CH01 QUESTIONS ELECTRICAL POWER SYSTEM

1. A good battery should supply 6. If the generators are not

power to the hot battery bus and the operating, the voltmeter reads battery
emergency bus for approximately: voltage when the battery switch is in:
A. 2 hours A. OFF
B. 1 hour B. BATT
C. 30 minutes C. EMER
D. 10 minutes D. B and C
2. The crossfeed bus serves as: 7. The light in each engine
A. A power-off DC source start button illuminates to indicate:
B. An emergency power source A. Starting is complete
C. An extension bus B. Opening of the start relay
D. A generator tie bus C. Closing of the start relay
D. Generator disconnect
3. In flight, with the generators on
line, the battery is isolated from any 8. The generator field relay opens
charging source when the battery
when:
switch is in:
A. An internal feeder fault is sensed
A. OFF
B. An overvoltage condition is
B. BATT
sensed
C. EMER
C. An engine fire switch is
D. Both A and C
activated
4. If manual termination of a start D. All of the above
sequence is desired, the switch to press
is: 9. If a battery start is intended, the
generator switches should be placed to:
A. ENGINE START
B. STARTER DISENGAGE A. OFF
C. LH START B. GEN
D. RH START C. RESET
D. ON
5. The voltage read on the
voltmeter with the selector switch in 10. Select the correct statement:
BATT is sensed from the: A. One inverter will supply all
A. Crossfeed bus A C electrical power requirements.
B. LH feed bus B. The No. 1 inverter is powered
C. Hot battery bus by the emergency DC bus.
D. RH feed bus C. Dual inverter failure will not
cause the MASTER WARNING
lights to illuminate.
D. Both inverters must be
operating to supply all AC power
requirements.
11. Illumination of the Inverter Fail 15. With the battery as the only
(SNs 001 through 099) annunciator source of power and the battery switch
light may be caused by: in the BATT position, the following
A. Failure of one inverter or loss condition exists:
of the circuit through any AC bus A. All DC buses are powere d
B. Failure of the respective fo r 10 minutes.
generator s u p p l y i n g p o w e r t o t h e B. All buses except the
s e l e c t e d inverter emergency bus are powered.
C. Selecting OFF with the battery C. Only the left and right main DC
switch to remove power from the buses are powered.
battery bus
D. Only the battery, emergency,
D. Failure of both generators and hot battery buses receive power.
with the battery switch in BATT
16. The primary item that
12. If both inverters fail: receives power directly from the hot
A. Refer to the pilot’s remaining battery bus is:
opera- tional flight instruments and A. KCS-55 (copilot’s DG)
land as soon as practical in BATT.
B. Nose baggage compartment light
B. The flight must be completed in
C. LH pitot-static heater
V MC D. Audio 1 and Audio 2
conditions.
C. Place the battery switch to
17. In flight, an engine start
EMER. accomplished with the start button (not
D. Place the battery switch to OFF. a windmilling start):
A. Is a generator-assist start to
13. With the battery as the only prevent excessive battery drain
source of power and the battery switch
in the OFF position, the bus(es) B. Is not possible; only
powered are: windmilling air starts are possible
C. Is a battery start as the generator
A. Crossfeed bus, hot battery bus assist is disabled in flight to
B. Hot battery bus protect the operating generator
C. Emergency bus, crossfeed bus D. Must be manually terminated
D. Emergency bus, crossfeed by the starter disengage button
bus, hot battery bus

14. With the battery as the only

source of power and the battery switch in
the EMER posi- tion, the following
bus(es) are powered:
A. Crossfeed bus, hot battery bus
B. Emergency bus, crossfeed
bus, hot battery bus
C. Emergency bus only
D. Emergency bus, hot battery bus
18. Regarding the engine starting 21. Placing the battery switch in
sequence (battery start on the ground): EMER with the generators on the line:
A. It is normally terminated by the A. Will cause loss of power to the
pilot with th e STARTER emer- gency bus since the generators
DISENGAG E button. are on the line
B. The boost pumps and ignition B. The emergency bus is powered
switches must both be in the ON by the battery
position before the start button is
depressed. C. Will still provide charging
power to the battery
C. A minimum of 57% N 2 is
required on the operating engine D. Should result in the battery
prior to starting the second engine. voltage remaining at 29.0 volts
D. It is terminated normally by the
45% N2 speed-sensing switch on the 22. Loss of both generators:
starter- generator. A. RH and LH GEN OFF
annunciator light illuminates.
19. The most correct statement is: B. RH and LH GEN OFF
A. The illumination of the annunciator light will not illuminate,
STARTER DIS- ENGAGE button is but the MAS- TER CAUTION will
a function of the panel lights control flash.
night-dim switch. C. RH and LH GEN OFF
B. The generator switches are annunciator light and MASTER
placed in the OFF position for an CAUTION lights illuminate.
EPU start. D. RH and LH GEN OFF
C. A f ai le d l ef t 225 -a mp er e annunciator light and MASTER
cu r re n t limiter prevents starting of CAUTION and Warning lights
the left engine. illuminate.
D. All of the above.
23. During engine start, the speed
sensing switch will terminate the start
20. With the electrical system sequence thus removing power from
operating nor- mally (both generators on the:
the line with the battery switch in
BATT): A. Starter-generator, engine-
driven fuel pump, and the fuel
A. The generator control units firewall shutoff valve
(GCU) s e r v e t o a u t o m a t i c a l l y
r e g u l a t e , parallel, and protect the B. Electric fuel boost pump,
generators. ignitors, and the starter-generator
B. The battery will supply power C. Electric fuel boost pump, motive
to the hot battery and emergency flow s h u t o f f v a l v e , a n d t h e f u e l
buses. l o w pressure sensor
C. Each generator will supply D. Starter-generator, generator
power to the equipment on its power relay, and manual fuel
respective feed and feed extension shutoff valve
buses.
D. The voltage of the battery and
gener- ators may be read by
momentarily selecting the desired
position with the voltage selector
switch.
24. The BATT O’TEMP light comes 26. The battery disconnect switch is
on steady and remains steady when
used for:
the flashing MASTER WARNING is
pressed out: A. Stuck start relay
A. A fir e an d explosio n hazar d B. Stuck battery relay during
now exists. battery overtemperature
B. Move the battery switch to C. Test
EMER and see the amps and volts D. All of the above
drop.
C. Select BATT switch to OFF.
D. All of the above.

