2018

Medical Assistant
Certification Exam
CLINICAL EDUCATION
Index
1. Body Systems 1-108
2. Medical Terminology 109-131
3. Vital Signs 132-142
4. Laws, Regulations, and Ethics 143-168
5. Communication Skills 169-182
6. Psychology 183-192
7. Administrative Tasks 193-271
8. Emergency Procedures 272-296
9. Pharmacology 297-337
10. Pathophysiology and Nutrition 338-366
11. Examination and Diagnostic Testing 367-430
Medical Assistant Certification Practice Exam

Body Systems
1. The basic building block of the human body is:
a. Atoms
b. Cells
c. Organs
d. Carbohydrate
2. Anatomical position requires that a person be standing:
a. Facing forward with palms facing the back
b. Facing the side with palms facing the back
c. Facing forward with palms facing the front
d. Facing the side with palms facing the front
3. The plane that divides a body into right and left halves is:
a. Frontal or coronal plane
b. Posterior plane
c. Sagittal or median plane
d. Transverse plane
4. Groups of tissues that perform a specific function in the body are called:
a. Cells
b. Nerves
c. Organs
d. Systems
5. In osmosis, particles move:
a. Across a semi-permeable membrane
b. Into a solution with lower concentration
c. With help from a protein
d. Across a non-permeable membrane
6. A genetic disorder that causes incomplete closing of the backbone and membranes
around the spinal cord is:
a. Down Syndrome
b. Cleft palate
c. Club foot
d. Spina bifida
7. To place a patient in the Dorsal Recumbent position, you would have the patient lie
on his:
a. Abdomen
b. Right side
c. Left side
 d. Back
8. A patient has a fracture of her distal tibia. The fracture is:
a. In the center of her body
b. Away from the center of her body
c. Near the center of her body
d. None of the above
9. A patient is complaining of epigastric pain. The pain is located:
a. Mid upper abdominal region
b. Mid central abdominal region
c. Mid lower abdominal region
d. Right lower quadrant
10. DNA is housed in the cell nucleus in these formations:
a. Neurons
b. Membranes
c. Chromosomes
d. Mitochondria
11. The “powerhouse” of the cell is:
a. Nucleus
b. Cell membrane
c. Vacuole
d. Mitochondria
12. Which gland in the Integumentary System secretes sebum?
a. Endocrine gland
b. Sebaceous gland
c. Lymph gland
d. Sweat gland
13. Alopecia describes:
a. Hair loss
b. Malformed cells
c. Infestation
d. Skin rash
14. Hirsutism is best described as:
a. Hair loss
b. Excessive sweating
c. Excessive hair growth
d. Staph infection
15. Functions of the Integumentary System include:
a. Regulation of body temperature
b. Vitamin D production
c. Excretion and absorption
d. All of the above
16. The layer of skin which contains the hair follicles, blood vessels, and sudoriferous
glands is:
a. Epidermis
b. Dermis
c. Hypodermis
d. Adipose
17. Pustules may be caused by:
a. Allergic reactions
b. Sun burn
c. Accidental injury
d. Acne
18. This type of skin cancer is the most serious:
a. Malignant melanoma
b. Basal cell carcinoma
c. Squamous cell carcinoma
d. Lipoma
19. Functions of the Skeletal System include:
a. Body support and movement
b. Production of blood cells
c. Mineral storage
d. All of the above
20. Which bone is part of the axial skeleton?
a. Left femur
b. Atlas vertebrae
c. Left clavicle
d. Right iliac
21. The names of two long bones are:
a. Occipital fossa and mastoid process
b. Metacarpal and tibia
c. Femur and radius
d. Femur and mandible
22. A Greenstick Fracture involves:
a. A partial break in a long bone
b. A compression fracture of a vertebrae
c. A compound fracture of a long bone
d. An avulsion fracture
23. A compound fracture involves bone that:
a. Is broken into many small pieces
b. Breaks through the skin
c. Is compressed down into another piece of bone
d. Breaks along a spiral line
24. This is connective tissue that secures two bones together to form a joint:
a. Bursa
b. Tendon
c. Ligament
d. None of the above
25. The smallest bone in the body is found in the:
a. End of the 5th toe
b. Nose
c. Throat
d. Ear
26. This type of arthritis is caused by an autoimmune response in which the body attacks
its own tissues:
a. Osteoarthritis
b. Gouty arthritis
c. Rheumatoid arthritis
d. Gouty bursitis
27. Scoliosis describes this type of spinal curvature:
a. Sideways curvature
b. Upper spine curves forward
c. Excessive inward curvature
d. Sacral curvature posteriorly
28. A large protuberance on the end of a bone may be described as:
a. Condyle
b. Fossa
c. Trochanter
d. Crest
29. The first vertebrae is called:
a. Atlas
b. Axis
c. Coccyx
d. Foramen
30. Which bone forms part of the lateral malleolus?
a. Ulna
b. Fibula
c. Patella
d. Calcaneus
31. A component of the central nervous system is:
a. Cardiac muscle
b. Sciatic nerve
c. Spinal nerves
d. Brain
32. The part of the brain that controls temperature regulation is:
a. Frontal lobe
b. Medulla Oblongata
c. Hypothalamus
d. Occipital lobe
33. Bell’s Palsy is characterized by:
a. Weakness or paralysis of the upper extremities
b. Weakness or paralysis of one side of the face
c. Uncontrollable facial movements
d. Increased sensation of smell
34. These nerves carry signals from sensory receptors in the skin to the central nervous
system:
a. Efferent nerves
b. Cranial nerves
c. Afferent nerves
d. Spinal nerves
35. One of the cranial nerves is responsible for:
a. Respiration
b. Facial expressions
c. Peristalsis
d. Reflexes
36. The brainstem controls many body functions. One it does not control is:
a. Breathing
b. Heart rate
c. Temperature
d. Balance
37. Balance is maintained by this part of the brain:
a. Cerebellum
b. Cerebrum
c. Pons
d. Medulla Oblongata
38. A stroke which affects speech and arm movement has occurred in which section of the
brain?
a. Frontal lobe
b. Parietal lobe
c. Occipital lobe
d. Cerebellum
39. This nervous system controls involuntary bodily functions such as digestion and
pupillary response:
a. Central Nervous System
b. Skeletal Nervous System
 c. Autonomic Nervous System
d. Diffuse Nervous System
40. Our conscious thought processes occur in the:
a. Cerebrum
b. Cerebellum
c. Pons
d. Midbrain
41. Increased intraocular pressure is:
a. Myopia
b. Presbyopia
c. Macular Degeneration
d. Glaucoma
42. The tympanic membrane is at the entrance to this section of the ear:
a. Pinna
b. External ear
c. Middle ear
d. Inner ear
43. A patient who is flexing his knee is:
a. Increasing the angle of the joint
b. Decreasing the angle of the joint
c. Moving the joint in a clockwise direction
d. Relaxing the muscles
44. The GI tract is composed of this type of muscle:
a. Skeletal voluntary
b. Skeletal involuntary
c. Smooth voluntary
d. Smooth involuntary
45. Muscles are able to change their shape during movement and then return to a resting
shape. This property is called:
a. Excitability
b. Contractibility
c. Elasticity
d. Extensibility
46. A muscle that allows us to chew is:
a. Quadriceps
b. Masseter
c. Bicep
d. Iliopsoas
47. A patient has suffered a spinal cord injury and has lost control of function below the
neck. The patient is considered:
a. Quadriplegic
 b. Paraplegic
c. Atrophic
d. Hypertrophic
48. A young patient is diagnosed with a disorder that causes progressive muscle weakness
and wasting. The diagnosis is:
a. Multiple myeloma
b. Muscular dystrophy
c. Skeletal fasciitis
d. Parkinson’s disease
49. This section of the respiratory tract is primarily capillaries that allow the exchange of
oxygen and carbon dioxide:
a. Pharynx
b. Larynx
c. Epiglottis
d. Alveoli
50. A patient’s pneumonia has caused a partial collapse of the lung. This is called:
a. Bronchitis
b. Bronchiolitis
c. Emphysema
d. Atelectasis
51. A fluid collection in the space surrounding the lungs and their covering membrane is:
a. Asthma
b. Emphysema
c. Pleural effusion
d. Pulmonary edema
52. Opioids can decrease the respiratory rate. The term for slow respirations is:
a. Bradypnea
b. Hyperpnea
c. Bradycardia
d. Hypercardia
53. Asthma is a reactive airway disease because its narrowing of the breathing tract in
response to external irritants is reversible. An example of a pulmonary disease that is
not reversible is:
a. Pulmonary edema
b. Emphysema
c. Bronchitis
d. Epiglottitis
54. These arteries supply the heart muscle with the blood that it needs:
a. Aorta
b. Vena Cava
c. Coronary arteries
 d. Renal arteries
55. The mitral valve is located:
a. Between the right atrium and right ventricle
b. Between the right ventricle and left atrium
c. Between the left atrium and left ventricle
d. Between the left ventricle and right atrium
56. Cardiomyopathy affects this portion of the heart:
a. The muscle
b. The electrical pathway
c. The valves
d. The pericardium
57. This valve is between the right ventricle and lungs:
a. Tricuspid
b. Mitral
c. Aortic
d. Pulmonic
58. Your patient has an irregular radial pulse. The most likely cause of this is:
a. An aneurysm
b. Thrombosis
c. Atrial fibrillation
d. Arteriosclerosis
59. The most common site to obtain a pulse in an adolescent or adult is:
a. Pedal
b. Apical
c. Brachial
d. Radial
60. This circulatory system filters blood through the liver before returning it to the vena
cava:
a. Hepatic portal
b. Systemic
c. Pulmonary
d. Coronary
61. Fetal circulation differs from adult circulation in several ways. One of the differences
is:
a. The hepatic portal system circulates blood through the liver of the fetus.
b. The ductus arteriosus allows blood to bypass the lungs in the fetus.
c. The coronary system feeds the heart muscle in the fetus.
d. The capillary system allows fluid and waste exchange in the fetus.
62. A swelling in the walls of a blood vessel is called:
a. Aneurysm
b. Atherosclerosis
 c. Arteriosclerosis
d. Thrombosis
63. This system is part of the immune system:
a. Digestive
b. Respiratory
c. Lymphatic
d. Urinary
64. This type of white blood cell releases most of the body’s histamine:
a. Basophil
b. Monocyte
c. Lymphocyte
d. Neutrophil
65. These foreign proteins may cause the production of antibodies:
a. Cytokines
b. Complements
c. Immunoglobulins
d. Antigens
66. Lymphocytes are classified as these two types of cells:
a. A and B
b. B and T
c. W and R
d. A and E
67. Rheumatoid arthritis and ulcerative colitis are examples of this type of disease:
a. Autoimmune
b. Musculoskeletal
c. Acquired immune deficiency
d. Bacterial
68. The largest organ in the immune system is the:
a. Thymus
b. Lymph nodes
c. Spleen
d. Dendritic cells
69. This muscular motion propels food through the digestive tract:
a. Contraction
b. Peristalsis
c. Adduction
d. Flexion
70. Accessory organs of the digestive tract include:
a. Mouth and pharynx
b. Pharynx and esophagus
c. Esophagus and stomach
 d. Liver and gall bladder
71. The jejunum is a section of:
a. Small intestine
b. Large intestine
c. Stomach
d. Liver
72. A patient was recently diagnosed with a communicable, infectious disease of the
gastrointestinal tract. The diagnosis may be:
a. Diverticulitis
b. Hepatitis B
c. GERD
d. Cirrhosis
73. A common test for colon cancer involves visualizing the bowel through a scope. This
test is called:
a. Colposcopy
b. Cystoscopy
c. Colonoscopy
d. Duodenoscopy
74. The pyloric valve is located:
a. Between the esophagus and stomach
b. Between the liver and duodenum
c. Between the stomach and duodenum
d. Between the duodenum and jejunum
75. The term for vomiting blood is:
a. Epistaxis
b. Hemoptysis
c. Hematuria
d. Hematemesis
76. Pituitary, pineal, and pancreas are examples of:
a. Master glands
b. Accessory glands
c. Endocrine glands
d. Exocrine glands
77. The endocrine gland that is considered to be the “master gland” is the:
a. Pituitary
b. Pineal
c. Thymus
d. Thyroid
78. This gland is active up until puberty and produces a specialized white blood cell:
a. Pancreas
b. Ovary
 c. Adrenal
d. Thymus
79. This pituitary hormone to regulate fluid balance:
a. TSH
b. ADH
c. FSH
d. MSH
80. A patient was diagnosed with acromegaly. A cause of acromegaly is:
a. Overproduction of melatonin
b. Tumor of the thyroid gland
c. Tumor of the pituitary gland
d. Overproduction of cortisol
81. A patient has Cushing’s disease which is caused by an overproduction of cortisol.
Cortisol is produced by the:
a. Adrenal glands
b. Thyroid
c. Parathyroid glands
d. Pancreas
82. Calcium regulation and bone metabolism are governed by:
a. Thyroid hormone
b. Parathyroid hormone
c. Luteinizing hormone
d. Glucagon
83. The functional unit of the kidney is called:
a. Tubule
b. Ureter
c. Hilum
d. Nephron
84. Functions of the kidneys include:
a. Maintain blood volume and pressure
b. Removal of solid waste
c. Production of hormone that promotes normal blood sugar levels
d. Production of uric acid
85. The kidneys play a key role in maintaining electrolyte balance. An example of an
electrolyte that the kidney reabsorbs is:
a. Glucose
b. Salt
c. Potassium
d. Fat
86. The ureters connect:
a. The kidneys to the bladder
 b. The bladder to the outside of the body
c. The kidneys to the outside of the body
d. The bladder to the rectum
87. This is a cluster of capillaries in the nephron:
a. Loop of Henle
b. Convoluted tubule
c. Glomerulus
d. Collecting tubule
88. The inability to contain urine or feces is termed:
a. Oliguria
b. Incontinence
c. Frequency
d. Dysuria
89. This Xray can show the outline of the kidneys, bladder, and ureters:
a. KUB
b. Cystourethroscopy
c. Retrograde pyelography
d. Anuric exam
90. This treatment may be prescribed in someone with renal failure:
a. Dialysis
b. Catheterization
c. IVP
d. Fluoroscopy
91. A patient with benign prostatic hypertrophy has chronic incomplete bladder
emptying and urinary stasis. Left untreated this may lead to:
a. Renal calculi
b. Polycystic Kidney Disease
c. Enlarged bladder
d. Pyelonephritis
92. Dysuria and hematuria may be signs of:
a. Urinary catheterization
b. Urinary tract infection
c. Urinary stasis
d. Renal calculi
93. Which of the following organs is located retroperitoneally?
a. Gall bladder
b. Thymus
c. Kidneys
d. Rectum
94. The urinary bladder is located in:
a. The abdominal cavity
 b. The pelvic cavity
c. The peritoneal cavity
d. The thoracic cavity
95. This doctor specializes in care of the urinary tract:
a. Urologist
b. Nephrologist
c. Surgeon
d. Radiologist
96. Components of the male reproductive tract include:
a. Prostate and Bulbourethral glands
b. Prostate and Bartholin glands
c. Prostate and cystocele
d. Prostate and collecting tubule
97. This disorder which primarily effects older men is caused by an overgrowth of tissue
that surrounds part of the urethra:
a. Erectile dysfunction
b. Hydrocele
c. Prostatic hypertrophy
d. Rectocele
98. This portion of the uterus contains two os which dilate during the labor process:
a. Fundus
b. Body
c. Endometrium
d. Cervix
99. Painful menstrual cramps are termed:
a. Amenorrhea
b. Dysmenorrhea
c. Menorrhagia
d. None of the above
100. Sperm and ova are classified as:
a. Zygotes
b. Osteoclasts
c. Gametes
d. Seminal vesicle cells
101. Fertilization of the ovum by sperm occurs in:
a. The Fallopian tubes
b. The uterus
c. The cervix
d. The mons pubis
102. Implantation of the fertilized egg (zygote) occurs:
a. In the Fallopian tubes
 b. In the uterus
c. In the cervix
d. In the mons pubis
103. This hormone is produced by the placenta after implantation and is detected in
most pregnancy tests:
a. FSH
b. LH
c. Oxytocin
d. HCG
104. Cryptorchidism is undescended:
a. Testes
b. Foreskin
c. Ovaries
d. Fetus
105. Inability to conceive is
a. Contraception
b. Infertility
c. Amenorrhea
d. Endometriosis
106. A colposcopy examines:
a. Colon
b. Cervix
c. Fallopian tubes
d. Vas deferens
107. Fetal cells may be found in:
a. The mother’s milk
b. Prolactin
c. Serous fluid
d. Amniotic fluid
108. This is a surgical procedure for male sterilization:
a. Vasectomy
b. Penisectomy
c. Salpingectomy
d. Hysterectomy
Medical terminology:
109. The suffix “philia” as in “hemophilia” means:
a. A lack of
b. An overabundance of or tendency toward
c. An attachment to
d. A pain in
110. The suffix “dynia” as in “mastodynia” means:
a. A lack of
b. An overabundance of or tendency toward
c. An attachment to
d. A pain in
111. Anemia may cause red blood cells to be different sizes. The medical term for
this is:
a. Basophilia
b. Anisocytosis
c. Necrosis
d. Arthralgia
112. This medical term means medication should be taken as needed:
a. Stat
b. Per os
c. AC
d. PRN
113. An antibiotic would not be effective treatment for a mycotic condition.
Mycotic refers to:
a. Viral infection
b. Protozoan infection
c. Fungal infection
d. Prion infection
114. The prefix “brady” such as in “bradycardia” means:
a. Slower than normal
b. Faster than normal
c. Absent
d. Weak
115. This suffix means surgical removal of:
a. Ectomy
b. Plasty
c. Pexy
d. Ic
116. The prefix “hemo” as in “hemophilia” means:
a. Red blood cell
b. Blood
 c. White blood cell
d. Platelets
117. Hypoglycemia means:
a. Normal blood sugar
b. High blood sugar
c. Low blood sugar
d. Fasting blood sugar
118. The word root meaning blood vessel is:
a. Angio
b. Hemo
c. Spino
d. Myelo
119. A suffix which means tumor is:
a. Carcino
b. Genic
c. Philic
d. Oma
120. This suffix means protein:
a. Malto
b. Globulin
c. Amino
d. Dextrose
121. The prefix “homeo” as in “homeostasis” means:
a. Different
b. The same or constant
c. Water
d. Affinity for
122. The prefix “myo” means:
a. Nerve tissue
b. Blood cells
c. Muscle tissue
d. Brain tissue
123. The suffix “opia” such as in “myopia” means:
a. Senses
b. Vision
c. Hearing
d. Taste
124. The suffix “penia” as in “osteopenia” means:
a. Overgrowth
b. Tumor
c. Deficiency or lack of
 d. Surrounding
125. The prefix “phlebo” as in “phlebotomy” means:
a. Vein
b. Artery
c. Blood vessel
d. Lymph vessel
126. This suffix means a flow or discharge:
a. Meno
b. Rrhea
c. Sacro
d. Rrhaphy
127. The prefix “supra” as in “supraventricular” means:
a. Above or excessive
b. Below or lacking
c. Even with or constant
d. To form pus
128. The removal of fluid from a body cavity is indicated by this suffix:
a. Ectomy
b. Ostomy
c. Plexy
d. Centesis
129. A prefix which means excessive is:
a. Poly
b. A
c. Hemi
d. Lysis
130. The prefix “thrombo” as in “thromboembolism” means:
a. Platelets
b. Red blood cells
c. Clot
d. Traveling
131. The suffix “tripsy” as in “lithotripsy” means:
a. To crush
b. To alter
c. To surgically cut out
d. To suture together
Vital Signs:
132. The measure of the pressure of blood against the arterial walls during the
heart’s contraction is:
a. Systolic blood pressure
b. Diastolic blood pressure
c. Pulse pressure
d. Hypertension
133. A blood pressure reading higher than 139/89 may lead to this diagnosis:
a. Hypotension
b. Hypertension
c. Dystension
d. Arterial tension
134. A properly fitted blood pressure cuff will cover this portion of the upper arm:
a. 75%
b. 80%
c. 85%
d. 90%
135. Auscultation of the blood pressure normally occurs over this artery:
a. Radial
b. Ulnar
c. Brachial
d. Atrial
136. Proper patient positioning for blood pressure measurement includes:
a. Legs crossed at the ankles
b. Arm along the patient’s side
c. Arm with 1 layer of clothing
d. Back supported
137. 98.6 Fahrenheit is considered to be a normal body temperature. This is
equivalent to what Celsius reading?
a. 98.6
b. 37
c. 36.6
d. 98
138. An axillary temperature probe is placed:
a. In the armpit
b. In the pocket under the tongue
c. In the ear canal
d. In the rectum
139. Difficulty breathing is termed:
a. Apnea
b. Dyspnea
 c. Tachypnea
d. Bradypnea
140. Rhonchi can be described as:
a. A high pitched whistling sound
b. A rattling sound
c. A course, low pitched sound
d. The intake of breath
141. Anthropometric measurements include:
a. Blood pressure and pulse
b. Respirations and pulse
c. Temperature and height
d. Height and weight
142. This pulse is commonly checked in patients with diabetes:
a. Popliteal
b. Pedal
c. Apical
d. Femoral

