CREASAT Module 1 Examination

PHILIPPINE ASSOCIATION OF REALTY APPRAISERS,

COMPREHENSIVE REAL ESTATE APPRAISAL SEMINAR AND TRAINING (CREASAT) INC.

MODULE 1

1. The process of developing an opinion of value is referred to as a (an)

a. Market analysis
b. Investment analysis
c. Appraisal
d. Extraction

2. All the following statement are true except

a. Real Property refers to items that are not permanently fixed to a part of the real estate
b. Appraising is the art and science of estimating the value of an asset
c. Assets typically requiring appraisal include real and personal property
d. Asset value change in time

3. The enactment of the Real Estate Service Act created a body that will regulate the real estate
service practice. This regulatory board is named
a. Professional Regulatory Commission
b. Professional Board of Real Property Practitioners
c. Professional Regulatory Board of Real Estate Service
d. Professional Regulatory Board for Appraisers

4. Refers to an official in the local government unit, who performs appraisal and assessment of real
properties, including plants, equipment, and machineries, essentially for taxation purposes. This
definition also includes assistant assessors
a. Appraiser
b. Consultant
c. Assessor
d. Broker
e. Salesman

5. Refers to a duly registered and licensed natural person who, for a professional fee, commission
or other valuable consideration, acts as an agent of a party in a real estate transaction to offer,
advertise, solicit, list, promote, mediate, negotiate or effect the meeting of the minds on the
sale, purchase, exchange, mortgage, lease or joint venture or other similar transactions on real
estate or any interest therein.
a. Real estate consultant
b. Real estate appraiser
c. Real estate broker
d. Real estate salesman

6. Refers to any natural or juridical person engaged in in the business of developing real estate
development project for his/her or its own account and offering them for sale or lease
a. Real estate appraiser
b. Real estate consultant
c. Real estate broker
d. Real estate developer

7. Refers to a duly registered and licensed natural person who, for a professional fee, compensation
or other valuable consideration, offers or renders professional advice and judgment on : (i) the
acquisition, enhancement, preservation, utilization or disposition of lands or improvements
thereon; and (ii) the conception, planning, management and development of real estate projects
a. Real estate consultant
b. Real estate appraiser
c. Real estate broker
d. Real estate salesman

8. Refers to a person who conducts valuation, one who possesses the necessary qualifications,
license, ability and experience to execute or direct the valuation of real property

1
 CREASAT Module 1 Examination

a. Assessor
b. Appraiser
c. Consultant
d. Broker

9. All the following areas of regulation affect appraisers except

a. PRC
b. LGU Planning Office
c. DTI
d. DSWD

10. Refers to the development of land for residential, commercial, industrial, agricultural,
institutional or recreational purposes, or any combination of such including, but not limited to,
tourist resorts, reclamation projects, building or housing projects, whether for individual or
condominium ownership, memorial parks and others of similar nature
a. Cost approach
b. Zoning
c. Urban planning
d. Real estate development project

11. Which among the practitioners listed does not belong to any realty service?
a. Consultant
b. Dealer
c. Appraiser
d. Broker

12. To be allowed to take the licensure examination for real estate appraiser, a candidate should be:
a. American Citizen
b. Filipino Citizen
c. Citizen of China
d. Indonesian

13. No foreigner may be allowed to take the licensure examination nor given certificate to operate in
the Philippines unless there is
a. foreign reciprocity
b. foreign request
c. foreign intervention
d. foreign arrangement

14. The passing rate is 75% in all subjects with no rating below ________ in any subject.
a. 60%
b. 50%
c. 70%
d. 80%

15. A candidate must attend seminar and review and be issued a certification of completion of 120
unit hours by a PRC accredited ________________.
a. trainer
b. service provider
c. lecturer
d. training provider

16. Acronym for accredited and integrated professional organization by PRC.

a. IAPO
b. AIPO
c. APPO
d. IAPPO

17. In order to be admitted to the licensure examination for real estate service, a candidate at the
time of filing his application shall establish to the satisfaction of the Board that he possesses the
following qualifications except
a. Citizen of the Philippines
b. Good moral character
c. must not have been convicted of any crime involving moral turpitude

