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1) The mark-to-space ratio of the waveform shown is

A to B / B to C.
A to D / D to E.
D to E / D to C.

2) In what equipment is a photon radiated when an electron leaves a hole?


Photo-cell.
LED.
Photo diode.

3) The unit which consists of two or more different types of atoms is known as a
particle of an element.
molecule of a compound.
molecule of an element.

4) A neutron has
no electrical charge but will add weight to the nucleus.
the same charge as an Electron but half the mass.
the opposite charge to an Electron but half the weight of a proton.

5) The smallest particle that a substance can be split and show the same properties as the whole is
known as
an Element.
a Molecule.
an Atom.

6) What charge does the nucleus of an atom possess?


Positive.
Neutral.
Negative.

7) What is the maximum number of electrons in shell N of an atom?


18.
32.
16.

8) An oxygen molecule is made up of


two oxygen atoms sharing neutrons.
two oxygen atoms sharing protons.
two oxygen atoms sharing electrons.

9) If electrons are added to an atom it becomes


a neutral ion.
a positive ion.
a negative ion.

10) An element whose atoms have fewer than 4 electrons in their valency shell are
semiconductors.
good insulators.
good conductors.

11) The charge on a proton is


positive.
negative.
neutral.

12) What effect do the electrons of one atom have upon the electrons of another atom?
They have no effect on each other.
They repel each other.
They attract each other.

13) What is a molecule?


The smallest part of an atom.
The smallest part of a compound.
The smallest part of an electron.

14) An atom is
the smallest part of an element that retains its characteristics.
the smallest part of a compound that can exist independently.
the smallest particle of matter.

15) A neutron is a particle which is


is contained in the nucleus of all atoms.
orbits the nucleus of the atom.
is contained within the nucleus of most atoms.

16) The mass of an atom is contained mainly in the


proton.
nucleus.
electron.

17) When an atom loses or gains an electron it is called


a molecule.
a current.
an ion.

18) A good electrical insulator is a material which


contains a large number of positive ions.
has its electrons tightly bound to their parent atoms.
has more protons than electrons.

19) An electric current is


an ordered flow of electrons.
a surplus of free electron.
an excitement of electrons in a metal.
20) An atom contains
hydrogen.
molecules.
electrons.

21) Germanium and silicon have how many electrons in their outer shell?
6.
4.
2.

22) If a free electron is given to another atom, that atom is a


valency atom.
negative ion.
positive ion.

23) The atomic number of an atom is determined by the number of


protons.
electrons.
neutrons.

24) The valence electron is


the electron in outer shell of atom.
the electron in inner shell of atom.
a positive electron.

25) An atom with a deficiency in electrons has


low resistance.
high resistance.
high impedance.

26) An atom with less than 4 electrons in its outer shell has
low electrical resistance.
no electrical resistance.
high electrical resistance.

27) Elements such as phosphorus with 5 electrons in their outer shell, when combined with pure
silicon, is a
isotopic.
acceptor.
donor.

28) An hydrogen atom consist of a


Proton, Neutron and an Electron.
Proton and an Electron only.
Neutron and a proton only.

29) For an atom to become a negative ion it must


gain at least one electron.
have undergone ionisation by the sun.
lose at least one electron.
30) What is the maximum number of electrons in shell M of an atom?
18.
6.
16.

31) A neutral atom with an atomic no. of 3 has how many electrons?
1.
3.
Dependant on type of atom.

32) The nucleus of an atom is


neutral.
positive charged.
negative charged.

33) Electron orbits are called


waves.
shells.
valences.

34) A neutral atom gains electrons


It gains a positive charge.
It gains a negative charge.
It remains neutral.

35) An oxygen atom has


protons and electrons.
neutrons and protons.
protons, neutrons and electrons.

36) A semi-conductor will have


two electrons in the outer shell.
four electrons in the outer shell.
eight electrons in the outer shell.

37) Ion current is found in


conductors and semi-conductors.
liquids and gasses.
semi-conductors.

38) Electricity conducts through


vacuum.
solids and liquids only.
solids only.

39) An example of a good electrical insulator is


aluminium.
glass.
mercury.
40) Static charges remaining in an aircraft are dissipated by
earthing the aircraft as soon as possible.
the use of a conducting type nose wheel.
bonding the aircraft to a refuel tanker.

41) An element could be considered to be a conductor if it has


a small number of electrons in its outer orbit.
a large number of electrons in its outer orbit.
a large number of electrons.

42) A charged body is said to have


a surplus or deficiency of electrons.
a deficiency of neutrons.
a surplus of protons.

43) The risk of a fire due to static electricity is overcome


by connecting all metal components by bonding.
by fitting static wicks and isolating the battery from inflammable gas sources.
by fitting static wicks and insulating all metal components.

44) The purpose of bonding is to


ensure all components have been securely fitted.
stop different potentials developing with subsequent fire risks.
give generated static an easy return path to the generator.

45) The various parts of an aircraft airframe are maintained at the same potential by
the supply bus-bars.
bonding.
static discharge wicks.

46) The resistance of the current return path through the aircraft is always considered negligible,
provided the
structure is adequately bonded.
voltage drop across the circuit is checked.
generator is properly grounded.

47) If an insulated conductor is placed near to a negatively charged rod, the nearest end of the
conductor becomes
No change will occur.
negatively charged.
positively charged.

48) The electromagnetic force between two charged bodies is


inversely proportional to the distance between them.
inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them.
proportional to the distance between them.

49) If a negatively charged conductor is placed next to an insulated rod


the rod becomes negatively charged.
the rod has no charge.
the rod becomes positively charged.
50) If a photon radiating into an electronic device causes the production of an electron/hole pair, the
device is known as a
light emitting diode.
laser diode.
photodiode.

51) Faraday`s Law States that


the magnitude of the EMF is indirectly proportional to the rate of change of flux.
the magnitude of the EMF is directly proportional to the magnetic flux.
the magnitude of the EMF is directly proportional to the rate of change of flux.

52) Which of the following is 1 Amp?


1000 mA.
1000 kA.
1000 μA.

53) The term that describes the combined resistive forces in an AC circuit is
resistance.
total resistance.
impedance.

54) Ohm`s law states that:


m.f. = current divided by resistance.
current = e.m.f. divided by resistance.
resistance = current divided by e.m.f.

55) E.M.F. in an electric circuit corresponds to what in a magnetic circuit


MMF.
reluctance.
flux.

56) In conventional current flow, what is Fleming`s right hand rule used for?
Generators.
Motors.
Inductors.

57) The SI unit of work is


Kilogram metres-force.
Joules per metre.
Joules per second (Watts).

58) A coulomb is
one ampere * second.
one second per ampere.
one ampere per second.

59) A volt can be considered to be a


unit of electrical power.
quantity of electrical energy.
unit of electrical pressure.
60) What is 3.25 volts in millivolts?
3,250 millivolts.
325,000 millivolts.
3.25 millivolts.

61) Electromotive force is measured in


Watts.
Ohms.
Volts.

62) The basis for transformer operation in the use of alternating current is mutual
inductance.
capacitance.
reactance.

63) When two coils are linked by a common flux, a voltage can be induced in one by a changing
current in the other. This process is known as
self induction.
the magnetic effect.
mutual induction.

64) When an electrical supply becomes `open-circuit`


the fuse or circuit breaker should isolate the circuit due to the increased current drawn.
the loss of continuity will prevent its component from functioning.
the component will operate normally but will not switch off.

65) The S.I. unit of magnetic flux density is the


Henry.
Weber.
Tesla.

66) A 1µF capacitor is equivalent to


1,000,000 Farads.
000,001 Farads.
001 Farads.

67) The opposition offered by a coil to the flow of alternating current is called (disregarding
resistance)
inductive reactance.
impedance.
reluctance.

68) A shunt is used with


an ammeter.
a voltmeter.
an ohmmeter.

69) If a load in series has a current passing through it, the magnetic field can be worked out by using
the corkscrew rule.
left hand rule.
right hand rule.

70) The unit for power is


Joules per second.
N/m.
Volts/Amps.

71) In conventional flow, the left hand rule applies to


generators.
batteries.
motors.

72) When a conductor is cut by magnetic lines of force an EMF is induced. This is
Lenz`s Law.
Faraday`s Law.
Kirchhoff`s Law.

73) The Watt can be expressed as


Seconds per Joule.
Joules * seconds.
Joules per second.

74) To determine the direction of the magnetic field around a conductor you would use
Fleming`s right hand rule.
Fleming`s left hand rule.
the corkscrew rule.

75) Switching on or off the current in one coil produces an emf in another coil adjacent to it. The two
coils are said to have
self inductance.
auto inductance.
mutual inductance.

76) Self induced emf in a coil supplied with a current varying at a uniform rate can be found by
-L dØ / dt
-N dI / dt
-L dI / dt

77) The property of a material to accept lines of flux is called


retentivity.
reluctance.
permeability.

78) Magnetomotive force can be found by


I * N.
Blv.
N/I.

79) When a conductor is cut by magnetic lines of force an EMF is induced. This is
Kirkchoff`s Law.
Faraday`s Law.
Lenz`s Law.

80) The direction of induced conventional current in a wire rotating in a magnetic field can be
determined by
cork screw rule.
Fleming`s right hand rule.
Fleming`s left hand rule.

81) How would you find the direction of the electron flow in an armature located in a magnetic field?
Flemings left hand rule.
Flemings right hand rule.
Maxwells corkscrew rule.

82) What is the SI unit of conductance?


Ohm.
Siemen.
Ohm-metre.

83) What is the SI unit of resistivity?


Ohms.
Ohm metre.
Ohms/metre.

84) What is the formula for conductance? (R=Resistance)


R + 1.
1/R.
1-R.

85) In electrical circuit, Direct Current power is represented by the


Ampere.
Watt.
Joule.

86) In S.I. units, work is denoted by


Newton-meter which is Joules.
Joules/sec which is Watts.
Kilogram-force-meter/sec which is Metric Horsepower.

87) The unit of energy is the


Joule.
Watt.
Coulomb.

88) Potential difference is another term for


voltage.
charge.
energy.

89) XL is the symbol of


inductive reactance.
capacitive reactance.
impedance.

90) Using Ohm`s law


current is directly proportional to the resistance.
current is directly proportional to the EMF.
resistance is directly proportional to EMF.

91) One volt is induced into a circuit with a current varying at 1 amp per second. The circuit has
1 ampere turn.
1 Tesla.
1 Henry.

92) The property of a conductor of electricity that limits or restricts the flow of electric current is
limiter.
resistance.
fuse.

93) Kirchhoff`s law is applicable to


parallel networks.
series networks.
closed loop networks.

94) The SI unit of work is the


Watt.
Newton Meter.
Joule.

95) The EMF of a generator can be calculated from which law?


Faraday`s law.
Kirchhoff`s law.
Lenz`s law.

96) Thermocouple harnesses are made from the same materials as the thermocouple so that
mini junctions are not formed.
the resistance is not increased beyond limits.
they will not corrode.

97) A piezoelectric device generates electricity through


friction.
light.
pressure.

98) A photozoidal cell produces electricity when subjected to


light.
pressure.
heat.

99) A thermocouple indicator is basically a type of


millivoltmeter.
milliammeter.
milliohmeter.
100) A light/heat sensitive cell is a
transistor.
diode.
transducer.

101) A component that produces an output voltage due to incident light is called a
liquid crystal.
solar cell.
light emitting diode.

102) The flux density of a magnetic field is 1.5T. The length of the conductor in the field is 2 m and
the speed of the conductor is 10 m/s. The EMF induced is
3 V.
5 V.
30 V.

103) A conductor is placed in a magnetised coil. What will happen?


Nothing will happen unless the conductor is moved.
The conductor will move.
A force will be created.

104) The maximum output voltage from a basic single loop generator is when the loop is
rotating anti-clockwise relative to the direction of the magnetic flux.
cutting maximum lines of magnetic flux.
at 45o to the magnetic flux.

105) A 20 cell battery with each cell having an internal resistance of 0.1 ohms is charged with 2 leads
having a total resistance of 0.1 ohms. The battery is charged with a current of 5 amps. What is the
charging voltage ?
0.5 volts.
10.5 volts.
0.05 volts.

