Chapter 1 - Science, the Cell and Molecular Biology

1. Evolutionary processes have resulted in approximately ______

million species, of which 1.4 million species have been described.
answer, 4-30.

2. Ideas concerning the theory of organic evolution were published and

supported with convincing evidence by Charles Darwin in ______.
answer, 1859.
3. One source of evidence for evolution is _____. This source is the
study of the distribution of organisms around the world and helps
explain why animals on different continents are often very different even
though their environments are similar. It also explains why fossils of
animals now living in Africa occur in South America.
answer, biogeography.

4. Two structures that are similar because of common ancestry are

______.
answer, homologous.

5. Paleontology is a direct source of evidence of evolution because

______.
answer, it is the study of plant or animal remains or impressions
that have been encorporated into the earth's crust.
6. When two unrelated animals adapt to similar conditions and
superficial structural similarities result, ______ evolution has occurred.
answer, convergent.

7. Through the year 2000, about 92% of population growth is expected

to occur in ______.
answer, third world countries
8. The one environmental problem that is the root of all other
environmental problems is ______.
answer, over population.
9. The first part of the binomial name of an animal is the _______.
answer, genus.

10. All of the following are presuppositions of science EXCEPT one.

Select the exception.
answer, Science provides absolute knowledge.

11. In an experiment, the ______ serves as a basis for comparing data

derived from the experiment.
answer, control.

12. When scientists talk about a/an _____, they are talking about a
concept that has been supported by data from years of research.
answer, theory
13. A scientist attempts to formulate a reasonable explanation for the
question she is asking. This explanation is called the ______.
answer, hypothesis.
14. In an experiment, the parameter that is being measured to assess the
outcome of the experiment is called the ______.
answer, dependent variable.

15. Which of the following might indicate that an idea being represented
as scientific is actually based on pseudoscience?
answer, The assumptions on which the idea is based are not open to
scientific testing.

16. A fundamental unity in all life involves four common themes: a

common genetic blueprint (in DNA), a fundamental unit of life (the
cell), a common evolutionary origin and shared evolutionary forces, and
a common environment.
answer is True.
17. Animals that have similar DNA molecules are considered
evolutionarily related only if their proteins are substantially different.
answer is False.

18. The wings of a bird and an insect are homologous.

answer is False

19. By the year 2001 the population of the earth will reach
approximately 6.35 million.
answer is True.

20. Bad science is not as dangerous as pseudoscience because the results

of bad science will eventually be refuted. Pseudoscience is not open to
scientific testing, and its conclusions may be difficult to distinguish from
scientific conclusions.
answer is True.

21. Any valid scientific experiment may have more than one
independent variable.
answer is False.

22. Any valid scientific experiment may have more than one dependent
variable.
answer is True.

23. A theory is a hypothesis that has been supported in an experiment.

answer is False

24. In science, the simplest hypothesis that seems consistent with the
evidence is usually the most easily tested.
answer is True.

25. In an experiment, the controlled variables should be the same in both

the experimental and control groups
answer is True
Chapter 2 - The Chemical Basis of Animal Life

1. The amount of matter in an object is referred to as its __________.

answer, mass.

2. Which of the following does not contribute to the majority of an

animal's weight?
answer, sodium.

3. The atomic mass of an element is equal to the number of __________

and _________ in the nucleus of one of its atoms.
answer, neutrons and protons

4. The atomic element of an element is the number of __________ in it's

nucleus.
answer, protons.

5. If a substance can be broken down into two or more chemical

elements, it is a
answer, compound.

6. Which of the following is not a type of chemical bond?

answer, hydrophobic.

7. When elements share outer-shell electrons with other atoms, the

chemical bond that forms is a __________ bond.
answer, covalent.

8. __________ bonds form when an atom or group of atoms develops an

electrical charge and attracts an atom or group of atoms with an opposite
charge.
answer, ionic
9. Which of the following is an electrolyte?
answer, NaCl.

10. Distilled water has a pH of __________.

answer, 7.

11. Which of the following is not a definition of pH?

answer, A measure of the hydroxyl ion concentration.

12. The key element in all organic molecules is

answer, carbon.

13. Substances that resist a change in pH are called

answer, buffers.

14. The major source of energy in animals comes from

answer, carbohydrates.

15. Two monosaccharides can combine to form a

answer is, disaccharide.

16. Chitin is a good example of a

a. polysaccharide.
b. carbohydrate.
c. polymer.
answer, all of these (a-c).

17. Lactose is made up of __________ and __________.

answer, glucose and galactose

18. Steroids are naturally occurring, lipid soluble molecules.

answer, True
19. The individual building blocks of proteins are called amino acids.
answer, True

20. When two amino acids bond, they form a tripeptide.

answer, False.

21. A proteins linear sequence of amino acids is its secondary structure.

answer, False.

22. Nucleotides are made up of nucleic acid subunits.

answer, False.

23. NAD+ and FAD are nucleotide coenzymes.

answer, True

24. Testosterone and cholesterol are good examples of steroids.

answer, True

25. The three-dimensional arrangement of more than one polypeptide

gives some proteins their quaternary structure.
answer, True
Chapter 3 - Cells, Tissues, Organs, and Organ Systems of
Animals

1. Eukaryote cells do not have a __________.

answer, cell wall.

2. All eukaryotic cells have three basic parts. Which of the following is
not a basic part of a typical eukaryotic cell?
answer, nucleoid.

3. Which of the following is not a function of the cell's glycocalyx?

answer, transport

4. The ability of the plasma membrane to let some substances in and

keep others out is called
answer, selective permeability.

5. Energy is required for __________.

answer, active transport.

6. The bulk movement of material into a cell by the formation of a

vesicle is called
answer, endocytosis.

7. If hydrostatic pressure is used to move a molecule through a

membrane, this is termed
answer, filtration.

8. __________ are the non-membrane bound structures that are the sites
for protein synthesis.
answer, Ribosomes.

9. Which of the following organelles functions in the digestion of

materials?
answer,. lysosomes

10. Which of the following is not found within a mitochondrion?

answer, RNA.

11. Which of the following is not part of the cytoskeleton of a eukaryotic

cell?
answer,, cilia.
12. The centrioles arise from the __________.
answer, a. microtubule-organizing center

13. The type of connective tissue that stores lipids is called

answer, adipose tissue.

14. Cells involved with protection, support, and nourishment within the
nervous system are called
answer, glial cells.

15. __________ are the functional units of an animal's body.

answer, Organs.

16. The highest level or organization in an animal's body is the

__________ level.
answer, organismic.

17. All of the following are types of connective tissue except

answer, nervous.

18. The heart is a good example of an organ system.

answer, False.

19. Intercalated disks would be found in smooth muscle cells.

answer,False.
20. Collagenous fibers would be found in fibrocartilage.
answer, True

21. Simple squamous epithelium is found in the air sacs of the lungs.
answer, True

22. Stratified squamous epithelium is found on the surface of the skin.

answer, True

23. Both cilia and flagella function in movement.

answer, True

24. The nuclear envelope separates the nucleus from the plasma
membrane.
answer, False.

25. The Golgi apparatus consists of stacks of cisternae.

answer, True
Chapter 4- Energy and Enzymes: Life's Driving and
Controlling Forces

1. Because plants capture solar energy they are termed __________

consumers.
answer, primary

2. The total of all the chemical reactions occurring in a cell is termed

answer, metabolism.

3. A typical food chain consists of

a. primary consumers.
b. secondary consumers.
c. decomposers.
answer, all of the above (a-c).

4. Chemical reactions that occur spontaneously are called __________.

answer, exergonic.

5. Which of the following is associated with the second law of

thermodynamics?
a. entropy
b. all objects in the universe tend to become more disordered
c. the total amount of disorder in the universe is continually
increasing
answer, all of the above (a-c).

6. Electrical energy passing through a hot plate to produce heat energy

would be a good example of
answer, the first law of thermodynamics.

7. __________ lower the amount of energy required to initiate a

chemical reaction.
a. Catalysts
b. Enzymes
c. Ribozymes
answer, all of the above (a-c).

8. When a substrate molecule binds to an enzyme's active site, an

__________ forms.
answer, enzyme-substrate complex.

9. Which of the following is a cofactor?

a. calcium ions
b. copper ions
c. manganese ions
answer, all of the above are cofactors.

10. Enzyme activity can be affected by

a. temperature.
b. pH.
c. substrate concentration.
answer, all of the above (a-c).

11. The major energy currency of the cell is

answer, ATP.

12. One of the most important coenzymes in the cell is the hydrogen
acceptor
answer, NAD.

13. Within their cells, animals make ATP by

a. substrate-level phosphorylation.
b. chemiosmosis.
answer, both a and b.
14. From an evolutionary perspective, the oldest mode of generating
energy is
answer, substrate-level phosphorylation.

15. NAD+ is in its __________ form.

answer, oxidized

16. The breaking of one high-energy bond in ATP releases

approximately _________ kcal of energy.
answer, 7.

17. Cells contain a reservoir of ADP and phosphate (Pi) as long as the
cell is living.
answer, True

. Coenzymes are nonprotein, organic molecules that participate in

enzyme-catalyzed reactions.
answer, True

19. The loss of an enzyme's shape is called renaturation.

answer, False.

20. The reactants of enzymatic reactions are called substrates.

answer, True

21. Work is the transfer of matter.

answer, False.

22. Bacteria and fungi are good examples of primary consumers.

answer, False.

23. Kinetic energy is stored energy.

answer, False.
24. Chemical reactions that do not proceed spontaneously are called
endergonic.
answer, True

25. The measure of the degree of disorder or disorganization is called

entropy.
answer, True
Chapter 5- How Animals Harvest Energy Stored in
Nutrients

1. The end product of glycolysis is

answer, pyruvate.

2. Which of the following occurs in the cytoplasm?

a. glycolysis
b. fermentation
c. electron transport chain
d. both a and b
answer, both a and b.

3. The end products of fermentation are __________ and _________.

answer, lactic acid and alcohol.

4. How many ATPs are produced in glycolysis?

answer, 4.

5. The net ATP gain in glycolysis is

answer, two.

6. Aerobic respiration occurs in the_________.

answer, mitochondrion.

7. The transfer of electrons from one molecule to another is termed

a. a redox reaction.
b. an oxidation-reduction reaction.
c. a transfer reaction
answer, both a and b are correct.

8. Fermentation regenerates __________ which is needed to drive

glycolysis to ultimately obtain ATP.
 answer, NAD+.

9. When the oxidized form of FAD is reduced, it becomes

answer, FADHb.

10. The Krebs cycle generates __________ NADHs.

answer, 6.

11. The eukaryotic cell obtains a net gain of __________ ATP

molecules from the breakdown of each glucose molecule.
answer, 36.

12. When an amide group is removed from an amino acid to yield

ammonia, this is termed
answer, deamination.

13. Free fatty acids can be catabolized by entering the Krebs cycle via
answer, acetyl-CoA.

14. Amino acids can enter the Krebs cycle via

a. pyruvate.
b. acetyl-CoA.
c. no intermediate.
answer, all of the above (a-c).

15. The total number of ATPs produced from the complete aerobic
oxidation of one molecule of glucose is
answer, 40.

16. Reactions of the Krebs cycle occur in the mitochondrial

__________.
answer, matrix
17. The Krebs cycle and glycolysis is regulated by the enzyme
__________.
answer, phosphofructokinase.

18. Electrons from NADH and FADH2 generated in glycolysis and the
Krebs cycle are passed along electron-carrier molecules in the electron
transport chain by way of oxidation-reduction reactions.
answer, True

19. When the electrons reach the end of the electron transport chain, an
oxygen molecule accepts the electrons and combines with hydrogen to
generate a water molecule.
answer, True

20. For each pyruvate molecule that enters the Krebs cycle by way of
acetyl-CoA, two CO2, one ATP, and three NADHs, and one FADH2
molecules form.
answer, True

21. Another name for the Krebs cycle is the citric acid cycle.
answer, True

22. Oxidation of a molecule results in the gain of electrons.

answer, False.

23. Oxidation-reduction reactions always occur together.

answer, True

24. The end result of the anaerobic catabolism of one glucose molecule
via glycolysis is one pyruvate molecule.
answer, False.

25. Coenzyme A is necessary for pyruvate to enter aerobic respiration.

answer, True
Chapter 6- Cell Division

1. The period from the time a cell is produced until it completes mitosis
is called the __________.
answer, cell cycle.

2. Most of the cell cycle is occupied by the __________.

answer, interphase.

3. Chromosome replication occurs during the __________ of mitosis.

answer, S phase.

4. A copy of a chromosome produced by replication is called a

answer, chromatid.

5. The microtubules of the mitotic spindle are attached to the

__________.
answer, kinetochore

6. Chromosomes become visible with the light microscope during

__________ phase.
answer, prophase

7. The phase of mitosis that takes the least amount of time is

__________.
answer, anaphase.

8. The mitotic spindle disassembles during what phase of mitosis?

answer, telophase.

9. Which of the following enzymes plays a central role in the control of

the cell cycle?
answer, cdc2 kinase
10. The fusion of gametes is called
answer, syngamy.

11. During prophase I of meiosis, homologous chromosomes line up

side-by-side in a process called __________.
answer, synapsis.

12. Crossing over is a form of

answer, genetic recombination.

13. Spermatogenesis begins with an unspecialized cell called a

__________.
answer, spermatogonium.

14. In spermatogenesis, meiotic division II produces __________.

answer, spermatids

15. An oogonium grows and matures into a primary __________.

answer, oocyte

16. In oogenesis in humans, in order for the second mitotic division to

occur, __________ must occur.
answer, fertilization.
17. Each primary spermatocyte gives rise to __________ spermatids.
answer, 4.

18. In oogenesis, the larger of the daughter cells is the secondary oocyte.
answer, True

19. Spermatids undergo one last meiotic division before maturing into
spermatozoa.
answer, False.
20. In meiosis, the second meiotic division (meiosis II) resembles an
ordinary mitotic division except the number of chromosomes has been
reduced by half.
answer, True

21. Homologous chromosomes carry genes for the same traits.

answer, True

22. Genetic recombination or crossing-over is a major form of genetic

variation.
answer, True

23. Evidence indicates that events in the nucleus control the cell cycle.
answer, False.

24. Prophase begins once daughter chromosomes appear at opposite

poles of the cell.
answer, True

25. Cell division occurs in all animals.

answer, True
Chapter 7 - Inheritance Patterns

1. The era of modern genetics began with the rediscovery of the works
of _______ in 1900.
answer, Gregor Mendel

2. The principle of segregation states that _______.

answer, pairs of hereditary factors are distributed between gametes
during gamete formation.

