1. An agitated, confused female
Nurse Joey is assigned to care hands
client arrives in the emergency
department. Her history includes
type 1 diabetes mellitus,
hypertension , and angina
pectoris . Assessment reveals
pallor, diaphoresis, headache,
and intense hunger. A stat blood
glucose sample measures 42
mg/dl, and the client is treated
for an acute hypoglycemic
reaction. After recovery, the
nurse
teaches the client to treat
hypoglycemia by ingesting:
A. 2 to 5 g of a simple
carbohydrate.
B. 10 to 15 g of a simple
carbohydrate.
C. 18 to 20 g of a simple
carbohydrate.
D. 25 to 30 g of a simple
carbohydrate.
2. A female adult client with a
history
of chronic hyperparathyroidism
admits to being noncompliant.
Based on initial assessment
findings, the nurse formulates
the nursing diagnosis of Risk for
injury. To complete the nursing
diagnosis statement for this
client, which “related-to” phrase
should the nurse add?
A. Related to bone
demineralization
resulting in pathologic fractures
B. Related to exhaustion
secondary to an accelerated
metabolic rate
C. Related to edema and dry skin
secondary to fluid infiltration into
the
interstitial spaces
D. Related to tetany secondary
to a
decreased serum calcium level
1
3.
for a
postoperative male client who
has
diabetes mellitus . During the
assessment interview, the client
reports that he’s impotent and
says
he’s concerned about its effect
on his
marriage. In planning this
client’s
care, the most appropriate
intervention would be to:
A. Encourage the client to ask
questions about personal
sexuality.
B. Provide time for privacy.
C. Provide support for the spouse
or
significant other.
D. Suggest referral to a sex
counselor
or other appropriate
professional.
4. During a class on exercise for
diabetic clients, a female client
asks
the nurse educator how often to
exercise. The nurse educator
advises
the clients to exercise how often
to
meet the goals of planned
exercise?
A. At least once a week
B. At least three times a week
C. At least five times a week
D. Every day
5. Nurse Oliver should expect a
client
with hypothyroidism to report
which
health concerns?
A. Increased appetite and weight
loss
B. Puffiness of the face and
C. Nervousness and tremors
D. Thyroid gland swelling
6. A female client with
hypothyroidism
( myxedema ) is receiving
levothyroxine
(Synthroid), 25 mcg P.O. daily.
Which
finding should nurse Hans
recognize as an adverse drug
effect?
A. Dysuria
B. Leg cramps
C. Tachycardia
D. Blurred vision
7. A 67-year-old male client has
been
complaining of sleeping more,
increased urination, anorexia,
weakness, irritability,
depression, and
bone pain that interferes with
her
going outdoors. Based on these
assessment findings, nurse
Richard
would suspect which of the
following
disorders?
A. Diabetes mellitus
B. Diabetes insipidus
C. Hypoparathyroidism
D. Hyperparathyroidism
8. When caring for a male client
with
diabetes insipidus, nurse Juliet
expects to administer:
A. vasopressin (Pitressin
Synthetic).
B. furosemide ( Lasix ).
C. regular insulin .
D. 10% dextrose.
9. The nurse is aware that the
following is the most common
cause
of hyperaldosteronism?
A. Excessive sodium intake
B. A pituitary adenoma
C. Deficient potassium intake
D. An adrenal adenoma
10. A male client with type 1
diabetes
mellitus has a highly elevated
glycosylated hemoglobin (Hb)
test
result. In discussing the result
with the client, nurse Sharmaine
would be most accurate in
stating:
A. “The test needs to be
repeated
following a 12-hour fast.”
B. “It looks like you aren’t
following the prescribed diabetic
diet.”
C. “It tells us about your sugar
control for the last 3 months.”
D. “Your insulin regimen needs
to be
altered significantly.”
11. Following a unilateral
adrenalectomy, nurse Betty
would
assess for hyperkalemia shown
by
which of the following?
A. Muscle weakness
B. Tremors
C. Diaphoresis
D. Constipation
12. Nurse Louie is developing a
teaching plan for a male client
diagnosed with diabetes
insipidus. The nurse should
include information about which
hormone lacking in clients with
diabetes insipidus?
A. antidiuretic hormone (ADH).
B. thyroid-stimulating hormone
(TSH).
C. follicle-stimulating hormone
(FSH).
D. luteinizing hormone (LH).
2
13. Early this morning, a female
client
had a subtotal thyroidectomy.
During
evening rounds, nurse Tina
assesses
the client, who now has nausea,
a containing
temperature of 105° F (40.5° C),
tachycardia, and extreme
restlessness. What is the most
likely cause of these signs?
A. Diabetic ketoacidosis
B. Thyroid crisis
C. Hypoglycemia
D. Tetany
14. For a male client with
hyperglycemia , which
assessment
finding best supports a nursing
diagnosis of Deficient fluid
volume ?
A. Cool, clammy skin
B. Distended neck veins
C. Increased urine osmolarity
D. Decreased serum sodium
level
15. When assessing a male
client with
pheochromocytoma, a tumor of
the
adrenal medulla that secretes
excessive catecholamine, nurse
April
is most likely to detect:
A. a blood pressure of 130/70
mm Hg.
B. a blood glucose level of 130
mg/dl.
C. bradycardia.
D. a blood pressure of 176/88
mm Hg.
16. A male client is admitted for
treatment of the syndrome of
inappropriate antidiuretic
hormone
(SIADH). Which nursing
intervention is appropriate?
A. Infusing I.V. fluids rapidly as
ordered
B. Encouraging increased oral
intake
C. Restricting fluids
D. Administering glucose-
I.V. fluids as ordered
17. A female client has a serum
calcium level of 7.2 mg/dl.
During the
physical examination, nurse
Noah
expects to assess:
A. Trousseau’s sign.
B. Homans’ sign.
C. Hegar’s sign.
D. Goodell’s sign.
18. Which outcome indicates
that
treatment of a male client with
diabetes insipidus has been
effective?
A. Fluid intake is less than 2,500
ml/
day.
B. Urine output measures more
than
200 ml/hour.
C. Blood pressure is 90/50 mm
Hg.
D. The heart rate is 126
beats/minute.
19. Jemma, who weighs 210 lb
(95 kg) and has been diagnosed
with
hyperglycemia tells the nurse
that her husband sleeps in
another room
because her snoring keeps him
awake. The nurse notices that
she has large hands and a
hoarse voice. Which of the
following would the nurse
suspect as a possible cause of
the client’s hyperglycemia?