106) Two 10V, 20 Ah batteries are connected in parallel and connected across a 10 ohm load. How
long could they supply normal current before the voltage begins to decay?
40 hours.
20 hours.
4 hours.

107) A battery rated at 40 Ah will supply 200 mA for


200 hours.
20 hours.
5 hours.

108) A zinc-carbon battery life depends upon


the amount of zinc.
the purity of the carbon rod.
the amount of the electrolyte paste.

109) When checking the SG of the electrolyte in a lead acid battery, you should
check any cell because they will all be the same.
check only the no. 1 cell because it is the master cell.
check all cells because they may be different.

110) The PD at the terminals of an open circuit battery with a small internal resistance will be
more than the EMF.
less than the EMF.
the same as the EMF.

111) An accumulation of hydrogen on the plates of a battery is known as


polarization.
ionization.
hydration.

112) What part of a battery is covered in hydrogen during polarization?


Anode.
Both the anode and the cathode.
Cathode.

113) Which of the following is most likely to cause thermal runaway in a nickel-cadmium battery?
A high internal resistance condition.
High current charging of the battery to more than 100 percent of its capacity.
Excessive current draw from the battery.

114) The method of ascertaining the voltage of a standard aircraft lead-acid battery is by checking
the voltage with rated load switched ON.
the voltage on open circuit.
the voltage off load.

115) Two batteries 12V and 40 Ah each, are in series. What is the total capacity?
12V 80 Ah.
24V 40 Ah.
24V 80Ah.

116) If a battery has got low internal resistance, then the


no load voltage will be the same as on load voltage.
on load voltage will be greater than no load voltage.
no load voltage will be greater than on load voltage.

117) Conventional current flow inside a battery is from


either anode to cathode or cathode to anode, depending on the active elements.
cathode to anode.
anode to cathode.

118) In a voltaic cell, what is the build-up on the cathode called?


Hydration.
Polarization.
Sulphation.

119) Two 12V 40 amp hour batteries connected in parallel will produce
24V 80 ah.
12V 80 ah.
24V 40 ah.

120) A 24-volt source is required to furnish 48 watts to a parallel circuit consisting of four resistors of
equal value. What is the voltage drop across each resistor?
12 volts.
24 volts.
3 volts.

121) The method of ascertaining the voltage of a standard aircraft lead-acid battery is by checking
the voltage on open circuit.
the voltage off load.
the voltage with rated load switched ON.

122) Two similar 12v batteries connected in parallel will produce


24v e.m.f. with the same capacity as each battery.
12V e.m.f. with twice the capacity of each battery.
24V e.m.f. with twice the capacity of each battery

123) The voltage of a secondary cell is


determined by the active materials on the plates.
determined by the number of plates.
determined by the area of the plates.

124) What is the ampere-hour rating of a storage battery that is designed to deliver 45 amperes for
2.5 hours?
90 ampere-hour.
112.5 ampere-hour.
45 ampere-hour.

125) If a nicad battery is not to be used immediately it should be stored


dry.
fully charged.
fully dissipated.

126) In a mercury cell the steel casing is


the negative terminal.
neither.
the positive terminal.

127) To improve the life of a dry cell it would be manufactured with


more electrolyte paste.
more zinc.
a pure carbon positive rod.

128) In a simple voltaic cell the collection of ions on the cathode causes
polarisation.
sulphation.
hydration.

129) The electrolyte in a nicad battery would rise if the battery was
remaining at constant voltage.
charging.
discharging.

130) Two 2 volt 10AH cells are connected in series, the output voltage and the capacity would be
4 volt 10 AH.
4 volt 20 AH.
2 volt, 20 AH.

131) The electrolyte in a nicad battery is


potassium hydroxide.
nickel hydroxide.
cadmium hydroxide.

132) In a Leclanche cell the plates are made of


mercury and lithium.
nickel and cadmium.
zinc and carbon.

133) In a simple voltaic cell, polarization reduces output voltage because of the
build up of hydrogen on the cathode.
transfer of material between the anode and the cathode.
build up of hydrogen on the anode.

134) When the temperature of the electrolyte in a battery increases, the SG


remains the same.
goes up.
goes down.

135) The Daniel Cell electrodes are


copper and zinc.
carbon and zinc.
zinc and manganese dioxide.

136) In a thermocouple, where is voltage measured?


At both junctions.
At the hot junction.
At the cold junction.

137) Mercury cells are covered with a metal cover


as a protective cover.
as a negative terminal.
as a positive terminal.

138) The capacity of a battery is measured in


volts.
ampere-hours.
cubic centimetres.

139) A battery`s internal resistance is determined by (OCV = Open Circuit Voltage, CCV = Closed
Circuit Voltage)
IR = (OCV – CCV)/ i.
IR = (OCV + CCV) / i.
IR = (OCV - CCV) / V.

140) There are more negative than positive plates in a lead acid battery because
it is necessary for chemical action to take place.
it reduces the internal resistance of the cell.
the positive plates are prone to warping if the chemical action is taking place only on one side.

141) What is the approximate internal resistance of a Leclanche cell?


0.02 ohms - 4 ohms.
6 ohms - 10 ohms.
20 ohms - 30 ohms.

142) An aircraft battery on charge from the aircraft generators causes


internal resistance of the battery to decrease in sympathy with the decreasing charging current.
battery voltage to increases to nominal voltage and the charge current decreases.
battery voltage to decrease to zero until it is fully charged.

143) What effect does hydrogen have in a battery cell?


Sulphation.
Nothing.
Polarization.

144) To generate electricity with a fuel cell, you need a constant supply of
Nitrogen & Sunlight.
Oxygen & Hydrogen.
Kerosene & Heat.

145) A ni-cad battery found to be below normal capacity should


have its electrolyte adjusted.
be removed and used for ground use only.
be re-charged with a freshening charge.

146) In cold weather, to prevent the electrolyte freezing, a battery must be kept
fully charged.
does not matter.
fully discharged.

147) The internal resistance of a battery off load compared to on load is


the same.
increased.
decreased.

148) Two 12V, 40Ah cells in series gives


24V 80Ah.
12V 40Ah.
24V 40Ah.

149) A 24V 40AH battery discharges at 200mA. How long will it last?
400 hours.
300 hours.
200 hours.

150) The electrolyte level of a ni-cad battery


falls during charge.
falls during discharge.
rises during discharge.

151) When light energises a component, what is the component?


Light emitting diode.
Photodiode.
Laser diode.

152) Formation of white crystals of potassium carbonate on a properly serviced Ni-cd battery
indicates
over charged.
full charged.
under charged.

153) Thermal runaway causes


violent gassing only.
violent gassing, boiling of electrolyte and melting of plates and casing.
no gassing, but boiling of electrolyte and melting of plates and casing.

154) A primary cell


can not recharged.
can be recharged but only a few times.
can be recharged.

155) If the insulation resistance of a lead/acid battery is down, it indicates


case leakage.
leakage between positive and negative terminals.
intercell leakage.

156) When the battery is connected to the aircraft, which terminal should you connect first?
Any.
Positive.
Negative.

157) An ammeter in a battery charging system is for the purpose of indicating the
rate of current used to charge the battery.
amperage available for use.
total amperes being used in the aeroplane.

158) For how many hours will a 140AH battery deliver 15A?
9.33 hours.
27.25 hours.
15.15 hours.

159) What part of a nickel-cadmium cell helps to prevent thermal runaway?


The separator.
The negative plate.
The positive plate.

160) When charging current is applied to a nickel-cadmium battery, the cells emit gas only
when the electrolyte level is low.
if the cells are defective.
toward the end of the charging cycle.

161) What is the internal resistance of a battery?


The resistance measured across the two terminals.
The resistance measured when the battery is half charged.
The resistance present inside the battery while connected to a load.

162) A potential difference of 50 volts produces a current of 10 milliamperes through a resistance of


500 ohms.
5 ohms.
5,000 ohms.

163) A conductor with a positive Q (charge) of 4C has 12.56 x 1018 electrons added to it. It will have
aQ=
6.
2.
0.

164) A circuit has a current flow of 6A. If the voltage is trebled, the new current will be
6A.
18A.
2A.

165) A 10V battery supplies a resistive load of 10 ohms for 1 minute. What is the work done?
60J.
600J.
10J.

166) A galvanometer measures


millivolts.
megohms.
milliamps.

167) A loss of electrical insulation results in


an open circuit between the supply and earth.
a short circuit between the supply and earth.
an open circuit in the supply.

168) A 3, 5 and 2 ohms resistance is connected in series with a 10 V battery. The voltage across the 2
ohms resistor is
2 V.
10V.
4 V.

169) What is the PD of a circuit which has a 40 mA current and a 1 kilohm resistance?
40 V.
400 V.
4 V.

170) Three branches in a circuit have currents entering of 3A, 4A and 5A. A forth branch has 10 A
leaving. A fifth branch must have
22A leaving.
2A leaving.
2A entering.

171) In a circuit containing three resistors of equal value connected in parallel, one resistor goes open
circuit. The current in the other two resistors will
decrease.
increase.
remain the same.

172) 20 amperes flow for 20 seconds. How many coulombs have flowed?
400
20
1

173) If the resistance of an electrical circuit is increased


the current will increase.
the voltage will increase.
the current will decrease.

174) If 2 coulombs flowed through a circuit in 2 seconds, the circuit would have
1 amp.
2 volts PD.
4 amps.

175) If the voltage across a resistor is doubled


the current is doubled.
the current is halved.
the resistance is halved.

176) The total current flowing in a circuit of 200 lamps in parallel, each of a resistance of 400 ohm
and connected across an input of 100 volts is
25 amps.
50 amps.
40 amps.

177) If the cross-sectional area of a conductor is doubled, with voltage constant, the current will
remain constant.
double.
halve.

178) If two resistors of 5 and 10 ohm respectively are connected in series and the current in the 5
ohm resistor is 1A. what is the current in the 10 ohm resistor?
1 amp.
It cannot be found without knowing the applied voltage.
1/3 amp.

179) The voltage in a series circuit


is different in each component.
is the same in each component.
is less than it would be in a parallel circuit.

180) If voltage is 100V, resistance is 25 ohms, what is the current?


4 amperes.
0.4 amperes.
2500 amperes.

181) A short circuit between the supply and earth


is not dangerous as the current drawn will be low.
does not matter if the circuit uses the aircraft earth as a return.
could be very dangerous as the current drawn will be very high.

182) A circuit consists of 3 ohm, 5 ohm and 12 ohm resistors in series. The current flowing in the 5
ohm resistor is 10 amps. What is the applied voltage?
10 V.
100 V.
200 V.

183) Two resistors are connected in series and have an e.m.f. of V volts across them. If the voltages
across the resistances are V1 and V2 then by Kirchhoff`s law
V2 = V1 + V.
V1 = V2 + V.
V = V1 + V2.

184) A voltmeter is connected


in parallel.
in series or parallel.
in series.

185) Since electrical supplies taken from a bus-bar are in parallel, isolating some of the services
would
reduce the current consumption from the bus-bar.
increase the current consumption from the bus-bar.
not affect the current consumption, it would reduce the voltage.

186) The current flowing through a circuit can be increased to four times its original value by
doubling the applied voltage and halving the resistance.
doubling the resistance and doubling the applied voltage.
halving the applied voltage and halving the resistance.

187) In a circuit containing three resistors of equal value connected in series and one of the resistors
short circuits, the effect is for the current in the other two resistors to
decrease.
increase.
remain the same.
188) In a series resistive circuit
the total voltage is equal to the sum of the individual voltages.
the total voltage is the same as the highest individual.
the total voltage equals the difference between the individual voltages.

189) An ammeter is connected into a circuit in


series.
shunt.
parallel.

190) In a balanced Wheatstone bridge, across the centre of the bridge there is
current and voltage at maximum.
no current flow.
no voltage present at either end.

191) A 24V battery has an internal resistance of 1 ohm. When connected to a load, 12 amps flows.
The value of the load is
12 ohms.
1/2 ohm.
1 ohm.

192) A parallel circuit with any number of 2 terminal connections


the individual voltage drops is equal to the emf.
has the same current throughout.
the resistance is dependent on current.

