1.

When the angle of contact between a solid and a liquid is 90, then
(a) Cohesive force  Adhesive force
(b) Cohesive force  Adhesive force
(c) Cohesive force  Adhesive force
(d) Cohesive force  Adhesive force
Answer: (c)

2. Rain drops are spherical in shape because of

(a) Surface tension
(b) Capillary
(c) Downward motion
(d) Acceleration due to gravity
Answer: (a)

The rise of a liquid in a capillary tube does not depend upon

(a) Angle of contact
(b) Density of the liquid
(c) Radius of the capillary tube
(d) Atmospheric pressure
Answer: (d)

At critical temperature, the surface tension of a liquid (A.I.I.M.S 80)

(a) Is zero
(b) Is infinity
(c) Is the same as that at any other temperature
(d) Can not be determined
Answer: (a)

Surface tension may be defined as (CPMT 90)

(a) The work done per unit area in increasing the surface area of a liquid under isothermal
condition
(b) The work done per unit area in increasing the surface area of a liquid under adiabatic condition
(c) The work done per unit area in increasing the surface is of a liquid under both isothermal and
adiabatic conditions.
(d) Free surface energy per init volume
Answer: (a)

Surface tension of liquid is independent of the

(a) Temperature of the liquid
(b) Area of the liquid surface
(c) Nature of the liquid
(d) Impurities present in the liquid
Answer: (b)

Adsorption
70. Adsorption is the process of ……….

a) Repulsion

b) Addition

c) Adhesion

d) None of these

ANS: c is correct because atoms, ions or molecules show adhesion to a specific surface.

71. Surface on which ions, atoms or molecules accumulate

a) Adsorbent

b) Adsorbate

c) Specific surface

d) All

ANS: a is correct because the surface on which ions accumulate is called adsorbent.

72. Adsorbate are ions, atoms or molecules

a) Which allow accumulation on their surface

b) Which accumulate on a specific surface

c) Which don’t accumulate

d) Both

ANS: b is correct because these are the molecules which accumulate on a specific surface during the
process of adsorption.

73. If both adsorption & absorption are going side by side then it is……….

a) Disorption

b) Desorption

c) Sorption

d) Resorption

ANS: c is correct because sorption is the process in which both of the above stated processes go side
by side.

74. Reverse of adsorption is called

a) Disorption

b) Desorption

c) Sorption

d) Resorption
ANS: b is correct because reverse of adsorption is desorption which results in separation of
adsorbent and adsorbate.

75. Vander-wall adsorption is synonym of………….

a) Physical adsorption

b) Chemical adsorption

c) Physi-adsorption

d) a& c

ANS: d is correct because both are the names of vander-wall adsorption

76. Physi-adsorption is effected by

a) Temperature only

b) Pressure only

c) Temperature and pressure

d) None

ANS: c is correct because it is experimental conditions.

77. Strong bonding is present in

a) Chemical adsorption

b) Physical adsorption

c) Vander-wall adsorption

d) a&c

ANS: a is correct becaue only chemical adsorption involves strong bonding.

78. Absorption is …………….. phenomenon

a) Bulk

b) Surface

c) Phase difference

d) Bulk & phase

ANS: a is correct because it occurs through-out the bulk of system.

79. Adsorption has

a) Uniformity

b) Non-uniformity

c) Bulk uniformity

d) a&c
ANS: b is correct because it is only the surface phenomenon.

80. Temperature and pressure can

a) Effect absorption

b) Can’t effect absorption

c) Can effect adsorption

d) b&c

ANS: d is correct because it effects adsorption but not effect absorption.

81. Chemical adsorption involves ……. Bonding

a) Hydrogen

b) Ionic

c) Covalent

d) Ionic & covalent

ANS: b is correct because it involves strong ionic bonding

82. Chemical adsorption is

a) Reversible

b) Irreversible

c) Mostly reversible

d) Some-times irreversible

ANS: b is correct because it is irreversible.

Solubility

8.1 c In a solution, the solvent is

a) the substance being dissolved.

b) always a liquid.

c) the substance present in the greatest amount.

d) always water.

8.2 a A solution may contain

a) only one solvent but many solutes.

 b) many solvents but only one solute.

c) only one solvent and one solute.

d) many solvents and many solutes.

