Integrated Principles of Zoology 16th Edition Hickman-Keen-Larson-Roberts

Integrated Principles of Zoology 16th Edition
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Integrated Principles of Zoology 16th Edition Hickman-Keen-Larson-Roberts
Chapter 06
Organic Evolution
Multiple Choice Questions
1. Before the 18th century, theories on the origin of species are best described as
A.nonexistent.
B. simple, with early Greek philosophers seeing fossils as destroyed life forms, but not placing
them into an evolutionary concept.
C. foundational, with early Greek philosophers seeing fossils as a continuous lineage but merely
lacking the genetic understanding to explain it.
D. complete, but poorly explained in modern scientific terms until Darwin wrote more clearly.
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation

Bloom’s Level: 1. Remember
Gradable: automatic
Section: Origins of Darwinian Evolutionary Theory
Topic: Origins of Darwinian Evolutionary Theory
2. Lamarck’s theory of evolution was centered on the idea that

A. individuals with genetic variations have different survival rates.
B. species are only produced through special creation.
C. species are fixed and unchanging over time.
D. an individual organism changes during its lifetime, and these changes can be passed on to
offspring.

Gradable: automatic
3. Cutting off the legs of toads over several generations should cause the legs of their offspring to
become shorter, according to the ideas of which of these scientists?
A. Darwin
B. Lamarck
C. Mayr
D. Lyell

Bloom’s Level: 2. Understand
Gradable: automatic
4. Darwin’s theory of natural selection to explain evolution is considered _____ because it _____.
A. variational; involves descent with selection among varieties
B. variational; explains the variations of fossils
C. transformational; claims individuals can change their characteristics to produce evolution
D. transformational; involves descent with selection among varieties

Gradable: automatic
5. Lamarck’s theory explaining evolution is considered ______ because it ______.

A. variational; involves descent with selection among varieties
B. variational; explains the variations of fossils
C. transformational; claims individuals can change their characteristics to produce evolution
D. transformational; involves descent with selection among varieties

Gradable: automatic
6. As author of the book Principles of Geology, ______ presented arguments to support a theory of
geological change that the earth was subject to slow but continuous erosion and uplift, following
the laws of physics and chemistry similar to what is observed today.
A. Archbishop James Ussher
B. Jean Baptiste de Lamarck
C. Charles Darwin
D. Charles Lyell

Gradable: automatic
7. In his voyage on the H.M.S. Beagle, most of Darwin’s observations about changes in species over
time and in different environments took place in and near where?
A. North America
B. Africa
C. South America
D. Asia


Gradable: automatic
8. What is the most accurate comparison of the Galápagos Islands and the nearest continental
habitat?
A. The Galápagos Islands are relatively uniform while the mainland is highly diverse.
B. The Galápagos Islands and the mainland are essentially identical habitats which makes it an
excellent “controlled” experiment.
C. The Galápagos Islands are relatively newly formed and also fragmented into diverse habitats.
D. The Galápagos Islands were, until recently, connected by land bridges forming one unified
habitat.

Gradable: automatic
9. Evolution by natural selection was independently proposed by Darwin and __________.

A. Alfred Russel Wallace
B. Jean Baptiste de Lamarck
C. Captain Robert FitzRoy
D. Charles Lyell

Gradable: automatic
10. Both Wallace and Darwin read about the critical concept of overpopulation and limited
environmental capacity in a book by
A. Charles Lyell about human populations.
B. Jean Baptiste de Lamarck about the mechanisms of evolution.
C. Ernst Mayr on the synthesis of new biological discoveries.
D. Thomas Malthus about human populations.

Gradable: automatic
11. Which of the following is a (are) true fossil(s)?

A. The remains of an actual insect in amber or the tissue of a frozen extinct mammoth
B. Skeletal parts where bones have been replaced by minerals
C. Molds, casts, or impressions
D. Fossilized excrements (coprolites)
E. All of the choices are technically fossils

Gradable: automatic
Section: Darwinian Evolutionary Theory: The Evidence
Topic: Darwinian Evolutionary Theory: The Evidence
12. Which of the statements is true of the fossil record?

A.All of the stratified layers will be found anywhere a core sample is taken, except for human
destruction.
B. Provided there is no uplifting, tilt, etc., the deeper the layer, the more recently it was laid
down.
C. Once fossils are formed in a sedimentary layer, they are then protected from temperature
and heat.
D. Fossil assemblages are important in identifying sedimentary layers and different layers have
different assemblages of fossils.

Gradable: automatic
13. Radiometric dating methods determine the age of rock formations how?
A. By using guide or index fossils
B. By relating the positions of layers to each other
C. By calculating the ratios of elements and decay products
D. By examining atoms for extent of wear and tear

Gradable: automatic
14. The evolution of the horse shows what evolutionary trend(s)?

A.The number of structures always increases; therefore complexity always increases.
B. Extinctions are often accompanied by the development of new species.
C. Animals always evolve from gentle grazers toward more vicious omnivores and carnivores.
D. Variations randomly drift from large to small, toward and away from grinding teeth, and to
more or fewer toes, proving that evolution is indeed random.

Gradable: automatic
15. Birds and insects both have wings, but we do not consider this similarity as evidence of
relatedness because
A. bird wings function on different physics principles of lift.
B. the wings are not homologous structures with a common ancestral origin.
C. they did not evolve in the same region or live at the same time period.
D. there is no fossil link between these groups.

Gradable: automatic
16. Which of the following statements is true about a modern phylogeny of life’s history?
A. There are multiple independent origins of the distinct life forms: bacteria, plants, etc.
B. It is only based on living organisms since the reproductive isolation of extinct species cannot
be determined
C. All forms of life including extinct branches are related
D. Genealogies can only be traced for groups where the primordial ancestor has survived

Gradable: automatic
17. Which of the following would form a nested hierarchy or hierarchies of homologies?
A.Humans share most common blood types but we have fewer in common with monkeys and
share fewest with rats
B. Birds have feathers, muscles and nucleated cells; fish have muscles and nucleated cells; an
amoeba has a nucleus
C. Skeletal measurements cluster among modern apes and humans; ape-man fossil skeletal
features also cluster and overlap with both modern apes and humans
D. All of the choices include nested hierarchies of homologies

Bloom’s Level: 4. Analyze
Gradable: automatic
18. The concept that each successive stage in the development of an individual represents the adult
form that appeared in development of its evolutionary history is termed
A. Larmarckism.
B. Heterochrony.
C. Paedomorphosis.
D. Recapitulation.