193) To find the internal resistance of a battery in a circuit of known current


use the formula R = V * I.
find the lost volts of the circuit.
find the emf of the circuit.

194) In a series circuit with 3 resistors, the current is


lower than the smallest.
the total of all 3 using ohms law to find the current.
even in all 3.

195) Which is not thermally operated?


A limiting resistor.
A current limiter.
A fuse.

196) In a Desynn indicator system, the rotor is


an electromagnet.
a permanent magnet.
an AC magnet.

197) A load that is subject to a potential difference with a current running through it will
have a magnetic field around it with the magnitude and direction of the field determined by the corkscrew
rule.
dissipate power in the form of heat.
will move in a direction shown by the right hand rule.
198) The resistance of a material is
independent of the material type.
the same as its conductance.
the reciprocal of its conductance.

199) Resistance is measured using what unit of temperature?


Absolute.
Centigrade.
Fahrenheit.

200) A resistor has 4 bands on it coloured blue, yellow, yellow, gold. It`s value is
640 kO ± 5%.
4 mO ± 10%.
64 kO ± 5%.

201) The electron flow through a conductor will be decreased the most if the cross sectional area
is decreased and the length is increased.
and the length are both decreased.
and the length are both increased.

202) Small resistors too small or mis-shapen for the application of colour are marked instead using
an abbreviated resistance value.
a letter code.
a dot code.

203) Total resistance in a parallel resistor circuit, of R1 and R2 is


RT = 1/R1 + 1/R2.
1/RT = (R1 * R2) ÷ (R1 + R2).
1/RT = 1/R1 + 1/R2.

204) If the resistance of a resistor which is in series with two other resistors is doubled
the current in that resistance is doubled.
the volts drop across that resistor increases.
the current in that resistance is halved.

205) Potentiometers are used as a


variable voltage source.
variable resistor.
variable current source.

206) In a Wheatstone Bridge, the ammeter reads zero, and the variable resistor is adjusted to 5
ohms. Resistor P has a value of 10 ohms and Q has a value of 100 ohms. What is the value of the
unknown resistor?
5 ohms.
0.5 ohms.
50 ohms.

207) In general, increasing the cross sectional area of an electrical cable


increases its resistance.
enables it to carry more voltage.
enables it to carry more current.

208) Six resistors each of 6 ohms would be


1 ohm in series.
1 ohm in parallel.
36 ohms in parallel.

209) A potentiometer varies


resistance.
current.
voltage.

210) The formula for resistance in series is


RT = R1 + R2 + R3 + ... + Rn
RT = R1 * R2 * R3 * ... * Rn
1/RT = 1/( R1 * R2 * R3 * ... * Rn)

211) What is the combined value of resistances of 4 ohm and 6 ohm connected in parallel?
2.4 ohm.
0.24 ohm.
24 ohm.

212) If a number of resistors are connected in parallel, the total resistance is


smaller than the lowest.
the same as the lowest.
greater than the lowest.

213) The resistance to electrical flow in a wire depends on


the diameter, length, material of wire and temperature.
the material only - copper or aluminium.
the length and material of the wire only.

214) When resistors are in parallel the total current is equal to


the current through one resistor.
the sum of the currents.
the reciprocal of all the currents.

215) Which of these will cause the resistance of a conductor to decrease?


Decrease the length or the cross-sectional area.
Increase the length or decrease the cross-sectional area.
Decrease the length or increase the cross-sectional area.

216) If 2 resistors, one red, yellow, black, gold and the other violet, blue, black, silver were replaced
by a single resistor. Ignoring tolerance, what would the colour coding be?
Brown, black, brown.
Black, brown, black.
Brown, black, black.

217) A 47 kilohm resistor has the following colour code:


Yellow, Violet, Orange.
Red, Orange, Yellow.
Orange, Violet, Red.

218) A 300 ohm resistor would have a colour code of


orange, black, brown.
orange, orange, brown.
orange, brown, black.

219) In a parallel circuit containing resistors


the sum of the voltage drops equals applied voltage.
the voltage is the same in all parts of the circuit.
resistance is determined by value of current flow.

220) Five different value resistors all have the same voltage dropped across them. How are the
resistors connected?
In Series/Parallel.
In Series.
In Parallel.

221) Conductance of a circuit is 2 milliMhos. What is its resistance?


5000 Ohms.
500 Ohms.
5 Megohms.

222) When light hits a photodiode, its resistance


stays the same.
increases.
decreases.

223) A 2 Megohm resistor can be written


2M0F.
20MF.
M20F.

224) In a Wheatstone bridge at balance the galvanometer reads zero


amps.
ohms.
volts.

225) The unit for resistivity is the


ohms/square meter.
ohms/meter.
ohm. meter.

226) A 47 Kilohm resistor with a 10% tolerance has the following colour code:
Yellow, Violet, Orange, Silver.
Orange, Violet, Red, Gold.
Red, Orange, Yellow, Silver.

227) The total resistance in a circuit is greater than the least resistor. This is true for a
series and parallel circuit.
series circuit only.
parallel circuit only.

228) A potentiometer has which of the following properties?


Wire wound.
3 terminals.
Preset values.

229) An increase in operating temperature in most electrical devices carrying current results in
a decrease in resistance and an increase in current.
no effect on the resistance and current.
an increase in resistance and a decrease in current.

230) Copper is an inferior conductor to aluminium when comparing


CSA with CSA.
weight for weight.
load for load.

231) What happens to the resistance of a copper conductor when the temperature increases?
It decreases.
It increases.
It remains the same.

232) Carbon has a


temperature coefficient of zero.
positive temperature coefficient.
negative temperature coefficient.

233) The 5th coloured band on a resistor represents the


reliability or temperature coefficient.
tolerance.
multiplier.

234) If the temperature of a pure metal is reduced to absolute zero, its resistance will be
unaffected.
practically zero.
infinity.

235) If a resistor is too small or misshapen to fit the colour code bands, how else is it`s value
indicated?
Dots.
Number code.
Letter code.

236) A thyristor
if energized on, will switch on a circuit.
has a positive temperature coefficient.
if energized on, will switch off a circuit.

237) The temperature of a pure metal can greatly affect the resistance of it. What temperature scale
is used?
Absolute.
Centigrade.
Fahrenheit.

238) A 10 V battery supplies a resistive load of 10 ohms for 1 minute. What is the power supplied?
100 W.
10 VA.
10 W.

239) A resistor dissipates 80 Watts. If it runs for 4 hours 15 minutes, how much energy is dissipated
in total?
1.224 MJ.
4 kJ.
191.

240) The earth lead of a 24 V equipment is 0.5 ohm resistance and carries 80 A. How much power
does it dissipate?
1.152 kW.
1.92 kW.
3.2 kW.

241) What is the power dissipated in a 500 ohm resistor with a 3A flow?
1.5 kW.
4.5 kW.
750 kW.

242) A DC circuit containing a total resistance of 100 ohms has a current flow of 250 mA. The power
dissipated in the circuit is
6.25 watts.
5 watts.
0.4 watts.

243) Power is the rate of doing work. It is measured in


joules/second.
joules * seconds.
watts/second.

244) The power in a circuit when voltage and resistance is given can be found by
V*R.
V*V*R.
V*V / R.

245) A 500 ohm resistor carries a 3 amp current. What is the power dissipated?
500 W.
4.5 kW.
5 kW.

246) A 3 ohm resistor dissipates 27 Watts. How much current flows through it?
9 A.
15 A.
3 A.
247) A 48-volt direct current source is required to furnish 192 watts to a parallel circuit consisting of
three resistors of equal value. What is the value of each resistor?
12 ohm.
36 ohm.
4 ohm.

248) A piece of equipment is rated at 750 watts and the applied voltage is 30 volts. The value of the
protection fuse should be
20 amps.
15 amps.
30 amps.

249) A direct current of 12 milliamperes flows through a circuit which has a resistance of 1000 ohms.
The power dissipated by the circuit is
144 milliwatts.
12 watts.
12 milliwatts.

250) In a power circuit, the purpose of an inductor is


to dampen voltage surges.
to dampen current surges.
to dampen power surges.

251) A single phase circuit has an input voltage of 100V. The current is 10A and the circuit has a
power factor of 0.5. The true power is
50W.
1000W.
500W.

252) Power in a DC circuit is found by


multiplying the voltage by itself and dividing by the current.
multiplying current by resistance.
multiplying the resistance by the current squared.

253) If the energy supplied to a circuit for 4hrs 15 minutes at 800 j/sec what would be the energy
consumed?
3.4 KW Hrs.
3400 KW Hrs.
340 KW Hrs.

254) A heater which consumes 800 Kilojoules/sec is on for 4hrs 15min. The energy consumed is
340 kWh.
4 kWh.
3400 kWh.

255) A voltage of 250V causes a current of 30mA. What is the wattage?


7.5W.
7500W.
225W.

256) Which requires the most electrical power during operation?


A 12-volt motor requiring 8 amperes.
Four 30-watt lamps in a 12-volt parallel circuit.
Two lights requiring 3 amperes each in a 24volt parallel system.

257) A capacitor is fully charged after 25 seconds to a battery voltage of 20 Volts. The battery is
replaced with a short circuit. What will be the voltage across the capacitor after one time constant?
0 volts.
7.36 volts.
12.64 volts.

258) The voltage rating of a capacitor is


the max voltage that can be constantly applied.
the min voltage required to charge.
the normal operating voltage.

259) The relative permittivity of a capacitor is


the permittivity of the dielectric.
the relative permittivity of the dielectric in relation to a vacuum.
the permittivity of dielectric in relation to dry air.

260) When checking a capacitor with an ohmmeter, if the reading shows charging but the final
reading is less than normal then the possible fault is a
leaking dielectric capacitor.
short circuit dielectric.
open circuit dielectric.

261) Three capacitors 10 microfarads, 10 nanofarads and 10 millifarads are connected in parallel.
What is the total capacitance?
10.01001 millifarads.
111 millifarads.
1.001001 millifarads.

262) A capacitor with double the area and double the dielectric thickness will have
double the capacitance.
the same capacitance.
half the capacitance.

263) An electrolytic capacitor is used where


minimum losses are essential.
there is a polarized input.
high frequency AC is used.

264) What must you do to make a 3 F capacitor circuit into a 2 F circuit?


Put a 2 F capacitor in parallel.
Put a 6 F capacitor in series.
Put a 1 F capacitor in series.

265) The time required to fully charge a 1 µ(micro)F capacitor in series with a 100k ohm resistor is
100 seconds.
100 milliseconds.
500 milliseconds.
266) A 50 μ(micro) Farad capacitor is fed with a current of 25 milliAmpere. How long will it take to
charge it to 100Volts?
1 second.
2 seconds.
12 minutes.

267) Three 12 µ(micro)F capacitors are in series. The total capacitance is


12 µ(micro)F.
4 µ(micro)F.
36 µ(micro)F.

268) The time constant of a capacitor is the time


the current to reach 63.2% of maximum.
for the emf to reach 63.2% of maximum.
to reach maximum current.

269) The capacitance of a capacitor is dependant upon


the rate of change of current in the circuit.
the type of material separating the plates.
the charge on it.

270) When different rated capacitors are connected in parallel in a circuit, the total capacitance is
less than the capacitance of the lowest rated capacitor.
equal to the capacitance of the highest rated capacitor.
equal to the sum of all the capacitances.

271) The switch on a DC circuit containing a fully charged capacitor is opened. The voltage across
the capacitor
drops immediately to zero.
starts to fall exponentially to zero.
remains equal to the original charging voltage supply.

272) The current in a DC circuit containing a fully charged capacitor is


zero.
is dependent upon the size of the capacitance of the capacitor.
maximum.

273) A capacitor is a barrier to


both.
A.C.
D.C.

274) What is the total capacitance of a parallel circuit containing three capacitors with capacitance of
0.25microfarad, 0.03microfarad, and 0.12microfarad, respectively?
0.04 piko Farad.
0.4 µ(micro)F.
0.04 µ(micro)F.

275) When two capacitors are connected in series


the charge stored on each is inversely proportional to the voltage across it.
the charge stored on each is the same.
the charge stored on each is directly proportional to its capacitance.

