Mcqs of Computer 1

Sanfoundry:
Computer Fundamentals:
What is a pivot table?
A pivot table is a data summarization tool that is used in the context of data processing. Pivot
tables are used to summarize, sort, reorganize, group, count, total or average data stored in a
database. It allows its users to transform columns into rows and rows into columns. It allows
grouping by any data field. Pivot tables are the perfect solution when you need to summarize and
analyze large amounts of data. In just a few clicks, you have access to a whole new set of
information. As already said, spreadsheets are one solution to create pivot tables, but the best
tools don’t require to write complicated formulas or to start all over again every time you want to
organize the data differently. A drag and drop option to move your fields around is the easiest way
to go.
1. Which unit is responsible for converting the a) Byte

data received from the user into a computer b) Nibble
understandable format? c) Bit
a) Memory Unit d) KB
b) Arithmetic & Logic Unit View Answer
c) Input Unit
d) Output Unit Answer: c
View Answer Explanation: A bit is defined as the smallest unit of
data in a computer system. It is used as a short
Answer: c form of Binary Digit. A bit can have only two
Explanation: The Input Unit converts the data, values 0 or 1. A nibble comprises of 4 bits, a byte
which the user enters into a language which the is a collection of 8 bits whereas KB (Kilobyte) is
computer understands, i.e. it converts the data into equal to 1024 bytes.
binary format. The Output Unit is responsible for
giving the results in user-understandable format. 4. One nibble is equivalent to how many bits?
The Storage Unit is responsible for storing the data a) 2
after immediate results of processing whereas; the b) 4
ALU is responsible for various arithmetic and c) 8
bitwise operations. d) 1
View Answer
2. The only language which the computer
understands is ______________ Answer: b
a) Assembly Language Explanation: A nibble is defined as a unit of data
b) Binary Language which comprises of 4 binary digits or half of 8-bit
c) BASIC byte. Therefore, 1 nibble = 4 bits. A bit is the
d) C Language smallest unit of data in a computer system. A byte
View Answer = 8 bits, therefore, half of a byte=4 bits=a nibble.
Answer: b 5. Which of the following describes the correct

Explanation: The Computer understands only format of an input instruction?
binary language which is written in the form of 0s a) IN 82
& 1s. A computer can understand assembly b) INPUT 82
language but an assembler is required which c) INP 82
converts the assembly language to binary language. d) 82 INP
Similarly, for understanding high level languages, View Answer
compilers/interpreters are required.
Answer: a
3. The smallest unit of data in computer is Explanation: The input/output instructions are used
________________ to transfer information between external
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peripherals and the CPU. The correct format of an world
input instruction is: IN 8-bit port address. b) It converts the data into computer acceptable
Here, IN 82 is the correct option, where 82 is the format
designated port address. All the other options are c) It makes the data into user understandable
invalid. format
d) It supplies the data and instructions to the
6. The input machine which originated in the computer for further processing
United States around 1880s is a ___________ View Answer
a) Mouse
b) Joystick Answer: c
c) Keyboard Explanation: The input unit converts the data into
d) Bar Code Reader computer understandable format i.e. binary format
View Answer and not the user understandable format. It is the
duty of the output unit to make the data into user
Answer: c understandable format.
Explanation: A keyboard is an input device which
originated in the 1880s and is used to give 10. Label the parts 1 and 2:
instructions to the computer in the form of letters
and numbers. Mouse is used for the selection of
various objects on the screen, joystick is mainly
used for gaming purpose and bar code readers are
used for reading the bar-codes.
7. What does the COMPUTER stand for?

a) Commonly Operated Machines Used in
Technical and Educational Research
b) Commonly Occupied Machines Used in
Technical and Educational Research
c) Commonly Operated Machines Used in a) 1.ALU 2. MU
Technical and Environmental Research b) 1.Output unit 2.Input Unit
d) Commonly Oriented Machines Used in c) 1.MU 2. ALU
Technical and Educational Research d) 1.Input Unit 2.Output Unit
View Answer View Answer
Answer: a Answer: d
Explanation: The word COMPUTER is an Explanation: The above diagram is a simple
abbreviation for the terms “Commonly Operated explanation which describes how the instruction is
Machines Used in Technical and Educational given to the CPU, how it is processed, and then
Research”. The word COMPUTER also relates to how the result is obtained.
the word COMPUTE which means to calculate. So here, the input unit is used to give instructions
So, initially it was thought that a computer is a to the central processing unit and the output unit is
device which is used to perform calculations. responsible for giving the result to the user.
8. 1 yottabyte = ______________ 1. The process of producing useful information

a) 1024 TB for the user is called ___________
b) 1024 EB a) Controlling
c) 1024 ZB b) Outputting
d) 1024 PB c) Inputting
View Answer d) Processing
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: 1 yottabyte is equal to 1024 ZB, Answer: b
which stands for zettabyte. Further, 1 ZB=1024 EB Explanation: The Output Unit is responsible for
(exabyte) and and 1 EB=1024PB (petabyte). giving the results to the user in the form of a
printed report or visual display. The process is
9. Which of the following is not a function of the referred to as outputting. Controlling is nothing but
Input Unit? the manner and sequence in which the instructions
a) It reads instructions and data from the outside are being operated. Inputting means giving
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instructions to the system whereas, processing ___________
means performing certain operations and a) Disturbance
calculations. b) Attenuation
c) Interrupt
2. The output unit converts the data entered by the d) Noise
user into computer understandable form. View Answer
a) True
b) False Answer: c
View Answer Explanation: An interrupt is a kind of request
which takes control of the system bus for some
Answer: b time, then performs all the operations and gives
Explanation: The Output unit is responsible for back control to the CPU. It is usually identified by
converting the computer obtained data into user some number and is handled by the interrupt
understandable format. The Input Unit is controller.
responsible for converting the data in computer
understandable format. 7. Line Printers that print one line at a time are
_________
3. VDU stands for __________ a) Laser Printers
a) Virtual Display Unit b) Inkjet Printers
b) Visual Display Unit c) Drum Printers
c) Virtual Detection Unit d) Chain Printers
d) Visual Detection Unit View Answer
View Answer
Answer: c
Answer: b Explanation: The drum printers have a solid
Explanation: A Visual Display unit is also referred cylindrical drum with characters embossed on its
to as the monitor who basically is used to give the surface in the form of circular bands. It can only
results or outputs to the user. It comprises of a print a predefined set of characters.
cathode ray tube internally.
8. A ___________________ monitor looks like a
4. What does SVGA stand for? television and are normally used with non-portable
a) Standard Visual Graphics Array computer systems.
b) Super Visual Graphics Array a) CRT
c) Standard Video Graphics Array b) LCD
d) Super Video Graphics Array c) LED
View Answer d) Flat Panel Monitors
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Super Video Graphics Array is a type Answer: a
of Visual Display Unit. It supports 1024 by 768 Explanation: A CRT (or the Cathode Ray Tube)
pixels with 60,000 different colors. Monitor looks like a television ideally. The flat
panel monitors are thinner and lighter in
5. The devices that used to give single or multiple comparison.
colored images and drawings are ____________
a) Monitors 9. Which of the following is not a function of the
b) Printers Output Unit?
c) Plotters a) It produces results that can be easily understood
d) VDUs by the user
View Answer b) It accepts the results produced by the computer
c) It supplies the data and instructions to the
Answer: c outside world
Explanation: Plotters are the devices which are d) It supplies the data and instructions to the
used to give colored images. They use ink pens or computer for further processing
ink jets for drawing. Pens of different colors and View Answer
shades are used for shading and styling.
Answer: d
6. A special request originated from some device Explanation: The output unit is responsible for
to the CPU to acquire some of its time is called giving the results to the user in the form of a
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printed report or visual display. It is not
responsible for giving the instructions back to the
CPU for processing.
10. PCI stands for _________

a) Peripheral Component Interconnect
b) Partial Component Interconnect
c) Peripheral Component Interaction
d) Partial Component Interaction
View Answer a) Primary and major
b) Primary and Secondary
Answer: a c) Minor and Major
Explanation: PCI is a high-bandwidth bus that can d) Main and virtual
function as a peripheral bus. Compared with View Answer
others, it delivers better system performance.
Answer: b
Explanation: There are two types of memories in a
1. Components that provide internal storage to the computer system: The Primary Memory and the
CPU are ______ Secondary Memory.
a) Registers The primary memory can be directly accessed by
b) Program Counters the CPU whereas the secondary memory cannot be
c) Controllers directly accessed.
d) Internal chips
View Answer 4. Which of the following is used to hold running
program instructions?
Answer: a a) Primary Storage
Explanation: The Registers are the fast storage b) Virtual Storage
units. They are responsible for storing intermediate c) Internal Storage
computational results in the CPU. The registers can d) Minor Devices
be user accessible or inaccessible. View Answer
2. Saving data and instructions to make them Answer: a

readily available is the job of __________ Explanation: The primary storage is responsible for
a) Storage Unit holding the data, intermediate results and the
b) Cache Unit results of ongoing processes or jobs. Virtual
c) Input Unit storage is the main memory storage required for
d) Output Unit saving a large amount of data for future reference.
View Answer The other options are invalid.
Answer: a 5. Which of the following is non-volatile storage?

Explanation: The storage unit is responsible for a) Backup
storing the data. It makes the instructions readily b) Secondary
available for additional or initial processing c) Primary
whenever required. The cache is a software d) Cache
component that stores data to serve the data View Answer
requests in future. It can contain the result of some
earlier computations. Answer: b
Explanation: The secondary storage is the non-
3. The two basic types of memory in a computer volatile storage unit because the data is not lost
are ________ when the power supply is dissipated. Primary
memory is the volatile memory.
6. Which of the following is used in main

memory?
a) SRAM
b) DRAM
c) PRAM
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d) DDR 1. The ‘heart’ of the processor which performs
View Answer many different operations _____________
a) Arithmetic and logic unit
Answer: b b) Motherboard
Explanation: DRAM stands for dynamic random c) Control Unit
access memory. It is denser than SDRAM (Static) d) Memory
and therefore it is used in the main memory. They View Answer
are in the form of semiconductor RAMs.
Answer: a
7. Which of the following are types of ROMs? Explanation: The Arithmetic and logic unit
a) SROM & DROM performs all the basic operations of the computer
b) PROM & EPROM system. It performs all the arithmetic(+,-,*,/,etc) as
c) Only one type there is no further classification well as the logical operations( AND, OR, NOT,
d) PROM & EROM etc.).
View Answer
2. ALU is the place where the actual executions of
8. RAID stands for __________ instructions take place during the processing
a) Redundant array of independent disks operation.
b) Redundant array of individual disks a) True
c) Reusable Array of independent disks b) False
d) Reusable array of individual disks View Answer
View Answer
Answer: a
Answer: a Explanation: ALU is a combinational electronic
Explanation: RAID is a multiple-disk database circuit which basically performs all the logical or
design which is viewed as a single logical disk by the bitwise operations and the arithmetic
the operating system. Data are distributed across operations. Therefore, it is the place where the
the physical drives of the array. It guarantees the actual executions of instructions take place.
recovery of data in case of data failure.
3. Which of the following is not a bitwise
9. A non-erasable disk that stores digitized audio operator?
information is _____ a) |
a) CD b) ^
b) CD-ROM c) .
c) DVD-R d) <<
d) DVD-RW View Answer
View Answer
Answer: c
Answer: a Explanation: All except the dot(.) operator are
Explanation: A compact disk stores digitized audio bitwise operators.
information. The standard system uses 12 cm disks | : Bitwise OR
and can record more than 60 minutes of ^ : Bitwise XOR
uninterrupted playing game. << : Shift Left
10. The first practical form of Random Access 4. The sign magnitude representation of -1 is
Memory was the __________ __________
a) SSEM a) 0001
b) Cathode Ray Tube b) 1110
c) William’s Tube c) 1000
d) Thomas’s Tube d) 1001
Answer: c Answer: d
Explanation: The first practical form of RAM was Explanation: The first leftmost bit i.e. the most
William’s Tube made in 1947. It stored data as significant bit in the sign magnitude represents if
electrically charged spots on the face of a Cathode the number is positive or negative. If the MSB is 1,
Ray Tube. the number is negative else if it is 0, the number is
positive. Here, +1=0001 and for -1=1001.
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5. IEEE stands for ___________ b) Parity
a) Instantaneous Electrical Engineering c) Auxiliary
b) Institute of Emerging Electrical Engineers d) Carry
c) Institute of Emerging Electronic Engineers View Answer
d) Institute of Electrical and electronics engineers
View Answer Answer: b
Explanation: The parity flag indicates the number
Answer: d of 1 bit in any operation. The resultant bit is called
Explanation: The IEEE is an organization of the parity bit. The main aim of the parity bit is to
professionals in the field of electronics and check for errors.
electrical engineering. IEEE has given certain
standards of its own which are followed in the field 10. The bitwise complement of 0 is ___________
of computer science and electrical engineering. a) 00000001
b) 10000000
6. The ALU gives the output of the operations and c) 11111111
the output is stored in the ________ d) 11111110
a) Memory Devices View Answer
b) Registers
c) Flags Answer: c
d) Output Unit Explanation: Bitwise complement is basically used
View Answer to convert all the 0 digits to 1 and the 1s to 0s.
So, for 0 = 00000000(in 8-bits) ::: 11111111(1s
Answer: b complement). The bitwise complement is often
Explanation: Any output generated by the ALU referred to as the 1s complement.
gets stored in the registers. The registers are the
temporary memory locations within the processor
that are connected by signal paths to the CPU. 1. ____________ is the raw material used as input
and __________ is the processed data obtained as
7. The process of division on memory spaces is output of data processing.
called ______________ a) Data, Instructions
a) Paging b) Instructions, Program
b) Segmentation c) Data, Program
c) Bifurcation d) Program, Code
d) Dynamic Division View Answer
View Answer
Answer: a
Answer: b Explanation: Data can be assumed as a raw
Explanation: The memory space is divided into material which, in turns after processing gives the
segments of dynamic size. The programmer is desired output in the form of instructions. Further,
aware of the segmentation and can reallocate the a set of ordered and meaningful instructions is
segments accordingly. known as a program.
8. Number of bits in ALU is _________ 2. Which of the following is not a characteristic of

a) 4 a computer?
b) 8 a) Diligence
c) 16 b) I.Q.
d) 2 c) Accuracy
View Answer d) Versatility
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Arithmetic and Logic Unit consists of Answer: b
16bits. They perform certain Arithmetic and Explanation: The Computer system has no I.Q. of
bitwise operations (add, subtract, AND, OR, XOR, its own. It does only what it is programmed to do.
Increment, decrement, shift). It cannot take decisions of its own.
A computer is diligent because it can work
9. Which flag indicates the number of 1 bit that continuously for hours without getting any errors
results from an operation? or without getting grumbled.
a) Zero The accuracy of a computer is consistently high
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and its level of accuracy depends on its design. A Answer: d
computer can perform any task if, it can be broken Explanation: MAR is a type of register which is
down into a series of logical steps. Therefore, a responsible for the fetch operation. MAR is
computer is versatile. connected to the address bus and it specifies the
address for the read and write operations.
3. Fill in the blank in the diagram.
6. If the control signals are generated by
combinational logic, then they are generated by a
type of _______________ controlled unit.
a) Micro programmed
b) Software
c) Logic
d) Hardwired
View Answer
Answer: d
a) Input Unit Explanation: The main task of a control unit is to
b) Memory Unit generate control signals. There are two main types
c) Control Unit of control units:
d) I/O Unit A hardwired control unit generates control signals
View Answer by using combinational logic circuits and the
Micro programmed control unit generates control
signals by using some softwares.
Answer: c
Explanation: The control unit manages and
coordinates the operations of a computer system. 7. Which is the simplest method of implementing
The ALU is responsible for performing all the hardwired control unit?
arithmetic and bitwise operations . Therefore, both a) State Table Method
these units combine to form the brain of the b) Delay Element Method
computer ,which is the central processing unit. c) Sequence Counter Method
d) Using Circuits
View Answer
4. The part of a processor which contains
hardware necessary to perform all the operations
required by a computer: Answer: a
a) Data path Explanation: There are 3 ways of implementing
b) Controller hardwired control unit:
c) Registers A state table is the simplest method in which a
d) Cache number of circuits are designed based on the cells
View Answer in the table.
A delay element method consists of a flowchart
drawn for the circuit. A D-flip flop is used as a
Answer: a
delay element.
Explanation: A processor is a part of the computer
A sequence counter method used k-modulo counter
which does all the data manipulation and decision
as a replacement for k delay elements.
making. A processor comprises of:
A data path which contains the hardware necessary
to perform all the operations. A controller tells the 8. A set of microinstructions for a single machine
data path what needs to be done. instruction is called ___________
The registers act as intermediate storage for the a) Program
data. b) Command
c) Micro program
d) Micro command
5. What does MAR stand for?
View Answer
a) Main Address Register
b) Memory Access Register
c) Main Accessible Register Answer: c
d) Memory Address Register Explanation: For every micro-operation, a set of
View Answer microinstructions are written which indicate the
control signals to be activated. A set of
microinstructions is a micro program. The address
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of the next microinstruction is given by a Micro- Answer: a
program counter. Explanation: In a non-positional number system, 1
is represented as I, 2 as II, 3 as III, 4 as IIII and
9. Micro-program consists of a set of therefore, 5 is represented as IIIII. This number
microinstructions which are strings of 0s and 1s. system uses symbols for the representation of
a) True digits.
b) False
View Answer 3. The base is the total number of digits in a
number system.
Answer: a a) True
Explanation: The computer understands only b) False
binary language. So, the micro-program should View Answer
have instructions which are in the form of 0s and
1s. Each output line of the micro-program Answer: a
corresponds to one control signal. Explanation: The statement is true. In a positional
number system, base is the number of digits the
10. A decoder is required in case of a system comprises. For example, a binary number
______________ system comprises of only 2 digits, 0 and 1,
a) Vertical Microinstruction therefore its base is 2. Similarly, the decimal
b) Horizontal Microinstruction system comprises 10 digits 0 to 9, therefore its
c) Multilevel Microinstruction base is 10.
d) All types of microinstructions
View Answer 4. The LSB and MSB of 1243247 are ____ and
____
Answer: a a) 1, 7
Explanation: There are two types of b) 4, 7
microinstructions: Horizontal and Vertical. c) 7, 1
In a horizontal microinstruction, each bit represents d) 4, 1
a signal to be activated whereas, in case of vertical View Answer
microinstruction bits are decoded and, the decoder
then produces signals. Answer: c
Explanation: The LSB or the least significant bit is
1. Which of the following is not a type of number the rightmost digit at the zeros position. The MSB
system? or the most significant bit is the leftmost digit.
a) Positional
b) Non-Positional 5. A device that uses positional notation to
c) Octal represent a decimal number.
d) Fractional a) Abacus
View Answer b) Calculator
c) Pascaline
Answer: d d) Computer
Explanation: There are two main types of number View Answer
systems : Positional & Non-positional.
Positional System uses digits for the representation Answer: a
whereas, non-positional number systems use Explanation: Abacus was used to doing arithmetic
certain symbols for the representation of numbers. calculations around 2500 years ago. Pascaline was
Octal is a type of positional number systems with the pascal’s calculator by Blaise Pascal invented
base 8. for doing laborious calculations.
2. How is the number 5 represented in non- 6. The 2’s complement of 5 is ______________

positional number system? a) 1011
a) IIIII b) 0101
b) 5 c) 1010
c) V d) 0011
d) v View Answer
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The 2’s complement is obtained by
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adding 1 to the 1s complement of a number. The codes are allotted to digits, special characters and
1’s complement of 5(0101) is 1010. For 2’s alphabets for data communication purpose.
complement : 1010+1=1011.
1. The value of base in a decimal number system
7. What does BCD stand for? is ____________
a) Bitwise coded decimal a) 8
b) Binary coded decimal b) 2
c) Binary converted decimal c) 10
d) Bitwise Converted Decimal d) 16
Answer: b Answer: c
Explanation: BCD is the binary coded decimal Explanation: A decimal number system consists of
form of representation of numbers in 4 bits.E.g. 10 digits from 0 to 9.
The BCD representation of 5 is 0101. BCD The definition of base describes it as a quantity to
representation of 22 is 00100010. represent the number of digits present in that
particular number system.
8. 1 zettabyte = ______________ Therefore, here, the base is 10.
a) 1024 TB
b) 1024 EB 2. Convert : (110)2 = ( __ )10.
c) 1024 ZB a) 4
d) 1024 PB b) 5
View Answer c) 6
d) 9
Answer: b View Answer
Explanation: 1 ZB=1024 EB(exabyte)
1 EB=1024PB(petabyte) Answer: c
1 YB(yottabyte)=1024ZB. Explanation: The base 2 represents that the number
is binary ,whereas, the base 10 represents that it is
9. Perfrom BCD addition: 2+3= to be converted to the decimal format.
_______________ Conversion: 22 * 1 + 21 * 1 + 20 *0 = 6.
a) 0010
b) 0011 3. The 2’s complement of 15 is ____________
c) 0101 a) 0000
d) 1010 b) 0001
View Answer c) 0010
d) 0100
Answer: c View Answer
Explanation: BCD of 2 =0010
BCD of 3=0011 Answer: b
0010+0011=0101 Explanation: 2’s complement is obtained by adding
Therefore, 2+3=0101(5). 1 to the 1’s complement of the number.
Here, Binary of 15 = 1111
10. ASCII stands for _____________________ 1’s complement of 15= 0000
a) American standard code for information 2’s complement of 15= 0000+1=0001.
interchange
b) American scientific code for information 4. Another name for base is __________
interchange a) root
c) American scientific code for international b) radix
interchange c) entity
d) American standard code of international d) median
interchange View Answer
View Answer
Answer: b
Answer: a Explanation: Another name for base is radix. Base
Explanation: ASCII is an encoding standard which refers to the number of digits that a particular
is used for communications worldwide. ASCII number system consists of.
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The base of decimal number system is 10, binary is 10 : A
2 and so on. 11 : B
12 : C
5. The decimal equivalent of (0.101)2 will be 13 : D
____________ 14 : E
a) 0.5 15 : F.
b) 0.625
c) 0.25 9. Which of the following is not a decimal
d) 0.875 number?
View Answer a) 114
b) 43.47
Answer: b c) 99.9A
Explanation: Since the base is 2 , it could be easily d) 10101
guessed that the number is binary. Conversion: 2-1 View Answer
* 1 + 2-2 * 0 + 2-3 * 1 = 0.625.
Answer: c
6. The signed magnitude for -3 will be Explanation: All the numbers except 99.9A are
___________ decimal numbers.
a) 00000011 This number has a hexadecimal component A in it,
b) 10000011 therefore , it is not a valid decimal number.
c) 11111101 The decimal equivalent of A is 10.
d) 11111100
View Answer 10. Select the incorrect option:
a) (101)10 = (1100101)2
Answer: b b) G is valid in hexadecimal system.
Explanation: Signed Magnitude of a number is a c) C represents 12
representation to determine if the number is d) The base of a decimal number system is 10.
positive or negative. View Answer
If the MSB of a number is 0, the number is
positive, else if it is 1 the number is negative. Answer: b
Here, +3 = 00000011 Explanation: G is not a valid hexadecimal number.
-3= 100000011. In this system, only representations from A to E
are used to represent the numbers from 10 to 15.
7. A number with both integer and a fractional The base of the hexadecimal number system is 16.
part has digits raised to both positive and negative
powers of 2 in a decimal number system. 1. Which of the following is not a positional
a) True number system?
b) False a) Roman Number System
View Answer b) Octal Number System
c) Binary Number System
Answer: b d) Hexadecimal Number System
Explanation: In a decimal number system, a View Answer
number with both integer and a fractional part has
digits raised to both positive and negative powers Answer: a
of 10 and not 2. Explanation: The Roman number system isn’t a
e.g. 22.34 = 2 * 101 + 2 * 100 + 3 * 10-1 + 4 * 10-2. positional number system since it uses symbols to
represent numbers.
8. The hexadecimal representation of 14 is The octal number system uses digits from 0-7, the
_______________ binary number system uses digits from 0-1
a) A whereas, the hexadecimal number system uses
b) F digits from 0-15.
c) D
d) E 2. The value of radix in binary number system is
View Answer _____________
a) 2
Answer: d b) 8
Explanation: The hexadecimal representations are c) 10
as follows:
10
d) 1 before decimal and from right to left after the
View Answer decimal place.
Here,
Answer: a
Explanation: In a binary number system, the value
of base or radix is 2. The binary system uses only
two digits for the representation of numbers,
therefore its base id has chosen to be 2.
3. The binary equivalent of the decimal number

10 is __________
a) 0010
b) 10
c) 1010 i.e. 145.12 is the octal equivalent of the number.
d) 010
View Answer 6. The input hexadecimal representation of 1110
is _______________
Answer: c a) 0111
Explanation: To get the binary equivalent of any b) E
number, we need to divide the number by 2 and c) 15
obtain the remainders as : d) 14
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In hexadecimal number system, 1110
= 15, which is represented by the alphabet E.
Some representations are:
A 10
B 11
We then write the remainders in the reverse order
C 12
as 1010 .
D 13
E 14
4. A computer language that is written in binary F 15.
codes only is _____
a) machine language
7. A bit in a computer terminology means either 0
b) C
or 1.
c) C#
a) True
d) pascal
b) False
View Answer
View Answer
Answer: a
Answer: a
Explanation: Machine Language is written in
Explanation: A bit stands for a binary digit. A
binary codes only. It can be easily understood by
binary digit can have only two digits i.e. 0 or 1. A
the computer and is very difficult for us to
binary number consisting of n-bits is called an n-
understand. A machine language, unlike other
bit number.
languages, requires no translators or interpreters.
8. Convert the binary equivalent 10101 to its
5. The octal equivalent of 1100101.001010 is
decimal equivalent.
______
a) 21
a) 624.12
b) 12
b) 145.12
c) 22
c) 154.12
d) 31
d) 145.21
View Answer
View Answer
Answer: a
Answer: b
Explanation: To convert a binary number to its
Explanation: The octal equivalent is obtained by
decimal equivalent follow these steps :
grouping the numbers into three, from right to left
11
24 * 1 + 23 * 0 + 22 *1 + 21 * 0 + 20 * 1 = 21. represented as :
Therefore, the answer is 21. 82 * 1 + 81 * 1 + 80 *3.
9. Which of the following is not a binary number? 3. The maximum number of bits sufficient to
a) 1111 represent an octal number in binary is _______
b) 101 a) 4
c) 11E b) 3
d) 000 c) 7
View Answer d) 8
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A binary number can have only two Answer: b
possible digits, 0 and 1. In the third option, there is Explanation: The octal number system comprises
an alphabet E present which makes it an invalid of only 8 digits. Hence, three bits (23 = 8) are
binary number. Alphabets are only allowed in the sufficient to represent any octal number in the
hexadecimal number system. binary format.
10. Which of the following is the correct 4. The binary number 111 in octal format is
representation of a binary number? ________________
a) (124)2 a) 6
b) 1110 b) 7
c) (110)2 c) 8
d) (000)2 d) 5
Answer: d Answer: b
Explanation: The binary numbers should comprise Explanation: Certain binary to octal representations
only two digits 0 and 1. are :
Also, for the base, the value should be 2 and it 000=0
should be written as a subscript enclosing the 001=1
entire number. Here, the fourth option gives the 010=2
correct representation. 011=3
100=4
1. What could be the maximum value of a single 101=5
digit in an octal number system? 110=6
a) 8 111=7.
b) 7
c) 6 5. Convert (22)8 into its corresponding decimal
d) 5 number.
View Answer a) 28
b) 18
Answer: b c) 81
Explanation: The maximum value in any number d) 82
system is one less than the value of the base. The View Answer
base in an octal number system is 8, therefore, the
maximum value of the single digit is 7. It takes Answer: b
digits from 0 to 7. Explanation: To convert an octal number to
decimal number:
2. In a number system, each position of a digit 81 * 2 + 80 * 2 = 16 + 2 = 18.
represents a specific power of the base. Hence, the decimal equivalent is 18.
a) True
b) False 6. The octal equivalent of the binary number
View Answer (0010010100)2 is ______________
a) 422
Answer: a b) 242
Explanation: In a number system, every digit is c) 224
denoted by a specific power of base. Like in an d) 226
octal system, consider the number 113, it will be View Answer
12
Answer: c 1011 0000 0001 (
Explanation: To obtain the octal equivalent, we groups of 4)
take numbers in groups of 3, from right to left as : B 0 1 (
000 010 010 100 hexadecimal equivalent)
0 2 2 4 = Therefore, the hexadecimal equivalent is (B01)16.

(224)8.
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7. Octal subtraction of (232)8 from (417)8 will
give ______________ 10. Express the decimal format of the signed
a) 165 binary number (10010)2 .
b) 185 a) 2
c) 815 b) 12
d) 516 c) -12
View Answer d) -2
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Octal subtraction is done as follows: Answer: d
417 Explanation: The first bit is the sign bit whereas
– 232 the rest of the bits are magnitude bits. So the
________ number is: 0010 = 21 * 1 =2
165 But, the sign bit is 1, Therefore the answer is : (-
The octal subtraction is the same as that of any 2)10.
other number system. The only difference is, like
in a decimal number system, we borrow a group of 1. What does the symbol D represent in a
10, in a binary system we borrow a group of 2, in hexadecimal number system?
an octal number system, we borrow in groups of 8. a) 8
b) 16
8. The 1’s complement of 0.101 is c) 13
_________________ d) 14
a) 1.010 View Answer
b) 0.010
c) 0.101 Answer: c
d) 1.101 Explanation: The symbols A, B, C, D, E and F
View Answer represent 10, 11, 12, 13, 14 and 15 respectively in
a hexadecimal system. This system comprises of
Answer: a 15 numbers in total: digits from 0-9 and symbols
Explanation: The 1’s complement of a number is from A to F.
obtained by reversing the bits with value 1 to 0 and
the bits with value 0 to 1. 2. ABC is a valid hexadecimal number.
Here, 0.101 gets converted to 1.010 in its 1’s a) True
complement format. b) False
View Answer
9. Convert (5401)8 to hexadecimal.
a) A01 Answer: a
b) A02 Explanation: In a hexadecimal number system,
c) B01 alphabets are used for the representation of
d) C01 numbers from 10 to 15. Here, A represents 10, B
View Answer represents 11 and C represents 12. Therefore, it is a
valid hexadecimal number.
Answer: c
Explanation: To convert octal to hexadecimal, we 3. The maximum number of bits sufficient to
first write binary format of the number and then represent a hexadecimal number in binary:
make groups of 4 bits from right to left, as follows: a) 4
5 4 0 1 b) 3
101 100 000 001 (octal c) 7
-> binary) d) 8
View Answer
13
Answer: a 7. Hexadecimal Addition of (3A5)16 and (1B2)16
Explanation: The hexadecimal number system will give :
comprises of only 15 symbols: 10 digits and 5 a) 165
symbols. Hence, three bits (24 = 16 ) are sufficient b) 185
to represent any hexadecimal number in the binary c) 815
format. d) 516
View Answer
4. The binary number 1110 in hexadecimal format
is _____________ Answer: a
a) 6 Explanation: Octal subtraction is done as follows:
b) E 3A5
c) 14 + 1B2
d) 15 ________
View Answer 557
In hexadecimal addition of alphabets, we add the
Answer: b corresponding numbers they represent and then
Explanation: Certain binary to hexadecimal subtract the result from 16, then generate a carry of
representations are : 1 to the next set of numbers.
1010=A Here, 5+2=7
1011=B A+B=10+11=21-16=5
1100=C 3+1+1(carry)=5.
1101=D
1110=E 8. The 2’s complement of 10.11 :
1111=F. a) 10
b) 0.010
5. Convert (52)16 into its decimal equivalent. c) 01.01
a) 28 d) 10.01
b) 83 View Answer
c) 80
d) 82 Answer: a
View Answer Explanation: The 1’s complement of a number is
obtained by reversing the bits with value 1 to 0 and
Answer: d the bits with value 0 to 1. Here, 10.11 gets
Explanation: To convert a hexadecimal number to converted to 01.00 in its 1’s complement format.
decimal number: Further, to convert 1’s complement into 2’s, we
161 * 5 + 160 * 2 = 80 + 2 = 82 add 1 to the result. Here, 01.00+1=10.00.
Hence, the decimal equivalent is 82.
9. Convert (6532)8 to hexadecimal.
6. The hexadecimal equivalent of the binary a) A01
number (0010010100)2 is : b) A02
a) 0B4 c) B01
b) 0A4 d) C01
c) 224 View Answer
d) 0114
View Answer Answer: c
Explanation: To convert octal to hexadecimal, we
Answer: c first write binary format of the number and then
Explanation: To obtain the octal equivalent, we make groups of 4 bits from right to left, as follows:
take numbers in groups of 3, from right to left as : 6 5 3 2
110 101 011 010 (octal ->
binary)
1101 0101 1010 ( groups of 4)
D 5 A ( hexadecimal
equivalent)
Therefore, the hexadecimal equivalent is (D5A)16.
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14
10. What do we call the point(decimal) in any a) Constants
hexadecimal number of the form 111.A3? b) Variables
a) radix c) Modules
b) hexadecimal point d) Tokens
c) decimal View Answer
d) octal point
Explanation: Variables are the data entities whose
Answer: b values can be changed. Constants have a fixed
Explanation: The decimal is often referred to as the value. Tokens are the words which are easily
hexadecimal point in hexadecimal representation identified by the compiler.
of numbers.
It is referred to as the octal point in octal numbers. 5. Which of the following is not a basic data type
in C language?
1. Which of the following is not a data type? a) float
a) Symbolic Data b) int
b) Alphanumeric Data c) real
c) Numeric Data d) char
d) Alphabetic Data View Answer
View Answer
Answer: c
Answer: a Explanation: There are 5 basic data types in C
Explanation: Data types are of three basic types: language: int, char, float, double, void.
Numeric, Alphabetic and Alphanumeric. Numeric Int is for the representation of integers, char is for
Data consists of only numbers. strings and characters, float and double are for
Alphabetic Data consists of only letters and a blank floating point numbers whereas void is a valueless
character and alphanumeric data consists of special data type.
symbols.
6. BOOLEAN is a type of data type which
2. *@Ac# is a type of ________________ data. basically gives a tautology or fallacy.
a) Symbolic a) True
b) Alphanumeric b) False
c) Alphabetic View Answer
d) Numeric
View Answer Answer: a
Explanation: A Boolean representation is for
Answer: b giving logical values. It returns either true or false.
Explanation: Alphanumeric data consists of If a result gives a truth value, it is called tautology
symbols. Alphanumeric data may be a letter, either whereas if it returns a false term, it is referred to as
in uppercase or lowercase or some special symbols fallacy.
like #,^,*,(, etc.
7. What does FORTRAN stands for?
3. Which of the following is not a valid a) Formula Transfer
representation in bits? b) Formula Transformation
a) 8-bit c) Formula Translation
b) 24-bit d) Format Transformation
c) 32-bit View Answer
d) 64-bit
Explanation: FORTRAN is a type of computer
Answer: b language. It was developed for solving
Explanation: There are no criteria like the 24-bit mathematical and scientific problems. It is very
representation of numbers. Numbers can be written commonly used among the scientific community.
in 8-bit, 16-bit, 32-bit and 64-bit as per the IEEE
format. 8. The program written by the programmer in high
level language is called _____________
4. What are the entities whose values can be a) Object Program
changed called? b) Source Program
15
c) Assembled Program Answer: a
d) Compiled Program Explanation: In a Binary Coded Decimal format,
View Answer 64 characters i.e. 26 different characters can be
represented. It is one of the early computer codes.
Answer: b
Explanation: The program written by the 3. Which of the following is not a type of
programmer is called a source program. The computer code?
program generated by the compiler after a) EBCDIC
compilation is called an object program. The object b) BCD
program is in machine language. c) ASCII
d) EDIC
9. A standardized language used for commercial View Answer
applications.
a) C Answer: d
b) Java Explanation: There is no coding scheme like
c) COBOL EDIC. EBCDIC stands for Extended Binary Coded
d) FORTRAN Decimal Interchange Code. BCD stands for Binary
View Answer Coded Decimal. ASCII stands for American
Standard Code for information interchange.
Answer: c
Explanation: COBOL is a language used in 4. The BCD representation of (34)10 is
business and commercial applications. It stands for _______________
Common Business Oriented Language. It is a) 6
imperative, procedural as well as object oriented b) 7
language. c) 8
d) 5
10. ______________ define how the locations can View Answer
be used.
a) Data types Answer: b
b) Attributes Explanation: BCD numbers are represented as:
c) Links 34 = (0011 0100)BCD.
d) Data Objects Each digit is individually taken and an equivalent
View Answer standard 4 bit term is written for the respective
digit.
Answer: b
Explanation: Attributes can determine how any 5. Perform BCD addition of (23)BCD + (20)BCD .
location can be used. Attributes can be type, name, a) 00110100
component, etc. Data objects are the variables and b) 01000011
constants in a program. c) 10011
d) 11100
1. A group of bits used to represent a symbol is View Answer
called a ____________
a) byte Answer: b
b) memory Explanation: To add any two BCD numbers :
c) nibble Simply perform the addition : 23+20=43.
d) code Then, write the equivalent BCD number = (0100
View Answer 0011)BCD.
Answer: a 6. The weights used in Binary coded decimal code

Explanation: In binary coding, every symbol that are:
appears in data is represented by a group of bits, a) 4,2,1
which are called bytes. Computer codes use binary b) 8,4,2,1
coding schemes. c) 6,4,2,1
d) 2,1
2. BCD uses 6 bits to represent a symbol. View Answer
a) True
b) False Answer: b
View Answer Explanation: BCD is a weighted code and it uses
16
the weights 8,4,2,1 respectively. It is often called 1. What does EBCDIC stand for?
the 8421 code. Since, it uses 4 bits for the a) Extended Binary Converted Decimal
representation therefore the weights are assigned as Intermediate Code
: 23 = 8, 22 = 4, 21 = 2, 20 = 1. b) Extended Binary Coded Decimal Intermediate
Code
7. Write the decimal equivalent for (110001)BCD. c) Extended Binary Coded Decimal Interchange
a) 31 Code
b) 13 d) Extended Binary Converted Decimal
c) C1 Interchange Code
d) 1C View Answer
View Answer
Answer: b
Answer: a Explanation: EBCDIC is the Extended BCD
Explanation: To obtain the decimal equivalent : interchange code. It uses 8 bits to represent a
We start from the rightmost bit and make groups of symbol. It can represent 256 different characters.
4, then write the decimal equivalent accordingly.
0011 0001 = (31)10. 2. In EBCDIC, a maximum of 128 different
characters can be represented.
8. The 9’s complement of 45 is _____________ a) True
a) 45 b) False
b) 54 View Answer
c) 64
d) 46 Answer: b
View Answer Explanation: EBCDIC uses 8 bits for
representation. Therefore, 28 i.e., 256 different
Answer: b characters can be represented and not 128. Thus,
Explanation: The 9’s complement of a number is the above statement is false.
obtained by subtracting each digit from 9. Here,
99-45=54. Therefore, the 9’s complement is 54. 3. The EBCDIC code for the character A is
______________
9. The 10’s complement of 455 is _________ a) digit : 1100 zone : 0001
a) 543 b) digit : 1111 zone : 0001
b) 544 c) digit : 1100 zone : 1010
c) 545 d) digit : 1111 zone : 1010
d) 546 View Answer
View Answer
Answer: a
Answer: c Explanation: The character A is represented by the
Explanation: To obtain the 10’s complement, we digit 1100 and the zone 0001. The hex
first obtain the 9’s complement and then add 1 to representation for the same is C1. Similarly for B it
it. is C2 and so on.
999-455=544 (9’s)
544+1=545(10’s). 4. The hex representation for F is
_______________
10. The Excess-3 representation of (0100)BCD is a) C6
__________ b) C5
a) 0110 c) D6
b) 1110 d) D1
c) 0111 View Answer
d) 1100
Explanation: Certain hex representations are :
Answer: c C1=A
Explanation: The excess-3 code is obtained by C2=B
adding 3 to the BCD code. C3=D
Here, 0100+0011=0111. C4=E
Also, 4+3=7. C5=F
C6=G
17
C7=H numbers. Here, 0.101 gets converted to 1.010 in its
C8=I 1’s complement format.
C9=J.
9. The EBCDIC is mainly used in ___________
5. In EBCDIC, D5 is used to represent ________ a) Programming
character. b) Machine Codes
a) J c) Mainframes
b) N d) Super Computers
c) O View Answer
d) K
Explanation: This concept of EBCDIC was
Answer: b invented by IBM. It is mainly used in the IBM
Explanation: D5 is used to represent N in this mainframe environment. So basically, mainframes
system. The representations D1 to D9 are used for use EBCDIC codes.
the characters J to R respectively.
10. Which of the following character is available
6. Which of the following is not a character of the in EBCDIC but not in ASCII?
digit 1110? a) cent sign
a) S b) dollar sign
b) Z c) comma
c) O d) punctuation
d) X View Answer
View Answer
Answer: a
Answer: c Explanation: The cent sign wasn’t available in
Explanation: All the alphabets from S to Z have ASCII which is the American Standard Code for
their digit as 1110. Here, O has the digit 1101 and Information interchange. It was available in
therefore is the incorrect option. Example: S has EBCDIC though and thus was considered better.
the digit as 1110 and zone 0010.
1. What does ASCII stand for?
7. What is the hexadecimal equivalent of the digit a) American Standard Code for Information
9? Interchange
a) E9 b) American Scientific Code for Information
b) F9 Interchange
c) G9 c) American Scientific Code for Interchanging
d) H9 Information
View Answer d) American Standard Code for Interchanging
Information
Explanation: For digits in EBCDIC, the hex
equivalent starts from F0 to F9. Answer: a
F0=0 Explanation: The ASCII codes are used to
F1=1 represent the bits into symbols and vice versa.
F2=2 ASCII is the American Standard Code which is
F3=3 and so on. used to exchange information.
8. The characters from 0 to 9 have their common 2. The decimal representation for the character ‘!’
digit as ___________ in ASCII is ____________
a) 1111 a) 31
b) 0000 b) 32
c) 0001 c) 33
d) 1000 d) 34
Answer: a Answer: c
Explanation: The digits are 1111 in case of Explanation: The decimal representation of a few
basic characters are:
18
33 : ! 7. The zone of alphabetic characters from A to O
34 : ” in ASCII is _____________
35: # a) 1000
36 :$. b) 0100
c) 0010
3. The two types of ASCII are _____________ d) 0001
and ____________ View Answer
a) ASCII-4 and ASCII-8
b) ASCII-8 and ASCII-16 Answer: b
c) ASCII-7 and ASCII-8 Explanation: The zone used by ASCII for
d) ASCII-4 and ASCII-16 alphabets is 0100. For e.g. A is represented as
View Answer 0100(zone)0001(digit). The hex equivalent is 41
for A. The zone used by numbers is 0011.
Answer: c
Explanation: The two types of ASCII are ASCII-7 8. The representation of the number 8 in binary in
and ASCII-8. ASCII-7 uses 7 bits for the ASCII-8 format _________
representation of numbers and ASCII-8 uses 8-bits. a) 00111000
b) 01001000
4. Any set of digits or alphabets are generally c) 1000
referred as ______________ d) 00011000
a) Characters View Answer
b) Symbols
c) Bits Answer: a
d) Bytes Explanation: The ASCII-8 format will have 8 bits.
View Answer The zone for the character 8 is 0011 and the digit is
1000. Therefore, its representation is 00111000.
Answer: a
Explanation: We refer to the digits and alphabets 9. Binary Coding for the letter X is
generally as characters. A character is generally a ______________
unit of information in computers. a) 01011000
b) 00111000
5. The first 128 characters are the same in both the c) 10001000
types of ASCII i.e. ASCII-7 and ASCII-8. d) 00010100
a) True View Answer
b) False
Explanation: The binary coding for the letter X is
Answer: a 01011000. Here, 0101 is the zone whereas 1000 is
Explanation: There are two types of ASCII codes: the digit. The alphabets from P to Z have the zone
ASCII-7 and ASCII-8. ASCII-7 uses 7 bits to 0101.
represent a number whereas ASCII-8 uses 8-bits to
represent a number. 10. Express the ASCII equivalent of the signed
binary number (00110010)2.
6. The number of characters that can be a) 2
represented in ASCII-8 are ______________ b) 1
a) 128 c) A
b) 256 d) ,
c) 32 View Answer
d) 64
Explanation: The ASCII characters for the
Answer: b remaining options are:
Explanation: ASCII-8 can represent 256 different 1 : 00110001
characters. ASCII-8 uses 8-bits for the A : 01000001
representation of numbers i.e. it can represent 28 = , : 00101100.
256 different characters.
1. The numbers used to represent numeric values
in EBCDIC are _______
19
a) zoned d) F3F4D5
b) unsigned View Answer
c) packed
d) eb Answer: a
View Answer Explanation: F is used for the representation of
unsigned numbers therefore, F3F4F5 represents
Answer: a 345. F3F4C5 represents +345 . F3F4D5 represents
Explanation: Zoned numbers represent the numeric -345.
values under EBCDIC (Extended Binary Coded
Decimal Interchange Code). In zoned format, there 6. Which of the following is a valid encoding
is only one digit per byte. format?
a) UTF-1
2. Unicode provides a consistent way of encoding b) UTF-8
multilingual plain text. c) UTF-A
a) True d) UTF-4
b) False View Answer
View Answer
Answer: b
Answer: a Explanation: The various encoding formats are
Explanation: Unicode defines codes for characters UTF-8, UTF-16 and UTF-32. UTF stands for
used in all major languages of the world. Unicode Transformation Format. It is basically an
It is a coding system which supports almost all the encoding system that supports all languages.
languages. It defines special codes for different
characters, symbols, diacritics, etc. 7. _________________ defines the assigned
ordering among the characters used by the
3. Which of the following is not a type of numeric computer.
value in zoned format? a) Unicode
a) Positive b) Collating Sequence
b) Negative c) Accumulation
c) Double d) Sorting
d) Unsigned View Answer
View Answer
Answer: b
Answer: c Explanation: Collating sequence is the term used
Explanation: The zoned format can represent for ordering among characters. It may vary
numeric values of type Positive, negative and depending upon the type of code used by a
unsigned numbers. A sign indicator is used in the computer.
zone position of the rightmost digit.
8. The sorting sequence of the strings A1,23,1A
4. The sign indicator of unsigned numbers is will be ______________
____________ a) 23 > A1 > 1A
a) C b) 23 < 1A > A1
b) D c) A1 > 1A > 23
c) F d) A1 < 1A < 23
d) X View Answer
View Answer
Answer: d
Answer: c Explanation: The sorting order is A1, 1A, 23.
Explanation: A sign indicator is used in the zone Numeric characters are given a greater preference
position of the rightmost digit. A sign indicator C in EBCDIC as compared to the alphabets.
is used for positive, D for negative and F is used
for negative numbers. 9. The default character coding in HTML-5 is
_____________
5. The EBCDIC value of the number 345 in zoned a) UTF-8
format is __________ b) UTF-16
a) F3F4F5 c) UTF-4
b) E3E4E5 d) UTF-32
c) F3F4C5 View Answer
20
Answer: a Answer: d
Explanation: HTML5 which is the hypertext Explanation: 1’s complement is obtained by
markup language generally uses the UTF-8 format reversing the bits from 0 to 1 and vice-versa.
as its default encoding. Unicode covers all the Binary of 1 is : 0001 and 1’s complement is : 1110.
characters and symbols in all the different
languages. 4. The binary number 111 in its 2’s complement
form is ____________
10. Numbers used in packed decimal format can a) 010
be used for _____________ operations. b) 001
a) logical c) 000
b) relational d) 111
c) arithmetic View Answer
d) bitwise
Explanation: 2’s complement is obtained by adding
Answer: c 1 to the 1’s complement. 1’s complement of 111:
Explanation: The packed numbers can be used for 000 and 2’s complement:001.
arithmetic operations. The packed numbers also
require the lesser number of bytes as compared to 5. The sign magnitude representation of -9 is
zoned numbers. ___________
a) 00001001
1. __________________ is a straightforward b) 11111001
method of representing positive and negative c) 10001001
numbers. d) 11001
a) Radix View Answer
b) Complement
c) Sign Magnitude Answer: c
d) Encode Explanation: In case of a negative number, the
View Answer leftmost digit is 1 if the number is negative.
Therefore, +9=00001001 and -9=10001001.
Answer: c Similarly for all other negative numbers.
Explanation: Sign Magnitude is used for the
representation of positive and negative numbers. If 6. If you are given a word of size n bits, the range
the leftmost digit is 0, the number is positive. If the of 2’s complement of binary numbers is ________
leftmost digit is 1, the number is negative. a) -2n+1 to +2n+1
b) -2n-1 to +2n-1
2. The additive inverse of a number is the number c) -2n-1 to +2n+1
which when added to the original number gives 1 d) -2n-1 to +2n-1-1
as a result. View Answer
a) True
b) False Answer: d
View Answer Explanation: 2’s complement is obtained by adding
1 to the 1’s complement. For e.g. 5 :0101 and 1’s
Answer: b complement=1010 and 2’s complement=1011.
Explanation: Additive Inverse of a number is the
number which gives 0 and not 1 when added to the 7. In both signed magnitude and 2’s complement ,
original number. e.g. number=45, additive inverse positive and negative numbers are separated using
=-45, after addition they give 0. ______________
a) LSB
3. The 1’s complement of 1 in 4 bits is b) MSB
__________ c) 0
a) 0001 d) 1
b) 0 View Answer
c) 1001
d) 1110 Answer: b
View Answer Explanation: The positive and negative numbers
are separated using the MSB. MSB is the Most
Significant Bit. MSB is the leftmost bit. e.g. If
21
1000 is the number then 1 is the most significant 2. One extra bit is added on the left of a binary
bit. number, in case of Binary Multiplication using
Booth’s Algorithm.
8. Single Precision format comprises of a) True
_________ bits. b) False
a) 4 View Answer
b) 8
c) 16 Answer: a
d) 32 Explanation: The statement is true as an extra bit is
View Answer added when we multiply 2 binary numbers by
using Booth’s.
Answer: d Let us take an example if we multiply 2 * – 3.
Explanation: The single precision format The first step is to obtain the binary equivalents.
comprises of 32-bits. It has 1 sign bit, 8 bits for Hence, 2=10 and -3=01.
exponent and 23 for the mantissa. Now after adding the extra bit 2=010 and -3=101.
We add 0 in case of positive numbers whereas 1 in
9. If m is the 2’s complement and n is the binary negative numbers.
number, then ______________
a) m=n’ 3. The binary number obtained after applying
b) m=n’+1 RSC on 11010 will be ___________
c) m=n’-1 a) 11101
d) m=n b) 10100
View Answer c) 01101
d) 01000
Explanation: 2’s complement is simply obtained by
addition of 1. So if n is the number and we take the Answer: c
2’s complement, add 1 to it, we get the 2’s Explanation: RSC stands for Right-Shift Circulant.
complement. Therefore, m=n’+1. So, whenever the numbers are shifted to the right
an extra 0 bit is added to the left. Here, after the
10. The possible number of bit patterns with 8 bits right shift of 11010, the number obtained will be
________________ 01101.
a) 128
b) 8 4. The result of >> of 11001 by 3-bits will be
c) 24 ______________
d) 256 a) 01000
View Answer b) 01111
c) 00011
Answer: d d) 11111
Explanation: The total number of patterns that can View Answer
be formed using n-bits are 2n. Here, possible
patterns are: 28=256. Answer: a
Explanation: >> is the bitwise left shift operator in
1. Which of the following is used for binary binary arithmetic.
multiplication? Applying >>(left-shift) by 3-bits on the number
a) Restoring Multiplication 11001 will result in 3 zeroes on the right, i.e.,
b) Booth’s Algorithm 01000.
c) Pascal’s Rule
d) Digit-by-digit multiplication 5. Booth’s Algorithm is applied on
View Answer _____________
a) decimal numbers
Answer: b b) binary numbers
Explanation: The Booth’s Algorithm is used for the c) hexadecimal numbers
multiplication of binary numbers. It is basically d) octal Numbers
used for the multiplication of 2 signed numbers. View Answer
This is a very important algorithm in binary
arithmetic. Answer: b
Explanation: Booth’s Algorithm is applied only on
22
signed and unsigned binary numbers. c) -2
Although, the values of other number systems can d) -3
be converted to binary, and then the multiplication View Answer
could be performed.
Answer: a
6. If Booth’s Multiplication is performed on the Explanation: After applying the procedure of
numbers 22*3, then what is 3 referred to as Booth’s Algorithm, the value obtained will be 6.
__________ Even though the result is obtained in its 2’s
a) accumulator complement for but then it is reconverted to its
b) multiplicand normalized form. Also, the value obtained after
c) quotient decimal multiplication is the same as the value
d) multiplier obtained after binary multiplication.
View Answer
10. What does the data transfer instruction STA
Answer: d stand for?
Explanation: It is referred to as the multiplier. a) Store Accumulator
Multiplier is denoted by Q in booth’s algorithm. 22 b) Send Accumulator
is called the multiplicand. These numbers are first c) Send Action
converted to their binary equivalents and further d) Store Action
the multiplication is performed. View Answer
7. What is the default value of accumulator in Answer: a

booth’s multiplication of two 4-bit binary Explanation: STA is a data transfer instruction
numbers? given whenever a value is to be copied on the
a) 0 accumulator. It is used for the fetch operation.
b) 1
c) 0000 1. What is the 1’s complement of 11010?
d) 00000 a) 11010
View Answer b) 11011
c) 00110
Answer: d d) 00101
Explanation: The correct answer is d because in View Answer
case of Booth’s algorithm an extra bit is always
added to the binary numbers. The 4-bit binary Answer: d
numbers become 5-bit numbers after adding the Explanation: The 1’s complement of a number is
extra bit. Accumulator is always assigned 0 bits of obtained by converting all the 0 bits to 1 and all 1’s
the order of the binary numbers whose to 0’s. Here, 11010 gets converted to 00101.
multiplication is to be performed.
2. 2’s complement is obtained by adding 1 to 1’s
8. What is the value of n in multiplication of 110* complement of a number.
1000? a) True
a) 2 b) False
b) 3 View Answer
c) 4
d) 0 Answer: a
View Answer Explanation: The statement is true. Let us take an
example: Consider the number 110000.
Answer: c 1’s complement of the number is 001111. 2’s
Explanation: In Booth’s, n denotes the number of complement=001111+1=010000.
bits that the higher binary number has when
multiplication is performed. Here, since there are 4 3. The 10’s complement of 562 is __________
bits in 1000, the answer is n=4. a) 4
b) 3
9. What will be the value obtained after c) 7
multiplication of (-2) * (-3) using Booth’s d) 8
Algorithm? View Answer
a) 6
b) -6
23
Answer: b Answer: c
Explanation: 10’s complement is obtained by Explanation: Firstly, the 2’s complement of the
adding 1 to the 9’s complement of a number. 2nd number is obtained.
Here, 9’s complement=999-562=436. Then, if carry is generated, it is discarded and the
Therefore, 10’s complement=436+1=437. number is positive.
Otherwise, 2’s complement of the result is
4. The 9’s complement of 6578 is ___________ obtained and the answer is negative.
a) 1234 Here, 1111+1110=1, 1101. Since carry is
b) 3421 generated, it is discarded and the answer is
c) 3124 positive.
d) 3420
View Answer 8. The 1’s complement of 1111111110.101 is
_______________
Answer: b a) 1.010
Explanation: 9’s complement is obtained by b) 0000000000.010
subtracting 9 from each bit of the number. c) 1111111110.101
Here, 9999-6578=3421. d) 1.101
Therefore, the 9’s complement is 3421. View Answer
5. >> operator is used to denote _________ Answer: a

a) left shift Explanation: The 1’s complement of a number is
b) right shift obtained by reversing the bits with value 1 to 0 and
c) greater than the bits with value 0 to 1. Here, 11111111110.101
d) less than gets converted to 000000001.010 in its 1’s
View Answer complement format.
Answer: b 9. 7’s complement of 432 is _________________

Explanation: >> operator denotes the right shift in a) 432
binary arithmetic. b) 543
E.g. If we say, >>110 by 2-bits, the value obtained c) 345
will be 001. d) 777
Similarly, << denotes the right shift operator. View Answer
6. The subtraction using 1’s complement of 110 – Answer: c

100 will give the result ___________ Explanation: To find the 7’s complement of any
a) -011 number, we simply subtract 7 from each of the bits.
b) 011 Here, 777-432=345. So, the 7’s complement is
c) 010 345.
d) -010
View Answer 10. The 16’s complement of 74E will be
__________
Answer: c a) 8B2
Explanation: To subtract using 1’s complement: b) F8B2
Take the 1’s complement of the 2nd number (here, c) 2B8
011) and add it to the first number. d) 8C2
(110+011=1,001). View Answer
If the carry is generated, it is added to the result
(001+1=010). Answer: b
If a carry is not generated then it is converted to its Explanation: The 16’s complement is obtained by
1’s complement form. subtracting 16 from each of the bits of that number.
Here, 16’s complement of 074E will be F8B2.
7. The result obtained on subtraction using 2’s
complement of 1111-0010 will be _________ 1. Binary addition of 1 + 1 gives the result
a) 11101 _____________
b) 11011 a) 0
c) 1101 b) 1
d) 1011 c) 2
View Answer
24
d) 10 Answer: c
View Answer Explanation: Most computers follow the IEEE 754
bit format for floating point arithmetic. IEEE
Answer: a stands for electrical and electronic engineers. It has
Explanation: The result obtained is 0 with a carry all the floating point arithmetic specifications.
of 1. This carry obtained is added to the next
higher column. Binary system can have only two 6. Which of the following is often called the
numbers 0 and 1. double precision format?
a) 64-bit
2. 4-bit is a valid IEEE- format. b) 8-bit
a) True c) 32-bit
b) False d) 128-bit
Answer: b Answer: a
Explanation: The two main IEEE formats are 16- Explanation: The 64-bit format is referred to as the
bit and 32-bit. No format of 4-bit exists. Further, 8- double precision format. It has 1 sign bit, 8
bit format also exists. exponent bits and 23 bits for the mantissa.
In IEEE format, there are certain bits allotted to
sign, exponent and mantissa. 7. What is NaN in IEEE standards?
a) Not arithmetic
3. The result of 0 – 1 in binary is b) Not a negation
______________ c) Not a number
a) 0 d) Not a Node
b) 1 View Answer
c) 11
d) 10 Answer: c
View Answer Explanation: It stands for not a number in IEEE
standards. A NaN is obtained whenever a result id
Answer: b indeterminate like whenever anything is divided by
Explanation: The binary subtraction 0 – 1 gives the 0.
result 1. A borrow of 1 is although generated and is
removed from the next higher column. 8. The result that is smaller than the smallest
number obtained is referred to as ___________
4. The complement of any number can be given a) NaN
by a general term _______________ b) Underflow
a) Bn – 1 – N c) Smallest
b) Bn -1 + N d) Mantissa
c) Bn +1 – N View Answer
d) Bn +1 + N
Explanation: It is referred to as underflow. Nan
Answer: a stands for not a number. The mantissa is the part
Explanation: Complement of a number can be after the decimal.
given by the term :
C= Bn – 1 – N. 9. The number of sign bits in a 32-bit IEEE format
Here, _________
B= base a) 1
n= number of digits b) 11
N= the number. c) 9
d) 23
5. The IEEE standard followed by almost all the View Answer
computers for floating point arithmetic _____
a) IEEE 260 Answer: a
b) IEEE 488 Explanation: There is only 1 sign bit in all the
c) IEEE 754 standards. In a 32-bit format, there is 1 sign bit, 8
d) IEEE 610 bits for the exponent and 23 bits for the mantissa.
View Answer
25
10. Express the decimal format of the signed c) Multiplicand
binary number (101010)2 . d) Multiplier
a) 10 View Answer
b) 12
c) -12 Answer: d
d) -10 Explanation: 111 is called the multiplier.
View Answer Whenever a multiplication is performed the second
term is called the multiplier whereas the first term
Answer: d is called the multiplicand.
Explanation: The first bit is the sign bit whereas
the rest of the bits are magnitude bits. So the 5. The result obtained on binary multiplication of
number is: 01010 =23 * 1 + 21 * 1 =8+2 =10. 1010 * 1100 is _____________
But, the sign bit is 1 , a) 0001111
Therefore the answer is : (-2)10. b) 0011111
c) 1111100
1. Perform binary addition of 1101 + 0010 is d) 1111000
________ View Answer
a) 1110
b) 1111 Answer: d
c) 0111 Explanation: The solution is as follows :
d) 1,1101 1010
View Answer * 1100
________
Answer: b 0000
Explanation: The addition is performed as : 0000
1101 1010
+ 0010 1010
_______ _______
1111 1111000
Therefore, the result is 1111.
6. Which of the following is often called the
2. The addition 1+1 gives 0 as a result. double precision format?
a) True a) 64-bit
b) False b) 8-bit
View Answer c) 32-bit
d) 128-bit
Answer: a View Answer
Explanation: The two result obtained is 0 with a
carry of 1. This carry is transferred to the next Answer: a
higher column. Explanation: The 64-bit format is referred to as the
double precision format. It has 1 sign bit, 8
3. The result of 0*1 in binary is ____________ exponent bits and 23 bits for the mantissa.
a) 0
b) 1 7. What do you call the intermediate terms in
c) invalid binary multiplication?
d) 10 a) Multipliers
View Answer b) Mid terms
c) Partial Products
Answer: a d) Multiplicands
Explanation: The binary multiplication of any View Answer
number with 0 will give the result 0 itself. Any
binary number when multiplied by 0 gives 0 only. Answer: c
e.g. 1101 * 0000 = 0000. Explanation: The intermediate terms are called
partial terms. The mid terms obtained in the binary
4. The multiplication of 110 * 111 is performed. multiplications are the partial ones whereas the
What is a general term used for 111? answer obtained is called the final product.
a) Dividend
b) Quotient
26
8. The result that is smaller than the smallest 2. Boolean Algebra can deal with any number
number obtained is referred to as ___________ system.
a) NaN a) True
b) Underflow b) False
c) Smallest View Answer
d) Mantissa
Explanation: Boolean Algebra can only be used
Answer: b with the binary number system. Boolean deals with
Explanation: It is referred to as underflow. Nan only two values 0 and 1. In Boolean System, if the
stands for not a number. Mantissa is the part after result is tautology it returns 1 otherwise 0.
the decimal.
3. The symbol + in Boolean is also known as the
9. The number of sign bits in a 32-bit IEEE format ____________ operator.
is _______ a) AND
a) 1 b) OR
b) 11 c) ADD
c) 9 d) SUMMATION
d) 23 View Answer
View Answer
Answer: b
Answer: a Explanation: The symbol + is also called as the OR
Explanation: There is only 1 sign bit in all the operator. It is used for logical addition. It follows
standards. In a 32-bit format, there is 1 sign bit, 8 the law of binary addition.
bits for the exponent and 23 bits for the mantissa.
advertisement 4. Which operator has the highest precedence?
a) +
10. Express the decimal format of the signed b) .
binary number (101010)2 . c) !
a) 10 d) *
b) 12 View Answer
c) -12
d) -10 Answer: c
View Answer Explanation: The NOT operator has the highest
precedence. It is denoted by ! or – sign. Further,
Answer: d AND (.) operations are performed and then the OR
Explanation: The first bit is the sign bit whereas terms are evaluated.
the rest of the bits are magnitude bits. So the
number is: 01010 =23 * 1 + 21 * 1 =8+2 =10. 5. In the expression Y + X’.Y, which operator will
But , the sign bit is 1, be evaluated first?
Therefore the answer is : (-2)10. a) ‘
b) +
c) .
1. The number of values applicable in Boolean d) ,
Algebra. View Answer
a) 1
b) 2 Answer: a
c) 3 Explanation: In Boolean Algebra, complement of a
d) 4 number is given the highest precedence. Therefore,
View Answer complement which is denoted by the ‘ (apostrophe)
symbol is evaluated first.
Answer: b
Explanation: Boolean algebra is based on binary 6. Which of the following is false?
number system. It therefore comprises only 2 bits : a) x+y=y+x
0 and 1. Hence, only two values are applicable to b) x.y=y.x
Boolean algebra. c) x.x’=1
d) x+x’=1
View Answer
27
Answer: c Answer: a
Explanation: The first and second option describes Explanation: The Boolean functions are
the commutative law. The fourth option holds true represented using the truth tables. Truth tables
since if x=1, then x’=0, and x+x’=1. Third option represent the tautology and fallacy for terms.
is incorrect because on multiplication of a boolean
value with its complement the result will always be 1. Boolean Function is of the form of ________
0. a) Truth values
b) K=f(X,Y,X)
7. As per idempotent law, X + X will always be c) Algebraic Expression
equal to ________ d) Truth Table
a) 0 View Answer
b) 1
c) X Answer: a
d) 2X Explanation: The boolean function is of the form
View Answer of algebraic expressions or truth table. A boolean
function is of the form as that of option 2. The
Answer: c result obtained from a boolean function can be a
Explanation: It will always return the same value truth value or a fallacy.
X. Since, boolean deals with only two numbers 0
and 1, if we add 0+0, the answer is 0. Similarly, if 2. The result of X+X.Y is X.
we add 1+1 the answer is 1. a) True
b) False
8. The expression for involution law is _________ View Answer
a) x+y=y+x
b) x+1=1 Answer: a
c) (x’)’=x Explanation: This is a boolean expression. It can be
d) x.x=x evaluated as :
View Answer X+X.Y = X(1+Y) = X.
Since 1+Y=1 by boolean laws.
Answer: c
Explanation: The involution law states that the 3. In the boolean function w=f(X,Y,Z), what is the
complement of complement of a number is the RHS referred to as ________
number itself. The third option justifies the a) right hand side
statement. Thus, (x’)’=x. b) expression
c) literals
9. Who proposed the use of Boolean algebra in d) boolean
the design of relay switching circuits? View Answer
a) George Boole
b) Claude E. Shannon Answer: b
c) Claude E. Boole Explanation: The RHS is commonly referred to as
d) George Shannon the expression. The symbols X, Y and Z are
View Answer commonly referred to as the literals of the function.
Answer: b 4. The general form for calculating the number of

Explanation: Claude E Shannon suggested the use rows in a truth table is ________
of Boolean in relay switching circuits. George a) 2n
Boole, a mathematician introduced it for b) 2n+1
simplifying representations and manipulation of c) 2n
propositional logic. d) 2n+1
View Answer
10. Truth table is used to represent Boolean
__________ Answer: c
a) functions Explanation: The general form for the calculation
b) algebra of rows in a truth table is 2n . Here, n= number of
c) operators literals in the function.
d) addition
View Answer 5. The number of literals in the expression
F=X.Y’ + Z are _____________
28
a) 4 d) x+y+z
b) 3 View Answer
c) 2
d) 1 Answer: c
View Answer Explanation: There minterm expression is obtained
using the AND term. Here, when X=Y=Z=0, the
Answer: b expression obtained is x’y’z’.
Explanation: Literals the generally the number of
variables used in any boolean expression. Here, 10. The max term when X=Y=Z=1 is ________
since there are 3 variables X, Y and Z, therefore a) x’+y’+z’
the answer is 3. b) xyz
c) x’y’z’
6. The complement term for X’.Y’.Z + X.Y will d) x+y+z
be _____________ View Answer
a) XYZ’+X’Y’
b) (X+Y+Z’)(X’+Y’) Answer: a
c) (X+Y+Z’)(X’+Y) Explanation: The max term consists of variables
d) (X+Y+Z’)(X’+Y) forming an OR term. Here, when X=Y=Z=1, the
View Answer expression is x’+y’+z’.
Answer: b 1. The terms in SOP are called ___________