Gradable: automatic
19. The concept that features of an ancestral ontogeny can be shifted earlier or later in
development is termed
A. Larmarckism.
B. Heterochrony.
C. Paedomorphosis.
D. Recapitulation.

Gradable: automatic
Section: Macroevolution: Major Evolutionary Events
Topic: Macroevolution: Major Evolutionary Events
20. Retention of ancestral juvenile characters by adult descendants is termed

A. Allopatry.
B. Heterochrony.
C. Paedomorphosis.
D. Recapitulation.

Gradable: automatic
21. The theory that ontogeny recapitulates phylogeny was originally offered by
A. Alfred Wallace.
B. K. E. von Baer.
C. Charles Darwin.
D. Ernst Haeckel.

Gradable: automatic
22. The 19th century embryologist K.E. von Baer examined recapitulation and
A. agreed with the theory and added more experimental evidence.
B. totally disproved it with new experiments.
C. contended that early developmental stages were simply more widely shared among different
animals than later, more derived developmental stages.
D. refined it to explain heterochrony and paedomorphosis.
E. proposed that it was the key to speciation.

Gradable: automatic
23. Scientists recognize a species on what criterion(a)?

A.Although individuals within a given species may have variable phenotypes, the individuals
within most species usually have similar phenotypes
B. There is similarity of genotype within a species and identifiable differences from members of
other species
C. Members of a species can interbreed, but typically do not breed with other species
D. Members of related species have a most recent common ancestor
E. All of the choices are used in a general sense to distinguish species

Gradable: automatic
24. Which of the following would result in reproductive isolation?

A.Two populations of crickets are indistinguishable in physical features, but the females in each
group only respond to the different songs of their males
B. Fruit flies on one Hawaiian island live for hundreds of generations and do not come in contact
with fruit flies on another island except when blown there by rare tropical storms
C. One brood of the seventeen-year cicada emerged in 1987 (and will do so every 17 years) and
lives a few months as adults; another brood emerged in 1992 (and will do so every 17 years); the
larvae of both feed side-by-side on tree roots
D. A lion and a tiger mate in the artificial confines of a zoo but the offspring is infertile
E. All of the choices are correct

Gradable: automatic
25. A population of salamanders live along the edge of a north-south mountain range. The
populations from the east and west slope eventually join in a low northern pass and interbreed,
producing fertile offspring, but they do not circle around the southern edge because of a desert
barrier. When glaciers move southward, the populations are pushed south of the northern pass
and are isolated. While isolated, the two populations develop enough differences over time that
when the glaciers retreat north and the salamanders again share the same pass, they no longer
mate at the same time, nor can they produce fertile offspring. These salamanders
A. began as one species and therefore remain one species.
B. were originally two species and remain two species.
C. were originally one species but are now two species.
D. the number of species cannot be determined from the information given.

Gradable: automatic
26. The essential difference between vicariant speciation versus a founder event is that
A. vicariance involves splitting while a founder effect is fusing of two populations.
B. the founder effect is the reverse of vicariant speciation.
C. although a population is split by a vicariant event, the population size and environment does
not alter gene frequencies as does a founder event.
D. although a population is split by a founder event, the population size and environment does
not alter gene frequencies as does a vicariant event.

Gradable: automatic
27. If early Native Americans who originated in North Asia had remained the only ancestral settlers
in North America, rather than the overwhelming mixture of immigrants from across Europe and
other continents, today there would be a much higher incidence of North Asian traits in the U.S.
population. Such a scenario would demonstrate
A. gene flow from continent to continent.
B. the founder effect.
C. genetic drift among the original Northern Asians.
D. fitness for the North American environment.

Gradable: automatic
28. Sibling species are represented by

A. two species that look very much alike but are actually distantly related.
B. offspring that have the same parents but can no longer interbreed.
C. the two halves of a population that have been split by a vicariant event but could still
interbreed if sympatric.
D. species that appear essentially identical in phenotype but have evolved differences in
behavior or chemistry that prevent mating.
E. a collection of specimens that are similar but have not yet undergone any test of
interbreeding to determine if they are truly separate species.

Gradable: automatic

29. Which of the following constitute pre-mating barrier(s)?

A.Sperm cannot penetrate the egg
B. Male mating behavior is not correct to attract the female
C. Egg is fertilized but development is impaired
D. Offspring are sterile

Gradable: automatic
30. Which of the following constitute post-mating barrier(s)?

A.The sperm does not penetrate the egg
B. The chromosome numbers of sperm and egg do not match after fertilization
C. The offspring are sterile
D. An egg is fertilized but development is impaired
E. All of the choices are post-mating barriers

Gradable: automatic
31. On the Galápagos Islands, the tool-using woodpecker finches modify twigs to pry out grubs.
With no true woodpeckers on the Galápagos Islands, this behavior allows it to exploit an
untapped food source. However, not all members of this species exhibit this behavior which is
learned from watching other finches. Therefore,
A. hatchlings will not know how to do this.
B. it is probably not “hardwired” in the brain as a behavior passed on genetically.
C. there must be a great advantage to reaching this food source for this learned behavior to be
repeated by most descendants of each generation.
D. as an acquired characteristic, in a strict sense this may not be part of the adaptive radiation
of finches on the Galápagos.
E. all of the choices are correct.