276) The charge on a capacitor is expressed as


the ratio Q/V.
the product Q * V.
the product C * V.

277) When handling a high voltage capacitor in an electrical circuit, be sure it


has a full charge before removing it from the circuit.
is fully discharged before removing it from the circuit.
has at least a residual charge before removing it from the circuit.

278) The dielectric constant of a capacitor is a measurement of


the electrical resistance of the capacitor dielectric.
the electrostatic energy storing capacity of the capacitor dielectric.
the electrical repulsion of electrons within the dielectric material.

279) Three 12 microfarad capacitors in parallel. The overall circuit capacitance is


4 microfarads.
1 microfarads.
36 microfarads.

280) A circuit has 1 megohm and 8 microfarads. What is the time constant?
8 seconds.
1 second.
40 seconds.

281) A capacitor rating is


the voltage it will charge to.
the maximum continuous voltage it can take.
the voltage it will rupture at.

282) The multiplier colour coding on a capacitor is in


picofarads.
farads.
microfarads.

283) When a capacitor is charged from a DC supply, the voltage/time curve is


logarithmic.
linear.
exponential.

284) An electrolytic capacitor is used because it has a


small physical size for low leakage current.
large physical size for a large capacity.
small physical size for a large capacity.

285) An electrolytic capacitor would be used in circuits supplying


heavy loads.
light loads.
heavy / light loads.

286) A 20 Picofarad capacitor with a 1 Megohm resistor takes how long to charge?
100 microseconds.
20 milliseconds.
1 second.

287) The discharge curve of a capacitor is


Exponential.
Logarithmic.
Linear.

288) What is the value of a monolithic capacitor with 103 on it?


1000pf.
10,000pf.
100,000pf.

289) What is the formula for working out the capacitance of a capacitor if K = dielectric constant, A
= area of the plates, d = distance plates apart?
c = K*A/d.
c = d/K*A.
c = K*d/A.

290) Total capacitance of 3 capacitors each 12milliFarad in a parallel circuit


36milliFarad.
12milliFarad.
6mf.

291) A combination of 1 megohm and 8 microfarad would give a time constant of


40 seconds.
400 ms.
8 seconds.

292) Generally, what is the voltage across a fully charged capacitor?


Less than circuit voltage.
Same as circuit voltage.
More than circuit voltage.

293) When would you use an electrolytic capacitor?


On a balanced circuit.
Low output compared to size required.
Large output compared to size required.

294) A capacitor has Brown, Black and Orange bands. It`s value is
10 picofarads.
10 nanofarads.
100 picofarads.

295) Voltage measured between the plates of a capacitor will be generally


can dangerously higher than applied voltage.
the same as applied voltage.
less than applied voltage.

296) Dielectric constant of a capacitor is


max V that can be applied to a capacitor.
electrostatic storing capability of the dielectric.
max I stored in the capacitor.

297) One microfarad is


1 * 10^-12 farads.
1 * 10^12 farads.
1 * 10^-6 farads.

298) A circuit with a capacitor has 6 volts applied to it with a charge of 2400 pico-coulombs. What
would the charge be if the applied voltage was 1.5 volts ?
2400 * 10^-12 coulombs.
600 * 10^-9 coulombs.
600 * 10^-12 coulombs.

299) In a capacitor, the dielectric strength is measured in


Farads per meter.
Volts per metre.
Coulombs per m2.

300) Three capacitors connected in series, each having a value of 12 picofarads, calculate the total
capacitance
36 picofarads.
4 picofarads.
12 picofarads.

301) Magnetic inclination is the least at the


poles.
equator.
isoclines.

302) Ferromagnetic materials can be magnetized


below a certain temperature.
above a certain temperature.
within a band of temperatures.

303) Glass is an example of a


coercive material.
paramagnetic material.
diamagnetic material.

304) A solenoid of 10 turns per metre carries a current of 5A. If the current is reduced to 2.5A, how
many turns would be required to maintain the same magnetic field?
20.
50.
5.

305) Which of the following materials is easiest to magnetize?


High grade steel.
Soft iron.
Cast iron.

306) To find which end of an electromagnet is the north pole, use the
Fleming`s Left Hand Rule.
Right Hand Clasp Rule.
Cork Screw Rule.

307) The earth`s magnetic field is greatest at the


magnetic equator.
geographic poles.
magnetic poles.

308) The lines of magnetic flux from a magnet will


attract each other.
repel each other.
have no effect upon each other.

309) Of the following which pair of materials would most readily become magnetized?
Iron and steel.
Copper and steel.
Nickel and bronze.

310) The core material used for an electromagnet is soft iron because
its magnetism is not easily destroyed.
it retains most of its flux density when demagnetized.
it demagnetizes easily.

311) If the North pole of a magnet is brought nearer to the North pole of another magnet
attraction between them will be increased.
repulsion between them will be reduced.
repulsion between them will be increased.

312) Where is the magnetic dip least?


Poles.
Isoclinals.
Equator.

313) When a number of ferrite pieces are grouped together, they


are semi-permanent magnets when DC is passed through them.
are electromagnets.
can be used to store binary code.

314) Ampere turns is calculated by the number of turns


multiplied by current.
divided by current.
multiplied by magnetic flux.

315) The unit of flux is the


Ampere turns / metre.
Weber.
Ampere turns.

316) Lines of magnetic flux pass from


South to North.
East to West.
North to South.

317) Why is ferrite used in memory circuits?


High reluctance.
Low permeability.
High remanence.

318) Magnetic lines are flowing parallel. They will


have no effect on each other.
attract each other.
repel each other.

319) The horizontal component of the earth`s magnetic field is most strongly felt at
equator.
45 degrees latitude.
poles.

320) Two parallel lines of magnetic flux in the same polarity


repel each other.
have no effect on each other.
attract each other.

321) Magnetic fields around two parallel conductors carrying current in the same directions will
repel.
attract.
will attract or repel depending on the type of current.

322) Magnetic field on a solenoid is


the same both inside and outside the coil.
weakest outside the coil.
strongest outside the coil.

323) Which of the following is absolute permeability?


µ(micro)r.
µo(micro node).
µ(micro).

324) The symbol for flux density is


H(capital).
ø(phy).
B(capital).

325) A paramagnetic material has a relative permeability of


zero.
less than unity.
greater than unity.

326) Through which material will magnetic lines of force pass the most readily?
Copper.
Iron.
Aluminium.

327) Permanent magnets have


high reluctance, high coercive force.
low reluctance, high coercive force.
high reluctance, low coercive force.

328) The term used to denote the strength of a magnetic field is


retentivity.
hysteresis.
flux density.

329) A soft iron core is used in an ELECTRO magnet because


it has LOW permeability and HIGH coercivity.
it has HIGH permeability and LOW coercivity.
it has HIGH permeability and HIGH coercivity.

330) A non-magnetic metal


has high retentivity.
has no permeability.
is a poor conductor.

331) What is the effect of inserting an iron core into a current carrying coil?
The flux density of the original magnetic field remains constant.
The core tends to move from a stronger to a weaker part of the field.
The flux density of the original magnetic field produced by the coil is increased.

332) Flux density will


increase linearly with coercive force.
decrease linearly with magnetic flux.
increase linearly with magnetic flux.

333) Storage of magnets should be


in a non magnetic pox.
in pairs with keeper plates.
in pairs end to end.

334) The hysteresis loop for a magnetic material is on a graph with


current against flux density.
flux density against magnetising force.
total flux against flux density.

335) A material with a narrow hysteresis loop


cannot be magnetised.
will have high retentivity.
will have low retentivity.
336) If a bar magnet is cut in half
the magnet is destroyed.
two bar magnets are formed.
one bar magnet and one non-magnet is formed.

337) Copper is a
ferromagnetic material.
paramagnetic materials.
diamagnetic material.

338) The MMF of a coil fed with 2 amps and having 10 turns is
5 ampere turns.
20 amperes / turn.
20 ampere turns.

339) An example of a paramagnetic material is


silver.
iron.
glass.

340) Vibration in a magnet causes


flux to stay the same.
flux to decrease.
flux to increase.

341) Permeability of a material can be found by


flux density / MMF.
MMF * flux density.
MMF / flux density.

342) When magnetizing a piece of material, magnetic strength will rise


non-linearly with magnetic force.
linearly with coercive force.
linearly with magnetic force.

343) A material exposed to heat will


have no effect on magnetism.
be easier to magnetise.
be harder to magnetise.

344) If cobalt has a permeability of 4800 it is a


ferromagnetic.
paramagnetic.
diamagnetic.

345) Cobalt has a permeability


greater than unity.
less than unity.
same as unity.
346) Magnetic flux
exist in all space around the magnet.
is more concentrated at the centre of bar magnet.
occupies the space around the magnet with equal flux density.

347) The ability of a circuit to produce a magnetic flux under the influence of a MMF
permeance.
permeability.
permanence.

348) Magnetic flux saturation takes place when


the magnetised medium will accept no further lines of flux.
the magnetic field drops to zero.
the magnetic field starts to reduce with increased magnetising force.

349) Cables are shielded to prevent "H" magnetic interference in wires with the following material:
Copper braiding.
Ferromagnetic material.
Diamagnetic material.

350) Spontaneous magnetism is associated with


diamagnetic materials.
ferromagnetic materials.
paramagnetic materials.

351) Two inductive coils are placed in close proximity with each other at 90 degrees. The number of
flux linkages is
0.
maximum negative.
maximum positive.

352) What is the mutual inductance if two coils of 10mH and 500mH have 90% of the flux
transferred from one to the other?
459mH.
5mH.
63mH.

353) An inductor has 1,000 turns of wire and a cross sectional area of 0.001m2. If the core has a
permeability of 0.000,001 and the coil is 0.1m. What is the value of the inductor?
100microH.
100mH.
10mH.

354) Three inductors 10 mH, 5 mH and 20 mH are connected in parallel. What is the total
inductance?
Without knowing the coupling factor the total inductance cannot be found.
2.86mH.
1.35mH.

355) If the current reaches a maximum through an inductor of 2A in 15 seconds, what is the current
after 3 seconds?
1.26A.
0.63A.
1A.

356) The time constant of an inductor is


LR
L/R.
L^2/R.

357) If the rate of change of current is halved, mutual inductance will


stay the same.
halve.
double.

358) Why are the iron cores of most induction coils laminated?
To reduce the effects of eddy currents.
To reduce the core reluctance.
To increase the core permeability.

359) When more than two inductors of different inductance are connected in parallel in a circuit, the
total inductance is
equal to the sum of the individual inductance.
equal to the inductance of the highest rated inductor.
less than the inductance of the lowest rated inductor.

360) An AC inductive circuit has an inductance of 10 mH and a frequency input of 1000Hz. The
opposition to current flow is approximately
63,000 ohms.
63 ohms.
630 ohms.

361) An inductor of resistance 5 kO and inductance 2mH is connected to a DC circuit. The time
constant is
400 ns.
10 seconds.
40 ms.

362) When switching off the supply, the back EMF in a collapsing field in an inductor
can be multiple times bigger than forward EMF.
never exceeds forward EMF.
is equal to forward EMF.

363) An induced current in a coil


opposes the EMF producing it.
does not affect the EMF producing it.
aids the EMF producing it.

364) 1 Volt is produced when a current of 1 Amp per second is varied in a coil. This is a definition of
1 Ampere per metre.
1 Henry.
1 Coulomb per second.
365) Two inductor coils in very close proximity; if one of the coils is rotated 90 degrees slowly away
from the other the mutual inductance
decreases.
remains the same.
increases.

366) An inductor is said to be saturated when


the current is at a maximum.
the current through it is zero.
it will no longer accept lines of flux.

367) In a DC motor, the stator`s magnetic field, due to armature reaction, moves
in the same direction of rotation of the armature.
in the opposite direction of rotation of the armature.
into alignment with the GNA.

368) A small air gap between magnetic poles results


in a weaker field than a large air gap, for the same magnetising force.
in a stronger field than a large air gap, for the same magnetising force.
in the same field as a large air gap, for the same magnetising force.

369) The electromagnetic brake coil in an actuator would be energised


only at the instant of starting and stopping.
all the time in flight.
only when the actuator is running.

