are
(a) Angular in shape (b) Rounded (c) Flaky in shape (d) Sub-rounded
50 Sandy soils generally have color
(a) Brown (b) Grey (c) White (d) Black
51 A soil is most suitable for subgrade construction if it is
(a) Highly plastic (b) Non plastic (c) Organic(d) Cohesive
52 For highway construction the soil is classified according to
(a) AASHTO soil classification system (b) FAA soil classification system (c) USC soil
classification system (d) Textural soil classification
53 Which of the following statements is correct
(a) 100% saturation line and zero percent air void line are identical (b) 100% saturation line is
above the zero percent air void line (c) 100% saturation line is below the zero percent air void line
(d) 100% saturation line intersects the zero percent air void line
54 Oven temperature of 110o ± 50o C is used for determination of water content of
(a) All types of soil (b) For most of the soil types (c) Soil containing gypsum and organic matter (d)
Soil containing organic matter only
55 Which of the following statements is correct
(a) A well graded soil contains particles of one size (b) A gap graded soil is also called a uniform
soil (c) Well graded soil contains particles over a wide range of sizes (d) A well graded soil means
a fine grained soil
56 Which of the following statements is correct
(a) The liquidity index cannot be more than 1.0 (b) The liquidity index can be more than 1.0 (c)
Consistency index cannot be negative (d) P.I. = P.L. – L.L.
57 Which of the following statements is correct
(a) At shrinkage limit the soil is fully saturated (b) At shrinkage limit the soil is partially saturated
(c) Shrinkage limit is more than liquid limit (d) For clayey soil shrinkage limit is equal to plastic
limit
58 Which of the following statements is correct
(a) The upstream face of an earth dam is an equipotential line (b) The pheriatic line is an equipotential
line(c) The pheriatic line at the entrance may rise upwards (d) The upstream face of an earth dam is
a flow line
59 Which of the following statements is correct
(a) Quick sand is a type of sand (b) Quick sand condition can develop even is gravels (c) Piping is
the same as quick sand (d) There is no difference between quick sand and soil boiling
60 The decrease in volume under sustained static load on a saturated soil is called
(a) Compaction (b) Consolidation (c) Creep (d) Shear strength
61 Pick out the factor that is essential in estimating the quantity of water required for a water supply
scheme
(a) Quantity of rainfall (b) Rate of demand (c) Type of treatment plant (d) Catchment area
62 In a watersupply project, the distribution system will have to be designed for
(a) Present population (b) Future population at end of one decade (c) Future population at end of 3
decades (d) Future population at end of 9 decades
63 The total solids in water are due to the presence of
(a) Suspended and dissolved solids (b) Suspended and dissolved solids (c) Colloidal and settleable
solids (d) Colloidal and bacterial load
64 Temporary hardness in water is due to the presence of
(a) Chloride hardness (b) Carbonate hardness (c) Calcium hardness (d) Manganese hardness
65 PH value of potable water is
(a) 3 to 5 (b) 10.5 to 12.6 (c) 6.5 to 8 (d) 1.5 to 2
66 The process of killing infective bacteria in water is called
(a) Sterilisation (b) Disinfection (c) Coagulation (d) Sedimentation
67 The detention period for water in a sedimentation tank is
(a) 1 to 2 hours (b) 2 to 4 hours (c) 4 to 8 hours (d) 8 to 10 hours
68 Alum is used for the process of
(a) Filtration (b) Coagulation (c) Softening (d) Disinfection
69 The slow sand filter is more efficient in removing bacteria because
(a) Effective size of sand grains is small (b) Uniformity coefficient of sand is small (c) Water is
pretreated (d) Size of filter is large
70 Normal dosage of chlorine in public watersupply scheme is
(a) 0.05 to 0.2 ppm (b) 0.2 to 0.5 ppm (c) 0.5 to 1.0 ppm (d) 1 to 2 ppm
71 Algea growth is controlled by
(a) Chlorination (b) Aeration (c) Filtration (d) Bleaching
72 The type of layout distribution system adopted for unplanned cities and for irregularly growing
town is
(a) Grid-iron (b) Circular (c) Radia (d) Dead-end
73 Air relief water in distribution system are provided at
(a) Dead-ends in distribution system (b) Junctions of main and branch pipes (c) Summit points on
