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A horizontal circular platform of radius 0.5 m and mass 0.45 kg is free to rotate about its axis.

Two massless spring toy-guns, each carrying a steel ball of mass 0.05 kg are attached to the

platform at a distance 0.25 m from the centre on its either sides along its diameter (see figure).

Each gun simultaneously fires the balls horizontally and perpendicular to the diameter in

opposite directions. After leaving the platform, the balls have horizontal speed of 9 m/s with

respect to the ground. The rotational speed of the platform in rad/s after the balls leave the

platform is

(a) 4

(b) 5

(c) 6

(d) 3

Solution: (a)

MR 2

2mvr 0

2

MR 2

2mvr

2

4mvr

MR 2

Substituting the values, we get

4 5 102 9

1

4 = 4 rad/s

1

2

45 10

4

Question 2:

A hoop of radius r and mass m rotating with an angular velocity 0 is placed on a rough

horizontal surface. The initial velocity of the centre of the hoop is zero. What will be the velocity

of the centre of the hoop when it ceases to slip?

r0

(a)

4

r0

(b)

3

r0

(c)

2

(d) r0

Solution: (c)

We know that,

v

r

From conservation of momentum about bottommost point,

v

mr 20 mvr mr 2

r

r

v 0

2

Question 3:

A circular disc rolls down an inclined plane. The ratio of the total kinetic energy to the rotational

kinetic energy is

(a) 1 : 3

(b) 3 : 1

(c) 2 : 3

(d) 3 : 2

Solution: (b)

1

Rotational kinetic energy, kR l 2

2

1 MR 2 2 1 2

kR Mv v R

2 2 2

1

kT Mv 2

2

1 1

Mv 2 Mv 2

2 4

3

Mv 2

4

3

Mv 2

Total kinetic energy 4 3

Rotational kinetic energy 1 Mv 2 1

4

Question 4:

A solid spherical ball of mass M and radius R rolls without slipping down on inclined plane of

length L and height h. What is the speed of its centre of mass, when the cylinder reaches its

bottom?

4

(a) gh

3

10

(b) gh

7

7

(c) gh

10

3

(d) gh

4

Solution: (b)

Let a be the acceleration of the rolling body and θ be the angle of the inclined plane.

g sin θ

Then, a ... 1

k2

1 2

R

2MR 2

I MK 2

k2 2

... 2

R2 5

g sin θ 5

a g sin θ

2 7

1

5

5

0 2 g sin θ L

2

10 h 10

g L gh

7 L 7

10

v gh

7

Question 5:

A thin rod of mass M and length L is bent in the middle so that the two halves make an angle of

70°. The moment of inertia of the bent rod about an axis passing through the bending point and

perpendicular to the plane defined by the two halves of the rod is

ML2

(a)

48

ML2

(b)

12

ML2

(c)

24

ML2

(d)

8 3

Solution: (b)

L

Length of each part =

2

M

Mass of each part =

2

1 2

Moment of inertia of a rod about an axispassing through its one end is ml

3

where,

m = mass of the rod

l = length of the rod

Moment of inertia of each part of the rod about an axis passing through its one end

2

1 M L

3 2 2

Hence, net moment of inertia about an axispassing through its middle point O is

1 M L 1 M L 1 ML2 ML2 ML

2 2 2

I

3 2 2 3 2 2 3 8 8 12

Question 6:

A satellite is moving with a constant speed 'V’ in a circular orbit about the earth. An object of

mass ‘m’ is ejected from the satellite such that it just escapes from the gravitational pull of the

earth. At the time of its ejection, the kinetic energy of the object is

1

(a) mV 2

2

(b) mV 2

3

(c) mV 2

2

(d) 2mV 2

Solution: (b)

So, just to escape from the gravitational pull, its total mechanical energy should be zero.

Therefore its kinetic energy should be mV2.

Question 7:

Two bodies, each of mass M, are kept fixed with a separation 2L. A particle of mass m is

projected from the midpoint of the line joining their centres, perpendicular to the line. The

gravitational constant is G. The correct statement is

(a) The minimum initial velocity of the mass m to escape the gravitational field of the

GM

two bodies is 4

L

(b) The minimum initial velocity of the mass m to escape the gravitational field of the

GM

two bodies is 2

L

(c) The minimum initial velocity of the mass m to escape the gravitational field of the

2GM

two bodies is

L

(d) The minimum initial velocity of the mass m to escape the gravitational field of the

3GM

two bodies is

L

Solution: (b)

From the energy conservation rule:

2GMm 1 2

mv 0

L 2

GM

v2

L

Question 8:

Four particles, each of mass M and equidistant from each other, move along a circle of radius R

under the action of their mutual gravitational attraction. The speed of each particle is:

(a)

GM

R

1 2 2

(b)

1 GM

2 R

1 2 2

GM

(c)

R

GM

(d) 2 2

R

Solution: (b)

This force is balanced by centripetal force

Question 9:

What is the minimum energy required to launch a satellite of mass m from the surface of a planet

of mass M and radius R in a circular orbit at an altitude of 2R?

5GmM

(a)

6R

2GmM

(b)

3R

GmM

(c)

2R

GmM

(d)

3R

Solution: (a)

GmM GmM

=

2r R

Here, r R 2R 3R

5GMm

Substituting in above equation we get, E

6R

Question 10:

1

A planet of radius R radius of earth has the same mass density as Earth. Scientists

10

R

dig a well of depth on it and lower a wire of the same length and of linear mass density 10−3

5

−1

kgm into it. If the wire is not touching anywhere, the force applied at the top of the wire by a

person holding it in place is

(take the radius of Earth = 6 × 106 m and the acceleration due to gravity on Earth is 10 ms−2)

(a) 96 N

(b) 108 N

(c) 120 N

(d) 150 N

Solution: (b)

Rearth

Rplanet …(i)

10

earth planet

M earth M planet

4 3 4 3

Rearth Rplanet

3 3

M

M planet earth

103

Now,

M earth

GM planet G

g planet 103 GM earth

2 2 2

Rplanet Rearth 10 Rearth

10

x

gdepth of planet gsurface of planet

R

where, x = distance from centre of planet

Total force on the wire,

R

x g x

2

R

F dx g

4 R /5

R R 2 4 R /5

Substituting the given values we get F = 108 N

Question 11:

In hydrogen like atom electron makes transition from an energy level with quantum number n to

another with quantum number (n – 1). If n >> 1, the frequency of radiation emitted is

proportional to

1

(a)

n2

1

(b) 3

2

n

1

(c)

n4

1

(d) 3

n

Solution: (c)

E h

E

h

1 1 1

k

n 12 n 2

c

1 1

K

n 12 n 2

2 Kn 2k 1

2 3 3

n n 1

2

n n

Question 12:

If Cu is the wavelength of K , X-ray line of copper (atomic number 29) and MO is the

wavelength of the K , X-ray line of molybdenum (atomic number 42), then the ratio Cu / MO

is close to

(a) 1.99

(b) 2.14

(c) 0.50

(d) 0.48

Solution: (b)

Question 13:

Hydrogen (1H1), Deuterium (1H2), singly ionised Helium (2He4) and doubly ionised lithium

(3Li6)++ all have one electron around the nucleus Consider an electron transition from n = 2 to n =

1. If the wave lengths of emitted radiation are 1 , 2 , 3 and 4 respectively then approximately

which one of the following is correct?