Explanation: The OR and AND operators are a) max terms
interchanged. The complement terms are reduced b) min terms
to normal terms and the result is obtained. c) mid terms
d) sum terms
7. What is the complement of X’Y’Z? View Answer
a) X+YZ
b) X’+Y+’Z’ Answer: b
c) X+Y+Z’ Explanation: The SOP is the sum of products. It
d) XYZ’ consists of min terms often called the product
View Answer terms.
Similarly, POS consists of max terms.
Answer: c
Explanation: The complement is obtained by 2. A sum of products expression is a product term
converting the complement terms to normal terms (min term) or several min terms ANDed together.
and vice versa. Also, the OR and AND operators a) True
are interchanged. Here, X’Y’Z gets converted to b) False
X+Y+Z’. View Answer
8. The minterm of any expression is denoted by Answer: b

___________ Explanation: The statement is partially correct.
a) Mt A sum of products expression is a product term
b) m (min term) or several min terms OR ed(i.e. added)
c) M together.
d) min
View Answer 3. Which of the following is an incorrect SOP
expression?
Answer: b a) x+x.y
Explanation: The variables forming an AND term b) (x+y)(x+z)
is generally the minterm. It is denoted by m. (lower c) x
case letter). d) x+y
View Answer
9. The min term when X=Y=Z=0 is
_____________ Answer: b
a) x’+y’+z’ Explanation: The second expression is incorrect
b) xyz because it consists of two maxterms ANDed
c) x’y’z’ together.
This makes it a POS or the product of sum
29
expression. Here, n=3 since there are 3 variables therefore, min
Other options are valid SOP expressions. terms=23=8.
4. The corresponding min term when x=0, y=0 8. The number of cells in a K-map with n-
and z=1. variables.
a) x.y.z’ a) 2n
b) X’+Y’+Z b) n2
c) X+Y+Z’ c) 2n
d) x’.y’.z d) n
Answer: d Answer: c
Explanation: The min term is obtained by taking Explanation: K-map is nothing but Karnaugh map.
the complement of the zero values and taking the SOP and POS expressions can be simplified using
term with value 1 as it is. the K-map.
Here, x=0,y=0 and z=1, then the min term is x’y’z. The number of cells in case of n-variables=2n.
5. LSI stands for ___________ 9. The output of AND gates in the SOP
a) Large Scale Integration expression is connected using the ________ gate.
b) Large System Integration a) XOR
c) Large Symbolic Instruction b) NOR
d) Large Symbolic Integration c) AND
View Answer d) OR
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: It stands for large scale integration. Answer: d
This is the abstraction level of the integrated Explanation: Since the product terms or the min
circuits. terms are added in an SOP expression.
It can also be small scale, medium, large or very Therefore, the OR gate is used to connect the AND
large scale integration. gates.
6. Which operation is shown in the following 10. The expression A+BC is the reduced form of
expression: (X+Y’).(X+Z).(Z’+Y’) ______________
a) NOR a) AB+BC
b) ExOR b) (A+B)(A+C)
c) SOP c) (A+C)B
d) POS d) (A+B)C
Answer: c Answer: b
Explanation: The expression comprises of max Explanation: The second option is correct.
terms. It can simplified as follows: (A+B)(A+C)
Also, the terms are ANDed together, therefore it is =AA+AC+AB+BC
a POS term. =A+AC+AB+BC
=A(1+C)+AB+BC
7. The number of min terms for an expression =A+AB+BC
comprising of 3 variables? =A(1+B)+BC
a) 8 =A+BC.
b) 3
c) 0 1. Electronic circuits that operate on one or more
d) 1 input signals to produce standard output _______
View Answer a) Series circuits
b) Parallel Circuits
Answer: a c) Logic Signals
Explanation: If any expression comprises of n d) Logic Gates
variables, its corresponding min terms are given by View Answer
2n.
30
Answer: d output from 0 to 1 and vice-versa.
Explanation: The logic gates operate on one or The Boolean expression for NOT gate is Y=A’.
more input signals to produce a standard output. Therefore, it gives the complement of the result
Logic gates give the output in the form of 0 and 1. obtained.
The Boolean algebra can be applied to the logic
gates. 6. Which of the following gate will give a 0 when
both of its inputs are 1?
2. Logic Gates are the building blocks of all a) AND
circuits in a computer. b) OR
a) True c) NAND
b) False d) EXOR
Answer: a Answer: c
Explanation: The statement is true. Explanation: The NAND gate gives 0 as the output
Logic gates are idealized to implement a boolean when both of its inputs are 1 or any one of the
function in all circuits of a computer. input is 1.
The signals are directed as per the outputs of the It returns a 1 only if both the inputs are 0.
logic gates in the form of 0 and 1.
7. When logic gates are connected to form a
3. A __________ gate gives the output as 1 only if gating/logic network it is called as a
all the inputs signals are 1. ______________ logic circuit.
a) AND a) combinational
b) OR b) sequential
c) EXOR c) systematic
d) NOR d) hardwired
Answer: a Answer: a
Explanation: The AND gate gives a 1 only if all Explanation: It is referred to as a combinational
the input signals are 1. circuit as it comprises a number of gates.
The Boolean expression for evaluating an AND It is connected to evaluate a result of a Boolean
signal is: Y=A.B. expression.
4. The boolean expression of an OR gate is 8. The universal gate that can be used to
_______ implement any Boolean expression is __________
a) A.B a) NAND
b) A’B+AB’ b) EXOR
c) A+B c) OR
d) A’B’ d) AND
Answer: c Answer: a
Explanation: An OR gate gives the result as 1 if Explanation: NAND gate can be used to implement
any one of the inputs is one. any Boolean expression.
Its expression is A+B. It is a universal gate. A universal gate can be used
An OR gate gives a 0 only if both the inputs are 0. to implement any other Boolean function without
using any other logic gate.
5. The gate which is used to reverse the output
obtained is _____ 9. The gate which is called an inverter is called
a) NOR _________
b) NAND a) NOR
c) EXOR b) NAND
d) NOT c) EXOR
View Answer d) NOT
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: NOT gate is used to reverse the
31
Answer: d It gives a HIGH output only in one case when all
Explanation: Inverter is used to reverse the output. the inputs given to it are LOW.
A NOT gate is used to invert or change the output
from 0 to 1 and vice-versa. 4. The following figure shows a ___________
gate.
10. The expression of an EXOR gate is
____________
a) A’B+AB’
b) AB+A’B’
c) A+A.B
d) A’+B’
a) NOR
View Answer
b) NAND
c) EXOR
Answer: a d) OR
Explanation: The expression for an EXOR gate is View Answer
A’B+AB’.
An EXOR gate is nothing but an exclusive OR
Answer: a
gate.
Explanation: The figure is that of a NOR gate.
The bubble signifies that it is a NOR gate.
1. A ____________ is a circuit with only one It is a type of universal gate and can be used to
output but can have multiple inputs. implement all the boolean expressions.
a) Logic gate
b) Truth table
5. The complement of the input given is obtained
c) Binary circuit
in case of:
d) Boolean circuit
a) NOR
View Answer
b) AND+NOR
c) NOT
Answer: a d) EX-OR
Explanation: A logic gate is used to evaluate a View Answer
Boolean expression.
It can have multiple inputs but can have only one
Answer: c
output.
Explanation: The NOT gate, also called as the
The different types of logic gates are AND, OR,
inverter gate is used to reverse the input which is
NOT etc.
given.
It gives an inverted output, thus gives the
2. There are 5 universal gates. complement.
a) True Expression for NOT gate: Y=A’, where A is the
b) False input.
View Answer
6. How many AND gates are required to realize
Answer: b the following expression Y=AB+BC?
Explanation: There are only 2 main universal a) 4
gates: NAND and NOR. b) 8
A NAND gate as well as the NOR gate can be used c) 1
to implement any other Boolean expression thus it d) 2
is called as a universal gate. View Answer
3. The Output is LOW if any one of the inputs is Answer: d
HIGH in case of a _________ gate. Explanation: 2 AND gates are required to realize
a) NOR the expression.
b) NAND 1 AND gate will be used to connect the inputs A
c) OR and B whereas the other will be used to connect the
d) AND inputs B and C.
View Answer
7. Number of outputs in a half adder
Answer: b _____________
Explanation: In case of a NAND gate the output is a) 1
LOW if any one of the inputs is HIGH (i.e. 1).
32
b) 2 c) Central Processing Unit
c) 3 d) Memory
d) 0 View Answer
View Answer
Answer: c
Answer: b Explanation: The CPU is referred to as the brain of
Explanation: A half adder gives two outputs. a computer.
One is called the sum and the other is carry. It consists of a control unit and the arithmetic and
Half adder can be implemented using an EXOR logic unit. It is responsible for performing all the
gate and an AND gate. processes and operations.
8. The ________ gate is an OR gate followed by a 2. Control Unit acts as the central nervous system
NOT gate. of the computer.
a) NAND a) True
b) EXOR b) False
c) NOR View Answer
d) EXNOR
Explanation: The control unit is referred to as the
Answer: c central nervous system because it selects and
Explanation: A NOR gate is a universal gate which interprets the instructions and coordinates
is an OR gate followed by a NOT gate. execution.
It therefore reverses the output obtained by an OR
gate. 3. What does MBR stand for?
It can be used to implement any Boolean a) Main Buffer Register
expression. b) Memory Buffer Routine
c) Main Buffer Routine
9. The expression of a NAND gate is_______ d) Memory Buffer Register
a) A.B View Answer
b) A’B+AB’
c) (A.B)’ Answer: d
d) (A+B)’ Explanation: The binary subtraction 0 – 1 gives the
View Answer result 1.
A borrow of 1 is although generated and is
Answer: c removed from the next higher column.
Explanation: A NAND gate is an AND gate
followed by a NOT gate. 4. In the instruction ADD A, B, the answer gets
It therefore inverts the output of an AND gate. stored in ___________
NAND gate is also a universal gate. a) B
b) A
10. Which of the following correctly describes the c) Buffer
distributive law. d) C
a)( A+B)(C+D)=AB+CD View Answer
b) (A+B).C=AC+BC
c) (AB)(A+B)=AB Answer: b
d) (A.B)C=AC.AB Explanation: In any instruction of the form ADD
View Answer A, B; the answer gets stored in the A register. The
format is: ADD Destination, Source.
Answer: b
Explanation: The second option correctly describes 5. What does PC stand for?
the distributive law. a) Program Changer
(A+B).C =AC+BC. b) Program Counter
Boolean Laws are used to implementing and c) Performance Counter
simplifying Boolean expression. d) Performance Changer
View Answer
1. Brain of computer is ____________
a) Control unit Answer: b
b) Arithmetic and Logic unit Explanation: The Program counter contains the
33
address of the next instruction which is to be Sequencing is traversing each and every operation
fetched by the control unit. whereas execution causes the performance of each
All other options are invalid. operation.
6. Which of the following holds the last 10. What does D in the D-flip flop stand for?
instruction fetched? a) Digital
a) PC b) Direct
b) MAR c) Delay
c) MBR d) Durable
d) IR View Answer
View Answer
Answer: c
Answer: d Explanation: In the hardwired control unit, the
Explanation: The IR which stands for the delay element method uses D-flip flop which
instruction register contains the last instruction causes a delay. Since, in the delay element method,
fetched. there must be a finite time gap between the 2 steps.
All the others options are registers which are used
for the fetch operation. 1. CPU has built-in ability to execute a particular
set of machine instructions, called as __________
7. The portion of the processor which contains the a) Instruction Set
hardware required to fetch the operations is b) Registers
_______ c) Sequence Set
a) Datapath d) User instructions
b) Processor View Answer
c) Control
d) Output unit Answer: a
View Answer Explanation: An instruction is any task which is to
be performed by the processor. Instructions are
Answer: a stored in the register. Instruction set is the set of
Explanation: The datapath contains the hardware machine instructions.
required to fetch the operations. The control tells
the data path what needs to be done. 2. Opcode indicates the operations to be
performed.
8. Causing the CPU to step through a series of a) True
micro operations is called _________ b) False
a) Execution View Answer
b) Runtime
c) Sequencing Answer: a
d) Pipelining Explanation: Every instruction has an opcode.
View Answer Additionally, it may have one or more operands
and the op code indicates the operation to be
Answer: c performed.
Explanation: Sequencing is the process of causing
the CPU to step through a series of micro 3. The length of a register is called _______
operations. Execution causes the performance of a) word limit
each micro operation. b) word size
c) register limit
9. The functions of execution and sequencing are d) register size
performed by using ______________ View Answer
a) Input Signals
b) Output Signals Answer: b
c) Control Signals Explanation: The length of a register is called word
d) CPU size. It tells the number of bits a register can store.
View Answer Registers are a part of the CPU.
Answer: c 4. The _________ holds the contents of the

Explanation: Sequencing followed by the process accessed memory word.
of execution is performed by the Control signals. a) MAR
34
b) MBR Answer: b
c) PC Explanation: Sign flag is a type of status register or
d) IR the flag register. It is used to indicate the sign of
View Answer certain bits.
Answer: b 9. The number of sign bits in a 32-bit IEEE format

Explanation: The MBR holds the contents of the __________
accessed (read/written) memory word. a) 1
MBR stands for Memory Buffer Register. b) 11
c) 9
5. Which of the following is not a visible register? d) 23
a) General Purpose Registers View Answer
b) Address Register
c) Status Register Answer: a
d) MAR Explanation: There is only 1 sign bit in all the
View Answer standards. In a 32-bit format, there is 1 sign bit, 8
bits for the exponent and 23 bits for the mantissa.
Answer: d
Explanation: MAR or the memory address register 10. New CPU whose instruction set includes the
is not a visible register. This register is user instruction set of its predecessor CPU is said to be
inaccessible. It contains the address of the memory ___________ with its predecessor.
block to be read or written to. a) fully compatible
b) forward compatible
6. Which of the following is a data transfer c) compatible
instruction? d) backward compatible
a) STA 16-bit address View Answer
b) ADD A, B
c) MUL C, D Answer: d
d) RET Explanation: The CPU is called backward
View Answer compatible since it contains the instruction set of
its predecessor. Manufacturers tend to group their
Answer: a CPUs into families having similar instruction set.
Explanation: The instruction STA 16-bit address is
a data transfer instruction. 1. What is the high speed memory between the
STA means Store in Accumulator. main memory and the CPU called?
a) Register Memory
7. What is correct instruction if you want the b) Cache Memory
control to go to the location 2000h? c) Storage Memory
a) MOV 2000h d) Virtual Memory
b) MOV A, 2000h View Answer
c) JMP 2000h
d) RET 2000h Answer: b
View Answer Explanation: It is called the Cache Memory. The
cache memory is the high speed memory between
Answer: c the main memory and the CPU.
Explanation: The JMP instruction is used to move
to a particular location. In 8085 microprocessor, 2. Cache Memory is implemented using the
JMP statement tells the processor to go to location DRAM chips.
2000h (here). a) True
b) False
8. What kind of a flag is the sign flag? View Answer
a) General Purpose
b) Status Answer: b
c) Address Explanation: The Cache memory is implemented
d) Instruction using the SRAM chips and not the DRAM chips.
View Answer SRAM stands for Static RAM. It is faster and is
expensive.
35
3. Whenever the data is found in the cache c) Write within
memory it is called as _________ d) Buffered write
a) HIT View Answer
b) MISS
c) FOUND Answer: a
d) ERROR Explanation: Snoopy writes is the efficient method
View Answer for updating the cache. In this case, the cache
controller snoops or monitors the operations of
Answer: a other bus masters.
Explanation: Whenever the data is found in the
cache memory, it is called as Cache HIT. CPU first 8. In ____________ mapping, the data can be
checks in the cache memory since it is closest to mapped anywhere in the Cache Memory.
the CPU. a) Associative
b) Direct
4. LRU stands for ___________ c) Set Associative
a) Low Rate Usage d) Indirect
b) Least Rate Usage View Answer
c) Least Recently Used
d) Low Required Usage Answer: a
View Answer Explanation: This happens in the associative
mapping. In this case, a block of data from the
Answer: c main memory can be mapped anywhere in the
Explanation: LRU stands for Least Recently Used. cache memory.
LRU is a type of replacement policy used by the
cache memory. 9. The number of sign bits in a 32-bit IEEE format
is ____
5. When the data at a location in cache is different a) 1
from the data located in the main memory, the b) 11
cache is called _____________ c) 9
a) Unique d) 23
b) Inconsistent View Answer
c) Variable
d) Fault Answer: a
View Answer Explanation: There is only 1 sign bit in all the
standards. In a 32-bit format, there is 1 sign bit, 8
Answer: b bits for the exponent and 23 bits for the mantissa.
Explanation: The cache is said to be inconsistent.
Inconsistency must be avoided as it leads to serious 10. The transfer between CPU and Cache is
data bugs. ______________
a) Block transfer
6. Which of the following is not a write policy to b) Word transfer
avoid Cache Coherence? c) Set transfer
a) Write through d) Associative transfer
b) Write within View Answer
c) Write back
d) Buffered write Answer: b
View Answer Explanation: The transfer is a word transfer. In the
memory subsystem, word is transferred over the
Answer: b memory data bus and it typically has a width of a
Explanation: There is no policy which is called as word or half-word.
the write within policy. The other three options are
the write policies which are used to avoid cache 1. Computer has a built-in system clock that emits
coherence. millions of regularly spaced electric pulses per
_____ called clock cycles.
7. Which of the following is an efficient method a) second
of cache updating? b) millisecond
a) Snoopy writes c) microsecond
b) Write through
36
d) minute Answer: b
View Answer Explanation: CISC is a large instruction set
computer. It has variable length instructions. It also
Answer: a has variety of addressing modes.
Explanation: The regularly spaced electric pulses
per second are referred to as the clock cycles. All 6. Which of the following processor has a fixed
the jobs performed by the processor are on the length of instructions?
basis of clock cycles. a) CISC
b) RISC
2. It takes one clock cycle to perform a basic c) EPIC
operation. d) Multi-core
a) True View Answer
b) False
Explanation: The RISC which stands for Reduced
Answer: a Instruction set computer has a fixed length of
Explanation: It takes exactly one clock cycle to instructions. It has a small instruction set. Also has
perform a basic operation, such as moving a byte reduced references to memory to retrieve operands.
of memory from a location to another location in
the computer. 7. Processor which is complex and expensive to
produce is ________
3. The operation that does not involves clock a) RISC
cycles is _________ b) EPIC
a) Installation of a device c) CISC
b) Execute d) Multi-core
c) Fetch View Answer
d) Decode
Explanation: CISC stands for complex instruction
Answer: a set computer. It is mostly used in personal
Explanation: Normally, several clock cycles are computers. It has a large instruction set and a
required to fetch, execute and decode a particular variable length of instructions.
program.
Installation of a device is done by the system on its 8. The architecture that uses a tighter coupling
own. between the compiler and the processor is
____________
4. The number of clock cycles per second is a) EPIC
referred as ________ b) Multi-core
a) Clock speed c) RISC
b) Clock frequency d) CISC
c) Clock rate View Answer
d) Clock timing
Explanation: EPIC stands for Explicitly parallel
Answer: a instruction computing. It has a tighter coupling
Explanation: The number of clock cycles per between the compiler and the processor. It enables
second is the clock speed. It is generally measured the compiler to extract maximum parallelism in the
in gigahertz(109 cycles/sec) or megahertz (106 original code.
cycles/sec).
9. MAR stands for ___________
5. CISC stands for ____________ a) Memory address register
a) Complex Information Sensed CPU b) Main address register
b) Complex Instruction Set Computer c) Main accessible register
c) Complex Intelligence Sensed CPU d) Memory accessible register
d) Complex Instruction Set CPU View Answer
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The MAR stands for memory address
37
register. It holds the address of the active memory a) Cache
location. b) Main
c) Secondary
10. A circuitry that processes that responds to and d) Registers
processes the basic instructions that are required to View Answer
drive a computer system is ________
a) Memory Answer: b
b) ALU Explanation: The main memory is implemented
c) CU using semiconductor chips. Main memory is
d) Processor located on the motherboard. It mainly consists of
View Answer RAM and small amount of ROM.
Answer: d 5. Size of the ________ memory mainly depends

Explanation: The processor is responsible for on the size of the address bus.
processing the basic instructions in order to drive a a) Main
computer. The primary functions of a processor are b) Virtual
fetch, decode and execute. c) Secondary
d) Cache
1. Any electronic holding place where data can be View Answer
stored and retrieved later whenever required is
____________ Answer: a
a) memory Explanation: The size of the main memory depends
b) drive on the size of the address bus of the CPU. The
c) disk main memory mainly consists of RAM and ROM,
d) circuit where RAM contains the current data and
View Answer programs and ROM contains permanent programs
like BIOS.
Answer: a
Explanation: Memory is the place where data can 6. Which of the following is independent of the
be stored and later retrieved. Memory can be of address bus?
classified into register, cache, main memory, etc. a) Secondary memory
b) Main memory
2. Cache memory is the onboard storage. c) Onboard memory
a) True d) Cache memory
View Answer
Answer: a
Answer: a Explanation: The secondary memory is
Explanation: Cache Memory is the memory closest independent of the address bus. It increases the
to the CPU. Registers, Cache and the main storage space. It is implemented in the form of
memory are the means of onboard storage in the magnetic storage devices.
computer system.
7. ____________ storage is a system where a
3. Which of the following is the fastest means of robotic arm will connect or disconnect off-line
memory access for CPU? mass storage media according to the computer
a) Registers operating system demands.
b) Cache a) Secondary
c) Main memory b) Virtual
d) Virtual Memory c) Tertiary
View Answer d) Magnetic
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Registers are the fastest means of Answer: c
access for CPU. Registers are the small memory Explanation: The tertiary storage is the correct
locations which are present closest to the CPU. option. It is used in the realms of enterprise storage
and scientific computing on large computer
4. The memory implemented using the systems and business computer networks and is
semiconductor chips is _________
38
something a typical personal computer never sees the jobs performed by the processor are on the
firsthand. basis of clock cycles.
8. What is the location of the internal registers of 2. It takes one clock cycle to perform a basic
CPU? operation.
a) Internal a) True
b) On-chip b) False
c) External View Answer
d) Motherboard
Explanation: It takes exactly one clock cycle to
Answer: b perform a basic operation, such as moving a byte
Explanation: The internal registers are present on- of memory from a location to another location in
chip. They are therefore present inside the CPU. the computer.
L1 cache is also present on-chip inside the CPU.
3. The operation that does not involves clock
9. MAR stands for ___________ cycles is ____________
a) Memory address register a) Installation of a device
b) Main address register b) Execute
c) Main accessible register c) Fetch
d) Memory accessible register d) Decode
Answer: a Answer: a
Explanation: The MAR stands for memory address Explanation: Normally, several clock cycles are
register. It holds the address of the active memory required to fetch, execute and decode a particular
location. program. Installation of a device is done by the
system on its own.
10. If M denotes the number of memory locations
and N denotes the word size, then an expression 4. The number of clock cycles per second is
that denotes the storage capacity is referred as ______
______________ a) Clock speed
a) M*N b) Clock frequency
b) M+N c) Clock rate
c) 2M+N d) Clock timing
d) 2M-N View Answer
View Answer
Answer: a
Answer: a Explanation: The number of clock cycles per
Explanation: Storage capacity is the product of a second is the clock speed. It is generally measured
number of memory locations that is the number of in gigahertz(109 cycles/sec) or megahertz (106
words and the word size or the number of bits cycles/sec).
stored per location. Storage capacity should be as
large as possible. 5. CISC stands for ___________
a) Complex Information Sensed CPU
1. Computer has a built-in system clock that emits b) Complex Instruction Set Computer
millions of regularly spaced electric pulses per c) Complex Intelligence Sensed CPU
_____ called clock cycles. d) Complex Instruction Set CPU
a) second View Answer
b) millisecond
c) microsecond Answer: b
d) minute Explanation: CISC is a large instruction set
View Answer computer. It has variable length instructions. It also
has a variety of addressing modes.
Answer: a
Explanation: The regularly spaced electric pulses 6. Which of the following processor has a fixed
per second are referred to as the clock cycles. All length of instructions?
a) CISC
39
b) RISC c) 8 bits
c) EPIC d) 32 bits
d) Multi-core View Answer
View Answer
Answer: c
Answer: b Explanation: The word length which is the size of a
Explanation: The RISC which stands for Reduced word is generally 8 bits in a personal computer.
Instruction set computer has a fixed length of Word Size is generally the number of bits that can
instructions. It has a small instruction set. Also has be processed in one go by the CPU.
reduced references to memory to retrieve operands.
1. ________________ is also called auxiliary
7. Processor which is complex and expensive to storage.
produce _________ a) secondary memory
a) RISC b) tertiary memory
b) EPIC c) primary memory
c) CISC d) cache memory
d) multi-core View Answer
View Answer
Answer: a
Answer: c Explanation: The secondary memory which allows
Explanation: CISC stands for complex instruction us to store a large amount of data is often referred
set computer. It is mostly used in personal to as the auxiliary memory. It generally stores large
computers. It has a large instruction set and a amount of data on a permanent basis.
variable length of instructions.
2. Secondary storage virtually has an unlimited
8. The architecture that uses a tighter coupling capacity because the cost per bit is very low.
between the compiler and the processor. a) True
a) EPIC b) False
b) Multi-core View Answer
c) RISC
d) CISC Answer: a
View Answer Explanation: The statement is true as secondary
storage devices can store large amounts of data
Answer: a temporarily. It is used to overcome the limitations
Explanation: EPIC stands for Explicitly parallel of primary storage.
instruction computing. It has a tighter coupling
between the compiler and the processor. It enables 3. Magnetic tape is a type of _________ access
the compiler to extract maximum parallelism in the device.
original code. a) Sequential
b) Direct access
9. HLDA stands for _______ c) Step
a) High level data d) Indirect
b) High level data acknowledgment View Answer
c) Hold Acknowledgement
d) Hold Data Answer: a
View Answer Explanation: Magnetic tapes are sequential access
devices. They are the secondary storage devices
Answer: c and are used to store large amounts of data. In
Explanation: The HOLD signal is given to the sequential access, data can be retrieved in the same
CPU whenever an interrupt is to be served. If the sequence in which it is stored.
CPU is ready to give the control of the bus, it gives
the HLDA command which is Hold 4. The magnetic tape is generally a plastic ribbon
Acknowledgement. coated with ______
a) Magnesium oxide
10. Word length of a personal computer b) Chromium dioxide
___________ c) Zinc oxide
a) 64bits d) Copper oxide
b) 16 bits View Answer
40
Answer: b d) Data mode
Explanation: Plastic ribbon is coated with a View Answer
magnetizable recording material. Iron oxide and
chromium dioxide is generally used in magnetic Answer: a
tapes. Data are recorded on the tape in the form of Explanation: Transfer rate measurement unit is
tiny invisible dots. bytes/second(bps). Value depends on the data
recording density and the speed with which the
5. The dots on the magnetic tape represent tape travels under the read/write head.
________
a) Binary digits 9. The typical value of data transfer rate is
b) Decimal digits __________
c) Hex digits a) 7.7 MB/s
d) Oct digits b) 6.6 MB/s
View Answer c) 5.5 MB/s
d) 10 MB/s
Explanation: The data recorded on the tape is the
form of tiny invisible magnetized and non- Answer: a
magnetized spots (representing 1s and 0s) on its Explanation: Data transfer rate is defined as the
coated surface. number of characters per second that can be
transmitted to the memory from tape. The typical
6. Which of the following is the correct value is 7.7 megabytes per second.
representation for a storage capacity of a tape?
a) Data recording density = Storage capacity 10. Tape drive is connected to and controlled by
b) Length = Storage capacity _______
c) Storage capacity= Length * data recording a) Interpreter
density b) Tape controller
d) Storage capacity= Length + data recording c) CPU
density d) Processor
Answer: c Answer: b
Explanation: Storage capacity is nothing but the Explanation: The tape drive is connected to and
product of length and the data recording density. controlled by a tape controller that interprets the
Magnetic tape is commonly used sequential-access commands for operating the tape drive. Certain
secondary device. Data recording density is commonly used commands are read, write, erase
measured in bytes per inch. tape, etc.
7. __________________ is the amount of data 1. ________________ is used for writing/reading

that can be stored on a given length of tape. of data to/from a magnetic ribbon.
a) Storage capacity a) Magnetic disk
b) Length b) Magnetic tape
c) Data recording density c) Magnetic frames
d) Tape density d) Magnetic Ribbon
Answer: c Answer: b
Explanation: Data recording density is the amount Explanation: The magnetic tape ribbon is used for
of data that can be stored on a given length of the the same. It has read/write heads for
tape. It is measured in bytes per inch. Bytes per reading/writing of data on the tape. When
inch=bpi. processing is complete, the tape is removed from
the tape drive for off-line storage.
8. The number of characters/second that can be
transmitted to the memory from the tape is denoted 2. Magnetic disk is a sequential access device.
by the term. a) True
a) Data transfer rate b) False
b) Transmission mode View Answer
c) Transmission rate
41
Answer: b Answer: a
Explanation: It is a direct access secondary storage Explanation: Disk address represents the physical
device. In case of direct access devices, the storage location of the record on the disk. It is comprised
location may be selected and accessed at random. of the sector number, track number, and surface
number (when double-sided disks are used).
3. The disk’s surface is divided into a number of
invisible concentric circles called: 7. What does CHS stand for?
a) Drives a) Cylinder-high-sector
b) Tracks b) Concentric-head-sector
c) Slits c) Cylinder-head-sector
d) References d) Concentric-high-sector
Answer: b Answer: c
Explanation: The concentric circles are called as Explanation: CHS stands for cylinder-head-sector.
tracks. The tracks are numbered consecutively The scheme is called CHS addressing. The same is
from outermost to innermost starting from zero. also referred to as disk geometry.
The number of tracks on a disk may be as few as
40 on small-capacity disks to several thousand on 8. The interval between the instant a computer
large capacity disks. makes a request for the transfer of data from a disk
system to the primary storage and the instance this
4. The number of sectors per track on a magnetic operation is completed is called _________
disk ________ a) Disk arrival time
a) less than 5 b) Disk access time
b) 10 or more c) Drive utilization time
c) 8 or more d) Disk utilization time
d) less than 7 View Answer
View Answer
Answer: b
Answer: c Explanation: The interval is referred to as the disk
Explanation: Each track of a disk is subdivided arrival time. It depends on several parameters.
into sectors. There are 8 or more sectors per track. Generally, a computer makes a request and the
Disk drives are designed to read/write only whole operation is served.
sectors at a time.
9. Disk access time does not depends on which of
5. Generally there are __________bytes in a the following factors __________
sector. a) Seek time
a) 64 b) Latency
b) 128 c) Transfer rate
c) 256 d) Arrival rate
d) 512 View Answer
View Answer
Answer: d
Answer: d Explanation: The disk access time depends on the
Explanation: Each track of a disc is divided into seek time, latency and transfer rate. Wherein, seek
sectors. A sector typically contains 512 bytes. Disk time is the time required to position the read/write
drives are designed to read/write only whole head over the desired track.
sectors at a time.
10. The time required to spin the desired sector
6. Which of the following is not a part of disk under the read/write head, once the read/write head
address? is positioned on the desired track.
a) Sector size a) Seek time
b) Sector number b) Arrival rate
c) Track number c) Latency
d) Surface number d) Transfer rate
42
Answer: c Answer: a
Explanation: It is called latency. It is one of the Explanation: The storage capacity is given by the
factors on which the disk access time depends. formula in option a. The most popular disk uses a
Disk access time is the interval between the instant disk of 5.25 inch diameter with a storage capacity
a request is made and the instance operation is of around 650 megabytes.
completed.
5. Rotation of the disk must vary __________
1. A ____________ disk consists of a circular with the radius of the disk.
disk, which is coated with a thin metal or some a) directly
other material that is highly reflective. b) inversely
a) magnetic c) concurrently
b) optical d) accordingly
c) compact View Answer
d) hard
Explanation: The rotation speed is inversely
Answer: b proportional to the radius of the disk.
Explanation: Optical disks are highly reflective. Optical drives use a constant linear velocity
They can be used to store extremely large amounts encoding scheme often referred to as the CLV
of data in a limited space. scheme.
2. Optical disks are proved to be a promising 6. Which of the following correctly represents the
random access medium for high capacity track pattern of an optical disk ?
secondary storage.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Optical disks can store large amounts a)
of data. The storage capacity depends on the
sectors and the number of bytes.
3. The technology used in optical disks is ______

a) Reflective
b) Refractive
c) Laser Beam b)
d) Diffraction
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Laser beam technology is used in
optical disks for recording or reading of data on the c)
disk.
It is sometimes called the laser disk/optical laser
disk due to the use of laser beam technology.
4. The storage capacity of an optical disk is given

by:
a) Number of sectors * number of bytes per sector d)
b) Number of sectors * 2(number of bytes per View Answer
sector)
c) Number of sectors * 3(number of bytes per Answer: a
sector) Explanation: Option a correctly represents the track
d) Number of sectors * 0.5(number of bytes per pattern of an optical disk. The second option shows
sector) the track pattern of a magnetic disk. The last two
View Answer options are invalid.
43
7. The tracks are divided into sectors whose size 1. Winchester disks are a type of _______
_______ a) optical disks
a) remains the same b) magnetic disks
b) keeps increasing c) compact disks
c) keeps decreasing d) magnetic drives
d) remains uneven View Answer
View Answer
Answer: b
Answer: a Explanation: The regularly spaced electric pulses
Explanation: The tracks in an optical disk are per second are referred to as the clock cycles. All
divided into equal size sectors. Optical disk has the jobs performed by the processor are on the
one long spiral track, which starts at the outer edge basis of clock cycles.
and spirals inward to the center. Each sector is of
the same length regardless of whether it is located 2. Bernoulli disks are a type of magnetic floppy
near or away from the disk’s center. disks.
a) True
8. CLV stands for, in terms of rotation of the b) False
optical disk ___ View Answer
a) Concurrent lines value
b) Constant Linear velocity Answer: b
c) constant linear value Explanation: Bernoulli disks are a type of magnetic
d) concurrent linear velocity hard disks and not floppy disks. They are also
View Answer called as zip disks. It uses a single hard disk platter
encased in a plastic cartidge.
Answer: a
Explanation: It stands for constant linear velocity. 3. A plug and play storage device that simply
The optical disk uses the CLV encoding scheme. plugs in the port of a computer is __________
Rotation speed depends on the radius of the disk. a) Flash drive
b) Compact disk
9. The range of access times of optical disks is c) Hard disk
generally ______ d) CD
a) 100 to 300 milliseconds View Answer
b) 10 to 30 milliseconds
c) 200 to 400 milliseconds Answer: a
d) 20 to 40 milliseconds Explanation: A flash drive often called as a pen
View Answer drive enables easy transport of data from one
computer to another. It comes in various shapes
Answer: a and sizes and may have different added features.
Explanation: The access times of optical disks are
typically in the range of 100 to 300 milliseconds 4. What does USB stand for?
and that of hard disks are in the range of 10 to 30 a) Universal Signal Board
milliseconds. b) Universal Signal Bus
c) Universal Serial Bus
10. Which of the following is not a type of optical d) Universal Serial Board
disk? View Answer
a) DVD
b) CD Answer: c
c) WORM Explanation: USB stands for universal serial bus.
d) Winchester A flash drive simply plugs in the USB port of a
View Answer computer.
Answer: d 5. A device similar to a flash drive

Explanation: The Winchester disk is a type of hard ______________
disk. Others are all optical disks. WORM is a) Memory card
nothing but CD-R i.e., CD recordable. Stands for b) Compact drive
write once read many. c) Compact disk
d) Memory disk
View Answer
44
Answer: a Answer: c
Explanation: Memory card serves a similar Explanation: Disk packs use a number of hard disk
purpose as that of a flash drive. It is in the shape of platters. Also, they are mounted on a single central
a card. Useful in electronic devices like Camera, shaft.
music player, etc.
10. Which of the following is not a magnetic
6. What does RAID stand for? disk?
a) Redundant array of independent disks a) Floppy
b) Redundant array of inexpensive disks b) Winchester
c) Redundant array of intermediate disks c) Zip
d) Redundant array of improper disks d) FLASH
Answer: b Answer: d
Explanation: RAID is Redundant array of Explanation: Flash drives are a type of memory
inexpensive disks. It is an array of disks which can storage devices. It is a relatively newer type of
store data bits. secondary storage device which enables easy
transfer of data from one computer to another.
7. A set of hard disk drives with a controller
mounted in a single box, forming a single large 1. These devices provide a means of
storage unit is ____________ communication between a computer and outer
a) Disk array world.
b) Drives a) I/O
c) Compact drives b) Storage
d) Multi-cores c) Compact
View Answer d) Drivers
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The answer is disk array. It is Answer: a
commonly known as RAID. As a secondary Explanation: The I/O i.e. the input/output devices
storage device, provides enhanced performance, provide a means of communication between the
enhanced storage capacity and reliability. computer and the outer world. They are often
referred to as the peripheral devices sometimes.
8. The process in which a file is partitioned into
smaller parts and different parts are stored in 2. The I/O devices are sometimes called the
different disks is ____________ peripheral devices because they surround the CPU
a) RAID and memory of the computer system.
b) Mirroring a) True
c) Stripping b) False
d) RAID classification View Answer
View Answer
Answer: a
Answer: c Explanation: The statement is true. The input
Explanation: Enhanced reliability is achieved by devices are used to enter data from the outside
using techniques like mirroring and stripping in world into primary storage. The output devices
case of disk arrays. Stripping is the division of a supply results of processing from primary storage
large file into smaller parts and then storing them to users.
on different disks.
3. Identify the blank space in the diagram.
9. Which of the following uses multiple hard disk
platters mounted on a single central shift?
a) Disk drives
b) Hard disks
c) Disk packs a) Processor
d) Compact disks b) Memory
View Answer c) CPU
45
d) Storage d) Kiaks
Answer: c Answer: a
Explanation: Firstly, the input is given to the input Explanation: The term information kiosks are used
device, then the data in coded in internal form and for the same. Touch screens are used the most
is sent to the CPU. Further, the processed data is preferred human-computer interface used in
sent to the output device and the result is obtained. information kiosks.
4. What does GUI stand for? 8. Which are the input devices that enable direct
a) Graphical User Instruction data entry into a computer system from source
b) Ground User Interface documents?
c) General User Instruction a) Data Scanning devices
d) Graphical User Interface b) Data retrieving devices
View Answer c) Data acquiring devices
d) System Access devices
Answer: d View Answer
Explanation: GUI stands for a graphical user
interface. Graphical user interface basically Answer: a
provides a set of graphical elements on the screen Explanation: They are referred to as data scanning
to the users. Commonly used for point-and-draw devices. They eliminate the need to key in text data
devices. into the computer. It demands the high quality of
input documents.
5. Which of the following is not a point-and-draw
device? 9. Which of the following is a type of image
a) Keypad scanner?
b) Trackball a) Flat-held
c) Touch screen b) Hand-led
d) Mouse c) Flat-bed
View Answer d) Compact
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: All except the keypad are point-and- Answer: c
draw devices. They are used to rapidly point to and Explanation: Image scanners are the input devices
select a graphic icon or menu item from multiple that translate the paper documents into an
options displayed on the GUI of a screen. electronic format for storage in a computer. Stored
image can be altered or manipulated with image-
6. A device used for video games, flight processing software.
simulators, training simulators and for controlling
industrial robots. 10. Which of the following is capable of
a) Mouse recognizing a pre-specified type of mark by pencil
b) Light pen or pen?
c) Joystick a) OMR
d) Keyboard b) Winchester
View Answer c) Bar code reader
d) Image Scanner
Explanation: Joystick is the device used for the
same. It is a point-and-draw device. It has a click Answer: a
button, a stick, a ball, a socket as well as a light Explanation: OMR stands for optical mark reader.
indicator. These are very useful for grading tests with
objective type questions or for any input data that
7. The unattended interactive information systems is of choice or selection nature.
such as automatic teller machine or ATM is called
as _________ 1. Input Devices that use a special ink that
a) Kiosks contains magnetizable particles of iron oxide are
b) Sioks ____
c) Cianto a) Optical disks
46
b) Magnetic disks d) Voice systems
c) MICR View Answer
d) Magnetic drives
Explanation: A speech synthesizer converts text
Answer: c information into spoken sentences. It is used for
Explanation: MICR reads data on cheques and reading out text information to blind people.
sorts them for distribution to other banks or for Allowing people to communicate effectively.
further processing. MICR stands for Magnetic-Ink-
Character Recognition. 6. Which of the following is not a part of a
digitizer?
2. MICR character set consists of only 2 digits 0 a) Digitizing tablet
and 1. b) Cursor
a) True c) Stick
b) False d) Stylus
Answer: b Answer: c
Explanation: The statement is false. It consists of Explanation: A digitizer consists of a digitizing
numerals from 0 to 9 and 4 special characters. It tablet, a stylus in the form of a cross-hair cursor. A
supports only 14 symbols. digitizer is used in the areas of GIS.
3. A printer that prints one line at a time and has a 7. Which is the device used for converting maps,
predefined set of characters is called _______ pictures and drawings into digital form for storage
a) Laser in computers?
b) Drum a) Digitizer
c) Inkjet b) Scanner
d) Impact c) Image Scanner
View Answer d) MICR
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The drum printers print one line at a Answer: a
time. They have a cylindrical drum with characters Explanation: A digitizer serves the purpose given
embossed on its surface in the form of circular in the question. Digitizers are generally used in the
bands. area of Computer Aided Design by architects and
engineers to design cars, buildings, etc.
4. Which of the following is a name of plotter as
well as a printer? 8. The process in which a file is partitioned into
a) Flatbed smaller parts and different parts are stored in
b) Laser different disks is called _________
c) Drum a) RAID
d) Impact b) Mirroring
View Answer c) Stripping
d) RAID classification
Explanation: Drum is the name of a plotter as well
as a printer. Drum printers have a predefined set of Answer: c
characters and print one line at a time. Drum Explanation: Enhanced reliability is achieved by
plotters is an ideal device for architects and others using techniques like mirroring and stripping in
who need to generate high-precision hard copy case of disk arrays. Stripping is the division of a
graphics output of widely varying sizes. large file into smaller parts and then storing them
on different disks.
5. Name the device that converts text information
into spoken sentences. 9. Which of the following Printers have a speed in
a) Speech Sensors the range of 40-300 characters per second?
b) Compact convertors a) Inkjet
c) Speech Synthesizers b) Laser
c) Dot matrix
47
d) Drum Answer: c
View Answer Explanation: A digitizer converts analog signals to
digital images. Due to this, it is compatible with
Answer: a both scanners and mice.
Explanation: The inkjet printers are non-impact
printers. Hence, they cannot produce multiple 4. Which of the following term is used when
copies of a document in a single printing. Can be different forms of information like text, sound is
both monochrome and color. converted to a binary code?
a) Digitalization
10. Which of the following is a temporary output? b) Digitization
a) Hard copy c) Binarization
b) Soft copy d) Digization
c) Duplicate copy View Answer
d) On paper
Explanation: Digitization is the term that is used. It
Answer: b converts the input which is in the form of an
Explanation: There are only two types of outputs: image, sound or text into a binary format and
hard copy and soft copy. Soft copy output is further makes it easier for the computer to
temporary and vanishes after use. Hard copy understand and process.
output is permanent in nature and can be kept in
paper files, etc. 5. Which of the following isn’t a phase of
digitization?
1. Input Devices that use a special ink that is used a) Discretization
for converting pictures, maps and drawings into b) Quantization
digital format. c) Discretization + Quantization
a) Digitizers d) Analog conversion
b) Digital pens View Answer
c) Light Pens
d) MICR Answer: d
View Answer Explanation: There is no phase called analog
conversion. Discretization means the reading of an
Answer: a analog signal. Quantization is the rounding of
Explanation: The digitizer is used for digitizing samples to numbers.
pictures, maps and drawings into digital form for
storage in computers. It is used in CAD by 6. Which of the following is not a part of a
architects and engineers. digitizer?
a) Digitizing tablet
2. GIS stands for Graphical Information System. b) Cursor
a) True c) Stick
b) False d) Stylus
Answer: b Answer: c
Explanation: The statement is false. GIS stands for Explanation: A digitizer consists of a digitizing
Geographical Information System. Digitizers are tablet, a stylus in the form of a cross-hair cursor. A
used in the area of GIS for digitizing maps digitizer is used in the areas of Geographical
available in paper form. Information Systems.
3. A digitizer converts __________ input into 7. The process of making digital information work
digital input. for you is called ___________
a) Laser a) Digitization
b) Digital b) Digital Transformation
c) Analog c) Digitalization
d) Complex d) Analogization
48
Answer: c Answer: c
Explanation: The process of making digitized data Explanation: TTS stands for Text to speech. It is a
or information work for you is called digitalization. commonly used term with Speech Synthesis. Often
The conversion of analog signal to digital signal is called as text to speech synthesis.
called digitization. Digital signals are in the form
of 0s and 1s. 2. Text analysis is all about converting the input
text into a ‘speakable’ form.
8. What is the full form of FSM? a) True
a) Field Service Management b) False
b) Frequent Service Management View Answer
c) Final Service Management
d) Field Service Master Answer: a
View Answer Explanation: The statement is true. This process
has two phases: firstly the text goes through
Answer: a analysis and then the result is used to generate a
Explanation: FSM is Field Service Management. speech signal.
FSM soft wares are used for making proper use of
the digitized information. Therefore, they are 3. A concept that contains rhythm of speech,
basically responsible for digitalization. stress patterns and intonation is ________
a) Text synthesis
9. Which of the following Techniques are used to b) Prosody
optimize field services? c) Speech Synthesis
a) AI d) Formant Synthesis
b) ML View Answer
c) CC
d) Reality tools Answer: b
View Answer Explanation: Prosody is the correct term. It
contains three main parts: the rhythm of speech,
Answer: a the stress patterns and the intonation. Intonation is
Explanation: AI or Artificial Intelligence is a term used for the rise and fall when a person
optimizing the field services. It ensures that the speaks.
fastest service is performed by the person in
charge. Artificial intelligence is nothing but 4. Which of the following does not come under
machine intelligence. text analysis?
a) Document Structure Detection
10. Obtaining services from a rapidly evolving b) Speech Synthesis
group of internet users __________ c) Prosonic Analysis
a) Outsourcing d) Prosodic Analysis
b) Crowd Sourcing View Answer
c) Human collaboration
d) Human Computation Answer: c
View Answer Explanation: For TTS, the main concepts involved
are :
Answer: b 01) Text Analysis
Explanation: Crowd sourcing is the appropriate 02) Phonetic Analysis
term which is to be used. Though human 03) Prosodic Analysis
collaboration, outsourcing and computation mean 04) Speech Synthesis.
the same. Crowd Sourcing means collaboration of
a group of internet users for the same purpose. 5. What is the medium to convert text information
into spoken sentences?
1. What is the full form of TTS? a) Speech Sensors
a) Typically Typed Speech b) Compact convertors
b) Typographic Text Speech c) Speech Synthesizers
c) Text to Speech d) Voice systems
d) Typography to speech View Answer
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A speech synthesizer converts text
49
information into spoken sentences. It is used for Answer: a
reading out text information to blind people. This Explanation: IPA(International phonetic
allows people to communicate effectively. association) contains some symbols that are
complicated and cannot be found in typewriters.
6. Pitch and duration attachment comes under SAMPA is an example of alphabets which are
_____ compatible with computers and based on ASCII
a) Prosody characters.
b) Phonetic Analysis
c) Speech Synthesis 10. A speech synthesis model which tries to
d) Text Analysis model the human speech production mechanisms is
View Answer _________
a) Articulatory Synthesis
Answer: a b) Formant Synthesis
Explanation: Pitch and duration attachment comes c) Summative Synthesis
under Prosodic analysis. Other three terms are also d) Concatenative Synthesis
used when we consider the text to speech View Answer
conversion.
Answer: a
7. Which of the following is not a speech Explanation: Articulative Synthesis tries to model
synthesis method? the human speech production mechanisms. It is by
a) Formant far the most complicated speech synthesis method.
b) Summative Its implementation is difficult and therefore is not
c) Articulator widely used.
d) Concatenative
View Answer 1. The physical devices of a computer :
a) Software
Answer: b b) Package
Explanation: Summative isn’t a Speech Synthesis c) Hardware
method. Formant Synthesis is the oldest method. d) System Software
Concatenative is the cut-and-paste method. View Answer
Whereas, Articulative tries to model the human
speech production mechanisms. Answer: c
Explanation: Hardware refers to the physical
8. Speech Synthesis method based on the devices of a computer system. Software refers to a
generation of periodic and non-periodic signals is collection of programs. A program is a sequence of
____________ instructions.
a) Formant
b) Summative 2. Software Package is a group of programs that
c) Conactenative solve multiple problems.
d) Articulative a) True
View Answer b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Formant synthesis is based on the Answer: b
same. It is based on the well known source-filter Explanation: The statement is false. The software
model whose idea is to generate periodic and non- package is a group of programs that solve a
periodic signals. specific problem or perform a specific type of job.
9. What is the full form of SAMPA? 3. ____________ refer to renewing or changing

a) Speech Assessment Methods-Phonetic Alphabet components like increasing the main memory, or
b) Speech Assessment Methods-Prosodic Access hard disk capacities, or adding speakers, or
c) Speech Assessment Methods-Phonetic modems, etc.
Arrangement a) Grades
d) Speech Assessment Methods- Prosodic b) Prosody
Alphabet c) Synthesis
View Answer d) Upgrades
View Answer
50
Answer: d solving a specific problem. System software is
Explanation: Upgrades is the right term to be used. designed for controlling the operations of a
Upgrades are installed to renew or implement a computer system.
new feature. Except for upgrades, hardware is
normally one-time expense. 8. Assembler is used as a translator for?
a) Low level language
4. Which of the following is designed to control b) High Level Language
the operations of a computer? c) COBOL
a) Application Software d) C
b) System Software View Answer
c) Utility Software
d) User Answer: a
View Answer Explanation: Assembler is used in case of low
level languages. It is generally used to make the
Answer: b binary code into an understandable format.
Explanation: Software is basically classified into Interpreter is used with the high level languages
two: System and application. System Software is similarly.
designed to control the operations and extend the
processing capability of a computer system. 9. What do you call a program in execution?
a) Command
5. Which of the following is not an example of b) Process
system software? c) Task
a) Language Translator d) Instruction
b) Utility Software View Answer
c) Communication Software
d) Word Processors Answer: b
View Answer Explanation: Option Process is correct. A program
is a set of instructions. A program in execution is
Answer: d called a process.
Explanation: A system software is responsible for
controlling the operations of a computer system. 10. Which of the following is not a process state?
Word Processor is an application software since it a) Terminated
is specific to its purpose. b) Running
c) Blocked
6. A person who designs the programs in a d) Execution
software package is called : View Answer
a) User
b) Software Manager Answer: c
c) System Developer Explanation: There is no blocked state in a process
d) System Programmer model. The different states are ready, running,
View Answer executing, waiting and terminated.
Answer: d 1. The software designed to perform a specific

Explanation: The programs included in a system task:
software package are called system programs. The a) Synchronous Software
programmers who design them and prepare them b) Package Software
are called system programmers. c) Application Software
d) System Software
7. ___________________ is designed to solve a View Answer
specific problem or to do a specific task.
a) Application Software Answer: c
b) System Software Explanation: Software refers to a collection of
c) Utility Software programs. Software designed to do a specific task
d) User are referred to as the application software. Eg:
View Answer Inventory management, banking, etc.
Answer: a 2. Word processing software is a type of

Explanation: An application software is specific to application software.
51
a) True Answer: c
b) False Explanation: The public domain software is
View Answer generally community supported. It is community
supported as author does not support users directly.
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. Since, 7. Set of programs which consist of full
application software are designed to do a specific documentation.
job, word processing is a type of application a) Software Package
software used for the designing of text documents. b) System Software
c) Utility Software
3. Developing software __________ means a d) File package
major commitment of time, money and resources. View Answer
a) In-house
b) In-sync Answer: a
c) On-date Explanation: It is called a software package. A
d) On-duration software is nothing but a collection of programs. A
View Answer software package can solve a specific problem or
perform a specific type of job.
Answer: a
Explanation: Developing software in-house means 8. Interpreter is used as a translator for
the same. It is easier to carry out changes in the __________
software if it is developed in-house a) Low level language
b) High Level Language
4. Which of the following is not a way of c) COBOL
acquiring software? d) C
a) Buying pre-written software View Answer
b) Ordering customized software
c) Downloading public-domain Software Answer: b
d) Duplicating the software Explanation: It is generally used to make the code
View Answer into an machine understandable format. Interpreter
is used with the high level languages similarly.
Answer: d Assembler is used in case of low level languages.
Explanation: Duplication is not a correct way of
acquiring the software. All the other options are 9. What do you call a specific instruction designed
valid. Apart from these, another option could be to do a task?
development of a customized software. a) Command
b) Process
5. OSS stands for: c) Task
a) Open System Service d) Instruction
b) Open Source Software View Answer
c) Open System Software
d) Open Synchronized Software Answer: a
View Answer Explanation: A program is a set of instructions. A
command is given to do a specific job. A program
Answer: b in execution is called a process.
Explanation: OSS stands for open source software.
OSS allows any user to download, view, modify 10. They normally interact with the system via
and redistribute the software. Also, the user can fix user interface provided by the application software.
bugs according to needs. a) Programmers
b) Developers
6. Public domain software is usually: c) Users
a) System supported d) Testers
b) Source supported View Answer
c) Community supported
d) Programmer supported Answer: c
View Answer Explanation: Users interact with the system via
user interface that is given by the application
52
software. An application software is a set of b) RAM
instructions designed to serve a particular purpose. c) External
d) ROM
1. The software substituted for hardware and View Answer
stored in ROM.
a) Synchronous Software Answer: d
b) Package Software Explanation: Firmware is stored in ROM which is
c) Firmware the read only memory. Firmware basically acts as a
d) Middleware link between the hardware and the system.
View Answer
6. DNS stands for?
Answer: c a) Domain Name System
Explanation: Software refers to a collection of b) Direct Name System
programs. Firm wares act as a link between the c) Direct Network System
hardware and the system. It is stored in read only d) Domain Network System
memory. View Answer
2. Middleware has enabled the production of Answer: a

various types of smart machines having Explanation: DNS stands for Domain Name
microprocessor chips with embedded software. System. Domain name system is the way in which
a) True the internet domain names are traced and then
b) False translated into IP addresses.
View Answer
7. A software that lies between the OS and the
Answer: b applications running on it.
Explanation: The statement is false. Firmware is a) Firmware
designed for this purpose and not middleware. A b) Middleware
middleware is for providing abstraction in c) Utility Software
programming. d) Application Software
View Answer
3. A “glue” between client and server parts of
application. Answer: b
a) Middleware Explanation: It is called as middleware.
b) Firmware Middleware enables the interaction between the
c) Package Operating System and the applications running on
d) System Software it.
View Answer
8. A type of middleware that allows for between
Answer: a the built-in applications and the real-time OS?
Explanation: A middleware acts as a glue between a) Firmware
client and server parts of application. It provides b) Database middleware
programming abstraction which means hiding all c) Portals
the relevant details. d) Embedded Middleware
View Answer
4. MOM stands for?
a) Message oriented middleware Answer: d
b) Mails oriented middleware Explanation: It is called the embedded middleware
c) Middleware of messages since it activates the communication link between
d) Main object middleware the built-in applications and the real time operating
View Answer system.
Answer: a 9. What is the other name for object middleware?

Explanation: MOM is message-oriented a) Object request interface
middleware. It is basically responsible for sending b) Object enabled interface
and receiving messages across distributed systems. c) Object Request broker
d) Object enabled broker
5. Storage of firmware is ___________ View Answer
a) Cache Memory
53
Answer: c 4. OSI stands for?
Explanation: It is also called as object request a) Open Source Index
broker. It gives the applications ability to send the b) Open Source Image
objects and receive services through an object. c) Open Source Initiative
d) Open Source Instant
10. The _______ calls certain procedures on View Answer
remote systems and is used to perform
synchronous or asynchronous interactions between Answer: c
systems. Explanation: OSI is open source initiative. It is a
a) Procedure leading authority on OSS. OSS is a computer
b) RPC software distributed along with its source code.
c) Message Oriented
d) DB 5. Which of the following is not an open source
View Answer software?
a) LibreOffice
Answer: b b) Microsoft Office
Explanation: It is called the RPC or the Remote c) GNU image manipulation
Procedure Call. The functioning is to call certain d) MySQL
procedures on remote applications. This is View Answer
generally utilized in a software application.
Answer: b
1. A software that can be freely accessed and Explanation: MS-office is not open source
modified. software since its source code isn’t shared publicly.
a) Synchronous Software Others like Libre office, MySQL are open source
b) Package Software softwares through which is distributed along with
c) OSS its source code.
d) Middleware
View Answer 6. The users must agree to the _______ terms and
agreements when they use an open source
Answer: c software.
Explanation: Software refers to a collection of a) System
programs. OSS stands for Open Source Software. b) License
It can be freely accessed, edited and modified c) Community
according to our needs. d) Programmer
View Answer
2. Open Source Software can be used for
commercial purpose. Answer: b
a) True Explanation: The users must agree to the license
b) False terms and agreement in order to access an open
View Answer source software. There is a limitation of OSS that
the users cannot modify the terms and conditions
Answer: a of any software.
Explanation: The statement is true. The definition
of open source guarantees the use of open source 7. Which of the following is not a downside of
software for commercial purposes. It is commercial OSS?
but not proprietary. a) Lack of personalized support
b) Restricted choice
3. PNG is a _________ c) No warranty
a) image format d) Multiple choices
b) file format View Answer
c) internet format
d) html format Answer: d
View Answer Explanation: An OSS is nothing but an open
source software. It has restricted choices, i.e., there
Answer: a are fewer choices available for open source. Also,
Explanation: PNG is an image format. It stands for speed of change is an important downside, since
portable network graphics. PNG supports palette the software keeps on updating itself, we cannot
based images. ensure if it is compatible with other applications.
54
8. An example of a web design OSS. b) False
a) Nvu View Answer
b) KOffice
c) AbiWorld Answer: a
d) Open Office Explanation: The statement is true. GPL is the
View Answer general public license. In the 90s, GPL+Internet,
many new open source projects started.
Answer: a
Explanation: Nvu is an example of an open source 3. Richard Stallman from MIT, established a
software for web designing. Others like KOffice, special license, the ________ license.
Open Office and AbiWorld are OSS examples for a) GNU
Office Automation. b) Free
c) Package
9. An image editor similar to Adobe Photoshop. d) Commercial
a) Nvu View Answer
b) Open Office
c) Bluefish Answer: a
d) GIMPshop Explanation: It was called the GNU license. It
View Answer ensured that software is free and open to anyone.
He was from MIT and his main motive was to
Answer: d develop a free alternative to Unix.
Explanation: GIMPshop is an image editor similar
to adobe photoshop. Nvu is intended for those with 4. In 1969 AT&T laboratories developed ______
no technical expertise. which supported and worked on different hardware
platforms.
10. An OSS for communication purpose. a) Linux
a) Virtue Mart b) Unix
b) Drupal c) Windows
c) Pidgin d) Ubuntu
d) ZenCart View Answer
View Answer
Answer: b
Answer: c Explanation: Linux was found in that year. It
Explanation: Pidgin is used for Free Instant worked well on different hardware platforms.
Messaging(IIM) client. Virtue mart and emart are Commercial users had to pay a license fee.
for e-commerce purpose. Drupal is for content
management. 5. OSS stands for ___________
a) Open System Service
1. A guideline for the OSS licenses other than the b) Open Source Software
GPL. c) Open System Software
a) OSI d) Open Synchronized Software
b) OSD View Answer
c) OSE
d) OSL Answer: b
View Answer Explanation: OSS stands for open source software.
OSS allows any user to download, view, modify
Answer: b and redistribute the software. Also, the user can fix
Explanation: OSS is the open source software. In bugs according to needs.
1997, OSI or the open source initiative was
founded and it developed the OSD (Open Source 6. Public domain software is usually __________
Definition). OSD is a guideline for OSS licenses a) System supported
other than the GPL. b) Source supported
c) Community supported
2. GPL of GNU says that every copy of a program d) Programmer supported
governed by GPL license, even if modified, must View Answer
be subject to GPL again.
a) True Answer: c
Explanation: The public domain software is
55
generally community supported. It is community 1. The word ____________comes from the name
supported as an author does not support users of a Persian mathematician Abu Ja’far Mohammed
directly. ibn-i Musa al Khowarizmi.
a) Flowchart
7. Set of a program which consists of full b) Flow
documentation. c) Algorithm
a) Software Package d) Syntax
b) System Software View Answer
c) Utility Software
d) File package Answer: c
View Answer Explanation: The word algorithm comes from the
name of a Persian mathematician Abu Ja’far
Answer: a Mohammed ibn-i Musa al Khowarizmi.
Explanation: It is called a software package.
Software is nothing but a collection of programs. A 2. In computer science, algorithm refers to a
software package can solve a specific problem or special method usable by a computer for the
perform a specific type of job. solution to a problem.
a) True
8. Interpreter is used as a translator for? b) False
a) Low level language View Answer
b) High Level Language
c) COBOL Answer: a
d) C Explanation: The statement is true. This word
View Answer algorithm refers to a special method usable by a
computer for the solution to a problem. The
Answer: b statement of the problem specifies in general terms
Explanation: It is generally used to make the code the desired input/output relationship.
into a machine understandable format. Interpreter
is used with the high level languages similarly. 3. This characteristic often draws the line between
Assembler is used in case of low level languages. what is feasible and what is impossible.
a) Performance
9. What do you call a specific instruction designed b) System Evaluation
to do a task? c) Modularity
a) Command d) Reliability
b) Process View Answer
c) Task
d) Instruction Answer: a
View Answer Explanation: Algorithms help us to understand
scalability. Performance often draws the line
Answer: a between what is feasible and what is impossible.
Explanation: A program is a set of instructions. A
command is given to do a specific job. A program 4. The time that depends on the input: an already
in execution is called a process. sorted sequence that is easier to sort.
a) Process
10. They normally interact with the system via b) Evaluation
user interface provided by the application software. c) Running
a) Programmers d) Input
b) Developers View Answer
c) Users
d) Testers Answer: c
View Answer Explanation: The running time depends on the
input: an already sorted sequence is easier to sort.
Answer: c The running time is given by the size of the input,
Explanation: Users interact with the system via since short sequences are easier to sort than the
user interface that is given by the application longer ones. Generally, we seek upper bounds on
software. Application software is a set of the running time, because it is reliable.
instructions designed to serve a particular purpose.
56
5. Which of the following is incorrect? Answer: a
Algorithms can be represented: Explanation: Linear arrays are the 1-Dimensional
a) as pseudo codes arrays wherein only one row is present and the
b) as syntax items are inserted.
c) as programs
d) as flowcharts 10. A data structure that follows the FIFO
View Answer principle.
a) Queue
Answer: b b) LL
Explanation: Representation of algorithms: c) Stack
-As programs d) Union
-As flowcharts View Answer
-As pseudo codes.
Answer: c
6. When an algorithm is written in the form of a Explanation: The answer is Stack. A stack follows
programming language, it becomes a _________ the FIFO principle. FIFO stands for First In First
a) Flowchart Out.
b) Program
c) Pseudo code 1. The symbol denotes _______
d) Syntax
View Answer
Answer: b a) I/O
Explanation: An algorithm becomes a program b) Flow
when it is written in the form of a programming c) Terminal
language. Thus, any program is an algorithm. d) Decision
View Answer
7. Any algorithm is a program.
a) True Answer: c
b) False Explanation: The symbol denotes a terminal. It is
View Answer used for indication of start and stop nodes of a
program.
Answer: b
Explanation: The statement is false. An algorithm 2. In computer science, algorithm refers to a
is represented in the form of a programming pictorial representation of a flowchart.
language is called a program. Any program is an a) True
algorithm but the reverse is not true. b) False
View Answer
8. A system wherein items are added from one
and removed from the other end. Answer: b
a) Stack Explanation: The statement is false. The correct
b) Queue statement would be: In computer science,
c) Linked List flowchart refers to a pictorial representation of an
d) Array algorithm.
View Answer
3. The process of drawing a flowchart for an
Answer: b algorithm is called __________
Explanation: In a queue, the items are inserted a) Performance
from the rear end and deleted from the front end. b) Evaluation
c) Algorithmic Representation
d) Flowcharting
9. Another name for 1-D arrays.
View Answer
a) Linear arrays
b) Lists
c) Horizontal array Answer: d
d) Vertical array Explanation: It is called as flowcharting. A
View Answer flowchart is nothing but a pictorial representation
of an algorithm.
57
4. Actual instructions in flowcharting are c) Micro
represented in __________ d) Union
a) Circles View Answer
b) Boxes
c) Arrows Answer: c
d) Lines Explanation: A detailed flowchart or a flowchart
View Answer with more details is called as micro flowchart. It
represents all the components of the algorithm that
Answer: b is followed.
Explanation: The actual instructions are written in
boxes. Boxes are connected by using arrows to 9. Which of the following is not an advantage of a
indicate the exact flow of a flowchart and the order flowchart?
in which they are to be executed. a) Better communication
b) Efficient coding
5. The following box denotes? c) Systematic testing
d) Improper documentation
View Answer
Answer: d
a) Decision Explanation: Flowcharts provide a proper
b) Initiation documentation. It also provides systematic
c) Initialization debugging.
d) I/O
View Answer 10. A flowchart that outlines the main segments of
a program.
Answer: a a) Queue
Explanation: A diamond shape box denotes the b) Macro
decision making statements. It jumps to a truth c) Micro
value or a false value. d) Union
View Answer
6. A box that can represent two different
conditions. Answer: b
a) Rectangle Explanation: The answer is Macro Flowchart. A
b) Diamond macro flowchart outlines the important
c) Circle components of a program. It therefore shows fewer
d) Parallelogram details.
View Answer
1. A ______________ is diagram that depicts the
Answer: b flow of a program.
Explanation: A diamond shape box denotes either a a) Algorithm
truth value or a false value. It jumps onto two b) Hash Table
different statements following it via flow lines. c) Graph
d) Flowchart
7. There should be certain set standards on the View Answer
amount of details that should be provided in a
flowchart. Answer: d
a) True Explanation: A flowchart is a diagram that helps us
b) False determine the flow of the program. Other options
View Answer are irrelevant.
Answer: b 2. Terminals are represented by diagonals in a

Explanation: The statement is false. There should flowchart.
be no set standards on the amount of details that a) True
should be provided in a flowchart. b) False
View Answer
8. A detailed flowchart is called ______
a) Stack Answer: b
b) Macro Explanation: The statement is false. Terminals are
58
represented by rounded rectangles. They indicate terminal is denoted by a rounded rectangle. I/O
the starting or ending point in a flowchart. operation by a parallelogram and process by a
rectangle.
3. The operation represented by parallelograms.
a) Input/Output 7. What type of structure is this?
b) Assignment
c) Comparison
d) Conditions
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The input/output operations are
represented by parallelograms. They generally are a) sequence
used to display messages during input and output b) case
part of a program. c) repetition
d) process
4. Which of the following is not a flowchart View Answer
structure?
a) Process Answer: c
b) Sequence Explanation: This is a repetition structure. The
c) Repetition action performed by a repetition structure must
d) Case eventually cause the loop to terminate. Otherwise,
View Answer an infinite loop is created.
Answer: a 8. What type of a structure is this?

