Test - 3 (Code E) (Answers) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2019

All India Aakash Test Series for Medical - 2019

TEST - 3 (Code E)
Test Date : 23/12/2018

ANSWERS
1. (1) 37. (2) 73. (1) 109. (1) 145. (4)
2. (1) 38. (2) 74. (4) 110. (2) 146 (3)
3. (4) 39. (2) 75. (4) 111. (2) 147. (4)
4. (3) 40. (4) 76. (3) 112. (1) 148. (3)
5. (1) 41. (1) 77. (3) 113. (1) 149. (3)
6. (2) 42. (3) 78. (3) 114. (3) 150. (1)
7. (3) 43. (4) 79. (1) 115. (1) 151. (3)
8. (4) 44. (1) 80. (4) 116. (2) 152. (2)
9. (2) 45. (3) 81. (3) 117. (2) 153. (2)
10. (3) 46. (1) 82. (2) 118. (4) 154. (4)
11. (4) 47. (1) 83. (2) 119. (2) 155. (3)
12. (1) 48. (3) 84. (2) 120. (3) 156. (2)
13. (2) 49. (1) 85. (2) 121. (3) 157. (4)
14. (1) 50. (3) 86. (3) 122. (2) 158. (4)
15. (2) 51. (3) 87. (1) 123. (4) 159. (4)
16. (2) 52. (2) 88. (4) 124. (3) 160. (3)
17. (4) 53. (2) 89. (1) 125. (3) 161. (1)
18. (2) 54. (1) 90. (3) 126. (1) 162. (4)
19. (2) 55. (1) 91. (4) 127. (2) 163. (4)
20. (2) 56. (2) 92. (2) 128. (2) 164. (3)
21. (2) 57. (1) 93. (4) 129. (3) 165. (2)
22. (3) 58. (2) 94. (3) 130. (2) 166. (3)
23. (2) 59. (2) 95. (4) 131. (4) 167. (3)
24. (2) 60. (3) 96. (3) 132. (3) 168. (3)
25. (3) 61. (1) 97. (2) 133. (1) 169. (1)
26. (2) 62. (4) 98. (1) 134. (4) 170. (3)
27. (1) 63. (2) 99. (4) 135. (1) 171. (3)
28. (2) 64. (2) 100. (1) 136. (3) 172. (3)
29. (3) 65. (3) 101. (4) 137. (1) 173. (3)
30. (3) 66. (2) 102. (1) 138. (2) 174. (4)
31. (2) 67. (1) 103. (1) 139. (3) 175. (4)
32. (2) 68. (2) 104. (2) 140. (4) 176. (4)
33. (2) 69. (2) 105. (2) 141. (2) 177. (4)
34. (2) 70. (2) 106. (3) 142. (1) 178. (2)
35. (1) 71. (3) 107. (3) 143. (3) 179. (4)
36. (3) 72. (1) 108. (1) 144. (2) 180. (2)

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 All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2019 Test - 3 (Code E) (Hints and Solutions)

HINTS AND SOLUTIONS

Sol.: Since variation of g due to depth h is
PHYSICS
 h
g  = g 1 – 
1. Answer (1)  R 
mv 2 g
Hint: Since F = g = g –  h
r R
1  g
Sol.: Since, F  g =  –   h  g ...(i)
r  R
K y = – mx + c (similar)
F=
r Hence for equation (i) graph will be
2
mv K
0
=
r r
K
v0 =
m

v0  r 0 R
4. Answer (3)
2. Answer (1)
2GMe
Hint: Kepler's 2nd Law Hint: v e = Re
Sol.: Since AOAB : AOCD : AOEF = 3 : 1 : 2
4
Sol.: Since M =   R 3
D C 3
4
E v 2G   R 3
Now, v e = 3  ve  R 2
R
m
RP = 3RE
O
B vP 9RE2
Then, = =3
F vE RE2
A
v P = 3v E
A 5. Answer (1)
Since, = constant
t
Gm1 m 2
Hint: F =
AOAB AOCD AOEF r2
= = =K
t2 t3 t1
1 kg
2 kg
2 kg

2 kg

2 kg

Sol.:

3 A A 2A
= = =K 0 1 2 4 8
t2 t3 t1
Gm1 m 2
3 1 2
Now, F =  r2
= = =K
t 2 t3 t 1 1 1 1 1 
 G  1  2   2  2  2  2  ...
1 2 4 8 
6 6 6
= = =K  
2t 2 6t3 3t 1
 1  4
 2G     2G 
3t1 = 2t2 = 6t3 1
1 –  3
3. Answer (4)  4
 h 8G
Hint: g  = g  1 –  F=
 R  3

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Test - 3 (Code E) (Hints and Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2019

6. Answer (2) 
E (1, 1, 1)  (2  1)iˆ  (1  1  1) jˆ  (1  1)kˆ
Hint: U = Ufinal – Uinitial
 3iˆ  3 jˆ  2kˆ
Sol.:

h = Re E (1, 1, 1) = 3iˆ + 3jˆ + 2kˆ N/kg

10. Answer (3)

Hint: Use concept of variation in g due to height
Re from earth surface.
Gme
Sol.: At surface g = g0 =
GmM R2
Uinitial = –
Re g0 Gme
At height h1, g  = =
GmM 9 (R  h1 )2
U final = –
2Re g0 Gme
At height h2 , g  = =
GMm  GMm  GMm  Re 16 (R  h2 )2
U = Uf – Ui = – – =
2Re  Re  2Re  Re h1
1 =3
GM R
As g =
Re2 h1
=2 ...(i)
mg  Re R
 U =
2 h2
1 =4
7. Answer (3) R
Hint: Use the concept of trajectory. h2
=3 ...(ii)
Sol.: If v > ve R
 Then Trajectory of path will be hyperbola.
h1 2
8. Answer (4) Now, =
h2 3
Hint: ve  c
11. Answer (4)
2 Gm 2  G  (100Me ) Hint and Sol.: When particle is dropped from
Sol.: v e =  v e =
R Re satellite revolving around earth then velocity of
particle will be same as satellite which is in
Now 200  6.67  10 –11  6  1024 tangential direction of orbit. Hence particle will
= Re continue to move with same speed along the original
9  1016
orbit of space craft. (Satellite)
Re = 8.89 × 10–1 m
12. Answer (1)
Re = 0.89 m
Hint: Use gequator = g0 – Re2.
R  1m  Order of radius Sol.: For weightlessness at equator gequator = 0.
g0 = Re2
R  1010 m
9. Answer (2) g0

  Re
Hint: Two different blocks E.dr  dV
Sol.: Given V = – (x 2y + yz + xyz) J/kg
Re 64  106
 V ˆ V ˆ V ˆ T  2 = 2 = 84.6 minutes
Now, E = – i – j– k = (2xy  yz )iˆ g0 9.8
x y z
T = 1.41 hour
( x 2  z  xz ) jˆ  ( y  xy ) kˆ

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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2019 Test - 3 (Code E) (Hints and Solutions)

13. Answer (2) mg – mg + mg = 2 ma – ma

Hint: Use Hooke's law. m(g + a) = 2ma
Stress 2 ma
Sol.: E  m =
Strain g a
Strain 1
Slope = = T . 17. Answer (4)
Stress E
i.e. T2 > T1 Hint: Use concept of excess pressure.
Sol.: Since RA < RB and we know that
or T1  T2
4T
14. Answer (1) Pexcess  PA =
RA
1
Hint: U  Stress × Strain 4T
2 PB =
1 RB
Sol.: U  × Y × Strain × Strain
2 PA > PB because (RA < RB) gas goes from A to B.
1 Hence size of A decreases and size of B increases.
 × 1.1× 1011 × 0.02 × 0.02
2 18. Answer (2)
U = 2.2  107 J/m3
2gh
15. Answer (2) Hint: Velocity of efflux v =
A2
Fl 1 – 22
Hint: l = l1 + l 2 and L = A1
AY
Sol.: Sol.: P0 = 1 atm
2F 4F
4F 2F A1

4F
4F 2F h v2
2F
l l v1
P = 3 atm
Fl F l 4F l 2F l 6F l
L  l1  l 2  1 1  2 2    A2
AY AY AY AY AY
6F l P – P0 2  105
L = h   20 cm .
AY g 10 4
16. Answer (2) Now from Bernoulli's theorem.
Hint: Use Newton's 2nd Law in both cases and
1 2 1
concept of buoyancy. P0 + gh + v1 = P0 + v 22
2 2
Sol.: For 1st Case:
from equation of continuity.
mg – B = ma ...(i)
A1v1 = A2v2
B
m A2 3
v1   v2  v2
a A1 2

mg
2gh 2  10  20 400
For 2nd Case: v2     2 × 20
A 
2
3 1
B a 1–  2  1–  
4 4
 A1 
m – m
B – (m – m) g = (m – m) a = 40 m/s

(m – m) g v 2 = 40 m/s

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Test - 3 (Code E) (Hints and Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2019

19. Answer (2) Now when weight is put on block then

Hint: Use Pascal's Law W + (Al )g =  Al g + K(hout)
Sol.: W = ( – ) Alg + K  hout
E A
= 300 × 64 × 10–5 + 50 × 1 × 10–2 = 0.192 + 0.5
W = 0.692 N
g 21. Answer (2)
h 3 Hint: Use equation of continuity.
2 f
C Sol.: Av = A1v1 + A2v2 + A3v3.

D B a 5 a
a5 = a2 +v   
l/2 l/2 4 2 2

PB = P0 + gh va 5a
5a = 2a + +
4 4
g l gl
PC = PB +    = P0 + gh + 20a = 8a + 5a + va
3 2 6
v = 7 m/s
2  g l gl
PD = PC +  = PC + 22. Answer (3)
3 2 3
gl gl P
= P0 + gh + + Hint: Use FRebound = = Av 2
6 3 t
Sol.:
gl P
PD = P0 + gh + ...(i)
2 F reb
Also, PD = PE + (2P)gh = P0 + 2gh ...(ii) FFlow
l 60°
PO + gh + g = P0  2gh v
2 v
l Q
g = gh
2 O
l   
h= Fnet = Freb  FFlow
2
|Freb| = Av2 = |FFlow|
20. Answer (2)
Hint: Use Archimedes' Principle of Newton's 2nd Law Fnet = F 3 = 3 Av 2
4 cm Fnet = 3 Av 2
Sol.:
4 cm  23. Answer (2)
Hint: Use v T = (n)2/3 vT
Sol.: As v T  ( n )2/3  vT  (8)2/3  10  40 cm/s .

24. Answer (2)
 = 1200 kg m–3 Hint: Use concept of coefficient of expansion of
 = 900 kg m–3 length.
KSpring = 50 Nm–1 Sol.: For anisotropic solids coefficient of linear
g = 10 ms– 2 expansion  is different in each direction.
For floating case initially
Hence,  = x  y  z
Ah =  A l
900 25. Answer (3)
hin   4 = 3 cm Hint: Use equation of conduction of heat.
1200
hout = 1 cm Sol.: If there in no heat loss through radiation.

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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2019 Test - 3 (Code E) (Hints and Solutions)

Then, 3
= K (55 – T0 ) ...(ii)
KA KA 4
L
(40 – T )  (80 – T )  (70 – T ) = L (T – 10) Devide eq. (i) by (ii)
190 – 3T = T – 10 4 65 – T0
=
4T = 200 3 55 – T0
T = 50°C 220 – 4T0 = 195 – 3T0
26. Answer (2) T0 = 25C
Hint: Use Stefan's Law U = AeT4.
29. Answer (3)
Sol.: Given, 20 = AI(400)4.
Hint: Use concept of calorimetry.
Now, P = A (0.7) (527 + 273)4.
Heat loss = Heat gain.
P
= 0.7(2)4 Sol.: mice ciceT + m Lf = mw cw  t
20
20 × 0.5 + 10 + x × 80 = 20 × 1 × 25
P = 11.2 × 20
100 + x × 80 = 500
P = 224 cal cm –2 s –1 x=5g
27. Answer (1) mw = 20  x = 25 g & mice = 20 – x = 15 g
Hint: Use concept of series combination of thermal
30. Answer (3)
resistance.
L  R – R0 
R= Hint: Use t = 100  t 
KA  R100 – R0 
Sol.:  5.92 – 3.70   2.22 
Sol.: t  100    100    200°C
200°C 100°C  4.81 – 3.70   1.11 
K1 = k K2 = 3k K3 = 2k t = 200C
1m 2m 0.5 m 31. Answer (2)
Hint: Use Q = nC P  t
T1 – T2
H Sol.: H = 2 × Cv (5) ...(i)
Req
Q = 2 × Cp (5) ...(ii)
200 – 100 200  12kA
H  by dividing equation (ii) by equation (i)
1 2 1 23
 
kA 3kA 4kA Cp 5 R /2
QH H
100  12  kA 100  12  k  23  10 –2 Cv 3 R /2
 
23 23 5H
Q
H = 12k 3
28. Answer (2) 32. Answer (2)
Hint: Use Newton's Law cooling: Hint: Use concept of slope for adiabatic.