Laws, Regulations, and Ethics

143. This agency sets standards for safe work environments in the United States:
a. CLIA
b. ADA
c. TJC
d. OSHA
144. CLIA certification allows medical practices to:
a. Administer, dispense, and prescribe controlled substances
b. Perform laboratory testing with low error risk
c. Perform complex laboratory testing without supervision
d. Perform laboratory competency testing
145. This set of federal regulations protects disabled people and prevents
discrimination against disabled employees:
a. ADA
b. HIPAA
c. FMLA
d. COLA
146. A safeguard not covered in the HIPAA regulations is:
a. Protection of patient privacy
b. Protection of patient health information
c. Meaningful use of health information
d. Annual unpaid leave for healthcare needs
147. Examples of violations of tort law are:
a. Medical malpractice and slander
b. Slander and theft
c. Invasion of privacy and speeding
d. Kidnapping and sexual assault
148. This regulatory agency assesses healthcare organizations’ safety and quality
assurance practices:
a. COLA
b. OSHA
c. QA
d. TJC
149. Laboratory Quality Control issues standards that:
a. Require laboratories to address patient preparation standards yearly
b. Require laboratory personnel to be proficient
c. Address laboratory safety methods
d. Help laboratories meet CLIA and state regulations
150. Ethics are:
a. Moral codes set as standards of practice
b. Regulations set by federal agencies
c. Laws set by governing bodies
d. Standards developed for patient safety
151. One of the 5 Ps of ethical power is:
a. Practice
b. Perspective
c. Policy
d. Procedure
152. Common law is derived from:
a. The Constitution
b. State legislation
c. Federal legislation
d. Customs and judicial decisions
153. Certification through an MA association means:
a. The MA chose to become certified
b. The MA is licensed to practice as an MA
c. The MA can perform skills above what was learned in school
d. The MA may only practice in the state where schooling was completed
154. Explaining the procedure including possible associated risks is part of:
a. Informed consent
b. Advanced directives
c. Emancipation
d. HIPAA
155. A required contributing factor for negligence is:
a. Duty
b. Documentation
c. Death
d. Diagnosis
156. A physician’s failure to act is:
a. Malfeasance
b. Misfeasance
c. Afeasance
d. Nonfeasance
157. An MA who volunteers at a health fair is:
a. Not covered by the Good Samaritan Act because she is working as an MA
b. Is covered by the Good Samaritan Act because she is volunteering
c. Is covered by the Good Samaritan Act because she is working as an MA
d. May be covered by the Good Samaritan Act if the sponsor is a charity
158. Civil wrongs punishable by monetary damages are:
a. Misdemeanors
b. Felonies
c. Torts
d. Ethics
159. Slander involves:
a. Writing defamatory comments about another
b. Stating false comments about another
c. Restraining another
d. Reporting another for an error
160. Professional organizations often have Codes of Ethics. These Codes of Ethics:
a. Guide professionals in solving difficult moral problems
b. Establish strict rules for behavior
c. Are based in religious law
d. Are requirements for employment
161. Which of the following is unlawful?
a. Telling an employee that he must punch out for his lunch break
b. Requiring an employee to retire because he turned 65
c. Not paying an employee for sick time because her earned time balance is zero
d. Allowing an employee to take leave after an adoption
162. Competence means:
 a. Performing a job to set standards
b. Behaving in a professional manner
c. Working as a member of a team
d. Maintaining confidentiality
163. Which credential would not apply to an MA who passed a certification exam?
a. AMA
b. CMA
c. CCMA
d. RMA
164. Which of the following is within the scope of practice for medical assistants?
a. Writing prescriptions for patients
b. Diagnosing simple problems
c. Administering complex chemotherapy regimens
d. Documenting vital signs during a patient visit
165. What principle of law covers employees working under a physician?
a. Res ipsa loquitor
b. Subpoena duces tecum
c. Respondeat superior
d. Res judicata
166. A written statement that details a minimum level of care is:
a. A regulation
b. A standard
c. An objective
d. A goal
167. HIPAA requires that the patient be given:
a. Informed consent for procedures
b. Staff members educational background
c. Current fee schedules
d. Notice of privacy practices
168. Submitting charges for procedures that weren’t performed is:
a. Malfeasance
b. Embezzlement
c. Fraud
d. Misdemeanor
Communication Skills
169. This means of communication is the most utilized:
a. Nonverbal
b. Oral
c. Text
d. Email
170. What may be a barrier to effective communication?
a. Speaking in the primary language
b. Using medical terminology and other jargon
c. Providing written material for a deaf patient
d. Asking the patient to repeat back the plan
171. This question type allows the patient an opportunity to add detail and is
preferred for information gathering:
a. Rhetorical
b. Close ended
c. Open ended
d. Leading
172. Communication requires:
a. Sender, message, receiver
b. Sender, receiver, interpretation
c. Message, interpretation, feedback
d. Language, interpretation, feedback
173. Interpreting body language is an important skill. Someone who is standing
tall, making eye contact, and smiling may be feeling:
a. Relaxed and comfortable
b. Angry and defensive
c. Relaxed and uncomfortable
d. Happy and defensive
174. To clarify a patient’s meaning, the MA may:
a. Ask the patient to repeat themselves
b. Repeat word for word what the patient said
c. Summarize in their own words what the patient said
d. Ask the patient to rephrase their concerns
175. You have developed a friendly relationship with a long term patient. The
patient asks you to lunch on the weekend. Your best response is:
a. Sorry. I can’t because it’s against policy.
b. Thanks. I’d love to.
c. Accept if others from the office are also invited.
d. Sorry. I can’t but thank you for thinking of me.
176. A patient is very angry about waiting a long time to see the provider. The best
response to this patient is:
 a. Ask the patient to be seated and to lower their voice.
b. Allow the patient to vent.
c. Acknowledge the wait and offer to reschedule the patient.
d. Room the patient and tell the provider they must see the patient now.
177. When instructing patients it is important to:
a. Use language that the patient is comfortable with
b. Use medical terminology to appear professional
c. Seek help from someone with a higher level of education
d. Speak English if Spanish is the primary language
178. Which of the following is not a nonverbal way to communicate?
a. Posture
b. Eye contact
c. Gestures
d. Exclamation
179. Which of the following aids in communication?
a. Lack of privacy
b. Stereotyping
c. Sensory loss
d. Acknowledgement
180. Which is an appropriate way to communicate with a visually impaired
patient?
a. Alerting the patient before touching him
b. Raising the voice so the patient better understands
c. Using simple words so the patient understands
d. Writing messages in very large print
181. An example of an open ended question is:
a. Are you currently using tobacco?
b. Are you still menstruating?
c. Tell me about how you’re feeling.
d. Do you have diabetes in your family?
182. Concrete communication is:
a. Full of errors
b. Specific
c. Full of unnecessary details
d. Excludes important information
Psychology
183. Elizabeth Kubler Ross is known for:
a. Hierarchy of Needs
b. Five stages of grief
c. Psychotherapy
d. Lifetime developmental stages
184. Maslow described the epitome of his hierarchy of needs as:
a. Physiological
b. Self-actualization
c. Safety
d. Love/belonging
185. Erickson’s stages of psychosocial development describe trust and mistrust to
be experienced mostly:
a. In the newborn period
b. In middle age
c. In old age
d. In early childhood
186. This scientist developed the theory of classical conditioning:
a. Skinner
b. Pavlov
c. Freud
d. Erickson
187. These strategies are unconscious methods to protect ourselves from feelings of
anxiety or guilt, which arise because we feel threatened:
a. Stereotyping
b. Encoding
c. Defense mechanisms
d. Behavioral modification
188. A six year old patient is a new big brother. He has recently started using a
pacifier and wetting his pants. This defense mechanism may be in play:
a. Denial
b. Projection
c. Rationalization
d. Regression
189. According to Freud, morals and values are found in:
a. Id
b. Ego
c. Superego
d. Super id
190. Claustrophobia is:
a. Irrational fear of dogs
 b. Irrational fear of heights
c. Irrational fear of closed in spaces
d. Irrational fear of strangers
191. In this Freudian developmental stage the child becomes aware of anatomical
sex differences, which sets in motion the conflict between erotic attraction,
resentment, rivalry, jealousy and fear which Freud called the Oedipus complex (in
boys) and the Electra complex (in girls):
a. Oral
b. Anal
c. Phallic
d. Latent
192. Developing physical symptoms to an emotional issue is an example of:
a. Reaction formation
b. Somatization
c. Repression
d. Sublimation

Administrative tasks
193. Reliant’s shared medical appointments are similar to this type of appointment
booking:
a. Double booking
b. Open hours
c. Fixed booking
d. Cluster booking
194. This term means money that is owed to the business:
a. Cost accounting
b. Single entry
c. Total practice management
d. Accounts receivable
195. Accounts payable are:
a. Money owed to the business
b. Money owed by the business
c. Record of all assets
 d. Record of finances for outside entities
196. In a double entry system of accounting:
a. All assets equal liabilities plus the owners’ equity
b. A daily log tracks statements, ledgers, and disbursements
c. Payments, collections, and charges are written once
d. An overview of the entire day is provided
197. A quick analysis of the financial status and transactions that occurred that
day are available in:
a. A pegboard
b. Disbursement records
c. End of day report
d. Month end balance
198. Financial records must include:
a. Personal checking information
b. Collection attempts
c. Amount earned and amount owed
d. A statement of acceptable payment methods
199. This computerized accounting system contains all aspects of patient data,
scheduling, billing, and bookkeeping:
a. Single entry
b. Double entry
c. Pegboard
d. Total Practice Management System
200. ICD 10 codes relate to:
a. Diagnoses
b. Procedures
c. Performance measurements
d. Neoplasms
201. A modifier:
a. Contains 5 numbers
b. Explains additional information but does not change the code
c. Relates to outpatient hospital care and chemotherapy
d. Is identical to CPT but is sent to CMS
202. This process codes the majority of procedures done in a physician’s office:
a. HCPCS
b. ICD
c. CPT
d. V codes
203. Patient demographics include:
a. Date of birth
b. Date of last menstrual period
 c. Smoking status
d. Most recent office note
204. Restrictive endorsements on checks:
a. Limit who may deposit the check
b. Limit the amount of times they can be cashed
c. Limit how a check can be cashed
d. Require that the check be destroyed after cashing
205. A patient paid the copay with a check. The check was later marked as NSF by
the bank. What does NSF mean?
a. National Science Foundation
b. Non-Sufficient Funds
c. National Standard Format
d. Not So Fast
206. “Aging accounts” refer to:
a. Customer invoices unpaid for a specified period of time
b. Accounts of elderly patients
c. Accounts that fall under CMS
d. Accounts of long term patients
207. FICA is a mandatory payroll tax. FICA covers:
a. Workers’ Comp
b. Extended sick leave
c. Short term disability
d. Social Security
208. Federal law requires employers to confirm the identity of employees. This form
must be filed by the employer upon hire:
a. W-2
b. I-9
c. ID
d. W-4
209. Assets include all of the below except:
a. Office equipment
b. Credit card debt
c. Land
d. Cash on hand
210. An example of a type of insurance plan is:
a. ICD
b. WHO
c. PPO
d. DPO
211. An insurance plan that covers military members and their families is:
a. AFLAC
 b. TRICARE
c. HMO
d. P4P
212. In accounting, liability refers to:
a. The debt a business owes
b. The debt owed to the business
c. Assets owned by the business
d. Unproductive employees
213. This type of check guarantees that funds are available for payment:
a. Personal check
b. Super check
c. Cashier’s check
d. Practice check
214. A type of insurance fraud is:
a. Billing for procedures performed
b. Billing for patients seen
c. Upcoding
d. Bundling charges when appropriate
215. An asterisks is used in the CPT book to denote:
a. Additional appropriate diagnoses
b. Variable pre and postoperative services
c. Updated information
d. Definition is available in the glossary
216. The CPT modifier -50 indicates:
a. Bilateral
b. Right sided
c. Left sided
d. Anterior
217. The first place to look for an ICD-10 code is:
a. Volume 1
b. Volume 2
c. Volume 3
d. Volume 4
218. A diamond symbol in the HCPCS indicates:
a. Not covered by Medicare
b. Updated information
c. Additional appropriate diagnoses
d. Variable pre and postoperative services
219. E&M codes are numbered 99201-99600 and cover:
a. Surgical procedures and codes
b. Radiology procedures and codes
 c. Evaluation and management codes
d. Evaluation and medication codes
220. An HMO:
a. Is a medical model that focuses on prevention
b. Allows free access to all healthcare providers within a region
c. Does not require referral to most specialty providers
d. Costs more than non-HMO plans
221. A patient is covered by Tricare and Blue Cross. The primary payer is:
a. Tricare
b. Champus
c. Blue Cross
d. Medicaid
222. Medicare part B covers:
a. Hospital and skilled nursing facility care
b. Outpatient and preventative care
c. The cost of prescription drugs
d. HMO Senior plans
223. This money is paid by the patient before insurance coverage starts:
a. Copay
b. Coinsurance
c. Allowed amount
d. Deductible
224. An elderly man has Medicare and a Medicare supplement. Which policy is the
primary insurance?
a. Medicare
b. Medicare supplement
c. AARP
d. Medicaid
225. The CPT code for a flu shot is:
a. 3698
b. 123
c. 90658
d. 12.7
226. The CPT code for an office visit is:
a. 12.7
b. 90658
c. 99214
d. 36978
227. A V code might be used for:
a. Need for prophylactic vaccination
b. Surgical procedures
 c. Motor vehicle accidents
d. Accidental poisoning
228. Neoplasms are coded with:
a. E codes
b. M codes
c. C codes
d. N codes
229. Who owns the medical record?
a. The patient
b. The provider
c. The office’s legal team
d. The insurance company
230. A HIPAA violation is:
a. Accessing a medical record for today’s appointment
b. Accessing the medical record when the patient’s representative calls
c. Viewing a medical record to obtain an address to send a greeting card
d. Shredding personal and medical information that is no longer needed
231. One way of organizing a medical record is:
a. PCMH
b. POMR
c. BBP
d. MAR
232. Outguides are used when:
a. A patient has an alias
b. A paper chart has been removed from its filing location
c. The patient has multiple charts
d. An error occurred in documentation
233. Microsoft PowerPoint is useful for:
a. Creating presentations
b. Creating spreadsheets
c. Creating word documents
d. Compiling statistical analyses
234. Which would be included in the Present Illness History?
a. Associated symptoms
b. Past medical history
c. Allergies
d. Social history
235. When charting in a paper record:
a. Use of correction fluid is allowed
b. Erasing errors is allowed
c. Use of fabricated abbreviations is allowed
 d. Use of black or blue ink is required
236. SOMR stands for:
a. Source oriented medical record
b. Standardized outpatient medical record
c. Standardized oriented medical record
d. Source outpatient medical record
237. The first two pieces of information gathered at the beginning of a patient’s
incoming telephone call are:
a. Insurance information and chief complaint
b. Preferred pharmacy and chief complaint
c. Name and date of birth
d. Name and address
238. Which of the following telephone greetings is most professional?
a. Good morning. Are you able to hold?
b. Good morning. This is Mary in Dr Smith’s office.
c. Good morning. This is Mary in Dr Smith’s office. How can I assist you?
d. This is Mary in Dr Smith’s office. How can I assist you?
239. A letter dismissing a patient from a provider’s panel should be sent:
a. Insured
b. Certified
c. First class
d. Second class
240. The standard for folding a letter size piece of paper to fit in a No. 10 envelope
is:
a. Fold in half short ways
b. Fold in half long ways
c. Fold in thirds by folding the bottom up and then top down
d. Fold in thirds by folding the top down and then the bottom up
241. Interoffice memos:
a. Are formal ways to document occurrences
b. Are informal ways to communicate between departments or sites
c. Are complimentary in tone
d. Can be ignored because they are gossipy
242. When writing a letter in full block style, the complimentary closing:
a. Is indented one tab stop
b. Is deleted
c. Is centered
d. Is flush with left margin
243. Dr Smith’s MA has been asked to present information during a staff meeting.
The talk contains 500 words without visual aids. If the MA speaks with a normal
cadence, what is the amount of time that the talk will require?
 a. 2 minutes
b. 4 minutes
c. 8 minutes
d. 10 minutes
244. The space between the inside address and the opening salutation of full block
style letter is:
a. No space
b. 1 line
c. 2 lines
d. 4 lines
245. Information cannot be saved on:
a. CPU
b. CD-ROM
c. Hard drive
d. Flash drive
246. Computer software:
a. Processes information
b. Stores data in memory
c. Provides sound to speakers
d. Allows user to interact with hardware
247. A letter must be received by the patient the next day. The best way to send
the letter through the mail is:
a. Certified mail
b. Registered mail
c. Priority mail
d. Express mail
248. Reliant’s computers are linked for information sharing. This is called a:
a. Network
b. Sharepoint
c. Wiki
d. Intranet
249. Which of the following is software and not hardware?
a. Keyboard
b. Monitor
c. Windows
d. CPU
250. A device that reads documents and converts them into digital data is a:
a. CPU
b. Scanner
c. Printer
d. Flash drive
251. A flash drive, memory stick, and thumb drive are more appropriately called:
a. LAN drive
b. URL drive
c. ZIP drive
d. USB drive
252. An electronic device that allows the transmission of data to and from
computers via telephone or other communication lines is:
a. RAM
b. URL
c. Modem
d. Hard drive
253. What mail classification includes cards and letters that weigh less than 13
ounces?
a. Priority mail
b. First class mail
c. Second class mail
d. Periodical mail
254. The prefix “giga-“ as in gigabyte refers to:
a. 1000
b. 1million
c. 1 billion
d. 1 trillion
255. The most common margin width for business letters is:
a. ½ inch
b. 1 inch
c. 2 inches
d. 2 ½ inches
256. The tab key:
a. Deletes the information before the cursor
b. Moves the cursor one space forward
c. Moves the cursor to the next line
d. Moves the cursor several spaces forward
257. The greeting used at the beginning of a letter, email, or memo is the:
a. Header
b. Footer
c. Salutation
d. Complimentary
258. This process translates data into content not easily understood by
unauthorized users:
a. Encryption
b. Cookies
 c. Hypertext
d. Multifunction
259. The url:
a. Saves documents in a format that can’t be altered
b. Saves documents such as photos
c. Acts as a firewall against computer viruses
d. Identifies the address and provides access to webpages
260. This domain extension is used by educational institutes:
a. .net
b. .edu
c. .com
d. .org
261. An example of a web browser is:
a. Windows
b. macOS
c. Linux
d. Google
262. A company that provides access to the internet is referred to as:
a. ISP
b. Web browser
c. HTTP
d. TCP/IP
263. An inappropriate task for the office manager is:
a. Determining the appropriate number of tax exemptions for each employee
b. Maintaining adequate supplies
c. Doing reviews
d. Hiring staff
264. Three patients are scheduled for the 1-2PM time slot. All of the patients are
told to arrive at 1PM. This is an example of:
a. Double booking
b. Wave scheduling
c. Grid scheduling
d. Open scheduling
265. Cleanliness and order in the office and exam rooms is the responsibility of:
a. The housekeeping staff
b. The owner of the building
c. All staff
d. The medical assistants
266. This agency protects workers from health and safety risks in the workplace:
a. CDC
b. OSHA
 c. WHO
d. WWF
267. Mini flu clinics are held every Wednesday morning from 9-11AM during flu
season. This is an example of:
a. Modified wave scheduling
b. Time specific scheduling
c. Double booking scheduling
d. Cluster scheduling
268. The chief complaint of the patient assists the medical assistant to do all
except:
a. Identify the reason for the visit
b. Identify the urgency of the visit
c. Identify the appropriate setting for the visit
d. Identify the diagnosis of the patient
269. When a patient cancels an appointment, the medical assistant should:
a. Tell the patient the doctor will call to reschedule them
b. Document the cancellation and contact the patient to reschedule
c. Wait for the patient to reschedule
d. Remind the patient of the no show policy
270. FICA taxes are paid into Social Security. Who pays into the FICA fund?
a. Only the employee
b. Only the employer
c. The employer if the company has more than 100 employees
d. The employer and employee each pay half
271. SOAP charting documents:
a. Subjective, objective, assessment, plan
b. Subjective, objective, access, proposal
c. System, operations, allergies, problem list
d. Social, outpatient, appointment, plan

Emergency Procedures:
272. A contusion is:
a. A skin tear
b. A scraping away of the skin
c. A small entry hole breaking the integrity of the skin
d. Injured tissue or skin marked by bruising
273. A patient passes out in the waiting room. The first step to take is:
a. Calling 911
b. Starting CPR
 c. Shaking the patient and asking if they are okay
d. Checking for a pulse
274. The rate for chest compressions during CPR is:
a. As many as possible within 1 minute
b. 100-120 per minute
c. 75-100 per minute
d. 150 per minute
275. A patient calls to report that they have been stung by a bee. Which step
should be taken to care for this patient?
a. Immediately refer the patient to the ED
b. Instruct the patient to immediately administer an EpiPen
c. Question the patient about known allergies and any symptoms they may be
experiencing
d. Tell the patient to hold for the provider
276. The sun is strongest and most likely to burn:
a. Between 10AM and 2PM
b. In the early morning hours
c. Between 2PM and 4PM
d. Between 4PM and 6PM
277. The acronym FAST helps medical personnel quickly identify which condition?
a. Heart attack
b. Stroke
c. Hemorrhage
d. Onset of labor
278. The Rule of Nines is used to:
a. Assess the oxygen levels of patients
b. Assess pulse rates
c. Assess amount of body surface that has been burned
d. Assess the depth of tissue damaged in burns
279. A generalized tonic-clonic seizure is witnessed in the waiting room. What is the
best course of immediate action?
a. Ask the other patients to step out to afford the patient some privacy
b. Restrain the patient to prevent injury to himself or others
c. Place a tongue depressor to prevent the patient from swallowing his tongue
d. Move the patient to an open area where injury is less likely to occur
280. Which of the following may be a sign of head trauma?
a. Vomiting
b. Rapid pulse and respirations
c. Drop in blood sugar
d. Rectal bleeding
281. Which type of shock is related to an extreme allergic reaction?
 a. Hemorrhagic
b. Cardiogenic
c. Anaphylactic
d. Prophylactic
282. A third degree burn is characterized by:
a. Redness and warmth of the skin
b. Blistering and pain
c. Charred skin which may be numb
d. Muscle, tendon, and bone injury
283. A patient is bleeding heavily from an injury near her wrist. Which of the
following is the appropriate action to take?
a. Apply a tourniquet above the site of injury
b. Apply pressure to the brachial artery
c. Apply pressure to the brachial nerve
d. Leave the area undressed
284. Cyanosis indicates:
a. Inadequate oxygenation
b. Excessive oxygenation
c. Elevated blood pressure
d. Elevated fluid volume
285. The medical term for profuse sweating is:
a. Hyperemesis
b. Anhidrosis
c. Diaphoresis
d. Vitiligo
286. How often does the American Heart Association require recertification in
BLS?
a. Annually
b. Every two years
c. Every 5 years
d. Every 10 years
287. A patient with diabetes is feeling dizzy and weak. You check her blood sugar
and the result is 52. The most appropriate next step is:
a. Provide water to rehydrate her
b. Provide insulin to lower her blood sugar
c. Provide fast acting carbohydrate such as candy or soda to increase her blood
sugar
d. Do nothing as this is a normal reading
288. A patient was seen in the ED with slurred speech and facial drooping. The
symptoms resolved within a few hours. The patient experienced a:
a. CVA
 b. TIA
c. MI
d. ALS
289. Hypovolemic shock can present as rapid and weak pulse, shallow breathing,
hypotension, and cold and clammy skin. Hypovolemic shock occurs with:
a. CVA
b. Fluid overload
c. Excessive fluid loss
d. High blood sugar
290. RICE is commonly prescribed to treat sprains and strains. Which is not part of
RICE?
a. Rest the injured area
b. Incise the affected area
c. Compress the affected area
d. Elevate the affected area
291. You observe a toddler place a toy in his mouth and then start to turn blue.
The most appropriate next step is:
a. Observe for now to see if the child will spit out the toy
b. Scold the parent for not monitoring their child better
c. Call 911 for assistance
d. Perform the Heimlich maneuver
292. Which of the following medications is used to treat anaphylaxis?
a. Aspirin
b. Epinephrine
c. Furosemide
d. Nitroglycerine
293. You suspect an unconscious person is overdosing on a narcotic. Which of the
following medications should be administered?
a. Nitroglycerine
b. Narcan
c. Epinephrine
d. Oxycodone
294. A 7 year old girl fell from a swing. As she was falling, she braced herself with
an outstretched arm. Her most likely fracture is:
a. Compound fracture
b. Spiral fracture
c. Greenstick fracture
d. Colle’s fracture
295. What is the first step to take when exposed to poison ivy?
a. Rinse the area with water
b. Call 911
 c. Use EpiPen
d. Apply ice
296. What is the preferred site for checking the pulse of a 10 month old infant?
a. Brachial
b. Radial
c. Apical
d. Femoral

