Answer: C) End Tidal CO: - Total Comments: 0

Single Best Answer) Question 1: Early and reliable indication of air embolism
during anaesthesia can be obtained by continuous monitoring of ?

A) ECG
B) Blood pressure
C) End Tidal CO2
D) Oxygen saturation
Answer: C) End Tidal CO2
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(Single Best Answer) Question 2: A ventilator pressure relief valve stuck in closed
position can result in ?
A) barotrauma
B) hypoventilation
C) hypoxia
D) hyperventilation
Answer: A) barotrauma
(Single Best Answer) Question 3: Which of the following inhalation anaesthetics

should be avoided in middle ear surgery when tympanic grafts are used ?
A) Halothane
B) Nitrous oxide
C) Ether
D) Isoflurane
Answer: B) Nitrous oxide
(Single Best Answer) Question 4: Fastest route of absorption of local anaesthetic is ?

A) Intercostal
B) Epidural
C) Brachial
D) Caudal
Answer: B) Epidural
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(Single Best Answer) Question 5: Nitrous oxide can be used in ?

A) Microlaryngeal surgery
B)
C)
D)
Answer: A) Microlaryngeal surgery
(Single Best Answer) Question 6: About propofol all are true except ?
A) Early clear headedness
B) Kinetics governed by 3 compartment mechanism
C) Contraindicated in porphyria
D) Contains egg albumin
Answer: C) Contraindicated in porphyria
(Single Best Answer) Question 7: Difference in sevoflurane and desflurane ?
A) Less cardiac depressant
B)
C)
D)
Answer: A) Less cardiac depressant
(Single Best Answer) Question 8: Train of four is used in ?

A) Weaning of ventilation
B) Treatment of metabolic acidosis
C)
D)
Answer: A) Weaning of ventilation
(Single Best Answer) Question 9: The muscle relaxant of choice in renal and hepatic
failure ?
A) cis Atracurium
B) Rapacurium
C) Vecuronium
D) Socuronium
Answer: A) cis Atracurium
(Single Best Answer) Question 10: The merit of nasotracheal intubation is ?

A) Less infection
B) Good oral hygiene
C) Less bleeding
D) More displacement of endotracheal tube
Answer: B) Good oral hygiene
Single Best Answer) Question 11: In spinal anesthesia, the anaesthetic agent should
be injected into the space between ?
A) T12 - L1
B) L1 - L2
C) L3 - L4
D) L5 - S1
Answer: C) L3 - L4
(Single Best Answer) Question 12: All of the following are amide-linked local
anaesthetics except ?
A) Bupivacaine
B) Lidocaine
C) Mepivacaine
D) Procaine
Answer: D) Procaine
(Single Best Answer) Question 13: In Magill's circuit, the air flow is ?
A) Half to minute volume
B) Equal to minute volume
C) Twice to minute volume
D) Equal to alveolar volume
Answer: B) Equal to minute volume
(Single Best Answer) Question 14: Least cardiotoxic anaesthetic agent is ?

A) Isoflurane
B) Enflurane
C) Halothane
D) Trichloroethylene
Answer: A) Isoflurane
(Single Best Answer) Question 15: In Caudal block for infant which is
Contraindicated ?
A) remifentanil
B) sufentanil
C) morphine
D) butorphanol
Answer: C) morphine
(Single Best Answer) Question 16: A child undergoing surgical procedure, (on
ventilator) anaesthetized with atracurium and propofol, wakes up with body pain 12
hours later (or develops seizures after 2 days). Cause of body pain is ?
A) adverse effect of propofol
B) accumulation of Laudanosine
C)
D)
Answer: B) accumulation of Laudanosine
(Single Best Answer) Question 17: Centrineuraxial (spinal or epidural) anaesthesia

is contraindicated in all except ?
A) Platelets < 80,000
B) Patient on aspirin
C) Patient on oral anticoagulants
D) Patient on I.V. Heparin
Answer: B) Patient on aspirin
(Single Best Answer) Question 18: Which of the following drugs causes Dissociative
Anaesthesia ?
A) Diazepam
B) Propofol
C) Ketamine
D) Midazolam
Answer: C) Ketamine
(Single Best Answer) Question 19: On anaesthesia, dipping in EEG is due to ?