370) In a shunt wound direct current motor with a constant voltage field supply, the torque
developed by the motor is
independent of load.
directly proportional to armature current.
inversely proportional to the armature current.

371) Decreasing the field current in a shunt motor will


decrease speed and increase torque.
increase speed and increase torque.
increase speed and decrease torque.

372) To calculate generator output you need to know the


armature speed and number of series conductors.
armature speed and field strength.
armature speed and number of parallel conductors.

373) In a shunt motor, if you reverse both field current and the armature current, the motor will
stop.
change direction.
continue to run in the same direction.

374) A starter generator has a


low resistance series field and a low resistance shunt field.
low resistance series field and a high resistance shunt field.
high resistance series field and a low resistance shunt field.

375) If the brake coil on an actuator motor goes open circuit, the actuator will
run slower.
stop.
over-ride its mechanical stops.

376) If a generator speed is halved and the field strength is doubled, the voltage output will be
unchanged.
doubled.
halved.

377) How can the direction of rotation of a DC electric motor be changed?


Reverse the electrical connections to either the field or armature windings.
Rotate the positive brush one commutator segment.
Interchange the wires which connect the motor to the external power source.

378) The only practical method of maintaining a constant voltage output from an aircraft generator
under varying conditions of speed and load is to vary the
speed at which the armature rotates.
strength of the magnetic field.
number of conductors in the armature.

379) Electric motors are often classified according to the method of connecting the field coils and
armature Aircraft engine starter motors are generally of which type?
Compound.
Shunt (parallel).
Series.

380) If a heavy mechanical load is removed from a series motor


the speed will increase and the armature current will increase.
the speed will increase and the armature current will decrease.
the speed will decrease and the armature current will decrease.

381) If the correct supply were connected to a DC shunt motor which had lost its residual magnetism
it would
run in the reverse direction.
fail to run.
run normally.

382) One purpose of a growler test is to determine the presence of:


a shorted armature.
a broken field lead.
an out-of-round commutator.

383) The purpose of an end-travel microswitch in a linear actuator is to


remain open and closes at end travel only.
remain open during normal operation and only close if the actuator overruns its stops.
remain closed and opens at end travel only.

384) Linear actuators used in aircraft are of


split field series wound type.
compound wound type.
split field shunt wound type.

385) If a generator sparks, a possible reason is


the brush springs are loose.
magnetic flux deflecting the EMF.
the brushes have been placed around the magnetic coil.

386) If the field strength of a generator is doubled, and the speed is doubled, the output EMF will
stay the same.
double.
quadruple.

387) In a DC motor the pole pairs are


connected to the brush gear.
part of the armature.
embedded within the field coils.

388) A series wound DC motor, the field has


few turns of thin wire.
many turns of thin wire.
few turns of thick wire.

389) Doubling the running time of an electrical machine would


double the current used.
double the joules used.
double the watts used.

390) On a linear actuator, the field cutoff coil will be energized when
only as the actuator commences movement.
the actuator is not running.
the actuator is running.

391) An electric motor produces a force of 5 N at a distance of 0.2m from the centre of rotation and
rotates at a speed of 100 revs/sec. The motors output is
100 horsepower.
628.4 watts.
314.2 watts.

392) Starter motors are usually


series wound.
compound wound.
shunt wound.

393) Generator brushes are normally made of


steel.
carbon.
brass.

394) As the generator load is increased (within its rated capacity), the voltage will
remain constant and the amperage output will decrease.
decrease and the amperage output will increase.
remain constant and the amperage output will increase.

395) The voltage output of a generator is controlled by


varying the current of the output.
varying the resistance of the output.
varying the current of the field.

396) The current flowing in the armature of a DC motor is equal to


(applied volts-generated volts) / armature resistance.
(applied volts-generated volts) * armature resistance.
applied volts + generated volts / armature resistance.

397) What device is used to convert alternating current, which has been induced into the loops of the
rotating armature of a DC generator into direct current as it leaves the generator?
An inverter.
A commutator.
A rectifier.

398) Which of the following is not one of the purposes of interpoles in a generator?
Overcome armature reaction.
Reduce arcing at the brushes.
Reduce field strength.

399) To reverse the direction of a series motor


the direction of the current through the field and the armature is reversed.
the direction of the current through the field is reversed.
a second series field is fitted.

400) The current consumed by a DC starter motor will


remain relatively constant over the starting speed range.
decrease as the engine speed increases.
increase as the engine speed increases.

401) How are generators rated?


Impedance at rated voltage.
Amperes at rated voltage.
Watts at rated voltage.

402) Due to armature reaction in a DC motor


the leading pole tips are magnetically weakened.
the trailing pole tips are magnetically weakened.
the magnetic flux is restored by moving the MNA towards the GNA.

403) Some electric motors have two sets of field winding wound in opposite directions so that the
speed of the motor can be more closely controlled.
motor can be operated in either direction.
power output of the motor can be more closely controlled.

404) What polarity do interpoles take in a DC motor?


Either, provided they lay on the MNA.
The same as the next main pole ahead in the direction of rotation.
The same as the next main pole behind in the direction of rotation.

405) What is the principal advantage of the series-wound DC motor?


Suitable for constant speed use.
High starting torque.
Low starting torque.

406) Interpole windings fitted to DC series wound generators are


in series with the armature.
in series with the field.
in parallel with the armature.

407) What polarity do interpoles take in a DC generator?


The same as the next main pole behind in the direction of rotation.
Either, providing they lay on M.N.A.
The same as the next main pole ahead in the direction of rotation.

408) The method most often used in overcoming the effect of armature reaction is through the use of
shaded poles.
interpoles.
drum-wound armatures in combination with a negatively connected series field.

409) The starting current of a series-wound DC motor, in passing through both the field and
armature windings produces a
speed slightly higher when unloaded.
high starting torque.
low starting torque.

410) To increase the speed of a shunt motor a resistance is placed


in parallel with the field.
in series with the field.
in series with the armature.

411) A 200 volt motor is taking 10 amperes armature current, the armature resistance is 0.1 ohm.
The Back- EMF under these conditions will be
201 volts.
199 volts.
1 volt.

412) What is a method used for restoring generator field residual magnetism?
Energize the armature.
Flash the fields.
Reseat the brushes.

413) A high surge of current is required when a DC electric motor is first started. As the speed of the
motor increase
the counter emf decreases proportionally.
the applied emf increases proportionally.
the counter emf builds up and opposes the applied emf, thus reducing the current flow through the armature.
414) Aircraft generators are cooled by
fuel cooling radiators.
oil cooling radiators around the main body.
ram air.

415) On a combined DC starter - generator system


the voltage regulator is connected to the shunt field after the start cycle is completed.
the voltage regulator controls the start sequence during engine starting.
the series coil is open circuit during the engine start sequence.

416) If the field current to a shunt wound DC motor is decreased when operating at a constant load,
the motor speed will
reduce.
not change.
increase.

417) If a motor is spinning at 50 cycles per second, how long is 1 cycle of the output?
50 seconds.
0.83 seconds.
0.02 seconds.

418) In a an DC motor, the rotation of the MNA


is opposite to the rotation of the armature.
is slightly less speed than the rotation of the armature.
is the same as the rotation of the armature.

419) In a wave wound generator with 4 poles, what would be the minimum number of brushes?
4.
2.
8.

420) A wire is rotated through a magnetic field. To give DC it must be connected to


a commutator.
slip rings.
a rectifier.

421) If the supply to a DC shunt motor was reversed


it would rotate in the same direction.
it would fail to run.
it would rotate in the opposite direction.

422) A series motor draws a high current on start, and then the current reduces. This is due to
the resistance of the field and the armature in series.
the resistance of the field and armature in parallel.
the back EMF.

423) Interpoles in a DC generator are connected


in series with the armature.
in series with the field.
in parallel with the armature.
424) In a DC generator, the effect of armature reaction may be reduced by moving the brush gear
in the direction of armature rotation towards the MNA.
from MNA to GNA.
against the direction of armature rotation towards the MNA.

425) The windings embedded in the pole faces of a DC generator are


commutating coils.
interpoles.
compensating windings.

426) A 6 pole wave-wound generator has


3 brushes.
2 brushes.
6 brushes.

427) Armature reaction in a DC generator causes


MNA to move in the opposite direction of rotation.
MNA to move in the direction of rotation.
GNA to move in the direction of rotation.

428) In a DC motor, back-EMF rises if the motor


speed falls.
speed faload rises.
speed rises.

429) A DC generator armature has 6 poles and is lap wound. The number of brushes required are
2.
3.
6.

430) Reactive sparking is reduced by


interpoles.
compensating windings.
auxiliary windings.

431) The back-EMF in a DC motor is


equal to the applied EMF.
less than the applied EMF.
greater than the applied EMF.

432) The flux density of a magnetic field is 1.5T. The length of the conductor in the field is 2 m and
the current flowing through the conductor is 5 amps. The force on the conductor is
6 Newtons.
15 Newtons.
75 Newtons.

433) A DC shunt motor has 28 volts applied. The current taken from the armature of 2 ohms
resistance is 1 amp The Back-EMF is
26 V.
30 V.
27 V.

434) In a motor, armature reaction causes the MNA to move


against the direction of rotation.
in the direction of rotation.
to the GNA.

435) In a generator system, a stabilizing winding is used


in series with the field to prevent oscillations.
to control output current.
to prevent voltage overshoot.

436) What part of a DC motor would you find the poles?


Brushes.
Rotor.
Stator.

437) An A.C. shunt wound motor sometimes uses a volts dropping resistor. The resistor would be
in series with the field.
in series with the supply.
in series with the armature.

438) Commutator ripple can be reduced by


increasing generator frequency.
the use of a ripple filter.
a resistor in series with the armature.

439) In a DC motor the interpoles are part of the


rotor assembly.
stator assembly.
field.

440) Armature reaction is


the MMF opposing rotation.
due to dirty or worn commutator.
reactive sparking.

441) A shunt motor


is constant speed.
has high starting torque.
gives constant torque with variations in speed.

442) In a DC shunt motor, if the field resistance is increased what happens to the back EMF?
Decreases.
Remains the same.
Increases.

443) To increase the voltage output of a generator you can


decrease speed.
It is not speed dependant.
increase speed.
444) Generator voltage is
dependant on speed of rotation.
independent of speed of rotation.
not dependant on speed of rotation.

445) The output from a generator to a commutator is


pulsed DC.
DC.
AC.

446) What is the main disadvantage of a starter generator?


Heavier than like for like.
Will not supply output at low rpm.
Can only be used on piston engines.

447) Back-EMF is the greatest when a motor is


at operating speed.
under heavy load.
just starting to rotate.

448) When a conductor carrying a current and placed in a magnetic field it experiences
an electrostatic force.
an electromagnetic force.
a magnetic force.

449) The type of motor used in a linear actuator is


parallel (shunt wound).
compound.
series.

450) If the speed of a coil in a magnetic field is doubled and the field strength is doubled the output
will
quadruple.
stay the same.
halve.

451) How many brushes are used in an 8 pole wave wound machine
6.
8.
2.

452) In the shunt generator the field is supplied by


the load.
the armature.
a separate supply.

453) Increasing the speed of an aircraft generator results in an automatic


field circuit resistance decrease.
armature circuit resistance increase.
field circuit resistance increase.
454) Which generators are usually used on aircraft?
Shunt.
Compound.
Series.

455) In a cumulative compound wound generator the


the series and shunt fields assist each other.
the series and shunt fields oppose each other.
the voltage falls suddenly with an increase in load.

456) The shunt wound generator is controlled by a variable resistance in


parallel with the field.
series with the armature.
series with the field.

457) The series wound generator`s terminal voltage will, when below saturation
increase with an increase in load.
decrease with an increase in load.
decrease with a decrease in rotational speed.

458) The shunt wound generator is normally started


on load.
Either of the above.
off load.

459) Armature reaction in a DC motor causes the neutral axis to shift in


the direction in the direction of armature rotation.
the direction opposite to the direction of armature rotation.
either direction depending on current flow.

460) An indication of good commutation on a DC machine would be


high armature currents.
little or no sparking at the commutator.
silent operation of the machine.