2
 CREASAT Module 1 Examination

d. undertaken on the job training

18. No partnership or corporation shall engage in the business of real estate service unless it is duly
registered with the SEC and persons authorized to act for the partnership or corporation are all
________________ real estate brokers, appraisers or consultants as the case may be.
a. Registered and licensed
b. Registered
c. Recorded and listed
d. Registered and listed

19. Subject to the provisions of the Labor Code, a corporation or partnership may hire the services
of a registered and licensed real estate appraisers on commission basis to perform real estate
services and the real estate appraiser shall be deemed _______________.
a. Independent contractor
b. Dependent contractor
c. Full-time employee
d. Part-time employee

20. The appraiser’s professional identification card from PRC shall be renewed every :
a. 3 years
b. 2 years
c. yearly
d. 5 years

21. The law regulating the practice of Real Estate Service in the Philippines.
a. Real Estate Service Act
b. Real Estate Practitioners Act
c. Real Estate Property Practitioners Act
d. RA 9646

22. The symbol in the official seal of the PRBRES which signifies the vital role of the real estate
service practitioners in the social, political, economical development and progress of the
Philippines.
a. Land
b. Rising sun
c. Sun and ras
d. Gold

23. The symbol in the official seal which signifies ethical standards and prosperity.
a. Land
b. Rising sun
c. Sun & ras
d. Gold

24. Real Estate Service Practitioners refer to :

a. Real estate salesperson, broker, appraiser, consultant
b. Real estate assessor, auditor
c. Real estate consultant, accountant
d. Real estate consultant, auditor

25. Refers to a person who conducts valuation and possesses the necessary qualifications, license,
ability and experience.
a. Assessor
b. Salesman
c. Broker
d. Appraiser

26. Refers to an official in the local government unit, who performs appraisal and assessment of real
properties, including plants, equipment, and machineries essentially for taxation purposes :
a. Appraiser
b. Examiner
c. Assessor
d. Consultant

3
 CREASAT Module 1 Examination

27. Any violation of RA 9646 including violations of the IRR by a licensed/accredited person shall be
meted the penalty of fine of not less than __________ and/or 2 years imprisonment.
a. P 100,000
b. P 50,000
c. P 25,000
d. P 75,000

28. Any violation of RA 9646 including violations of the IRR by an unlicensed/not accredited person
shall be meted the penalty of fine of not less than P 200,000 and/or _____ years imprisonment.
a. 2
b. 4
c. 3
d. 5

29. Not included in the composition of the official seal of the Professional Regulatory Board of Real
Estate Service (PRBRES) :
a. Land, structures, trees & fruits; green lines, rising sun
b. Red, white, blue, yellow, gold
c. Blue, green sun & rays, map of the Philippines
d. Building, blue, green, violet

30. RA 9646 or RESA law has ____ sections.

a. 45
b. 35
c. 30
d. 25

31. The chairperson and 4 members chosen from the 3 recommendees chosen by the commission
from a list 5 nominees per position submitted by the integrated professional organization of real
estate practitioners; provided that 2 of the members shall represent the government assessors
and appraisers who are in active government service shall be appointed by ______________.
a. Senate President
b. Supreme Court
c. Majority Floor Leader
d. President of the Philippines

32. The Chairman of the Board of Real Estate service is

a. Eduardo G. Ong
b. Bansan Choa
c. Rafael Fajardo
d. Florencio Diño

33. The chairperson of PRC is

a. Florentino C. Doble
b. Florencio C. Doble
c. Eduardo G. Ong
d. Angeline T. Chua Chiaco

34. When is the date of signing of the Real Estate Service Act?
a. 29 June 2009
b. 21 July 2010
c. 29 July 2009
d. 29 July 2011

35. The Speaker of the House who signed the RA 9646 is?
a. Hon. Manuel Villar
b. Hon. Feliciano Belmonte
c. Hon. Prospero Nograles
d. Hon. Arnulfo Fuentebella