Pharmacology:
297. Category D drugs:
a. Have been proven safe to take during pregnancy
b. Have a high potential for abuse
c. Have a medium potential for abuse
d. Have been proven harmful during pregnancy
298. Drugs with a high potential for abuse such as oxycodone, fentanyl, and
methamphetamine are classified as:
a. Schedule 1
b. Schedule 2
c. Schedule 3
d. Schedule 4
299. Convert 500 mg into grams:
a. 500
b. 50
c. 5
d. 0.5
300. Which of the following medications may be given to treat high blood pressure?
a. Simvastatin
b. Lisinopril
c. Acetaminophen
d. Zofran
301. Which type of medication might be prescribed for a patient who is
hallucinating?
a. Antipsychotic
b. Calcium channel blocker
c. Histamine blocker
 d. Cathartic
302. Which of the following medications is an antidepressant?
a. Sertraline hydrochloride
b. Omeprazole
c. Loratadine
d. Pravastatin
303. Which agency is responsible for monitoring use of controlled substances?
a. AMA
b. FDA
c. DEA
d. CBA
304. The angle of insertion for a subcutaneous injection is:
a. 180 degrees
b. 90 degrees
c. 45 degrees
d. 15 degrees
305. A 24 gauge 5/8” needle is:
a. Appropriate for a deep intramuscular injection in an adult
b. Smaller than a 26 gauge 5/8” needle
c. Smaller than a 20 gauge 5/8” needle
d. Too small for practical usage in a medical office
306. Parenteral administration of medication means:
a. The parent must be present during administration
b. Oral administration
c. Topical administration
d. Injected directly into the body
307. When instilling eye drops:
a. Pull the lower lid down and place the drop in the conjunctival space
b. Ask the patient to tightly close their eyes after administration to prevent
leakage
c. Place the tip of the dropper on the conjunctival membranes
d. Aim the drop at the outer canthus of the eye
308. A common reason for an intradermal injection is:
a. Tuberculosis skin testing
b. Insulin administration
c. Vaccine administration
d. EpiPen administration
309. The physician orders 50 mg of medication. It is available in 5 mg/2 mL. How
many mL should the patient receive?
a. 5 mL
b. 10 mL
 c. 15 mL
d. 20 mL
310. Pediatric drug doses are based on:
a. Age only
b. Height
c. Gestational length
d. Weight
311. The provider orders an antibiotic for the patient. Instructions call for 200 mg
t.i.d. for 7 days. How many mg total will the patient receive?
a. 300 mg
b. 400 mg
c. 3200 mg
d. 4200 mg
312. To accurately measure a liquid medication in a medication cup:
a. Read the volume at eye level
b. Read the volume by looking down
c. Read the volume by looking up
d. Only use a syringe to measure
313. A liquid drug that is sweetened and thinner than a syrup is:
a. Elixir
b. Solution
c. Spirit
d. Tincture
314. This category of drug is often prescribed for people with atrial fibrillation:
a. Hemolytic
b. Antibiotic
c. Anticoagulant
d. Hemostatic
315. Which is one of the standard 5 Rights of Medication Administration?
a. Expiration date
b. Date of birth
c. Patient
d. System
316. Metabolism refers to:
a. Blocking or reducing the effectiveness of a drug
b. How a drug is absorbed into the bloodstream
c. How a drug is processed and cleared from the body
d. Causing an increase in the effects of one or more drugs
317. The prefix “milli” means:
a. One tenth of a unit
b. One hundredth of a unit
 c. One thousandth of a unit
d. One millionth of a unit
318. Prescriptions may be filled with available generic versions of the drug unless
the prescriber writes this on the prescription:
a. OAW
b. DAW
c. UAP
d. UAP
319. The prescription signature calls for “ss tab b.i.d. X 10 days”. What does this
mean?
a. 2 tablets twice daily for 10 days
b. 2 tablets four times daily for 10 days
c. ½ tablet twice daily for 10 days
d. ½ tablet four times daily for 10 days
320. The prescription abbreviation hs indicates that the medication should be
taken:
a. In the morning
b. Before meals
c. After meals
d. At bedtime
321. Lidocaine patch is an example of this way to administer medications:
a. Transdermal
b. Intradermal
c. Topically
d. Subtopically
322. Which of the choices is most important to obtain before administering a
medication?
a. How the patient would like to receive it
b. What the patient knows about the medication
c. Allergy to the medication
d. The patient’s ability to pay for the medication
323. Prophylactic drugs are given:
a. To prevent illness in the event of a possible exposure
b. To cure illness in the event of a potential exposure
c. To facilitate illness in the event of a potential exposure
d. To encourage reporting of potential exposures
324. A refrigerator or freezer for vaccine storage must:
a. Have its temperature monitored and recorded weekly
b. Be located in an area allowing easy access to all who might need to use it
c. Be dedicated to the storage of vaccine and medications only
d. Be provided by the State Vaccine Unit
325. Which of the following is not a property of an NSAID?
a. Antipyretic
b. Analgesic
c. Anti-inflammatory
d. Anti-hypertensive
326. The preferred route for fast delivery of medication into the bloodstream is:
a. Intravenous
b. Intramuscular
c. Intradermal
d. Oral
327. Enteric coated medications:
a. Are absorbed quickly after ingestion
b. Are crushable if the patient cannot swallow
c. Are coated to be absorbed lower in the GI tract
d. Can be dissolved under the tongue
328. This vaccine should be administered to newborns before hospital discharge:
a. Hepatitis C
b. Hepatitis B
c. Pertussis
d. Measles
329. This number must be included on a prescription for a controlled substance:
a. Provider’s telephone number
b. DEA number
c. Medical license number
d. AMA number
330. This medication is unlikely to be prescribed to a female:
a. Gabapentin
b. Sildenafil
c. Azithromycin
d. Lisinopril
331. Sertraline may be prescribed for:
a. Diabetes
b. Narcolepsy
c. Depression
d. Hypertension
332. Small volume IM injections may be given in:
a. The abdominal wall
b. The intradermal tissue
c. The deltoid
d. The triceps
333. A trade name for ibuprofen is:
 a. Aspirin
b. Naprosyn
c. Tylenol
d. Motrin
334. Vitamin K counteracts the effects of warfarin. Vitamin K can be thought of as
an:
a. Antipyretic
b. Antineoplastic
c. Antiemetic
d. Antidote
335. Keppra and Dilantin are examples of which class of medication:
a. Analgesic
b. Antibiotic
c. Anticonvulsant
d. Antidote
336. The nurse hands you a syringe and asks you to administer the vaccine to the
patient in exam room 6. Your best response is:
a. “Of course! Right away.”
b. “Sorry. No. I didn’t prepare it.”
c. “Just let me check with the doctor to make sure it’s all right.”
d. “Please ask someone else to do it. I’m busy.”
337. These pieces of information are important to include when documenting
medication administration:
a. Lot number and expiration date
b. The Medication Rights
c. All alternate names of the medication
d. Policies related to medication administration

Pathophysiology and Nutrition:

338. This test measures blood glucose control over a 3 month period:
a. Microalbumin
b. Average blood sugar
c. HgbA1C
d. Fasting BS
339. Hydrochlorothiazide is used to treat hypertension. It works by:
a. Reducing blood volume by increasing urination
b. Reducing the resistance in the artery walls
c. Blocking calcium reabsorption
d. Blocking a pathway in the renin angiotensin cascade
340. Skin moles:
 a. Never become malignant
b. Should be seen by a physician even if not concerning
c. Are contagious
d. Are graded using the WXYZ acronym
341. Strep throat:
a. Is caused by Staphylococcus pyogenes
b. Is not contagious
c. Should be treated prophylactically with antibiotics
d. Can lead to rheumatic fever
342. A common treatment for epistaxis is:
a. Nasal packing
b. Aspirin prophylaxis
c. Splinting
d. Antibiotics
343. Verruca is another term for:
a. Mole
b. Rash
c. Wart
d. Virus
344. This common over the counter medication is not safe for children:
a. Loratadine
b. Diphenhydramine
c. Aspirin
d. Acetaminophen
345. An example of a genetic disease is:
a. Cholelithiasis
b. Cystic Fibrosis
c. Rheumatoid Arthritis
d. Lupus Erythematosus
346. Antibiotics can successfully treat:
a. Viral infections
b. Bacterial infections
c. Fungal infections
d. Prion infections
347. An invasive examination of the urinary bladder is:
a. Cystoscopy
b. Colonoscopy
c. Cystorrhaphy
d. Cholecystectomy
348. A patient is complaining of headache, visual disturbances, and sensitivity to
light. The most common diagnosis that the provider may make is:
 a.Migraine
b.Cluster headache
c.Brain neoplasm
d.Stroke
349. This group of patients may experience endometriosis:
a. Newborn males
b. Young women
c. Young men
d. Elderly men
350. Which diagnosis is most likely in a patient complaining of right lower
quadrant pain?
a. Cholecystitis
b. Pleural effusion
c. Gastric ulcer
d. Appendicitis
351. Calcium is vital for:
a. Maintaining fluid balance in the body
b. Maintaining strong bones and teeth
c. Maintaining energy stores for cell metabolism
d. Maintaining adequate hormone levels
352. A patient who bruises easily may have diet deficient in:
a. Vitamin K
b. Vitamin E
c. Vitamin A
d. Vitamin B
353. A lack of Vitamin C in the diet may lead to:
a. Rickets
b. Scurvy
c. Diabetes
d. Osteoporosis
354. The primary nutrient used for energy is:
a. Carbohydrates
b. Fats
c. Proteins
d. Vitamins
355. A patient has a BMI of 24. The patient would be considered:
a. Underweight
b. Normal weight
c. Overweight
d. Obese
356. This vitamin is essential for good vision:
 a. Vitamin K
b. Vitamin E
c. Vitamin C
d. Vitamin A
357. Pregnant women are encouraged to take this nutrient to prevent neural tube
defects (spina bifida):
a. Iron
b. Thiamine
c. Folic acid
d. Niacin
358. The most common cause of hepatitis is:
a. Bacteria
b. Alcohol
c. Virus
d. Drugs
359. A child with ear pain and fever may be diagnosed with:
a. Hashimoto disease
b. Otitis media
c. Tinnitus
d. Meniere’s disease
360. Plaque buildup in the arteries can lead to:
a. Varicose veins
b. Atherosclerosis
c. Aortic aneurysm
d. Raynaud’s syndrome
361. Pernicious anemia is treated with:
a. Bed rest
b. Iron supplements
c. Vitamin B6
d. Vitamin B12
362. A patient has been told that his “bad” cholesterol is too high. The “bad”
portion of cholesterol is:
a. LDL
b. HDL
c. Triglycerides
d. Plaque
363. Hypokalemia is another term for:
a. Low calcium
b. Low potassium
c. High calcium
d. High potassium
 364. Of the basic nutrients fat contains the most calories per unit. Carbohydrates
and protein each contain 4 calories per unit. Fat contains:
a. 5 calories
b. 6 calories
c. 8 calories
d. 9 calories
365. Which vitamin is water soluble?
a. Vitamin A
b. Vitamin D
c. Vitamin E
d. Vitamin C
366. An example of a B vitamin is:
a. Iodine
b. Magnesium
c. Riboflavin
d. Zinc

Examination and diagnostic testing:

367. The examination technique that involves listening with a stethoscope is:
a. Inspection
b. Palpitation
c. Percussion
d. Auscultation
368. Using your hands to tap on body parts and listening to the quality of sounds
produced is:
a. Inspection
b. Palpation
c. Percussion
d. Auscultation
369. This position is commonly used to collect PAP smears:
a. Knee chest
b. Squatting
c. Lithotomy
d. Supine
370. An electrocardiogram captures:
a. The arterial pressure of blood as it leaves the heart
b. Calcium reuptake of the vessel walls during heart contraction
c. The electrical activity of the heart
 d. The muscle tone of the heart
371. A 12 lead EKG requires this many electrodes:
a. 12
b. 10
c. 24
d. 6
372. The p wave represents:
a. Impulse leaving the SA node causing atrial contraction
b. Impulse leaving the AV node and traveling down the Purkinje fibers
c. Repolarization of the ventricles
d. Heart rate
373. This portion of the EKG will vary with heart rate:
a. QT interval
b. PR interval
c. T wave
d. P wave
374. Diabetes causes high blood sugar readings. Another disorder that can cause
high blood sugars is:
a. Addison’s disease
b. Pheochromocytoma
c. Diabetes insipidus
d. Cushing’s syndrome
375. When the body’s cells are unable to use the insulin that is produced, a
diagnosis of this is often made:
a. Type 1 diabetes mellitus
b. Type 2 diabetes mellitus
c. Type 1 diabetes insipidus
d. Type 2 diabetes insipidus
376. A glucose tolerance test is performed 1, 2, and/or 3 hours after this is
consumed:
a. A heavy meal
b. A meal with balanced carbohydrates and fate
c. A sugary drink
d. A diet cola
377. A chemical that is NOT tested on most urine dip sticks is:
a. Creatine
b. Glucose
c. Leukocytes
d. Urobilinogen
378. A patient leaves a urine sample that is very dark amber in color. A possible
diagnosis is:
 a. Fluid overload
b. Dehydration
c. Urinary tract infection
d. Nephrotic syndrome
379. Cloudy, foul smelling urine may indicate:
a. Fluid overload
b. Hematuria
c. Urinary tract infection
d. Renal injury
380. A patient has recently traveled to a part of the world where sanitation and
refrigeration practices are not as thorough as in the United States. The patient now
has diarrhea for several days. The doctor may request a stool sample to check for:
a. Poor nutritional absorption
b. Fatty diet
c. Parasites
d. Red blood cells
381. A stool sample should be collected:
a. From the toilet bowl
b. As a fasting sample
c. Mixed with urine and toilet paper
d. From a clean urine collection hat
382. Removing blood from a vein with a needle is:
a. Intravenous administration
b. Phlebotomy
c. Not a procedure which requires PPE
d. Arthroscopy
383. Which of the following indicate a fever?
a. Rectal temperature of 99.6 F
b. Axillary temperature of 97.6 F
c. Oral temperature of 37 C
d. Rectal temperature of 39 C
384. Which is the best teaching method to ensure that your patient knows how to
operate their glucometer?
a. Giving them an instruction manual and asking them to call with questions
b. Demonstrating how to operate the machine
c. Demonstrating how to operate the machine and then having the patient
perform a return demonstration
d. Giving the patient a link to a video to watch
385. Over the lifespan, the pulse rate:
a. Starts out fast and decreases with age
b. Starts out slow and increases with age
 c. Is consistent from birth to death
d. Varies from slow to fast repeatedly over the lifespan
386. Anxiety can lead to:
a. Dyspnea
b. Orthopnea
c. Tachypnea
d. Bradypnea
387. Which blood pressure may be obtained in someone with untreated
hypertension?
a. 138/88
b. 120/80
c. 148/92
d. 118/72
388. Which of the following is an anthropomorphic measurement?
a. Weight
b. Temperature
c. Blood pressure
d. Pulse
389. Turgor is a subjective measure of:
a. Air flow
b. Skin elasticity
c. Blood flow
d. Pedal pulse
390. Each small square on the EKG paper is:
a. 0.04 seconds long and 5 mm tall
b. 0.04 seconds long and 1 mm tall
c. 0.2 seconds long and 5 mm tall
d. 0.2 seconds long and 1 mm tall
391. In three point gait training for crutches use, the patient should be taught to:
a. Move the injured leg ahead at the same time as the crutches
b. Move the injured leg ahead with the non-injured leg after the crutches have
been moved forward
c. Move one crutch ahead followed by the injured leg followed by another crutch
and then the non-injured leg
d. Move the legs ahead and follow by moving the crutches ahead
392. A spirometer measures:
a. Blood pressure
b. Red blood cell mass
c. Volume of inhaled and exhaled air
d. Oxygen in the peripheral blood stream
393. A patient tells you that he has been experiencing recurrent heartburn and
weight loss for the last three months. Which part of the medical history should
contain this information?
a. Chief complaint
b. Present illness
c. Past medical history
d. Social history
394. The purpose of ear lavage is to:
a. Dilate the ear canal
b. Clean the ear canal
c. Treat otitis media
d. Treat otitis externa
395. The complete removal of all microorganisms and spores from an instrument is:
a. Cleaning
b. Disinfection
c. Sterilization
d. Medical asepsis
396. Which position produces the most accurate blood pressure reading?
a. Sitting erect with back supported and feet flat on floor
b. Sitting erect with back supported and knees crossed
c. Lying down with palms flat on the exam table
d. Standing with arms flat against the sides
397. When obtaining a patient’s weight, the medical assistant should:
a. Ask the patient to face away from the scale
b. Ask the patient to leave their shoes on for cleanliness reasons
c. Calibrate the scale before use
d. Ask the patient about their last bowel movement
398. What is the shape of the bacteria that causes strep throat?
a. Rod shaped
b. Cone shaped
c. Found in clusters
d. Found in a chain
399. Hepatitis A is most often spread through:
a. Blood exposure
b. Oral-fecal route
c. Liver donation
d. Inhalation
400. A patient weighs 160 pounds. His weight in kilograms is:
a. 90 kg
b. 160 kg
c. 72 kg
 d. 60 kg
401. Which of the following is not caused by a virus?
a. Strep throat
b. Measles
c. Chicken pox
d. Herpes simplex
402. A golfer reports a skin rash as a “bull’s eye”. What disease should be
suspected?
a. HIV
b. Ring worm
c. Lyme disease
d. Gonorrhea
403. “What brings you to the clinic today?” would be entered as:
a. Chief complaint
b. Present illness
c. Past medical history
d. It’s not entered
404. Which of the following is an objective finding?
a. Dizziness
b. Pain
c. Nausea
d. Rash
405. Which of the following is not a risk factor for heart disease?
a. Hypertension
b. Diabetes
c. Smoking
d. No immunizations
406. Which of the following is the recommended setting for the autoclave?
a. 450 F for 30 minutes
b. 175 F for 20 minutes
c. 250 F for 30 minutes
d. 320 F for 20 minutes
407. The most accurate pulse is obtained for:
a. 10 seconds
b. 15 seconds
c. 30 seconds
d. 60 seconds
408. Clotted blood which is spun to separate the cells from the liquid portion
produces:
a. Serum
b. Whole blood
 c. Buffy coat
d. Clotting factors
409. The SST tube has no anticoagulant but does have a gel layer. Upon
centrifuging. this gel separates blood into:
a. Plasma and clotting factors
b. Serum and cells
c. Cells and clotting factors
d. Plasma and serum
410. A phlebotomy vacuum tube should be filled until:
a. The tube is half full
b. The vacuum is depleted
c. The patient complains of pain
d. The tube is one-third full
411. Sodium citrate is the anticoagulant in:
a. Red top tubes
b. SST tubes
c. Light blue tubes
d. Dark blue tubes
412. The maximum amount of time that a tourniquet can be used while attempting
a blood draw is:
a. 30 seconds
b. 45 seconds
c. 2 minutes
d. 1 minute
413. A potential problem from leaving the tourniquet on too long is:
a. Hematoma
b. Hemolysis
c. Hemoconcentration
d. Fainting
414. The preferred angle for needle insertion in phlebotomy is:
a. 10 degrees
b. 20 degrees
c. 45 degrees
d. 15 degrees
415. The preferred site for obtaining a capillary sample in an infant is:
a. The side of the thumb
b. The side of the ring finger
c. The ball of the foot
d. The side of the heel
416. With a capillary draw it is important to:
a. Puncture the finger along a fingerprint so no scar results
 b. Collect the first drop
c. Cool the finger first to promote blood flow
d. Maintain the puncture site lower than the level of the heart
417. The preferred site for phlebotomy is:
a. The antecubital space
b. The wrist
c. The hand
d. The upper arm
418. MSDS sheets:
a. Provide detailed information on office equipment
b. Provide detailed information on chemicals
c. Provide detailed instructions for caring for injured workers
d. Provide detailed instructions for operating office equipment
419. The NFPA diamond includes information that is color coded with these colors:
a. Red, blue, yellow, black
b. Red, blue, yellow, white
c. Purple, green, orange, black
d. Purple, green, orange, white
420. Which of the following tests would most likely be drawn on a patient taking
warfarin?
a. WBC
b. HCT
c. CBC
d. PT/INR
421. Which electrode is place on the 5th intercostal space on the left mid-clavicular
line?
a. V1
b. V2
c. V3
d. V4
422. Which electrode is placed on the 4th intercostal space to the right of the
sternum?
a. V1
b. V2
c. V3
d. V4
423. Purposes of performing quality controls before doing waived testing include all
but:
a. To ensure accuracy in the waived test results
b. They are required as part of the CLIA certification
c. To demonstrate compliance with policies and procedures
 d. To use supplies before they expire
424. A urine pregnancy test:
a. May be negative even if a blood pregnancy is positive
b. Is positive only during the first trimester
c. Tests for LH in the urine
d. Tests for estrogen in the urine
425. Which tests would a physician order if she suspects the patient has
pancreatitis?
a. BUN and creatinine
b. HDL and LDL
c. CPK and troponin
d. Amylase and lipase
426. Which of the following blood samples should be placed in ice water?
a. Lead
b. Glucose
c. Blood culture
d. ABG
427. What does lead 1 on the EKG strip represent?
a. Electricity from right arm to left arm
b. Electricity from right arm to right leg
c. Electricity from left arm to left leg
d. Electricity from left leg to right leg
428. What is a test for color blindness?
a. Ichihara
b. Jaeger
c. Snellen
d. Landolt
429. A guaiac test can be a preliminary screen for this type of cancer:
a. Prostate
b. Lung
c. Colon
d. Bladder
430. Chest Xray is often ordered to identify problems related to breathing. Which
of the following is not a chest Xray view?
a. Cross sectional
b. PA
c. Decubitus
d. Oblique
Answer Sheet
1. The correct answer is B) Cells. Atoms are the smallest unit of matter. Organs are
groups are specialized tissue that perform specific functions. Carbohydrates are a
type of food nutrient.
2. The correct answer is C) Facing forward with palms facing the front.
3. The correct answer is C) Sagittal or median plane. The frontal plane dividers the
body into front and back. The transverse plane divides the body into superior
and inferior halves.
4. The correct answer is C) Organs. Cells are the basic building block of life.
Systems are groups of organs that work together to accomplish a task or similar
tasks.
5. The correct answer is A) Across a semi-permeable membrane. Diffusion moves
particles from a region of high concentration to a region of low concentration.
Facilitated diffusion requires a protein to assist in moving particles.
6. The correct answer is D) Spina bifida. Down syndrome is a genetic disorder
characterized by facial features and mild to moderate intellectual impairment.
Cleft palate is a genetic disorder characterized by an opening in the roof of the
mouth. Club foot is a birth disorder characterized by a misshapen foot.
7. The correct answer is D) Back. A patient lying on his abdomen would be prone.
A patient lying on either side would be lateral. Dorsal refers to back.
8. The correct answer is B) Away from the center of the body. Medial refers to
central.
9. The correct answer is A) Mid upper abdominal region. Mid central abdominal
region is the umbilical region. Mid lower abdominal region is the hypogastric
region.
10. The correct answer is C) Chromosomes. Neurons are nerve cells. Membranes are
cell layers that act as boundaries. Mitochondria generate power within a cell.
11. The correct answer is D) Mitochondria. The nucleus is the portion of the cell that
contains the genetic material. The cell membrane acts as a boundary of the cell.
A vacuole is a fluid filled space within a cell.
12. The correct answer is B) Sebaceous. Endocrine glands secrete hormones. Lymph
glands are part of the immune system and produce specialized white blood cells.
Sweat glands are called odoriferous glands.
13. The correct answer is A) Hair loss.
14. The correct answer is C) Excessive hair growth. Hyperhidrosis is the term for
excess sweating.
15. The correct answer is D) All of the above.
16. The correct answer is D) Dermis. The epidermis is the outermost water
protective layer. The hypodermis contains fat and connective tissue. Adipose is
another term for fat.
17. The correct answer is D) Acne. Allergic reactions may cause urticarial (hives).
18. The correct answer is A) malignant Melanoma. Basal and squamous cell
carcinomas are fairly common and less concerning. A lipoma is a benign tumor
made of fatty tissue.
19. The correct answer is D) All of the above.
20. The correct answer is B) Atlas vertebrae. The axial skeleton is composed of the
skull, spine, and ribs. The appendicular skeleton is composed of bones such as
the femur, clavicle, and iliac.
21. The correct answer is C) Femur and radius. The occipital fossa and mastoid
process are two landmarks in the skull. Metacarpals are short finger bones. The
mandible is a jaw bone.
22. The correct answer is A) A partial break in a long bone. A compression fracture
occurs in a vertebrae when the bone becomes compressed and loses height. A
compound fracture indicates that part of the bone has broken through the skin.
An avulsion fracture is an injury to the bone in a location where a tendon or
ligament attaches to the bone.
23. The correct answer is B) Breaks through the skin. A comminuted fracture
involves bone that is broken into many small pieces. A break along a spiral line
is a spiral fracture.
24. The correct answer is C) Ligament. Bursa are fluid filled sacs in the joints which
decrease friction. Tendons attach muscle to bone.
25. The correct answer is D) Ear. The three tiny bones in the ear are the malleus,
incus, and the stapes. The hyoid bone is in the throat and anchors the tongue.
The nose is composed of cartilage.
26. The correct answer is C) Rheumatoid arthritis. Osteoarthritis is “wear and tear”
arthritis. Gouty arthritis is caused by deposits of uric acid crystals in the joints.
27. The correct answer is A) Sideways curvature. Kyphosis occurs when the upper
spine curves forward (hunchback). Lordosis is excessive inward curvature
(swayback).
28. The correct answer is C) Trochanter. A condyle is a small protuberance at the
end of some bones. A fossa is a hole or depression in a bone. A crest is the
thickened, expanded upper border of a bone.
29. The correct answer is A) Atlas. The axis is the second cervical vertebrae. The
coccyx forms the end of the vertebral column.
30. The correct answer is B) Fibula. The lateral malleolus is the outer ankle. The
ulna is an arm bone. The patella is the knee cap. The calcaneus is the heel.
31. The correct answer is D) Brain. The central nervous system is composed of the
brain and spinal cord.
32. The correct answer is C) Hypothalamus. The frontal lobe is the part of the brain
that controls important cognitive skills in humans. The medulla oblongata
contains control centers for the heart and lungs. The occipital lobe is the visual
processing center.
33. The correct answer is B) Weakness or paralysis of one side of the face.
Hemiplegia describes weakness or paralysis of the arms (or legs). Uncontrollable
facial movements are tics. An increased sense of smell is called hyperosmia.
34. The correct answer is C) Afferent nerves. Afferent nerves carry a message toward
the central nervous system. Efferent nerves carry messages away from the
central nervous system. Cranial nerves arise from the brain and mostly supply
the upper body (primarily head). Spinal nerves arise from the spinal cord and
supply the peripheral body.
35. The correct answer is B) Facial expressions. Cranial nerves are responsible for
smell, vision, eye movement, facial skin sensation, the ability to chew, facial
expressions, hearing, balance, taste, salivation, the ability to shrug the shoulders
and turn the head, and tongue movement.
36. The correct answer is D) Balance. The cerebellum controls balance.
37. The correct answer is A) Cerebellum. The cerebrum is responsible for the
coordination of voluntary activity in the body. The pons relays messages from
the cortex and cerebellum and also has a role in sleep. The medulla oblongata
contains the control center for the heart and lungs.
38. The correct answer is B) Parietal lobe. The frontal stroke affects thinking,
problem solving, and reasoning. The parietal lobe causes a loss of sensation and
difficulty with language function. An occipital stroke can cause vision loss. A
cerebellar stroke can affect balance.
39. The correct answer is C) Autonomic Nervous System. The Central Nervous
System is responsible for sending, receiving, and interpreting signals from all
parts of the body. The Skeletal nervous System allows voluntary control of body
movements. The Autonomic Nervous System supplies internal organs to
regulate body functions.
40. The correct answer is A) Cerebrum.
41. The correct answer is D) Glaucoma. Myopia is near sightedness, a condition in
which the image is focused in front of the retina instead of on the retina.
Presbyopia results when the lens loses its elasticity and can be part of the aging
process. Macular degeneration is a deterioration of the central area for vision
resulting in loss of central vision that can spread.
42. The correct answer is C) Middle ear. The pinna is the external ear and is made of
ridged cartilage covered by skin. The middle ear lies behind the ear drum and
extends to the oval window. The three ossicles are in the middle ear. The inner
ear contains the semicircular canals and cochlea, which form the organs of
balance and hearing and are embedded in the temporal bone.
43. The correct answer is B) Decreasing the angle of the joint. Extension increases
the angle of the joint. Rotation moves the joint in a clockwise direction.
44. The correct answer is D) Smooth involuntary muscle. Skeletal muscle is
voluntary. Smooth muscle is involuntary.
45. The correct answer is C) Elasticity. Excitability is the ability to respond to a
stimulus. Contractibility is the ability to forcibly shorten. Extensibility is the
ability to be stretched.
46. The correct answer is B) Masseter. The quadriceps is found in the thigh. The
biceps is in the arm. The iliopsoas is a hip muscle.
47. The correct answer is A) Quadriplegic. Paraplegic refers to loss of function of the
lower extremities. Atrophic refers to wasting of muscle tissue. Hypertrophic
refers to growth of muscle tissue.
48. The correct answer is B) Muscular Dystrophy. Multiple Myeloma is a cancer in a
type of white blood cell. Skeletal fasciitis is Fasciitis is inflammation of
connective tissue. Parkinson’s disease causes shaking, rigidity, and difficulty
with walking.
49. The correct answer is D) Alveoli. The pharynx is the throat and connects the
mouth to the esophagus. The larynx houses the vocal cords. The epiglottis is a
flap of tissue at the entrance to the larynx.
50. The correct answer is D) Atelectasis. Bronchitis is inflammation of the bronchial
tubes. Bronchiolitis is inflammation of the smaller bronchioles. Emphysema is a
chronic condition that causes over inflation of the alveoli.
51. The correct answer is C) Pleural effusion. Asthma is a chronic, reversible disorder
that causes airflow obstruction. Pulmonary edema is fluid in the lungs and is
often caused by heart issues.
52. The correct answer is A) Bradypnea. Hyperpnea is rapid respirations.
Bradycardia is slow pulse rate.
53. The correct answer is B) Emphysema. Pulmonary edema can be treated and
resolved. Bronchitis and Epiglottitis are temporary infections or inflammations.
54. The correct answer is C) Coronary arteries. The aorta is the body’s main artery.
The vena cava is the main vein. The renal arteries supply the kidneys with
blood.
55. The correct answer is C) Between the left atrium and ventricle. The tricuspid
valve is situated between the right atrium and ventricle. There is no valve
between the right ventricle and left atrium or the left ventricle and right atrium.
56. The correct answer is A) Muscle. “Cardiomy” is a word root that indicates heart
muscle.
57. The correct answer is D) Pulmonic. The tricuspid valve is between the atrium
and right ventricle. The mitral valve is between the left atrium and left
ventricle. The aortic valve is between the left ventricle and aorta.
58. The correct answer is C) Atrial fibrillation which is an irregular contraction of
the atria. An aneurysm is a ballooning in the wall of a blood vessel. Thrombosis
is a clot in a blood vessel. Arteriosclerosis is thickening and hardening of the
walls of the arteries.
59. The correct answer is D) Radial which is found in the wrist. The pedal pulse is
located in the foot. The apical pulse is heard over the heart. The brachial pulse is
found in the upper arm.
60. The correct answer is A) Hepatic portal. The systemic circulatory system
supplies the peripheral body. The pulmonary circulatory system supplies the
lungs. The coronary circulatory system supplies the heart muscle.
61. The correct answer is B) The ductus arteriosus allows blood to bypass the lungs
in the fetus. All the other examples occur in adults and fetuses.
62. The correct answer is A) Aneurysm. Atherosclerosis is a buildup of plaque inside
the arterial walls. Arteriosclerosis is a thickening and hardening of the arterial
walls. Thrombosis is a clot within a blood vessel.
63. The correct answer is C) Lymphatic. The primary function of the lymphatic
system is to transport lymph, a fluid containing infection-fighting white blood
cells, throughout the body.
64. The correct answer is A) Basophil. Monocytes are capable of phagocytosis
(encapsulating and digesting bacteria, etc). Lymphocytes release antibodies or
signal for help from other white cells. Neutrophils release cytokines (chemicals
which increase inflammatory response).
65. The correct answer is D) Antigens. Cytokines are proteins which are important
in cell signaling. Complements are chemicals that enhance (complement) the
ability of antibodies and phagocytic cells to clear microbes. Immunoglobulins
are types of antibodies (formed in response to antigens).
66. The correct answer is B) B and T. The B cells produce antibodies that are used to
attack invading bacteria, viruses, and toxins. The T cells destroy the body's own
cells that have themselves been taken over by viruses or become cancerous.
67. The correct answer is A) Autoimmune. In autoimmune diseases, your immune
system attacks healthy cells in your body by mistake. Autoimmune diseases can
affect many parts of the body.
68. The correct answer is C) Spleen. The thymus gland sits in the upper chest and
serves a vital role in the training and development of T cells. Lymph nodes are
located in groups, and each group drains a specific area of your body. The spleen
is similar in structure to a large lymph node and acts primarily as a blood filter.
Dendritic cells act as messengers in the immune system.
69. The correct answer is B) Peristalsis.
70. The correct answer is D) Liver and gall bladder.
71. The correct answer is A) Small intestine.
72. The correct answer is B) Hepatitis B. Diverticulitis, GERD, and cirrhosis all
effect the GI tract but are not communicable.
73. The correct answer is C) Colonoscopy. Colposcopy examines the cervix.
Cystoscopy examines the urinary bladder. Duodenoscopy examines a portion of
the small intestine.
74. The correct answer is C) Between the stomach and duodenum. The esophageal
sphincter is between the esophagus and stomach.
75. The correct answer is D) Hematemesis. Epistaxis is a nose bleed. Hemoptysis is
coughing blood. Hematuria is blood in the urine.
76. The correct answer is C) Endocrine glands. Exocrine glands secrete substances
by way of a duct. Examples are sweat glands and mammary glands.
77. The correct answer is A) Pituitary.
78. The correct answer is D) Thymus.
79. The correct answer is B) ADH (anti-diuretic hormone). TSH is thyroid
stimulating hormone. FSH is follicle stimulating hormone. MSH is melanocyte
stimulating hormone.
80. The correct answer is C) Tumor of the pituitary gland. About 98% of cases of
acromegaly are due to the overproduction of growth hormone by a benign tumor
of the pituitary gland called an adenoma. These tumors produce excessive
growth hormone and compress surrounding brain tissues as they grow larger.
81. The correct answer is A) Adrenal glands. The adrenal glands produce adrenaline,
cortisol, and aldosterone. The thyroid gland produces thyroxine (T4) and
triiodothyronine (T3). The parathyroid glands produce parathyroid hormone.
The pancreas produces insulin and glucagon.
82. The correct answer is B) Parathyroid hormone. Thyroid hormones regulate
metabolism. Luteinizing hormone triggers ovulation. Glucagon works to raise
the concentration of glucose and fat in the blood stream.
83. The correct answer is D) Nephron. The tubule is a portion of the nephron. The
ureter drains urine from the kidneys into the bladder. The hilum is the center of
the kidney and contains the opening for the ureter, artery, and vein.
84. The correct answer is A) Maintain blood volume and pressure. The kidneys do
this by regulating fluid and electrolyte balance. Solid waste is removed by the
digestive tract. The pancreas produces a hormone which promotes normal blood
sugar levels. Uric acid is produced by the metabolism of some proteins and is
excreted in the urine.
85. The correct answer is C) Potassium. Glucose, salt, and fat are not electrolytes.
86. The correct answer is A) Kidneys to the bladder. The urethra connects the
bladder to the outside of the body. The kidneys are not directly connected to the
outside of the body. The bladder and rectum are not connected in healthy
individuals.
87. The correct answer is C) Glomerulus. The Loop of Henle, convoluted tubule, and
collecting tubule are parts of the nephron (as is the glomerulus). Water and salt
reabsorption occurs in the Loop of Henle. Sodium and potassium regulation
occurs in the convoluted tubule. The collecting tubule concentrates and
transports urine.
88. The correct answer is B) Incontinence. Oliguria means scant urine output.
Frequency refers to frequently feeling the need to void. Dysuria refers to painful
urination.
89. The correct answer is A) KUB. Cystourethroscopy is a scope that allows viewing
of the urethra and bladder. Retrograde pyelography uses a special dye injected
into the ureters to make the ureters and kidneys more easily seen on the x-ray.
90. The correct answer is A) Dialysis. Dialysis is a treatment that uses a membrane
to remove excess fluid and waste products from the blood. Catheterization
(urinary) refers to the insertion of a tube into the bladder to drain urine. IVP is
intravenous pyelogram and is an x-ray exam that uses an injection of contrast
material to evaluate your kidneys, ureters and bladder. Fluoroscopy is a study of
moving body structures--similar to an X-ray "movie." A continuous X-ray beam
is passed through the body part being examined. The beam is transmitted to a
TV-like monitor so that the body part and its motion can be seen in detail.
91. The correct answer is D) Pyelonephritis. Pyelonephritis is an inflammation of
the kidney often caused by bacteria. Renal calculi is another term for kidney
stones. Polycystic Kidney Disease is an inherited disorder in which clusters of
cysts develop primarily within your kidneys, causing your kidneys to enlarge
and lose function over time.
92. The correct answer is B) Urinary tract infection. Urinary catheterization should
be performed as a sterile procedure and unless traumatic should not cause
painful urination or bleeding. Urinary stasis refers to incomplete bladder
emptying. Renal calculi may cause hematuria but the most common symptom is
severe flank pain.
93. The correct answer is C) Kidneys. Retroperitoneal means behind the
peritoneum. The peritoneum is a membrane that lines the abdominal cavity.
The gall bladder and rectum lie in the peritoneum. The thymus is located in the
thoracic cavity.
94. The correct answer is B) The pelvic cavity. The pelvic cavity primarily contains
reproductive organs, the urinary bladder, the pelvic colon, and the rectum.
Organs of the abdominal cavity include the stomach, liver, gallbladder, spleen,
pancreas, small intestine, kidneys, large intestine, and adrenal glands. Organs
are intraperitoneal if they are enclosed by a fold of visceral peritoneum.
Intraperitoneal organs include the stomach, small intestine, large intestine, liver,
gall bladder, pancreas and spleen. The thoracic cavity houses the lungs, heart,
esophagus, trachea, and thymus.
95. The correct answer is A) Urologist. A nephrologist specializes in kidney disease.
A surgeon specializes in operative procedures. A radiologist specializes in the
interpretation of X-rays and other radiologic tests.
96. The correct answer is A) Prostate and Bulbourethral glands. The prostate is a
donut shaped gland that surrounds the neck of the bladder in males. The
 bulbourethral glands (or Cowper’s glands) secrete a clear fluid that helps to
lubricate the distal urethra and neutralizes acidic urine which remains in the
urethra in males. Bartholin’s glands secrete mucous to lubricate the vagina in
females. A cystocele is a “prolapsed bladder” in which the bladder bulges into
the vagina or through the vaginal opening. Collecting tubule is a portion of a
nephron.
97. The correct answer is C) Prostatic hypertrophy. This may also be called Benign
Prostatic Hypertrophy (BPH). BPH makes it difficult for sufferers to initiate
their urine stream and to completely empty the bladder. Erectile dysfunction is
the inability to achieve or maintain an erection. Hydrocele is a fluid filled
swelling in the scrotum. Rectocele refers to weakening of the muscular wall
separating the vagina and rectum which allows the rectum to bulge into the
vagina.
98. The correct answer is D) Cervix. As os is an opening and the cervix has two, the
internal (leading to the uterus) and the external (leading to the vagina). The
fundus os the uterus is the upper most portion. The body of the uterus is the
middle portion. The endometrium is the inner lining of the uterus which sloughs
off during a menstrual period.
99. The correct answer is B) Dysmenorrhea. Amenorrhea is the absence of menstrual
bleeding. Menorrhagia is excessive menstrual bleeding.
100. The correct answer is C) Gametes. Zygote is the fertilized egg. Osteoclast is a
type of bone cell. Seminal vesicle cells line the seminal vesicles. The seminal
vesicles secrete a fluid that mixes with sperm to become semen.
101. The correct answer is A) The Fallopian tubes. The uterus accepts the fertilized
ovum for implantation. The cervix is the lower portion of the uterus and opens
into the vagina. The mons pubis is a fatty pad which covers the pubic bone in
females.
102. The correct answer is B) The uterus. If implantation occurs in the Fallopian
tubes, this is a medical emergency (ectopic pregnancy).
103. The correct answer is D) HCG. FSH is follicle stimulating hormone. This
hormone promotes the formation of ova and sperm. LH is luteinizing hormone.
This hormone triggers ovulation in females. Oxytocin plays a role in social
bonding, sexual reproduction in both sexes, and during and after childbirth.
Oxytocin is released into the bloodstream in response to the stretching of the
cervix and uterus during labor and with stimulation of the nipples from
breastfeeding. This helps with birth, bonding with the baby, and milk
production. HCG is Human Chorionic Gonadotropin. It is produced by the
placenta after implantation and promotes maintenance of the pregnancy.
104. The correct answer is A) Testes. The foreskin is a roll of skin covering the end
of the penis. The fetus is the fertilized after 8 weeks of germination.
105. The correct answer is B) Infertility. Contraception is a method used to prevent
pregnancy. Amenorrhea is the absence of menstrual bleeding. Endometriosis is a
disorder in which tissue from the lining of the uterus (endometrium) grows
outside the uterus. Endometriosis can be quite painful and may lead to
infertility.
106. The correct answer is B) Cervix. The colon may be visualized through a
colonoscopy. A hysterosalpingography visualizes the uterus and Fallopian tubes.
The vas deferens can be imaged by ultrasound.
107. The correct answer is D) Amniotic fluid. Amniotic fluid is the fluid
surrounding the fetus in utero. Prolactin is a hormone which enables milk
production. Serous fluid is a clear, thin fluid that fills body cavities.
108. The correct answer is A) Vasectomy. The vas deferens is cut or blocked to
prevent sperm from entering semen. Salpingectomy is the surgical removal of
the Fallopian tubes. Hysterectomy is the surgical removal of the uterus.
109. The correct answer is B) An overabundance of or tendency toward. The suffix
“penia” means a decrease in.
110. The correct answer is D) A pain in. The suffix “algia” also means pain.
111. The correct answer is B) Anisocytosis. Basophilia is an overproduction of
basophils. Necrosis is tissue death. Arthralgia is joint pain.
112. The correct answer is D) PRN. Stat means immediately. Per os is often
abbreviated PO and is Latin for by mouth. The abbreviation ac in a prescription
or doctor’s order means before meals.
113. The correct answer is C) Fungal infection.
114. The correct answer is A) Slower than normal. The prefix for faster than normal
is “tachy”. The prefix for absent is “a”.
115. The correct answer is A) Ectomy. The suffix “plasty” means surgically
forming. The suffix “pexy” means fixation.
116. The correct answer is B) Blood. Red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets
are components of blood.
117. The correct answer is C) Low blood sugar. High blood sugar is hyperglycemia.
The prefix “eu” means normal.
118. The correct answer is A) Angio. Hemo refers to blood. Spino refers to the
spinal cord. Myelo refers to bone marrow.
119. The correct answer is D) Oma. Carcino is a prefix which means cancerous.
Genic is a suffix which means reproduction. Philic is a suffix which means
attraction to.
120. The correct answer is B) Globulin. Malto is a prefix for a type of sugar. Amino
is a prefix denoting presence of amino acids (simple proteins). Dextrose is a
sugar.
121. The correct answer is B) The same or constant. The prefix for different is
“hetero”. The prefix for water is “hydro”. The suffix “philic” can mean an
affinity for.
122. The correct answer is C) Muscle tissue. “Neuro” is indicative of nervous tissue.
“Hemo” indicates blood.
123. The correct answer is B) Vision. The suffix “otia” refers to hearing.
124. The correct answer is C) Deficiency or lack of. Overgrowth is indicated by
“hyper”. Tumor is indicated by the prefix “carcino” or the suffix “oma”. A
prefix for surrounding is “peri”.
125. The correct answer is A) Vein. The prefix for artery is “arterio”.
126. The correct answer is B) Rrhea (as in diarrhea). The prefix “meno” refers to
menstrual. The prefix “sacro” refers to the sacrum. The suffix “rrhaphy” refers
to surgical suturing.
127. The correct answer is A) Above or excessive. The prefix for pus formation is
“supporo”.
128. The correct answer is D) Centesis. “Ectomy” refers to surgical removal.
“Ostomy” is a surgically created opening. The suffix “plexy” refers to a
condition.
129. The correct answer is A) Poly. The prefix “a” means absence. The prefix
“hemi” means half. The suffix “lysis” means breakdown or destruction.
130. The correct answer is C) Clot.
131. The correct answer is A) To crush.
132. The correct answer is A) Systolic blood pressure. Diastolic blood pressure is the
force against the arterial walls during the heart’s relaxation phase. Pulse
pressure is the difference between the systolic and diastolic measurements.
Hypertension is blood pressure higher than normal.
133. The correct answer is B) Hypertension. Hypotension is lower than normal
blood pressure. Dystension and arterial tension are not valid medical
terminology.
134. The correct answer is B) 80%. A cuff that is too small or too large will result in
readings that are higher or lower than actual values.
135. The correct answer is C) Brachial artery. Radial and ulnar arteries are in the
forearm. Atrial refers to the heart.
136. The correct answer is D) Back supported. Legs should be uncrossed and feet
flat on the floor. The arm should be bared and supported on a level with the
heart.
137. The correct answer is B) 37. To convert from Fahrenheit to Celsius subtract 32,
multiply by 5, and divide by 9.
138. The correct answer is A) In the armpit. Oral temperatures are taken by placing
the probe in the pocket under the tongue. Tympanic temperatures require a
 probe to be placed in the ear canal. Rectal temperatures result from a probe
placed in the rectum.
139. The correct answer is B) Dyspnea. Apnea is absence of breaths. Tachypnea is
rapid breathing. Bradypnea is slowed breathing.
140. The correct answer is C) A course, low pitched sound. Wheezing is described as
a whistling sound. Rales are a rattling sound.
141. The correct answer is D) Height and weight. Anthropometric measurements
check for growth and development.
142. The correct answer is B) Pedal. The popliteal pulse is found behind the knee.
The apical pulse is heard over the heart. The femoral pulse is found in the groin.
While all of these pulses may be checked in someone with diabetes, the most
commonly checked one is the pedal pulse. This is done to assess circulation in the
feet.
143. The correct answer is D) OSHA. OSHA is the Occupational Safety and Health
Administration. They set standards for safe work environments and regulate
items such as biohazard waste disposal. CLIA is the Clinical Laboratory
Improvement Amendments. It sets standards for laboratory operations. ADA is
the Americans with Disabilities Act. It ensures accommodation for people with
disabilities (such as wheelchair ramp to allow access to buildings). The TJC is
the The Joint Commission (formerly The Joint Commission on Accreditation of
Healthcare Organizations JCAHO). They certify that healthcare organizations
meet standards based on safety and quality of care.
144. The correct answer is B) Perform laboratory testing with low error risk.
Moderate complexity testing is also covered under CLIA but this testing must be
done under a physician’s supervision. QC (Laboratory Quality Control) provides
for proficiency testing. This is more substantial than “competency”.
145. The correct answer is A) ADA. The ADA protects the rights of disabled people.
HIPAA (Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act) ensures patients’
right to privacy and portability of medical records. FMLA (Family and Medical
Leave Act) guarantees certain employees up to 12 workweeks of unpaid leave
each year with no threat of job loss. COLA (Commission on Office Laboratory
Accreditation) provides education to help laboratories meet CLIA and state
regulations.
146. The correct answer is D) Annual unpaid leave for healthcare needs. This is
covered by FMLA. HIPAA provides for protection of patient privacy,
protection of health and personal information, and meaningful use of health
information.
147. The correct answer is A) Medical malpractice and slander. Tort law covers acts
or omissions that cause injury or harm to another and amounts to a civil wrong
for which courts impose liability. Theft is often a felony. Speeding is an
infraction or summary offense. Kidnapping and sexual assault are both felonies.
148. The correct answer is D) TJC. QA (Laboratory Quality Assurance) is a
comprehensive program that analyzes all areas of a laboratory’s function
including patient preparation, specimen collection, and safety measures.
149. The correct answer is B) Require laboratory personnel to be proficient. QA
addresses patient preparation and safety. COLA helps laboratories meet CLIA
regulations.
150. The correct answer is A) Moral codes set as standards of practice. Medical
ethics include topics such as autonomy, justice, beneficence, and non-
maleficence. They are not laws but there may be punishment associated with
violating some aspects of ethical practice.
151. The correct answer is B) Perspective. According to Blanchard and Vincent, the
5 Ps of ethical power are purpose, pride, patience, persistence, and perspective.
152. The correct answer is D) Customs and judicial decisions. Common law arises as
precedent.
153. The correct answer is A) The MA chose to become certified. MAs are not
licensed healthcare providers and as such they may practice anywhere within
the United States. Working MAs will probably expand their skill sets beyond
what was learned in school. Basic information relevant to MA practice is covered
in certification exams.
154. The correct answer is A) Informed consent. Informed consent is a process for
getting permission before conducting a healthcare intervention on a person and
covers what to expect and possible risks. Physicians and advanced practitioners
are required to obtain informed consent prior to invasive and other potentially
risky interventions. Advanced directives are legal documents that spell out end-
of-life care decisions ahead of time. Emancipation of a minor (also called
"divorce from parents") refers to a court process through which a minor can
become legally recognized as an independent adult. Through emancipation, a
minor can take responsibility for his or her own welfare, and make the major
decisions that parents typically would handle.
155. The correct answer is A) Duty. The 4 Ds of negligence are duty, dereliction,
damages, and direct cause. Duty is a moral or legal obligation to someone.
Dereliction is the failure to fulfill the obligation. Damages is harm caused by the
dereliction. The harm must be directly linked to the dereliction.
156. The correct answer is D) Nonfeasance. Malfeasance is wrong doing.
Misfeasance is the wrongful exercise of authority. Nonfeasance is the failure to
perform a required act.
157. The correct answer is B) Is covered by the Good Samaritan Act because she is
volunteering. The details of Good Samaritan laws/acts vary by jurisdiction,
including who is protected from liability and under what circumstances but most
prevent legal action against those who volunteer to help others.
158. The correct answer is C) Torts. A misdemeanor is a minor wrong doing, less
serious than a felony. A felony is a serious crime, typically one involving
violence, which is usually punishable by imprisonment for more than one year.
159. The correct answer is B) Stating false comments about another. Libel involves
defamatory written comments. Restraining another may be considered battery
or even kidnapping.
160. The correct answer is A) Guide professionals in solving difficult moral
problems. Ethics do not have strict rules for behavior nor are they requirements
for employment. Ethics are often based on general religious principles (such as
respect for life) but are not religion specific.
161. The correct answer is B) Requiring an employee to retire because he turned 65.
The other options are legal.
162. The correct answer is A) Performing a job to set standards. Behaving in a
professional manner, working as a member of a team, and maintaining
confidentiality are aspects of professional behavior.
163. The correct answer is A) AMA. AMA is the American Medical Association.
CMA is certified medical assistant. CCMA is certified clinical medical assistant.
RMA is registered medical assistant. These credentials are awarded by different
credentialing organizations and vary based on the awarding organization.
164. The correct answer is D) Documenting vital signs during a patient visit.
Writing prescriptions and diagnosing are part of a physician’s scope of practice.
Complex medication administration is part of a nurse’s scope of practice.
165. The correct answer is C) Respondeat superior. Res ipsa loquitor is Latin for
“the thing speaks for itself” and is a doctrine that infers negligence from the
very nature of an accident or injury in the absence of direct evidence on how any
defendant behaved. Subpoena duces tecum is a court summons ordering the
recipient to appear before the court and produce documents or other evidence
for use at a hearing or trial. Respondeat superior is Latin for “let the master
answer” and is a doctrine that a party is responsible for acts of their agents. Res
judicata is Latin for “a matter already judged”. This matter has been
adjudicated by a competent court and may not be pursued further by the same
parties.
166. The correct answer is B) A standard. A standard is a regulation or statement
written by an agency that describes the minimum level of expected care.
167. The correct answer is D) Notice of privacy practices.
168. The correct answer is C) Fraud. Embezzlement is diversion of money from one
source to another.
169. The correct answer is A) Nonverbal. Nonverbal communication is
communication through sending and receiving wordless clues. It includes the use
of visual cues such as body language, personal distances, eye contact, and the
 actions of looking while talking and listening, frequency of glances, and blink
rate. Whether we are speaking or not, we are sending nonverbal communication.
170. The correct answer is B) Using medical terminology and jargon.
Communication must occur on a level that the patient is comfortable with. Most
patients would not be able to follow a conversation heavy in medical
terminology.
171. The correct answer is C) Open ended. An open-ended question is designed to
encourage a full, meaningful answer from the patient. It is the opposite of a
closed-ended question, which encourages a short or single-word answer. A
rhetorical question is used to make a point rather than to get an answer. A
leading question is a question that suggests the particular answer or contains the
information the questioner is looking to have confirmed.
172. The correct answer is A) Sender, message, receiver. If any of these components
are missing, communication cannot occur.
173. The correct answer is A) Relaxed and comfortable. Someone who is angry or
defensive may slouch, avoid eye contact, and not smile.
174. The correct answer is C) Summarize in their own words what the patient said.
Repeating and rephrasing may not clarify the intent of the message.
175. The correct answer is D) Sorry. I can’t but thank you for thinking of me. To
maintain professionalism, it is best to refrain from personal relationships with
patients.
176. The correct answer is C) Acknowledge the wait and offer to reschedule the
patient.
177. The correct answer is A) Use language that the patient is comfortable with.
178. The correct answer is D) Exclamation. Exclamation is a form of verbal
communication. The other selections are nonverbal ways to communicate.
179. The correct answer is D) Acknowledgement. Lack of privacy, stereotyping,
and sensory loss can impair the ability to communicate.
180. The correct answer is A) Alerting the patient before touching him. We should
speak normally to a visually impaired patient. Written communication may not
be the most appropriate communication method with a visually impaired
patient.
181. The correct answer is C) Tell me about how you’re feeling. This requires the
patient to give a more detailed response than a yes/no question or one that can
be answered with one word.
182. The correct answer is B) Specific. The 7 Cs of communication are: complete
(includes all necessary information), clear (fully explains the message), concrete
(specific), correct (truthful and free of errors), courteous (honest and friendly in
tone), considerate (keeps receiver’s point of view in mind), and concise (to the
point).
183. The correct answer is B) Five stages of grief. The Kübler-Ross model describes
a series of emotions experienced by terminally ill patients prior to death and
people experiencing the loss of a loved one. The five stages are denial, anger,
bargaining, depression and acceptance. With denial, individuals believe the
diagnosis is somehow mistaken, and cling to a false, preferable reality. When the
individual recognizes that denial cannot continue, they become angry and
frustrated, especially at those near to them or even God. Bargaining usually
involves the negotiation for an extended life made in exchange for a reformed
lifestyle. With depression, the individual despairs at the recognition of their
mortality. They may become silent, refuse visitors and spend much of the time
mournful and sullen. In acceptance, individuals embrace mortality or the
inevitable future.
184. The correct answer is B) Self-actualization. Maslow described a pyramid of
human needs. On the bottom is physiological needs such as air, water, food,
clothing, and shelter. The next layer of the pyramid is safety needs. These
include personal and financial security as well as health and wellbeing. The third
layer of needs is social belonging. This includes friendship, intimacy, and family.
Next is esteem. Esteem involves recognition, status, importance, and respect
from others. All humans have a need to feel respected; this includes the need to
have self-esteem and self-respect. The top of the pyramid is self-actualization in
which a person reaches their full potential.
185. The correct answer is A) In the newborn period.