8.3 a Which of the following statements concerning a saturated solution is incorrect?

a) Undissolved solute must be present.

b) Undissolved solute may or may not be present.

c) Undissolved solute, if present, is continually dissolving.

d) Undissolved solute, if present, is in equilibrium with dissolved solute.

8.4 b Which of the following statements concerning factors that affect solute solubility is
incorrect?

a) Most solid solutes become more soluble in water with increasing temperature.

b) Most solid solutes become less soluble in water with decreasing pressure.

c) Gaseous solutes become less soluble in water with increasing temperature.

d) Gaseous solutes become more soluble in water with increasing pressure.

8.5 b The solubility rule “like dissolves like” is not adequate for predicting solubilities
when the solute is a(n)

a) nonpolar gas.

b) ionic compound.

c) nonpolar liquid.

d) polar gas.

8.6 c [Algorithmic]For which of the following types of ionic compounds are most
examples insoluble in water?

a) nitrates

b) sulfates

c) phosphates

d) acetates

8.7 b [Algorithmic]In which of the following pairs of ionic compounds are both members
of the pair soluble in water?
 a) AgNO3 and AgCl

b) NaOH and K2SO4

c) CaSO4 and PbCO3

d) NH4Br and Mg3(PO4)2

8.8 b [Algorithmic]Calculate the concentration in % (m/m) of a solution containing 20.0

g of NaCl dissolved in 250.0 g of H2O.

a) 6.76% (m/m)

b) 7.41% (m/m)

c) 8.00% (m/m)

d) 8.25% (m/m)

8.9 a [Algorithmic]Calculate the grams of NaOH present in 5.0 mL of a 1.0% (m/v) NaOH
solution.

a) 0.050 g

b) 0.10 g

c) 0.50 g

d) 1.0 g

8.10 a The defining expression for the molarity concentration unit is

a) moles of solute/liters of solution.

b) moles of solute/liters of solvent.

c) grams of solute/liters of solution.

d) grams of solute/liters of solvent.

8.11 c [Algorithmic]A solution is made by dissolving 0.40 mole of NaCl in enough water
to give a final volume of 250.0 mL. What is the molarity of the solution?

a) 0.10 M

b) 0.80 M

c) 1.6 M

d) 2.5 M
8.12 b [Algorithmic]What is the molarity of a solution containing 17.0 grams of NH3 in
1.20 liters of solution?

a) 0.0833 M

b) 0.833 M

c) 1.42 M

d) 14.2 M

8.13 d [Algorithmic]A 0.200 M solution of NaOH, which contains 0.250 mole of solute,
would have a volume, in milliliters, of

a) 20.0 mL.

b) 50.0 mL.

c) 725 mL.

d) 1250 mL.

8.14 b [Algorithmic]What volume, in milliliters, of 6.0 M NaOH is needed to prepare 175

mL of 0.20 M NaOH by dilution?

a) 5.3 mL

b) 5.8 mL

c) 6.2 mL

d) 7.1 mL

8.15 a [Algorithmic]If 125 mL of 1.00 M NaOH is diluted to 1.00 L, the resulting solution
contains

a) 0.125 mole of NaOH.

b) 1.00 mole of NaOH.

c) 1.25 moles of NaOH.

d) 10.0 moles of NaOH.

8.16 b A colloidal dispersion differs from a true solution in that colloidal particles

a) tend to settle at an appreciable rate.

b) are large enough to scatter light.

c) are large enough to be seen with the naked eye.

 d) are large enough to be seen with a microscope.

8.17 c Compared to pure water, a 1 M sugar-water solution will have a

a) lower vapor pressure, lower boiling point and lower freezing point.

b) higher vapor pressure, higher boiling point and higher freezing point.

c) lower vapor pressure, higher boiling point and lower freezing point.

d) lower vapor pressure, lower boiling point and higher freezing point.

8.18 d [Algorithmic]If two solutions with concentrations of 0.2 M sugar and 0.4 M sugar
respectively are separated by a semipermeable membrane, during osmosis there is a
net flow of

a) sugar molecules from the concentrated to the dilute solution.

b) sugar molecules from the dilute to the concentrated solution.

c) water molecules from the concentrated to the dilute solution.

d) water molecules from the dilute to the concentrated solution.

