Answer keys : AIATS For One Year Medical-2019 (XII Studying)_Practice Test-01

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 1

A charge +q having mass m is released from rest in a uniform electric field E. Momentum acquired by the charge
after time t is

Options:

qEt

Solution :

Answer (1)

Hint:

Solution:

Step 1:

Step 2:

⇒ pf = qEt
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 2

Two electric dipoles of dipole moment 2 Cm and 4 Cm respectively are kept inside a cube of side'a' m. Total
electric flux linked with the cube is (in SI units)

Options:

Zero

Solution :

Answer (4)

Hint:

Solution:

Step 1: Net charge of an electric dipole is zero, irrespective of its dipole moment.

Step 2: So qnet = 0, hence flux through the cube is

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 3

A block of mass m having charge –q is placed midway between two parallel walls. A uniform electric field is
switched on as shown in figure. The time after which it will collide with the right wall for the first time is [All collisions
are elastic and surfaces are smooth]

Options:

It will not collide with the right wall

Solution :

Answer (4)

Hint: Work done by conservative force in a closed path is zero.

Solution:

Step 1: Force on the block due to electric field

F = qE towards the left wall

It rebounds with same speed due to elastic collision.

Step 2: Now electric force does negative work as it is in opposite direction of velocity. Speed of block becomes zero,
when it reaches in between two walls and process is repeated. It will not collide with right wall.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 4

If an electric dipole is kept in a uniform external electric field then

Options:

Net force on the dipole is always zero

Net torque on the dipole will never be zero

The dipole has minimum potential energy when it is directed in the direction of external electric field

Both (1) & (3)

Solution :

Answer (4)

Hint: Dipole is positive-negative charge pair.

Solution:

Step 1:

Step 2: = –PEcosθ

PEmin = –PE

when, cosθ = 1

θ = 0°
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 5

Two identical charged spheres suspended from a common point by two massless strings of lengths l, are initially at
a distance d (d << l) apart because of their mutual repulsion. The charges begin to leak from both the spheres. As
a result, the spheres approach each other with constant relative speed v, then (x is separation at any time t), the

rate of charge leakage is proportional to

Options:

x1/2

x–1/2

x–1

Solution :

Answer (1)

Hint: (C is a constant)

Solution:

Step 1: Let at a given instant distance between two charges is x (x << l). Then

...(1)

...(2)

Dividing eq (1) by eq (2).

[For small θ, tanθ sinθ]

⇒ ...(3)

Step 2:

(k is constant)

[from eqn (3)]

So, for constant v

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 6

Two charges +q each are fixed separated by distance 2d. A third charge –Q of mass m placed at the mid-point is
slightly displaced by x (x << d) perpendicular to the line joining the two fixed charges as shown in the figure. Time
period of SHM of charge –Q will be

Options:

Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint: T =

Solution:

Step 1: When charge –Q is displaced by x(x << d), then force due to individual charge is of magnitude,

Resultant force on charge – Q

Step 2: Comparing with equation of SHM.

We get,

So,
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 7

In the figure shown below, charge flown through switch 'S' after closing it, in the direction indicated by arrow is

Options:

40 μC

90 μC

130 μC

50 μC

Solution :

Answer (4)

Hint: joining two plates.

Solution:

Step 1: Before closing the switch, both capacitors are in series.

Net charge joining plate numbers (2) and (3) is zero; so qi = 0.

Step 2: After closing the switch, p.d. across 2 μF capacitor = 20 V;

So charge on plate number 2 = –40 μC.

Charge on plate number 3 = +90 μC

⇒ qf = (– 40 + 90) = +50 μC;

So (Δq)s = 50 μC
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 8

A positive point charge 20 μC is located at the point where and are the unit vectors along
the x axis and y axis respectively. Electric field at a point having position vector will be

Options:

N/C

N/C

N/C

N/C

Solution :

Answer (1)

Hint:

Solution:

Step 1: Position vector of the point w.r.t. position of point charge

Step 2:

N/C
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 9

A point charge q is kept on equatorial position of an electric dipole of dipole moment p at distance r as shown in the
figure. Electric potential at the centre of dipole is

Options:

Zero

Solution :

Answer (3)

Hint: Potential at the centre of dipole is zero, due to its own charges.

Solution:

Step 1: Potential at the centre of dipole due to its own charge,

Step 2: Potential due to point charge q at the given point,

So total electric potential,

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 10

A capacitor of capacitance C is charged by connecting it to a battery of emf E. Now capacitor is disconnected from
this battery and is connected to another battery of emf 3E, with positive plate of the capacitor with positive terminal
of the battery. Heat developed in the circuit in second case is

Options:

Solution :

Answer (3)

Hint:

Solution:

Step 1: Initial charge on the capacitor qi = CE

Final charge on the capacitor, qf = 3CE

So, charge flown through the battery

...(1)

Step 2: Work done by battery.

...(2)

Initial potential energy stored in the capacitor,

;
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 11

Choose incorrect statement

Options:

The electrostatic potential of every point at the surface of conductor is same

Electrostatic field lines are always normal to the surface of conductor

Electrostatic field inside a conductor is non-zero

Both (1) & (3)

Solution :

Answer (3)

Hint: Properties of conductor in electrostatics.

Solution:

Step 1:

Step 2: For conductor

= 0, because charge resides on surface.

⇒E=0
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 12

Three large conducting charged sheets are kept parallel to each other as shown in figure. Net force experienced by
a charge +q placed between plates A and B is

Options:

Zero

Towards right

Towards left

Both (2) & (3) are possible

Solution :

Answer (1)

Hint: F = qE

Solution: Charge on plates are redistributed as shown in the figure.

Now electric field at the position of charge,

So,
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 13

Three point charges are placed on the vertices of an equilateral triangle ABC of side 'a' as shown in figure.
Potential energy of charge q is U0. When this charge is moved to point D then its potential energy will be

Options:

Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint: Potential energy: U = qV

Solution: Electric potential at C due to charges at A and B.

So, potential energy of charge q at C.

...(1)

Now, Electric potential at point D

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 14

A ring of radius r is charged in such a way that its part has uniform positive charge density (λ) and the

remaining part has uniform negative charge density (–λ). The potential at the centre of ring is (Consider SI

units for all quantities)

Options:

Solution :

Answer (3)

Hint:

Solution:

Step 1:

Step 2 :
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 15

The electrostatic potential existing in space is given by V = (xy + yz + zx) volts, where x, y and z are in metres. The
angle made by electric field at (2 m, 2 m, 2 m) with positive x-axis is α. Then

Options:

Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint:

Solution:

At (2 m, 2 m, 2 m),

N/C
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 16

A parallel plate capacitor is completely filled with two dielectric of dielectric constants and as
shown in the figure. When capacitor is charged by a battery, the ratio of charges on the two parts of the same plate
is

Options:

Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint:

Solution: As p.d. between two metal plates is equal,

⇒ ... (1)
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 17

A uniform electric field E = 2 × 106 Vm–1 is directed along positive X axis. A point charge +20 μC is placed at origin
and another point charge of – 20 μC is placed at (4 m, 0). The electrostatic potential energy of the system is

Options:

160.9 J

159.1 J

– 120 J

– 169 J

Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint:

Solution:

Let V1 and V2 are electrostatic potential at the positions of charges q1 and q2 respectively, due to external field.

Now,
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 18

Four capacitors with their capacitances and breakdown voltages are connected as shown in the figure. What can
be the maximum voltage V applied safely?

Options:

10 kV

9 kV

2 kV

6 kV

Solution :

Answer (4)

Hint: Maximum safe voltage for combination is smaller of maximum voltage across either row.

Solution: Maximum charge for C1

(q1)max = C1(V1)max = 12 mC

Similary,

As C1 and C2 are in series, maximum charge can be smaller of these two, i.e., 12 mC. Equivalent capacitance for
upper row CU = 2 μF. So maximum voltage for upper row.

For lower row of capacitors,

, mC

⇒ .

So,
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 19

In the given figure, charge on the capacitor in steady state is

Options:

Solution :

Answer (3)

Hint:

Solution: In steady state no current flows through the capacitor.

... (1)

From loop rule,

⇒ ...(2)

So, charge on the capacitor

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 20

Two concentric metallic shell have radii 10 cm and 20 cm. The outer shell is given a positive charge 5 μC and the
inner shell is earthed. What is the charge on the inner shell?

Options:

–5 μC

–2.5 μC

2.5 μC

5 μC

Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint: After earthing, potential of inner shell becomes zero.

Solution:

Step 1:

Q = 5 × 10–6 C

x = charge on inner shell

Step 2: Potential of inner shell

You scored -1 of 4
Question : 21

Two point charges – 4Q and +Q are placed on X axis as shown in the figure. Distance between two charges is 4 m.
Electrostatic potential is zero on the X axis at a distance.

Options:

m from charge +Q

m from charge –4Q

m from charge –4Q

Both (1) and (3) are correct

Solution :

Answer (4)

Hint: Potential on the straight line joining two charges will be zero at two points. One in between two charges, another
outside closer to smaller charge.

Solution:

For point C:

⇒ m

So, from + Q charge (4 – 3.2) = 0.8 m

For point D:

⇒
⇒ m from + Q

⇒ from 4Q.
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 22

A capacitor of capacitance 2 μF is given a charge 20 μC. It is connected with a battery of emf 10 V as shown in
figure. Switch S is closed at time t = 0. Initial current in the circuit is

Options:

Zero

1A

2A

Solution :

Answer (4)

Hint: Initial p.d. across the capacitor

Solution: Initial p.d. across the capacitor

After closing the switch at t = 0,

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 23

Two cells A and B of equal emf E are having internal resistances r1 and r2 (r2 > r1) respectively. These two cells
are connected in series with external resistance R = (r2 – r1) as shown in the figure. Terminal potential difference
across one cell is zero. The cell is

Options:

Both A and B

Not possible for given value of R

Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint: Potential difference will be zero across the cell having higher internal resistance.

Solution: Current flowing the circuit

...(i)

For p.d. to be zero.