T dP P
 K (Tav – T0 ) –
T dV V
70 – 60  60  70  5
=K – T0 
Sol.:
10  2  Sol.: Now, Monoatomic = = 1.67
3
1 = K(65 – T0) ...(i)
7
Diatomic = = 1.4
(60 – 50) 5
= K (55 – T0 )
40
Monoatomic > Diatomic
3

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Test - 3 (Code E) (Hints and Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2019

Hence, A  Diatomic  N2. or O2 or CO. 1 T

Sol.: =1– 2
B  Monoatomic  He. 3 T1
Among given options T2 2
 = ...(i)
A  N2 T1 3
B  He
Source T1
33. Answer (2)
Q1
Hint: W = P(V2 – V1) for isobaric process.
Sol.: For 1 mole PV = RT + 3V W
Initially P0V1 = RT0 + 3V1 ...(i) Q2
Finally P0V2 = 2RT0 + 3V2 ...(ii)
Sink (T2)
P0(V2 – V1) = RT0 + 3(V2 – V1)
(P0 – 3)(V2 – V1) = RT0 1 (T – 100)
=1– 2
W 2 T1
(P0 – 3) = RT0
P0
T2 100 1
– =
PT R T1 T1 2
W = 0 0
P0 – 3
2 1 100
34. Answer (2) – =
3 2 T1
Hint: Internal energy is state function.
4 – 3 100
Sol.: As initial and final states for all are same =  T1 = 600 K
6 T1
 U1 = U2 = U3
38. Answer (2)
35. Answer (1)
Hint: Use PV = nRT and P  T for isochoric R R
Hint: C  
 – 1 1– n
P = constant for isobaric
Sol.: 1
Sol.: P 
V C T
PT = constant
A B As PV  T
T  PPV = constant
Hence corresponding P B PV 1/2 = constant
P-T plot is
n = 1/2
A C R R 9R
T
 C  
7 1 2
36. Answer (3) – 1 1–
5 2
Hint: Use PV = nRT 39. Answer (2)
V 1 1  1  V2
=  = V
nRT P P  nRT  Hint: W   PdV
V1
1 1
Sol.: Slope =  m Sol.: P
nRT T
Hence, TA  TB  TC
P0
37. Answer (2)
V
Hint: Efficiency of Carnot engine is V1 V2
T2 P0
 1– P V
T1 V1

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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2019 Test - 3 (Code E) (Hints and Solutions)
V2
P Sol.: P (kPa)
W  V V01 VdV 200
1

P0 [V22 – V12 ] 150

W  3
V1 2 V(m )
2 4
40. Answer (4)
( P )( V )
PV – P2V2 W = area of loop = – 
Hint: W  1 1 and PV   constant 4
 –1
 50 2 
 –     103
Sol.: Given, P1V11.5 = P2V21.5  2 2
3/2 3/2
V   1200  W = – 25 kJ
P2  P1  1   150 kPa  
 V2   300  43. Answer (4)
P2 = 1200 kPa Hint: Use PV  = constant and PV = nRT
Now, 

5 –3 6 –3 Sol.: P  T  –1
(1.50 × 10 × 1.20 × 10 ) – (1.2 × 10 × 0.3 × 10 )
W= x
0.5 –1
As, P  T 2
3 
1.8 × 102 – 0.36 × 103  – 1 x  7/5 7
= 2   (180 – 360) Hence – 1= = =
0.5 0.5 2  –1 7 –1 2
5
W = – 360 J
x 9
41. Answer (1) =
2 2
Hint: For thermodynamic equilibrium
x =9
Tx = Ty and Px = Py.
44. Answer (1)
Sol.: x y
Hint: Check area under curve for calculation of work
64 g 40 g He done.
O2
Sol.: Area under the curve is maximum for
lx ly
compression of adiabatic proces.
PV = nRT P
nRT
P=
V
Px = P y

n x RTx ny RTy V
= As (Tx = Ty ) V V
Vx Vy 2

nx n mx m Hence maximum work is done for adiabatic process.

= y  = y
Al x Al y Mx l x My l y 45. Answer (3)
Hint: U = nCv T
l x mx M y 64  4 1
= = =
l y M x my 32  40 5 Sol.: P
A
2P0
lx 1
=
ly 5
P0 B
42. Answer (3)
V
Hint: W = area of ellipse = ab V0 3V0

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Test - 3 (Code E) (Hints and Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2019

2P0V0 Sol.: 6Fe2+ + Cr2O72 – + 14H

Ti 
nR  2Cr3+ + 6Fe3+ + 7H2O
3P V 51. Answer (3)
Tf  0 0
nR Hint: Order of reaction is an experimental quantity.
PV Sol.: Molecularity of a reaction cannot be fractional.
T  Tf – Ti  0 0
nR 52. Answer (2)
nR PV0
  2P0V0 Mass of solute
 – 1 nR Hint: Mass percentage   100
Mass of solution
1
2 Sol.:
–1
 0.5  60 
1 Mass percentage     100  2.9%
 –1  1000  0.5  60 
2
53. Answer (2)
3
 Hint: PS = PA0 xA + PB0 xB
2
3 2
Sol.: PS  100   150   60  60  120 torr
CHEMISTRY 5 5
54. Answer (1)
46. Answer (1) Hint: Number of Faraday = mole of MnO4– × n-factor.
Hint: Sphalerite has CCP structure.
Sol.: Effective number of atoms in the unit cell of Sol.: MnO4–  5e –  Mn2 
CCP structure is 4. n-factor = 5
 Octahedral voids = 4 × 1 = 4 Number of Faraday required = 0.2 × 5 = 1
47. Answer (1) 55. Answer (1)
Hint: In body centered cubic unit cell, atom at body 0.693
centre touches all corner atoms. Hint: k 
t1/2
Sol.: 4r  3x
2.303 a
3 Sol.: t  log
r xÅ k a–x
4
4 100
48. Answer (3) t  2.303 log
0.693 100 – 90
Hint: The sum of the oxidation numbers of all the
t = 13.29 hr
atoms of a species is equal to the net charge
present on the species. 56. Answer (2)
Sol.: Let oxidation number of N in NO3– and Mn in Hint: Oxidising power  Reduction potential.
Sol.: Co3+ has highest reduction potential while Li+
MnO 2–
4
are x and y respectively.
has lowest reduction potential.
For NO3– : x + 3(–2) = –1  x = +5 57. Answer (1)
For MnO 2–
4 :
y + 4(–2) = –2  y = +6 Hint: Eocell  Ecathode
o
– Eoanode
49. Answer (1) Sol.:
Hint: The element in its highest oxidation state E0cell  E0Ag /Ag – EMg
0
2
/Mg
 (0.80  2.36) V  3.16 V
cannot act as reducing agent. 58. Answer (2)
Sol.: C in CO2 is in + 4 oxidation state which is Hint: van’t Hoff factor, i = 1 + (n – 1)  and
highest for carbon.
Tf = i Kf m
50. Answer (3)
Sol.: i = 1 + (2 – 1) 0.4 = 1.4
Hint: Number of mole of Cr2O72– ion required to
Tf = 1.4 × 0.2 × 1.86 = 0.52
oxidise Fe 2+ ion can be calculated by writing
balanced chemical equation. Tf  Tfo – Tf  0.52

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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2019 Test - 3 (Code E) (Hints and Solutions)

∵ Tfo  0C C1 = C2
8 2
so, Tf = – 0.52°C
180  M
59. Answer (2) 100  103 100  103
Hint: Lower is the value of i for a given concentration, M = 45 g mol–1
lower is the boiling point of solution.
66. Answer (2)
Sol.: Sucrose is a non-electrolyte so, i for sucrose
Hint:
will be 1, which is lowest in the given species,
therefore boiling point of its aq. solution will be p0 – pS pS  Vapour pressure of solution
minimum. 0
 x2  0 
p  p  Vapour pressure of liquid 
60. Answer (3)
150 – pS 0.5
Hint: Packing efficiency of FCC unit cell is 74%. Sol.:   0.2
150 50
Sol.: Vacant space in FCC unit cell 0.5 
25
= (100 – 74)% = 26%.
or, 150 – pS = 30
61. Answer (1)
or, ps = 150 – 30 = 120 mm Hg
2  Mass of crystal 67. Answer (1)
Hint: Number of atoms  .
Mass of unit cell Hint: Positive deviation is shown by binary liquid
Sol.: Edge length of unit cell mixture when A – B interactions are weaker than
= 100 pm = 100 × 10–10 cm = 10– 8 cm those between A – A or B – B interactions.
Volume = (10– 8)3 cm3 = 10 –24 cm3 Sol.: Molecular interaction between acetone and
Mass of unit cell = 10 –24 × 100 = 10 –22 g CS 2 is less than the average interaction of
acetone – acetone and CS2 – CS2.
200
Number of unit cells  68. Answer (2)
10 –22
Hint: Reducing agent is that species which is
200
Number of atoms  2  –22  4  1024 oxidised.
10
3 6
62. Answer (4) Sol.: C r(OH)3  C rO2–
4
Hint: Randomness increases when two or more Chromium is oxidised from +3 to + 6 oxidation state,
liquids are mixed. hence it is a reducing agent in the given reaction.
Sol.: During mixing randomness increasing hence, 69. Answer (2)
(S)mix. > 0 Hint: Oxidation states of phosphorous ranges from
63. Answer (2) – 3 to +5.
Hint: Decrease in number of solute particles per unit Sol.: In H4P2O7, oxidation state of phosphorous is +5.
volume of the solution increases the vapour pressure 70. Answer (2)
of the solution.
   
Sol.: By addition of water, the number of solute Hint:  CH3 COOH
  CH3 COONa
 HCl – NaCl
particles per unit volume of solution decreases, hence

Sol.:  CH3 COOH  (c  b – a) S cm mol .
2 –1
vapour pressure increases.
64. Answer (2) 71. Answer (3)
Hint: The concentration term which does not contain
2.303RT
Hint: Ecell 
o
volume term is independent of temperature. log K eq. and G  –nFEocell .
nF
Sol.: Mole fraction does not contain volume term so
it is independent of temperature. Sol.: Eocell is positive, so K eq  1 and G  0.
65. Answer (3)
72. Answer (1)
Hint: For isotonic solution, 1 = 2.
  2 0.0591
Hint: Ecell 
Sol.: o
1 log K eq
(Glucos e) (A) n

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Test - 3 (Code E) (Hints and Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2019

Sol.: Eocell  ERo – ELo  (– 0.76  2.36) V  1.6 V 3.42 1000

   0.0821 300
342 250
0.0591  = 0.98 atm
Eocell  log K eq
2 80. Answer (4)
1.6  2 Hint: For electrophoresis and electro-dialysis, the
 log K eq  log Keq = 54.145
0.0591 colloidal particles should be charged.
Keq = 1.4 × 1054 Sol.: Optical property (like Tyndall effect) is
independent of the charge present on the colloidal
73. Answer (1)
particle.
Hint: Oxidising agent oxidises another species.
81. Answer (3)
Sol.: During oxidation, oxidation number of reacting
Hint: In iodometric titration the indicator used is
species increases
starch.
0 2
Zn  Z nO2– 82. Answer (2)
2
Hint:
74. Answer (4)
Mass of silver electroplated on the metal surface
Hint: Sum of oxidation states of all atoms in a
neutral molecule is zero.  5.4 
  10 cm2  cm   10 g/cc  54 g
Sol.: For A3(BC3)2  10 
Net charge = 2 × 3 + [3 × 1 + 3 × (– 2)] × 2 = 0 Sol.: Equivalent wt. of Ag = 108
75. Answer (4)
54
Hint: F2 will not be oxidised.  Number of equivalent of Ag deposited 
108
Sol.: F2 will not undergo disproportionation reaction.
54
76. Answer (3) Amount of electricity required   96500
108
Tb K b
Hint: T  K = 48250C
f f
83. Answer (2)
Kf 1.86
Sol.: Tf  Tb  K  0.52  0.52  1.86 Hint: Catalyst does not catalyses non-spontaneous
b reactions.
Tf  Tfo – Tf  1.86 84. Answer (2)
Tf = –1.86°C 0.0591 [Ni2 ]
Hint: Ecell  Ecell
0
– log
77. Answer (3) 2 [Ag ]2
Hint: For zero order reaction. G = –nF E
[A t ] = [A0] – kt 0.0591 1
A0 Sol.: Ecell  (0.80  0.25) – log
2 (0.01)2

Slope = –k 0.0591 0.0591

Sol.:
[At ]  1.05 – log 104  1.05 – 4
2 2
= 0.932 V
t
78. Answer (3) G = –2 × F × 0.932 = 1.86 F
Hint: Diastase converts starch into maltose. 85. Answer (2)
79. Answer (1) Hint: H+ has exceptionally highest limiting molar
conductivity at 298 K in water.
Hint:  = CRT (C = Molar concentration of sucrose)
86. Answer (3)
3.42 / 342
Sol.:    0.0821 300 Hint: Reaction at anode
250
–
4 (aq)  S 2 O 8 (aq)  2e
2SO 2– 2–
1000

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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2019 Test - 3 (Code E) (Hints and Solutions)

87. Answer (1) 95. Answer (4)

2
RT Hint: Tyloses develop in heartwood.
Hint: K f  f

1000  L fusion Solution: Tyloses are balloon like swellings of xylem

parenchyma cells in lumen of xylem vessels. These
8.314  (273 – 23) 8.314  250  250
2

Sol.: K f   make heartwood non-functional.