A. Acromegaly
B. Type 1 diabetes mellitus
C. Hypothyroidism
D. Deficient growth hormone
20. Nurse Kate is providing
dietary
instructions to a male client with
hypoglycemia. To control
hypoglycemic episodes, the
nurse should recommend:
A. Increasing saturated fat intake
and
fasting in the afternoon.
B. Increasing intake of vitamins
B and
D and taking iron supplements.
C. Eating a candy bar if
lightheadedness occurs.
D. Consuming a low-
carbohydrate, high protein diet
and avoiding fasting.
21. An incoherent female client
with a history of hypothyroidism
is brought to the emergency
department by the rescue
squad. Physical and laboratory
findings reveal hypothermia,
hypoventilation, respiratory
acidosis,
bradycardia, hypotension , and
nonpitting edema of the face
and
pretibial area. Knowing that
these
findings suggest severe
hypothyroidism, nurse Libby
prepares to take emergency
action to prevent the potential
complication of:
A. Thyroid storm.
B. Cretinism .
C. myxedema coma.
D. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis.
22. A male client with type 1
diabetes mellitus asks the nurse
about taking an oral antidiabetic
agent. Nurse Jack explains that
3
these medications are only
effective if the client:
A. prefers to take insulin orally.
B. has type 2 diabetes.
C. has type 1 diabetes.
D. is pregnant and has type 2
diabetes.
23. When caring for a female
client
with a history of hypoglycemia,
nurse
Ruby should avoid administering
a Cushing’s syndrome, the
drug that may potentiate
hypoglycemia. Which drug fits
this
description?
A. sulfisoxazole (Gantrisin)
B. mexiletine (Mexitil)
C. prednisone (Orasone)
D. lithium carbonate (Lithobid)
24. After taking glipizide
(Glucotrol)
for 9 months, a male client
experiences secondary failure.
Which
of the following would the nurse
expect the physician to do?
A. Initiate insulin therapy.
B. Switch the client to a different
oral
antidiabetic agent.
C. Prescribe an additional oral
antidiabetic agent.
D. Restrict carbohydrate intake
to less
than 30% of the total caloric
intake.
25. During preoperative teaching
for a female client who will
undergo subtotal thyroidectomy,
the nurse should include which
statement?
A. “The head of your bed must
remain
flat for 24 hours after surgery.”
B. “You should avoid deep
breathing
and coughing after surgery.”
C. “You won’t be able to swallow
for
the first day or two.”
D. “You must avoid
hyperextending
your neck after surgery.”
26. Nurse Ronn is assessing a
client
with possible Cushing’s
syndrome. In a client with
nurse would expect to find:
A. Hypotension.
B. Thick, coarse skin.
C. Deposits of adipose tissue in
the
trunk and dorsocervical area.
D. Weight gain in arms and legs.
27. A male client with primary
diabetes insipidus is ready for
discharge on desmopressin
(DDAVP).
Which instruction should nurse
Lina
provide?
A. “Administer desmopressin
while the suspension is cold.”
B. “Your condition isn’t chronic,
so you won’t need to wear a
medical
identification bracelet.”
C. “You may not be able to use
desmopressin nasally if you have
nasal discharge or blockage.”
D. “You won’t need to monitor
your
fluid intake and output after you
start
taking desmopressin.”
28. Nurse Wayne is aware that a
positive Chvostek’s sign
indicate?
A. Hypocalcemia
B. Hyponatremia
C. Hypokalemia
D. Hypermagnesemia
29. In a 29-year-old female client
who is being successfully treated
for
Cushing’s syndrome, nurse
Lyzette
would expect a decline in:
A. Serum glucose level.
B. Hair loss.
C. Bone mineralization.
D. Menstrual flow.
30. A male client has recently
undergone surgical removal of a
pituitary tumor. Dr. Wong
prescribes
corticotropin (Acthar), 20 units
I.M.
q.i.d. as a replacement therapy.
What
is the mechanism of action of
corticotropin?
A. It decreases cyclic adenosine
monophosphate (cAMP)
production and affects the
metabolic rate of target organs.
B. It interacts with plasma
membrane
receptors to inhibit enzymatic
actions.
C. It interacts with plasma
membrane
receptors to produce enzymatic
actions that affect protein, fat,
and
carbohydrate metabolism.
D. It regulates the threshold for
water
resorption in the kidneys.
31. Capillary glucose monitoring
is
being performed every 4 hours
for a
female client diagnosed with
diabetic
ketoacidosis. Insulin is
administered
using a scale of regular insulin
4
according to glucose results. At 2
p.m., the client has a capillary
glucose level of 250 mg/dl for
which he receives 8 U of regular
insulin. Nurse Vince should
expect the dose’s:
A. Onset to be at 2 p.m. and its
peak
to be at 3 p.m.
B. Onset to be at 2:15 p.m. and
its
peak to be at 3 p.m.
C. Onset to be at 2:30 p.m. and
its
peak to be at 4 p.m.
D. Onset to be at 4 p.m. and its
peak
to be at 6 p.m.
32. A female client with
Cushing’s
syndrome is admitted to the
medical-
surgical unit. During the
admission
assessment, nurse Tyzz notes
that the client is agitated and
irritable, has poor memory,
reports loss of appetite, and
appears disheveled. These
findings are consistent with
which problem?
A. Depression
B. Neuropathy
C. Hypoglycemia
D. Hyperthyroidism
33. Nurse Ruth is assessing a
client
after a thyroidectomy. The
assessment reveals muscle
twitching and tingling, along
with numbness in the fingers,
toes, and mouth area. The nurse
should suspect which
complication?
A. Tetany
B. Hemorrhage
C. Thyroid storm
D. Laryngeal nerve damage
34. After undergoing a subtotal
thyroidectomy, a female client
develops hypothyroidism. Dr.
Smith
prescribes levothyroxine
(Levothroid),
25 mcg P.O. daily. For which
condition is levothyroxine the
preferred agent?
A. Primary hypothyroidism
B. Graves’ disease
C. Thyrotoxicosis
D. Euthyroidism
35. Which of these signs
suggests that a male client with
the syndrome of inappropriate
antidiuretic hormone (SIADH)
secretion is experiencing
complications?
A. Tetanic contractions
B. Neck vein distention
C. Weight loss
D. Polyuria
36. A female client with a history
of
pheochromocytoma is admitted
to the hospital in an acute
hypertensive
crisis. To reverse hypertensive
crisis
caused by pheochromocytoma,
nurse Lyka expects to
administer:
A. phentolamine (Regitine).
B. methyldopa (Aldomet).
C. mannitol ( Osmitrol ).
D. felodipine (Plendil).
37. A male client with a history
of
hypertension is diagnosed with
primary hyperaldosteronism.