A) Early hypoxia
B) Hypothermia
C)
D)
Answer: B) Hypothermia
(Single Best Answer) Question 20: Which of the following is true about xenon
anaesthesia ?
A) Slow induction & recovery
B) Low blood solubility
C) Non explosive
D) Cardiotoxic
Answer: A) Slow induction & recovery
Single Best Answer) Question 21: Which of the following drugs causes Dissociative
Anaesthesia ?
A) Diazepam
B) Propofol
C) Ketamine
D) Midazolam
Answer: C) Ketamine
(Single Best Answer) Question 22: Which of the following drugs is contraindicated in
a patient with raised intracranial pressure ?
A) Thiopentone
B) Propofol
C) Midazolam
D) Ketamine
Answer: D) Ketamine
(Single Best Answer) Question 23: The following anesthetic drug cause pain on
intravenous administration ?
A) Midazolam
B) Propofol
C) Ketamine
D) Thiopentone sodium
Answer: B) Propofol
(Single Best Answer) Question 24: Which of the following fluorinated anaesthetics
corrodes metal in vaporizers and breathing systems ?
A) Sevoflurane
B) Enflurance
C) Isoflurane
D) Halothane
Answer: D) Halothane
(Single Best Answer) Question 25: Administration of Glucose solution is prescribed

for all of the following situations except ?
A) Neonates
B) Child of a diabetic mother
C) History of unconsciousness
D) History of hypoglycemia
Answer: C) History of unconsciousness
(Single Best Answer) Question 26: Which of the following is the neuromuscular
blocking agent with the shortest onset of action ?
A) Mivacurium
B) Vecuroniuum
C) Rapacuronium
D) Succinylcholine
Answer: D) Succinylcholine
(Single Best Answer) Question 27: Which of the following inhalational agents has the
minimum blood gas solubility coefficient ?
A) Isoflurane
B) Sevoflurane
C) Desflurane
D) Nitrous oxide
Answer: C) Desflurane
(Single Best Answer) Question 28: Which one of the following is the description used
for the term allodynia during pain management ?
A) Absence of pain perception
B) Complete lack of pain sensation
C) Unpleasant sensation with or without a stimulus
D) Perception of an ordinarily nonnoxious stimulus as severe pain
Answer: D) Perception of an ordinarily nonnoxious stimulus as severe pain
(Single Best Answer) Question 29: A twenty year old patient presented with early
pregnancy for Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) in day care facility. What
will be the anesthetic induction agent of choice ?
A) Thiopentone
B) Ketamine
C) Propofol
D) Diazepam
Answer: C) Propofol
(Single Best Answer) Question 30: In general, the last muscle to be rendered akinetic
with retrobulbar anesthetic block is ?
A) Superior rectus
B) Superior oblique
C) Inferior oblique
D) Levator palpebral superioris
Answer: B) Superior oblique
Single Best Answer) Question 31: Which of the following is the best indication for
propofol as an intravenous induction agent?
A) Neurosurgery
B) Day care surgery
C) Patients with coronary artery disease
D) In neonates
Answer: B) Day care surgery
(Single Best Answer) Question 32: Which of the following volatile anaesthetic agents
should be preferred for induction of anaesthesia in children?
A) Enflurane
B) Isoflurane
C) Sevoflurane
D) Desflurane
Answer: C) Sevoflurane
(Single Best Answer) Question 33: When a patient develops supraventricular

tachycardia with hypotension under general anaesthesia, all of the following
treatments may be instituted except?
A) Carotid sinus massage
B) Adenosine 3 - 12 mg IV
C) Direct current cardioversion
D) Verapamil 5 mg IV
Answer: A) Carotid sinus massage
(Single Best Answer) Question 34: A patient undergoing caesarian section following
prolonged labour under subarachnoid block developed carpopedal spasm.
Lignocaine was used as anaesthetic agent. The most likely diagnosis is?
A) Amniotic fluid embolism
B) Lignocaine toxicity
C) Hypocalcemia
D) Hypokalemia
Answer: C) Hypocalcemia
(Single Best Answer) Question 35: A 25 year old male with roadside accident
underwent debridement and reduction of fractured both bones right forearm under
axillary block. On the second postoperative day the patient complained of persistent
numbness and paraesthesia in the right forearm and the hand. The commonest
cause of this neurological dysfunction could be all of the following except?
A) Crush injury to the hand and lacerated nerves
B) A tight cast or dressing
C) Systemic toxicity of local anaesthetics
D) Tourniquet pressure
Answer: C) Systemic toxicity of local anaesthetics
(Single Best Answer) Question 36: Mapleson's classification of anaesthetic breathing