1000  125 1000  125
96. Answer (3)
Kf = 4.16 K kg mol–1
Hint: Floridean starch is stored food of red algae.
88. Answer (4)
Solution:
Hint:
– Rhizophore is an intermediate organ between
w  Mass of ethylene glycol(g)
m  W  Tf root and shoot, develops in Selaginella.
w m  Molar mass of ethylene glycol
1000  K f – Living fossil - Metasequoia.
W  Mass of water (g)
– Coralloid root - Cycas.
62  2000  5.58
Sol.: w  97. Answer (2)
1000  1.86
w = 372 g Hint: Fossils play important role in elucidation of
evolutionary relationships.
89. Answer (1)
Solution: Phylogenetic system of classification is
Hint: For coagulation of negatively charged sol, based on evolutionary relationships besides other
higher is charge of cation, higher will be its criteria of classification.
flocculating power.
98. Answer (1)
Sol.: Gold sol is negatively charged solution.
Hint: In Spirogyra, dominant phase is
90. Answer (3) photosynthetic haploid gametophyte.
Hint: Leclanche cell is a dry cell in which Zn acts Solution: In Spirogyra, sporophytic generation is
as anode and graphite as cathode. represented only by the single celled zygote.
Thus Spirogyra represents haplontic life cycle.
BIOLOGY
99. Answer (4)
91. Answer (4) Hint: Organisms belonging to the same taxa have
Hint: They increase dissolved oxygen in their common ancestor.
immediate environment. Solution: In Cycas, small specialised roots are
Solution: Algae, mostly being aquatic increase present called coralloid roots. They remain
dissolved oxygen in water. They release oxygen associated with nitrogen fixing cyanobacteria.
during photosynthesis process and fix at least 50% Sphagnum often grows in acidic marshes.
of the total CO2 on earth. 100. Answer (1)
92. Answer (2) Hint: In monocot stems, within vascular bundles
Hint: Seeds producing plants are heterosporous. water containing cavities are present.
Solution: All gymnosperms as well as Solution:
angiosperms are heterosporous not homosporous. – In monocot roots, pith is large and well
93. Answer (4) developed.
Hint: Stele is the region surrounded by endodermis. – In dicot stems, bundle sheath is absent.
Solution: Stele does not include endodermis but it 101. Answer (4)
includes pericycle, vascular bundles and pith Hint: In both dicot and monocot leaves, vascular
(if present). bundles are conjoint and closed but monocot leaves
94. Answer (3) are amphistomatic.
Hint: Subsidiary cells are specialised epidermal Solution:
cells that provide support to guard cells. – In monocot leaves, mesophyll is not differentiated
Solution: Subsidiary cells do not have chloroplast into palisade & spongy parenchyma.
and do not carryout photosynthesis whereas guard – Stomata are present on both surfaces of leaves
cells have chloroplasts. (amphistomatic).

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Test - 3 (Code E) (Hints and Solutions)
102. Answer (1)
Hint: Aerenchyma is a type of parenchyma with air
cavities.
Solution: Aerenchyma gives buoyancy to aquatic
plants. It also helps in gaseous exchange.
103. Answer (1)
Hint: Sulphur shower is related to pollination. It
appears as a yellow cloud of pollen grains.
Solution: Sulphur shower phenomenon is related to
pine trees not to all gymnosperms.
104. Answer (2)
Hint: Gymnosperms are adapted to xerophytic
habitat.
Solution:
– Due to presence of thick culticle and sunken
stomata (deeply situated stomata) gymnosperms
are well adapted to extreme conditions.
– Transfusion tissue is found in leaves of Cycas
which is meant for lateral conduction.
105. Answer (2)
Hint: The gametophyte of pteridophytes has some
specific requirements for growth.
Solution: In pteridophytes, gametophyte requires
cool, damp, shady places to grow and during
fertilisation water is also required. Therefore
pteridophytes are restricted to narrow geographical
regions.
106. Answer (3)
Solution: In alga Volvox, sexual reproduction is
oogamous type.
107. Answer (3)
Solution:
– In members of chlorophyceae chlorophyll 'a' and
'b' are found and they appear grass green in
colour.
– Members of rhodophyceae (red Algae) have
complex post-fertilisation developments.
108. Answer (1)
Hint: Intercalary meristems are separated from
apical meristem by mature tissue.
Solution: Apical meristem is primary meristem on
the basis of its origin, therefore, intercalary
meristem will be primary.
109. Answer (1)
Solution: Root epidermis is termed as rhizodermis
or epiblema.
All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2019
110. Answer (2)
Hint: Double fertilization & triple fusion are advance
phenomenon found in the most advance plant group.
Solution: Double fertilization & triple fusion events
are unique to angiosperms.
111. Answer (2)
Hint: Anabaena fixes atmospheric nitrogen in
Azolla.
Solution:
– Mannitol is stored food in phaeophyceae.
– Sporophylls arrange spirally along an axis to
form lax /cone.
– Phenetics is numerical taxonomy involves usage
of many characters at the same time.
– In mosses, rhizoids are branched, multicellular
and with oblique septa.
112. Answer (1)
Hint: Marchantia has sex organs on separate thalli.
Solution:
– Marchantia is a dioecious bryophyte.
– Algae form association with some animals like
sloth bear.
– In artificial system of classification equal
weightage to vegetative and sexual
characteristics were given. In fact it was a
drawback.
– Pigment combination of phaeophyceae is chl
a & c and fucoxanthin.
113. Answer (1)
Hint: This plant has whorled phyllotaxy.
Solution: Multilayered epidermis occurs in Nerium
and Ficus.
Zea mays, wheat & grasses have single layered
epidermis.
114. Answer (3)
Hint: Annual rings are formed due to seasonal
variations.
Solution: Annual rings are distinct in plants
growing in temperate regions where climatic
conditions are not uniform throughout the year.
115. Answer (1)
Hint: In roots, xylem and phloem are arranged on
different radii but alternate to each other.
Solution: This arrangement is known as radial type
and vascular bundles are radial.
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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2019
116. Answer (2)
Hint: Vascular system transports water and mineral
from root to the top of plant & food from source to
sink.
Solution: Transport of water, mineral, food etc. over
long distance through the vascular system is called
translocation.
117. Answer (2)
Hint: In endarch condition, protoxylem (first formed)
remains towards centre and metaxylem (later
formed) towards periphery. Thus xylem orientation
is centrifugal.
Solution:
– Xylem parenchyma helps in radial conduction of
water.
– Sclerenchyma is dead and lacks protoplast.
– Tracheids are found in all vascular plants.
118. Answer (4)
Hint: In gymnosperms, pollination is carried out by
abiotic agent.
Solution: This abiotic agent is air current.
119. Answer (2)
Hint: Chilgoza is the edible seed of Pinus
gerardiana.
Solution:
Gemmae – Marchantia
Embryosac – Eucalyptus (angiosperm)
Heterosporous – Marsilea (pteridophyte) vascular
cryptogam
120. Answer (3)
Hint: Hydrocolloid, algin is obtained from giants of
algal world.
Solution: Members of class phaeophyceae (brown
algae) are commonly known as giant of algal world.
121. Answer (3)
Hint: Protonema is a creeping, green, branched and
frequently filamentous stage of mosses.
Solution:
– Mosses are important in plant succession on
rocky areas along with lichens.
– In gymnosperms, male and female gametophytes
develop within sporangia on sporophytes.
– In brown algae gametes are pear shaped with
two laterally attached flagella.
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Test - 3 (Code E) (Hints and Solutions)
122. Answer (2)
Hint: Cork cells have cellulosic wall in the
beginning but at maturity there is gradual loss of
living matter.
Solution: Due to loss of living matter cork cells are
dead. Later, they get deposited with fatty
substance, i.e., suberin & cell wall becomes thick.
123. Answer (4)
Hint: Trichomes are epidermal hairs on the stem.
Solution:
– Trichomes are not related to gaseous exchange.
– They are usually multicellular, help in scretion in
some plants & prevent water loss.
124. Answer (3)
Hint: Bast fibres are actually phloem fibres.
Solution:
– Coir of coconut is fibrous mesocarp. It is not a
phloem fibre.
– Jute, flax & hemp are phloem fibres.
125. Answer (3)
Hint: Companion cells are found only in
angiosperms.
Solution: Pteridophytes and gymnosperms lack
companion cells but in gymnosperms in the place
of companion cells, albuminous cells are present.
126. Answer (1)
Hint: In diplontic life cycle dominant phase is diploid
sporophyte.
Solution:
A  Sporophyte (2n)
B  Meiosis
Diplontic life cycle pattern.
127. Answer (2)
Hint: Secondary nucleus and egg cell take part in
events of double fertilization.
Solution: Antipodal cells of embryo sac do not
take part in fertilization and after fertilization they
degenerate.
128. Answer (2)
Hint: In gymnosperms male & female
gametophytes do not have an independent free
living existence.
Solution:
– In gymnosperms, male and female
gametophytes are dependent on sporophyte.
– Ovule represents megasporangium.
– Embryo sac is absent in gymnosperms.
Test - 3 (Code E) (Hints and Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2019

129. Answer (3) – For removal of kidney stone a decoction of

Hint: Bryophytes and most of the pteridophytes are Polytrichum commune is employed.
homosporous, but few pteridophytes and all – Protostele – Rhynia.
gymnosperms are heterosporous. 134. Answer (4)
Solution:
Hint: In leaves, endodermis is absent because
Marchantia  ground tissue is not differentiated.

Funaria  Bryophytes – Homosporous Solution: Distinct endodermis is a feature of dicot
Polytrichum  stems, dicot roots & monocot roots.
135. Answer (1)
Lycopodium 
 Pteridophytes – Homosporous Hint: Tracheids and vessels, both are lignified and
Dryopteris 
dead.
Selaginella Pteridophyte – Heterosporous Solution: A tracheid differ from vessels in being
single long cell with tapering ends whereas vessels
Gnetum 
 Gymnosperms– Heterosporous are long cylindrical tube like structures. Both
Ephedra 
elements transport water and minerals.
130. Answer (2)
136. Answer (3)
Hint: In open vascular bundles, cambium is present
Hint: Leucocytes exhibit pseudopodia.
between xylem and phloem. So, these are 'open' for
secondary growth. Sol.: Macrophages prominently show amoeboid
movement to engulf foreign matter. Human sperms
Solution: In dicot and monocot leaves and in
have flagella for locomotion.
monocot stem vascular bundles are closed as
cambium is absent, while in dicot stem they are 137. Answer (1)
open. Hint: Neurilemma in PNS is present in both
131. Answer (4) myelinated and unmyelinated neurons.
Solution: Sol.: Schwann cells are present around axon of
both myelinated and unmyelinated neurons.
Dicot stem Monocot stem
Unmyelinated neurons lack myelin sheath and nodes
– Hypodermis is – Vascular bundles are of Ranvier.
collenchymatous scattered in ground
138. Answer (2)
tissue region
Hint: This hormone prevents the release of growth
– Stele is eustele – Ground tissue is not hormone.
differentiated
Sol.: Somatostatin is another name of Growth
– Pericycle absent hormone Inhibiting Hormone (GHIH) which is
132. Answer (3) produced by hypothalamus. Gonadotrophins (LH &
Hint: Chemistry of cell wall is a basis of FSH), somatotropin (Growth hormone) and prolactin
classification of algae. (PRL) are produced by anterior pituitary.
Solution: 139. Answer (3)
– Evolutionarily, pteridophytes are first terrestrial Hint: Vasopressin is released in response to fall in
plants to possess vascular tissues. blood pressure.
– Pteriodophytes are first successful land plants. Sol.: ADH (vasopressin) and aldosterone increase
– Bryophytes are first archegonial plants. the blood pressure. ACTH, i.e., adrenocorticotrophic
hormone is secreted by anterior pituitary. ANF (atrial
133. Answer (1)
natriuretic factor) is secreted from wall of heart and
Hint: Natural system of classification decreases blood pressure.
– Bentham & Hooker. 140. Answer (4)
Solution:
Hint: Skeletal muscle is made up of number of
– Father of algology – F.E. Fritsch. myofibres.