This diagnosis indicates that the
client’s hypertension is caused
by excessive hormone secretion
from which of the following
glands?
A. Adrenal cortex
B. Pancreas
C. Adrenal medulla
D. Parathyroid
38. Nurse Troy is aware that the
most
appropriate for a client with
Addison’s disease?
A. Risk for infection
B. Excessive fluid volume
C. Urinary retention
D. Hypothermia
39. Acarbose (Precose), an
alpha-
glucosidase inhibitor, is
prescribed for a female client
with type 2 diabetes mellitus.
During discharge planning, nurse
Pauleen would be aware of the
client’s need for additional
teaching when the client states:
A. “If I have hypoglycemia, I
should eat some sugar, not
dextrose.”
B. “The drug makes my pancreas
release more insulin.”
C. “I should never take insulin
while
I’m taking this drug.”
D. “It’s best if I take the drug
with the
first bite of a meal.”
40. A female client whose
physical
findings suggest a hyperpituitary
condition undergoes an
extensive
diagnostic workup. Test results
reveal
a pituitary tumor, which
necessitates
a transsphenoidal
hypophysectomy.
The evening before the surgery,
nurse Jacob reviews preoperative
and postoperative instructions
given to the client earlier. Which
5
postoperative instruction should
the nurse emphasize?
A. “You must lie flat for 24 hours
after surgery.”
B. “You must avoid coughing,
sneezing, and blowing your
nose.”
C. “You must restrict your fluid
intake.”
D. “You must report ringing in
your
ears immediately.”
41. Dr. Kennedy prescribes
glipizide
(Glucotrol), an oral antidiabetic
agent, for a male client with type
2 diabetes
mellitus who has been having
trouble
controlling the blood glucose
level
through diet and exercise. Which
medication instruction should
the
nurse provide?
A. “Be sure to take glipizide 30
minutes before meals.”
B. “Glipizide may cause a low
serum
sodium level, so make sure you
have
your sodium level checked
monthly.”
C. “You won’t need to check your
blood glucose level after you
start
taking glipizide.”
D. “Take glipizide after a meal to
prevent heartburn.”
42. For a diabetic male client
with a
foot ulcer , the physician orders
bed
rest, a wet-to-dry dressing
change
every shift, and blood glucose
monitoring before meals and
bedtime. Why are wet-to-dry
dressings used for this client?
A. They contain exudate and
provide a moist wound
environment.
B. They protect the wound from
mechanical trauma and promote
healing.
C. They debride the wound and
promote healing by secondary
intention.
D. They prevent the entrance of
microorganisms and minimize
wound
discomfort.
43. When instructing the female
client diagnosed with
hyperparathyroidism about diet,
nurse Gina should stress
the importance of which of the
following?
A. Restricting fluids
B. Restricting sodium
C. Forcing fluids
D. Restricting potassium
44. Which nursing diagnosis
takes
highest priority for a female
client with hyperthyroidism?
A. Risk for imbalanced nutrition:
More than body requirements
related to thyroid hormone
excess
B. Risk for impaired skin integrity
related to edema, skin fragility,
and
poor wound healing
C. Body image disturbance
related to
weight gain and edema
D. Imbalanced nutrition: Less
than
body requirements related to
thyroid
hormone excess
45. A male client with a tentative
diagnosis of hyperosmolar
hyperglycemic nonketotic
syndrome
(HHNS) has a history of type 2
diabetes that is being controlled
with
an oral diabetic agent,
tolazamide
(Tolinase). Which of the following
is
the most important laboratory
test for confirming this disorder?
A. Serum potassium level
B. Serum sodium level
C. Arterial blood gas (ABG)
values
D. Serum osmolarity
46. A male client has just been
diagnosed with type 1 diabetes
mellitus. When teaching the
client and family how diet and
exercise affect insulin
requirements, Nurse Joy should
include which guideline?
A. “You’ll need more insulin
when you exercise or increase
your food intake.”
B. “You’ll need less insulin when
you
exercise or reduce your food
intake.”
C. “You’ll need less insulin when
you
increase your food intake.”
D. “You’ll need more insulin
when you exercise or decrease
your food intake.”
47. Nurse Noemi administers
glucagon to her diabetic client,
then monitors the client for
adverse drug reactions and
interactions. Which type of drug
interacts adversely with
glucagon?
A. Oral anticoagulants
B. Anabolic steroids
C. Beta-adrenergic blockers
D. Thiazide diuretics
6
48. Which instruction about D. Hyperkalemia
insulin
administration should nurse Kate
give 1. Knowing that gluconeogenesis
to a client? helps to maintain blood levels, a
A. “Always follow the same order nurse should:
when drawing the different 1. Document weight changes
insulins into the syringe.” because of fatty acid
B. “Shake the vials before mobilization
withdrawing the insulin.” 2. Evaluate the patient’s
C. “Store unopened vials of sensitivity to
insulin in low room temperatures because
the freezer at temperatures well of
below freezing.” decreased adipose tissue
D. “Discard the intermediate- insulation
acting 3. Protect the patient from
insulin if it appears cloudy.” sources of
49. Nurse Perry is caring for a infection because of decreased
female cellular protein deposits
client with type 1 diabetes 4. Do all of the above
mellitus 2. Clinical manifestations
who exhibits confusion, light- associated
headedness, and aberrant with a diagnosis of type 1 DM
behavior. include
The client is still conscious. The all of the following except:
nurse 1. Hypoglycemia
should first administer: 2. Hyponatremia
A. I.M. or subcutaneous 3. Ketonuria
glucagon. 4. Polyphagia
B. I.V. bolus of dextrose 50%. 3. The lowest fasting plasma
C. 15 to 20 g of a fast-acting glucose
carbohydrate such as orange level suggestive of a diagnosis of
juice. DM
D. 10 U of fast-acting insulin. is:
50. For the first 72 hours after 1. 90mg/dl
thyroidectomy surgery, nurse 2. 115mg/dl
Jamie 3. 126mg/dl
would assess the female client 4. 180mg/dl
for 4. Rotation sites for insulin
Chvostek’s sign and Trousseau’s injection
sign should be separated from one
because they indicate which of another by 2.5 cm (1 inch) and
the should be used only every:
following? 1. Third day
A. Hypocalcemia 2. Week
B. Hypercalcemia 3. 2-3 weeks
C. Hypokalemia 4. 2-4 weeks
5. A clinical feature that
distinguishes
a hypoglycemic reaction from a
ketoacidosis reaction is:
1. Blurred vision
2. Diaphoresis
3. Nausea
4. Weakness
6. Clinical nursing assessment
for a
patient with microangiopathy
who has manifested impaired
peripheral arterial circulation
includes all of the following
except:
1. Integumentary inspection for
the
presence of brown spots on the
lower extremities
2. Observation for paleness of
the
lower extremities
3. Observation for blanching of
the feet
after the legs are elevated for 60
seconds
4. Palpation for increased pulse
volume in the arteries of the
lower extremities
7. The nurse expects that a type
1 decreased blood pH.
