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5. As per SNT-TC-1A 2006, how many limited certification Techniques are available
a. 4
b. 10
c. 13
d. to suit the employer needs
e. none
8. Qualification means
a. Education, Knowledge and Experience
b. Education , training and experience
c. both
d. None
12. MFL is
a. Separate Method
b. Limited technique in Electromagnetic testing
c. Limited technique in Magnetic particle testing
d. None
18. Who has to do actual administration and grading of Level III EXAM?
a. LEVEL III
b. Qualified representative NDT LEVEL III
c. Qualified representative of the employer
d. All
e. None
19. For LEVEL II Personnel Composite grade does include weighted average
a. General
b. Specific
c. Practical
d. All
e. None
20. For LEVEL III Personnel Composite grade does include simple average
a. General
b. Specific
c. Practical
d. All
e. None
21. An employer purchases an Outside LEVL III Agency Services. Then who is responsible for the outside agency services are in accordance with the
written practice of the employer
a. Employer of the outside Agency
b. Level III of the outside agency
c. Employee of the outside agency
d. All
e. None
22. How Many Limited certification Techniques are in the Electromagnetic testing
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
e. None
23. How Many Limited certification Techniques are in the Leak testing
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
e. None
24. As per SNT-TC-1A 2006, a man doing the UT B Scan Can be qualified & certified
a. Yes By the Limited Certification
b. Yes after getting prior permission from ASNT
c. Whether any NDT personnel should be qualified and certified depends solely upon the need of the employer and the need of the employer’s
customer or clients
d. No, Cannot be qualified as it is not covered in SNT-TC-1A -2006
25. Which LEVEL II Certification has lowest number of Minimum Specific Question?
a. BLT
b. Neutron Radiography testing
c. UT A Scan Thickness gauging
d. All
e. None
26. SNT-TC-1A 2006 how many specimens are needed for LEVEL II Practical
a. One good specimen
b. One flawed specimen
c. At least one flawed specimen
d. At least one good specimen
28. A LEVEL II man was certified on 30/05/2005 in ABC Company He Left Employment on 23/05 /2008 from ABC. Now he wants to join XYZ
23/12/2008 so now
a. He has to write Exam then he can be LEVEL II in XYZ
b. He has to write the Exam and he should have proof of prior certification
c. Both a & B + he should receive additional training Approved by the new employer
d. No
29. A LEVEL II man was certified on 30/05/2007 in ABC Company He Left Employment on 23/05 /2008 from ABC. Now he wants to join XYZ
23/12/2008 so now
a. He has to write Exam then he can be LEVEL II in XYZ
b. He has to write the Exam and he should have proof of prior certification
c. Both a & B + he should receive additional training approved by the LEVEL III
d. No
30. May an employer deviate from the guideline given in SNT-TC-1A to meet his specific need?
a. Yes, employer shall modify the guidelines to meet his needs, since it is recognized that these guidelines may not be appropriate for certain
employer’s Circumstances or applications.
b. No, these guidelines shall be strictly followed
c. Yes, certain employers are permitted to deviate from the guidelines
d. None of the above
33. May a Level I person who has been certified in accordance with SNT-TC-1A 2006, be permitted to evaluate and sign for final acceptance of NDE
examination
a. No, as per SNT-Tc-1A the NDT Level I is required to perform that test only and is not supposed evaluate the test results
b. Yes, a Level III person may delegate the powers to Level I for evaluation of test results.
c. Yes, the intent in SNT-TC-1A is that the Level I person may perform the above function provided they are in accordance with written procedures
and so documented in the employers written practice
d. Both b and c
34. Should personnel that operate optical fiberscope for visual examination be qualified and certified?
a. Yes, because SNT-TC-1A required that all personnel performing NDT be qualified and certified
b. No, because SNT-TC-1A does not cover that specific operation
c. Whether any NDT personnel should be qualified and certified depends solely upon the need of the employer and the need of the employer’s
customer or clients
d. Only if required by specific codes and standard
35. According SNT-TC-1A 2006 which one of the following statement is correct for a level II?
a. A graduate in Engineering shall undergo training for forty hours and work time experience of nine months to qualify as Level II in UT
b. A high school graduate shall undergo a training for forty hours and have work time experience of nine months to qualify as Level II in UT
c. Both the above statements are true
d. None of the above
36. In accordance with which of the SNT-TC-1A 2006 following is true for a Level III
a. On the basis of demonstrated ability, achievement, experience and education. The employer may waive examination for the Level III individual
b. The employer may delete the specific examination if the candidate has a valid ASNT NDT Level III certificate in the method and if documented
evidence of experience exists.
c. The employer shall recognize only the ASNT Level III certificate holder
d. All of the above
37. Establishing a written practice for control and administration of NDT personnel, Training, examination and certification:
a. Is the sole responsibility of the employer
b. Is basically the responsibility of the NDT Level III as per SNT-TC-1A
c. Shall be as dictated by the customer
d. Shall be in accordance with the guidelines given by an appropriate Regulatory authority
38. The responsibility of each level of certification for determining the acceptability of material:
a. Shall be in accordance with the applicable codes, standards, specification, and procedures
b. Should be in accordance with customer’s requirements
c. Should be described in employers written practice under all circumstances
d. Should be described in employer’s written practice only if customer calls for it.