Gradable: automatic
32. In the case of Darwin’s finches, an ancestral finch species from the mainland arrived on the
Galápagos Islands and later evolved into many new species via adaptive radiation. The ancestral
finch species apparently did NOT undergo adaptive radiation back on the mainland. What is the
most plausible biological explanation?
A.Directional selection works better on islands
B. Competition from many other bird species on the mainland provided stabilizing selection that
was absent on the islands
C. The environment on the mainland was completely uniform
D. The founder effect greatly expanded the variation in alleles in the Galápagos finch gene pool
E. The ancestral mainland finch was reproductively isolated

Gradable: automatic
33. The work of Peter Williamson on freshwater snails in Lake Turkana showed
A. perfectly interconnected and gradual change in species due to the uniform environment over
time.
B. an abrupt radiation of species in all directions that can be used to support both gradualism
and punctuated equilibrium.
C. thick deposits of unchanged snails and brief periods of rapid change, supporting gradual
adaptive radiation.
D. thick deposits of unchanged snails and brief periods of rapid change, supporting the
evolutionary model of punctuated equilibrium.

Gradable: automatic
34. Which one of the following is NOT an observation of a population where natural selection is at
work?
A.There is variation that can be inherited in a population
B. The population always becomes adapted to its environment
C. Many more individuals are produced by a population than can survive and reproduce
D. Adaptive characteristics in some individuals make them more likely to survive and reproduce

Gradable: automatic
35. Which of the following is/are true about natural selection?

A.It acts on genotypes rather than phenotypes
B. It assures the survival of each fit individual
C. On average, it favors the survival of individuals that can produce the most reproductively
viable young that possess adaptive characteristics and can themselves reproduce
D. It always selects for more complex forms

Gradable: automatic
36. Which of the following is required for natural selection to occur in a population?
A.Variation in the population
B. Inheritance of genetic variation
C. Differential reproduction so that more fit individuals produce more offspring
D. Accumulation of adaptive traits so that they increase in the population

Gradable: automatic
37. Technically, differential survival and reproduction among offspring with varying traits is
A. a strictly random process.
B. another definition of natural selection.
C. orthogenesis.
D. neo-Darwinism.
E. sorting, which is not necessarily equal to natural selection.

Gradable: automatic
38. Neo-Darwinism
A. means the same thing as “modern Darwinism.”
B. consists of Darwin’s basic principles coupled with an understanding of genetics.
C. adds microevolution to macroevolution.
D. is based on new RNA molecular similarities.
E. brings together biogeography, embryology, systematics, genetics, etc.

Gradable: automatic
Section: Revisions of Darwin’s Theory
Topic: Revisions of Darwin’s Theory
39. The main accomplishment of the “New Synthesis” or modern Darwinism was
A. to select a new set of scientists to take up the evolution argument after the death of Darwin
and Huxley.
B. the frantic search for answers to the creationist challenge of the early 1900s.
C. the application of new discoveries in genetics, classification, biogeography, paleontology, etc.
to Darwin’s basic tenets, and which tied these fields together in a new framework.
D. to split Darwin’s ideas into small details (microevolution) and larger concepts
(macroevolution).

Gradable: automatic
Section: Revisions of Darwin’s Theory
Topic: Revisions of Darwin’s Theory
40. What is the term used to describe the accumulation of small changes in the gene pool of a
species over time?
A.Genetic drift
B. Founder effect
C. Microevolution
D. Directional selection

Gradable: automatic
Section: Microevolution: Genetic Variation and Change Within Species
Topic: Microevolution: Genetic Variation and Change Within Species
41. Some creationists acknowledge that gene frequencies change in observable time (and accept
microevolution) but dispute that larger “kinds” ever evolve. A biologist replies that
macroevolution is merely the same processes of gene frequency change continued over a longer
time. The creationist’s answer is incomplete because it does not recognize what additional
phenomena inherent in macroevolution?
A. Extinctions of huge numbers of taxa
B. Relationships of species at higher taxonomic levels
C. Origins of new body plans and structures
D. Evolutionary trends within lineages
E. All of the choices are studied in macroevolution but are not central to microevolution within
a species

Gradable: automatic
42. For the sake of this genetics problem, consider that right-handedness (RR, Rr) is dominant to
left-handedness (rr). A teacher surveys her class of 24 students and finds that six (one-fourth, or
0.25) are left-handed. How many of the remaining right-handed students are likely to be carriers
for a left-handedness gene?
A.None, they will all be RR for right-handedness since a dominant gene dominates
B. Six, same number as are left-handed or 0.26 x 24
C. Twelve, since q2 = 0.25, then q = 0.5, and 2pg or 2(0.5 x 0.5) = 0.5 of a class of 24
D. Eighteen will be Rr since 24 – 6 = 18

Bloom’s Level: 3. Apply
Gradable: automatic
43. Which condition is NOT among the requirements of Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?

A. No mutations
B. No net migration of alleles into or out of the population
C. Small population with genetic drift
D. No selection of one genotype over another

Gradable: automatic
44. If Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium is met, what is the net effect?

A. Evolution leading to a population better adapted to an unchanging environment
B. Evolution leading to a population better adapted to a changing environment
C. Very slow and continuous evolution with no increased adaptation
D. No evolution because the allele frequencies in the population remain the same from
generation to generation

Gradable: automatic
45. When two adjacent populations of the same species have gene flow, the two populations will
A. become more similar in their gene pools.
B. become isolated from each other.
C. develop into different species.
D. adapt to different conditions and become separate.

Gradable: automatic
46. Which of the following is correct about genetic drift?

A. It is more likely to occur in a large population than in a small population
B. It increases the number of heterozygotes in a population
C. It may increase the frequency of rare alleles in a population
D. None of the choices are correct

Gradable: automatic
47. Research indicates people are most likely to select a mate from a nearby village or city, or high
school or college. Therefore, the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium does not apply well to human
populations because
A. allele frequency changes in one direction are balanced by changes in the opposite direction.
B. there is no directional trend in selection of mates since most individuals marry someone.
C. individuals are not pairing up by chance across the whole population, and therefore mating is
not random.
D. we accumulate adaptive traits that improve the population.


Gradable: automatic
48. Which statement is NOT true about nonrandom mating?

A.Inbreeding is mating between relatives more often than by chance
B. Inbreeding is a change in allele frequencies that increases the proportion of heterozygotes in
the population
C. An example of positive assortative mating is when a tall man marries a tall woman
D. Assortative mating tends to cause subdivision into two phenotypic classes with reduced gene
flow between them

Gradable: automatic
49. Which of the following contribute(s) to evolution?