36. The Senate President who signed the RA 9646 is?

a. Hon. Manuel Villar
b. Hon. Franklin Drilon
c. Hon. Juan Ponce Enrile

4
 CREASAT Module 1 Examination

d. Hon. Edgardo Angara

37. The following are the Powers and Functions of the PRBRES except :
a. Prescribe guidelines and criteria for the Continuing Professional Education (CPE) program for real
estate service practitioners in consultation with the accredited and integrated professional
organization of real estate service practitioners;
b. Adopt a national Code of Ethics and Responsibilities issued by the AIPO to be strictly observed by
all licensed real estate service practitioners;
c. Organize the integrated professional organization of real estate service practitioners;
d. Conduct licensure examinations for the practice of real estate service professional and prescribe
the appropriate, syllabi of the subjects for examination with their tables of specifications.
e. Maintain a comprehensive and updated register of licensed real estate service professionals.

38. A valuer who is in the employ of either the entity that owns the assets or the accounting firm
responsible for preparing the entity’s financial record and/or reports.
a. Internal valuer
b. External valuer
c. Associate valuer
d. Public valuer

39. A valuer together with any associates, has no material links with the client, an agent acting on
behalf of the client, or the subject of the assignment.
a. Internal valuer
b. External valuer
c. Associate valuer
d. Public valuer

40. A broker has secured a written offer to purchase a commercial property at a price of 60 million
together with a check for thirty percent down payment. He is certain that the seller will accept
the offer. Before he can present the offer to the seller, he receives unverified information that a
planned government infrastructure project will eat up a portion of the property. Several steps
have to be taken by the broker to save the sale and protect the interest to all parties concerned.
Which of the following is inappropriate at the moment?
a. Secure detailed information from the proper government agencies as to the actual scope of the
project
b. Present the offer to the seller for signing and acceptance to ensure the consummation of the
sale
c. Inform the prospective buyer about the forthcoming government project and the possible
effects it will have on the property
d. Inform the seller about the forthcoming government project and the possible effects it will have
on the property

41. Which one of the following acts of a broker can be considered within the bounds of the code of
ethics?
a. Encouraging the parties to a sale to indicate consideration lower than the actual selling price.
b. Serving as a witness in court proceedings involving a property owned by his client.
c. Disclosing his client’s confidential personal information to a fellow broker in order to facilitate
the sale of his client’s property
d. Delaying submission of a formal offer that he had received from a prospective buyer in the hope
of securing a higher offer.

42. The Golden Rule shall be observed in all dealings and relations of the real estate practitioners,
except :
a. with clients and fellow practitioners
b. the organization to which they belong
c. the general public
d. none of the above

43. The real estate practitioner, in relation to the government, is expected to perform as such
except;
a. Secure all the necessary licenses, permits and authority
b. Pay any and all taxes, fees, dues, levies or charges

5
 CREASAT Module 1 Examination

c. Encourage, abet, tolerate, or participate in the aversion or illegal reduction in the payment of all
taxes, fees, dues, levies or charges
d. Should not offer or agree to pay, split or rebate any commission or fee.

44. The real estate practitioners in his advertisement or brochures of properties for sale, should
present, but not:
a. a true picture of the property and its improvements
b. it’s right and interest therein, including it’s liens and encumbrances
c. indicate name, firm, address and license number
d. conceal relevant information and other related facts

45. With regards to the relation with a client or customer, the practitioner, in accepting an
appointment or authority to act for and in behalf of the client/customer, can perform such,
except :
a. Acquire an interest or buy for himself or members of his family within the 4 th civil degree
b. Endeavor to make buyer or seller conclude a fair contract, advantageous to both parties
c. Assist his client acquire possession and ownership of the property bought in accordance with the
terms and conditions agreed upon
d. Should not accept any commission or fee from any party in any transaction except from his client
unless with the full knowledge and consent of all the parties concern in the transaction

46. A broker has just received from a fellow broker’s client/buyer a written offer to purchase a
property of his client/seller, together with a check for earnest money payment. Which of the
following steps is the most proper and ethical for him to take?
a. Call another fellow broker whose client is also interested in the property in the hope that they
can top the offer.
b. Call the seller immediately to inform him about the offer and submit at the soonest possible
time, both the written offer and the earnest money payment
c. Show the offer to another prospective buyer in the hope of getting a better price for the seller
d. Reject the first offer outright based on his opinion that the offered price is too low and tell his
fellow

47. Which of the following statements is not valid criterion for ethical behavior?
a. Ethics is the name we give to our concern for good behavior. We feel an obligation to consider
not only our own personal well-being but also that of other and of human society as a whole.
b. Ethics is right for right’s sake
c. A Code of Ethics is subservient to laws and regulations. Therefore, any act that is not against any
law is not a violation of ethical practice.
d. Ethics is having a high moral sense. The capacity to perceive what is right measured primarily by
the application of the golden rule.