⇒ ...(ii)

From equation (i) + (ii),

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 24

Electrical power is transmitted from power stations to different places via transmission cables at very high voltage
to/for

Options:

Minimize power loss during transmission

Safety of people

Maximize power loss during transmission

Both (2) and (3)

Solution :

Answer (1)

Hint: Power loss during transmission

Solution: Power loss, , R is resistance of transmission cable

Where P is power transmitted.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 25

A variable resistor R is connected across a cell of emf ε and internal resistance r. Potential difference V across R is
measured and V – R graph is plotted as shown in the figure. Internal resistance of the cell is

Options:

Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint: ; when ;

Solution: From graph,

volt ...(1)

and when R = 3 Ω, volt

So,

⇒ 12 + 4r = 15

⇒ .
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 26

In the figure given below, current flowing in 6 Ω resistor is 2 A. The emf E of the battery is

Options:

84 V

24 V

96 V

80 V

Solution :

Answer (3)

Hint: .

I is main current

Solution:

P.D. across 6 Ω resistor

So, current through 3 Ω resistor

current through 2 Ω resistor

Main current I = 12 A
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 27

When a cell discharges then inside the cell

Options:

Positive charges move from negative terminal to positive terminal of the cell due to electrostatic field

Negative charges move from negative terminal to positive terminal of the cell due to non-electrostatic field

Positive charges move from positive terminal to negative terminal of the cell due to non-electrostatic field

Positive charges move from negative terminal to positive terminal of the cell due to non-electrostatic field

Solution :

Answer (4)

Hint: Non electrostatic field

Solution:

When a cell discharges, current inside the cell flows from negative terminal to positive terminal.

Electrostatic field opposes the motion of cations. Non-electrostatic field En exerts a force towards positive terminal on
cations.
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 28

In the given figure if V is the potential difference between C and D and I is the current flowing through it then

Options:

V = 0, I = 0

V = 0, I ≠ 0

Solution :

Answer (3)

Hint: Even if ; I can be non zero if

Solution:

Potential of C and D is same.

RAC = 2 Ω and RCB = 2 Ω

So, VAC = VCB = 6 V

So, from C to D.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 29

Two cylindrical wires of same material and equal length are having ratio of their radii 1 : 2. These wires are
connected with a battery as shown in the figure. The ratio of current in two wires is Ir and that of drift speed is vr.
Then

Options:

Will depend on R

Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint: ; for parallel combination.

Solution: Ratio of resistance of two wires

[As ρ and l are same]

For parallel combination V is same.

So,

Also, for a given material

So, as E is same across both resistor

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 30

In a Meter Bridge shown in the figure, the null point is found at a distance m from A. If now a resistance of 6 Ω

is connected in parallel with S, the null point occurs at 60 cm from A, then the value of S is

Options:

6Ω

12 Ω

4Ω

20 Ω

Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint:

Solution: Initially,

⇒ ⇒ S = 2R ...(i)

When 6 Ω resistor is joined across S, effective resistance of right hand arm becomes .

Now, ⇒

⇒ ⇒ S = 12 Ω
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 31

A carbon resistor of resistance MΩ is to be marked with rings of different colours for its identification.
The colour code sequence will be

Options:

Red – Green – Green – Gold

Red – Blue – Blue – Gold

Orange – Blue – Blue – Gold

Orange – Violet – Violet – Gold

Solution :

Answer (3)

Hint: B. B. ROY of Gr. Britain

Solution: Resistance is

i.e., %

So colour sequence will be

Orange – Blue – Blue – Gold

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 32

Driver battery of a potentiometer is having emf 16 V and internal resistance 1 Ω. Potentiometer wire of length 10 m
is having resistance 15 Ω. A cell of emf 1 V and internal resistance 1 Ω is connected with the potentiometer as
shown in the figure. Balanced length from the left end, when switch S is closed, will be

Options:

Solution :

Answer (3)

Hint: V = kl

Solution: Current through the potentiometer wire

Potential gradient in wire

V/m. ...(1)

Now, terminal p.d. across 1 V cell

...(2)

As V = Kl

⇒
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 33

Electron mobility is

Options:

Always positive

Always negative

Always zero

May be positive or negative

Solution :

Answer (1)

Hint:

Solution: Mobility is ratio of magnitude of drift velocity to the electric field. So it is positive for both negative and
positive charge.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 34

At temperature 23°C the resistance of a wire is 100 Ω. The temperature at which resistance becomes 104 Ω is
nearly (Given, temperature coefficient of resistance of material is 1.5 × 10–4 °C–1 )

Options:

1027°C

827°C

290°C

290 K

Solution :

Answer (3)

Hint: R = R0 [1 + αΔT].

Solution: As percentage change is small formula

R = R0 [1 + αΔT] can be directly used.

∴ Tf = 267 + 23 ≈ 290°C.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 35

A cylinder of radius R is placed in an electric field as shown in the figure. The net electric flux through the
cylinder is (consider SI units for all)

Options:

Zero

(a2) R2

(3a2) R2

(5a2) R2

Solution :

Answer (3)

Hint:

Solution:

Step 1: Through curved surface = 0

Flux will be only through circular cross-section

Step 2:
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 36

The relation V = IR is applicable to (Symbols have their usual meanings)

Options:

All conducting devices

Only ohmic conductors

Only semiconductors

Only silver, copper and aluminium

Solution :

Answer (1)

Hint: Definition of resistance.

Solution: Relation V = IR is definition of resistance which is applicable to all conducting devices.

You scored -1 of 4
Question : 37

A resistance of 1 Ω when connected across a cell of emf 3 V consumes power of 4 W. When this resistance is
replaced by another resistance R, then also same power is consumed. The value of R is

Options:

4Ω

2Ω

0.25 Ω

3Ω

Solution :

Answer (3)

Hint: For same power,

Solution: P = I12 × R1 ⇒

⇒ ⇒1+r

⇒ r = 0.5 Ω

Now, For same power.

⇒
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 38

The maximum safe current which can pass through a fuse wire can be found using

Options:

Ohm's law

Kirchhoff's junction rule

Stefan's law

Wien's displacement law

Solution :

Answer (3)

Hint: Rate of heat production = Rate of heat radiated.

Solution: In equilibrium rate of heat produced by fuse wire is equal to rate of heat radiated, which can be calculated
from Stefan's law.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 39

Four identical bulbs are connected as shown in the figure. When switch S is closed, power consumed by bulb B1 is
P. Power consumed by bulb B3 when S is opened

Options:

Solution :

Answer (3)

Hint: P = I2R

Solution: Let resistane of each bulb is R.

When switch is closed, main current

... (1)

Power consumed by bulb B1.

...(2)

When switch is open, same current flows through B1, B2 and B3. So power consumed by B3,

.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 40

In the given figure, potential at point A is

Options:

– 10 V

Solution :

Answer (1)

Hint: No current flows through 4 Ω resistor.

Solution:

As current flowing through a particular cell is same. No current flows through 4 Ω resistor connecting two loops.

Now,

⇒ volt.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 41

When a voltmeter is connected across 150 Ω resistance as shown in the figure, it reads 6 V. When this voltmeter is
connected across 900 Ω resistor, its reading will be

Options:

12 V

24 V

36 V

48 V

Solution :

Answer (3)

Hint: Voltmeter reading

Solution: In the first case.

Voltmeter reading is 6 V, so p.d. across 900 Ω resistor is (60 – 6) = 54 V.

Main current is

Now,

⇒ ⇒ 3RV = 300 + 2RV

⇒ RV = 300 Ω

When voltmeter is connected across 900 Ω.

Equivalent resistance of 900 Ω and RV

Current
So voltmeter reading
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 42

In the circuit shown in the figure, the current flowing through 4 Ω resistor is

Options:

A from a to b

A from a to b

A from b to a

A from b to a

Solution :

Answer (3)

Hint: Kirchhoff's loop rule/node method.

Solution:

Applying KVL in loop 1:

⇒ 6I1 – 4I2 = 5 ... (i)

In loop 2:

⇒ 4I1 + 10I2 = 8 ...(ii)

On solving,

A and

So, current through 4 Ω resistor

A from b to a.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 43

In the given figure, the current flowing through 2 Ω resistor is

Options:

12 A

Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint: I2Ω =

Solution: Let potential of junction is V.

From junction rule,

⇒ 20 – 6V = 5V – 36 ⇒ 11V = 156

⇒ volt.
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 44

Charge flowing through a resistor of resistance R at any time t is given by ; where 'a' is a constant. The
rate of heat generation in resistor at t = 0 is

Options:

Zero

Solution :
Answer (3)
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 45

If we increase the potential difference across an ohmic resistor then

Options:

Conductivity increases

Electric field strength inside the resistor decreases

Current density remains unchanged

Drift velocity of electron increases

Solution :

Answer (4)

Hint:

Solutions

Step 1:

Step 2: as v ↑ E ↑

as E ↑ J ↑

as E ↑ vd ↑
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 46

Sodium oxide has antifluorite structure. If 'a' is the edge length of unit cell then the nearest distance between the
centres of Na+ and O2– is

Options:

Solution :

Answer (4)

Hint : In antifluorite structure, anion form fcc lattice and cation occupy all the tetrahedral voids.

Sol.: Nearest distance between Na+ and O2– = r+ + r– =

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 47

Incorrect statement regarding voids is

Options:

In ccp unit cell, there are total nine voids along all the body diagonals

In ccp unit cell, the nearest distance between two tetrahedral voids is (a = edge length)

In hcp unit cell, all octahedral voids lie inside the unit cell

In simple cubic unit cell, there are two cubical voids in one unit cell

Solution :

Answer (4)

Hint : In simple cubic unit cell atoms are present at each corner of cube.