water mains (d) Places where the pressure is minimum
74 The function of skimming tank is to remove
(a) Oily and fatty substance (b) Suspended solids (c) Gritty substance (d) Inorganic substance
75 What is the detention period allowed for oxidation ponds
(a) 1 to 2 weeks (b) 2 to 3 weeks (c) 3 to 4 weeks (d) 4 to 5 weeks
76 Factor of safety is defined as the ratio of
(a) Working stress to ultimate stress (b) Working load to ultimate load (c) Ultimate load to working
load (d) Yield stress to working stress
77 Poisson’s ratio is defined as the ratio of
(a) Lateral strain to stress (b) Longitudinal strain to lateral strain (c) Lateral strain to longitudinal
strain (d) Stress to longitudinal strain
78 In the case of pin jointed frames the members carry
(a) Only bending moment (b) Only axial forces (c) Axial forces and bending moments (d) None of
the above
79 Strain energy stored in a rigid body is equal to
(a) Infinite (b) The strain energy due to axial force only (c) Zero (d) None of these
80 Principal planes are planes of
(a) Maximum shearing stress (b) Zero shearing stress (c) Shearing stress having magnitude of 50%
of principal stress (d) Maximum shearing force
81 Hardy-Cross method is nothing but
(a) Slope deflection method (b) Moment distribution method (c) Column analogy method (d)
Consistant deformation method
82 The shear force at any section of the conjugate beam will give
(a) Slope (b) The bending moment (c) The deflection (d) Shearing force at the same section in the
original beam
83 In the case of a fixed beam carrying a general type of loading the degree of indeterminacy is equal
to
(a) Two (b) Three (c) Nil (d) Four
84 Slenderness ratio is defined as the ratio of the length of the column to its
(a) Least lateral dimension (b) Least radius of gyration (c) Maximum lateral dimension (d) Area of
cross-section
85 In the case of a truss, minimum number of rivets required for the connection of a mumber toa
gusset plate is
(a) One (b) Two (c) Three (d) Depending on the load carried by the member
86 Pitch of a truss is the ratio of
(a) The rise to the span (b) The span to the rise (c) The rise to the spacing of the trusses (d) None of
these
87 In the case of plate girders, the shear force for the girder is assumed to be resisted entirely by the
(a) Flange (b) Web (c) Cover plates (d) Flange angles
88 Granite is an example of
(a) Igneous rocks (b) Sedimentary rocks (c) Metamorphic rocks (d) Calcareous rocks
89 Excess of alumina causes the raw brick
(a) To shrink and warp while drying (b) To melt and run out of shape (c) To decay (d) Magnesia
90 Major constituent of good brick earth is
(a) Alumina (b) Iron oxide (c) Silica (d) Magnesia
91 A good brick should not absorb more than
(a) 20% of its own weight of water (b) 10% of its own weight of water (c) 5% of its own weight of
water (d) 30% of its own weight of water
92 Quick line is obtained when calcium carbonate
(a) is burnt in kilns (b) is mixed with water (c) is slaked (d) is exposed to atmosphere
93 Rapid hardening cement is used for structures
(a) where load is to be brought after sufficient time (b) where load is to be brought at an early stage
(c) built in earthquake region (d) which are not designed for wind loads
94 Slump test gives an idea of
(a) the flowing property of wet concrete (b) the compressive strength of concrete (c) the tensile
strength of concrete (d) none of the above
95 If water cement ratio increases the strength of concrete
(a) increases slowly (b) increases rapidly (c) decreases (d) will not be affected
96 Steam curing
(a) increases the rate of hydration of cement (b) decreases the rate of hydration of cement (c) has no
effect on rate of hydration of cement (d) is not advisable
97 High density concrete is mainly used
(a) for multi storeyed concrete structures (b) in the case of partition walls (c) for radiation sheilding
(d) one of the above
98 Seasoning of timber means
(a) drying of wood to required moisture (b) measurement of timber to find the volume of it (c)
cutting of timber to the required sizes (d) trimming off the unwanted projections in the timber
99 Cast iron is a
(a) ductile metal (b) malleable metal (c) brittle metal (d) metal which can be forged
100 Copper is used as a
(a) Conducting material (b) Magnetic material (c) Insulating material (d) Fusing material