8.19 c Crenation of red blood cells occurs when the cells are placed in a(n)

a) hypotonic solution.

b) isotonic solution.

c) hypertonic solution.

d) physiological saline solution.

8.20 d [Algorithmic]Which of the following solutions is hypertonic with respect to blood?

a) 0.5% (m/v) NaCl

b) 0.8% (m/v) NaCl

c) 4.0% (m/v) glucose

d) 6.0% (m/v) glucose

8.21 d Which of the following statements about solutions is correct?

a) A solution is a homogeneous mixture.

b) It is possible to have solutions in which both solute and solvent are solids.

c) Solutions readily separate into solute and solvent if left undisturbed for 24
hours.

d) more than one correct response

e) no correct response

8.22 b A crystal of solid NaCl is placed into an aqueous NaCl solution. It is observed that
most, but not all, of the crystal dissolves. This means the original solution was

a) supersaturated.

b) unsaturated.

c) dilute.

d) more than one correct response

e) no correct response

8.23 d Which of the following types of interparticle attractions must be overcome in order
for a solute to dissolve in a solvent?

a) solute-solute

b) solvent-solvent
c) solute-solvent

d) more than one correct response

e) no correct response
8.24 b Consider the following substances and their polarities: A – polar, B – polar, C –
nonpolar, D – nonpolar. It is true that

a) A is more soluble in C than in B.

b) C is more soluble in D than in A.

c) D is more soluble in B than in C.

d) more than one correct response

e) no correct response

8.25 e In which of the following sets of ionic compounds are all members of the set
insoluble in water?

a) AgCl, PbCl2, NH4Cl

b) CuCO3, CaCO3, MgCO3

c) PbSO4, FeSO4, BaSO4

d) more than one correct response

e) no correct response

8.26 a Which of the following solutions would always contain 10.0 g of solute per 40.0 g of
solvent?

a) 20.0% (m/m) solution

b) 25.0% (m/v) solution

c) 25.0% (v/v) solution

d) more than one correct response

e) no correct response

8.27 d Which of the following amounts of solution contain 20.0 g of solute?

a) 100.0 g of 20.0% (m/m) NaCl solution

b) 500.0 g of 4.00% (m/m) NaCl solution

c) 200.0 g of 10.0% (m/m) NaCl solution

d) more than one correct response

e) no correct response

8.28 e Which of the following solutions has a molarity of 1.0?

 a) 0.050 mole of solute in 25.0 mL of solution

b) 2.0 moles of solute in 500.0 mL of solution

c) 3.0 moles of solute in 1.5 L of solution

d) more than one correct response

e) no correct response

8.29 c Which of the following statements is correct for 25.0 mL of 3.0 M NH3 solution?
(NH3 has a molar mass of 17.0 g.)

a) 25.0 mL of solvent is present.

b) 0.75 moles of solute is present.

c) 1.3 grams of solute is present.

d) more than one correct response

e) no correct response
8.30 b Which of the following solutions will have a molarity of less than 1.0 after 50.0 mL of
solvent is added to it?

a) 50.0 mL of 3.0 M solution

b) 10.0 mL of 5.0 M solution

c) 575 mL of 1.2 M solution

d) more than one correct response

e) no correct response

8.31 d Particles of the dispersed phase in a colloidal dispersion are

a) small enough that they cannot be seen by the naked eye.

b) large enough that they settle out under the influence of gravity.

c) small enough that they cannot be filtered out using filter paper.

d) more than one correct response

e) no correct response

8.32 b In which of the following pairs of properties are both members of the pair colligative
properties?

a) density, boiling point

b) vapor pressure, osmotic pressure

c) solubility, freezing point

d) more than one correct response

e) no correct response

8.33 e Which of the following solutions has an osmolarity of 3.0?

a) 4.0 M glucose

b) 2.0 M NaCl

c) 1.0 M Na3PO4

d) more than one correct response

e) no correct response

8.34 d In which of the following pairings of terms are the terms closely related?

a) hemolysis, hypotonic solution

 b) hypertonic, higher osmotic pressure than within cells

c) isotonic solution, crenation

d) more than one correct response

e) no correct response

8.35 b Which of the following statements concerning dialysis is correct?