Sol. : In simple cubic unit cell there is one cubical void at body centre of unit cell.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 48

The freezing point depression constant of H2O is 1.86 K kg mol–1. When 3.42 g of Al2(SO4)3 is dissolved in 90 g
H2O, the freezing point of solution becomes –0.50 °C. The van't Hoff factor for Al2(SO4)3 is [Given : Molar mass of
Al2(SO4)3 = 342 g/mole]

Options:

3.52

2.42

4.12

Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint : ΔTf = i Kfm

Sol. : m =

ΔTf = i Kfm

i= = 2.42
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 49

A solution containing 20 g/dm3 of glucose (C6H12O6) is isotonic with 4% solution of a strong electrolyte of

type AB. The molar mass of the electrolyte is

Options:

1440 g mol–1

720 g mol–1

360 g mol–1

220 g mol–1

Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint : i1C1 = i2C2

Sol. :

⇒ MAB = = 720 g mol–1

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 50

An ideal solution has 2 : 3 mole ratio of two volatile liquids A and B. The vapour pressure of pure liquids A and B at
25°C are 220 mm of Hg and 180 mm of Hg respectively. The mole fraction of A in the vapour phase would be

Options:

0.45

0.90

0.36

0.72

Solution :

Answer (1)

Hint : PA = YA Ptotal, where YA : mole fraction of A in vapour phase.

Sol. : ∴ YA =

= = 0.45
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 51

100 g of 20% (w/v) H2SO4 is electrolysed for 9.65 minute with current of 200 ampere having 50% current
efficiency. The mass of solution left after the electrolysis is

Options:

90.35 g

94.6 g

84.34 g

88.12 g

Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint : During electrolysis :

At anode: 2H2O(l) O2 (g) + 4H+ + 4e–

At cathode: 2H+ + 2e– H2 (g)

Sol. :

No. of equivalents deposit = No. of Faradays passed

For O2:

Weight of Oxygen = 4.8 g

For H2 : = 0.6 g

Weight of solution Left = 100 – (4.8 + 0.6) = 94.6 g

You scored -1 of 4
Question : 52

If the standard reduction potential for Cu2+/Cu is +0.34 V, then the reduction potential at pH = 12 for the above
couple in saturated solution of Cu(OH)2 will be [Given, Ksp of Cu(OH)2 is 1.0 × 10–10]

Options:

0.16 V

0.52 V

0.32 V

0.26 V

Solution :

Answer (1)

Hint :

Ksp of Cu(OH)2 = [Cu2+][OH–]2 ⇒ [Cu2+] =

Sol:

pH = 12 ⇒ pOH = 2

[OH–] = 10–2 M

⇒ [Cu2+] = = 10–6 M

Therefore, reduction potential of Cu2+ (aq) + 2e– Cu(s)

= = 0.16 V
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 53

Standard electrode potential for Sn4+/Sn2+ couple is + 0.15 V and that for the Cr3+/Cr couple is –0.74 V. The cell
potential of given cell at 25°C will be

Options:

0.89

0.93

0.85

0.46

Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint :

Cell equation, 2Cr(s) + 3Sn4+ (0.1 M) 2Cr3+

(0.01 M) + 3Sn2+ (0.1 M)

Sol. :

= 0.15 – (–0.74) = 0.89 V

Ecell =

= = 0.93 V
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 54

The rate of first order reaction is 0.04 mol L–1 s–1 at 20 second and 0.02 mol L–1 s–1 at 40 second after the
initiation of the reaction. The half-life of the reaction is approximately

Options:

15 second

25 second

20 second

30 second

Solution :

Answer (3)

Hint & Sol. : For first order reaction,

k=

⇒ t1/2 = 20 sec
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 55

If the initial concentration of reactants is reduced to half in a reaction, then the half life of a reaction becomes two
times. The order of the reaction is

Options:

Solution :

Answer (3)

Hint.: , n is order of reaction

Sol.: For n = 2,

So on reducing the initial concentration of reactant to one half, the half life of reaction becomes double.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 56

In the reaction

If rate of disappearance of Br– ion is 4.5 × 10–3 molL–1 s–1, then rate of appearance of Br2 is

Options:

9.0 × 10–4 mol L–1 s–1

1.35 × 10–2 mol L–1 s–1

2.7 × 10–3 mol L–1 s–1

1.5 × 10–3 mol L–1 s–1

Solution :

Answer (3)

Hint : Rate of reaction:

Sol.:

= 2.7 × 10–3 mol L–1 sec–1

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 57

Correct order of coagulating value of the following electrolytes for a positive charged sol is

Options:

Na3PO4 > Na2SO4 > NaCl

NaCl > Na2SO4 > Na3PO4

Na2SO4 > Na3PO4 > NaCl

Na2SO4 > NaCl > Na3PO4

Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint : Coagulation value is inversely proportional to flocculating power of an effective ion.

Sol.: According to Hardy-Schulze rule, greater the valency of the flocculating ion greater is its power to cause
coagulation.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 58

Incorrect statement regarding enzyme catalysis is

Options:

One enzyme can catalyse more than one reaction

Coenzymes increase the catalytic activity of enzyme catalyst

The optimum pH for enzyme catalysed reaction is 5-7

Inhibitors reduce the catalytic activity of the enzyme

Solution :

Answer (1)

Hint : Enzyme catalysis is highly specific in nature.

Sol. : Each enzyme is specific for a given reaction i.e., one catalyst cannot catalyze more than one reaction.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 59

Which of the following is not a method of purification of colloidal solution?

Options:

Dialysis

Electrodialysis

Ultrafiltration

Electrophoresis

Solution :

Answer (4)

Hint : Electrophoresis is the movement of colloidal particles under electric field.

Sol. : Dialysis, electrodialysis and ultrafiltration method are used for the purification of colloids.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 60

A solid compound AB has CsCl type structure. If radius of cation (A+) is 120 pm, then the maximum radius of anion
(B–) will be

Options:

133.68 pm

163.93 pm

290.25 pm

309.83 pm

Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint : For BCC arrangement, = (0.732 to 1)

Sol. : = 0.732

∴ = 163.93
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 61

A mixed oxide has ccp structure. The cubic unit cell of mixed oxide is composed of oxide ions. One eighth of the
tetrahedral voids are occupied by divalent metal A and half of Octahedral voids are occupied by trivalent metal B.
The formula of oxide is

Options:

A2B3O4

AB2O4

AB2O2

A2B2O

Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint : In ccp lattice, number of atoms = n

Then, number of octahedral voids = n

Number of tetrahedral voids = 2n

Sol. :

Number of oxide ions = n

Number of A2+ ion =

Number of B3+ ion =

Formula of mixed oxide is

⇒ A1/4B1/2O = AB2O4
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 62

Sodium metal crystallises in a body centred cubic crystal. If atomic radius of sodium atom is 186 pm then the length
of the side of unit cell is

Options:

526 pm

429.56 pm

372 pm

440.24 pm

Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint : For BCC , a =

Sol. : a = = 429.56 pm
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 63

In Fe0.96O, the percentage of Fe3+ in total iron present in the oxide is

Options:

8.33

11.23

15.94

24.58

Solution :

Answer (1)

Hint : Non-stoichiometric neutral compound Fe0.96O contains both Fe2+ and Fe3+ ions.

Sol. :

Fe0.96O = (Fe2+)0.96–x (Fe3+)x(O2–) 1

∴ Net charge = 0

(+2)(0.96 – x) + (+3)x + (–2)1 = 0

⇒ x = 0.08

∴ % of Fe3+ in total Fe =
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 64

The correct order of solubility of He, CO2 and O2 in water at 298 K and 1 atm is

Options:

He > O2 > CO2

O2 > CO2 > He

CO2 > O2 > He

CO2 > He > O2

Solution :

Answer (3)

Hint : Higher the value of KH, lesser will be the solubility.

Sol. : KH value: He > O2 > CO2

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 65

The freezing point of 0.1 molal solution of X in water is greater than equimolal solution of Y in water. Which one of
the following conclusion can be drawn regarding X and Y?

Options:

X undergoes dissociation while Y does not

X undergoes association while Y does not

Degree of dissociation of X is higher than degree of association of Y

Both X and Y do not dissociate or associate

Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint :

For dissociation, i > 1

For association, i < 1

Sol. : ΔTf = i Kfm

∴ ΔTf ∝ i

Solution having lower value of 'i' will have high freezing point.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 66

The graph between PTotal (Total vapour pressure of solution) and XB (mole fraction of solute) is given below ( :
Vapour pressure of pure liquid A and is vapour pressure of pure liquid B)

The slope of graph is

Options:

Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint : Total vapour pressure of solution containing two volatile liquids is given by Ptotal = PA + PB

Sol. :

PTotal =

Graph between Ptotal and XB will be straight line with.

∴ Slope =
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 67

Which of the following electrode does not have zero electrode potential?

Options:

Pt(s) | H2(g, 1 bar) | H+(aq, 1M)

Pt(s) | H2(g, 10–7 bar) | H+(aq, pH = 7)

Pt(s) | H2(g, 10–8 bar) | H+(aq, pH = 4)

Pt(s) | H2(g, 10–2 bar)| H+(aq, pH = 1)

Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint : Electrode potential of hydrogen electrode,

2H+(aq) + 2e– H2(g) is given by

Sol. : For Pt(s) | H2(g, 10–7bar) | H+ (aq, pH = 7)

= = –0.206 V
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 68

Which of the following expression correctly represents the equivalent conductance of Al2(SO4)3 at infinite dilution?
(Given that and are the molar conductance at infinite dilution of the respective ions)

Options:

Solution :

Answer (3)

Hint :

Sol. : (Al2(SO4)3) = (Al3+) + (SO42–)

=
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 69

On the basis of the following Eo values,

Cr2O72–(aq) + 14H+(aq) + 6e– 2Cr3+(aq) + 7H2O(l); Eo = 1.33 V

NO3– (aq) + 4H+ (aq) + 3e– NO(g) + 2H2O(l); Eo = 0.97 V

, Eo = –0.83 V

The correct order of oxidizing power of the species is

Options:

H2O > NO3– > Cr2O72–

Cr2O72– > NO3– > H2O

NO3– > Cr2O72– > H2O

Cr2O72– > H2O > NO3–

Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint : Higher the value of reduction potential better will be oxidizing agent.

Sol. : So correct order of oxidizing power is

Cr2O72– > NO3– > H2O

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 70

If the Eocell for a given reaction has a positive value then which of the following gives the correct relationship for the
values of ΔGo and Keq?