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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2019 Test - 3 (Code E) (Hints and Solutions)

Sol.: Skeletal muscle in our body is made of a Sol.: Vasopressin is produced by supraoptic nuclei
number of muscle bundles or fascicles held together of hypothalamus. Erythropoietin is produced by JG
by a common collagenous connective tissue called cells and stimulates erythropoiesis. Thymosin is
fascia. Each muscle bundle contains numerous produced by thymus gland and is important for
myofibres, each of which is made up of numerous differentiation of T-lymphocytes.
myofibrils. Each myofibril contains numerous
145. Answer (4)
myofilaments.
Hint: Sympathetic branch nervous system works
141. Answer (2)
during emergency conditions.
Hint: Neurons can be classified on the basis of
Sol.: Stimulation from parasympathetic nervous
number of dendrites and axons present in them.
system causes salivation, contraction of urinary
Sol.:
bladder and constriction of pupil.
146 Answer (3)
Multipolar neuron : Found in cerebral
Hint: At rest, axolemma bears positive charge
with usually one axon & cortex
towards ECF.
multiple dendrites
Sol.: Efflux of K+ ions takes place through voltage
Bipolar neuron : Found in retina of gated K+ channels. during repolarisation phase which
One axon and one eye restores the membrane potential.
dendrite 147. Answer (4)
Unipolar neuron : Found in Hint: Visceral organs contain non-striated muscles.
Sol.: Biceps and thigh muscles are multinucleated
Cell body with one axon embryonic stage
(skeletal) muscles while cardiac muscles are striated
only and found in heart. Stomach contains smooth
Pseudounipolar neuron : Dorsal root muscles that are fusiform, uninucleated and
Have single process which ganglion of spinal unbranched.
148. Answer (3)
divides to form an axon cord
Hint: Thinning of bones occurs due to loss of
and a dendron
minerals from bone.
142. Answer (1)
Sol.: Parathormone mobilises Ca 2+ from bones
Hint: Identify a hormone deficiency disorder. leading to high Ca2+ level in blood and thinning of
Sol.: Cushing's syndrome and Conn's syndrome bones. Calcitonin causes decrease in blood Ca2+
(Aldosteronism) are caused due to hypersecretion of levels and its further deposition in bone while
cortisol and aldosterone respectively. Addison's cacitriol (Vitamin D3), stimulates increased absorption
disease is caused due to deficiency of of Ca2+ from food in gastrointestinal tract, which
glucocorticoids and mineralocorticoids. Bronze like increases blood Ca2+ level.
pigmentation is seen in Addison's disease. 149. Answer (3)
143. Answer (3) Hint: Steroid hormones act via intracellular receptors.
Hint: Both extensor muscles of human back and Sol.: Estrogen is a steroid hormone; able to cross
eyeball muscles are skeletal muscles. the plasma membrane and bind to their receptor
Sol.: Extensor muscles are red muscle fibres having present in cytoplasm. This hormone-receptor
high myoglobin content and higher number of complex then binds to the gene and regulates the
mitochondria as compared to white muscle fibres of expression of many genes. Epinephrine, glucagon
eyeball. Red muscle fibres carry out aerobic and FSH are water soluble hormones with extra
oxidation while white muscle fibres carry out cellular receptors.
anaerobic oxidation. 150. Answer (1)
144. Answer (2) Hint: At resting stage, neuronal cell membrane is
Hint: Hormone released by posterior pituitary more permeable to K+ ions and nearly impermeable
regulates osmolarity. to Na+ ions.

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Test - 3 (Code E) (Hints and Solutions)
Sol.: Na + /K + pump plays an important role in
maintaining resting potential of neuronal membrane
by transporting 3Na+ to extracellular fluid and 2K+
into the cell at expense of one ATP molecule. Thus,
maintaining a negative resting membrane potential.
151. Answer (3)
Hint: A band is present between two I-bands in a
sarcomere.
Sol.: During muscle contraction, when thin filaments
slide over thick filaments towards M line, then length
of H-zone decreases, myofilaments of actin slide
over myosin but their length remains unchanged.
152. Answer (2)
Hint: Single long fibre arising from cell body of a
neuron lacks protein synthesizing granular bodies.
Sol.: Cell body (cyton) and dendrites contain Nissl's
granules. Nissl's granules comprise of RER and
protein.
153. Answer (2)
Hint: Melatonin helps in maintaining diurnal rhythm
of our body.
Sol.: When a person travels across different time
zones, then due to alteration in timing and duration
of day and night; secretion of melatonin is disturbed
which affects the diurnal rhythm of our body.
Melatonin secretion increase during night.
154. Answer (4)
Hint: Neurotransmitters allow transmission of
impulse at chemical synapses.
Sol.: At electrical synapse, impulse travels from one
neuron to other via gap junctions through ions. Size
of synaptic cleft is greatly reduced (~ 6 nm) in case
of electrical synapse as pre-synaptic and post-
synaptic membranes are connected by gap
junctions.
155. Answer (3)
Hint: Meromyosin is a monomer of myosin.
Sol.: I-band of a sarcomere in skeletal muscle fibres
is made up of actin filaments, troponin and
tropomyosin. Thick filaments in A- band are made up
polymers of meromyosin.
156. Answer (2)
Hint: Light enters eye through the pupil.
Sol.: Iris regulates the amount of light entering our
eye by regulating the size of pupil. Sclera, the
"white" of eye gives shape to the eyeball and
protects its inner parts. Ciliary body and suspensory
ligaments hold the lens in place.
All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2019
157. Answer (4)
Hint: Diabetes insipidus is characterised by
production of large volume of dilute urine.
Sol.: Diabetes mellitus is characterised by presence
of glucose and ketone bodies in urine. Posterior
pituitary (Pars nervosa) is under direct neural
regulation of hypothalamus. Goitre is simply an
enlarged thyroid gland. It may be associated with
hyperthyroidism or hypothyroidism.
Progesterone & prolactin regulate the growth of
mammary glands & formation of milk in them.
158. Answer (4)
Hint: Diabetogenic hormones raise blood sugar level.
Sol.: Growth hormone, cortisol and glucagon cause
increase in blood sugar level. Insulin stimulates
glucose uptake by cells and further its utilisation for
energy or conversion into glycogen leading to a
decline in blood glucose level.
159. Answer (4)
Hint: Myosin head binds to new molecule of ATP
releasing actin.
Sol.: During relaxation of muscle fibres, Ca2+ pumps
actively transport Ca2+ ions from sarcoplasm into
sarcoplasmic reticulum. With removal of Ca2+ ions,
troponin-tropomyosin complex again cover myosin
binding site on actin. Binding of new ATP molecule
to myosin head causes breakdown of actomyosin
crossbridges.
160. Answer (3)
Hint: Identify a structural feature of human forebrain.
Sol.: 'A' is corpus callosum that is tract of nerve
fibres.
Foramen of Monro connects 1st ventricle and 2nd
ventricle to 3rd ventricle.
Thalamus is the relay centre for sensory and motor
signalling of cerebral cortex.
Medulla regulates cardiovascular reflexes, gastric
secretion and respiration.
161. Answer (1)
Hint: Hormones secreted by adrenal medulla like
adrenaline and noradrenaline are known as
catecholamines.
Sol.: Adrenaline increases our heart rate, thereby
reducing the duration of a single cardiac cycle. It
causes the breakdown or lysis of proteins, lipids and
glucose to generate energy and prepare our body for
emergency situations.
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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2019
162. Answer (4)
Hint: Thymosins help in differentiation of
T-lymphocytes.
Sol.: Atrophy (degeneration) of thymus leads to
deficiency of thymosin. Thymosins are important for
maturation of T-lymphocytes which are important for
cell mediated immunity.
163. Answer (4)
Hint: All ribs have two articulating heads on dorsal
side (bicephalic) to interact with vertebral column.
Sol.: First seven pairs of ribs known as true ribs
articulate with sternum on ventral side & with
vertebral column dorsally. Vertebrochondral ribs/False
ribs (8th, 9th and 10th pair) articulate with 7th pair of
ribs.
164. Answer (3)
Hint: Knee jerk reflex is a monosynaptic reflex.
Sol.: In knee jerk reflex, impulse from receptor organ
is carried by afferent neuron towards dorsal root
ganglion of spinal cord. Efferent neuron carries
impulse from spinal cord to effector organ.
165. Answer (2)
Hint: A cranial bone forming base of skull anteriorly.
Sol.: Appendicular skeleton includes bones of limbs
and girdles like clavicle, Ilium and scapula. Ethmoid
bone is a part of axial skeleton.
166. Answer (3)
Hint: This disease is related to low blood Ca2+ level.
Sol.: Acromegaly is caused due to hypersecretion of
growth hormone in adults. Cretinism is caused due
to deficiency of thyroid hormone whereas
exopthalmic goitre is caused due to excessive
secretion of thyroxine. Diabetes mellitus is caused
by deficiency of insulin while diabetes insipidus is
caused by deficiency of ADH.
167. Answer (3)
Hint: Identify a U-shaped bone present at the base
of buccal cavity.
Sol.: Hyoid is an unpaired bone. Parietal and
temporal are paired cranial bones while zygomatic is
paired facial bone.
168. Answer (3)
Hint: Oval window connects middle and inner ear.
Sol.: Stapes is in contact with oval window.
Inner ear consists of endolymph filled membranous
labyrinth and perilymph filled bony labyrinth.
Vestibular apparatus is composed of 3 semi-circular
canals and the otolith responsible for equilibrium
while cochlea is responsible for hearing.
18/19
Test - 3 (Code E) (Hints and Solutions)
169. Answer (1)
Hint: In autoimmune disorder, immune system starts
destroying self cells/structures.
Sol.: In Myasthenia gravis, immune system starts
producing antibodies which attack the acetylcholine
receptors present on the sarcolemma. As result,
acetylcholine can no longer bind to its receptors.
Consequently, transmission of impulse at
neuromuscular junction is impaired.
170. Answer (3)
Hint: Rods are chiefly used for vision in dim light.
Sol.: Choroid coat is deeply pigmented with
melanin which prevents the reflection of light rays
within eye. At blind spot, no photoreceptor cells are
present; and at this point optic nerve leaves the eye
and blood vessels enter the eye.
171. Answer (3)
Hint: Endocrine part of pancreas secretes hormones
like insulin and glucagon.
Sol.: Secretin acts on exocrine part i.e. pancreatic
acinar cells and stimulates secretion of water and
bicarbonate ions. Leydig cells or interstitial cells are
present in spaces between two seminiferous
tubules. Aldosterone is a steroid hormone and it acts
via intracellular receptors, cAMP is a secondary
messenger required by water - soluble hormones.
172. Answer (3)
Hint: Cartilaginous joint is present between adjacent
vertebrae.
Sol.: Fibrous joints are present between cranial
bones. Pivot joint is present between atlas and axis.
Saddle joint is present between carpal and
metacarpal of thumb. Gliding joint is present in
between carpals.
173. Answer (3)
Hint: Pia mater is in contact with brain tissue.
Sol.: Dura mater is the outermost layer of cranial
meninges. It is thick and tough made up of fibrous
tissue. Middle layer is arachnoid followed by Pia
mater which is thin and highly vascular.
174. Answer (4)
Hint: Elbow jerk reflex is a monosynaptic reflex.
Sol.: Interneuron is not a part of elbow jerk reflex. A
single synapse is present between afferent and
efferent neuron.
Test - 3 (Code E) (Hints and Solutions)
175. Answer (4)
Hint: Corticoids regulate water and electrolyte
balance.
Sol.: Cortisol is a glucocorticoid and produces anti-
inflammatory reactions and suppresses the immune
response.
176. Answer (4)
Hint: Identify the main baroreceptors.
Sol.: Olfactory receptor bulb help in detecting odor.
Meissner's corpuscles are found beneath skin
epidermis and are light pressure receptors. Pacinian
corpuscles are scattered deep in dermis and are
deep pressure receptors.
177. Answer (4)
Hint: In menopausal women, deficiency of ovarian
hormone is seen.
Sol.: Deficiency of estrogen in menopausal women
causes an increase in activity of osteoclast cells
which results in resorption of bone. Adrenal medulla
is a modified sympathetic ganglion of autonomic
nervous system and is ectodermal in origin.
‰ ‰ ‰
All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2019
Renin is a hormone which is produced by JG cells
and catalyses the conversion of Angiotensinogen to
Angiotensin I. Grave's disease is an autoimmune
disorder resulting in hyperthyroidism.
178. Answer (2)
Hint: Cochlea helps to perceive different sound
waves.
Sol.: Vestibular apparatus comprises macula &
cristae which are concerned with maintaining
dynamic and static balance of body.
179. Answer (4)
Hint: Brain stem is composed of midbrain and
portion of hindbrain.
Sol.: Brain stem is made up of midbrain, pons and
medulla. Cerebrum is a part of forebrain.
Cerebellum is not a part of brain stem.
180. Answer (2)
Hint: Term for patches of grey matter in white matter
in CNS.
Sol.: Nuclei and ganglia are clusters of cell bodies
of neurons in CNS and PNS respectively.
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Test - 3 (Code F) (Answers) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2019