Solution: (c)

Question 14:

produce photoelectrons. These electrons are made to enter a magnetic field of 3 10−4 T. If the

radius of the largest circular path followed by these electrons is 10.0 mm, the work function of

the metal is close to:

(a) 0.8 eV

(b) 1.6 eV

(c) 1.8 eV

(d) 1.1 eV

Solution: (d)

When an electron moves in a circular path,

mv

r

qB

r 2 q 2 B 2 m2 v 2

2 2

mv

2

KEmax

2m

r q2 B2

2

KEmax 0.8eV

2m

Question 15:

A metal surface is illuminated by light of two different wavelengths 248 nm and 310 nm. The

maximum speeds of the photoelectrons corresponding to these wavelengths are 1 and 2

respectively. If the ratio 1 : 2 2 :1 and hc = 1240 eV nm, the work function of the metal is

nearly

(a) 3.7 eV

(b) 12 eV

(c) 28 eV

(d) 15 eV

Solution: (c)

hc

Energy corresponding to wavelength is given by

1240

Energy corresponding to wavelength 248nm is given by eV 5eV

248

1240

Energy corresponding to wavelength 248nm is given by eV 4eV

310

Let W be the work function of the metal then,

Question 16:

The anode voltage of a photocell is kept fixed. The wavelength of the light falling on the

cathode is gradually changed. The plate current I of the photocell varies as follows:

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Solution: (d)

As is increased, there will be a value of above which photoelectrons will cease to come

out. So photocurrent will become zero.

Question 17:

If a semiconductor has an intrinsic carrier concentration of 1.41 1016/m3, when doped with

1021/m3 phosphorous atoms, then the concentration of holes/m3 at room temperature will be

(a) 2 1021

(b) 2 1011

(c) 1.41 1010

(d) 1.41 1016

Solution: (d)

Doping will increase the number of electrons only and not the holes. So, number of holes will be

equal to number of intrinsic carrier concentration i.e., 1.41 1016/m3.

Question 18:

Two identical capacitors each of capacitance C are charged to the same potential V and are

connected in two circuits (i) and (ii) at t = 0 as shown. The charged on the capacitor at t =CR are

(a) CV , CV

e e

(b) CV, CV

(c) VC , VC

e

(d) VC , VC

e

Solution: (c)

In Fig. (i) the p-n junction diode is forward biased and represents a very low resistance, the

capacitor, therefore discharges itself through resistor R according to relation.

q q0et CR

and q0 = CV at t = CR

q q0e1 CV

e

In Fig. (ii), the p-n junction diode is reverse biased, the capacitor, therefore holds the charge

intact.

q = q0 = CV

Question 19:

9

If the ratio of the concentration of electrons to that of holes in a semiconductor is and the ratio

7

5

of currents is Then, the ratio of their drift velocities is

3

9

(a)

7

7

(b)

15

5

(c)

8

15

(d)

7

Solution: (d)

As, I = neAvd

I e ene Ave ne ve

I h enh Avh nh vh

ve I e nh 5 9 15

vh I h ne 3 7 7

Question 20:

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Solution: (c)

For forward bias diode, p-side must be at higher potential and n-side must be at lower potential.

Question 21:

The density of a solid ball is to be determined in an experiment. The diameter of

the ball is measured with a screw gauge, whose pitch is 0.5 mm and there are 50

divisions on the circular scale. The reading on the main scale is 2.5 mm and that

on the circular scale is 20 divisions. If the measured mass of the ball has a relative

error of 2 %, the relative percentage error in the density is

(a) 0.9 %

(b) 2.4 %

(c) 3.1 %

(d) 4.2 %

Solution: (c)

0.5

Least count of the pitch = 0.01

50

Diameter (D) of the ball = (2.5 + 20(0.01)) mm = 2.7 mm

Mass

Volume

M

3

4 D

3 2

The relative percentage error in the density is given as:

m D 0.01

3 =2+ 3 100 = 3.1%

m D 2.7

Question 22:

4MLg

In the determination of Young’s modulus Y by using Searle’s method, a wire of

ld 2

length L = 2 m and diameter d = 0.5 mm is used. For a load M = 2.5 kg, an extension l = 0.25

mm in the length of the wire is observed. Quantities d and l are measured using a screw gauge

and a micrometer, respectively. They have the same pitch of 0.5 mm. The number of divisions on

their circular scale is 100. The contributions to the maximum probable error of the Y

measurement

(a) due to the errors in the measurements of d and l are the same.

(b) due to the error in the measurement of d is twice that due to the error in the

measurement of l.

(c) due to the error in the measurement of l is twice that due to the error in

the measurement of d.

(d) due to the error in the measurement of d is four time that due to the error in

the measurement of l.

Solution: (a)

0.5

Least count of the pitch of screw gauge and micrometer is = 0.005

100

We have, Young’s Modulus as:

4 MLg

Y

ld 2

Y L d

2

Y max L d

L 0.005

L 0.25

d 0.005 0.005

2 2

d 0.5 0.25

Y L d

2

Y max L d

L 0.005

error due to l measurement =

L 0.25

d 0.005 0.005

error due to d measurement = 2 2

d 0.5 0.25

So error in y due to l measurement = error in y due to d measurement

Question 23:

mass , L = length, T = Time and A = electric , then

(b) E0 M 1L3T 4 A2

(d) E0 M 1L2T 1 A2

Solution: (b)

1 q1q2

From Coulomb’s law, F =

4 E0 R 2

q1q2

E0 =

4 FR 2

Subtituting the units we have,

AT

2

C2

E0 M 1L3T 4 A2

N m 2

MLT 2 L2

Question 24:

A small block of mass of 0.1 kg lies on a fixed inclined plane PQ which makes an

angle θ with the horizontal. A horizontal force of 1 N acts on the block through its centre of

mass as shown in the figure. The block remains stationary if (take g = 10 m/s2)

(a) 45

(b) 45 and a frictional force acts on the block towards P

(c) 45 and a frictional force acts on the block towards Q

(d) None of these

Solution: (a)

F1 mg cos 90 mg sin 0.110sin sin

F2 cos

At 45

F1 = F2

So, no friction will be required to keep the block stationary.

At 45

F1 > F2

So, frictional force will act toward Q.

45

F1 < F2

So, frictional force will act toward P.

Question 25:

. In the figure, a ladder of mass m is shown leaning against a wall. It is in static equilibrium

making an angle with the horizontal floor. The coefficient of friction between the wall and the

ladder is 1 and that between the floor and the ladder is 2 . The normal reaction of the wall on

the ladder is N1 and that of the floor is N2. If the ladder is about to slip, then

mg

(a) 1 0, 2 0 and N 2 tan

2

mg

(b) 1 0, 2 0 and N1 tan

2

mg

(c) 1 0, 2 0 and N 2

1 12

(d) 1 0, 2 0 and N1 tan mg

Solution: (c)

f1 1 N1

f 2 2 N 2

In option (a) and (d) 1 and 2 are 0

Net torque about A should be zero to maintain the position

l

mg cos N1 sin l

2

mg cot

N1

2

mg

N1 tan

2

and N2 mg

In (b), 2 = 0

There is no force to balance N1 so rod cannot remain in equilibrium.