Options:

ΔGo > 0, Keq = 1

ΔGo > 0, Keq < 1

ΔGo < 0, Keq > 1

ΔGo < 0, Keq < 1

Solution :

Answer (3)

Hint : ΔGo = –nFE°Cell

ΔGo = –2.303RT logKeq

Sol. : If, is positive.

Then, ΔGo < 0 and Keq > 1.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 71

During the electrolysis of concentrated H2SO4, the reaction taking place at anode is

Options:

4OH–(aq) O2(g) + 2H2O(l) + 4e–

2SO42–(aq) S2O82–(aq) + 2e–

2SO42–(aq) S2O72–(aq) + O2(g) + 2e–

2H2O(l) 4H+(aq) + O2(g) + 4e–

Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint : For concentrated H2SO4, oxidation of sulphate ions take place at anode.

Sol. : At anode: 2SO42–(aq) S2O82–(aq) + 2e–

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 72

Consider the reaction, A + B + C Products

The rate of the reaction is doubled when the concentrations of both A and B are doubled and rate of reaction
increases by four times when concentration of both B and C are doubled. The possible rate law expression of the
reaction is

Options:

Rate = k[A]1 [B]1 [C]1

Rate = k[A]0 [B]1 [C]2

Rate = k[A]0 [B]2 [C]1

Rate = k[A]0 [B]1 [C]1

Solution :

Answer (4)

Hint: Rate of reaction ∝ [A]x [B]y [C]z

Sol. : Let rate law expression is

Rate = K [A]x [B]y [C]z

Case-I : (2)x+y = 2 ⇒ x + y = 1

Case II : (2)y+z = 4 = (2)2 ⇒ y + z = 2

If x = 0, then y = z = 1

∴ The possible rate law expression is

Rate = K [A]0 [B]1 [C]1

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 73

Antiferromagnetic substance among the following is

Options:

MnO

Ni

CrO2

Fe3O4

Solution :

Answer (1)

Hint : Antiferromagnetic oxide has zero net magnetic moment.

Sol. : MnO: Antiferromagnetic.

Ni : Ferromagnetic

CrO2 : Ferromagnetic

Fe3O4: Ferrimagnetic
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 74

If 40% of first order reaction was completed in 50 minute then 50% of the same reaction would be completed in
approximately [Given : log 3 = 0.47, log 5 = 0.7]

Options:

79 minute

65 minute

61 minute

74 minute

Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint & Sol. :

For first order reaction, k =

For 40% completion, k =

t1/2 =

t1/2 = 65.4 minutes 65 minutes

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 75

If activation energy of a reaction for forward direction is greater than backward direction then

Options:

ΔH = 0

ΔH < 0

ΔH > 0

ΔH > Ea (forward)

Solution :

Answer (3)

Hint : For reversible reaction, ΔH = Ea(f) – Ea(b)

Sol. : If Ea (f) > Ea (b).

ΔH > 0
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 76

Which of the following is incorrect graph for Freundlich adsorption isotherm?

Options:

Both (2) & (3)

Solution :

Answer (3)

Hint : Extent of adsorption decreases with increase in temperature.

Sol. : According to Freundlich adsorption isotherm

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 77

Gold number of some of the protective colloids are given.

Colloid Gold Number

Gelatin 0.005
Gum arabic 0.15
Sodium oleate 0.4
Starch 25

Which of the following has highest protecting power?

Options:

Gelatin

Gum arabic

Sodium oleate

Starch

Solution :

Answer (1)

Hint : Lower is the gold number of protective colloids higher will be its protecting power.

Sol. : Gelatin has highest protecting power.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 78

When silver nitrate solution is added to excess potassium iodide solution, the colloidal particles formed is

Options:

Positively charged

Negatively charged

Neutral

May be positively or negatively charged

Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint : Charge present on colloidal particle will depend on the adsorption of common ion, which is present in excess.

Sol. :

So, Colloidal particles will be negatively charged.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 79

Sodium metal crystallises in a body centered cubic crystal. If the length of the side of the unit cell of sodium is 430
pm, the density of the unit cell is approximately

Options:

0.96 g cm–3

0.53 g cm–3

0.46 g cm–3

0.86 g cm–3

Solution :

Answer (1)

Hint : d =

Sol. : For bcc, Z = 2

d= ⇒ d = 0.96 g cm–3
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 80

An aqueous solution of a nonvolatile solute boils at 101.20°C. At what temperature the solution will freeze? (Given:
Kb = 0.512 K kg mol–1 and Kf = 1.86 K kg mol–1)

Options:

–2.17°C

–1.2°C

–3.46°C

–4.36°C

Solution :

Answer (4)

Hint: ΔTb = Kbm and ΔTf = Kfm

Sol. :

⇒ ΔTf = 4.36

Freeing point of solution = (0 – 4.36)°C = –4.36°C

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 81

The mass of urea to be dissolved in 100 g of water (Kb = 0.52 K kg mol–1) to prepare a solution having boiling point
101°C, is

Options:

10.26 g

4.2 g

11.54 g

14.66 g

Solution :

Answer (3)

Hint: ΔTb = Kbm

Sol. : 1 = ⇒ WB = 11.54 g

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 82

The osmotic pressure of 0.1 M solution of potassium ferrocyanide K4[Fe(CN)6] at 27°C is (Assume, 60%
dissociation of salt)

Options:

8.37 atm

4.21 atm

2.15 atm

9.66 atm

Solution :

Answer (1)

Hint : K4[Fe(CN)6] 4K+ + [Fe(CN)6]4–

i = 1 + (n–1)α = 1 + (5–1) × 0.6 = 3.4

Osmotic pressure, = iCRT

= 3.4 × 0.1 × 0.0821 × 300 = 8.37 atm

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 83

Standard Gibb's energy for the given reaction is

Zn(s) + Cu2+(aq) Zn2+(aq) + Cu(s)

(Given and )

Options:

–212.3 kJ mol–1

212.3 kJ mol–1

110.61 kJ mol–1

–110.61 kJ mol–1

Solution :

Answer (1)

Hint : ΔG° = –nFE°Cell

Sol. : E°Cell =

= 0.34 – (–0.76) = 1.1 V

ΔG° = –2 × 96500 × 1.1 J = –212.3 kJ

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 84

A 0.2 molal aqueous solution of electrolyte AB2 freezes at –0.88°C. If Kf for H2O is 1.86 K kg mol–1 then degree of
dissociation of AB2 is

Options:

0.52

0.68

0.76

0.84

Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint : ΔTf = iKfm

Sol. : ΔTf = 0.88°C

∴ 0.88 = i × 1.86 × 0.2 ⇒ i = 2.36

Now α = = 0.68
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 85

For strong electrolyte, variations of molar conductivity with concentration is given by equation

Options:

Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint : Molar conductivity for strong electrolyte is given by Debye-Huckel equation

Sol. :

You scored -1 of 4
Question : 86

During recharging of lead storage battery, the reaction taking place at cathode is

Options:

Pb(s) + SO42–(aq) PbSO4(s) + 2e–

PbSO4(s) + 2H2O (l) PbO2 (s) + SO42–(aq) + 4H+(aq) + 2e–

PbSO4(s) + 2e– Pb(s) + SO42– (aq)

PbO2(s) + SO42–(aq) + 4H+(aq) + 2e– PbSO4(s) + 2H2O(l)

Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint : During charging and recharging of Lead storage battery, the terminal of anode and cathode remain same.

Sol. : Cathode reaction during recharging is

PbSO4(s) + 2H2O PbO2 + SO42–(aq) + 4H+(aq) + 2e–

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 87

Select the incorrect graph among the following

(1) First order reaction

(2) Zero order reaction

(3) Zero order reaction

(4) First order reaction

Options:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Solution :

Answer (4)

Hint : For first order reaction,

log [A]t = log [A0] –

Sol. : For first order reaction

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 88

The energy of activation of a reaction for which rate doubles when the temperature is raised from 300 K to 310 K is

Options:

9.8 kcal

14.2 kcal

12.9 kcal

11.2 kcal

Solution :

Answer (3)

Hint :

Sol. :

Ea = 12.9 kcal.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 89

Incorrect statement with respect to Lyophilic colloids is

Options:

Lyophilic colloids are easily formed by direct mixing of dispersed phase with dispersion medium

Lyophilic colloids are reversible sols

Lyophilic colloids can be easily coagulated

Lyophilic colloids are highly solvated

Solution :

Answer (3)

Hint : Lyophilic colloids are highly solvated.

Sol. : Lyophilic colloids are stable colloids and cannot be easily coagulated.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 90

Which of the following is positively charged sol?

Options:

Haemoglobin

Gold sols

Acid dye stuff

Gelatin

Solution :

Answer (1)

Hint : Acid dye, gold sol and gelatin are negatively charged colloid.

Sol. : Haemoglobin is positively charged colloid.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 91

Which one of the following statements is incorrect?

Options:

Asexual reproduction occurs by a single parent with or without the involvement of gamete formation

Lifespan of organisms are not necessarily correlated with their size

Mode of reproduction can be determined by organism's habitat and its internal physiology

Asexual reproduction is common among monerans, plants and animals with relatively complex
organisations

Solution :

Answer (4)

Hint: Asexual reproduction is preferred by organisms like monera, protista, algae, fungi and sponges.

Solution: Asexual reproduction is common in plants and animals with relatively simple organisation.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 92

Refer the table given below and select the option which is correct for A to H.

Options:

A - 12, C - Butterfly, E - Rice, G - 36

B - 7, D - 39, E - Rat, G - 20

A - 12, C - Dog, F - 24, H - 17

B - 10, C - Cat, E - Maize, H - 17

Solution :

Answer (3)

Hint: Number of chromosomes in a meiocyte is 2n (diploid) and gamete is n(haploid).

Solution :

Chromosome no. in meiocyte Chromosome no. in gamete

House fly 12 6
Dog 78 39
Rice 24 12
Apple 34 17
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 93

Mark the true statement regarding gamete transfer

Options:

In a majority of organisms both female and male gametes are motile

In bryophytes, pteridophytes and gymnosperms, water is the medium through which the gamete transfer
takes place

Transfer of pollen grains to the stigma is relatively easy in papaya than pea

Successful transfer and coming together of gametes is essential for the most critical event of sexual
reproduction

Solution :

Answer (4)

Hint: Fertilisation is the most critical event of sexual reproduction.