Explanation: There are basically four flowcharting
structures:
• Decision
• Repetition
• Case
• Sequence.
5. The action performed by a ___________

structure must eventually cause the loop to
terminate.
a) sequence a) sequence
b) case b) case
c) repetition c) repetition
d) process d) process
Answer: c Answer: b
Explanation: The action performed by a repetition Explanation: This is a case structure. Certain cases
structure must eventually cause the loop to are given along with a default case in the case
terminate. Otherwise, an infinite loop is created. structure.
6. The following symbol denotes: 9. A _______ is a connector showing the

relationship between the representative shapes.
a) line
b) arrow
a) Module c) Process
b) Terminal d) box
c) Process View Answer
d) i/o operation
Explanation: Arrows are the connectors that show
Answer: a the relationship between different shapes. They
Explanation: This symbol is that of a module. The also show the flow of the program.
59
10. The following box denotes? d) Semicolon
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Each design structure uses a
particular indentation pattern.
a) Decision
Indentation should be considered in the following
b) Input/Output
cases:
c) Process
Sequence
d) Module
Selection
View Answer
Loop.
Answer: a
5. The statement that tells the computer to get a
Explanation: The answer is decision. Conditions
value from an input device and store it in a
are given in this box and then the result is checked
memory location.
accordingly if the condition is true or false.
a) read
b) write
1. Keep the statement language ______________ c) READ
while writing a pseudo code. d) WRITE
a) Dependent View Answer
b) Independent
c) Case sensitive
Answer: c
d) Capitalized
Explanation: The READ statement is used to take
View Answer
the input. READ being a keyword should be in
capital letters.
Answer: b
Explanation: The statement’s language should be
6. _____________ are identified by their
independent. Other rules are to write only one
addresses, we give them names (field names /
statement per line and end multiline structures.
variable names) using words.
a) Memory variables
2. Capitalize initial keyword – This is a rule while b) Memory Locations
writing a pseudo code. c) Memory Addresses
a) True d) Data variables
View Answer
Answer: b
Answer: a Explanation: Memory locations are identified by
Explanation: The statement is true. It is an their addresses, we give them names (field
important rule to capitalize the initial keyword names/variable names) using words descriptive to
while writing a pseudo code. us such as ctr as opposed to a location addresses
such as 19087.
3. Which of the following is not a keyword?
a) Read 7. ____________ begins with lower case letters.
b) Write a) Keywords
c) start b) Variables
d) endif c) Tokens
View Answer d) Functions
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Start is not a Keyword. Other words Answer: b
like read, write, if, else, etc are keywords and Explanation: Variables begin with a lowercase.
convey a special meaning. They contain no spaces. They also involve the
consistent use of names.
4. ______________ is used to show hierarchy in a
pseudo code. 8. Another notation for exponentiation.
a) Indentation a) *
b) Curly Braces b) **
c) Round Brackets c) ***
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d) *^ 3. A ________ is a directed graph that describes
View Answer the flow of execution control of the program.
a) Flowchart
Answer: b b) Flow graph
Explanation: Double asterisk sign is also used for c) Complexity curve
exponentiation. The general notation is ^ sign. d) Algorithm
View Answer
9. A symbol used for grouping.
a) () Answer: a
b) {} Explanation: A flowchart is a directed graph. It
c) []. simply describes the flow of execution control of
d) ” ” the program.
View Answer
4. A program should be ________
Answer: a a) Secure
Explanation: Parenthesis is used for grouping b) Sequential
while working with fields. There are other symbols c) Ordered
like *, +, -, **, etc. d) Simple
View Answer
10. A statement used to close the IF block.
a) ELSE Answer: b
b) ELSEIF Explanation: It is natural to write a program as a
c) END sequence of program structures such as sequences,
d) ENDIF choices and loops.
View Answer
5. The following is the syntax for:
Answer: d
Explanation: The answer is ENDIF. It is used to ____(condition)
close the IF block. ENDIF statement should be in action
line with the IF statement.
a) Else
1. Programming based on stepwise refinement b) Elif
process. c) If
a) Structural d) Switch
b) C programming View Answer
c) Procedural
d) Fine Answer: c
View Answer Explanation: The if statement follows that syntax.
If is a choice statement. Else is also a choice
Answer: a statement.
Explanation: Structured programming is based on
the stepwise refinement process-a method of 6. Which of the following is a loop statement?
problem decomposition common to all engineering a) IF
disciplines and the physical, chemical, and b) ELSE
biological sciences. c) WHILE
d) DO
2. Top-down approach is followed in structural View Answer
programming.
a) True Answer: c
b) False Explanation: WHILE is a loop statement.
View Answer Syntax : while(condition)
action.
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. Structural 7. What is the correct syntax of for statement?
programming follows the top – down approach. a) for(initialization;condition;update)
Each module is further divided into sub modules. b) for(initialization,condition,update)
c) for(condition;initialization;update)
61
d) for(initialization;condition;) particular computer and used directly by the
View Answer computer is machine language.
Answer: a 2. Binary code comprises of digits from 0 to 9.

Explanation: The correct syntax is : a) True
for(initialization;condition;update) b) False
For is another loop statement. View Answer
8. Semicolon is used after : Answer: b

a) Function definition Explanation: The statement is false. Binary as the
b) Function call word suggests contains only 2 digits : 0 and 1.
c) for loop 0 denotes false and 1 denotes a truth value.
d) while loop
View Answer 3. The ___________ contains the address of the
next instruction to be executed.
Answer: b a) IR
Explanation: Semicolon is used after function call b) PC
otherwise it leads to compile-time errors. It c) Accumulator
shouldn’t be used after definitions. It should also d) System counter
not be used after loops. View Answer
advertisement
Answer: b
9. The number of values a function can return at a Explanation: PC stands for program counter (It
time? contains the address of the next instruction to be
a) 1 executed).
b) 0
c) 2 4. The memory unit is made up of _____ bytes.
d) more than 2 a) 256
View Answer b) 124
c) 4096
Answer: a d) 3096
Explanation: A function can return only one value View Answer
at a time.
Syntax : return (x,12); Answer: c
Explanation: The memory unit is made up of 4,096
10. Which of the following isn’t a loop statement? bytes. Memory unit is responsible for the storage
a) for of data. It is an important entity in the computer
b) elif system.
c) while
d) do-while 5. A document that specifies how many times and
View Answer with what data the program must be run in order to
thoroughly test it.
Answer: b a) addressing plan
Explanation: The answer is elif. Elif isn’t a loop b) test plan
statement. It is a part of a choice statement. c) validation plan
d) verification plan
1. The language made up of binary coded View Answer
instructions.
a) Machine Answer: b
b) C Explanation: Test plan is the A document that
c) BASIC specifies how many times and with what data the
d) High level program must be run in order to thoroughly test it.
View Answer It comes under testing.
Answer: a 6. An approach that designs test cases by looking

Explanation: The language made up of binary at the allowable data values.
coded instructions built into the hardware of a a) Maintenance
b) Evaluation
62
c) Data coverage Answer: a
d) Validation Explanation: The answer is semantics. They are the
View Answer rules that give meaning to the instructions. The
syntax is the formal rules that ensure validation of
Answer: c code.
Explanation: Data coverage is the term used. It is
responsible for designing the test cases. 1. Each personal computer has a _________ that
manages the computer’s arithmetical, logical and
7. The formal grammar rules governing the control activities.
construction of valid instruction. a) Microprocessor
a) test case b) Assembler
b) syntax c) Microcontroller
c) program d) Interpreter
d) semantics View Answer
View Answer
Answer: a
Answer: b Explanation: Microprocessor handles all these
Explanation: Syntax determines the grammatical activities. Each family of processors has its own set
rules in a code. Semantics give meaning to the of instructions for handling various operations like
instructions. getting input from keyboard, displaying
information on a screen and performing various
8. A program that reads each of the instructions in other jobs.
mnemonic form and translates it into the machine-
language equivalent. 2. Assembly Language requires less memory and
a) Machine language execution time.
b) Assembler a) True
c) Interpreter b) False
d) C program View Answer
View Answer
Answer: a
Answer: b Explanation: The statement is true.
Explanation: Assembler does this job. A language Advantages of using assembly language are:
that uses mnemonic codes for the representation of • It requires less memory and execution time.
machine-language instructions is called assembly • It allows hardware-specific complex jobs in an
language. easier way.
• It is suitable for time-critical jobs.
9. An approach that designs test cases by looking
at the allowable data values. 3. The data size of a word is _________
a) Data coverage a) 2-byte
b) Code Coverage b) 4-byte
c) Debugging c) 8-byte
d) Validation d)16-byte
Answer: a Answer: a
Explanation: Data coverage is an approach that Explanation: The processor supports the following
designs test cases by looking at the allowable data data sizes:
values. Code coverage is an approach that designs • Word: a 2-byte data item
test cases by looking at the code. • Double word: a 4-byte (32 bit) data item, etc.
10. The rules that give meaning to the 4. A direct reference of specific location.
instructions. a) Segment Address
a) Semantics b) Absolute Address
b) Syntax c) Offset
c) Code d) Memory Address
d) Cases View Answer
View Answer
63
Answer: b Answer: d
Explanation: There are two kinds of memory Explanation: The processor has some internal
addresses: memory storage locations, known as registers. The
• An absolute address – a direct reference of registers stores data elements for processing
specific location. without having to access memory.
• The segment address (or offset) – starting address
of a memory segment with the offset value. 9. To locate the exact location of data in memory,
we need the starting address of the segment, which
5. A Borland Turbo Assembler. is found in the DS register and an offset value. This
a) nasm offset value is also called?
b) tasm a) Effective Address
c) gas b) Direct offset address
d) asm c) Memory address
View Answer d) General Address
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Tasm is the borland turbo assembler. Answer: a
Nasm is used with linux generally. Gas is the GNU Explanation: When operands are specified in
assembler. memory addressing mode, direct access to main
memory, usually to the data segment, is required.
6. The instructions that tell the assembler what to This way of addressing results in slower processing
do. of data. To get the exact location of data in
a) Executable instructions memory, we need segment start address, which is
b) Pseudo-ops found in the DS register and an offset value. This
c) Logical instructions offset value is called an effective address.
d) Macros
View Answer 10. Each byte of character is stored as its ASCII
value in _______
Answer: a a) Hexadecimal
Explanation: The executable instructions or simple b) Binary
instructions tell the processor what to do. Each c) Octal
instruction consists of an operation code (opcode). d) Decimal
Each executable instruction generates one machine View Answer
language instruction.
Answer: a
7. The segment containing data values passed to Explanation: Assembly language deals with
functions and procedures within the program. hexadecimal values only. Each decimal value is
a) Code automatically converted to its 16-bit binary
b) Data equivalent and stored as a hexadecimal number.
c) Stack
d) System 1. Prolog comes under ___________
View Answer a) Logic Programming
b) Procedural Programming
Answer: c c) OOP
Explanation: The stack segment contains data d) Functional
values passed to functions and procedures within View Answer
the program. The code segment defines an area in
memory that stores the instruction codes. Answer: a
Explanation: Prolog stands for Programming in
8. To speed up the processor operations, the Logic. The options mentioned are the four
processor includes some internal memory storage categories of programming. Prolog is a type of
locations, called ___________ logic programming.
a) Drives
b) Memory 2. Java is procedural programming.
c) Units a) True
d) Registers b) False
64
Answer: b 7. JIT stands for?
Explanation: The statement is false. Java is a type a) Just in time
of object oriented programming language. It b) Jump in time
involves solving real-life problems as well. c) Jump in text
d) Jump in terms
3. A program that can execute high-level language View Answer
programs.
a) Compiler Answer: a
b) Interpreter Explanation: JIT stands for Just in time. JVMs
c) Sensor actually compile each bytecode instruction to
d) Circuitry native code the first time it is used.
View Answer
8. JVM stands for?
Answer: b a) Java virtual machine
Explanation: Interpreter is a program that can b) Java visual machine
execute high-level language programs “directly,” c) JRE virtual machine
without first being translated into machine d) JRE visual machine
language. View Answer
4. Executables might be called ________ Answer: a

a) native code Explanation: JVM stands for Java Virtual Machine.
b) executable code Other related terms are JRE which is java runtime
c) complex code environment and JDK which is java development
d) machine code kit.
View Answer
9. A language supported by MS. Net platform.
Answer: a a) C
Explanation: The executables are sometimes called b) C++
native code. HLL are translated to Machine c) java
language called the native code. d) C#
View Answer
5. Source program is compiled to an intermediate
form called ___________ Answer: d
a) Byte Code Explanation: C# is supported by MS. Net platform.
b) Smart code JAVA was originally designed for web purposes.
c) Executable code
d) Machine code 10. Which of the following isn’t a characteristic of
View Answer High level languages?
a) machine code
Answer: a b) platform independent
Explanation: The Source program is compiled to c) interactive execution
an intermediate form called byte code. For each d) user-friendly
supported platform, write a “virtual machine” View Answer
emulator that reads byte code and emulates its
execution. Answer: a
Explanation: HLL isn’t in machine language. It is
6. _______________ is the assembly language for converted to machine language for further
an imaginary architecture. processing.
a) Byte code
b) Machine code 1. Which is interpreted language?
c) Native code a) C++
d) Executable code b) C
View Answer c) MATLAB
d) Fortran
Explanation: Source program is compiled to an
intermediate form – byte code. Byte code is the Answer: c
assembly language for an imaginary architecture. Explanation: MATLAB is an interpreted language.
65
All the other languages are compiled languages. In 6. A Fortran is not ___________
the case of Interpreted language, the translation to a) System supported
machine-language is performed incrementally at b) Source supported
run-time. c) Case Sensitive
d) Programmer supported
2. In compiled language, the translation to View Answer
machine-language is performed incrementally at
run-time. Answer: c
a) True Explanation: Fortran is not a case sensitive
b) False language. For e.g. PROGRAM xyz also works.
View Answer Also, multiple consecutive blank spaces are
ignored.
Answer: b
Explanation: The statement is false. The translation 7. The delimiter in a FORTRAN code.
is performed once, then executable file is run as a) Semicolon
frequently as needed without further translation. b) Blank space
c) Colon
3. The first widely-used high level language d) Comma
developed in 1957. View Answer
a) C
b) Java Answer: b
c) Fortran Explanation: Delimiter separates the tokens we use
d) Cobol in our code. In a FORTRAN code, single blank
View Answer space serves as a delimiter. Though, multiple blank
spaces are ignored.
Answer: c
Explanation: Fortran which stands for Formula 8. A program that reads the source code and
Translation was the first widely-used high level converts it to a form usable by the computer.
language. It was developed by IBM for scientific a) Interpreter
applications. The program was entered as punch b) Compiler
cards. c) Linker
d) Assembler
4. A text file that contains our program is called as View Answer
__________
a) Exe file Answer: b
b) Doc file Explanation: A compiler does this task. Internally,
c) Obj file 3 steps are performed: preprocessing, checking and
d) Source file compiling. Further, assembler and linker do the
View Answer work.
Answer: d 9. A valid variable declaration in FORTRAN is

Explanation: A file that contains the code or the __________
main program is called as the source file. Source a) real :: Celsius
code must be processed by a compiler to create an b) real Celsius;
executable file. c) Celsius real;
d) real : Celsius
5. First statement in a fortran code is _________ View Answer
a) include statement
b) import statement Answer: a
c) program statement Explanation: A variable declaration has the
d) @data statement following syntax:
View Answer Data type :: variable name
Answer: c 10. In FORTRAN, the declarations of variables

Explanation: It is the program statement. program can be modified using the _____ parameter.
statement is followed by the program name. a) kind
Syntax : program xyz b) make
c) select
66
d) change Entries
View Answer Clauses.
Answer: a 5. D in COBOL stands for _________

Explanation: Kind can be used for this purpose. It a) Data
can often be used for the precision of reals. If you b) Draft
want to change the precision, it can easily be done c) Debugger
using one line of code. d) Debugging lines
View Answer
1. COBOL stands for _________
a) Common Business Oriented Language Answer: d
b) Common Business Object Language Explanation: It stands for debugging lines.
c) Common Beneficial Oriented Language Compiler fills in with the sequence numbers. There
d) Common Beneficial Object Language are certain coding rules that must be followed in
View Answer COBOL.
Answer: a 6. Comment in COBOL is denoted by ________

Explanation: COBOL stands for Common a) *
Business Oriented Language. It is designed for b) /
business purpose. It is fast and relatively simple to c) //
learn. d) ;
View Answer
2. COBOL is a language that keeps evolving.
a) True Answer: a
b) False Explanation: Comment is denoted by asterisk. (*)
View Answer It denotes the comment line. Hyphen – denotes
continuation.
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. COBOL has 7. The data division is used to ________
billions of lines of existing code with more added a) Declare program id
each year. It thus keeps updating itself. b) Declare variables
c) File control
3. Which of the following is not a part of the d) Input-Output section
program division in COBOL? View Answer
a) Identification
b) Environment Answer: b
c) Procedure Explanation: The data division is used to declare
d) Compilation and create variables and constant fields. There are
View Answer 3 basic data types in COBOL.
Answer: d 8. Which is not a data type in COBOL?

Explanation: COBOL has 4 basic parts in the a) numeric
division section: Identification, Environment, data b) alphanumeric
and procedure. Each program is organized like a c) alphabetic
book. d) float
View Answer
4. Which of the following is not a part of the
Identification division? Answer: d
a) Paragraphs Explanation: There is no data type called as float in
b) Entries COBOL. It has only 3 basic data types: numeric,
c) Phrases alphabetic and alphanumeric. Variables are created
d) Clauses in the data division.
View Answer
9. What does S denote in a picture clause?
Answer: c a) A symbol
Explanation: The order of identification division is: b) A character
Paragraphs c) A sign
67
d) Alphanumeric sign 4. Which of the following is a common testing
View Answer conducted by the developers?
a) Unit testing
Answer: b b) Entry testing
Explanation: It denotes a sign in a picture clause. c) Phrase testing
Picture clause values usually use 9, X, V, S, A. d) Code testing
View Answer
10. _____________ denotes the format in which
data is stored in memory. Answer: a
a) kind Explanation: Unit testing is commonly performed
b) attach by the developers. It is difficult to perform testing
c) select at any time during its cycle. An early start
d) usage decreases the time and cost.
View Answer
5. SDLC stands for ________
Answer: d a) Software development life cycle
Explanation: Usage denotes the format in which b) System development life cycle
data is stored in the memory. Normally the phrase c) Software design life cycle
usage is omitted in COBOL. d) System design life cycle
View Answer
1. Another name for white-box testing is
___________ Answer: a
a) Control testing Explanation: It stands for Software development
b) Graybox life cycle. In SDLC, the testing can be started from
c) Glassbox the software gathering requirement phase. And can
d) Black box be carried over till the deployment phase.
View Answer
6. Which of the following is a myth in testing?
Answer: c a) Tester can find bugs
Explanation: Sometimes it is called the glass box b) Any user can test software
testing. It is a type of testing in which the internal c) Missed defects are not due to testers
structure of any application is tested and examined. d) Complete testing is not possible
View Answer
2. Test cases ensure that all the statements are
executed atleast once. Answer: b
a) True Explanation: Any user can test software is a myth.
b) False Anyone cannot test the software. A person who has
View Answer no knowledge cannot test the software.
Answer: a 7. A process to determine how the actual testing is

Explanation: The statement is true. Test cases are done _______
written to check if all the statements are executed a) Audit
at least once. It also checks the logicality of the b) Inspection
code. c) Control
d) Monitoring
3. Which of the following divides the input View Answer
domain into classes containing data?
a) Equivalent partitioning Answer: a
b) Environment partitioning Explanation: Audit is the systematic process which
c) Procedure division can determine how the actual process of testing is
d) Compilation division done. Audit is generally done with a team.
View Answer
8. Gathering formal or informal technical
Answer: a feedback is called _________
Explanation: Equivalent partitioning divides the a) Audit
input domain into classes containing data. They b) Testing
basically exercise on a specific functionality of a c) Inspection
software.
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d) Unit testing 3. A freeware GNU Debugger is __________
View Answer a) GDB
b) GNB
Answer: c c) FDB
Explanation: The term used is inspection. d) FNB
Inspection helps in getting a formal or an informal View Answer
feedback of a particular product. The errors can be
easily examined. Answer: a
Explanation: GDB is a free GNU debugger which
9. Which is not involved in debugging? runs on most of the Unix-like platforms. It works
a) Identifying for multiple programming languages. GNU is free
b) Isolating software.
c) Test
d) Fixing 4. Which of the following is written for getting
View Answer help in GDB?
a) he
Answer: c b) h
Explanation: Testing is a different process and is c) assist
different from debugging. Debugging involves d) assistant
identifying, isolating and fixation of the problems View Answer
or errors.
Answer: b
10. A standard for unit testing. Explanation: In this h stands for help. h or help
a) IEEE 1008 both commands can be used. Help lists all the
b) IEEE 1005 commands.
c) IEEE 1009
d) IEEE 1000 5. h command gives ___________
View Answer a) A list of all the commands starting from h
b) Describes all the commands
Answer: a c) Displays a short description of the command
Explanation: IEEE 1008 is a standard defined for d) Displays all the programs
unit testing. Rest all the other standards mentioned View Answer
are invalid. There are certain standards defined for
Quality assurance. Answer: c
Explanation: h command displays a short
1. Examination of the program step by step is description of the command. If simply help is
called ______________ written it gives a list of all the commands.
a) Controlling
b) Tracing 6. ____________ creates an inferior process that
c) Stepping runs your program.
d) Testing a) run
View Answer b) exit
c) execute
Answer: c d) e
Explanation: Debuggers perform the task of step View Answer
by step examination of the code which is called
stepping. They also perform tracing. Answer: a
Explanation: run or r command creates an inferior
2. The examination of changing values of process that runs your program. If there are no
variables is called stepping. errors the program will finish and results will be
a) True displayed accordingly.
b) False
View Answer 7. Which of the following does not affects the
execution of the program?
Answer: b a) Arguments
Explanation: The statement is false. It is called b) Environment
tracing. In tracing, the variables are examined c) Control
wherever it value is changing.
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d) I/o documents is a part of Software Process
View Answer Documentation. Several other terms used in
documentation are SDP, SRS, etc.
Answer: c
Explanation: Execution is affected by : 2. The SRS describes what the system should do
-> arguments with words and figures.
-> environment a) True
-> Working directory b) False
-> standard I/O. View Answer
8. ‘set args ‘ without arguments can ___________ Answer: a

a) initialize all the arguments Explanation: The statement is true. SRS stands for
b) remove all the arguments Software Requirements Specifications. It describes
c) no change what the system should do in theoretical terms.
d) show all the arguments
View Answer 3. _______ is part of user documentation.
a) Class diagram
Answer: b b) Use case
Explanation: set args command can remove all the c) Code comment
arguments. d) Installation guide
Syntax: set args arg1 arg2 … View Answer
If the arguments are not given it deletes all the
arguments. Answer: d
Explanation: Installation guide is a part of user
9. Which is not involved in debugging? documentation. It also comprises of user manual,
a) Identifying installation guide, Wiki and the online
b) Isolating documentation and help.
c) Test
d) Fixing 4. The process of maintaining a record of project
View Answer development and maintenance.
a) Process documentation
Answer: c b) Product documentation
Explanation: Testing is a different process and is c) User documentation
different from debugging. Debugging involves d) System documentation
identifying, isolating and fixation of the problems View Answer
or errors.
Answer: a
10. run > outfile command is used to _________ Explanation: It is called as process documentation
a) direct output to the file outfile only. It contains the plans, schedules, etc. It also
b) jump to a file outfile contains the gantt chart.
c) enter a file outfile
d) edit a file outfile 5. This describes the objectives of a product and
View Answer set out the constraints.
a) SDP
Answer: a b) SRS
Explanation: run > outfile directs the output to the c) SDD
file outfile. Certain commands like ‘ cd dir ‘ are d) STD
used to change the working directory. View Answer
1. STD stands for ____________ Answer: a

a) Software Test Documents Explanation: Software development plan describes
b) System Test Documents the objectives of the project and sets the
c) Software Traced Documents constraints. It comprises risk analysis, work
d) System Traced Documents breakdown, monitoring and reporting mechanisms,
View Answer etc.
Answer: a 6. ____________ provide the detailed, specific

Explanation: STD which stands for Software test application being developed.
70
a) System models environment.
b) Appendices a) System models
c) Index b) Software models
d) Glossary c) Class models
View Answer d) User models
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Appendices provide the detailed, Answer: a
specific application being developed. It includes Explanation: System models describe the
hardware and database descriptions. Hardware relationships between various entities. It comprises
requirements include minimal and optimal of various models like data flow, use case,
configurations of a system. semantic data models etc.
7. Which of the following should describe the 1. Maintenance and review add to the useful life
technical terms used in the document? of the system but can consume large amounts of
a) glossary __________
b) index a) Documents
c) user requirements b) Soft wares
d) system architecture c) Devices
View Answer d) Resources
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Glossary should describe the Answer: d
technical terms used in the document. In this, the Explanation: They consume a large amount of
writer shouldn’t make assumptions about the resources. They can benefit from the methods and
experience and expertise of the reader. project management techniques though which are
applied to the systems development.
8. The services provided for the user are described
in which section? 2. File and database contains the frequency
a) System requirements component.
b) User requirements a) True
c) System models b) False
d) Appendices View Answer
View Answer
Answer: b
Answer: b Explanation: The statement is false. Frequency is a
Explanation: The services provided by the software part of output design. File design contains
for the user are described in this section. The non- capabilities and organization.
functional requirements should also be described in
this section. 3. This is not a part of the signing on the
procedure.
9. ______________ architecture provides a high- a) Identification
level overview of the anticipated system b) Verification
architecture. c) Execution
a) System d) Authorization
b) User View Answer
c) Test
d) Software Answer: c
View Answer Explanation: Signing on is a part of special system
design considerations. It does not involve a step of
Answer: a execution. It involves identification, verification
Explanation: System architecture shows the and authorization.
description and distribution functions across
system modules. Architectural components that are 4. A __________ is a noted set of activities that
reused should be highlighted. are executed on the software in order to confirm its
behavior to certain set of inputs.
10. The graphical models showing the a) Process
relationships between the system and its b) Document
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c) Use case d) V(G) = E + N – 2
d) Test case View Answer
View Answer
Answer: a
Answer: d Explanation: The option V(G) = E – N + 2 denotes
Explanation: A test case is basically a documented the correct expression. Here, E is the number of
set of activities that are carried out on the software flow graph edges. N is the number of flow graph
in order to confirm its functionality to certain given nodes.
inputs. Each test case would in turn have steps to
address how we can check a particular test 9. The probability of failure-free operation of a
condition is satisfied or not. software application in a specified environment for
a specified time.
5. A type of testing that is conducted at the a) Software Reliability
software interface. b) Software Quality
a) gray box c) Software availability
b) black box d) Software Safety
c) red box View Answer
d) white box
Explanation: The answer is software reliability. It
Answer: b is estimated using historical and development data.
Explanation: Black box testing is conducted at the
software interface. White box testing is predicted 10. SCM stands for __________
on close examination of procedural details. a) Software configuration monitoring
b) System configuration management
6. A simple notation for the representation of c) Software configuration management
control flow. d) System configuration monitoring
a) System flow View Answer
b) Flow graph
c) Flow program Answer: a
d) System program Explanation: Software configuration management
View Answer (SCM), also called change management, is a set of
activities designed to manage change by
Answer: b identifying the work products that are likely to
Explanation: The flow graph depicts logical change.
control flow. Each circle in a flow graph is called a
flow graph node, represents one or more 1. ______________ is done in the development
procedural statements. phase by the developers.
a) Deployment
7. A software metric that provides a quantitative b) Debugging
measure of the logical complexity of a program. c) Verification
a) Cyclomatic complexity d) Validation
b) Index matrix View Answer
c) Quantitative complexity
d) System complexity Answer: b
View Answer Explanation: Debugging is done in the
development phase by the developer. In
Answer: a development phase developer fixes the bug (i.e)
Explanation: The number of regions of the flow called debugging.
graph corresponds to the cyclomatic complexity.
All other options are invalid. 2. Testing is conducted by the developers in
testing phase.
8. An expression for the calculation of cyclomatic a) True
complexity. b) False
a) V(G) = E – N + 2 View Answer
b) V(G) = E + N + 2
c) V(G) = E – N – 2 Answer: b
Explanation: The statement is false. Testing is
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conducted by the testers in testing phase. Testing is in an existing system to enhance, update, or
a process of finding the defects from a user upgrade its features is called system maintenance.
perspective(Black Box Testing). On an average, maintenance cost of a computerized
system is two to four times more than the initial
3. Process of evaluating a system to verify development cost.
whether or not it is meeting its objectives.
a) System Maintenance 7. _____________ Conducted at developer’s site.
b) System Evaluation a) Alpha Testing
c) System validation b) Beta Testing
d) System authorization c) Unit testing
View Answer d) System testing
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Process of evaluating a system (after Answer: a
it is put in operation) to verify whether or not it is Explanation: Alpha testing is conducted at the
meeting its objectives is called as system developer’s site. It is conducted by a customer (end
evaluation. users) in developer’s presence before software
delivery.
4. A point not considered in system evaluation.
a) Process control 8. ___________ Conducted at customers’ site.
b) Performance evaluation a) Alpha Testing
c) User Satisfaction b) Beta Testing
d) Failure Rate c) Unit testing
View Answer d) System testing
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Points considered for evaluating a Answer: b
system are: Explanation: Beta testing is conducted at the
-> Performance evaluation customer’s site. Generally, developer is not
-> Cost analysis present. Customer records all problems (defects)
-> Time analysis and reports it to developer.
-> User satisfaction
-> Ease of modification 9. The probability of failure-free operation of a
-> Failure rate. software application in a specified environment for
a specified time.
5. A type of testing that is conducted at the a) Software Reliability
software interface. b) Software Quality
a) gray box c) Software availability
b) black box d) Software Safety
c) red box View Answer
d) white box
Explanation: The answer is software reliability. It
Answer: b is estimated using historical and development data.
Explanation: Black box testing is conducted at the
software interface. White box testing is predicated 10. The probability that a software application is
on close examination of procedural details. operating according to requirements at a given
point in time.
6. Incorporating changes in an existing system to a) Software Reliability
enhance, update, or upgrade its features. b) Software Quality
a) Maintenance c) Software availability
b) Evaluation d) Software Safety
c) Deployment View Answer
d) Validation
Explanation: Software availability marks the
Answer: a proper functioning of the software at a given point
Explanation: The Process of incorporating changes
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of time. Reliability, availability and safety are three c) Q
important factors. d) &
View Answer
1. A __________is a set of instructions which is
prepared to perform a specific assignment if Answer: a
executed by a computer. Explanation: Wait fraction of a processor is
a) Browser represented by w. It is also known as the processor
b) Internet wait ratio.
c) Program
d) Code 6. Processor wait ratio is given by ________
View Answer a) w=b/e+b
b) w=b/e-b
Answer: c c) #=b/e-b
Explanation: A set of meaningful instructions is d) #=b/e+b
called a program. A program is basically designed View Answer
to perform any function assigned to it.
Answer: b
2. A program is an active entity. Explanation: Processor wait ratio is represented by
a) True w. It is given by :
b) False w=b/b+e.
View Answer
7. What does ‘b’ represent in a processor wait
Answer: b ratio?
Explanation: The statement is false. A program is a) input ratio
not an active entity. It is completely passive. b) output ratio
c) average time
3. What is responsible for creating a process from d) average I/O time
a program? View Answer
a) OS
b) Web Answer: d
c) Internet Explanation: It represents the average I/O time.
d) Firewall Average execution time with single programming
View Answer is given by e.
Answer: a 8. A technique that allows more than one program

Explanation: OS is responsible for creating a to be ready for execution and provides the ability
process from a program. OS stands for operating to switch from one process to another.
system. A process is created in order to be a) multitasking
executed by using computer facilities. b) multiprocessing
c) multitasking
4. This cycle, of going through __________ states d) multiprogramming
of running and input/output, may be repeated over View Answer
and over until the job is completed.
a) evaluation Answer: d
b) process Explanation: Multiprogramming is the concept
c) program implemented for execution and provides the ability
d) data to switch from one task to the other.
View Answer
9. Multiprogramming is mainly accomplished by:
Answer: b a) os
Explanation: The answer is process states. The b) software
cycle of going through process states can be c) hardware
repeated over and over again until the job is d) program
completed or the process gets aborted. View Answer
5. The wait fraction is represented by __________ Answer: a

a) w Explanation: The OS is mainly responsible for
b) # multiprogramming. The hardware provides the
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specific circuitry that may be used by the operating d) Network
system. View Answer
10. The technique that increases the system’s Answer: b

productivity. Explanation: The answer is TCP. TCP stands for
a) multiprogramming Transmission Control Protocol. Servers receive
b) multitasking requests from clients.
c) multiprocessing
d) single-programming 5. Java extension used in threads?
View Answer a) java.lang.Thread
b) java.language.Thread
Answer: a c) java.lang.Threads
Explanation: Multiprogramming increases the d) java.Thread
productivity. By increasing the CPU utilization View Answer
other devices’s utilization is also increased.
Answer: a
1. Multithreading is also called as ____________ Explanation: java.lang.Thread is the class that is
a) Concurrency extended if any user wants to extend threads.
b) Simultaneity
c) Crosscurrent 6. A method that must be overridden while
d) Recurrent extending threads.
View Answer a) run()
b) start()
Answer: a c) stop()
Explanation: Concurrency is often used in place of d) paint()
multithreading. Multitasking allows multiple View Answer
threads to run at a time.
Answer: a
2. Multiprocessing allows single processor to run Explanation: run()method must be overridden (It is
several concurrent threads. similar to main method of sequential program).
a) True
b) False 7. An interface that is implemented while using
View Answer threads.
a) java.lang.Run
Answer: a b) java.lang.Runnable
Explanation: The statement is false. Multitasking c) java.lang.Thread
allows single processor to run several concurrent d) java.lang.Threads
threads. View Answer
3. A single sequential flow of control within a Answer: b

program is ________ Explanation: java.lang.Runnable is correct. Any
a) Process thread class implements runnable.
b) Task
c) Thread 8. A thread becomes non runnable when?
d) Structure a) Its stop method is invoked
View Answer b) Its sleep method is invoked
c) Its finish method is invoked
Answer: c d) Its init method is invoked
Explanation: A thread is a sequential flow of View Answer
control within a program. Single-threaded program
can handle one task at any time. Answer: b
Explanation: A thread becomes Not Runnable
4. Both client and server release _________ when one of these events occurs:
connection after a page has been transferred. • Its sleep method is invoked.
a) IP • The thread calls the wait method to wait for a
b) TCP specific condition to be satisfied.
c) Hyperlink • The thread is blocking on I/O.
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9. A method used to temporarily release time for d) Simple
other threads. View Answer
a) yield()
b) set() Answer: a
c) release() Explanation: The secondary memory is the long
d) start() term store for programs and data while main
View Answer memory holds program and data currently in use.
This is a physical organization.
Answer: a
Explanation: We can use the yield() method to 4. Memory organization in which users write
temporarily release time for other threads. It is programs in modules with different characteristics.
static by default. a) Physical
b) Logical
10. A method used to force one thread to wait for c) Structural
another thread to finish. d) Simple
a) join() View Answer
b) connect()
c) combine() Answer: b
d) concat() Explanation: The answer is Logical. To handle
View Answer user programs properly, the operating system and
the hardware should support a basic form of
Answer: a module to provide protection and sharing.
Explanation: The answer is join(). We can use the
join() method to force one thread to wait for 5. An executing process must be loaded entirely in
another thread to finish. main memory. What kind of a memory
organization is this?
1. A task carried out by the OS and hardware to a) Physical
accommodate multiple processes in main memory. b) Logical
a) Memory control c) Structural
b) Memory management d) Simple
c) Memory sharing View Answer
d) Memory usage
View Answer Answer: d
Explanation: This is simple memory organisation.
Answer: b An executing process must be loaded entirely in
Explanation: Memory management is carried out main memory (if overlays are not used).
by the OS and hardware to accommodate multiple
processes in main memory. 6. FTP stands for?
a) File Text Protocol
2. An HTML file is a text file containing small b) File Transfer Protocol
markup tags. c) Firm Transfer Protocol
a) True d) File Transplant Protocol
View Answer
Answer: b
Answer: a Explanation: FTP stands for File Transfer Protocol.
Explanation: The statement is true. HTML stands It is a type of internet service use for the
for Hyper Text Markup Language. It is a text file transmission of files.
containing small markup tags.
7. A set of overlapping divisions in the main
3. Secondary memory is the long term store for memory are called _______
programs and data while main memory holds a) Partitions
program and data currently in use. What kind of an b) Divisions
organization is this? c) Blocks
a) Physical d) Modules
b) Logical View Answer
c) Structural
76
Answer: a 2. Logical Address space can be larger than
Explanation: Partition main memory into a set of physical address space.
non overlapping regions called partitions. a) True
Partitions can be of equal or unequal sizes. b) False
View Answer
8. Any program, no matter how small, occupies an
entire partition. This is called ____________ Answer: a
a) fragmentation Explanation: The statement is true. Since, a part of
b) prior fragmentation the program needs to be in memory for the process
c) internal fragmentation of execution, the logical space can therefore be
d) external fragmentation much larger than the physical address space.
View Answer
3. Virtual Memory can be implemented via
Answer: c __________
Explanation: It is called as internal fragmentation. a) Demand Paging
Main memory use is inefficient. Any program, no b) Logical paging
matter how small, occupies an entire partition. This c) Structural way
is called internal fragmentation. d) Simple division
View Answer
9. __________ is used to shift processes so they
are contiguous and all free memory is in one block. Answer: a
a) Fragmentation Explanation: Demand paging can implement
b) Compaction virtual memory. Another way is demand
c) External Fragmentation segmentation.
d) Division
View Answer 4. COW stands for?
a) Copy over write
Answer: b b) Convert over write
Explanation: Use compaction to shift processes so c) Count over write
they are contiguous and all free memory is in one d) Copy over write
block. View Answer
10. _______ searches for smallest block. The Answer: d

fragment left behind is small as possible. Explanation: COW stands for Copy over write.
a) best fit COW allows both parent and child processes to
b) first fit share the same pages initially.
c) next fit
d) last fit 5. LRU stands for?
View Answer a) Least Recently used
b) Less Recently used
Answer: a c) Least Recurrently used
Explanation: Best fit searches for the smallest d) Least Randomly used
block. The fragment left behind is as small as View Answer
possible.
Answer: a
1. Separation of user logical memory and physical Explanation: LRU stands for Least Recently used.
memory is ___________ LRU is least recently used. It replaces page with
a) Memory control the smallest count.
b) Memory management
c) Memory sharing 6. An allocation that uses a proportional allocation
d) Virtual memory scheme using priorities rather than size.
View Answer a) Priority allocation
b) File allocation
Answer: d c) Preference allocation
Explanation: The separation of user logical d) Simple allocation
memory and physical memory is called virtual View Answer
memory. Only part of the program needs to be in
memory for execution.
77
Answer: a c) Field
Explanation: Priority allocation uses a proportional d) Value
allocation scheme using priorities rather than size. View Answer
7. A process selects a replacement frame from the Answer: c

set of all frames. Explanation: Fields are the basic elements of data
a) Local replacement in a file. e.g. student’s last name. It contains a
b) Global replacement single value.
c) Block replacement
d) Module replacement 2. Records are treated as a unit.
View Answer a) True
b) False
Explanation: Global replacement process selects a
replacement frame from the set of all frames; one Answer: a
process can take a frame from another. Explanation: The statement is true. Records are a
collection of related fields. They are treated as a
8. Any program, no matter how small, occupies an unit.
entire partition. This is called _____________
a) fragmentation 3. __________________ refers to the logical
b) prior fragmentation structuring of records.
c) internal fragmentation a) Physical organisation
d) external fragmentation b) Logical organisation
View Answer c) Structural organisation
d) File organisation
Explanation: It is called as internal fragmentation.
Main memory use is inefficient. Any program, no Answer: d
matter how small, occupies an entire partition. This Explanation: File organisation refers to the logical
is called internal fragmentation. structuring of records. It is determined bi the way
in which files are accessed.
9. A process is busy swapping pages in and out.
a) Thrashing 4. Which of the following is not an appropriate
b) Compaction criterion for file organisation?
c) External Fragmentation a) Larger access time
d) Division b) ease of update
View Answer c) simple maintenance
d) economy of storage
Explanation: Thrashing is the term used whenever
a process is busy swapping pages in and put. Answer: a
Explanation: The answer is Larger access time.
10. ____________ is one or more physically The access time should be short. It is an important
contiguous pages. criteria for file organisation.
a) Slab
b) Cache 5. ___________ itself is a file owned by the
c) Object operating system
d) Allocator a) Logical file
View Answer b) Record
c) Database
Answer: a d) Directory
Explanation: Slab is one or more physically View Answer
contiguous pages. Cache consists of one or more
slabs. Answer: d
Explanation: Directory is the file owned by the
1. A basic element of data in a file. operating system. File directory contains various
a) Memory important information.
b) Record
78
6. Which of the following isn’t a part of the file b) Appending
directory? c) Reading
a) Attributes d) Updating
b) Protocol View Answer
c) Location
d) Ownership Answer: a
View Answer Explanation: Execution is a process that user can
load and execute a program but cannot copy it.
Answer: b Other processes are updation, changing protection,
Explanation: File directory contains important etc.
information like: Attributes, Location and
Ownership. 1. Category of software that comprises word
processing, graphics, databases etc.
7. Allocated size of a file comes under? a) System
a) basic information b) Application
b) address information c) General purpose
c) access control information d) OS
d) usage information View Answer
View Answer
Answer: b
Answer: b Explanation: Application software comprises of all
Explanation: Allocated size comes under the these things like graphics, database, word
address information of a file. Address information processing softwares, etc. There are mainly two
consists of volume, starting address, size used and categories of softwares- System and application.
size allocated.
2. There are two basic structures in text
8. Which of the following is not a part of the documents.
usage information? a) True
a) data created b) False
b) identity of creator View Answer
c) owner
d) last date modified Answer: a
View Answer Explanation: The statement is true. There are two
structures in text documents- logical and physical.
Answer: c
Explanation: Owner is a part of the access control 3. MS-Word comes under __________
information. Other options are a part of usage a) Document production
information of a file. b) Graphics
c) Databases
9. When access is granted to append or update a d) Numerical Analysis
file to more than one user, the OS or file View Answer
management system must enforce discipline. This
is _________ Answer: a
a) Simultaneous access Explanation: Ms- Word is an application based
b) Compaction software. It comes under document production.
c) External Fragmentation Ms-Word, frontPage, Frame maker come under
d) Division this category.
View Answer
4. A ______________is an application that allows
Answer: a the user to compose and edit simple documents.
Explanation: When access is granted to append or a) Word processor
update a file to more than one user, the OS or file b) Spreadsheet
management system must enforce discipline. It is c) Email utility
referred as simultaneous access. d) Browsers
View Answer
10. The user can load and execute a program but
cannot copy it. This process is? Answer: a
a) Execution Explanation: A word processor software is an
79
application that allows the user to compose and c) Nano
edit all simple documents. d) Physical
E.g. MS-Word. View Answer
5. In text documents, a structure which stays the Answer: d

same no matter how the document is represented. Explanation: The correct option is physical. The
a) Logical physical structure of a document is system-
b) Smart dependent; i.e., fonts and tab spacing vary among
c) Nano systems.
d) Physical
View Answer 10. The _____________ in a document and the
order in which it is presented is referred to as the
Answer: a document’s logical structure.
Explanation: There are two basic structures- logical a) data
and physical. A logical structure stays the same no b) information
matter how the document is represented. c) features
d) functions
6. When the document gets put out : the best fit is View Answer
calculated from ___________ structure.
a) Logical Answer: b
b) Smart Explanation: The information in a document and
c) Nano the order in which it is presented is referred to as
d) Physical the document’s logical structure. Information and
View Answer the order are two most important things in a
document.
Answer: a
Explanation: A logical structure stays the same no 1. In a spreadsheet, letters are used to represent
matter how the document is represented. The best _____________
fit is thus calculated from the logical structure. a) Cells
b) Rows
7. This can change the physical structure of the c) Columns
document. d) Blocks
a) Font View Answer
b) Formatting
c) Approach Answer: c
d) Debug Explanation: In any spreadsheet, the letters are
View Answer used to represent columns. The numbers are used
to represent rows.
Answer: b
Explanation: Formatting can change the physical 2. Cells are identified by a combination of letters
structure. It includes indentation, text color, style, and numbers.
etc. of the document. a) True
b) False
8. An example of e-mail utility. View Answer
a) Word
b) Outlook Answer: a
c) Explorer Explanation: The statement is true. A combination
d) Excel of the row number and column letter gives us the
View Answer cell address.
Answer: b 3. A numeric data analysis tool that allows us to

Explanation: Outlook is an example of email create a computerized ledger.
utility. Word is a word processor, Excel is a a) Word processing package
spreadsheet software. b) Spreadsheet package
c) Graphics package
9. A structure that is system- dependent. d) Mathematical Package
a) Logical View Answer
b) Smart
80
Answer: b b) Main cell
Explanation: A spreadsheet package is the numeric c) Active cell
data analysis tool. It is useful for any numerical d) Formula cell
analysis problem whose data can be organized as View Answer
rows and columns.
Answer: c
4. Which of the following isn’t a part of a Explanation: It is called the active cell. The address
spreadsheet? of the active cell is shown in the formula bar.
a) row number
b) column number 9. The placement of information within a cell at
c) column letter the left edge, right edge, or centered is :
d) cell address a) Indentation
View Answer b) Placement
c) Identification
Answer: b d) Alignment
Explanation: The answer is column number. There View Answer
are no column numbers in a spreadsheet. Columns
are represented using letters. Answer: d
Explanation: The correct option is Alignment. The
5. Spreadsheets cannot: left, right and center positioning is defined by the
a) do calculations alignment.
b) create graphics
c) plot graphs 10. A change in the appearance of a value or label
d) plot charts in a cell.
View Answer a) Alteration
b) Format
Answer: b c) Indentation
Explanation: Spreadsheets are not meant to create d) Design
graphics. They can do all sorts of calculations, plot View Answer
charts and graphs, etc.
Answer: b
6. ______________ help us to see patterns. Explanation: Formatting is the term used whenever
a) Spreadsheets there are changes in the appearance of a value or
b) Calculations label.
c) Charts
d) Graphs 1. CAD stands for?
View Answer a) Computer Aided Design
b) Calculation Aided Design
Answer: c c) Computer Aided Draft
Explanation: Charts in spreadsheets give us a d) Calculation Aided Draft
picture of our data. It can help us to see patterns as View Answer
well.
Answer: a
7. An easier way to set up complicated Explanation: CAD stands for Computer Aided
calculations. Design. It is used in design of buildings,
a) Decimals automobiles, aircrafts, etc.
b) Fractions
c) Booleans 2. In CAD, objects are displayed in block format.
d) Functions a) True
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Functions make it easier to set up Answer: b
complicated calculations. Various formulae can Explanation: The statement is false. In CAD,
also be used. Objects are displayed in wire frame outline form.
8. The cell that is in use.

a) Highlighted cell
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3. Used to produce illustrations for reports or for 7. A simple technique of X-ray photography.
generation of slides. It allows cross-sectional views of physiological
a) Animation Graphics systems to be displayed.
b) Spreadsheet graphics a) Photography
c) Graphics package b) Image processing
d) Presentation graphics c) Visualization
View Answer d) Tomography
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The presentation graphics are used to Answer: d
produce illustrations for reports or generation of Explanation: Tomography can be Computed X-
slides for use with projectors Commonly used to Ray or position emission tomography. It allows
summarize financial, statistical, mathematical, cross-sectional views of physiological systems to
scientific, economic data for research reports, be displayed.
managerial reports & customer information
bulletins. 8. The major component of GUI.
a) Icons
4. A graphics method in which one object is b) Links
transformed into another. c) Window Manager
a) animation d) Cells
b) morphing View Answer
c) designing
d) graphics art Answer: c
View Answer Explanation: GUI stands for Graphical User
Interface. The major component is the window
Answer: b manager. To make a particular window active,
Explanation: Morphing is a graphics method in click in that window (using an interactive pointing
which one object is transformed into another. device).
5. Producing graphical representations for 9. GKS stands for?

scientific, engineering, and medical data sets. a) General Kernel System
a) Scientific Analysation b) Graphics Kernel System
b) Scientific Visualization c) Graphics Kernel Software
c) Plot analysation d) General Kernel Software
d) Plot visualization View Answer
View Answer
Answer: b
Answer: b Explanation: GKS-Graphics Kernel System is the
Explanation: Scientific visualization is the term first graphics package. It was accepted by ISO &
used for doing the same. It is used in various ANSI.
science related fields.
10. A set of libraries that provide
6. ________________applies techniques to programmatically access to some kind of graphics
modify or interpret existing pictures such as 2D functions.
photographs and TV scans. a) Graphics Package
a) Scientific Analysation b) Formatting Package
b) Scientific Visualization c) Animation Package
c) Image processing d) Design Package
d) Business visualization View Answer
View Answer
Answer: a
Answer: c Explanation: A set of libraries that provide
Explanation: Image processing is used in medical programmatically access to some kind of graphics
applications for picture enhancements, 2D functions comes under the graphics package.
tomography, etc. It is also used to improve picture Their types are GKS, PHIGS, etc.
quality.
1. A package that allows individuals to use
personal computers for storing and retrieving their
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personal information. contact management. The Palm Os is smaller,
a) Animation package cheaper and have vastly better battery life.
b) Spreadsheet package
c) Graphics package 6. MCTI stands for Mobile community ________
d) Personal assistance package inventory.
View Answer a) task
b) trade
Answer: d c) tree
Explanation: It is a personal assistance package d) tele
that allows for the same. It helps in planning and View Answer
managing their schedules, contacts, finances and
inventory of important terms. Answer: c
Explanation: MCTI stands for Mobile community
2. PDAs have permanent rechargeable batteries. tree inventory. It is a freeware tree inventory
a) True software. It uses palm OS and windows platforms.
b) False
View Answer 7. Forms that do not require any programming.
a) vector form
Answer: a b) hanDbase forms
Explanation: The statement is true. PDAs have c) pendragon forms
permanent rechargeable batteries. They are d) html forms
standard alkaline batteries. View Answer
3. PDA stands for? Answer: b

a) Personal digital assistants Explanation: The answer is hanDbase forms. The
b) Personal digital additionals handBase forms do not require any programming.
c) Personal digital advantage Pendragon forms can be used for a variety of
d) Public digital assistants applications like inventory for golf course.
View Answer
8. The forms that can be used for a variety of
Answer: a inventory applications.
Explanation: PDA stands for Personal digital a) vector form
assistants. They are generally hand held computers. b) hanDbase forms
They store, access and organize information. c) pendragon forms
d) html forms
4. You can expand the memory of some PDAs View Answer
with ________ that can be inserted into the PDA.
a) hard disks Answer: c
b) storage cards Explanation: The pendragon forms can be used for
c) pendrives the same. It can be used for a variety of
d) floppy disks applications like inventory for golf course, street,
View Answer park, etc.
Answer: b 9. Graphic object composed of patterns of lines,

Explanation: The answer is storage cards. You can points, circles etc.
expand memory of some PDAs with small storage a) CAD
cards that can be inserted into the PDA. b) Vector
c) Animation
5. The devices that work the best with contact d) Raster
management. View Answer
a) Palm OS
b) Pocket PC Answer: b
c) Plot PC Explanation: A vector is a graphic object that can
d) Drives utilize various geometric shapes that can be
View Answer represented using a few geometric parameters.
Answer: a 10. Graphics composed of patterns of dots called

Explanation: The palm pocket PC works best with pixels.
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a) CAD information. It appears in the directory listings,
b) Vector folders.
c) Animation
d) Raster 5. Two or three characters appended to relative
View Answer filename separated by a period.
a) status
Answer: d b) identifier
Explanation: The answer is Raster. Patterns of dots c) extension
are called pixels. The raster graphics are generally d) descriptor
designed in such a way. View Answer
1. MFD stands for? Answer: c

a) Main File Directory Explanation: Extensions are added to filenames.
b) Memory File Directory The extensions help in identifying the file type.
c) Master File Directory
d) Master Format Directory 6. Files that maintain the hierarchical structure of
View Answer the file system.
a) Descriptors
Answer: c b) Directories
Explanation: MFD is Master File Directory. MFD c) Modifiers
lists names and characteristics of every file in d) Relative files
volume. It also lists any subdirectories. View Answer
2. The users are allowed to read information in Answer: b

directories. Explanation: Directories are the files that maintain
a) True the hierarchical structure of the file system. The
b) False users are allowed to read information in
View Answer directories.
Answer: a 7. Files in which users store information?

Explanation: The statement is true. Directories a) Info files
maintain the hierarchical structure of the file b) Ordinary files
system. c) Special files
d) Complex files
3. ___________ is created when a user opens an View Answer
account in the computer system.
a) RFD Answer: b
b) Subdirectory Explanation: The answer is Ordinary files. Users
c) MFD store information in ordinary files. Their
d) SFD protections is based on user requests and are
View Answer related to various file functions.
Answer: b 8. The files that appear as entries in the

Explanation: A subdirectory is created when a user directories.
opens an account in the computer system. It is a) Ordinary files
treated as a file, though flagged in MFD as b) Special files
subdirectory. c) Duplicate files
d) Sub directories
4. A filename without path information. View Answer
a) File name
b) Complete filename Answer: b
c) Directory name Explanation: The special files appear as entries in
d) Relative filename the directories. They are the device drivers
View Answer providing i/O hardware interface.
Answer: d 9. Number of regions of the disk in a UNIX files

Explanation: The answer is Relative filename. A management system.
relative filename is a name without path a) 1
84
b) 2 between the end users and the database. End users
c) 3 are the final users that interact with the database.
d) 4
View Answer 4. Which of the following is not involved in
DBMS?
Answer: d a) End Users
Explanation: There are 4 regions in which the disk b) Data
is divided. The first is for booting, second contains c) Application Request
the disk size, third includes the list of definitions d) HTML
and the remaining region contains the free blocks View Answer
available.
Answer: d
10. Several instructions execution simultaneously Explanation: HTML isn’t involved in Database
in _________ Management System. Other things like the data
a) processing and application request are a part of the DBMS.
b) parallel processing
c) serial processing 5. Database is generally __________
d) multitasking a) System-centered
View Answer b) User-centered
c) Company-centered
Answer: b d) Data-centered
Explanation: The answer is parallel processing. In View Answer
parallel processing, the several instructions are
executed simultaneously. Answer: b
Explanation: Database is user-centered. The
1. A collection of related data. perspective is that the user is always right. If there
a) Information is a problem with the use of the system, the system
b) Valuable information is the problem, not the user.
c) Database
d) Metadata 6. A characteristic of an entity.
View Answer a) Relation
b) Attribute
Answer: c c) Parameter
Explanation: Database is the collection of related d) Constraint
data and its metadata organized in a structured View Answer
format. It is designed for optimized information
management. Answer: b
Explanation: An attribute is a characteristic of an
2. DBMS is software. entity. The association among the entities is
a) True described by the relationship.
b) False
View Answer 7. The restrictions placed on the data.
a) Relation
Answer: a b) Attribute
Explanation: The statement is true. DBMS stands c) Parameter
for Database Management System. It enables easy d) Constraint
creation and access of the database. View Answer
3. DBMS manages the interaction between Answer: d

__________ and database. Explanation: Constraint is a restriction that is
a) Users placed on the data. Attribute is the characteristic
b) Clients and the relation describes the association.
c) End Users
d) Stake Holders 8. IMS stands for?
View Answer a) Information Mastering System
b) Instruction Management System
Answer: c c) Instruction Manipulating System
Explanation: DBMS manages the interaction
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d) Information Management System 3. Which of the following isn’t a level of
View Answer abstraction?
a) physical
Answer: d b) logical
Explanation: IMS stands for Information c) user
Management System. It is developed to manage d) view
large amounts of data for complex projects. View Answer
9. A model developed by Hammer and Mc Leod Answer: c

in 1981. Explanation: There are three levels of abstraction:
a) SDM physical, logical and the view level. These three
b) OODBM levels are involved in DBMS.
c) DDM
d) RDM 4. A level that describes how a record is stored.
View Answer a) physical
b) logical
Answer: a c) user
Explanation: SDM stands for Semantic Data d) view
Model. It models both data and their relationships View Answer
in a single structure.
Answer: a
10. Object=_________+relationships. Explanation: The answer is physical. The physical
a) data level describes how the record gets stored.
b) attributes e.g. Customer.
c) entity
d) constraints 5. The ______level helps application programs
View Answer hide the details of data types.
a) physical
Answer: c b) logical
Explanation: The answer is entity. It is a part of c) user
OODBM (Object-Oriented Database Model). It d) view
maintains the advantages of ER-model but adds View Answer
more features.
Answer: d
1. DBMS is a set of __________ to access the Explanation: The application programs hide details
data. of datatypes. Views can also hide information for
a) Codes security purposes.
b) Programs
c) Information 6. A logical structure of the database.
d) Metadata a) Schema
View Answer b) Attribute
c) Parameter
Answer: b d) Instance
Explanation: Database is a set of programs View Answer
designed to access the data. It contains information
about a particular enterprise. Answer: a
Explanation: A schema is the logical structure of
2. DBMS provides a convenient and efficient the database. e.g A set of customers and accounts
environment. and their relationship.
a) True
b) False 7. The actual content in the database at a
View Answer particular point.
a) Schema
Answer: a b) Attribute
Explanation: The statement is true. DBMS stands c) Parameter
for Database Management System. It provides an d) Instance
efficient and easy to use environment. View Answer
86
Answer: d 2. Transmission mode controls the direction of
Explanation: The answer is Instance. Instance is signal flow.
the actual content of the database at a particular a) True
point of time. b) False
View Answer
8. Which of the following is not an object-based
logical model? Answer: a
a) ER Explanation: The statement is true. The term
b) Network transmission mode defines the direction of flow of
c) Semantic information between two communication devices.
d) Functional It tells the direction of signal flow between two
View Answer devices.
Answer: b 3. Which of the following isn’t a type of

Explanation: Network model is a part of record- transmission mode?
based logical model and not object-based. Others a) physical
are object based models. ER stands for Entity- b) simplex
relationship. c) full duplex
d) half duplex
9. SQL is _______ View Answer
a) Relational
b) Network Answer: a
c) IMS Explanation: There are three modes of
d) Hierarchical transmission: simplex, half duplex and full duplex.
View Answer Transmission modes tell the direction of signal
flow between two devices.
Answer: a
Explanation: SQL or structured query language is a 4. A transmission that generally involves
relational model. It comes under record-based dedicated circuits.
logical models. a) simplex
b) half duplex
10. A level that describes data stored in a database c) full duplex
and the relationships among the data. d) semi-duplex
a) physical View Answer
b) logical
c) user Answer: a
d) view Explanation: The answer is simplex. Simplex
View Answer generally involves dedicated circuits. TV
broadcasting is an example.
Answer: b
Explanation: The answer is logical. The logical 5. A transmission mode that can transmit data in
level describes the relationships between the data. both the directions but transmits in only one
Physical level describes how the data is stored. direction at a time.
a) simplex
1. A term that defines the direction of flow of b) half duplex
information between devices. c) full duplex
a) interconnectivity d) semi-duplex
b) intra connectivity View Answer
c) transmission mode
d) transmission Answer: b
View Answer Explanation: The half duplex mode supports two
way traffic but only in one direction at a time. The
Answer: c interactive transmission of data within a time
Explanation: The term transmission mode defines sharing system may be best suited to half-duplex
the direction of flow of information between two lines.
communication devices. It tells the direction of
signal flow. 6. A communication between a computer and a
keyboard involves ____________ duplex
87
transmission. Answer: b
a) simplex Explanation: A walkie-talkie operates in half
b) half duplex duplex mode. It can only send or receive a
c) full duplex transmission at any given time.
d) semi-duplex
View Answer 1. A coaxial cable has a bandwidth of _________
of megahertz.
Answer: a a) 100
Explanation: It involves simplex duplex b) 150
transmission. Another example of a simplex duplex c) 1000
transmission is loudspeaker system. d) 10000
View Answer
7. Telephone networks operate in this mode.
a) simplex Answer: a
b) half duplex Explanation: A coaxial cable has a bandwidth of
c) full duplex 100’s of Mhz. Baseband speed is in a few KHz.
d) semi-duplex Multiplexing improves channel bandwidth
View Answer utilization.
Answer: c 2. In TDM, the samples occupy adjacent time

Explanation: Telephone networks operate in full slots.
duplex mode. It can transmit data in both the a) True
directions. b) False
View Answer
8. Fire alarms are based on this type of
transmission: Answer: a
a) direct Explanation: The statement is true. The TDM
b) network technique is based on sampling and they occupy
c) analog adjacent slots and are transmitted in a sequence.
d) multiple
View Answer 3. The carrier wave is a _________
a) tan wave
Answer: c b) cosec wave
Explanation: Analog transmission is a technique of c) sine wave
transmitting voice, data, image, signal or video d) cot wave
information. Fire alarm systems work in the same View Answer
way.
Answer: c
9. A technique of transmitting data or images or Explanation: The carrier wave is generally a sine
videos (information) using a continuous signal. wave. Carrier wave is used to transfer the signal
a) direct from source to destination.
b) network
c) analog 4. Controlling the phase is referred as
d) multiple __________
View Answer a) modulation
b) half modulation
Answer: c c) amplitude modulation
Explanation: Analog is a technique of transmitting d) phase modulation
data or images or videos (information) using a View Answer
continuous signal, which varies in amplitude,
phase or some other property. Answer: d
Explanation: It is referred to as phase modulation.
10. A walkie-talkie operates in ____________ When there is a change in amplitude, it is referred
a) simplex to as amplitude modulation.
b) half duplex
c) full duplex 5. A transmission mode that can transmit data in
d) semi-duplex both the directions but transmits in only one
View Answer direction at a time.
88
a) simplex technique that improves channel bandwidth
b) half duplex utilization.
c) full duplex
d) semi-duplex 10. The purpose of communication system is to
View Answer transfer information from _______ to the
destination.
Answer: b a) user
Explanation: The half duplex mode supports two b) source
way traffic but only in one direction at a time. c) system
d) station
6. A multiplexing technique based on sampling. View Answer
a) FDM
b) TDM Answer: b
c) SDM Explanation: The answer is source. A
d) FM communication system transfers information from
View Answer source to the destination.
Answer: b 1. WDM stands for?

Explanation: TDM which stands for Time division a) Wave division multiplexing
multiplexing is based on sampling which is a b) Wavelength division multiplexing
modulation technique. c) Wavelength dependent multiplexing
d) Wave dependent multiplexing
7. An example of FDM: View Answer
a) broadcast radio
b) telephone Answer: b
c) machines Explanation: It stands for Wavelength division
d) semi-duplex multiplexing. It has same general architecture as
View Answer FDM. FDM is frequency division multiplexing.
Answer: a 2. In TDM, the samples occupy adjacent time

Explanation: Broadcast radio is an example of slots.
FDM. This allows several messages to be a) True
translated from baseband. b) False
View Answer
8. FDM stands for?
a) Frequency Division Multiplexing Answer: a
b) Frequency Dependent Multiplexing Explanation: The statement is true. The TDM
c) Frequency Diverged Multiplexing technique is based on sampling and they occupy
d) Frequency Derived Multiplexing adjacent slots and are transmitted in a sequence.
View Answer
3. In this type of multiplexing time slots are
Answer: a preassigned to sources and fixed.
Explanation: FDM stands for Frequency Division a) TDM
Multiplexing. This allows several messages to be b) Synchronous TDM
translated from baseband, where they are all in the c) Asynchronous TDM
same frequency. d) FDM
View Answer
9. A modulation technique that improves channel
bandwidth utilization. Answer: b
a) direct Explanation: TDM is time division multiplexing.
b) modulation Data rate of medium exceeds data rate of digital
c) demodulation signal to be transmitted.
d) multiplexing
View Answer 4. Controlling the frequency is referred as
_________
Answer: d a) frequency modulation
Explanation: Multiplexing is a modulation b) hertz modulation
c) amplitude modulation
89
d) phase modulation dynamically. They are allocated based on demand.
View Answer Multiplexer scans input lines and collects data until
the frame is full.
Answer: a
Explanation: It is referred to as frequency 9. A system in which two channels are dedicated
modulation. When there is a change in frequency, to transfer data.
it is referred to as frequency modulation. a) TV
b) Cable
5. A technique that can be a solution to the c) Modem
problem of synchronizing data sources. d) Cable modem
a) framing View Answer
b) data link control
c) full link control Answer: d
d) pulse stuffing Explanation: A cable modem has two dedicated
View Answer channels from cable TV provider dedicated to data
transfer. One in each direction.
Answer: d
Explanation: Pulse stuffing is a technique that can 10. In this technique, there is a link between
be a solution to the problem of synchronizing data subscriber and network and a local loop.
sources. In pulse stuffing, the outgoing data rate is a) SSDL
higher than sum of incoming rates. b) DSDL
c) ASDL
6. For voice, each channel contains a ___ word of d) TSDL
digitized data. View Answer
a) 2
b) 1 Answer: c
c) 0 Explanation: In ASDL, there is a link between the
d) 4 subscriber and the network. It uses currently
View Answer installed twisted pair cable.
Answer: b 1. A topology that is responsible for describing

Explanation: In digital carrier systems, for voice the geometric arrangement of components that
each channel contains one word of digitized data. make up the LAN.
The data rate is 1.544 Mbps. Five out of six frames a) Complex
have 8 bit PCM samples. b) Physical
c) Logical
7. Many time slots are wasted in __________ d) Incremental
a) TDM View Answer
b) Synchronous TDM
c) Asynchronous TDM Answer: b
d) FDM Explanation: It is referred to as a physical LAN
View Answer topology. LAN stands for Local Area Network.
Answer: b 2. Bus is a type of topology.