(c) N1 2 N2

N 2 12 N 2 mg

mg

N2

1 12

Question 26:

Given in the figure are two blocks A and B of weight 20 N and 100 N, respectively. These are

being pressed against a wall by a force F as shown. If the coefficient of friction between

the blocks is 0.1 and between block B and the wall is 0.15, the frictional force applied by the

wall on block B is :

(a) 100 N

(b) 80 N

(c) 120 N

(d) 150 N

Solution: (c)

For block A,

m1 g 1F

20 0.1 F

20

F 200

0.1

Frictional force on block A will be in upward direction and it will be equals to 20N.

So, block A will exert a frictional force of 20 N on block B in downward direction.

So, for block B

2 F m2 g 1F

100 20 120 N

Question 27:

x3

A block of mass m is placed on a surface with a vertical cross section given by y . If the

6

coefficient of friction is 0.5, the maximum height above the ground at which the block can be

placed without slipping is

1

(a) m

6

2

(b) m

3

1

(c) m

3

1

(d) m

2

Solution: (a)

Mg sin s Mg cos

tan

We know that,

s = static friction

and s = tan

dy d x3 x 2

tan

dx dx 6 2

x2 1

x 1

x2

0.5

2

x2 1

x 1

1

y

6

Question 28:

A ball of mass (m) 0.5 kg is attached to the end of a string having length (L) 0.5 m. The ball is

rotated on a horizontal circular path about vertical axis. The maximum tension that the

string can bear is 324 N. The maximum possible value of angular velocity of ball (in radian/s)

is

(a) 9

(b) 18

(c) 27

(d) 36

Solution: (d)

T ml 2

324 0.5 0.5 2

2 324 4

18 2 36 rad/s

Question 29:

A particle of mass 0.2 kg is moving in one dimension under a force that delivers a

constant power 0.5 W to the particle. If the initial speed (in m/s) of the particle is

zero, the speed (in m/s) after 5 s is

(a) 5

(b) 3

(c) 2

(d) 4

Solution: (a)

dW

Power =

dt

Total work done in 5s is

W 0.5 5 2.5 KE f KEi

Since initial speed of the particle is zero so its initial kinetic energy will also be zero.

M

2.5 (v 2f vi2 )

2

M

2.5 (v 2f 0)

2

2.5 2

v 2f 25

0.2

vf 5

Question 30:

A bob of mass m, suspended by a string of length l1 is given a minimum velocity

required to complete a full circle in the vertical plane. At the highest point, it

collides elastically with another bob of mass m suspended by a string of

length l2, which is initially at rest. Both the strings are mass-less and inextensible.

If the second bob, after collision acquires the minimum speed required to

complete a full circle in the vertical plane, the ratio l1/ l2 is

(a) 5 : 2

(b) 2 : 5

(c) 5 : 1

(d) 1 : 5

Solution: (a)

The minimum velocity required to complete a full circle in the vertical plane by a

bob of mass m, suspended by a string of length l = 5gl

Also, the speed at highest point is given as gl

The initial speed of 1st bob (suspended by a string of length l1 ) is 5gl1 .

The speed of this bob at highest point will be gl1

When this bob collides with the other bob there speeds will be interchanged.

l 5

gl1 5gl2 1

l2 1

Question 31:

When a rubber is stretched by a distance x, it exerts a restoring force of magnitude

F 2 x 3x 2 .The work done in stretching the unstretched rubber-band by L is

(a) L2 L3

(b) L2 L3

1

2

(c) L2 L3

1

3

(d) L L2

Solution: (a)

We have,

F 2 x 3x 2

W Fdx

The work done in stretching the unstretched rubber-band by L is

W 2 x 3x 2 dx

L

0

L

x 2 x3

0

L2 L3

Question 32:

A block is moving with speed v towards a system of two blocks system as shown in figure. The

first block hits the second block elastically. If the maximum compression is x = 1 m. What will

be the common velocity by which two blocks system will move together after some time? (m = l

kg, k = 2Nm-1,v = 2 ms-1)

(a) 1 m/s

(b) 2 m/s

(c) 3 m/s

(d) 4 m/s

Explanation:

As the collision is elastic the first block will transfer its speed completely to second block. So,

initial scenario will be like this

At maximum compression is x.

1 1 1

mv 2 2 mv02 kx 2

2 2 2

mv 2mv0 kx mv 2 kx 2 2mv02

2 2 2

mv 2 kx 2 1 4 2 1

v0 1ms 1

2m 2 1

Question 33:

x i y j

The work done on a particle of mass m by a force K 3 3

x2 y 2 2 x 2

y

2 2

( K being a constant of appropriate dimensions), when the particle is taken from

the point (a, 0) to the point (0, a) along a circular path of radius a about the origin

in the x-y plane is

2Kx

(a)

a

Kx

(b)

a

Kx

(c)

2a

(d) 0

Solution: (d)

Since the particle is taken along a circular path of radius a about the origin so,

x2 y 2 a2 …(i)

Now,

dw F dr F (dxiˆ dyjˆ)

xdx ydy

W K 2

(x y )

2 2 3/2

( x y 2 )3/2

From (i)

xdx ydy

W K 2 3/2

2 3/2

(a ) (a )

K a 2 a 2

0 a

K

a3 a 0

W xdx ydy 0

a3 2 2

Question 34:

Two blocks are connected over a massless pulley as shown in figure. The mass of block A is 10

kg and the coefficient of kinetic friction is 0.2. Block A slides down the inclined at constant

speed. The mass of block B in kg is

B

30o

(a) 3.5

(b) 3.3

(c) 3.0

(d) 2.5

Question 35:

uniform rope ABC of length 2 m. As the load falls from BC = 0 to BC = 1 m. its velocity (in

m/s) changes from:

20 30

(a) to

6 5

30

(b) 0 to

8

20 30

(c) to

5 6

40

(d) 0 to

7

Solution: (d)

At t = 0 , V = 0

2g 20

a= m / s2

52 7

20 40

V 2 2 1

7 7

40

V=

7

Question 36:

The shown p-v diagram represents the thermodynamic cycle of an engine, operating with an

ideal monoatomic gas. The amount of heat, extracted from the source in a single cycle is:

(a) p0V0

13

(b) p0V0

2

11

(c) p0V0

2

(d) 4 p0V0

Solution: (b)

Heat is extracted from the source means that heat is given to the system (or gas)

or Q is positive. This can be positive only along the path ABC

So,

QABC U ABC WABC

nCv Tf Ti Area under p-V graph

3

n R Tc TA 2 p0V0

2

3

nRTc nRTA 2 p0V0

2

3

pCVC p AVA 2 p0V0

2

3

4 p0V0 p0V0 2 p0V0

2

13

p0V0

2

Question 37:

In Carnot engine, efficiency is 30% at hot reservoir temperature T. For efficiency 40%, what will

be the temperature of hot reservoir?