A.Mutations
B. Gene flow
C. Genetic drift
D. Natural selection

Gradable: automatic
50. In the early 1990s, the African honeybee migrated across the Mexican border into the United
States. Our domesticated honey bee—originally from Europe—is slow to sting, requires
abundant flower nectar, forages later in the morning, does not tolerate subtropical conditions as
well as the “Africanized” honey bee, and stores much honey but only produces enough new
brood to swarm once a year. Because the European honey bee was performing poorly as a
honey producer in South America, the African subspecies had been imported in a breeding
experiment. The African honey bee formed small nests, foraged earlier and created more honey
using smaller nectar sources, produced less honey stores and more brood, swarmed four or five
times a year, and was fast to sting. However, when African queens escaped, the two bee
populations interbred and the African genotype spread about 300 kilometers north each year.
Unexpectedly, a hundred kilometers behind the expanding range of the African honey bees, the
European and hybrid hives died out in subtropical areas and the bees were essentially 100
percent African. How would this be explained in evolutionary genetics terms?
A. Gene flow is not occurring and therefore these are two separate species
B. This is a natural consequence of the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium
C. Obviously the African bee genes are dominant over the European honeybee alleles
D. Gene flow is occurring between these subspecies but the African bee is ecologically better
suited for foraging and reproducing in the subtropics, but is not as successful as the European
honeybee in temperate areas
E. Migration will counteract the problem and eventually cause the bee to revert back to the
European traits

Gradable: automatic
51. A male peacock that displays showy and cumbersome feathers to attract a mate, but then is
more vulnerable to predators, reveals the predicament of
A. polymorphism.
B. disruptive selection.
C. species selection.
D. sexual selection.

Gradable: automatic
52. What is the correct sequence extending down from the phenotype to the genetic unit?
A.Phenotype-codon-protein-amino acid-protein
B. Phenotype-protein-protein-amino acid-codon
C. Phenotype-protein-protein-codon-amino acid
D. Phenotype-amino acid-protein-protein-codon

Gradable: automatic
53. Which statement is NOT true about natural selection?

A.Directional selection occurs when one extreme phenotype is favored over another different
extreme phenotype
B. Stabilizing selection favors an intermediate phenotype over either of the extreme phenotypes
C. Directional selection leads to the best fit phenotype in the population when the environment
remains the same
D. Disruptive selection leads to polymorphism, favoring different forms of the same species

Gradable: automatic
54. Based on the text’s coverage of the many factors in micro- and macroevolution, you can
conclude that the rate of evolution progresses at
A. a fairly constant rate and would produce the same outcome if “rerun.”
B. an uneven rate but would produce the same outcome if “rerun.”
C. a fairly constant rate but would produce different outcomes if “rerun.”
D. an uneven rate and would produce different outcomes if “rerun.”

Gradable: automatic
55. Stephen Jay Gould’s three “tiers” of evolutionary time are

A. pre-biotic or before-life, prokaryotic life and eukaryotic life.
B. microbial, plant and animal phases.
C. pre-atmospheric, aquatic and terrestrial evolution.
D. not time periods at all, but stabilizing, disruptive and stabilizing evolution processes.
E. not time periods at all, but short-term population genetic processes, intermediate-term
speciation and extinction rates, and long-term cycles of mass extinctions.

Gradable: automatic
56. Ants that specialize on harvesting one species of tree leaves can optimally exploit that resource
but are in trouble if their food tree declines, whereas generalist ant species can switch to other
foods. The rate at which these two lineages speciate and go extinct differs, a phenomenon
labeled
A. stabilizing selection.
B. directional selection.
C. catastrophic species selection.
D. effect macroevolution.

Gradable: automatic
57. Overall, how do the effects of the major mass extinctions compare?
A.Large terrestrial animals were always decimated while aquatic species survived
B. Species that required light were always decimated because all extinctions were due to
asteroid bombardment resulting in blackened sky
C. Species appear to genetically “wear out” and mass extinctions “re-set” the evolutionary
mechanisms
D. Not all cataclysmic events were the same and organismal groups and phenotypes were
different in each extinction; however lineages favored by effect macroevolution and species
selection were more vulnerable
E. There has not been any detected pattern to extinctions and they are probably random

Gradable: automatic
Fill in the Blank Questions
58. A population that undergoes a major reduction in size is said to experience a population
___________.
bottleneck

Gradable: automatic
59. Speciation that results from evolution of reproductive barriers between geographically
separated populations is called ___________ speciation.
allopatric

Gradable: automatic
60. The generation of ecologically diverse species from a common ancestral stock is called
________________.
adaptive radiation

Gradable: automatic
61. The use of bird feathers for flight is an example of ________________ which contrasts to
adaptation of the feather for its primary evolutionary role, thermoregulation.
exaptation

Gradable: automatic
62. Niles Eldridge and Stephen Jay Gould proposed that speciation is an episodic event that occurs
in variable time periods ranging from thousands to hundreds of thousands of years, all of which
are geologically brief time periods, and that there are long periods of evolutionary stasis in
between, a theory called _______ ________.
punctuated equilibrium

Gradable: automatic
Essay Questions
63. Explain Lamarck’s theory of evolution and describe how it contrasts with modern Darwinian
views.
Answers will vary.

Gradable: manual
64. Explain how Malthus’ work in socioeconomics applied to the development of Darwin’s theory of
natural selection.
Answers will vary.

Gradable: manual
65. When we compare amino acid differences to estimate the evolutionary “distance” between
organisms, what assumptions are being made about the rate at which mutations occur over
time?
Answers will vary.

Gradable: manual
66. Define sexual selection and provide an example.
Answers will vary.

Gradable: manual
67. Explain how the earth’s rock strata record the irreversible changes we call organic evolution
(discuss the processes of fossilization).
Answers will vary.

Gradable: manual
68. Compare the ideas of phenotypic gradualism with those of punctuated equilibrium.
Answers will vary.

Gradable: manual
69. Explain why extinction is a necessary aspect of evolution. What would happen if nothing died
and there were no extinction?
Answers will vary.