48. Three of the four enumerated acts of a broker are considered unethical. Which act is not
unethical?
a. Encouraging the parties to sale to indicate a consideration lower than the actual selling price.
b. Keeping a special bank account, separate and distinct from his own funds for all monies received
in trust for other persons such as client’s money and similar items.
c. Disclosing his client’s confidential personal information to a fellow broker in order to facilitate
the sale of his client’s property
d. Delaying submission of a formal offer that he had received from a prospective buyer in the hope
of securing a higher offer.

49. A real estate broker who accepts a listing from a client follows several ethical guidelines in his
relationship with the client. Which one of the following is not always applicable?
a. He should pledge himself with utmost fidelity and good faith to protect and promote the interest
of his client
b. He should undertake to prepare an accurate appraisal report on the property subject of the
listing, as part of his service to his client
c. He should endeavor to be well informed of current legislation, policies and programs of the
government including proposed legislation, which may effect the interest of his client
d. He should endeavor to make his client and customer conclude a fair contract advantageous to
both.

6
 CREASAT Module 1 Examination

50. A broker has secured a written offer to purchase a commercial property at a price of 60 million
together with a check for thirty percent down payment. He is certain that the seller will accept
the offer. Before he can present the offer to the seller, he receives unverified information that a
planned government infrastructure project will eat up a portion of the property. Several steps
have to be taken by the broker to save the sale and protect the interest to all parties concerned.
Which of the following is inappropriate at the moment?
a. Secure detailed information from the proper government agencies as to the actual scope of the
project
b. Present the offer to the seller for signing and acceptance to ensure the consummation of the
sale
c. Inform the prospective buyer about the forthcoming government project and the possible
effects it will have on the property
d. Inform the seller about the forthcoming government project and the possible effects it will have
on the property

51. To the ethical broker, the principle of full disclosure dictates that vital information that can affect
the property of the transaction should be disclosed and explained to his client. Which one of the
following is contrary to an ethical disclosure?
a. Changes or planned changes in zoning affecting the property
b. Your opinion of future land values in the vicinity of the property
c. Details of the contract
d. Sale of similar properties in the vicinity

52. Section 6 of Article 1. – Declaration of Principles of the Code of Ethics for Realty Service
Practitioners clearly states the Golden Rule which says :
a. “Treat others as you want them to be treated.”
b. “Do not do unto others what you want others do to you. ”
c. “Do unto others what you do not want others do unto you.”
d. “Treat others as you like them to treat you.”

53. In case of a complaint filed by a real estate broker against another real broker who are members
of the same organization, the real estate broker must
a. File a complaint and exhaust all remedies within their organization
b. File a complaint first with the concerned barangay
c. File a complaint with the Housing Land Use and Regulatory Board
d. File a complaint directly with the Department of Trade and Industry

54. Under the rule of conflict of interest M.O. 39-85, as amended, the agreement of the services of a
real estate appraiser must not be :
a. Collaborated by the brokers c. Subject of listing in a telephone directory
b. Based on location and use d. Contingent on pre-determined value

55. The real estate broker shall always observe in their dealings and relation with clients, fellow
practitioners the principle of “Treat others as you like them to treat you,” referred to as:
a. Code of Ethics
b. Bundle of rights
c. The Golden Rule
d. The commandment of real estate practice

56. Which of the following newspaper line ads is blatantly unethical?

a. “HOUSE ON A VERY QUIET NEIGHBORHOOD”
b. “THE VALUE OF THIS PROPERTY WILL DOUBLE IN ONE YEAR”
c. “FLOOD-FREE STREET”
d. “BEAUTIFUL VIEW”