6T

(a)

7

(b) 6T

7T

(c)

6

T

(d)

5

Solution: (c)

work done W

The efficiency, =

heat input Q

T2

1

T1

30 T

1 2

100 T1

T2

0.7

T1

T2 0.7T1

40 T T

NOW, 1 2' 2' 0.6

100 T1 T1

0.7T1

0.6

T1'

0.7

T1' T1

0.6

7

T1' T1

6

7

T1' T [ T1 = T]

6

Question 38:

If a gas has ‘n’ degrees of freedom, the ratio of the specific heats of the gas is

1 n

(a)

2

n

(b) 1

2

1

(c) 1

n

2

(d) 1

n

Solution: (d)

Let us consider 1 mole of an ideal gas at kelvin temperature T. It has N molecules (Avogadro's

number). The internal energy of an ideal gas is entirely kinetic. The average KE per molecule of

1

an ideal gas is nkT (k is boltzman constant), where n is degree of freedom. Therefore the

2

internal energy of one mole of an gas would be

1 1 R

E N nkT nRT k

2 2 N

dE n

Now, Cv R

dT 2

n n

and Cp R R 1 R

2 2

n

1 R

2

Cp 2

1

Cv n n

2

Question 39:

The work of 175 kJ is performed in order to compress one kilomole of a gas adiabatically and in

this process the temperature of the gas increases by 6°C. The gas is[R = 8.3 Jmol1K1]

(a) Triatomic

(b) Diatomic

(c) A mixture of monoatomic and diatomic

(d) None of the above

Solution: (a)

For adiabatic process,

dQ = 0

According to first law of thermodynamics during adiabatic process all the change in internal

energy is in the form of work done

dU = W

where,

dT = change in temperature

nfR

6 175 103 J

2

where,

f is degree of freedom

n is number of mole of gas

103 f 8.3 6

175 103 J

2

f =7.03 7

Question 40:

During an experiment, an ideal gas is found to obey an additional law Vp2 = constant. The gas is

initially at temperature T and volume V. What will be the temperature of the gas when it expands

to a volume 2V?

(a) 3 T

(b) T 1/ 2

(c) T 2

(d) T 2

Solution: (b)

Here it is given that Vp2 = k (constant).

Hence, we may write the gas equation as,

pV = nRT

k

V nRT

V

nR

V T

k

V1 T1

So,

V2 T2

V2

T2 T1

V1

2V

T T 2

V

Question 41:

From a tower of height H, a particle is thrown vertically upwards with a speed u.

The time taken by the particle, to hit the ground, is n times that taken by it

to reach the highest point of its path. The relation between H, u and n is:

(b) gH n 2 u 2

2

(c) 2 gH nu 2 n 2

(d) gH n 2 u 2

2

Solution: (c)

At highest point final velocity is zero. Let at time t1 it reaches to the highest point.

v u gt1

u gt1

u

t1

g

Let t2 be the time taken to hit the ground, then

t2 nt1

1

H ut2 gt2 2

2

2

nu 1 nu

H u g

g 2 g

nu 2 1 n 2u 2

H

g 2 g

2 gH nu 2 n 2

Question 42:

Two stones are thrown up simultaneously from the edge of a cliff 240 m high with initial speed

of 10 m/s and 40 m/s respectively. Which of the following graph best represents the time

variation of relative position of the second stone with respect to the first? (The figures are

schematic and not drawn to scale.) (Assume stones do not rebound after hitting the ground and

neglect air resistance, take g = 10 m/s2)

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Solution: (c)

1

240 10t 10t 2

2

5t 10t 240 0

2

t 2 2t 48 0

t 8 t 6 0

t = 8 sec

The first particle will strike ground at 8 seconds, up to 8 second, relative velocity

is 30m/s and relative acceleration is zero. After 8 second magnitude of relative

velocity will increase up to 12 seconds when second particle strikes the ground.

Question 43:

A projectile is given an initial velocity of i 2 j m/s, where i is along the ground and j is

along the vertical. If g = 10 m/s2, the equation of its trajectory is:

(a) y x 5x 2

(b) y 2 x 5x 2

(c) 4 y 2 x 5x 2

(d) 4 y 2 x 25x 2

Solution: (b)

Initial velocity = i 2 j m/s

1 2 5

2 2

Magnitude of initial velocity =

Equation of trajectory of projectile is:

gx 2

2

y x tan 1 tan 2

2u

10 x

2

y x2 1 22

5

2

2

10 x

2

2x 1 4

25

2 x 5x2

Question 44:

A rocket is moving in a gravity free space with a constant acceleration of 2 ms–2 along + x

direction (see figure). The length of a chamber inside the rocket is 4 m. A ball is thrown from

the left end of the chamber in + x direction with a speed of 0.3 ms–1 relative to the rocket. At

the same time, another ball is thrown in −x direction with a speed of 0.2 ms–1 from its right end

relative to the rocket. The time in seconds when the two balls hit each other is

(a) 2 s

(b) 3 s

(c) 1 s

(d) 4 s

Solution: (a)

u 2 0.3 0.3 0.09

Maximum distance of ball A from left wall =

2a 2 2 4

So, collision of two balls will take place very near to left wall.

Now, motion of ball B relative to rocket

1

s ut at 2

2

1

4 0.2t 2 t 2

2

Solving the above equation, we get

t = 1.9s

Nearest integer = 2

Question 45:

Airplanes A and B are flying with constant velocity in the same vertical plane at

angles 30 and 60 with respect to the horizontal respectively as shown in the

figure. The speed of A is 100 3 ms−1. At time t = 0 s, an observer in A finds B at

a distance of 500 m. This observer sees B moving with a constant velocity

perpendicular to the line of motion of A. If at t = t0, A just escapes being hit by B,

t0 in seconds is

(a) 4 s

(b) 3 s

(c) 2s

(d) 5 s

Solution: (d)

VB cos30 VA

VA

VB

cos 30

2

VB VA

3

2

VB 100 3 200 m/s

3

And time t0 = (Relative distance) / (Relative velocity)

500

t0 5s

VB sin 30

Question 46:

(b) 0 A

(c) 0.13 A, from Q to P

(d) 0.13 A, from P to Q

Solution: (c)

Applying Kirchoff Current law:

x6 x0 x9

0

3 1 5

5 15 3 9 1

X 2

15 5 5

3

X

23

X 0 3

Current through 1 resistor is 0.13 A

1 23

Question 47:

The supply voltage to room is 120 V. The resistance of the lead wires is 6 Ω. A 60 W bulb is

already switched on. What is the decrease of voltage across the bulb, when a 240 W heater is

switched on in parallel to the bulb ?

(a) 0 Volt

(c) 13.3 Volt

Solution: (d)

We know that,

V2

P

R

Resistance of 60 W bulb is

120 120

R 240

60

When the heater is not on, the circuit looks like:

240

V1 120 117.073V

246

120 120

R 60

240

Since 240 Ω and 60 Ω resistor are in parallel, so the resultant resistance is:

1 1 1

R 240 60

R 48

Req 48 6 54

48

V2 120 106.66V

54

Decrease of voltage across the bulb

Question 48:

of stretched wire would be

(a) 8

(b) 18

(c) 2

(d) 4

Solution: (b)

Resistance of a wire,

l

R 2 ...1

A

l ', then l ' 3l

lA l ' A '

l l A

A' A A

l' 3l 3

l' 3l l

R' 9

A' A / 3 A

9 2 18

Question 49:

The circuit in figure shows two cells connected in opposition to each other. Cell E1is of emf 12V

and internal resistance 4Ω. the cell E2 is of emf 8V and internal resistance 16Ω. Find the

potential difference between the points A and B.

(a) 11.2 V

(b) 12.1 V

(c) 12.3 V

(d) 12.1 V

Solution: (a)

Effective resistance = 4Ω + 16Ω = 20Ω and effective emf of two cells = 12 8 = 4V, so the

12 8

electric current is given by I 0.2 A

4 16

along anti-clockwise direction, since E1>E2.