diabetic may receive ____ of his
or her morning dose of insulin
preoperatively:
1. 10-20%
2. 25-40%
3. 50-60%
4. 85-90%
8. Albert, a 35-year-old insulin
dependent diabetic, is admitted
to the hospital with a diagnosis
of
pneumonia . He has been febrile
since admission. His daily insulin
requirement is 24 units of NPH.
Every
morning Albert is given NPH
7
insulin at 0730. Meals are served 3. 16-18 hours after
at 0830, 1230, and 1830. The administration
nurse expects that the NPH 4. 18-24 hours after
insulin will reach its maximum administration
effect (peak) between the hours 12. An external insulin pump is
of: prescribed for a client with DM.
1. 1130 and 1330 The
2. 1330 and 1930 client asks the nurse about the
3. 1530 and 2130 functioning of the pump. The
4. 1730 and 2330 nurse
9. A bedtime snack is provided bases the response on the
for information that the pump:
Albert. This is based on the 1. Gives small continuous dose
knowledge of
that intermediate-acting insulins regular insulin subcutaneously,
are and the client can self-
effective for an approximate administer a bolus with an
duration additional dosage from the pump
of: before each meal.
1. 6-8 hours 2. Is timed to release
2. 10-14 hours programmed
3. 16-20 hours doses of regular or NPH insulin
4. 24-28 hours into
10. Albert refuses his bedtime the bloodstream at specific
snack. intervals.
This should alert the nurse to 3. Is surgically attached to the
assess pancreas and infuses regular
for: insulin
1. Elevated serum bicarbonate into the pancreas, which in turn
and a releases the insulin into the
bloodstream.
2. Signs of hypoglycemia earlier 4. Continuously infuses small
than amounts of NPH insulin into the
expected. bloodstream
3. Symptoms of hyperglycemia while regularly monitoring blood
during glucose levels.
the peak time of NPH insulin. 13. A client with a diagnosis of
4. Sugar in the urine diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is
11. A client is taking NPH insulin being
daily treated in the ER. Which finding
every morning. The nurse would a nurse expect to note as
instructs the client that the most confirming this diagnosis?
likely time for a hypoglycemic 1. Elevated blood glucose level
reaction to occur is: and a
1. 2-4 hours after administration low plasma bicarbonate
2. 6-14 hours after 2. Decreased urine output
administration 3. Increased respirations and an
increase in pH
4. Comatose state
14. A client with DM
demonstrates
acute anxiety when first
admitted for
the treatment of hyperglycemia.
The
most appropriate intervention to
decrease the client’s anxiety
would be to:
1. Administer a sedative
2. Make sure the client knows all
the
correct medical terms to
understand
what is happening.
3. Ignore the signs and
symptoms of
anxiety so that they will soon
disappear
4. Convey empathy, trust, and
respect toward the client.
15. A nurse is preparing a plan of
care for a client with DM who has
hyperglycemia. The priority
nursing
diagnosis would be:
1. High risk for deficient fluid
volume
2. Deficient knowledge: disease
process and treatment
3. Imbalanced nutrition: less
than body requirements
4. Disabled family coping:
compromised.
16. A nurse is caring for a client
admitted to the ER with DKA. In
the
acute phase the priority nursing
action is to prepare to:
1. Administer regular insulin
intravenously
2. Administer 5% dextrose
intravenously
3. Correct the acidosis
4. Apply an electrocardiogram
8
monitor.
17. A nurse performs a physical
assessment on a client with type
2 DM. Findings include a fasting
blood
glucose of 120mg/dl,
temperature of
101, pulse of 88, respirations of
22,
and a bp of 140/84. Which
finding
would be of most concern of the
nurse?
1. Pulse
2. BP
3. Respiration
4. Temperature
18. A client with type 1 DM calls
the
nurse to report recurrent
episodes of
hypoglycemia with exercise.
Which
statement by the client indicated
an
inadequate understanding of the
peak action of NPH insulin and
exercise?
1. “The best time for me to
exercise is every afternoon.”
2. “The best time for me to
exercise is right after I eat.”
3. “The best time for me to
exercise is after breakfast.”
4. “The best time for me to
exercise is after my morning
snack.”
19. A client with diabetes
mellitus
visits a health care clinic. The
client’s
diabetes previously had been
well
controlled with glyburide
(Diabeta), 5
mg PO daily, but recently the
fasting
blood glucose has been running
180-200mg/dl. Which
medication, if
added to the clients regimen,
may
have contributed to the
hyperglycemia?
1. Prednisone (Deltasone)
2. Atenolol (Tenormin)
3. Phenelzine (Nardil)
4. Allopurinol (Zyloprim)
20. Glucose is an important
molecule
in a cell because this molecule is
primarily used for:
1. Extraction of energy
2. Synthesis of protein
3. Building of genetic material
4. Formation of cell membranes.
21. When a client is first
admitted with hyperglycemic
hyperosmolar nonketotic
syndrome (HHNS), the nurse’s
priority is to provide:
1. Oxygen
2. Carbohydrates
3. Fluid replacement
4. Dietary instruction
22. The nurse is admitting a
client with hypoglycemia.
Identify the signs and symptoms
the nurse should expect.
Select all that apply.
1. Thirst
2. Palpitations
3. Diaphoresis
4. Slurred speech
5. Hyperventilation
23. When a client is in diabetic
ketoacidosis, the insulin that
would be administered is:
1. Human NPH insulin
2. Human regular insulin
3. Insulin lispro injection
4. Insulin glargine injection
24. The nurse recognizes that
additional teaching is necessary
when the client who is learning
alternative site testing (AST) for
glucose monitoring says:
1. “I need to rub my forearm
vigorously until warm before
testing at this site.”