25. Both engines are started and

the “AFT J-BOX LMT” light is
observed on:
A. You are airworthy; go ahead
and fly.
B. The start relay is stuck closed.
C. A 225 amp current limiter is
blown repair this before flight.
D. If a generator fails, the other
one will be able to pick up the load.
 CH02 QUESTIONS LIGHTING
1. The lighting rheostat labeled
“LEFT” controls:
A. Pilot’s instrument panel lights
B. Center instrument panel lights
C. Copilot’s instrument panel
lights
D. Both A and B
2. The lighting rheostat that
controls the electroluminescent
lighting is labeled:
A. LEFT
B. CENTER
C. RIGHT
D. EL
3. Turning the PANEL LIGHT
CONTROL master switch to ON:
A. Activates the control rheostats
B. Dims the annunciator panel
lights
C. Illuminates the STARTER
DISEN- GAGE button
D. All of the above
3-10 FOR TRAINING PURPOSES
4. The map lights are
c o n t r o l l e d w i t h rheostats located on
the:
A. Center pedestal
B. Pilot and copilot instrument
panels
C. Overhead lights panel
D. Forward side of the left and
right side consoles
5. When the indirect fluorescent
light switch is positioned to DIM, the
lights illuminate:
A. Bright for three seconds and then
dim
B. Dim
C. And dim should be used during
engine ground starts
D. After three seconds
6. When the landing gear is
retracted, the landing lights:
A. Automatically extinguish
B. R e ma i n i l l u min a t e d a n d
mus t be manually switched OFF
C. Are selected to LAND for longest
life
D. Alternately flash RH, LH, etc.
CH03 QUESTIONS MASTER WARNING SYSTEM
1. An annunciator 3. The rotary test switch:
panel light will
extinguish: A. Illuminates all annunciators
in the ANNU position
A. When pressed
B. Is spring-loaded to OFF
B. Upon landing
C. Only illuminates all red
C. When the malfunction is annunciators in the ANNU position
corrected D. Only illuminates all amber
D. If the master warning system is annunci- ators in the ANNU position
reset under all conditions

4. Amber annunciator lights

2. The MASTER WARNING illuminate:
lights illumi- nate flashing:
A. Steady
A. When any annunciator panel
light illuminates B. Flashing, then go steady
when the steady MASTER
B. When a red annunciator panel CAUTIO N light switch is pressed
light illuminates out
C. When both the L and R GEN C. And go out only when they burn
OFF annunciators illuminate
out
D. Both B and C
D. Then are pressed out by the
MASTER WARNING switchlights

CITATIONJET 525 PILOT TRAINING
CH04 QUESTIONS FUEL SYSTEM
1. The most correct 4.
answer is:
A. The FUEL BOOST pump
switches
do not have to be on for engine start.
B. With the FUEL BOOST pump
switches off, the respective boost
pump can not turn on.
C. The fuel boost pump will be
auto- matically energized
anytime the FUEL BOOST
switches are in
NORM and the START button is de-
pressed, crossfeed/fuel transfer is
selected, or low pressure (5 psi) is
sensed in the engine-supply line
(throttle at IDLE or above).
D. All of the above
2. After engine start, the fuel
boost pump is deenergized by:
A. The FUEL BOOST pump
switch
B. Start circuit termination
C. Discontinuing crossfeed/fuel
transfer
D. A time-delay relay
3. If a LH or RH FUEL LOW
LEVEL an-
nunciator light illuminates,
A. The fuel quantity indicator
must read less than 185 pounds.
B. The electric boost pump in the
ap-
propriate tank will automatically be
activated.
C. The pilot should activate the
appro- priate fuel boost pump.
D. The MASTER WARNING
light will flash.
5-16 FOR TRAINING PURPOSES
FlightSafet
y
If the LH or RH FUEL BOOST ON
white annunciators illuminate without
any action by the crew (engine operat-
ing normally), the probable cause is:
A. The engine-driven fuel
pump has failed.
B. The firewall shutoff
valve has closed.
C. The low-pressure sensing
switch has energized the boost
pump.
D. The fuel flow compensator has
ener- gized the boost pump below 5
psi.
5. To verify that crossfeed/fuel
transfer is in fact occurring, it is
necessary to:
A. Monitor the fuel quantity
indicators for appropriate quantity
changes.
B. Only observe that the white
FUEL CROSSFEED/FUEL
TRANSFER
light is on.
C. Ensure both white FUEL
BOOST ON lights are
illuminated.
D. Ensure that the FUEL BOOST
pump switch for the tank being fed
is on.
6. When crossfeed/fuel transfer is
se-
lected by positioning the fuel transfer
switch to the desired tank and the white
CROSSFEED/FUEL TRANSFER light
comes on:
A. This is normal, indicating the
valve is energized to open.
B. The boost pump did not actuate.
C. The crossfeed valve did not
fully close.
D. The crossfeed valve did not
fully open.
Revision 2
7. Operation of the primary
ejector pump is directly dependent
upon:
A. DC electrical power
B. High-pressure fuel from the
engine- driven fuel pump (motive
flow)
C. AC electrical power supplied
by the No. 1 or No. 2 inverter
D. Flow from the transfer ejector
pump
8. If the engine-driven fuel pump
fails:
A. The engine will flame out.
B. The primary ejector pump will
fail also, but the boost pump will be
en- ergized by low pressure and
will
sustain the engine.
C. The transfer ejector pump will
also be inoperative.
D. Right or left crossfeed/fuel
transfer must be selected in order
to obtain high-pressure motive flow
from the opposite engine.
9. If right or left fuel
crossfeed/transfer has been selected
and normal DC elec- trical power is
lost (battery switch in EMER with a
dual generator failure):
A. The system will remain
in fuel crossfeed/transfer.
B. The crossfeed valve will fail
closed.
C. The boost pump will be
energized to terminate fuel
crossfeed/transfer.
D. None of the above
10. The maximum normal
asymmetric fuel differential is:
A. 600 pounds
B. 400 pounds
C. 1,000 pounds
D. 200 pounds
 CH05 QUESTIONS POWERPLANT
1. Th e primar y thrus t indicato r activated.
fo r th e Williams-Rolls FJ44-1A is: C. The engine anti-ice switch is on.
A. Fuel flow D. Both A and C.
B. N1
C. ITT
D. N2

2. If one igniter should fail

during eng- ine start:
A. The engine will start normally.
B. It will result in a “hot” start.
C. Combustion will not occur.
D. The exciter box will act as a
backup and the engine will start.

3. Ignition during normal engine

start is activated by:
A. Turning the IGNITION
switches to ON at 8 to 12% N 2
B. Moving the throttle to IDLE at
8 to
12% N 2 and N 1 rotation
C. Depressing the start button
D. Nothing; Ignition not needed
during normal engine start

4. Ignition and boost pump

operation during engine start are
normally terminated by:
A. Turning the IGNITION switches
to OFF
B. T h e sp eed - sens in g s wit c h
on th e starter-generator at
approximately 45% N 2
C. Turning the boost pump switch
off
D. Opening the ignition circuit
breakers on the right-hand circuit-
breaker panel