57. Under the Code of Ethics, the following are listed as unethical except :
a. negotiate a property listed directly with the owner if the listing broker goes out of town
b. should cooperate with other brokers on property listed provided they are members of any
national real estate broker’s association
c. use the services of a salesman of another broker provided the salesman is paid and agreed upon
commission
d. willingly share with other brokers his lessons and experiences from his study

7
 CREASAT Module 1 Examination

58. Your former boss asked you to appraise his real estate property. As a licensed appraiser
observing the code of ethics, what is the most appropriate step to do?
a. Accept the project right away
b. Accept the project but include a disclosure in your appraisal report
c. Let another appraiser do the appraisal report
d. Do not accept the project at all

59. You have been tasked to be one of the Board examiners. One of your relative wants to join a
review center and eventually take the exam. What is the appropriate action to do?
a. Encourage the relative to take the exam and give him reviewers
b. Inhibit your self from being a Board examiner
c. Do not let your relative take the exam
d. Do not do anything

60. An appraiser should observe the following professional ethics except :

a. Constitute a professional service on his counsel and advise for which he should make a fair and
reasonable charge.
b. Render an opinion with a careful and thorough analysis and interpretation of all factors affecting
the value of the property
c. Undertake to make an appraisal or render an opinion that is outside the field of his experience
and competence
d. None of the above

61. People seek an appraisal in order to

a. Get an independent estimate of value
b. Get a more reliable estimate of value other than their own
c. Both of the above
d. Neither of the above

62. The following statements are true when applied to Valuation Standards except
a. Standards are statements of recognized principles and concepts
b. Standards prescribe specific methods of valuation for different purposes
c. Standards are statement of best practice in procurement and reporting
d. Standards are statements of accepted definitions

63. A valuation review that is limited to the data presented In the report, which may or may not be
independently confirmed.
a. Technical review
b. Field review
c. Desk review
d. Administrative review

64. An amount above the Market Value that reflects particular attributes of an asset that are only of
value to a Specific Purchaser.
a. Plottage value
b. Investment value
c. Value in use
d. Special value

65. An additional element of value created by the combination of two or more interests where the
value of the combined interest is worth more than the sum of the original interests.
a. Fair value
b. Special value
c. Synergistic value
d. Value as a going concern

66. This type of value applies in a valuation situation where an entire business is transferred as an
operational entity
a. Insurance value
b. Market value
c. Investment value
d. Going concern value

8
 CREASAT Module 1 Examination

67. These statements specify that an income projection is subject to the assumption that the
property is run by a reasonably efficient operator or average competent management.
a. Internal audited financial statements
b. Reconstructed operating statements
c. External audited operating statements
d. Balance sheets

68. A valuation review performed by a valuer to form an opinion as to whether the analyses,
opinions and conclusions in the report under review are appropriate, reasonable, and
supportable.
a. Administrative review
b. Desk review
c. Field review
d. Technical review

69. A valuation review performed by a client or user of valuation service as an exercise in due
diligence when the valuation is to be used for purposes of decision-making such as underwriting,
purchasing, or selling the property.
a. Administrative review
b. Desk review
c. Field review
d. Technical review

70. A valuation review that includes inspection of the exterior and sometimes the interior of the
subject property and possibly inspection of the comparable properties to confirm the data
provided in the report.
a. Administrative review
b. Desk review
c. Field review
d. Technical review

71. A group of complementary land uses is called a(n)

a. Area
b. Neighborhood
c. District
d. Region

72. In International Financial Reporting Standards (IFRS) this term refers to the amount for which an
asset could be exchanged between knowledgeable, willing parties in an arm’s length transaction
a. Value in use
b. Value as a going concern
c. Investment value
d. Fair value

73. IFRSs adopt two models for the recognition of property assets in the balance sheet, namely:
a. a fair value model and market value model
b. an investment model and market model
c. a cost model, and a fair value model
d. a market value model and historic model

74. The central concern of appraising is

a. Fee
b. Price
c. Cost
d. Value

75. The purpose of an appraisal assignment is usually to estimate which type of value
a. Investment value
b. Market value
c. Value in use
d. Replacement value