Explanation: In Synchronous TDM, many time a) True
slots are wasted. Other techniques can help b) False
overcome this problem. View Answer
8. A technique that allocates time slots Answer: a

dynamically. Explanation: The statement is true. Bus topology is
a) TDM an arrangement where all nodes are interconnected
b) WDM using a single-cable.
c) Dynamic TDM
d) Statistical TDM 3. _____ LAN topology describes the possible
View Answer connections between pairs of networked end-points
that can communicate.
Answer: d a) Complex
Explanation: Statistical TDM assigns time slots b) Physical
90
c) Logical receiving of data with the help of tokens. Ring
d) Incremental started out as a simple peer-to-peer LAN topology.
View Answer
8. A ____________WAN can be developed using
Answer: c leased private lines or any other transmission
Explanation: A logical LAN topology describes the facility
possible connections. LAN stands for Local Area a) Hybrids
Network. b) peer-to-peer
c) Two-tiered
4. A term that refers to the way in which the d) Three-tiered
nodes of a network are linked together. View Answer
a) network
b) topology Answer: b
c) connection Explanation: A peer-to-peer WAN topology is a
d) interconnectivity relatively simple way of interconnecting a small
View Answer number of sites. It has the least-cost solution for
WANs that contain a small number of
Answer: b internetworked locations.
Explanation: Topology is a term that refers to the
way in which the nodes are connected. There are 4 9. A serially connected system of all the hubs of
major topology networks. networks.
a) Bus
5. A network comprising o multiple topologies. b) Ring
a) Complex c) Daisy chains
b) Hybrid d) Star
c) Bus View Answer
d) Star
Explanation: The correct option is Daisy chain.
Answer: b This simple approach uses ports on existing hubs
Explanation: A hybrid network consists of multiple for interconnecting the hubs.
topologies. It can comprise a ring, a star and other
topologies. We call this arrangement as a hybrid 10. A piece of information which is sent along
network. with the data to the source computer.
a) data
6. The participating computers in a network are b) module
referred to as: c) token
a) Clients d) element
b) Servers View Answer
c) Nodes
d) CPUs Answer: c
View Answer Explanation: Token is the information that is sent
to the source computer along with the data. This
Answer: c token is then passed to the next node.
Explanation: They are referred to as the nodes.
There are several topologies designed for 1. Configuration where many independent
arrangements of these nodes like bus, star, etc. computer systems are connected.
a) Complex
7. A topology that involves Tokens. b) Distributed
a) Star c) Cloud
b) Ring d) Incremental
c) Bus View Answer
d) Daisy Chaining
Explanation: Distributed configuration has many
Answer: b systems connected, and messages, programs, etc
Explanation: Ring topology involves sending and are transmitted between cooperating computer
systems.
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2. Partial mesh is a highly flexible topology that 6. Components that operate at the network layer
can take a variety of very different configurations. of the OSI model.
a) True a) Switches
b) False b) Servers
View Answer c) Routers
d) Gateways
Explanation: The statement is true. Partial mesh is
a highly flexible topology that can take a variety of Answer: c
very different configurations. The routers are Explanation: They are referred to as the routers.
tightly coupled than the basic topologies. But they They are used for interconnecting those networks
are not fully interconnected, as would be the case that use the same high-level protocols above
in a fully meshed network. network layer.
3. Components used for interconnecting dissimilar 7. A topology that involves Tokens.

networks that use different communication a) Star
protocols. b) Ring
a) Switches c) Bus
b) Gateways d) Daisy Chaining
c) Routers View Answer
d) Bridges
Explanation: Ring topology involves sending and
Answer: b receiving of data with the help of tokens. Ring
Explanation: Gateways are used for this purpose. started out as a simple peer-to-peer LAN topology.
Gateways interconnect dissimilar networks,
protocol conversion is performed by them. 8. ____________ operate at bottom two layers of
the OSI model.
4. A topology is a modified version of the basic a) Bridges
star topology. b) Switches
a) network c) Models
b) two-tiered d) Modules
c) bus View Answer
d) ring
Explanation: Bridges operate at the bottom two
Answer: b layers of the OSI model. It connects networks that
Explanation: A two-tiered topology is a modified use the same communication protocols above data-
version of the basic star topology. Rather than link layer.
single concentrator routers, two or more routers are
used. 9. Connecting two or more networks to form a
single network is called :
5. WANs that need to interconnect a very large a) Internetworking
number of sites. b) Intranetworking
a) bus c) Interconnecting
b) two-tiered d) Intraconnectivity
c) three-tiered View Answer
d) ring
Explanation: Connecting two or more networks to
Answer: c form a single network is called internetworking
Explanation: Wide Area Networks that need to and the resultant network is called internetwork.
interconnect a very large number of sites, or are
built using smaller routers that can support only a 10. OSI stands for?
few serial connections, may find the two-tiered a) Open Site Interconnection
architecture insufficiently scalable. b) Open System Interdependence
c) Open System Interconnection
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d) Open Site Interdependence computer and could share its information
View Answer processing resources.
Answer: c 5. A type of technique in which dumb terminals

Explanation: OSI is open system interconnection. are connected to a central computer system.
It is a framework for defining standards for linking a) Time Sharing
heterogeneous computers in a packet switched b) Message passing
network. c) Batch environment
d) User environment
1. ARPANET stands for? View Answer
a) Advanced Research Project Agency Network
b) Advanced Research Programmed Auto Network Answer: a
c) Advanced Research Project Automatic Network Explanation: This happens in time sharing. In this,
d) Advanced Research Project Authorized Network users were able to interact with the computer and
View Answer could share its information processing resources.
Answer: a 6. TCP stands for?

Explanation: ARPANET stands for Advanced a) Transmission control program
Research Project Agency Network. It was b) Transmission control protocol
developed in late 1960s under ARPA (Advanced c) Transfer control program
Research Projects Agency). d) Transfer control protocol
View Answer
2. Internet can help you find the shortest route.
a) True Answer: b
b) False Explanation: TCP stands for transmission control
View Answer protocol. It basically allows different networks to
interconnect.
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. Obviously, 7. The “Victorian internet” is actually?
Internet is so widespread; it can help us in all the a) Telegraph
possible ways. It can predict the weather, play b) Batch Environment
music, etc. c) Unit Environment
d) System Environment
3. In this technique, there is no direct contact View Answer
between users and their programs during
execution. Answer: a
a) Time Sharing Explanation: It was a telegraph. Invented in the
b) Batch Processing 1840s. Used extensively by the U.S. Government.
c) System Processing
d) Message Passing 8. Packet switching was invented in?
View Answer a) 1960s
b) 1980s
Answer: b c) 2000s
Explanation: In the Batch Environment, there is no d) 1990s
direct interaction between users and their programs View Answer
during execution.
Answer: a
4. A technique that marked the beginning of Explanation: Packet switching was developed in
computer communications. 1964. In packet switching, the message is broken
a) Batch Environment into parts and then sent over independently.
b) Message passing
c) User Environment 9. The probability of failure-free operation of a
d) Time Sharing software application in a specified environment for
View Answer a specified time.
a) Software Reliability
Answer: d b) Software Quality
Explanation: The answer is time sharing. In time c) Software availability
sharing, Users were able to interact with the
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d) Software Safety 4. An internet service that allows the user to move
View Answer a file.
a) FTP
Answer: a b) Telnet
Explanation: The answer is software reliability. It c) UseNet
is estimated using historical and development data. d) Time Sharing
View Answer
10. DARPA stands for?
a) Data Advanced Research Projects Agency Answer: a
b) Defense Advanced Research Product Agency Explanation: The answer is FTP. FTP stands for
c) Data based Advanced Research Product Agency File Transfer Protocol. It allows the user to move a
d) Defense Advanced Research Projects Agency file from one computer to another on the internet.
View Answer
5. Anonymous FTP files are called ___________
Answer: d accessible files.
Explanation: DARPA (Defense Advanced a) Privately
Research Projects Agency) contracted with BBN b) Publicly
(Bolt, Beranek & Newman) to create ARPAnet. c) Batch
d) User
1. A network that links many different types of View Answer
computers all over the world.
a) Intranet Answer: b
b) Internet Explanation: Anonymous FTP files are called
c) Arpanet publicly accessible files because they can be
d) LAN accessed by any user on the Internet.
View Answer
6. TCP stands for?
Answer: b a) Transmission control program
Explanation: Internet is a network of computers b) Transmission control protocol
that links many different types of computers. It is a c) Transfer control program
network of network sharing a common mechanism d) Transfer control protocol
for addressing computers. View Answer
2. Internet was evolved from the basic ideas of Answer: b

ARPANET. Explanation: TCP stands for transmission control
a) True protocol. It basically allows different networks to
b) False interconnect.
View Answer
7. Any system that uses the HTTP protocol is
Answer: a called _________
Explanation: The statement is true. ARPANET is a) Web Browser
the first WAN i.e., Wide Area network that had b) Web Server
only four sites in 1969 for interconnecting c) WWW
computers. d) TCP/IP
View Answer
3. A service that allows a user to log in into
another computer somewhere on the Internet. Answer: b
a) Telnet Explanation: The system is the web server. HTTP
b) FTP stands for Hypertext transmission protocol.
c) e-mail
d) UseNet 8. Any computer that can access the server is
View Answer called?
a) Web Server
Answer: a b) Web Browser
Explanation: Telnet is the answer. It is a service c) User
that enables the user to log into another computer d) Web Client
somewhere on the Internet. View Answer
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Answer: d d) Browsers
Explanation: Any computer that has access to the View Answer
web server is called the web client. Web server is
any computer that uses the HTTP protocol. Answer: d
Explanation: Browser is the answer. Browser is a
9. Allows the user to create and maintain a type of client and it is not a server. File, web and
personal list of favorite URL addresses. name are the types of servers.
a) Software
b) Web Servers 4. This determines the type of protocol to be used.
c) Web Browsers a) <scheme>
d) WWW b) <pathname>
View Answer c) <server name>
d) <server domain name>
Explanation: Web Browsers help the user to
maintain a personal favorite list of URLs. Also, Answer: a
allows the user to download information on various Explanation: The answer is <scheme>. In general,
formats. http is used. Others like file and ftp can also be
used.
10. URL stands for?
a) Uniform Resource Locator 5. The location of file is determined by ________
b) Uniform Research Locator a) <scheme>
c) Uniform Resource Link b) <pathname>
d) Uniform Research Link c) <server name>
View Answer d) <server domain name>
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: WWW specifies the URL of a Answer: b
website and allows the user to access information. Explanation: <pathname> tells the server where to
URL stands for Uniform Resource Locator. find the file name. It is an important part of the
URL format.
1. The web works on this model.
a) Intranet 6. Apache is a type of ________
b) Internet a) Transmission control program
c) Client-Server b) Web Server
d) Server c) Web Browser
View Answer d) DBMS
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Web works on the client server Answer: b
model. Client and server operate on machines Explanation: Apache is a type of web server. It is
which are able to communicate through a network. an application which waits for client requests,
fetches requested documents from disk and
2. In the Client-server model, the client receives a transmits them to the client.
request from the server.
a) True 7. A small data file in the browser.
b) False a) Cookie
View Answer b) Web Server
c) FTP
Answer: b d) Database
Explanation: The statement is false. The server View Answer
receives a request from the client. It then performs
the requested work. Answer: a
Explanation: Cookie is a small data file in the
3. Which of the following is not a type of server? browser. Most browsers nowadays allow the user
a) File to decide if they want the cookies or not.
b) Web
c) Name
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8. Any computer that can access the server is Answer: a
called? Explanation: The statement is true. HTML stands
a) Web Server for Hyper Text Markup Language. It is a text file
b) Web Browser containing small markup tags.
c) User
d) Web Client 3. Which of the following is not a type of
View Answer browser?
a) Netscape
Answer: d b) Web
Explanation: Any computer that has access to the c) IE
web server is called the web client. Web server is d) Mozilla
any computer that uses the HTTP protocol. View Answer
9. Allows the user to create and maintain a Answer: b

personal list of favorite URL addresses. Explanation: Others except web are web browsers.
a) Software Web is a type of server. Application that works on
b) Web Servers client requests.
c) Web Browsers
d) WWW 4. Both client and server release _________
View Answer connection after a page has been transferred.
a) IP
Answer: c b) TCP
Explanation: Web Browsers help the user to c) Hyperlink
maintain a personal favorite list of URLs. Also, d) Network
allows the user to download information on various View Answer
formats.
Answer: b
10. SGML stands for? Explanation: The answer is TCP. TCP stands for
a) Standard Granted Markup Language Transmission Control Protocol. Servers receive
b) System Generalized Markup Language requests from clients.
c) Standard Generalized Markup Language
d) System Granted Markup Language 5. In HTML, the tags that tell the browser how to
View Answer display the page.
a) markup
Answer: c b) style
Explanation: HTML(Hypertext Markup language) c) body
is based on SGML. SGML stands for Standard d) head
Generalized Markup Language. View Answer
1. A program that can retrieve files from the Answer: a

world wide web and render text, images or sounds Explanation: Markup is a general term used to
encoded in the files. refer the types of tags in HTML. The markup tags
a) Browser tell the browser how to display the page.
b) Internet
c) Server 6. FTP stands for?
d) Web Server a) File Text Protocol
View Answer b) File Transfer Protocol
c) Firm Transfer Protocol
Answer: a d) File Transplant Protocol
Explanation: A browser or a web browser is a View Answer
program that can retrieve files from the world wide
web. Certain examples are IE, Mozilla, etc. Answer: b
Explanation: FTP stands for File Transfer Protocol.
2. An HTML file is a text file containing small It is a type of internet service use for the
markup tags. transmission of files.
a) True
b) False 7. A section in HTML that contains generic
View Answer information about the document.
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a) body Answer: b
b) title Explanation: XML stands for Extensible Markup
c) head Language. It allows information to be shared
d) style among different computer systems on the Internet.
View Answer
2. AAA stands for Anonymous Administrative
Answer: c Authority.
Explanation: The head segment contains a generic a) True
info about the document. The head section must b) False
come before the body section in an HTML View Answer
document.
Answer: b
8. A tag similar to that of the italic tag. Explanation: The statement is false. AAA stands
a) for Autonomous Administrative Authority.
b) <cite>
c) <code> 3. API is?
d) a) Advanced Processing Information
View Answer b) Application Processing Information
c) Application Programming interface
Answer: b d) Application Processing Interface
Explanation: <cite> is a container tag in html that View Answer
is citation generally in italics. Other tags like
or emphasize is also used for this purpose. Answer: c
Explanation: API is the application programming
9. A _________ partitions a web browser window interface. It is a set of instructions that allow the
so that multiple web documents can be displayed creation of applications.
simultaneously.
a) Frame 4. GSM stands for?
b) set a) Global System for Monitoring
c) Frameset b) Graphical System for Mobile
d) div Telecommunications
View Answer c) Graphical System for Monitoring
d) Global System for Mobile Telecommunications
Explanation: A frameset partitions a web browser
window so that multiple web documents can be Answer: d
displayed simultaneously. Frameset can have Explanation: The answer is Global System for
attributes like cols. Mobile Telecommunications. It uses a variation of
multiple access on the basis of time and is widely
10. The _________ attribute specifies the web used in Europe.
page to be placed in the frame initially.
a) name 5. IN stands for?
b) src a) Input
c) cols b) InterNet
d) rows c) Intelligent Network
View Answer d) IntraNet
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The src attribute or the source Answer: c
specifies the web page to be placed in the frame Explanation: IN stands for Intelligent Network. It
initially. It may be subsequently overwritten. is a telephone network that provides technical
services.
1. XML stands for?
a) Extensions Made Language 6. FTP stands for?
b) Extensible Markup Language a) File Text Protocol
c) Extensible Major Language b) File Transfer Protocol
d) Extensible Minor Language c) Firm Transfer Protocol
View Answer
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d) File Transplant Protocol a) Literacy
View Answer b) Internet
c) Media
Answer: b d) Media Literacy
Explanation: FTP stands for File Transfer Protocol. View Answer
It is a type of internet service use for the
transmission of files. Answer: d
Explanation: It is media literacy. It is the ability to
7. PDU stands for? access, analyze, evaluate and produce media. It is
a) Protocol Data Unit the process of becoming active, rather than passive,
b) Professional Data Unit consumers of media.
c) Protocol Distributed Unit
d) Professional Distributed Unit 2. Media literacy can help youth and adults
View Answer understand how media shapes our culture.
a) True
Answer: a b) False
Explanation: PDU stands for Protocol Data Unit. It View Answer
is transmitted as a single unit to other units in a
computer network. Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. Media literacy
8. A tag similar to that of the bold tag. also develops our critical thinking. It also helps in
a) the better understanding of how media shapes our
b) <cite> culture.
c) <code>
d) 3. The analysis of _________ is a process of
View Answer deconstruction that investigates the operations of
texts, their constructions, the ways they produce
Answer: a meanings, what those meanings may be.
Explanation: is a container tag in html a) Media
that is similar to bold. It makes the text more b) Web
valuable as well as bold. c) IE
d) Text
9. ISP is? View Answer
a) Intranet System Processing
b) Internet Service Provider Answer: d
c) Intelligent System Processing Explanation: The analysis of texts is a process of
d) Intranet Service Provider deconstruction that investigates the operations of
View Answer texts, their constructions, the ways they produce
meanings, what those meanings may be. However,
Answer: b they also warn of the dangers of making
Explanation: ISR stands for Internet Service assumptions about the validity of any one analytic
provider. It is a service that provides access to the method.
internet.
4. A type of analysis that attends to the repetition
10. NE stands for __________ element. and frequency of features, their proportions within
a) name the text, and consequent assumptions about
b) network significance.
c) new a) Media
d) normal b) Content
View Answer c) Linguistic
d) Network
Explanation: The answer is network. NE is the
network element. It is any logical entity. Answer: b
Explanation: The answer is Content. Linguistic
1. ______________the ability to access, analyzes, analysis might concentrate on the potential effects
evaluate and produce media. of style of address. Content analysis attends to the
repetition and frequency of features, their
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proportions within the text, and consequent d) storyline
assumptions about significance. View Answer
5. __________ analysis regards texts as Answer: a

collections of signs or paradigms and possible Explanation: Narratives are about storytelling and
meanings, operating within the bounds of various story meaning. Media texts tell stories; they have a
codes. narrative.
a) Semiotic
b) Style 9. __________ describes the effect of involving
c) Linguistic the reader with the story, of constructing it as truth.
d) Text a) Narration
View Answer b) Identification
c) Plot
Answer: a d) Characters
Explanation: Semiotic analysis regards texts as View Answer
collections of signs or paradigms and possible
meanings, operating within the bounds of various Answer: b
codes. Explanation: Identification describes the effect of
involving the reader with the story, of constructing
6. This part of image analysis refers to those it as truth. It produces a meaning of truth, a belief
primary signs, often part of the technique of in the validity of the text and of all the other
photography, which are about how the image is meanings that we make from it.
made.
a) Treatment 10. The notion of norms also links to the idea that
b) Position representations are given force through a process
c) Content of:
d) Media a) naturalization
View Answer b) identification
c) media
Answer: a d) casting
Explanation: Treatment in image analysis refers to View Answer
those primary signs, often part of the technique of
photography, which is about how the image is Answer: a
made. Explanation: The notion of norms also links to the
idea that representations are given force through a
7. In image analysis, this part refers to objects process of naturalization.
represented within the image, which may signify to
us because of, for example, their symbolic power 1. The media texts may throw up discourses and
or because of their composition in relation to each are called ____________
other. a) Binary oppositions
a) Treatment b) Violations
b) Position c) Oppositions
c) Content d) Media Illiteracy
d) Media View Answer
View Answer
Answer: a
Answer: c Explanation: Some texts may also throw up
Explanation: Content refers to objects represented discourses and their meanings if you attend to what
within the image. Treatment in image analysis are called binary oppositions. The discourse is also
refers to those primary signs, often part of the marked by what it is not, by what it is opposed to.
technique of photography, which are about how the
image is made. 2. In terms of image analysis, it is important to
attend to primary level signs in visual codes, most
8. _________ are about storytelling and story obviously for examples of still photography.
meaning. a) True
a) narratives b) False
b) plot View Answer
c) content
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Answer: a accessed through the Internet. Since these links are
Explanation: The statement is true. This approach not physical or mechanical, they are called `virtual’
categorizes the image analysis into three: position, links or `hyperlinks’.
treatment and content.
7. In image analysis, this part refers to objects
3. The notion of __________ is one which is represented within the image, which may signify to
especially associated with semiotics and with us because of, for example, their symbolic power
genres. or because of their composition in relation to each
a) Media other.
b) Web a) Treatment
c) codes b) Position
d) Text c) Content
View Answer d) Media
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The notion of codes is one which is Answer: c
especially associated with semiotics and with Explanation: Content refers to objects represented
genres. The textual codes may be summarized into: within the image. Treatment in image analysis
written, spoken, non-verbal and visual. refers to those primary signs, often part of the
technique of photography, which are about how the
4. The idea of _________is central to image is made.
understanding the production of meaning through
texts. 8. A dedicated website for providing specialized
a) Identity information in a particular field.
b) Content a) Website
c) Represntation b) Blog
d) Network c) Web directories
View Answer d) Corporate Websites
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The idea of representation is central Answer: c
to understanding the production of meaning Explanation: Web directory is a dedicated website
through texts. Texts are nothing but representations for providing specialized information in a
in both a material and an ideological sense. particular field. Such directories are useful for
educational purpose.
5. ICT stands for?
a) Interaction, Communication and Technology 9. _________ are the web-based interactive
b) Information, Communication and Technology applications to express and share your ideas and
c) Interaction, Communication and Text thoughts with interested people.
d) Information, Communication and Text a) Website
View Answer b) Blog
c) Web directories
Answer: b d) Corporate Websites
Explanation: ICT stands for Information, View Answer
Communication and Technology. ICT is
responsible for providing access to information. Answer: b
Explanation: Blogs are the web-based interactive
6. A system of interlinked documents, websites, applications to express and share your ideas and
portals etc. accessed through the Internet. thoughts with interested people. It is an open
a) WWW platform that can be used as on-line diaries, a
b) Internet journal, or editorial.
c) Web
d) Media 10. A term used in the context of web design to
View Answer suggest the path that user takes while browsing a
website.
Answer: a a) navigation
Explanation: World Wide Web a system of b) identification
interlinked documents, websites, portals etc. c) graphics media
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d) casting 5. A term for Illusion of immersion by projecting
View Answer stereo images on the walls and floor of a room.
a) CAVE
Answer: a b) BOOM
Explanation: Navigation is a term used in the c) GUI
context of web design to suggest the path that user d) HMD
takes while browsing a website. View Answer
1. HMD stands for? Answer: a

a) Head Mounted Display Explanation: CAVE is the term. CAVE stands for
b) Head Masked Display Cave Automatic Virtual Environment.
c) Head Made Display
d) Head Mounted Detection 6. It is a mediated environment which creates the
View Answer sensation in a user of being present in a (physical)
surrounding.
Answer: a a) WWW
Explanation: It stands for Head Mounted Display. b) VR
A kind of stereo display with two miniature c) HMD
screens and depth perception. d) GUI
View Answer
2. In terms of image analysis, it is important to
attend to primary level signs in visual codes, most Answer: b
obviously for examples of still photography. Explanation: VR or virtual reality is a mediated
a) True environment which creates the sensation in a user
b) False of being present in a (physical) surrounding.
View Answer
7. A term to describe the extent to which a user
Answer: a can modify form and content of a mediated
Explanation: The statement is true. This approach environment.
categorizes the image analysis into three: position, a) Vividness
treatment and content. b) Richness
c) Interactivity
3. ______________ keep track of position. d) Mapping
a) Motion analyzers View Answer
b) Motion Trackers
c) HMD Answer: c
d) SMD Explanation: Interactivity is the extent to which a
View Answer user can modify form and content of a mediated
environment. It comprises speed and mapping.
Answer: b
Explanation: Motion trackers keep track of 8. A type of VR environment in which subjects
position. Other devices are like head trackers and are visually isolated from the real environment.
body trackers. a) Immersive
b) Semi immersive
4. BOOM stands for? c) Non immersive
a) Binocular Omni-Orientation Manager d) Augmented
b) Binary Omni-Orientation Manager View Answer
c) Binocular Omni-Orientation Monitor
d) Binary Omni-Orientation Monitor Answer: a
View Answer Explanation: In immersive VR, subjects are
visually isolated from the real environment. A
Answer: c virtual scene is responding to the subjects actions.
Explanation: BOOM stands for Binocular Omni-
Orientation Monitor. It is a type of Stereoscopic 9. In this type of VR environment, the three-
display. Guidance of the box by the users. dimensional scene is considered as a part of the
physical environment.
a) Immersive
b) Semi immersive
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c) Non immersive d) SMD
d) Augmented View Answer
View Answer
Answer: b
Answer: c Explanation: It refers to simulated motion pictures
Explanation: This happens in non-immersive showing movement of drawn objects. Animation is
Virtual environment. Also, the subjects do fully a form of pictorial presentation.
respond in the real environment.
4. A ____________(invented by Paul Roget in
10. In this type of VR environment, the subjects 1828) is a simple mechanical toy which creates the
can perform both in the real and virtual illusion of movement.
environment. a) Binocular
a) Immersive b) Zoetrope
b) Semi immersive c) Thaumatrope
c) Non immersive d) BOOM
d) Augmented View Answer
View Answer
Answer: c
Answer: b Explanation: A thaumatrope (invented by Paul
Explanation: The subjects perceive a strong Roget in 1828) is a simple mechanical toy. It
involvement into the VE. Also, the subjects may creates the illusion of movement. Thaumatrope
perform less in the real environment. means “wonder turner”.
1. ____________is basically a form of pictorial 5. A device produces an illusion of movement

presentation. from a rapid succession of static pictures.
a) Photography a) Zoetrope
b) Animations b) Thaumatrope
c) Drawing c) Phenakistoscope
d) Creativity d) HMD
Answer: b Answer: a
Explanation: Animation is basically a form of Explanation: In 1843, William Horner, a British
pictorial presentation. It has become the most mathematician invented the zoetrope. A zoetrope
prominent feature of technology-based learning produces an illusion of movement from a rapid
environments. succession of static pictures.
2. Multiplane camera was introduced by Walt 6. The ____________ is a piece of equipment

Disney. designed to make cartoons more realistic and
a) True enjoyable. It uses stacked panes of glass each with
b) False different elements of the animation.
View Answer a) Multiplane camera
b) VR
Answer: a c) Thaumatrope
Explanation: The statement is true. Walt Disney d) Phenakistoscope
along with his colleagues had a problem with View Answer
creating realistic animation and how to conserve
time while creating it. Therefore, they came up Answer: a
with a great solution which can be considered Explanation: Walt Disney had a problem with
another innovation in the field of animation called creating realistic animation and how to conserve
the multiplane camera. time while creating it. Hence, they came up with a
great solution which can be considered another
3. It refers to simulated motion pictures showing innovation in the field of animation called the
movement of drawn objects. multiplane camera.
a) Motion
b) Animation 7. He made the first animated film in 1906.
c) VR a) Walt Disney
b) J. Stuart Blackton
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c) William Horner Answer: b
d) J.A. Ferdinand Plateau Explanation: Generation in computer terminology
View Answer is a change in technology a computer is/was being
used. The term is used to distinguish between
Answer: b various hardware technologies.
Explanation: J. Stuart Blackton made the first
animated film in 1906. Humorous Phases of Funny 2. The fourth generation was based on integrated
Faces was the first animation film. circuits.
a) True
8. Name of the first animation film. b) False
a) Humorous Phases of Funny Faces View Answer
b) Tom and Jerry
c) Mickey Mouse Answer: b
d) How i learnt animations Explanation: The statement is false. The third
View Answer generation was based on integrated circuits.
Answer: a 3. The generation based on VLSI microprocessor.

Explanation: Humorous Phases of Funny Faces a) 1st
was the first animation film made by J. Stuart b) 2nd
Blackton. He was using a blackboard as his c) 3rd
workplace together with chalk and an eraser as his d) 4th
main tools. View Answer
9. ___________ animation is used to animate Answer: d

things that are smaller than life size. Explanation: The 4th gen was VLSI
a) Immersive microprocessor based. The period of fourth
b) Claymotion generation: 1972-1990.
c) Stop motion
d) Augmented 4. ______ generation of computer started with
View Answer using vacuum tubes as the basic components.
a) 1st
Answer: c b) 2nd
Explanation: Stop motion animation is used to c) 3rd
animate things that are smaller than life size. Willis d) 4th
Harold O’Brian pioneered motion picture special View Answer
effects, which were perfected in stop motion.
Answer: a
10. The father of animation? Explanation: First generation of computer started
a) Walt Disney with using vacuum tubes as the basic components
b) J. Stuart Blackton for memory and circuitry for CPU(Central
c) William Horner Processing Unit).
d) J.A. Ferdinand Plateau
View Answer 5. Batch processing was mainly used in this
generation.
Answer: b a) 1st
Explanation: J. Stuart Blackton made the first b) 2nd
animated film in 1906. The film was entitled c) 3rd
Humorous Phases of Funny Faces, and with this, d) 4th
he became known as the father of animation. View Answer
1. A term in computer terminology is a change in Answer: a

technology a computer is/was being used. Explanation: Batch processing was mainly used in
a) development the 1st generation. In this generation Punched
b) generation cards, Paper tape, Magnetic tape Input & Output
c) advancement device were used.
d) growth
View Answer 6. ___________ is an emerging branch in
computer science, which interprets means and
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method of making computers think like human d) 4th
beings. View Answer
a) Block chain
b) VR Answer: b
c) AI Explanation: The period of the 2nd generation is
d) Cloud computing 1952-1964. The period of the first generation was
View Answer 1942-1954.
Answer: c 1. Execution of several activities at the same time.

Explanation: AI is an emerging branch in computer a) processing
science, which interprets means and method of b) parallel processing
making computers think like human beings. c) serial processing
d) multitasking
7. ULSI stands for? View Answer
a) Ultra Large Scale Integration
b) Under Lower Scale Integration Answer: b
c) Ultra Lower Scale Integration Explanation: Execution of several activities at the
d) Under Large Scale Integration same time is referred to as parallel processing.
View Answer Like, Two multiplications at the same time on 2
different processes.
Answer: a
Explanation: It stands for Ultra Large Scale 2. Parallel processing has single execution flow.
Integration. It is a part of the fifth generation a) True
computers. b) False
View Answer
8. In this generation Time sharing, Real time,
Networks, Distributed Operating System was used. Answer: b
a) 1st Explanation: The statement is false. Sequential
b) 2nd programming specifically has single execution
c) 5th flow.
d) 4th
View Answer 3. A term for simultaneous access to a resource,
physical or logical.
Answer: d a) Multiprogramming
Explanation: The fourth generation of computers is b) Multitasking
marked by the use of Very Large Scale Integrated c) Threads
(VLSI) circuits. In this generation Time sharing, d) Concurrency
Real time, Networks, Distributed Operating View Answer
System was used.
Answer: d
9. HLL stands for? Explanation: Concurrency is the term used for the
a) High Level Language same. When several things are accessed
b) High Layman’s Language simultaneously, the job is said to be concurrent.
c) High Level Lesson
d) High Layman’s Lesson 4. ______________ leads to concurrency.
View Answer a) Serialization
b) Parallelism
Answer: a c) Serial processing
Explanation: High Level Language(HLL) has d) Distribution
languages like FORTRAN, COBOL. HLL isn’t in View Answer
machine language. It is converted to machine
language for further processing. Answer: b
Explanation: Parallelism leads naturally to
10. The period of ________ generation was 1952- Concurrency. For example, Several processes
1964. trying to print a file on a single printer.
a) 1st
b) 2nd
c) 5th
104
5. A parallelism based on increasing processor Answer: a
word size. Explanation: Isoefficiency is the rate at which the
a) Increasing problem size need to be increased to maintain
b) Count based efficiency.
c) Bit based
d) Bit level 10. Several instructions execution simultaneously
View Answer in ________________
a) processing
Answer: d b) parallel processing
Explanation: Bit level parallelism is based on c) serial processing
increasing processor word size. It focuses on d) multitasking
hardware capabilities for structuring. View Answer
6. A type of parallelism that uses micro Answer: b

architectural techniques. Explanation: In parallel processing, the several
a) instructional instructions are executed simultaneously.
b) bit level
c) bit based 1. RMI stands for?
d) increasing a) Remote Mail Invocation
View Answer b) Remote Message Invocation
c) Remaining Method Invocation
Answer: a d) Remote Method Invocation
Explanation: Instructional level uses micro View Answer
architectural techniques. It focuses on program
instructions for structuring. Answer: d
Explanation: The RMI (Remote Method
7. MIPS stands for? Invocation) is an API that provides a mechanism to
a) Mandatory Instructions/sec create distributed applications.
b) Millions of Instructions/sec
c) Most of Instructions/sec 2. A remote object is an object whose method can
d) Many Instructions / sec be invoked from another virtual environment.
View Answer a) True
b) False
Explanation: MIPS stands for Millions of
Instructions/sec. MIPS is a way to measure the cost Answer: a
of computing. Explanation: The statement is true. JVM is java
virtual environment. RMI uses stub and skeleton
8. The measure of the “effort” needed to maintain object for communication with the remote object.
efficiency while adding processors. A remote object is an object whose method can be
a) Maintainablity invoked from another virtual environment.
b) Efficiency
c) Scalabilty 3. A typical _________ program creates some
d) Effectiveness remote objects, makes references to these objects
View Answer accessible, and waits for clients to invoke methods
on these objects.
Answer: c a) Server
Explanation: The measure of the “effort” needed to b) Client
maintain efficiency while adding processors is c) Thread
called as scalabilty. d) Concurrent
View Answer
9. The rate at which the problem size need to be
increased to maintain efficiency. Answer: a
a) Isoeffciency Explanation: A server program creates remote
b) Efficiency objects. It gives reference to these objects and then
c) Scalabilty waits for clients to invoke methods on these
d) Effectiveness objects.
View Answer
105
4. A typical __________ program obtains a b) stub
remote reference to one or more remote objects on c) remote
a server and then invokes methods on them. d) server
a) Server View Answer
b) Client
c) Thread Answer: b
d) Concurrent Explanation: The stub is an object that acts as a
View Answer gateway for the client side. The outgoing requests
are passed through the stub.
Answer: b
Explanation: A client program obtains a remote 9. A gateway for the server side object.
reference to one or more remote objects on a a) skeleton
server. It then invokes methods on them. b) stub
c) remote
5. The ___________ layer, which provides the d) server
interface that client and server application objects View Answer
use to interact with each other.
a) Increasing Answer: a
b) Count Explanation: The skeleton is an object, acts as a
c) Bit gateway for the server side object. All the
d) Stub/skeleton incoming requests are routed through it.
View Answer
10. RMI uses stub and skeleton for
Answer: d communication with the ________ object.
Explanation: The stub or skeleton layer provides a) client
the interface that client and server application b) remote
objects use for interaction with each other. c) server
d) any
6. A layer which is the binary data protocol layer. View Answer
a) stub layer
b) skeleton layer Answer: b
c) remote layer Explanation: RMI uses stub and skeleton object for
d) transport protocol communication with the remote object. A remote
View Answer object is an object whose method can be invoked
from another JVM.
Answer: d
Explanation: The transport protocol layer is the 1. ________________ is a paradigm of distributed
binary data protocol that sends remote object computing to provide the customers on-demand,
requests over the wire. A client is any remote utility based computing service.
application that communicates with these server a) Remote Sensing
objects. b) Remote Invocation
c) Cloud Computing
7. A middleware layer between the stub skeleton d) Private Computing
and transport. View Answer
a) remote layer
b) instruction layer Answer: c
c) reference layer Explanation: Cloud computing is a paradigm of
d) remote reference layer distributed computing to provide the customers
View Answer with on-demand, utility based computing services.
Cloud users can provide more reliable, available
Answer: d and updated services to their clients in turn.
Explanation: The remote reference layer is the
middleware between the stub/skeleton layer and 2. Cloud providers provide cloud services to the
underlying transport protocol. cloud users.
a) True
8. An object acting as a gateway for the client b) False
side. View Answer
a) skeleton
106
Answer: a a) Private
Explanation: The statement is true. There are three b) Public
types of users often called as cloud stakeholders. c) Protected
d) Hybrid
3. Which of the following is not a cloud View Answer
stakeholder?
a) Cloud providers Answer: d
b) Clients Explanation: The hybrid cloud is composed of
c) End users multiple internal or external clouds. This is the
d) Cloud users scenario when an organization moves to public
View Answer cloud computing domain from its internal private
cloud.
Answer: b
Explanation: There are three types of stakeholders 8. _____________ enables the migration of the
cloud providers, cloud users and the end users. virtual image from one physical machine to
another.
4. These cloud services are of the form of utility a) visualization
computing i.e. the _________ uses these services b) virtualization
pay-as-you-go model. c) migration
a) Cloud providers d) virtual transfer
b) Clients View Answer
c) End users
d) Cloud users Answer: b
View Answer Explanation: Virtualization enables the migration
of the virtual image from one physical machine to
Answer: d another. This feature is useful for cloud as by data
Explanation: The cloud users use these services locality lots of optimization is possible.
pay-as-you-go model. The cloud users develop
their product using these services and deliver the 9. Most of the cloud architectures are built on this
product to the end users. type of architecture.
a) skeleton
5. Which of the following is not a type of cloud? b) grid
a) Private c) linear
b) Public d) template
c) Protected View Answer
d) Hybrid
Explanation: Most of the cloud architectures are
Answer: c built on Grid architecture. Grid is a type of
Explanation: There is no protected cloud. There are distributed computing architecture where
three types of cloud-private, public and hybrid. organizations owning data centers collaborate with
each other to have common benefits.
6. In this type of cloud, an organization rents
cloud services from cloud providers on-demand 10. Saas stands for?
basis. a) Software as a service
a) Private b) System Software and services
b) Public c) Software as a system
c) Protected d) System as a service
d) Hybrid View Answer
View Answer
Answer: a
Answer: b Explanation: SAAS is Software as a service. It
Explanation: This happens in public cloud. delivers a single application through the web
Services are provided to the users using utility browser to thousands of customers using a
computing model. multitenant architecture.
7. In this type of cloud, the cloud is composed of 1. Which of the following is not a type of
multiple internal or external cloud. computer on the basis of operation?
107
a) Remote Answer: a
b) Hybrid Explanation: Super computers are used with
c) Analog complex applications like Global Weather
d) Digital Forecasting, Creating graphic images, engineering
View Answer design and testing, space exploration, etc.
Answer: a 6. The invention of _______________ gave birth

Explanation: There are three types of computers to the much cheaper micro computers.
basically on the basis of operation: a) Mainframes
Analog, Digital and Hybrid. b) Microcomputers
c) Microprocessors
2. Remote computers work on continuous range d) PDAs
of values. View Answer
a) True
b) False Answer: c
View Answer Explanation: The invention of microprocessor (also
called as single chip CPU) gave birth to the much
Answer: b cheaper microcomputers.
Explanation: The statement is false. Analog
Computer is a computing device that works on 7. They can operate on batteries and hence are
continuous range of values. The results that are very popular with travelers.
given by the analog computers will mostly be a) Mainframes
approximate since they deal with quantities that b) Laptops
keep on varying. c) Microprocessors
d) Hybrid
3. A computer that operates on digital data. View Answer
a) remote
b) hybrid Answer: b
c) analog Explanation: Laptops can operate on batteries and
d) digital hence are very popular with travelers. The screen
View Answer folds down onto the keyboard when not in use.
Answer: d 8. PDA stands for?

Explanation: The digital computer uses binary a) personal digital applications
number system in which there are only two digits 0 b) private digital applications
and 1. Each one is called a bit. c) personal digital assistants
d) private digital assistants
4. This type of computer is mostly used for View Answer
automatic operations.
a) remote Answer: b
b) hybrid Explanation: PDA stands for Personal Digital
c) analog Assistants. They are pen-based and also battery
d) digital powered.
View Answer
9. PDAs are also called?
Answer: b a) PCs
Explanation: Hybrid computer is mostly used with b) Laptops
automatic operations of complicated physical c) Tablets
processes and the machines. d) Handheld
View Answer
5. ______________ are used for solving complex
application such as Global Weather Forecasting. Answer: d
a) Super Computers Explanation: PDAs are also called as Personal
b) Public computers Digital Assistants. They are small and can be
c) Mobile computers carried anywhere.
d) Hybrid computers
View Answer 10. ______computers are lower to mainframe
computers in terms of speed and storage capacity.
108
a) Mini Answer: b
b) Super Explanation: Hybrid computer is mostly used with
c) Mainframes automatic operations of complicated physical
d) Hybrid processes and the machines.
View Answer
5. ______________ are used for solving complex
Answer: a application such as Global Weather Forecasting.
Explanation: The answer is a. Mini computers are a) Super Computers
compared to mainframe computers in terms of: b) Public computers
1. speed and, 2. storage capacity. c) Mobile computers
d) Hybrid computers
1. Which of the following is not a type of View Answer
computer on the basis of operation?
a) Remote Answer: a
b) Hybrid Explanation: Super computers are used with
c) Analog complex applications like Global Weather
d) Digital Forecasting, Creating graphic images, engineering
View Answer design and testing, space exploration, etc.
Answer: a 6. The invention of _______________ gave birth

Explanation: There are three types of computers to the much cheaper micro computers.
basically on the basis of operation: a) Mainframes
Analog, Digital and Hybrid. b) Microcomputers
c) Microprocessors
2. Remote computers work on continuous range d) PDAs
of values. View Answer
a) True
b) False Answer: c
View Answer Explanation: The invention of microprocessor (also
called as single chip CPU) gave birth to the much
Answer: b cheaper microcomputers.
Explanation: The statement is false. Analog
Computer is a computing device that works on 7. They can operate on batteries and hence are
continuous range of values. The results that are very popular with travelers.
given by the analog computers will mostly be a) Mainframes
approximate since they deal with quantities that b) Laptops
keep on varying. c) Microprocessors
d) Hybrid
3. A computer that operates on digital data. View Answer
a) remote
b) hybrid Answer: b
c) analog Explanation: Laptops can operate on batteries and
d) digital hence are very popular with travelers. The screen
View Answer folds down onto the keyboard when not in use.
Answer: d 8. PDA stands for?

Explanation: The digital computer uses binary a) personal digital applications
number system in which there are only two digits 0 b) private digital applications
and 1. Each one is called a bit. c) personal digital assistants
d) private digital assistants
4. This type of computer is mostly used for View Answer
automatic operations.
a) remote Answer: b
b) hybrid Explanation: PDA stands for Personal Digital
c) analog Assistants. They are pen-based and also battery
d) digital powered.
View Answer
109
9. PDAs are also called? identification was a prerequisite for Internet of
a) PCs Things.
b) Laptops
c) Tablets 4. Which of the following is not involved in
d) Handheld working of IoT?
View Answer a) RFID
b) Sensor
Answer: d c) Nano tech
Explanation: PDAs are also called as Personal d) Server
Digital Assistants. They are small and can be View Answer
carried anywhere.
Answer: d
10. ______computers are lower to mainframe Explanation: IoT works from RFID to Sensor, to
computers in terms of speed and storage capacity. Smart tech and then to Nano tech.
a) Mini
b) Super 5. Making the smaller and smaller things have the
c) Mainframes ability to connect and interact.
d) Hybrid a) Micro Tech
View Answer b) Smart tech
c) Nano tech
Answer: a d) RFID
Explanation: The answer is a. Mini computers are View Answer
compared to mainframe computers in terms of:
1. speed and, 2. storage capacity. Answer: c
Explanation: Nano Tech is the term used when
1. A network of physical objects or things smaller things are made to interact and
embedded with electronics or softwares. communicate. It is involved in the working of Iot
a) AI also.
b) ML
c) IOT 6. Wi-Fi stands for?
d) Internet a) Wireless fidelity
View Answer b) Wireless Flexibility
c) Wide Fidelity
Answer: c d) WAN Flexibility
Explanation: IoT is a network of physical objects View Answer
or things embedded with electronics or softwares.
Iot allows objects to be controlled remotely across Answer: a
existing network. Explanation: Wi-Fi stands for Wireless Fidelity. It
is widely used in both outdoor and indoor
2. RFID is a part of IoT. environments.
a) True
b) False 7. Diagnostics service for Cars.
View Answer a) MIPS
b) AutoBot
Answer: a c) IoT Assistant
Explanation: The statement is true. RFID is Radio d) IoT
frequency identification. Radio frequency View Answer
identification is a part of IoT.
Answer: b
3. RFID stands for? Explanation: Autobot is a diagnostics service for
a) Random frequency identification cars. This service is integrated with several web
b) Radio frequency identification services.
c) Random frequency information
d) Radio frequency information 8. The father of ioT.
View Answer a) Kevin Atrun
b) Kevin Atrhur
Answer: b c) Kevin Ashton
Explanation: Earlier, RFID or Radio frequency
110
d) Kevin Thomas 3. The first neural network computer.
View Answer a) RFD
b) SNARC
Answer: c c) AM
Explanation: Kevin Ashton is the father of IoT. He d) AN
believed IoT could turn the world into data. View Answer
9. Collect->Communicate->__________->Act Answer: b
a) Acknowledge Explanation: SNARC was the first neural network
b) Analyze computer. it was built by Minsky and Edmonds in
c) Examine 1956.
d) Rectify
View Answer 4. A hardware based system that has autonomy,
social ability and reactivity.
Answer: a a) AI
Explanation: The correct option is analyze. This b) Autonomous Agent
shows the lifecycle of IoT. c) Agency
Collect->Communicate->Analyze->Act. d) Behavior Engineering
View Answer
10. Several instructions execution simultaneously
in? Answer: b
a) processing Explanation: The answer is Autonomous Agent.
b) parallel processing Autonomous agent has autonomy i.e. ability to
c) serial processing operate without the direct intervention of humans
d) multitasking or others.
View Answer
5. A particular system that contains intelligent
Answer: b agents.
Explanation: In parallel processing, the several a) AI systems
instructions are executed simultaneously. Parallel b) Agency
processing system provides the concurrent data c) Autonomous systems
processing to increase the execution time. d) Company
View Answer
1. The technology that has the ability to interact
with the world. Answer: b
a) AI Explanation: It is called an agency. A particular
b) ML system consisting of intelligent agents like
c) IOT computers or robots that cooperate to find the
d) IT solution to a problem.
View Answer
6. A methodology used to develop behavior-based
Answer: a autonomous agents.
Explanation: AI which is artificial intelligence is a) Descriptors
the ability to interact with the world. It is the b) Behavior engineering
ability to model the world and to learn and adapt. c) Behavior modeling
d) Auto engineering
2. The goal of AI is to build systems that exhibit View Answer
intelligent behavior.
a) True Answer: b
b) False Explanation: The answer is behavior engineering.
View Answer Autonomous agent implements autonomy, social
ability and reactivity.
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement is true. There are 2 7. An international research effort to promote
main goals in AI: to exhibit intelligent behavior autonomous robots.
and understand intelligence in order to model it. a) Fresh Kitty
b) RoboCup
c) AICup
111
d) SPOT Everyday jobs like conducting transactions and
View Answer communications among business and government
agencies etc.
Answer: b
Explanation: RoboCup is designed to promote 2. Network Security provides authentication and
autonomous robots. It is based on multi agent access control for resources.
collaboration. a) True
b) False
8. A type of non-monotonic reasoning. View Answer
a) Ordinary
b) Special Answer: a
c) Duplicate Explanation: The statement is true. AFS is an
d) Default example. It helps us protect vital information.
View Answer
3. Which is not an objective of network security?
Answer: d a) Identification
Explanation: Default reasoning is a type of non- b) Authentication
monotonic reasoning. Default logic is a non- c) Access control
monotonic logic proposed by Raymond Reiter to d) Lock
formalize reasoning with default assumptions. View Answer
9. The performance of an agent can be improved Answer: d

based on this. Explanation: The Identification, Authentication
a) Observe and Access control are the objectives of network
b) Learn security. There is no such thing called lock.
c) Improvise
d) Implement 4. Which of these is a part of network
View Answer identification?
a) UserID
Answer: b b) Password
Explanation: An AI system is designed to learn and c) OTP
improve. The same is implemented on its agents. d) fingerprint
View Answer
10. Face recognition system is based on
_____________ Answer: a
a) applied AI Explanation: The answer is UserID. UserID is a
b) parallel AI part of identification. UserID can be a combination
c) serial AI of username, user student number etc.
d) strong AI
View Answer 5. The process of verifying the identity of a user.
a) Authentication
Answer: a b) Identification
Explanation: The answer is applied AI. It is based c) Validation
on applied artificial intelligence. It is an approach d) Verification
to develop commercially smart systems. View Answer
1. The field that covers a variety of computer Answer: a

networks, both public and private, that are used in Explanation: It is called an authentication. It is
everyday jobs. typically based on passwords, smart card,
a) Artificial Intelligence fingerprint, etc.
b) ML
c) Network Security 6. A concern of authentication that deals with user
d) IT rights.
View Answer a) General access
b) Functional authentication
Answer: c c) Functional authorization
Explanation: Network security covers a variety of d) Auto verification
computer networks, both private and public. View Answer
112
Answer: c 1. The process of transforming plain text into
Explanation: Functional authorization is concerned unreadable text.
with individual user rights. Authorization is the a) Decryption
function of specifying access rights to resources b) Encryption
related to information security. c) Network Security
d) Information Hiding
7. CHAP stands for? View Answer
a) Challenge Handshake authentication protocol
b) Challenge Hardware authentication protocol Answer: b
c) Circuit Hardware authentication protocol Explanation: Encryption is the process of
d) Circuit Handshake authentication protocol transforming readable text i.e. plain text to make it
View Answer unreadable to anyone except those possessing
special knowledge, usually referred to as a key.
Answer: a
Explanation: CHAP stands for Challenge 2. An algorithm used in encryption is referred to
Handshake authentication protocol. Features of as cipher.
CHAP: plaintext, memorized token. Protocol uses a) True
Telnet, HTTP. b) False
View Answer
8. Security features that control that can access
resources in the OS. Answer: a
a) Authentication Explanation: The statement is true. Cipher is the
b) Identification algorithm used in encryption. Encryption is making
c) Validation readable text as unreadable to keep it secured.
d) Access control
View Answer 3. A process of making the encrypted text
readable again.
Answer: d a) Decryption
Explanation: Access control refers to the security b) Encryption
features. Applications call access control to c) Network Security
provide resources. d) Information Hiding
View Answer
9. An algorithm in encryption is called
_____________ Answer: a
a) Algorithm Explanation: The reverse process is called
b) Procedure decryption. It is the process of making the
c) Cipher information readable again.
d) Module
View Answer 4. WTLS stands for?
a) Wireless Transport Security Layer
Answer: c b) Wireless Transfer System Layer
Explanation: An algorithm used in encryption is c) Wireless Transfer Security Layer
referred to as a cipher. cipher is an algorithm for d) Wireless Transport System Layer
performing encryption or decryption View Answer
10. The information that gets transformed in Answer: a

encryption is ____________ Explanation: WTLS is Wireless Transport Security
a) Plain text Layer. It provides security between the mobile
b) Parallel text device and the WAP gateway to internet.
c) Encrypted text
d) Decrypted text 5. The protocol designed to make the security of
View Answer wireless LAN as good as that of wired LAN.
a) WTLS
Answer: a b) WEP
Explanation: The text that gets transformed is c) RSN
called plain text. The algorithm used is called d) WP
cipher. View Answer
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Answer: b 10. An attack in which the site is not capable of
Explanation: WEP stands for Wired Equivalent answering valid request.
Privacy. WEP has been broken already in 2001. a) Smurfing
WEP protocol designed to make the security of b) Denial of service
wireless LAN as good as that of wired LAN. c) E-mail bombing
d) Ping storm
6. A person who enjoys learning details about View Answer
computers and how to enhance their capabilities.
a) Cracker Answer: b
b) Hacker Explanation: The answer is Denial of service. In
c) App controller case of denial of service attacks, a computer site is
d) Site controller bombarded with a lot of messages.
View Answer
1. A cipher in which the order is not preserved.
Answer: b a) Polyalphabetic substitution based
Explanation: The person is called hacker. A person b) Transposition-based
who enjoys learning the details of computer c) Substitution based
systems and how to stretch their capabilities is d) Public key based
called hacker. View Answer
7. A program created by Farmer and Venema for Answer: b

auditing capability. Explanation: In transposition-based cipher, the
a) SAAS order of the plain text is not preserved. They can be
b) SATAN very simple to identify.
c) SAN
d) SAT 2. Plain text is the data after encryption is
View Answer performed.
a) True
Answer: b b) False
Explanation: SATAN is the Security analysis tool View Answer
for auditing networks. It is created by farmer and
venema. Answer: b
Explanation: The statement is false. Cipher is the
8. A small program that changes the way a algorithm used in encryption. Ciphertext is the data
computer operates. after encryption is performed.
a) Worm
b) Trojan 3. A unique piece of information that is used in
c) Bomb encryption.
d) Virus a) Cipher
View Answer b) Plain Text
c) Key
Answer: d d) Cipher
Explanation: The program is called virus. It alters View Answer
the way that the computer operates. It often does
damages like deleting and corrupting files and Answer: c
data. Explanation: The key is the unique piece of
information. It is used to create the cipher text and
9. A program that copies itself. decrypt it back.
a) Worm
b) Virus 4. Study of creating a d using encryption and
c) Trojan decryption techniques.
d) Bomb a) Cipher
View Answer b) Cryptography
c) Encryption
Answer: a d) Decryption
Explanation: A worm copies itself from one system View Answer
to another over a network without the assistance of
human.
114
Answer: b operations.
Explanation: It is called as cryptography. It is the a) Smurfing
study of creating and using the encryption b) Denial of service
techniques. c) E-mail bombing
d) Ping storm
5. Creating a computer or paper audit that can View Answer
help detect wrong doings.
a) Auditing Answer: a
b) Validation Explanation: Smurfing is a technique in which a
c) RSN program attacks a network by exploiting IP
d) Verification broadcast addressing operations.
View Answer
10. An attack in which the user receives unwanted
Answer: a amount of e-mails.
Explanation: The answer is auditing. It is done to a) Smurfing
keep an eye on wrong doings. Auditing can be b) Denial of service
used as a deterrent. c) E-mail bombing
d) Ping storm
6. An indirect form of surveillance. View Answer
a) Honey pot
b) Logical Answer: c
c) Security Explanation: In the case of denial of e-mail
d) Intrusion bombing, a user sends an excessive amount of
View Answer unwanted e-mail to someone.
Answer: a 1. These ciphers replace a character or characters

Explanation: Honey pot is an indirect form of with a different character or characters, based on
surveillance. Network personnel create a trap, some key.
watching for unscrupulous acts. a) Polyalphabetic substitution based
b) Transposition-based
7. A malicious code hidden inside a seemingly c) Substitution based
harmless piece of code. d) Mono alphabetic substitution based
a) Worm View Answer
b) Bomb
c) Trojan Horse Answer: d
d) Virus Explanation: In mono alphabetic substitution-based
View Answer cipher, a character is replaced with some other
character or multiple characters, based on some
Answer: c key.
Explanation: The answer is Trojan horse. Trojan
horse is a code that is present in a program that 2. Encryption is the study of creating and using
appears harmless. decryption techniques.
a) True
8. Attack in which a user creates a packet that b) False
appears to be something else. View Answer
a) Smurfing
b) Trojan Answer: b
c) E-mail bombing Explanation: The statement is false. Cryptography
d) Spoofing is the study of creating and using encryption and
View Answer decryption techniques.
Answer: d 3. A type of cipher that uses multiple alphabetic

Explanation: The attack is a spoofing attack. It is strings.
when a user creates a packet that appears to be a) Substitution based
something else or from someone else. b) Transposition-based
c) Polyalphabetic substitution based
9. A technique in which a program attacks a d) Mono alphabetic substitution based
network by exploiting IP broadcast addressing View Answer
115
Answer: c 8. Triple-DES has ______ keys.
Explanation: These ciphers are similar to that of a) 1
mono alphabetic ciphers. Multiple strings are used b) 2
to encode the plain text. c) 5
d) 4
4. An encryption technique with 2 keys is View Answer
______________
a) Monoalphabetic Cipher Answer: b
b) Cryptography Explanation: There are 2 keys in triple DES as
c) Private key cryptography well. The private and the public key. It can also
d) Public key cryptography have 3 unique keys.
View Answer
9. Encryption standard that is selected by the US
Answer: d government to replace DES.
Explanation: It is called as public key a) AES
cryptography. It has 2 keys: a private key and a b) BES
public key. c) CES
d) DES
5. In public key cryptography, a key that decrypts View Answer
the message.
a) public key Answer: a
b) unique key Explanation: AES is Advanced Encryption
c) private key Standard. It was selected by the US government. It
d) security key is used to replace DES.
View Answer
10. An electronic document that establishes your
Answer: c credentials when you are performing transactions.
Explanation: Public key cryptography has 2 keys. a) Digital code
They are private key and a public key. The public b) OTP
key encrypts the message. The private key decrypts c) E-mail
the message. d) Digital certificate
View Answer
6. DES stands for?
a) Data Encryption Standard Answer: d
b) Data Encryption Statistics Explanation: Digital certificate is an electronic
c) Data Encryption System document that is responsible for secure internet
d) Data Encryption Sequence transactions.
View Answer
1. A field of technology that deals with a
Answer: a combination of real world and the data generated
Explanation: DES stands for Data Encryption from computer.
Standard. It was created in 1977 and went into a) ML
operation from 1990s. b) AI
c) AR
7. Under DES, the data encryption standard took a d) IoT
64-bit block of data and subjected it to ______ View Answer
levels of encryption.
a) 64 Answer: c
b) 8 Explanation: AR that is Augmented Reality is a
c) 16 field of technology that deals with a combination
d) 4 of real world and the data generated from
View Answer computer.
Answer: c 2. AR is interactive in real-time.

Explanation: The answer is 16. It was subjected to a) True
16 levels of encryption. DES is the data encryption b) False
standard. View Answer
116
Answer: a Answer: c
Explanation: The statement is true. Augmented Explanation: Smart glasses are also called as
Reality is the field of computer research that deals optical head mounted displays. (OHMD), it has the
with the combination of real-world and computer capability of reflecting projected images as well as
generated data. allowing users to see through it.
3. Technologies that completely involve a user 7. A tracking based on geo-location information.

inside a synthetic environment. a) Location based
a) AR b) Markerless
b) VR c) Marker based
c) AI d) GPS
d) ML View Answer
View Answer
Answer: a
Answer: b Explanation: Location based tracking is based on
Explanation: The answer is VR or Virtual Reality. geo-location information obtained from device’s
VR technologies are known for immersing a user location sensors. (Longitude, latitude, altitude etc).
inside a synthetic environment. While immersed,
the user cannot see the real world around him. 8. SLAM stands for?
a) Simultaneous localization and mapping
4. Technologies that allow the user to see the real b) System localization and mapping
world, with virtual objects composited in the real c) Simultaneous localization and maintenance
world. d) System localization and maintenance
a) AR View Answer
b) VR
c) AI Answer: a
d) SR Explanation: SLAM is abbreviated for
View Answer Simultaneous localization and mapping. It is a
technique used by robots and autonomous vehicles
Answer: a to build a map within the unknown environment.
Explanation: Augmented Reality (AR) allows a
user to see real world, with virtual objects 9. A technique that enables light field which is
superimposed or composited with the real world. generally the product of a light source scattered off
objects.
5. A ______________________ is a display a) AES
device, worn on head as a part of helmet that has a b) Holography
small display optic. c) Cryptography
a) HD d) Gyrography
b) MD View Answer
c) HMD
d) ARD Answer: b
View Answer Explanation: Holography enables a light field. It is
to be recorded and later reconstructed when the
Answer: c original light field is no longer present.
Explanation: HMD is the head-mounted display,
worn on head as a part of helmet that has a small 10. A _______ can be recorded using a normal
display optic. HTC Vive, Samsung GearVR are light source.
examples of HMDs available today. a) Holograph
b) Photography
6. Wearable computing device in the form of c) Holography
computerized eyeglasses. d) Photograph
a) HMD View Answer
b) Helmets
c) Smart Glasses Answer: d
d) VR Glasses Explanation: A photograph can be captured using a
View Answer normal light source. A laser is required to record a
hologram.
117
1. A model that is the demo implementation of the c) editing
system. d) implementation
a) waterfall View Answer
b) prototype
c) incremental Answer: d
d) agile Explanation: The requirements are broken down
View Answer for ease of implementation. Hardware and software
requirements are identified and designed
Answer: b accordingly.
Explanation: Prototype is the demo implementation
so that the customer gets a brief idea of his 6. What do you call a technical person who is
product. It is generally used when the customer capable of understanding the basic requirements?
requirements are not clear. a) team leader
b) analyst
2. Maintenance is the final phase in waterfall c) engineer
model. d) stakeholder
a) True View Answer
b) False
Explanation: The person is called an analyst. An
Answer: a analyst is a software engineering who is
Explanation: The statement is true. This is the responsible for requirements gathering.
phase in which the completed software product is
handed over to the client. 7. A step in waterfall model that involves a
meeting with the customer to understand the
3. A stage in which individual components are requirements.
integrated and ensured that they are error-free to a) Requirement Gathering
meet customer requirements. b) SRS
a) Coding c) Implementation
b) Testing d) Customer review
c) Design View Answer
d) Implementation
Explanation: A waterfall model involves
Answer: b requirement gathering as its first step. This is the
Explanation: Hardware and software components most important phase. It is important to understand
are tested individually. Testing stage in which the customer requirements.
individual components are integrated and ensured
that they are error-free to meet customer 8. Methodology in which project management
requirements. processes were step-by step.
a) Incremental
4. ___________ is a step in which design is b) Waterfall
translated into machine-readable form. c) Spiral
a) Design d) Prototyping
b) Conversion View Answer
c) Debugging
d) Coding Answer: b
View Answer Explanation: Waterfall model is based on step-by
step completion of the project. Every step is done
Answer: d individually.
Explanation: Coding is the step in which design in
translated into machine-readable form. If design is 9. An individual who plans and directs the work.
efficient, coding can be done effectively. a) Stakeholder
b) Project manager
5. The customer requirements are broken down c) Team leader
into logical modules for ease of _______________ d) Programmer
a) inheritance View Answer
b) design
118
Answer: b 4. Locating or identifying the bugs is known as
Explanation: Project planner is the one who plans ___________
and designs the project. Team leader is the one a) Design
who provides guidance, instruction, direction and b) Testing
leadership to a group of individuals. c) Debugging
d) Coding
10. A planned program if work that requires a View Answer
definitive amount of time, effort and planning to
complete. Answer: b
a) Problem Explanation: Testing is conducted by the testers.
b) Project They locate or identify the bugs. In debugging
c) Process developer fixes the bug. Coding is done by the
d) Program developers.
View Answer
5. Which defines the role of software?
Answer: b a) System design
Explanation: The answer is Project. A project is a b) Design
program which is something which is planned and c) System engineering
needs effort and time to complete. d) Implementation
View Answer
1. A set of activities that ensure that software
correctly implements a specific function. Answer: c
a) verification Explanation: The answer is system engineering.
b) testing System engineering defines the role of software.
c) implementation
d) validation 6. What do you call testing individual
View Answer components?
a) system testing
Answer: a b) unit testing
Explanation: Verification ensures that software c) validation testing
correctly implements a specific function. It is a d) black box testing
static practice of verifying documents. View Answer
2. Validation is computer based. Answer: b

a) True Explanation: The testing strategy is called unit
b) False testing. It ensures a function properly works as a
View Answer unit.
Answer: a 7. A testing strategy that test the application as a

Explanation: The statement is true. Validation is a whole.
computer based process. It uses methods like black a) Requirement Gathering
box testing, gray box testing, etc. b) Verification testing
c) Validation testing
3. ___________ is done in the development phase d) System testing
by the debuggers. View Answer
a) Coding
b) Testing Answer: d
c) Debugging Explanation: Validation testing tests the
d) Implementation application as a whole against the user
View Answer requirements. In system testing, it tests the
application in the context of an entire system.
Answer: c
Explanation: Coding is done by the developers. In 8. A testing strategy that tests the application in
debugging, the developer fixes the bug in the the context of an entire system.
development phase. Testing is conducted by the a) System
testers. b) Validation
c) Unit
119
d) Gray box abstraction involves hiding the details and giving
View Answer only the necessary information to the user.
Answer: a 3. The process of forming a new class from an

Explanation: In system testing, it tests the existing class.
application in the context of an entire system. The a) Abstraction
software and other system elements are tested as a b) Polymorphism
whole. c) Inheritance
d) Implementation
9. A ________ is tested to ensure that information View Answer
properly flows into and out of the system.
a) module interface Answer: c
b) local data structure Explanation: The answer is inheritance. The base
c) boundary conditions class is the parent class and the new class is called
d) paths the child class.
View Answer
4. This concept allows routines to use data again
Answer: a at different times.
Explanation: A module interface is tested to ensure a) Abstraction
that information properly flows into and out of the b) Polymorphism
system. c) Inheritance
d) Implementation
10. A testing conducted at the developer’s site View Answer
under validation testing.
a) alpha Answer: b
b) gamma Explanation: Polymorphism is a concept in OOP
c) lambda wherein different functions can be used again at
d) unit different times.
View Answer
5. The ability for programmers to use the same
Answer: a written and debugged existing class.
Explanation: Alpha testing is conducted at a) Reusability
developer’s site. It is conducted by customer in b) Design
developer’s presence before software delivery. c) Debugging
d) Implementation
1. A ______________ represents the need of View Answer
information in the program without the presenting
the details. Answer: a
a) abstraction Explanation: The programmer can add features to
b) polymorphism the existing class. The programmer on further
c) implementation developing the application, and allowing users to
d) class achieve increased performance.
View Answer
6. A concept that combines data and functions
Answer: a into a single unit called class.
Explanation: Abstraction is a concept that involves a) inheritance
hiding the details and giving only the necessary b) encapsulation
information to the user. It increases the power of a c) polymorphism
programming language. d) abstraction
View Answer
2. Abstraction combines the data and functions
into a single unit called a class. Answer: b
a) True Explanation: Encapsulation enables the important
b) False concept of data hiding possible. It combines data
View Answer and functions into a single unit.
Answer: b 7. __________ represents a particular instance of

Explanation: The statement is false. Data a class.
120
a) module D
CONFIG.SYS
b) block .
c) object E
None of the above
d) token .
View Answer
Answer: Option A
Answer: c
Explanation: An object is an instance of the class. Explanation:
The data members are accessed with the help of
objects. No answer description available for this
question. Let us discuss.
8. A basic unit of object-oriented programming. View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
a) module Report
b) block
c) object 2 What could cause a fixed disk error.
d) token . A
View Answer No-CD installed
.
B
bad ram
Answer: c .
Explanation: In OOP, the basic unit is an object. C
slow processor
Objects are identified by its unique name. .
D
Incorrect CMOS settings
9. A procedural programming follows .
___________ approach. E
None of the above
a) top-down .
b) bottom-up
c) left-right Answer: Option D
d) right-left
View Answer Explanation:
Answer: a No answer description available for this

Explanation: A procedural programming follows question. Let us discuss.
top-down approach. The main focus is on the View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
functions. It has a lot of global variable. Report
10. A programming technique in which the focus 3 Missing slot covers on a computer can cause?
is on doing things. . A
over heat
a) object oriented .
b) procedural B
power surges
c) logical .
d) structural C
EMI.
View Answer .
D
incomplete path for ESD
Answer: b .
Explanation: In procedural programming, the focus E
None of the above
is on doing things(functions). It follows top-down .
approach.
Answer: Option A
Computer Hardware:
Explanation:
1 From what location are the 1st computer
. instructions available on boot up? No answer description available for this
A question. Let us discuss.
ROM BIOS
. View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
B Report
CPU
.
C 4 When installing PCI NICS you can check the
boot.ini
. . IRQ availability by looking at
121
A A
dip switches clusters
. .
B B
CONFIG.SYS sectors
. .
C C
jumper settings vectors
. .
D D
motherboard BIOS heads
. .
E E
None of the above None of the above
. .
Answer: Option D Answer: Option B
Explanation: Explanation:
No answer description available for this No answer description available for this
question. Let us discuss. question. Let us discuss.
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
Report Report
5 With respect to a network interface card, the 8 A wrist grounding strap contains which of the
. term 10/100 refers to . following:
A A
protocol speed Surge protector
. .
B B
a fiber speed Capacitor
. .
C C
megabits per seconds Voltmeter
. .
D D
minimum and maximum server speed Resistor
. .
E E
. .
Answer: Option C Answer: Option D

6 Which Motherboard form factor uses one 20 pin
. connector Explanation:
A
ATX
. No answer description available for this
B question. Let us discuss.
AT
C Report
BABY AT
.
D 9 Which standard govern parallel
All of the above
. . communications?
E A
None of the above RS232
. .
B
Answer: Option A RS-232a
.
C
CAT 5
Explanation: .
D
IEEE 1284
No answer description available for this .
question. Let us discuss. E
None of the above
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace .
Report
Answer: Option D
7 A hard disk is divided into tracks which are
. further subdivided into:
122
Report Report
10 In laser printer technology, what happens 13 To view any currently running Terminate Stay
. during the conditioning stage? . Resident (TSR's) programs you could type:
AThe corona wire places a uniform positive A
Memory
. charge on the paper .
BA uniform negative charge is placed on the B
MEM
. photosensitive drum .
CA uniform negative charge is placed on the C
SYS /M
. toner .
D D
All of the above Memmaker
. .
E E
. .
Answer: Option B Answer: Option B