a) Only water passes through the dialyzing membrane.

b) Dissolved ionic substances and small molecules are separated from colloidal
particles.

c) Two types of colloidal particles are separated from each other.

d) more than one correct response

e) no correct response

States of Matter

Which below best describes the Bose-Einstein condensate state of matter?

the desk sitting in your science classroom is an example

found at super-high temperatures and has a definite shape

occurs at extremely low temperatures and causes atoms to function as a single particle

an ice cube in a glass of soda is an example

According to Boyle’s law the volume of a fixed mass of a gas, at constant temperature, is

a) directly proportional to its pressure

b) inversely proportional to its pressure

c) the square root of its pressure

d) none of these

At constant pressure, the volume of a fixed mass of a gas is

a) directly proportional to its temperature

b) directly proportional to its absolute temperature

c) inversely proportional to its temperature

d) inversely proportional to its absolute temperature

Which of the following is the correct mathematical relation for Charle’s law at constant pressure?

a) V ∝T

b) V ∝t

c) V = kt

d) none of these

For one mole of a gas, the ideal gas equation is

a) PV = RT

b) PV = 1/2 RT

c) PV = 3/2 RT

d) PV = 5/2 RT

Which one of the following is incorrect?

a) the critical temperature, Tc, of a gas is that temperature above which it can be liquefied no
matter how high pressure is applied

b) the critical pressure, Pc , is the minimum pressure required to liquefy the gas at its critical
temperature

c) the critical volume, Pc , is the volume occupied by one mole of the gas at critical temperature
and critical volume

d) none of these

A gas is heated at constant temperature. Then

a) the no. of molecules of the gas increases

b) the kinetic energy of the gas molecules decreases

c) the kinetic energy of the gas molecules remains unaltered

d) the kinetic energy of the gas molecules increases

Which is not true about the solid state?

a) they have definite shape and volume

b) they have high density and low compressibility

c) they have high attractive forces among molecules

d) they have high vapour pressure

Amorphous solids do not have

a) sharp melting point

b) characteristic geometrical shapes

c) regularity of the structure

d) all of these

A crystalline solid has

a) definite geometrical shape

b) flat faces

c) sharp edges

d) all of these

Amorphous substances are isotropic because

a) they have same value of any property in all directions

b) they have different values of physical properties in different directions

c) they have definite geometrical shape

d) none of the above

The Bragg’s equation for diffraction of X-rays is

d) n λ = d sin θ

c) n λ = 2 d sin2θ

b) n λ = 2 d sin θ

a) n λ = 3dsin θ

8. There are different characteristics for each of the states of matter. Which statement describes a

difference between solids and liquids?

A. Temperatures can change a solid to a liquid, but cannot change a liquid to a solid.

B. Solids have a definite volume, and liquids do not have a definite volume.

C. The particles in a solid are much closer together than the particles in a liquid.

D. Solids take on the shape of their containers, and liquids maintain their own shapes.

____ 9. Which of the following is a property of both liquids and gases, but not solids?

A. can flow

B. can be compressed

C. has a definite shape

D. has a definite texture

1. There are three main states of matter: liquid, solid, and gas. All have different physical
properties.

Which statement describes the physical state of a solid but not of a liquid or a gas?

A. It has its own shape.

B. It does not have its own shape.

C. It takes the shape of its container.

D. It changes shape with temperature.

Complexation

Number of bonds to central metal ion is known as

a) oxidation number

b) dative number

c) coordination number

d) compound number

Ligands which can form two coordinate bonds from each ion or molecule to metal ion are known
as

a) ligands ions

b) dentate ligands

c) monodentate ligands

d) bidentate ligands

EDTA is

a) bidentate

b) tridentate

c) pentadentate

d) hexatentate

Formation of complex can be observed by

a) change in colour

b) change in pH
c) change in solubility

d) all of above

All ligands are

a) Lewis bases

b) Lewis acids

c) Neutral

d) None

1. In the complex formation, the central metal atom / ion acts as

a) Lewis base b) Bronsted base c) Lewis acid d) Bronsted acid

2. The groups satisfying the secondary valencies of a cation in a complex are called

a) Ligands b) Radicals c) Primary valencies d) None of these

3. The number of ions formed on dissolving one molecule of FeSO4(NH4)2SO4.6H2O in water

is

a) 4 b) 5 c) 3 d) 6

4.The number of unidentate ligands in the complex ion is called

a. Effective atomic number b. Coordination number

c. Primary valency c. Oxidation number

5.The oxidation state of Cr in [Cr(NH3)4Cl2]