All India Aakash Test Series for Medical - 2019

TEST - 3 (Code F)
Test Date : 23/12/2018

ANSWERS
1. (3) 37. (2) 73. (2) 109. (2) 145. (3)
2. (1) 38. (4) 74. (4) 110. (2) 146. (3)
3. (4) 39. (3) 75. (1) 111. (1) 147. (1)
4. (3) 40. (2) 76. (3) 112. (3) 148. (3)
5. (1) 41. (1) 77. (2) 113. (1) 149. (3)
6. (4) 42. (3) 78. (2) 114. (1) 150. (3)
7. (2) 43. (4) 79. (1) 115. (2) 151. (2)
8. (2) 44. (1) 80. (2) 116. (2) 152. (3)
9. (2) 45. (1) 81. (1) 117. (1) 153. (4)
10. (3) 46. (3) 82. (1) 118. (1) 154. (4)
11. (1) 47. (1) 83. (2) 119. (3) 155. (1)
12. (2) 48. (4) 84. (2) 120. (3) 156. (3)
13. (2) 49. (1) 85. (3) 121. (2) 157. (4)
14. (2) 50. (3) 86. (3) 122. (2) 158. (4)
15. (2) 51. (2) 87. (1) 123. (1) 159. (4)
16. (3) 52. (2) 88. (3) 124. (1) 160. (2)
17. (3) 53. (2) 89. (1) 125. (4) 161. (3)
18. (2) 54. (2) 90. (1) 126. (1) 162. (4)
19. (1) 55. (3) 91. (1) 127. (4) 163. (2)
20. (2) 56. (4) 92. (4) 128. (1) 164. (2)
21. (3) 57. (1) 93. (1) 129. (2) 165. (3)
22. (2) 58. (3) 94. (3) 130. (3) 166. (1)
23. (2) 59. (3) 95. (4) 131. (4) 167. (3)
24. (3) 60. (3) 96. (2) 132. (3) 168. (3)
25. (2) 61. (4) 97. (3) 133. (4) 169. (4)
26. (2) 62. (4) 98. (2) 134. (2) 170. (3)
27. (2) 63. (1) 99. (2) 135. (4) 171. (4)
28. (2) 64. (1) 100. (1) 136. (2) 172. (2)
29. (4) 65. (3) 101. (3) 137. (4) 173. (3)
30. (2) 66. (2) 102. (3) 138. (2) 174. (1)
31. (2) 67. (2) 103. (4) 139. (4) 175. (2)
32. (1) 68. (2) 104. (2) 140. (4) 176. (4)
33. (2) 69. (1) 105. (3) 141. (4) 177. (3)
34. (1) 70. (2) 106. (3) 142. (4) 178. (2)
35. (4) 71. (3) 107. (2) 143. (3) 179. (1)
36. (3) 72. (2) 108. (4) 144. (3) 180. (3)

1/19
 All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2019 Test - 3 (Code F) (Hints and Solutions)

HINTS AND SOLUTIONS

x  7/5 7
PHYSICS Hence – 1= = =
2  –1 7
1. Answer (3) –1 2
5
Hint: U = nCv T
x 9
Sol.: P =
A 2 2
2P0
x =9
4. Answer (3)
P0 B
Hint: W = area of ellipse = ab
V Sol.: P (kPa)
V0 3V0
2P0V0 200
Ti 
nR
150
3P V 3
Tf  0 0 V(m )
nR 2 4
P0V0 ( P )( V )
T  Tf – Ti  W = area of loop = – 
nR 4
nR PV0  50 2 
  2P0V0  –     103
 – 1 nR  2 2
1 W = – 25 kJ
2
–1 5. Answer (1)
1 Hint: For thermodynamic equilibrium
 –1
2 Tx = Ty and Px = Py.
3 Sol.: x y

2 64 g 40 g He
2. Answer (1) O2

Hint: Check area under curve for calculation of work lx ly

done. PV = nRT
Sol.: Area under the curve is maximum for
nRT
compression of adiabatic proces. P=
V
P
Px = P y

n x RTx ny RTy
= As (Tx = Ty )
Vx Vy
V
V V nx n mx m
= y  = y
2 Al x Al y Mx l x My l y
Hence maximum work is done for adiabatic process.
3. Answer (4) l x mx M y 64  4 1
= = =
Hint: Use PV  = constant and PV = nRT l y M x my 32  40 5


Sol.: P  T  –1 lx 1
=
x
–1 ly 5
As, P  T 2

2/19
Test - 3 (Code F) (Hints and Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2019

6. Answer (4) 9. Answer (2)

PV
1 1 – P2V2
Hint: Efficiency of Carnot engine is
Hint: W  and PV   constant
 –1 T2
 1–
Sol.: Given, P1V11.5 = P2V21.5 T1

V 
3/2
 1200 
3/2 1 T
P2  P1  1   150 kPa  Sol.: =1– 2
V  3 T1
 2  300 
P2 = 1200 kPa T2 2
 = ...(i)
Now, T1 3
–3
5 –3 6
(1.50 × 10 × 1.20 × 10 ) – (1.2 × 10 × 0.3 × 10 ) Source T1
W=
0.5 Q1
3 
1.8 × 102 – 0.36 × 103  – 1 W
=  2   (180 – 360)
0.5 0.5 Q2
W = – 360 J Sink (T2)
7. Answer (2) 1 (T – 100)
=1– 2
V2
2 T1
Hint: W   PdV
V1 T2 100 1
– =
Sol.: P T1 T1 2
2 1 100
– =
P0 3 2 T1
V
V1 V2 4 – 3 100
=  T1 = 600 K
P0 6 T1
P V
V1 10. Answer (3)
V2
Hint: Use PV = nRT
P
W   0 VdV V 1 1  1 
V =  = V
P  nRT 
V1 1
nRT P
P0 [V22 – V12 ] 1 1
W  Sol.: Slope =  m
V1 2 nRT T
8. Answer (2) Hence, TA  TB  TC
R R 11. Answer (1)
Hint: C  
 – 1 1– n Hint: Use PV = nRT and P  T for isochoric
1 P = constant for isobaric
Sol.: P 
T Sol.:
PT = constant V C
As PV  T
 PPV = constant A B
PV 1/2 = constant T
n = 1/2 Hence corresponding P B
P-T plot is
R R 9R
 C   A
7 1 2 C
– 1 1–
5 2 T

3/19
All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2019 Test - 3 (Code F) (Hints and Solutions)

12. Answer (2)  5.92 – 3.70   2.22 

Sol.: t  100    100    200°C
Hint: Internal energy is state function.  4.81 – 3.70   1.11 
Sol.: As initial and final states for all are same
t = 200C
 U1 = U2 = U3
17. Answer (3)
13. Answer (2)
Hint: Use concept of calorimetry.
Hint: W = P(V2 – V1) for isobaric process.
Heat loss = Heat gain.
Sol.: For 1 mole PV = RT + 3V
Sol.: mice ciceT + m Lf = mw cw  t
Initially P0V1 = RT0 + 3V1 ...(i)
20 × 0.5 + 10 + x × 80 = 20 × 1 × 25
Finally P0V2 = 2RT0 + 3V2 ...(ii)
100 + x × 80 = 500
P0(V2 – V1) = RT0 + 3(V2 – V1)
x=5g
(P0 – 3)(V2 – V1) = RT0
mw = 20  x = 25 g & mice = 20 – x = 15 g
W
(P0 – 3) = RT0
P0 18. Answer (2)
Hint: Use Newton's Law cooling:
P0T0R
W =
P0 – 3 T
 K (Tav – T0 )
T
14. Answer (2)
70 – 60  60  70 
Hint: Use concept of slope for adiabatic. Sol.: =K – T0 
10  2 
dP P
– 1 = K(65 – T0) ...(i)
dV V
5 (60 – 50)
Sol.: Now, Monoatomic = = 1.67 = K (55 – T0 )
3 40
3
7
Diatomic = = 1.4
5 3
= K (55 – T0 ) ...(ii)
Monoatomic > Diatomic 4
Hence, A  Diatomic  N2. or O2 or CO. Devide eq. (i) by (ii)
B  Monoatomic  He.
4 65 – T0
Among given options =
3 55 – T0
A  N2 220 – 4T0 = 195 – 3T0
B  He T0 = 25C
15. Answer (2) 19. Answer (1)
Hint: Use Q = nC P  t Hint: Use concept of series combination of thermal
Sol.: H = 2 × Cv (5) ...(i) resistance.
Q = 2 × Cp (5) ...(ii) L
R=
by dividing equation (ii) by equation (i) KA
Cp 5 R /2 Sol.:
QH H
Cv 3 R /2 200°C 100°C
5H K1 = k K2 = 3k K3 = 2k
Q
3
16. Answer (3) 1m 2m 0.5 m

 R – R0 
Hint: Use t = 100  t  T1 – T2
H
 R100 – R0  Req

4/19
Test - 3 (Code F) (Hints and Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2019
  
200 – 100 200  12kA Fnet = Freb  FFlow
H 
1 2 1 23
  |Freb| = Av2 = |FFlow|
kA 3kA 4kA

100  12  kA 100  12  k  23  10 –2 Fnet = F 3 = 3 Av 2

 
23 23
Fnet = 3 Av 2
H = 12k
20. Answer (2) 25. Answer (2)

Hint: Use Stefan's Law U = AeT4. Hint: Use equation of continuity.

Sol.: Given, 20 = AI(400)4. Sol.: Av = A1v1 + A2v2 + A3v3.
Now, P = A (0.7) (527 + 273)4. a 5 a
a5 = a2 +v   
P 4 2 2
= 0.7(2)4
20
P = 11.2 × 20 va 5a
5a = 2a + +
4 4
P = 224 cal cm –2 s –1
20a = 8a + 5a + va
21. Answer (3)
Hint: Use equation of conduction of heat. v = 7 m/s

Sol.: If there in no heat loss through radiation. 26. Answer (2)

Then, Hint: Use Archimedes' Principle of Newton's 2nd Law.
KA KA
L
 (40 – T )  (80 – T )  (70 – T ) =
L
(T – 10) 4 cm
Sol.:
190 – 3T = T – 10
4 cm 
4T = 200
T = 50°C
22. Answer (2) 
Hint: Use concept of coefficient of expansion of
length.
 = 1200 kg m–3
Sol.: For anisotropic solids coefficient of linear
expansion  is different in each direction.  = 900 kg m–3
Hence,  = x  y  z KSpring = 50 Nm–1
g = 10 ms– 2
23. Answer (2)
For floating case initially
Hint: Use v T = (n)2/3 vT
Ah =  A l
Sol.: As v T  ( n )2/3  vT  (8)2/3  10  40 cm/s .
900
24. Answer (3) hin   4 = 3 cm
1200
P
Hint: Use FRebound = = Av 2
t hout = 1 cm
Sol.:
P Now when weight is put on block then
Freb W + (Al )g =  Al g + K(hout)
FFlow W = ( – ) Alg + K  hout
60° = 300 × 64 × 10–5 + 50 × 1 × 10–2
v
v = 0.192 + 0.5
Q
W = 0.692 N
O

5/19
All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2019 Test - 3 (Code F) (Hints and Solutions)

27. Answer (2) from equation of continuity.

Hint: Use Pascal's Law. A1v1 = A2v2
Sol.: A2 3
E A v1   v2  v2
A1 2

2gh 2  10  20 400
g v2     2 × 20
A 
2
3 1
h 3 1–  2  1–  
4 4
2 f  A1 
C = 40 m/s

D B v 2 = 40 m/s
l/2 l/2 29. Answer (4)
PB = P0 + gh Hint: Use concept of excess pressure.
g l gl Sol.: Since RA < RB and we know that
PC = PB +    = P0 + gh +
3 2 6 4T
Pexcess  PA =
2  g l gl RA
PD = PC +  = PC +
3 2 3 4T
PB =
gl gl RB
= P0 + gh + +
6 3 PA > PB because (RA < RB) gas goes from A to B.
gl
PD = P0 + gh + ...(i) Hence size of A decreases and size of B increases.
2
30. Answer (2)
Also, PD = PE + (2P)gh = P0 + 2gh ...(ii)
Hint: Use Newton's 2nd Law in both cases and
l concept of buoyancy.
PO + gh + g = P0  2gh
2 Sol.: For 1st Case:
l mg – B = ma ...(i)
g = gh
2
B
l
h= m
2
a
28. Answer (2)
2gh mg
Hint: Velocity of efflux v =
A2 For 2nd Case:
1 – 22
A1
B a
Sol.: P0 = 1 atm
m – m
A1 B – (m – m) g = (m – m) a

(m – m) g
h v2
mg – mg + mg = 2 ma – ma
P = 3 atm v1 m(g + a) = 2ma
A2 2 ma
P – P0 2  10 5 m =
h   20 cm . g a
g 10 4
Now from Bernoulli's theorem. 31. Answer (2)

1 2 1 Fl
P0 + gh + v1 = P0 + v 22 Hint: l = l1 + l 2 and L =
2 2 AY

6/19
Test - 3 (Code F) (Hints and Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2019

Sol.: 36. Answer (3)

4F Hint: Use concept of variation in g due to height
4F 2F 2F from earth surface.
Gme
Sol.: At surface, g = g 0 =
4F R2
4F 2F
2F g0 Gme
l l At height, h1, g  = =
9 (R  h1 )2
F1 l1 F2 l 2 4F l 2F l 6F l
L  l1  l 2      g0 Gme
AY AY AY AY AY At height, h2 , g  = =
16 (R  h2 )2
6F l
L = h1
AY 1 =3
R
32. Answer (1)
h1
=2 ...(i)
1 R
Hint: U  Stress × Strain
2 h2
1 =4
1 R
Sol.: U  × Y × Strain × Strain
2 h2
=3 ...(ii)
1 R
 × 1.1× 1011 × 0.02 × 0.02
2
h1 2
=
U = 2.2  107 J/m3 Now, h2 3
33. Answer (2) 37. Answer (2)
Hint: Use Hooke's law.  
Hint: Two different blocks E.dr  dV
Stress Sol.: Given V = – (x 2y + yz + xyz) J/kg
Sol.: E 
Strain  V ˆ V ˆ V ˆ
Strain 1 Now, E = – i – j– k = (2xy  yz )iˆ
Slope = = T . x y z
Stress E
i.e. T2 > T1 ( x 2  z  xz ) ˆj  ( y  xy ) kˆ

or T1  T2 E (1, 1, 1)  (2  1)iˆ  (1  1  1) ˆj  (1  1)kˆ
34. Answer (1)
 3iˆ  3 jˆ  2kˆ
Hint: Use gequator = g0 – Re2.