The direction of flow of current is always from high potential to low potential. Therefore

VB > VA

VB 8V (0.2) 16 = VA

Therefore, VB VA = 11.2 V

Question 50:

When 10V potential difference is applied across a wire of length 0.2 m, the drift speed of

electrons is 5 ×10−4 ms−1. If the electron density in the wire is 8 × 1028 m−3, the resistivity of the

material is close to :

(a) 0.8×10−8 Ωm

(b) 0.8×10−7 Ωm

(c) 0.8×10−6 Ωm

(d) 0.8×10−5 Ωm

Solution: (d)

J ne vd

I

ne vd

A

I neAvd

where, vd is the drift speed

l

and R

A

By Ohm’s law

V

neAvd

l

A

V

nelvd

10

0.8 105 m

8 10 1.6 10-19 0.2 5 10-4

28

Question 51:

Three very large plates of same area are kept parallel and close to each other. They are

considered as ideal black surfaces and have very high thermal conductivity. The first and third

plates are maintained at temperatures 2T and 3T respectively. The temperature of the middle (i.e.

second) plate under steady state condition is

1

65 4

(a) T

2

1

97 4

(b) T

4

1

97 4

(c) T

2

1

(d) 97 4 T

Solution: (c)

Q1 Q2

Q = net rate of heat flow

A 3T AT04 AT04 A 2T

4 4

1

97 4

T0 T

2

Question 52:

If a piece of metal is heated to temperature and then allowed to cool in a room which is at

temperature 0 , the graph between the temperature T of the metal and time t will be closest to :

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Solution: (a)

Question 53:

The resistance of a wire at room temperature 20°C is found to be 20. Now to increase the

resistance by 20%, the temperature of the wire must be [The temperature coefficient of resistance

of the material of the wire is 0.002 per °C].

(a) 142°C

(b) 124°C

(c) 150°C

(d) 122°C

Solution: (b)

We have R1 R0 1 t

Finally, R0 1 t 24

6 1 t

Now,

5 1 20

0.01t 1.24

1.24

t 124 C

0.01

Question 54:

Two gases, carbon monoxide (CO) and nitrogen (N2) at the same temperature have kinetic

energies E1 and E2 respectively. Then,

(a)E1 > E2

(b) E1 < E2

(c) E1 = E2

(d) E1 and E2 cannot be compared

Solution: (c)

The gases carbon monoxide (CO) and nitrogen (N2) are diatomic, so both have equal kinetic

5

energy kT . i.e., E1 E2

2

Question 55:

Two rectangular blocks, having identical dimensions, can be arranged either in configuration

I or in configuration II as shown in the figure. One of the blocks has thermal conductivity

K and the other 2K. The temperature difference between the ends along the x-axis is the same

in both the configurations. It takes 9s to transport a certain amount of heat from the hot end

to the cold end in the configuration I. The time to transport the same amount of heat in the

configuration II is

(a) 2.0 s

(b) 3.0 s

(c) 4.5 s

(d) 6.0 s

Solution: (a)

l l 3 l

RI R1 R2

KA 2 KA 2 KA

1 1 1 KA 2 KA 3KA

RII R1 R2 l l l

l R

RII I

3KA 4.5

Since thermal resistance RII is 4.5 times less than thermal resistance RI , so

tI 9

tII s 2s

4.5 4.5

Question 56:

A conductor lies along the z-axis at −1.5 ≤ z < 1.5 m and carries a fixed current of 10.0 A in az

direction (see figure). For a field B 3 104 e0.2 x a y T, find the power required to move the

conductor at constant speed to x = 2.0 m, y = 0 m in 5 × 10−3s. Assume parallel motion along the

x-axis.

(a) 1.57 W

(b) 2.97 W

(c) 14.85 W

(d) 29.7 W

Solution: (b)

Work done

Average Power =

Time taken

1 2 1 2

P F dx B x IL dx

t 0 t 0

1 2

3 0

P 3 104 e0.2 x 10 3dx

5 10

9 1 e0.4

1

9 1 0.4 2.967W 2.97W

e

Question 57:

A circular loop of radius 0.3 cm lies parallel to a much bigger circular loop of radius 20 cm. The

centre of the smaller loop is on the axis of the bigger loop. The distance between their centres is

15 cm. If a current of 2.0 A flows through the bigger loop, then the flux linked with smaller loop

is

(a) 9.11011 Wb

(b) 6 1011 Wb

(c) 3.3 1011 Wb

(d) 6.6 109 Wb

Solution: (a)

0iR 2

B 3

2 R2 x2 2

0 2 20 102

2

B

3

2 0.2 0.15

2 2 2

0 2 20 102

2

0.3 102

2

Flux through the smaller loop = BS

3

2 0.2 0.15

2 2 2

9.11011 Wb

Question 58:

A metallic rod of length ‘l’is tied to a string of length ‘2l’ and made to rotate with angular speed

on a horizontal table with one of the string fixed. If there is a vertical magnetic field B in the

region, the emf induced across the ends of the rod is

2 Bl 3

(a)

2

3Bl 3

(b)

2

4 Bl 2

(c)

2

5 Bl 2

(d)

2

Solution: (d)

The emf induced across the ends of the rod is given by:

x Bdx

3l

e

2l

3l

x2

B

2 2l

3l 2 2l 2

B

2

5

Bl 2

2

Question 59:

A current carrying infinitely long wire is kept along the diameter of a circular wire loop,

without touching it. The correct statement is

(a) The emf induced in the loop is zero if the current is constant

(b) The emf induced in the loop is finite if the current is constant

(c) The emf induced in the loop is zero if the current decreases at a steady rate

(d) The emf induced in the loop is finite if the current decreases at a steady rate

Solution: (d)

Due to current in the straight wire, net magnetic flux from the circular loop is zero. This is

because, magnetic field is inward in half of the circle and outward in the other half of the circle.

Therefore, change in current will not cause any change in magnetic flux from the loop.

Therefore, induced emf under all condition through the circular loop is zero.

Question 60:

radian/s. If the impedance of the R–C circuit is R 1.81 , the time constant (in millisecond) of the

circuit is,

(a) 30

(b) 40

(c) 50

(d) 20

Solution: (d)

Z R2 X c 2

We have,

Z R 1.81

R 2 X c 2 R 1.81

R2 X c 2 1.81R2

X c 2 0.81R2

X c 0.9R

1 9R

C 10

We know that time constant = RC

10 10 9

RC s 0.02 s 20 ms

9 9 500

Question 61:

A small block is connected to one end of a massless spring of unstretched length 4.9 m. The

other end of the spring (see the figure) is fixed. The system lies on a horizontal frictionless

surface. The block is stretched by 0.2 m and released from rest at t = 0. It then executes

simpleharmonic motion with angular frequency rad/s. Simultaneously at t = 0, a small

3

pebble is projected with speed v from point P at an angle of 45 as shown in the figure. Point P is

at a horizontal distance of 10 cm from O. If the pebble hits the block at t = 1s, the value of v

is(take g = 10 m/s2)

(a) 50 m/s

(b) 51 m/s

(c) 52 m/s

(d) 53 m/s

Solution: (a)

Then,

2v sin

t

g

Put 45 ,

gt 10 1

v 50 m/s

2sin 2 1

2

Question 62:

For a simple pendulum, a graph is plotted between its kinetic energy (KE) and potential energy

(PE) against its displacement d. Which one of the following represents these correctly?