3. Which of the following symbols would represent alleles of one

another?
a. vg and se
b. vg and vg
c. vg and vg+
d. se and dp
answer, vg and vg+.

4. A gene that hides the expression of its allele is ________.

answer, dominant

5. The visual expression that results from the genetic make up of an

individual is called the _______.
answer, phenotype.

6. The parents in a monohybrid cross are all _______.

answer, heterozygous for genes at one locus.

7. The offspring of a monohybrid cross are _______.

answer, 1/2 homozygous and 1/2 heterozygous.

8. Phenotypically recessive individuals make up ______ of the offspring

of a monohybrid cross.
 answer, 1/4

9. A geneticist crossed two fruit flies. One had vestigial wings, and the
other was heterozygous for this trait. Which of the following results
should be expected for this cross?
answer, 1/2 wild and 1/2 vestigial.

10. A geneticist crossed two fruit flies. Both were heterozygous for
vestigial wings. Which of the following results should be expected for
this cross?
answer, 3/4 wild and 1/4 vestigial.

11. The idea that pairs of factors segregate independently of one another
during gamete formation is known as the _______.
answer, principle of independent assortment

12. In a cross between two fruit flies that were both heterozygous for
vestigial wings and sepia eyes, one should expect about ______ of the
offspring to have wild wings and sepia eyes.
answer, 3/16.

13. In a cross between two fruit flies that were both heterozygous for
vestigial wings and sepia eyes, one should expect about ______ of the
offspring to have wild wings and wild eyes.
answer, 1/2.

14. A geneticist performed a testcross of a fruit fly that was

phenotypically wild. There were 42 vestigial winged; wild eyed flies and
40 wild winged; wild eyed flies in the offspring. What was the genotype
of the original wild fruit fly?
answer, vg+vg; se+se+.
15. The ABO blood system is an example of _______ because the
heterozygote (e.g., IAIB) expresses both alleles.
answer, codominance.
16. An individual is heterozygous for a trait if the two genes coding for
the trait are identical.
answer, False.

17. Mendel's principle of independent assortment explains why a fruit

fly can have vestigial wings and sepia eyes when one parent had
vestigial wings and wild eyes and the other parent had wild wings and
sepia eyes.
answer, True.

18. In a dihybrid cross, 1/16 of the offspring are phenotypically wild.

answer, False.

19. The principle of independent assortment concerns events that occur

during the first meiotic division.
answer, True

20. The principle of segregation concerns events that occur during the
second meiotic division.
answer, False.

21. Assume A and B represent genes at different loci. The notation AA

BB would represent the genotype of an individual.
answer, True

22. The notation A B C D would represent the genotype of a gamete.

answer, True

23. There can only be two alleles for a particular trait in any population.
answer, False.

24. A cross between a roan bull and a roan cow would result in a
phenotypic ration of 3 roan to 1 white offspring.
 answer, False.

25. A testcross involves a cross between an individual with an unknown

genotype and a homozygous recessive individual.
answer, True
Chapter 8 - Chromosomes and Gene Linkage

1. The discovery that genes occur on chromosomes was made by

______.
answer, Thomas Hunt Morgan.

2. An association of DNA and histone proteins is responsible for

packaging DNA into chromosomes. This combination is called a(n)
______.
answer, nucleosome.

3. Active portions of chromosomes are usually found in lightly staining

regions of the chromosome called ______.
answer,. euchromatic regions

4. An animal with one set (i.e., 1N) of chromosomes is _______.

answer, haploid.

5. A few animals like brine shrimp and some flatworms have more than
two sets of chromosomes. This condition is referred to as ______.
answer, polyploidy.

6. The white-eye trait in fruit flies is recessive and X-linked. A white-

eyed female is crossed with a red-eyed male. Which of the following
should be true of the offspring?
answer, all male offspring should be white-eyed.

7. A white-eyed male is crossed with a red-eyed female whose father

had white eyes. Which of the following should be true of the offspring?
answer, one half of the female offspring should be white-eyed
and one half of the male offspring should be white-eyed.

8. A red-eyed male is crossed with a red-eyed female whose father was

white-eyed. Which of the following should be true of the offspring?
 answer, all female offspring should be red-eyed and one half of
the male offspring should be white-eyed.

9. All of the following would result in cells containing one or two Barr
bodies except one. Select the exception.
answer, a normal male.

10. Which of the following would be true of a woman who showed

extreme thinning of the hair?
answer, Her daughters would show extreme thinning of the
hair only if the father was bald.

11. Preparing and examining slides and photographs of metaphase

chromosomes is called _______.
answer, karyotyping.

12. The addition or deletion of one or more chromosomes in a

chromosome set is called _______.
answer, aneuploidy.

13. Trisomy 21 is most common in mothers of the _____ age group.

answer, 40 to 45.

14. Which of the following chromosomal rearrangement usually results

in least serious phenotypic effects.
answer, inversion.

15. Which of the following chromosomal rearrangements results from

the flip-flopping of a central segment of a chromosome?
answer, inversion.

16. In the human XY system of sex determination, the fertilization of a

normal egg by a Y-containing sperm cell would result in a female
offspring.
 answer, False.

17. In active portions of a chromosome, chromatin is in a 10 nm form.

answer, True

18. Linked genes are always carried to the same pole of a cell during
meiotic division.
answer, True

19. An X-linked recessive gene is expressed whenever it is present in

male offspring.
answer, True

20. The Lyon hypothesis accounts for the presence of Barr bodies in the
cells of normal males.
answer, False.

21. All sons of a man with a Y-linked trait would also have the trait.
answer, True

22. Pattern baldness is an X-linked trait and can never be passed from
father to son.
answer, False.

23. Nondisjunction occurs when a portion of one chromosome is shifted

to a nonhomologous chromosome.
answer, False.

24. Secondary nondisjunction occurs during the second meiotic division

and results in one of the four meiotic products having and extra
chromosome and one of the four meiotic products being deficient in a
chromosome.
answer, True

25. Gene duplications have had important evolutionary consequences.

Extra copies of genes have undergone mutations that have been
beneficial for a species.
answer, True

Chapter 9 - Molecular Genetics: Ultimate Cellular Control

1. In the DNA molecule, the base adenine pairs with the base ______.
answer, thymine.

2. A DNA nucleotide consists of all of the following EXCEPT _______.

a. a base.
b. ribose.
c. deoxyribose.
d. phosphate
answer, ribose.

3. During protein synthesis, ______ is produced in the nucleus and

carries the genetic code to the cytoplasm.
answer, messenger RNA.

4. _______ involves the formation of a polypeptide chain at the ______.

answer, Translation/ribosome.

5. A sequence of three bases in mRNA that codes for an amino acid is a

_______.
answer, codon.

6. The ______ carries amino acids to the ribosome where a polypeptide

is assembled.
answer, transfer RNA
7. During protein synthesis at the ribosome, the ______ pairs with the
______.
answer, codon/anticodon.

8. All of the following statements regarding DNA and RNA are true
except one. Select the false statement.
answer, RNA contains the base thymine, and DNA contains the
base uracil.

9. Which of the following are pyrimidine bases found in RNA.

answer, cytosine and uracil.

10. DNA replication is said to be semiconservative because ______.

answer, it results in two DNA molecules, each consisting of one
new and one parental strand.

11. The fact that more than one codon in mRNA can code for a
particular amino acid is referred to as ______.
answer, degeneracy

12. Which of the following occurs at the beginning of transcription?

answer, RNA polymerase recognizes a promotor.

13. Which of the following occurs at the beginning of translation?

Your response: a. A UGA codon is aligned with the P site of the
ribosome.
answer, An AUG codon is aligned with the P site of the
ribosome.

14. In recombinant DNA techniques, ___________ is used to cut DNA

strands prior to inserting a piece of DNA into a plasmid.
answer, a restriction enzyme.
15. Inserting the ADA gene into SCID patients may allow them to
produce _________, which inactivates chemicals that breakdown T
lymphocytes and cause immune deficiency
answer, adenosine deaminase.

16. The nitrogen base of a nucleotide attaches at the 3' carbon of the
sugar.
answer, False.

17. The 5' end of a DNA strand would have a free phosphate attached to
it.
answer, True

18. The 5' end of one DNA strand would be directly across from the 3'
end of the sister strand. The term antiparallel refers to this condition.
answer, True

19. During DNA replication, the new strand of DNA grows in the 3' to 5'
direction.
answer, False.

20. There are 20 different codons, one for each naturally occurring
amino acid.
answer, False.

21. The central dogma indicates that genetic information in DNA is not
translated directly into protein, but is first transcribed into transfer RNA.
answer, False.

22. During protein synthesis, energy for aligning tRNA-amino acid units
in the ribosome, moving???? ( Not Given)

23. the ribosome along the mRNA, and termination is supplied in the
form of GTP.
answer, True
24. An intron is a region of DNA that does not code for functional
protein, and intron ribonucleotides must be spliced out of newly
transcribed mRNA.
answer, True

25. After it has been synthesized, a protein usually enters the

endoplasmic reticulum where amino acids may be removed to form the
functional protein.
answer, True

26. The most severe point mutations are those that occur at the third
position of a DNA triplet.
answer, False.
Chapter 10 - Descriptive Embryology

1. The study of animal development from the fertilized egg to the

formation of all major organ systems is called ______.
answer, embryology.

2. Lysins are released from the ______ and dissolve the gel coat of an
egg during fertilization.
answer, acrosome.

3. All of the following are a part of membrane and cortical events

associated with egg activation EXCEPT one. Select the exception.
a. Microvilli from the egg plasma membrane wrap around a sperm
cell.
b. A fertilization membrane forms.
c. The mitotic spindle forms.
d. The cortical layer thickens, and rotational and sliding movements
of the outer egg cytoplasm begin
answer, The mitotic spindle forms.

4. Bindin receptors serve the following function during fertilization.

answer, They promote sperm-egg adhesion and are species
specific.

5. ______ forms the inner lining of the digestive cavity of an embryo.

answer, Endoderm.

6. _______ forms muscle, blood, skeletal elements and other connective

tissues.
answer, Mesoderm.
7. A stage of echinoderm embryology consisting of a hollow ball of cells
is called the _______.
answer, blastula.

8. Invagination of cells in the vegetal half of the echinoderm embryo

occurs during a process called ______.
answer, gastrulation

9. All of the following are structures that characterize chordates

EXCEPT one. Select the exception.
a. dorsal tubular nervous system
b. open circulatory system
c. notochord
d. pharyngeal slits or pouches
answer, open circulatory system.

10. Gastrulation in an amphibian embryo occurs as superficial cells

begin to roll over the dorsal lip of the blastopore in process called
_______.
answer, involution.

11. All of the following are formed during gastrulation in an amphibian

embryo EXCEPT one. Select the exception.
a. yolk plug
b. archenteron
c. blastopore
d. blastocoel

answer, blastocoel.

12. In the amphibian embryo, the notochord and mesoderm form from
______.
answer, chordamesoderm.
13. Early cleavages in the zygote of a bird result in the formation of the
______.
answer, . blastoderm

14. An inward migration of epiblast cells of the bird embryo results in

the formation of mesoderm. This migration occurs along a linear
invagination called the _______.
answer, primitive streak.

15. The extraembryonic membranes of amniotes include all of the

following EXCEPT one. Select the exception.
a. amnion
b. somite
c. chorion
d. allantois

answer, somite.

16. The fusion of the sperm nucleus and the egg nucleus is the beginning
of a series of biochemical changes in the egg that ensures the completion
of fertilization and initiates embryonic development. These changes are
called egg activation.
answer, False.

17. Most mRNA used during protein synthesis that occurs in early
development is deposited in the egg by the mother.
answer, True

18. Cleavages that pass entirely through an embryo are meroblastic.

answer, False.

19. In an echinoderm embryo, the coelom forms as a result of splitting

solid blocks of mesoderm.
 answer, False.

20. Gastrulation of the amphibian embryo results in a spreading and

thinning of ectodermal cells toward the blastopore. This process is called
epiboly.
answer, True

21. The extraembryonic membrane that encloses a bird embryo in a

fluid-filled sac is the amnion.
answer, True

22. The extraembryonic membrane that encloses embryonic wastes of a

bird is the chorion.
answer, False.

23. After gastrulation of a bird embryo, the embryo lifts off the yolk but
remains connected to the yolk through a yolk stalk. Blood vessels
develop in the yolk stalk that carry nutrients from the yolk to the
embryo.
answer, True

24. The amnion and the chorion of a bird embryo become highly
vascular and function in gas exchange.
answer, False.

25. Undifferentiated mesoderm, called mesenchyme, develops into

blood, bone, and other connective tissues.
answer, True
Chapter 11 - Evolution: A Historical Perspective

1. Which of the following individuals was an early proponent of

evolution. Even though his explanation of how change in species occurs
was incorrect, he was steadfast in promoting ideas of evolutionary
change.
answer, Jean Baptiste Lamarck.

2. According to Charles Darwin, evolution is ________.

answer, descent with modification.

3. The idea that the earth is shaped today by the forces of wind, rain,
rivers, volcanoes, and geological uplift--just as it has been in the past in
known as ________.
answer, uniformitarianism

4. The idea that the earth is shaped today by the forces of wind, rain,
rivers, volcanoes, and geological uplift--just as it has been in the past
was developed by _______.
answer, James Hutton and Charles Lyell.

5. The discovery of fossils of horses, giant armadillos, and giant sloths in

South America suggested to Charles Darwin that _______.
answer, the species composition of the earth has changed
through geological history.

6. The formation of new species from an ancestral species in response to

the opening of new habitats is ______.
answer, adaptive radiation.

7. All of the following are a part of the theory of evolution by natural

selection EXCEPT one. Select the exception.
 a. All organisms have a far greater reproductive potential than is ever
realized.
b. Inherited variations arise as a result of encountering an
environmental challenge that must be overcome.
c. There is a constant struggle for existence, and many individuals
die.
d. Adaptive traits are perpetuated in subsequent generations because
individuals with less adaptive traits are less likely to reproduce than
individuals with more adaptive traits.
answer, Inherited variations arise as a result of encountering
an environmental challenge that must be overcome.

8. An adaptation is any characteristic of an organism that ______.

answer, makes the organism better able to reproduce in its
particular environment.

9. The combination of Darwinian evolutionary theory and population

genetics is referred to as _______.
answer,. modern synthesis or neo-Darwinism

10. The explanation of why fossils of horses occur in South America

even though there were no horses in South America at the time America
was settled is found in the study called _______.
answer, biogeography.