Sol.: For weightlessness at equator gequator = 0. E (1, 1, 1) = 3iˆ + 3jˆ + 2kˆ N/kg
g0 = Re2 38. Answer (4)
g0 Hint: ve  c

Re
2 Gm 2  G  (100Me )
Sol.: v e =  v e =
R 64  106 R Re
T  2 e = 2 = 84.6 minutes
g0 9.8
200  6.67  10 –11  6  1024
T = 1.41 hour Now = Re
9  1016
35. Answer (4)
Re = 8.89 × 10–1 m
Hint and Sol.: When particle is dropped from
satellite revolving around earth then velocity of Re = 0.89 m
particle will be same as satellite which is in
R  1m  Order of radius
tangential direction of orbit. Hence particle will
continue to move with same speed along the original
orbit of space craft. (Satellite) R  1010 m

7/19
All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2019 Test - 3 (Code F) (Hints and Solutions)

39. Answer (3) 4

Sol.: Since M =   R 3
Hint: Use the concept of trajectory. 3
Sol.: If v > ve 4
2G   R 3
 Then Trajectory of path will be hyperbola. 3
Now, v e =  ve  R 2
40. Answer (2) R
Hint: U = Ufinal – Uinitial RP = 3RE
Sol.: vP 9RE2
Then, = =3
h = Re vE RE2

v P = 3v E
43. Answer (4)
Re
 h
Hint: g  = g  1 – 
 R 
GmM
Uinitial = – Sol.: Since variation of g due to depth h is
Re
 h
GmM g  = g 1 – 
U final = –  R
2Re
g
GMm  GMm  GMm  Re g = g – h
U = Uf – Ui = – – = R
2Re  Re  2Re  Re
 g
g =  –   h  g ...(i)
GM  R
As g = 2
Re y = – mx + c (similar)
mg  Re Hence for equation (i) graph will be:
 U =
2
41. Answer (1)
Gm1 m 2
Hint: F =
r2
1 kg
2 kg
2 kg

2 kg

2 kg

Sol.: R
44. Answer (1)
0 1 2 4 8 Hint: Kepler's 2nd Law
Gm1 m 2 Sol.: Since AOAB : AOCD : AOEF = 3 : 1 : 2
Now, F =  r2 C
D
1 1 1 1  E
 G  1  2   2  2  2  2  ... v
 1 2 4 8 
  m
 1  4 O
 2G     2G 
1 – 1  3 B
 4 F
A
8G A
F= Since, = constant
3 t
42. Answer (3) AOAB AOCD AOEF
= = =K
t2 t3 t1
2GMe
Hint: v e = Re
3 A A 2A
= = =K
t2 t3 t1

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Test - 3 (Code F) (Hints and Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2019

3 1 2 50. Answer (3)

= = =K
t 2 t3 t 1 Hint: Reaction at anode
–
4 (aq)  S 2 O 8 (aq)  2e
2SO 2– 2–
6 6 6
= = =K
2t 2 6t3 3t 1 51. Answer (2)
3t1 = 2t2 = 6t3 Hint: H+ has exceptionally highest limiting molar
45. Answer (1) conductivity at 298 K in water.
52. Answer (2)
mv 2
Hint: Since F =
r 0.0591 [Ni2 ]
Hint: Ecell  Ecell
0
– log
Sol.: Since 2 [Ag ]2
1 G = –nF E
F
r 0.0591 1
Sol.: Ecell  (0.80  0.25) – log
K 2 (0.01)2
F=
r 0.0591 0.0591
2  1.05 – log 104  1.05 – 4
mv 0 K 2 2
=
r r = 0.932 V
K G = –2 × F × 0.932 = 1.86 F
v0 =
m 53. Answer (2)
Hint: Catalyst does not catalyses non-spontaneous
v0  r 0
reactions.
54. Answer (2)
CHEMISTRY
Hint: Mass of silver electroplated on the metal
46. 46. Answer (3) surface
Hint: Leclanche cell is a dry cell in which Zn acts
 5.4 
as anode and graphite as cathode.   10 cm2  cm   10 g/cc  54 g
 10 
47. Answer (1)
Sol.: Equivalent wt. of Ag = 108
Hint: For coagulation of negatively charged sol,
higher is charge of cation, higher will be its 54
 Number of equivalent of Ag deposited 
flocculating power. 108
Sol.: Gold sol is negatively charged solution. 54
Amount of electricity required   96500
48. Answer (4) 108
Hint: = 48250C
55. Answer (3)
w  Mass of ethylene glycol(g)
m  W  Tf Hint: In iodometric titration the indicator used is
w m  Molar mass of ethylene glycol
1000  K f starch.
W  Mass of water (g)
56. Answer (4)
62  2000  5.58
Sol.: w  Hint: For electrophoresis and electro-dialysis, the
1000  1.86 colloidal particles should be charged.
w = 372 g Sol.: Optical property (like Tyndall effect) is
49. Answer (1) independent of the charge present on the colloidal
particle.
RTf2
Hint: K f  57. Answer (1)
1000  L fusion
Hint:  = CRT (C = Molar concentration of sucrose)
8.314  (273 – 23)2 8.314  250  250
Sol.: K f   3.42 / 342
1000  125 1000  125 Sol.:    0.0821 300
250
Kf = 4.16 K kg mol–1 1000

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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2019 Test - 3 (Code F) (Hints and Solutions)

3.42 1000 65. Answer (3)

   0.0821 300
342 250 2.303RT
Hint: Ecell 
o
 = 0.98 atm log K eq. and G  –nFEocell .
nF
58. Answer (3)
Sol.: Eocell is positive, so K eq  1 and G  0.
Hint: Diastase converts starch into maltose.
59. Answer (3) 66. Answer (2)
   
Hint: For zero order reaction. Hint:  CH3 COOH
  CH3 COONa
 HCl – NaCl
[A t] = [A0] – kt

Sol.:  CH3 COOH  (c  b – a) S cm mol .
2 –1
A0
67. Answer (2)
Slope = –k
Sol.: Hint: Oxidation states of phosphorous ranges from
[At ]
– 3 to +5.
Sol.: In H4P2O7, oxidation state of phosphorous is +5.
t
60. Answer (3) 68. Answer (2)
Hint: Reducing agent is that species which is
Tb K b
Hint: T  K oxidised.
f f
3 6

K 1.86 Sol.: C r(OH)3  C rO2–

4
Sol.: Tf  Tb  f  0.52   1.86
Kb 0.52 Chromium is oxidised from +3 to + 6 oxidation state,
hence it is a reducing agent in the given reaction.
Tf  Tfo – Tf  1.86
69. Answer (1)
Tf = –1.86°C Hint: Positive deviation is shown by binary liquid
61. Answer (4) mixture when A – B interactions are weaker than
Hint: F2 will not be oxidised. those between A – A or B – B interactions.
Sol.: F2 will not undergo disproportionation reaction. Sol.: Molecular interaction between acetone and
62. Answer (4) CS 2 is less than the average interaction of
acetone – acetone and CS2 – CS2.
Hint: Sum of oxidation states of all atoms in a
neutral molecule is zero. 70. Answer (2)

Sol.: For A3(BC3)2 Hint:

Net charge = 2 × 3 + [3 × 1 + 3 × (– 2)] × 2 = 0 p0 – pS pS  Vapour pressure of solution

0
 x2  0 
63. Answer (1) p  p  Vapour pressure of liquid 
Hint: Oxidising agent oxidises another species.
150 – pS 0.5
Sol.: During oxidation, oxidation number of reacting Sol.:   0.2
150 50
species increases 0.5 
25
0 2
or, 150 – pS = 30
Zn  Z nO2–
2
or, ps = 150 – 30 = 120 mm Hg
64. Answer (1)
71. Answer (3)
0.0591
Hint: Ecell 
o
log K eq Hint: For isotonic solution, 1 = 2.
n
Sol.: Eocell  ERo – ELo  (– 0.76  2.36) V  1.6 V Sol.: 
1  2
(Glucos e) (A)

0.0591 C1 = C2
Eocell  log K eq
2 8 2
1.6  2 180 M
 log K eq  log Keq = 54.145 
0.0591 100  103 100  103
Keq = 1.4 × 1054 M = 45 g mol–1

10/19
Test - 3 (Code F) (Hints and Solutions) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2019

72. Answer (2) ∵ Tfo  0C

Hint: The concentration term which does not contain
So, Tf = – 0.52°C
volume term is independent of temperature.
79. Answer (1)
Sol.: Mole fraction does not contain volume term so
it is independent of temperature. Hint: Eocell  Ecathode
o
– Eoanode
73. Answer (2) Sol.:
Hint: Decrease in number of solute particles per unit
E0cell  E0Ag /Ag – EMg
0
2
/Mg
 (0.80  2.36) V  3.16 V
volume of the solution increases the vapour pressure
of the solution. 80. Answer (2)
Sol.: By addition of water, the number of solute Hint: Oxidising power  Reduction potential.
particles per unit volume of solution decreases, hence Sol.: Co3+ has highest reduction potential while Li+
vapour pressure increases. has lowest reduction potential.
74. Answer (4) 81. Answer (1)
Hint: Randomness increases when two or more
0.693
liquids are mixed. Hint: k 
t1/2
Sol.: During mixing randomness increasing hence,
2.303 a
(S)mix. > 0 Sol.: t  log
k a–x
75. Answer (1)
4 100
2  Mass of crystal t  2.303 log
Hint: Number of atoms  . 0.693 100 – 90
Mass of unit cell
t = 13.29 hr
Sol.: Edge length of unit cell
82. Answer (1)
= 100 pm = 100 × 10–10 cm = 10– 8 cm
Hint: Number of Faraday = mole of MnO4– × n-factor.
Volume = (10– 8)3 cm3 = 10 –24 cm3
Mass of unit cell = 10 –24 × 100 = 10 –22 g Sol.: MnO4–  5e –  Mn2 
200 n-factor = 5
Number of unit cells 
10 –22 Number of Faraday required = 0.2 × 5 = 1
200 83. Answer (2)
Number of atoms  2   4  1024
10 –22 Hint: PS = PA0 xA + PB0 xB
76. Answer (3)
3 2
Hint: Packing efficiency of FCC unit cell is 74%. Sol.: PS  100   150   60  60  120 torr
5 5
Sol.: Vacant space in FCC unit cell
84. Answer (2)
= (100 – 74)% = 26%.
77. Answer (2) Mass of solute
Hint: Mass percentage   100
Hint: Lower is the value of i for a given concentration, Mass of solution
lower is the boiling point of solution.
Sol.:
Sol.: Sucrose is a non-electrolyte so, i for sucrose
will be 1, which is lowest in the given species,  0.5  60 
Mass percentage     100  2.9%
therefore boiling point of its aq. solution will be  1000  0.5  60 
minimum.
85. Answer (3)
78. Answer (2)
Hint: Order of reaction is an experimental quantity.
Hint: van’t Hoff factor, i = 1 + (n – 1)  and
Sol.: Molecularity of a reaction cannot be fractional.
Tf = i Kf m
86. Answer (3)
Sol.: i = 1 + (2 – 1) 0.4 = 1.4
Hint: Number of mole of Cr2O72– ion required to
Tf = 1.4 × 0.2 × 1.86 = 0.52 oxidise Fe 2+ ion can be calculated by writing
Tf  Tfo – Tf  0.52 balanced chemical equation.