5. Power will be automatically

applied to the igniters when the
IGNITION switch is in NORM anytime:
A. The start button is depressed
and the throttle is out of OFF.
B. The surface deice system is
6. Of the following statements oil.
concerning the FJ44-1A engine, the D. The fuel-oil cooler becomes
correct one is: clogged.
A. Fuel from the engine fuel
system is used to cool the engine 8. The maximum allowable
oil through a fuel-oil heat operating oil consumption for the
exchanger. FJ44-1A engine is:
B. The engine accessory gearbox A. 0.8 quart per hour
has its own oil lubricating system B. .023 U.S. gallon per hour
(indepen- dent of the engine itself). C. .5 gallon every 40 hours
C. The indication of low oil D. No specified figure since it
pressure is only the LH or RH OIL depends upon TBO
PRESS WARN annunciator light.
D. Electrical power is not 9. I f th e N 1 f a n sh a f t sh i f t s
required to power the ITT
instrument since it is self- mo r e th a n
generating. .050 inch:
A. The engine automatically shuts
7. The LH or RH OIL PRESS down.
WARN light on the annunciator B. T h e vibration detector
panel illuminates whenever: c a u s e s illumination of the MASTER
A. Oil temperature exceeds 121°C. WARN- ING lights.
B. Oil pressure is less than 25 psi. C. The synchronizer shuts the engine
C. Oil filter clogs and bypasses down.
D. Nothing occurs.
10. The following engine 14. What is the maximum engine
instruments are available in the event ground start tailwind component?
of a loss of normal DC electrical power:
A. 15 KTS
A. N 1 rpm and ITT B. 10 KTS
B. N 1 rpm, N 2 rpm, and ITT C. 13 KTS
C. N 1 rpm (tape only) D. 20 KTS
D. N 1 rpm (tape and lighted
display) 15. Maximum oil consumption for
an oper- ating engine is:
11. The ENGINE SYNC switch:
A. 0.5 gallon per hour
A. Should be in FAN for B. 1.5 pints per hour
takeoffs and landings
C. 0.5 quarts per hour
B. Should be in TURB at altitude
D. .023 gallon per hour
C. Can be placed in FAN or TURB
after takeoff and should be left
there for the remainder of the flight 16. During inflight windmilling,
the engine will vent oil overboard.
D. Should be off for large power Typical con- sumption is
changes approximately:
A. .20 gallon per hour
12. The FJ44-1A:
B. 2 gallons per hour
A. Start fuel nozzle pump 9 pph C. 1 quart per minute
constant
D. 3 quarts per hour
B. Green ignition light confirming
one or both exciters powered
17. What is the maximum engine
C. Mobil Jet II and Mobil 254 are ground start crosswind component?
approved
A. 12 KTS
D. All of the above
B. 10 KTS
13. Left fuel filter is bypassed: C. 21 KTS
D. 13 KTS
A. The engines will flame out
soon, and t h e a i r p l a n e s h o u l d b e
l a n d e d immediately.
B. The fuel boost pump will
automati- cally be activated.
C. Crossfeed should be selected
to in- sure that the fuel is filtered
before reaching the engine.
D. Fuel will not flow through the
left engine’s fuel filter. The LH fuel
filter bypass annunciator will
illuminate.
 CH06 QUESTIONS FIRE PRTECTION
C. The GEN OFF light illuminates.
1. An ENG FIRE switchlight
i l l u m i - nates when: D. All of the above.
A. It is depressed.
B. The MASTER WARNING
lights illuminate for an engine
fire.
C. Temperature in the engine
reaches 500°F.
D. A pressure switch trips due to
ther- mally induced inert gas
expansion in a stainless tube.

2. In order to fire the explosive

cartridges on the fire-extinguisher
bottles:
A. DC power need only be
available to the emergency bus.
B. Normal system DC power is
required.
C. The right BOTTLE ARMED
light must be pressed for a right
engine fire and the left BOTTLE
ARMED light for a left engine
fire.
D. The ENG FIRE switchlight
need not be previously activated.

3. After a bottle has been

discharged into a nacelle:
A. No cleaning of the engine
and na- celle area is required.
B. A thorough cleaning of the
engine and nacelle area is
required.
C. An inspection of the engine and
na- celle area is required to
determine if cleaning is necessary.
D. None of the above.

4. When the fire-extinguishing

system is armed (both white lights
ON):
A. The FUEL LOW PRESS and
FUEL
BOOST ON lights come ON.
B. The HYD FLOW LOW
light illuminates.

5. If the contents of a bottle have
been dis- charged into a nacelle and the
ENG FIRE switchlight remains on for
30 seconds:
A. The fire has been extinguished.
B. The other bottle can be
discharged into the same nacelle by
depressing the
other BOTTLE ARMED switchlight.
C. The fire still exits, but no
further action can be taken.
D. The same BOTTLE ARMED
switchlight can be depressed again,
firing a second charge of agent from
the same bottle.
6. Depressing the ENG FIRE
switchlight a second time:
A. Opens the fuel firewall
shutoff valve
B. Opens only the hydraulic
firewall shutoff valve
C. Resets the generator field relay
D. All of the above
7. An engine fire or overheat is
indicated by:
A. Illumination of a red ENG
FIRE light and a flashing
MASTER WARNING light
B. Illumination of the ENG FIRE
light and automatic arming of the
extin- guisher bottles
C. Illumination of the red ENG
FIRE warning light
D. Automatic closing of the
firewall shutoff valves and
subsequent en- gine flameout
 CH 07 QUESTIONS PNEUMATICS
1. The EMER PRESS ON light
can only be selected ON by the
source selector and the air source is:
A. Left engine bleed air only
B. Either/both engine bleed air
through the W/S heat exchanger at
120°F and regulated by the EMER
valve at 6 ppm
C. Right engine bleed air only
D. Ram pylon inlet air
2. The systems that use
pneumatic bleed air for operation are:
A. Instrument air, emergency
brakes and the entrance door
B. Surface deice, windshield
anti-ice, entrance door seal and
cabin or
emergency pressurization
C. Entrance door seal,
ACM and thrust reversers
D. Surface deice, windshield
anti-ice, entrance door seal and
ACM
3. The LH and RH bleed-air shut
off
valves, when open, allow engine bleed
air to feed:
A. 8-ppm flow control and cabin
heat
exchanger for normal heating, cool-
ing, and pressurization
B. 23-psi service air to the main
cabin door seal
C. The windshield anti-ice valve
D. All of the above
4. Fresh air draws pylon inlet air:
A. To pressurize the cabin
B. To circulate air during
unpressur- ized ground/inflight
operations
C. Turns on a fan to the lower ducts
D. B and C above
CH08 QUESTIONS ICE AND RAIN PROTECTION
1. Anti-ice systems should be 5. Select the one correct statement
turned on in- flight when operating in concern- ing the W/S AIR O’HEAT
visible moisture with an indicated RAT: annunciator light:
A. +10°F and +30°F A. If the light illuminates when the
B. –30°F system is operating, the solenoid valve
C. –20°C should close, cutting off windshield
D. +10°C or below air.
B. The light can only illuminate
when the windshield bleed-air
2. The P/S HTR OFF light: switch is po- sitioned to HI or LOW.
A. Will illuminate, with the C. The light always indicates
system se- lected, when any pitot or that the temperature of the air is
static heat ing element has failed uncontrolled.
B. Will illuminate, with the D. When the light is illuminated,
system se- lected, if the AOA the rain removal augmenter doors
heating element has failed will not operate.
C. Will not illuminate if the pitot
heat switch is OFF
6. Failure of the normal
D. Indicates that icing has caused electrical system will result in:
all pitot static instruments to be
inoperative A. Complete failure of the
windshield anti-icing system
B. Continuous flow of hot bleed air,
3. At night, ice formation can be with windshield temperature control
detected by: possible only through regulation of
A. Wing inspection lights on both the volume of bleed air permitted to
sides of the airplane the windshield
B. Red windshield ice detection C. Continued windshield anti-
lights icing with complete control of the
bleed- air temperature
C. Illumination of the ICING
DETECTED annunciator light D. Continuous isopropyl alcohol
flow to the windshield, to replace the
D. Any of the above normal bleed-air anti-icing