11. The study of the movement of crustal plates during continental drift
is called _______
answer, plate tectonics.

12. As continents move apart, new crustal material is thrust up from the
ocean floor in the Atlantic ocean, and old crustal material sinks into the
earth in _______.
answer, oceanic trenches of the Pacific Ocean.
13. Geologists estimate that the earth is about _____ years old.
answer, 4.6 billion.

14. Life arose about _____ years ago.

answer, 3.6 billion.

15. RNA is considered by many biologists to be a good candidate for the

first genetic material. This idea hinges on the discovery that some kinds
of RNA ________.
answer, can act as enzymes.

16. The theory of uniformitarianism was important for Charles Darwin's

ideas because it indicated that the earth was much older than 6,000 years
and that the face of the earth changed gradually over its history.
answer, True

17. Ancestral finches encountered habitats in the Galapagos islands that

were devoid of other birds and predators. They rapidly multiplied and
filled ecological roles that were unusual for finches on the mainland.
This account is an example of adaptive radiation.
answer, True

18. Natural selection is a positive force that selects for individuals with
adaptive traits, allowing them to reproduce.
answer, False.

19. Evolutionary adaptations lead to perfection in a species.

answer, False.

20. Variations on which natural selection acts arise as a result of random

mutations, not because of a challenge within the environment. A new
variation may, or may not, be adaptive.
answer, True
21. About 250 million years ago all major continents of the earth were
united into a single land mass called Pangaea.
answer, True

22. Charles Darwin worked closely with Alfred Wallace in the

development of the theory of evolution by natural selection.
answer, False.

23. Natural selection involves detrimental traits being eliminated from a

population by the failure of the organism containing them to reproduce.
answer, True

24. An adaptation present in an organism in one environment may be

maladaptive in another environment.
answer, True

25. Most biologists believe that virtually any characteristic of an animal

is an adaptation to some kind of environmental situation.
answer, False.
Chapter 12 - Evolution and Gene Frequencies

1. A change in the frequency of alleles in a population is a definition of

________.
answer, evolution.

2. The study of genetic events that occur in gene pools is called

_______.
answer, population genetics.

3. If the requirements of the Hardy-Weinberg theorem are all met, then

_______.
answer, evolution is not occuring.

4. Two male deer are equally adapted to their environment. One of these
bucks is in the wrong place at the wrong time and is shot by a hunter.
The other buck reproduces, passing its genes on to following
generations. This account is an example of _______.
answer, genetic drift.

5. Which of the following statements is most accurate?

answer, Evolution occurs in virtually all populations at some
point in their history.

6. Two tortoises are caught on a mat of floating vegetation and get

carried out to sea. Their mat happens to land on a volcanic island that is
inhabited by a small population of the same species. Breeding with the
island tortoise population introduces new alleles that adds to the genetic
diversity of tortoises on the island. This account is an example of
_______.
answer, gene flow.

7. After a bottleneck event has occurred ________.

answer, the genetic diversity of a population is decreased.
8. When chance events increase or decrease the frequencies of genes in a
population, _______ has occurred.
answer, genetic drift

9. From the perspective of a population, mutations are positive events

because ______.
answer, they provide new genetic variations that can help
ensure the survival of the species.

10. When a geographical barrier divides members of a population,

______ speciation may occur.
answer, allopatric.

11. A mutation that caused a change in the courtship behavior of

occurred in, and spread among, a few members of a population of
cranes. This change in courtship behavior prevents those that have the
mutation from mating with those that do not have the mutation, even
though the two groups share the same breeding territory. This mutation
may cause ______ speciation.
answer, sympatric

12. The punctuated equilibrium model of evolution is the idea that

______.
answer, evolution occurs rapidly for short periods of time and
then a population undergoes very little change for long periods
of time.

13. Natural selection that narrows the phenotypic range by selecting

against phenotypic extremes is called ______.
answer, stabilizing selection.

14. Sickle-cell anemia was maintained in African populations because

the heterozygote was resistant to malaria. Both homozygotes were
selected against by severe sickling or susceptibility to malaria. This
example illustrates ______.
answer, heterozygote superiority.

15. All genes in an organism do not necessarily change at the same rate.
Most cats, for example, are easily recognized as cats. These traits have
been conserved in evolution. Other traits (e.g., length of the tail, pelage,
and stature) vary from species to species. This is an example of
________.
answer, mosaic evolution.

16. In order for speciation to occur, some members of a population must

be reproductively isolated from other members of the population.
answer, True
17. Genetic drift is most likely to occur in large populations.
answer, False.

18. When individuals leave a population and the diversity of alleles in

the population decreases, genetic drift has occurred.
answer, False.

19. The change in the frequency of body color alleles in peppered moths
in England during the industrial revolution was an example of
directional selection
answer, True

20. Virtually all evolutionist agree that neutral selection is the

mechanism behind most evolutionary change.
answer, False.

21. The formation of a physical barrier that divides one population into
two groups is an example of postmating isolation.
answer, False.
22. An allele that has been conserved evolutionarily would be present in
most members of a group.
answer, True

23. Phyletic gradualism is attractive to many paleontologists because it

explains the absence of fossils that document transitional forms between
related organisms.
answer, False.

24. Speciation that occurs in small, local populations is called parapatric

speciation.
answer, True

25. Evolution invariably leads to some kind of improvement in a species.

answer, False.
Chapter 13 - Animal Behavior

1. The study of animal behavior that focuses on evolution and the natural
environment is ______.
answer, ethology.

2. The study of the evolution of social behavior is ______.

answer, sociobiology.

3. ______ emphasizes the ecological aspects of animal behavior

involved with predator-prey interactions, foraging strategies, and habitat
selection.
answer, behavioral ecology.

4. Causation in animal behavior that occurs on an evolutionary time

scale is a/an ______ cause.

answer, ultimate

5. A bird watcher found that squirrels initially ran from a bird feeder
when she rapped on the window. Over time, the squirrels were less apt
to be chased from the feeder by this stimulus. This squirrel behavior
illustrates a kind of learning called ______.
answer, habituation

6. A mouse improves its ability to negotiate a maze with repeated trials.

This mouse behavior illustrates a kind of learning called ______.
answer, latent learning.

7. Training a young child to use mental processes to solve problems, for

example matching block shapes to similarly shaped openings in a board,
involves a kind of learning called ______.
answer, insight learning.
8. A dog that learns to roll-over in response to rewards from its owner
illustrates a kind of learning called ______.
answer, classical conditioning.

9. Hormones that regulate developmental aspects of behavior, for

example testosterone causing the onset of malelike behavior at sexual
maturity, regulate ______.
answer, organizational effects.

10. All of the following are advantages of chemical communication

EXCEPT one. Select the exception.
a. Chemical signals act quickly and are easily modified.
b. Chemical signals are effective night or day.
c. Chemical signals are not blocked by objects in the environment.
d. Chemical signals can be transported over long distances

answer, Chemical signals act quickly and are easily modified.

11. Which one the following forms of communication was probably

LEAST important for ancestral mammals?
answer, visual communication

12. Aggressive behavior of one animal toward another of the same

species is called ______.
answer, agonistic behavior.

13. Selection acting on related animals may affect the fitness of an

individual. This phenomenon occurs when the fitness of an individual is
based on the genes it passes on, as well as those common genes a
relative passes on. This selection is called ______ selection.
answer, kin

14. Which of the following is responsible for improved coordination in

the swimming movements of a frog tadpole?
 answer, maturation.

15. The mating behavior of a sandhill crane would be studied by a/an

______.
answer, ethologist.

16. The application of human characteristics to anything not human is

teleology.
answer, False.

17. Inherited components of behavior are never influenced by learning.

answer, False.

18. Young animals that develop an attachment toward another animal or

object illustrate the occurrence of classical conditioning.
answer, False.

19. One role of the nervous system in controlling animal behavior is to

block incoming stimuli that are unimportant for the animal. This activity
is called stimulus filtering.
answer, True

20. Chemicals that are synthesized by one organism and that affect the
behavior of another member of the same species are called allomones.
answer, False.

21. An animal society is a group of individuals of one or more species

that maintains acooperative social relationship.
answer, False.

22. When some members of a group of animals have greater access to

resources than other members of the group, the animal society illustrates
the concept of altruism.
answer, False.
23. Altruism can be explained evolutionarily only if a sacrifice made by
one individual promotes the transfer of genes shared within a family
group to the next generation.
answer, True

24. Jumping into a cool swimming pool and gradually losing the cold
sensation is an example of habituation.
answer, False.

25. Learning about the environment through exploration is called latent

learning.
answer, True
Chapter 14 - Ecology I: Individuals and Populations

1. For an aquatic animal, the amount of oxygen dissolved in the water

may determine where the animal can live. For this animal, dissolved
oxygen is a/an ______.
answer, limiting factor.

2. For an aquatic animal, the range of values for dissolved oxygen that
will support life is called the ______.
answer, tolerance range.

3. All of the following contribute to the energy budget of an animal

EXCEPT one. Select the exception.
answer,, resistance energy--the energy it takes to resist change
in the environment.

4. Human populations in developed countries display type ______

survivorship curves.
answer, I

5. Which of the following sequences illustrate exponential growth?

a. 2--->4--->6--->8
b. 2--->3--->4--->5
c. 2--->4--->8--->16
d. 2--->4--->10--->25
answer, 2--->4--->8--->16.

6. Evolution in which each of two species exerts a strong influence on

the other species is called ______.
answer, coevolution.

7. A symbiotic relationship in which one member of a relationship

benefits and the second member is neither helped nor harmed is ______.
 answer, commensalism.

8. The population size a particular environment can support is called the

environment's ______.
answer, carrying capacity.

9. Which of the following is an example of aposematic coloration?

answer, the contrasting color pattern of a skunk.

10. When two organisms live in close association and both organisms
benefit from the association, the relationship is called ______.
answer, mutualism

11. Populations that are prevented from achieving their carrying capacity
and that tend to grow rapidly when conditions are favorable are said to
be ______.
a. K selected
b. r selected
c. density dependent
d. resistant
answer, r selected

12. Two male redwing blackbirds are competing for a breeding territory
and female redwings. This example depicts ______.
answer,, intraspecific competition.

13. The capacity of a population to increase maximally is called its

______.
answer, biotic potential.

14. A harmless fly resembles a bee. People react to the fly as if they
might be stung. This example illustrates ______.
answer, Batesian mimicry.
15. Most natural populations exhibit type _______ population growth.
answer, III.

16. Change in the tolerance range of an animal for some environmental

factor is called acclimation.
answer, True

17. Aestivation is a time of decreased metabolism and lowered body

temperature in daily activity cycles.
answer, False.

18. Hibernation is a time of decreased metabolism and lowered body

temperatures that may last for weeks or months and occurs in mammals
such as rodents, bats, and bears.
answer, False.

19. Factors that influence animal populations in a density-dependent

fashion include competition for resources, disease, predation, and
parasitism.
answer, True.

20. Populations of animals with little parental care of young, short life
spans, large numbers of offspring, and uncrowded living conditions are
usually K-selected populations.
answer, False.

21. The competitive exclusion principle states that two species with
exactly the same requirements for food habitat, nest sites, and other
conditions of life cannot coexist.
answer, True

22. A type of camouflage that occurs when an animal takes on the color
patterns in its environment to blend in with the surroundings is called
countershading.
answer, False.
23. A host that harbors the adult stage of a parasite is called the
definitive host.
answer, True

24. As animal body size increases metabolic rate, expressed as milliliters

of oxygen consumed per gram of body weight per hour, decreases.
answer, True

25. Photoperiod, the length of the light period in a 24-hour day, is used
by many animals as an index of seasonal change. It also influences daily
changes in activity, which are called circadian rhythms.
answer, True
Chapter 15 - Ecology II: Communities and Ecosystems

1. All populations living in an area make up a/an ______.

answer, community

2. A community and its physical surroundings make up a/an ______.

answer, ecosystem.

3. The dominant members of a community often change the community

in predictable ways in a process called ______.
answer, succession.

4. The final community in a sere is called the ______.

answer, climax community

5. The first trophic level of an ecosystem is made up of ______.

answer, producers.

6. The ______ of a species includes all the attributes of its life-style.

answer, niche

7. Overall, about ______ percent of the food consumed at one trophic

level is converted into new biomass.
answer, 10.

8. Assuming that 1,000 units of energy are available at the producer

level of a stream ecosystem, how many units of energy would be
available in the fourth trophic level (e.g., leaf material--->mayfly---
>stonefly--->small mouth bass)?
answer, 1 unit.

9. All of the following statements regarding energy in ecosystems are

true EXCEPT one. Select the exception.
 a. Most energy at one trophic level is eventually radiated into the
outer atmosphere as heat and will never be reused.
b. An ecosystem can support more biomass at higher trophic levels
than at lower trophic levels.
c. Larger populations can be supported if organisms feed at lower
trophic levels.
d. Consumption is never 100 percent efficient. 70 to 80 percent of
the energy at one trophic level ends up with the decomposers in an
ecosystem.
answer, An ecosystem can support more biomass at higher
trophic levels than at lower trophic levels.

10. Nitrogen in nitrites and nitrates can be returned to the air as gaseous
nitrogen by ______.
answer, denitrifying bacteria.

11. The nonliving reservoir for nitrogen in an ecosystem is/are ______.

answer, gaseous nitrogen in the atmosphere.

12. The nonliving reservoir for elements such as sulfur, phosphorus, and
calcium is/are ______.
answer, the earth.

13. All of the following are true of the carbon cycle EXCEPT one.
Select the exception.
a. Most carbon is incorporated into living tissues by photosynthesis.
b. Combustion of fossil fuels returns carbon to its reservoir.
c. The rate at which carbon has been accumulating in the atmosphere
has been decreasing dramatically in the last 50 years.
d. Carbon is rarely a limiting factor for animals.
answer, The rate at which carbon has been accumulating in the
atmosphere has been decreasing dramatically in the last 50
years.
14. The variety of living organisms in an ecosystem is called ______.
answer, biodiversity.

15. Biological magnification refers to the ______.

answer, concentration of matter in tissues of animals at higher
trophic levels in an ecosystem.

16. The removal of a keystone species in an ecosystem could cause the

death of many dependent species.
answer, False.