76. Land is unique because

9
 CREASAT Module 1 Examination

a. No two parcels have the same soil composition

b. No two parcels can occupy the same space on the face of the earth
c. No two parcels have the same owner
d. No two parcels have the same tax levies

77. An appraisal of real estate

a. Guarantees its value
b. Assures its value
c. Determine its value
d. Estimates its value

78. Knowledge of land value is required for all of the following except
a. Fire insurance
b. Ground lease
c. Property taxation
d. Grazing lease

79. Price and value are

a. Not necessarily the same
b. Synonymous
c. Different, depending on financing terms
d. Close together in an inactive market

80. _____________ is the amount that has been asked, offered or paid for the item
a. Cost
b. Value
c. Price
d. Market value

81. The value of real estate is determined in the market mainly by its
a. Price
b. Productivity
c. Mortgage
d. Size

82. Value is a word of many meaning, but the general meaning is

a. Any price something is sold
b. Worth of something to someone for some purpose
c. The future worth of an object
d. None of the above

83. The transaction price of a property is its

a. Sales price
b. Market value
c. Insurance value
d. Asking price

84. Those assets which are physical and material in nature

a. Intangible
b. Fixed
c. Tangible
d. Liquid

85. Cost and value are most likely to be similar under which of the following conditions?
a. The property has no deferred maintenance
b. The property is new
c. The property is a special purpose property
d. The property is small

86. Which of the following explanations best describe the term market price?
a. The amount of money actually paid in transaction
b. The amount of the loan
c. The amount of money necessary to replace the property
d. Same term as market value

10
 CREASAT Module 1 Examination

87. Refers to any commercial, industrial, service or investment entity pursuing an economic activity
and are generally profit-making entities operating to provide consumers with products or
services.
a. Financial interest
b. Trade related properties
c. Personal properties
d. Businesses

88. In property appraisal, these are suppositions taken to be true, involving facts, conditions, or
situations affecting the subject (property being appraised), or the approach in the valuation.
a. Market conditions
b. Perceptions
c. Observations
d. Assumptions

89. The value of property to a particular investor, or a class of investors, for identified investment or
operations objectives.
a. Market value
b. Fair value
c. Special value
d. Investment value

90. Appraising has been defined as . . .

a. An educated guess
b. A science in which conclusions are reached from a consideration of facts
c. A process of establishing value
d. All of the above

91. Which of the following term is appropriate for the term REAL ESTATE?
a. Land and anything permanently attached to the land
b. Property that is not encumbered by leases
c. Building and other improvements
d. Building and fixtures

92. Refers to assets owned and/or controlled by governmental or quasi-governmental entities to

provide goods or services to the general public
a. Financial assets
b. Operating assets
c. Cash-generating assets
d. Public sector assets

93. Specific materials that, by their presence or proximity, may have adverse effect on property
value because of their potential to cause harm to life-forms
a. Land and building
b. Hazardous or toxic substances
c. Petroleum and mineral
d. People and plants

94. In these type of properties, the soil is the principal agent in production, varying in its capacity to
support a given amount of a particular commodity or class of commodities.
a. Trade related properties
b. Historic properties
c. Agricultural properties
d. Personal properties

95. The process of analyzing sets of property and market data to determine the specific parameters
operating upon a model.
a. Mass appraisal
b. Statistics
c. Calibration
d. Standard deviation

11
 CREASAT Module 1 Examination

96. Are individual properties, such as hotels, fuel stations, and restaurants that usually change hands
in the marketplace while remaining operational
a. Financial interests
b. Businesses
c. Trade related properties
d. Income generating properties

97. Refers to housing programs and projects covering houses and lots for homeless only undertaken
by the government or the private sector for the underprivileged and homeless citizens
a. Low-cost housing
b. Socialized housing
c. Rowhouses
d. Townhouses

98. Loss in value resulting from wear and tear overtime, including any lack of maintenance.
a. Functional obsolescence
b. Deferred maintenance
c. Physical deterioration
d. Economic obsolescence

99. Obsolescence resulting from external influences that may affect the value of the property.
a. Physical deterioration
b. Functional obsolescence
c. Economic obsolescence
d. Deferred maintenance