4. In the windshield anti-icing 7. The W/S AIR O’HEAT light will

system: illuminate:
A. The bleed-air control valve A. If 5 psi pressure is sensed in the
will fail electrically in the closed duct with the W/S BLEED switch in
position OFF
B. An overtemperature condition B. If the temperature of the air
is not critical since neither the going to the windshield exceeds
ducting nor the windshield are 149°C with the W/S BLEED switch
vulnerable to overheat in the HI or LOW position
C. An overheat light, with the C. Neither A or B
system ON, indicates excessive
bleed-air temperature D. Both A and B
D. During rain removal, the W/S
AIR O’HEAT light will not function
8. When using rain removal: 12. If the engine
A. The augmenter doors can be inlet temperature of the en- gine drops
easily pulled open with windshield below , the LH or RH
bleed air in LOW or HI flow. ENG ANTI-ICE light illuminates.
B. The volume of bleed air to the A. 300°C
wind- shield is regulated by the HI– B. 104°C
LO W/S BLEED switch. C. 90°C
C. A windshield bleed overheat D. 120°C
will not affect rain removal.
D. The augmenter doors should
b e opened prior to applying bleed air 13. The cockpit indications of the
on the windshield. engine anti- ice system operating, and
the opening of the valves will be:
9. The windshield alcohol system: A. Illumination of the MASTER
CAU- TION lights
A. Is a backup system for the B. The stator valve opens and the
windshield anti-ice system ENG ANTI-ICE light comes ON
B. Energizes ejectors which apply C. ITT rise, N 1 and N 2 decrease
alco- hol to both the pilot’s and the and the amber LH and RH ENG
copilot’s windshields ANTI-ICE annunciator panel lights
C. Utilizes a pump that supplies ON
alcohol to the pilot’s windshield D. Th e na ce ll e te mp er at ur e
only for a maximum of ten minutes exc ee d s 320°F, and the MASTER
D. Both A and C CAUTION
light illuminates
10. Once conditions necessary to
extinguish the ENG ANTI-ICE 14. If the MASTER CAUTION and
annunciator lights are satisfied, a WING
minimum power setting to sustain the ANTI-ICE lights illuminate:
operation inflight is:
A. Bleed-air temperature
A. 70% N 1 RPM entering the wing leading edge is
B. 70% N 2 RPM less than 109° C.
C. 60% N 2 RPM B. The minimum po wer setting
D. 80% N 2 RPM t o extinguish the WING ANTI-ICE
is 85% N 2 .
C. If the left engine is shut down, the
11. The time for the ENG ANTI- left
ICE annun- ciator lights to extinguish wing cannot be anti-iced.
after initiating operation inflight will
vary with outside air temperature at D. The minimum po wer setting
cruise or climb thrust settings. t o extinguish the WING ANTI-ICE
Normally, no more than: is 60% N 2 .
A. 30 seconds
B. 2 minutes 15. When using the TAIL DEICE
C. 10 seconds boots:
D. 5 minutes A. They may be cycled at any
temperature
B. If the AUTO mode of operation
is in- operative, then the switch must be
placed to MANUAL twice to inflate all
boots indicates a system malfunction
C. Illumination of the D. MANUAL mode serves as a
SURFACE DE- ICE light always backup way to inflate the boots
 Q09 QUESTIONS AIR CONDITIONING
1. When controlling the cabin
tempera- ture with the manual
temperature tog- gle switch, the ram-
air modulating
valve is positioned from full hot to
full cold in approximately:
A. 18 seconds
B. 6 seconds
C. 3 seconds
D. 15 seconds
2. The AIR DUCT O’HEAT
annunciator light illuminates when
the:
A. ACM shuts down.
B. Temperature of air in the duct
to the cabin is over 149°C (300°F).
C. Temperature of the air going
to the windshield is excessive.
D. EMER source is selected
unless the left throttle is retarded.
3. How can the windshield anti-
ice shut- off valve be opened?
A. Lost DC power.
B. Select windshield anti-ice
to HI or LOW.
C. Select EMER pressure
mode (6 ppm).
D. All of the above.
4. The precooler exhaust doors
are opened for cooler engine bleed
source air or
closed for hotter engine bleed source air:
A. Automatically by the precooler
tem- perature control system to keep
the BLEED AIR O’HEAT lights out
B. Precooler exhaust doors not to
be
pushed by hand during walkaround
C. By the ram-air modulating
valve when more than 30% open
in
AUTO when NO WING/ENG anti-
ice is required
D. All of the above
5. The cabin heat exchanger ram-
air mod- ulating valve is opened for
cooler cabin air or closed for warmer
cabin source
air by:
A. Automatic temperature control
B. Manually toggling the 15
second motorized valve
C. A and B above
D. None of the above
6. The source of bleed air when
the EMER PRESS ON annunciator is
illuminated
in flight is:
A. Either the left, right, or both
engines
B. Left engine only
C. Right engine only
D. Ram air
7. The vapor-cycle
compressor may be ON (green light
—on) when:
A. Air conditioner in AUTO on
a hot day with the ram-air
modulating valve full open
B. Below 18,000 feet in AUTO
C. On the ground without ram
air, the ram valve will motorize
FULL
OPEN anytime cabin temperature is
above the cabin temperature control
set point engaging the compressor
D. All of the above
8. The vapor-cycle
compressor is OFF (green light—
out) when:
A. AIR COND circuit breaker is
popped
B. Ram-air modulating valve
more than 70% closed in AUTO
C. Automatic load shedding
circuit during engine or generator
failure
D. All of the above
9. What closes the LH and/or 14. During climb and cruise the
RH bleed- air shutoff valves: COCKPIT AIR DIST knob is selected
A. Selecting LH or RH to:
B. Selecting FRESH AIR, EMER, or A. MAX, 80% air to crew
OFF B. 11 O’CLOCK, 60% air to crew
C. In AUTO during cabin taxi C. NORM, 50% air to crew
temper- atures over 18°C (65°F) D. 10 O’CLOCK, 70% air to crew
tempera-
ture sensor closes the flow control
and shutoff valves 15. Cabin air is circulated through
D. All of the above two
evaporators; one is in the forward cabin
under the side-facing seat, and one is in
10. The pilot and copilot the aft bulkhead. The aft evaporator
footwarmer out- lets are located: provides conditioned air to the:
A. On the cockpit sidewalls A. Forward diffuser
B. Under the pilot and copilot B. Overhead WEMAC valves
rud- der pedals
C. Side-wall outlets
C. On the side of the throttle
D. Flood-cooling outlet only
pedestal
D. Under the pilot and copilot 16. The cabin air temperature in
seats the AUTO mode will keep the cabin
temperature
11. In the AUTO position, the in a selectable range of:
forward fan is OFF except:
A. 12 to 35°C
A. When flood cooling is selected B. 50 to 75°F
B. When the compressor is on, C. 65 to 85°F
then operating at low speed
D. 18 to 29°C
C. When the compressor is on,
then operating at high speed
17. The ram-air modulating valve
D. When the compressor is on, controls:
then operating at medium speed
A. The amount of cooling
12. The AFT fan switch is labeled: ram air that passes through the
cabin heat exchanger
A. LOW, OFF, or HI B. The amount of air flowing into
B. LOW, HI, and Flood the cabin from the pylon air inlet
C. LOW, AUTO, or HI when the FRESH AIR position is
D. LOW, MED, or HI selected
C. Below 18,000 feet, a barometric
13. The forward fan switch is switch shutting OFF the operation
labeled: of the air modulating valve
A. LOW, AUTO, or HI D. At approximately 50% closed
B. LOW, OFF, or HI posi- tion, the compressor is
disengaged on the vapor-cycle air
C. LOW, MED, or HI conditioner
D. AUTO, OFF, or HI
18. Selecting the FRESH AIR