2. “The fingertip is preferred for
glucose monitoring if
hyperglycemia is suspected.”
3. “I have to make sure that my
current glucose monitor can be
used at an alternate site.”
4. “Alternate site testing is
unsafe if I
am experiencing a rapid change
in
glucose levels.”
25. Which adaptations should
the
nurse caring for a client with
diabetic
ketoacidosis expect the client to
exhibit? Select all that apply:
1. Sweating
2. Low PCO2
3. Retinopathy
4. Acetone breath
5. Elevated serum bicarbonate
26. A client’s blood gases reflect
diabetic acidosis. The nurse
should
expect:
1. Increased pH
2. Decreased PO2
3. Increased PCO2
4. Decreased HCO3
27. The nurse knows that
glucagon
may be given in the treatment of
hypoglycemia because it:
1. Inhibits gluconeogenesis
2. Stimulates the release of
insulin
3. Increases blood glucose levels
4. Provides more storage of
glucose.
28. A client with type 1 DM has a
9
fingerstick glucose level of
258mg/dl
at bedtime. An order for sliding
scale
insulin exists. The nurse should:
1. Call the physician
2. Encourage the intake of fluids
3. Administer the insulin as
ordered
4. Give the client ½ c. of orange
juice
29. The physician orders 36 units
of
NPH and 12 units of regular
insulin.
The nurse plans to administer
these
drugs in 1 syringe. Identify the
steps
in this procedure by listing them
in
priority order.
1. Inject air equal to NPH dose
into
NPH vial
2. Invert regular insulin bottle
and
withdraw regular insulin dose
3. Inject air equal to regular dose
into
regular dose
4. Invert NPH vial and withdraw
NPH
dose.
30. The insulin that has the most
rapid onset of action would be:
1. Lente
2. Lispro
3. Ultralente
4. Humulin N
31. A client with DM states, “I
cannot
eat big meals; I prefer to snack
throughout the day.” The nurse
should carefully explain that the:
1. Regulated food intake is basic
to
control
2. Salt and sugar restriction is
the
main concern
3. Small, frequent meals are
better for digestion
4. Large meals can contribute to
a
weight problem
32. A client with DM has an
above-
knee amputation because of
severe
peripheral vascular disease, Two
days
following surgery, when
preparing the client for dinner, it
is the nurse’s
primary responsibility to:
1. Check the client’s serum
glucose
level
2. Assist the client out of bed to
the
chair
3. Place the client in a high-
Fowlers
position
4. Ensure that the client’s
residual limb is elevated.
33. Which of the following
nursing
interventions should be taken for
a
client who complains of nausea
and
vomits one hour after taking his
glyburide (DiaBeta)?
1. Give glyburide again
2. Give subcutaneous insulin and
monitor blood glucose
3. Monitor blood glucose closely,
and
look for signs of hypoglycemia.
4. Monitor blood glucose, and
assess
for signs of hyperglycemia.
34. Which of the following
chronic
complications is associated with
diabetes?
1. Dizziness, dyspnea on
exertion, and coronary artery
disease.
2. Retinopathy, neuropathy, and
coronary artery disease
3. Leg ulcers, cerebral ischemic
events, and pulmonary infarcts
4. Fatigue , nausea, vomiting,
muscle
weakness, and cardiac
arrhythmia’s
35. Rotating injection sites when
administering insulin prevents
which of the following
complications?
1. Insulin edema
2. Insulin lipodystrophy
3. Insulin resistance
4. Systemic allergic reactions
36. Which of the following
methods of insulin
administration would be used in
the initial treatment of
hyperglycemia in a client with
diabetic ketoacidosis?
1. Subcutaneous
2. Intramuscular
3. IV bolus only
4. IV bolus, followed by
continuous
infusion.
37. Insulin forces which of the
following electrolytes out of the
plasma and into the cells?
1. Calcium
2. Magnesium
3. Phosphorus
4. Potassium
38. Which of the following
causes of
HHNS is most common?
1. Insulin overdose
2. Removal of the adrenal gland
10
3. Undiagnosed, untreated
hyperpituitarism
4. Undiagnosed, untreated
diabetes
mellitus
39. A client is in DKA, secondary
to
infection. As the condition
progresses, which of the
following symptoms might the
nurse see?
1. Kussmaul’s respirations and a
fruity odor on the breath
2. Shallow respirations and
severe
abdominal pain
3. Decreased respirations and
increased urine output.
4. Cheyne-stokes respirations
and foul- smelling urine
40. Clients with type 1 diabetes
may
require which of the following
changes to their daily routine
during periods of infection?
1. No changes
2. Less insulin
3. More insulin
4. Oral antidiabetic
1. Marlisa has been diagnosed
with
diabetes mellitus type 1. She
asks
Nurse Errol what this means.
What is
the best response by the nurse?
Select all that apply.
A. “Your alpha cells should be
able to
secrete insulin , but cannot.”
B. “The exocrine function of your
pancreas is to secrete insulin.”
C. “Without insulin, you will
develop
ketoacidosis (DKA).”
D. “The endocrine function of
your
pancreas is to secrete insulin.”
E. “It means your pancreas
cannot
secrete insulin.”
2. Dr. Shrunk orders intravenous
(IV)
insulin for Rita, a client with a
blood
sugar of 563. Nurse AJ
administers
insulin lispro ( Humalog)
intravenously
(IV). What does the best
evaluation of the nurse reveal?
Select all that apply.
A. The nurse could have given
the
insulin subcutaneously.
B. The nurse should have
contacted
the physician.
C. The nurse should have used
regular insulin (Humulin R).
D. The nurse used the correct
insulin.
3. Ben injects his insulin as
prescribed, but then gets busy
and
forgets to eat. What will the best
assessment of the nurse reveal?
A. The client will be very thirsty.
B. The client will complain of
nausea.
C. The client will need to urinate.
D. The client will have moist
skin.
4. A clinical instructor teaches a
class
for the public about diabetes
mellitus . Which individual does
the nurse assess as being at
highest risk for developing
diabetes?
A. The 50-year-old client who
does not get any physical
exercise
B. The 56-year-old client who
drinks
three glasses of wine each
evening
C. The 42-year-old client who is
50
pounds overweight
D. The 38-year-old client who
smokes
one pack of cigarettes per day
5. Steven John has type 1
diabetes
mellitus and receives insulin.
Which
laboratory test will the nurse
assess?