Gradable: manual
70. Discuss the views of paleontologist Elisabeth Vrba, who uses the term effect macroevolution to
describe differential speciation and extinction rates among lineages caused by organismal-level
properties.
Answers will vary.

Gradable: manual
Chapter 07
The Reproductive Process
Multiple Choice Questions
1. Which is NOT true about reproduction?

A.Gametes are produced by meiosis and may be specialized as eggs or sperm
B. Only the germ line reproduces by mitosis
C. Asexual reproduction is most advantageous when the environment is not changing
D. A hermaphrodite produces both male and female gametes in different specialized gonads
E. Somatic cells serve to provide support and protection for the germ line

Gradable: automatic
Section: Nature of the Reproductive Process
Topic: Nature of the Reproductive Process
2. Which is NOT true about asexual reproduction?

A.There is only one parent
B. It is less commonly found among vertebrates
C. It can occur by budding or by division and regeneration
D. A large number of offspring can be produced in this way in a short time
E. It produces variation that allows the species to adapt quickly to changing environmental
conditions

Gradable: automatic

3. What is the critical difference between gemmulation and fragmentation?

A.Gemmulation is sexual and fragmentation is asexual
B. Gemmulation is haploid and fragmentation is diploid
C. If sponges fragment, it is called gemmulation
D. Fragmentation involves providing a resistant layer of cells for a capsule; gemmulation is
merely breaking off chunks of tissue to grow a new organism
E. Gemmulation involves providing a resistant layer of cells for a capsule; fragmentation is
merely breaking off chunks of tissue to grow a new organism

Gradable: automatic
4. Offspring produced by asexual reproduction that all have the same genotype are called
A. germ cells.
B. buds.
C. clones.
D. gonads.
E. gemmules.

Gradable: automatic
5. Since humans have two individual organisms to bear eggs or sperm separately, we are in the
biological sense
A. asexual.
B. bisexual.
C. monoecious.
D. hermaphroditic.
E. parthenogenetic.

Gradable: automatic
6. Animals that have both male and female organs in the same individual are called
A. asexual.
B. bisexual.
C. monoecious.
D. dioecious.
E. parthenogenetic.

Gradable: automatic
7. Which of the following are primary sex organs?

A.Penis and vagina
B. Scrotum and uterus
C. Vas deferens and oviducts
D. Testes and ovaries
E. All of the choices are primary sex organs

Gradable: automatic
Section: Structure of Reproductive Systems
Topic: Structure of Reproductive Systems
8. By possessing both male and female organs, hermaphrodites

A. are asexual.
B. lose all advantages to sexual reproduction.
C. gain the ability to mate with any other individual of their species, not just the half that are
the opposite sex.
D. gain the ability to choose to be either sexual or asexual.
E. always have the ability to self-fertilize if no other members of their species are around.

Gradable: automatic
9. Parthenogenesis is
A. asexual but haploid by means of internal self-fertilization.
B. an asexual means of reproduction involving budding.
C. asexual reproduction by splitting or fission into several new individuals.
D. reproduction where unfertilized eggs develop into mature individuals without fertilization.
E. sexual reproduction by cross-fertilization between hermaphrodites.

Gradable: automatic
10. When an egg is formed without meiosis, merely a mitotic division, it is

A. ameiotic parthenogenesis.
B. meiotic parthenogenesis.
C. anti-parthenogenesis.
D. hermaphroditism.
E. bisexual reproduction.

Gradable: automatic
11. In whiptail lizards, only females exist. Two females court and one assumes the posture of the
missing male lizard to stimulate the other female to ovulate. No fertilization can occur, so this is
a case of
A. hermaphroditism.
B. bisexual reproduction.
C. parthenogenesis.
D. sexual reproduction since mating behavior is required.
E. a need for further research since only primitive animals reproduce asexually.

Bloom’s Level: 5. Evaluate
Gradable: automatic
12. In the case of the whiptail lizards, unisexual species were compared with a fully sexual species.
Results indicated that
A. the unisexual lizard populations were slower growing because they lacked diversity.
B. both strategies had the same levels of population growth.
C. the unisexual lizard populations were faster growing because all individuals produced eggs.
D. more variability is always good despite environmental conditions.
E. the more evolved animals always reproduce sexually.

Gradable: automatic
13. What is the most likely evolutionary explanation for the whiptail desert lizards evolving a female
only reproduction?
A.This species is probably going extinct
B. This is not related to evolution but a biochemical anomaly
C. This is not at all unusual since most reptiles are asexual
D. The desert is uniform, and variation is of little or no advantage and a waste in energy
E. Such a switch in mating behavior is easily understood as a crossing-over in chromosomes

Gradable: automatic
14. Gonads arise from
A. proliferation of the SRY gene.
B. genital ridges growing into the coelomic lining on the sides of the hindgut.
C. somatic tissues.
D. different tissues; testes from mesoderm and ovaries from endoderm.
E. a continuous line of meiotic cells.

Gradable: automatic
Section: The Origin and Maturation of Germ Cells
Topic: The Origin and Maturation of Germ Cells
15. Gametogenesis is the

A. union of an egg and a sperm.
B. formation of eggs by the female and sperm by the male.
C. cleavage of the embryo.
D. menstrual cycle in the female.
E. None of the choices are correct

Gradable: automatic
16. In the male reproductive system, the Sertoli (sustentacular) cells

A. produce sperm cells through meiosis.
B. activate the sperm cells so they can swim rapidly.
C. nourish the cells that produce sperm cells.
D. regulate the rate of sperm production.
E. produce an alkaline fluid added to the semen.