17. Pioneer communities are nutrient rich and usually support high
species diversity.
answer, False.

18. In the carbon cycle, respiration returns carbon to its reservoir in the
atmosphere.
answer, True .

19. The tundra is a biome characterized by cool summers, cold winters,

short growing seasons, and moderate precipitation. Plants characteristic
of the tundra include spruce, fir, and pine trees. Animals characteristic of
the tundra include snowshoe hairs, wolves, caribou, and moose.
answer, False

20. Chaparral is a relatively dry biome. Plants are low and shrubby, and
have tough waxy leaves. Animals include insects, rodents, rabbits,
lizards, and mule deer. Fire is an important regulator of these
populations.
answer, True

21. Lentic ecosystems include brooks, streams, and rivers in which water
is flowing.
 answer, True

22. Neritic ecosystems extend from the continental shelves into the
relatively unproductive open ocean. Virtually all of the primary
production here occurs in the upper waters, a region called the photic
zone.
answer, False

23. The age pyramid of a developing country (e.g., India) is triangular

with its base in the lowest age classes.
answer, True

24. The current U.S. population is about 265 million, and it continues to
grow because of an increasing birth rate.
answer, False

25. The accumulation of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere contributes to

the depletion of the ozone layer and an increased risk of skin cancer.
answer, False
Chapter 16 - Animal Classification, Phylogeny, and
Organization

1. ______ is the study of the kinds and diversity of organisms and the
evolutionary relationships among them.
answer, systematics

2. A group of animals that shares a particular set of characteristics forms

an assemblage called a/an ______.
answer, taxon.

3. Which of the following sequences is arranged from broader to more

specific?

answer, domain, kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, genus,

species.

4. Which of the following is the correct way to write the scientific name
of the water penny beetle?
answer, Psephenus herricki.

5. Prokaryotic organisms that live in extreme environments, such as

high-temperature rift valleys on the ocean floor, belong to the domain
______.
answer, Archaea.

6. Animalia can be distinguished from Plantae because ______.

answer, animals are heterotrophic

7. A taxonomic character is ______.

answer, any genetic trait that can be measured.
8. A taxonomic grouping that is derived from a single ancestor but does
not include all members of the family group is called a ______ group.
answer, paraphyletic

9. The school of systematics that produces evolutionary tree diagrams

depicting relatedness, time since organisms diverged from a common
ancestor, and relative abundance of organisms is _____.
answer, evolutionary systematics

10. A character that is shared by an outgroup and all members of a study

group is called a ______.
answer, symplesiomorphy.

11. The goal of systematic studies is to arrange animals into ______.

answer, monophyletic groups

12. A character that can be used to distinguish an animal from other

animals within the group is called a _____.
answer, synapomorphy

13. A structure that is near the plane that divides an animal into equal
left and right halves is ______.
answer, medial in position

14. The development of a coelom in an animal is always associated with

______.
answer, triploblastic organization.

15. The dorsal surface of a frog is at the frog's _____.

answer, back.

16. The Eubacteria are the most primitive life forms known.
answer, True
17. In a monophyletic grouping, there is often more than one kind of
ancestral animal.
answer, False.

18. Evolutionary trees (cladograms) produced by phylogenetic

systematics (cladists) never depict time scales or relative abundance, but
they do indicate characters used to distinguish members of taxa.
answer, True

19. A pseudocoelom is a body cavity that develops between the

ectoderm and mesoderm of a triploblastic animal.
answer, False.

20. Triploblastic animals whose mesodermally derived tissues form a

relatively solid mass of cells between ectodermally and endodermally
derived tissues are said to be acoelomate.
answer, True

21. The formation of a distinct head is called cephalization and is usually

associated with bilateral symmetry.
answer, True

22. The ankle is distal to the knee.

answer, True

23. The anterior end of a sea anemone contains its tentacles and mouth.
answer, False.

24. A coelom is a body cavity that is completely surrounded by

mesodermally derived tissues.
answer, True
25. A transverse plane divides a bilateral animal into left and right
mirror images.
answer, False.

Chapter 17- Animal-Like Protists: The Protozoa

1. Which of the following is characteristic of protozoa?

a. polyphyletic
b. some are autotrophs
c. some are heterotrophs
answer, all of the above (a-c).

2. Reproduction in protozoa involves

a. binary fission.
b. asexual reproduction.
c. sexual reproduction
answer, all of the above (a-c).

3. Asexual reproduction that occurs in the protozoa includes all of the

following except
answer, conjugation.

4. The type of symbiotic relationship where both species benefit is

termed __________.
answer, mutualism.

5. The specialized region in protozoa that is analogous to a mouth is the

__________.
answer, cytopharynx.

6. The phylum Sarcomastigorphora has all of the following

characteristics except
 answer, apical complex for penetrating host cells.

7. Which of the following do not belong to the phylum

Phytomastigophorea?
answer, Trypanosoma.

8. Sleeping sickness in humans is caused by

answer, trypanosomes.

9. Which of the following is not a type of pseudopodium found in

members of the subphylum Pseudopodia?
a. lobopodia
b. filopodia
c. reticulopodia
d. rizopodia

answer, rizopodia.

10. Which of the following is not a marine protozoan?

answer, Giardia.

11. When schizogony produces merozoites, it is called

answer, merogony.

12. In the life cycle of Plasmodium, merozoites are formed in the

__________.
answer, liver.

13. The disease pebrine that occurs in silk worms is caused by members
of the phylum
answer, Microspora.

14. Which of the following sporozoans usually occurs in AIDS patients?

answer, Cryptosporidium
15. In ciliated protozoans, a defensive structure is the __________.
answer, trichocyst.

16. Ciliates reproduce sexually by

answer, conjugation.

17. Based on 18S ribosomal RNA sequences, which of the following is

not related to the others in the list?
answer, ciliates.

18. Based on 18S ribosomal RNA sequences, the microspora are closely
related to the ciliates.
answer, False.

19. Most ciliates are free living.

answer, True

20. Ciliates have four kinds of nuclei.

answer, False.

21. Cilia are generally similar to flagella except that they are much
longer.
answer, False.

22. The most important species in the phylum Apicomplexa are

members of the class Sporozoea (e.g., Plasmodium).
answer, True

23. Giardiasis is contracted by drinking water from streams and lakes in

the Rocky Mountain area.
answer, True

24. Tsetse flies are the intermediate host for the protozoan (Giardia spp.)
that causes giardiasis.
 answer, False.

25. Volvox is a colonial protozoan.

answer, True

Chapter 18 - Multicellular and Tissue Levels of Organization

1. Multicellular life has been a part of life on earth for approximately

______ years.
answer, 550 million.

2. The first animals may have arisen from a large multinucleate cell that
subsequently formed plasma membranes within the cell to produce a
small multicellular organism. This idea is known as the ______
hypothesis.
answer, syncytial.

3. Which of the following is a fossil formation in British Columbia

containing about 20 animal body forms that are not assigned to any
modern animal phyla?
answer, Burgess Shale

4. All of the following are characteristic of members of the phylum

Porifera EXCEPT one. Select the exception.
a. asymmetrical or radially symmetrical
b. three cell types
c. central cavity, or a series of branching chambers, through which
water circulates during filter feeding.
d. diploblastic tissue organization
answer, diploblastic tissue organization.

5. Which of the following cell types is involved with creating water

currents during filter feeding of a sponge?
answer, choanocytes.
6. Which of the following cell types is involved with secreting skeletal
elements of a sponge?
answer, mesenchyme cells.

7. Which of the following cell types is involved with regulating water

movements through a sponge?
answer, porocytes.

8. In an ascon sponge, choanocytes ______.

answer, line the spongocoel directly.

9. In a sycon sponge, the body wall appears to be ______.

answer, highly folded

10. The most complex sponges have the ______ organization.

answer, leucon.

11. All of the following are characteristic of members of the phylum

Cnidaria EXCEPT one. Select the exception.
a. radial or biradial symmetry
b. nervous system in the form of a nerve net
c. choanocytes used in defense, feeding, and attachment
d. gelatinous mesoglea located between epidermal and
gastrodermal tissue layers
answer, choanocytes used in defense, feeding, and attachment.

12. In the life cycle of a member of the class Hydrozoa, for example
Obelia, ______.
answer, the medusa and polyp are both usually present.

13. Members of the class Scyphozoa include ______.

answer, jellyfish.
14. The largest and most prominent stage in the life cycle of most
members of the class Scyphozoa is the ______.
answer, medusa
15. The class of Cnidaria that includes anemones is ______.
answer, Anthozoa.

16. Most of the history of multicellular life on earth has been one of
extinction rather than the origin of new kinds of animal life.
answer, True

17. Members of the class Scyphozoa have life histories in which the
medusa stage is produced asexually from the strobila.
answer, True

18. The coelom of cnidarians functions in digestion, the exchange of

respiratory gases, and discharge of gametes.
answer, False.

19. Cells are never present in the mesoglea of cnidarians.

answer, False.

20. Cnidocytes produce nematocysts that are discharged on stimulation

of a cnidocil. Cnidocytes are produced only in members of the phylum
Cnidaria.
answer, True
21. In many members of the class Hydrozoa, the gonozooid is a
reproductive polyp that produces medusae by budding.
answer, True

22. Some members of the class Cubozoa have nematocysts that are
dangerous to humans.
answer, True
23. Hydrozoan polyps have mesenteries that bear nematocysts, a mouth
that leads to a pharynx, and a mesoglea containing ameboid
mesenchyme cells.
answer, False.

24. Some members of the class Anthozoa are monoecious. In these

animals, the male gametes often mature before the female gametes, thus
preventing self-fertilization. This condition is called protandry.
answer, True

25. Some anthozoans live in a mutualistic relationship with protists

called zooxanthellae and are largely responsible for the formation of
coral reefs.
answer, True
Chapter 19- The Triploblastic, Acoelomate Body Plan

1. Which of the following is not an acoelomate?

answer, Turbellaria.

2. Three important characteristics first appeared in the acoelomates.

Which of the following is not one of them?
answer, an excretory system.

3. Acoelomates lack a body cavity because the __________ mass

completely fills the area between the outer epidermis and digestive tract.
answer, mesodermal

4. Which of the following classes is not parasitic?

answer, Turbellaria

5. Marine ribbon worms are found within the phylum

answer, Nemertea.

6. Which of the following would you find either living a free-living life
style or in the space between bottom sediments in freshwater?
answer, Gastrotricha

7. Sexual maturity in a larval body form is called __________.

answer, paedomorphosis.

8. Characteristics of the phylum Platyhelminthes include all of the

following except __________.
a. usually flattened dorsoventrally
b. usually unsegmented worms
c. incomplete gut
d. many organ systems present
answer, many organ systems present.
9. A turbellarian that has no pharynx or digestive cavity is termed
answer, acoela.

10. Most turbellarians, such as the common planarian,

a. are carnivores.
b. will also feed as herbivores.
c. have chemoreceptors that help them detect food
answer, all of the above (a-c).

11. Which is not part of the protonephridial system in a turbellarian?

answer, nephron.

12. A few turbellarians have a free swimming larva termed a

answer, Muller's larva.

13. Monogenetic flukes are so named because they

a. have only one generation in their life cycle.
b. have a life cycle where only one adult develops from one
egg.
c. are solely external parasites.
answer, both a and b.

14. A small group of flukes that are primarily internal parasites of

molluscs are the
answer, subclass Aspidogastrea.

15. The scientific name of the Chinese liver fluke is __________

__________.
answer, Clonorchis sinensis.

16. The scientific name of the sheep liver fluke is __________

_________.
 answer, Fasciola hepatica

17. Almost all cestodes belong to the subclass

answer, Eucestoda.

18. In the beef tapeworm life cycle, as an egg develops it forms a sex-
hooked (hexacanth) larva called a oncosphere.
answer, True

19. A fluid-filled bladder worm is called a cysticercus.

answer, True

20. The most distinctive feature of nemerteans is a long proboscis held

in a sheath called a rhynchocoel.
answer, True

21. Nemerteans are microscopic, aquatic animals with a head, neck, and
trunk.
answer, False.

22. Tapeworms are structurally more specialized than flukes.

answer, True

23. The monogenetic flukes (class Monogenea) are mostly aquatic

parasites of fishes.
answer, True

24. Turbellarians are monoecious with reproductive systems adapted for

internal fertilization.
answer, True

25. Most turbellarians move entirely by cilia and are predators and
scavengers.
answer, True
Chapter 20- The Pseudocoelomate Body Plan

1. All of the following are aschelminths except the __________.

answer, Nemerteans.

2. The major unifying aschelminth feature is the __________.

answer, pseudocoelom.

3. Which of the following is not a common aschelminth feature?

a. incomplete digestive tract
b. a muscular pharynx
c. constant cell numbers (eutely)
d. adhesive glands
answer, incomplete digestive tract

4. When aschelminths shed their cuticle, this is called

a. molting.
b. ecdysis.
c. eutely
answer, both a and b.

5. Which of the following is not a pseudocoelomate animal?

a. Acanthocephala
b. Rotifera
c. Polychaeta
d. Nematoda
answer, Polychaeta.

6. Characteristics of the phylum Rotifera include all of the following

except
 a. a well-developed cuticle.
b. absence of protonephridia.
c. parthenogenesis is common.
d. tripoblastic, bilateral, unsegmented, pseudocoelomate
answer, absence of protonephridia.

7. There are __________ classes within the phylum Rotifera.

answer, 3.

8. Which of the following is not an external feature of a rotifer?

answer, germovitellarium.

9. Where would you look for a kinorhynch?

answer, a marine environment

10. Which of the following is not a characteristic of the phylum

Nematoda?
answer, cuticles are not shed.

11. Which of the following is not true with respect to nematode

reproduction?
a. most nematodes are dioecious
b. most nematodes are dimorphic
c. males are larger than the females
d. gonads lie free in the pseudocoelom
answer, males are larger than the females.

12. The scientific name of the common pinworm is __________

__________.
answer, Enterobius vermicularis.

13. The scientific name of the common pork worm is __________

__________.
 answer, Trichinella spiralis.

14. Members of the phylum Nematomorpha are commonly called the

__________ worms.
answer, both a and b.

15. In acanthocephala, the larva that emerges from an egg is called a

__________.
answer, acanthor

16. The most recently described pseudocoelomate animal phylum is the

__________.
answer, Loricifera.

17. Which of the following is a distinct feature that occurs in all

pseudocoelomate phyla?
a. pseudocoelom
b. adhesive glands
c. cuticle
answer, none of the above (a-b).

18. The aschelminths are seven phyla grouped only for convenience.
answer, True

19. The aschelminths contain organs for gas exchange and circulation.
answer, True

20. The majority of rotifer inhabit freshwater.

answer, True

21. Nematodes live in aquatic and terrestrial environments.

answer, True
22. Acanthocephalans are also known as spiny-headed worms because
of their spiny proboscis.
answer, True

23. A mosquito is necessary for development of Trichinella spiralis.

answer, False.