A. Potassium
B. AST (aspartate
aminotransferase)
C. Serum amylase
D. Sodium
6. Jansen is receiving metformin
( Glucophage ). What will be the
best
plan of the nurse with regard to
patient education with this drug?
Select all that apply.
A. It stimulates the pancreas to
produce more insulin.
B. It must be taken with meals.
C. It decreases sugar production
in the liver .
D. It inhibits absorption of
carbohydrates.
E. It reduces insulin resistance.
7. Serafica who has diabetes
mellitus
type 1 is found unresponsive in
the
clinical setting. Which nursing
action is a priority? arrange from
1 to 4.
1. Treat the client for
hypoglycemia .
2. Call the physician STAT.
3. Assess the vital signs.
11
4. Call a code.
A. 1, 2, 3, 4
B. 1, 3, 2, 4
C. 3, 1, 2, 4
D. 4, 3, 2, 1
8. Serge who has diabetes
mellitus is
taking oral agents, and is
scheduled
for a diagnostic test that
requires him
to be NPO. What is the best plan
of
the nurse with regard to giving
the
client his oral medications?
A. Administer the oral agents
immediately after the test.
B. Notify the the diagnostic
department and request orders.
C. Notify the physician and
request
orders.
D. Administer the oral agents
with a
sip of water before the test.
9. A client diagnosed with type 1
diabetes receives insulin. He
asks the
nurse why he can’t just take pills
instead. What is the best
response by
the nurse?
A. “Insulin must be injected
because it needs to work
quickly.”
B. “Insulin can’t be in a pill
because it
is destroyed in stomach acid.”
C. “Have you talked to your
doctor
about taking pills instead?”
D. “I know it is tough, but you
will get
used to the shots soon.”
10. Nurse Andy has finished
teaching a client with diabetes
mellitus how to
administer insulin. He evaluates
the
learning has occurred when the
client makes which statement?
A. “I should check my blood
sugar
immediately prior to the
administration.”
B. “I should provide direct
pressure
over the site following the
injection.”
C. “I should use the abdominal
area
only for insulin injections.”
D. “I should only use calibrated
insulin
syringe for the injections.”
11. Genevieve has diabetes type
1 and receives insulin for
glycemic control. She tells the
nurse that she likes to have a
glass of wine with dinner. What
will the best plan of the nurse for
client education include?
A. The alcohol could cause
pancreatic
disease.
B. The alcohol could cause
serious
liver disease.
C. The alcohol could predispose
you to hypoglycemia.
D. The alcohol could predispose
you to hyperglycemia.
12. Dr. Wijangco orders insulin
lispro
(Humalog) 10 units for Alicia, a
client
with diabetes mellitus. When will
the
nurse administer this
medication?
A. When the client is eating
B. Thirty minutes before meals
C. fifteen minutes before meals
D. When the meal trays arrive on
the
floor
13. Nurse Matt makes a home
visit to
the client with diabetes mellitus.
During the visit, Nurse Matt
notes the client’s additional
insulin vials are not refrigerated.
What is the best action by the
nurse at this time?
A. Instruct the client to label
each vial with the date when
opened.
B. Tell the client there is no need
to
keep additional vials.
C. Have the client place the
insulin
vials in the refrigerator.
D. Have the client discard the
vials.
14. During the morning rounds,
Nurse AJ accompanied the
physician in every patient’s
room. The physician writes
orders for the client with
diabetes mellitus. Which order
would the nurse validate with
the physician?
A. Use Humalog insulin for
sliding
scale coverage.
B. Metformin (Glucophage) 1000
mg
per day in divided doses.
C. Administer regular insulin 30
minutes prior to meals.
D. Lantus insulin 20U BID.
15. Gary has diabetes type 2.
Nurse
Martha has taught him about the
illness and evaluates learning
has
occurred when the client makes
which statement?
A. “My cells have increased their
12
receptors, but there is enough
insulin.”
B. “My peripheral cells have
increased sensitivity to insulin.”
C. “My beta cells cannot produce
enough insulin for my cells.”
D. “My cells cannot use the
insulin my pancreas makes.”
16. The principal goals of
therapy for
older patients who have poor
glycemic control are:
A. Enhancing quality of life.
B. Decreasing the chance of
complications.
C. Improving self-care through
education.
D. All of the above.
17. Which of the following is
accurate pertaining to physical
exercise and type 1 diabetes
mellitus?
A. Physical exercise can slow the
progression of diabetes mellitus.
B. Strenuous exercise is
beneficial
when the blood glucose is high.
C. Patients who take insulin and
engage in strenuous physical
exercise
might experience
hyperglycemia.
D. Adjusting insulin regimen
allows for safe participation in all
forms of
exercise.
18. Harry is a diabetic patient
who is
experiencing a reaction of
alternating
periods of nocturnal
hypoglycemia and
hyperglycemia. The patient
might be manifesting which of
the following?
A. Uncontrolled diabetes
B. Somogyi phenomenon
C. Brittle diabetes
D. Diabetes insipidus
19. Dr. Hugo has prescribed
sulfonylureas for Rebecca in the
management of diabetes
mellitus type 2. As a nurse, you
know that the
primary purpose of
sulfonylureas, such as long-
acting glyburide (Micronase), is
to:
A. Induce hypoglycemia by
decreasing insulin sensitivity.
B. Improve insulin sensitivity and
decrease hyperglycemia.
C. Stimulate the beta cells of the
pancreas to secrete insulin.
D. Decrease insulin sensitivity by
enhancing glucose uptake.
20. Rosemary has been taking
Glargine (Lantus) to treat her
condition. One of the benefits of
Glargine (Lantus)
insulin is its ability to:
A. Release insulin rapidly
throughout
the day to help control basal
glucose.
B. Release insulin evenly
throughout
the day and control basal
glucose
levels.
C. Simplify the dosing and better
control blood glucose levels
during the day.
D. Cause hypoglycemia with
other
manifestation of other adverse
reactions.
21. A 50-year-old widower is
admitted to the hospital with a
diagnosis of diabetes mellitus
and complaints of rapid-onset
weight loss, elevated blood
glucose levels, and polyphagia,
the gerontology nurse should
anticipate which of the following
secondary medical diagnoses?
A. Impaired glucose tolerance
B. Gestational diabetes mellitus
C. Pituitary tumor
D. Pancreatic tumor
22. An older woman with
diabetes
mellitus visits the clinic
concerning
her condition. Of which of the
following symptoms might an
older
woman with diabetes mellitus
complain?