is

a. +3 b. +2 c. +1 d. 0

6.Which response gives the correct coordination number and oxidation number of the transition

metal atom in [Co(NH3)2(H2O)2Cl2]

a. C.N. = 2; O.N. = +3 b. C.N. = 3; O.N. = +1

c. C.N. = 4; O.N. = +2 d. C.N. = 6; O.N. = +3

7.Which one of the following is a monodentate ligand?

a. CN−

b. EDTA
c. C2O4

d. H2NCH2CH2NH2

8.Which of the following can function as a chelating agent?

a. SH- b. H2O c. H2NCH2CO2

- d. SCN9.Consider the coordination compound, Na2[Pt(CN)4]. The Lewis acid is

(a) [Pt(CN)4]

2- (b) Pt (c) Pt2+ (c) CN10. Consider the coordination compound, K2[Cu(CN)4]. A coordinate
covalent bond exists

between

(a) K+

and CN-

(b) Cu2+ and CN-

(c) K+

and [Cu(CN)4]

2- (d) C and N in CN11. Which of the following compound will furnish Fe3+ ions in solution?

a) [Fe(CN)6]

3 - b) Fe2(SO4)3 c) [Fe(CN)6]

4 - d) None of these

1.

The ______ sphere is enclosed in brackets in formulas for complex species, and it includes the
central metal ion plus the coordinated groups.

(a) ligand

(b) donor

(c) oxidation

(d) coordination

(e) chelating

2.

In coordination chemistry, the donor atom of a ligand is

(a) a Lewis acid.

(b) the counter ion

(c) the central metal atom.

(d) the atom in the ligand that shares an electron pair with the metal.

(e) the atom in the ligand that accepts a share in an electron pair from the metal.

3.

Consider the coordination compound, Na2[Pt(CN)4]. The Lewis acid is

(a) [Pt(CN)4]2-

(b) Na+

(c) Pt

(d) Pt2+

(e) CN-

4.

Consider the coordination compound, K2[Cu(CN)4]. A coordinate covalent bond exists between

(a) K+ and CN-

(b) Cu2+ and CN-

(c) K+ and [Cu(CN)4]2-

(d) C and N in CN-

(e) K+ and Cu2+

5.

Given the list of ligands and their corresponding names, choose the pair that disagree.

LIGAND NAME

(a) OH- hydroxo

(b) CN- cyanide

(c) Cl- chloro

(d) H2O aqua

(e) NH3 ammine

6.

Select the correct IUPAC name for: [FeF4(OH2)2]-

(a) diaquatetrafluoroiron(III) ion

(b) diaquatetrafluoroferrate(III) ion

(c) diaquatetrafluoroiron(I) ion

(d) diaquatetrafluoroferrate(I) ion

(e) none of these

7.

Select the correct IUPAC name for: [Co(NH3)6]2+

(a) hexammoniacobaltate(II) ion

(b) hexaamminecobaltate(II) ion

(c) hexammoniacobalt(II) ion

(d) hexaamminecobalt(II) ion

(e) hexammoniacobalt ion

8.

Which name-formula combination is NOT correct?

FORMULA NAME

(a) [Co(NH3)4(OH2)I]SO4 tetraammineaquaiodocobalt(III) sulfate

(b) K[Cr(NH3)2Cl4] potassium diamminetetrachlorochromate(III)

(c) [Mn(CN)5]2- pentacyanomanganate(II) ion

(d) [Ni(CO)4] tetracarbonylnickel(0)

(e) Ca[PtCl4] calcium tetrachloroplatinate(II)

9.

What is the oxidation number of the central metal atom in the coordination compound

[Pt(NH3)3Cl]Cl?

(a) -1

(b) 0

(c) +1

(d) +2

(e) +3

10.