Trust versus mistrust- infants must learn how to trust others, particularly
those who care for their basic needs
Autonomy versus shame and doubt- children learn the basic ways of taking
care of themselves, including changing their clothes and feeding themselves. If
a child can’t take care of his own basic needs and continues to rely on others to
take care of him, he may feel shame when he sees that other kids are able to
perform tasks such as feeding themselves.
Initiative versus guilt-children learn new concepts in school and are expected to
practice these lessons in real life. They know that they can accomplish these
tasks on their own, but if they fail to do so and end up asking for assistance
from others, they may feel a sense of guilt.
Industry versus inferiority- Children become more competitive during this
stage. They want to do things that other children can do. When they make the
effort to perform a task and succeed, they develop self-confidence. However, if
they fail, they tend to feel that they are inferior to others.
Identity versus role confusion-During adolescence, young people are expected
to develop their sexual identity. This is gained through the discovery of oneself
and in the course of finding meaning to their personhood. They may also
experience identity crisis as a result of the transition from childhood to
adulthood. Some adolescents may feel confused and are unsure whether an
activity is age-appropriate for them.
Intimacy versus isolation- Young adults become worried about finding the
right partner and fear that if they fail to do so, they may have to spend the
rest of their lives alone.
 Generativity versus stagnation- Adults find meaning in their work. They feel
like at this point in their lives, they should be able to contribute something
meaningful to the society and leave a legacy. If they fail to achieve this, they
feel like they have been an unproductive member of the society.
Ego integrity versus despair- Retirees feel a sense of fulfillment knowing that
they have done something significant during their younger years. When they
look back in their life, they feel content, as they believe that they have lived
their life to the fullest. If they feel that they haven’t done much during their
life, it’s likely that they will experience a sense of despair.
186. The correct answer is B) Pavlov. Skinner was an American psychologist known
for operant conditioning. In operant conditioning, stimuli present when a
behavior is rewarded or punished come to control that behavior. For example, a
child may learn to open a box to get the candy inside, or learn to avoid touching
a hot stove. Pavlov was a Russian physiologist known for classical conditioning.
Classical conditioning refers to a learning procedure in which a biologically
potent stimulus (e.g. food) is paired with a previously neutral stimulus (e.g. a
bell). The neutral stimulus comes to elicit a response (e.g. salivation) that is
usually similar to the one elicited by the potent stimulus. Freud was an Austrian
neurologist and founder of psychoanalysis. Erickson was an American
psychologist known for this theory of human development.
187. The correct answer is C) Defense mechanisms. Stereotyping is contributing
standardized behaviors and characteristics to all members of a group. An
example is all elderly are frail. Encoding refers to the meaning people associate
with certain social behaviors. Behavioral modification refers to behavior which
can be modified through consequences such as positive or negative
reinforcement. Defense mechanisms are unconscious psychological mechanisms
that reduce anxiety arising from unacceptable or potentially harmful stimuli.
Examples include:
a. Repression: when a feeling is hidden and forced from the consciousness to the
unconscious because it is seen as socially unacceptable.
b. Regression: falling back into an early state of mental/physical development
seen as "less demanding and safer".
c. Projection: possessing a feeling that is felt to be socially unacceptable and
instead of facing it, that feeling or "unconscious urge" is seen in the actions of
other people.
d. Reaction formation: acting the opposite way that the unconscious instructs a
person to behave, "often exaggerated and obsessive". For example, if a wife is
infatuated with a man who is not her husband, reaction formation may cause
her to – rather than cheat – become obsessed with showing her husband signs
of love and affection.
 e. Sublimation: seen as the most acceptable of the mechanisms, an expression of
anxiety in socially acceptable ways.
f. Somatization: The transformation of uncomfortable feelings towards others
into uncomfortable feelings toward oneself: pain, illness, and anxiety.
g. Wishful thinking: Making decisions according to what might be pleasing to
imagine instead of by appealing to evidence, rationality, or reality.
h. Rationalization (making excuses): Convincing oneself that no wrong has been
done and that all is right through faulty and false reasoning- convenient
excuses.
188. The correct answer is D) Regression.
189. The correct answer is C) Superego. The id is the completely unconscious,
impulsive, childlike portion of the psyche that operates on the "pleasure
principle" and is the source of basic impulses and drives; it seeks immediate
pleasure and gratification. The super-ego is the moral component of the psyche,
which takes into account no special circumstances in which the morally right
thing may not be right for a given situation. The rational ego attempts to exact
a balance between the impractical hedonism of the id and the equally
impractical moralism of the super-ego; it is the part of the psyche that is usually
reflected most directly in a person's actions. There is no “super id”.
190. The correct answer is C) Irrational fear of closed in spaces. A phobia is an
extreme or irrational fear or aversion to something. Zoophobia is a fear of
animals. Acrophobia is a fear of heights. Xenophobia is a fear of strangers or of
people different than oneself.
191. The correct answer is C) Phallic.