11 What product is used to clean smudged keys on
. a keyboard? Explanation:
A
TMC solvent
Silicone spray
C Report
Denatured alcohol
.
D 14 Which type of system board is the MOST
All-purpose cleaner
. . likely candidate for processor upgrading if you
E want maximum performance and future
None of the above
. compatibility?
A
Answer: Option D ML
.
B
PCI
Explanation: .
C
ISA
question. Let us discuss. D
EISA
Report E
None of the above
.
12 ESD would cause the most damage to which
. component? Answer: Option B
A
Power supply
. Explanation:
B
Expansion board
C question. Let us discuss.
Monitor
D Report
Keyboard
.
E 15 Suppose that you have a the maintenance
None of the above
. . package identifies several possible field
replaceable units (FRUs) that will resolve the
Answer: Option B problem. What should you do after turning the
power off?
123
Replace the indicated parts, one at a time in
A
the recommended sequence, until the problem 19 Voltage is measured:
.
is resolved; return unused FRUs to stock . A
in parallel
Replace all of the indicated FRUs at once and .
B
return the machine to the customer if the B
. in series
problem is resolved .
Follow the same procedure as in ays replace C
after breaking the circuit
the system board first if it is on the list of .
C
possible FRUs If multiple FRUs are indicated, D
. after checking resistance
then software is the most likely source of the .
problem E
after checking current
D .
None of the above
.
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option A
17 Which peripheral port provides the FASTEST Explanation:
. throughput to laser printers?
A No answer description available for this
RS-232
. question. Let us discuss.
B View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
SCSI
. Report
C
Parallel
. 20 Your customer tells you the print quality of
D . their dot matrix printer is light then dark. Which
Serial
. of the following could cause the problem.
E A
None of the above Paper slippage
. .
B
Answer: Option C Improper ribbon advancement
.
C
Paper thickness
Explanation: .
D
Head position
None of the above
Report
Answer: Option B
18 The mouse pointer moves erratically, what is 21 The 34-pin connection on an I/O card is for?
. the possible cause? The mouse . A
Floppy drive
A .
ball is dirty
. B
SCSI drive
B .
is not connected
. C
IDE drive
C .
driver is not installed properly
. D
Zip drive
D .
has an incorrect IRQ setting
. E
None of the above
E .
None of the above
.
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Explanation:
No answer description available for this
No answer description available for this question. Let us discuss.
question. Let us discuss. View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace Report
Report
124
22 The terms "red book", "yellow book", and
. "orange book" refer to: Answer: Option E
A
SCSI
. Explanation:
B
ide
floppy drive technology
D Report
CD-ROM standards
.
E 25 To view any currently running Terminate Stay
All of the above
. . Resident (TSR's) programs you could type:
A
Answer: Option D Memory
.
B
Explanation: MEM
.
C
SYS /M
Memmaker
Report E
None of the above
.
23 On the 16-bit ISA bus, IRQ2 is elevated to
. which higher level Interrupt? Answer: Option B
A 26 Which part of the laser printer should NOT be
9
. . exposed to sunlight?
B A
11 Transfer corona assembly
. .
C B
13 PC drum
. .
D C
15 Primary corona wire
. .
E D
None of the above Toner cartridge
. .
E
None of the above
Answer: Option A .
Explanation: Answer: Option B
No answer description available for this Explanation:

View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace No answer description available for this
Report question. Let us discuss.
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
24 What beep codes could indicate a system board Report
. or power supply failure?
A 27 After doing a low-level format, what would be
steady short beep
. . the next step in configuring the hard drive in a
B system?
no beep
. A
C Format DOS partition
one long continuous beep tone .
. B
D Install operating system
steady long beeps .
. CConfigure DMA channel and back-up
E . interrupt
All of the above
. D
Partition had disk
.
ENone of the above
125
. B
An unused SCSI address
.
Answer: Option A CThe same address as the SCSI device before
. the CD-ROM
Explanation: D
SCSI ID=1
.
No answer description available for this E
None of the above
question. Let us discuss. .
Report Answer: Option B
31 Pick the correct choice for the 80386SXCPU.
28 Resistance is measured in ? . A
16 bit word size, 16 bit data path
. A .
Volts B
. 32 bit word size, 16 bit data path
B .
Amps C
C .
Watts D
D .
Ohms E
E .
None of the above
.
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Explanation:
Report
32 In Inkjet technology the droplets of ink are
29 What command is used to reset a MODEM . deflected by?
. when using the "AT Command Set"? A
multi directional nozzles
A .
ATR B
. electronically charged plates
B .
ATZ C
. high pressure plates
C .
DTR D
. electro static absorbtion
D .
DCE E
. None of the above
E .
None of the above
.
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Explanation:
Report
33 When your hard drive crashes from any of the
30 When installing a SCSI CD-ROM drive, you . correct selections in the question above, or from
. must set the CD-ROM SCSI adapter to: dropping it, it is known as head-to-disk
A interference, or HDL
B0007 ATrue
.
126
. .
B E
False None of the above
. .
Answer: Option A Answer: Option D
Report Report
34 What tool is used to test serial and parallel 37 What voltage does a Pentium system use?
. ports? . A
+12 volts
A .
high volt probe
. B
+ 5 volts
B .
cable scanner
. C
+ 8 volts
C .
loop backs (wrap plugs)
. D
+3.3 volts
D .
sniffer
. E
None of the above
E .
None of the above
.
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Explanation:
Report
38 A numeric error code check: A 17xx indicates a
35 ESD would cause the most damage to which . problem with:
. component? A
CMOS
A .
Power supply
. B
ROM BIOS
B .
Expansion board
. C
DMA controller
C .
Monitor
. D
hard drive or controller
D .
Keyboard
. E
power supply
E .
None of the above
.
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option B
36 What is the highest binary number that can be Explanation:
. referred to on a three position jumper block?
4
6
. Report
C
F
. 39 Which provides the fastest access to large
D1 . video files?
127
A .
Optical drives
. B
press alt + Ctrl + delete, and end task
B .
IDE hard drives
. C
press the reset button on the computer
C .
SCSI hard drives
. D
turn off computer and boot from a floppy disk
D .
EIDE hard drives
. E
None of the above
E .
None of the above
.
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Explanation:
Report
43 RS-232 is a standard that applies to:
40 A 25-pin female connector on the back of your . A
serial ports
. computer will typically be: .
A B
Serial port 1 parallel ports
. .
B C
A parallel port game ports
. .
C D
Docking networks
. .
D E
COM2 port digital frequencies
. .
E
None of the above
. Answer: Option A
Answer: Option B Explanation:

41 On the PC side, the printer port is a:
. A No answer description available for this
25 pin female serial connector
15 pin female parallel connector
. Report
C
25 pin male serial connector
. 44 You just installed a new IDE hard drive, but
D . your system BIOS will not recognize the new
15 pin female serial connector
. drive, what should you check first.
E A
25 pin female parallel connector cable sequence
. .
B
Answer: Option E jumpers on the hard drive
.
C
drivers that need to be loaded
Explanation: .
D
hard drive manufacturer web site information
None of the above
Report
Answer: Option B
42 You were installing an application in Windows
. 95, and the computer crashes, what do you do? Explanation:
Apress alt + Ctrl + delete, twice
128
Report
48 What is the first thing you could do to check
45 During boot-up, the memory test: . for damage to a printer after receiving it?
. A A
Is a superfluous step that should be ignored Run MSD diagnostics
. .
BChecks and verifies that contiguous memory B
Attach it to a PC and print something
. is installed .
C C
Is an operational error Check the cables
. .
DDisplays what memory is installed, but D
Unbox it and examine it for physical damage
. nothing else .
E E
. .
Answer: Option B Answer: Option D

46 What is the best ground for a conductive work
. bench? Explanation:
A
AC outlet
Ground to bend
C Report
To another device
.
D 49 You have a system that periodically locks up.
Chassis ground
. . You have ruled out software, and now suspect
E that it is hardware. What should you do first that
None of the above
. could help you narrow it down to the component
at fault?
Answer: Option A A
rotate the RAM
.
Explanation: B
replace the RAM
.
No answer description available for this C
replace the level 2 cache SIMM
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace D
disable the CPU cache in CMOS
Report .
E
replace the CPU
47 Topically, how many type III PC cards can you .
. insert in a laptop
A Answer: Option D
1
. 1. What's the best way to protect your hard drive
B data?
2
. A
regular backups
C .
3
. B
periodically defrag it
D .
4
. C
run chkdsk at least once a week
E .
None of the above
. D
run scandisk at least once a week
.
Answer: Option A E
run a regular diagnostic
.
Explanation:
Answer: Option A
129
Explanation: C
Uses expanded memory on a 80386 processor
.
No answer description available for this D
Supports code page switching
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace E
None of the above
Report .
2 On a dot matrix printer, you should never Answer: Option B

. lubricate which part?
A Explanation:
carriage rails
.
B No answer description available for this
printhead pins
C View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
paper advance bearings
. Report
D
carriage bearings
. 5 _____ help prevent power surges.
E . A
None of the above Surge suppressor
. .
B
Answer: Option B Spike protector
.
C
UPS system
Explanation: .
D
High-grade multi-meter
None of the above
Report
Answer: Option A
3 How many devices can be used on a single SCSI 6 The digital multimeter is set for DC, Ohm and
. bus? Keep in mind that the SCSI host adapter . 20k. You will read _____ while measuring a
counts as a device. good 2 amp fuse.
A A
1 0.00
. .
B B
8 0.02
. .
C C
20 0.20
. .
D D
10 2.00
. .
E E
All of the above None of the above
. .
Answer: Option B Answer: Option A
Report Report
4 Match the device driver HIMEM.SYS to its 7 An anti static strap uses a small _____ to make
. operation. . sure you do not become the least path of
A resistance to the ground?
Supports (ANSI) terminal emulation
. A
capacitor
B .
Manages the use of extended memory
. Bdiode
130
transistor
. Report
D
resistor
. 10 Which values are held in CMOS for the hard
E . drive
None of the above
. A
size (heads, cylinders, sectors)
.
Answer: Option D B
IRQ
.
Explanation: C
Free space
.
Virus alert
None of the above
Report .
8 If the memory slots have 30 pins then the chip is Answer: Option A
. a? 11 Which of the following would be a logical first
A . step in troubleshooting a PC?
DIMM A
. Check the computer CMOS
B .
SIMM B
. Define the circumstances of the problem
C .
SDRAM C
. Call the vendor
D .
All of the above D
. Define what applications are being used
E .
None of the above E
. None of the above
.
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Explanation:
question. Let us discuss. No answer description available for this
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace question. Let us discuss.
Report View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
Report
9 Laser Jet printer speeds are measured in pages
. per minute (ppm) what do we use to measure dot- 12 Which DOS driver is used to emulate expanded
matrix printers? . memory?
A A
lines per inch Himem.sys
. .
B B
lines per sheet EMM386.exe
. .
C C
characters per inch Mem386.sys
. .
D D
characters per second Ramdrive.sys
. .
E E
. .
Answer: Option D Answer: Option B
131
None of the above
Report
Answer: Option C
13 For a Macintosh to print successfully, the 16 When is the risk for electrostatic discharge the
. System Folder must contain: . greatest?
A A
File sharing software Day time
. .
B B
A printer enabler High humidity
. .
C C
The apple Garamond font set Low humidity
. .
D D
A printer driver Night time
. .
E E
. .
Answer: Option D Answer: Option C
Report Report
14 Which component must be vacuumed or 17 A modem could be attached to which port?

. replaced during preventative maintenance on a . A
laser printer? Parallel port
.
A B
Scanning mirror ASYNC port
. .
B C
Toner cartridge Keyboard connector
. .
C D
Ozone filter Video port
. .
D E
All of the above None of the above
. .
E
None of the above
. Answer: Option A
Answer: Option C Explanation:
Explanation: No answer description available for this

No answer description available for this View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
question. Let us discuss. Report
Report 18 What device prevents power interruptions,
. resulting in corrupted data?
15 Which device uses a DMA channel? A
. A Battery back-up unit
Modem .
. B
B Surge protector
Network Card .
. C
C Multiple SIMMs strips
Sound Card .
. D
D Data guard system
All of the above .
. ENone of the above
132
.
Answer: Option E
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Explanation:
Report
22 What is the highest binary number that can be
19 SCSI must be terminated with? . referred to on a three position jumper block?
. A A
Dip switch 4
. .
B B
Resistor 6
. .
C C
BNC F
. .
D D
All of the above 1
. .
E E
. .
Report Report
20 In a computer with an eide adapter, where 23 During boot-up, the memory test:
. should you connect an ATA CD-ROM drive? . A
Is a superfluous step that should be ignored
A .
on the floppy bus
. BChecks and verifies that contiguous memory
B . is installed
on the primary IDE
. C
Is an operational error
C .
on the secondary IDE
. DDisplays what memory is installed, but
D . nothing else
on the SCSI bus
. E
None of the above
E .
All of the above
.
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option C
21 What's the best way to prevent damaging your Explanation:
. PC with static electricity?
place your PC on a rubber mat
wear leather soled shoes
. Report
Cperiodically touch a safe ground point on the
. PC to discharge yourself 24 IRQ6 is typically reserved for:
D . A
static electricity doesn't really hurt a PC The floppy
. .
E B
wear an ESD wrist strap The keyboard controller
. .
133
C CThe map statement is not in the autoexec.bat
LPT2
. . file
D D
The modem The last drive was not set correctly
. .
E E
. .
Answer: Option A Answer: Option C
Report Report
25 Which would you do first when 28 What do you need to check serial and parallel
. troubleshooting a faulty monitor? . port?
ACheck its connections to the computer and A
Port adapter
. power source .
BUse a meter to check the CRT and internal B
Logic probe
. circuitry for continuity .
CPower down the monitor, then turn it on again C
Loopback plug
. to see if that corrects the problem .
DPower down the computer, then turn it on D
All of the above
. again to see if that corrects the problem .
E E
. .

26 To install a second IDE drive into a computer,
. you must: Explanation:
ASet the master-slave jumper to slave on the
. second drive No answer description available for this
BUse the IDE configuration software to set the question. Let us discuss.
. new drive as slave View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
CVerify that you define the new drive as D: in Report
. the CMOS setup
DVerify that you attach the drive to the 29 You have a PC with no video* Which of the
. connector at the end of the ribbon cable . following is LEAST likely to be causing the
E problem?
None of the above
. A
defective RAM (bank zero)
.
Answer: Option A B
defective microprocessor
.
Explanation: C
crashed hard drive
.
loose video card
low AC outlet power
Report .
27 Why does a successfully mapped network drive Answer: Option C

. disappear every time you boot the computer?
AThe computer you are connected to has Explanation:
. moved
You didn't click reconnect on log on
134
Report Report
30 To test for AC ripple on a PC power supply, 33 When measuring AC (Alternating Current)

. you would set the volt/ohm meter for: . with a multimeter, it is important to maintain the
A proper polarity.
DC voltage scale
. A
True
B .
AC voltage
. B
False
C .
OHM scale
.
D Answer: Option B
Farad scale
.
E Explanation:
None of the above
.
Answer: Option B question. Let us discuss.
31 You get a CMOS checksum error during View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
. bootup. What is most likely the cause? Report
A
power supply is bad
. 34 After trying to unload a TSR, you get an error
B . message saying that other TSRs were loaded
BIOS needs updating
. after the one you tried to remove. Which of the
C following commands could you use to see the
CMOS battery is nearing end of life
. current load order?
D A
hard drive types are incorrectly defined MEM /P
. .
E B
None of the above MEMMAKER
. .
C
Answer: Option C MEM /C
.
D
SYS:
Explanation: .
E
None of the above
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace Answer: Option D
Report
Explanation:
32 On the 16-bit ISA bus, IRQ2 is elevated to
. which higher level interrupt? No answer description available for this
9
B Report
11
.
C 35 What is a common language that computers use
13
. . to talk with one another on a network
D A
15 client
. .
E B
None of the above adapter
. .
C
Answer: Option A protocol
.
D
operating systems
Explanation: .
E
None of the above
135
Explanation:
Answer: Option C
36 When measuring AC (Alternating Current) No answer description available for this
. with a multimeter, it is important to maintain the question. Let us discuss.
proper polarity. View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
A Report
True
.
B 39 What could cause a fixed disk error?
False
. . A
No-CD installed
.
Answer: Option B B
Bad RAM
.
Explanation: C
Slow processor
.
Incorrect CMOS settings
None of the above
Report .
37 Which DOS driver is used to emulate expanded Answer: Option D

. memory?
A Explanation:
Himem.sys
.
EMM386.exe
Mem386.sys
. Report
D
Ramdrive.sys
. 40 ESD potential decreases with the use of:
E . A
None of the above De-ionizing fans
. .
B
A wrist strap
Answer: Option B .
C
Rubber gloves with matching cap
Explanation: .
D
A static meter
None of the above
Report
Answer: Option B
38 Which should you use for cleaning Mylar- 41 Which of the following FRUs would be
. protected LCD screens? . considered both an input/output device?
A A
Ammonia window cleaner Video board
. .
B B
Non-abrasive cleanser SCSI host adapter
. .
C C
Anti-static wipes System board CPU
. .
D D
Alcohol-impregnated wipes All of the above
. .
E E
. .
Answer: Option B Answer: Option B
Explanation:
136
None of the above
Report
Answer: Option B
42 A COM port is a _____ port.
. A Explanation:
parallel
.
serial
static
. Report
D
multi
. 45 What is the most significant difference between
E . the USB and IEEE1394 standards?
SCSI
. A
IEEE 1394 is faster
.
Answer: Option B B
USB does not support USB
.
Explanation: C
USB is plug and play
.
IEEE 1394 is hot swappable
None of the above
Report .
43 Which device is on IRQ 6? Answer: Option A

. A 41 Which of the following FRUs would be
Keyboard
. . considered both an input/output device?
B A
IDE Video board
. .
C B
Floppy drive SCSI host adapter
. .
D C
Video card System board CPU
. .
E D
None of the above All of the above
. .
E
None of the above
Answer: Option C .
Explanation: Answer: Option B

44 A system has two IDE hard drives that are each Report
. divided into primary and extended partitions,
which drive letter is assigned to the primary 42 A COM port is a _____ port.
partition of the second drive? . A
A parallel
C .
. B
B serial
D .
. C
C static
E .
. D
DF multi
.
137
E . the USB and IEEE1394 standards?
SCSI
. A
IEEE 1394 is faster
.
Answer: Option B B
USB does not support USB
.
Explanation: C
USB is plug and play
.
IEEE 1394 is hot swappable
None of the above
Report .
43 Which device is on IRQ 6? Answer: Option A

. A 46 When connecting two internal SCSI hard disks
Keyboard . to a computer, where do you connect the second
.
B hard drive?
IDE A
. Any open SCSI port on the computer
C .
Floppy drive B
. A Serial port on the first host adapter
D .
Video card C
. An open parallel port on the computer
E .
None of the above D
. An open SCSI port on the first hard drive
.
Answer: Option C E
None of the above
.
Explanation:
Answer: Option A
question. Let us discuss. Explanation:
Report No answer description available for this
44 A system has two IDE hard drives that are each View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
. divided into primary and extended partitions, Report
which drive letter is assigned to the primary
partition of the second drive? 47 When connecting a ribbon cable to a connector,
A . how do you know which direction to plug it in?
C AThe red line in the cable goes to the highest
.
B . pin number
D B
. The colored line in the cable goes to pin #1
C .
E C
. It does not matter
D .
F DThe blue or red line in the cable goes away
.
E . from the power connector
None of the above E
. None of the above
.
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Explanation:
Report
45What is the most significant difference between
138
48 What is the first step in diagnosing a 2 Modems use transmission.
. completely dead computer at the client site that . A
synchronous
was working the day before. .
A B
Test the power supply asynchronous
. .
B C
replace the CMOS battery timed interval
. .
C D
check the AC outlet ata
. .
D E
reseat the hard drive controller cable bank
. .
E
None of the above
. Answer: Option B

Report 3 A 6xx indicates a problem with the:
. A
floppy drive
49 What specification covers PC hard cards? .
. A B
SCSI hard drive
. .
B C
ISA keyboard
. .
C D
PCMCIA CD ROM
. .
D E
MFM All of the above
. .
E
None of the above
. Answer: Option A

1. Which common bus specification provides the
fastest data transfer rate? No answer description available for this
VL bus
B Report
ISA
.
C 4 A sound card typically uses which IRQ?
PCI
. . A
D 6
All of the above .
. B
E 5
None of the above .
. C
15
.
Answer: Option C D
1
.
Explanation: E
it doesn't use an IRQ
.
question. Let us discuss. Answer: Option B
Report Explanation:
139
Report Report
5 During preventative maintenance on a dot 8 What expansion types do most pll/plll

. matrix printer, do NOT lubricate: . motherboards support?
A A
Platen assembly MCA, PCI
. .
B B
Print head pulley ISA, EISA
. .
C C
Print head pins ISA, PCI, AGP
. .
D D
Paper advance gear bushings ISA, VESA, PCI
. .
E E
. .
Answer: Option C Answer: Option C

6 You see the message "invalid media device"
. after installing a new hard drive. What do you do Explanation:
next?
Format
Fdisk
. Report
C
Partition
. 9 When installing an internal modem, all of the
D . following IRQ's can be used except?
Add the OS
. A
E 5
None of the above .
. B
10
.
Answer: Option A C
14
.
Explanation: D
All of the above
.
None of the above
Report Answer: Option C
7 What is the modem hang up command? Explanation:

. A
ATHU
ATH
C Report
ATZ
.
D 10 An IRQ allow interface cards to:
ATX
. . A
E Interrupt the CPU to request service
None of the above .
. B
Pass data to the CPU to be processed
.
Answer: Option B C
Pass data from one card to another
.
Explanation: D
Pass data to the computers memory
.
140
E .
None of the above
.
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option A
11 A workstation has just been installed on an Explanation:
. Ethernet LAN, but cannot communicate with the
network. What should you check first? No answer description available for this
reinstall the network protocols
B Report
reinstall the network interface card driver
.
C 14 The ESD wrist strap is designed to protect PC
verify the ip configuration on the workstation
. . Components or Service Technicians ?
Dverify the link status on the computer's A
. network card PC Components
.
E B
None of the above Service Technicians
. .
C
Answer: Option D Both
.
Explanation: Answer: Option C

12 One of the major components of a PC is the Report
. Central Processing Unit (CPU) which can be
best described as: 15 You can have EISA and MCA devices in the
AThe device that sends the monitor signals . same PC.
. telling it what to display A
BThe area that regulates all of the system True
.
. power usage B
CThe area where ail the of the Basic False
.
. input/output routines are stored
DThe area where all of the processing takes Answer: Option B
. place 16 The floppy drive uses which DMA (direct
E . memory access) channel?
None of the above
. A
5
.
Answer: Option D B
4
.
Explanation: C
1
.
9
2
Report .
13 What is the i/o address for com2? Answer: Option E

. A
2vb
. Explanation:
B
2f8
8f8
D330
141
Report
17 The DC voltage on most circuit boards is:
. A 20 What device protects against line deficiencies?
-12 volts
. . A
Surge protector
B .
0 volts
. B
UPS
C .
+5 volts
. C
Logic probe
D .
+12 volts
. D
Capacitor
E .
None of the above
. E
None of the above
.
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option B
Explanation: 21 Which monitor would provide the highest level
. of performance?
No answer description available for this A
VGA
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace B
XGA
Report .
C
CGA
18 A customer attached an external drive to his .
. notebook computer but the computer is not D
SVGA
recognizing it. What should be considered? .
A E
The cables are attached firmly None of the above
. .
BThe external drive has been pre¬loaded with
. the appropriate software Answer: Option D
CThe external drive was attached before the
. computer was on Explanation:
D
The external drive is turned on
E question. Let us discuss.
All of the above
Report
Answer: Option E
22 Which of the following items would require
Explanation: . you to comply with EPA disposal guidelines?
A
Keyboard
question. Let us discuss. B
System board
Report C
Power supply
.
19 "Parity" errors usually indicate bad memory. D
Battery
. A .
True E
. None of the above
B .
False
.
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Explanation:
142
Report
Answer: Option B
23 A hard disk is divided into tracks which are 26 Which step should you perform first before
. further subdivided into: . discharging a CRT?
A A
clusters Remove the CRT from its housing
. .
B B
sectors Disconnect the CRT from the computer
. .
C C
vectors Remove the video assembly
. .
D DTurn power off before removing power
heads
. . source
E E
. .
Report Report
24 What is the paper feeding technology most 27 A capacitor is measured in which of the
. commonly associated with dot-matrix printers? . following units?
A A
sheet feed Volts
. .
B B
tractor feed Ohms
. .
C C
friction feed Farads
. .
D D
manual feed Resistance
. .
E E
. .
Answer: Option B Answer: Option C
Report Report
25 COM1 is typically represented by which of the 28 UART is a type of serial chip. Its letters stand
. following? . for:
A A
15 pin port unidirectional access regarding transmission
. .
B B
9 pin male port universal asynchronous receiver/ transmitter
. .
C C
9 pin female port upper advanced real transfer
. .
D D
25 pin male port unable all restore t-bits
. .
E E
None of the above use all ROM types
. .
143
.
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Explanation:
Report
29 A system has two IDE hard drives that are each
. divided into primary and extended partitions, 32 In the Binary numbering system, a (1)
which drive letter is assigned to the primary . represents a jumper being shorted and a (0)
partition of the second drive? represents a jumper being open. On a three-bit
A jumper block on a SCSI drive, how would an ID
C
. of logical 3 be set?
B A
D 100
. .
C B
E 010
. .
D C
F 011
. .
E D
None of the above . 101
. .
E
None of the above
Answer: Option B .

30 What would you ask to determine if the display Report
. is working?
AIs there a video cursor or action on the 33 After installing a sound card, the system locks
. screen? . up when a parallel port tape backup unit is also
B used. What is most likely the problem?
Did the computer beep or chime?
. A
IRQ
C .
Is there high voltage static on the screen
. B
DMA
D .
All of the above
. C
defective LPT port
E .
None of the above
. D
defective tape driver
.
Answer: Option D E
defective sound card.
31 Your CD-ROM audio cable connects to the: .
. A
speaker
. Answer: Option A
Bsound card (or motherboard if sound is
. integrated with it) Explanation:
C
power supply
D question. Let us discuss.
hard drive
EBIOS Report
144
34 You are testing the resistance in Ohms of a fuse 37 In laser technology, what happens during the
. on a 15K amp system. If the fuse is good, the . transfer stage?
meter should read? AResidual toner is transferred to the waste
A . receptacle
0.0
. BThe laser transfers the image from the drum
B . to the paper
0.2
. CThe image is transferred from the drum to the
C . paper
5.0
. DA negative charge is transferred to the surface
D . of the drum
2.0
. E
None of the above
E .
None of the above
.
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Explanation:
Report
38 _____ is the term used to refer to the process of
35 Type one PC cards: . two modems establishing communications with
. A each other.
are used only in desktops
. A
interacting
B .
are no longer being produced
. B
handshaking
C .
are the thinnest of the PC cards
. C
connecting
D .
don't exist
. D
linking
E .
have their own power source
. E
pinging
.
Answer: Option C
36 14.4 modem should transmit _____ bits per Answer: Option B
. second
A Explanation:
14,400-15,000
.
140-150
1400-1500
. Report
D
140,000-150,000
. 39 Resistance is measured in ohm.
E . A
None of the above True
. .
B
Answer: Option A False
.
Explanation: Answer: Option A

145
Report
40 Suppose that the power lamp in on, but the
. printer will not print. What can you do to correct 43 Capacitance is measured in units of:
the problem? . A
volts
A .
Make sure the printer is on line
. B
amps
B .
Replace the AC line fuse
. C
farads
C .
Turn the printer on and off
. D
neutrinos
D .
Replace the ribbon
. E
anti-neutrinos
E .
None of the above
.
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option A
41 The ATAPI compliance is stands for? Explanation:
. A
CDROM
Bus mastering
C Report
Mass storage device
.
D 44 When not in use, it is very important to keep 5
All of the above
. . 1/4 diskettes in _____.
E A
None of the above Their protective sleeves
. .
B
Answer: Option C In a plastic bag
.
C
On a shelf in an upright position
Explanation: .
D
In the floppy drive
None of the above
Report
Answer: Option A
42 A dialog box with a bomb appears on a
. Macintosh screen. What type of problem has Explanation:
occurred?
A RAM problem
A software problem
. Report
C
A ROM problem
. 45 What can you use to ensure power is not
D . interrupted, resulting in corrupted data?
An ADB problem
. A
E UPS
None of the above .
. B
Propergrounding
.
Answer: Option B C
Surge protector
.
Explanation: D
Sag protector
.
No answer description available for this ENone of the above
146
. .
E
None of the above
Answer: Option A .
46 A 25-pin female connector on the back of your
. computer will typically be: Answer: Option A
A
Serial port 1
. Explanation:
B
A parallel port
Docking
D Report
COM2 port
.
E 49 What can you use to ensure power is not
None of the above
. . interrupted, resulting in corrupted data?
A
Answer: Option B UPS
.
B
Proper grounding
Explanation: .
C
Surge protector
question. Let us discuss. DNuclear powered thermal protective
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace . underwear
Report E
None of the above
.
47 In the Binary numbering system, a (1)
. represents a jumper being shorted and a (0) Answer: Option A
represents a jumper being open. On a three-bit
jumper block on a SCSI drive, how would an ID Explanation:
of logical 3 be set?
100
010
. Report
C
011
. 50 The POST routine, which counts system board
D . RAM first, is stored in:
101
. A
E RAM
None of the above .
. B
microprocessor
.
Answer: Option C C
ROM BIOS
.
Explanation: D
CMOS
.
8259 POST controller
1. The digital multimeter is set for DC, Ohm and
48 _____ help prevent power surges. 20k. You will read _____ while measuring a
. A good 2 amp fuse.
Surge suppressor
. A
0.00
B .
Spike protector
. B
0.02
C .
UPS system
. C
0.20
DHigh-grade multi-meter .
147
D . description for the printer driver
2.00
. A
Delete the spool file
E .
None of the above
. BRun regedit.exe and remove any reference to
. the printers
Answer: Option A CRun sysedit.exe and remove any reference to
. the printers
Explanation: D
Remove the printer driver and re¬install it
.
None of the above
Report Answer: Option D
2 IDE cables have how many pins? Explanation:

. A
25
50
C Report
100
.
D 5 An important first step in troubleshooting which
40
. . component in a laser printer is causing a jam is
E to:
65
. A
note where in the paper path the paper stops
.
Answer: Option D B
check all voltages
.
Explanation: C
look up error codes
.
turn the printer off, then on again
remove the jammed paper
Report .
3 Which of the following statements is true? Answer: Option A

. Two SCSI devices connected to a computer 6 Which of the following items would require you
A . t.o comply with EPA disposal guidelines?
can have the same ID if they are both hard
. A
drives. Keyboard
B .
Each SCSI device must have its own ID B
. System board
C .
All SCSI devices must have the same ID C
. Power supply
D .
SCSI ID's are irrelevant D
. Battery
E .
None of the above E
. None of the above
.
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Explanation:
Report
4What is the recommended way to fix the registry
148
7 What should you replace if the brightness or .
. contrast adjustments were malfunctioning on a
laptop? Answer: Option B
A
fuse
. Explanation:
B
led display
adjustment switch
D Report
led display cable
.
E 10 What IRQ is used for COM 2?
None of the above
. . A
4
.
Answer: Option B B
3
.
Explanation: C
2
.
1
None of the above
Report .
8 One of the major components of a PC is the Answer: Option B

. Central Processing Unit (CPU) which can be best 11 What is the size of the reserved memory area?
described as: . A
AThe device that sends the monitor signals 64 kb
.
. telling it what to display B
BThe area that regulates all of the system power 384 kb
.
. usage C
CThe area where all the of the Basic input/output 640 kb
.
. routines are stored D
DThe area where all of the processing takes 1024 kb
.
. place E
E None of the above
None of the above .
.
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Explanation:
Report
12 Which would you have to upgrade to install an
9 On a leased line installation a known good . EIDE drive?
. external modem shows no carrier detect light. A
Where is the problem most likely to be? RAM BIOS
.
A B
In the modem A 286 CPU
. .
B C
In the phone line Controller board
. .
C D
In the computer ISA motherboard
. .
D E
In the DTC equipment None of the above
. .
ENone of the above
149
B
3bc
Answer: Option C .
C
5f8
Explanation: .
D
3f8
008
Report
Answer: Option D
13 Dust in a computer actually increases the size 16 The monitor power LED is 'on' but the monitor
. of the magnetic fields inside it. This is not good, . screen is completely dark. The least likely cause
so you must occasionaiy dust, I trust. What's the of the problem is:
best way to do this? A
Defect in the computers video circuitry
A .
reverse vacuum B
. Disconnected video cable
B .
any small vacuum device C
. Defective monitor
C .
blow real hard on the system board D
. System RAM problem
D .
use a lint-free cloth and wipe gently E
. None of the above
E .
non-static compressed air
.
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option E
Explanation:
Explanation:
Report
17 You are about to install a second IDE hard
14 A parity error usually indicates a problem with: . drive in a PC that has only one IDE adapter.
. A Your first hard drive will still be the boot drive.
memory How should the second drive be configured?
.
B A
hard drive as a master
. .
C B
hard drive controller as a secondary
. .
D C
I/O controller as a slave
. .
E D
power supply as a primary
. .
E
as auto-select
Answer: Option A .

15 What is the i/o address for com1? Report
. A
3e8 18What is your first action when windows reports
.
150
. that your hard drive is developing bad sectors? . A
ohms
A .
replace the hard drive
. B
farads
B .
run secclean from dos
. C
helids
C .
run defrag on the hard drive
. D
amperes
D .
run scandisk with the "thorough" option
. E
volts
E .
None of the above
.
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Explanation:
Report
22 Which provides the fastest data access time?
19 In laser technology, what happens during the . A
RAM
. transfer stage? .
AResidual toner is transferred to the waste B
ROM
. receptacle .
BThe laser transfers the image from the drum C
CD-ROM
. to the paper. .
CThe image is transferred from the drum to the D
Hard disk
. paper .
DA negative charge is transferred to the surface E
Floppy disk
. of the drum .
E
None of the above
. Answer: Option A

Report 23 How is ink transferred to paper in common ink
. jet printers?
20 How many IRQs does a chain of USB devices A
Boiling ink
. require? .
A B
1 Crystal
. .
B C
2 Motorized pump
. .
C DScreens deflect ink on the paper into the
3
. . proper positions
D EInk is sprayed on to the paper and managed
4
. . by a nozzle
E
None of the above
. Answer: Option B
Answer: Option A Explanation:

21Resistance is measured in units of:
151
24 Which component must be vacuumed or Report
. replaced during preventative maintenance on a
laser printer? 27 A customer calls and says her computer won't
A . boot, she can hear noises and can see lights on
Scanning mirror
. the box, but nothing comes up on the screen,
B what should you take to the site to fix the
Toner cartridge
. problem?
C A
Ozone filter hard drive
. .
D B
All of the above video card
. .
E C
None of the above power cable
. .
D
power supply
Answer: Option C .
E
None of the above
Explanation: .
No answer description available for this Answer: Option B

View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace Explanation:
Report
25 Which controller would support an external question. Let us discuss.
. CD-ROM drive? View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
A Report
ESDI
.
B 28 The DC voltage on most circuit boards is:
ARLL
. . A
C -12 volts
MFM .
. B
D 0 volts
SCSI .
. C
E +5 volts
None of the above .
. D
+12 volts
.
Answer: Option D E
None of the above
26 In inkjet printers, what is the most common .
. problem with the paper tray?
A Answer: Option C
inconsistent printing
.
B Explanation:
malfunctioning pick-up rollers
.
C No answer description available for this
misalignment of the sheet feeder
D View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
paper jamming on the ink cartridge
. Report
E
None of the above
. 29 On a dot-matrix printer, regular lube
. maintenance should be followed, but this
Answer: Option B component should never be lubed:
A
Platten bearings
.
152
B C
Carriage rails + 8 volts
. .
C D
Printhead +3.3 volts
. .
D E
Paper advance bearings None of the above
. .
E
None of the above
. Answer: Option B

Report 33 What action will correct patchy, faint, uneven
. or intermittent print on a dot matrix printer?
30 The buffers statement is found in what file? A
Replacing the ribbon
. A .
Config.sys
. B
Replacing the timing belt
B .
Autoexec.ncf
. C
Adjusting the paper feed tension
C .
Autoexec.bat
. D
Adjusting the tractor feed tension
D .
Neb.cfg
. E
None of the above
E .
None of the above
.
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option A
31 What configuration should a Volt-Ohm meter Explanation:
. he set to when testing a fuse?
DC volts
AC volts
. Report
C
Amperage
. 34 If the voltage on pin 1 of the power supply is
D . not in the range of _____ volts, the PC will not
Ohms
. boot.
E A
None of the above 10 - 20
. .
B
Answer: Option D 1-5
.
C
50 - 110
Explanation: .
D
15 - 25
2.5 - 5
Report
Answer: Option E
32 What voltage does a 586 system use?
. A Explanation:
+12 volts
.
+ 5 volts
153
Report Report
35 What are the most likely conditions for ESD? 38 In the DOS memory model, the HIGH Memory
. A . Area (HMA). is the _____ memory.
Hot and dry
. A
Last 64k of conventional
B .
Hot and wet
. B
Last 64k of extended
C .
Cold and dry
. C
First 64k above conventional
D .
Cold and wet
. D
First 64k of extended
E .
None of the above
. E
None of the above
.
Answer: Option B
36 What is the i/o address for com3? Answer: Option D
. A
3e8
. Explanation:
B
345
ff8
D Report
5e8
.
E 39 In addition to I/O port addresses, SCSI adapters
be8
. . also use a range of ROM addresses for their
onboard BIOS.
Answer: Option A A
True
.
Explanation: B
False
.
question. Let us discuss. Answer: Option A
Report Explanation:
37 The following process determines the amount No answer description available for this
. of memory present, the date/ time, and which question. Let us discuss.
communications ports and display adapters are View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
installed in a microcomputer? Report
A
Start-up utility test
. 40 COM1 is typically represented by which of the
B . following?
Power on Self Test
. A
C 15 pin port
Power up boot process .
. B
D 9 pin male port
Power on start up process .
. C
E 9 pin female port
None of the above .
. D
25 pin male port
.
Answer: Option B E
None of the above
.
Explanation:
Answer: Option B
No answer description available for this 41 A PC with a 486DX2 processor runs internally
question. Let us discuss. . at 50Mhz. What speed would its external logic
154
be running? Explanation:
A
l0Mhz
25Mhz
C Report
50Mhz
.
D 44 Which REQUIRES an anti-static bag for
100 Mhz
. . transport?
E A
None of the above Monitor
. .
B
Floppy disks
Answer: Option B .
C
Power supply
Explanation: .
D
I/O controller
None of the above
Report
Answer: Option D
42 A capacitor is measured in which of the
. following units? Explanation:
A
Volts
Ohms
C Report
Farads
.
D 45 Static electricity thrives is which type of
Resistance
. . environment?
E A
None of the above cold and humid
. .
B
warm and humid
Answer: Option C .
C
warm and dry
Explanation: .
D
cold and warm
cold and dry
Report
Answer: Option E
43 Which device uses a DMA channel? 46 ESD potential decreases with the use of:
. A . A
Modem De-ionizing fans
. .
B B
Network Card A wrist strap
. .
C C
Sound Card Rubber gloves with matching cap
. .
D D
All of the above A static meter
. .
E E
. .
Answer: Option C Answer: Option B
155
Explanation: .
D
Resistor
None of the above
Report
Answer: Option D
47 With a dot matrix printer, light then dark print
. is most commonly caused by: Explanation:
A
Erratic paper advancement
Erratic ribbon advancement
C Report
Misalligned print head
.
D 50 Every video card must have?
Overheating print head
. . A
E CMOS
None of the above .
. B
RAM
.
Answer: Option B C
CPU
.
Explanation: D
All of the above
.
None of the above
1. What is the jumper setting on a SCSI device to
48 How many DMA channels are there in an AT configure it to use the fourth SCSI id?
. class PC? Remember, SCSI ids start with zero.
A A
3 010
. .
B B
4 110
. .
C C
7 011
. .
D D
8 101
. .
E E
None of the above 001
. .
Answer: Option D Answer: Option C
Report Report
49 A wrist grounding strap contains which of the 2 What tool is used to test serial and parallel
. following: . ports?
A A
Surge protector high volt probe
. .
B B
Capacitor cable scanner
. .
CVoltmeter Cloop backs (wrap plugs)
156
. 5 If a computer's BIOS allows it, you can boot
D . from a CD-ROM.
sniffer
. A
True
E .
None of the above
. B
False
.
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option A
Explanation: 6 ISDN stands for:
. A
internal select data nulls
integrated services digital network
Report C
interval set down next
.
3 Which best describes a fragmented hard drive: D
interior sector direct none
. A .
The platters are bad E
. inferior sector data net
B .
Data files are corrupted
.
C Answer: Option B
Clusters of data are damaged
.
D Explanation:
Files are not stored in consecutive clusters
.
E No answer description available for this
None of the above
Answer: Option D Report
Explanation: 7 ISDN uses _____ technology.

. A
only digital
digital and analog
Report C
only analog
.
4 What device prevents power interruptions, D
neither digital nor analog
. resulting in corrupted data? .
A E
Battery back-up unit mostly digital
. .
B
Surge protector Answer: Option A
.
C
Multiple SIMMs strips
. Explanation:
D
Data guard system
Turn off the AC power
Report
Answer: Option A
8 Which is LEAST likely to interfere with
Explanation: . upgrading to a newer DOS version?
A
ROM BIOS
Video controller
Report C
Compressed drives
.
157
D C
Existing backup files 0.0
. .
E D
None of the above All of the above
. .
E
None of the above
Answer: Option B .

9 A laser printer generates a totally black page, Report
. what is the cause?
A 13 During the normal PC boot process, which of
malfunctioning imaging laser
. . the following is active first?
B A
low level in the toner cartridge RAM BIOS
. .
C B
no power to transfer corona CMOS
. .
D C
no power to the primary corona ROM BIOS
. .
E D
None of the above Hard disk information
. .
E
None of the above
Answer: Option D .

10 You must service the laser printer in your Report
. office. Which part of the printer shoud you
avoid touching because it is hot? 14 When configuring a new network interface card
A . for installation, which of the following would be
fuser
. a valid I/O address?
B A
printer head 378
. .
C B
primary corona 2F8
. .
D C
high-voltage power supply 3F8
. .
E D
. .
E
None of the above
Answer: Option A .
12 You are testing the resistance in Ohms of a fuse
. on a 5 amp system. If the fuse is good, the meter Answer: Option D
should read?
A Explanation:
5.0
.
0.5
158
Report Report
15 Which device should not be plugged into a 18 What Does EISA stand for?
. standard ups? . A
Extended Industry Standard Architecture
A .
monitor
. B
Expanded Industry Standard Architecture
B .
laser printer
. C
Enhanced Industry Standard Architecture
C .
ink-jet printer
. D
Electronics Industry Standard Architecture
D .
an external modem
. E
All of the above
E .
None of the above
.
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option B
16 What is the main communication method from Explanation:
. one PDA to another PDA?
IR
USB
. Report
C
RS-232
. 19 A static jolt of as little of _____ volts can fry
D . most any PC integrated circuit.
IEEE 1394
. A
E 200
None of the above .
. B
30
.
Answer: Option A C
1000
.
Explanation: D
200
.
500
17 What allows you to print on both sides of the Explanation:

. printer?
fuser
duplexer
. Report
C
toner cartridge
. 20 A standard multimeter is ideal for measuring a
D . monitors high voltage output.
paper-swapping unit
. A
E True
None of the above .
. B
False
.
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option B
Explanation: 21 COM 4 uses which I/O port?
. A
2F8H
question. Let us discuss. B3F8H
159
. Report
C
3E8H
. 24 Which provides the fastest data access time?
D . A
2E8H RAM
. .
E B
None of the above ROM
. .
C
CD-ROM
Answer: Option D .
D
Hard disk
Explanation: .
E
None of the above
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace Answer: Option A
Report
Explanation:
22 What type of FRU is a SCSI host adapter?
. A No answer description available for this
CPU
I/O card
. Report
C
video card
. 25 When configuring a new network interface card
D . for installation, which of the following would be
hard drive
. a valid I/O address?
E A
. .
B
2F8
Answer: Option B .
C
3F8
Explanation: .
D
360
None of the above
Report
Answer: Option D
23 How many DMA channels are in an AT- 26 Which is NOT typically a Field Replaceable
. machine? . Unit?
A A
3 System ROM
. .
B B
4 Power supply
. .
C C
7 System chasis
. .
D D
8 Video controller
. .
E E
. .
160
Report
Answer: Option D
27 A human cannot feel a static discharge as high
. as _____ volts. Explanation:
A
200
2000
C Report
10000
.
D 30 What does the acronym RTS represent?
50000
. . A
E Required to save
50 .
. B
Ready to start
.
Answer: Option A C
Request to send
.
Explanation: D
Right to separate
.
None of the above
31 Which is the easiest component to
28 What can you use to ensure power is not . environmentally recycle?
. interrupted, resulting in corrupted data? A
A Motherboards
UPS .
. B
B CMOS batteries
Proper grounding .
. C
C Toner cartridges
Surge protector .
. D
D Cathode ray tubes
Sag protector .
. E
E None of the above
None of the above .
.
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Explanation:
Report
32 What problem can occur if a printer cable is to
29 Which step should you perform first before . close to a power cable?
. discharging a CRT? A
A ESD Electrostatic Discharge
Remove the CRT from its housing .
. B
B EMI Electromagnetic Interference
Disconnect the CRT from the computer .
. C
C parity error
Remove the video assembly .
. D
DTurn power off before removing power no affect
.
. source E
E None of the above
None of the above .
.
161
.
Answer: Option B C
parity error
.
Explanation: D
no affect
.
None of the above
36 How can you totally protect a PC from damage
33 ESD damage can be caused by: . during an electrical storm?
. A A
Placing an IC in a non-conductive plastic bag Disconnect the AC power cable
. .
B BDisconnect all external cables and power
Placing an IC on a grounded mat . cords
.
C C
Repeated sags in current supplied from outlets Use a surge protector
. .
D D
Touching metal on the chasis Turn off the AC power
. .
E E
. .
Answer: Option A Answer: Option A
Report Report
34 The standard VGA display has _____ pixels in 37 The ESD wrist strap is designed to protect PC
. its native graphics mode? . Components or Service Technicians ?
A A
648 x 320 PC Components
. .
B B
640 x 480 Service Technicians
. .
C C
680 x 440 All of the above
. .
D D
1024 x 786 None of the above
. .
E
None of the above Answer: Option C
.

Report 38 To test for AC ripple on a PC power supply,
. you would set the volt/ohm meter for:
35 What problem can occur if a printer cable is to A
DC voltage scale
. close to a power cable? .
A B
ESD Electrostatic Discharge AC voltage
. .
BEMI Electromagnetic Interference COHM scale
162
. D
In the floppy drive
D .
Farad scale
. E
None of the above
E .
None of the above
.
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Explanation:
Report
42 Which I/O port belongs to LPT2?
39 The ATAPI compliance is stands for? . A
378H
. A .
CDROM
. B
278H
B .
Bus mastering
. C
3f8h
C .
Mass storage device
. D
2e8h
D .
All of the above
. E
None of the above
E .
None of the above
.
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Explanation:
Report
43 What resistence in ohms should be displayed
40 Which of the following FRUs would be . ehen testing a speaker in a computer?
. considered both an input/output device? A
0 Ohms
A .
Video board
. B
16 Ohms
B .
SCSI host adapter
. C
-200 Ohms
C .
System board CPU
. D
Unlimited Ohms
D .
All of the above
. E
None of the above
E .
None of the above
.
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option B
41 When not in use, it is very important to keep 5 Explanation:
. VA diskettes in _____.
Their protective sleeves
In a plastic bag
. Report
C
On a shelf in an upright position
. 44How much video RAM is needed to display
163
. 1024x768 at 24-bit color? 47 Which type of pc card (PCMCIA) slot will
A . allow the insertion of a hard drive?
1MB
. A
type I
B .
4MB
. B
type II
C .
8MB
. C
type III
D .
512KB
. D
type IV
E .
None of the above
. E
None of the above
.
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Explanation:
Report
45 All Operating Systems get their total memory
. initialized from? 48 During the fusing process, toner is:
A . A
CPU dry pressed into the paper
. .
B B
BIOS electrically bonded to the paper
. .
C C
ROM melted into the paper
. .
D D
RAM glued to the paper
. .
E E
None of the above high pressure sprayed onto the paper
. .
Answer: Option B Answer: Option E

46 IBM's Micro Channel Architecture (MCA)
. specifies which type of the following bit access Explanation:
widths?
8 bit & 16 bit
16 bit & 24 bit
. Report
C
16 bit & 32 bit
. 49 Before sending data, a modem sends a request
D . to send signal, or RTS.
32 bit & 64 bit
. A
E True
None of the above .
. B
False
.
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Explanation:
Report
164
3 Whenever you have a hardware resource
50 When a bearing in the power supply fan goes . conflict, it will more likely be an IRQ conflict
. out, what should you replace? rather than an i/o conflict because:
A A
fan there are a lot more I/O addresses than IRQs.
. .
B Bthe BIOS sometimes has more of a problem
case
. . controlling IRQs
C C
bearing I/O addresses cannot conflict
. .
D D
power supply software tends to correct I/O conflicts
. .
E E
None of the above software tends to mess up IRQs
. .
Answer: Option D Answer: Option A

1. A PCMCIA measuring 10.5mm is what type?
A Explanation:
type 1
.
type 2
type 1 and 3
. Report
D
type 3
. 4 You have just installed a new internal PCI
E . modem on you desktop. It will not dial out. what
None of the above
. is the problem?
A
Answer: Option D The port speed is set too high
.
Bthe modem has not been set up in control panel
Explanation: . properties
Cthe phone line is plugged into the line-in port
No answer description available for this . on the modem card
question. Let us discuss. Dthe phone line out of the wall is plugged into
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace . the phone port on the modem card
Report E
None of the above
.
2 What component would most likely cause a
. "parity error"? Answer: Option D
A
bad hard disk
. Explanation:
B
bad controller
bad RAM
D Report
bad software
.
E 5 After you service a laser printer, you notice dirty
None of the above
. . print. Which of the following would correct the
problem.
Answer: Option C A
Clean the developer tank
.
Explanation: B
Reset the printer
.
Run several blank pages
Clean the laser diode
Report .
ENone of the above
165
. E
None of the above
.
Answer: Option C
6 After you service a laser printer, you notice dirty Answer: Option B
. print. Which of the following would correct the
problem? Explanation:
A
Clean the developer tank
Reset the printer
C Report
Run several blank pages
.
D 9 Modems use _____ transmission.
Clean the laser diode
. . A
E Synchronous
None of the above .
. B
Asynchronous
.
Answer: Option C C
Timed interval
.
Explanation: D
PPP
.
None of the above
7 During the boot process, a system first counts Explanation:

. memory from where?
Expansion memory board
Video adapter
. Report
C
System board
. 10 What should he used to extinguish a computer
D . fire?
Cache
. A
E fire hose
None of the above .
. B
class a extinguisher
.
Answer: Option C C
class c extinguisher
.
Explanation: D
silver foam water
.
None of the above
11 In ROM BIOS, the acronym BIOS stands for:
8 What command is used to reset a MODEM . A
Basic Intuitive Output Set
. when using the .
A B
ATR Basic Input Organizational System
. .
B C
ATZ Basic Input Output System
. .
C D
DTR Basic Industry Operating System
. .
D E
DCE None of the above
. .
166
B
CPU
Answer: Option C .
C
DMA823
Explanation: .
D
UART 16550
None of the above
Report
Answer: Option D
12 What command is used to hand up a MODEM
. when using the "AT Answer Command set"? Explanation:
A
ATZ
ATD
C Report
ATR
.
D 15 A Type 1 PCMCIA card is:
ATH
. . AThe same physical size as other PCMCIA
E . cards but configured differently
None of the above
. BThe thinnest PCMCIA card, measuring
. 3.5mm in thickness
Answer: Option D CThe thickest PCMCIA card, measuring
. 10.5mm in thickness
Explanation: DAn old standard that is not compatible with
. the newest laptops
None of the above
16 You have a 15 pin female connector with the
13 Why does a successfully mapped network drive . pins in two rows. What could you connect with
. disappear every time you boot the computer? this?
AThe computer you are connected to has A
Serial device
. moved .
B B
You didn't click reconnect on log on Parallel device
. .
CThe map statement is not in the autoexec.bat C
MIDI device
. file .
D D
The last drive was not set correctly Video device
. .
E E
None of the above Joystick
. .
Answer: Option C Answer: Option E
Report Report
14 Which hardware component controls serial port 17 The 34-pin connection on an I/O card is for?
. communications? . A
floppy drive
A .
ROM BIOS BSCSI drive
.
167
. Explanation:
C
IDE drive
D question. Let us discuss.
zip drive
E Report
None of the above
.
20 Which of the following is a type of
Answer: Option A . preventative maintenance used on a hard drive?
A
Disk check diagnostics
Explanation: .
B
Head alignment diagnostics
question. Let us discuss. C
Initializing
Report D
Uninstalling programs
.
18 You run a super wing-ding diagnostic program E
None of the above
. on your PC, and it reports that your hard drive, .
microprocessor, RAM, and video card have seen
better days. To resolve this problem you should: Answer: Option A
Areplace each part one at a time, rerunning the 21 ESD damage can be caused by:
. diagnostic before replacing the next part. . A
Placing an IC in a non-conductive plastic bag
B .
check to see if you have a software problem B
. Placing an IC on a grounded mat
Creplace everything at once and rerun the .
. diagnostic C
Repeated sags in current supplied from outlets
D .
get another copy of the diagnostic program D
. Touching metal on the chassis
E .
run an exhaustive memory check E
. None of the above
.
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Explanation:
Report
19 On a leased line installation a known good
. external modem shows no carrier detect light. 22 How can you totally protect a PC from damage
Where is the problem most likely to be? . during an electrical storm?
A A
In the modem Disconnect the AC power cable
. .
B BDisconnect all external cables and power
In the phone line . cords
.
C C
In the computer Use a surge protector
. .
D D
In the DTC equipment Turn off the AC power
. .
E E
. .
168
Explanation: .
D
second adapter card
CMOS battery
Report
Answer: Option A
23 When you boot a PC and don't hear any beep, 26 What are the IRQ's for sound card?
. this could suggest which of the following? . A
IRQ8
A .
The monitor is turned off
. B
IRQ4
B .
Keyboard not plugged in
. C
IRQ5
C .
Normal PC boot
. D
IRQ7
D .
Bad or disconnected speaker
. E
None of the above
E .
None of the above
.
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Explanation:
Report
27 Your IDE hard drive is not spinning up when
24 What is the file extension used by WIN95 to . you turn on the PC. What is the most likely
. back up registry file when windows starts? problem.
A A
.dat bad data cable
. .
B B
.dao incorrect jumper setting on drive
. .
C C
.bak loose molex connector
. .
D D
.tmp virus
. .
E E
None of the above tfad system board
. .
Report Report
25 A 2xx POST error code indicates a problem 28 You can place an ISA device in an EISA slot.
. with: . A
True
A .
RAM or ROM
. B
False
B .
hard drive
.
Csystem board
169
Answer: Option A Answer: Option D
Report Report
29 Which provides the fastest access to large 32 What resistance in ohms should be displayed
. video files? . when testing a speaker in a computer?
A A
Optical drives Q Ohms
. .
B B
IDE hard drives 16 Ohms
. .
C C
SCSI hard drives -200 Ohms
. .
D D
EIDE hard drives Unlimited Ohms
. .
E E
. .
Answer: Option C Answer: Option B
Report Report
30 An anti static strap uses a small _____ to make 33 After displaying the directory of a floppy disk,
. sure you do not become the least path of . a different floppy is inserted into the drive. The
resistance to the ground? contents of the original floppy continue to
A display regardless of the director requests on the
capacitor
. other floppies placed in the drive. You remove
B the drive in question and install it into your test
diode
. system, and it does not exhibit the problem. You
C should next replace the:
transistor
. A
System's floppy drive device driver
D .
resistor
. B
Original IDE controller
E .
None of the above
. C
Floppy drive ribbon cable
.
Answer: Option D D
System's power supply
31 Which best describes a fragmented hard drive: .
. A E
The platters are bad None of the above
. .
B
Data files are corrupted
. Answer: Option C
C
Clusters of data are damaged
. Explanation:
D
Files are not stored in consecutive clusters
None of the above
170
Report
37 A customer has just installed a new cd-rw. the
34 What is the best ground for a conductive work . system was working fine before the installation,
. bench? but now the cdrom does not work, what should
A you suggest that the customer do?
AC outlet
. A
flash or upgrade the BIOS
B .
Ground to bench
. B
check the CONFIG.SYS
C .
To the motherboard
. C
add cdrw in the device manager
D .
To the PC's Chassis
. D
check the jumper setting on the cd-rw
E .
None of the above
. E
None of the above
.
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Explanation:
Report
35 When you are testing a fuse, you should set the
. Volt-OHM meter to what scale? 38 Which is the most difficult environmentally to
A . dispose of?
AC
. A
floppy drives
B .
DC
. B
hard drives
C .
AMPS
. C
power supplies
D .
OHMS
. D
CRTs
E .
None of the above
. E
system boards
.
Answer: Option D
36 During boot-up, the memory test: Answer: Option D
. A
Is a superfluous step that should be ignored
. Explanation:
BChecks and verifies that contiguous memory
. is installed No answer description available for this
Is an operational error
DDisplays what memory is installed, but Report
. nothing else
E 39 Resistance is measured:
None of the above
. . A
in parallel
.
Answer: Option A B
in series
.
Explanation: C
after breaking the circuit
.
after checking voltage
after checking current
Report .
171
Answer: Option C question. Let us discuss.
Explanation: Report
No answer description available for this 43 IRQ6 is typically reserved for:

question. Let us discuss. . A
The floppy
Report B
The keyboard controller
.
40 Which is LEAST likely to interfere with C
LPT2
. upgrading to a newer DOS Version? .
A D
ROM BIOS The modem
. .
B E
Video controller None of the above
. .
C
Compressed drives Answer: Option A
.
D
Existing backup files Explanation:
.
E
None of the above
Answer: Option B View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
41 How may standard levels of interrupts are Report
. provided on the 8-bit ISA bus (XT-class
computer)? 44 What is the most likely cause of an "FDD
A . controller Failure" error message?
4 Ayou did not set the jumper on the floppy drive
.
B . to drive A
8 B
. you forgot to flash CMOS
C .
12 Cyou installed the floppy disk drive cable
.
D . backward
16 D
. your computer's floppy drive is defective
E .
None of the above E
. None of the above
.
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Explanation:
Report
42 "Parity" errors usually indicate bad memory
. A 45 WRAM is used on a
True . A
. modem
B .
False B
. video card
.
Answer: Option A C
motherboard
.
Explanation: D
ata connector
.
ENone of the above
172
. .

46 You are testing the resistance in Ohms of a fuse
. on a 2 amp systems. If the fuse is good, the Explanation:
meter should read?
2.0
5.0
. Report
C
0.0
. 49 You're on your PC at midnight and an electric
D . storm pops up. What's the best way to protect
0.2
. your PC.
E Ayou don't worry; you have a lightning rod on
None of the above
. . your house
Byou don't worry; you've got a surge protector
Answer: Option C . on your PC
Cyou don't worry; you've got a surge protector
Explanation: . on your PC and phone line to your modem
Dunplug the PC and remove phone line from
No answer description available for this . the modem
stop standing on it
Report
Answer: Option D
47 To prevent the computer from overheating you
. should? Explanation:
A
Remove the slot cover from the back
Keep the computer cover closed
C Report
Remove the CPU fan
.
D 50 Which type of system hoard is the MOST
All of the above
. . likely candidate for processor upgrading if you
E want maximum performance and future
None of the above
. compatibility?
A
Answer: Option B ML
.
B
PCI
Explanation: .
C
ISA
EISA
Report E
None of the above
.
48 How many devices does USB support?
. A Answer: Option B
127
. 1. In ROM BIOS, the acronym BIOS stands for:
B A
125 Basic Intuitive Output Set
. .
C B
100 Basic Input Organizational System
. .
D C
225 Basic Input Output System
. .
ENone of the above DBasic Industry Operating System
173
. A
System ROM
E .
None of the above
. B
Power supply
.
Answer: Option C C
System chassis
.
Explanation: D
Video controller
.
None of the above
2 How many pins on a VGA? Explanation:

. A
15.
9
C Report
25
.
D 5 What are the most likely conditions for ESD?
32
. . A
Cold and wet
E .
None of the above
. B
Cold and dry
.
Answer: Option A C
Hot and wet
.
Explanation: D
Hot and dry
.
None of the above
6 In which mode can two or more applications be
3 What is modified when changing the system . stored in memory at the same time?
. start-up boot sequence? A
Segmented Mode
A .
BIOS/CMOS B
. Unprotected Mode
B .
CONFIG.SYS C
. Real Mode
C .
autoexec.bat D
. Protected Mode
D .
COMMAND.COM E
. None of the above
E .
None of the above
.
Answer: Option D
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Explanation:
Report
7 How does a parallel port communicate
4 Which is NOT typically a Field Replaceable . information to a peripheral device?
. Unit? Aone bit at a time
174
8 bytes at a time
C Report
one byte at a time
.
D 10 To find out how much memory is available,
16,555 bytes at a time
. . you could type _____
E A
None of the above EMM
. .
B
MEM
Answer: Option C .
C
CHKDSK
Explanation: .
D
MEMMAKER
None of the above
Report
Answer: Option B
8 You suspect a virus has entered your computer. 11 When seeking to upgrade for a particular
. What will not be affected by the virus? . motherboard what do you need to know?
A A
CMOS memory
. .
B B
Boot sector hard drive
. .
C C
Floppy disks make & model
. .
D D
Program files dimm
. .
E E
. .
Report Report
9 On PC power supplies, the wire attached to pin 12 What is the size of a sector?
. one is usually: . A
512 bytes
A .
blue or red B
. 256 bytes
B .
blue or white C
. 512 Kb
C .
red or black D
. 1024 bytes
D .
red or white E
. None of the above
E .
white or orange
.
Answer: Option A
Answer: Option E
Explanation:
Explanation:
175
Report Answer: Option D
16 A brownout is defined as:
13 During the normal PC boot process, which of . Aa slightly elevated voltage lasting from
. the following is active first? . seconds to minutes or more
A Ba slightly decreased voltage lasting from
RAM BIOS
. . seconds to minutes or more
B C
CMOS complete power out lasting a few minutes
. .
C Dalternating power out, power on lasting a few
ROM BIOS
. . minutes
D E
Hard disk information has nothing to do with electricity
. .
E
None of the above
. Answer: Option B

Report 17 In which phase of the laser printing process is a
. positive charge placed on the paper to pull the
14 Pick the correct choice for the 8088 CPU. toner from the print drum?
. A A
16 bit word size, 8 bit data path Writing
. .
B B
8 bit word size, 8 bit data path Transferring
. .
C C
16 bit word size, 16 bit data path Conditioning
. .
D D
4 bit word size, 8 bit data path All of the above
. .
E E
8 bit word size, 16 bit data path None of the above
. .
Answer: Option A Answer: Option B
Report Report
15 In which mode can 2 or more applications be 18 Which component stores an electrical charge?
. stored in memory at the same time? . A
A diode
Segmented Mode .
. B
B rectifier
Unprotected Mode .
. C
C capacitor
Real Mode .
. D
D resistor
Protected Mode .
. E
ENone of the above transistor
.
176
.
Answer: Option C D
Beer or Jack Daniels
.
Explanation: E
None of the above
.
question. Let us discuss. Answer: Option B
Report Explanation:
19 You are installing an IDE hard drive that will No answer description available for this
. be your boot drive. Which is the correct order of question. Let us discuss.
steps that need to be followed? View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
jumper properly, auto-detect(or configure Report
A
manually) in CMOS, low level format, high
.
level format, partition 22 Which controller would support an external
jumper properly, auto-detect(or configure . CD-ROM drive?
B
manually) in CMOS, partition, high level A
. ESDI
format with / s switch .
jumper properly, partition, auto-detect(or B
C ARLL
configure manually in CMOS, high level .
.
format with /s switch C
MFM
Djumper properly, auto-detect in CMOS, .
. regular format D
SCSI
Ejumper properly, partition, low level format, .
. high level format E
None of the above
.
Answer: Option B
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Explanation:
Report
20 Which type of cable is most likely in use with
. rj-45 connectors? 23 What would you ask to determine if the display
A . is working?
10base2
. AIs there a video cursor or action on the
B . screen?
10base5
. B
Did the computer beep or chime?
C .
10baseT
. C
Is there high voltage static on the screen
D .
10baseFL
. DIs the brightness or contrast turned up or
E . down?
None of the above
. E
All of the above
.
Answer: Option C
21 To prevent toner from sticking to a laser Answer: Option E
. printer's heat rollers, apply which of the
following: Explanation:
A
Alcohol
Oil
CAmmonia Report
177
Report
24 You should never put floppy drives, hard
. drives, or even VCR tapes or cassette tapes on 27 RS-232 is a standard that applies to?
top of speakers (or near any other source of . A
Parallel port
magnetism) because of: .
A B
RFI Serial port
. .
B C
EMI Game port
. .
C D
EXE All of the above
. .
D E
FYI None of the above
. .
E
IOU
. Answer: Option B

Report 28 Your modem does not respond when you try to
. dial out. You try another modem on another
25 How many bits in a byte? computer and get the same result. What is the
. A most likely problem?
16
. A
defective modem
B .
8
. B
defective computer
C .
255
. C
software bug
D .
10
. D
bad phone line
E .
2 to the 9th power
. E
virus
.
Answer: Option B
26 What is the result of adding an IP address to Answer: Option D
. the DNS server search order
A Explanation:
It restricts browsing to that DNS server
.
It overrides the local systems IP address
CIt tells the DNS Server where the local system View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
. is located Report
DIt tells the local system where the DNS Server
. is located 29 You suspect a virus has entered your computer.
E . What will not be affected by the virus?
None of the above
. A
CMOS
.
Answer: Option D B
Boot sector
.
Explanation: C
Floppy disks
.
Program files
View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace ENone of the above
178
. .
Answer: Option A Answer: Option B
Report Report
30 How would you allow device drivers and TSR's 33 In inkjet technology the droplets of ink are
. to be loaded into Upper Memory Blocks ? . deflected by?
A A
DOS=High Electrically Charge Plate
. .
B B
devicehigh= Multi directional nozzle
. .
C C
loadhigh= High pressure jets
. .
D D
DOS=UMB All of the above
. .
E E
. .
Answer: Option D Answer: Option A

31 Which is the easiest component to
. environmentally recycle? Explanation:
A
Motherboards
CMOS batteries
C Report
Toner cartridges
.
D 34 With a dot matrix printer, light then dark print
Cathode ray tubes
. . is most commonly caused by:
E A
None of the above Erratic paper advancement
. .
B
Answer: Option C Erratic ribbon advancement
.
C
Misaligned print head
Explanation: .
D
Overheating print head
None of the above
Report
Answer: Option B
32 When connecting a ribbon cable to a connector,
. how do you know which direction to plug it in? Explanation:
AThe red line in the cable goes to the highest
. pin number No answer description available for this
The colored line in the cable goes to pin #1
C Report
It does not matter
.
DThe blue or red line in the cable goes away 35 RTS stands for:
. from the power connector . A
ENone of the above ready to start
.
179
B .
ready to switch
. B
CMOS
C .
request to send
. C
the OS
D .
request to scan
. D
configuration software
E .
ready to set
. E
None of the above
.
Answer: Option C
36 To install a second IDE drive into a computer, Answer: Option D
. you must:
ASet the master-slave jumper to slave on the Explanation:
. second drive
BUse the IDE configuration software to set the No answer description available for this
. new drive as slave question. Let us discuss.
CVerify that you define the new drive as D: in View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
. the CMOS setup Report
DVerity that you attach the drive to the
. connector at the end of the ribbon cable 39 MSD exe does not have information on:
E . A
None of the above cache
. .
B
Answer: Option A video
.
C
operation system
Explanation: .
D
com ports
None of the above
Report
Answer: Option A
37 What can you use to ensure power is not
. interrupted, resulting in corrupted data? Explanation:
A
UPS
Proper grounding
C Report
Surge protector
.
DNuclear powered thermal protective 40 What command is used to hang up a MODEM
. underwear . when using the "AT Command set"?
E A
None of the above ATZ
. .
B
Answer: Option A ATD
.
C
ATR
Explanation: .
D
ATH
None of the above
Report
Answer: Option D
38 When configuring is a network interface cards 41 Current is measured in units of:
. without jumpers or plug and play, what is used . A
volts
to set the IRQs? .
ADMA Bamps
180
C Report
ohms
.
D 44 You are testing the resistance in Ohms of a fuse
farads
. . on a 2 amp system. If the fuse is good, the meter
E should read?
diodes
. A
0.0
.
Answer: Option B B
0.2
.
Explanation: C
5.0
.
2.0
None of the above
Report .
42 The standard IRQ for the floppy drive is? Answer: Option A
. A
9 Explanation:
.
B
6
10
D Report
All of the above
.
E 45 To find out how much memory is available,
None of the above
. . you could type _____
A
EMM
Answer: Option B .
B
MEM
Explanation: .
C
CHKDSK
MEMMAKER
Report E
None of the above
.
43 A keyboard locks up intermittently even when
. replaced with a new keyboard. What is the Answer: Option B
LEAST likely cause of the problem? 46 IBM's Micro Channel Architecture (MCA)
A . specifies which type of the following bit access
A second bad keyboard widths?
.
B A
The keyboard controller chip 8 bit & 16 bit
. .
C B
The keyboard connector 16 bit & 24 bit
. .
D C
The motherboard 16 bit & 32 bit
. .
E D
None of the above 32 bit & 64 bit
. .
E
None of the above
Answer: Option A .