position:
A. Turns on the refrigerant to
cool the cabin
B. Depressurizes the cabin
inflight
C. Must not be used during
ground operations
D. Will not affect normal
pressur- ized flight
19. The EPU is powering the
compressor
and both evaporators in AUTO on a hot
day before engine start. The pilot is
concerned that no cool air is venting
the crew overhead WEMACs when the
AFT evaporator fan switch is in HI or
LOW:
A. This is normal.
B. The flood-cooling door spring-
loads to the flood cool (open)
position
without 23 psi service air.
C. With any engine running, 23 psi
ser- vice air will close the flood-
cooling doors, thus sending all aft
evaporator cooling air to the
overhead
WEMACs.
D. All of the above.
 Q 10 QUESTIONS PRESSURIZATION
1. Pressurization of the airplane is 5. What CLOSES the two outflow
normally maintained by: valves to dive the cabin?
A. Controlling the amount of air A. AUTO uses digital cabin
entering the cabin pressure con- troller to meter 23 psi
B. Controlling the amount of air service air pres- sure to close the
escaping the cabin primary valve
C. Modulating the temperature B. In the MANUAL switch position,
of the cabin temperature controller using the red knob to manually meter
D. Manipulating the throttles cabin pressurized air to the secondary
valve
2. The normal outflo w valve C. None of the above
c o n t r o l modes are: D. A and B above
A. Ground taxi mode
B. Prepressurization mode 6. If control vacuum becomes
excessive in- flight, cabin altitude:
C. Flight mode
D. All of the above A. Explosively decompresses to
cruise altitude
3. Both throttles are advanced B. Stays where it is
above 85% N2 on the ground. The C. Rises to the maximum altitude
outflow valves slowly close, driving limit valve setting of 13,000 feet,
cabin pressure 200 feet below field where cabin pressure enters the
altitude. This is the: valve re- ducing vacuum effect and
the cabin levels at 13,000 feet
A. Flight mode
D. Decreases to a value as
B. Ground mode determined by the maximum
C. Prepressurization mode differential pressure valve setting
D. None of the above
7. The normal mode for
4. What OPENS the two outflow controlling cabin pressure is the:
valves to climb the cabin? A. AUTO mode
A. AUTO uses the digital cabin B. MANUAL mode
pressure controller to meter ejector C. Isobaric mode
vacuum to the climb solenoid of
the primary valve D. None of the above
B. The CABIN DUMP switch
sends DC power to the climb 8. The source of bleed air for
solenoid and the cabin rises to the cabin pres- surization when the
13,000 feet cabin altitude limit EMERG PRESS ON light is illuminated
valve inflight is:
C. With the MANUAL switch A. Vapor-cycle air
selection and using the red knob to B. Right engine
manually meter ambient low C. Either or both engines
pressure air to the secondary valve D. Pylon ram air
D. All of the above
9. The source of bleed air for 12. During taxi out, the controller
cabin pres- surization when the
is set to:
EMERG PRESS ON light is illuminated
is: A. Destination field elevation plus
200 feet in the CA mode
A. Freon
B. Cruise plus 1,000 feet in the FL
B. 120°F bleed air from the
windshield anti-ice bleed-air mode
shutoff valve and 6 ppm flow from C. Field pressure altitude plus 500
the EMER valve feet
C. LH and RH bleed-air shutoff D. 300 to 500 fpm on the cabin
valves rate-of- climb control
D. Pylon ram air
13. The controller on the tilt panel
continu- ously generates an AUTO-
10. The DC-powere d pressure SCHEDULE while in flight, based on:
controller modes are: A. Departure field elevation, the
A. Isobaric mode maximum altitude reached, and pilot
B. AUTO mode input of des- tination field elevation
C. MANUAL mode plus 200 feet
D. A and B above B. Information inputs made in
MANUAL using red knob
C. Cabin always at maximum
11. If the air data differen- tial pressure
s e n s o r / c o m p u t e r fails inflight: D. Departure field elevation only
A. The controller amber light
illuminates and CA switches to FL 14. On the ground with either engine
Isobaric mode. operating below 85% N 2 :
B. It remains in the CA AUTO A. Only the primary outflow valve
mode. opens.
C. Only manual control remains. B. Neither outflow will open.
D. I t a u t o m a t i c a l l y s w i t c h e s t o C. Both outflow valves are open.
t h e EXER mode.
D. Only the secondary outflow valve
opens.
 Q 11 QUESTIONS HYDRAULIC SYSTEM
1. The hydraulic system bypass 6. Access to the hydraulic
valve is: reservoir sight glass is:
A. Spring-loaded closed A. In the right forward
B. Spring-loaded open baggage compartment
C. Energizes closed B. On the copilot’s instrument
D. Both B and C panel
C. Ahead of the tail cone
baggage compartment
2. Depressing an ENG FIRE D. Under a door behind the right
switchlight: flap under right engine
A. Shuts off hydraulic fluid to the
pump 7. The hydraulic system:
B. Trips the generator field relay A. Uses only red MIL-H-83282
C. Arms the fire-extinguishing fluid
system B. Has a reservoir capacity of 2
D. All of the above liters (125 in. 3 )
C. Is limited to 1,500 psi when
3. Closing of a hydraulic loaded
valve is indi- cated by: D. All of the above
A. A warning horn
8. Hydraulic system operation is
B. Illumination of the applicable
indicated by illumination of the:
F/W SHUTOFF annunciator if the
fuel firewall shutoff valve also A. HYD LEVEL LO annunciator
closes B. HYD PRESS ON
C. Illumination of the HYD annunciator (1,500 psi)
PRESS ON annunciator C. LH or RH HYD LEVEL LO
D. None of the above annunciator
D. LH or RH HYD FLOW LOW
annunciator
4. If DC power is lost, the
system by- pass valve:
9. A hydraulic leak may be
A. Spring-loads to the closed detected by:
position
A. Visible red fluid observed
B. Motorizes open during - pre- or post-flight
C. Spring-loads to the open walkaround
position B. May be a possibility if both
D. None of the above HYD FLOW LOW lights
illuminate
5. The hydraulic system provides C. Below ADD on the sight gage
pressure to operate the: D. All of the above
A. Landing gear, speedbrakes,
flaps, and thrust attenuators 10. The thrust attenuators
are stowed any time:
B. Landing gear and speedbrakes
only (all airplanes) A. The switch is in STOW.
C. Antiskid brakes, landing B. During taxi, the switch is in
gear, and flaps AUTO with either throttle forward
D. Speedbrakes, landing of the IDLE STOP.
gear, and wheel brakes C. The left and right throttles are
both in CUTOFF.
D. All of the above.
11. The MASTER 12. Thrust attenuators in AUTO
CAUTION lights illuminate:
will:
A. If inflight and unlocked
A. Deploy automatically at
B. If inflight with STOW touchdown (both squat switches on
selected and flaps beyond 15° the ground)
(normally AUTO for landing)
B. Stow automatically with the
C. During taxi with STOW throt- tles above IDLE for taxi
selected and either throttle above
85% N 2 (normally AUTO for C. Deploy when both piggy back
takeoff) throttles are pulled up to IDLE–
DEPLOY
D. All of the above
D. A and B above
Q 12 QUESTIONS LANDING GEAR AND BRAKES
and RH lights on
1. On the ground, the LDG B. Red light out, green LH and
GEAR handle is prevented from RH lights on
movement to the UP position by:
C. Red light on, all three green lights
A. Mechanical detents out
B. A spring-loaded locking D. All four lights out
solenoid
C. Hydraulic pressure
D. A manually applied handle
lock- ing device