A. Anorexia
B. Pain intolerance
C. Weight loss
D. Perineal itching
23. Gregory is a 52-year-old man
identified as high-risk for
diabetes
mellitus. Which laboratory test
should a nurse anticipate a
physician would order for him?
(Select all that apply.)
A. Fasting Plasma Glucose (FPG)
B. Two-hour Oral Glucose
Tolerance
Test (OGTT)
C. Glycosylated hemoglobin
(HbA1C)
D. Finger stick glucose three
times
daily
24. According to the National
Diabetes Statistics Report,
diabetes remains as one of the
leading causes of death in the
United States since 2010. Which
of
the following factors are risks for
the
development of diabetes
mellitus?
(Select all that apply.)
A. Age over 45 years
13
B. Overweight with a waist/hip
ratio >1
C. Having a consistent HDL level
above 40 mg/dl
D. Maintaining a sedentary
lifestyle
25. During a visit in the hospital,
the
student nurses are asked which
of the following persons would
most likely be diagnosed with
diabetes mellitus. They are
correct if they answered a 44-
year- old:
A. Caucasian woman.
B. Asian woman.
C. African-American woman.
D. Hispanic male.
26. An ailing 70-year-old woman
with a diagnosis of type 2
diabetes mellitus has been ill
with pneumonia . The client’s
intake has been very poor, and
she is admitted to the hospital
for observation and
management as
needed. What is the most likely
problem with this patient?
A. Insulin resistance has
developed.
B. Diabetic ketoacidosis is
occurring.
C. Hypoglycemia unawareness is
developing.
D. Hyperglycemic hyperosmolar
non-
ketotic coma.
27. Daniel is diagnosed of having
hyperthyroidism (Graves’
disease).
Which of the following is a drug
of
choice for his condition?
A. Furosemide ( Lasix )
B. Digoxin (Lanoxin)
C. Propranolol (Inderal)
D. Propylthiouracil (PTU)
28. Which of the following
medications are most likely to
cause
hypothyroidism? (Select all that
apply.)
A. Acetylsalicylic acid ( aspirin )
B. Furosemide (Lasix)
C. Docusate sodium (Colace)
D. Rifampin (Rifadin)
29. After visiting the physician,
Angela found out that she has a
thyroid problem. In line with her
condition, which of the following
diagnostic studies is done to
determine the size and
composition of the thyroid
gland?
A. Thyroid scan with RAI 123I
B. Electrocardiography
C. Ultrasonography
D. Venous duplex Doppler study
30. Nurse Gil is caring for a
patient
with a diagnosis of
hypothyroidism.
Which nursing diagnosis should
the
nurse most seriously consider
when
analyzing the needs of the
patient?
A. High risk for aspiration related
to
severe vomiting
B. Diarrhea related to increased
peristalsis
C. Hypothermia related to
slowed
metabolic rate
D. Oral mucous membrane,
altered
related to disease process
1. During lecture, the clinical
instructor
tells the students that 50% to
60% of
daily calories should come from
carbohydrates. What should the
nurse
say about the types of
carbohydrates
that can be eaten?
A. Try to limit simple sugars to
between 10% and 20% of daily
calories.
B. Simple carbohydrates are
absorbed
more rapidly than complex
carbohydrates.
C. Simple sugars cause rapid
spike in
glucose levels and should be
avoided.
D. Simple sugars should never
be
consumed by someone with
diabetes.
2. At the time Cherrie Ann found
out
that the symptoms of diabetes
were
caused by high levels of blood
glucose, she decided to break
the
habit of eating carbohydrates.
With
this, the nurse would be aware
that
the client might develop what
complication?
A. retinopathy
B. atherosclerosis
C. glycosuria
D. acidosis
3. Joko has recently been
diagnosed
with Type I diabetes and asks
Nurse
Jessica for help formulating a
nutrition
plan. Which of the following
14
recommendations would the
nurse
make to help the client increase
calorie consumption to offset
absorption problems?
A. Eat small meals with two or
three
snacks throughout the day to
keep
blood glucose levels steady
B. Increase consumption of
simple
carbohydrates
C. Eating small meals with two
or three
snacks may be more helpful in
maintaining blood glucose levels
than
three large meals.
D. Skip meals to help lose weight
4. Billy is being asked
concerning his
health in the emergency
department.
When obtaining a health history
from a
patient with acute pancreatitis ,
the
nurse asks the patient
specifically
about a history of
A. alcohol use.
B. cigarette smoking.
C. diabetes mellitus .
D. high-protein diet.
5. Nurse Shey is educating a
pregnant
client who has gestational
diabetes.
Which of the following
statements
should the nurse make to the
client?
Select all that apply.
A. Cakes, candies, cookies, and
regular
soft drinks should be avoided.
B. Gestational diabetes increases
the
risk that the mother will develop
diabetes later in life.
C. Gestational diabetes usually
resolves after the baby is born.
D. Insulin injections may be
necessary.
E. The baby will likely be born
with
diabetes
F. The mother should strive to
gain no
more weight during the
pregnancy.
6. The goal for pre-prandial
blood
glucose for those with Type 1
diabetes
mellitus is:
A. <80 mg/dl
B. <130 mg/dl
C. <180 mg/dl
D. <6%
7. The guidelines for
Carbohydrate
Counting as medical nutrition
therapy
for diabetes mellitus includes all
of
the following EXCEPT:
A. Flexibility in types and
amounts of
foods consumed
B. Unlimited intake of total fat,
saturated fat and cholesterol
C. Including adequate servings
of
fruits, vegetables and the dairy
group
D. Applicable to with either Type
1 or
Type 2 diabetes mellitus
8. The nurse working in the
physician’s office is reviewing
lab
results on the clients seen that
day.
One of the clients who has
classic
diabetic symptoms had an eight-
hour
fasting plasma glucose (FPG)
test
done. The nurse realizes that
diagnostic criteria developed by
the
American Diabetes Association
for
diabetes include classic diabetic
symptoms plus which of the
following
fasting plasma glucose levels?
A. Higher than 106 mg/dl
B. Higher than 126 mg/dl
C. Higher than 140 mg/dl
D. Higher than 160 mg/dl
9. When taking a health history,
the
nurse screens for manifestations
suggestive of Diabetes Type I.
Which
of the following manifestations
are
considered the primary
manifestations
of Diabetes Type I and would be
most
suggestive and require follow-up
investigation?