(graphs are schematic and not drawn to scale)

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Solution: (a)

Let A be the mean position and d be the displacement around the mean position.

KE = m 2 A2 d 2

1

2

1

PE = m 2 d 2

2

Both the graphs are parabola.

At mean position (d = 0)

PE = 0, KE is max.

At extreme positions (d = A )

1

KE = 0 and PE = m 2 A2 = maximum

2

Question 63:

A particle moves with simple harmonic motion in a straight line. In first s, after starting from

rest it travels a distance a, and in next s it travels 2a, in same direction, then

(a) amplitude of motion is 4a

(b) time period of oscillations is 6

(c) amplitude of motion is 3a

(d) time period of oscillations is 8

Solution: (a)

When, t , then, x A a …(i)

When, t 2 , then x A 3a …(ii)

From (i) and (ii)

A a A cos

A 3a A cos 2

We know that,

cos 2 2cos2 1

A 3a Aa

2

2 1

A A

A2 3aA A2 2a2 4aA

a 2 2aA

A 2a

Since, A a A cos t

1

cos t

2

2

T 3

T 6

Question 64:

A point mass is subjected to two simultaneous sinusoidal displacements in x–direction,

2

x1 t A sin t and x2 t A sin t . Adding a third sinusoidal displacement

3

x3 t B sin t brings the mass to a complete rest. The value of B and are

3

(a) 2 A,

4

4

(b) A,

3

5

(c) 3 A,

6

(d) A,

3

Solution: (b)

The value of B to bring the mass to complete rest is A and its amplitude is 240 .

Question 65:

A particle of mass m is attached to one end of a mass-less spring of force constant k, lying on a

frictionless horizontal plane. The other end of the spring is fixed. The particle starts moving

horizontally from its equilibrium position at time t = 0 with an initial velocity u0. When the speed

of the particle is 0.5u0, it collides elastically with a rigid wall. After this collisions

(a) The speed of the particle when it returns to its equilibrium position is u0.

(b) The time at which the particle passes through the equilibrium position for the first

m

time is t

k

4 m

(c) The time at which the maximum compression of the spring occurs is t

3 k

(d) The time at which the particle passes through the equilibrium position for the second time is

4 m

t

3 k

Solution: (a)

In the elastic collision total energy is conserved

1 1 1

mu02 kx 2 0.25 mu02 …(i)

2 2 2

Let A be the amplitude of the motion.

1 1

mu02 kA2

2 2

u

A 0

k

From (i)

3 1 1

mu02 kx 2

4 2 2

3 m

x u0

2 k

m

t1

3 3 k

2 m

Time to reach equilibrium position for the first time =

3 k

Time to reach equilibrium position for the second time

2 m T 2 m 2 m 5 m

= =

3 k 2 3 k k 2 3 k

For maximum compression time is t2

2 m T 2 m 2 m 7 m

t2

3 k 4 3 k k k 6 k

Question 66:

2

1

i 3 j is incident on a plane mirror. After

2

1

i 3 j . The angle of incidence is

(a) 30

(b) 45

(c) 60

(d) 75

Solution: (a)

The angle made by i with horizontal is .

1

1

tan 2

3 3

2

30

Question 67:

A green light is incident from the water to the air-water interface at the critical angle (). Select

the correct statement.

(a) The spectrum of visible light whose frequency is less than that of green light will come out to

the air medium.

(b) The spectrum of visible light whose frequency is more than that of green light will come out

to the air medium.

(c) The entire spectrum of visible light will come out of the water at various angles to the normal

(d) The entire spectrum of visible light will come out of the water at an angle of 90° to the

normal

Solution: (c)

For total internal reflection angle of incidence must be greater than critical angle.

If frequency is less then wavelength will be larger and hence the refractive index

will be less and therefore critical angle increases.

1 b

sin C , nwater a 2

nwater

So, they do not suffer reflection and come out at an angle less than 90 .

Question 68:

A point source S is placed at the bottom of a transparent block of height 10 mm and refractive

index 2.72. It is immersed in a lower refractive index liquid as shown in the figure. It is found

that the light emerging from the block to the liquid forms a circular bright spot of diameter 11.54

mm on the top of the block. The refractive index of the liquid is

(a) 1.21

(b) 1.30

(c) 1.36

(d) 1.42

Solution: (c)

The critical angle c is given as:

l

sinc

block

r

sinc

r h2

2

l r

block r 2 h2

r

l block

r 2 h2

5.77

2.72 1.36

11.54

Question 69:

3

A thin convex lens made from crown glass has focal length f. When it is measured in

2

two different liquids having refractive indices (4/3) and (5/3), it has the focal lengths f1and f2

respectively. The correct relation between the focal lengths is

(a) f2 > f and f1 becomes negative

(b) f1 and f2 both become negative

(c) f1 = f2 < f

(d) f1 > f and f2 becomes negative

Solution: (d)

1 1 1

1

f R1 R2

When the lens is in air,

1 3 1 1

1

f 2 R1 R2

Let,

1 1

= x

R1 R2

1 1

f 2x

f 2 x …(i)

4

Focal length of first liquid with refractive index( L1 ) as is given by,

3

1 s 1 1

1

f1 L1 R1 R2

3

1 2 1

1

f1 4 x

3

1 1 1 1

f1 8 x 4 2 x 4 f

f1 4 f …(ii)

From (i) and (ii),

f1 is positive and greater than f.

5

Focal length of second liquid with refractive index( L2 ) as is given by

3

1 s 1 1

1

f 2 L2 R1 R2

3

1 1

2 1

f2 5 x

3

f 2 is negative

Question 70:

The image of an object, formed by a plano-convex lens at a distance of 8m behind the lens, is

real and is one third the size of the object. The wavelength of light inside the lens is 2/3 times the

wavelength in free space. The radius of the curved surface of the lens is

(a) 1 m

(b) 2 m

(c) 3 m

(d) 6 m

Solution: (c)

Given that

positive of image v = +8,

1

magnification m =

3

Now,

1 v

m= =

3 u

u

v

3

u

8

3

u 24

Now, the refractive index of medium is given by,

1 3

air

medium 2 2

3

1 1 1 1 1

1

v u f R

1 1 3 1

1

8 24 2 R

R 3m

Question 71:

Charges Q, 2Q and 4Q are uniformly distributed in three dielectric solid spheres 1, 2 and 3 of

radii R/2, R and 2R respectively, as shown in figure. If magnitudes of the electric fields at point P

at a distance R from the centre of spheres 1, 2 and 3 are E1, E2 and E3 respectively, then

(a) E1 > E2 > E3

(b) E3 > E1 > E2

(c) E2 > E1 > E3

(d) E3 > E2 > E1

Solution: (c)

1 q q

Electric field at point r is given by: E k 2

4 0 r 2

r

2Q

E2 k …(i)

R2

For E3

4Q

Charge density =

4 2 R

3

4Q Q

4 R3

4 2 R

3

2

Q

E3 k …(ii)

2R2

Q

E1 k 2 …(iii)

R

From (i), (ii) and (iii)

E2 > E1 > E3

Question 72:

Two charges, each equal to q, are kept at x = −a and x = a on the x-axis.A particle of mass m and

charge q0=q/2 is placed at the origin. If charge q0 is given a small displacement (y << a) along

the y-axis, the net force acting on the particle is proportional to:

(a) y

(b) −y

1

(c)

y

1

(d)

y

Solution: (a)

q

2kq

Fnet 2 y

2

y2 a2 y a2

2

q

2kq y

Fnet 2

3

y a

2 2 2

Fnet y

Question 73:

Assume that an electric field E 30 x 2 i exists in a space. Then, the potential difference VA V0 ,

where V0 is the potential at the origin and VA the potential at x = 2m is

(a) 120 J

(b) −120 J

(c) 80 J

(d) −80 J

Solution: (c)

We have,

Potential difference = VA V0

and dV E dx

VA 2

dV E dx

V0 0

VA 2

dV 30 x 2 dx

V0 0

2

x3

VA V0 30

3 0

VA V0 10 8 80 J

Question 74:

A charge Q is uniformly distributed over a long rod AB of length L as shown in the figure. The

electric potential at the point O lying at distance L from the end A is

Q

(a)

8 0 L

Q ln 2

(b)

4 0 L

Q

(c)

4 0 L ln 2

3Q

(d)

4 0 L

Solution: (b)

1 dQ

The potential at point x due to infinitesimal small charge dQ is .

4 0 x

The potential (V) at point O can be given as:

2L 1 dQ

V .

L 4 x

0

2L dQ 1

V k where k

L x 4 0

Let be the linear charge density

Q

L

Q

and dQ dx

L

So,

Q

V k dx

2L L

L x

Q 2L 1

V k dx

L L x

Q

V k ln x L

2L

L

Q

V k ln 2 L ln L

L

Q 2L

V k ln

L L

Q

V k ln 2

L

1 Q

V . ln 2

4 0 L

Question 75:

A long cylindrical shell carries positive surface charge σ in the upper half and negative surface

charge −σ in the lower half. The electric field lines around the cylinder will look like figure given

in : (figure are schematic and not drawn to scale

Solution: (d)

Electric field lines originate from positive charge and terminate at negative charge. They cannot

form closed loop and are smooth curves.

Question 76:

In the given circuit, charge Q2 on the 2F capacitor changes as C is varied from1F to 3F. Q2

as a function of 'C' is given properly by

(figures are drawn schematically and are not to scale)

Solution: (d)

So, their resultant is 1F + 2F = 3F

The resultant circuit diagram is:

V C

3 F

Vc 3

C

V3 F Vc

3

C

V3 F E

C 3

This is also the potential difference across 2F capacitor

Q2 2 F V2 F

2CE 2

Q2 E

C 3 1 3

C

Question 77:

If eye is kept at a depth h inside the water of refractive index and viewed outside, then the

diameter of circle through which the outer objects become visible, will be

h

(a)

2 1

2h

(b)

2 1

h

(c)

2 1

h

(d)

2 2 1

Solution: (b)

Let r be the radius of the cncle through whichother objects become visible. The ray of light must

be incident at critical angle C.

1 r

sin C

r h2

2

2 r2 = r2 + h2 (2 1)r2 = h

h

r

2 1

2h

Diameter = 2r

2 1

Question 78:

For a glass prism 3 , the angle of minimum deviation is equal to the angle of the prism.

The angle of the prism is

(a) 45°

(b) 75°

(c) 30

(d) 60

Solution: (d)

The relationship between refractive index, prism angle A and angle of minimum deviation is

given by

A Dm

sin

2

A

sin

2

Here, Dm = A

sin A

Substituting the value, we get

A

sin

2

A A

2sin cos

2 2 2 cos A

A 2

sin

2

A 3

For the given value of refractive index, we have cos

2 2

A

Or 30

2

A = 60

Question 79:

Two vessels having equal volume contain molecular hydrogen at one atmosphere and helium at

two atmosphere pressure respectively. If both samples are at the same temperature the mean

velocity of hydrogen molecule is

(a) equal to that of helium

(b) twice that of helium

(c) half that of helium

(d) 2 times that of helium

Solution: (d)

8RT

Mean velocity = vm where M = molecular weight.

M

1

VM H

2

2

1

VM He

4

VM H

2

2

VM He

VM H = 2 VM He

2

Question 80:

Five capacitors 10 F capacity each are connected to a D. C. potential of 100 volts as shown in

figure. The equivalent capacitance between the points A and B will be equal to

(a) 40 F

(b) 20 F

(c) 10 F

(d) 30 F

Solution: (c)

5 F

10 F 10 F

10 F 10 F

5 F

Ceq 10 F

Question 81:

Solution: (c)

The device which follows square law is used for modulation purpose.

A characteristic shown by (ii) corresponds to square law device. Some part of (i) also follow

square law.

Question 82:

Amplitude Modulated Wave (AM). The frequency if the AM wave will be

(a) ωm

(b) ωc

(c) ωm + ωc

(d) 2ωm

Solution: (b)

Frequency of modulated wave is equal to the frequency of carrier wave in case of amplitude

modulation.

Question 83:

A 100m long antenna is mounted on a 500m tall building. The complex can become a

transmission tower for waves with λ

(a) ~400 m

(b) ~25 m

(c) ~ 150 m

(d) ~2400 m

Solution: (a)

λ ~ 4l = 4 × 100 = 400 m

Question 84:

The simple Bohr model cannot be directly applied to calculate the energy levels of an atom with

many electrons. This is because

(b) of the electrons colliding with each other

(d) the force between the nucleus and an electron will no longer be given by Coulomb's law

Solution: (a)

The electrostatic force of attraction between electron and nucleus is a central force which

provides necessary centripetal force for the circular motion of the electron.

The simple Bohr model cannot be directly applied to calculate the energy levels of an atom with

many electrons. This is because of the electrons not being subject to a central force.

Question 85:

Two H atoms in the ground state collide inelastically. The maximum amount by which their

combined kinetic energy is reduced is

(a) 10.20eV

(b) 20.40 eV

(c) 13.6eV

(d) 27.2 eV

Solution: (a)

When total energy associated with the two H-atoms in the ground state collide in elastically = 2

× (13.6 eV) = 27.2 eV.

Here collision is inelastic, so linear momentum is conserved, but some kinetic energy is lost in

the process. If one of them goes into first excited state after the inelastic collision, then the total

energy associated with the two H-atoms after collision= (13.6/22) + 13.6 = 17.0 eV.

So, maximum loss of their combined kinetic energy = 27.2 -17.0 = 10.2 eV.

Question 86:

When a nucleus in an atom undergoes a radioactive decay, the electronic energy levels of the

atom

(d) change for β-radioactivity but not for others.

Solution: (b)

γ particles – No charge

Due to this reason, energy levels of the atom change for α and β but not for others.

Question 87:

In a nuclear reactor, moderators slow down the neutrons which come out in a fission process.

The moderator used has light nuclei. Heavy nuclei will not serve the purpose because

(b) elastic collision of neutrons with heavy nuclei will not slow them down.

(d) substances with heavy nuclei do not occur in liquid or gaseous state at room temperature.

Solution: (b)

The moderator used has light nuclei like proton. When protons undergo perfectly elastic collision

with the neutron emitted their velocities are exchanged, it means, neutrons come to rest and

protons move with the velocity of neutrons.