100 . Industries that are characterized by the extraction from the earth of natural resources, which
may pass through a series of ownership, processing and measurement stages.
a. Minerals and petroleum
b. Service stations and hotels
c. Condominium and time-share
d. Fee simple and freehold

101 . Assets that embody a cultural, historic, and/or architectural heritage.

a. Personal properties
b. Agricultural properties
c. Historic properties
d. Antiques

102. Loss in value that can be caused by advances in technology that result in new assets being
capable of a more efficient delivery of goods and services.
a. Physical deterioration
b. Functional obsolescence
c. Economic obsolescence
d. Deferred maintenance

103. The process of acquiring private property for public use is called
a. Condemnation
b. Expropriation
c. Just compensation
d. Eminent domain

104. The following are methods of land acquisition by the government except
a. Expropriation
b. negotiated sale
c. donation
d. foreclosure

105. Referred to as “spatial science” meaning a discipline concerned with the use of earth space.
a. Geometry
b. Geography
c. Landscape
d. Mathematics

12
 CREASAT Module 1 Examination

106. This subject deals with the world as it is and with the world as it might be made to be. Its emphasis
is on people.
a. Physical geography
b. Human geography
c. Landscape geography
d. Regional demographics

107. Which is an accurate statement about Japan’s natural resources?

a. Japan has extensively used the seas for fishing
b. Large reserves of petroleum are located in the northern part of Japan
c. Japan has large fertile plains suitable for growing grain
d. Large coal and iron-ore deposits are located in the mountain region

108. In Japan a major economic problem has been the lack of

a. Natural resources
b. Investment capital
c. Skilled labor
d. Experienced management

109. The Japanese archipelago has very limited natural resources, which is the primary barrier to
economic development there.

Which statement best describes an effect that geography has had on Japan?
a. Japan’s smooth coastline has prevented the development of a fishing industry
b. Japan’s large plains have made wheat growing a primary industry
c. The lack of important natural resources has led Japan to depend on trade with other nations
d. The location of Japan has encouraged great ethnic diversity within the nation

110. Both Japan and Indonesia are made up of a chain of islands called
a. An archipelago
b. A peninsula
c. A delta
d. An atoll

111. Which of this nations is located closest to the Philippines, Malaysia and Indonesia?
a. Korea
b. Vietnam
c. Somalia
d. Pakistan

112. On a map of the world, Asia is to Japan as Europe is to

a. Great Britain
b. The Netherlands
c. Austria
d. Italy

113. Geographic diversity in the Middle East has contributed to

a. Unequal standards of living
b. A common economic system
c. Similar political systems
d. Military alliances with Japan

114. One factor that accounted for Chinese influence on traditional Japanese culture was the
a. Continuous warfare between the countries
b. Geographic location of the countries
c. Refusal of western nations to trade with Japan
d. Annexation of Japan into the Chinese Empire

115. Which geographic factor was most important to the development of the early river valley
civilization?
a. Fertile soils
b. High mountains
c. Vast deserts
d. Smooth coastlines

13
 CREASAT Module 1 Examination

116. Economic activities which emphasize harvesting or extracting materials from the ground or sea
would be placed in which sector of the economy?
a. Primary
b. Secondary
c. Tertiary
d. Quartenary

117. Economic activities which emphasize metal working and smelting, automobile production, chemical
and engineering industries, aerospace manufacturing, energy utilities, engineering, breweries and
bottlers, construction and shipbuilding would be placed in which sector of the economy?
a. Primary
b. Secondary
c. Tertiary
d. Quartenary

118. The sector of the economy which manufactures finished goods

a. Primary
b. Secondary
c. Tertiary
d. Quartenary

119. The sector of the economy in the service idustry

a. Primary
b. Secondary
c. Tertiary
d. Quartenary

120. The sector of the economy in the service industry.

a. Primary
b. Secondary
c. Tertiary
d. Quartenary

121. Economic activities which include government, culture, libraries, scientific research, education, and
information would be placed in which sector of the economy?
a. Primary
b. Secondary
c. Tertiary
d. Quartenary

122. The sector of the economy which includes the highest levels of decision making in a society or
economy
a. Primary
b. Secondary
c. Tertiary
d. Quinary