461) If compound DC generators are operated in parallel they must


all rotate at the same speed.
have an equalising or load sharing loop.
all use the same voltage.

462) The windings embedded in the pole faces of a generator are


commutating coils.
interpoles.
compensating coils.

463) Prolonged reactive sparking in a DC generator could damage the


armature.
commutator.
pole pieces.
464) The poles of a DC generator are laminated to
reduce hysteresis losses.
reduce flux losses.
reduce eddy current losses.

465) One advantage of a DC motor over an AC motor is


the direction of rotation of the rotor can be changed.
less voltage is required in DC than AC.
the DC motor will use less current.

466) In a shunt wound direct current motor the torque is


inversely proportional to the current in the armature.
independent of load.
proportional to the current in the armature.

467) Convention requires that in a symmetrical 3 phase system, the


red voltage is taken as the reference phase.
yellow voltage phase leads the red phase by 120 degrees.
red voltage phase leads the blue phase by 120 degrees.

468) What is the phase difference in a circuit with 100V, drawing 0.5 amps, consuming 50 Watts?
0°.
45°.
90°.

469) The power factor of a circuit containing an imbalance of inductive and capacitive reactance is
greater than unity.
unity.
less than unity.

470) What value is the same as the equivalent D.C. heating effect?
Peak.
Average.
Root Mean Square.

471) What shape is the waveform when the input pulse and the time base are unequal?
Saw tooth.
Square.
Rectangular.

472) A sine wave has 5 amps RMS value. What is the peak value?
7.07 amps.
6.37 amps.
10 amps.

473) What is the wave shape of the x-axis input of a traversing oscilloscope image?
Rectangular.
Triangular.
Square.

474) In a purely resistive AC circuit, the current vector is


+90° out of phase with the voltage vector.
in phase with the voltage vector.
-90° out of phase with the voltage vector.

475) When comparing the average values of an AC generator output, to the peak values
average voltage = 0.707 * peak voltage.
average voltage = 0.63 * peak voltage.
average voltage = same as the peak voltage.

476) A parallel circuit at resonance has


maximum impedance.
zero impedance.
minimum impedance.

477) A 10 ohm resistor has a 14.14 V peak drop across it. What power is dissipated?
19.99 W.
10 W.
1.414 W.

478) If a 1 ohm circuit produces a 50 W output, the phase angle is


45°.
0°.
90°.

479) What does a rectifier do?


Changes alternating current into direct current.
Reduces voltage.
Changes direct current into alternating current.

480) The ratio between apparent power and true power is the
power rating.
power factor.
efficiency.

481) Unless otherwise specified, any values given for current or voltage in an AC circuit are assumed
to be
effective values.
instantaneous values.
maximum values.

482) Which aircraft circuit would be most likely to use frequency wild 200V AC?
Hydraulic pump.
Windscreen heating.
Standby compass.

483) In an AC circuit how is the value of true power calculated?


By voltmeter readings multiplied by ammeter readings.
By volts multiplied by amps multiplied by power factor.
By watt meter readings multiplied by power factor.

484) One of the chief advantages of alternating current is that it can be transmitted at a high voltage
with a low power loss; the voltage can then be changed to any desired value of
DC by means of transformers.
DC by means of inverters.
AC by means of transformers.

485) How many amperes will a 28-volt generator be required to supply to a circuit containing five
lamps in parallel, three of which have a resistance of 6 ohms each and two of which have a resistance
of 5 ohms each?
1 ampere.
25.23 amperes.
1.11 amperes.

486) Frequency (Hz) is the number of cycles per


minute.
second.
revolution.

487) The frequency of a power wave in an AC resistance circuit is


half the frequency for voltage and current.
the same as the frequency for voltage and current.
twice the frequency for voltage and current.

488) In an AC circuit, the effective voltage is


less than the maximum instantaneous voltage.
equal to the maximum instantaneous voltage.
greater than the maximum instantaneous voltage.

489) Which wave form is stepped positive and negative with unequal length sides?
Rectangular wave.
Trapezoidal wave.
Saw tooth wave.

490) The value of an AC sine wave that will give an equivalent heating effect in a DC resistor is the
peak value.
RMS value.
average value.

491) The peak factor for a sine wave is


1.1
0.707.
1.414.

492) An integrated step input at unequal time base produces


a saw tooth wave.
a square wave.
a sine wave.

493) A sine wave of RMS value 7.07 volts has a peak to peak value of
20 volts.
10 volts.
0.707 volts.
494) The true power in an AC circuit is given by
volts * amps.
PF * volts * amps.
voltmeter reading * PF.

495) The average value of 100 volts peak AC is


70.7 volts.
141. 4 volts.
63.7 volts.

496) The RMS value of 200 volts peak to peak is


127.4 volts.
70.7 volts.
141.4 volts.

497) The power factor of an AC circuit is the


cosine of the phase angle.
tangent of the phase angle.
sine of the phase angle.

498) The Form Factor of an AC waveform can be found by


RMS value divided by the average value.
average value divided by the RMS value.
average value times the RMS value.

499) A differentiator has a time constant which is


long.
equal to the input pulse.
short.

500) If the frequency is increased in an AC circuit of pure resistance, the effect is


nothing.
decreased resistance.
increased resistance.

501) What sort of wave would be used in a CR oscilloscope to control sweep?


Square.
Sine wave.
Sawtooth.

502) If an AC sine wave has an RMS value of 5V its peak value is


6.37 V.
7.07 V.
14.14 V.

503) Apparent power in an AC circuit is found by


V * I * cosØ.
V * I * sinØ.
V * I.
504) A sine wave has a periodic time of 0.5 milliseconds, what is its frequency?
200 Hz.
2Khz.
20Khz.

505) Phase angle is


the cosine of the peak value of an ac voltage.
the difference in degrees of rotation between 2 alternating voltages or currents or a voltage and a current.
the difference in degrees between the positive and negative parts of an AC sine wave.

506) The impedance of an AC circuit is measured in


ohms.
kilovolt-amperes.
amperes.

507) What happens to the current in a series resistive resonant circuit?


It is maximum.
It is minimum.
It is zero.

508) A circuit has 115 V RMS, 2.5A at 60 degrees, what is the power dissipated?
79 W.
300 VA.
143 W.

509) In a resonant parallel circuit, current is


zero.
minimum.
maximum.

510) Power factor is


sin theta.
tan theta.
cos theta.

511) Peak factor in a standard AC circuit is


1.11 times max. value of applied voltage.
1.414 times max. value of applied voltage.
0.707 time max. value of applied voltage.

512) The controlling wave in a CRT is


square.
sawtooth.
sinusoidal.

513) A wave form having equal amplitude and time base is a


rectangular.
sawtooth.
square waveform.

514) The Sine wave signals of a circular time base are


in phase.
phase separated by 90°.
phase separated by 180°.

515) A differentiator has a time constant that will give


a long pulse.
a short pulse.
a continuous output.

516) What is the power factor in a purely resistive circuit?


Equal to 1.
Less than 1 but greater than zero.
Greater than 1.

517) In an A.C circuit, what happens if frequency is reduced?


Inductive elements may be damaged.
Capacitive elements may be damaged.
There will be no effect.

518) What is the relationship between the voltage and the current in an A.C circuit containing
resistance and inductance?
Current lags voltage by 90°.
Current lags voltage by up to 90°.
Current leads voltage by up to 90°.

519) Power factor relates to


horsepower and Watts.
KW and KVAR.
true power and apparent power.

520) If current lags voltage by 90°, the circuit is


resistive.
capacitive.
inductive.

521) A low frequency supply


will make the circuit operate faster due to the reduced impedance.
may damage inductive components.
will have no effect on inductive components.

522) In a parallel R, L, C circuit, the value of the capacitor is quadrupled, then the value of the
impedance would
remain the same.
reduce.
increased.

523) In a capacitive circuit, if the frequency is increased


reactance remains the same.
impedance increases.
the current increases.
524) In a tuned circuit at resonance, the circuit will be
resistive.
capacitive.
inductive.

525) A circuit has a resistance of 50 ohms and an inductance of 0.2 Henry. If it is connected to a 200
volt 50 Hz supply the reactance will be
6.284 ohms.
62.84 ohms.
31.42 ohms.

526) At resonant frequency the phase difference between the voltage and current of an AC supply
feeding an inductive and capacitive network is
90 degrees.
0 degrees.
180 degrees.

527) An increase in which of the following factors will cause an increase in the inductive reactance of
a circuit?
Inductance and frequency.
Resistance and capacitive reactance.
Resistance and voltage.

528) When a circuit with a series inductance and capacitance is at resonant frequency
the current in the circuit decreases.
the impedance of the circuit is such that the voltage is in phase with the current.
the impedance of the circuit is such that the voltage leads the current by exactly 90 degrees.

529) A pure capacitor, inductor and resistor are connected in series and the voltage drops across
each are 10V and the total current flowing in the circuit is 1A. How much true power is the circuit
consuming?
30VA.
30W.
10W.

530) If a capacitor 1µF and an inductor 10mH are connected in parallel what is their approximate
resonant frequency?
1.6 kHz.
62 Hz.
3.2 MHz.

531) Current in an inductive circuit will


lag voltage.
lead voltage.
be at unity.

532) The impedance of a series tuned circuit at resonance is


zero.
minimum.
maximum.
533) In an inductive resistive circuit, 1 amp flows from a supply of 100V dissipating 50 Watts of
power. The phase angle is
60°.
90°.
45°.

534) In a series LCR circuit at resonance, R = 100 ohms, L and C are each 10 ohms. The total
impedance is
zero ohms.
100 ohms.
30 ohms.

535) In a high Q parallel resonant circuit, what happens to impedance if capacitance is increased by
a factor of 4?
It increases by factor of 4.
It reduces by 75%.
It remains the same.

536) A parallel circuit at resonance has its impedance at a


maximum.
zero.
minimum.

537) The formula for impedance in a series circuit is the root of


R2 + (XC-XL)2
R2 -(XL-XC)2
R2 + (XL-XC)2

538) In a parallel LCR circuit, if the capacitance is increased by 4 times, what happens to the
impedance of the capacitor?
Increases by 4 times.
Remains the same.
Decreases by 75%.

539) If the frequency to a capacitor increases, the current through it


decreases.
increases.
is zero.

540) If in a electrical circuit there is a difference between the capacitive reactance and the inductive
reactance, what would the power factor of the circuit be?
More than unity.
Less than unity.
Unity.

541) In a Series LC circuit if the value of the capacitance is increased then the power factor will be
greater than 1.
less than 1.
equal to 1.

542) What is the current in the circuit with a resistance of 8 ohms, inductive reactance of 12 ohms,
capacitive reactance of 18 ohms with 20 volts applied across it?
10 amps.
1 amp.
2 amps.

543) A circuit containing a resistor, capacitor and inductor where resonant frequency is met, what
will the impedance of the circuit be?
Maximum.
Resistance across the resistor.
Zero.

544) How many turns does the secondary winding of a 2:1 step-up transformer have?
Less than primary.
More than primary.
Less turns but with thicker wire.

545) To reduce eddy currents in a transformer you would


increase the thickness of laminations in the magnetic core.
reduce the number of turns on the primary winding.
reduce the thickness of laminations in the magnetic core.

546) A transformer has an input of 400V and a ratio of 2:1. If the transformer is delta / star wound,
what will the line voltage output be?
115V.
346V.
200V.

547) A Transformer with 115V primary voltage and a ratio of 5:1 is supplying a landing light (load
24V 45 amps) is used, what is the current drawn?
205 amps.
5 amps.
9 amps.

548) A Transformer has 4500 secondary turns and 750 primary turns. Its turns ratio is
6:1.
1/6.
1:6.

549) The point of coercivity occurs when the


magnetic flux is zero even though a magnetizing force is being applied.
magnetizing force reaches a peak positive or negative value.
magnetizing force applied causes the material to become magnetically saturated.

550) The primary winding of a 3-phase transformer


is delta wound.
could be either delta or star wound.
is star wound.

551) In a transformer, if the rate of change of current increases, the mutual inductance will
decrease.
remain the same.
increase.

552) A 4:1 step down transformer draws 115 V and 1 A. The output power will be
28.5 V at 16 A.
460 V at 0.25 A.
28.5 V at 4 A.