Oral stage- The libido is centered in a baby's mouth. It gets much satisfaction
from putting all sorts of things in its mouth to satisfy its id demands. At this
stage in life the id demands are oral, or mouth orientated, such as sucking,
biting, and breastfeeding. Freud said oral stimulation could lead to an oral
fixation in later life. We see oral personalities all around us such as smokers,
nail-biters, finger-chewers, and thumb suckers.
Anal stage- The libido becomes focused on the anus, and the child derives great
pleasure from defecating. The child is now fully aware that they are a person
in their own right and that their wishes can bring them into conflict with the
demands of the outside world (i.e., their ego has developed). Freud believed
that this type of conflict tends to come to a head in potty training, in which
adults impose restrictions on when and where the child can defecate. Early or
harsh potty training can lead to the child becoming an anal-retentive
personality who hates mess, is obsessively tidy, punctual and respectful of
authority. They can be stubborn and tight-fisted with their cash and
possessions.
Phallic stage- Sensitivity now becomes concentrated in the genitals and
masturbation becomes a new source of pleasure. The child becomes aware of
anatomical sex differences, which sets in motion the conflict between erotic
attraction, resentment, rivalry, jealousy and fear which Freud called the
Oedipus complex (in boys) and the Electra complex (in girls). This is resolved
 through the process of identification, which involves the child adopting the
characteristics of the same sex parent.
Latent stage- The libido becomes dormant. Freud thought that most sexual
impulses are repressed during the latent stage, and sexual energy can be
directed towards school work, hobbies, and friendships. Much of the child's
energy is channeled into developing new skills and acquiring new knowledge,
and play becomes largely confined to other children of the same gender.
Genital stage- It is a time of adolescent sexual experimentation, the successful
resolution of which is settling down in a loving one-to-one relationship with
another person in our 20's. Sexual instinct is directed to heterosexual pleasure,
rather than self-pleasure like during the phallic stage. For Freud, the proper
outlet of the sexual instinct in adults was through heterosexual intercourse.
Fixation and conflict may prevent this with the consequence that sexual
perversions may develop. For example, fixation at the oral stage may result in
a person gaining sexual pleasure primarily from kissing and oral sex, rather
than sexual intercourse.
192. The correct answer is B) Somatization. Reaction formation is a defense
mechanism in which emotions and impulses which are anxiety-producing or
perceived to be unacceptable are mastered by exaggeration of the directly
opposing tendency.
193. The correct answer is D) Cluster booking. Double booking means that two
patients are scheduled in the same time slot. Open hours indicate that
appointments are not necessary (walk-ins welcome). Fixed booking is time
specific. The patient is given an appt based on length of time needed and on
available time. Cluster booking groups patients with similar diagnoses or
procedures. These patients may be seen at the same time or on the same day.
194. The correct answer is D) Accounts receivable. Cost accounting is an accounting
method that captures a company's costs of production by assessing the input
costs of each step of production as well as fixed costs, such as depreciation of
capital equipment. A single entry system records each accounting transaction
with a single entry to the accounting records. The single entry system is centered
on the results of a business that are reported in the income statement. Total
practice management is software that deals with the day-to-day operations of a
medical practice. Such software frequently allows users to capture patient
demographics, schedule appointments, maintain lists of insurance payers,
perform billing tasks, and generate reports. Accounts receivable is money owed
to a company by its debtors.
195. The correct answer is B) Money owed by the business. Accounts payable is
money owed to creditors.
196. The correct answer is A) All assets equal liabilities plus the owners’ equity.
Double-entry accounting is based on the fact that every financial transaction
 has equal and opposite effects in at least two different accounts. It is used to
satisfy the equation Assets = Liabilities + Equity, in which each entry is
recorded to maintain the relationship. Single entry is a daily log that tracks
statements, ledgers, and disbursements. In pegboard accounting, payments,
collections, and charges are written once. Day sheets allow an overview of the
entire day.
197. The correct answer is C) End of day report. Month end balances reconcile
transactions for a given month.
198. The correct answer is C) Amount earned and amount owed. Amounts collected
and any incurred expenses are also included.
199. The correct answer is D) Total Practice Management System.
200. The correct answer is A) Diagnoses. ICD stands for International Classification
of Diseases. It creates a uniform vocabulary for describing causes of injury,
illness, and death. Procedures are coded with CPT codes.
201. The correct answer is B) Explains original information but does not change the
original code. ICD-10 codes contain 5 numbers. HCPCS is based on CPT codes
and relate to outpatient hospital care and chemotherapy. Level 1 HCPCS is
identical to CPT but is sent to CMS (Centers for Medicare and Medicaid
Services).
202. The correct answer is C) CPT. Current Procedural Terminology (CPT) code set
describes medical, surgical, and diagnostic services and is designed to
communicate uniform information about medical services and procedures among
physicians, coders, patients, accreditation organizations, and payers for
administrative, financial, and analytical purposes. ICD provides V codes to deal
with encounters for circumstances other than a disease or injury. For example, V
codes are used to identify when a person who is not currently sick encounters the
health services for some specific purpose such as vaccination.
203. The correct answer is A) Date of birth. Patient demographics generally include
date of birth, gender, phone, address, and emergency contact information.
204. The correct answer is C) Limit how a check can be cashed. Restrictive
endorsements ensure the proper person or organization cashes the check.
205. The correct answer is B) Non-Sufficient Funds.
206. The correct answer is A) Customer invoices unpaid for a specified period of
time. The aging report is the primary tool used by collections personnel to
determine which invoices are overdue for payment.
207. The correct answer is D) Social Security. Federal Insurance Contributions Act
(FICA) taxes are the Social Security and Medicare taxes paid by individuals and
employers. FICA taxes are called payroll taxes because they are based on the
amounts paid to employees.
208. The correct answer is B) I-9. Form I-9 is used for verifying the identity and
employment authorization of individuals hired for employment in the United
 States. All U.S. employers must ensure proper completion of Form I-9 for each
individual they hire for employment in the United States. This includes citizens
and noncitizens. Form W-2 is an Internal Revenue Service (IRS) tax form used
in the United States to report wages paid to employees and the taxes withheld
from them. The W-4 form tells the employer the correct amount of tax to
withhold from an employee's paycheck based on the employee's marital status,
number of exemptions and dependents and other factors.
209. The correct answer is B) Credit card debt. An asset is property owned by a
person or company, regarded as having value and available to meet debts,
commitments, or legacies.
210. The correct answer is C) PPO. Preferred provider Organization (PPO) plans
provide more flexibility than HMOs when picking a doctor or hospital. They
also feature a network of providers, but there are fewer restrictions on seeing
non-network providers. In addition, the PPO will pay if you see a non-network
provider, although it may be at a lower rate.
211. The correct answer is B) Tricare. Tricare, formerly known as the Civilian
Health and Medical Program of the Uniformed Services (CHAMPUS), is a
health care program of the United States Department of Defense Military
Health System. Tricare provides civilian health benefits for U.S Armed Forces
military personnel, military retirees, and their dependents, including some
members of the Reserve Component. Tricare is the civilian care component of
the Military Health System, although historically it also included health care
delivered in the military medical treatment facilities.
212. The correct answer is A) The debt a business owes.
213. The correct answer is C) Cashier’s check. A cashier's check is guaranteed by a
bank, drawn on the bank's own funds and signed by a cashier. Cashier's checks
are treated as guaranteed funds because the bank, rather than the purchaser, is
responsible for paying the amount.
214. The correct answer is C) Upcoding. Upcoding is fraudulent medical billing that
is used by providers who are trying to cheat the system so they will be paid more
money than they have negotiated with those payers. A code for a more
expensive service or procedure than was performed is submitted to the payer in
upcoding.
215. The correct answer is B) Variable pre and post-operative services. CPT uses
multiple symbols. A good refresher website to check out is
https://quizlet.com/9628497/cpt-symbols-flash-cards/
216. The correct answer is A) Bilateral. Modifiers LT and RT differentiate those
procedures performed on paired structures such as eyes, lungs, arms, breasts,
knees, etc.
217. The correct answer is B) Volume 2. The ICD-10 consists of tabular lists
containing cause-of-death titles and codes and inclusion and exclusion terms for
 cause-of-death titles in Volume 1. An alphabetical index to diseases and nature
of injury, external causes of injury, and a table of drugs and chemicals is found
in Volume 3. Volume 2 contains description, guidelines, and coding rules.
218. The correct answer is A) Not covered by Medicare. The black diamond symbol
denotes codes Medicare doesn't cover or considers invalid.
219. The correct answer is C) Evaluation and management codes. E & M coding is
the process by which physician-patient encounters are translated into five digit
CPT codes to facilitate billing. For example, an office visit might be coded as
99214.
220. The correct answer is A) Is a medical model that focuses on prevention. Access
is restricted to contracted providers and referrals are usually required to see a
specialist. HMO typically cost less than other types of insurance plans.
221. The correct answer is C) Blue Cross. When a patient is covered by Tricare and
another health insurance policy, Tricare is the secondary payer unless the other
policy is Medicaid.
222. The correct answer is B) Outpatient and preventative care. Part A covers
inpatient hospital stays. Part C is also known as the Medicare Advantage plans
and they cover expenses of both part A & B. Part D covers pharmaceuticals.
223. The correct answer is D) Deductible. A deductible is the amount you pay for
covered health care services before your insurance plan starts to pay. With a
$2,000 deductible, for example, you pay the first $2,000 of covered services
yourself. After you pay your deductible, you usually pay only a copayment or
coinsurance for covered services. Your insurance company pays the rest.
224. The correct answer is A) Medicare. A Medicare supplement usually pays for
deductibles, coinsurance, and for services not covered by Medicare in some cases.
Medicare is the primary payer.
225. The correct answer is C) 90658. The CPT is a 5 digit numeric code.
226. The correct answer is C) 99214.
227. The correct answer is A) Need for prophylactic vaccination.
228. The correct answer is B) M codes. Morphology of neoplasms fall under the M
codes. E codes describe the external causes of injuries and poisonings. These
codes are secondary codes for use in any health care setting, which are used to
provide data for injury research and evaluation of injury prevention strategies.
229. The correct answer is B) The provider. Physicians own the patients’ medical
records but patients have the right to obtain copies of their records.
230. The correct answer is C) Viewing a medical record to obtain an address to send
a greeting card. Medical records may only be accessed when obtaining
information or documenting is an essential part of your job.
231. The correct answer is B) POMR. A Problem Oriented Medical Record (POMR)
is a method of recording data about the health status of a patient in a problem-
solving system. A problem is defined as anything that causes concern to the
 patient or to the caregiver, including physical abnormalities, psychological
disturbance, and socioeconomic problems. The master problem list usually
includes active, inactive, temporary, and potential problems. The list serves as
an index to the rest of the record and is arranged in five columns: a chronological
list of problems, the date of each problem's onset, the action taken, the outcome
(often its resolution), and the date of the outcome. Problems may be added, and
intervention or plans for intervention may be changed; thus the status of each
problem is available for the information of all members of the various
professions involved in caring for the patient. Patient Centered Medical Home
(PCMH) is a care delivery model whereby patient treatment is coordinated
through their primary care physician to ensure they receive the necessary care
when and where they need it, in a manner they can understand. Blood Borne
Pathogens (BBP) Standard was created by OSHA to reduce and/or eliminate the
occupational hazard to health care workers and others whose duties may put
him or her at risk for contact with human blood or blood associated materials. A
Medication Administration Record (MAR) is the report that serves as a legal
record of the drugs administered to a patient at a facility by a health care
professional. The MAR is a part of a patient's permanent record on their medical
chart.
232. The correct answer is B) A paper chart has been removed from its filing
location. Outguides are a helpful filing system tool to identify and control files
that have been removed from the filing area. When a file is removed or “checked
out “an outguide is used in its place to alert personnel that the file is being used.
Outguides help save time in locating and repositioning files.
233. The correct answer is A) Creating presentations. Microsoft Excel is used to
create spreadsheets. Microsoft Word is used to create documents.
234. The correct answer is A) Associated symptoms. Past medical history may
include allergies.
235. The correct answer is D) Use of black or blue ink is required. Correction fluid
and erasures are never allowed in a medical record. Approved abbreviations
should be used sparingly.
236. The correct answer is A) Source Oriented Medical Record. A source oriented
record is a conventional approach, where data is organized according to its
suppliers or source. The sources could be individuals like physicians or nurses
that are giving the care or even the individual departments or the specialties
within the department that are involved with the care process.
237. The correct answer is C) Name and date of birth. These are the two standard
identifiers for ensuring documentation on the correct patient.
238. The correct answer is C) Good morning. This is Mary in Dr Smith’s office. How
can I assist you?
239. The correct answer is B) Certified. Certified mail requires a signature which
can be used as proof that the letter was received.
240. The correct answer is C) Fold in thirds by folding the bottom up and then top
down.
241. The correct answer is B) Are informal ways to communicate between
departments or sites.
242. The correct answer is D) Is flush with the left margin. Full block style requires
that all paragraphs, dates, addresses, greetings, and salutations start on the left
margin of the page.
243. The correct answer is B) 4 minutes. A 500 word presentation takes
approximately 4 minutes to complete if read at a normal speaking pace.
244. The correct answer is C) 2 lines. The professional letter using full block style
will have 2 blank lines between the inside address and the salutation. There are 4
lines between the date line and inside address.
245. The correct answer is A) CPU. CD-ROM, hard drive, and flash drive are all
methods for memory storage. The central processing unit (CPU) is the electronic
circuitry within a computer that carries out the instructions of a computer
program by performing the basic arithmetic, logical, control and input/output
operations specified by the instructions.
246. The correct answer is D) Allows user to interact with hardware. Computer
software includes computer programs, libraries and related non-executable data,
such as online documentation or digital media. Computer hardware and software
require each other and neither can be realistically used on its own.
247. The correct answer is D) Express mail. Certified mail requires a signature.
Registered mail is prepaid first class mail that is recorded by the post office
before being sent and at each point along its route to safeguard against loss,
theft, or damage. Priority Mail is a quick yet economical shipping service that
provides delivery anywhere in the U.S. within two to three days. Express mail is
a premium service used when next day delivery is required.
248. The correct answer is A) Network. A computer network is a set of computers
connected together for the purpose of sharing resources. The most common
resource shared today is connection to the Internet. Other shared resources can
include a printer or a file server. SharePoint is a web-based, collaborative
platform that integrates with Microsoft Office. It is primarily sold as a
document management and storage system, but the product is highly
configurable and usage varies substantially between organizations. A wiki is a
website on which users collaboratively modify content and structure directly
from the web browser. An intranet is a private network accessible only to an
organization's staff. Generally a wide range of information and services from the
organization's internal IT systems are available that would not be available to
 the public from the Internet. The intranet program that Reliant uses is
Sharepoint.
249. The correct answer is C) Windows. Computer hardware are the physical parts
or components of a computer, such as the monitor, keyboard, computer data
storage, graphic card, sound card and motherboard. By contrast, software is
instructions that can be stored and ran by hardware. Windows is an operating
system developed, marketed, and sold by Microsoft.
250. The correct answer is B) Scanner. A scanner reads and converts printed
material into a format readable by a computer.
251. The correct answer is D) USB drive. A USB flash drive, also variously known
as a thumb drive, pen drive, jump drive, disk key, disk on key, flash-drive,
memory stick or USB memory, is a data storage device that includes flash
memory with an integrated USB interface. It is typically removable, rewritable
and much smaller than an optical disc. The LAN, local area networking, Card is
a device used for computer networking. These devices allow for the
interconnection of computers and similar equipment in the same general area.
URL Drive is a tool that allows you to save or unzip any URL (document, file,
Google Drive file…) directly to Google Drive. A Zip drive is a small, portable
disk drive used primarily for backing up and archiving personal computer files.
252. The correct answer is C) Modem. A modem is a device or program that enables
a computer to transmit data over, for example, telephone or cable lines.
Computer information is stored digitally, whereas information transmitted over
telephone lines is transmitted in the form of analog waves. A modem converts
between these two forms. Random-access memory (RAM) is a form of computer
data storage that stores data and machine code currently being used. A random-
access memory device allows data items to be read or written in almost the same
amount of time irrespective of the physical location of data inside the memory.
A Uniform Resource Locator (URL), colloquially termed a web address, is a
reference to a web resource that specifies its location on a computer network and
a mechanism for retrieving it. A URL is a specific type of Uniform Resource
Identifier (URI), although many people use the two terms interchangeably. A
hard disk drive, hard disk, hard drive or fixed disk is a data storage device that
uses magnetic storage to store and retrieve digital information using one or more
rigid rapidly rotating disks (platters) coated with magnetic material.
253. The correct answer is B) First class mail. First class mail includes cards, letters,
and parcels that weigh 13 ounces or less. It also includes handwritten or
typewritten material, bills, statements of account or invoices, credit cards,
personal correspondence, and all matter sealed or otherwise closed against
inspection.
254. The correct answer is C) 1 billion. One gigabyte is approximately 1 billion
bytes. One kilobyte is 1024 bytes. One megabyte is 1 million bytes. One terabyte
is 1 trillion bytes.
255. The correct answer is B) 1 inch. The most commonly used margin in a business
letter is 1 inch to 1 ¼ inch on all sides. This is the default setting for most word
processing.
256. The correct answer is D) Moves the cursor several spaces forward.
257. The correct answer is C) Salutation. Business letters usually contain 6 parts:
the heading (return address and date), inside address (the address you are
sending the letter to), the greeting or salutation, the body, the complimentary
close, and the signature line.
258. The correct answer is A) Encryption. Unencrypted data, often referred to as
plaintext, is encrypted using an encryption algorithm and an encryption key.
This process generates ciphertext that can only be viewed in its original form if
decrypted with the correct key. A cookie will contain a string of text that
contains information about the browser. To work, a cookie does not need to
know where you are from, it only needs to remember your browser. Some Web
sites use cookies to store more personal information about you. Hypertext is a
software system that links topics on the screen to related information and
graphics, which are typically accessed by a point-and-click method.
259. The correct answer is D) Identifies the address and provides access to
webpages. Portable Document Format (PDF) saves documents in a format that
can’t be altered. JPEG is an example of a method used to save documents such
as photos.
260. The correct answer is B) .edu. The domain name .net is a generic top-level
domain used in the Domain Name System of the Internet. The name is derived
from the word network, indicating it was originally intended for organizations
involved in networking technologies, such as Internet service providers and
other infrastructure companies. The domain name com is a top-level domain in
the Domain Name System of the Internet. Its name is derived from the word
commercial, indicating its original intended purpose for domains registered by
commercial organizations. The domain name org is a generic top-level domain of
the Domain Name System used in the Internet. The name is truncated from
organization. It was one of the original domains established in 1985, and has
been operated by the Public Interest Registry since 2003.
261. The correct answer is D) Google. Windows, macOS, and Linux are operating
systems. Google is an American multinational technology company that
specializes in Internet-related services and products, which include online
advertising technologies, search engine, cloud computing, software, and
hardware.
262. The correct answer is A) ISP. Internet service provider (ISP) is a company
that provides access to the internet. A web browser is a software application for
retrieving, presenting and traversing information resources on the World Wide
Web. The most popular web browsers used today are Mozilla Firefox, Google
Chrome, Microsoft Internet Explorer, Apple Safari and the Opera browser. The
Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) is an application protocol for distributed,
collaborative, and hypermedia information systems. HTTP is the foundation of
data communication for the World Wide Web. TCP/IP, or the Transmission
Control Protocol/Internet Protocol, is a suite of communication protocols used
to interconnect network devices on the internet.
263. The correct answer is A) Determining the appropriate number of tax
exemptions for each employee. Office managers have the responsibility to keep
the office running smoothly by handling employee issues, monitoring inventory,
ensuring customer service excellence, and adequate staffing. Choosing the
amount of tax exemptions for each employee is the responsibility of each
employee.
264. The correct answer is B) Wave scheduling. Wave scheduling has all patients
scheduled for the top of each hour. Patients are seen in the order they arrive in
the office. This allows for small shifts in appointment times if patients arrive
early or late. Time specific scheduling assigns a time for each individual patient.
Double booking is scheduling two patients at the same time in time specific
scheduling. Open scheduling refers to walk in hours with no assigned
appointment times.
265. The correct answer is C) All staff. All staff are responsible for the upkeep of the
practice facilities.
266. The correct answer is B) OSHA. Occupational Safety and Health
Administration’s (OSHA) mission is to "assure safe and healthful working
conditions for working men and women by setting and enforcing standards and
by providing training, outreach, education and assistance". The Centers for
Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) is the nation’s health protection agency.
The World Health Organization’s (WHO) primary role is to direct international
health within the United Nations' system and to lead partners in global health
responses.
267. The correct answer is D) Cluster scheduling. Clustering is when similar
procedures are scheduled on predetermined days or time blocks.
268. The correct answer is D) Identify the diagnosis of the patient. Diagnosing is
within the scope of practice of physicians and not medical assistants.
269. The correct answer is B) Document the cancellation and contact the patient to
reschedule.
270. The correct answer is D) The employer and employee each pay half. FICA
taxes are paid equally by employers and employees. The taxes are based on the
 level of taxable earnings, the length of the payroll period, marital status, and the
number of withholding allowances claimed.
271. The correct answer is A) Subjective, objective, assessment, and plan. The
subjective component is the patient's chief complaint. This is a very brief
statement of the patient (quoted) as to the purpose of the office visit or
hospitalization. The objective section of the SOAP includes information that the
healthcare provider observes or measures from the patient's current
presentation. The objective component includes: vital signs and measurements,
findings from physical examinations and results from laboratory and other
diagnostic tests already completed. The assessment portion includes a medical
diagnosis on the given date of the note. The assessment will also include possible
and likely causes of the patient's problem. It is the patient's progress since the
last visit, and overall progress towards the patient's goal from the physician's
perspective. The plan is what the health care provider will do to treat the
patient's concerns - such as ordering further labs, radiological work up, referrals
given, procedures performed, medications given and education provided.
272. The correct answer is D) Injured tissue or skin marked by bruising. A skin tear
is a laceration. A scraping of the skin is an abrasion. A small entry hole breaking
the integrity of the skin is a puncture wound.
273. The correct answer is C) Shaking the patient and asking if they are okay.
274. The correct answer is B) 100-120 per minute. The 2015 AHA Guidelines
increased the rate from at least 100 per minute to 100-120 per minute.
275. The correct answer is C) Question the patient about known allergies and any
symptoms they may be experiencing. It is not yet known if this is an emergency
or if the patient is allergic.
276. The correct answer is A) between 10AM and 2PM.
277. The correct answer is B) Stroke. F stands for face- Ask the person to smile.
Does one side of the face droop? A stands for arms- Ask the person to raise both
arms. Does one arm drift downward? S stands for speech- Ask the person to
repeat a simple phrase. Is their speech slurred or strange? T stands for time- If
you observe any of these signs, call 9-1-1 immediately.
278. The correct answer is C) Assess amount of body surface that has been burned.

279. The correct answer is D) Move the patient to an open area where injury is less
likely to occur. Restraining the patient may lead to injury of the patient or
yourself. Nothing should be placed in the mouth until the patient has regained
full consciousness.
280. The correct answer is A) Vomiting. Common symptoms of a minor head injury
include: a headache, lightheadedness, a spinning sensation, mild confusion,
nausea, and temporary ringing in the ears. The symptoms of a severe head
injury include many of the symptoms of minor head injuries. They can also
include: a loss of consciousness, seizures, vomiting, balance or coordination
problems, serious disorientation, an inability to focus the eyes, abnormal eye
movements, a loss of muscle control, a persistent or worsening headache,
memory loss, changes in mood, and leaking of clear fluid from the ear or the
nose.
281. The correct answer is C) Anaphylactic. Anaphylaxis is a severe, potentially
life-threatening allergic reaction. It can occur within seconds or minutes of
exposure to something you're allergic to, such as peanuts or bee stings.
Anaphylaxis causes your immune system to release a flood of chemicals that can
 cause you to go into shock- your blood pressure drops suddenly and your
airways narrow, blocking breathing. Cardiogenic shock is a condition in which
your heart suddenly can't pump enough blood to meet your body's needs. The
condition is most often caused by a severe heart attack, but not everyone who
has a heart attack has cardiogenic shock.
282. The correct answer is C) Charred skin which may be numb. First-degree burns
are considered mild compared to other burns. They result in pain and reddening
of the epidermis (outer layer of the skin). Second-degree burns (partial thickness
burns) affect the epidermis and the dermis (lower layer of skin). They cause pain,
redness, swelling, and blistering. Third-degree burns (full thickness burns) go
through the dermis and affect deeper tissues. They result in white or blackened,
charred skin that may be numb. Fourth degree burns may extend to muscle,
tendon, and bone.
283. The correct answer is B) Apply pressure to the brachial artery. The goal is to
reduce the bleeding without impacting circulation in the extremity.
284. The correct answer is A) Inadequate oxygenation. Cyanosis is defined as the
bluish or purplish discoloration of the skin or mucous membranes due to the
tissues near the skin surface having low oxygen saturation.
285. The correct answer is C) Diaphoresis. Hyperemesis is excessive vomiting and
may occur during some pregnancies. Anhidrosis is the inability to sweat
adequately. This can lead to overheating and sometimes heat stroke. Vitiligo is a
condition in which the skin loses its pigment cells (melanocytes). This can result
in discolored patches in different areas of the body, including the skin, hair,
retina and mucous membranes.
286. The correct answer is B) Every 2 years.
287. The correct answer is C) Provide fast acting carbohydrates such as candy or
soda to increase her blood sugar. Normal fasting blood sugar is considered to be
70-99. Low blood sugar is less than 70 and elevated blood sugar is 100 or higher.
A blood sugar less than 70 may need to be treated by feeding a fast acting
carbohydrate.
288. The correct answer is B) TIA. Cerebral Vascular Accident (CVA) is a stroke.
Myocardial Infarction (MI) is a heart attack. Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis
(ALS) is a degenerative neuromuscular disease. Transient Ischemic Attack (TIA)
is like a stroke, producing similar symptoms, but usually lasting only a few
minutes and causing no permanent damage. Often called a mini stroke, a
transient ischemic attack may be a warning. About 1 in 3 people who have a
transient ischemic attack will eventually have a stroke, with about half
occurring within a year after the transient ischemic attack.
289. The correct answer is C) Excessive fluid loss. Hypovolemic shock is most often
the result of blood loss after a major blood vessel bursts or from a serious injury.
This is called hemorrhagic shock. You can also get it from heavy bleeding
 related to pregnancy, from burns, or even from severe vomiting and diarrhea.
It's always considered a life-threatening emergency.
290. The correct answer is B) Incise the affected area. RICE is a mnemonic for four
elements of treatment for soft tissue injuries – an acronym for Rest, Ice,
Compression and Elevation. RICE is considered a first-aid treatment, rather
than a cure for soft tissue injuries. The aim is to manage discomfort and internal
bleeding.
291. The correct answer is D) Perform the Heimlich maneuver. Turning blue
indicates a significant blockage of the airway. The Heimlich should be
performed.
292. The correct answer is B) Epinephrine. Aspirin is a non-steroidal anti-
inflammatory drug used to treat pain, fever, or inflammation. Furosemide
(Lasix) is a diuretic and is used to treat excessive fluid accumulation and
swelling (edema) of the body caused by heart failure, cirrhosis, chronic kidney
failure, and nephrotic syndrome. Nitroglycerine is a vasodilator, a medicine that
opens blood vessels to improve blood flow. It is used to treat angina symptoms,
such as chest pain or pressure that happens when there is not enough blood
flowing to the heart. Epinephrine injection is used along with emergency medical
treatment to treat life-threatening allergic reactions caused by insect bites or
stings, foods, medications, latex, and other causes. Epinephrine is in a class of
medications called alpha- and beta-adrenergic agonists (sympathomimetic
agents). It works by relaxing the muscles in the airways and tightening the
blood vessels.
293. The correct answer is B) Narcan. Naloxone, sold under the brand name Narcan
among others, is a medication used to block the effects of opioids, especially in
overdose. Oxycodone is an opioid and would worsen the patient’s condition.
294. The correct answer is D) Colle’s fracture. A Colles' fracture is a type of fracture
of the distal forearm in which the broken end of the radius is bent backwards.
Symptoms may include pain, swelling, deformity, and bruising. It typically
occurs as a result of a fall on an outstretched hand. A compound fracture is an
injury in which a broken bone pierces the skin, causing a risk of infection. Spiral
fracture occurs when a rotating force is applied along the axis of a bone.
Greenstick fracture is a fracture of the bone, occurring typically in children, in
which one side of the bone is broken and the other only bent.
295. The correct answer is A) Rinse the area with water.
296. The correct answer is A) Brachial. An infant's pulse is checked at the brachial
artery, which is located inside of the upper arm, between the elbow and the
shoulder.
297. The correct answer is D) Have been proven harmful during pregnancy.