Question 88:

Two coaxial solenoids of different radii carry current I in the same direction. Let F1 be the

magnetic force on the inner solenoid due to the outer one and F2 be the magnetic force on the

outer solenoid due to the inner one. Then

(a) F1 = F2 = 0

(b) F1 is radially inward and F2 is radially outward

(c) F1 is radially inward and F2 = 0

(d) F1 is radially outward and F2 = 0

Solution: (d)

Force on Q due to P is inward, similarly force due to S on R is inward, hence net force F1 = 0

Similarly, F2 = 0

Question 89:

Two long current carrying thin wires, both with current I, are held by insulating threads of length

L and are in equilibrium as shown in the figure, with threads making an angle '' with the

vertical. If wires have mass per unit length then the value of I is

gL

(a) 2sin

0 cos

gL

(b) sin

0 cos

gL

(c) 2 tan

0

gL

(d) tan

0

Solution: (a)

Question 90:

The coercivity of a small magnet where the ferromagnet gets demagnetized is 3 103Am1. The

current required to be passed in a solenoid of length 10 cm and number of turns 100, so that the

magnet gets demagnetized when inside the solenoid, is

(a) 30 mA

(b) 60 mA

(c) 3 mA

(d) 6 mA

Solution: (a)

For solenoid, the magnetic field needed to be magnetized the magnet.

N

B 0 I

L

100

3 103 I

0.1

I 3A

Question 91:

Two short bar magnets of length 1 cm each have magnetic moments 1.20 Am2 and

1.00 Am2 respectively. They are placed on a horizontal table parallel to each other with their N

poles poining towards the south. They have a common magnetic equator and are separated by a

distance of 20.0 cm. The value of the resultant horizontal magnetic induction at the mid point 0

of the line joining their centres is close to

(Horizontal component of earth's magnetic induction is 3.6 × 10−5 Wb/m2)

(a) 3.6 × 10−5 Wb/m2

Solution: (b)

Bnet B1 B2 BH

0 M 1 M 2

Bnet BH

4 r3

1.2 1

Bnet 107 3.6 105

0.13

Question 92:

A rectangular loop of sides 10 cm and 5 cm carrying a current I of 12 A is placed in different

orientations as shown in the figures below.

(i)

(ii)

(iii)

(iv)

If there is a uniform magnetic field of 0.3 T in the positive z direction, in which orientations the

loop would be in (i) stable equilibrium and (ii) unstable equilibrium?

(b) (i) and (iii), respectively

Solution: (b)

Direction of magnetic dipole moment M is given by screw law and this is perpendicular to the

plane of the loop.

In stable equilibrium position, angle between M and B is 0 and in unstable equilibrium this

angle is 180 .

Question 93:

A car is moving with at a constant speed of 60 km h1 on a straight road. Looking at the rear

view mirror, the driver finds that the car following him at a distance of 100 m and is approaching

with a speed of 5 kmh1.

In order to keep track of the car in the rear, the driver begins to glance alternatively at the rear

and side mirror of his car after every 2 s till the other car overtakes. If the two cars were

maintaining their speeds, which of the following statement (s) is/are correct?

(b) In the side mirror, the car in the rear would appear to approach with a speed of 5 kmh1 to the

driver of the leading car

(c) In the rear view mirror, the speed of the approaching car would appear to decrease as the

distance between the cars decreases

(d) In the side mirror, the speed of the approaching car would appear to increase as the distance

between the cars decreases

Solution: (d)

We know that, the image formed by convex mirror does not depend on the relative position of

object wit mirror. Therefore, the speed of the approaching car would appear to increase as the

distance between the cars decreases in the side mirror.

Question 94:

Between the primary and secondary rainbows, there is a dark band known as Alexandar's dark

band. This is because

(a) light scattered into this region interfere destructively

(b) there is no light scattered into this region

(c) light is absorbed in this region

(d) angle made at the eye by the scattered rays with respect to the incident light of the sun lies

between approximately 80° and 90°

Solution: (a)

Alexandar's dark band lies between the primary and secondary rainbows, forms because the light

scattered into this region interfere destructively.

With respect to the incident light, the primary and secondary rainbows subtends an angle nearly

41° to 42 and 51° to 54° at observer's eye respectively.

Hence, the scattered ray with respect to the incident light of the sun lies between approximately

42° and 50°.

Question 95:

Consider sunlight incident on a slit of width 104 Å. The image seen through the slit shall

(a) be a fine sharp slit white in colour at the centre

(b) a bright slit white at the centre diffusing to zero intensities at the edges

(c) a bright slit white at the centre diffusing to regions of different colours

(d) only be a diffused slit white in colour

Solution: (a)

We are given, width of the slit = 104 Å

= 104 1010 m

1 A 1010 m

= 106 m

We know that, the wavelength of visible sunlight lies between 4000 Å and 8000 Å.

Since, the width of slit is comparable to that of wavelength.

Hence, the diffraction occurs with maxima at centre.

Therefore, all colours will appear at the centre. In other words, we can say that the mixing of

colours form white patch at the centre.

Question 96:

The wavelength of a photon needed to remove a proton from a nucleus which is bound to the

nucleus with 1 MeV energy is nearly

(a) 1.2nm

(b) 1.2 × 10−3 nm

(c) 1.2 × 10−6nm

(d) 1.2 × 10nm

Solution: (b)

hc

The energy of a photon is given by E

λ

Here, is the minimum wavelength of the photon required to eject the proton from nucleus

We are given that, the energy of a photon (E) = 1 MeV

= 106 eV

hc

Now, E

λ

hc

E

1240eVnm

hc 1240eVnm

106 eV

1.24 103 nm

Question 97:

Consider figure given below. Suppose the voltage applied to A is increased. The diffracted beam

will have the maximum at a value of that

(a) will be larger than the earlier value

(b) will be the same as the earlier value

(c) will be less than the earlier value

(d) will depend on the target

Solution: (c)

Tthe de-Broglie wavelength associated with electron In Davisson-Germer experiment is given by

12.27

λ Å …(1)

V

2d sin = ...(2)

Thus, when the voltage applied to A is increased. The diffracted beam will have the maximum at

a value of that will be less than the earlier value.

Question 98:

it's de-Broglie wavelength

(a) remains constant

(b) increases with time

(c) decreases with time

(d) increases and decreases periodically

Solution: (a)

We are given that, v = v0 î and B = B0 ĵ

The force on moving electron due to magnetic field is given by

F = e(v B)

= e[v0 î e0 ĵ]

= ev0B0k (∵î ĵ = k)

Hence, the magnitude of v will not change.

W also know that momentum = mv

Now, mass and velocity are constant.

Therefore, momentum will remain constant in magnitude.

1

remains constant because of the constant momentum.

mv

Question 99:

Consider a beam of electrons (each electron with energy E0) incident on a metal surface kept in

an evacuated chamber. Then,

(a) No electrons will be emitted as only photons can emit electrons

(b) Electrons can be emitted but all with an energy, E0

(c) Electrons can be emitted with any energy, with a maximum of E0 − ( is the work function)

(d) Electrons can be emitted with any energy, with a maximum of E0

Solution: (d)

chamber due to elastic collision electrons can be emitted with maximum energy E0. When part of

incident energy of electron is used in liberating the electrons from the surface of metal, then

electrons can be emitted with energy less than E0.

Question 100:

A thermocouple is made from two metals, Antimony and Bismuth. If one junction of the couple

is kept hot and the other is kept cold, then, an electric current will

Solution: (d)

At hot junction the current flows from the metal occurring in the thermoelectric series earlier to

that which occurs later and for cold junction vice-versa.

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