Solution: Essential requirements of fertilisation are:

(i) Transfer of gametes

(ii) Coming together of gametes.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 94

The vital link that ensures continuity of species between organisms of one generation and the next is

Options:

Gamete

Zygote

Embryo

Egg

Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint: First cell of the new generation in all sexually reproducing organisms connects two successive generations.

Solution: Zygote is the first cell and vital link that ensures continuity of species through generations.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 95

Identify the label A and B in below given diagram and choose the option with correct set of features for A and B.

Features:

(i) Has a cap of five coronary cells.

(ii) Matures prior to other sex organ

(iii) Its jacket is formed by five tube cells.

(iv) Forms starch and oil globules laden gamete

(v) Its jacket is formed by eight shield cells.

(vi) Contains a single egg.

A B
(1) i, ii, v, vi iii, iv
(2) i, iii, iv, vi ii, v
(3) i, iv, v ii, iii, vi
(4) iv, v, vi i, ii, iii

Options:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint: Chara is generally a monoecious green alga having nucule and globule as sex organs.

Solution: A – Nucule / Oogonium.

B – Globule / Antheridium

• Globule shows protandrous conditions i.e., matures prior to nucule.

• The jacket of nucule is formed by 5 tube cells.

• The egg is laden with starch and oil globules.

• Nucule contains a single egg.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 96

Statement A: In some plants, where flowering occurs more than once, the inter flowering period is called juvenile
phase.

Statement B: Recovery phase is not the juvenile phase but is a part of the mature phase.

Options:

Only statement A is correct

Only statement B is correct

Both statements A and B are correct

Both statements A and B are incorrect

Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint: Interflowering period is the mature phase found in polycarpic plants.

Solution: Inter flowering period is used for building up resources and is, therefore, called recovery phase.

It is a part of mature phase.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 97

External fertilization is found in all, except

Options:

Majority of algae

Amphibians

Majority of plants

Fishes

Solution :

Answer (3)

Hint: External fertilisation occurs in the external medium (water), i.e., outside the body of the organisms.

Solution:

• External fertilisation is found in a majority of algae and fishes as well as amphibians.

• In majority of plants (bryophytes, pteridophytes, gymnosperms and angiosperms), internal fertilization takes place.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 98

State true (T) or false (F) for the following statements.

a. The ploidy level of gamete, embryo and endosperm in most of the angiosperms is n, 2n and 3n respectively.

b. Both Agave and Bryophyllum vegetatively propagate by bulbils.

c. Strobilanthus kunthiana is a monocarpic plant that flowers once in 12 years.

d. The 'eyes' of Solanum tuberosum are floral buds.

e. Heterogametic condition is found in Fucus, Rhizopus, Ulothrix and Chara.

abcde
(1) T F T F F
(2) T F T F T
(3) F T T T T
(4) T F F T F

Options:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Solution :

Answer (1)

Hint: Bulbil is the vegetative propagule in Agave.

Bryophyllum vegetatively propagate by its leaves.

Solution: Eyes of potato are axillary buds.

Heterogametes – Fucus, Chara

Isogametes – Rhizopus, Ulothrix.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 99

The anther wall layer(s) that perform(s) the function of protection is/are

a. Epidermis

b. Endothecium

c. Middle layers

d. Tapetum

Options:

Only a

Only a and c

All except c

All except d

Solution :

Answer (4)

Hint: The outer three wall layers perform the function of protection.

Solution: Epidermis, endothecium and middle layers perform the function of protection.

They also help in dehiscence of anther to release the pollen.

While tapetum nourishes the developing pollen grains.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 100

As the anther matures and dehydrates, the microspores dissociate from each other and develop into

Options:

Microsporangium

Megasporangium

Pollen grains

Male gametes

Solution :

Answer (3)

Hint: A mature anther contains male gametophyte.

Solution: When anther matures the microspores dissociate from each other and develop into pollen grains.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 101

Vegetative cell differs from generative cell as it

Options:

Is bigger and has abundant food reserve

Has a large irregularly shaped nucleus

Is spindle shaped with dense cytoplasm

All except (3)

Solution :

Answer (4)

Hint: Generative cell floats in cytoplasm of vegetative cell.

Solution: Generative cell is spindle shaped and has dense cytoplasm.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 102

Examine the figure given below and select the option which correctly labels the parts A, B, C and D.

Options:

A- Cotyledon, B- Hypocotyl root axis, C- Root tip, D- Endosperm

A- Testa, B- Cotyledon, C- Shoot apex, D- Scutellum

A- Cotyledon, B- Shoot apical meristem, C- Root tip, D- Endosperm

A- Seed coat, B- Hypocotyl root axis, C- Cotyledon, D- Coleoptile

Solution :

Answer (1)

Hint: Figure depicts structure of onion seed.

Solution:

A – Cotyledon.

B – Hypocotyl root axis, just below shoot apical meristem.

C – Root tip

D – Endosperm
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 103

An embryo develops at the __A__ of the female gametophyte. In monocots, __B__ has a shoot apex and a few
__C__ enclosed in a __D__ called coleoptile.

Fill the blanks (A–D) by selecting the correct option.

Options:

A-Chalazal end, B-Leaf primordia, C-Epicotyl, D-Coleoptile

A-Micropylar end, B-Epicotyl, C-Leaf primordia, D-Hollow foliar structure

A-Chalazal end, B-Leaf primordia, C-Hypocotyl, D-Leaf primordia

A-Micropylar end, B-Epicotyl, C-Plumule, D-Coleorhiza

Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint: Embryo generally develops at micropylar end.

Solution:

A – Micropylar end, where the zygote is situated.

B – Epicotyl

C – Leaf primordia

D – A hollow foliar structure.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 104

After entering the embryo sac, the pollen tube releases two male gametes into

Options:

The cytoplasm of the central cell

The filiform apparatus

The cytoplasm of the egg cell

The cytoplasm of the helper cell

Solution :

Answer (4)

Hint: Synergids are also known as helper cells.

Solution: The pollen tube enters the embryo sac through a degenerating synergid.

The pollen tubes releases the two male gametes into the cytoplasm of the synergids.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 105

The coconut water

Options:

Is free nuclear endosperm

Contains more than thousands of nuclei

Contains only one nucleus

Both (1) & (2)

Solution :

Answer (4)

Hint: Coconut water is a free nuclear endosperm.

Solution: Free nuclear endosperm of coconut contains thousands of nuclei.

You scored -1 of 4
Question : 106

Study the statements (a–d) given below and select the correct ones w.r.t. outbreeding devices

a. Promote inbreeding depression.

b. Dioecy prevents autogamy but promotes geitonogamy and Xenogamy.

c. Self incompatibility.

d. Protandry and protogyny.

Options:

Only b & d

All except, a

Only c

Only c & d

Solution :

Answer (4)

Hint: Outbreeding devices are features to prevent self pollination.

Solution: Dioecy (Dioecious condition) prevents both autogamy and geitonogamy.

Protogyny and protandry are differential maturity of male and female sex organs which avoid selfing.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 107

Identify the incorrect statement

Options:

In aquatic plants such as water lily and water hyacinth, the flowers are pollinated by insects

Ophiophily takes place in Arisaema and Santalum

Sticky pollen grain, small sized clustered flowers and presence of nectaries, characterise the
entomophilous plants

Queens of Bombus affinis perforate Aquilegia spurs and steal nectar

Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint: Ophiophily is pollination by snake.

Solution: Ophiophily occurs in Santalum and Michelia.

Malacophily (pollination by snails) e.g. Arisaema (Cobra plant).

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 108

In artificial hybridization, stigma is protected by

Options:

Post fertilization removal of anther

Bagging

Tagging

Both (1) & (2)

Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint: In artificial hybridization stigma is dusted with desired pollen grains.

Solution: Stigma is covered by paper or butter paper to avoid contamination. This process is called bagging.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 109

How many of the following statement(s) is/are true for female gametophyte of a typical angiosperm?

a. Seven of the eight nuclei are surrounded by cell walls.

b. During mitotic divisions in a functional megaspore, nuclear divisions are immediately followed by cell wall
formation.

c. Has 7 cells and 8 nuclei.

d. Filiform apparatus present at micropylar part guides the pollen tube entry into the embryo sac.

Options:

One

Two

Three

Four

Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint: Mature female gametophyte is 8 nucleated and 7 celled structure.

Solution: During female gametophyte i.e., embryo sac formation, cell wall is laid down after eight nucleate stage. Only
six of eight nuclei are surrounded by cell wall.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 110

Seeds, that retain a part of endosperm as it is not completely used up during embryo development are found in all,
except

Options:

Wheat and maize

Wheat and castor

Maize and castor

Pea and groundnut

Solution :

Answer (4)

Hint: Monocots have usually endospermic seeds

Dicots have usually non-endospermic seeds.

Solution: Pea and Groundnut – Dicot seeds which are exalbuminous.

Wheat, Maize, Barley-monocot seeds.

Castor – Dicot seed but endospermic.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 111

Transfer of pollen grains from anther to the stigma of another flower of different plant of the same species is called

Options:

Geitonogamy

Xenogamy

Autogamy

Cleistogamy

Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint: Such pollination brings genetically different types of pollen grains to the stigma.

Solution: Xenogamy or allogamy or cross pollination involves transfer of pollen grains from one plant to the another.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 112

Which of the following is a form of asexual reproduction that mimics the sexual reproduction?

Options:

Polyembryony

Syngamy

Amphimixis

Apomixis

Solution :

Answer (4)

Hint: This method can produce seeds from a sporophytic tissue.

Solution: Apomixis is a special mechanism to produce seeds without fertilization.

You scored -1 of 4
Question : 113

Sometimes nucellar cell surrounding the embryo sac starts dividing, protrudes into embryo sac and develops into
embryo in

Options:

Mango

Citrus

Banana

Both (1) & (2)

Solution :

Answer (4)

Hint: Polyembryony occurs through sporophytic budding.

Solution: Mango and Citrus – show polyembryony from nucellar cells.