11/19
All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2019 Test - 3 (Code F) (Hints and Solutions)

Sol.: 6Fe2+ + Cr2O72 – + 14H Solution:

 2Cr3+ + 6Fe3+ + 7H2O – Father of algology – F.E. Fritsch.
87. Answer (1) – For removal of kidney stone a decoction of
Hint: The element in its highest oxidation state Polytrichum commune is employed.
cannot act as reducing agent. – Protostele – Rhynia.
Sol.: C in CO2 is in + 4 oxidation state which is 94. Answer (3)
highest for carbon. Hint: Chemistry of cell wall is a basis of
88. Answer (3) classification of algae.
Hint: The sum of the oxidation numbers of all the Solution:
atoms of a species is equal to the net charge – Evolutionarily, pteridophytes are first terrestrial
present on the species. plants to possess vascular tissues.
Sol.: Let oxidation number of N in NO3– and Mn in – Pteriodophytes are first successful land plants.
2–
MnO are x and y respectively.
4
– Bryophytes are first archegonial plants.
For NO3– : x + 3(–2) = –1  x = +5 95. Answer (4)
Solution:
For MnO 2–
4 :
y + 4(–2) = –2  y = +6
Dicot stem Monocot stem
89. Answer (1)
– Hypodermis is – Vascular bundles are
Hint: In body centered cubic unit cell, atom at body
collenchymatous scattered in ground
centre touches all corner atoms.
tissue region
Sol.: 4r  3x – Stele is eustele – Ground tissue is not
differentiated
3
r xÅ – Pericycle absent
4
96. Answer (2)
90. Answer (1)
Hint: In open vascular bundles, cambium is present
Hint: Sphalerite has CCP structure.
between xylem and phloem. So, these are 'open' for
Sol.: Effective number of atoms in the unit cell of secondary growth.
CCP structure is 4.
Solution: In dicot and monocot leaves and in
 Octahedral voids = 4 × 1 = 4 monocot stem vascular bundles are closed as
cambium is absent, while in dicot stem they are
BIOLOGY open.
97. Answer (3)
91. Answer (1)
Hint: Bryophytes and most of the pteridophytes are
Hint: Tracheids and vessels, both are lignified and
homosporous, but few pteridophytes and all
dead.
gymnosperms are heterosporous.
Solution: A tracheid differ from vessels in being
Solution:
single long cell with tapering ends whereas vessels
are long cylindrical tube like structures. Both Marchantia 
elements transport water and minerals. 
Funaria  Bryophytes – Homosporous
92. Answer (4) Polytrichum 
Hint: In leaves, endodermis is absent because
ground tissue is not differentiated. Lycopodium 
 Pteridophytes – Homosporous
Solution: Distinct endodermis is a feature of dicot Dryopteris 

Selaginella
stems, dicot roots & monocot roots.
Pteridophyte – Heterosporous
93. Answer (1)
Hint: Natural system of classification Gnetum 
 Gymnosperms– Heterosporous
– Bentham & Hooker. Ephedra 