24. Elephantiasis is caused by filarial worms (i.e., Wuchereria spp.).

answer, True

25. Ascaris lumbricoides is commonly known as the giant intestinal

roundworm of humans.
answer, True
Chapter 21 - Molluscan Success

1. All of the following are unique to the molluscs EXCEPT one.

Select the exception.
a. mantle
b. shell
c. visceral mass
d. head-foot
answer, shell.

2. Which of the following is true of the radula of most molluscs?

answer, It is used in rasping food.

3. The mantle of most molluscs ______.

answer, secretes the shell.

4. Which of the following is true of the mantle cavity of a bivalve?

answer, It is the area where water circulates during feeding

and gas exchange.

5. The molluscs are most closely related to the _____.

answer, annelids and arthropods.

6. Which of the following are characteristic of most protostomate

animals?
answer, spiral cleavage and a trochophore larval stage.

7. Which of the following is true of the visceral mass of a mollusc?

answer, it contains gonads and digestive glands.

8. All of the following mollusc characters would be found in a member

of the class Bivalvia EXCEPT one. Select the exception.
 a. visceral mass
b. head-foot
c. mantle cavity
d. radula
answer, radula.

9. Members of which of the following mollusc classes would be

characterized by a shell consisting of 8 plates?
answer, Polyplacophora.

10. Members of which of the following mollusc classes would be

characterized by a reduced head, a mantle that surrounds the entire body
and a tusk-shaped shell?
answer, Scaphopoda

11. ______ is a developmental process that occurs in gastropods and

results in a 180 degree counterclockwise twisting of the visceral mass
and mantle cavity.
answer, Torsion.

12. A/an ______ is a mucoid mass that extends to the stomach of

gastropods. It contains trapped food particles and is rotated by cilia.
answer, protostyle

13. Members of the gastropod subclass Pulmonata are predominantly

freshwater or terrestrial. Their mantle is modified into a lung, which
opens to the outside of the mantle cavity through a/an ______.
answer, pneumostome.

14. Water exits the mantle cavity of a bivalve through the ______ and
the excurrent opening.
answer, suprabranchial chamber.
15. A ______ is a developmental stage of a freshwater bivalve that is
parasitic on fishes.
answer, glochidium.

16. Members of the classes Cephalopoda and Scaphopoda are the only
molluscs that possess closed circulatory systems.
answer, False.

17. The zebra mussel was introduced into the Great Lakes by aquarium
owners who bought the bivalves in pet stores.
answer, False.

18. Cephalopods rely on olfactory senses for detecting prey.

answer, False.

19. Members of the class Polyplacophora include the chitons, which are
found on hard substrates in shallow marine water.
answer, True

20. Members of the class Monoplacophora are wormlike molluscs that

lack a shell, crystalline style, and foot; they live in vertical burrows on
the deep-sea floor.
answer, False.

21. Labial palps of bivalves sort filtered food particles delivered by cilia
lining the ventral margin of the gills.
answer, True

22. The bivalve shell and the loss of a radula are synapomorphies that
distinguish the Bivalvia from the Scaphopoda.
answer, True

23. The Gastropoda and the Cephalopoda form a clade characterized by

a dorsoventrally elongate body and shell coiling.
answer, True
24. The diversity of body forms and lifestyles present in the phylum
Mollusca is an excellent example of adaptive radiation.
answer, True

25. The absence of a shell in the Caudofoveata and Aplacophora is a

primitive character in the phylum Mollusca.
answer, True
Chapter 22 - Annelida: The Metameric Body Form

1. The segmental arrangement of body parts in an animal is called

______.
answer, metamerism.

2. The specialization of body regions in a segmented animal is called

_____.
answer, tagmatization

3. Annelids and Arthropods share all of the following characteristics

EXCEPT one. Select the exception.
a. a ventral nerve cord
b. a complete digestive tract
c. metamerism
answer, an exoskeleton.

4. The annelid class whose members are mostly marine is ______.

answer, Polychaeta.

5. A distinctive feature of members of the class Hirudinea is ______.

answer, anterior and posterior suckers.

6. Earthworms belong to the annelid class ______

answer, Oligochaeta.

7. A distinctive feature of members of the class Polychaeta is ______.

answer,. parapodia

8. The girdle-like structure that is used for mucus secretion during

copulation and cocoon formation is the ______.
answer, clitellum
9. A clitellum is present in the members of the class(es) ______.
 answer, Hirudinea and Oligochaeta.

10. Oligochaetes are ______.

answer, monoecious

11. Most polychaetes are ______.

answer, dioecious.

12. An excretory structure consisting of an open, ciliated funnel and a

tubule that opens through the body wall is called a ______.
answer, metanephridium.

13. The main propulsive structure(s) in the circulatory system of an

earthworm is (are) ______.
answer, dorsal and ventral blood vessels.

14. The _______ is a site of amino acid metabolism in an earthworm and

is analogous to the vertebrate liver.
answer,. typlosole

15. No freeliving larval forms occur in the annelid class(es) ______.

answer, Hirudinea and Oligochaeta.

16. Flexible support and efficient locomotion are probably the primary
adaptive features of metamerism.
answer, True

17. The peristomium is the first segment of a polychaete. It surrounds

the mouth and bears sensory tentacles or cirri.
answer, True

18. During copulation of earthworms there is mutual sperm exchange.

Sperm passes from the seminal receptacles of each worm to the seminal
vesicles of the partner.
answer, False.
19. True segments of a member of the class Hirudinea are called annuli.
answer, False.

20. The looping form of locomotion of leeches utilizes a single

hydrostatic cavity formed as a result of the loss of septa separating
coelomic compartments.
answer, True

21. A taxonomic reevaluation of the phylum Annelida confirms the

designation of three classes: Polychaeta, Oligochaeta, and Hirudinea.
answer, False.

22. The oligochaetes were the first annelids to be derived from ancestral
annelids. The Hirudinea and freshwater polychaetes were derived from
the oligochaetes, and marine polychaetes were derived from freshwater
polychaetes.
answer, False.

23. Oligochaetes evolved on land during a time when flowering plants

were proliferating. This fact is evidenced, in part, by the reliance of
modern oligochaetes on deciduous vegetation.
answer, True

24. Polychaetes may be predators, herbivores, scavengers, or filter

feeders.
answer, True

25. The immature stages of polychaetes occur in cocoons deposited on

the ocean floor.
answer, False.
Chapter 23 - The Arthropods: Blueprint for Success

1. All of the following are characteristics of members of the phylum

Arthropoda EXCEPT one. Select the exception.

a. metamerism modified by tagmatization

b. dorsal nervous system
c. chitinous exoskeleton provides support and protection
d. open circulatory system in which blood is released into
tissue spaces derived from the blastocoel
answer, dorsal nervous system.

2. All of the following are protostomate phyla EXCEPT one.

Select the exception.
a. Mollusca
b. Platyhelminthes
c. Arthropoda
d. Annelida
answer, Platyhelminthes.

3. The outermost waxy layer of the arthropod exoskeleton is called the

______.
answer, epicuticle

4. A layer of cells that secretes the arthropod exoskeleton is called the

______.
answer, hypodermis.

5. In the region of a joint, the ______ of the exoskeleton is less hardened

and forms an articular membrane. In other parts of the exoskeleton this
region is hardened and inflexible.
answer, outer procuticle.
6. Biramous appendages are present in, or were present in, ______.
answer, Crustacea and Trilobitomorpha.

7. The sensory, feeding, and locomotor tagma of members of the

subphylum Chelicerata is the ______.
answer, prosoma or cephalothorax.

8. The second pair of appendages of members of the subphylum

Chelicerata is used in sensory perception, feeding, locomotion, or
reproduction. These appendages are called ______.
answer, pedipalps.

9. Excretory structures found in many arachnids consist of thin-walled

sacs that open to the body surface at pores near the base of posterior
appendages. These excretory structures are called ______.
answer, coxal glands.

10. Most arthropods lay eggs that develop outside the body. They are
______.
answer, oviparous

11. Ticks and mites are members of the order _____.

answer, Acarina.

12. Harvestmen or daddy longlegs are members of the order ______.

answer, Opiliones

13. ______ is the largest class in the subphylum Crustacea.

answer, Malacostraca

14. Barnacles are members of the class ______.

answer, Cirripedia.
15. All of the following are crayfish mouth appendages EXCEPT one.
Select the exception.
answer, pleopods.

16. Metamorphosis often results in adult and immature stages having

different feeding habits and habitats. Metamorphosis, therefore, reduces
competition between adult and immature stages and has contributed to
the success of the arthropods.
answer, True

17. Arthropods that have just undergone ecdysis are secretive and
remain hidden because the new exoskeleton has not been formed.
answer, False.

18. Book lungs or book gills are present in members of the subphylum
Crustacea.
answer, False.

19. Scorpions have a period of courtship prior to mating. Mating occurs

by copulation and the direct transfer of sperm from the male to the
female.
answer, False.

20. Members of the class Pycnogonida are the sea spiders. Pycnogonids
are dioecious. After eggs are fertilized, they are cemented onto ovigers
of the male where they are carried until hatching.
answer, True

21. The appendages of a crayfish are said to be serially homologous

because they have evolved from a common ancestral form. The common
ancestral form is the biramous appendage, which consists of a
protopodite that attaches to the body wall and gives rise to two distal
processes: a lateral exopodite, and a medial endopodite.
answer, True
22. In members of the class Cirripedia, planktonic nauplii larvae attach
to the substrate by their first antennae and metamorphose to adults.
answer, False.

23. Members of the subphylum Chelicerata were preadapted for

terrestrial life by the exoskeleton, which was relatively impermeable to
water and supportive on land. Members of the class Arachnida were
some of the very early terrestrial inhabitants.
answer, True

24. Members of the subphylum Trilobitomorpha were a dominant form

of life in the ocean from the Cambrian period (600 million years ago) to
the Carboniferous period (345 million years ago). Today, a few living
species of trilobites inhabit deep water along the eastern coast of North
America.
answer, False

25. Horseshoe crabs are members of the class Merostomata. Their body
form has changed little over the last 200 million years, and they are an
excellent example of stabilizing selection.
answer, True
Chapter 24 - Hexapods and Myriapods: Terrestrial
Triumphs

1. Millipedes belong to the arthropod class ______.

answer, Diplopoda.

2. Centipedes belong to the arthropod class ______.

answer, Chilopoda.

3. Members of this class feed on decaying plant matter, possess

repugnatorial glands, and possess two pairs of appendages per apparent
segment.
answer, Diplopoda.

4. Members of this class live in forest-floor litter, where they feed on

fungi, humus, and other decaying organic matter. Their body consists of
11 segments and 9 pairs of legs.
answer, Pauropoda.

5. The thoracic tagma of an insect often has a pair of wings on ______.

answer, mesothorax and metathorax.

6. Insect flight, in which muscles act to change the shape of the

exoskeleton during both upward and downward wing beats, is called
______ flight.
answer, asynchronous.

7. Which of the following mouthparts of a chewing insect, like a

grasshopper, is primarily a sensory, liplike structure and is the
anteriormost mouthpart?
answer, labrum.
8. The smallest branches of an insect's respiratory system exchange
respiratory gases at the level of body cells. These smallest branches are
called ______.
answer, tracheoles.

9. Sensory structures found in the legs of crickets, the abdomen of

grasshoppers, and the thorax of some moths detect pressure (sound)
waves in the air. These sensory structures are called ______.
answer, tympanal organs.

10. The light collecting area of a compound eye that converts light
energy into a nerve impulse is called the ______.
answer, crystalline cone.

11. A ______ is (are) a protective case(s) for the pupal stage of an insect
that is formed from the last larval exoskeleton?
answer, puparium and chrysalis.

12. Insect development in which immatures are very different from the
adult in body form, behavior, and habitat is called ______
metamorphosis.
answer, holometabolous.

13. Mayfly development occurs through a gradual series of changes, but

the immatures are very different from the adults. One difference is the
presence of gills on the immatures (naiads). This form of development is
called ______ metamorphosis.
answer, hemimetabolous.

14. Insect development in which molting continues after sexual maturity

and in which immatures resemble adults is called ______
metamorphosis.
answer, ametabolous
15. If the biramous appendages of members of Trilobitomorpha and
Crustacea are homologous, which arthropod subphylum would be most
distantly related to the other three?
answer, Uniramia.

16. Myriapod is a nontaxonomic designation referring to all members of

the subphylum Uniramia.
answer, False.

17. The wings of a midge may beat at frequencies of 1,000 cycles per
second, which is much faster than the frequency of nerve impulses to
flight muscles.
answer, True

18. Insects are not capable of regulating their body temperature.

answer, False.

19. Gas exchange in insects involves respiratory pigments dissolved in

the hemolymph.
answer, False.

20. Insects excrete uric acid using Malpighian tubules, which empty into
the gut tract at the junction of the midgut and the hindgut. Because uric
acid can be excreted as a semisolid, this excretory mechanism minimizes
water loss and aids an insect's life on land.
answer, True

21. An insect's compound eyes probably form images, but more

importantly, they are adapted for detecting movement.
answer, True

22. Most of the water and salts present in the digestive tract of an insect
are absorbed from the digestive tract through the midgut.
answer, False.
23. If the biramous appendages of trilobites and crustaceans are
homologous, then the mandibles of crustaceans and insects are probably
also homologous.
answer, False.

24. The presence of ecdysal glands is a major symplesiomorphic

character for the phylum Arthropoda.
answer, True

25. Virtually all zoologists agree that the phylum Arthropoda is a

monophyletic grouping.
answer, False.
Chapter 25 - The Echinoderms

1. All of the following are characteristics of members of the phylum

Echinodermata EXCEPT one. Select the exception.
a. calcareous endoskeleton in the form of ossicles that arise from
mesoderm
b. adults with pentaradial symmetry and larvae with bilateral
symmetry
c. spiral cleavage
d. water vascular system composed of water-filled canals used
in locomotion, attachment, and feeding
answer, spiral cleavage.

2. A sievelike plate that serves as an opening of the water vascular

system to the outside is called the ______.
answer, madreporite.

3. ______ are canals of the water vascular system that run the length of
the arms of star-shaped echinoderms.
answer, radial canals.

4. The following are functions served by echinoderm water vascular

systems EXCEPT one. Select the exception.
a. feeding
b. storage of gametes
c. locomotion
d. gas exchange
answer, storage of gametes.