Banana – A parthenocarpic fruit.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 114

Identify the figures given below from P to S and select the option that correctly labels a, b parts of fruits and c, d
parts of the seeds.

P. Q.

R. S.

a b c d
(1) Mesocarp Achene Endosperm Shoot apical meristem
(2) Endocarp Achene Endosperm Shoot apical meristem
(3) Endocarp Berry Cotyledon Root tip
(4) Mesocarp Berry Endosperm Root tip

Options:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint: Figures (P) and (Q) represent fruits of apple and strawberry respectively.

Figures (R) and (S) – Castor seed.

Solution:

'a' shows endocarp

'b' shows achene.

'c' shows endosperm (3n) of castor

'd' shows shoot apical meristem.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 115

What would be the number of chromosomes in a cell of scutellum and aleurone layer respectively of maize seed, if
it has eight chromosomes in an antipodal cell?

Options:

32 and 16

16 and 24

8 and 16

24 and 8

Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint: Antipodal cells are haploid.

Solution : Antipodal cells (n) = 8

Cells of Aleurone layer (3n) = 3 × 8 = 24

Scutellum (2n) = 2 × 8 = 16

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 116

All of the following are related to inheritance, except

Options:

It is the basis of heredity

It is the degree by which progeny differs from their parents

It is the process by which characters are passed on from parents to progeny

Genetics deals with it

Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint: Inheritance is the process by which characters are passed on from parent to progeny.

Solution: Variation is the degree by which progeny differs from their parents.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 117

Select the odd one w.r.t. dominant traits of pea

Options:

Green pod colour

Green seed colour

Full pod shape

Yellow seed colour

Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint: Green seed colour expresses itself only in homozygous condition.

Solution:

Green seed colour is a recessive trait

Dominant traits :

Green pod colour.

Full pod shape.

Yellow seed colour.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 118

How many true-breeding pea plant varieties were selected by Mendel?

Options:

36

14

24

Solution :

Answer (3)

Hint: Mendel selected 7 characters in pea plant.

Solution: Initially mendel took 34 varieties of pea plants then 22 but ultimately worked with only 7 pairs of varieties or
14 true breeding pea plants.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 119

Select the correct statement

Options:

Sahiwal cows of Punjab are developed by domestication and natural selection

Mendel conducted hybridisation experiments on sweet pea for seven years

Mendel's experiments had a small sampling size, which gave credibility to his results

A true-breeding line shows the stable trait inheritance and expression for several generations

Solution :

Answer (4)

Hint: New hybrids are developed by man through artificial selection.

Solution: Sahiwal cows are developed from domestication and artificial selection from ancestral wild cows.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 120

Which of the following characteristics do not represent 'inheritance of ABO blood group' in humans?

a. Polygenic inheritance

b. Multiple allele

c. Incomplete dominance

d. Dominance

e. Co-dominance

Options:

Only b and d

a and c

Only d and e

b, d and e

Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint: Human blood group (ABO) is controlled by one gene that has three alleles.

Solution: Inheritance of blood group in human is characterised by dominance, co-dominance and multiple allelism.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 121

Match the column I with column II and choose the correct option

Column I Column II
a. Alleles (i) A single gene product producing more than one effect.
b. Genes (ii) The units of inheritance
c. Pleiotropy (iii) Forms of a gene which code for a pair of contrasting traits.
d. Multiple allelism (iv) Presence of more than two alleles for a gene

Options:

a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv)

a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i)

a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)

a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)

Solution :

Answer (1)

Hint: In multiple allelism, one gene has more than two alleles in a population.

Solution: Alleles are two contrasting forms of a gene.

A pleiotropic gene may affect more than one phenotypes.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 122

When a cross is made between red flowered and white flowered snapdragon plants, the proportion of offsprings
having pink and white flowers respectively in F2 generation will be

Options:

25% and 50%

50% and 25%

50% and 0%

25% and 0%

Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint: In snapdragon, flower colour is an example of incomplete dominance.

Solution: Phenotypic ratio in incomplete dominance is

1:2:1
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 123

The __A__ which represents the original phenotype is __B__ and the __C__ is generally the mutant type.

Fill in the blanks (A – C) by selecting the correct option.

Options:

A- Unmodified allele, B- Dominant allele, C- Modified allele

A- Wild allele, B- Dominant allele, C- Unmodified allele

A- Modified allele, B- Functional allele, C- Mutant allele

A- Functional allele, B- Wild allele, C- Unmodified allele

Solution :

Answer (1)

Hint: Unmodified allele represents the original phenotype, i.e., dominant allele or wild type.

Solution: The modified allele is generally the recessive allele or mutant type.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 124

Morgan and his colleagues worked with Drosophila melanogaster and found it a very suitable experimental material
to study chromosomal theory of inheritance, because

a. A single mating could produce a large number of progeny flies.

b. It has many types of hereditary variations.

c. Its hereditary variations can be seen with high power microscopes only.

d. It completes its life cycle in about two weeks.

e. Smaller females are easily distinguishable from larger males.

Options:

Only c & e

Only a, b & c

Only d

Only a, b & d

Solution :

Answer (4)

Hint: The experimental organism should be easily grown, have small lifespan, show variations.

Solution: There was a clear differentiation of the sexes between the male and female flies and they are easily
distinguishable even in low power microscopes.

Female is larger than male.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 125

Which one of the following is not a wild type trait taken by T.H. Morgan during his dihybrid cross on Drosophila?

Options:

Brown body colour

Red eye colour

Yellow body colour

Normal wings

Solution :

Answer (3)

Hint: Wild type traits are dominant traits.

Solution: Red eye colour, brown body colour and normal wings are dominant features.

In dihybrid cross of his experiment, Morgan showed that yellow body (y) colour is a recessive trait.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 126

Calculate the sum total of genotypes and phenotypes, if a character is controlled by three pairs of genes.

Options:

27

14

34

Solution :

Answer (4)

Hint: Character is controlled by 3 pair of genes, thus its a polygenic inheritance.

Solution:

Number of genotypes for a polygene = 3n

Number of phenotypes for a polygene = 2n + 1

n = Number of pair of polygenes.

Detailed solution: Number of genotype = 33 = 27

Number of phenotype = 2n + 1

=2×3+1

=6+1=7

Sum total = 27 + 7 = 34
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 127

In a dihybrid cross of Mendel's experiment; what will be the ratio of wrinkled with pure yellow, pure round with
green and hybrid round with pure yellow seeds in F2 generation?

Options:

2:1:2

1:1:2

4:1:2

1:1:1

Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint: Genotypic ratio was 1 : 2 : 1 : 2 : 4 : 2 : 1 : 2 :1 in Mendel's dihybrid cross in pea plant

Solution:

Wrinkled, pure yellow – rrYy = 1/16

Pure round, green – RRyy = 1/16

Hybrid round, pure yellow – RrYY – 2/16

Genotypic ratio = 1 : 1 : 2

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 128

Which gene codes for testis determining factor?

Options:

Cry gene of autosome

Sry gene of X-chromosome

Sry gene of Y-chromosome

Sry gene of autosome

Solution :

Answer (3)

Hint: TDF is present in human males.

Solution: Y-chromosome carries a gene Sry that codes for TDF (testis determining factor)
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 129

Identify the correct statement w.r.t. sex determination in the given organisms

Options:

Egg determines the sex in Dioscorea

Homozygous condition of sex chromosomes (XX) is found in male grasshopper

Sperm determines the sex in moth

Females are heterogametic in butterflies

Solution :

Answer (4)

Hint: Female forms two different types of gametes in butterflies.

Solution:

Males Females Offsprings

AA + XO AA + XX Dioscorea, Grasshopper
AA + ZZ AA + ZW Birds
AA + ZZ AA + ZO Butterflies, moth
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 130

Mark the incorrectly matched pair

Options:

Sex influenced trait – Pattern baldness

Sex limited trait – Beard in man

Holandric trait – Hypertrichosis

Sex influenced trait – Milk glands in female

Solution :

Answer (4)

Hint: Genes of sex limited traits are found in both sexes but express in one sex only.

Solution: Holandric trait – Hypertrichosis

Sex influenced trait – Pattern baldness

Sex limited trait – Milk glands in female and beard in man

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 131

Statement A: Chromosomal aberrations are commonly observed in cancer cells.

Statement B: Deletions and insertions of base pairs of DNA causes frameshift mutations.

Options:

Only statement A is correct

Only statement B is correct

Both statements A and B are incorrect

Both statements A and B are correct

Solution :

Answer (4)

Hint: Cancer can occur due to mutation.

Solution: Chromosomal aberrations are commonly observed in cancer cells.

Frameshift mutations are caused by deletions and insertions of DNA base pairs.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 132

Find the combination of gametes that results in trisomic condition

Options:

n × (n – 1)

(n – 1) × (n – 1)

n × (n + 1)

(n + 1) × (n + 1)

Solution :

Answer (3)

Hint: Trisomy in humans occurs when an extra chromosome is present apart from 44 chromosomes i.e., 45
chromosomes.

Solution: n × (n + 1) = 2n + 1 is trisomic condition.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 133

In the following pedigree chart, the shaded symbols represent the affected individuals. Identify the correct option for
the given pedigree chart.

Options:

Autosomal recessive disorder : Myotonic dystrophy

X-linked recessive disorder : Colourblindness

Autosomal recessive disorder : Cystic fibrosis

Allosomal disorder : Sickle cell anaemia

Solution :

Answer (3)

Hint: On analysis, given pedigree depicts autosomal recessive disorder.

Solution: Cystic fibrosis and sickle cell anaemia are autosomal recessive disorders.

Myotonic dystrophy is an autosomal dominant disorder.

Colourblindness is an X-linked recessive disorder.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 134

An individual affected by Down's syndrome can be characterised by all the following features, except

Options:

Palm crease and flat back of head

Broad flat face and congenital heart disease

Many 'loops' on finger tips

Testicular atrophy and too small tongue

Solution :

Answer (4)

Hint: They have big and wrinkled tongue.