181
None of the above
Report
Answer: Option B
47 What is the best ground for a conductive work
. bench? Explanation:
A
AC outlet
Ground to bend
C Report
To another device
.
D 50 Match the device driver HIMEM.SYS to its
Chassis ground
. . operation.
E A
None of the above Supports (ANSI) terminal emulation
. .
B
Answer: Option A Manages the use of extended memory
.
C
Explanation: Uses expanded memory on a 80386 processor
.
D
Supports code page switching
None of the above
Report
Answer: Option B
48 What could cause a fixed disk error? 51 Upper Memory blocks are located where?
. A . A
CDROM drive not installed Conventional Memory
. .
B B
Incorrect CMOS settings Extended Memory
. .
C C
Incorrect RAM settings Expanded memory
. .
D D
All of the above Reserved Memory
. .
E E
. .
Report Report
49 A PC with a 486DX2 processor runs internally 52 The output voltages of a PC power supply are
. at 50Mhz. What speed would its external logic . in the form of _____ current.
be running? A
A AC
l0Mhz .
. B
B DC
25Mhz .
. C
C amperage
50Mhz .
. D
D100 Mhz resistive
.
182
E 55 In laser printing, there are six steps the printer
trickle
. . follows. What comes between the conditioning
phase and the developing phase?
Answer: Option B A
transfer phase
.
Explanation: B
writing phase
.
fusing phase
cleaning phase
Report .
E
All of the above
53 After doing a low-level format, what would be .
. the next step in configuring the hard drive in a
system? Answer: Option B
A 56 During the laser printer's conditioning phase a
Format DOS partition . uniform charge of _____ is placed on the
.
B photosensitive drum.
Install operating system A
. +1000 volt
CConfigure DMA channel and back-up .
. interrupt B
+600 volts
D .
Partition hard disk C
. -600 volts
E .
None of the above D
. -1000 volts
.
Answer: Option D E
+ 12 volts
.
Explanation:
Answer: Option C
question. Let us discuss. Explanation:
Report No answer description available for this
54 After trying to unload a TSR, you get an error View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace
. message saying that other TSRs were loaded Report
after the one you tried to remove. Which of the
following commands could you use to see the 57 A dialog box with a bomb appears oh a
current load order? . Macintosh screen. What type of problem has
A occurred?
MEM /P A
. A RAM problem
B .
MEMMAKER B
. A software problem
C .
MEM /C (A SYS: C
. A ROM problem
D .
None of the above D
. An ADB problem
.
Answer: Option C E
None of the above
.
Explanation:
Answer: Option B
question. Let us discuss. Computer Architecture:
Report 1. The ______ format is usually used to store data.
a) BCD
183
b) Decimal are compared to RAM because they optimize the
c) Hexadecimal performance of the system and they only keep files
d) Octal which are required by the current process in them
View Answer
6. The ALU makes use of _______ to store the
Answer: a intermediate results.
Explanation: The data usually used by computers a) Accumulators
have to be stored and represented in a particular b) Registers
format for ease of use. c) Heap
d) Stack
2. The 8-bit encoding format used to store data in View Answer
a computer is ______
a) ASCII Answer: a
b) EBCDIC Explanation: The ALU is the computational center
c) ANCI of the CPU. It performs all the mathematical and
d) USCII logical operations. In order to perform better, it
View Answer uses some internal memory spaces to store
immediate results.
Answer: b
Explanation: The data to be stored in the 7. The control unit controls other units by
computers have to be encoded in a particular way generating ____
so as to provide secure processing of the data. a) Control signals
b) Timing signals
3. A source program is usually in _______ c) Transfer signals
a) Assembly language d) Command Signals
b) Machine level language View Answer
c) High-level language
d) Natural language Answer: b
View Answer Explanation: This unit is used to control and
coordinate between the various parts and
Answer: c components of the CPU.
Explanation: The program written and before being
compiled or assembled is called as a source 8. ______ are numbers and encoded characters,
program. generally used as operands.
a) Input
4. Which memory device is generally made of b) Data
semiconductors? c) Information
a) RAM d) Stored Values
b) Hard-disk View Answer
c) Floppy disk
d) Cd disk Answer: b
View Answer Explanation: None.
Answer: a 9. The Input devices can send information to the

Explanation: Memory devices are usually made of processor.
semiconductors for faster manipulation of the a) When the SIN status flag is set
contents. b) When the data arrives regardless of the SIN flag
c) Neither of the cases
5. The small extremely fast, RAM’s are called as d) Either of the cases
_______ View Answer
a) Cache
b) Heaps Answer: a
c) Accumulators Explanation: The input devices use buffers to store
d) Stacks the data received and when the buffer has some
View Answer data it sends it to the processor.
Answer: a 10. ______ bus structure is usually used to

Explanation: These small and fast memory devices connect I/O devices.
184
a) Single bus when a memory function is completed by a
b) Multiple bus process.
c) Star bus
d) Rambus 15. The time delay between two successive
View Answer initiation of memory operation _______
a) Memory access time
Answer: a b) Memory search time
Explanation: BUS is a bunch of wires which carry c) Memory cycle time
address, control signals and data. It is used to d) Instruction delay
connect various components of the computer. View Answer
11. The I/O interface required to connect the I/O Answer: c

device to the bus consists of ______ Explanation: The time is taken to finish one task
a) Address decoder and registers and to start another.
b) Control circuits
c) Address decoder, registers and Control circuits
d) Only Control circuits 1. The decoded instruction is stored in ______
View Answer a) IR
b) PC
Answer: c c) Registers
Explanation: The I/O devices are connected to the d) MDR
CPU via BUS and to interact with the BUS they View Answer
have an interface.
Answer: a
12. To reduce the memory access time we Explanation: The instruction after obtained from
generally make use of ______ the PC, is decoded and operands are fetched and
a) Heaps stored in the IR.
b) Higher capacity RAM’s
c) SDRAM’s 2. The instruction -> Add LOCA, R0 does
d) Cache’s _______
View Answer a) Adds the value of LOCA to R0 and stores in the
temp register
Answer: d b) Adds the value of R0 to the address of LOCA
Explanation: The time required to access a part of c) Adds the values of both LOCA and R0 and
the memory for data retrieval. stores it in R0
advertisement d) Adds the value of LOCA with a value in
accumulator and stores it in R0
13. ______ is generally used to increase the View Answer
apparent size of physical memory.
a) Secondary memory Answer: c
b) Virtual memory Explanation: None.
c) Hard-disk
d) Disks 3. Which registers can interact with the secondary
View Answer storage?
a) MAR
Answer: b b) PC
Explanation: Virtual memory is like an extension c) IR
to the existing memory. d) R0
View Answer
14. MFC stands for ___________
a) Memory Format Caches Answer: a
b) Memory Function Complete Explanation: MAR can interact with secondary
c) Memory Find Command storage in order to fetch data from it.
d) Mass Format Command
View Answer 4. During the execution of a program which gets
initialized first?
Answer: b a) MDR
Explanation: This is a system command enabled b) IR
185
c) PC 9. The registers, ALU and the interconnection
d) MAR between them are collectively called as _____
View Answer a) process route
b) information trail
Answer: c c) information path
Explanation: For the execution of a process first d) data path
the instruction is placed in the PC. View Answer
5. Which of the register/s of the processor is/are Answer: d

connected to Memory Bus? Explanation: The Operational and processing part
a) PC of the CPU are collectively called as a data path.
b) MAR
c) IR 10. _______ is used to store data in registers.
d) Both PC and MAR a) D flip flop
View Answer b) JK flip flop
c) RS flip flop
Answer: b d) None of the mentioned
Explanation: MAR is connected to the memory View Answer
BUS in order to access the memory
Answer: a
6. ISP stands for _________ Explanation: None.
a) Instruction Set Processor
b) Information Standard Processing
c) Interchange Standard Protocol 1. The main virtue for using single Bus structure
d) Interrupt Service Procedure is ____________
View Answer a) Fast data transfers
b) Cost effective connectivity and speed
Answer: a c) Cost effective connectivity and ease of attaching
Explanation: None. peripheral devices
d) None of the mentioned
7. The internal Components of the processor are View Answer
connected by _______
a) Processor intra-connectivity circuitry Answer: c
b) Processor bus Explanation: By using a single BUS structure we
c) Memory bus can minimize the amount of hardware (wire)
d) Rambus required and thereby reducing the cost.
View Answer
2. ______ are used to overcome the difference in
Answer: b data transfer speeds of various devices.
Explanation: The processor BUS is used to connect a) Speed enhancing circuitory
the various parts in order to provide a direct b) Bridge circuits
connection to the CPU. c) Multiple Buses
d) Buffer registers
8. ______ is used to choose between incrementing View Answer
the PC or performing ALU operations.
a) Conditional codes Answer: d
b) Multiplexer Explanation: By using Buffer registers, the
c) Control unit processor sends the data to the I/O device at the
d) None of the mentioned processor speed and the data gets stored in the
View Answer buffer. After that the data gets sent to or from the
buffer to the devices at the device speed.
Answer: b
Explanation: The multiplexer circuit is used to 3. To extend the connectivity of the processor bus
choose between the two as it can give different we use ________
results based on the input. a) PCI bus
b) SCSI bus
c) Controllers
186
d) Multiple bus b) Register file
View Answer c) Register Block
d) Map registers
Explanation: PCI BUS is used to connect other
peripheral devices which require a direct Answer: b
connection with the processor. Explanation: None.
4. IBM developed a bus standard for their line of 9. The main advantage of multiple bus
computers ‘PC AT’ called _____ organisation over a single bus is _____
a) IB bus a) Reduction in the number of cycles for execution
b) M-bus b) Increase in size of the registers
c) ISA c) Better Connectivity
d) None of the mentioned d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c Answer: a
Explanation: None. Explanation: None.
5. The bus used to connect the monitor to the CPU 10. The ISA standard Buses are used to connect
is ______ ___________
a) PCI bus a) RAM and processor
b) SCSI bus b) GPU and processor
c) Memory bus c) Harddisk and Processor
d) Rambus d) CD/DVD drives and Processor
Answer: b Answer: c
Explanation: SCSI BUS is usually used to connect Explanation: None.
the video devices to the processor.
1. During the execution of the instructions, a copy
6. ANSI stands for __________ of the instructions is placed in the ______
a) American National Standards Institute a) Register
b) American National Standard Interface b) RAM
c) American Network Standard Interfacing c) System heap
d) American Network Security Interrupt d) Cache
Answer: a Answer: d
7. _____ register Connected to the Processor bus 2. Two processors A and B have clock
is a single-way transfer capable. frequencies of 700 Mhz and 900 Mhz respectively.
a) PC Suppose A can execute an instruction with an
b) IR average of 3 steps and B can execute with an
c) Temp average of 5 steps. For the execution of the same
d) Z instruction which processor is faster?
View Answer a) A
b) B
Answer: d c) Both take the same time
Explanation: The Z register is a special register d) Insufficient information
which can interact with the processor BUS only. View Answer
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Answer: a
8. In multiple Bus organisation, the registers are Explanation: The performance of a system can be
collectively placed and referred as ______ found out using the Basic performance formula.
a) Set registers
187
3. A processor performing fetch or decoding of operation speed of the processor by reducing the
different instruction during the execution of time taken to compile the program instructions.
another instruction is called ______
a) Super-scaling 7. The ultimate goal of a compiler is to ________
b) Pipe-lining a) Reduce the clock cycles for a programming task
c) Parallel Computation b) Reduce the size of the object code
d) None of the mentioned c) Be versatile
View Answer d) Be able to detect even the smallest of errors
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Pipe-lining is the process of Answer: a
improving the performance of the system by Explanation: None.
processing different instructions at the same time,
with only one instruction performing one specific 8. SPEC stands for _______
operation. a) Standard Performance Evaluation Code
b) System Processing Enhancing Code
4. For a given FINITE number of instructions to c) System Performance Evaluation Corporation
be executed, which architecture of the processor d) Standard Processing Enhancement Corporation
provides for a faster execution? View Answer
a) ISA
b) ANSA Answer: c
c) Super-scalar Explanation: SPEC is a corporation started to
d) All of the mentioned standardize the evaluation method of a system’s
View Answer performance.
Answer: c 9. As of 2000, the reference system to find the

Explanation: In super-scalar architecture, the performance of a system is _____
instructions are set in groups and they’re decoded a) Ultra SPARC 10
and executed together reducing the amount of time b) SUN SPARC
required to process them. c) SUN II
5. The clock rate of the processor can be View Answer
improved by _________
a) Improving the IC technology of the logic Answer: a
circuits Explanation: In SPEC system of measuring a
b) Reducing the amount of processing done in one system’s performance, a system is used as a
step reference against which other systems are
c) By using the overclocking method compared and performance is determined.
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer 10. When Performing a looping operation, the
instruction gets stored in the ______
Answer: d a) Registers
Explanation: The clock rate(frequency of the b) Cache
processor) is the hardware dependent quantity it is c) System Heap
fixed for a given processor. d) System stack
View Answer
6. An optimizing Compiler does _________
a) Better compilation of the given piece of code Answer: b
b) Takes advantage of the type of processor and Explanation: When a looping or branching
reduces its process time operation is carried out the offset value is stored in
c) Does better memory management the cache along with the data.
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer 11. The average number of steps taken to execute
the set of instructions can be made to be less than
Answer: b one by following _______
Explanation: An optimizing compiler is a compiler a) ISA
designed for the specific purpose of increasing the b) Pipe-lining
c) Super-scaling
188
d) Sequential Answer: b
Answer: c 1. The instruction, Add #45,R1 does _______

Explanation: The number of steps required to a) Adds the value of 45 to the address of R1 and
execute a given set of instructions is sufficiently stores 45 in that address
reduced by using super-scaling. In this method, a b) Adds 45 to the value of R1 and stores it in R1
set of instructions are grouped together and are c) Finds the memory location 45 and adds that
processed. content to that of R1
12. If a processor clock is rated as 1250 million View Answer
cycles per second, then its clock period is
________ Answer: b
a) 1.9 * 10-10 sec Explanation: The instruction is using immediate
b) 1.6 * 10-9 sec addressing mode hence the value is stored in the
c) 1.25 * 10-10 sec location 45 is added.
d) 8 * 10-10 sec
View Answer 2. In the case of, Zero-address instruction method
the operands are stored in _____
Answer: d a) Registers
Explanation: None. b) Accumulators
advertisement c) Push down stack
d) Cache
13. If the instruction, Add R1, R2, R3 is executed View Answer
in a system which is pipe-lined, then the value of S
is (Where S is a term of the Basic performance Answer: c
equation) Explanation: In this case, the operands are
a) 3 implicitly loaded onto the ALU.
b) ~2
c) ~1 3. Add #45, when this instruction is executed the
d) 6 following happen/s _______
View Answer a) The processor raises an error and requests for
one more operand
Answer: c b) The value stored in memory location 45 is
Explanation: S is the number of steps required to retrieved and one more operand is requested
execute the instructions. c) The value 45 gets added to the value on the
stack and is pushed onto the stack
14. CISC stands for _______ d) None of the mentioned
a) Complete Instruction Sequential Compilation View Answer
b) Computer Integrated Sequential Compiler
c) Complex Instruction Set Computer Answer: b
d) Complex Instruction Sequential Compilation Explanation: None.
View Answer
4. The addressing mode which makes use of in-
Answer: c direction pointers is ______
Explanation: CISC is a type of system architecture a) Indirect addressing mode
where complex instructions are grouped together b) Index addressing mode
and executed to improve the system performance. c) Relative addressing mode
d) Offset addressing mode
15. As of 2000, the reference system to find the View Answer
SPEC rating are built with _____ Processor.
a) Intel Atom SParc 300Mhz Answer: a
b) Ultra SPARC -IIi 300MHZ Explanation: In this addressing mode, the value of
c) Amd Neutrino series the register serves as another memory location and
d) ASUS A series 450 Mhz hence we use pointers to get the data.
View Answer
5. In the following indexed addressing mode
instruction, MOV 5(R1),LOC the effective address
189
is ______ c) 5+[R1]+[R2].
a) EA = 5+R1 d) 5*([R1]+[R2])
b) EA = R1 View Answer
c) EA = [R1].
d) EA = 5+[R1]. Answer: c
View Answer Explanation: The addressing mode used is base
with offset and index.
Answer: d
Explanation: This instruction is in Base with offset 10. _____ addressing mode is most suitable to
addressing mode. change the normal sequence of execution of
instructions.
6. The addressing mode/s, which uses the PC a) Relative
instead of a general purpose register is ______ b) Indirect
a) Indexed with offset c) Index with Offset
b) Relative d) Immediate
c) direct View Answer
d) both Indexed with offset and direct
Explanation: The relative addressing mode is used
Answer: b for this since it directly updates the PC.
Explanation: In this, the contents of the PC are
directly incremented. 1. Which method/s of representation of numbers
occupies a large amount of memory than others?
7. When we use auto increment or auto a) Sign-magnitude
decrements, which of the following is/are true? b) 1’s complement
1) In both, the address is used to retrieve the c) 2’s complement
operand and then the address gets altered d) 1’s & 2’s compliment
2) In auto increment, the operand is retrieved first View Answer
and then the address altered
3) Both of them can be used on general purpose Answer: a
registers as well as memory locations Explanation: It takes more memory as one bit used
a) 1, 2, 3 up to store the sign.
b) 2
c) 1, 3 2. Which representation is most efficient to
d) 2, 3 perform arithmetic operations on the numbers?
View Answer a) Sign-magnitude
b) 1’s complement
Answer: d c) 2’S complement
Explanation: In the case of, auto increment the d) None of the mentioned
increment is done afterward and in auto decrement View Answer
the decrement is done first.
advertisement Answer: c
Explanation: The two’s complement form is more
8. The addressing mode, where you directly suitable to perform arithmetic operations as there is
specify the operand value is _______ no need to involve the sign of the number into
a) Immediate consideration.
b) Direct
c) Definite 3. Which method of representation has two
d) Relative representations for ‘0’?
View Answer a) Sign-magnitude
b) 1’s complement
Answer: a c) 2’s complement
Explanation: None. d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
9. The effective address of the following
instruction is MUL 5(R1,R2). Answer: a
a) 5+R1+R2 Explanation: One is positive and one for negative.
b) 5+(R1*R2)
190
4. When we perform subtraction on -7 and 1 the d) Log register
answer in 2’s complement form is _________ View Answer
a) 1010
b) 1110 Answer: b
c) 0110 Explanation: The status register stores the
d) 1000 condition codes of the system.
View Answer
9. The Flag ‘V’ is set to 1 indicates that,
Answer: d a) The operation is valid
Explanation: First the 2’s complement is found and b) The operation is validated
that is added to the number and the overflow is c) The operation has resulted in an overflow
ignored. d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
5. When we perform subtraction on -7 and -5 the
answer in 2’s complement form is ________ Answer: c
a) 11110 Explanation: This is used to check the overflow
b) 1110 occurs in the operation.
c) 1010
d) 0010 10. In some pipelined systems, a different
View Answer instruction is used to add to numbers which can
affect the flags upon execution. That instruction is
Answer: b _______
Explanation: First the 2’s complement is found and a) AddSetCC
that is added to the number and the overflow is b) AddCC
ignored. c) Add++
d) SumSetCC
6. When we subtract -3 from 2 , the answer in 2’s View Answer
complement form is _________
a) 0001 Answer: a
b) 1101 Explanation: By using this instruction the
c) 0101 condition flags won’t be affected at all.
d) 1001
View Answer 11. The most efficient method followed by
computers to multiply two unsigned numbers is
Answer: c _______
Explanation: First the 2’s complement is found and a) Booth algorithm
that is added to the number and the overflow is b) Bit pair recording of multipliers
ignored. c) Restoring algorithm
d) Non restoring algorithm
7. The processor keeps track of the results of its View Answer
operations using a flags called ________
a) Conditional code flags Answer: b
b) Test output flags Explanation: None.
c) Type flags
d) None of the mentioned 12. For the addition of large integers, most of the
View Answer systems make use of ______
a) Fast adders
Answer: a b) Full adders
Explanation: These flags are used to indicate if c) Carry look-ahead adders
there is an overflow or carry or zero result d) None of the mentioned
occurrence. View Answer
8. The register used to store the flags is called as Answer: c

_________ Explanation: In this method the carries for each
a) Flag register step are generated first.
b) Status register advertisement
c) Test register
191
13. In a normal n-bit adder, to find out if an 3. An 24 bit address generates an address space of
overflow as occurred we make use of ________ ______ locations.
a) And gate a) 1024
b) Nand gate b) 4096
c) Nor gate c) 248
d) Xor gate d) 16,777,216
Answer: d Answer: d
Explanation: None. Explanation: The number of addressable locations
in the system is called as address space.
14. In the implementation of a Multiplier circuit in
the system we make use of _______ 4. If a system is 64 bit machine, then the length of
a) Counter each word will be _______
b) Flip flop a) 4 bytes
c) Shift register b) 8 bytes
d) Push down stack c) 16 bytes
View Answer d) 12 bytes
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The shift registers are used to store Answer: b
the multiplied answer. Explanation: A 64 bit system means, that at a time
64 bit instruction can be executed.
15. When 1101 is used to divide 100010010 the
remainder is ______ 5. The type of memory assignment used in Intel
a) 101 processors is _____
b) 11 a) Little Endian
c) 0 b) Big Endian
d) 1 c) Medium Endian
View Answer d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None. Answer: a
Explanation: The method of address allocation to
1. The smallest entity of memory is called data to be stored is called as memory assignment.
_______
a) Cell 6. When using the Big Endian assignment to store
b) Block a number, the sign bit of the number is stored in
c) Instance _____
d) Unit a) The higher order byte of the word
View Answer b) The lower order byte of the word
c) Can’t say
Answer: a d) None of the mentioned
Explanation: Each data is made up of a number of View Answer
units.
Answer: a
2. The collection of the above mentioned entities Explanation: None.
where data is stored is called ______
a) Block 7. To get the physical address from the logical
b) Set address generated by CPU we use ____
c) Word a) MAR
d) Byte b) MMU
View Answer c) Overlays
d) TLB
Explanation: Each readable part of data is called as
blocks. Answer: b
Explanation: Memory Management Unit, is used to
192
add the offset to the logical address generated by b) !
the CPU to get the physical address. c) $
advertisement d) *
View Answer
8. _____ method is used to map logical addresses
of variable length onto physical memory. Answer: c
a) Paging Explanation: None.
b) Overlays
c) Segmentation 3. When generating physical addresses from a
d) Paging with segmentation logical address the offset is stored in _____
View Answer a) Translation look-aside buffer
b) Relocation register
Answer: c c) Page table
Explanation: Segmentation is a process in which d) Shift register
memory is divided into groups of variable length View Answer
called segments.
Answer: b
9. During the transfer of data between the Explanation: In the MMU the relocation register
processor and memory we use ______ stores the offset address.
a) Cache
b) TLB 4. The technique used to store programs larger
c) Buffers than the memory is ______
d) Registers a) Overlays
View Answer b) Extension registers
c) Buffers
Answer: d d) Both Extension registers and Buffers
Explanation: None. View Answer
10. Physical memory is divided into sets of finite Answer: a

size called as ______ Explanation: In this, only a part of the program
a) Frames getting executed is stored on the memory and later
b) Pages swapped in for the other part.
c) Blocks
d) Vectors 5. The unit which acts as an intermediate agent
View Answer between memory and backing store to reduce
process time is _____
Answer: a a) TLB’s
Explanation: None. b) Registers
c) Page tables
1. Add #%01011101,R1 , when this instruction is d) Cache
executed then _________ View Answer
a) The binary addition between the operands takes
place Answer: d
b) The Numerical value represented by the binary Explanation: The cache’s help in data transfers by
value is added to the value of R1 storing most recently used memory pages.
c) The addition doesn’t take place, whereas this is
similar to a MOV instruction 6. The Load instruction does the following
d) None of the mentioned operation/s,
View Answer a) Loads the contents of a disc onto a memory
location
Answer: a b) Loads the contents of a location onto the
Explanation: This performs operations in binary accumulators
mode directly. c) Load the contents of the PCB onto the register
2. If we want to perform memory or arithmetic View Answer
operations on data in Hexa-decimal mode then we
use ___ symbol before the operand. Answer: b
a) ~ Explanation: The load instruction is basically used
193
to load the contents of a memory location onto a Answer:a
register. Explanation: This is the way of writing the
assembly language code with the help of register
7. Complete the following analogy:- Registers are notations.
to RAM’s as Cache’s are to _____
a) System stacks 2. The instruction, Add Loc,R1 in RTN is
b) Overlays _______
c) Page Table a) AddSetCC Loc+R1
d) TLB b) R1=Loc+R1
View Answer c) Not possible to write in RTN
d) R1<-[Loc]+[R1].
Explanation: None.
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Explanation: None.
8. The BOOT sector files of the system are stored
in _____ 3. Can you perform addition on three operands
a) Harddisk simultaneously in ALN using Add instruction?
b) ROM a) Yes
c) RAM b) Not possible using Add, we’ve to use AddSetCC
d) Fast solid state chips in the motherboard c) Not permitted
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The files which are required for the Answer:c
starting up of a system are stored on the ROM. Explanation: You cannot perform addition on three
operands simultaneously because the third operand
9. The transfer of large chunks of data with the is where the result is stored.
involvement of the processor is done by _______
a) DMA controller 4. The instruction, Add R1,R2,R3 in RTN is
b) Arbitrator _______
c) User system programs a) R3=R1+R2+R3
d) None of the mentioned b) R3<-[R1]+[R2]+[R3].
View Answer c) R3=[R1]+[R2].
d) R3<-[R1]+[R2].
Explanation: This mode of transfer involves the
transfer of a large block of data from the memory. Answer:d
Explanation: In RTN the first operand is the
10. Which of the following technique/s used to destination and the second operand is the source.
effectively utilize main memory?
a) Address binding 5. In a system, which has 32 registers the register
b) Dynamic linking id is ____ long.
c) Dynamic loading a) 16 bit
d) Both Dynamic linking and loading b) 8 bits
View Answer c) 5 bits
d) 6 bits
Explanation: In this method only when the routine
is required is loaded and hence saves memory. Answer:c
Explanation: The ID is the name tag given to each
1. RTN stands for ___________ of the registers and used to identify them.
a) Register Transfer Notation
b) Register Transmission Notation 6. The two phases of executing an instruction are
c) Regular Transmission Notation __________
d) Regular Transfer Notation a) Instruction decoding and storage
View Answer b) Instruction fetch and instruction execution
c) Instruction execution and storage
194
d) Instruction fetch and Instruction processing Answer:c
View Answer Explanation: This condition flag is used to check if
the arithmetic operation yields a zero output
Answer:b
Explanation: First, the instructions are fetched and 1. ____ converts the programs written in assembly
decoded and then they’re executed and stored. language into machine instructions.
a) Machine compiler
7. The Instruction fetch phase ends with b) Interpreter
_________ c) Assembler
a) Placing the data from the address in MAR into d) Converter
MDR View Answer
b) Placing the address of the data into MAR
c) Completing the execution of the data and Answer: c
placing its storage address into MAR Explanation: An assembler is a software used to
d) Decoding the data in MDR and placing it in IR convert the programs into machine instructions.
View Answer
2. The instructions like MOV or ADD are called
Answer:d as ______
Explanation: The fetch ends with the instruction a) OP-Code
getting decoded and being placed in the IR and the b) Operators
PC getting incremented. c) Commands
advertisement d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
8. While using the iterative construct (Branching)
in execution ____ instruction is used to check the Answer: a
condition. Explanation: This OP – codes tell the system what
a) TestAndSet operation to perform on the operands.
b) Branch
c) TestCondn 3. The alternate way of writing the instruction,
d) None of the mentioned ADD #5,R1 is ______
View Answer a) ADD [5],[R1];
b) ADDI 5,R1;
Answer:b c) ADDIME 5,[R1];
Explanation: Branch instruction is used to check d) There is no other way
the test condition and to perform the memory jump View Answer
with help of offset.
Answer: b
9. When using Branching, the usual sequencing of Explanation: The ADDI instruction, means the
the PC is altered. A new instruction is loaded addition is in immediate addressing mode.
which is called as ______
a) Branch target 4. Instructions which won’t appear in the object
b) Loop target program are called as _____
c) Forward target a) Redundant instructions
d) Jump instruction b) Exceptions
View Answer c) Comments
d) Assembler Directives
Answer:a View Answer
Explanation: None.
Answer: d
10. The condition flag Z is set to 1 to indicate Explanation: The directives help the program in
_______ getting compiled and hence wont be there in the
a) The operation has resulted in an error object code.
b) The operation requires an interrupt call
c) The result is zero 5. The assembler directive EQU, when used in the
d) There is no empty register available instruction: Sum EQU 200 does ________
View Answer a) Finds the first occurrence of Sum and assigns
value 200 to it
b) Replaces every occurrence of Sum with 200
195
c) Re-assigns the address of Sum by adding 200 to 10. The last statement of the source program
its original address should be _______
d) Assigns 200 bytes of memory starting the a) Stop
location of Sum b) Return
View Answer c) OP
d) End
Explanation: This basically is used to replace the
variable with a constant value. Answer: d
Explanation: This enables the processor to load
6. The purpose of the ORIGIN directive is some other process.
__________
a) To indicate the starting position in memory, 11. When dealing with the branching code the
where the program block is to be stored assembler ___________
b) To indicate the starting of the computation code a) Replaces the target with its address
c) To indicate the purpose of the code b) Does not replace until the test condition is
d) To list the locations of all the registers used satisfied
View Answer c) Finds the Branch offset and replaces the Branch
target with it
Answer: a d) Replaces the target with the value specified by
Explanation: This does the function similar to the the DATAWORD directive
main statement. View Answer
7. The directive used to perform initialization Answer: c

before the execution of the code is ______ Explanation: When the assembler comes across the
a) Reserve branch code, it immediately finds the branch offset
b) Store and replaces it with it.
c) Dataword
d) EQU 12. The assembler stores all the names and their
View Answer corresponding values in ______
a) Special purpose Register
Answer: c b) Symbol Table
Explanation: None. c) Value map Set
8. _____ directive is used to specify and assign View Answer
the memory required for the block of code.
a) Allocate Answer: b
b) Assign Explanation: The table where the assembler stores
c) Set the variable names along with their corresponding
d) Reserve memory locations and values.
View Answer advertisement
Answer: d 13. The assembler stores the object code in

Explanation: This instruction is used to allocate a ______
block of memory and to store the object code of a) Main memory
the program there. b) Cache
c) RAM
9. _____ directive specifies the end of execution d) Magnetic disk
of a program. View Answer
a) End
b) Return Answer: d
c) Stop Explanation: After compiling the object code, the
d) Terminate assembler stores it in the magnetic disk and waits
View Answer for further execution.
Answer: b 14. The utility program used to bring the object

Explanation: This instruction directive is used to code into memory for execution is ______
terminate the program execution. a) Loader
196
b) Fetcher 4. The order in which the return addresses are
c) Extractor generated and used is _________
d) Linker a) LIFO
View Answer b) FIFO
c) Random
Answer: a d) Highest priority
Explanation: The program which is used to load View Answer
the program into memory.
Answer: a
15. To overcome the problems of the assembler in Explanation: That is the routine called first is
dealing with branching code we use _____ returned first.
a) Interpreter
b) Debugger 5. In case of nested subroutines the return
c) Op-Assembler addresses are stored in __________
d) Two-pass assembler a) System heap
View Answer b) Special memory buffers
c) Processor stack
Answer: d d) Registers
Explanation: This creates entries into the symbol View Answer
table first and then creates the object code.
Answer: c
1. The return address of the Sub-routine is pointed Explanation: In this case, there will be more
to by _______ number of return addresses it is stored on the
a) IR processor stack.
b) PC
c) MAR 6. The appropriate return addresses are obtained
d) Special memory registers with the help of ____ in case of nested routines.
View Answer a) MAR
b) MDR
Answer: b c) Buffers
Explanation: The return address from the d) Stack-pointers
subroutine is pointed to by the PC. View Answer
2. The location to return to, from the subroutine is Answer: d

stored in _______ Explanation: The pointers are used to point to the
a) TLB location on the stack where the address is stored.
b) PC
c) MAR 7. When parameters are being passed on to the
d) Link registers subroutines they are stored in ________
View Answer a) Registers
b) Memory locations
Answer: d c) Processor stacks
Explanation: The registers store the return address d) All of the mentioned
of the routine and is pointed to by the PC. View Answer
3. Subroutine nesting means, Answer: d

a) Having multiple subroutines in a program Explanation: In the case of, parameter passing the
b) Using a linking nest statement to put many data can be stored on any of the storage space.
subroutines under the same name advertisement
c) Having one routine call the other
d) None of the mentioned 8. The most efficient way of handling parameter
View Answer passing is by using ______
a) General purpose registers
Answer: c b) Stacks
Explanation: None. c) Memory locations
View Answer
197
Answer: a 3. ______ pointer is used to point to parameters
Explanation: By using general purpose registers for passed or local parameters of the subroutine.
the parameter passing we make the process more a) Stack pointer
efficient. b) Frame pointer
c) Parameter register
9. The most Flexible way of logging the return d) Log register
addresses of the subroutines is by using _______ View Answer
a) Registers
b) Stacks Answer: b
c) Memory locations Explanation: This pointer is used to track the
d) None of the mentioned current position of the stack being used.
View Answer
4. The reserved memory or private space of the
Answer: b subroutine gets deallocated when _______
Explanation: The stacks are used as Logs for return a) The stop instruction is executed by the routine
addresses of the subroutines. b) The pointer reaches the end of the space
c) When the routine’s return statement is executed
10. The wrong statement/s regarding interrupts d) None of the mentioned
and subroutines among the following is/are ______ View Answer
i) The sub-routine and interrupts have a return
statement Answer: c
ii) Both of them alter the content of the PC Explanation: The work space allocated to a
iii) Both are software oriented subroutine gets deallocated when the routine is
iv) Both can be initiated by the user completed.
a) i, ii and iv
b) ii and iii 5. The private space gets allocated to each
c) iv subroutine when _________
d) iii and iv a) The first statement of the routine is executed
View Answer b) When the context switch takes place
c) When the routine gets called
Answer: d d) When the Allocate instruction is executed
1. The private work space dedicated to a Answer: c

subroutine is called as ________ Explanation: When the call statement is executed,
a) System heap simultaneously space also gets allocated.
b) Reserve
c) Stack frame 6. _____ the most suitable data structure used to
d) Allocation store the return addresses in the case of nested
View Answer subroutines.
a) Heap
Answer: c b) Stack
Explanation: This work space is where the c) Queue
intermediate values of the subroutines are stored. d) List
View Answer
2. If the subroutine exceeds the private space
allocated to it then the values are pushed onto Answer: b
_________ Explanation: None.
a) Stack
b) System heap 7. In case of nested subroutines, the stack top is
c) Reserve Space always _________
d) Stack frame a) The saved contents of the called sub routine
View Answer b) The saved contents of the calling sub routine
c) The return addresses of the called sub routine
Explanation: If the allocated work space is View Answer
exceeded then the data is pushed onto the system
stack.
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Answer: a a) Star BUS structure
Explanation: None. b) Multiple BUS structure
advertisement c) Single BUS structure
d) Node to Node BUS structure
8. The stack frame for each subroutine is present View Answer
in ______
a) Main memory Answer: c
b) System Heap Explanation: BUS is a collection of address,
c) Processor Stack control and data lines used to connect the various
d) None of the mentioned devices of the computer.
View Answer
3. In intel’s IA-32 architecture there is a separate
Answer: c 16 bit address space for the I/O devices?
Explanation: The memory for the work space is a) False
allocated from the processor stack. b) True
View Answer
9. The data structure suitable for scheduling
processes is _______ Answer: b
a) List Explanation: This type of access is called as I/O
b) Heap mapped devices.
c) Queue
d) Stack 4. The advantage of I/O mapped devices to
View Answer memory mapped is ___________
a) The former offers faster transfer of data
Answer: c b) The devices connected using I/O mapping have
Explanation: The Queue data structure is generally a bigger buffer space
used for scheduling as it is two directional. c) The devices have to deal with fewer address
lines
10. The sub-routine service procedure is similar to d) No advantage as such
that of the interrupt service routine in ________ View Answer
a) Method of context switch
b) Returning Answer: c
c) Process execution Explanation: Since the I/O mapped devices have a
d) Method of context switch & Process execution separate address space the address lines are limited
View Answer by the amount of the space allocated.
Answer: d 5. The system is notified of a read or write

Explanation: The Subroutine service procedure is operation by ___________
the same as the interrupt service routine in all a) Appending an extra bit of the address
aspects, except the fact that interrupt might not be b) Enabling the read or write bits of the devices
related to the process being executed. c) Raising an appropriate interrupt signal
d) Sending a special signal along the BUS
1. In memory-mapped I/O ____________ View Answer
a) The I/O devices and the memory share the same
address space Answer: d
b) The I/O devices have a separate address space Explanation: It is necessary for the processor to
c) The memory and I/O devices have an associated send a signal intimating the request as either read
address space or write.
d) A part of the memory is specifically set aside for
the I/O operation 6. To overcome the lag in the operating speeds of
View Answer the I/O device and the processor we use
___________
Answer: a a) BUffer spaces
Explanation: Its the different modes of accessing b) Status flags
the i/o devices. c) Interrupt signals
d) Exceptions
2. The usual BUS structure used to connect the View Answer
I/O devices is ___________
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Answer: b d) Echoing
Explanation: The processor operating is much View Answer
faster than that of the I/O devices, so by using the
status flags the processor need not wait till the I/O Answer: a
operation is done. It can continue with its work Explanation: None.
until the status flag is set.
1. The interrupt-request line is a part of the
7. The method of accessing the I/O devices by a) Data line
repeatedly checking the status flags is b) Control line
___________ c) Address line
a) Program-controlled I/O d) None of the mentioned
b) Memory-mapped I/O View Answer
c) I/O mapped
d) None of the mentioned Answer: b
View Answer Explanation: The Interrupt-request line is a control
line along which the device is allowed to send the
Answer: a interrupt signal.
Explanation: In this method, the processor
constantly checks the status flags, and when it 2. The return address from the interrupt-service
finds that the flag is set it performs the appropriate routine is stored on the
operation. a) System heap
advertisement b) Processor register
c) Processor stack
8. The method of synchronising the processor d) Memory
with the I/O device in which the device sends a View Answer
signal when it is ready is
a) Exceptions Answer: c
b) Signal handling Explanation: The Processor after servicing the
c) Interrupts interrupts as to load the address of the previous
d) DMA process and this address is stored in the stack.
View Answer
3. The signal sent to the device from the processor
Answer: c to the device after receiving an interrupt is
Explanation: This is a method of accessing the I/O a) Interrupt-acknowledge
devices which gives the complete power to the b) Return signal
devices, enabling them to intimate the processor c) Service signal
when they’re ready for transfer. d) Permission signal
View Answer
9. The method which offers higher speeds of I/O
transfers is ___________ Answer: a
a) Interrupts Explanation: The Processor upon receiving the
b) Memory mapping interrupt should let the device know that its request
c) Program-controlled I/O is received.
d) DMA
View Answer 4. When the process is returned after an interrupt
service ______ should be loaded again.
Answer: d i) Register contents
Explanation: In DMA the I/O devices are directly ii) Condition codes
allowed to interact with the memory without the iii) Stack contents
intervention of the processor and the transfers take iv) Return addresses
place in the form of blocks increasing the speed of a) i,iv
operation. b) ii,iii and iv
c) iii,iv
10. The process wherein the processor constantly d) i,ii
checks the status flags is called as View Answer
a) Polling
b) Inspection Answer: d
c) Reviewing Explanation: None.
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5. The time between the receiver of an interrupt d) Line resistor
and its service is ______ View Answer
a) Interrupt delay
b) Interrupt latency Answer: b
c) Cycle time Explanation: This resistor is used to pull up the
d) Switching time voltage of the interrupt service line.
View Answer
10. An interrupt that can be temporarily ignored is
Answer: b a) Vectored interrupt
Explanation: The delay in servicing of an interrupt b) Non-maskable interrupt
happens due to the time is taken for contact switch c) Maskable interrupt
to take place. d) High priority interrupt
View Answer
6. Interrupts form an important part of _____
systems. Answer: c
a) Batch processing Explanation: The maskable interrupts are usually
b) Multitasking low priority interrupts which can be ignored if a
c) Real-time processing higher priority process is being executed.
d) Multi-user
View Answer 11. The 8085 microprocessor responds to the
presence of an interrupt
Answer: c a) As soon as the trap pin becomes ‘LOW’
Explanation: This forms an important part of the b) By checking the trap pin for ‘high’ status at the
Real time system since if a process arrives with end of each instruction fetch
greater priority then it raises an interrupt and the c) By checking the trap pin for ‘high’ status at the
other process is stopped and the interrupt will be end of execution of each instruction
serviced. d) By checking the trap pin for ‘high’ status at
regular intervals
7. A single Interrupt line can be used to service n View Answer
different devices?
a) True Answer: c
b) False Explanation: The 8085 microprocessor are
View Answer designed to complete the execution of the current
instruction and then to service the interrupts.
Answer: a
Explanation: None 12. CPU as two modes privileged and non-
privileged. In order to change the mode from
8. ______ type circuits are generally used for privileged to non-privileged
interrupt service lines a) A hardware interrupt is needed
i) open-collector b) A software interrupt is needed
ii) open-drain c) Either hardware or software interrupt is needed
iii) XOR d) A non-privileged instruction (which does not
iv) XNOR generate an interrupt)is needed
a) i,ii View Answer
b) ii
c) ii,iii Answer: b
d) ii,iv Explanation: A software interrupt by some
View Answer program which needs some CPU service, at that
time the two modes can be interchanged.
Answer: a advertisement
Explanation: None
13. Which interrupt is unmaskable?
9. The resistor which is attached to the service a) RST 5.5
line is called _____ b) RST 7.5
a) Push-down resistor c) TRAP
b) Pull-up resistor d) Both RST 5.5 and 7.5
c) Break down resistor View Answer
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Answer: c Answer: b
Explanation: The trap is a non-maskable interrupt Explanation: None.
as it deals with the ongoing process in the
processor. The trap is initiated by the process being 3. In vectored interrupts, how does the device
executed due to lack of data required for its identify itself to the processor?
completion. Hence trap is unmaskable. a) By sending its device id
b) By sending the machine code for the interrupt
14. From amongst the following given scenarios service routine
determine the right one to justify interrupt mode of c) By sending the starting address of the service
data transfer routine
i) Bulk transfer of several kilo-byte d) None of the mentioned
ii) Moderately large data transfer of more than 1kb View Answer
iii) Short events like mouse action
iv) Keyboard inputs Answer: c
a) i and ii Explanation: By sending the starting address of the
b) ii routine the device ids the routine required and
c) i,ii and iv thereby identifying itself.
d) iv
View Answer 4. The code sent by the device in vectored
interrupt is _____ long.
Answer: d a) upto 16 bits
Explanation: None. b) upto 32 bits
c) upto 24 bits
15. How can the processor ignore other interrupts d) 4-8 bits
when it is servicing one View Answer
a) By turning off the interrupt request line
b) By disabling the devices from sending the Answer: d
interrupts Explanation: None.
c) BY using edge-triggered request lines
d) All of the mentioned 5. The starting address sent by the device in
View Answer vectored interrupt is called as __________
a) Location id
Answer: d b) Interrupt vector
Explanation: None. c) Service location
d) Service id
1. When dealing with multiple devices interrupts, View Answer
which mechanism is easy to implement?
a) Polling method Answer: b
b) Vectored interrupts Explanation: None.
c) Interrupt nesting
d) None of the mentioned 6. The processor indicates to the devices that it is
View Answer ready to receive interrupts ________
a) By enabling the interrupt request line
Answer: a b) By enabling the IRQ bits
Explanation: In this method, the processor checks c) By activating the interrupt acknowledge line
the IRQ bits of all the devices, whichever is d) None of the mentioned
enabled first that device is serviced. View Answer
2. The interrupt servicing mechanism in which the Answer: c

requesting device identifies itself to the processor Explanation: When the processor activates the
to be serviced is ___________ acknowledge line the devices send their interrupts
a) Polling to the processor.
b) Vectored interrupts
c) Interrupt nesting 7. We describe a protocol of input device
d) Simultaneous requesting communication below:
View Answer i) Each device has a distinct address.
ii) The BUS controller scans each device in a
sequence of increasing address value to determine
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if the entity wishes to communicate Answer: b
iii) The device ready to communicate leaves its Explanation: In the Daisy chain mechanism, all the
data in the I/O register devices are connected using a single request line
iv) The data is picked up and the controller moves and they’re serviced based on the interrupting
to the step a device’s priority.
Identify the form of communication best describes
the I/O mode amongst the following: 11. In daisy chaining device 0 will pass the signal
a) Programmed mode of data transfer only if it has _______
b) DMA a) Interrupt request
c) Interrupt mode b) No interrupt request
d) Polling c) Both No interrupt and Interrupt request
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: In polling, the processor checks each Answer: b
of the devices if they wish to perform data transfer Explanation: In daisy chaining since there is only
and if they do it performs the particular operation. one request line and only one acknowledge line,
the acknowledge signal passes from device to
8. Which one of the following is true with regard device until the one with the interrupt is found.
to a CPU having a single interrupt request line and
single interrupt grant line? 12. ______ interrupt method uses register whose
i) Neither vectored nor multiple interrupting bits are set separately by interrupt signal for each
devices is possible. device.
ii) Vectored interrupts is not possible but multiple a) Parallel priority interrupt
interrupting devices is possible. b) Serial priority interrupt
iii) Vectored interrupts is possible and multiple c) Daisy chaining
interrupting devices is not possible. d) None of the mentioned
iv) Both vectored and multiple interrupting devices View Answer
are possible.
a) iii Answer: a
b) i,iv Explanation: None.
c) ii,iii
d) iii,iv 1. The DMA differs from the interrupt mode by
View Answer a) The involvement of the processor for the
operation
Answer: a b) The method of accessing the I/O devices
Explanation: None. c) The amount of data transfer possible
9. Which table handle stores the addresses of the View Answer
interrupt handling sub-routines?
a) Interrupt-vector table Answer: d
b) Vector table Explanation: DMA is an approach of performing
c) Symbol link table data transfers in bulk between memory and the
d) None of the mentioned external device without the intervention of the
View Answer processor.
Answer: a 2. The DMA transfers are performed by a control

Explanation: None. circuit called as
a) Device interface
10. _________ method is used to establish b) DMA controller
priority by serially connecting all devices that c) Data controller
request an interrupt. d) Overlooker
a) Vectored-interrupting View Answer
b) Daisy chain
c) Priority Answer: b
d) Polling Explanation: The Controller performs the functions
View Answer that would normally be carried out by the
processor.
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3. In DMA transfers, the required signals and Answer: b
addresses are given by the Explanation: The controller is directly connected to
a) Processor the system BUS to provide faster transfer of data.
b) Device drivers
c) DMA controllers 8. Can a single DMA controller perform
d) The program itself operations on two different disks simultaneously?
View Answer a) True
b) False
Explanation: The DMA controller acts as a
processor for DMA transfers and overlooks the Answer: a
entire process. Explanation: The DMA controller can perform
operations on two different disks if the appropriate
4. After the completion of the DMA transfer, the details are known.
processor is notified by
a) Acknowledge signal 9. The technique whereby the DMA controller
b) Interrupt signal steals the access cycles of the processor to operate
c) WMFC signal is called
d) None of the mentioned a) Fast conning
View Answer b) Memory Con
c) Cycle stealing
Answer: b d) Memory stealing
Explanation: The controller raises an interrupt View Answer
signal to notify the processor that the transfer was
complete. Answer: c
Explanation: The controller takes over the
5. The DMA controller has _______ registers processor’s access cycles and performs memory
a) 4 operations.
b) 2
c) 3 10. The technique where the controller is given
d) 1 complete access to main memory is
View Answer a) Cycle stealing
b) Memory stealing
Answer: c c) Memory Con
Explanation: The Controller uses the registers to d) Burst mode
store the starting address, word count and the status View Answer
of the operation.
Answer: d
6. When the R/W bit of the status register of the Explanation: The controller is given full control of
DMA controller is set to 1. the memory access cycles and can transfer blocks
a) Read operation is performed at a faster rate.
b) Write operation is performed
c) Read & Write operation is performed 11. The controller uses _____ to help with the
d) None of the mentioned transfers when handling network interfaces.
View Answer a) Input Buffer storage
b) Signal enhancers
Answer: a c) Bridge circuits
Explanation: None. d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
7. The controller is connected to the ____
a) Processor BUS Answer: a
b) System BUS Explanation: The controller stores the data to
c) External BUS transfer in the buffer and then transfers it.
View Answer 12. To overcome the conflict over the possession
of the BUS we use ______
a) Optimizers
b) BUS arbitrators
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c) Multiple BUS structure 2. The minimum time delay between two
d) None of the mentioned successive memory read operations is ______
View Answer a) Cycle time
b) Latency
Answer: b c) Delay
Explanation: The BUS arbitrator is used to d) None of the mentioned
overcome the contention over the BUS possession. View Answer
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Answer: a
13. The registers of the controller are ______ Explanation: The Time taken by the cpu to end one
a) 64 bits read operation and to start one more is cycle time.
b) 24 bits
c) 32 bits 3. MFC is used to _________
d) 16 bits a) Issue a read signal
View Answer b) Signal to the device that the memory read
operation is complete
Answer: c c) Signal the processor the memory operation is
Explanation: None. complete
d) Assign a device to perform the read operation
14. When the process requests for a DMA transfer View Answer
a) Then the process is temporarily suspended
b) The process continues execution Answer: c
c) Another process gets executed Explanation: The MFC stands for memory
d) process is temporarily suspended & Another Function Complete.
process gets executed
View Answer 4. __________ is the bottleneck, when it comes
computer performance.
Answer: d a) Memory access time
Explanation: The process requesting the transfer is b) Memory cycle time
paused and the operation is performed, meanwhile c) Delay
another process is run on the processor. d) Latency
View Answer
15. The DMA transfer is initiated by _____
a) Processor Answer: b
b) The process being executed Explanation: The processor can execute
c) I/O devices instructions faster than they’re fetched, hence cycle
d) OS time is the bottleneck for performance.
View Answer
5. The logical addresses generated by the cpu are
Answer: c mapped onto physical memory by ____
Explanation: The transfer can only be initiated by a) Relocation register
an instruction of a program being executed. b) TLB
c) MMU
1. The duration between the read and the mfc d) None of the mentioned
signal is ______ View Answer
a) Access time
b) Latency Answer: c
c) Delay Explanation: The MMU stands for memory
d) Cycle time management unit, which is used to map logical
View Answer address onto physical address.
Answer: a 6. VLSI stands for ___________

Explanation: The time between the issue of a read a) Very Large Scale Integration
signal and the completion of it is called memory b) Very Large Stand-alone Integration
access time. c) Volatile Layer System Interface
View Answer
205
Answer: a d) 1024 X 1
7. The cells in a row are connected to a common Answer: d

line called ______ Explanation: All the others require less than 10
a) Work line address bits.
b) Word line
c) Length line 12. Circuits that can hold their state as long as
d) Principle diagonal power is applied is _______
View Answer a) Dynamic memory
b) Static memory
Answer: b c) Register
Explanation: This means that the cell contents d) Cache
together form one word of instruction or data. View Answer
8. The cells in each column are connected to Answer: b

______ Explanation: None.
a) Word line advertisement
b) Data line
c) Read line 13. The number of external connections required
d) Sense/ Write line in 16 X 8 memory organisation is _____
View Answer a) 14
b) 19
Answer: d c) 15
Explanation: The cells in each column are d) 12
connected to the sense/write circuit using two bit View Answer
lines and which is in turn connected to the data
lines. Answer: a
Explanation: In the 14, 8-data lines,4-address lines
9. The word line is driven by the _____ and 2 are sense/write and CS signals.
a) Chip select
b) Address decoder 14. The advantage of CMOS SRAM over the
c) Data line transistor one’s is _________
d) Control line a) Low cost
View Answer b) High efficiency
c) High durability
Answer: b d) Low power consumption
10. A 16 X 8 Organisation of memory cells, can Answer: d

store upto _____ Explanation: This is because the cell consumes
a) 256 bits power only when it is being accessed.
b) 1024 bits
c) 512 bits 15. In a 4M-bit chip organisation has a total of 19
d) 128 bits external connections.then it has _______ address if
View Answer 8 data lines are there.
a) 10
Answer: d b) 8
Explanation: It can store upto 128 bits as each cell c) 9
can hold one bit of data. d) 12
View Answer
11. A memory organisation that can hold upto
1024 bits and has a minimum of 10 address lines Answer: c
can be organized into _____ Explanation: To have 8 data lines and 19 external
a) 128 X 8 connections it has to have 9 address lines(i.e 512 x
b) 256 X 4 8 organisation).
c) 512 X 2
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1. The Reason for the disregarding of the SRAM’s Answer: a
is ________ Explanation: The sense amplifier detects if the
a) Low Efficiency value is above or below the threshold and then
b) High power consumption restores it.
c) High Cost
d) All of the mentioned 6. To reduce the number of external connections
View Answer required, we make use of ______
a) De-multiplexer
Answer: c b) Multiplexer
Explanation: The reason for the high cost of the c) Encoder
SRAM is because of the usage of more number of d) Decoder
transistors. View Answer
2. The disadvantage of DRAM over SRAM is/are Answer: b

_______ Explanation: We multiplex the various address
a) Lower data storage capacities lines onto fewer pins.
b) Higher heat dissipation
c) The cells are not static 7. The processor must take into account the delay
d) All of the mentioned in accessing the memory location, such memories
View Answer are called ______
a) Delay integrated
Answer: c b) Asynchronous memories
Explanation: This means that the cells won’t hold c) Synchronous memories
their state indefinitely. d) Isochronous memories
View Answer
3. The reason for the cells to lose their state over
time is Answer: b
a) The lower voltage levels Explanation: None.
b) Usage of capacitors to store the charge advertisement
c) Use of Shift registers
d) None of the mentioned 8. To get the row address of the required data
View Answer ______ is enabled.
a) CAS
Answer: b b) RAS
Explanation: Since capacitors are used the charge c) CS
dissipates over time. d) Sense/write
View Answer
4. The capacitors lose the charge over time due to
a) The leakage resistance of the capacitor Answer: b
b) The small current in the transistor after being Explanation: This makes the contents of the row
turned on required refreshed.
c) The defect of the capacitor
d) None of the mentioned 9. In order to read multiple bytes of a row at the
View Answer same time, we make use of ______
a) Latch
Answer: a b) Shift register
Explanation: The capacitor loses charge due to the c) Cache
backward current of the transistor and due to the d) Memory extension
small resistance. View Answer
5. _________ circuit is used to restore the Answer: a

capacitor value. Explanation: The latch makes it easy to ready
a) Sense amplify multiple bytes of data of the same row
b) Signal amplifier simultaneously by just giving the consecutive
c) Delta modulator column address.
View Answer 10. The block transfer capability of the DRAM is
called ________
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a) Burst mode 5. In a SDRAM each row is refreshed every 64ms.
b) Block mode a) True
c) Fast page mode b) False
d) Fast frame mode View Answer
View Answer
Answer: a
Answer: c Explanation: None.
Explanation: None.
6. The time taken to transfer a word of data to or
1. The difference between DRAM’s and from the memory is called as ______
SDRAM’s is/are ________ a) Access time
a) The DRAM’s will not use the master slave b) Cycle time
relationship in data transfer c) Memory latency
b) The SDRAM’s make use of clock d) None of the mentioned
c) The SDRAM’s are more power efficient View Answer
Explanation: The performance of the memory is
Answer: d measured by means of latency.
Explanation: The SDRAM’s make use of clock
signals to synchronize their operation. 7. In SDRAM’s buffers are used to store data that
is read or written.
2. The difference in the address and data a) True
connection between DRAM’s and SDRAM’s is b) False
_______ View Answer
a) The usage of more number of pins in SDRAM’s
b) The requirement of more address lines in Answer: a
SDRAM’s Explanation: In SDRAM’s all the bytes of data to
c) The usage of a buffer in SDRAM’s be read or written are stored in the buffer until the
d) None of the mentioned operation is complete.
Answer: c 8. The SDRAM performs operation on the

Explanation: The SDRAM uses buffered storage of _______
address and data. a) Rising edge of the clock
b) Falling edge of the clock
3. A _______ is used to restore the contents of the c) Middle state of the clock
cells. d) Transition state of the clock
a) Sense amplifier View Answer
b) Refresh counter
c) Restorer Answer: a
d) None of the mentioned Explanation: The SDRAM’s are edge-triggered.
View Answer
9. DDR SDRAM’s perform faster data transfer by
Answer: b _______
Explanation: The Counter helps to restore the a) Integrating the hardware
charge on the capacitor. b) Transferring on both edges
c) Improving the clock speeds
4. The mode register is used to _______ d) Increasing the bandwidth
a) Select the row or column data transfer mode View Answer
b) Select the mode of operation
c) Select mode of storing the data Answer: b
d) All of the mentioned Explanation: By transferring data on both the edges
View Answer the bandwidth is effectively doubled.
Answer: b 10. To improve the data retrieval rate

Explanation: The mode register is used to choose a) The memory is divided into two banks
between burst mode or bit mode of operation.
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b) The hardware is changed 5. The ROM chips are mainly used to store
c) The clock frequency is increased _______
d) None of the mentioned a) System files
View Answer b) Root directories
c) Boot files
Answer: a d) Driver files
Explanation: The division of memory into two View Answer
banks makes it easy to access two different words
at each edge of the clock. Answer: c
Explanation: The ROM chips are used to store boot
1. If the transistor gate is closed, then the ROM files required for the system startup.
stores a value of 1.
a) True 6. The contents of the EPROM are erased by
b) False ________
View Answer a) Overcharging the chip
b) Exposing the chip to UV rays
Answer: b c) Exposing the chip to IR rays
Explanation: If the gate of the transistor is closed d) Discharging the Chip
then, the value of zero is stored in the ROM. View Answer
2. PROM stands for __________ Answer: b

a) Programmable Read Only Memory Explanation: To erase the contents of the EPROM
b) Pre-fed Read Only Memory the chip is exposed to the UV rays, which dissipate
c) Pre-required Read Only Memory the charge on the transistor.
d) Programmed Read Only Memory
View Answer 7. The disadvantage of the EPROM chip is
_______
Answer: a a) The high cost factor
Explanation: It allows the user to program the b) The low efficiency
ROM. c) The low speed of operation
d) The need to remove the chip physically to
3. The PROM is more effective than ROM chips reprogram it
in regard to _______ View Answer
a) Cost
b) Memory management Answer: d
c) Speed of operation Explanation: None.
d) Both Cost and Speed of operation
View Answer 8. EEPROM stands for Electrically Erasable
Programmable Read Only Memory.
Answer: d a) True
Explanation: The PROM is cheaper than ROM as b) False
they can be programmed manually. View Answer
4. The difference between the EPROM and ROM Answer: a

circuitry is _____ Explanation: The disadvantages of the EPROM led
a) The usage of MOSFET’s over transistors to the development of the EEPROM.
b) The usage of JFET’s over transistors
c) The usage of an extra transistor 9. The disadvantage of the EEPROM is/are
d) None of the mentioned ________
View Answer a) The requirement of different voltages to read,
write and store information
Answer: c b) The Latency read operation
Explanation: The EPROM uses an extra transistor c) The inefficient memory mapping schemes used
where the ground connection is there in the ROM d) All of the mentioned
chip. View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
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10. The memory devices which are similar to Answer: b
EEPROM but differ in the cost effectiveness is Explanation: The flash drives have been developed
______ to provide faster operation but with lesser space.
a) Memory sticks
b) Blue-ray devices 15. The reason for the fast operating speeds of the
c) Flash memory flash drives is
d) CMOS a) The absence of any movable parts
View Answer b) The integrated electronic hardware
c) The improved bandwidth connection
Answer: c d) All of the mentioned
Explanation: The flash memory functions similar View Answer
to the EEPROM but is much cheaper.
Answer: a
11. The only difference between the EEPROM Explanation: Since the flash drives have no
and flash memory is that the latter doesn’t allow movable parts their access and seek times are
bulk data to be written. reasonably reduced.
a) True
b) False 1. The standard SRAM chips are costly as
View Answer _________
a) They use highly advanced micro-electronic
Answer: a devices
Explanation: This is not permitted as the previous b) They house 6 transistor per chip
contents of the cells will be overwritten. c) They require specially designed PCB’s
12. The flash memories find application in View Answer
______
a) Super computers Answer: b
b) Mainframe systems Explanation: As they require a large number of
c) Distributed systems transistors, their cost per bit increases.
d) Portable devices
View Answer 2. The drawback of building a large memory with
DRAM is ______________
Answer: d a) The large cost factor
Explanation: The flash memories low power b) The inefficient memory organisation
requirement enables them to be used in a wide c) The Slow speed of operation
range of hand held devices. d) All of the mentioned
advertisement View Answer
13. The memory module obtained by placing a Answer: c

number of flash chips for higher memory storage Explanation: The DRAM’s were used for large
called as _______ memory modules for a long time until a substitute
a) FIMM was found.
b) SIMM
c) Flash card 3. To overcome the slow operating speeds of the
d) RIMM secondary memory we make use of faster flash
View Answer drives.
a) True
Answer: c b) False
14. The flash memory modules designed to Answer: a

replace the functioning of a hard disk is ______ Explanation: To improve the speed we use flash
a) RIMM drives at the cost of memory space.
b) Flash drives
c) FIMM 4. The fastest data access is provided using
d) DIMM _______
View Answer a) Caches
b) DRAM’s
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c) SRAM’s 9. In the memory hierarchy, as the speed of
d) Registers operation increases the memory size also increases.
View Answer a) True
b) False
Explanation: The fastest data access is provided
using registers as these memory locations are Answer: b
situated inside the processor. Explanation: As the speed of operation increases
the cost increases and the size decreases.
5. The memory which is used to store the copy of
data or instructions stored in larger memories, 10. If we use the flash drives instead of the
inside the CPU is called _______ harddisks, then the secondary storage can go above
a) Level 1 cache primary memory in the hierarchy.
b) Level 2 cache a) True
c) Registers b) False
d) TLB View Answer
View Answer
Answer: b
Answer: a Explanation: The flash drives will increase the
Explanation: These memory devices are generally speed of transfer but still it won’t be faster than
used to map onto the data stored in the larger primary memory.
memories.
1. The reason for the implementation of the cache
6. The larger memory placed between the primary memory is ________
cache and the memory is called ______ a) To increase the internal memory of the system
a) Level 1 cache b) The difference in speeds of operation of the
b) Level 2 cache processor and memory
c) EEPROM c) To reduce the memory access and cycle time
d) TLB d) All of the mentioned
Answer: b Answer: b
Explanation: This is basically used to provide Explanation: This difference in the speeds of
effective memory mapping. operation of the system caused it to be inefficient.
7. The next level of memory hierarchy after the 2. The effectiveness of the cache memory is based
L2 cache is _______ on the property of ________
a) Secondary storage a) Locality of reference
b) TLB b) Memory localisation
c) Main memory c) Memory size
d) Register d) None of the mentioned
Answer: d Answer: a
Explanation: None. Explanation: This means that the cache depends on
advertisement the location in the memory that is referenced often.
8. The last on the hierarchy scale of memory 3. The temporal aspect of the locality of reference
devices is ______ means ________
a) Main memory a) That the recently executed instruction won’t be
b) Secondary memory executed soon
c) TLB b) That the recently executed instruction is
d) Flash drives temporarily not referenced
View Answer c) That the recently executed instruction will be
executed soon again
Explanation: The secondary memory is the slowest View Answer
memory device.
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Answer: c 8. The bit used to signify that the cache location is
Explanation: None. updated is ________
a) Dirty bit
4. The spatial aspect of the locality of reference b) Update bit
means ________ c) Reference bit
a) That the recently executed instruction is d) Flag bit
executed again next View Answer
b) That the recently executed won’t be executed
again Answer: a
c) That the instruction executed will be executed at Explanation: When the cache location is updated in
a later time order to signal to the processor this bit is used.
d) That the instruction in close proximity of the
instruction executed will be executed in future 9. The copy-back protocol is used ________
View Answer a) To copy the contents of the memory onto the
cache
Answer: d b) To update the contents of the memory from the
Explanation: The spatial aspect of locality of cache
reference tells that the nearby instruction is more c) To remove the contents of the cache and push it
likely to be executed in future. on to the memory
5. The correspondence between the main memory View Answer
blocks and those in the cache is given by
_________ Answer: b
a) Hash function Explanation: This is another way of performing the
b) Mapping function write operation, wherein the cache is updated first
c) Locale function and then the memory.
d) Assign function
View Answer 10. The approach where the memory contents are
transferred directly to the processor from the
Answer: b memory is called ______
Explanation: The mapping function is used to map a) Read-later
the contents of the memory to the cache. b) Read-through
c) Early-start
6. The algorithm to remove and place new d) None of the mentioned
contents into the cache is called _______ View Answer
a) Replacement algorithm
b) Renewal algorithm Answer: c
c) Updation Explanation: None.
View Answer
1. The memory blocks are mapped on to the cache
Answer: a with the help of ______
Explanation: As the cache gets full, older contents a) Hash functions
of the cache are swapped out with newer contents. b) Vectors
This decision is taken by the algorithm. c) Mapping functions
7. The write-through procedure is used ________ View Answer
a) To write onto the memory directly
b) To write and read from memory simultaneously Answer: c
c) To write directly on the memory and the cache Explanation: The mapping functions are used to
simultaneously map the memory blocks on to their corresponding
d) None of the mentioned cache block.
View Answer
2. During a write operation if the required block is
Answer: c not present in the cache then ______ occurs.
Explanation: When write operation is issued then a) Write latency
the corresponding operation is performed. b) Write hit
advertisement c) Write delay
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d) Write miss 7. In direct mapping the presence of the block in
View Answer memory is checked with the help of block field.
a) True
Answer: d b) False
Explanation: This indicates that the operation has View Answer
missed and it brings the required block into the
cache. Answer: b
Explanation: The tag field is used to check the
3. In ________ protocol the information is presence of a mem block.
directly written into the main memory.
a) Write through 8. In associative mapping, in a 16 bit system the
b) Write back tag field has ______ bits.
c) Write first a) 12
d) None of the mentioned b) 8
View Answer c) 9
d) 10
Explanation: In case of the miss, then the data gets
written directly in main memory. Answer: a
Explanation: The Tag field is used as an id for the
4. The only draw back of using the early start different memory blocks mapped to the cache.
protocol is _______
a) Time delay 9. The associative mapping is costlier than direct
b) Complexity of circuit mapping.
c) Latency a) True
d) High miss rate b) False
Answer: b Answer: a
Explanation: In this protocol, the required block is Explanation: In associative mapping, all the tags
read and directly sent to the processor. have to be searched to find the block.
5. The method of mapping the consecutive 10. The technique of searching for a block by
memory blocks to consecutive cache blocks is going through all the tags is ______
called ______ a) Linear search
a) Set associative b) Binary search
b) Associative c) Associative search
c) Direct d) None of the mentioned
d) Indirect View Answer
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: This method is most simple to
implement as it involves direct mapping of 11. The set-associative map technique is a
memory blocks. combination of the direct and associative
technique.
6. While using the direct mapping technique, in a a) True
16 bit system the higher order 5 bits are used for b) False
________ View Answer
a) Tag
b) Block Answer: a
c) Word Explanation: The combination of the efficiency of
d) Id the associative method and the cheapness of the
View Answer direct mapping, we get the set-associative
mapping.
Answer: a
Explanation: The tag is used to identify the block
mapped onto one particular cache block.
213
12. In set-associative technique, the blocks are Answer: c
grouped into ______ sets. Explanation: The mapping functions are used to
a) 4 map the memory blocks on to their corresponding
b) 8 cache block.
c) 12
d) 6 2. During a write operation if the required block is
View Answer not present in the cache then ______ occurs.
a) Write latency
Answer: d b) Write hit
Explanation: The set-associative technique groups c) Write delay
the blocks into different sets. d) Write miss
13. A control bit called ____ has to be provided to Answer: d

each block in set-associative. Explanation: This indicates that the operation has
a) Idol bit missed and it brings the required block into the
b) Valid bit cache.
c) Reference bit
d) All of the mentioned 3. In ________ protocol the information is
View Answer directly written into the main memory.
a) Write through
Answer: b b) Write back
Explanation: The valid bit is used to indicate that c) Write first
the block holds valid information. d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
14. The bit used to indicate whether the block was
recently used or not is _______ Answer: a
a) Idol bit Explanation: In case of the miss, then the data gets
b) Control bit written directly in main memory.
c) Reference bit
d) Dirty bit 4. The only draw back of using the early start
View Answer protocol is _______
a) Time delay
Answer: d b) Complexity of circuit
Explanation: The dirty bit is used to show that the c) Latency
block was recently modified and for a replacement d) High miss rate
algorithm. View Answer
15. Data which is not up-to date is called as Answer: b