2. The landing gear uplocks are:

A. Mechanically held engaged by
springs
B. Hydraulically disengaged
C. Pneumatically engaged
D. Both A and B

3. Landing gear downlocks are

disengaged:
A. When hydraulic pressure is
applied to the retract side of the gear
actuators
B. By action of the gear squat
switches
C. By removing the external
down- lock pins
D. By mechanical linkage as the
gear begins to retract

4. Each main gear wheel

incorporates a fusible plug that:
A. Blows out if the tire is
overserviced with air
B. Melts, deflating the tire if an
over- heated brake temperature
occurs
C. Is thrown out by centrifugal
force if maximum wheel speed is
exceeded
D. None of the above

5. At retraction, if the nose gear

does not lock in the up position, the
gear panel light indication will be:
A. Red light on, green LH
6. The gear warning horn cannot 8. Emergency extension of the
be si- landing gear is accomplished by
lenced when one or more gears are not actuation of:
down-and-locked and:
A. A switch for uplock
A. Flaps are extended beyond release and application of air
the 15° position. pressure
B. Airspeed is less than 130 KIAS. B. One manual control to
C. Either throttle is retarded release the uplocks and apply air
below 85% N 2 rpm. pressure for extension
D. Both throttles are retarded C. Two manual controls—one to
below me- chanically release the uplocks
85% N 2 rpm. and another to apply air pressure
for
7. When the LDG GEAR gear extension and downlocking
handle is positioned either UP D. None of the above
or DOWN:
A. The hydraulic bypass valve is 9. Nosewheel steering is operative:
ener- gized open. A. Only on the ground
B. The hydraulic bypass valve is B. With the gear extended or
ener- gized closed. retracted
C. The bypass valve is not C. With the gear extended, in
affected. flight or on the ground
D. The HYD PRESS ON D. None of the above
annunciator light goes out.
10. The powerbrake valve is inoperative.
actuated:
A. Mechanically by the rudder
pedals
B. Mechanically by the
emergency airbrake control
lever
C. Hydraulically by master
cylinder pressure
D. Automatically at touchdown

11. Do not actuate the brake

pedals while applying brakes with the
emergency brake system because:
A. Air bubbles will be induced
into the brake fluid.
B. The shuttle valve may allow
air pressure into the brake
reservoir, rupturing it.
C. The shuttle valve will move to
the neutral position, and no braking
ac- tion will occur.
D. The brakes will be “spongy.”

12. The DC motor-driven

hydraulic pump in the brake system
operates:
A. During the entire time the LDG
GEAR handle is in the DOWN position
B. As needed with the LDG GEAR
handle DOWN in order to maintain
system pressure
C. Only when the PWR BRK
PRESS LO annunciator
illuminates
D. Even when the LDG GEAR
handle is UP to keep air out of the
system as the airplane climbs to
altitude

13. When using the emergency

brake:
A. Differential braking is not
available.
B. Antiskid protection is provided.
C. The handle should be pumped.
D. Nosewheel steering is
14. Concerning the landing
gear, the cor- rect statement is:
A. The red GEAR
UNLOCKED light will
illuminate and the warning
horn will sound whenever either or
both throttles are retarded below
85% N 2 and the gear is up.
B. The gear warning horn can be
si-
lenced when the gear is not down
and locked and the flaps are ex-
tended beyond 15°.
C. The landing gear pins must
be in- serted on the ground due to
loss of hydraulic pressure as the
engines are shut down.
D. The landing gear is secured in
the ex- tended position by
mechanical locks.
15. Concerning landing gear
auxiliary extension, the correct
statement is:
A. If three green lights are
observed after yawing the airplane,
it is not neces-
sary to use the pneumatic bottle.
B. The optimum airspeed
for this procedure is 150
KIAS.
C. The LDG GEAR handle is
placed in the DOWN position to
release the
gear uplocks in order to allow the
red T-handle to release the doors.
D. After the gear is extended
by this procedure, it can be
retracted in
flight if the hydraulic system is re-
turned to normal operation.
16. The wheel brakes:
A. Will be inoperative with a
HYD LOW LEVEL light
illuminate
B. Must be applied with the
emergency system if a HYD LOW
LEVEL light is illuminated
C. Use a different type of approved
fluid from that used by the airplane
hydraulic system
D. Are totally independent of the
open center airplane hydraulic
system
 17. When the emergency brakes 19. The HYD PRESS ON light
are used: remains il- luminated after the landing
A. The EMER BRAKE PULL lever gear is up
should be pumped in order to build up and locked. The corrective action is to:
sufficient pressure to stop the airplane. A. Extend the gear, and leave it
B. The normal toe brakes must down for the remainder of the
also be applied to allow the bottle flight.
pressure to reach the brakes. B. Pull the hydraulic pump
C. Differential braking is not CB to prevent system damage.
available. C. Pull the GEAR CONTROL
D. Braking action will be CB to allow the system bypass
insufficient if the gear has been valve to open.
extended pneu- matically, since D. Do nothing. The landing gear are
that process will held in the retracted position by hy-
exhaust the bottle pressure. draulic pressure.