Solution: Down's syndrome develops due to trisomy of chromosome number 21. It is also characterised by short
stature, partially open mouth and under developed gonads and genitals.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 135

Select the incorrect statement from the following

Options:

Thalassemia is a quantitative problem of synthesizing too few globin polypeptides

Phenylketonuria is caused due to lack of a liver enzyme, phenylalanine hydroxylase

Cytoplasmic male sterility in maize is a function of defective chloroplast gene

Haemophilia and myotonic dystrophy are mendelian disorders

Solution :

Answer (3)

Hint: Cytoplasmic male sterility in maize occurs due to defect in gene of an organelle known as power house of the
cell.

Solution: Defective mitochondria results in male sterility in maize.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 136

The cell which first enters in meiosis during spermatogenesis is

Options:

Spermatogonia

Primary spermatocyte

Secondary spermatocyte

Spermatid

Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint: Spermatogonia differentiate or grow into diploid structures that undergo meiosis.

Sol: Primary spermatocytes enter into meiosis I that results into secondary spermatocytes which further undergo
meiosis II and produce fourspermatids.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 137

The ducts which open into nipple of a mammary gland are

Options:

Mammary tubules

Lactiferous ducts

Mammary ducts

Mullerian ducts

Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint: Mammary ampullae open into these ducts

Sol: Glandular tissue of mammary gland comprises of 15-20 lobules. The sequence of ducts that lead to nipple of
mammary gland is :

Mammary duct Mammary ampullae Lactiferous duct Nipple

You scored -1 of 4
Question : 138

After ovulation, ovum is released from ovary into

Options:

Coelom

Infundibulum

Fallopian tube

Uterus

Solution :

Answer (1)

Hint: Another term for this location is body cavity.

Sol: At the 14th day of ovulation, ovum is released from ovary into coelom and sweeping movement of fimbriae of
infundibulum collect the ovum which then enters into fallopian tube.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 139

Choose the correct sequence of embryonic development in humans

Options:

Zygote Morula Gastrula Blastocyst

Zygote Morula Blastocyst Gastrula

Gastrula Morula Zygote Blastocyst

Zygote Gastrula Morula Blastocyst

Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint: After fusion of gametes, zygote is formed.

Sol: Zygote divides and forms morula that further differentiates into blastocyst and then gastrula.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 140

Mucous plug is formed in cervix during pregnancy under the influence of hormone

Options:

Estrogen

Progesterone

LH

Estrogen and progesterone

Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint: Hormone responsible for stability of endometrium during pregnancy.

Sol: In secretory phase, corpus luteum is formed which secretes high concentration of progesterone and low
concentration of estrogen. Progesterone forms thick mucous in cervix so that it protects pathogens from entering the
uterus.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 141

Which of the following is correctly matched?

Options:

Spermatogonia – Haploid

Primary spermatocyte – Haploid

Secondary spermatocyte – Haploid

Spermatid – Diploid

Solution :

Answer (3)

Hint: Structure which is the result of meiosis-I.

Sol: Spermatogonia are diploid cells which proliferate by mitosic division. After proliferation, some spermatogonia grow
and differentiate into primaryspermatocytes (diploid), then these primary spermatocytes enter meiosis-I so that
chromosome number becomes half in resultant secondary spermatocyte (n).
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 142

If a mother gives birth to twins of same sex and both have nearly 99.9% of genetic similarity (DNA), probably these
children are

Options:

Monozygotic twins

Dizygotic twins

Fraternal twins

Both (2) & (3)

Solution :

Answer (4)

Hint: Monozygotic twins are always of same sex while dizygotic twins may be of same sex or different sex.

Sol: DNA of monozygotic twins exhibit 100% genetic similarity while dizygotic twins also called fraternal twins have
nearly 99.9% similarity in DNA.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 143

In which of the following methods of assisted reproductive technologies, does in-vivo fertilisation take place?

Options:

IUT

ICSI

ZIFT

GIFT

Solution :

Answer (4)

Hint: In-vivo fertilisation implies that fertilisation occurs inside the body.

Sol: In GIFT i.e., gamete intra fallopian transfer, sperms and ova are simultaneously transferred into fallopian tube.
Inside the fallopian tube, sperm and ova fuse to form zygote.
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 144

The most effective contraceptive method among following in humans is

Options:

IUDs

Oral contraceptive pills

Vasectomy

Periodic abstinence

Solution :

Answer (3)

Hint: Method of male sterilization.

Sol: Vasectomy is most effective method of contraception because male gametes are not part of the ejaculate released
into the female reproductive system. In vasectomy, vas deferens is cut and the two ends are ligated.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 145

Syphilis is a STD caused by

Options:

Virus

Bacterium

Fungus

Protozoan

Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint: Syphilis is caused by a prokaryote.

Sol: Syphilis is transferred through sexual contact and it is caused by a bacterium named as Treponema pallidum.
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 146

Which of the following diagnostic test(s) is performed from 9-10 weeks onwards for testing of chromosomal
abnormality in foetus?

Options:

Amniocentesis

Chorionic villi sampling

Ultrasound

Computed tomography scan

Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint: Foetal cells are present in chorionic villi.

Sol: Aspiration needle is passed through the vagina and sample of chorionic villi is collected to study karyotype of cell
in order to diagnose genetic abnormality in the developing embryo.

Chorionic villi are well developed at 8th week after conception.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 147

The cells that undergo spermiogenesis and have 1 'C' DNA content are

Options:

Spermatogonia

Secondary spermatocytes

Primary spermatocytes

Spermatids

Solution :

Answer (4)

Hint: These cells are end product of meiosis.

Sol: Spermatogonia grow and differentiate into primary spermatocyte. These spermatids have 1 'C' content of DNA in
them and are haploid.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 148

Contraceptive method that is generally advised for the female partner as terminal method to prevent any more
pregnancies is

Options:

Vasectomy

Tubectomy

Oophorectomy

Hysterectomy

Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint: Method of contraception which is poorly reversible in females.

Sol: In this method, fallopian tubes are cut and tied. As a result of this, after copulation sperms do not reach the
fertilisation site.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 149

IUD is an effective and popular contraceptive method. Select the one which is an example of medicated IUD?

Options:

Cu7

Lippe's loop

Implanon

Vaults

Solution :

Answer (1)

Hint: IUDs are implanted inside the uterus.

Sol: Cu7 is an IUD which releases copper ions that increase phagocytosis of sperms. LNG-20 is also an example of
medicated IUD which releases progesterone.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 150

Amniocentesis is the insertion of a needle through the abdominal and uterine walls into the amniotic cavity to
withdraw fluid for the examination of certain defects. By this process which of the following cannot be diagnosed?

Options:

Biochemical disorder

Cleft lip

Spina bifida

Cystic fibrosis

Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint: Some anatomical defects cannot be diagnosed by this method.

Sol: α-fetoprotein is present in amniotic fluid. Higher concentration of this protein in amniotic fluid is an indication of
neural tube defect. Some biochemical defects and genetic defects are also diagnosed by this method.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 151

In which of the following methods of contraception, does the couple abstain from coitus from day 10 to 17 of the
menstrual cycle?

Options:

IUDs

Coitus interruptus

Rhythm method

Lactational amenorrhea

Solution :

Answer (3)

Hint: This method involves avoiding copulation during fertile period of a female.

Sol: In menstrual cycle, chances of fertilisation are higher from day (10-17) in a fertile female. So the absence of
copulation during this period is known as periodic abstinence/rhythm method/calendar method.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 152

Oral contraceptive pills generally contain combination of oestrogen and progestogens. In females, probably these
pills inhibit/alter which of the following?

a. LH and FSH secretion

b. Follicular development and ovulation

c. Quality of cervical mucus

Select the correct option

Options:

a only

a & b only

b & c only

a, b & c

Solution :

Answer (4)

Hint: Progesterone gives negative feedback to hypothalamus.

Sol: Higher concentration of estrogen and progesterone during luteal phase give negative back to hypothalamus,
thereby inhibiting the release of GnRH from hypothalamus and LH, FSH from pituitary.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 153

Choose the correct match, w.r.t. humans

Column I Column II
(Major source) (Hormone)
(1) Placenta – Testosterone
(2) Corpus luteum – LH
(3) Placenta – FSH
(4) Syncytiotrophoblast – hCG

Options:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Solution :

Answer (4)

Hint: LH maintains corpus luteum which is source of estrogen and progesterone

Sol: Corticotropic releasing hormone is also produced by placenta along with foetal hypothalamus.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 154

During early embryonic development, which type of cleavage occurs in a human zygote?

Options:

Superficial and determinate

Holoblastic and indeterminate

Discoidal and determinate

Meroblastic and indeterminate

Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint: Cleavage in humans divides the cell completely into two blastomeres.

Sol: Cleavage in humans are indeterminate i.e., if cells of early embryo are separated then each cell can develop into a
complete human organism.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 155

Read the following points (a, b, c, d and e) w.r.t. human embryonic development and mark the option with correct
sequence

a. Notochord formation

b. Primitive streak formation

c. Formation of Amnion

d. Neural plate formation

e. Neural groove formation

Options:

c b a e d

c b a d e

a b c d e

c a b e d

Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint: Notochord formation starts after gastrulation.

Sol: Primitive streak formation is the first sign of gastrulation. As a result of this, three germ layers develop in embryo.
After this, notochord is formed that induces organogenesis.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 156

All the given statements are correct except

Options:

DNA cytoplasmic ratio increases during cleavage divisions seen in embryogenesis

Embryonic mass does not form any extra embryonic membrane

Inhibin is a protein hormone secreted by Sertoli cells that inhibits FSH in male human

Structural and functional maturation of sperms occurs in epididymis

Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint: Embryonic mass helps in formation of all the extraembryonic membranes.

Sol: Embryonic mass also called inner cell mass first differentiates into epiblast and hypoblast. Epiblast forms amnion.
Hypoblast forms extra embryonic yolk sac and allantois.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 157

In human menstrual cycle, estrogen is secreted by

Options:

Developing follicle in proliferative phase and corpus luteum in secretory phase

Corpus luteum in proliferative phase and developing follicle in secretory phase

Primordial follicle in both proliferative and secretory phase

Anterior pituitary in follicular phase and by corpus luteum in secretory phase

Solution :

Answer (1)

Hint: Estrogen increases the thickness of uterine wall.