5. Sea stars belong to the class ______.

answer, Asteroidea.

6. Sand dollars belong to the class ______.

 answer, Ophiuroidea.

7. Sea cucumbers belong to the class ______.

answer, Holothuroidea.

8. Sea lilies and feather stars belong to the class ______.

answer, Crinoidea.

9. A sea star feeds on a bivalve by everting the _______ into the shell of
a bivalve and releasing digestive enzymes from ______.
answer, oral stomach/pyloric cecae.
10. Members of the class ______ are predators and scavengers. They use
their arms and tube feet in sweeping motions to collect prey and
particulate matter. Their arms are sharply set off from the central disk.
answer, Ophiuroidea
11. A chewing apparatus found in members of the class Echinoidea is
______.
answer,, Aristotle's lantern.

12. ______ are a pair of tubes that attach to the rectum and branch
throughout the body cavity of members of the class Holothuroidea.
answer, respiratory trees.

13. A mouth-up feeding posture is found in members of the class

______.
answer, Crinoidea.

14. Of all living echinoderms, members of the class ______ most closely
resemble the oldest fossil echinoderms.
answer, Crinoidea.

15. Echinoderms are most closely related to members of the phylum

______.
 answer, Chordata.

16. The earliest function of the water vascular system of echinoderms

was probably locomotion.
answer, False.

17. Even though modern echinoderm adults are pentaradially

symmetrical, ancestral echinoderms were probably bilaterally
symmetrical.
answer, True

18. Sea stars are monoecious, and external fertilization results in the
formation of bipinaria and brachiolaria larvae that crawl on the ocean
floor.
answer, False.

19. Members of the class Holothuroidea possess interlocking ossicles

that form a test.
answer, False.

20. The fact that most modern echinoderms are predators or scavengers
means that ancestral echinoderms were also predators or scavengers.
answer, False.

21. The ophiopluteus is a planktonic larval stage produced by members

of the class Holothuroidea.
answer, False.

22. The tentacles of a sea cucumber are used in feeding and branch from
radial canals of the water vascular system.
answer, False.

23. A brittle star, if grasped by an arm, may contract muscles that causes
the arm to be severed. This process is called autotomy.
 answer, True

24. The presence of suckers on the tube feet of many echinoderms is a

derived character that was probably associated with a change from a
sedentary, filter-feeding lifestyle to a more active existence.
answer, True

25. All crinoids are attached permanently to the substrate by a stalk of

ossicles.
answer, False.
Chapter 26 - Hemichordata and Invertebrate Chordates

1. 1. Acorn worms are members of the class ______.

answer, Enteropneusta.

2. 2. All members of the class Enteropneusta share the following

characteristic with the Chordata.
answer, pharyngeal slits.

3. 3. Members of the class ______ use ciliated tentacles in filter feeding;

usually live in secreted tubes in asexually produced colonies; and
possess an expanded, shieldlike proboscis. They live in deep oceanic
water of the Southern Hemisphere.
answer,. Pterobranchia

4. 4. All of the following are characteristics of members of the phylum

Chordata EXCEPT one. Select the exception.
a. endostyle or thyroid gland
b. complete digestive tract
c. dorsal contractile blood vessel or heart
d. postanal tail
answer, dorsal contractile blood vessel or heart.

5. 5. All of the following are unique to members of the phylum Chordata

EXCEPT one. Select the exception.
a. notochord
b. pharyngeal slits
c. ventral nerve cord
d. postanal tail
answer, ventral nerve cord

6. 6. Tunicates or sea squirts are members of the chordate subphylum

______.
 answer, Urochordata

7. 7. All of the following are characteristics of tunicates EXCEPT one.

Select the exception.
a. enlarged pharynx with pharyngeal slits
b. oral and atrial siphons
c. secreted tunic containing proteins, salts, and cellulose
d. oral cirri
answer, oral cirri

8. 8. Which of the following chordate structures is a mucus-secreting,

ciliated groove that is used for trapping food particles during filter
feeding?
answer, endostyle

9. 9. The thyroid gland of humans is homologous to the ______ of

members of the subphylum Cephalochordata.
answer,endostyle

10. 10. Lancelets are members of the chordate subphylum ______.

answer, Cephalochordata

11. 11. All of the following are true of lancelets EXCEPT one. Select the
exception.
a. They are dioecious, and external fertilization results in free-
swimming larvae.
b. The body wall forms a large atrium around the pharynx.
c. They are relatively weak swimmers and spend most of their time
partly buried in a filter-feeding position.
d. Their notochord is restricted to the tail region.
answer, Their notochord is restricted to the tail region.
12. 12. Which of the following is an opening to the outside of the body
of a cephalochordate through which water exits the body after passing
through pharyngeal slits?
a. oral siphon
b. atrial siphon
c. atriopore
d. anus
answer, atriopore

13. 13. The development of sexual maturity in a larval body form is

called ______.
answer, paedomorphosis

14. 14. Which of the following characters can be used to distinguish

Urochordata from all other chordates?
answer,. pharyngeal basket

15. 15. Paedomorphosis may help explain the evolutionary origin of the
______ from the ______.
answer, motile chordates/ sessile ancestors

16. 16. Animals in the phyla Hemichordata and Chordata share

protostomate characteristics with echinoderms.
answer, False

17. 17. A tornaria larva is planktonic. As it matures, it settles to the

substrate and grows into an adult pterobranch.
answer, False

18. 18. The pharyngeal slits were used by earliest chordates for gas
exchange. In many later chordates, they have become adapted for filter
feeding.
answer, False
19. 19. Larval tunicates are planktonic and tadpolelike. Even though the
adult tunicates are initially difficult to recognize as members of the
phylum Chordata, the larvae possess all four unique chordate
characteristics.
answer, True

20. 20. The notochord of members of the subphylum Cephalochordata is

unique in that it is partly composed of muscle cells and is somewhat
contractile.
answer, True

21. 21. Planktonic tunicates may occur in colonies that are commonly 10
meters long.
answer, True

22. 22. The oral siphon of a tunicate carries water, undigested food
wastes, and gametes out of the tunicate's body.
answer, True

23. 23. The atrium of cephalochordates is a diverticulum off the gut that
extends anteriorly. It ends blindly and secretes digestive enzymes.
answer, False

24. 24. An endoskeleton containing a cranium and enlargement of the

neural tube to form a brain are synapomorphic characters for members
of the subphylum Vertebrata.
answer, True

25. 25. The notochord, postanal tail, and endostyle or thyroid gland are
important characters that distinguish the Hemichordata and Chordata.
answer, True
Chapter 27 - The Fishes: Vertebrate Success in Water

1. Members of the vertebrate class ______ include the hagfishes.

answer,. Myxini

2. All of the following are synapomorphic characters that

distinguish members of the superclasses Agnatha and
Gnathostomata EXCEPT one. Select the exception.
a. paired appendages
b. vertebrae present
c. jaws
d. three semicircular canals
answer, vertebrae present.

3. Members of the vertebrate class ______ include the sharks, skates,

and rays.
answer, Chondrichthyes.

4. The class ______ is made of two subclasses: Actinopterygii (the ray-

finned fishes) and Sarcopterygii (the lobe-finned fishes).
answer, Osteichthyes.

5. Ammocoete larvae would be found ______.

answer, partially buried, filter feeding in a freshwater stream
or river.

6. Adult members of the class Myxini _____.

answer, are scavengers, feeding on dead and dying fish

7. Members of which of the following vertebrate subclasses is believed

to have given rise to ancient amphibians?
answer, Sarcopterygii.
8. A vascular network that allows gases to move from the blood stream
into a fish's swim bladder is called the ______.
answer, rete mirabile.

9. Gases are reabsorbed into the blood stream from a swim bladder at the
______.
answer, ovale.

10. The lateral line system may function in all of the following EXCEPT
one. Select the exception.
a. detecting water currents
b. detecting predators or prey that may be causing water movements
c. buoyancy regulation
d. detecting low-frequency sounds
answer, buoyancy regulation.

11. Blood flows from the conus ateriosus of the heart of a fish toward
the ______.
answer, gills

12. All of the following are adaptations of freshwater fish for

osmoregulation EXCEPT one. Select the exception.
a. excreting a hypotonic urine
b. actively transporting salts out of the blood at the gills
c. not drinking water
d. nephrons with large glomeruli and short tubule systems
answer, actively transporting salts out of the blood at the gills.

13. Most fishes excrete ______ as the primary nitrogenous byproduct of

protein metabolism.
answer, ammonia

14. Diadromous fishes _____.

answer, migrate between freshwater and marine
environments.

15. ______ are thought to be a part of the evolutionary lineage leading to

terrestrial vertebrates.
answer, Rhipidistian fishes

16. Blood and water move in opposite directions on either side of a gill
lamellar epithelium. This movement provides very efficient gas
exchange between blood and water and is called a countercurrent
exchange mechanism.
answer, True

17. Members of the superclass Agnatha are entirely extinct.

answer, False.

18. Sharks, skates, and rays regulate buoyancy using a swim bladder
with a pneumatic duct connected to the esophagus.
answer, False.

19. All members of the class Chondrichthyes possess placoid scales and
lack an operculum.
answer, False

20. Lungfishes are probably the closest living fish relative of terrestrial
vertebrates.
answer, False.

21. Blood flows through the heart of a fish in the following sequence:
conus arteriosus, ventricle, atrium, sinus venosus, ventral aorta.
answer, False.
22. All fishes have a heart with a single, undivided ventricle and a
single, undivided atrium
. answer, False.

23. Some elasmobranchs and open ocean fishes force water over their
gills by holding their mouth open while swimming. This method of gill
ventilation is called ram ventilation.
answer, True

24. Most zoologists believe that swim bladders, like those found in
modern bony fishes, were the forerunner of lungs.
answer, False.

25. The tissues of a shark are isosmotic with seawater because of the
accumulation of urea in body tissues.
answer, True
Chapter 28 - Amphibians: The First Terrestrial Vertebrates

1. All of the following are members of the amniote lineage EXCEPT

one. Select the exception.
a. amphibians
b. reptiles
c. birds
d. mammals
answer, amphibians

2. Salamanders are members of the order _____.

answer, Caudata

3. Caecilians are members of the order _____.

answer, Gymnophiona.

4. Members of the order _____ are wormlike burrowers.

answer, Gymnophiona.

5. Members of the order ______ have caudal vertebrae fused into a

urostyle.
answer, Anura.

6. The major component of the diet of most amphibians is ______.

answer, arthropods.

7. Members of which of the following groups are most closely related to

the salamanders?
answer, Gymnophiona.

8. Which of the following regions of the skeleton of an amphibian is the

point of attachment of the hind limbs to the vertebral column?
answer, sacral.
9. ______ are processes on trunk vertebrae of amphibians. They provide
support when an amphibian is out of the water and prevent twisting of
the vertebral column.
answer, zygapophyses.

10. All of the following are true of the heart of amphibians EXCEPT
one. Select the exception.
a. It consists of a sinus venosus, two atria, a ventricle, and a
conus arteriosus.
b. The atria are completely separated from each other.
c. Blood entering the right side of the heart is often as well
oxygenated as blood leaving the heart.
d. There is complete separation of oxygenated and less
oxygenated blood throughout the heart.
answer, There is complete separation of oxygenated and less
oxygenated blood throughout the heart.

11. The ______ of the heart directs blood away from the pulmonary
circulation when a frog is burrowed into the mud at the bottom of a
pond.
answer, spiral valve

12. A portion of the gas exchange in amphibians occurs across the moist
surfaces of the mouth and pharynx. This process is called ______.
Your response: a. buccopharyngeal respiration

13. Unlike fishes, the amphibian ear includes a/an ______.

answer, middle ear and tympanic membrane.

14. Low frequency warning sounds are transmitted to the inner ear of
amphibians through the ______.
answer, operculum.

15. All but one of the following are used by some adult amphibians
when they are on land to conserve water or replace lost water. Select the
exception.
answer, intentional drinking.

16. The nonamniote lineage is mostly extinct; however, the reptiles,

birds, and mammals are modern-day representatives of this lineage.
answer, False.

17. Members of the order Anura possess a tongue that is attached at the
anterior margin of the jaw and have glands on the tongue that exude
sticky secretions. Their tongue is used in a flip-and-grab feeding
mechanism.
answer, True

18. Most salamanders have internal fertilization. A male deposits a

spermatophore, which is picked up and stored by a female. Eggs are
fertilized as they are deposited by the female.
answer, True

19. Dendrobatid (poison arrow) frogs are unusual amphibians because

they alone possess noxious secretions in the skin that help ward off
potential predators.
answer, False.

20. In adult amphibians, embryonic aortic arch VI becomes pulmonary

arteries.
answer, True

21. Vision is a very important sense for most amphibians because they
are primarily sight feeders.
answer, True
22. The upper eyelid of an amphibian forms a transparent membrane that
cleans and protects the eye. This membrane is called the nictitating
membrane.
answer, False.

23. Metamorphosis of amphibians is solely controlled by the pituitary

gland.
answer, False.

24. At higher environmental temperatures, most gas exchange occurs

across the skin of amphibians.
answer, False.

25. Amphibians were the first vertebrates to possess a cervical vertebra.

This vertebra increases the flexibility of the vertebral column.
answer, True
Chapter 29 - Reptiles: The First Amniotes

1. The major synapomorphy that distinguishes reptiles, birds, and

mammals from other tetrapods is ______.
answer, Amniotic egg

2. The closest living reptilian relatives of the dinosaurs are the _____.
answer, Crocodilia.

3. A synapsid skull was characteristic of a group of reptiles called

therapsids. This group gave rise to ______.
answer, mammals.

4. Cladistic analysis of the amniote lineage indicates that the class

Reptilia should probably be abandoned because of the close relationship
between the birds and the _____.
answer, Archosauria.

5. The lizards and snakes belong to the order ______.

answer, Squamata.

6. The turtles belong to the order ______.

answer, Testudines

7. The dorsal portion of the shell of a turtle is the _____.

answer, carapace.

8. A kind of bone that makes up long bones of a vertebrate and has a

cartilaginous stage in development is called _____.
answer, endochondral bone.

9. Three of the following are true of scales of a fish. One of the

following is true of scales of a reptile. Select the statement that is true of
reptilian scales.
answer, They form in the epidermis of the skin.
10. The evolution of this group has resulted in the reduction or loss of
the left lung and displacement of the gallbladder, the right kidney and
often the gonads.
answer, snakes.