_______ Explanation: In this protocol, the required block is
a) Spoilt data read and directly sent to the processor.
b) Stale data
c) Dirty data 5. The method of mapping the consecutive
d) None of the mentioned memory blocks to consecutive cache blocks is
View Answer called ______
a) Set associative
Answer: b b) Associative
Explanation: None. c) Direct
d) Indirect
View Answer
1. The memory blocks are mapped on to the cache
with the help of ______ Answer: c
a) Hash functions Explanation: This method is most simple to
b) Vectors implement as it involves direct mapping of
c) Mapping functions memory blocks.
View Answer 6. While using the direct mapping technique, in a
16 bit system the higher order 5 bits are used for
214
________ a) True
a) Tag b) False
b) Block View Answer
c) Word
d) Id Answer: a
View Answer Explanation: The combination of the efficiency of
the associative method and the cheapness of the
Answer: a direct mapping, we get the set-associative
Explanation: The tag is used to identify the block mapping.
mapped onto one particular cache block.
12. In set-associative technique, the blocks are
7. In direct mapping the presence of the block in grouped into ______ sets.
memory is checked with the help of block field. a) 4
a) True b) 8
b) False c) 12
View Answer d) 6
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The tag field is used to check the Answer: d
presence of a mem block. Explanation: The set-associative technique groups
the blocks into different sets.
8. In associative mapping, in a 16 bit system the advertisement
tag field has ______ bits.
a) 12 13. A control bit called ____ has to be provided to
b) 8 each block in set-associative.
c) 9 a) Idol bit
d) 10 b) Valid bit
View Answer c) Reference bit
Explanation: The Tag field is used as an id for the
different memory blocks mapped to the cache. Answer: b
Explanation: The valid bit is used to indicate that
9. The associative mapping is costlier than direct the block holds valid information.
mapping.
a) True 14. The bit used to indicate whether the block was
b) False recently used or not is _______
View Answer a) Idol bit
b) Control bit
Answer: a c) Reference bit
Explanation: In associative mapping, all the tags d) Dirty bit
have to be searched to find the block. View Answer
10. The technique of searching for a block by Answer: d

going through all the tags is ______ Explanation: The dirty bit is used to show that the
a) Linear search block was recently modified and for a replacement
b) Binary search algorithm.
c) Associative search
d) None of the mentioned 15. Data which is not up-to date is called as
View Answer _______
a) Spoilt data
Answer: c b) Stale data
Explanation: None. c) Dirty data
11. The set-associative map technique is a View Answer
combination of the direct and associative
technique. Answer: b
Explanation: None.
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Answer: b
Explanation: The miss rate is a key factor in
1. The main memory is structured into modules deciding the type of replacement algorithm.
each with its own address register called ______
a) ABR 6. In associative mapping during LRU, the
b) TLB counter of the new block is set to ‘0’ and all the
c) PC others are incremented by one, when _____ occurs.
d) IR a) Delay
View Answer b) Miss
c) Hit
Answer: a d) Delayed hit
Explanation: ABR stands for Address Buffer View Answer
Register.
Answer: b
2. When consecutive memory locations are Explanation: Miss usually occurs when the
accessed only one module is accessed at a time. memory block required is not present in the cache.
a) True
b) False 7. In LRU, the referenced blocks counter is set
View Answer to’0′ and that of the previous blocks are
incremented by one and others remain same, in the
Answer: a case of ______
Explanation: In a modular approach to memory a) Hit
structuring only one module can be accessed at a b) Miss
time. c) Delay
3. In memory interleaving, the lower order bits of View Answer
the address is used to
a) Get the data Answer: a
b) Get the address of the module Explanation: If the referenced block is present in
c) Get the address of the data within the module the memory it is called as hit.
d) None of the mentioned advertisement
View Answer
8. If hit rates are well below 0.9, then they’re
Answer: b called as speedy computers.
Explanation: To implement parallelism in data a) True
access we use interleaving. b) False
View Answer
4. The number successful accesses to memory
stated as a fraction is called as _____ Answer: b
a) Hit rate Explanation: It has to be above 0.9 for speedy
b) Miss rate computers.
c) Success rate
d) Access rate 9. The extra time needed to bring the data into
View Answer memory in case of a miss is called as _____
a) Delay
Answer: a b) Propagation time
Explanation: The hit rate is an important factor in c) Miss penalty
performance measurement. d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
5. The number failed attempts to access memory,
stated in the form of a fraction is called as Answer: c
_________ Explanation: None.
a) Hit rate
b) Miss rate 10. The miss penalty can be reduced by improving
c) Failure rate the mechanisms for data transfer between the
d) Delay rate different levels of hierarchy.
View Answer a) True
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b) False 5. __________is used to implement virtual
View Answer memory organisation.
a) Page table
Answer: a b) Frame table
Explanation: The extra time needed to bring the c) MMU
data into memory in case of a miss is called as miss d) None of the mentioned
penalty. View Answer
Answer: c
1. The physical memory is not as large as the Explanation: The MMU stands for Memory
address space spanned by the processor. Management Unit.
a) True
b) False 6. ______ translates the logical address into a
View Answer physical address.
a) MMU
Answer: a b) Translator
Explanation: This is one of the main reasons for c) Compiler
the usage of virtual memories. d) Linker
View Answer
2. The program is divided into operable parts
called as _________ Answer: a
a) Frames Explanation: The MMU translates the logical
b) Segments address into a physical address by adding an offset.
c) Pages
d) Sheets 7. The main aim of virtual memory organisation is
View Answer ________
a) To provide effective memory access
Answer: b b) To provide better memory transfer
Explanation: The program is divided into parts c) To improve the execution of the program
called as segments for ease of execution. d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
3. The techniques which move the program blocks
to or from the physical memory is called as ______ Answer: d
a) Paging Explanation: None.
b) Virtual memory organisation advertisement
c) Overlays
d) Framing 8. The DMA doesn’t make use of the MMU for
View Answer bulk data transfers.
a) True
Answer: b b) False
Explanation: By using this technique the program View Answer
execution is accomplished with a usage of less
space. Answer: b
Explanation: The DMA stands for Direct Memory
4. The binary address issued to data or Access, in which a block of data gets directly
instructions are called as ______ transferred from the memory.
a) Physical address
b) Location 9. The virtual memory basically stores the next
c) Relocatable address segment of data to be executed on the _________
d) Logical address a) Secondary storage
View Answer b) Disks
c) RAM
Answer: d d) ROM
Explanation: The logical address is the random View Answer
address generated by the processor.
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
217
10. The associatively mapped virtual memory 5. The iconic feature of the RISC machine among
makes use of _______ the following is _______
a) TLB a) Reduced number of addressing modes
b) Page table b) Increased memory size
c) Frame table c) Having a branch delay slot
d) None of the mentioned d) All of the mentioned
Answer: a Answer: c
Explanation: TLB stands for Translation Look- Explanation: A branch delay slot is an instruction
aside Buffer. space immediately following a jump or branch.
1. The CISC stands for ___________ 6. Both the CISC and RISC architectures have
a) Computer Instruction Set Compliment been developed to reduce the ______
b) Complete Instruction Set Compliment a) Cost
c) Computer Indexed Set Components b) Time delay
d) Complex Instruction set computer c) Semantic gap
View Answer d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: CISC is a computer architecture Answer: c
where in the processor performs more complex Explanation: The semantic gap is the gap between
operations in one step. the high level language and the low level language.
2. The computer architecture aimed at reducing 7. Out of the following which is not a CISC
the time of execution of instructions is ________ machine.
a) CISC a) IBM 370/168
b) RISC b) VAX 11/780
c) ISA c) Intel 80486
d) ANNA d) Motorola A567
Answer: b Answer: d
Explanation: The RISC stands for Reduced Explanation: None.
Instruction Set Computer. advertisement
3. The Sun micro systems processors usually 8. Pipe-lining is a unique feature of _______
follow _____ architecture. a) RISC
a) CISC b) CISC
b) ISA c) ISA
c) ULTRA SPARC d) IANA
d) RISC View Answer
View Answer
Answer: a
Answer: d Explanation: The RISC machine architecture was
Explanation: The Risc machine aims at reducing the first to implement pipe-lining.
the instruction set of the computer.
9. In CISC architecture most of the complex
4. The RISC processor has a more complicated instructions are stored in _____
design than CISC. a) Register
a) True b) Diodes
b) False c) CMOS
View Answer d) Transistors
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The RISC processor design is more Answer: d
simpler than CISC and it consists of fewer Explanation: In CISC architecture more emphasis
transistors.
218
is given on the instruction set and the instructions Answer: a
take over a cycle to complete. Explanation: The stages in the pipelining should
get completed within one cycle to increase the
10. Which of the architecture is power efficient? speed of performance.
a) CISC
b) RISC 5. In pipelining the task which requires the least
c) ISA time is performed first.
d) IANA a) True
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Hence the RISC architecture is Answer: b
followed in the design of mobile devices. Explanation: This is done to avoid starvation of the
longer task.
1. ______ have been developed specifically for
pipelined systems. 6. If a unit completes its task before the allotted
a) Utility software time period, then _______
b) Speed up utilities a) It’ll perform some other task in the remaining
c) Optimizing compilers time
d) None of the mentioned b) Its time gets reallocated to a different task
View Answer c) It’ll remain idle for the remaining time
Explanation: The compilers which are designed to
remove redundant parts of the code are called as Answer: c
optimizing compilers. Explanation: None.
2. The pipelining process is also called as ______ 7. To increase the speed of memory access in
a) Superscalar operation pipelining, we make use of _______
b) Assembly line operation a) Special memory locations
c) Von Neumann cycle b) Special purpose registers
d) None of the mentioned c) Cache
View Answer d) Buffers
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: It is called so because it performs its Answer: c
operation at the assembly level. Explanation: By using the cache we can reduce the
speed of memory access by a factor of 10.
3. The fetch and execution cycles are interleaved advertisement
with the help of ________
a) Modification in processor architecture 8. The periods of time when the unit is idle is
b) Clock called as _____
c) Special unit a) Stalls
d) Control unit b) Bubbles
View Answer c) Hazards
d) Both Stalls and Bubbles
Explanation: The time cycle of the clock is
adjusted to perform the interleaving. Answer: d
Explanation: The stalls are a type of hazards that
4. Each stage in pipelining should be completed affect a pipelined system.
within ____ cycle.
a) 1 9. The contention for the usage of a hardware
b) 2 device is called ______
c) 3 a) Structural hazard
d) 4 b) Stalk
View Answer c) Deadlock
219
d) None of the mentioned 4. Communication between a computer and a
View Answer keyboard involves ______________ transmission
a) Automatic
Answer: a b) Half-duplex
Explanation: None. c) Full-duplex
d) Simplex
10. The situation wherein the data of operands are View Answer
not available is called ______
a) Data hazard Answer: d
b) Stock Explanation: Data flows in single direction.
c) Deadlock
d) Structural hazard 5. The first Network
View Answer a) CNNET
b) NSFNET
Answer: a c) ASAPNET
Explanation: Data hazards are generally caused d) ARPANET
when the data is not ready on the destination side. View Answer
Answer: d
Computer Network and Database Explanation: ARPANET – Advanced Research
Projects Agency Networks was the first network
Management System: to be implemented which used the TCP/IP
protocol.
1. The IETF standards documents are called
a) RFC 6. The _______ is the physical path over which a
b) RCF message travels
c) ID a) Path
d) None of the mentioned b) Medium
View Answer c) Protocol
d) Route
Explanation: Request For Comments.
7. Which organization has authority over
2. In the layer hierarchy as the data packet moves interstate and international commerce in the
from the upper to the lower layers, headers are communications field?
a) Added a) ITU-T
b) Removed b) IEEE
c) Rearranged c) FCC
d) Modified d) ISOC
Answer: a Answer: c
Explanation: Every layer adds its own header to Explanation: FCC is the abbreviation for Federal
the packet from the previous layer. Communications Commission. FCC is
responsible for regulating all interstate
3. The structure or format of data is called communications originating or terminating in
a) Syntax USA.
b) Semantics
c) Struct 8. Which of this is not a network edge device?
d) None of the mentioned a) PC
View Answer b) Smartphones
c) Servers
Answer: a d) Switch
Explanation: The structure and format of data are View Answer
defined using syntax. Semantics defines how a
particular pattern to be interpreted, and what Answer: d
action is to be taken based on that interpretation. Explanation: Network egde devices refer to host
220
systems, which can host applications like web Answer: a
browser. Explanation: A computer network, or data
network, is a digital telecommunications network
9. A set of rules that governs data communication which allows nodes to share resources. In
a) Protocols computer networks, computing devices exchange
b) Standards data with each other using connections between
c) RFCs nodes.
View Answer 3. Which one of the following computer network
is built on the top of another network?
Answer: a a) prior network
Explanation: In communications, a protocol refers b) chief network
to a set of rules and regulations that allow a c) prime network
network of nodes to transmit and receive d) overlay network
information. View Answer
10. Three or more devices share a link in Answer: d

________ connection Explanation: An overlay network is a computer
a) Unipoint network that is built on top of another network.
b) Multipoint
c) Point to point 4. In computer network nodes are
d) None of the mentioned a) the computer that originates the data
View Answer b) the computer that routes the data
c) the computer that terminates the data
Answer: b d) all of the mentioned
Explanation: A multipoint communication is View Answer
established when three or many network nodes are
connected to each other. Answer: d
Explanation: In a computer network, a node can
1. When collection of various computers seems a be anything that is capable of sending data or
single coherent system to its client, then it is receiving data or even routing the data to the
called destination.
a) computer network
b) distributed system 5. Communication channel is shared by all the
c) networking system machines on the network in
d) none of the mentioned a) broadcast network
View Answer b) unicast network
c) multicast network
Answer: b d) none of the mentioned
Explanation: Computer networks is defined as a View Answer
collection of interconnected computers which uses
a single technology for connection. Answer: a
A distributed system is also the same as computer Explanation: In a broadcast network, an
network but the main difference is that the whole information is sent to all station in a network
collection of computers appears to its users as a whereas in a multicast network the data or
single coherent system information is sent to a group of stations in the
Example :- World wide web network. In unicast network, information is sent to
only one specific station.
2. Two devices are in network if
a) a process in one device is able to exchange 6. Bluetooth is an example of
information with a process in another device a) personal area network
b) a process is running on both devices b) local area network
c) PIDs of the processes running of different c) virtual private network
devices are same d) none of the mentioned
d) none of the mentioned View Answer
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A personal area network (PAN) is
221
the interconnection of information technology devices were directly connected to the private
devices within the range of an individual person, network.
typically within a range of 10 meters.
1. Which of this is not a constituent of residential
7. A __________ is a device that forwards packets telephone line?
between networks by processing the routing a) A high-speed downstream channel
information included in the packet. b) A medium-speed downstream channel
a) bridge c) A low-speed downstream channel
b) firewall d) None of the mentioned
c) router View Answer
d) all of the mentioned
Explanation: The third part is ordinary two way
Answer: c telephone channel.
Explanation: A router[a] is a networking device
that forwards data packets between computer 2. In DSL telco provides these services
networks. Routers perform the traffic directing a) Wired phone access
functions on the Internet. b) ISP
c) All of the mentioned
8. A list of protocols used by a system, one d) None of the mentioned
protocol per layer, is called View Answer
a) protocol architecture
b) protocol stack Answer: c
c) protocol suite Explanation: The same company which provides
d) none of the mentioned phone connection is also its ISP in DSL.
View Answer
3. The function of DSLAM is
Answer: b a) Convert analog signals into digital signals
Explanation: A protocol stack refers to a group of b) Convert digital signals into analog signals
protocols that are running concurrently that are c) Amplify digital signals
employed for the implementation of network d) None of the mentioned
protocol suite. View Answer
9. Network congestion occurs Answer: a

a) in case of traffic overloading Explanation: The DSLAM located in telco’s
b) when a system terminates Central Office does this function.
c) when connection between two nodes terminates
d) none of the mentioned 4. The following term is not associted with DSL
View Answer a) DSLAM
b) CO
Answer: a c) Splitter
Explanation: A network congestion occurs when d) CMTS
traffic in the network is more than the network View Answer
could handle.
Answer: d
10. Which one of the following extends a private Explanation: Cable modem termination system is
network across public networks? used in cable internet access.
a) local area network
b) virtual private network 5. HFC contains
c) enterprise private network a) Fibre cable
d) storage area network b) Coaxial cable
View Answer c) Both Fibre cable and Coaxial cable
Explanation: A virtual private network extends a
private network across a public network, and Answer: c
enables users to send and receive data across Explanation: Hybrid fiber-coaxial (HFC) is a
shared or public networks as if their computing
222
telecommunications industry term for a broadband d) None of the mentioned
network that combines optical fiber and coaxial View Answer
cable.
Answer: c
6. Choose the statement which is not applicable Explanation: ONT stands for Optical Network
for cable internet access Terminal. The ONT connects to the Termination
a) It is a shared broadcast medium Point (TP) with an optical fibre cable.
b) It includes HFCs advertisement
c) Cable modem connects home PC to Ethernet
port 11. These factors affect transmission rate in DSL
d) Analog signal is converted to digital signal in a) The gauge of the twisted-pair line
DSLAM b) Degree of electrical interfernece
View Answer c) Shadow fading
d) Both The gauge of the twisted-pair line and
Answer: d Degree of electrical interfernece
Explanation: In cable access analog signal is View Answer
converted to digital signal by CMTS.
Answer: d
7. Among the optical-distribution architectures Explanation: Because DSL is made of twisted
that are essentially switched ethernet is wire copper pair.
a) AON
b) PON
c) NON
d) None of the mentioned 1. The number of layers in Internet protocol stack
View Answer a) 5
b) 7
Answer:a c) 6
Explanation: Active optical networks are d) None of the mentioned
essentially switched ethernets. View Answer
8. StarBand provides Answer: a

a) FTTH internet access Explanation: None.
b) Cable access
c) Telephone access 2. The number of layers in ISO OSI reference
d) Satellite access model
View Answer a) 5
b) 7
Answer: d c) 6
Explanation: StarBand was a two-way satellite d) None of the mentioned
broadband Internet service available in the U.S. View Answer
from 2000–2015.
Answer: b
9. Home Access is provided by Explanation: None.
a) DSL
b) FTTP 3. This layer is an addition to OSI model when
c) Cable compared with TCP IP model
d) All of the mentioned a) Application layer
View Answer b) Presentation layer
c) Session layer
Answer: d d) Both Session and Presentation layer
Explanation: Home Access is provided by DSL, View Answer
FTTP, Cable.
Answer: d
10. ONT is connected to splitter using Explanation: None.
a) High speed fibre cable
b) HFC 4. Application layer is implemented in
c) Optical cable a) End system
223
b) NIC d) Session layer
c) Ethernet View Answer
Explanation: None.
Answer: a
Explanation: None. 10. In the OSI model, as a data packet moves
from the lower to the upper layers, headers are
5. Transport layer is implemented in _______
a) End system a) Added
b) NIC b) Removed
c) Ethernet c) Rearranged
Answer: a Answer: b
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6. The functionalities of presentation layer
includes 11. Identify the statement which cannot be
a) Data compression associated with OSI model
b) Data encryption a) A structured way to discuss and easier update
c) Data description syatem components
d) All of the mentioned b) One layer may duplicate lower layer
View Answer functionality
c) Functionality at one layer no way requires
Answer: d information from another layer
Explanation: None. d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
7. Delimiting and synchronization of data
exchange is provided by Answer: c
a) Application layer Explanation: One layer may use the information
b) Session layer from another layer Ex: time stamp value.
c) Transport layer
d) Link layer 1. OSI stands for
View Answer a) open system interconnection
b) operating system interface
Answer: b c) optical service implementation
Explanation: None. d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
8. In OSI model, when data is sent from device A
to device B, the 5th layer to recieve data at B is Answer: a
a) Application layer Explanation: OSI is the abbreviation for Open
b) Transport layer System Interconnection. OSI model provides a
c) Link layer structured plan on how applications communicate
d) Session layer over a network, which also helps us to have a
View Answer structured plan for troubleshooting.
Answer: d 2. The OSI model has _______ layers.

Explanation: None. a) 4
b) 5
9. In TCP IP Model, when data is sent from c) 6
device A to device B, the 5th layer to receive data d) 7
at B is View Answer
a) Application layer
b) Transport layer Answer: d
c) Link layer Explanation: In OSI reference model, there are 7
224
layers namely Application, Presentation, Session, 1978 and 1983, whereas OSI reference model was
Transport, Network, Data Link and Physical layer. developed in the year 1984.
3. TCP/IP model does not have ______ layer but 7. Which layer is responsible for process to
OSI model have this layer. process delivery?
a) session layer a) network layer
b) transport layer b) transport layer
c) application layer c) session layer
d) None of the mentioned d) data link layer
Answer: a 8. Which address identifies a process on a host?

Explanation: In OSI reference model, there are a) physical address
two layers which are not present in TCP/IP model. b) logical address
They are Presentation and Session layer. c) port address
d) specific address
4. Which layer links the network support layers View Answer
and user support layers
a) session layer Answer: c
b) data link layer Explanation: A port number is a way to identify a
c) transport layer specific process to which an Internet or other
d) network layer network message is to be forwarded when it
View Answer arrives at a server.
Answer: c 9. Which layer provides the services to user?

Explanation: Physical, data link and network a) application layer
layers are network support layers and session, b) session layer
presentation and application layers are user c) presentation layer
support layers. d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
5. Which address is used in an internet employing
the TCP/IP protocols? Answer: a
a) physical address and logical address Explanation: In networking, a user mainly
b) port address interacts with application layer to create and send
c) specific address information to other computer or network.
View Answer 10. Transmission data rate is decided by
a) network layer
Answer: d b) physical layer
Explanation: All of the mentioned above c) data link layer
addresses are used in TCP/IP protocol. All the d) transport layer
addressing scheme, that is physical (MAC) and View Answer
logical address, port address and specific address
are employed in both TCP/IP model and OSI Answer: b
model. Explanation: Physical layer is a layer 1 device
which deals with network cables or the standards
6. TCP/IP model was developed _____ the OSI in use like connectors, pins, electric current used
model. etc. Basically the transmission speed is
a) prior to determined by the cables and connectors used.
b) after Hence it is physical layer that determines the
c) simultaneous to transmission speed in network.
View Answer 1. The physical layer concerns with
a) bit-by-bit delivery
Answer: a p) process to process delivery
Explanation: Several TCP/IP prototypes were c) application to application delivery
developed at multiple research centers between d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
225
Answer: a d) all of the mentioned
Explanation: Physical layer deals with bit to bit View Answer
delivery in networking. The data unit in the
physical layer is bits. Process to process delivery Answer: d
is dealy in the transport layer. Explanation: Anything dealing with a network
cable or the standards in use – including pins,
2. Which transmission media has the highest connectors and the electric current used is dealt in
transmission speed in a network? the physical layer (Layer 1).
a) coaxial cable
b) twisted pair cable 6. In asynchronous serial communication the
c) optical fiber physical layer provides
d) electrical cable a) start and stop signalling
View Answer b) flow control
c) both start & stop signalling and flow control
Answer: c d) none of the mentioned
Explanation: Fibre optics is considered to have the View Answer
highest transmission speed among the all
mentioned above. The fibre optics transmission Answer: c
runs at 1000Mb/s. It is called as 1000Base-Lx Explanation: In asynchronous serial
whereas IEEE stndard for it is 802.3z. communication, the communication is not
synchronized by clock signal. Instead of a start
3. Bits can be send over guided and unguided and stop signaling and flow control method is
media as analog signal by followed.
a) digital modulation
b) amplitude modulation 7. The physical layer is responsible for
c) frequency modulation a) line coding
d) phase modulation b) channel coding
View Answer c) modulation
Explanation: In analog modulation, digital low
frequency baseband signal (digital bitstream) are Answer: d
transmitted over a higher frequency. Whereas in Explanation: The physical layer is responsible for
digital modulation the only difference is that the line coding, channel coding and modulation that is
base band signal is of discrete amplitude level. needed for the transmission of the information.
4. The portion of physical layer that interfaces 8. The physical layer translates logical
with the media access control sublayer is called communication requests from the ______ into
a) physical signalling sublayer hardware specific operations.
b) physical data sublayer a) data link layer
c) physical address sublayer b) network layer
d) none of the mentioned c) trasnport layer
View Answer d) application layer
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The portion of physcial layer that Answer: a
interfaces with the medium access control Explanation: Physical layer accepts data or
sublayer is Physical Signaling Sublayer. The main information from the data link layer and converts
function of this layer is character encoding, it into hardware specific operations so as to
reception, decoding and performs optional transfer the message through physical cables.
isolation functions.
9. A single channel is shared by multiple signals
5. physical layer provides by
a) mechanical specifications of electrical a) analog modulation
connectors and cables b) digital modulation
b) electrical specification of transmission line c) multiplexing
signal level d) none of the mentioned
c) specification for IR over optical fiber View Answer
226
Answer: c 4. Header of a frame generally contains
Explanation: In communication and computer a) synchronization bytes
networks, the main goal is to share a scarce b) addresses
resource. This is done by multiplexing, where c) frame identifier
multiple analog or digital signals are combined d) all of the mentioned
into one signal over a shared medium. View Answer
10. Wireless transmission can be done via Answer: d

a) radio waves Explanation: None.
b) microwaves
c) infrared 5. Automatic repeat request error management
d) all of the mentioned mechanism is provided by
View Answer a) logical link control sublayer
b) media access control sublayer
Answer: d c) network interface control sublayer
Explanation: Wireless transmission is carried out d) none of the mentioned
by radio waves, microwaves and IR waves. These View Answer
waves range from 3 Khz to above 300 Ghz and
are more suitable for wireless transmission Answer: a
because they allow a wider band for modulating Explanation: None.
signals, so you can obtain higher frequency
transmission. 6. When 2 or more bits in a data unit has been
changed during the transmission, the error is
1. The data link layer takes the packets from called
_________ and encapsulates them into frames for a) random error
transmission. b) burst error
a) network layer c) inverted error
b) physical layer d) none of the mentioned
c) transport layer View Answer
d) application layer
Explanation: None.
Answer: a
Explanation: None. 7. CRC stands for
a) cyclic redundancy check
2. Which one of the following task is not done by b) code repeat check
data link layer? c) code redundancy check
a) framing d) cyclic repeat check
b) error control View Answer
c) flow control
d) channel coding Answer: a
Answer: d 8. Which one of the following is a data link

Explanation: None. protocol?
a) ethernet
3. Which sublayer of the data link layer performs b) point to point protocol
data link functions that depend upon the type of c) hdlc
medium? d) all of the mentioned
a) logical link control sublayer View Answer
b) media access control sublayer
c) network interface control sublayer Answer: d
d) none of the mentioned Explanation: None.
View Answer
9. Which one of the following is the multiple
Answer: b access protocol for channel access control?
Explanation: None. a) CSMA/CD
227
b) CSMA/CA Answer: c
c) Both CSMA/CD & CSMA/CA Explanation: An ip address which is 32 bits long,
d) None of the mentioned that means it is of 4 bytes and is composed of a
View Answer network and host portion and it depends on
address class.
Answer: c
Explanation: None. 4. In virtual circuit network each packet contains
a) full source and destination address
10. The technique of temporarily delaying b) a short VC number
outgoing outgoing acknowledgements so that they c) only source address
can be hooked onto the next outgoing data frame d) only destination address
is called View Answer
a) piggybacking
b) cyclic redundancy check Answer: b
c) fletcher’s checksum Explanation: A short VC number also called as
d) none of the mentioned VCID (virtual circuit identifier) is a type of
View Answer identifier which is used to distinguish between
several virtual circuits in a connection oriented
Answer: a circuit switched network.
Explanation: None.
5. Which one of the following routing algorithm
1. The network layer concerns with can be used for network layer design?
a) bits a) shortest path algorithm
b) frames b) distance vector routing
c) packets c) link state routing
d) none of the mentioned d) all of the mentioned
Answer: c Answer: d
Explanation: In computer networks, the data from Explanation: The routing algorithm is what
the application layer is sent to the transport layer decides where a packet should go next. There are
and is converted to segments. These segments are several routing techniques like shortest path
then transferred to the network layer and these are algorithm, static and dynamic routing,
called packets. These packets are then sent to data decentralized routing, distance vector routing, link
link layer where they are encapsulated into state routing, Hierarchical routing etc.
frames. These frames are then transferred to
physical layer where the frames are converted to 6. Multidestination routing
bits. a) is same as broadcast routing
b) contains the list of all destinations
2. Which one of the following is not a function of c) data is not sent by packets
network layer? d) none of the mentioned
a) routing View Answer
b) inter-networking
c) congestion control Answer: c
View Answer
7. A subset of a network that includes all the
Answer: d routers but contains no loops is called
Explanation: In the OSI model, network layer is a) spanning tree
the third layer and it provides data routing paths b) spider structure
for network communications. c) spider tree
3. The 4 byte IP address consists of View Answer
a) network address
b) host address Answer: a
c) both network address & host address Explanation: Spanning tree protocol (STP) is a
d) none of the mentioned network protocol that creates a loop free logical
View Answer topology for ethernet networks. It is a layer 2
228
protocol that runs on bridges and switches. The 2. Which one of the following is a transport layer
main purpose of STP is to ensure that you do not protocol used in networking?
create loops when you have redundant paths in a) TCP
your network. b) UDP
c) Both TCP and UDP
8. Which one of the following algorithm is not d) None of the mentioned
used for congestion control? View Answer
a) traffic aware routing
b) admission control Answer: c
c) load shedding Explanation: Both TCP and UDP are transport
d) none of the mentioned layer protocol in networking. TCP is an
View Answer abbreviation for Transmission Control Protocol
and UDP is an abbreviation for User Datagram
Answer: d Protocol. TCP is connection oriented whereas
Explanation: None. UDP is connectionless.
9. The network layer protocol of internet is 3. User datagram protocol is called connectionless
a) ethernet because
b) internet protocol a) all UDP packets are treated independently by
c) hypertext transfer protocol transport layer
d) none of the mentioned b) it sends data as a stream of related packets
View Answer c) it is received in the same order as sent order
Explanation: There are several protocols used in
Network layer. Some of them are IP, ICMP, Answer: a
CLNP, ARP, IPX, HRSP etc. Hypertext transfer Explanation: UDP is an alternative for TCP and it
protocol is for application layer and ethernet is used for those purposes where speed matters
protocol is for data link layer. most whereas loss of data is not a problem. UDP
is connectionless whereas TCP is connection
10. ICMP is primarily used for oriented.
a) error and diagnostic functions
b) addressing 4. Transmission control protocol is
c) forwarding a) connection oriented protocol
d) none of the mentioned b) uses a three way handshake to establish a
View Answer connection
c) recievs data from application as a single stream
Answer: a d) all of the mentioned
Explanation: ICMP abbreviation for Internet View Answer
Control Message Protocol is used by networking
devices to send error messages and operational Answer: d
information indicating a host or router cannot be Explanation: Major internet applications like
reached. www, email, file transfer etc rely on tcp. TCP is
connection oriented and it is optimized for
1. Transport layer aggregates data from different accurate delivery rather than timely delivery.
applications into a single stream before passing it It can incur long delays.
to
a) network layer 5. An endpoint of an inter-process communication
b) data link layer flow across a computer network is called
c) application layer a) socket
d) physical layer b) pipe
View Answer c) port
Explanation: The flow of data in the OSI model
flows in following manner Application -> Answer: a
Presentation -> Session -> Transport -> Network - Explanation: Socket is one end point in a two way
> Data Link -> Physical. communication link in the network. TCP layer
229
can identify the application that data is destined to responsible for delivering a message between
be sent by using the port number that is bound to network host.
socket.
10. Which one of the following is a transport layer
6. Socket-style API for windows is called protocol?
a) wsock a) stream control transmission protocol
b) winsock b) internet control message protocol
c) wins c) neighbor discovery protocol
d) none of the mentioned d) dynamic host configuration protocol
Answer: b Answer: a
Explanation: Winsock is a programming interface Explanation: There are many protocols in
which deals with input output requests for internet transport layer. The most prominent are TCP and
applications in windows OS. It defines how UDP. Some of the other protocols are RDP,
windows network software should access network RUDP, SCTP, DCCP etc.
services.
1. Physical or logical arrangement of network is
7. Which one of the following is a version of UDP a) Topology
with congestion control? b) Routing
a) datagram congestion control protocol c) Networking
b) stream control transmission protocol d) None of the mentioned
c) structured stream transport View Answer
Explanation: None.
Answer: a
Explanation: The datagram congestion control is a 2. In this topology there is a central controller or
transport layer protocol which deals with reliable hub
connection setup, teardown, congestion control, a) Star
explicit congestion notification, feature b) Mesh
negotiation. c) Ring
d) Bus
8. A _____ is a TCP name for a transport service View Answer
access point.
a) port Answer: a
b) pipe Explanation: None.
c) node
d) none of the mentioned 3. This topology requires multipoint connection
View Answer a) Star
b) Mesh
Answer: a c) Ring
Explanation: Just as the IP address identifies the d) Bus
computer, the network port identifies the View Answer
application or service running on the computer. A
port number is 16 bits. Answer: d
Explanation: None.
9. Transport layer protocols deals with
a) application to application communication 4. Data communication system spanning states,
b) process to process communication countries, or the whole world is
c) node to node communication a) LAN
d) none of the mentioned b) WAN
View Answer c) MAN
Explanation: Transport layer is 4th layer in
TCP/IP model and OSI reference model. It deals
with logical communication between process. It is
230
Answer: b Answer: b
Explanation: Wide area network(WAN) covers Explanation: None.
the whole of the world network.
2. Multiplexing is used in _______
5. Data communication system within a building a) Packet switching
or campus is b) Circuit switching
a) LAN c) Data switching
b) WAN d) None of the mentioned
c) MAN View Answer
Explanation: None.
Answer: a
Explanation: None. 3. Which multiplexing technique transmits digital
signals ?
6. Expand WAN a) FDM
a) World area network b) TDM
b) Wide area network c) WDM
c) Web area network d) None of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned View Answer
View Answer
Answer: b
Answer: b Explanation: FDM and WDM are used in analog
Explanation: None. signals.
7. In TDM, slots are further divided into 4. If there are n signal sources of same data rate
a) Seconds than TDM link has _______ slots
b) Frames a) n
c) Packets b) n/2
d) None of the mentioned c) n*2
View Answer d) 2n
View Answer
Answer: b
advertisement Explanation: Each slot is dedicated to one of the
source.
8. Multiplexing technique that shifts each signal
to a different carrier frequency 5. If link transmits 4000frames per second, and
a) FDM each slot has 8 bits,the transmission rate of circuit
b) TDM this TDM is
c) Both FDM & TDM a) 32kbps
d) None of the mentioned b) 500bps
View Answer c) 500kbps
Explanation: FDM stands for Frequency division
multiplexing. Answer: a
Explanation: Transmission rate= frame rate *
1. The sharing of a medium and its link by two or number os bits in a slot.
more devices is called _________
a) Fully duplexing 6. The state when dedicated signals are idle are
b) Multiplexing called
c) Both Fully duplexing and Multiplexing a) Death period
d) None of the mentioned b) Poison period
View Answer c) Silent period
View Answer
231
Answer: c Answer: a
Explanation: None. Explanation: Transmission rate = length /
transmission rate = 32/10 = 3.2milli seconds.
7. Multiplexing can provide
a) Efficiency 3. The time required to examine the packet’s
b) Privacy header and determine where to direct the packet is
c) Anti jamming part of
d) Both Efficiency & Privacy a) Processing delay
View Answer b) Queuing delay
c) Transmission delay
Answer: d d) All of the mentioned
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Answer: a
8. In TDM, the transmission rate of the Explanation: None.
multiplexed path is usually _______ the sum of
the transmission rates of the signal sources. 4. Traffic intensity is given by, where L = number
a) Greater than of bits in the packet a = average rate R =
b) Lesser than transmission rate
c) Equal to a) La/R
d) Equal to or greater than b) LR/a
View Answer c) R/La
Explanation: None.
Answer: a
9. In TDM, slots are further divided into Explanation: None.
a) Seconds
b) Frames 5. In the transfer of file between server and client,
c) Packets if the transmission rates along the path is 10Mbps,
d) None of the mentioned 20Mbps, 30Mbps, 40Mbps. The throughput is
View Answer usually
a) 20Mbps
Answer: b b) 10Mbps
Explanation: None. c) 40Mbps
d) 50Mbps
1. Which of the following delay is faced by the View Answer
packet in travelling from one end system to
another ? Answer: b
a) Propagation delay Explanation: The throughput is generally the
b) Queuing delay transmission rate of bottleneck link.
c) Transmission delay
d) All of the mentioned 6. If end to end delay is given by dend-end =
View Answer N(dproc + dtrans + dprop) is a non congested
network. The number of routers between source
Answer: d and destination is
Explanation: None. a) N/2
b) N
2. For a 10Mbps Ethernet link, if the length of the c) N-1
packet is 32bits, the transmission delay is(in d) 2N
milliseconds) View Answer
a) 3.2
b) 32 Answer: c
c) 0.32 Explanation: None.
View Answer 7. The total nodal delay is given by
a) dnodal = dproc – dqueue + dtrans + dprop
b) dnodal = dproc + dtrans – dqueue
232
c) dnodal = dproc + dqueue + dtrans + dprop d) All of the mentioned
d) dnodal = dproc + dqueue – dtrans – dprop View Answer
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
3. The DoS attack is which the attacker
8. In a network, If P is the only packet being establishes a large number of half-open or fully
transmitted and there was no earlier transmission, open TCP connections at the target host
which of the following delays could be zero a) Vulnerability attack
a) Propogation delay b) Bandwidth flooding
b) Queuing delay c) Connection flooding
c) Transmission delay d) All of the mentioned
d) Processing delay View Answer
View Answer
Answer: c
Answer: b Explanation: None.
Explanation: None.
4. The DoS attack is which the attacker sends
9. Transmission delay does not depend on deluge of packets to the targeted host
a) Packet length a) Vulnerability attack
b) Distance between the routers b) Bandwidth flooding
c) Transmission rate c) Connection flooding
Answer: b Answer: b
Explanation: Transmission delay = packet length / Explanation: None.
transmission rate
5. Packet sniffers involve
10. Propagation delay depends on a) Active receiver
a) Packet length b) Passive receiver
b) Transmission rate c) Both Active receiver and Passive receiver
c) Distance between the routers d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Answer: c Explanation: They donot inject packets into the
Explanation: Propagation delay is the time it takes channel.
a bit to propagate from one router to the next.
6. Sniffers can be deployed in
1. The attackers a network of compromised a) Wired environment
devices known as b) WiFi
a) Internet c) Ethernet LAN
b) Botnet d) All of the mentioned
c) Telnet View Answer
d) D-net
Explanation: None.
Answer: b
Explanation: None. 7. Firewalls are often configured to block
a) UDP traffic
2. Which of the following is a form of DoS attack b) TCP traffic
? c) Both of the mentioned
a) Vulnerability attack d) None of the mentioned
b) Bandwidth flooding View Answer
c) Connection flooding
233
Answer: a 5. If an Optical Carrier is represented as OC-n,
Explanation: None. generally the link speed equals(in Mbps),
advertisement a) n*39.8
b) n*51.8
8. In a network, If P is the only packet being c) 2n*51.8
transmitted and there was no earlier transmission, d) None of the mentioned
which of the following delays could be zero View Answer
a) Propogation delay
b) Queuing delay Answer: b
c) Transmission delay Explanation: None.
d) Processing delay
View Answer 6. Terrestrial radio channels are broadly classifed
into _____ groups.
Answer: b a) 2
Explanation: None. b) 3
c) 4
1. Which of this is not a guided media ? d) 1
a) Fiber optical cable View Answer
b) Coaxial cable
c) Wireless LAN Answer: b
d) Copper wire Explanation: The three types are those that
View Answer operate over very short distance, those that
operate in local areas, those that operate in the
Answer: c wide area.
Explanation: Wireless LAN is unguided media.
7. Radio channels are attractive medium because
2. UTP is commonly used in a) Can penetrate walls
a) DSL b) Connectivity can be given to mobile user
b) FTTP c) Can carry signals for long distance
c) HTTP d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Answer: a Explanation: None.
Explanation: Unshielded twisted pair(UTP) is advertisement
commonly used in home access.
8. Geostationary satellites
3. Coaxial cable consists of _______ concentric a) Are placed at a fixed point above the earth
copper conductors. b) Rotate the earth about a fixed axis
a) 1 c) Rotate the earth about a varying axis
b) 2 d) All of the mentioned
c) 3 View Answer
d) 4
Explanation: They are placed in orbit at 36,000km
Answer: b above Earth’s surface.
Explanation: None.
1. A local telephone network is an example of a
4. Fiber optics posses following properties _______ network
a) Immune electromagnetic interference a) Packet switched
b) Very less signal attenuation b) Circuit switched
c) Very hard to tap c) Both Packet switched and Circuit switched
d) All of the mentioned d) None of the mentioned
Answer: d Answer: a
234
2. Most packet switches use this principle Answer: b
a) Stop and wait Explanation: None.
b) Store and forward
c) Both Stop and wait and Store and forward 7. In _________ resources are allocated on
d) None of the mentioned demand.
View Answer a) packet switching
b) circuit switching
Answer: b c) line switching
Explanation: The packet switch will not transmit d) frequency switching
the first bit to outbound link until it recieves the View Answer
entire packet.
Answer: a
3. If there are N routers from source to Explanation: In packet switching there is no
destination, total end to end delay in sending reservation.
packet P(L->number of bits in the packet R-> advertisement
transmission rate)
a) N 8. Which of the following is an application layer
b) (N*L)/R service ?
c) (2N*L)/R a) Network virtual terminal
d) L/R b) File transfer, access, and management
View Answer c) Mail service
Explanation: None.
Answer: d
4. Method(s) to move data through a network of Explanation: None.
links and switches
a) Packet switching 1. This is not a application layer protocol
b) Circuit switching a) HTTP
c) Line switching b) SMTP
d) Both Packet switching and Circuit switching c) FTP
View Answer d) TCP
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None. Answer: d
Explanation: TCP is transport layer protocol
5. The resources needed for communication
between end systems are reserved for the duration 2. The packet of information at the application
of session between end systems in ________ layer is called
a) Packet switching a) Packet
b) Circuit switching b) Message
c) Line switching c) Segment
d) Frequency switching d) Frame
Answer: b Answer: b
6. As the resouces are reserved between two 3. This is one of the architecture paradigm
communicating end systems in circuit switching, a) Peer to peer
this is achieved b) Client-server
a) authentication c) HTTP
b) guaranteed constant rate d) Both Peer-to-Peer & Client-Server
c) reliability View Answer
d) store and forward
Explanation: HTTP is a protocol.
235
4. Application developer has permission to decide must be consulted
the following on transport layer side a) IP
a) Transport layer protocol b) MAC
b) Maximum buffer size c) Port
c) Both Transport layer protocol and Maximum d) None of the mentioned
buffer size View Answer
Explanation: None.
Answer: c
Explanation: None. 10. This is a time-sensitive service
a) File transfer
5. Application layer offers _______ service b) File download
a) End to end c) E-mail
b) Process to process d) Internet telephony
c) Both End to end and Process to process View Answer
Explanation: Internet telephony is Loss-tolerant
Answer: a other applications are not.
Explanation: None.
1. The ____________ translates internet domain
6. E-mail is and host names to IP address.
a) Loss-tolerant application a) domain name system
b) Bandwidth-sensitive application b) routing information protocol
c) Elastic application c) network time protocol
d) None of the mentioned d) internet relay chat
Answer: c Answer: a
Explanation: Because it can work with available Explanation: None.
throughput.
2. Which one of the following allows a user at one
7. Pick the odd one out site to establish a connection to another site and
a) File transfer then pass keystrokes from local host to remote
b) File download host?
c) E-mail a) HTTP
d) Interactive games b) FTP
View Answer c) Telnet
Explanation: Internet telephony is Loss-tolerant
other applications are not. Answer: c
Explanation: None.
8. Which of the following is an application layer
service ? 3. Application layer protocol defines
a) Network virtual terminal a) types of messages exchanged
b) File transfer, access, and management b) message format, syntax and semantics
c) Mail service c) rules for when and how processes send and
d) All of the mentioned respond to messages
View Answer d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
9. To deliver a message to the correct application
program running on a host, the _______ address
236
4. Which one of the following protocol 9. Which one of the following is not correct?
delivers/stores mail to reciever server? a) application layer protocols are used by both
a) simple mail transfer protocol source and destination devices during a
b) post office protocol communication session
c) internet mail access protocol b) HTTP is a session layer protocol
d) hypertext transfer protocol c) TCP is an application layer protocol
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
5. The ASCII encoding of binary data is called
a) base 64 encoding 10. When displaying a web page, the application
b) base 32 encoding layer uses the
c) base 16 encoding a) HTTP protocol
d) base 8 encoding b) FTP protocol
View Answer c) SMTP protocol
Explanation: None.
Answer: a
6. Which one of the following is an internet Explanation: None.
standard protocol for managing devices on IP
network? 1. The number of objects in a Web page which
a) dynamic host configuration protocol consists of 4 jpeg images and HTML text is
b) simple newtwork management protocol ________
c) internet message access protocol a) 4
d) media gateway protocol b) 1
View Answer c) 5
Explanation: None.
Answer: c
7. Which one of the following is not an Explanation: 4 jpeg images + 1 base HTML file.
application layer protocol?
a) media gateway protocol 2. The default connection type used by HTTP is
b) dynamic host configuration protocol _________
c) resource reservation protocol a) Persistent
d) session initiation protocol b) Non-persistent
View Answer c) Can be either persistent or non-persistent
depending on connection request
Answer: c d) None of the mentioned
8. Which protocol is a signalling communication Answer: a

protocol used for controlling multimedia Explanation: None.
communication sessions?
a) session initiation protocol 3. The time taken by a packet to travel from client
b) session modelling protocol to server and then back to the client is called
c) session maintenance protocol __________
d) none of the mentioned a) STT
View Answer b) RTT
c) PTT
Answer: b
Explanation: RTT stands for round-trip time.
237
4. The HTTP request message is sent in 9. The HTTP response message leaves out the
_________ part of three-way handshake. requested object when ____________ method is
a) First used
b) Second a) GET
c) Third b) POST
d) None of the mentioned c) HEAD
View Answer d) PUT
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None. Answer: c
Explanation: None.
5. In the process of fetching a web page from a
server the HTTP request/response takes 10. Find the oddly matched HTTP status codes
__________ RTTs. a) 200 OK
a) 2 b) 400 Bad Request
b) 1 c) 301 Moved permanently
c) 4 d) 304 Not Found
d) 3 View Answer
View Answer
Answer: d
Answer: b Explanation: 404 Not Found.
Explanation: None.
1. Multiple object can be sent over a TCP
6. The first line of HTTP request message is connection between client and server in
called _____________ a) persistent HTTP
a) Request line b) nonpersistent HTTP
b) Header line c) both persistent HTTP and nonpersistent HTTP
c) Status line d) none of the mentioned
d) Entity line View Answer
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The line followed by request line are
called header lines and status line is the initial part 2. HTTP is ________ protocol.
of response message. a) application layer
b) transport layer
7. The values GET, POST, HEAD etc are c) network layer
specified in ____________ of HTTP message d) none of the mentioned
a) Request line View Answer
b) Header line
c) Status line Answer: a
d) Entity body Explanation: None.
View Answer
3. In the network HTTP resources are located by
Answer: a a) uniform resource identifier
Explanation: It is specified in the method field of b) unique resource locator
request line in the HTTP request message. c) unique resource identifier
8. The __________ method when used in the View Answer
method field, leaves entity body empty.
a) POST Answer: a
b) SEND Explanation: None.
c) GET
d) None of the mentioned 4. HTTP client requests by establishing a
View Answer __________ connection to a particular port on the
server.
Answer: c a) user datagram protocol
Explanation: None.
238
b) transmission control protocol b) service oriented architecture
c) broader gateway protocol c) client server architecture
d) none of the mentioned d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b Answer: c
5. In HTTP pipelining 10. In file transfer protocol, data transfer can be

a) multiple HTTP requests are sent on a single done in
TCP connection without waiting for the a) stream mode
corresponding responses b) block mode
b) multiple HTTP requests can not be sent on a c) compressed mode
single TCP connection d) all of the mentioned
c) multiple HTTP requests are sent in a queue on View Answer
a single TCP connection
d) none of the mentioned Answer: d
Answer: a 1. Expansion of FTP is

Explanation: None. a) Fine Transfer Protocol
b) File Transfer Protocol
6. FTP server listens for connection on port c) First Transfer Protocol
number d) None of the mentioned
a) 20 View Answer
b) 21
c) 22 Answer: b
d) 23 Explanation: None.
View Answer
2. FTP is built on _____ architecture
Answer: b a) Client-server
Explanation: None. b) P2P
c) Both of the mentioned
7. In FTP protocol, client contacts server using d) None of the mentioned
____ as the transport protocol. View Answer
a) transmission control protocol
b) user datagram protocol Answer: a
c) datagram congestion control protocol Explanation: None.
d) stream control transmission protocol
View Answer 3. FTP uses _________ parallel TCP connections
to transfer a file
Answer: a a) 1
Explanation: None. b) 2
c) 3
8. In which mode FTP, the client initiates both the d) 4
control and data connections. View Answer
a) active mode
b) passive mode Answer: b
c) both active mode and passive mode Explanation: Control connection and data
d) none of the mentioned connection.
View Answer
4. Identify the incorrect statement
Answer: b a) FTP stands for File Transfer Protocol
Explanation: None. b) FTP uses two parallel TCP connections
c) FTP sends its control information in-band
9. The file transfer protocol is built on d) FTP sends exactly one file over the data
a) data centric architecture
239
connection c) Compressed mode
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: FTP is out-of-band as it has separate Answer: a
control connection. Explanation: None.
5. If 5 files are transfered from server A to client 10. The password is sent to the server using
B in the same session. The number of TCP ________ command
connection between A and B is a) PASSWD
a) 5 b) PASS
b) 10 c) PASSWORD
c) 2 d) None of the mentioned
d) 6 View Answer
View Answer
Answer: b
Answer: d Explanation: None.
Explanation: 1 control connection and other 5 for
five file transfers. 1. When the mail server sends mail to other mail
servers it becomes ____________
6. FTP server a) SMTP server
a) Mantains state b) SMTP client
b) Is stateless c) Peer
c) Has single TCP connection for a file transfer d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
2. If you have to send multimedia data over
7. The commands, from client to server, and SMTP it has to be encoded into
replies, from server to client, are sent across the a) Binary
control connection in ________ bit ASCII format b) Signal
a) 8 c) ASCII
b) 7 d) None of the mentioned
c) 3 View Answer
d) 5
Explanation: None.
Answer: b
Explanation: None. 3. Expansion of SMTP is
a) Simple Mail Transfer Protocol
8. Find the FTP reply whose message is wrongly b) Simple Message Transfer Protocol
matched c) Simple Mail Transmission Protocol
a) 331 – Username OK, password required d) Simple Message Transmission Protocol
b) 425 – Can’t open data connection View Answer
c) 452 – Error writing file
d) 452 – Can’t open data connection Answer: a
Answer: d 4. In SMTP, the command to write recievers mail

Explanation: None. adress is written with this command
a) SEND TO
9. Mode of data transfer in FTP, where all the is b) RCPT TO
left to TCP c) MAIL TO
a) Stream mode d) None of the mentioned
b) Block mode View Answer
240
Answer: b Answer: a
5. The underlying Transport layer protocol used 10. Example of user agents for e-mail
by SMTP is a) Microsoft Outlook
a) TCP b) Apple Mail
b) UDP c) None of the above
c) Either TCP or UDP d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None. advertisement
6. Choose the statement which is wrong incase of 11. When the sender and the receiver of an email
SMTP are on different systems, we need only _________
a) It requires message to be in 7bit ASCII format a) One MTA
b) It is a pull protocol b) Two UAs
c) It transfers files from one mail server to another c) Two UAs and one pair of MTAs
mail server d) Two UAs and two pairs of MTAs
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The sending mail server pushes the
mail to receiving mail server hence it is push 12. User agent does not support this
protocol. a) Composing messages
b) Reading messages
7. Internet mail places each object in c) Replying messages
a) Separate messages for each object d) All of the mentioned
b) One message View Answer
c) Varies with number of objects
d) None of the mentioned Answer: d
Answer: b 1. Simple mail transfer protocol (SMTP) utilizes

Explanation: None. _________ as the transport layer protocol for
electronic mail transfer.
8. Typically the TCP port used by SMTP is a) TCP
a) 25 b) UDP
b) 35 c) DCCP
c) 50 d) SCTP
d) 15 View Answer
View Answer
Answer:a
Answer: a Explanation:None.
Explanation: None.
2. SMTP connections secured by SSL are known
9. A session may include as
a) Zero or more SMTP transactions a) SMTPS
b) Exactly one SMTP transactions b) SSMTP
c) Always more than one SMTP transactions c) SNMP
d) Number of SMTP transactions cant be d) None of the mentioned
determined View Answer
View Answer
Answer:a
Explanation:None.
241
3. SMTP uses the TCP port d) none of the mentioned
a) 22 View Answer
b) 23
c) 24 Answer:a
d) 25 Explanation:None.
View Answer
9. Which one of the following is an SMTP server
Answer:d configured in such a way that anyone on the
Explanation:None. internet can send e-mail through it?
a) open mail relay
4. Which one of the following protocol is used to b) wide mail reception
receive mail messages? c) open mail reception
a) smtp d) none of the mentioned
b) post office protocol View Answer
c) internet message access protocol
d) all of the mentioned Answer:a
View Answer Explanation:None.
Answer:d 10. SMTP is used to deliver messages to

Explanation:None. a) user’s terminal
b) user’s mailbox
5. What is on-demand mail relay (ODMR)? c) both user’s terminal and mailbox
a) protocol for SMTP security d) none of the mentioned
b) an SMTP extension View Answer
c) protocol for web pages
d) none of the mentioned Answer:c
View Answer Explanation:None.
Answer:b 1. The entire hostname has a maximum of

Explanation:None. a) 255 characters
b) 127 characters
6. An email client needs to know the _________ c) 63 characters
of its initial SMTP server. d) 31 characters
a) IP address View Answer
b) MAC address
c) Url Answer:a
d) None of the mentioned Explanation: None.
View Answer
2. A DNS client is called
Answer:a a) DNS updater
Explanation:None. b) DNS resolver
c) DNS handler
7. A SMTP session may include d) none of the mentioned
a) zero SMTP transaction View Answer
b) one SMTP transaction
c) more than one SMTP transaction Answer:b
d) all of the mentioned Explanation: None.
View Answer
3. Servers handle requests for other domains
Answer:d a) directly
Explanation:None. b) by contacting remote DNS server
c) it is not possible
8. SMTP defines d) none of the mentioned
a) message transport View Answer
b) message encryption
c) message content Answer:b
Explanation: None.
242
4. DNS database contains b) a single server
a) name server records c) a single computer
b) hostname-to-address records d) none of the mentioned
c) hostname aliases View Answer
View Answer Answer:a
Explanation: None.
Answer:d
Explanation: None. 10. Which one of the following is not true?
a) multiple hostnames may correspond to a single
5. If a server has no clue about where to find the IP address
address for a hostname then b) a single hostname may correspond to many IP
a) server asks to the root server addresses
b) server asks to its adjcent server c) a single hostname may correspond to a single
c) request is not processed IP address
Answer:a Answer:c
6. Which one of the following allows client to 1. Secure shell (SSH) network protocol is used for
update their DNS entry as their IP address a) secure data communication
change? b) remote command-line login
a) dynamic DNS c) remote command execution
b) mail transfer agent d) all of the mentioned
c) authoritative name server View Answer
View Answer Answer:d
Explanation: None.
Answer:a
Explanation: None. 2. SSH can be used in only
a) unix-like operating systems
7. Wildcard domain names start with label b) windows
a) @ c) both unix-like and windows systems
b) * d) none of the mentioned
c) & View Answer
d) #
View Answer Answer:c
Explanation: None.
Answer:b
Explanation: None. 3. SSH uses ___________ to authenticate the
remote computer.
8. The right to use a domain name is delegated by a) public-key cryptography
domain name registers which are accredited by b) private-key cryptography
a) internet architecture board c) any of public-key or private-key
b) internet society d) none of the mentioned
c) internet research task force View Answer
d) internet corporation for assigned names and
numbers Answer:a
Answer:d 4. Which standard TCP port is assigned for

Explanation: None. contacting SSH servers?
a) port 21
9. The domain name system is maintained by b) port 22
a) distributed database system c) port 23
243
d) port 24 d) none of the mentioned
Answer:b Answer:a
5. Which one of the following protocol can be 10. Which one of the following authentication
used for login to a shell on a remote host except method is used by SSH?
SSH? a) public-key
a) telnet b) host based
b) rlogin c) password
c) both telnet and rlogin d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer:d
Answer:c Explanation: None.
Explanation: SSH is more secured then telnet and
rlogin. 1. DHCP (dynamic host configuration protocol)
provides __________ to the client.
6. Which one of the following is a file transfer a) IP address
protocol using SSH? b) MAC address
a) SCP c) Url
b) SFTP d) None of the mentioned
c) Rsync View Answer
Explanation: None.
Answer:d
Explanation: None. 2. DHCP is used for
a) IPv6
7. SSH-2 does not contain b) IPv4
a) transport layer c) Both IPv6 and IPv4
b) user authentication layer d) None of the mentioned
c) physical layer View Answer
d) connection layer
Explanation: None.
Answer:c
Explanation: None. 3. The DHCP server
a) maintains a database of available IP addresses
8. Which one of the following feature was present b) maintains the information about client
in SSH protocol, version 1? configuration parameters
a) password changing c) grants a IP address when receives a request
b) periodic replacement of session keys from a client
c) support for public-key certificates d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Answer:d Explanation: None.
Explanation: None.
4. IP assigned for a client by DHCP server is
9. SCP protocol is evolved from __________ over a) for a limited period
SSH. b) for unlimited period
a) RCP protocol c) not time dependent
b) DHCP protocol d) none of the mentioned
c) MGCP protocol View Answer
244
Answer: a 10. If DHCP snooping is configured on a LAN
Explanation: None. switch, then clients having specific ______ can
access the network.
5. DHCP uses UDP port _________ for sending a) MAC address
data to the server. b) IP address
a) 66 c) Both MAC address and IP address
b) 67 d) None of the mentioned
c) 68 View Answer
d) 69
Explanation: None.
Answer: b
Explanation: None. 1. IPsec is designed to provide the security at the
a) Transport layer
6. The DHCP server can provide the _______ of b) Network layer
the IP addresses. c) Application layer
a) dynamic allocation d) Session layer
b) automatic allocation View Answer
c) static allocation
d) all of the mentioned Answer: b
View Answer Explanation: Network layer is used for
transferring the data from transport layer to
Answer: d another layers.
Explanation: None.
2. In tunnel mode IPsec protects the
7. DHCP client and servers on the same subnet a) Entire IP packet
communicate via b) IP header
a) UDP broadcast c) IP payload
b) UDP unicast d) None of the mentioned
c) TCP broadcast View Answer
d) TCP unicast
Explanation: It is nothing but adding control bits
Answer: a to the packets.
Explanation: None.
3. Which component is included in IP security?
8. After obtaining the IP address, to prevent the IP a) Authentication Header (AH)
conflict the client may use b) Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP)
a) internet relay chat c) Internet key Exchange (IKE)
b) broader gateway protocol d) All of the mentioned
c) address resolution protocol View Answer
Explanation: AH, ESP, IKE.
Answer: c
Explanation: None. 4. WPA2 is used for security in
a) Ethernet
9. What is DHCP snooping? b) Bluetooth
a) techniques applied to ensure the security of an c) Wi-Fi
existing DHCP infrastructure d) None of the mentioned
b) encryption of the DHCP server requests View Answer
c) algorithm for DHCP
d) none of the mentioned Answer: c
View Answer Explanation: WPA2 is best with Wi-Fi
connection.
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
245
5. An attempt to make a computer resource Answer: c
unavailable to its intended users is called Explanation: DNS spoofing is the phenomenon
a) Denial-of-service attack for the above mentioned transaction.
b) Virus attack
c) Worms attack 1. A ___________ is an extension of an
d) Botnet process enterprise’s private intranet across a public
View Answer network such as the internet, creating a secure
private connection.
Answer: a a) VNP
Explanation: Denial of service attack. b) VPN
c) VSN
6. Extensible authentication protocol is d) VSPN
authentication framework frequently used in View Answer
a) Wired personal area network
b) Wireless networks Answer: b
c) Wired local area network Explanation: VIRTUAL PRIVATE NETWORK.
View Answer 2. When were VPNs introduced into the
commercial world?
Answer:b a) Early 80’s
Explanation:Most data transfer is with wireless b) Late 80’s
networks. c) Early 90’s
d) Late 90’s
7. Pretty good privacy (PGP) is used in View Answer
a) Browser security
b) Email security Answer: d
c) FTP security Explanation: LATE 90’S.
View Answer 3. What protocol is NOT used in the operation of
a VPN?
Answer: b a) PPTP
Explanation: PGP is at email security. b) IPsec
advertisement c) YMUM
d) L2TP
8. PGP encrypts data by using a block cipher View Answer
called
a) International data encryption algorithm Answer: c
b) Private data encryption algorithm Explanation: YNUM.
c) Internet data encryption algorithm
d) None of the mentioned 4. Which of the following statements is NOT true
View Answer concerning VPNs?
a) Financially rewarding compared to leased lines
Answer: a b) Allows remote workers to access corporate data
Explanation: PGP encrypts data by using a block c) Allows LAN-to-LAN connectivity over public
cipher called international data encryption networks
algorithm. d) Is the backbone of the Internet
View Answer
9. When a DNS server accepts and uses incorrect
information from a host that has no authority Answer: d
giving that information, then it is called Explanation: virtual packet network is not a
a) DNS lookup backbone of the internet.
b) DNS hijacking
c) DNS spoofing 5. Traffic in a VPN is NOT ____________
d) None of the mentioned a) Invisible from public networks
View Answer b) Logically separated from other traffic
c) Accessible from unauthorized public networks
d) Restricted to a single protocol in IPsec
View Answer
246
Answer: c advertisement
Explanation: Because it is secured with the IP
address. 11. Which layer of the OSI reference model does
IPsec work at?
6. VPNs are financially speaking __________ a) Layer 1
a) Always more expensive than leased lines b) Layer 2
b) Always cheaper than leased lines c) Layer 3
c) Usually cheaper than leased lines d) Layer 4
d) Usually more expensive than leased lines View Answer
View Answer
Answer: c
Answer: c Explanation: Session layer.
Explanation: It is very cheap.
1. Storage management comprises of
7. Which layer 3 protocols can be transmitted over a) SAN Management
a L2TP VPN? b) Data protection
a) IP c) Disk operation
b) IPX d) All of the mentioned
c) Neither IP or IPX View Answer
d) Both IP or IPX
Explanation: SAN, Data protection and Disk
Answer: d operation are the main things of storage
Explanation: Data roming layer. management.
8. ESP (Encapsulating Security Protocol) is 2. Identify the storage devices

defined in which of the following standards? a) Switch
a) IPsec b) RAID Arrays
b) PPTP c) Tape drives
c) PPP d) All of the mentioned
d) L2TP View Answer
View Answer
Answer: d
Answer: a Explanation: switch, RAID arrays and tape drives
Explanation: It is the security type of the IPsec. are main storage devices.
9. L2F was developed by which company? 3. Which protocols are used for Storage
a) Microsoft management?
b) Cisco a) SNMP
c) Blizzard Entertainment b) LDAP
d) IETF c) POP3
View Answer d) MIB
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Cisco is the second best company to Answer: a
design and make the computer networks. Explanation: Simple Network Management
Protocol is for storage management.
10. Which layer of the OSI reference model does
PPTP work at? 4. Identify the difficulties the SAN administrator
a) Layer 1 incur while dealing with diverse vendors
b) Layer 2 a) Proprietary management interfaces
c) Layer 3 b) Multiple applications to manage storage in the
d) Layer 4 data center
View Answer c) No single view
Explanation: Presentation layer.
247
Answer: d 9. Task of Distributed Management Task Force is
Explanation: Proprietary management interfaces, to
multiple applications management and no single a) To promote interoperability among the
view are main difficulties. management solution providers
b Acts as an interface between the various
5. How do Storage administrators ensure secure budding technologies and provide solution to
access to storage devices: manage various environments
a) By using Zoning c) Only To promote interoperability among the
b) By putting a physical lock on the storage management solution providers
device d) Both To promote interoperability among the
c) By keeping devices shutdown when not in use management solution providers and Acts as an
d) By keeping devices when used interface between the various budding
View Answer technologies and provide solution to manage
various environments
Explanation: By using Zoning, Storage
administrators ensure secure access to storage Answer: d
devices. Explanation: Promote interoperability and
interface between various buildings.
6. Effective Storage management includes
a) Securities 10. SMI-S Standard uses
b) Backups a) Java RMI
c) Reporting b) CIM-XML/HTTP
d) All of the mentioned c) CORBA
View Answer d) .NET
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: In storage management all Answer: b
necessities like security, backups and reporting Explanation: CIM-XML/HTTP is a SMI-S
facilities are included. standard.
7. Identify the tasks involved in Storage Capacity 1. An application-level protocol in which a few
management manager stations control a set of agents is called
a) Identifying storage systems are approaching a) HTML
full capacity b) TCP
b) Monitoring trends for each resource c) SNMP
c) Tracking Total capacity, total used, total d) SNMP/IP
available View Answer
Explanation: An application-level protocol in
Answer: d which a few manager stations control a set of
Explanation: Identifying, Monitoring and agents is called SNMP.
Tracking are main tasks involved in SCM.
2. Full duplex mode increases capacity of each
8. Effect of open standards like SMI(s) domain from
a) Standardization drives software interoperability a) 10 to 20 mbps
and interchange ability b) 20 to 30 mbps
b) Breaks the old-style dependence on proprietary c) 30 to 40 mbps
methods, trade secrets, and single providers d) 40 to 50 mbps
c) Builds a strong foundation on which others can View Answer
quickly build and innovate
d) All of the mentioned Answer: a
View Answer Explanation: 10 to 20 mbps capacity increased on
each domain in full duplex mode.
Answer: d
Explanation: Driver software, old style 3. Configuration management can be divided into
dependence and strong foundation. two subsystems those are
248
a) Reconfiguration and documentation 8. Control of users’ access to network resources
b) Management and configuration through charges are main responsibilities of
c) Documentation and dialing up a) Reactive Fault Management
d) Both Reconfiguration and documentation and b) Reconfigured Fault Management
Management and configuration c) Accounting Management
View Answer d) Security Management
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Reconfiguration and documentation Answer: c
are two subsystems of configuration management. Explanation: Control of users’ access to network
resources through charges are main
4. To use Simple Network Management System responsibilities of accounting management.
(SNMP), we need
a) Servers 9. SNMP is a framework for managing devices in
b) IP an internet using the
c) Protocols a) TCP/IP protocol
d) Rules b) UDP
View Answer c) SMTP
d) None
Explanation: To use Simple Network
Management System (SNMP), we need rules. Answer: a
Explanation: SNMP is a framework for managing
5. Main difference between SNMPv3 and devices in an internet using the TCP/IP protocol.
SNMPv2 is the
a) Management 10. Structure of Management Information (SMI),
b) Integration is guideline of
c) Classification a) HTTP
d) Enhanced security b) SNMP
View Answer c) URL
d) MIB
Explanation: Enhanced security is the main
difference between SNMPv3 and SNMPv2. Answer: b
Explanation: SMI is guidelines of SNMP.
6. In Network Management System, a term that
responsible for controlling access to network 1. The protocol used by Telnet application is
based on predefined policy is called a) Telnet
a) Fault Management b) FTP
b) Secured Management c) HTTP
c) Active Management d) None of the mentioned
d) Security Management View Answer
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A term that responsible for
controlling access to network based on predefined 2. In “character at a time” mode
policy is called security management. a) Character processing is done on the local
system under the control of the remote system
7. BER stands for b) Most text typed is immediately sent to the
a) Basic Encoding Rules remote host for processing
b) Basic Encoding Resolver c) All text is echoed locally, only completed lines
c) Basic Encoding Rotator are sent to the remote host
d) Basic Encoding Router d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a Answer: b
Explanation: Basic encoding rules. Explanation: None.
249
3. _______ allows you to connect and login to a a) escape character has to be used
remote computer b) control functions has to be disabled
a) Telnet c) it is not possible
b) FTP d) none of the mentioned
c) HTTP View Answer
Explanation: None.
Answer: a
Explanation: None. 1. Telnet protocol is used to establish a connection
to
4. The correct syntax to be written in the web a) TCP port number 21
browser to Telnet to www.sanfoundry.com is b) TCP port number 22
a) telnet//www.sanfoundry.com c) TCP port number 23
b) telnet:www.sanfoundry.com d) TCP port number 24
c) telnet://www.sanfoundry.com View Answer
d) telnet www.sanfoundry.com
Explanation: None.
Answer: c
Explanation: None. 2. Which one of the following is not true?
a) telnet defines a network virtual terminal (NVT)
5. Telnet is a standard
a) Television on net b) client programs interact with NVT
b) Network of Telephones c) server translates NVT operations
c) Remote Login d) none of the mentioned
d) Teleshopping site View Answer
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
3. All telnet operations are sent as
6. Which one of the following is not correct? a) 4 bytes
a) telnet is a general purpose client-server b) 8 bytes
program c) 16 bytes
b) telnet lets user access an application on a d) 32 bytes
remote computer View Answer
c) telnet can also be used for file transfer
d) none of the mentioned Answer: b
Answer: c 4. AbsoluteTelnet is a telnet client for