systems ?
A) Describes four systems: A, B, C, D
B) Classifies the Bain system as maples on D
C) Describes the T-piece as mapleson D
D) Describes the T-piece system as requiring a fresh gas flow rate of 1.5-2 times the
minute
Answer: B) Classifies the Bain system as maples on D
(Single Best Answer) Question 37: The following factors favour a rapid induction of
general anaesthesia with an inhalation agent ?
A) High blood/gas partition coefficient
B) Low alveolar ventilation
C) High concentration of catecholamines
D) The second gas effect
Answer: D) The second gas effect
(Single Best Answer) Question 38: Bupivacaine ?

A) Causes depolarization. of nerve membranes
B) Has a shorter duration of action thaIllignocaine
C) Is unsuitable for intrathecal use
D) Is contraindicated for intravenous regional anaesthesia (IVRA)
Answer: D) Is contraindicated for intravenous regional anaesthesia (IVRA)
(Single Best Answer) Question 39: Ketamine should be avoided ?

A) In the presence of increased arterial pressure
B) In pregnancy
C) In hypovolumic shock
D) In the asthmatic
Answer: A) In the presence of increased arterial pressure
(Single Best Answer) Question 40: A depolarizing neuromuscular block may be

produced by ?
A) Atracurium
B) Edraphonium
C) Gallamine
D) Suxamethonium
Answer: D) Suxamethonium
(Single Best Answer) Question 41: Capnography basically monitors ?