298. The correct answer is B) Schedule 2. Schedule I drugs are defined as drugs with
no currently accepted medical use and a high potential for abuse. An example of
a Schedule I drug is heroin. Schedule II drugs are defined as drugs with a high
potential for abuse which may lead to severe psychological or physical
dependence. These drugs are also considered dangerous. Some examples of
Schedule II drugs are: combination products with less than 15 milligrams of
hydrocodone per dosage unit (Vicodin), cocaine, methamphetamine, methadone,
hydromorphone (Dilaudid), meperidine (Demerol), oxycodone (OxyContin),
fentanyl, Dexedrine, Adderall, and Ritalin. Schedule III drugs are defined as
drugs with a moderate to low potential for physical and psychological
dependence. Schedule III drugs’ abuse potential is less than Schedule I and
Schedule II drugs but more than Schedule IV. Some examples of Schedule III
drugs are: products containing less than 90 milligrams of codeine per dosage unit
(Tylenol with codeine), ketamine, anabolic steroids, and testosterone. Schedule
IV drugs are defined as drugs with a low potential for abuse and low risk of
dependence. Some examples of Schedule IV drugs are: Xanax, Soma, Darvon,
Darvocet, Valium, Ativan, Talwin, Ambien, and Tramadol. Schedule V drugs
are defined as drugs with lower potential for abuse than Schedule IV and consist
of preparations containing limited quantities of certain narcotics. Schedule V
drugs are generally used for antidiarrheal, antitussive, and analgesic purposes.
Some examples of Schedule V drugs are: cough preparations with less than 200
milligrams of codeine per 100 milliliters (Robitussin AC), Lomotil, Motofen,
Lyrica, and Parepectolin.
299. The correct answer is D) 0.5. The decimal point must be moved 3 places to the
right to convert from grams to milligrams. The units from gram to milligram are
decigram, centigram, and milligram.
300. The correct answer is B) Lisinopril. Simvastatin is used to treat high
cholesterol. Acetaminophen is used to treat pain or fever. Zofran is used to treat
nausea and vomiting.
301. The correct answer is A) Antipsychotic. Calcium channel blockers are used to
treat high blood pressure. Histamine blockers are used to treat allergy and
sometimes GERD. Cathartics cause purging and/or defecation.
302. The correct answer is A) Sertraline. Sertraline is the generic name for Zoloft.
Omeprazole is the generic name for Prilosec. It is used to treat GERD.
Loratadine is the generic name for Claritin. It is used to treat allergies.
Pravastatin is the generic name for Pravachol. It is used to treat high
cholesterol.
303. The correct answer is C) DEA. One of the responsibilities of the Drug
Enforcement Administration (DEA) is enforcement of the provisions of the
Controlled Substances Act as they pertain to the manufacture, distribution, and
dispensing of legally produced controlled substances. AMA stands for American
Medical Association. The AMA is an organization for doctors. Their mission is to
promote the art and science of medicine and the betterment of public health.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) is responsible for protecting the
public health by ensuring the safety, efficacy, and security of human and
veterinary drugs, biological products, and medical devices; and by ensuring the
safety of our nation's food supply, cosmetics, and products that emit radiation.
One meaning of the abbreviation CBA is cost benefit analysis.
304. The correct answer is C) 45 degrees. Intradermal injections are given at
approximately 5-15 degrees angle. Intramuscular injections are given at 90
degrees angle.
305. The correct answer is C) Smaller than a 20 gauge 5/8 inch needle. Average
adults require 1-1 ½” needle for a deep intramuscular injection. 5/8” needles are
often used for subcutaneous injections. The larger the number of the gauge, the
smaller the lumen of the needle. For example, a 26 gauge needle is much smaller
than an 18 gauge needle.
306. The correct answer is D) Injected directly into the body. The common
parenteral routes are intramuscular (IM), subcutaneous (SC) and intravenous
(IV).
307. The correct answer is A) Pull the lower lid down and place the drop in the
conjunctival space. Tightly closing the eyes may limit absorption and
distribution. The patient should be encouraged to blink several times after the
drop is instilled. The tip of the container should never touch the surface of the
eye or surrounding tissues. Aiming the drop at the outer canthus of the eye
increases the likelihood of the drop running down the face instead of staying in
the eye.
308. The correct answer is A) Tuberculosis skin testing. Insulin is given as a SC
injection. Most vaccines are either SC or IM. EpiPen or EpiPen Jr is injected
intramuscularly or subcutaneously into the anterolateral aspect of the thigh.
309. The correct answer is D) 20 mL. 5mg/2 mL= 50 mg/x; 5x=100; X=20.
310. The correct answer is D) Weight. To properly dose a pediatric patient it is
important to know the patient’s age and weight.
311. The correct answer is D) 4200 mg. The abbreviation t.i.d. stands for three
times daily. 200 mg X 3 doses daily = 600 mg. 600 mg daily X 7 days = 4200 mg.
312. The correct answer is A) Read the volume at eye level. If the volume required
is not marked on the medicine cup, a syringe would be recommended.
313. The correct answer is A) Elixir. A solution is a liquid mixture in which the
solute (may be a drug) is uniformly distributed within the dissolving liquid.
Spirits and tinctures are usually solutions that use alcohol as the dissolving
liquid.
314. The correct answer is C) Anticoagulant. Hemolytic means the rupture or
destruction of red blood cells. Antibiotics are medications that kill or prevent the
spread of bacteria. A hemostatic drug is a specific type of antihemorrhagic agent
that works by contracting tissue to seal injured blood vessels. An example is a
dressing impregnated with quick clotting material.
315. The correct answer is C) Patient. The standard 5 Rights of Medication are:
right drug, right dose, right time, right route, and right patient. The 5 standard
rights have been broadened and may include rights such as: right allergy check,
right to refuse, right education, right documentation, and right assessment or
evaluation.
316. The correct answer is C) How a drug is processed and cleared from the body.
Antagonism is blocking or reducing the effectiveness of a drug. Distribution is
how a drug is absorbed into the blood stream. Synergism is causing an increase
in the effects of one or more drugs.
317. The correct answer is C) One thousandth of a unit. Deci- is one tenth of a unit.
Centi- is one hundredth of a unit. Micro- is one millionth of a unit.
318. The correct answer is B) DAW. DAW means Dispense As Written. Pharmacies
are generally required to use generics or the least expensive version of the
prescribed drug. However, there are times when a prescriber intends for the
beneficiary to receive the drug exactly as it is written on the prescription (e.g., to
get the brand-name version of a drug).
319. The correct answer is C) ½ tablet twice daily for 10 days. The abbreviation ss
refers to half. The abbreviation b.i.d. stands for twice daily.
320. The correct answer is D) At bedtime. The abbreviation for before meals is ac.
The abbreviation for after meals is pc.
321. The correct answer is A) Transdermal. A transdermal patch is a medicated
adhesive patch that is placed on the skin to deliver a specific dose of medication
through the skin and into the bloodstream. Often, this promotes healing to an
injured area of the body. Intradermal injection is the injection of a substance
into the dermis, just below the epidermis. This route has the longest absorption
time as compared to subcutaneous injections and intramuscular injections. As a
 result, it is used for sensitivity tests, like tuberculin and allergy tests, and for
local anesthesia. A topical medication is a medication that is applied to a
particular place on or in the body. Most often topical administration means
application to body surfaces such as the skin or mucous membranes to treat
ailments via a large range of classes including creams, foams, gels, lotions, and
ointments.
322. The correct answer is C) Allergy to the medication. The other choices may be
important to the patient (or the practice) but allergy to the medication could
potentially cause a life threatening condition.
323. The correct answer is A) To prevent illness in the event of a potential exposure.
An example of this is prophylactic use of azithromycin for staff who had
unprotected contact with a patient in which pertussis was confirmed.
324. The correct answer is C) Be dedicated to the storage of vaccine and
medications only. Vaccine and medication refrigerators and freezers must have
their temperatures monitored and recorded at least twice daily. They must be
located in a locked area with limited access. They are not provided by the state
supplying the vaccines.
325. The correct answer is D) Anti-hypertensive. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory
agents can reduce fever, ease pain, and reduce inflammation.
326. The correct answer is A) Intravenous. Intravenous medications are delivered
directly into the bloodstream.
327. The correct answer is C) Are coated to be absorbed lower in the GI tract.
Because of the coating, enteric drugs are released more slowly after ingestion.
Enteric medications may not be crushed or dissolved under the tongue.
328. The correct answer is B) Hepatitis B. Medical groups such as the American
Academy of Pediatrics, the American Academy of Family Physicians, the
American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists, and the Centers for
Disease Control and Prevention recommend that every baby get hepatitis B
vaccine within the first 24 hours of birth.
329. The correct answer is B) DEA number. A DEA number is a number assigned
to a health care provider by the US Drug Enforcement Administration allowing
them to write prescriptions for controlled substances. The DEA number is
composed of 2 letters followed by a 7 digit number.
330. The correct answer is B) Sildenafil. Sildenafil is the generic name for Viagra, a
drug used for erectile dysfunction.
331. The correct answer is C) Depression. Sertraline is the generic name for Zoloft.
332. The correct answer is C) The deltoid. The abdominal wall, intradermal tissue,
and the triceps are not appropriate sites for IM injections.
333. The correct answer is D) Motrin. Aspirin may also be called acetylsalicylic
acid. The generic name for Naprosyn is naproxen. The generic name for Tylenol
is acetaminophen.
334. The correct answer is D) Antidote. Antipyretic is a fever reducer.
Antineoplastic drugs are used primarily in cancer treatment. Antiemetics treat
nausea and vomiting.
335. The correct answer is C) Anticonvulsants. Analgesics relieve pain. Antibiotics
fight bacterial infections. Antidotes reverse the effects of other drugs.
Anticonvulsants treat seizures.
336. The correct answer is B) “Sorry. No. I didn’t prepare it.” Medications and
vaccines should only be administered by the person preparing them.
337. The correct answer is A) Lot number and expiration date.
338. The correct answer is C) HgbA1C. The A1C test is a blood test that provides
information about a person’s average levels of blood glucose over the past 3
months. The A1C test is sometimes called the hemoglobin A1c, HbA1c, or
glycohemoglobin test. The A1C test is the primary test used for diabetes
management and diabetes research.
339. The correct answer is A) Reducing blood volume by increasing urination. All of
the choices are effects of different classes of blood pressure medication. Diuretics
work by removing extra fluid from the body thereby decreasing blood volume
and lowering blood pressure.
340. The correct answer is B) Should be seen by a physician even if not concerning.
Moles may become malignant though are not contagious. They are graded based
on the ABCDE criteria (asymmetry, border, color, diameter, and elevation).
341. The correct answer is D) Can lead to rheumatic fever. Strep throat is caused by
bacteria known as Streptococcus pyogenes (also known as group A
streptococcus). It is highly contagious and can spread through airborne droplets
when someone with the infection coughs or sneezes, or through shared food or
drinks. Bacterial infections are rarely treated prophylactically. Untreated strep
throat can lead to rheumatic fever.
342. The correct answer is A) Nasal packing. Epistaxis is another term for
nosebleed.
343. The correct answer is C) Wart.
344. The correct answer is C) Aspirin. Reye's syndrome is a rare disorder that causes
brain and liver damage. Although it can happen at any age, it is most often seen
in children. Reye’s syndrome usually occurs in children who have had a recent
viral infection, such as chickenpox or the flu. Taking aspirin to treat such an
infection greatly increases the risk of Reye’s.
345. The correct answer is B) Cystic Fibrosis. Cystic fibrosis is a progressive, genetic
disease that causes persistent lung infections and limits the ability to breathe
over time. In people with CF, a defective gene causes a thick, sticky buildup of
mucus in the lungs, pancreas, and other organs. In the lungs, the mucus clogs
the airways and traps bacteria leading to infections, extensive lung damage, and
eventually, respiratory failure. In the pancreas, the mucus prevents the release
 of digestive enzymes that allow the body to break down food and absorb vital
nutrients. Cholelithiasis is the presence of gallstones. Rheumatoid arthritis is an
autoimmune disorder. It occurs when your immune system mistakenly attacks
your own body's tissues. Unlike the wear-and-tear damage of osteoarthritis,
rheumatoid arthritis affects the lining of your joints, causing a painful swelling
that can eventually result in bone erosion and joint deformity. Lupus
erythematosus is also an autoimmune disease. Symptoms can vary and can
change over time and include: severe fatigue, joint pain, joint swelling,
headaches, a rash on the cheeks and nose (which is called a “butterfly rash”),
hair loss, anemia, blood-clotting problems, fingers turning white or blue and
tingling when cold (which is known as Raynaud’s phenomenon), and other
symptoms depending on the part of the body the disease is attacking, such as
the digestive tract, the heart, or the skin.
346. The correct answer is B) Bacterial infections. Antibiotics only treat bacterial
infection. They cannot treat viral, fungal, or prion infections.
347. The correct answer is A) Cystoscopy. Cystoscopy is a procedure that allows
your doctor to examine the lining of your bladder and the urethra). A cystoscope
equipped with a lens is inserted into your urethra and slowly advanced into your
bladder. Cystoscopy is used to diagnose, monitor and treat conditions affecting
the bladder and urethra. Colonoscopy is a procedure that allows the doctor to
examine the large intestine. Cystorrhaphy is the suture of a wound, injury, or
rupture in the urinary bladder. Cholecystectomy is the surgical removal of the
gall bladder.
348. The correct answer is A) Migraine. A migraine is a primary headache disorder
characterized by recurrent headaches that are moderate to severe. Typically, the
headaches affect one half of the head, are pulsating in nature, and last from two
to 72 hours. Associated symptoms may include nausea, vomiting, and sensitivity
to light, sound, or smell. Cluster headache is a rare primary headache disorder
that consists of severe headaches on one side of the head associated with red or
teary eyes, runny or stuffy nose, flushing or sweating of the face or a sense of
restlessness and agitation.
349. The correct answer is B) Young women. Endometriosis is an often painful
disorder in which tissue that normally lines the inside of the uterus
(endometrium) grows outside the uterus. Endometriosis most commonly
involves the ovaries, fallopian tubes and the tissue lining the pelvis. Rarely,
endometrial tissue may spread beyond pelvic organs. With endometriosis,
displaced endometrial tissue continues to act as it normally would — it thickens,
breaks down and bleeds with each menstrual cycle. Because this displaced tissue
has no way to exit your body, it becomes trapped. When endometriosis involves
the ovaries, cysts called endometriomas may form. Surrounding tissue can
become irritated, eventually developing scar tissue and adhesions — abnormal
 bands of fibrous tissue that can cause pelvic tissues and organs to stick to each
other. Fertility problems also may develop.
350. The correct answer is D) Appendicitis. The classic symptom of appendicitis is
dull pain near the navel or the upper abdomen that becomes sharp as it moves to
the lower right abdomen. This is usually the first sign. Cholecystitis is
inflammation of the gall bladder. Severe pain in the upper right or center
abdomen or pain that spreads to the right shoulder or back are symptoms of
cholecystitis. The pleura is a thin membrane that lines the surface of the lungs
and the inside of the chest wall outside the lungs. In pleural effusions, fluid
builds up in the space between the layers of pleura. The pain associated with
pleural effusion is located in the chest. It tends to intensify as deep breaths are
taken in. Gastric (or peptic) ulcers are open sores that develop on the inside
lining of the stomach and the upper portion of the small intestine. The most
common symptom of a peptic ulcer is stomach pain.
351. The correct answer is B) Maintaining strong bones and teeth. Calcium is an
essential element needed in large quantities. Calcium acts as an electrolyte and is
vital to the health of the muscular, circulatory, and digestive systems; is
indispensable to the building of bone; and supports synthesis and function of
blood cells. It regulates the contraction of muscles, nerve conduction, and the
clotting of blood. In humans, sodium is an essential mineral that regulates blood
volume, blood pressure, osmotic equilibrium and pH. Phosphorus plays a major
role in the structural framework of DNA and RNA. Living cells use phosphate
to transport cellular energy with adenosine triphosphate (ATP), necessary for
every cellular process that uses energy.
352. The correct answer is A) Vitamin K. Vitamin K plays a key role in helping the
blood clot, preventing excessive bleeding. Vitamin E is an important vitamin
required for the proper function of many organs in the body. It is also an
antioxidant. This means it helps to slow down processes that damage cells.
Vitamin A is involved in immune function, vision, reproduction, and cellular
communication. It is critical for vision and also supports cell growth and
differentiation, playing a critical role in the normal formation and maintenance
of the heart, lungs, kidneys, and other organs. The B vitamins are B1
(thiamine), B2 (riboflavin), B3 (niacin), B5 (pantothenic acid), B6, B7 (biotin),
B12, and folic acid. These vitamins help the process your body uses to get or
make energy from the food you eat. They also help form red blood cells.
353. The correct answer is B) Scurvy. Scurvy is a disease resulting from a lack of
vitamin C. Early symptoms include weakness, feeling tired, and sore arms and
legs. Without treatment, decreased red blood cells, gum disease, changes to hair,
and bleeding from the skin may occur. As scurvy worsens there can be poor
wound healing, personality changes, and finally death from infection or
bleeding. Rickets is a condition that results in weak or soft bones in children.
 Symptoms include bowed legs, stunted growth, bone pain, large forehead, and
trouble sleeping. Complications may include bone fractures, muscle spasms, an
abnormally curved spine, or intellectual disability. The most common cause is
vitamin D deficiency. Osteoporosis causes bones to become weak and brittle —
so brittle that a fall or even mild stresses such as bending over or coughing can
cause a fracture. Osteoporosis-related fractures most commonly occur in the hip,
wrist or spine. Bone is living tissue that is constantly being broken down and
replaced. Osteoporosis occurs when the creation of new bone doesn't keep up
with the removal of old bone. Osteoporosis affects men and women of all races.
But white and Asian women — especially older women who are past menopause
— are at highest risk. Medications, healthy diet and weight-bearing exercise can
help prevent bone loss or strengthen already weak bones.
354. The correct answer is A) Carbohydrates. Carbohydrates, proteins, and fats are
the keys nutrients. All three provide energy (measured in calories), but the
amount of energy in 1 gram differs: 4 calories in a gram of carbohydrate or
protein versus 9 calories in a gram of fat. These nutrients also differ in how
quickly they supply energy. Carbohydrates are the quickest, and fats are the
slowest. Carbohydrates, proteins, and fats are digested in the intestine, where
they are broken down into their basic units: Carbohydrates into sugars, Proteins
into amino acids, and Fats into fatty acids and glycerol. The body uses these
basic units to build substances it needs for growth, maintenance, and activity.
355. The correct answer is B) Normal weight. The BMI is an attempt to quantify
the amount of tissue mass (muscle, fat, and bone) in an individual, and then
categorize that person as underweight, normal weight, overweight, or obese
based on that value. Commonly accepted BMI ranges are underweight: under
18.5 kg/m2, normal weight: 18.5 to 25, overweight: 25 to 30, obese: over 30.
356. The correct answer is D) Vitamin A.
357. The correct answer is C) Folic acid. Women who are pregnant or might become
pregnant take folic acid to prevent miscarriage and “neural tube defects,” birth
defects such as spina bifida that occur when the fetus’s spine and back do not
close during development.
358. The correct answer is C) Virus. Hepatitis refers to an inflammatory condition
of the liver. It's most commonly caused by a viral infection, but there are other
possible causes of hepatitis. These include autoimmune hepatitis and hepatitis
that occurs as a secondary result of medications, drugs, toxins, and alcohol.
359. The correct answer is B) Otitis media. Otitis media is any inflammation of the
middle ear. It is very common in children. Hashimoto's disease is the most
common cause of hypothyroidism in the United States. Tinnitus is the
perception of noise or ringing in the ears. It's a symptom of an underlying
condition, such as age-related hearing loss, ear injury or a circulatory system
disorder. Ménière's disease is a disorder of the inner ear that is characterized by
 episodes of feeling like the world is spinning (vertigo), ringing in the ears
(tinnitus), hearing loss, and a fullness in the ear.
360. The correct answer is B) Atherosclerosis. Atherosclerosis is a disease in which
the inside of an artery narrows due to the buildup of plaque. Initially, there are
generally no symptoms. When severe, it can result in coronary artery disease,
stroke, peripheral artery disease, or kidney problems depending on the arteries
which are affected.
361. The correct answer is D) Vitamin B12. Pernicious anemia is defined as a type
of vitamin B12 deficiency that results from impaired uptake of vitamin B-12 due
to the lack of a substance known as intrinsic factor (IF) produced by the
stomach lining. Vitamin B12 helps the body make healthy red blood cells and
helps keep nerve cells healthy. It is found in animal foods, including meat, fish,
eggs, milk, and other dairy products.
362. The correct answer is A) LDL. There are two types of cholesterol: "bad" and
"good." LDL cholesterol is the bad kind. HDL is the good kind. Too much of the
bad kind — or not enough of the good kind — increases the chances that
cholesterol will start to slowly build up in the inner walls of arteries that feed the
heart and brain. Triglycerides are the most common type of fat in the body; they
store excess energy from your diet. A high triglyceride level combined with low
HDL cholesterol or high LDL cholesterol is linked with fatty buildups in artery
walls. This increases the risk of heart attack and stroke.
363. The correct answer is B) Low potassium. Low calcium is hypocalcemia. High
calcium is hypercalcemia. High potassium is hyperkalemia.
364. The correct answer is D) 9 calories.
365. The correct answer is D) Vitamin C. Vitamins A, D, and E are all fat soluble.
366. The correct answer is C) Riboflavin.
367. The correct answer is D) Auscultation. Inspection is the use of one’s senses of
vision and smell to consciously observe the patient. Palpation is the act of
touching a patient to elicit information. Percussion is the technique of striking
one object against another to cause vibrations that produce sound. The density
of underlying structures produces characteristic sounds. These sounds are
diagnostic of normal and abnormal findings. The presence of air, fluid, and solids
can be confirmed, as can organ size, shape, and position. Auscultation is the act
of active listening to body organs to gather information on a patient’s clinical
status. Auscultation includes listening to sounds that are produced by the body.
368. The correct answer is C) Percussion.
369. The correct answer is C) Lithotomy. Knee-chest position is a prone position in
which the individual rests on the knees and upper part of the chest, assumed for
gynecologic or rectal examination. Lithotomy position is a common position for
surgical procedures and examinations involving the pelvis and lower abdomen,
as well as a common position for childbirth in Western nations. The lithotomy
 position involves the positioning of an individual's feet above or at the same
level as the hips (often in stirrups), with the perineum positioned at the edge of
an examination table. Supine means lying flat on your back with face and torso
up.