Gradable: automatic
17. The _______ undergo the first meiotic division in the production of sperm.
A.Sertoli (sustentacular) cells
B. Primary oocytes
C. Spermatids
D. Primary spermatocytes
E. Spermatogonia

Gradable: automatic
18. The final product of spermatogenesis is four

A. sertoli (sustentacular) cells.
B. primary oocytes.
C. spermatids.
D. primary spermatocytes.
E. spermatogonia.

Gradable: automatic
19. The ______ is lined with mitochondria and expends the energy to propel the sperm.
A.Acrosome
B. Head
C. Tail
D. Middle piece

Gradable: automatic
20. The acrosome functions to

A.Contain enzymes that help a sperm head “digest” its way into an egg
B. Increase the sperm’s motility
C. Direct the sperm to the egg
D. Transport the chromosomes into the egg
E. Store energy for swimming to the egg

Gradable: automatic
21. In oogenesis, the sequence of the development of an egg is

A. ootid, primary oocyte, secondary oocyte, oogonium, ovum.
B. primary oocyte, secondary oocyte, ootid, oogonium, ovum.
C. oogonium, primary oocyte, secondary oocyte, ootid, ovum.
D. oogonium, ootid, primary oocyte, secondary oocyte, ovum.

Gradable: automatic
22. Polar bodies are best characterized as

A. follicles that did not become the graafian follicle.
B. one haploid nucleus from the first meiotic division and one haploid nucleus from the second
meiotic division.
C. two haploid nuclei from the first meiotic division.
D. two haploid nuclei from the second meiotic division.
E. three haploid nuclei; one from the second division and one from the first that then divided
again to form two more.


Gradable: automatic
23. Reptile and bird eggs have

A. no chorion.
B. no amnion.
C. no extra-embryonic membranes because the young are inside an egg.
D. a placental connection since these are advanced animals.
E. a large yolk to support all early development.

Gradable: automatic
24. During oogenesis, the egg grows in size by accumulating _______ reserves to support future
growth and development after fertilization.
A. hormone.
B. sugar.
C. water.
D. mitochondrial.
E. yolk.

Gradable: automatic
25. The egg grows in size well beyond the surface-area-to-volume restrictions of other single cells
because it
A.Is the germ line and is therefore not restricted by this law
B. Relies on a placenta to exchange gases and nutrients
C. Has a gradually diminishing metabolic rate and often relies on supporting cells to supply
nutrition
D. Lacks mitochondria
E. Does not become living until it is fertilized; this is the definition of “life.”

Gradable: automatic
26. Placental mammals are

A. oviparous.
B. ovoviviparous.
C. larviparous.
D. viviparous.
E. nefarious.

Gradable: automatic
Section: Reproductive Patterns
Topic: Reproductive Patterns
27. A rattlesnake holds its eggs internally and the young hatch and crawl out, appearing to be born
live; the rattlesnake is
A. oviparous.
B. ovoviviparous.
C. larviparous.
D. viviparous.
E. nefarious.

Gradable: automatic
28. A strange system of reproduction, where there are no permanent reproductive organs and
gametes arise from the lining of the body cavity and spill through ruptures of the body wall is
found in some
A. insects.
B. marsupial mammals.
C. polychaete annelid worms.
D. whiptail lizards.
E. birds.

Gradable: automatic
29. In reptiles and birds, a common chamber forming the opening of the reproductive, excretory
and digestive systems is called the
A. vulva.
B. aedeagus.
C. cloaca.
D. labia majora.
E. copulatrix.

Gradable: automatic
30. Which is NOT part of the mammalian male reproductive system?

A. testes.
B. epididymis.
C. penis.
D. prostate.
E. cervix.

Gradable: automatic
31. Mammalian sperm mature inside the

A.Seminal vesicles
B. Ejaculatory duct
C. Vas deferens
D. Epididymis

Gradable: automatic
32. In mammals, the ______ carries both sperm and urine.

A. vas deferens.
B. urethra.
C. fallopian tube.
D. ureter.
E. seminiferous tubule.

Gradable: automatic
33. A cross-section through the testes would show

A.Large chambers lined with wiggling sperm
B. Small tubules lined with developing sperm
C. Flat layers of tissue like pages, lined with developing sperm
D. Individual sperm follicles with all future immature sperm present

Gradable: automatic
34. In larger terrestrial animals, the testes are in the scrotum rather than in the abdomen because
A. there is lack of room in the abdomen.
B. this provides for a shorter sperm path.
C. this provides a more direct blood supply.
D. it provides greater protection to the testes.
E. It keeps the temperature lower for sperm development

Gradable: automatic
35. Which of the following is NOT involved in production of semen?

A. seminal vesicles.
B. bulbourethral gland.
C. graafian follicle.
D. testes.
E. prostate gland.

Gradable: automatic
36. Which association concerning structures in the human male is NOT correct?
A.Testes-produce sperm
B. Testes-produce testosterone
C. Vas deferens-carries urine
D. Prostate gland-seminal fluid
E. Urethra-conducts sperm


Gradable: automatic
37. The path of the sperm during ejaculation proceeds from

A.Testes to urethra to vas deferens to penis
B. Urethra to vas deferens to seminal vesicles to testes
C. Seminiferous tubules to epididymis to vas deferens to urethra
D. Seminiferous tubules to vas deferens to epididymis to urethra
E. Vas deferens to seminiferous tubules to epididymis to urethra

Gradable: automatic
38. Which is NOT part of the human female external genitalia?

A. hymen.
B. clitoris.
C. labia minora.
D. labia majora.
E. uterus.

Gradable: automatic
39. The female clitoris is homologous to the male

A.Vas deferens
B. Glans penis
C. Scrotum
D. Prostate gland
E. Testes

Gradable: automatic
40. An egg moves down an oviduct by

A. whip-like flagellar action.
B. cilia of nurse cells surrounding the egg.
C. drifting on the current of body fluids.
D. tubular muscle contractions and cilia in oviduct.
E. suction from the uterine contractions.

Gradable: automatic
41. Fertilization in humans normally occurs in the

A. uterus.
B. vagina.
C. outer third of the oviducts.
D. abdominal cavity between ovary and oviducts.
E. ovarian follicle at time of ovulation.

Gradable: automatic
Section: Endocrine Events that Orchestrate Reproduction
Topic: Endocrine Events that Orchestrate Reproduction
42. The ______ is the inner lining of the uterus that is discharged during menstruation.
A. endometrium.
B. perimetrium.
C. myocardium.
D. endocardium.
E. oviduct.