A. Excessive intake of calories,
rapid
weight gain, and difficulty losing
weight
B. An increase in three areas:
thirst,
intake of fluids, and hunger
C. Poor circulation, wound
healing, and
leg ulcers,
D. Lack of energy, weight gain,
and
depression
10. The nurse is working with an
15
overweight client who has a
high-
stress job and smokes. This
client has
just received a diagnosis of Type
II
Diabetes and has just been
started on
an oral hypoglycemic agent.
Which of
the following goals for the client
which
if met, would be most likely to
lead to
an improvement in insulin
efficiency to
the point the client would no
longer
require oral hypoglycemic
agents?
A. Comply with medication
regimen
100% for 6 months
B. Quit the use of any tobacco
products by the end of three
months
C. Lose a pound a week until
weight is
in normal range for height and
exercise
30 minutes daily
D. Practice relaxation techniques
for at
least five minutes five times a
day for
at least five months
11. During a visit in a
community, the
nurse will recommend routine
screening for diabetes when the
person
has one or more of seven risk
criteria.
Which of the following persons
that
the nurse comes in contact with
most
needs to be screened for
diabetes
based on the seven risk criteria?
A. A client with an HDL
cholesterol
level of 40 mg/dl and a
triglyceride
level of 300 mg/dl
B. A woman who is at 90% of
standard
body weight after delivering an
eight-
pound baby
C. A middle-aged Caucasian
male
D. An older client who is
hypotensive
12. During the admission of a
client
with diabetic ketoacidosis, Nurse
Kendra will anticipate the
physician
ordering which of the following
types
of intravenous solution if the
client
cannot take fluids orally?
A. Lactated Ringer’s solution
B. 0.9 normal saline solution
C. 5% dextrose in water ( D5W )
D. 0.45% normal saline solution
13. You are doing some teaching
with
a client who is starting on a
sulfonylurea antidiabetic agent.
The
client mentions that he usually
has a
couple of beers each night and
takes
an aspirin each day to prevent
heart
attack and/or strokes. Which of
the
following responses would be
best on
the part of the nurse?
A. As long as you only drink two
beers
and take one aspirin, this should
not be
a problem
B. The aspirin is alright but you
need
to give up drinking any alcoholic
beverages
C. Taking alcohol and/or aspirin
with a
sulfonylurea drug can cause
development of hypoglycemia
D. Aspirin and alcohol will cause
the
stomach to bleed more when on
a 17. Blood sugar is well controlled
sulfonylurea drug
14. Which of the following if
stated by
the nurse is correct about
Hyperglycemic Hyperosmolar
Nonketotic Syndrome (HHNS)?
A. This syndrome occurs mainly
in
people with Type I Diabetes
B. It has a higher mortality rate
than
Diabetic Ketoacidosis
C. The client with HHNS is in a
state
of overhydration
D. This condition develops very
rapidly
15. Nurse Robedee is teaching a
thin
client about the proper methods/
techniques when giving insulin.
Which
one of the following is proper?
A. Pinch the skin up and use a 90
degree angle
B. Use a 45 degree angle with
the skin
pinched up
C. Massage the area of injection
after
16
injecting the insulin I.V.
D. Warm the skin with a warmed C. Give 4 to 6 oz (118 to 177 mL)
towel of
or washcloth prior to the orange juice.
injection D. Give the client four to six
16. Nurse Pira is explaining to glucose
the tablets.
client about Type II Diabetes. 20. An external insulin pump is
Risk prescribed for a client with
factors of such condition include diabetes
all of mellitus and the client asks the
the following except: nurse
A. Advanced age about the functioning of the
B. Physical inactivity pump. The
C. Obesity nurse bases the response on the
D. Smoking information that the pump:
A. is timed to release
when programmed
Hemoglobin A1C is: doses of regular or NPH insulin
A. Below 5.7% into
B. Between 12%-15% the bloodstream at specific
C. Less than 180 mg/dL intervals
D. Between 90 and 130 mg/dL B. gives a small continuously
18. Which of the following dose of
diabetes regular insulin subcutaneously,
drugs acts by decreasing the and the
amount client can self-administer a bolus
of glucose produced by the liver? with
A. Alpha-glucosidase inhibitors an additional dose from the
B. Biguanides pump
C. Meglitinides before each meal
D. Sulfonylureas C. continuously infuses small
19. A 39-year-old company amounts
driver of NPH insulin into the
presents with shakiness, bloodstream
sweating, while regularly monitoring blood
anxiety , and palpitations and glucose levels
tells the D. is surgically attached to the
nurse he has Type I Diabetes pancreas and infuses regular
Mellitus. insulin
Which of the follow actions into the pancreas, which in turn
should the releases the insulin into the
nurse do first? bloodstream
A. Inject 1 mg of glucagon 21. Which of the following
subcutaneously. persons
B. Administer 50 mL of 50% would most likely be diagnosed
glucose with
Diabetes Mellitus? A 44-year-old:
A. Caucasian woman.
B. Asian woman.
C. African-American woman.
D. Hispanic male.
22. Which of the following
factors are
risks for the development of
Diabetes
Mellitus? Select all that apply.
A. Age over 45 years
B. Overweight with a waist/hip
ratio >1
C. Having a consistent HDL level
above
40 mg/dl
D. Maintaining a sedentary
lifestyle
23. Anton brought his
grandfather to
the clinic to confirm his blood
sugar
levels. Which laboratory test
should a
nurse anticipate a physician
would
order when an older person is
identified as high-risk for
Diabetes
Mellitus? Select all that apply.
A. Fasting Plasma Glucose (FPG)
B. Two-hour Oral Glucose
Tolerance
Test (OGTT)
C. Glycosylated hemoglobin
(HbA1C)
D. Finger stick glucose three
times
daily
24. A patient received 6 units of
regular insulin 3 hours ago. The
nurse
would be MOST concerned if
which of
the following was observed?
A. kussmaul respirations and
diaphoresis
17
B. anorexia and lethargy
C. diaphoresis and trembling
D. headache and polyuria
25. Mr. Wesley is newly
diagnosed with
Type I DM and is being seen by
the
home health nurse. The doctors
orders
include: 1200 calorie ADA diet,
15
units NPH insulin before
breakfast,
and check blood sugar qid.
When the
nurse visits the patient at 5 pm,
the
nurse observes the man
performing
blood sugar analysis. The result
is 50
mg/dL. The nurse would expect
the
patient to be
A. confused with cold, clammy
skin
and pulse of 110
B. lethargic with hot dry skin and
rapid
deep respirations
C. alert and cooperative with BP
of
130/80 and respirations of 12
D. short of breath, with
distended neck
veins and bounding pulse of 96.