370. The correct answer is C) The electrical activity of the heart. An

electrocardiogram — abbreviated as EKG or ECG — is a test that measures the
electrical activity of the heartbeat. With each beat, an electrical impulse (or
“wave”) travels through the heart. This wave causes the muscle to squeeze and
pump blood from the heart. A normal heartbeat on ECG will show the timing of
the top and lower chambers.
371. The correct answer is B) 10 electrodes. In a 12-lead ECG, there are 12 leads
calculated using 10 electrodes. A lead is a glimpse of the electrical activity of the
heart from a particular angle. Put simply, a lead is like a perspective. In 12-lead
ECG, there are 10 electrodes providing 12 perspectives of the heart's activity
using different angles through two electrical planes - vertical and horizontal

planes.

372. The correct answer is A) Impulse leaving the SA node causing atrial
contraction. The P wave in the ECG represents atrial depolarization, which
results in atrial contraction, or atrial systole. The QRS complex represents
ventricular depolarization. The T wave represents ventricular repolarization.
The U wave represents papillary muscle repolarization.
373. The correct answer is A) QT interval. The QT interval represents electrical
depolarization and repolarization of the ventricles. The QT interval is dependent
on the heart rate in an obvious way (i.e., the faster the heart rate, the shorter
the R–R interval and QT interval).
374. The correct answer is D) Cushing’s syndrome. Addison's disease, also known as
primary adrenal insufficiency and hypocortisolism, is a long-term endocrine
disorder in which the adrenal glands do not produce enough steroid hormones.
Symptoms generally come on slowly and may include abdominal pain, weakness,
and weight loss. Treatment involves replacing the absent hormones. This
involves taking a corticosteroid such as hydrocortisone and fludrocortisone.
Pheochromocytoma is a neuroendocrine tumor of the medulla of the adrenal
glands that secretes high amounts of catecholamines, mostly norepinephrine,
plus epinephrine to a lesser extent. A pheochromocytoma can cause resistant
hypertension. A pheochromocytoma can be fatal if it causes a hypertensive
emergency. Diabetes insipidus (DI) is a condition characterized by large
amounts of dilute urine and increased thirst. It can be caused by a lack of the
hormone vasopressin (antidiuretic hormone), inability of the kidneys to respond
to vasopressin, abnormal thirst mechanisms in the brain, or occasionally with
pregnancy. Cushing's syndrome is caused by either excessive cortisol-like
medication such as prednisone or a tumor that either produces or results in the
production of excessive cortisol by the adrenal glands. Glucose intolerance may
be one of the symptoms.
375. The correct answer is B) Type 2 diabetes mellitus. Diabetes insipidus occurs
when the kidneys are unable to concentrate the urine. Type 1 diabetes mellitus,
once known as juvenile diabetes or insulin-dependent diabetes, is a chronic
condition in which the pancreas produces little or no insulin. Insulin is a
hormone needed to allow sugar (glucose) to enter cells to produce energy.
 Different factors, including genetics and some viruses, may contribute to type 1
diabetes. Although type 1 diabetes usually appears during childhood or
adolescence, it can develop in adults. Type 2 diabetes is the most common form
of diabetes. If you have type 2 diabetes your body does not use insulin properly.
This is called insulin resistance. At first, your pancreas makes extra insulin to
make up for it. But, over time it isn't able to keep up and can't make enough
insulin to keep your blood glucose at normal levels.
376. The correct answer is C) A sugary drink. For eight hours before the test, the
patient is fasting. A fasting sample of blood is first taken. This blood sample will
be used to measure the fasting blood glucose level. Then a syrupy glucose
solution is consumed and blood glucose is checked at specified periods after
consumption.
377. The correct answer is A) Creatine. Urine sticks typically test for glucose,
bilirubin, ketone, specific gravity hemoglobin, pH, protein, urobilinogen,
nitrites, and leukocytes.
378. The correct answer is B) Dehydration. Fluid overload would typically produce
a dilute, light colored urine. Urinary tract infection infections usually present as
cloudy, foul smelling samples. There may even be obvious blood. In nephrotic
syndrome, large amounts of protein is spilled in the urine. This urine is usually
frothy.
379. The correct answer is C) Urinary tract infection.
380. The correct answer is C) Parasites. Common symptoms of intestinal parasites
and worms are: abdominal pain, diarrhea, nausea, or vomiting, gas/bloating,
fatigue, unexplained weight loss, and abdominal pain or tenderness. One way to
become infected with intestinal parasites and worms is eating undercooked meat
from an infected animal, such as a cow, pig, or fish. Other possible causes leading
to intestinal worm infection include: consumption of contaminated water,
consumption of contaminated soil, contact with contaminated feces, poor
sanitation, and poor hygiene. Red blood cells may be present in stool due to
hemorrhoids, GI ulcers, cancer, diverticulitis, and other problems. Stool in
people with poor nutritional absorption and/or fatty diets may be foul smelling
and oily in appearance.
381. The correct answer is D) From a clean urine collection hat. Stool should not be
mixed with water, urine, or toilet paper.
382. The correct answer is B) Phlebotomy. Phlebotomy is performed a
venipuncture.
383. The correct answer is D) Rectal temperature of 39 degrees C. Rectal
temperatures are about 1 degree warmer than oral temperatures so 99.6 rectally
would be 98.6 orally. Axillary temperatures are about 1 degree cooler than oral
temperatures so 97.6 axillary would be 98.6 orally. 37 degrees C is equivalent to
 98.6 F. 39 degrees C is equivalent to 102.2 F. This rectal temperature would be
equal to an oral temperature of 101.2 F, a fever.
384. The correct answer is C) Demonstrating how to operate the machine and then
having the patient perform a return demonstration. Adults learn in different
ways. Some may visual learners and learn best by seeing something. Others may
be auditory learners and learn best by hearing. Many are often kinesthetic
learners who learn best by doing. The best retention tends to be visual, auditory,
and kinesthetic which is what occurs when we demonstrate a technique to a
patient and then have them do a return demonstration.
385. The correct answer is A) Starts out fast and decreases with age. Neonates may
have a pulse as rapid as 160 beats/minute. The heart rate decreases with age
with the average adult pulse normalizing to between 60-100 beats/minute.
386. The correct answer is C) Tachypnea. Dyspnea is difficult breathing. Orthopnea
is difficult breathing that is improved when sitting up. Tachypnea is rapid
breathing (often occurs when anxious, hyperventilation). Bradypnea is a slow
rate of breathing.
387. The correct answer is C) 148/92. Hypertension is usually defined as a blood
pressure greater than 140/90.
388. The correct answer is A) Weight. Anthropomorphic measurements are used to
assess the size, shape and composition of the human body, such as BMI, waist-
to-hip ratio, skin-fold test and bioelectrical impedance.
389. The correct answer is B) Skin elasticity. A decrease in skin turgor is indicated
when the skin (on the back of the hand for an adult or on the abdomen for a
child) is pulled up for a few seconds and does not return to its original state. A
decrease in skin turgor is a late sign of dehydration.

390. The correct answer is B) 0.04 seconds long and 1 mm tall. ECG paper is a grid
where time is measured along the horizontal axis. Each small square is 1 mm in
length and represents 0.04 seconds. Each larger square is 5 mm in length and
represents 0.2 seconds.
391. The correct answer is A) Move the injured leg ahead at the same time as the
crutches. Three-point gait is that in which both crutches and the affected leg are
advanced together and then the normal leg is moved forward.

392. The correct answer is C) Volume of inhaled and exhaled air. A spirometer is an
apparatus for measuring the volume of air inspired and expired by the lungs.
The spirogram will identify two different types of abnormal ventilation patterns,
obstructive and restrictive. Oxygen in the blood stream can be measured by a
pulse oximeter.
393. The correct answer is B) Present illness. Chief complaint is usually the main
reason for today’s visit or call. Past medical history can be defined as the
patient's past experiences with illnesses, operations, injuries and treatments.
Social history is an age-appropriate review of past and current activities, such as
smoking, drinking, sexual activity, and illicit drug use. Present illness refers to a
detailed interview prompted by the chief complaint or presenting symptom.
394. The correct answer is B) Clean the ear canal. Ear irrigation is a routine
procedure used to remove excess earwax, or cerumen, and foreign materials from
the ear.
395. The correct answer is C) Sterilization. Medical asepsis is the use of practices
aimed at destroying pathological organisms after they leave the body; employed
in the care of patients with infectious diseases to prevent reinfection of the
patient and to avoid the spread of infection from one person to another. This is
achieved by isolation precautions, in which the objects in the patient's
environment are protected from contamination or disinfected as soon as possible
after contamination. Surgical asepsis is the exclusion of all microorganisms
before they can enter an open surgical wound or contaminate a sterile field
during surgery. Measures taken include sterilization of all instruments, drapes,
and all other inanimate objects that may come in contact with the surgical
wound. All personnel coming in contact with the sterile field perform a surgical
hand scrub with an antimicrobial agent and put on a surgical gown and gloves.
Cleaning removes germs, dirt, and impurities from surfaces or objects. Cleaning
works by using soap (or detergent) and water to physically remove germs from
 surfaces. This process does not necessarily kill germs, but by removing them, it
lowers their numbers and the risk of spreading infection. Disinfecting kills germs
on surfaces or objects. Disinfecting works by using chemicals to kill germs on
surfaces or objects. This process does not necessarily clean dirty surfaces or
remove germs, but by killing germs on a surface after cleaning, it can further
lower the risk of spreading infection. Sterilization refers to any process that
eliminates, removes, kills, or deactivates all forms of life and other biological
agents (such as fungi, bacteria, viruses, spore forms, prions, unicellular
eukaryotic organisms such as Plasmodium, etc.) present in a specified region,
such as a surface, a volume of fluid, medication, or in a compound such as
biological culture media. Sterilization can be achieved through various means,
including: heat, chemicals, irradiation, high pressure, and filtration. Sterilization
is distinct from disinfection, sanitization, and pasteurization, in that sterilization
kills, deactivates, or eliminates all forms of life and other biological agents which
are present.
396. The correct answer is A) Sitting erect with feet flat on the floor. BP
measurement is most commonly made in either the sitting or supine position,
but the two positions give different measurements. When measurements are
taken in the supine position the arm should be supported with a pillow. Diastolic
pressure measured while sitting is higher than when measured supine (by about
5 mm Hg). If the back is not supported (as when the patient is seated on an
examination table rather than a chair) the diastolic pressure may be 6 mm Hg
higher. Crossing the legs may raise systolic pressure by 2-8 mm Hg. The position
of the arm is also important when seated measurements are taken: if the upper
arm is below the level of the right atrium (when the arm is hanging down while
in the sitting position) the readings will be too high. Similarly, if the arm is
above the heart level, the readings will be too low. These differences can be
attributed to the effects of hydrostatic pressure and may be 2 mm Hg for every
inch above or below the heart level.
397. The correct answer is C) Calibrate the scale before use. The scale should always
be “zeroed out” before use to ensure accuracy. It is preferred that patients
remove their shoes and items of heavy clothing to improve accuracy.
398. The correct answer is D) Found in a chain. Cell division in strep bacteria occurs
along a single axis, thus they grow in chains or pairs. Staph appears as grape-like
clusters when viewed through a microscope, and has large, round, golden-yellow
colonies.
399. The correct answer is B) Oral-fecal route. Hepatitis A is usually spread when a
person ingests fecal matter—even in microscopic amounts—from contact with
objects, food, or drinks contaminated by feces or stool from an infected person.
Hepatitis A can be spread when: an infected person does not wash his/her hands
properly after going to the bathroom and then touches objects or food, a
caregiver does not properly wash his or her hands after changing diapers or
cleaning up the stool of an infected person, or someone engages in sexual
activities with an infected person. Hepatitis A also can be spread through
contaminated food or water. Contamination of food can happen at any point:
growing, harvesting, processing, handling, and even after cooking. This most
often occurs in countries where Hepatitis A is common.
400. The correct answer is C) 72 kg. One kilogram is equal to about 2.2 pounds.
401. The correct answer is A) Strep throat. Strep throat is caused by bacteria
known as Streptococcus pyogenes, also known as group A streptococcus.
Streptococcal bacteria are highly contagious. They can spread through airborne
droplets when someone with the infection coughs or sneezes, or through shared
food or drinks. You can also pick up the bacteria from a doorknob or other
surface and transfer them to your nose, mouth or eyes.
402. The correct answer is C) Lyme disease. General early Lyme disease symptoms
may include: Erythema Migrans (EM rash), the Bull’s Eye rash (a subset of EM
rash), or no rash. The EM rash may appear on other places on the body than the
bite site. It may begin as a single circular red mark that spreads outwards. As it
disseminates over the skin, sometimes it becomes lighter in the area nearer to the
center of the bite--this central clearing is what distinguishes a Bull's eye rash
from other EM rashes. In people of color, the rash may appear more like a
bruise. The rash is usually not itchy.
403. The correct answer is A) Chief complaint. The chief complaint is a concise
statement describing the symptom, problem, condition, diagnosis, or other
factor that is the reason for a medical encounter.
404. The correct answer is D) Rash. Objective findings are the information that we
can gather using our 5 senses. It is either a measurement or an observation.
Temperature is a perfect example of objective data. The temperature of a person
can be gathered using a thermometer. Other examples of objective data: heart
rate, blood pressure, respirations, wound appearance, and ambulation
description. Subjective data is gathered from the patient telling you something
that you cannot use your five senses to measure.
405. The correct answer is D) No immunizations. Hypertension, diabetes, and
smoking are all risk factors for cardiovascular disease.
406. The correct answer is C) 250 degrees F for 30 minutes. The specific
recommendation for the autoclave at your site may vary though and you should
always follow your manufacturer’s recommendations.
407. The correct answer is D) 60 seconds.
408. The correct answer is A) Serum. Serum is obtained from clotted blood which is
centrifuged to separate the serum from the clotted cells. Plasma is obtained from
centrifuged whole blood. The specimen separates into a top plasma layer, the
middle buffy coat (WBCs and platelets), and the bottom red layer.
409. The correct answer is B) Serum and cells. Serum- collected in tube with no
anticoagulant. The tube must be processed in under one hour. The SST tube has
a gel in it which will separate the cells from the liquid when spun.
410. The correct answer is B) The vacuum is depleted. The vacuum tube should
remain connected to the needle until the vacuum is completely exhausted.
411. The correct answer is C) Light blue tubes. The red tube has no anticoagulant.
It is used to collect clotted blood and serum (serology and most chemistries).
This tube may be plain or have a clot activator. Dark blue tubes have EDTA or
no additive. Dark blue tubes are used to collect specimens for trace mineral
analysis (lead, copper, arsenic, etc). The SST tube has a gel in it which will
separate the cells from the plasma when spun.
412. The correct answer is D) 1 minute. If a sample cannot be collected in less than
1 minute, release the tourniquet and allow 2 minutes to pass before reapplying
the tourniquet.
413. The correct answer is C) Hemoconcentration. In hemoconcentration, blood
cells, coagulation factors, and other large molecules accumulate below level of
tourniquet causing erroneous results that can impact patient care.
414. The correct answer is D) 15 degrees.
415. The correct answer is D) The side of the heel. Fingers should never be used as
injury to the bone may occur.
416. The correct answer is D) Maintain the puncture site lower than the level of the
heart. Puncturing the finger along a fingerprint may cause the blood to run into
the groove instead of into your collection device. The first drop of blood
collected in this manner should always be discarded as it is often mixed with
tissue fluid. Cooling the skin decrease blood flow.
417. The correct answer is A) The antecubital space. The wrist should never be used
due to the high potential for injury to a nerve or tendon. The hand may be an
acceptable site if the antecubital area is not an option.
418. The correct answer is B) Provide detailed information on chemicals. A
Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) is a document that contains information on
the potential hazards (health, fire, reactivity and environmental) and how to
work safely with the chemical product. It also contains information on the use,
storage, handling and emergency procedures all related to the hazards of the
material. The MSDS contains much more information about the material than
the label. MSDSs are prepared by the supplier or manufacturer of the material.
It is intended to tell what the hazards of the product are, how to use the product
safely, what to expect if the recommendations are not followed, what to do if
accidents occur, how to recognize symptoms of overexposure, and what to do if
such incidents occur.
419. The correct answer is B) Red, blue, yellow, and white. NFPA 704: Standard
System for the Identification of the Hazards of Materials for Emergency
Response is a standard maintained by the U.S.-based National Fire Protection
Association. It defines the colloquial "fire diamond" or "safety square" used by
emergency personnel to quickly and easily identify the risks posed by hazardous
materials. This helps determine what, if any, special equipment should be used,
procedures followed, or precautions taken during the initial stages of an
emergency response. The four divisions are typically color-coded with red
indicating flammability, blue indicating level of health hazard, yellow for
chemical reactivity, and white containing codes for special hazards. Each of
health, flammability and reactivity is rated on a scale from 0 (no hazard) to 4
(severe risk).
420. The correct answer is D) PT/INR. A prothrombin time (PT) is a test used to
help detect and diagnose a bleeding disorder or excessive clotting disorder; the
international normalized ratio (INR) is calculated from a PT result and is used
to monitor how well the blood-thinning medication (anticoagulant) warfarin
(Coumadin®) is working to prevent blood clots. White blood cells (WBCs), also
called leukocytes or leucocytes, are the cells of the immune system that are
involved in protecting the body against both infectious disease and foreign
invaders. WBCs are often elevated in infections. The hematocrit (HCT) is the
volume percentage of red blood cells in blood. It is normally 40% for men and
31% for women. HCT can be elevated in dehydration (and other disease
processes) and lowered in anemia and leukemia. The complete blood count (CBC)
is a test that evaluates the cells (white blood cells, red blood cells, platelets) that
circulate in blood. A CBC may be drawn to screen for, diagnose, or monitor any
one of a variety of diseases and conditions that affect blood cells, such as
anemia, infection, inflammation, bleeding disorder or cancer.
421. The correct answer is D) V4.
422. The correct answer is A) V1.

423. The correct answer is D) To use supplies before they expire. Quality control
testing is done to ensure accuracy of testing equipment and techniques, because
it is required to maintain CLIA certification, and to remain compliant with
internal policies and procedures.
424. The correct answer is A) May be negative even if a blood pregnancy is positive.
The blood test will show a positive result sooner than a urine pregnancy test.
The urine pregnancy test looks for human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG). HCG
is a hormone produced by the placenta after implantation. The presence of HCG
is detected in some pregnancy tests (HCG pregnancy strip tests).
425. The correct answer is D) Amylase and lipase. The pancreas produces both
amylase and lipase, as well as many other enzymes. Inflammation of the
pancreas, also called pancreatitis, commonly causes high levels of amylase and
lipase in the bloodstream. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine are waste
products that are elevated in the blood in people with kidney disease. HDL and
 LDL are two types of cholesterol. CPK and troponin are markers of cardiac
muscle injury and are checked when cardiac issues are suspected.
426. The correct answer is D) ABG. Arterial blood gases (ABG) is usually drawn by
a respiratory therapist and sometimes a phlebotomist, a nurse, a paramedic or a
doctor. Blood is most commonly drawn from the radial artery because it is easily
accessible, can be compressed to control bleeding, and has less risk for occlusion.
If a plastic blood gas syringe is used, the sample should be transported and kept
at room temperature and analyzed within 30 min. If prolonged time delays are
expected (i.e., greater than 30 min) prior to analysis, the sample should be
drawn in a glass syringe and immediately placed on ice to prevent a false reading
due to cell metabolism.
427. The correct answer is A) Electricity from right arm to left arm. Lead II
represents electricity from right arm to left leg. Lead III represents the
electricity from left arm to left leg.

428. The correct answer is A) Ichihara. The Ishihara test is a color perception test
for red-green color deficiencies. The test consists of a number of colored plates,
called Ishihara plates, each of which contains a circle of dots appearing
randomized in color and size. Within the pattern are dots which form a number
or shape clearly visible to those with normal color vision, and invisible, or
difficult to see, to those with a red-green color vision defect. Other plates are
intentionally designed to reveal numbers only to those with a red/green color
vision deficiency, and be invisible to those with normal red/green color vision.
Snellen charts test for visual acuity.
429. The correct answer is C) Colon. The stool guaiac test or guaiac fecal occult
blood test is one of several methods that detects the presence of fecal occult
blood (blood invisible in the feces). The test involves placing a fecal sample on
guaiac paper (containing a phenolic compound) and applying hydrogen peroxide
which, in the presence of blood, yields a blue reaction product within seconds.
The American College of Gastroenterology has recommended the abandoning of
guaiac testing as a colorectal cancer screening tool, in favor of the fecal
immunochemical test (FIT).
430. The correct answer is A) Cross sectional. The different Xray view are PA, AP,
lateral, decubitus, and apical lordotic views.