Gradable: automatic
43. The route of sperm moving through the female reproductive tract is
A.Vagina ® uterus ® oviduct ® cervix
B. Urethra ® vagina ® oviduct ® cervix
C. Urethra ® uterus ® cervix ® fallopian tube
D. Cervix ® fallopian tube ® vagina ® uterus
E. Vagina ® cervix ® uterus ® oviduct

Gradable: automatic
44. The two major female hormones are

A. androgen and estrogen.
B. testosterone and progesterone.
C. FSH and cortisol.
D. testosterone and estrogen.
E. progesterone and estrogen.

Gradable: automatic
45. Male sexual behavior is promoted by
A. androgen.
B. testosterone.
C. Estrogen.
D. ecdysone.
E. progesterone.

Gradable: automatic
46. Secondary sexual characteristics in the male are developed and maintained by
A. FSH.
B. TSH.
C. testosterone.
D. estrogen.
E. progesterone.

Gradable: automatic
47. A metabolite of testosterone that has important hormone effects is

A. FSH.
B. TSH.
C. anti-testosterone.
D. dihydrotestosterone.
E. progesterone.

Gradable: automatic
48. Ovulation usually occurs on the ________ of a 28-day uterine cycle.

A. First day.
B. 4th day.
C. 14th day.
D. 22nd day.
E. Last day.

Gradable: automatic
49. An egg is ovulated from a

A. Primary follicle
B. Tertiary follicle
C. Corpus luteum
D. Graafian follicle
E. Secondary follicle

Gradable: automatic
50. The luteal phase occurs

A. on day 15.
B. during days 6 – 13.
C. on day 14.
D. during days 15 – 28.
E. anytime through the cycle.

Gradable: automatic
51. _____________ is closely associated with maturation of the egg.

A. follicle stimulating hormone.
B. testosterone.
C. luteinizing hormone.
D. progesterone.
E. human chorionic gonadotropic hormone.

Gradable: automatic
52. The luteal phase of the uterine cycle is associated with

A.Low FSH, high estrogen, developing follicle, and an increase in uterine lining
B. High LH, high estrogen, developing follicle, and uterine lining breakdown
C. An increase in LH, increase in progesterone, corpus luteum present, and the endometrium is
shed
D. A decrease in LH, increase in progesterone, corpus luteum present, and a secretory uterine
lining
E. A decrease in LH, decrease in progesterone, corpus luteum present, and a secretory uterine
lining

Gradable: automatic
53. The hormone inhibin

A. decreases sexual urges.
B. triggers ovulation in females.
C. prevents or inhibits erection.
D. serves in a negative feedback manner with the anterior pituitary to control testosterone
levels.

Gradable: automatic
54. Male athletes who consider taking synthetic steroid testosterone hormones to add muscle are
warned that this may shrink the testes. Why would this effect occur?
A. this is the natural effect of testosterone; it normally shrinks testes.
B. synthetic chemicals act differently than natural hormones.
C. a guilt reaction in the brain causes the opposite hormone action.
D. testosterone converts to dihydrotestosterone that has the opposite effect.
E. the pituitary detects high levels of testosterone in the bloodstream and, not knowing that it is
not self-produced, reduces FSH and LH.

Gradable: automatic
55. In Latin, the root word(s) for “yellow body” is/are

A.Placenta
B. Vagina
C. Corpus luteum
D. Uterus
E. Endometrium

Gradable: automatic

56. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
A. the follicles in the ovary produce luteinizing hormone.
B. the corpus luteum produces progesterone.
C. a surge of LH is believed to promote ovulation.
D. LH stimulates the formation of the corpus luteum.

Gradable: automatic
57. Luteinizing hormone stimulates the

A.Seminiferous tubules of the testis
B. Pituitary to produce FSH
C. Follicle to produce progesterone
D. Corpus luteum to produce progesterone

Gradable: automatic
58. Approximately how many mature egg cells are released by a woman during her fertile years?
A. 20.
B. 120.
C. 400.
D. several thousand.
E. several million.

Gradable: automatic
59. Following ovulation, a ruptured follicle

A.Differentiates into the corpus luteum
B. Disappears and all of its cells disintegrate
C. Passes on as waste material down the oviduct with the egg
D. Mends itself and begins the maturation of another egg
E. Becomes a part of the epithelial covering of the ovary

Gradable: automatic
60. What initiates menstrual flow?

A. the pituitary triggers it.
B. luteinizing hormone activity is at its peak.
C. estrogen activity is at a peak.
D. progesterone production is highest.
E. both progesterone and estrogen levels decline to low levels.

Gradable: automatic
61. Estrogen and progesterone provide feedback control on the

A.Ovary
B. Uterus
C. Testes
D. Pituitary
E. Prostate gland

Gradable: automatic

62. On day 12, the human uterine cycle is mainly under the influence of
A. thyroxin.
B. estrogen.
C. progesterone.
D. epinephrine.
E. testosterone.

Gradable: automatic
63. Days 6-13 of a 28-day uterine cycle is the

A. secretory phase.
B. menstrual period.
C. proliferative phase.
D. ovulation period.
E. fertilization period.

Gradable: automatic
64. The secretory phase is part of the

A. sexual cycle.
B. pituitary cycle.
C. testicular cycle.
D. ovarian cycle.
E. uterine cycle.

Gradable: automatic

65. Follicle-stimulating hormone is produced in the

A. ovary.
B. uterus.
C. pituitary.
D. hypothalamus.
E. interstitial (leydig) cells.

Gradable: automatic
66. After an egg erupts from a follicle, the surrounding tissue that remains to secrete hormones
becomes the
A. oocyte.
B. stroma.
C. corpus luteum.
D. primary follicle.
E. corpus cavernosum.

Gradable: automatic
67. Which is NOT true about estrogen?

A. estrogen stimulates release of FSH.
B. estrogen causes the endometrium to thicken.
C. estrogen causes the endometrium to become vascular and glandular.
D. estrogen causes a positive feedback on the hypothalamus to secrete GnRH.
E. estrogen causes a negative feedback on the anterior pituitary gland.