A) Central Venous Pressure
B) Blood pressure during anaesthesia
C) Concentration of exhaled CO2
D) Concentration of inhaled CO2
Answer: C) Concentration of exhaled CO2
(Single Best Answer) Question 42: Which of the following intravenous induction
agents is the most suitable for day care surgery ?
A) Morphine
B) Ketamine
C) Propofol
D) Diazepam
Answer: C) Propofol
(Single Best Answer) Question 43: Which of the following is not a sign of stellate
ganglion block ?
A) Meiosis
B) Expohthalmus
C) Nasal congestion
D) Conjunctival redness
Answer: B) Expohthalmus
(Single Best Answer) Question 44: Which of the following agents is used for the
treatment of postoperative shivering ?
A) Thiopentone
B) Suxamethonium
C) Atropine
D) Pethidine
Answer: D) Pethidine
(Single Best Answer) Question 45: Which of the following agents is not used to
provide induced hypotension during surgery ?
A) Sodium nitroprusside
B) Hydralazine
C) Mephenteramine
D) Esmolol
Answer: C) Mephenteramine
(Single Best Answer) Question 46: Which of the following is not an indication for
endotracheal intubation ?
A) Maintenance of a patent airway
B) To provide positive pressure ventilation
C) Pulmonary toilet
D) Pneumothorax
Answer: D) Pneumothorax
(Single Best Answer) Question 47: Which of the following anesthetic agents
doesnâ??t trigger malignant hyperthermia ?
A) Halothane
B) Isoflurane
C) Suxamethonium
D) Thiopentone
Answer: D) Thiopentone
(Single Best Answer) Question 48: Which of the following inhalational agents is the
induction agent of choice in children ?
A) Methoxyflurane
B) Sevoflurane
C) Desflurane
D) Isoflurane
Answer: B) Sevoflurane
(Single Best Answer) Question 49: A 6 month old child is suffering from patent
ductus arteriosus (PDA) with congetive cardiac failure. Ligation of ductus arteriosus
was decided for surgical management. The most appropriate inhalational
anaesthetic agent of choice with minimal haemodynamic alteration for induction of
anaesthesia is ?
A) Sevoflurane
B) Isoflurane
C) Enflurane
D) Halothane
Answer: B) Isoflurane
(Single Best Answer) Question 50: Which of the following is not a cardiovascular
monitoring technique ?
A) Transesophageal echocardiography
B) Central venous pressure monitoring
C) Pulmonary artery catheterization
D) Capnography
Answer: D) Capnography
(Single Best Answer) Question 51: A 30 year old woman with coarctation of aorta is
admitted to the labour room for elective caesarian section. Which of the following is
the anaesthesia technique of choice ?
A) Spinal anaesthesia
B) Epidural anaesthesia
C) General anaesthesia
D) Local anaesthesia with nerve blocks
Answer: B) Epidural anaesthesia
(Single Best Answer) Question 52: A 5 year old child is suffering from cyanotic heart
disease. He is planned for corrective surgery. The induction agent of the choice
would be ?
A) Thiopentone
B) Ketamine
C) Halothane
D) Midazolam
Answer: B) Ketamine
(Single Best Answer) Question 53: The outcome following resuscitation of a cardiac
arrest is worsened if during resuscitation patient is given ?
A) Ringer ' s lactate
B) Colloids
C) 5 % dextrose
D) Whole blood transfusion
Answer: C) 5 % dextrose
(Single Best Answer) Question 54: The most common cause of hypoxia during one
lung ventilation is ?
A) Malposition of the double lumen tube
B) Increased shunt fraction
C) Collapse of one lung
D) Soiling of lung by secretions
Answer: A) Malposition of the double lumen tube
(Single Best Answer) Question 55: Placement of a double lumen tube for lung
surgery is best confirmed by ?
A) EtCO2
B) Airway pressure measurement
C) Clinically by auscultation
D) Bronchoscopy
Answer: A) EtCO2
(Single Best Answer) Question 56: Trendelenberg position produces decreases in all
of the following except ?
A) Vital capacity
B) Functional residual capacity
C) Compliance
D) Respiratory rate
Answer: D) Respiratory rate
(Single Best Answer) Question 57: A 52 year old male diagnosed as triple vessel
coronary artery disease with poor left ventricular function. Coronary artery bypass
grafting surgery was decided. During maintenance of anaesthesia which one of the
following agents should be preferred ?
A) IV Opioids
B) Isoflurane
C) Halothane
D) Nitrous Oxide
Answer: B) Isoflurane
(Single Best Answer) Question 58: Which one of the following statements regarding
desflurane is correct ?
A) It causes severe myocardial depression
B) It is structural analogue of isoflurane
C) It has very high blood and tissue-gas partition coefficients
D) It is metabolically unstable
Answer: B) It is structural analogue of isoflurane
(Single Best Answer) Question 59: Which of the following does not represent a
significant anaesthetic problem in the morbidly obese patient ?
A) Difficulties in endotracheal intubation
B) Suboptimal arterial oxygen tension
C) Increased metabolism of volatile agents
D) Decreased cardiac output relative to total body mass
Answer: D) Decreased cardiac output relative to total body mass
(Single Best Answer) Question 60: All of the following statements are incorrect about
the treatment of prolonged suxamethonium apnoea due to plasma cholinesterase
deficiency (after a single dose of suxamethonium) except ?
A) Reversal with incremental doses of neostigmine
B) Continue anaesthesia and mechanical ventilation till recovery
C) Transfusion of fresh frozen plasma
D) Plasmapheresis
Answer: B) Continue anaesthesia and mechanical ventilation till recovery
(Single Best Answer) Question 61: During laryngoscopy and endo-trachaeal