Sol: Developing follicle secretes estrogen that acts on uterus lining and increases the thickness of endometrium. After
ovulation, corpus luteum is formed which secretes estrogen and progesterone.
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 158

Which of the following protein hormones of pituitary gland acts on follicles for their growth and release of estrogen
by them?

Options:

FSH only

hCG only

FSH and LH

GnRH and Gonadotropins

Solution :

Answer (3)

Hint: Gonadotrophic hormones are glycoproteins in nature.

Sol: FSH and LH are secreted by anterior pituitary which act on developing follicle in ovary. These hormones are
proteins in nature. GnRH is secreted by hypothalamus and acts on anterior pituitary.

You scored -1 of 4
Question : 159

Prior to ovulation in menstrual cycle of humans, estrogen gives positive feedback to hypothalamus and pituitary
gland that result in increased concentration of

Options:

LH only

FSH only

LH and FSH only

LH, FSH and estrogen

Solution :

Answer (4)

Hint: Ovulation occurs due to positive feed back by estrogen.

Sol: Prior to ovulation, estrogen gives positive feed back to hypothalamus and anterior pituitary gland, so that LH, FSH
and estrogen levels increase.
You scored -1 of 4
Question : 160

After the first trimester, which of the following steroid hormones is/are produced by placenta?

Options:

Estrogen only

Estrogen, progesterone

Estrogen, progesterone, hCG

Estrogen, progesterone, hCS

Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint: hCG and hCS are proteinaceous in nature.

Sol: In the first trimester, corpus luteum secretes estrogen and progesterone. Later, this function is taken over by
placenta i.e., second trimester onwards. These hormones are steroidal in nature.

You scored -1 of 4
Question : 161

Totipotent cells are the cells which can produce a complete organism. In humans, totipotent cells are the cells of

Options:

Trophoblast layer of blastocyst

Morula stage of embryo

Stem cells of adult

Inner cell mass

Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint: Cells of embryonic mass i.e., inner cell mass are pluripotent.

Sol: Cell of morula if separated, can form a complete organism. However, the cells of embryonic mass can differentiate
into certain types of cell and cannot form complete organism.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 162

Tertiary follicles in ovary during menstrual cycle are characterised by presence of

Options:

A fluid filled cavity called antrum

Receptors for prolactin

Nondifferentiated theca layer

A diploid ootid

Solution :

Answer (1)

Hint: Developing follicles have receptors for gonadotropic hormone.

Sol: Undifferentiated theca-layer is present in secondary follicle while in tertiary follice theca layer differentiates into
outer and inner layer. In tertiary follicle, primary oocyte completes its first meiotic division and results into a haploid
secondary oocyte and a polar body.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 163

All the statements are incorrect about human sperm, except

Options:

Mitochondria is present in neck

Nucleus is present in middle piece

Acrosome is present in head region of sperm outside plasma membrane

Whole body of sperm is covered by plasma membrane

Solution :

Answer (4)

Hint: Power house of this cell are located in middle piece.

Sol: Acrosome is present anterior to the nucleus and both these structures are present in head region of sperm.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 164

Secretion of which of the following glands forms maximum part of semen?

Options:

Prostate gland

Cowper's glands

Seminal vesicles

Bulbourethral gland

Solution :

Answer (3)

Hint: Paired glands which have fructose in their secretion.

Sol: Seminal vesicles are present in human male reproductive system and form 60% of total semen volume.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 165

Correct sequence of anatomical structures of human male reproductive system is

Options:

Seminiferous tubules tubuli recti rete-testis vas efferentia epididymis vas deferens

Seminiferous tubules rete-testis tubuli-recti vas efferentia epididymis vas deferens

Seminiferous tubules epididymis vas efferentia rete-testis tubuli recti

Tubuli recti seminiferous tubule rete-testis epididymis vas deferens vas efferentia

Solution :

Answer (1)

Hint: Vas deferens combines with duct of seminal vesicles to form the ejaculatory duct.

Sol: Seminiferous tubules lead to tubuli recti that open into meshwork like network known as rete testis. From here, 10-
12 vasa efferentia emerge that open into head of epididymis.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 166

Consider the following:

a. Spermiogenesis

b. Capacitation

c. Cortical reaction

d. Acrosomal reaction

Arrange the following steps in chronological order to result in human fertilisation:

Options:

a b d c

a b c d

b a c d

d c b a

Solution :

Answer (1)

Hint: Fate of sperm from cells of Sertoli upto karyogamy.

Sol: Spermiogenesis – Conversion of spermatids into sperms.

Capacitation – Activation of sperms in female genital tract.

Acrosomal reaction – Release of acrosomal enzymes.

Cortical reaction – Exocytosis of cortical granules.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 167

Which of the following is not an IUCD?

Options:

Lippe's loop

CuT 200

LNG-20

Sponge

Solution :

Answer (4)

Hint: Structure placed in vagina with spermicidal cream.

Sol: Sponge is not placed in uterus, but is placed in vagina. Sponge a contraceptive sold by name 'Today' contains
compounds such as 9-nonoxynol that are spermicidal.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 168

The contraceptive that also protects against sexually transmitted diseases is

Options:

Condom

Lippe's loop

LNG-20

Saheli

Solution :

Answer (1)

Hint: Barrier method of contraception.

Sol: Condoms are made from latex. These structures cover the penis or vagina. So, direct contact of penis and vagina
does not occur and sexually transmitted diseases are not spread by sexual contact.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 169

ZIFT is one method of assisted reproductive technologies in which

Options:

Egg is transferred in fallopian tube followed by AI

Early embryo upto 8 blastomeres is transferred to fallopian tube

Early embryo upto 16 blastomeres is transferred to uterus

Sperm and ova both are directly transferred in fallopian tube

Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint: ART in which fertilisation takes place outside the body.

Sol: In IUT, more than 8 celled embryo is transferred into uterus.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 170

Choose the incorrect match:

Column I Column II
(Disease) (Caused by)
(1) Chlamydiasis – Bacterium
(2) Gonorrhoea – Bacterium
(3) Trichomoniasis – Ciliated protozoan
(4) AIDS – Virus

Options:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Solution :

Answer (3)

Hint: Locomotory structure of causative agent is found in human sperm.

Sol: Trichomoniasis is a STD, caused by Trichomonas which is a flagellated protozoan.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 171

The period from birth to natural death of an organism represents its

Options:

Life expectancy

Lifespan

Reproductive period

Mortality

Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint: Life expectancy is based on average lifespan of population.

Sol: Reproductive period does not start just after birth of any organism usually. Lifespan is the period from birth to
natural death.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 172

In which of the following organisms is cell division itself a mode of reproduction?

Options:

Amoeba

Hydra

Sycon

Man

Solution :

Answer (1)

Hint: Identify a single celled organism.

Sol: Hydra, Sycon and human are multicellular organisms. In multicellular organisms, mitotic division itself does not
directly result to production of an organism.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 173

Sexual reproduction in comparison to asexual reproduction is a

Options:

Simple process

Fast process

Slow and simple process

Complex and slow process

Solution :

Answer (4)

Hint: Asexual process is simpler than sexual process.

Sol: Sexual reproduction is a slow method of multiplication. This process involves many coordinated events that result
into offsprings.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 174

Read the following statements and choose the correct statement

Options:

Reproductive phase is of same duration in all living organisms

Sexual reproduction always involves the formation of male and female gametes by different individuals of
opposite sex

All birds living in nature lay eggs throughout the year

Humans are reproductively active throughout their reproductive phase, hence are called continuous
breeders

Solution :

Answer (4)

Hint: Reproductive phase is not same in all organisms.

Sol: Some organisms reproduce during a particular season and are known as temporary breeders like rat, cow etc.
Some individual are hermaphrodite.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 175

Which of the following is a unisexual organism?

Options:

Leech

Earthworm

Tapeworm

Cockroach

Solution :

Answer (4)

Hint: Sexual dimorphism is distinct in this organism.

Sol: Organism which have only either male or female reproductive organ are called dioecious or unisexual organism.
Leech, tapeworm and earthworm are bisexual or monoecious organisms.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 176

Choose the incorrect match:

Column I Column II
(Organism) (Chromosome number in meiocyte)
(1) Dog – 78
(2) Butterfly – 380
(3) Cat – 36
(4) Fruit fly –8

Options:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Solution :

Answer (3)

Hint: Meiocytes are diploid cells.

Sol: Butterfly has 380 chromosomes in their meiocytes while a cat has 38 chromosomes in their meiocytes.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 177

During embryogenesis, a human zygote undergoes

Options:

Mitosis and meiosis both

Mitosis and cell differentiation

Meiosis and cell differentiation

Reductional division and cell differentiation

Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint: This process increases number of cells without any change in chromosome number.

Sol: First the zygote divides by mitosis that leads to increase in number of cells which further differentiate into other
type of cells to from different organs.

You scored 4 of 4
Question : 178

140 years is expected lifespan of a

Options:

Butterfly

Crocodile

Fruitfly

Parrot

Solution :

Answer (4)

Hint: Lifespan is time period from birth to natural death.

Sol: 140 years is the expected lifespan of parrot that belongs to Class-Aves.
You scored 4 of 4
Question : 179

In the first trimester of pregnancy, which of the following structures is a primary producer of estrogen and
progesterone?

Options:

Corpus albicans

Corpus luteum

Placenta

Chorion

Solution :

Answer (2)

Hint: This yellow coloured structure is remnant of graffian follicle in ovary.

Sol: After the decrease in LH level, hCG secreted by chorion maintains corpus luteum upto the end of first trimester.

You scored -1 of 4
Question : 180

At the time of parturition, ratio of which of the following increases?

Options:

Estrogen : Progesterone

Progesterone : Estrogen

LH : FSH

FSH : LH

Solution :

Answer (1)

Hint: Hormone responsible for LH surge increases.

Sol: At the time of parturition, estrogen levels increase and result in increase in number of oxytocin receptors in
myometrium. Progesterone is converted to cortisol that hastens the maturation of the respiratory system.