39. In accordance with SNT-TC-1A 2006 is it implied that an individual at maximum could be qualified only 4 methods?
a. Yes, because the individual requires to spend at least 25% of this work time on each method
b. No, the candidate may be qualified in as many methods as desired. The 25% work time experience only applies for initial qualification in each level
for each method.
c. The 25% work experience is not applicable and is not required for the individual to remain qualified in a particular method at a specific
qualification Level.
d. Both a and b
40. In preparing for qualification, the training times recommended for Level I in Magnetic Particle Testing are greater than Level II, why?
a. Some NDT methods require more initial training at Level I because of difference in complexity and manipulative skills.
b. Candidates for Level I generally have less formal education than those for Level II
c. No, the candidate should always receive more training for Level II regardless of NDT method.
d. Both a and b
41. In accordance with SNT-TC-1A it is recommended that a training program for qualification and certification purposes should include:
a. Organized training to become thoroughly familiar with the principles and practices of the specified test method relates to the level of certification
desired.
b. Training applicable to the practices to be used and products to be tested.
c. Sufficient examination to assure that the necessary information has been comprehended.
d. All of the above
e. Only b and c
42. If an employer performs NDT to multiple codes, specification and acceptance standards in this specific examination can he select questions
from the code standard and specifications?
a. No, the level III examiner can select & Approve the question from the code, standard and specification
b. Yes, it is the intent of SNT-TC-1A that specific examination covers all the codes, specifications and acceptance criteria applicable to the employers
activities
c. May be selected based upon differing job requirements of individual candidates
d. Both b and c
43. As recommended in SNT-TC-1A the physical examination requirements are intended to:
a. Assured natural of corrected near distances acuity in at least one eye such that the applicant is capable of reading minimum of Jaeger Number 2 on
a standard Jaeger Test Chart.
b. Each employer’s specific needs
c. Meet specific sections of ASME code
d. Both a and b
44. In accordance with SNT-TC-1A 2006 which of the following statements is not true?
a. An NDT Level III shall be responsible for the administration and grading of examinations for NDT Level I and II personnel
b. The administration and grading of examination may be delegated to a designated representative of NDT Level III and so recorded.
c. For a Level I and Level III personnel a composite grade shall be determined by simple averaging of general, specific and practical examination
results.
d. All of the above
45.As per SNT-TC-1A is it intended that an employer may use level III individuals in his direct employment and also use an outside agency for Level
III services?
a. No, an employer may use only agency at a time.
b. Yes both the above and this situation may be used under circumstances as described in the employers’ written practice
c. Employer utilizing outside agency must not have a level III in his direct employment
d. ASNT does not permit the use of an outside agency
46. As per SNT-TC-1A which of the following statement is true concerning recertification?
a. Recertification Level I and II be at least once in five years.
b. Recertification for Level III shall be at least once in five years.
c. NDT personnel may be reexamined any time at the discretion of the employer and have the certificate extended or revoked.
d. All of the above are true
e. Only a and b
50. A Man with Eng. Degree was initially quailed as ET LEVEL II. Now he wants to be qualified LEVEL II in Remote field. So how much minimum
training hours he has to meet as per SNT-TC-1A 2006?
a. 40 hours
b. 30hoours
c. 20 hours
d. 16 hours
51. A Man with Eng. Degree was initially quailed as ET LEVEL II. Now he wants to be qualified in Remote field. So how much minimum experience he
is supposed to have in that method SNT-TC-1A 2006?
a. 1000 hours
b. 12000hours
c. 600 hours
d. 315 hours
e. All
56. Which of the following statements is false with respect to the Written Practice?
a. The employer shall establish a written practice.
b. The written practice should describe levels of responsibility.
c. The written practice shall be submitted to clients for acceptability.
d. The written practice shall be maintained on file.
57. When carrying out practical examination at NDT Level III how many check points are necessary to confirm an understanding of NDT variables
and the employer’s procedural requirements?
a. One
b. None
c. Ten
d. Two
60. Color contrast differentiation should be conducted upon initial certification and then:-
a. Annually
b. At 2 year intervals
c. At 3 year intervals
d. At 5 year intervals
61. Initial experience may be gained simultaneously in two or more methods if the candidate spends a minimum of??? Of work time on each
method for which certification is sought.
a. 20%
b. 25%
c. 33%
d. 50%
62. A Man with Eng. Degree was initially quailed as ET LEVEL II. Now he wants to be qualified in Remote field. So how much experience he is
supposed to have in that method SNT-TC-1A 2006?
a. 1000 hours
b. 12000hours
c. 500 hours
d. 315 hours
e. All
63. for radiographic interpretation LEVEL I, what is training hours for Non Radiographer as per SNT-TC-1A- 2006
a. 18 hours
b. 22 hours
c. 40 hours
d. None
64. For radiographic interpretation LEVEL II, what is training hours for Non Radiographer as per SNT-TC-1A-2006?
a. 18 hours
b. 22 hours
c. 40 hours
d. None
65. For radiographic interpretation LEVEL II, what is training hours for LEVEL I Radiographer as per SNT-TC-1A-2006?
a. 18 hours
b. 2 hours
c. 40 hours
d. None
66. For RT LEVEL I to become RFI LEVEL II how Much Experience in film viewing is needed
a. 2100 hours, and 100 films
b. 1000 films and 1000 hours
c. 1000 films and 22hours
d. 22 hours
1. D 65. B
2. C 66. D
3. C 67. D
4. B
5. E
6. B
7. D
8. D
9. C
10. B
11. D
12. A
13. A
14. A
15. B
16. B
17. D
18. D
19. E
20. E
21. E
22. E
23. E
24. C
25. D
26. C
27. B
28. D
29. C
30. A
31. B
32. D
33. C
34. C
35. C
36. B
37. A
38. C
39. B
40. A
41. D
42. A
43. D
44. C
45. B
46. D
47. C
48. A
49. D
50. D
51. D
52. D
53. B
54. A
55. D
56. C
57. B
58. D
59. C
60. D
61. B
62. E
63. D
64. B