entubation which of the following manoeuver is not performed ?
A) Flexion of the neck
B) Extension of head at the atlanto-occipital joint
C) The laryngoscope is lifted upwards levering over the upper incisors
D) In a straight blade laryngoscope, the epiglottis is lifted by the tip
Answer: C) The laryngoscope is lifted upwards levering over the upper incisors
(Single Best Answer) Question 62: Visual analogue scale (VAS) is most widely used
to measure ?
A) Sleep
B) Sedation
C) Pain intensity
D) Depth of anaesthesia
Answer: C) Pain intensity
(Single Best Answer) Question 63: The Pin Index Code of Nitrous oxide is ?
A) 2, 5
B) 1, 5
C) 3, 5
D) 2, 6
Answer: C) 3, 5
(Single Best Answer) Question 64: Which one of the following is the shortest acting
intravenous analgesic ?
A) Remifentanil
B) Fentanyl
C) Alfentanyl
D) Sufentanil
Answer: A) Remifentanil
(Single Best Answer) Question 65: A patient was administered epidural anaesthesia
with 15 ml of 1.5% lignocaine with adrenaline for hernia surgery. He developed
hypotension and respiratory depression within 3 minutes after administration of
block. The commonest cause would be ?
A) Allergy to drug administered
B) Systemic toxicity to drug administered
C) Patient got vasovagal shock
D) Drug has entered the sub arachnoid space
Answer: D) Drug has entered the sub arachnoid space
(Single Best Answer) Question 66: Post dural puncture headache is typically ?
A) A result of leakage of blood into the epidural space
B) Worse when lying down than in sitting position
C) Bifrontal or occipital
D) Seen within 4 hours of dural puncture
Answer: C) Bifrontal or occipital
(Single Best Answer) Question 67: In the immediate post operative period the
common cause of respiratory insufficiency could be because of the following,
except ?
A) Residual effect of muscle relaxant
B) Overdose of narcotic analgesic
C) Mild hypovolemia
D) Myocardial infarction
Answer: C) Mild hypovolemia
(Single Best Answer) Question 68: Following spinal subarachnoid block a patient
develops hypotension. This can be managed by the following means except ?
A) Lowering the head end
B) Administration of 1000 ml Ringer's lactate before the block
C) Vasopressor drug like methoxamine
D) Use of inotrope like dopamine
Answer: D) Use of inotrope like dopamine
(Single Best Answer) Question 69: The narrowest part of larynx in infants is at the
cricoid level. In administering anaethesia this may lead to all except ?
A) Choosing a smaller size endotracheal tube
B) Trauma to the subglottic region
C) Post operative stridor
D) Laryngeal oedema
Answer: D) Laryngeal oedema
(Single Best Answer) Question 70: The following combination of agents are the most
preferred for short day care surgeries ?
A) Propofol, fentanyl, isoflurane
B) Thiopentone sodium, morphine, halothane
C) Ketamine, pethidine, halothane
D) Propofol, morphine, halothane
Answer: A) Propofol, fentanyl, isoflurane
(Single Best Answer) Question 71: Pin Index system is a safety feature adopted in
anaesthesia machines to prevent ?
A) Incorrect attachment of anaesthesia machines
B) Incorrect attachment of anaesthesia face masks
C) Incorrect inhalation agent delivery
D) Incorrect gas cylinder attachment
Answer: D) Incorrect gas cylinder attachment
(Single Best Answer) Question 72: Laryngeal Mask Airway (LMA) is used for ?
A) Maintenance of the airway
B) Facilitating laryngeal surgery
C) Prevention of aspiration
D) Removing oral secretions
Answer: A) Maintenance of the airway
(Single Best Answer) Question 73: All of the following are suitable anaesthetic
circuits for both controlled and assisted ventilation, except ?
A) Mapleson A
B) Mapleson B & C
C) Mapleson D
D) Mapleson E
Answer: A) Mapleson A
(Single Best Answer) Question 74: Which of the following inhalational agent is
contraindicated in a patient with history of epilepsy ?
A) Isoflurane
B) Enflurane
C) Halothane
D) Sevoflurane
Answer: B) Enflurane
(Single Best Answer) Question 75: At the end of anaesthesia after discontinuation of
nitrous oxide and removal of endotracheal tube, 100% oxygen is administered to the
patient to prevent?
A) Diffusion hypoxia
B) Second gas effect
C) Hyperoxia
D) Bronchospasm
Answer: A) Diffusion hypoxia
(Single Best Answer) Question 76: The abnormal preoperative pulmonary function
test in a patient with severe kyphoscoliosis includes ?
A) Increased RV/TLC
B) Reduced FEV1/FVC
C) Reduced FEV 25-75
D) Increased FRC
Answer: A) Increased RV/TLC
(Single Best Answer) Question 77: The most appropriate circuit for ventilating a
spontaneously breathing infant during anaesthesia is ?
A) Jackson Rees' modification of Ayers' T Piece
B) Mapleson A or Magill's circuit
C) Mapleson C or Waters' to and fro canister
D) Bains circuit
Answer: A) Jackson Rees' modification of Ayers' T Piece
(Single Best Answer) Question 78: A Lower Segment Caesarean Section (LSCS) can
be carried out under all of the following techniques of anaesthesia except ?
A) General anaesthesia
B) Spinal anaesthesia
C) Caudal anaesthesia
D) Combined Spinal Epidural anaesthesia
Answer: C) Caudal anaesthesia
(Single Best Answer) Question 79: The following modes of ventilation may be used
for weaning off patients from mechanical ventilation except ?
A) Controlled Mechanical ventilation (CMV)
B) Synchronized intermittent mandatory ventilation (SIMV)
C) Pressure support ventilation (PSV)
D) Assist - control ventilation (ACV)
Answer: A) Controlled Mechanical ventilation (CMV)
(Single Best Answer) Question 80: Which one of the following anaesthetic agents
cause a rise in the Intracranial pressure ?
A) Sevoflurane
B) Thiopentone sodium
C) Lignocaine
D) Propofol
Answer: A) Sevoflurane
(Single Best Answer) Question 81: The following are used for treatment of
postoperative nausea and vomiting following squint surgery in children except ?
A) Ketamine
B) Ondansetron
C) Propofol
D) Dexamethasone
Answer: A) Ketamine
(Single Best Answer) Question 82: The laryngeal mask airway used for securing
airway of a patient in all of the following conditions except ?
A) In a difficult intubation
B) In cardiopulmonary resuscitation
C) In a child undergoing an elective/routine eye surgery
D) In a patient with a large tumor in the oral cavity
Answer: D) In a patient with a large tumor in the oral cavity
(Single Best Answer) Question 83: Which one of the following device provides fixed
performance oxygen therapy ?
A) Nasal Cannula
B) Ventimask
C) O2 by T-piece
D) Edinburgh mask
Answer: B) Ventimask
(Single Best Answer) Question 84: A patient was administered epidural anaesthesia
with 15ml of 1.5% Lignocaine with adrenaline for hernia surgery. He developed
hypotension and respiratory depression within 3 minutes after administration of
block. The most common cause would be ?
A) Allergy to drug administered
B) Systemic toxicity to drug administered
C) Patient got vasovagal shock
D) Drug has entered the sub arachnoid space
Answer: D) Drug has entered the sub arachnoid space
(Single Best Answer) Question 85: All of the following drugs can induce
methaemoglobinaemia, except ?
A) Nitroglycerine
B) Procaine
C) Prilocaine
D) Phenytoin
Answer: D) Phenytoin