553) The secondary coil of a transformer has 1500 turns and 10Ohm resistance. The primary coil
has 1kOhm resistance. How many turns does the primary coil have?
15,000.
1,500,000.
150,000

554) In a star wound primary transformer, how could you wind the secondary winding?
Star only.
Either delta or star.
Delta only.

555) A step up transformer has


two windings.
one winding.
three windings.

556) In a transformer core loss is 200 W and copper loss is 220W at no load. What is the core loss at
full load?
200 W.
0 W.
220 W.

557) The secondary winding of a transformer has an impedance of 10 ohms and 1500 turns. For the
primary winding to have an impedance of 1 kilohm, how many turns must it have?
15,000.
1,500,000.
150,000

558) Eddy currents in a transformer core are reduced by


decreasing the thickness of the laminates.
making the core from a solid block.
increasing the thickness of the laminates.

559) Transformer copper loss on full load is 220 Watts. On half load the loss will be
440 Watts.
110 Watts.
55 Watts.

560) How can it be determined if a transformer winding has some of its turns shorted together?
Measure the input voltage with an ohmmeter.
The output voltage will be high.
The transformer will get hot in normal operation.

561) Eddy currents in a transformer can be reduced by


using a single solid piece of metal.
laminations.
using a special non metallic material.

562) What is the ratio of turns between the primary coil winding and the secondary coil winding of a
transformer designed to triple its input voltage?
primary will have one-third as many turns as its secondary.
primary will have three times as many turns as its secondary.
primary will have twice as many turns as its secondary.

563) A transformer should always have its


primary shorted or off load.
secondary shorted or on load.
secondary open circuit or on load.

564) Which of the following would be used to calculate transformer turns ratio?
Secondary turns ÷ primary turns.
Primary turns × secondary turns.
Primary turns ÷ secondary turns.

565) The area of a hysteresis loop is proportional to the


energy dissipated in putting the material through a complete cycle of magnetization and demagnetization.
relative permeability of the material being magnetized.
energy absorbed in completely demagnetizing the material.

566) In transformer operation, hysteresis losses are


current overcoming coil resistance.
induced current in the iron core.
energy wasted in reversing core magnetization.

567) What causes a transformer to be noisy?


High core losses.
An air gap in the core.
High coil resistance.

568) A transformer with a 5:1 ratio has a 24V output. What is the input?
120 V DC.
8 V AC.
120 V AC.

569) Copper losses in a transformer are caused by


the resistance in the windings.
wasting of the copper wires due to friction.
circulating currents through the transformer.

570) The copper loss on a single phase transformer is 25 Watts on full load. What will it be on half
load?
12.5 Watts.
6.25 Watts.
5 Watts.
571) A transformer is designed to operate at 60 Hz. It is connected across a 50 Hz supply. The
primary windings would
draw more current.
draw the same current.
draw less current.

572) A current transformer, when disconnected from a circuit must be


left open circuit.
short circuited.
have a resistor connected across the terminals.

573) A transformer rated at a frequency of 200 Hz


may be used at any other frequency.
may only be used at the rated frequency or above.
may only be used at the rated frequency or below.

574) A transformer is built with a material having a


high coercive force.
wide hysteresis loop.
narrow hysteresis loop.

575) A transformer has 500 turns on the primary and 100 turns on the secondary. When connected
to a 100 V supply, the output is
500 V.
25 V.
20 V.

576) A transformer has 500 turns on the primary and 100 turns on the secondary. The secondary
supplies 20V and is connected to a 10 ohm load. The primary current is
2 amps.
0.4 amps.
10 amps.

577) A transformer has 1200 turns primary and 4800 turns secondary. What value of load resistance
would be required to give a reflected impedance of 1000 ohms?
4 kOhm.
1 kOhm.
16 kOhm.

578) An autotransformer windings are


wired in parallel.
on separate formers.
connected.

579) What voltage can the neutral line carry in a star transformer?
Zero voltage.
Phase voltage.
Combined line voltages.

580) A transformer to supply a 24V load with a 5:1 turns ratio will have what primary supply?
120 V AC.
48 V AC.
120 V DC.

581) A transformer has 2000V, 500 turns on the primary and 50 turns on the secondary. What
would be the line voltage if the transformer were Delta/Star connected?
200V.
450V.
346V.

582) The line voltage in a Wye wound transformer is


root 3 / phase voltage.
root 3 * phase voltage.
the same as phase voltage.

583) Eddy current losses in a transformer are


magnetic flows induced into the core.
current used in magnetising the core.
hysteresis losses.

584) A 3-phase star-delta wound transformer gives


30° phase shift.
90° phase shift.
no phase shift.

585) In a 4:1 step up transformer, what would give a reflected impedance of 1 kOhm?
1 kOhm.
16 kOhm.
4 kOhm.

586) A near perfect 4:1 step up transformer has it`s primary connected to 120VAC, if the secondary
is connected to a load with 1600 ohms resistance, what is the current in the primary?
0.3 amps.
1 amp.
1.2 amps.

587) Flux losses in a transformer can be prevented by


winding the primary on top of the secondary.
the use of primary shielding.
laminating the core.

588) To supply a 24volt output with a transformer with a 5:1 turns ratio, the input required is
4.8
24V.
120V.

589) What would you use for the core in a generator current transformer?
Air core.
Laminated core.
Steel Core.

590) An aircraft transformer is needed to step up a voltage. What sort would be used?
Air core.
Solid core.
Laminated core.

591) In a 4:1 step-up transformer, 120V is applied to the primary, and the load on the secondary is
1600 Ohms. What is the current in the primary?
0.075A
1.2A
3A

592) A 10:1 step up power transformer has 120 V, and 3A flowing through the primary, and 0.285
A flowing through the secondary what is the efficiency?
90%.
95%.
85%.

593) Aircraft autotransformers are of what type?


Open core.
Twin core.
Laminated core.

594) An autotransformer is
primary and secondary coils.
primary coil only.
primary and secondary coils on single bar.

595) Which is a high-pass filter?


L type with series L and shunt C.
L type with series C and shunt L.
Î type with series C and L.

596) A high pass filter will


allow frequencies above a certain value to pass.
allow frequencies within a range to pass.
allow frequencies below a certain value to pass.

597) A band stop filter


attenuates frequencies either side of a narrow range.
stops a narrow range of frequencies.
stops frequencies either side of a narrow range.

598) A capacitor in series and inductor in parallel make what kind of filter?
Low pass.
Band pass.
High pass.

599) A high pass filter has


high impedance to high frequency, low impedance to low frequency.
high impedance to both high and low frequency.
high impedance to low frequency, low impedance to high frequency.
600) A circuit with good selectivity will have
a large bandwidth.
a narrow bandwidth.
a low L/C ratio.

601) A filter with a small bandwidth has


a high value of Q.
a Q of zero.
a low value of Q.

602) Band stop filter


attenuates frequencies in a specified narrow band.
stops frequencies in a narrow band.
pass all frequencies in that band.

603) Band pass filter in a circuit


only allows a narrow band of frequency to pass.
allows frequencies below a cut-off frequency to pass.
allows frequencies above a cut-off frequency to pass.

604) A high pass filter consists of a


capacitor in series and inductor in series.
capacitor in series and inductor in parallel.
an inductor in series and a capacitor in parallel.

605) In an alternating current Star wired system, the phase voltage is 115 volts and the line voltage
will be approximately
200 volts.
115 volts.
163 volts.

606) An alternating current generator is operating at 50 kVA in a circuit with a power factor of 0.8.
The real power is
40kW.
72kW.
50kW.

607) The two factors which govern the output frequency of an AC generator are the
the number of poles (in pairs) and the rotor RPM.
strength of the stator field flux and number of poles.
speed of rotation of the rotor and the stator field flux strength.

608) In a delta-connected generator


line voltage = root 3 times phase voltage, line current = phase current.
line volts = phase volts, line current = phase current divided by root 3.
line volts = phase volts, line current = root 3 times phase current.

609) When measuring the phase and line voltages of a generator, it was found that line and phase
voltages were equal. The generator is?
Either delta or star wound.
Delta wound.
Star wound.

610) The permanent magnet in an A.C generator induces


A.C. in the main generator.
A.C. in the exciter generator.
D.C. in the exciter generator.

611) If the phase voltage in a star connected generator is 200V what will be the line voltage?
115V.
346V.
200V.

612) A generator is labeled as having 115V/200V, 20A and PF 0.8. What is the apparent power in
each line that the generator can produce?
3kVA.
3kW.
4kVA.

613) AC generators are rated in


kVA.
kVARs.
kW.

614) The frequency of the output of a 4 pole generator is 400 Hz. The generator is turning at
6000 RPM.
12000 RPM.
3000 RPM.

615) The voltage induced in the stator of an AC generator is produced by


an alternating field.
a rotating magnetic field.
a fixed magnetic field.

616) A 30 KVA rated generator has a power factor of 0.8. What is its maximum consistent power?
30 KW.
37.5 KW.
24 KW.

617) The three voltages of a three phase generator are connected


in series with each other.
independently of each other.
in parallel with each other.

618) In a 2 phase generator, how far apart are the windings electrically?
45°.
180°.
90°.

619) Where are the output windings on an AC generator?


Rotor with slip rings.
Rotor with commutator.
Stator.

620) The line voltage from a generator with a delta type connection will be
lower than the phase voltage.
higher than the phase voltage.
the same as the phase voltage.

621) An advantage of a star connected generator over a delta connected generator is


the line and phase voltages are equal.
two potentials are available.
a balance load is guaranteed.

622) Permanent magnets in an AC generator are


to provide initial excitation.
to control the frequency.
to rectify the current.

623) An AC generator`s frequency will


always be constant regardless of the generators drive speed.
be proportional to the RPM at which it is driven.
vary with changes in field strength.

624) A frequency wild AC generator is used for


any AC load.
deicing loads.
instruments and navigation.

625) How many cycles of AC voltage are produced in a six-pole alternator of the revolving-field type,
with each revolution of the rotor?
Six.
Four.
Three.

626) The variable frequency output from an AC generator is used for


driving AC operated instruments.
supplying non-inductive loads.
the AC supply instead of using inverters.

627) The amount of electrical power for a given generator weight is


greater for AC generator.
determined by the size of the aircraft.
greater for DC generator.

628) On a typical AC generator the output is taken


direct from the rotor via slip rings.
direct from the stator windings.
direct from the exciter.

629) An AC generator is producing the required voltage but a higher frequency than that required.
To remedy this, the following action must be taken?
Decrease the speed of the prime mover.
Decrease the speed of the prime mover, and then decrease the strength of the field.
Decrease the speed of the prime mover, and then increase the strength of the field.

630) In a 3 phase generator with balanced load, the potential between the neutral point and earth is
equal to line volts.
zero volts.
equal to phase volts.

631) The power output of an AC parallel generator system is measured in


KW / KVARS.
amperes.
KVA.

632) The shape of the output waveform of an AC generator is known as a


sine wave.
frequency wave.
cosine wave.

633) The sum of the instantaneous E.M.F.`s in a three phase system is


three times the phase voltage.
zero.
equal to the line voltage.

634) One revolution of a three phase generator will produce


1 cycle.
3 cycles.
2 cycles.

635) The `A` phase of a three phase power system is colour coded
red.
blue.
yellow.

636) The tolerance of the AC generator frequency is


10 Hz.
40 Hz.
20 Hz.

637) A generator supplies 25 A, 4 V and 50 W. What is the apparent power and the power factor?
400 VA and 0.5.
100 VA and 2.
100 VA and 0.5.

638) A conventional aircraft generator will be


delta wound.
series wound.
star wound.

639) Power factor of a generator is


tan ø.
cos ø.
sin ø.

640) In a 3 phase generator, what angle are the phases to each other?
180°.
120°.
0°.

641) In a 2 phase generator, what angle are the phases to each other?
90°.
0°.
180°.

642) Delta wound line current is


equal to phase current.
root 3 * phase current.
less than the phase current.

643) An alternator delivers 500V RMS at 1 ampere. The power factor is 0.8. The true power is
500W.
100VA.
400W.

644) On a brushless AC generator, the main rotating field is fed with


DC via diodes on the rotor.
AC.
AC from the rotating field exciter.