(Valance Bond Theory) Magnetic measurements indicate that [Co(OH2)6]2+ has 3 unpaired
electrons. Therefore, the hybridization of the metal's orbitals in [Co(OH2)6]2+ is:

(a) sp3

(b) sp2d

(c) dsp2

(d) sp3d2
(e) d2sp3

11.

Which one of the following complexes can exhibit geometrical isomerism?

(a) [Pt(NH3)2Cl2] (square planar)

(b) [Zn(NH3)2Cl2] (tetrahedral)

(c) [Cu(NH3)4]2+ (square planar)

(d) [Co(NH3)5Cl]2+ (octahedral)

(e) [Cu(CN)2]- (linear)

12.

A molecule that cannot be superimposed on its mirror image is said to exhibit which of the
following?

(a) geometrical isomerism

(b) optical isomerism

(c) linkage isomerism

(d) reactive isomerism

(e) coordination isomerism

13.

In which one of the following species does the transition metal ion have d3 electronic
configuration?

(a) [Cr(NH3)6]3+

(b) [Co(OH2)6]2+

(c) [CoF6]3-

(d) [Fe(CN)6]3-

(e) [Ni(OH2)6]2+

Diffusion and Osmosis

The movement of solvent molecules across the semipermeable membrane from the region of
higher osmotic potential to lower osmotic potential is called as _________

Diffusion

Osmosis

Passive transport
Facilitated transport

Which of the followings requires energy?

Facilitated transport

Passive transport

Active transport

None of above

The movement of solute from the region of high concentration to low concentration of solute is
called as ________

Reverse osmosis

Osmosis

Distillation

Diffusion

Paracetamol is absorbed by the tissues by which mechanism

Passive transport

active transport

Osmosis

Both B and C

The solution having high solute concentration is called as ___________

Isotonic

Hypotonic

Hypertonic

Saturated

Red blood cells placed in a hypertonic solution will ________

Swell and eventually lyse

Remain unchanged

Shrink

Can't say

Which of the following solutions is isotonic relative to blood plasma?

0.15 m NaCl

0.9% NaCl

5% dextrose
All of these are isotonic to plasma

Which of the following substances is least able to diffuse through a living cellular membrane?

Water

Cholesterol

Carbon dioxide

Glucose

To maintain sink condition, concentration of _____ compartment should be kept at lower level.

Donor

Receptor

Both

None

The rate of diffusion is affected by which of the following?