20. Which is the incorrect

18. The parking brake: statement?
A. May be set immediately after a A. When the landing gear are
maximum braking effort due to the extended outside the OM,
modulation of the antiskid system powerbrake and
B. Will still be operable if the antiskid are inoperative.
emer- gency brakes have to be B. There is no powerbrake or
utilized antiskid until the main wheels
C. Must be off to ensure proper touch down
opera- tion of the antiskid system and spin up and the squat switch(es)
D. Has thermal relief valves to go to ground.
pre- vent the fusible plugs in the C. To defeat touchdown
tire from melting protection, pull the skid control
CB.
D. To defeat antiskid protection,
pull the skid control CB.
 QUESTIONS Q13 FLIGHT CONTROLS
1. The ailerons are
operated by:
A. Hydraulic pressure
B. Mechanical inputs from the
con- trol wheels
C. A fly-by-wire system
D. An active control system
that to- tally eliminates adverse
yaw
2. The aileron trim tab is operated
by:
A. An electrically operated
trim tab motor
B. A hydraulically operated
trim tab motor
C. A mechanical trim knob
on the throttle control
quadrant
D. Changing the angle of the
aileron “fence”
3. Regarding the rudder:
A. The pilot’s and copilot’s
pedals are interconnected.
B. The trim tab actuator is
powered only electrically.
C. The servo is connected to
the air data computer to restrict
rudder
pedal deflection at high airspeeds.
D. It is independent of the nose-
wheel steering on the ground.
4. The elevator:
A. Trim tabs are controlled
only electrically.
B. Runaway trim condition can be
alle- viated by depressing the
AP/TRIM DISC switch and pulling
the PITCH TRIM circuit breaker.
C. Electric pitch trim has both
high speed and low speed
positions.
D. Trim tab is located on the
right elevator only.
5. If hydraulic power is lost:
A. The flaps will be inoperative.
B. The flaps will operate with the
backup electrical system, but will
extend and retract at a reduced rate.
C. There is no effect on wing
flap operation.
D. A split flap condition could
result if the flaps are lowered.
6. The wing flaps:
A. Can be preselected to only
four positions (up, 15°, 35°,
60°)
B. Depend on both actuators to
func-
tion to prevent a split flap condition
C. Can be lowered manually if
electri- cal power is lost, but only
if all hy- draulic fluid has not been
lost
D. Can be selected to GROUND
FLAP position on the ground or
inflight;
the ground flap selection is prohib-
ited in flight
7. Regarding the gust lock:
A. The engines may be started
with it engaged.
B. The airplane should not be
towed with it engaged.
C. It may be engaged for towing.
D. If the airplane is towed past
the 60° limit, nosewheel steering
may be
lost. It is still permissible to fly the
airplane if the gear is left down.
8. Moving the flap selector
lever to any position:
A. Energizes the hydraulic
system by- pass valve closed
B. Energizes the flap solenoid
valve to the selected position
C. A and B
D. Energizes the electric
hydraulic pump for flap
operation
9. If hydraulic failure occurs with
the
flaps extended and the FLAPS handle is
moved, the flaps:
A. May move upward
depending on air-load
B. Cannot be fully retracted
C. Can be retracted to the
midrange position
D. Can be completely retracted
10. Extended speedbrakes are
maintained in that position by:
A. Hydraulic pressure
B. Trapped fluid in the lines
from the control and safety valves
C. Internal locks in the actuators
D. External locks on the actuators
11. The white HYD PRESS ON
light on the annunciator panel will
illuminate dur-
ing speedbrake operation:
A. When the speedbrakes are
fully extended
B. While the speedbrakes are
extend- ing and retracting
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A nor B
12. A true statement concerning
the speed- brake is:
A. The white SPD BRK EXTEND
light will illuminate when both sets
of
speedbrakes are fully extended.
B. If DC electrical failure occurs
while the speedbrakes are extended,
they will remain extended since the
hy-
draulic pressure is trapped on the
extend side of the actuators.
C. If hydraulic pressure loss should
occur while the speedbrakes are ex-
tended (system bypass valve fails
open), the speedbrakes will auto-
matically blow to trail.
D. The speedbrakes can only be re-
tracted by placing the speedbrake
switch to RETRACT.
13. Speed brakes must not be
extended within:
A. 50 feet on landing
B. 110 feet on landing
C. 40 meters
D. 50 meters
14. The speedbrakes will fully
retract if:
A. A complete electrical failure
occurs
B. A hydraulic failure occurs
C. Either throttle is advanced
above 85% N 2 position with the
electri- cal and hydraulic systems
operat- ing normally
D. Hydraulic quantity drops below
0.2 gallons
 second.
CITATIONJET CE-525
AUTOPILOT REVIEW
WHAT DISENGAGES
THE AUTOPILOT?

1. Punching the green engage

switch on the AP Controller
disengages the AP but leaves the YD
on.

2. Punching the red AP TRIM

DISC but- ton on either outboard
control wheel grip to disengage the
AP and YD. The
AP TRIM DISC button may be used to
reset monitor induced AP disconnects.
If the AP disconnects because a monitor
in the pitch, roll or yaw axis senses con-
trol pressure (i.e, a pilot’s feet on the
rudder when the YD tries to execute a
YD function) the AP FAIL message
light is displayed in the EADI. To reac-
tivate the AP, push the AP disconnect
switch for two seconds to reset the
monitors, then the AP can be re-en-
gaged.

3. Electric trim disengages the AP

but
leaves the YD on (turn knob in detent).
NOTE
If in basic AP mode using the man-
ual turn knob for turns, then electric
trim actuation will not disengage
the AP.

4. Punch the black go-around

button on
the left side of the left throttle. The FD
goes to wing level 10° pitch and the
mode panel cancels.
NOTE
1 through 4 above will give a verbal
or tone warning and the amber AP
OFF light illuminates for one
 NOTE
Any other AP disconnect will 7. Stick Shaker activation.
give the verbal or tone warning and
amber AP FAIL OFF light on 8. Excessive current to the
continuous and the AP FAIL light current moni- tor.
in the EADI. Punch the AP OFF
light out with the AP TRIM DISC 9. Any comparator fail
switch. indication in the EADI.

10. An intermittent inverter or

5. The TCS button gives a loss of in- verter sync.
momentary AP disconnect while the
TCS button is 11. The Radar Altimeter can
punched. When the TCS button is re- malfunction during the approach
leased the AP reengages. phase affecting
the gain programming (attenuates sig-
6. Applying a restraining or nal strength). This could cause the air-
overpowering force to the AP in the plane to roll or pitch abnormally and
pitch, roll, or yaw servos will result in trip the
a monitor trip. The servo command to AP.
move in the proper
direction and rate does not match the 12. If either #1 VG-14 or #2 VG-14
servo response because the pilot over- fails.
rides the command.
The Honeywell SPZ-5000 System Test and
Fault Isolation Manual lists the self test and
event codes that occur in normal flight oper-
ations. These event codes can later be ac-
cessed and analyzed for maintenance.
Normal AP trips leave no Event Codes.
Abnormal AP trips leave Event Codes in the
Event Code memory pages for the last 64
flights. The Event Codes for the current flight
can be accessed by:
1. Setting the Radar Altitude to
670 feet.
2. Push and hold the Display
Control Panel (DC) TEST button
for a mini- mum of five to seven
seconds.
3. While holding the TEST button
push
and release the fourth push button from
the left on the DC.
4. Release the TEST button.
The Event Codes for the current
flight are dis- played on the EFIS
Tubes.
‘ Push the first push button on
the left side of the Display Controller
(DC) and see the previous 8 event
codes for the current flight.
‘ Push the fourth push button
from the left side of the DC and see the
next eight event codes for the current
flight.
‘ Push the sixth button from the
left side of the DC and see increments 1
flight (48 event codes).
‘ Push the sixth button from the
left side of the DC and see decrements 1
flight (48 event codes).
Power up event codes that prevent AP en-
gagement and are fatal will result in a latched
event code. This requires pulling the FLT
Guide System CB to momentarily turn off
29VDC, then when reset the CB to restore
29VDC after which the AP may couple. These
even t codes are reflecte d in table s 000 1
through 0199 and all 90XX event codes. There
are many event codes covering the IC-500,
servo problems, and many more.
There are many Event Codes that disengage
the AP and YD that relate to the IC-500,
wiring, low AC voltage, rate gyro fault, VG
power transient, FD invalid, Stick shaker, per-
formance monitoring, and many more. Other
event codes are for EFIS malfunctions that
might not trip the AP.
Continuous monitored event codes result in AP
& YD disengagement with event codes.
If AP disconnects cannot be substantiated
by event codes, the followin g should be
investigated:
‘ Faulty switches, splices, or
wiring may cause this signal to open up
the AP Dis- connect Switch circuit,
thus resulting in the disconnect.
‘ Faulty Pitch trim switch input,
connec- tors, or wiring may result in
the IC-500 receiving a trim request
that by design will disconnect the
autopilot. Also, an inadvertent
activation of the trim switch will result
in an autopilot disconnect.
‘ AP or YD engage push buttons
located on the autopilot controller are
inadver- tently being pushed or are
intermittent in operation.
‘ Low power sensed by the IC-
500 due to faulty wiring or circuit
breaker.
‘ Poor grounds to the IC-500.
‘ Shorts to ground of the 29V
clutch en- gage lines from the IC-500 to
the servos.
WHAT PREVENTS
ENGAGING THE
AUTOPILOT?
1. The Turn Knob is out of
detent (TRN KNB light indication in
lower right
corner EADI).
2. Excess current sensed by
the current monitor.
3. Any comparator fail
indication.
NOTE
The comparator fails are PIT for
pitch, ROL for roll, ATT for pitch
and roll, LOC for localizer, GS for
glideslope, and ILS for localizer
and glideslope.
4. AP FAlL indication in the
lower right corner of the EADI.
NOTE
This AP FAIL might possibly be
cleare d by punchin g th e red AP
TRIM DISC switch for two seconds.
If it clears, the autopilot may
couple. It’s worth a try.
HOW TO RESET THE AP
AFTER TRIPPING SO IT CAN
BE RE-ENGAGED?
1. Punch the AP TRIM DISC switch for 2
seconds until the AP FAIL message is
eliminated in the EADI. This is recom-
mended first. The second method is to
pull the FLT GUIDE SYSTEM CB.
CITATIONJET EFIS SPZ-
5000 KNOWLEDGE TEST
AND ANSWERS
See following pages for answers to questions.
1. What do we call the panel that
formats the EADI and EHSI?
2. How do you dim the EADI?
3. How do you dim the EHSI?
4. How do you normally set the
FD bars for takeoff?
5. What happened if you
punched HDG first, then GA?
6. If GA were selected, what
do the FD bars do?
7. If GA is selected, what
happens if you touch the TCS button?
8. If GA is selected, what
happens if you capture ALT with ALT
SELECT?
9. If GA is selected, what
other mode needs to be selected.
10. How do you correctly select
the mode panel modes?
11. We climb in what FD mode?
12. We descend in what FD mode?
13. If the TCS button is punched
with any lateral mode selected but no
vertical mode selected, how do the
FD bars
respond?
ANSWERS TO EFIS SPZ-5000 KNOWLEDGE TEST
14. If the TCS button is touched 23. During dual inverter fail what
with a lat- eral mode (like HDG) and happens to both EFIS displays?
with any ver- tical mode selected (such
as IAS or VS) what do the FD bars do?
24. The EHSI goes blank. Is
this IC-500 failure, tube failure, or
15. During a missed approach as SG failure?
the throt- tles are advanced and the
GA button is punched, what else must
be done? 25. The EADI only goes blank.
What is the problem?
16. In question 11 above, VS was
mistak- enly selected. This could lead 26. In question 24 or 25 above,
to? what is the solution?