Gradable: automatic

68. What would be associated with animals that produce litters?

A.The uterus would be designed for more implantation sites
B. More nipples and mammary gland tissue would be present
C. More eggs are triggered to develop than in humans
D. There may be a tendency to have identical twins from division of the fertilized egg
E. All of the choices would be possible with an animal that regularly produces a litter

Gradable: automatic
69. Menstruation begins because

A.The pituitary triggers it
B. Luteinizing hormone is at its peak
C. Estrogen activity peaks
D. Progesterone production is highest
E. Progesterone and estrogen levels decline

Gradable: automatic
70. Milk production in humans is triggered in breasts after several days of ____ and ____ production
by the ____.
A. estrogen, testosterone, ovaries.
B. prolactin, human placental lactogen, hypothalamus.
C. prolactin, human placental lactogen, anterior pituitary.
D. oxytocin, estrogen, hypothalamus.
E. oxytocin, androgen, anterior pituitary.

Gradable: automatic
71. The peptide hormone ______ produced by the ______ allows expansion of the pelvis by
increasing flexibility of the pubic symphysis.
A. estrogen, ovaries
B. prolactin, hypothalamus
C. prolactin, anterior pituitary
D. relaxin, hypothalamus
E. relaxin, placenta

Gradable: automatic
72. Which statement is incorrect regarding hCG?

A. hCG appears in the bloodstream after implantation
B. hCG is produced by the placenta
C. hCG stimulates the corpus luteum
D. hCG stimulates the anterior pituitary gland
E. hCG helps maintain estrogen and progesterone levels in the blood

Gradable: automatic
Fill in the Blank Questions
73. The kidney of male reptiles, birds, and mammals develops an independent duct, the _______, to
carry away nitrogenous waste.
ureter

74. Animals with both male and female organs in the same individual are called monoecious or
____________.
hermaphroditesor
hermaphroditic or
hermaphrodite

75. In mammals, the type of breeding cycle in which the female is receptive to the male only at
restricted times of the year is the ________ cycle.
estrous
The estrous cycle describes mammals that are receptive to mating during brief periods of estrus.

76. Most vertebrates and many invertebrates have separate sexes, a condition that is called
dioecious or _______ ________.
bisexual reproduction

77. Development of an embryo from an egg without the participation of a spermatozoa is called
_________.
parthenogenesis

78. The outermost layer of differentiating sex cells in the testes, called ________, divide by ordinary
mitosis.
spermatogonia

79. In reptiles and birds the reproductive and excretory ducts empty into the ________.
cloaca

80. The proximate cues that trigger labor are not fully understood; however, ________ appears to
be involved.
placental corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH)

Essay Questions
81. Compare meiotic and ameiotic parthenogenesis and provide an example of each.
Answers will vary.

82. Discuss how internal fertilization and the production of shelled eggs were important in the
development of animals capable of living on land.
Answers will vary.

83. Why is the haplo-diploid system of bees, wasps, and ants considered to involve
parthenogenesis?
Answers will vary.

84. Describe the differences between asexual and sexual reproduction, and conditions under which
each would be advantageous and disadvantageous.
Answers will vary.
Bloom’s Level: 6. Create

85. Detail the sequence of events that lead a human male embryo with a Y chromosome in its cells
to differentiate into normal male anatomy.
Answers will vary.


86. Describe two other systems for determining the sex of offspring besides the XX-XY system
described for humans, and give an example of the organism(s) that use the system.
Answers will vary.

87. Contrast the cloaca of birds and reptiles with the vulva of a mammal.
Answers will vary.

88. Trace the path taken by human sperm cells as they develop and leave the body, providing the
identity of each accessory gland that adds fluids to the semen, and the function of those fluids,
in the order they are encountered.
Answers will vary.

89. Describe the path taken by a human egg cell as it develops and implants on the wall of the
uterus, and indicate the amount of time spent at each stage of this journey.
Answers will vary.

90. Describe the stages of the menstrual cycle, including control of the ovarian cycle.
Answers will vary.

91. Birds never developed an internal placental system but are confined to laying eggs. Consider the
many physiological burdens and limitations imposed by bearing live young, and then consider all
of the adaptations of birds for flight. Given that birds arose from dinosaur-like ancestors that
also laid eggs, but birds managed to evolve a high metabolism and other specialized features,
discuss one physiological reason that probably limits birds from ever evolving viviparity.
Answers will vary.

92. A larger number of synthetic estrogens are showing up in the environment. Speculate on what
physiological effects this may have on male animals.
Answers will vary.

93. Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of sexual versus asexual reproduction.
Answers will vary.

94. Is asexual reproduction likely to happen more when the environment is “stable” or in a state of
“flux”?
Answers will vary.

95. Fish and amphibians tend to have less complex reproductive systems than some reptiles, birds
and mammals. Why do you think this might be the case?
Answers will vary

Check All That Apply Questions
96. Check all of the follow that describe the forms of reproduction found in animals?
__X__ sexual reproduction
__X__ asexual reproduction
__X__ budding
_____ binary fission
__X__ gemmulation
__X__ fragmentation
Animals exhibit a wide variety of forms of reproduction, with the exception being binary fission
that is found in bacteria and protozoans, but not in animals.

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Multiple Choice Questions

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2. Lamarck’s theory of evolution was centered on the idea that

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5. Lamarck’s theory explaining evolution is considered ______ because it ______.

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9. Evolution by natural selection was independently proposed by Darwin and __________.

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11. Which of the following is a (are) true fossil(s)?

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12. Which of the statements is true of the fossil record?

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14. The evolution of the horse shows what evolutionary trend(s)?

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20. Retention of ancestral juvenile characters by adult descendants is termed

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23. Scientists recognize a species on what criterion(a)?

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24. Which of the following would result in reproductive isolation?

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28. Sibling species are represented by

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29. Which of the following constitute pre-mating barrier(s)?

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30. Which of the following constitute post-mating barrier(s)?

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35. Which of the following is/are true about natural selection?

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43. Which condition is NOT among the requirements of Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?

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44. If Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium is met, what is the net effect?

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46. Which of the following is correct about genetic drift?

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48. Which statement is NOT true about nonrandom mating?

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5. Lamarck’s theory explaining evolution is considered because it .