12/19
Test - 3 (Code F) (Hints and Solutions)
98. Answer (2)
Hint: In gymnosperms male & female
gametophytes do not have an independent free
living existence.
Solution:
– In gymnosperms, male and female
gametophytes are dependent on sporophyte.
– Ovule represents megasporangium.
– Embryo sac is absent in gymnosperms.
99. Answer (2)
Hint: Secondary nucleus and egg cell take part in
events of double fertilization.
Solution: Antipodal cells of embryo sac do not
take part in fertilization and after fertilization they
degenerate.
100. Answer (1)
Hint: In diplontic life cycle dominant phase is diploid
sporophyte.
Solution:
A  Sporophyte (2n)
B  Meiosis
Diplontic life cycle pattern.
101. Answer (3)
Hint: Companion cells are found only in
angiosperms.
Solution: Pteridophytes and gymnosperms lack
companion cells but in gymnosperms in the place
of companion cells, albuminous cells are present.
102. Answer (3)
Hint: Bast fibres are actually phloem fibres.
Solution:
– Coir of coconut is fibrous mesocarp. It is not a
phloem fibre.
– Jute, flax & hemp are phloem fibres.
103. Answer (4)
Hint: Trichomes are epidermal hairs on the stem.
Solution:
– Trichomes are not related to gaseous exchange.
– They are usually multicellular, help in scretion in
some plants & prevent water loss.
104. Answer (2)
Hint: Cork cells have cellulosic wall in the
beginning but at maturity there is gradual loss of
living matter.
Solution: Due to loss of living matter cork cells are
dead. Later, they get deposited with fatty
substance, i.e., suberin & cell wall becomes thick.
All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2019
105. Answer (3)
Hint: Protonema is a creeping, green, branched and
frequently filamentous stage of mosses.
Solution:
– Mosses are important in plant succession on
rocky areas along with lichens.
– In gymnosperms, male and female gametophytes
develop within sporangia on sporophytes.
– In brown algae gametes are pear shaped with
two laterally attached flagella.
106. Answer (3)
Hint: Hydrocolloid, algin is obtained from giants of
algal world.
Solution: Members of class phaeophyceae (brown
algae) are commonly known as giant of algal world.
107. Answer (2)
Hint: Chilgoza is the edible seed of Pinus
gerardiana.
Solution:
Gemmae – Marchantia
Embryosac – Eucalyptus (angiosperm)
Heterosporous – Marsilea (pteridophyte) vascular
cryptogam.
108. Answer (4)
Hint: In gymnosperms, pollination is carried out by
abiotic agent.
Solution: This abiotic agent is air current.
109. Answer (2)
Hint: In endarch condition, protoxylem (first formed)
remains towards centre and metaxylem (later
formed) towards periphery. Thus xylem orientation
is centrifugal.
Solution:
– Xylem parenchyma helps in radial conduction of
water.
– Sclerenchyma is dead and lacks protoplast.
– Tracheids are found in all vascular plants.
110. Answer (2)
Hint: Vascular system transports water and mineral
from root to the top of plant & food from source to
sink.
Solution: Transport of water, mineral, food etc. over
long distance through the vascular system is called
translocation.
13/19
 All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2019
111. Answer (1)
Hint: In roots, xylem and phloem are arranged on
different radii but alternate to each other.
Solution: This arrangement is known as radial type
and vascular bundles are radial.
112. Answer (3)
Hint: Annual rings are formed due to seasonal
variations.
Solution: Annual rings are distinct in plants
growing in temperate regions where climatic
conditions are not uniform throughout the year.
113. Answer (1)
Hint: This plant has whorled phyllotaxy.
Solution: Multilayered epidermis occurs in Nerium
and Ficus.
Zea mays, wheat & grasses have single layered
epidermis.
114. Answer (1)
Hint: Marchantia has sex organs on separate thalli.
Solution:
– Marchantia is a dioecious bryophyte.
– Algae form association with some animals like
sloth bear.
– In artificial system of classification equal
weightage to vegetative and sexual
characteristics were given. In fact, it was a
drawback.
– Pigment combination of phaeophyceae is chl
a & c and fucoxanthin.
115. Answer (2)
Hint: Anabaena fixes atmospheric nitrogen in
Azolla.
Solution:
– Mannitol is stored food in phaeophyceae.
– Sporophylls arrange spirally along an axis to
form lax /cone.
– Phenetics is numerical taxonomy involves usage
of many characters at the same time.
– In mosses, rhizoids are branched, multicellular
and with oblique septa.
116. Answer (2)
Hint: Double fertilization & triple fusion are advance
phenomenon found in the most advance plant group.
Solution: Double fertilization & triple fusion events
are unique to angiosperms.
117. Answer (1)
Solution: Root epidermis is termed as rhizodermis
or epiblema.
14/19
Test - 3 (Code F) (Hints and Solutions)
118. Answer (1)
Hint: Intercalary meristems are separated from
apical meristem by mature tissue.
Solution: Apical meristem is primary meristem on
the basis of its origin, therefore, intercalary
meristem will be primary.
119. Answer (3)
Solution:
– In members of chlorophyceae chlorophyll 'a' and
'b' are found and they appear grass green in
colour.
– Members of rhodophyceae (red Algae) have
complex post-fertilisation developments.
120. Answer (3)
Solution: In alga Volvox, sexual reproduction is
oogamous type.
121. Answer (2)
Hint: The gametophyte of pteridophytes has some
specific requirements for growth.
Solution: In pteridophytes, gametophyte requires
cool, damp, shady places to grow and during
fertilisation water is also required. Therefore
pteridophytes are restricted to narrow geographical
regions.
122. Answer (2)
Hint: Gymnosperms are adapted to xerophytic
habitat.
Solution:
– Due to presence of thick culticle and sunken
stomata (deeply situated stomata) gymnosperms
are well adapted to extreme conditions.
– Transfusion tissue is found in leaves of Cycas
which is meant for lateral conduction.
123. Answer (1)
Hint: Sulphur shower is related to pollination. It
appears as a yellow cloud of pollen grains.
Solution: Sulphur shower phenomenon is related to
pine trees not to all gymnosperms.
124. Answer (1)
Hint: Aerenchyma is a type of parenchyma with air
cavities.
Solution: Aerenchyma gives buoyancy to aquatic
plants. It also helps in gaseous exchange.
125. Answer (4)
Hint: In both dicot and monocot leaves, vascular
bundles are conjoint and closed but monocot leaves
are amphistomatic.
Test - 3 (Code F) (Hints and Solutions)
Solution:
– In monocot leaves, mesophyll is not differentiated
into palisade & spongy parenchyma.
– Stomata are present on both surfaces of leaves
(amphistomatic).
126. Answer (1)
Hint: In monocot stems, within vascular bundles
water containing cavities are present.
Solution:
– In monocot roots, pith is large and well
developed.
– In dicot stems, bundle sheath is absent.
127. Answer (4)
Hint: Organisms belonging to the same taxa have
common ancestor.
Solution: In Cycas, small specialised roots are
present called coralloid roots. They remain
associated with nitrogen fixing cyanobacteria.
Sphagnum often grows in acidic marshes.
128. Answer (1)
Hint: In Spirogyra, dominant phase is
photosynthetic haploid gametophyte.
Solution: In Spirogyra, sporophytic generation is
represented only by the single celled zygote.
Thus Spirogyra represents haplontic life cycle.
129. Answer (2)
Hint: Fossils play important role in elucidation of
evolutionary relationships.
Solution: Phylogenetic system of classification is
based on evolutionary relationships besides other
criteria of classification.
130. Answer (3)
Hint: Floridean starch is stored food of red algae.
Solution:
– Rhizophore is an intermediate organ between
root and shoot, develops in Selaginella.
– Living fossil - Metasequoia.
– Coralloid root - Cycas.
131. Answer (4)
Hint: Tyloses develop in heartwood.
Solution: Tyloses are balloon like swellings of xylem
parenchyma cells in lumen of xylem vessels. These
make heartwood non-functional.
132. Answer (3)
Hint: Subsidiary cells are specialised epidermal
cells that provide support to guard cells.
All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2019
Solution: Subsidiary cells do not have chloroplast
and do not carry out photosynthesis whereas guard
cells have chloroplasts.
133. Answer (4)
Hint: Stele is the region surrounded by endodermis.
Solution: Stele does not include endodermis but it
includes pericycle, vascular bundles and pith
(if present).
134. Answer (2)
Hint: Seeds producing plants are heterosporous.
Solution: All gymnosperms as well as
angiosperms are heterosporous not homosporous.
135. Answer (4)
Hint: They increase dissolved oxygen in their
immediate environment.
Solution: Algae, mostly being aquatic increase
dissolved oxygen in water. They release oxygen
during photosynthesis process and fix at least 50%
of the total CO2 on earth.
136. Answer (2)
Hint: Term for patches of grey matter in white matter
in CNS.
Sol.: Nuclei and ganglia are clusters of cell bodies
of neurons in CNS and PNS respectively.
137. Answer (4)
Hint: Brain stem is composed of midbrain and
portion of hindbrain.
Sol.: Brain stem is made up of midbrain, pons and
medulla. Cerebrum is a part of forebrain.
Cerebellum is not a part of brain stem.
138. Answer (2)
Hint: Cochlea helps to perceive different sound
waves.
Sol.: Vestibular apparatus comprises macula &
cristae which are concerned with maintaining
dynamic and static balance of body.
139. Answer (4)
Hint: In menopausal women, deficiency of ovarian
hormone is seen.
Sol.: Deficiency of estrogen in menopausal women
causes an increase in activity of osteoclast cells
which results in resorption of bone. Adrenal medulla
is a modified sympathetic ganglion of autonomic
nervous system and is ectodermal in origin.
Renin is a hormone which is produced by JG cells
and catalyses the conversion of Angiotensinogen to
Angiotensin I. Grave's disease is an autoimmune
disorder resulting in hyperthyroidism.
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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2019
140. Answer (4)
Hint: Identify the main baroreceptors.
Sol.: Olfactory receptor bulb help in detecting odor.
Meissner's corpuscles are found beneath skin
epidermis and are light pressure receptors. Pacinian
corpuscles are scattered deep in dermis and are
deep pressure receptors.
141. Answer (4)
Hint: Corticoids regulate water and electrolyte
balance.
Sol.: Cortisol is a glucocorticoid and produces anti-
inflammatory reactions and suppresses the immune
response.
142. Answer (4)
Hint: Elbow jerk reflex is a monosynaptic reflex.
Sol.: Interneuron is not a part of elbow jerk reflex. A
single synapse is present between afferent and
efferent neuron.
143. Answer (3)
Hint: Pia mater is in contact with brain tissue.
Sol.: Dura mater is the outermost layer of cranial
meninges. It is thick and tough made up of fibrous
tissue. Middle layer is arachnoid followed by Pia
mater which is thin and highly vascular.
144. Answer (3)
Hint: Cartilaginous joint is present between adjacent
vertebrae.
Sol.: Fibrous joints are present between cranial
bones. Pivot joint is present between atlas and axis.
Saddle joint is present between carpal and
metacarpal of thumb. Gliding joint is present in
between carpals.
145. Answer (3)
Hint: Endocrine part of pancreas secretes hormones
like insulin and glucagon.
Sol.: Secretin acts on exocrine part i.e. pancreatic
acinar cells and stimulates secretion of water and
bicarbonate ions. Leydig cells or interstitial cells are
present in spaces between two seminiferous
tubules. Aldosterone is a steroid hormone and it acts
via intracellular receptors, cAMP is a secondary
messenger required by water - soluble hormones.
146. Answer (3)
Hint: Rods are chiefly used for vision in dim light.
Sol.: Choroid coat is deeply pigmented with
melanin which prevents the reflection of light rays
within eye. At blind spot, no photoreceptor cells are
present; and at this point optic nerve leaves the eye
and blood vessels enter the eye.
16/19
Test - 3 (Code F) (Hints and Solutions)
147. Answer (1)
Hint: In autoimmune disorder, immune system starts
destroying self cells/structures.
Sol.: In Myasthenia gravis, immune system starts
producing antibodies which attack the acetylcholine
receptors present on the sarcolemma. As result,
acetylcholine can no longer bind to its receptors.
Consequently, transmission of impulse at
neuromuscular junction is impaired.
148. Answer (3)
Hint: Oval window connects middle and inner ear.
Sol.: Stapes is in contact with oval window.
Inner ear consists of endolymph filled membranous
labyrinth and perilymph filled bony labyrinth.
Vestibular apparatus is composed of 3 semi-circular
canals and the otolith responsible for equilibrium
while cochlea is responsible for hearing.
149. Answer (3)
Hint: Identify a U-shaped bone present at the base
of buccal cavity.
Sol.: Hyoid is an unpaired bone. Parietal and
temporal are paired cranial bones while zygomatic is
paired facial bone.
150. Answer (3)
Hint: This disease is related to low blood Ca2+ level.
Sol.: Acromegaly is caused due to hypersecretion of
growth hormone in adults. Cretinism is caused due
to deficiency of thyroid hormone whereas
exopthalmic goitre is caused due to excessive
secretion of thyroxine. Diabetes mellitus is caused
by deficiency of insulin while diabetes insipidus is
caused by deficiency of ADH.
151. Answer (2)
Hint: A cranial bone forming base of skull anteriorly.
Sol.: Appendicular skeleton includes bones of limbs
and girdles like clavicle, Ilium and scapula. Ethmoid
bone is a part of axial skeleton.
152. Answer (3)
Hint: Knee jerk reflex is a monosynaptic reflex.
Sol.: In knee jerk reflex, impulse from receptor organ
is carried by afferent neuron towards dorsal root
ganglion of spinal cord. Efferent neuron carries
impulse from spinal cord to effector organ.
153. Answer (4)
Hint: All ribs have two articulating heads on dorsal
side (bicephalic) to interact with vertebral column.
Test - 3 (Code F) (Hints and Solutions)
Sol.: First seven pairs of ribs known as true ribs
articulate with sternum on ventral side & with
vertebral column dorsally. Vertebrochondral ribs/False
ribs (8th, 9th and 10th pair) articulate with 7th pair of
ribs.
154. Answer (4)
Hint: Thymosins help in differentiation of T-
lymphocytes.
Sol.: Atrophy (degeneration) of thymus leads to
deficiency of thymosin. Thymosins are important for
maturation of T-lymphocytes which are important for
cell mediated immunity.
155. Answer (1)
Hint: Hormones secreted by adrenal medulla like
adrenaline and noradrenaline are known as
catecholamines.
Sol.: Adrenaline increases our heart rate, thereby
reducing the duration of a single cardiac cycle. It
causes the breakdown or lysis of proteins, lipids and
glucose to generate energy and prepare our body for
emergency situations.
156. Answer (3)
Hint: Identify a structural feature of human forebrain.
Sol.: 'A' is corpus callosum that is tract of nerve
fibres.
Foramen of Monro connects 1st ventricle and 2nd
ventricle to 3rd ventricle.
Thalamus is the relay centre for sensory and motor
signalling of cerebral cortex.
Medulla regulates cardiovascular reflexes, gastric
secretion and respiration.
157. Answer (4)
Hint: Myosin head binds to new molecule of ATP
releasing actin.
Sol.: During relaxation of muscle fibres, Ca2+ pumps
actively transport Ca2+ ions from sarcoplasm into
sarcoplasmic reticulum. With removal of Ca2+ ions,
troponin-tropomyosin complex again cover myosin
binding site on actin. Binding of new ATP molecule
to myosin head causes breakdown of actomyosin
crossbridges.
158. Answer (4)
Hint: Diabetogenic hormones raise blood sugar level.
Sol.: Growth hormone, cortisol and glucagon cause
increase in blood sugar level. Insulin stimulates
glucose uptake by cells and further its utilisation for
energy or conversion into glycogen leading to a
decline in blood glucose level.
All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2019
159. Answer (4)
Hint: Diabetes insipidus is characterised by
production of large volume of dilute urine.
Sol.: Diabetes mellitus is characterised by presence
of glucose and ketone bodies in urine. Posterior
pituitary (Pars nervosa) is under direct neural
regulation of hypothalamus. Goitre is simply an
enlarged thyroid gland. It may be associated with
hyperthyroidism or hypothyroidism.
Progesterone & prolactin regulate the growth of
mammary glands & formation of milk in them.
160. Answer (2)
Hint: Light enters eye through the pupil.
Sol.: Iris regulates the amount of light entering our
eye by regulating the size of pupil. Sclera, the
"white" of eye gives shape to the eyeball and
protects its inner parts. Ciliary body and suspensory
ligaments hold the lens in place.
161. Answer (3)
Hint: Meromyosin is a monomer of myosin.
Sol.: I-band of a sarcomere in skeletal muscle fibres
is made up of actin filaments, troponin and
tropomyosin. Thick filaments in A- band are made up
polymers of meromyosin.
162. Answer (4)
Hint: Neurotransmitters allow transmission of
impulse at chemical synapses.
Sol.: At electrical synapse, impulse travels from one
neuron to other via gap junctions through ions. Size
of synaptic cleft is greatly reduced (~ 6 nm) in case
of electrical synapse as pre-synaptic and post-
synaptic membranes are connected by gap
junctions.
163. Answer (2)
Hint: Melatonin helps in maintaining diurnal rhythm
of our body.
Sol.: When a person travels across different time
zones, then due to alteration in timing and duration
of day and night; secretion of melatonin is disturbed
which affects the diurnal rhythm of our body.
Melatonin secretion increase during night.
164. Answer (2)
Hint: Single long fibre arising from cell body of a
neuron lacks protein synthesizing granular bodies.
Sol.: Cell body (cyton) and dendrites contain Nissl's
granules. Nissl's granules comprise of RER and
protein.
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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2019
165. Answer (3) 171. Answer (4)
Hint: A band is present between two I-bands in a
sarcomere.
Sol.: During muscle contraction, when thin filaments
slide over thick filaments towards M line, then length
of H-zone decreases, myofilaments of actin slide
over myosin but their length remains unchanged.
172. Answer (2)
166. Answer (1)
Hint: At resting stage, neuronal cell membrane is
more permeable to K+ ions and nearly impermeable
to Na+ ions.
Sol.: Na + /K + pump plays an important role in
maintaining resting potential of neuronal membrane
by transporting 3Na+ to extracellular fluid and 2K+
into the cell at expense of one ATP molecule. Thus,
maintaining a negative resting membrane potential. 173. Answer (3)
167. Answer (3)
Hint: Steroid hormones act via intracellular receptors.
Sol.: Estrogen is a steroid hormone; able to cross
the plasma membrane and bind to their receptor
present in cytoplasm. This hormone-receptor
complex then binds to the gene and regulates the
expression of many genes. Epinephrine, glucagon
and FSH are water soluble hormones with extra
cellular receptors. 174. Answer (1)
168. Answer (3)
Hint: Thinning of bones occurs due to loss of
minerals from bone.
Sol.: Parathormone mobilises Ca 2+ from bones
leading to high Ca2+ level in blood and thinning of
bones. Calcitonin causes decrease in blood Ca2+
levels and its further deposition in bone while
cacitriol (Vitamin D3), stimulates increased absorption
175. Answer (2)
of Ca2+ from food in gastrointestinal tract, which
increases blood Ca2+ level.
169. Answer (4)
Hint: Visceral organs contain non-striated muscles.
Sol.: Biceps and thigh muscles are multinucleated
(skeletal) muscles while cardiac muscles are striated
and found in heart. Stomach contains smooth
muscles that are fusiform, uninucleated and
unbranched.
170. Answer (3)
Hint: At rest, axolemma bears positive charge
towards ECF.
Sol.: Efflux of K+ ions takes place through voltage
gated K+ channels. during repolarisation phase which
restores the membrane potential.
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Test - 3 (Code F) (Hints and Solutions)
Hint: Sympathetic branch nervous system works
during emergency conditions.
Sol.: Stimulation from parasympathetic nervous
system causes salivation, contraction of urinary
bladder and constriction of pupil.
Hint: Hormone released by posterior pituitary
regulates osmolarity.
Sol.: Vasopressin is produced by supraoptic nuclei
of hypothalamus. Erythropoietin is produced by JG
cells and stimulates erythropoiesis. Thymosin is
produced by thymus gland and is important for
differentiation of T-lymphocytes.
Hint: Both extensor muscles of human back and
eyeball muscles are skeletal muscles.
Sol.: Extensor muscles are red muscle fibres having
high myoglobin content and higher number of
mitochondria as compared to white muscle fibres of
eyeball. Red muscle fibres carry out aerobic
oxidation while white muscle fibres carry out
anaerobic oxidation.
Hint: Identify a hormone deficiency disorder.
Sol.: Cushing's syndrome and Conn's syndrome
(Aldosteronism) are caused due to hypersecretion of
cortisol and aldosterone respectively. Addison's
disease is caused due to deficiency of
glucocorticoids and mineralocorticoids. Bronze like
pigmentation is seen in Addison's disease.
Hint: Neurons can be classified on the basis of
number of dendrites and axons present in them.
Sol.:
Multipolar neuron : Found in cerebral
with usually one axon & cortex
multiple dendrites
Bipolar neuron : Found in retina of
One axon and one eye
dendrite
Unipolar neuron : Found in
Cell body with one axon embryonic stage
only
Pseudounipolar neuron : Dorsal root
Have single process which ganglion of spinal
divides to form an axon cord
and a dendron
Test - 3 (Code F) (Hints and Solutions)
176. Answer (4)
Hint: Skeletal muscle is made up of number of
myofibres.
Sol.: Skeletal muscle in our body is made of a
number of muscle bundles or fascicles held together
by a common collagenous connective tissue called
fascia. Each muscle bundle contains numerous
myofibres, each of which is made up of numerous
myofibrils. Each myofibril contains numerous
myofilaments.
177. Answer (3)
Hint: Vasopressin is released in response to fall in
blood pressure.
Sol.: ADH (vasopressin) and aldosterone increase
the blood pressure. ACTH, i.e., adrenocorticotrophic
hormone is secreted by anterior pituitary. ANF (atrial
natriuretic factor) is secreted from wall of heart and
decreases blood pressure.
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All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2019
178. Answer (2)
Hint: This hormone prevents the release of growth
hormone.
Sol.: Somatostatin is another name of Growth
hormone Inhibiting Hormone (GHIH) which is
produced by hypothalamus. Gonadotrophins (LH &
FSH), somatotropin (Growth hormone) and prolactin
(PRL) are produced by anterior pituitary.
179. Answer (1)
Hint: Neurilemma in PNS is present in both
myelinated and unmyelinated neurons.
Sol.: Schwann cells are present around axon of
both myelinated and unmyelinated neurons.
Unmyelinated neurons lack myelin sheath and nodes
of Ranvier.
180. Answer (3)
Hint: Leucocytes exhibit pseudopodia.
Sol.: Macrophages prominently show amoeboid
movement to engulf foreign matter. Human sperms
have flagella for locomotion.
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