Temperature

Pressure

Concentration gradient

All of above

1. When there are no external forces, the shape of a liquid

drop is determined by

(a) Surface tension of the liquid

(b) Density of liquid

(c) Viscosity of liquid

(d) Temperature of air only

2. Choose the wrong statement from the following.

(a) Small droplets of a liquid are spherical due to surface

tension

(b) Oil rises through the wick due to capillarity

(c) In drinking the cold drinks through a straw, we use

the phenomenon of capillarity

(d) Gum is used to stick two surfaces. In this process

we use the property of adhesion

3. When the angle of contact between a solid and a liquid

is 90°, then

(a) Cohesive force > Adhesive force

(b) Cohesive force < Adhesive force

(c) Cohesive force = Adhesive force

(d) Cohesive force >> Adhesive force

4. Rain drops are spherical in shape because of

(a) Surface tension

(b) Capillary

(c) Downward motion

(d) Acceleration due to gravity

5. Ammonia has a net dipole moment while boron trifluoride has zero dipole moment because

(a) Fluorides is more electronegative

(b) Fluorides is more electronegative

(c) Boron trifluoride is pyramidal in shape while NH3

is planar

(d) NH3

is pyramidal in shape while BF3 is planar

6. The SO4

consists of a central sulphur atom with four

equivalent oxygen atoms. What should be the internal O-S-O bond angle be

(a) 6° (b) 9°

(c) 109.5° (d) 117

7. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

(a) Hydrogen can give an electropositive ion by losing

its electrons

(b) Hydrogen can form an electronegative ion by gaining another electron

(c) Hydrogen can combine with some other elements

by means of covalency

(d) Hydrogen can enter into a coordinate linkage with

other atoms

8. The Phase rule is applicable to ____________

(a) Homogenous system

(b) Reversible system

(c) Irreversible system

(d) Heterogeneous system whether physical or

chemical

9. A dilatometer is an apparatus used to measure

(a) Transition temperature

(b) Triple point

(c) Eutectic point

(d) All of these

10. The nature of bonding between Al and chlorine in

AlCl3

is

(a) Electrovalent

(b) Covalent

(c) Covalent with polar character

(d) Coordinate covalent

11. Pick out the molecule which has zero dipole moment

(a) NH3 (b) H2

(c) BCl3 (d) SO2

12. “Equal volume of all gases at

Physical Chemistry 3.25

14. Mixing of two or more gases is a ____________

(a) Spontaneous Process

(b) Non-spontaneous Process

(c) Reversible Process

(d) None of these

15. The free energy function (G) is defined as

(a) G = H + TS

(b) G = TS – H

(c) G = H – TS

(d) None of these

16. The Second Law of Thermodynamics stated that

(a) It is impossible to take heat from a hotter reservoir and convert it completely into work by a
cyclic process without transferring a part of heat to a

cooler reservoir.

(b) It is impossible to transfer heat from a body at a

lower temperature to one at higher temperature

(c) The efficiency of heat engine in always less

than 1

(d) All of above

17. The unit in which surface tension is measured is:

(a) Dyne.cm (b) Dyne.cm–1

(c) Dyne1

.cm (d) Dyne1

.cm1

18. The reciprocal of viscosity is called ____________

(a) Surface tension

(b) Frictional resistance

(c) Fluidity

(d) None of these

19. A crystalline solid does not have one of the following

properties:

(a) Anisotropy

(b) Sharp melting point

(c) Isotropy

(d) Definite and regular geometry

20. 36 g of glucose (molecular mass – 180) is present in

500 g of water,the molality of the solution is

(a) 0.2 (b) 0.4

(c) 0.8 (d) 1.0

21. The molarities of 0.1N HCl and 0.1 N H2

SO4

is respectively:

(a) 0.1M HCl and 0.05 M H2

SO4

(b) 0.05 M HCl and 0.1 M H2

SO4

(c) 1 M HCl and 0.2 M H2

SO4

(d) 0.05 M HCl and 0.1 M H2

SO4

22. Which of the following includes all the aims of

kinetics?

(i) To measure the rate of reaction

(ii) To be able to predict the rate of a reaction

(iii) To be able to establish the mechanism by which

reaction occurs

(iv) To be able to control a reaction

(a) i , ii and iii (b) i and ii

(c) i and iii (d) i, ii, iii and iv

23. For first order reaction the rate constant K, has the

unit(s)

(a) 1 mol–1 (b) Time–1

(c) (Mol/L)–1 (d) Time.mol L–1

24. Thermodynamics is applicable for ____________

(a) Microscopic system

(b) Macroscopic system

(c) Heterogenous system

(d) Homogenous system

25. A system in which no thermal energy pass into or out

of the system is called ____________

(a) Adiabatic System (b) Open System

(c) Closed System (d) Reversible System

26. An alfa particle is ____________

(a) An electron

(b) One neutron and one proton

(c) Two protons and two neutrons

(d) An X-ray emission

27. In a Geiger Muller counter, one count is directly due to

____________

(a) A secondary electron

(b) A primary electron

(c) Many electron and ions

(d) A beta particle

28. Following is an example of extensive properties

__________

(p) Mass

(q) Pressure

(r) Temprature

(s) Volume

(a) (p) and (q) (b) (p) and (r)

(c) (q) and (r) (d) (p) and (s)

3.26 Chapter 1

Answer Keys

1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (c) 4. (a) 5. (d) 6. (c) 7. (d) 8. (d) 9. (a) 10. (c)

11. (c) 12. (d) 13. (d) 14. (a) 15. (c) 16. (d) 17. (b) 18. (c) 19. (c) 20. (b)

21. (a) 22. (d) 23. (b) 24. (b) 25. (a) 26. (c) 27. (c) 28. (d) 29. (d) 30. (a)

29. Following all are the examples of endothermic process,

except one

(a) Melting of solid salts

(b) Evaporation of water

(c) Producing sugar by photosynthesis

(d) Mixing of water with calcium chloride

30. At a triple point ____________

(a) Both the temperature and pressure are fixed

(b) Only temperature is fixed

(c) Only pressure is fixed

(d) Sometimes temperature and sometime pressure

are fixed