11. The ______ allows an alligator to breath when the mouth is full of
water or food.
answer, secondary palate

12. All of the following statements regarding reptile hearts are true
EXCEPT one. Select the exception.
a. The ventricle is partially divided in reptiles other than the
crocodiles.
b. The conus arteriosus leads to the ventral aorta.
c. The sinus venosus is a functional chamber only in the turtles.
d. Two atria are present
answer, The conus arteriosus leads to the ventral aorta.

13. Most reptiles excrete ______ as their primary nitrogenous waste

product.
answer, uric acid.

14. _____ of a vipers' skull allows these snakes to strike at any size prey,
even those much larger than their mouth opening.
answer, Hinged maxillary bones.

15. The archosaur lineage of reptiles is shared with members of the class
______.
answer, Aves.

16. The crocodiles, birds, snakes, and lizards are all members of the
diapsid lineage.
answer, True
17. Members of the subclass Anapsida lack openings in the temporal
region of the skull and include the mammal-like reptiles and the
mammals.
answer, False.

18. The Cretaceous/Tertiary boundary is marked by an evolutionary

explosion that resulted in the adaptive radiation of reptiles.
answer, False.

19. A secondary palate, first seen in reptiles, is a plate of bone that

separates the nasal passages from the mouth cavity.
answer, True

20. Loosely joined the upper and lower jaws, loosely joined skull bones,
a moveable upper jaw, and a glottis that is positioned near the front of
the mouth are all adaptations of snakes for swallowing prey.
answer, True

21. Olfactory receptors located in pouches that open through the

secondary palate of many reptiles are called pit organs.
answer, False.

22. Snakes possess a well developed middle ear cavity, auditory tube,
and tympanic membrane. All of these structures give snakes a sensitive
apparatus for detecting air-borne vibrations.
answer, False.

23. Many reptiles store water in lymphatic spaces under the skin and in
the urinary bladder. Many lizards possess salt glands below the eyes for
ridding the body of excess salt.
answer, True

24. Most reptiles use internal heat sources for temperature regulation and
are, therefore, endotherms.
answer, False.
25. The median (parietal) eye of reptiles is an outgrowth of the
forebrain. When it is present, it is used as a third, image-forming sensory
receptor.
answer, False.

Chapter 30 - Birds: Feathers, Flight, and Endothermy

1. All of the following are characteristics of members of the class Aves

EXCEPT one. Select the exception.
a. ectothermy
b. vertebral column modified for flight
c. bones lightened by numerous air spaces
d. feathers
answer, ectothermy

2. Fossils of this ancient bird indicate that slow, hovering, and highly
maneuverable flight evolved at least 115 million years ago.
answer, Eoalulavis.

3. 150 million year old fossils of this ancient bird have been found in
Germany. They show a clavicle for the attachment of wing muscles, but
other sites for flight muscle attachment were less developed. These
observations indicate that this bird was capable of gliding, but not long
distance, flight.
answer, Archaeopteryx

4. Feathers develop from the ______ of the skin.

answer, epidermis

5. Feathers of a bird that cover the body, wings, and tail are called
______ feathers.
answer, contour
6. Feathers of a bird that have sensory functions are called ______
feathers.
answer, filoplume.
7. Hamuli branch from the ______ of a contour feather and keep these
feathers firm and smooth.
answer, barbule.

8. The fusion of posterior thoracic, lumbar, and sacral vertebrae into a

______ helps a bird maintain proper flight posture.
answer, synsacrum.

9. The fusion of posterior caudal vertebrae into a ______ supports tail

feathers that are important in steering during flight.
answer, pygostyle

10. The alula is a group of small feathers on the wing that ______.
answer, is elevated to reduce turbulence along the upper
surface of the wing during hovering, takeoff, and landing.

11. The portion of the digestive tract of a pigeon that produces "pigeon's
milk" used in feeding young is the ______.
answer, crop.

12. A portion of the digestive tract of a bird that is a modification of the

stomach and secretes gastric juices that initiate digestion is the ______.
answer, proventriculus.
13. All of the following statements regarding lung ventilation and gas
exchange are true EXCEPT one. Select the exception.
a. Gas exchange occurs in blind-ending sacs called alveoli.
b. Abdominal and thoracic air sacs are compressed by body
muscles to move air through the respiratory system.
c. Two respiratory cycles are required to move a volume of air
 through the respiratory system.
d. Birds have a greater rate of oxygen consumption than any
other vertebrate
answer, Gas exchange occurs in blind-ending sacs called
alveoli.

14. In some birds, for example spotted sandpipers, males establish nest
sites. A female will mate with more than one male and lay a clutch of
eggs in each male's nest. The males then care for the eggs. This
reproductive process is called ______.
answer, polyandry.

15. A reproductive process called ______ is common among birds when

resources are widely and evenly distributed. One parent often incubates
and protects the eggs or chicks while the other parent searches for food.
answer, monogamy

16. The anterior margin of a bird's wing is thicker than the posterior
margin. The upper surface of the wing is slightly convex. As air passes
over the wing, a low pressure area is created under the wing and creates
lift needed for flight.
answer, False.

17. Birds dissipate excess heat through perspiration from sweat glands.
answer, False.

18. In vertebrate evolution, the sinus venosus has decreased in size. In

the birds, the sinus venosus is reduced to a patch of pacemaker tissue in
the right atrium of the heart.
answer, True

19. Ucinate processes on the ribs of birds strengthen the rib cage. They
are unique to members of the class Aves.
answer, False.
20. The crop is a diverticulum of the stomach of a bird and is used to
store and abrade food. It allows birds to feed on abundant resources
quickly and then retreat to a safe location for digestion.
answer, False.

21. A volume of air is inspired by a bird. After the next inspiration the
first volume of air would be in the thoracic air sacs of the bird.
answer, True

22. A volume of air is inspired by a bird. After the next expiration the
volume of air would be in the abdominal air sacs of the bird.
answer, False.

23. Birds have two foveae per eye. The search fovea gives birds good
monocular vision. The pursuit fovea gives birds binocular vision and
depth perception.
answer, True

24. The major center for integration of sensory information in the brain
of a bird is a region of gray matter in the midbrain called the optic lobes.
answer, False.

25. Altricial chicks, like those of kildeer, are alert and lively shortly after
hatching.
answer, False.
Chapter 31 - Mammals: Specialized Teeth, Endothermy, Hair, and
Viviparity

1. 1. All of the following are characteristics of members of the class

Mammalia EXCEPT one. Select the exception.
a. mammary glands
b. hair
c. homodont teeth
d. sweat, sebaceous, and scent glands
answer, homodont teeth

2. 2. Members of the order Chiroptera include the ______.

answer, bats

3. 3. Members of the order Cetacea include the ______.

answer, whales

4. 4. Members of the order Perissodactyla include the ______.

answer, horses and zebras

5. 5. The echidna and the duck-billed platypus are members of the

infraclass ______.
answer, Ornithodelphia

6. 6. Members of the infraclass Ornithodelphia are characterized by

______.
answer, oviparous development and a cloaca

7. 7. Which of the following glands are associated with hair follicles and
function to lubricate and waterproof the skin?
answer, sebaceous glands
8. 8. Which of the following kinds of mammal teeth are usually
modified for gnawing or nipping?
answer, incisors

9. 9. A dental formula of 2.1.2.3/2.1.2.3 indicates that this mammal has

___ molars.
answer, 3

10. 10. All of the following statements are true of horns EXCEPT one.
One is true of antlers. Select the statement that is true of antlers.
answer, They are made of rapidly growing bone and are shed
and regrown each year.

11. 11. In the fetal circulation, blood in the ______ is most highly
oxygenated.
answer, umbilical vein

12. 12. In the adult circulation, blood in the ______ is most highly
oxygenated.
answer, pulmonary vein

13. 13. A diaphragm is present in ______.

answer, mammals only

14. 14. The ability of the mammalian kidney to produce urine that is
more concentrated with urea and salts than the blood is a result of the
function of the ______.
answer, loop of the nephron

15. 15. The ______ is a time during which the female is behaviorally
and physiologically receptive to the male.
answer, estrus cycle
16. 16. One source of evidence that the mammals evolved in the
archosaur branch of the amniote lineage is the fact that crocodilians and
mammals both possess a secondary palate.
answer, False

17. 17. Another source of evidence that the mammals evolved in the
archosaur branch of the amniote lineage is the fact that both birds and
mammals have four, completely separated, heart chambers.
answer, False

18. 18. The presence of a secondary palate in crocodiles and mammals

and completely separated heart chambers in birds and mammals are
examples of convergent evolution.
answer, True

19. 19. Small size, well developed olfactory and auditory senses, and
lack of color vision in most mammals suggests that early mammals were
nocturnal.
answer, True

20. 20. Sudoriferous glands are found around the face, feet, or anus of
many mammals. They secrete pheromones involved with defense,
species and sex recognition, and territorial behavior.
answer, False

21. 21. A cecum is found in horses, rabbits, and many rodents. It is a

fermentation pouch at the junction of the large and small intestines
where microorganisms aid in cellulose digestion.
answer, True

22. 22. Hibernation is a period of winter inactivity in which the

hypothalamus of the brain slows the metabolic, heart, and respiratory
rates. It is common in rodents, bats, and bears.
answer, False
23. 23. Color vision is more common in reptiles and birds than it is in
the mammals.
answer, True

24. 24. Embryonic diapause occurs in bats. Coitus occurs in the autumn,
but fertilization is delayed until spring. Females store viable sperm for
about two months.
answer, False

25. 25. All mammals have a placenta through which young are
nourished for at least a portion of their development. The maternal
bloodstream, not yolk, supplies nutrients.
answer, False

Chapter 32- Protection, Support, Movement

1. The integument of most multicellular invertebrates consists of a

answer, single layer of cells.

2. Animals have three types of skeletons. Which of the following is not

one of the three types?
answer, fluid exoskeleton.

3. The supportive tissue in the vertebrate skeleton consists of

a. cartilage
b. bone
c. muscle
answer, both a and b.

4. The outer protein coat of a protozoan is called the

answer, pellicle.

5. The outer layer of flukes and tapeworms is the __________

 answer, tegument

6. __________ is the vertebrate integument.

answer, Skin.

7. Where would you find skin that is multilayered and contains mucous
and sensory cells, and placoid scales called denticles.
answer, In the skin of cartlaginous fishes.

8. The notable features of mammalian skin are

a. hair.
b. a greater variety of epidermal glands than in any other
vertebrate class.
c. a highly stratified, cornified epidermis.
answer, all of the above (a-c).

9. Modifications of the epidermis include

a. nails.
b. hair.
c. horns
answer, all of the above (a-c).

10. What type of skeleton would you find in earthworms and sea
anemones?
answer, fluid hydrostatic

11. What type of skeleton would you find in an arthropod?

answer, endoskeleton.

12. Cartilage is a major supportive tissue. It makes up the major skeletal

component in all of the following except
answer, humans.
13. With the exception of the __________, locomotor cilia and flagella
occur in every animal phyla.
answer, arthropods.

14. The predominant muscle type in many invertebrates is __________

answer, smooth.

15. Flatworms, some cnidarians, and the gastropod molluscs move by

means of waves of activity in the muscular system that are applied to the
substrate. This type of movement is called __________.
answer, pedal locomotion

16. As a zoologist, you would look for looping movement in

__________.
answer, leeches.

17. The functional unit in a skeletal muscle is called a __________.

answer, sarcomere.

18. Nerves control skeletal muscle contraction.

answer, True

19. The power behind muscular movements in both invertebrates and

vertebrates is connective tissue.
answer, False.

20. Amoeboid movement does not involve muscles.

answer, True

21. The most familiar endoskeletons, both cartilaginous and bony, first
appeared in the vertebrates.
answer, True
22. The endoskeletons of sponges consist of mineral spicules.
answer, True

23. Animals have three types of skeletons: hydrostatic skeletons,

exoskeletons, and endoskeletons.
answer, True

24. The tegument is the external covering of an animal.

answer, False.

25. Skin is the vertebrate integument.

answer, True
Chapter 33- Communication I: Nerves

1. All of the following are functions of the nervous system except

__________.
answer, movement.

2. The evolution of the nervous system in invertebrates has led to

elaboration of organized nerve cords and centralization of responses in
the __________ portion of the animal.
answer, anterior.

3. Which of the following parts of a neuron contains a nucleus?

answer, cell body.

4. The concentration of ions on the two sides of a nerve membrane is

due primary to
answer, the sodium-potassium ATPase pump.

5. A stimulus that is strong enough to initiate a nerve impulse is called

the
answer, threshold stimulus.

6. Conduction of an action potential along myelinated nerve fibers is

known as __________.
answer, saltatory conduction

7. A neurotransmitter changes the _________ in the plasma membrane

of the receptive segment of the postsynaptic cell, creating an action
potential in that cell.
answer, resting potential.

8. Which of the following does not have the simplest form of nervous
system organization?
Your response: a. protozoa
9. Which of the following characterize the evolution of the vertebrate
nervous system?
a. bilateral symmetry
b. a notocord
c. a tubular nerve cord
answer, all of the above (a-c).

10. The notocord first appeared in __________.

answer, a. marine chordates

11. Which of the following is not part of the forebrain in a vertebrate?

answer, pons.

12. Which of the following is not part of the vertebrate hindbrain?

answer, optic tectum.

13. How many pairs of cranial nerves are found in reptiles, birds, and
mammals?
answer, 12.

14. Which of the following is responsible for the "fight-or-flight"

response?
answer, The sympathetic nervous system.

15. The functional unit of the nervous system is the __________.

answer, neuron.

16. The language (signal) of the neuron is the __________.

a. nerve impulse
b. action potential
c. neurotransmitter
answer, both a and b.
17. Which of the following is not a sensory nerve?
answer, vestibulocochlear.

18. Neurons have two important properties: excitability and

conductivity.
answer, True

19. Neuronal activity is transmitted between cells at the synapse.

answer, True

20. The vertebrate nervous system has two main divisions.

answer, True

21. The number of spinal nerves in an animal is not directly related too
the number of segments in the trunk or tail of a vertebrate.
answer, False.

22. The autonomic nervous system of vertebrates consists of three

antagonistic parts.
answer, False.

23. The midbrain is the thickened region of gray matter that integrates
visual and auditory signals.
answer, True

24. In mammals, the outermost part of the cerebrum, called the cerebral
cortex, progressively decreased in size and complexity from lampreys to
birds and mammals.
answer, False.

25. Nervous systems evolved through the gradual layering of additional

nervous tissue over reflex pathways of more ancient origin.
answer, True
Chapter 34- Communication II: Senses

1. Any form of energy an animal can detect with its receptors is called a
__________.
answer, stimulus.

2. Which of the following receptors detects a change in pressure?

answer, baroreceptors.