123. This sector would include the top executives or officials in such fields as government, science,
universities, nonprofit, healthcare, culture and the media.
a. Primary
b. Secondary
c. Tertiary
d. Quinary

124. Among the three types of economic systems, which is the one that emphasizes the production of
goods and services principally for the producer’s family and relatives?
a. Subsistence
b. Commercial
c. Planned
d. Both a and c

14
 CREASAT Module 1 Examination

125. Which of the pairs of sub-sectors of the primary sector are grouped correctly to be identified as
gathering industries?
a. Mining and forestry
b. Fisheries and quarrying
c. Quarrying and mining
d. Forestry and fisheries

126. Which of the pairs of sub-sectors of the primary sector are grouped correctly to be identified as
extractive industries?
a. Mining and forestry
b. Fisheries and quarrying
c. Quarrying and mining
d. Forestry and fisheries

127. Human beings avoid all but which of these regions?

a. Cold lands
b. Warm lands
c. Dry lands
d. High lands

128. 1:24,000 is an example of what kind of scale?

a. Bar line
b. Graphic scale
c. Fractional scale
d. Metric scale

129. Which map would have the smallest scale?

a. Continent
b. City
c. World
d. Country

130. The spread of something over a given study area is

a. Density
b. Concentration
c. Distribution
d. Diffusion

131. According to environmental determinism

a. The physical environment sets limits on human actions
b. People can adjust to the physical environment
c. People determine their physical environment
d. The physical environment causes social development

132. The most populous country in Southeast Asia is

a. China
b. Thailand
c. Indonesia
d. India

133. Geographers define population as

a. Too many people in a region
b. Too many people compared to resources
c. Too many people in the world
d. All of the above

134. It is the increase in the proportion of people living in towns and cities
a. Urbanization
b. Population
c. Counter-urbanization
d. Localization

135. It is the movement of people out of cities, to the surrounding areas.

a. Urbanization

15
 CREASAT Module 1 Examination

b. Population
c. Counter-urbanization
d. Localization

136. A state that is completely surrounded by the land of other states, which gives it a disadvantage in
terms of accessibility to and from international trade routes.
a. Elongated
b. Perforated
c. Landlocked
d. Compact

137. The study of the earth and its features and of the distribution of life on the earth, including human
life
a. Physical geography
b. Political geography
c. Human geography
d. Geography

138. Greater cultural and economic interaction among people all over the world
a. Physical geography
b. Political geography
c. Human geography
d. Globalization

139. The study of where and why human activities are located where they are
a. Physical geography
b. Political geography
c. Human geography
d. Geography

140. The level of development that can be maintained in a country without depleting resources to the
extent that future generations will be unable to achieve a comparable level of development.
a. Green energy
b. Sustainable development
c. Agglomeration
d. Economies of scale

141. The spread of an innovation or an idea through a population in an area

a. Pattern
b. Concentration
c. Distribution
d. Expansion diffusion

142. Known as the “father of geography”

a. Democritus
b. Epicurus
c. Hippocrates
d. Erasthostenes

143. A group of areas that share common characteristics

a. Region
b. City
c. Location
d. Place

144. An area of Earth distinguished by a distinctive combination of cultural and physical features
a. City
b. Province
c. Region
d. Country

145. The two factors considered in relation to migration are _______________.

a. Push and pull
b. Push and push

16
 CREASAT Module 1 Examination

c. Come and go
d. Pull and pull

146. Geography is the scientific study of the location of people and activities across the earth’s surface
and the reason for their __________________.
a. Existence
b. Distribution
c. Planning
d. Space

147. The scientific study of population characteristic is ________________.

a. Migration
b. Ecumene
c. Density
d. Demography

148. In economic development, economic factor indicators are availability of consumer goods, worker
productivity, access to raw materials, economic structure and ________________.
a. Density
b. GNP
c. Population
d. Per capita income

149. In determining the Quality of Life (QOL), it is based on indicators of socioeconomic environment and
________________.
a. Physical environment
b. Planning
c. Population
d. Migration

150. Urbanization is a process of becoming from a state of less concentration to a state of ________.
a. Threshold
b. More concentration
c. Calamity
d. Divisiveness

17