17. How do you know what the 27. Both tubes show red X’s.
blue single line pointer is pointing at? What is the problem?

18. How do you know what the 28. The brown ground raster of
green dou- ble line pointer is pointing the EADI just went green. What
at? happened?

19. if you punch and hold the 29. The white on the EHSI just
TCS button, what happened to the turned blue.
coupled AP? What happened?

20. No takeoff at anytime is 30. If both EFIS tubes go blank,

allowed, until after? what in- struments are left to fly
with?
21. At power up the AP tests.
How do you know if the AP tested 31. HDG mode turns are normally
correctly? 27-1/2° under 34,000 feet but °
when the Bank Limit button is
punched. The
22. If NAV 1 fails how can NAV 2
HDG mode turns above 34,000 feet is
informa- tion be displayed on the
automatically limited to °.
EHSI?
1. The Display Controller (DC. 12. VS mode

2. Rotate the EADI DIM knob 13. The FD bars immediately

under the Test Button on the Display pitch-sync or move to the miniature
Controller (DC). aircraft position.

3. Rotate the EHSI DIM knob on
the DC.
4. Punch the GA button then
punch the HDG mode.
5. First HDG mode was selected
and the FD bars appeared at the
horizon. Then GA was punched and
all mode panel modes cancelled and
the FD bars
jumped to 10° wings level position.
14. The FD computer vertical mode
se-
lected (such as ALT) is modified or res-
elected to the current altitude.
15. After the GA mode (10°
wings level) also punch HDG for
HDG commands and confirm the
missed approach alti- tude has been
set.
16. Stall

6. FD bars jump to the wings 17. Blue circle ADF or blue

level 10° circle VOR 1 at lower left comer
pitch setting and any mode panel selec- EHSI
tions cancel.
18. Green diamond ADF (2) or
7. The FD bars disappear. green dia- mond VOR (2) at the lower
left corner EHSI
8. The FD bars disappear.
19. The coupled AP was
9. That generally after the GA momentarily disen- gaged as long as you
selection, we punch up a lateral mode held the TCS but-
HDG for HDG commands. ton punched. The AP engage green light
goes out with YD light still on. When the
10. First select a lateral mode like TCS button is released the AP engaged
green light reilluminates engaged.
HDG
which selects the FD bars, then select a
vertical mode. 20. A valid EFIS test

11. IAS mode 21. No AP FAIL light appears in

the lower right corner of the EADI.
 Q 14 QUESTIONS OXYGEN
1. The cockpit oxygen pressure
gage reads:
A. The oxygen pressure which is
pre- sent at the crew masks
B. Electrically derived system
low pressure
C. Bottle pressure
D. Electrically derived system
high pressure
2. Passenger masks are dropped
when:
A. The OXYGEN selector is in
NOR- MAL and cabin altitude
exceeds
13,500 feet.
B. The cabin altitude exceeds
13,500
feet, regardless of OXYGEN selec-
tor position.
C. The OXYGEN selector is in
MAN- UAL DROP, regardless of
altitude.
D. Both A and C
3. If DC power fails, placing
the OXY- GEN selector in:
A. MANUAL DROP deploys the
pas- senger masks, regardless of
the
cabin altitude.
B. MANUAL DROP deploys the
pas- senger masks only if 13,500
feet
cabin altitude is exceeded.
C. CREW ONLY does not restrict
oxy- gen to the crew only if the
cabin al- titude is above 13,500
feet.
D. Any of the three operating
posi-
tions will not route oxygen to the
passengers—they have their own
oxygen.
4. The purpose of the altitude
pressure switch is to:
A. Bypass oxygen flow directly
to the passengers regardless of
OXYGEN selector position.
B. Open a solenoid at 13,500
feet cabin altitude, allowing
oxygen
flow to the passenger oxygen distri-
bution system.
C. Close a solenoid valve at 13,500
feet cabin altitude, stopping oxygen
flow to the passengers.
D. Restore cabin altitude to 8,000
feet so that oxygen is not required.
5. If the oxygen selector is
placed in CREW ONLY:
A. The passenger masks
cannot be dropped
automatically.
B. The passenger masks will
not de- ploy automatically, but
they can still be dropped
manually.
C. The passengers will still receive
oxygen if the cabin altitude is above
8,000 feet.
D. Normal DC power is removed
from the passenger mask door
actuators,
thus preventing them from dropping
the masks.
6. If normal DC power is lost
with the oxygen selector in
NORMAL:
A. The passenger masks will
deploy immediately, regardless
of the
cabin altitude.
B. The passenger masks
cannot be dropped manually.
C. The oxygen pressure gage on the
copilot’s panel will be inoperative.
D. Automatic dropping of the
passen- ger masks will not occur.