3. Statocysts, as found in various gastropods, cephalopods, and

crustaceans, are a good example of a __________.
answer, georeceptor.

4. True phonoreceptors that respond to sound have been demonstrated

only in __________.
answer, insects, arachnids, and centipedes

5. Certain flagellated protozoa (e.g., Euglena) contain bright red

photoreceptor granules called the __________.
answer, stigma.

6. Squid and octopuses have __________.

answer, complex camera eyes.

7. Web-building spiders have __________ that can sense struggling prey

in webs through vibrations of the web threads.
answer, tactile receptors.

8. Which of the following evolved from the lateral line system of fishes?
a. organs for equilibrium
b. organs for gravity detection
c. organs for audition
 answer, all of the above (a-c).

9. A mechanoreceptor would respond to all of the following except:

answer, sight.

10. The tympanium first evolved in

answer, amphibians.

11. How many divisions are present in the human ear?

answer, three.

12. Pain receptors are also called __________.

answer,, nociceptors.

13. Jacobson's organs function in the

answer, detection of odors.

14. The process of focusing light rays precisely on the retina is called
__________.
answer, accommodation.

15. Which of the following pigments is involved in the production of a

generator potential with respect to light?
answer, rhodopsin.

16. Taste buds are found on the skin in __________ and __________.
answer, fishes and amphibians

17. Which of the following is the primary sense that vertebrates use?
answer, vision.

18. The sense of smell is due to olfactory neurons in the roof of the
vertebrate nasal cavity.
answer, True.
19. The receptors for taste (gustation) are chemoreceptors on the body
surface of an animal or in the mouth and throat.
answer, True

20. Bats, shrews, whales, and fishes can determine distance and depth by
sonar.
answer, False.

21. Most reptiles have heat-sensitive pit organs on each side of the face.
answer, False.

22. The lateral-line system for electrical sensing is in the head area of
most fishes, some amphibians, and the platypus.
answer, True

23. Invertebrate and vertebrate sensory receptors (organs) have evolved

in ways that relate to the environment in which they must function.
answer, True

24. A stimulus is any form of energy an animal can detect with its
receptors.
answer, True

25. Receptors transduce energy from one form to another.

answer, True
Chapter 35- Communication III: The Endocrine System and
Chemical Messengers

1. Chemical messengers are involved in

a. communication.
b. in maintaining homeostasis in an animal's body.
c. the body's response to various stimuli.

answer, all of the above (a-c).

2. Which of the following is not a major endocrine gland in vertebrates?

answer, pituitary.

3. Those chemicals that are released to the exterior of one animal and
affect the behavior of another animal are called
answer, pheromones.

4. Which of the following is not a category of hormone?

answer, carbohydrates

5. The fixed-membrane receptor mechanism for hormone action

involves
answer, proteins and amines.

6. The mobile-receptor mechanism for hormone action involves

answer, steroids

7. True hormones were first identified in

answer, molluscs.

8. With respect to invertebrates, which of the following has the most

advanced endocrine system?
answer, arthropods.
9. Frog metamorphosis is regulated by __________ hormones.
answer, thyroid.

10. In vertebrates, chromaffin tissue is associated with the

answer, reproductive system.

11. Which of the following is not produced by the anterior lobe of the
pituitary gland?
answer, MSH.

12. Which of the following is not produced by the hypothalamus?

answer, calcitonin.

13. Epinephrine or adrenaline is produced by the __________ gland(s).

answer, adrenal

14. Which of the following glands diminishes in size as a vertebrate

ages?
answer, thymus.

15. All of the following are hormones of the digestive tract except
__________.
a. CCK
b. gastrin
c. secretin
d. atriopeptin
answer, atriopeptin.

16. In vertebrates, the endocrine control center is found in the

answer, both hypothalamus and pituitary.

17. The kidneys produce the hormone __________.

answer, erythropoietin
18. Hormones modify the biochemical activity of a target cell or tissue.
answer, True

19. A hormone is a specialized chemical messenger that an endocrine

gland or tissue produces and secretes.
answer, True

20. The pancreas produces several hormones that hep regulate

reproductive functions.
answer, False

21. The adrenal medulla is under endocrine control.

answer, False.

22. Zoologist know more about the endocrine system of invertebrates

that of any other animal group.
answer, False

23. Jawed fishes and primitive tetrapods have ulimobranchial glands.

answer, True

24. In insects, hormones play a major role in growth, maturation, and

reproduction.
answer, True

25. Classical endocrine glands have been identified in nematodes.

answer, False.
Chapter 36- Circulation, Immunity, and Gas Exchange

1. The transport system found in protozoa that moves gases is

answer, simple diffusion.

2. Coelomic fluid is used to transport gases in

a. rotifers.
b. gastrotrichs.
c. nematodes.
answer, all of the above (a-c).

3. The annelids, such as the earthworm, have an __________ circulatory

system.
answer,. closed

4. All of the following are granulocytes except

a. eosinophils.
b. basophils.
c. neutrophils.
d. monocytes.
answer, monocytes.

5. Which of the following is not a lymphocyte?

answer,. monocyte

6. A bony fish has a __________ chambered heart.

answer, two.

7. A four chambered heart is first seen in

answer, crocodilians.
8. The pacemaker of a mammalian heart is the
answer, SA node.

9. All of the following are nonspecific defenses except

a. biological barriers.
b. chemical barriers.
c. acquired immunity.
d. physical barriers.
answer, acquired immunity.

10. The type of immunity produced by antibodies acquired from

immunization with a vaccine is termed
answer, artificial active immunity.

11. The reason why tissue and organ transplants are rejected in birds and
mammals is due to
answer,. the action of NK cells.

12. Most aquatic invertebrates carry out gas exchange

answer, by gills.

13. Arachnids possess

a. trachea.
b. books lungs.
answer, both a and b.

14. Land snails breath by way of

answer, pulmonate lungs.

15. Amphibians and some reptiles breath by

a. cutaneous body surface exchange.
b. external filamentous gills.
c. internal lamellar gills
answer, all of the above.
16. The type of breathing that allows an organism to exchange gases
simultaneously with both air and water is termed
answer, bimodal breathing.

17. Which of the following has the greatest rate of oxygen consumption?
answer, birds.

18. Chlorocruorin is green when associated with low oxygen

concentrations and bright red when associated with high oxygen
concentrations.
answer, True

19. Hemoglobulin is the most commonly occurring respiratory pigment

in molluscs and certain crustaceans.
answer, False.

20. Oxygen and carbon dioxide always diffuse from areas of low
concentration to areas of high concentration.
answer, False.

21. Animals that respire anaerobically need a constant supply of oxygen.

answer, False.

22. Acquired immunity can be either active or passive.

answer, True

23. The lymphatic system consists of one-way vessels that help return
fluids and proteins through a closed system of vessels.
answer, True

24. Open circulatory systems generally circulate blood and closed

systems circulate hemolymph.
 answer, False

25. As animals became larger and acquired higher metabolic rates,

simple diffusion became increasingly inadequate as a means of
delivering oxygen to the tissues.
answer, True

Chapter 37- Nutrition and Digestion

1. The nutrition of an animal includes

a. the process of taking in food.
b. the process of digesting food.
c. the processes of absorbing and storing food
answer, all of the above (a-c).

2. Most higher invertebrates (e.g., insects) utilize __________ that

allows them to exploit different food sources.
answer, variations in extracellular digestion.

3. The development of an anus and complete digestive tract first

occurred in the
answer, aschelminths.

4. Bats, that eat primarily arthropods, are called

answer, heterotrophs.

5. A vertebrate, such as yourself, can extract approximately __________

calories per gram of carbohydrate.
answer, 8.

6. In animals, which of the following would be categorized as a trace

mineral?
 answer, copper

7. Which of the following is not a fat soluble vitamin?

answer, B12.

8. Deposit feeding occurs in

a. earthworms.
b. some snails.
c. sea urchins.
answer, all of the above (a-c).

9. Which of the following spends the most time eating?

. answer, herbivores

10. Digestion involves

a. feeding.
b. extracellular digestion.
c. intracellular digestion
answer, all of the above (a-c)

11. Salivary glands are found in all of the following except

answer,fishes and birds.

12. Gizzards are found in all of the following except

answer,mammals.

13. All of the following are ruminant animals except

answer, elephants.

14. In mammals, HCl is secreted by __________ cells.

answer, parietal.

15. All of the following are functions of the vertebrate stomach except
 Your response: a. stores and mixes the food bolus received from
the esophagus.
answer, begins carbohydrate digestion.

16. The stomach contains __________ glands.

answer, both gastric and mucous.

17. Which of the following is necessary for the emulsification of fats?

answer,. bile

18. Digestion is the mechanical and chemical breakdown of food into

smaller particles that the individual cells of an animal can absorb.
answer, True

19. Losses of biosynthetic abilities have marked much of animal

evolution.
answer, True

20. Only a few protists and animals can absorb nutrients directly from
their external environment.
answer, True

21. The evolution and structure of the digestive system in various

invertebrates and vertebrates reflects their eating habits, their rate of
metabolism, and their body size.
answer, True

22. Most digestion occurs in the ileal portion of the small intestine.
answer, False.

23. The large intestine has a lot of digestive and absorptive activities.
answer, False.

24. The appendix represents the evolutionary remains of a large

intestine.
 answer, False.

25. A rabbit has a very small cecum.

answer, False.
Chapter 38- Temperature and Body Fluid Regulation

1. __________ is the loss of heat from a surface as water molecules

escape in the form of a gas.
answer, Evaporation.

2. Animals cope with temperature fluctuations by

a. occupying a place in the environment where the temperature
remains constant and compatible with their physiological
processes.
b. adapting their physiological processes to the range of
temperatures in which the animals are capable of living.
c. Generating heat and trapping heat internally to maintain a
constant body temperature despite fluctuations in the external
environment temperature.
answer, all of the above (a-c).

3. In general, reptiles, fishes, and amphibians are __________.

answer, ectotherms.

4. At night, hummingbirds enter a sleep like state called __________.

answer, daily torpor.

5. In order to lose heat, birds

a. pant.
b. utilize gular flutter.
c. sleep.
answer, both a and b.

6. The hormonal triggering of heat production is called __________.

answer, nonshivering thermogenesis

7. A specialized type of fat found in newborn mammals, in mammals

that live in cold climates, and in mammals that hibernate, is called
__________ fat.
answer, brown

8. Badgers, bears, and opossums __________ during winter months.

answer, enter prolonged sleep.

9. If the osmotic concentration of the body fluids of an animal equals

that of the medium in which an animal is living, the animals is termed an
__________.
answer, osmoconformer.

10. Contractile vacuoles would be found in

answer, protozoa and sponges.

11. Metanephridia
a. open to the outside of an animal.
b. open internally to the body fluids.
c. are multicellular.
answer, all of the above (a-c).

12. Antennal or green glands are found in __________.

answer, crayfish and crabs

13. Where would you look for coxal glands.

answer, In spiders, scorpions, ticks, and mites.

14. The __________ appears only briefly in many vertebrate embryos.

answer, pronephros

15. Most teleost fishes have __________ kidneys.

answer, mesonephric.
16. Reptiles, birds, and mammals all possess _________ kidneys.
answer, metanephric.

17. The functional unit of the metanephric kidney is the __________.

answer, nephron.

18. Ectotherms generally obtain heat from their environment.

answer, True

19. Heterotherms have a relatively constant body temperature.

answer, False.

20. Thermogenesis involves mainly shivering, enzymatic activity, brown

fat, and high cellular metabolism.
answer, True

21. Freshwater animals tend to gain ions and lose water.

answer, False.

22. Marine animals tend to take in ions from the seawater and to lose
water.
answer, True

23. Desert and marine reptiles and birds have salt glands to remove and
secrete excess salt (NaCl).
answer, True

24. The loop of the nephron and the collecting duct are in the kidney
cortex.
answer, False.

25. Sharks and their relatives (skates and rays) have mesonephric
kidneys.
 answer, True

Chapter 39- Reproduction and Development

1. Hydra and many species of sponges reproduce by __________.

answer, budding.

2. Certain flatworms, rotifers, roundworms, insects, lobsters, some

lizards, and some fishes can reproduce without sperm and normal
fertilization. This type of asexual reproduction is termed __________.
answer, parthenogenesis.

3. __________ occurs when an animal has both functional male and

female reproductive systems.
answer, hermaphroditism.

4. When eggs are deposited outside the body of the female, this is
termed __________ reproduction.
answer, oviparous

5. The first group of vertebrates to completely abandon the aquatic

habitat and began reproducing on land were the __________.
answer, reptiles.

6. Which of the following mammals lays eggs?

a. duckbilled platypus
b. spiny anteater
c. opossums
answer, both a and b.

7. Water, fructose, vitamin C, and prostaglandins are secreted by the

__________ in mammals.
answer, seminal vesicles.
8. Which of the following hormones aids sperm maturation and
increases testosterone production.
answer,, FSH.

9. In a female mammal, which of the following hormones induce the

mammary glands to secrete and eject milk after birth?
a. prolactin
b. oxytocin
c. hCG
answer, both a and b.

10. Which of the following is not part of the menstrual cycle?

answer, blastocyst formation.

11. During the first few days of birth, a baby receives __________ from
the mother's mammary glands.
answer, colostrum.

12. The baby participates in the birth process by secreting __________.

answer, catecholamines

13. In mammalian reproduction, which of the following implants in the

endometrial lining of the uterus?
answer, blastocyst.

14. In female mammals, which of the following hormones stimulates

thickening of the uterine wall?
answer, progesterone.

15. In human females, which of the following hormones controls

pituitary secretion?
answer, GnRH.
16. Which of the following human female hormones inhibits FSH
secretion and increases LH secretion?
answer, estrogen

17. The female uterus is divided into __________ layers.

answer, three.

18. Lactation includes just milk secretion (production) by the mammary

glands.
answer, False.

19. The development of a human may be divided into prenatal and

postnatal periods.
answer, True

20. The human female is fertile for about a week each month.
answer, False.

21. Asexual reproduction relies on the fusion of haploid cells.

answer, False.

22. Sexual reproductive strategies and structures in the invertebrates are

numerous and varied.
answer, True

23. Sexual reproduction first evolved in land animals.

answer, False.

24. The reproductive roles of the human female are more complex than
those of the human male.
answer, True

25. Pregnancy is humans is arbitrarily divided into 3-month periods

called trimesters.
answer, True