Answer: C) End Tidal CO: - Total Comments: 0

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Single Best Answer) Question 1: Early and reliable indication of air embolism

during anaesthesia can be obtained by continuous monitoring of ?

(Single Best Answer) Question 3: Which of the following inhalation anaesthetics

(Single Best Answer) Question 4: Fastest route of absorption of local anaesthetic is ?

(Single Best Answer) Question 5: Nitrous oxide can be used in ?

(Single Best Answer) Question 8: Train of four is used in ?

(Single Best Answer) Question 10: The merit of nasotracheal intubation is ?

(Single Best Answer) Question 14: Least cardiotoxic anaesthetic agent is ?

(Single Best Answer) Question 17: Centrineuraxial (spinal or epidural) anaesthesia

(Single Best Answer) Question 19: On anaesthesia, dipping in EEG is due to ?

(Single Best Answer) Question 25: Administration of Glucose solution is prescribed

(Single Best Answer) Question 33: When a patient develops supraventricular

(Single Best Answer) Question 36: Mapleson's classification of anaesthetic breathing

(Single Best Answer) Question 38: Bupivacaine ?

(Single Best Answer) Question 39: Ketamine should be avoided ?

(Single Best Answer) Question 40: A depolarizing neuromuscular block may be

(Single Best Answer) Question 41: Capnography basically monitors ?

(Single Best Answer) Question 61: During laryngoscopy and endo-trachaeal

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