645) Single phase components in a three phase system may be connected between
phase A and B only.
any phase and neutral OR between any two phases.
phase and neutral only.

646) A generator rated at 30 KVA and power factor 0.8 has a maximum continuous power output of
30 kW.
24 kW.
48 kW.

647) If there was a mainly inductive load on an AC generator, the voltage with respect to the current
would
lag.
be in phase.
lead.

648) On a brushless AC generator, the permanent magnet generator output is


DC.
pulsed.
AC.

649) The output from a rotating armature AC generator would be taken from
either the rotor or the stator.
the rotor.
the stator.

650) A frequency wild AC generator system has


variable voltage only.
variable voltage and frequency.
variable frequency only.

651) An AC generator has four poles. To produce a frequency of 400Hz it must achieve a speed of
6000 RPM.
3000 RPM.
12000 RPM.

652) The stator of a permanent magnet rotor AC generator


is usually star wound.
is wound in series with the field.
is usually delta wound.

653) The power output of a similar sized 3 phase compared to a single phase generator is
more.
same.
less.

654) In a voltage equalising circuit the generators are regulated so


the higher output is decreased to that of the lower.
the lower is increased and the higher is decreased until they are equal.
the lower output is increased to that of the higher.

655) In a 3-phase delta wound circuit, line current is


same as the phase current.
the vectorial sum of all 3 phase currents.
in phase with the phase current.

656) In an aircraft brushless alternator the armature is


in series with the field.
delta wound.
star wound.

657) If the phase voltage of a star wound generator is 115V, what would be the line to line voltage?
220V.
180V.
200V.

658) What are the factors affecting the frequency of an AC generator?


Number of pole pairs and rpm.
Number of turns in the armature coil and number of pole pairs.
Number of turns in the armature coil and rpm.

659) A generator with more than two phases is known as


polyphase.
multiphase.
delta phase.
660) A generator supplies 150VAC phase and load is 10 Ohms per phase. What is the phase current
?
25.5 A.
1.5 A.
15 A.

661) The phases on a three phase AC generator are spaced at


120 degrees.
90 degrees.
180 degrees.

662) Increasing the load on a permanent magnet generator will


reduce the terminal voltage by a large amount.
reduce the terminal voltage by a small amount.
increase the terminal voltage by a small amount.

663) Two 3 phase generators operating in parallel with different phase and line voltages will be
connected in
Parallel configuration.
star configuration.
delta configuration.

664) The Stability windings in a 3 phase AC generator are to sense


field oscillations.
overvolt.
phase shift.

665) Delta wound alternator currents are


the same as line current.
the same as phase current.
the phase current multiplied be the square root of 3.

666) In smaller single or twin engine aircraft the primary DC power is supplied in the form of
rectified output from
constant frequency ac generator.
inverter.
frequency wild ac generator.

667) Single phase components in a 3 phase system may be connected between


any phase and earth or between any two phases.
any phase and earth.
phase A and B only.

668) Under frequency in an AC supply would cause


overheating of inductive devices.
overspeeding of AC motors.
overvoltage of capacitive devices.

669) The line voltage of a 3 phase star connected AC generator is


equal to the phase voltage.
greater than the phase voltage.
less than the phase voltage.

670) In an AC generator of the brushless type the rotating field winding is fed with
AC via rotating exciter windings.
DC via the slip rings from an external supply.
DC via diodes from the main exciter winding on the rotor.

671) An AC generator is rated at 30 kVA at 0.8 Power Factor: this means that the maximum
continuous output should not exceed
24 KW.
30 KW.
5 KW.

672) To adjust the voltage of an AC generator, whilst maintaining constant frequency, it is necessary
to
alter the reactance of the starter winding circuit.
alter the field current.
alter the driving speed.

673) In a Delta connected generator the line current is equal to


1.7 * phase current.
1.7 * phase voltage.
phase current.

674) An AC motor which rotates at the same speed as supply frequency is called
a universal machine.
a synchronous motor.
an induction motor.

675) A three phase AC motor is running at speed on constant load. If one phase goes open circuit,
the motor will run at
same speed.
â…“ speed.
â…” speed.

676) Shaded poles in an alternating current motor are intended to


reduce eddy current losses.
prevent overshooting.
facilitate starting.

677) In a 3 phase motor, if 1 phase is lost, the motor


runs at 2 thirds speed.
runs at 1 third speed.
remains at the same speed.

678) A three-phase motor has the windings


180°apart.
120° apart.
90° apart.
679) To change the direction of a 3-phase induction motor you would
swap all of the input connections.
remove one of the input connections.
swap two of the stator connections.

680) A capacitor in a single phase AC motor is to


provide a phase shift.
prevent spikes.
block DC.

681) The slip speed of an induction motor is


stator speed-rotor speed.
stator speed / rotor speed.
stator speed + rotor speed.

682) An inductance/resistance motor is


restricted to low loads only.
less efficient than a capacitance motor.
better than a capacitance motor.

683) If in a 3-phase AC motor one phase is disconnected, the motor will


continue to run.
slow down and stop.
stop.

684) Calculate the speed of a 400 Hz, 4 pole machine


12,000 rpm.
6000 rpm.
8000 rpm.

685) A capacitor in a single phase motor is to


prevent sparking at the switch.
provide smoothing.
provide a phase shift.

686) Slip on a synchronous motor on start is


0 %.
100 %.
50 %.

687) A shaded pole motor has shaded poles to


create a rotating field.
reduce interference.
increase efficiency.

688) The speed of an AC motor can be affected by the


field current.
armature current.
pairs of poles.

689) An AC motor which rotates at the same speed as the supply frequency is called
a synchronous motor.
a universal motor.
an induction motor.

690) In a synchronous motor, when the motor is running the slip is


0%.
5%.
100%.

691) In a two-phase induction motor there are


3 poles.
4 poles.
2 poles.

692) The speed of a single phase induction motor is dependant on


the strength of the armature current.
the number of pairs of poles.
the strength of the field.

693) Motor slip is


the percentage of difference in speeds between the stator and rotor fields.
a symptom of a weak field.
a shifting of the MNA of the motor.

694) The principal characteristic of a synchronous motor is


it must have a synchronised 3 phase supply to operate.
it rotates at a speed that is synchronised with the applied dc current.
it rotates at a speed that is synchronised with the applied ac current.

695) A simple basic induction motor has


good starting torque, poor running torque.
poor starting torque, good running torque.
poor starting torque, poor running torque.

696) Which of the following applications would require a `continuously rated` motor?
Fuel pump motor.
Flap drive actuator.
Cargo door actuator.

697) A centrifugal speed switch is used


to cut out the resistor/inductor circuit on an AC motor.
to cut out the capacitor circuit on an AC motor.
to cut out the slow start resistor on an AC motor.

698) Disconnecting one of the phases from a 3-phase motor will cause the motor to
run at the same speed.
run at 2/3 speed.
stop.

699) The controlling phase on a two phase motor is of a


variable amplitude.
fixed amplitude.
direct current.

700) The difference in speed between a synchronous motor`s rotor and stator is known as
phase lag.
rotor lag.
slip speed.

701) What is the purpose of the capacitor used in a single phase AC motor?
Smoothing.
Changing direction of motor.
Provides a high starting torque.

702) Three 5-microfarad capacitors are connected in parallel. What is there total capacitance?
15 microfarad.
5 microfarad.
66 microfarad.

703) When capacitors are joined in parallel, the total capacitance is


less than the smallest of the individual capacitors.
equal to the sum of the individual capacitors.
dependant upon the voltage applied.

704) If the distance between the two plates of a capacitor is reduced, what will be the effect?
Capacitance increases.
Capacitance decreases.
Capacitance is unaffected.

705) The strength of the EMF generated by a DC generator is given the formula : E = EMF, B = flux
density, l = length of conductors in the armature, V = velocity of conductors
E = (B*l)/V.
E = B*l*V.
E = (l*V)/B.

706) The rotating part of a motor/generator is called


commutator.
armature.
yoke.

707) No EMF is induced in the loop of a generator when


it is moving at right angles to the field.
it is moving parallel to the field.
the field is at a minimum.

708) The instantaneous value of the EMF induced in a rotating wire loop is
directly proportional to the sine of the angle between the loop and the field.
indirectly proportional to the sine of the angle between the loop and the field.
directly proportional to the cosine of the angle between the loop and the field.

709) One purpose of the commutator is to


switch the direction of the current flow every half cycle.
switch the direction of current flow every cycle.
switch the direction of current flow every two cycles.

710) The power output of a DC generator is governed primarily by


its speed of rotation.
its ability to dissipate heat.
its method of construction.

711) A DC machine has internal resistance due to


armature windings, brushes and brushes to commutator contact.
armature windings, brushes and commutator inertia.
armature windings and brushes.

712) Compensation windings are fitted to a generator in


series with the field windings.
parallel with armature windings.
series with armature windings.

713) Armature reaction has the effect of


reducing the output by displacing the geometrical neutral axis.
reducing the output by distorting the magnetic field.
reducing the output by increasing internal resistance.

714) Reactive sparking maybe overcome by


decreasing the time constant of the armature by increasing its resistance.
increasing the time constant of the armature by decreasing its resistance.
increasing the time constant of the armature by increasing its resistance.

715) For the diagram shown find the voltage at point B.

7V
10V
26V

716) The unknown current in the network below is

22A.
3A.
47A.
717) The diagram shows a 200V long shunt generator. What is the voltage across the series resistor?

10V
6V
30V

718) What is the voltage dropped across resistor 'A'?

2V
10V
20V

719) What is the current through resistor C?

4.5A
18A
9A

720) The total resistance of the circuit shown is

3 Ohms.
1.33 Ohms.
12 Ohms.

721) The bridge circuit shown will be balanced when the value of the unknown resistor R is
2 ohms.
18 ohms.
14 ohms.

722) In this circuit, Rx is equal to

R2 * R4 ÷ R3.
R3 * R4 ÷ R2.
R3 * R2 ÷ R4.

723) The unknown resistance R in the Wheatstone bridge shown is

4 ohms.
16 ohms.
1 ohm.

724) What is represented by this diagram?

Thermistor
Rheostat
Potentiometer

725) This is a diagram of a


Light Dependant Resistor.
Laser Diode Rectifier.
Logarithmic Differential Resistor.

726) In the circuit shown, the power developed across the 10 kilo ohm resistor is

250 mW.
250 W.
50 mW.

727) The total capacitance of the circuit shown is

36µ(micro)F.
4µ(micro)F.
3µ(micro)F.

728) Rotating coil B through 90° will

increase the EMF induced into B.


increase the EMF induced into A.
decrease the EMF induced into B.

729) The diagram shown is a

shunt wound machine.


short shunt compound wound machine.
long shunt compound wound machine.

730) If you apply this waveform to this circuit, what is the output across the capacitor?

Pulsed negative
Pulsed positive
Zero

731) In this circuit

current = voltage.
current lags voltage.
current leads voltage.

732) What does the following circuit represent?

Low pass filter


Differentiator
Integrator

733) In the circuit shown, what happens to the total circuit impedance if L is tripled?

Reduces
Increases
Remains the same

734) In the circuit shown, impedance will be

5 ohms.
9 ohms.
7 ohms.

735) In the circuit shown, if the frequency is increased from zero to resonant frequency, the circuit
current would

increase.
decrease.
stay the same.

736) The true power developed in this circuit is

20W.
50W.
12W.

737) In this circuit applied voltage is

V = IXL.
V = I/R.
V = IXC.

738) What is the reflected impedance in the primary of the transformer circuit shown?

20 ohms
500 ohms
50 ohms

739) The dots on the transformer symbol shown are called, and indicate

phasing dots, point that have the opposite polarity at the same moment in time.
phasing dots, point that have the same polarity at the same moment in time.
quadrature dots, points are 90o out of phase.

740) The input is 115V and is applied across the 300 turn portion of the autotransformer shown.
What is the output?

115V
28V
460V

741) This is a diagram of a

high pass filter.


band pass filter.
low pass filter.

742) The circuit shown is at resonance. If the value of the inductance is trebled, the impedance will

stay the same.


treble.
reduce by one-third.