Explanation: None. a) windows
b) linux
7. Which operating mode of telnet is full duplex? c) mac
a) default mode d) none of the mentioned
b) server mode View Answer
c) line mode
d) none of the mentioned Answer: a
Answer: c 5. The decimal code of interpret as command

Explanation: None. (IAC) character is
advertisement a) 252
b) 253
8. If we want that a character be interpreted by the c) 254
client instead of server
250
d) 255 2. In TCP, sending and receiving data is done as
View Answer a) Stream of bytes
b) Sequence of characters
Answer: d c) Lines of data
Explanation: None. d) Packets
View Answer
6. In character mode operation of telnet
implementation Answer: a
a) each character typed is sent by the client to the Explanation: In TCP, data is sent and received in
server terms of Stream of bytes.
b) each character typed is discarded by the server
c) each character typed is aggregated into a word 3. TCP process may not write and read data at the
and then send to the server same speed. So we need __________ for storage.
d) none of the mentioned a) Packets
View Answer b) Buffers
c) Segments
Answer: a d) Stacks
7. In telnet, the client echoes the character on the Answer: b

screen but does not send it until a whole line is Explanation: TCP needs buffers for storage to
completed in overcome this problem.
a) default mode
c) character mode 4. TCP groups a number of bytes together into a
c) server mode packet called
d) none of the mentioned a) Packet
View Answer b) Buffer
c) Segment
Answer: a d) Stack
advertisement
Answer: c
8. Which one of the following is not correct? Explanation: Segment is a grouping of number of
a) telnet is a general purpose client-server bytes together into a packet.
program
b) telnet lets user access an application on a 5. Communication offered by TCP is
remote computer a) Full-duplex
c) telnet can also be used for file transfer b) Half-duplex
d) none of the mentioned c) Semi-duplex
View Answer d) Byte by byte
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Data flow in both the directions at
1. Which of the following is true with respect to the same time during TCP communication hence,
TCP Full-duplex.
a) Connection-oriented
b) Process-to-process 6. To achieve reliable transport in TCP,
c) Transport layer protocol ___________ is used to check the safe and sound
d) All of the mentioned arrival of data.
View Answer a) Packet
b) Buffer
Answer: d c) Segment
Explanation: TCP is a transport layer protocol, d) Acknowledgment
process-to-process, and creates a virtual View Answer
connection between two TCP’s.
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Answer: d 1. The receiver of the data controls the amount of
Explanation: Acknowledgment mechanism is data that are to be sent by the sender is referred as
used to check the safe and sound arrival of data. a) Flow control
b) Error control
7. In segment header, sequence number and c) Congestion control
acknowledgement number field refers to d) Error detection
a) Byte number View Answer
b) Buffer number
c) Segment number Answer: a
d) Acknowledgment Explanation: Flow control is done to prevent the
View Answer receiver from being overwhelmed with data.
Answer: a 2. Size of TCP segment header ranges between

Explanation: Sequence number and a) 16 and 32 bytes
acknowledgement number field refers to byte b) 16 and 32 bits
number. c) 20 and 60 bytes
d) 20 and 60 bits
8. Suppose a TCP connection is transferring a file View Answer
of 1000 bytes. The first byte is numbered 10001.
What is the sequence number of the segment if all Answer: c
data is sent in only one segment. Explanation: The header is 20 bytes if there are no
a) 10000 options and upto 60 bytes if it contains options.
b) 10001
c) 12001 3. Connection establishment in TCP is done by
d) 11001 which mechanism?
View Answer a) Flow control
b) Three-Way Handshaking
Answer: b c) Forwarding
Explanation: The sequence number of each d) Synchronisation
segment is the number of first byte carried in that View Answer
segment.
Answer: b
9. Bytes of data being transferred in each Explanation: Three-Way Handshaking is used to
connection are numbered by TCP. These numbers connect between client and server.
starts with a
a) Random number 4. The server program tells its TCP that it is ready
b) Zero to accept a connection. This process is called
c) One a) Active open
d) Sequence of zero’s and one’s b) Active close
View Answer c) Passive close
d) Passive open
Explanation: These numbers starts with a random
number. Answer: d
Explanation: This is the first step in the Three-
10. The value of acknowledgement field in a Way Handshaking process and is started by the
segment defines server.
a) Number of previous bytes to receive
b) Total number of bytes to receive 5. The process of, A client that wishes to connect
c) Number of next bytes to receive to an open server tells its TCP that it needs to be
d) Sequence of zero’s and one’s connected to that particular server is
View Answer a) Active open
b) Active close
Answer: c c) Passive close
Explanation: Acknowledgement field in a d) Passive open
segment defines the number of next bytes to View Answer
receive.
252
Answer: a 10. Connection establishment in TCP is done by
Explanation: This is the second step in the Three- which mechanism?
Way Handshaking process and is done by the a) Flow control
client once it finds the open server. b) Three-Way Handshaking
c) Forwarding
6. In Three-Way Handshaking process, the d) Synchronisation
situation where both the TCP’s issue an active View Answer
open is
a) Mutual open Answer: b
b) Mutual Close Explanation: Three-Way Handshaking is used to
c) Simultaneous open terminate the connection between client and
d) Simultaneous close server.
View Answer
1. Which of the following is false with respect to
Answer: c UDP
Explanation: Here, both TCP’s transmit a a) Connection-oriented
SYNC+ACK segment to each other and one b) Unreliable
single connection is established between them. c) Transport layer protocol
7. The situation when a malicious attacker sends a View Answer
large number of SYNC segments to a server,
pretending that each of them is coming from a Answer: a
different client by faking the source IP address in Explanation: UDP is an unreliable, connectionless
the datagrams transport layer protocol.
a) SYNC flooding attack
b) Active attack 2. Return value of the UDP port “Chargen” is
c) Passive attack a) String of characters
d) Denial-of-service attack b) String of integers
View Answer c) Array of characters with integers
d) Array of zero’s and one’s
Explanation: This is the serious security problem
during the connection establishment. Answer: a
Explanation: Chargen with port number 19 returns
8. SYNC flooding attack belongs to a type of string of characters.
security attack known as
a) SYNC flooding attack 3. Beyond IP, TCP provides additional services
b) Active attack such as
c) Passive attack a) Routing and switching
d) Denial-of-service attack b) Sending and receiving of packets
View Answer c) Multiplexing and demultiplexing
d) Demultiplexing and error checking
Explanation: During SYNC flooding the system
collapses and denies service to every request. Answer: d
Explanation: UDP is a simple protocol which
9. Size of source and destination port address of provides demultiplexing and error checking.
TCP header respectively are
a) 16-bits and 32-bits 4. The main advantage of UDP is
b) 16-bits and 16-bits a) More overload
c) 32-bits and 16-bits b) Reliable
d) 32-bits and 32-bits c) Less overload
View Answer d) Fast
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Size of source and destination ports Answer: c
must be 32-bits. Explanation: UDP is an unreliable, connectionless
253
transport layer protocol and uses minimum length
overload. View Answer
5. Port number used by Network Time Answer: a

Protocol(NTP) with UDP is Explanation: A user datagram is encapsulated in
a) 161 an IP datagram. There is a field in the IP datagram
b) 123 the defines the total length. There is another field
c) 162 in the IP datagram that defines the length of the
d) 124 header. So if we subtract the length of a UDP
View Answer datagram that is encapsulated in an IP datagram,
we get the length of UDP user datagram.
Answer: b
Explanation: Port number used by Network Time 10. The field used to detect errors over the entire
Protocol with UDP is 123. user datagram is
a) UDP header
6. what is the header size of UDP packet? b) Checksum
a) 8 bytes c) Source port
b) 8 bits d) Destination port
c) 16 bytes View Answer
d) 124 bytes
Explanation: Checksum field is used to detect
Answer: a errors over the entire user datagram.
Explanation: The fixed size of the UDP packet
header is 8 bytes. 1. Which mode of IPsec should you use to assure
security and confidentiality of data within the
7. The port number is “ephemeral port number”, if same LAN?
the source host is …… a) AH transport mode
a) NTP b) ESP transport mode
b) Echo c) ESP tunnel mode
c) Server d) AH tunnel mode
d) Client View Answer
View Answer
Answer: b
Answer: d Explanation: ESP transport mode should be used
Explanation: If the source host is the client, the to ensure the integrity and confidentiality of data
port number in most cases will be ephemeral port that is exchanged within the same LAN.
number.
2. Which two types of encryption protocols can be
8. “Total length” field in UDP packet header is used to secure the authentication of computers
the length of using IPsec?
a) Only UDP header a) Kerberos V5
b) Only data b) SHA
c) Only checksum c) MD5
d) UDP header plus data d) Both SHA and MD5
Answer: d Answer: d
Explanation: Total length is the 16 bit field which Explanation: SHA or MD5 can be used. Kerberos
contains the length of UDP header and the data. V5 is an authentication protocol, not an
encryption protocol; therefore, answer A is
9. Correct expression for UDP user datagram incorrect. Certificates are a type of authentication
length is that can be used with IPsec, not an encryption
a) UDP length = IP length – IP header’s length protocol; therefore, answer B is incorrect.
b) UDP length = UDP length – UDP header’s
length 3. Which two types of IPsec can be used to secure
c) UDP length = IP length + IP header’s length communications between two LANs?
d) UDP length = UDP length + UDP header’s a) AH tunnel mode
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b) ESP tunnel mode 8. In computer security… means that computer
c) Both AH tunnel mode and ESP tunnel mode system assets can be modified only by authorized
d) ESP transport mode parities.
View Answer a) Confidentiality
b) Integrity
Answer: c c) Availability
Explanation: A tunnel mode IPsec should be used. d) Authenticity
Option c is for data transfer purpose, option d is View Answer
for integrity & confidentiality purpose.
Answer: b
4. ______ provides authentication at the IP level. Explanation: Integrity means that computer
a) AH system assets can be modified only by authorized
b) ESP parities.
c) PGP
d) SSL 9. In computer security… means that the
View Answer information in a computer system only be
accessible for reading by authorized parities.
Answer: a a) Confidentiality
Explanation: It provides integrity checking and b) Integrity
anti-reply security. c) Availability
d) Authenticity
5. IPsec defines two protocols: _______ and View Answer
________
a) AH; SSL Answer: a
b) PGP; ESP Explanation: Confidentiality means that the
c) AH; ESP information in a computer system only be
d) All of the mentioned accessible for reading by authorized parities.
View Answer
10. Which of the following organizations is
Answer: c primarily concerned with military encryption
Explanation: Authentication header and systems?
Encryption security payload. a) NSA
b) NIST
6. IP Security operates in which layer of the OSI c) IEEE
model? d) ITU
a) Network View Answer
b) Transport
c) Application Answer: a
d) Physical Explanation: The NSA is primarily responsible
View Answer for military encryption systems. The NSA
designs, evaluates, and implements encryption
Answer: a systems for the military and government agencies
Explanation: Network layer is mainly used for with high security needs.
security purpose, so IPsec in mainly operates in
network layer. 1. Two broad categories of congestion control are
a) Open-loop and Closed-loop
7. ESP provides b) Open-control and Closed-control
a) source authentication c) Active control and Passive control
b) data integrity d) None of the mentioned
c) privacy View Answer
Explanation: These are two types of congestion
Answer: d control.
Explanation: Encrypted security payload provides
source, data integrity and privacy. 2. In open-loop control, policies are applied to
__________
a) Remove after congestion occurs
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b) Remove after sometime 7. The technique in which a congested node stops
c) Prevent before congestion occurs receiving data from the immediate upstream node
d) Prevent before sending packets or nodes is called as
View Answer a) Admission policy
b) Backpressure
Answer: c c) Forward signalling
Explanation: Policies are applied to prevent d) Backward signalling
congestion before it occurs. View Answer
3. Retransmission of packets must be done when Answer: b

a) Packet is lost Explanation: This is a node-to-node congestion
b) Packet is corrupted control that starts with a node and propagates in
c) Packet is needed opposite direction of data flow to the source.
View Answer 8. Backpressure technique can be applied only to
a) Congestion networks
Answer: d b) Closed circuit networks
Explanation: Retransmission should be done on c) Open circuit networks
account of any of the above cases. d) Virtual circuit networks
View Answer
4. In Go-Back-N window, when the timer of the
packet times out, several packets have to be resent Answer: d
even some may have arrived safe. whereas in Explanation: In Virtual circuit networks, each
Selective Repeat window, tries to send node knows the upstream node from which a flow
___________ data is coming.
a) Packet that have not lost
b) Packet that have lost or corrupted 9. The packet sent by a node to the source to
c) Packet from starting inform it of congestion is called
d) All the packets a) Explicit
View Answer b) Discard
c) Choke
Answer: b d) Backpressure
Explanation: In selective repeat window, packet View Answer
that have lost or corrupted must be sent.
Answer: c
5. Discarding policy is mainly done by Explanation: Choke packet is sent by a node to the
a) Sender source to inform it of congestion.
b) Receiver
c) Router 10. In the slow-start algorithm, the size of the
d) Switch congestion window increases __________ until it
View Answer reaches a threshold.
a) Exponentially
Answer: c b) Additively
Explanation: This is done by the routers to c) Multiplicatively
prevent congestion. d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
6. Closed-Loop control mechanism try to
a) Remove after congestion occurs Answer: a
b) Remove after sometime Explanation: In the slow-start algorithm, the size
c) Prevent before congestion occurs of the congestion window increases exponentially
d) Prevent before sending packets until it reaches a threshold.
Answer: a 11. In the congestion avoidance algorithm, the

Explanation: Policies are applied to remove size of the congestion window increases
congestion after it occurs. ____________ until congestion is detected.
a) Exponentially
b) Additively
256
c) Multiplicatively Answer: c
d) None of the mentioned Explanation: Virtual circuit network does not
View Answer contain termination phase.
Answer: b 5. Steps required in setup process are

Explanation: In the congestion avoidance a) Setup request and acknowledgement
algorithm, the size of the congestion window b) Setup request and setup response
increases additively until congestion is detected. c) Setup request and setup termination
d) Setup and termination steps
1. Which of the following is not a characteristic of View Answer
Virtual Circuit Network?
a) There are setup and teardown phases in Answer: a
addition to the data transfer phase Explanation: Steps required in setup process are
b) Resources can be allocated during setup phase Setup request and acknowledgement.
or on demand
c) All packets follow the same path established 6. During teardown phase, source after sending all
during the connection the frames to destination sends……..to notify
d) Virtual circuit network is implemented in termination
application layer a) Teardown response
View Answer b) Teardown request
c) Termination request
Answer: d d) Termination response
Explanation: Virtual circuit network is normally View Answer
implemented in datalink layer.
Answer: b
2. The address that is unique in the scope of the Explanation: Source after sending all the frames
network or internationally if the network is part of to destination sends teardown request to which,
an international network is called as destination sends teardown response.
a) Global address
b) Network address 7. Delay if, resource allocated during setup phase
c) Physical address during data transfer is
d) IP address a) Constant
View Answer b) Increases for each packet
c) Same for each packet
Answer: a d) Different for each packet
Explanation: This address is used to create a View Answer
virtual circuit identifier.
Answer: c
3. The Identifier that is used for data transfer in Explanation: If resource allocated during setup
virtual circuit network is phase, delay is same for each packet.
a) Global address
b) Virtual circuit identifier 8. Delay if, resource allocated on demand during
c) Network identifier data transfer is
d) IP identifier a) Constant
View Answer b) Increases for each packet
c) Same for each packet
Answer: b d) Different for each packet
Explanation: Virtual circuit identifier is used for View Answer
data transfer and has switch scope.
Answer: d
4. Which of the following is not a phase of virtual Explanation: If resource allocated on demand,
circuit network? delay is different for each packet.
a) Setup phase
b) Datatransfer phase 9. In virtual circuit network, delay times for setup
c) Termination phase and teardown respectively are
d) Teardown phase a) 1 and 1
View Answer b) 1 and 2
c) 2 and 1
257
d) 2 and 2 d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a Answer: c
Explanation: Delay time for setup and teardown is Explanation: None.
one each.
5. An ATM cell has the payload field of
10. In data transfer phase, the table contains how a) 32 bytes
many columns? b) 48 bytes
a) 1 c) 64 bytes
b) 2 d) 128 bytes
c) 3 View Answer
d) 4
Explanation: None.
Answer: d
Explanation: Table has 4 columns. Port and VCI 6. Frame relay has error detection at the
for both incoming and outgoing data. a) physical layer
b) data link layer
c) network layer
1. ATM and frame relay are d) transport layer
a) virtual circuit networks View Answer
b) datagram networks
c) virtual private networks Answer: b
View Answer
7. Virtual circuit identifier in frame relay is called
Answer: a a) data link connection identifier
Explanation: ATM stands for asynchronous b) frame relay identifier
transfer mode. c) cell relay identifier
2. ATM uses the View Answer
a) asynchronous frequency division multiplexing
b) asynchronous time division multiplexing Answer: a
c) asynchronous space division multiplexing Explanation: None.
View Answer 8. Frame relay has
a) only physical layer
Answer: b b) only data link layer
Explanation: None. c) only network layer
d) both physical and data link layer
3. ATM standard defines _______ layers. View Answer
a) 2
b) 3 Answer: d
c) 4 Explanation: None.
d) 5
View Answer 9. In frame relay networks, extended address is
used
Answer: b a) to increase the range of data link connection
Explanation: Three layers are physical layer, identifiers
ATM layer and application adoption layer. b) for error detection
c) for encryption
4. ATM can be used for d) for error recovery
a) local area network View Answer
b) wide area network
c) any of local or wide area network Answer: a
Explanation: None.
258
10. What is FRAD in frame relay network? or error control, they must be provided by
a) FRAD assembles and disassembles the frames theUpper Level Protocol.
coming from other protocols
b) FRAD is used for modulation and 5. Frame Relay deploys physical layer carriers
demodulation such as
c) FRAD is used for error detection a) ADMs
d) None of the mentioned b) UPSR
View Answer c) BLSR
d) SONET
Explanation: FRAD stands for frame relay
assembler/disassembler. Answer: d
Explanation: Frame Relay deploys physical layer
1. Frame Relay is very cheap than other carriers such asSONET.
a) LANs
b) WANs 6. Frame relay has error detection at the
c) MANs a) physical layer
d) Multipoint Networks b) data link layer
View Answer c) network layer
d) transport layer
Explanation: Frame Relay is very cheap than
other WANs. Answer: b
Explanation: In data link layer error control
2. Frame Relay networks offer an option called header is the main thing for any packet transfer,
a) Voice Over For Relay so we use this layer frame relay has error
b) Voice Over Fine Relay detection.
c) Voice On Frame Relay
d) Voice Over Frame Relay 7. Virtual circuit identifier in frame relay is called
View Answer a) data link connection identifier
b) frame relay identifier
Answer: d c) cell relay identifier
Explanation: Frame Relay networks offer an d) none of the mentioned
option calledVoice Over Frame Relay View Answer
3. There are ________ total features of Frame Answer: a

Relay. Explanation: Virtual circuit identifier in frame
a) Five relay is calleddata link connection identifier.
b) Seven
c) Nine 8. Frame relay has only
d) Ten a) physical layer
View Answer b) data link layer
c) both physical layer and data link layer
Answer: c d) none of the mentioned
Explanation: There are total features of Frame View Answer
Relay are Nine.
Answer: c
4. Frame Relay does not provide flow or error Explanation: Frame relay has only physical and
control, they must be provided by the data link layer for error detection in data link layer
a) Lower Level Protocol and for conversion in physical layer.
b) High Level Protocol
c) Upper Level Protocol 9. In frame relay networks, extended address is
d) Downward Level Protocol used
View Answer a) to increase the range of data link connection
identifiers
Answer: c b) for error detection
Explanation: Frame Relay does not provide flow c) both to increase the range of data link
connection identifiers and for error detection
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d) none of the mentioned 4. Common gateway interface is used to
View Answer a) generate executable files from web content by
web server
Answer: a b) generate web pages
Explanation: In frame relay networks, extended c) stream videos
address is usedto increase the range of data link d) none of the mentioned
connection identifiers. View Answer
10. What is FRAD in frame relay network? Answer: a

a) FRAD assembles and disassembles the frames Explanation: None.
coming from other protocols
b) FRAD is used for modulation and 5. URL stands for
demodulation a) unique reference label
c) FRAD is used for error detection b) uniform reference label
d) None of the mentioned c) uniform resource locator
View Answer d) unique resource locator
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: FRAD stands for frame relay Answer: c
assembler/disassembler. Explanation: None.
1. A piece of icon or image on a web page 6. A web cookie is a small piece of data
associated with another webpage is called a) sent from a website and stored in user’s web
a) url browser while a user is browsing a website
b) hyperlink b) sent from user and stored in the server while a
c) plugin user is browsing a website
d) none of the mentioned c) sent from root server to all servers
View Answer d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
2. Dynamic web page
a) is same every time whenever it displays 7. Which one of the following is not used to
b) generates on demand by a program or a request generate dynamic web pages?
from browser a) PHP
c) both is same every time whenever it displays b) ASP.NET
and generates on demand by a program or a c) JSP
request from browser d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
8. An alternative of javascript on windows
3. What is a web browser? platform is
a) a program that can display a web page a) VBScript
b) a program used to view html documents b) ASP.NET
c) it enables user to access the resources of c) JSP
internet d) None of the mentioned
d) all of the mentioned View Answer
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
9. What is document object model (DOM)?
a) convention for representing and interacting
260
with objects in html documents c) Either of the mentioned
b) application programming interface d) None of the mentioned
c) hierarchy of objects in ASP.NET View Answer
Explanation: For TCP it is 6.
Answer: a
Explanation: None. 5. The data field can carry which of the
following?
10. AJAX stands for a) TCP segemnt
a) asynchronous javascript and xml b) UDP segment
b) advanced JSP and xml c) ICMP messages
c) asynchronous JSP and xml d) None of the mentioned
d) advanced javascript and xml View Answer
View Answer
Answer: c
Answer: a Explanation: Data field usually has tranaport layer
Explanation: None. segment, but it can also carry ICMP messages.
1. Which of the following is not applicable for IP? 6. What should be the flag value to indicate the
a) Error reporting last fragment?
b) Handle addressing conventions a) 0
c) Datagram format b) 1
d) Packet handling conventions c) TTl value
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Error reporting is handled by ICMP. Answer: a
Explanation: flag=0 indicates that it is the last
2. Which of the following field in IPv4 datagram fragment.
is not related to fragmentation?
a) Flags 7. Which of these is not applicable for IP
b) Offset protocol?
c) TOS a) is connectionless
d) Identifier b) offer reliable service
View Answer c) offer unreliable service
Explanation: TOS-type of service identifies the
type of packets. Answer: b
Explanation: Ip offers unreliable service.
3. The TTL field has value 10. How many routers advertisement
(max) can process this datagram?
a) 11 8. Fragmentation has following demerits
b) 5 a) complicates routers
c) 10 b) open to DOS attack
d) 1 c) overlapping of fragments.
View Answer d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: TTL field is decremented by one Answer: d
each time the datagram is processed by a router. Explanation: Fragmentation makes the
implementation complex and also can create DOS
4. If the value in protocol field is 17, the transport attack.
layer protocol used is _____________
a) TCP 9. Which field helps to check rearrangement of
b) UDP the fragments?
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a) offset 5. In IPv4 Addresses, classful addressing is
b) flag replaced with
c) ttl a) Classless Addressing
d) identifer b) Classful Addressing
View Answer c) Classful Advertising
d) Classless Advertising
Explanation: Offset field specifies where the
fragment fits in the original datagram. Answer: a
Explanation: Classful addressing is replaced with
1. Which of these is not applicable for IP classless addressing.
protocol?
a) Connectionless 6. First address in a block is used as network
b) Offer reliable service address that represents the
c) Offer unreliable service a) Class Network
d) None of the mentioned b) Entity
View Answer c) Organization
d) Codes
Explanation: IP offers unreliable service.
Answer: c
2. Fragmentation has following demerits Explanation: First address in a block is used as
a) Complicates routers network address that represents the organization.
b) Open to DOS attack
c) Overlapping of fragments 7. In classful addressing, a large part of available
d) All of the mentioned addresses are
View Answer a) Organized
b) Blocked
Answer: d c) Wasted
Explanation: Fragmentation makes the d) Communicated
implementation complex and also can create DOS View Answer
attack.
Answer: c
3. Which field helps to check rearrangement of Explanation: In classful addressing, a large part of
the fragments? available addresses are wasted.
a) Offset advertisement
b) Flag
c) TTL 8. Network addresses are very important concepts
d) Identifier of
View Answer a) Routing
b) Mask
Answer: a c) IP Addressing
Explanation: offset field specifies where the d) Classless Addressing
fragment fits in the original datagram. View Answer
4. In classless addressing, there are no classes but Answer: c

addresses are still granted in Explanation: Network addresses are very
a) IPs important concepts of IP addressing.
b) Blocks
c) Codes 9. Which of this is not a class of IP address?
d) Sizes a) ClassE
View Answer b) ClassC
c) ClassD
Answer: b d) ClassF
Explanation: In classless addressing, there are no View Answer
classes but addresses are still granted in blocks.
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Answer: d Answer: d
Explanation: Class F is not a class of IP Explanation: All the features are only present in
addressing. IPv4 and not IPv6.
1. The size of IP address in IPv6 is 6. The _________ field determines the lifetime of
a) 4bytes IPv6 datagram
b) 128bits a) Hop limit
c) 8bytes b) TTL
d) 100bits c) Next header
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: An IPv6 address is 128 bits long. Answer: a
Explanation: The Hop limit value is decremented
2. The header length of an IPv6 datagram is by one by a router when the datagram is forwaded
___________ by the router. When the value becomes zero the
a) 10bytes datagram is discarded.
b) 25bytes
c) 30bytes 7. Dual-stack approach refers to
d) 40bytes a) Implementing Ipv4 with 2 stacks
View Answer b) Implementing Ipv6 with 2 stacks
c) Node has both IPv4 and IPv6 support
Answer: d d) None of the mentioned
Explanation: IPv6 datagram has fixed header View Answer
length of 40bytes, which results is faster
processing of the datagram. Answer: c
Explanation: Dual-stack is one of the approach
3. In the IPv6 header,the traffic class field is used to support IPv6 in already existing systems.
similar to which field in the IPv4 header? advertisement
a) Fragmentation field
b) Fast-switching 8. Suppose two IPv6 nodes want to interoperate
c) ToS field using IPv6 datagrams but are connected to each
d) Option field other by intervening IPv4 routers. The best
View Answer solution here is
a) Use dual-stack approach
Answer: c b) Tunneling
Explanation: This field enables to have different c) No solution
types of IP datagram. d) Replace the system
View Answer
4. IPv6 doesnot use _________ type of address
a) Broadcast Answer: b
b) Multicast Explanation: The IPv4 routers can form a tuunel.
c) Anycast
d) None of the mentioned 9. Teredo is an automatic tunneling technique. In
View Answer each client the obfuscated IPv4 address is
represented by bits
Answer: a a) 96 to 127
Explanation: Broadcast has been eliminated in b) 0 to 63
IPv6. c) 80 to 95
d) 64 to 79
5. These are the features present in IPv4 but not in View Answer
IPv6.
a) Fragmentation Answer: a
b) Header checksum Explanation: Bits 96 to 127 in the datagram
c) Options represents obfuscated 1Pv4 address.
View Answer 1. Dual-stack approach refers to
a) Implementing Ipv4 with 2 stacks
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b) Implementing Ipv6 with 2 stacks Answer: b
c) Node has both IPv4 and IPv6 support Explanation: In subcategories of reserved address
d) None of the mentioned in IPv6, address that is used by a host to test itself
View Answer without going into network is called loop back
address.
Answer: c
Explanation: Dual-stack is one of the approach 6. A few leftmost bits in each address of IPv6
used to support IPv6 in already existing systems. address define its category is called
a) Prefix type
2. Suppose two IPv6 nodes want to interoperate b) Postfix type
using IPv6 datagrams but are connected to each c) Reserved type
other by intervening IPv4 routers. The best d) Local type
solution here is View Answer
a) Use dual-stack approach
b) Tunneling Answer: a
c) No solution Explanation: Prefix means bits in the IP address
d) Replace the system are placed in leftmost position.
View Answer
7. In IPv6 addresses, addresses start with eight 0s
Answer: b are called
Explanation: The IPv4 routers can form a tunnel. a) Unicast addresses
b) Multicast addresses
3. Teredo is an automatic tunneling technique. In c) Any cast addresses
each client the obfuscated IPv4 address is d) Reserved addresses
represented by bits View Answer
a) 96 to 127
b) 0 to 63 Answer: d
c) 80 to 95 Explanation: In IPv6 address format the starting
d) 64 to 79 bits are specified with eight 0s called reserved
View Answer address.
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Answer: a
Explanation: Bits 96 to 127 in the datagram 8. Which statement(s) about IPv6 addresses are
represents obfuscated 1Pv4 address. true?
a) Leading zeros are required
4. A link local address of local addresses is used b) Two colons (::) are used to represent successive
in an hexadecimal fields of zeros
a) Isolated router c) Two colons (::) are used to separate fields
b) Isolated mask d) A single interface cannot have multiple IPv6
c) Isolated subnet addresses of different types
d) Isolated net View Answer
View Answer
Answer: b
Answer: c Explanation: In order to shorten the written length
Explanation: Isolated subnet is very huge sharing of an IPv6 address, successive fields of zeros may
network area in this link local address of local be replaced by double colons. In trying to shorten
addresses is used. the address further, leading zeros may also be
removed. Just as with IPv4, a single device’s
5. In subcategories of reserved address in IPv6, interface can have more than one address; with
address that is used by a host to test itself without IPv6 there are more types of addresses and the
going into network is called same rule applies. There can be link-local, global
a) Unspecified address unicast, and multicast addresses all assigned to the
b) Loopback address same interface.
c) Compatible address
d) Mapped address 9. When IPV6 launched
View Answer a) June 2, 2012
b) June 4, 2012
c) June 5, 2012
264
d) June 6, 2012 a) Well-known ports
View Answer b) Registered ports
c) Dynamic ports
Answer: d d) Static ports
Explanation: None View Answer
1. Which layer is responsible for process-to- Answer: d

process delivery? Explanation: IANA divided port number range in
a) Physical layer to three i.e., Well-known, Registered and
b) Network layer Dynamic ports.
c) Transport layer
d) Application layer 6. The combination of an IP address and port
View Answer number is called as?
a) Socket address
Answer: c b) Port address
Explanation: Transport layer is responsible for c) MAC address
process-to-process delivery. d) Host address
View Answer
2. In process-to-process delivery, two processes
communicate in which of the following methods? Answer: a
a) Client/Server Explanation: Socket address is the combination of
b) Source/Destination an IP address and port number.
c) Message Transfer
d) None of the mentioned 7. Which of the following is false with respect to
View Answer Connectionless service of transport layer
protocol?
Answer: a a) Packets are not numbered
Explanation: The most common method used for b) Packets are not delayed
this communication is Client/Server. c) No acknowledgement
d) Packet may arrive out of sequence
3. Multiple processes on destinations at transport View Answer
layer are identified by:
a) Mac address Answer: b
b) Port number Explanation: Packets in this method may be
c) Host number delayed or lost.
d) Host address
View Answer 8. Correct order in the process of Connection-
Oriented services is
Answer: b 1. Data transfer
Explanation: Multiple processes on destinations 2. Connection release
are identified by transport layer address also 3. Connection establishment
called as port number. a) 1-2-3
b) 3-2-1
4. Range of port numbers in Internet model is c) 2-1-3
a) 0 and 32,765(8-bit) d) 3-1-2
b) 0 and 32,765(16-bit) View Answer
c) 0 and 65,535(32-bit)
d) 0 and 65,535(16-bit) Answer: d
View Answer Explanation: First connection should be
established followed by data transfer and
Answer: d connection release.
Explanation: Port numbers are 16-bit integers
between 0 and 65,535. 9. In transport layer, Multiplexing is done at
a) Channel
5. According to Internet Assigned Numbers b) Receiver site
Authority(IANA), which of the following range is c) Sender site
not a part of port number? d) Packet
View Answer
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Answer: c b) Source quench
Explanation: Multiplexing is done before sending c) Router error
packets at sender site. d) Time exceeded
View Answer
10. The process of error checking and dropping of
the header, delivering messages to appropriate Answer: c
process based on port number is called as Explanation: Router error is not a type of error-
a) Delivery of packets reporting messages in ICMP.
b) Error correction
c) Multiplexing 5. ICMP error message will not be generated for a
d) Demultiplexing datagram having a special address such as
View Answer a) 127.0.0.0
b) 12.1.2
Answer: d c) 11.1
Explanation: Demultiplexing is the process of d) 127
error checking and dropping of the header, View Answer
delivering messages to appropriate process based
on port number. Answer: a
Explanation: No ICMP error message will be
1. Internet Control Message Protocol(ICMP) has generated for a datagram having a special address
designed to compensate such as 127.0.0.0 or 0.0.0.0.
a) Error-reporting
b) Error-correction 6. When a router cannot route a datagram or host
c) Host and management queries cannot deliver a datagram, the datagram is
d) All of the mentioned discarded and the router or the host sends a
View Answer ____________ message back to the source host
that initiated the datagram.
Answer: d a) Destination unreachable
Explanation: ICMP has been designed to address b) Source quench
these issues. c) Router error
d) Time exceeded
2. Header size of the ICMP message is View Answer
a) 8-bytes
b) 8-bits Answer: a
c) 16-bytes Explanation: Router sends destination
d) 16-bits unreachable message if the destination is not
View Answer found.
Answer: a 7. The source-quench message in ICMP was

Explanation: ICMP message has 8-bytes header designed to add a kind of ____________ to the IP.
and variable size data section. a) Error control
b) Flow control
3. During error reporting, ICMP always reports c) Router control
error messages to d) None of the mentioned
a) Destination View Answer
b) Source
c) Next router Answer: b
d) Previous router Explanation: Firstly, it informs the source that the
View Answer datagram has been discarded. secondly, it warns
the source that there is congestion in the network.
Answer: b
Explanation: ICMP sends error message to the 8. In case of time exceeded error, when the
source because the datagram knows information datagram visits a router, the value of time to live
about source and destination IP address. field is
a) Remains constant
4. Which of these is not a type of error-reporting b) Decremented by 2
messages c) Incremented by 1
a) Destination unreachable
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d) Decremented by 1 Answer: a
View Answer Explanation: Checksum is the compliment of the
sum(exchange 0’s and 1’s).
Answer: d
Explanation: This field will be decremented by 1 1. The main reason for transition from IPv4 to
at every router, and will be zero by the time it IPv6 is
reaches source. a) Huge number of systems on the internet
b) Very low number of system on the internet
9. Two machines can use the timestamp request c) Providing standard address
and timestamp replay messages to determine the d) None of the mentioned
___________ needed for an IP datagram to travel View Answer
between them.
a) Half-trip time Answer: a
b) Round-trip time Explanation: Due to huge number of systems on
c) Travel time for the next router the internet, transition from IPv4 to IPv6 happens.
d) Time to reach the destination/source
View Answer 2. Which of the following is not a transition
strategies?
Answer: b a) Dual stack
Explanation: Router sends destination b) Tunnelling
unreachable message if the destination is not c) Conversion
found. d) Header translation
View Answer
10. During debugging, we can use the
____________ program to find if a host is alive Answer: c
and responding Explanation: Dual stack, tunnelling and header
a) Traceroute translation are the only three transition strategies.
b) Shell
c) Ping 3. To determine which version to use when
d) Java sending a packet to a destination, the source host
View Answer queries which of the following?
a) Dual stack
Answer: c b) Domain Name Server
Explanation: Ping program is used to find if a host c) Header information
is alive and responding. d) All of the mentioned
11. In windows, ____________ can be used to Answer: b

trace the route of the packet from the source to the Explanation: Source host queries DNS to
destination determine which version to use when sending a
a) Traceroute packet to a destination.
b) Tracert
c) Ping 4. The strategy used when two computers using
d) Locater IPv6 want to communicate with each other and
View Answer the packet must pass through a region that uses
IPv4 is
Answer: b a) Dual stack
Explanation: Tracert is used in case of windows, b) Header translation
whereas Traceroute in UNIX. c) Conversion
d) Tunnelling
12. In a simple echo-request message, the value of View Answer
the sum is 01010000 01011100. Then, value of
checksum is Answer: d
a) 10101111 10100011 Explanation: Tunnelling is used when two
b) 01010000 01011100 computers using IPv6 want to communicate with
c) 10101111 01011100 each other and the packet must pass through a
d) 01010000 10100011 region that uses IPv4.
View Answer
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5. The correct format of packet in tunnel that uses c) Datagram format
IPv4 region is d) Packet handling
1. IPv6 header View Answer
2. Payload
3. IPv4 header Answer: a
a) 3-1-2 Explanation: Error reporting is handled by ICMP.
b) 3-2-1
c) 1-2-3 2. Which of the following field in IPv4 datagram
d) 1-3-2 is not related to fragmentation?
View Answer a) Flags
b) Offset
Answer: a c) TOS
Explanation: In tunnel with IPv4 region, IPv6 d) Identifier
packet will be encapsulated with IPv4 header. View Answer
6. ___________ is necessary when the sender Answer: c

wants to use IPv6, but the receiver does not Explanation: TOS type of service identifies the
understand IPv6. type of packets.
a) Dual stack
b) Header translation 3. The TTL field has value 10. How many routers
c) Conversion (max) can process this datagram?
d) Tunnelling a) 11
View Answer b) 5
c) 10
Answer: b d) 1
Explanation: Header translation is used when the View Answer
sender wants to use IPv6, but the receiver does
not understand IPv6. Answer: c
Explanation: TTL field is decremented by one
7. Header translation uses ___________ to each time the datagram is processed by a router.
translate an IPv6 address to an IPv4 address.
a) IP address 4. If the value in protocol field is 17, the transport
b) Physical address layer protocol used is _________
c) Mapped address a) TCP
d) Any of the mentioned b) UDP
View Answer c) Either TCP and UDP
Explanation: Mapped address is used to translate
an IPv6 address to an IPv4 address. Answer: b
advertisement Explanation: For TCP it is 6.
8. Which of the following is not the step in 5. Which field helps to check rearrangement of
Header translation procedure? the fragments?
a) The IPv6 mapped address is changed to an IPv4 a) offset
address by extracting the rightmost 32bits b) flag
b) The value of the IPv6 priority field is discarded c) ttl
c) The type of service field in IPv4 is set to zero d) identifier
d) The IPv6 flow label is considered View Answer
View Answer
Answer: a
Answer: d Explanation: Offset field specifies where the
Explanation: In header translation procedure, IPv6 fragment fits in the original datagram.
flow label is ignored.
6. The size of IP address in IPv6 is
1. Which of the following is not applicable for IP? a) 4bytes
a) Error reporting b) 128bits
b) Handle addressing conventions
268
c) 8bytes subnetmask?
d) 100bits a) 172.16.10.255
View Answer b) 255.255.255.255
c) 172.16.255.255
Answer: b d) 172.255.255.255
Explanation: An IPv6 address is 128 bits long. View Answer
7. The header length of an IPv6 datagram is Answer: c

___________ Explanation: This address is used for broadcast
a) 10bytes the class B network purpose
b) 25bytes
c) 30bytes 2. You have an IP address of 172.16.13.5 with a
d) 40bytes 255.255.255.128 subnet mask. What is your class
View Answer of address, subnet address, and broadcast address?
a) Class A, Subnet 172.16.13.0, Broadcast address
Answer: d 172.16.13.127
Explanation: IPv6 datagram has fixed header b) Class B, Subnet 172.16.13.0, Broadcast address
length of 40bytes, which results is faster 172.16.13.127
processing of the datagram. c) Class B, Subnet 172.16.13.0, Broadcast address
172.16.13.255
8. In the IPv6 header, the traffic class field is d) Class B, Subnet 172.16.0.0, Broadcast address
similar to which field in the IPv4 header? 172.16.255.255
a) Fragmentation field View Answer
b) Fast switching
c) TOS field Answer: b
d) Option field Explanation: Class B is the address of IP code
View Answer 172.16.13.5
Answer: c 3. If you wanted to have 12 subnets with a Class

Explanation: This field enables to have different C network ID, which subnet mask would you use?
types of IP datagram. a) 255.255.255.252
b) 255.255.255.255
9. IPv6 does not use ________ type of address c) 255.255.255.240
a) Broadcast d) 255.255.255.248
b) Multicast View Answer
c) Any cast
d) None of the mentioned Answer: c
View Answer Explanation: If you have eight networks and each
requires 10 hosts, you would use the Class C
Answer: a mask of 255.255.255.240. Why? Because 240 in
Explanation: Broadcast has been eliminated in binary is 11110000, which means you have four
IPv6. subnet bits and four host bits. Using our math,
we’d get the following:
10. Which are the features present in IPv4 but not 24-2=14 subnets
in IPv6? 24-2=14 hosts.
a) Fragmentation
b) Header checksum 4. The combination of _________ and
c) Options __________ is often termed the local address of
d) All of the mentioned the local portion of the IP address.
View Answer a) Network number and host number
b) Network number and subnet number
Answer: d c) Subnet number and host number
Explanation: All the features are only present in d) Host number
IPv4 and not IPv6. View Answer
1. Which of the following is the broadcast address Answer: c

for a Class B network ID using the default Explanation: Sub networking is implemented for
remote sensing in transparent way from that a host
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contains the sub network which called local Ethernet in wired local networks, as a result of
operation. being considerably faster.
5. _________ implies that all subnets obtained 9. _________ is a collective term for a number of
from the same subnet mask. Ethernet Standards that carry traffic at the
a) Static subnetting nominal rate of 1000 Mbit/s against the original
b) Dynamic subnetting Ethernet speed of 10 Mbit/s.
c) Variable length subnetting a) Ethernet
d) Both Dynamic subnetting and Variable length b) Fast Ethernet
subnetting c) Gigabit Ethernet
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Static sub network. Answer: b
Explanation: Fast Ethernet
6. State whether true or false.
i) A connection oriented protocol can only use 10. _________ is another kind of fiber optic
unicast addresses. network with an active star for switching.
ii) The any cast service is included in IPV6. a) S/NET
a) True, True b) SW/NET
b) True, False c) NET/SW
c) False, True d) FS/NET
d) False, False View Answer
View Answer
Answer: a
Answer: a Explanation: A 50-MBd active star fiber optical
Explanation: A connection oriented protocol can Local area network (LAN) and its optical
only use unicast addresses. combiner and mixing rod splitter are presented.
The any cast service is included in IPV6. The limited power budget and relatively large
tapping losses of light wave technology, which
7. __________ is a high performance fiber optic limit the use of fiber optics in tapped bus LAN
token ring LAN running at 100 Mbps over topologies, are examined and proven tolerable in
distances upto 1000 stations connected. optical star topologies.
a) FDDI
b) FDDT 1.A network administrator is connecting hosts A
c) FDDR and B directly through their Ethernet interfaces, as
d) FOTR shown in the illustration. Ping attempts between
View Answer the hosts are unsuccessful. What can be done to
provide connectivity between the hosts?
Answer: a
Explanation: FIBER DISTRIBUTED DATA
INTERFACE
8. Which of the following are Gigabit Ethernets?

a) 1000 BASE-SX
b) 1000 BASE-LX
c) 1000 BASE-CX 1. A crossover cable should be used in place of
d) all of the above the straight-through cable.
View Answer 2. A rollover cable should be used in place of the
straight-through cable.
Answer: d 3. The subnet masks should be set to
255.255.255.192.
Explanation: In computer networking, Gigabit
4. A default gateway needs to be set on each host.
Ethernet (GbE or 1 GigE) is a term describing
various technologies for transmitting Ethernet 5. The subnet masks should be set to
255.255.255.0.
frames at a rate of a gigabit per second
(1,000,000,000 bits per second), as defined by the a) 1 only
IEEE 802.3-2008 standard. It came into use b) 2 only
c) 3 and 4 only
beginning in 1999, gradually supplanting Fast
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d) 1 and 5 only subnet. The next subnet is 4.0, so the broadcast
View Answer address for the 2.0 subnet is 3.255. The valid host
addresses are 2.1 through 3.254.
Answer: d
Explanation: First, if you have two hosts directly 4. What is the maximum number of IP addresses
connected, as shown in the graphic, then you need that can be assigned to hosts on a local subnet that
a crossover cable. A straight-through cable won’t uses the 255.255.255.224 subnet mask?
work. Second, the hosts have different masks, a) 14
which puts them in different subnets. The easy b) 15
solution is just to set both masks to 255.255.255.0 c) 16
(/24). d) 30
View Answer
2. Your router has the following IP address on
Ethernet0: 172.16.2.1/23. Which of the following Answer: d
can be valid host IDs on the LAN interface Explanation: A /27 (255.255.255.224) is 3 bits on
attached to the router? and 5 bits off. This provides 8 subnets, each with
1. 172.16.1.100 30 hosts. Does it matter if this mask is used with a
2. 172.16.1.198 Class A, B, or C network address? Not at all. The
3. 172.16.2.255 number of host bits would never change.
4. 172.16.3.0
a) 1 only 5. You need to subnet a network that has 5
b) 2 and 3 only subnets, each with at least 16 hosts. Wohich
c) 3 and 4 only classful subnet mask would you use
d) None of the mentioned a) 255.255.255.192
View Answer b) 255.255.255.224
c) 255.255.255.240
Answer: c d) 255.255.255.248
Explanation: The router’s IP address on the E0 View Answer
interface is 172.16.2.1/23, which is
255.255.254.0. This makes the third octet a block Answer: b
size of 2. The router’s interface is in the 2.0 Explanation: You need 5 subnets, each with at
subnet, and the broadcast address is 3.255 because least 16 hosts. The mask 255.255.255.240
the next subnet is 4.0. The valid host range is 2.1 provides 16 subnets with 14 hosts-this will not
through 3.254. The router is using the first valid work. The mask 255.255.255.224 provides 8
host address in the range. subnets, each with 30 hosts. This is the best
answer.
3. Which two statements describe the IP address
10.16.3.65/23? 6. You have a network that needs 29 subnets
1. The subnet address is 10.16.3.0 255.255.254.0. while maximizing the number of host addresses
2. The lowest host address in the subnet is available on each subnet. How many bits must
10.16.2.1 255.255.254.0. you borrow from the host field to provide the
3. The last valid host address in the subnet is correct subnet mask?
10.16.2.254 255.255.254.0. a) 2
4. The broadcast address of the subnet is b) 3
10.16.3.255 255.255.254.0. c) 4
a) 1 and 3 d) 5
b) 2 and 4 View Answer
c) 1, 2 and 4
d) 2, 3 and 4 Answer: d
View Answer Explanation: A 240 mask is 4 subnet bits and
provides 16 subnets, each with 14 hosts. We need
Answer: b more subnets, so let’s add subnet bits. One more
Explanation: The mask 255.255.254.0 (/23) used subnet bit would be a 248 mask. This provides 5
with a Class A address means that there are 15 subnet bits (32 subnets) with 3 host bits (6 hosts
subnet bits and 9 host bits. The block size in the per subnet). This is the best answer.
third octet is 2 (256 – 254). So this makes the
subnets in the interesting octet 0, 2, 4, 6, etc., all 7. If an Ethernet port on a router were assigned an
the way to 254. The host 10.16.3.65 is in the 2.0 IP address of 172.16.112.1/25, what would be the
271
valid subnet address of this host? Answer: b
a) 172.16.112.0 Explanation: A CIDR address of /19 is
b) 172.16.0.0 255.255.224.0. This is a Class B address, so that
c) 172.16.96.0 is only 3 subnet bits, but it provides 13 host bits,
d) 172.16.255.0 or 8 subnets, each with 8,190 hosts.
View Answer
1. Which type of Ethernet framing is used for
Answer: a TCP/IP and DEC net?
Explanation: A /25 mask is 255.255.255.128. a) Ethernet 802.3
Used with a Class B network, the third and fourth b) Ethernet 802.2
octets are used for subnetting with a total of 9 c) Ethernet II
subnet bits, 8 bits in the third octet and 1 bit in the d) Ethernet SNAP
fourth octet. Since there is only 1 bit in the fourth View Answer
octet, the bit is either off or on-which is a value of
0 or 128. The host in the question is in the 0 Answer: c
subnet, which has a broadcast address of 127 Explanation: Ethernet 802.3 is used with NetWare
since 128 is the next subnet versions 2 through 3.11, Ethernet 802.2 is used
withNetWare 3.12 and later plus OSI routing,
8. You have an interface on a router with the IP Ethernet II is used with TCP/IP and DEC net,and
address of 192.168.192.10/29. Including the Ethernet SNAP is used with TCP/IP and
router interface, how many hosts can have IP AppleTalk.
addresses on the LAN attached to the router
interface? 2. You are a system administrator on a NetWare
a) 6 network, you are runningNetWare 4.11 and you
b) 8 cannot communicate with your router. What is the
c) 30 likelyproblem?
d) 32 a) NetWare 4.11 defaults to 802.2 encapsulation
View Answer b) NetWare 4.11 defaults to 802.3 encapsulation
c) Cisco routers only work with NetWare 3.11
Answer: a d) NetWare 3.11 defaults to 802.2 encapsulation
Explanation: A /29 (255.255.255.248), regardless View Answer
of the class of address, has only 3 host bits. Six
hosts is the maximum number of hosts on this Answer: a
LAN, including the router interface. Explanation: The default encapsulation on Cisco
routers is Novell Ethernet_802.3 and NetWare
9. What is the subnetwork number of a host with 3.12and later defaults to 802.2 encapsulation, 3.11
an IP address of 172.16.66.0/21? and earlier defaults to 802.3.
a) 172.16.36.0
b) 172.16.48.0 3. NetWare IPX addressing uses a network
c) 172.16.64.0 number and a node number. Which statement is
d) 172.16.0.0 not true?
View Answer a) The network address is administratively
assigned and can be up to 16 hexadecimal digits
Answer: c long
Explanation: A /21 is 255.255.248.0, which b) The node address is always administratively
means we have a block size of 8 in the third octet, assigned
so we just count by 8 until we reach 66. The c) The node address is usually the MAC address
subnet in this question is 64.0. The next subnet is d) If the MAC address is used as the node address,
72.0, so the broadcast address of the 64 subnet is then IPX eliminates the use of ARP
71.255. View Answer
10. The network address of 172.16.0.0/19 Answer: b

provides how many subnets and hosts? Explanation: The network address can be up to 16
a) 7 subnets, 30 hosts each hexadecimal digits in length. The node number is
b) 8 subnets, 8,190 hosts each 12hexadecimal digits. The node address is usually
c) 8 subnets, 2,046 hosts each the MAC address. An example IPXaddress is
d) 7 subnets, 2,046 hosts each 4a1d.0000.0c56.de33. The network part is 4a1d.
View Answer The node part is0000.0c56.de33. The network
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number is assigned by the system administrator of Answer: a
theNovell network. Explanation: It isolates network 10.0.0.0 and
172.68.7.0 and associates autonomous systems
4. Which NetWare protocol works on layer 3– 109 and71 with IGRP. IGRP does not disable
network layer—of the OSI model? RIP, both can be used at the same time.
a) IPX
b) NCP 8. The “IPX delay number” command will allow
c) SPX an administrator to change the
d) NetBIOS default settings. What are the default settings?
View Answer a) For LAN interfaces, one tick; for WAN
interfaces, six ticks
Answer: a b) For LAN interfaces, six ticks; for WAN
Explanation: IPX (Internetwork Packet Exchange) interfaces, one tick
is a NetWare network layer 3 protocol used c) For LAN interfaces, zero ticks; for WAN
fortransferring information on LANs. interfaces, five ticks
d) For LAN interfaces, five ticks; for WAN
5. Which NetWare protocol provides link-state interfaces, zero Ticks
routing? View Answer
a) NLSP
b) RIP Answer: a
c) SAP Explanation: The default is–for LAN interfaces,
d) NCP one tick; for WAN interfaces, six ticks
View Answer
9. As a system administrator, you need to set up
Answer: a one Ethernet interface on the Cisco
Explanation: NetWare Link Services Protocol router to allow for both sap and Novell-ether
(NLSP) provides link-state routing. SAP (Service encapsulations. Which set of
Advertisement Protocol) advertises network commands will accomplish this?
services. NCP (NetWare Core Protocol)provides a) Interface Ethernet 0.1 IPX encapsulation
client-to-server connections and applications. RIP Novell-ether IPX network 9e interface
is a distance vector routingprotocol. Ethernet 0.2 IPX network 6c
b) Interface Ethernet 0 IPX encapsulation Novell-
6. As a system administrator, you want to debug ether IPX network 9e interface
IGRP but are worried that the Ethernet 0 IPX encapsulation sap IPX network 6c
“debug IP IGRP transaction” command will flood c) Interface Ethernet 0.1 IPX encapsulation
the console. What is the command Novell-ether interface Ethernet 0.2 IPX
that you should use? encapsulation sap
a) Debug IP IGRP event d) Interface Ethernet 0.1ipx encapsulation Novell-
b) Debug IP IGRP-events ether IPX network 9e interface
c) Debug IP IGRP summary Ethernet 0.2 IPX encapsulation sap IPX network
d) Debug IP IGRP events 6c
Answer: d Answer: d
Explanation: The “debug IP IGRP events” is used Explanation: The following commands setup the
to only display a summary of IGRP routing sub interfaces to allow for two types of
information. You can append an IP address onto encapsulation:interface Ethernet 0.1 IPX
either command to see only the IGRP encapsulation Novell-ether IPX network 9e
updates from a neighbor. interface Ethernet0.2 IPX encapsulation sap IPX
network 6c.
7. What does the following series of commands
accomplish? RouterIGRP 71 network 10. What does the “IPX maximum-paths 2”
10.0.0.0 router IGRP 109 network 172.68.7.0 command accomplish?
a) It isolates networks 10.0.0.0 and 172.68.7.0 a) It enables load sharing on 2 paths if the paths
b) It loads IGRP for networks 109 and 71 are equal metric paths
c) It disables RIP b) It sets up routing to go to network 2
d) It disables all routing protocols c) It is the default for Cisco IPX load sharing
View Answer d) It enables load sharing on 2 paths if the paths
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are unequal metric paths c) Every 90 seconds
View Answer d) RIPv1 does not broadcast periodically
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: It enables load sharing on 2 paths if Answer: a
the paths are equal metric paths. The default is 1 Explanation: Every 30 seconds RIPv1 router
pathand the maximum is 512 paths. broadcast its routing table by default.
11. You want to enable both arpa and snap 3. Which command displays RIP routing updates?
encapsulation on one router interface. a) Show IP route
How do you do this? b) Debug IP rip
a) The interface can handle multiple encapsulation c) Show protocols
types with no extra configuration d) Debug IP route
b) Assign two network numbers, one for each View Answer
encapsulation type
c) Enable Novell-ether to run multiple Answer: b
encapsulation types Explanation: The debug IP rip command is used
d) Both arpa and snap are enabled by default so to show the Internet Protocol (IP) Routing
you don’t have to configure anything Information Protocol (RIP) updates being sent and
View Answer received on the router.
Answer: b 4. Two connected routers are configured with RIP

Explanation: To assign multiple network routing. What will be the result when a router
numbers, you usually use sub interfaces. A sample receives a routing update that contains a higher-
configuration follows: IPXEthernet 0.1 IPX cost path to a network already in its routing table?
encapsulation novell-ether ipx network 9e a) The updated information will be added to the
interface ethernet 0.2 ipx encapsulation sap ipx existing routing table Debug IP rip
network 6c b) The update will be ignored and no further
action will occur Debug IP route
12. By default, Cisco routers forward GNS SAPs c) The updated information will replace the
to remote networks. existing routing table entry
a) False d) The existing routing table entry will be deleted
b) True from the routing table and all routers will
View Answer exchange routing updates to reach convergence
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: GNS is Novell’s protocol to Get Answer: b
Nearest Server. If there is a server on the local Explanation: When a routing update is received
network,that server will respond. If there isn’t, the by a router, the router first checks the
Cisco router has to be configured to forward administrative distance (AD) and always chooses
theGNS SAP. the route with the lowest AD. However, if two
routes are received and they both have the same
1. Which protocol should you select if the AD, then the router will choose the one route with
network diameter is more than 17 hops? the lowest metrics, or in RIP’s case, hop count.
a) RIPv1
b) RIPv2 5. You type debug IP rip on your router console
c) EIGRP and see that 172.16.10.0 is being advertised to you
d) Both RIPv1 and RIPv2 with a metric of 16. What does this mean?
View Answer a) The route is 16 hops away Debug IP rip
b) The route has a delay of 16 microseconds
Answer: a Debug IP route
Explanation: RIP v1 has network diameter is more c) The route is inaccessible
than 17 hopes. d) The route is queued at 16 messages a second
View Answer
2. How often does a RIPv1 router broadcast its
routing table by default? Answer: c
a) Every 30 seconds Explanation: You cannot have 16 hops on a RIP
b) Every 60 seconds network by default. If you receive a route
274
advertised with a metric of 16, this means it is c) Minimum five exit paths out of the network
inaccessible. d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
6. Default administrative distance of Static Route
a) 0 Answer: a
b) 90 Explanation: On stub networks- which have only
c) 100 one exit path out of the networkuse default
d) 1 routing.
View Answer
1. Which statement is true regarding classless
Answer: d routing protocols?
Explanation: 1 is the default administrative a) The use of discontinuous networks is not
distance of Static Route. allowed
b) The use of variable length subnet masks is
7. Which protocol gives a full route table update permitted
every 30 seconds? c) RIPv1 is a classless routing protocol
a) IEGRP d) RIPv2 supports classless routing
b) RIP View Answer
c) both IEGRP and RIP
View Answer Explanation: Classful routing means that all hosts
in the internetwork use the same mask. Classless
Answer: b routing means that you can use Variable Length
Explanation: RIP gives a full route table update Subnet Masks (VLSMs) and can also support
every 30 seconds. discontinuous networking.
8. Default administrative distance of RIP 2. What is route poisoning?

a) 0 a) It sends back the protocol received from a
b) 90 router as a poison pill, which stops the regular
c) 120 updates. The use of variable length subnet masks
d) 130 is permitted
View Answer b) It is information received from a router that
can’t be sent back to the originating router.RIPv2
Answer: c supports classless routing
Explanation: Default administrative distance of c) It prevents regular update messages from
RIP is 120. reinstating a route that has just come up
d) It describes when a router sets the metric for a
9. Which statement is true regarding classless downed link to infinity
routing protocol? View Answer
a) The use of discontinuous networks is not
allowed Answer: d
b) Use of variable length subnet masks is Explanation: When a network goes down, the
permitted distance-vector routing protocol initiates route
c) RIPv1 is a classless routing protocol poisoning by advertising the network with a
d) IGRP supports classes routing within the same metric of 16, or unreachable.
autonomous system
View Answer 3. Which of the following is true regarding
RIPv2?
Answer: b a) It has a lower administrative distance than
Explanation: Use of variable length subnet masks RIPv1
is permittedis true regarding classless routing b) It converges faster than RIPv1
protocol. c) It has the same timers as RIPv1
d) It is harder to configure than RIPv1
10. Where we should use default routing View Answer
a) On stub networks- which have only one exit
path out of the network Answer: c
b) Which have more than one exit path out of the Explanation: RIPv2 is pretty much just like
network
275
RIPv1. It has the same administrative distance and 8. Which protocol maintains neighbor
timers and is configured just like RIPv1. adjacencies?
a) RIPv2 and EIGRP
4. Which of the situations might not require b) IGRP and EIGRP
require multiple routing protocols in a network? c) RIPv2
a) When a new Layer 2-only switch is added to d) EIGRP
the network View Answer
b) When you are migrating from one routing
protocol to another Answer: c
c) When you are using routers from multiple Explanation: RIP V2 maintains neighbor
vendors adjacencies.
d) When there are host-based routers from
multiple vendors 9. Which routing protocol implements the
View Answer diffusing update algorithm?
a) IS-IS
Answer: a b) IGRP
Explanation: One routing protocol to another, c) EIGRP
routers from multiple vendors,host-based routers d) OSPF
from multiple vendors. View Answer
5. Which two routing protocols can be Answer: c

redistributed into OSPF by a Cisco router? Explanation: EIGRProuting protocol implements
a) IP EIGRP and AppleTalk EIGRP the diffusing update algorithm.
b) AppleTalk EIGRP and RIPv2
c) RIPv2 and IP EIGRP 10. Which protocol should you select if the
d) IPX RIP & AppleTalk EIGRP network diameter is more than 17 hops?
View Answer a) RIPv1
b) RIPv2
Answer: c c) EIGRP
Explanation: IP EIGRP, RIPv2. These can be d) All of the above
redistributed into OSPF by a Cisco router. View Answer
6. Which is a reason for avoiding doing route Answer: b

redistribution on two routers between the same Explanation: RIPv2protocol should you select if
two routing domains? the network diameter is more than 17 hops.
a) Higher cost of two routers
b) Routing feedback 1. In cryptography, what is cipher?
c) Cisco IOS incompatibility a) algorithm for performing encryption and
d) Not possible to use two routers decryption
View Answer b) encrypted message
c) both algorithm for performing encryption and
Answer: b decryption and encrypted message
Explanation: Routing feedback is a reason for d) none of the mentioned
avoiding doing route redistribution on two routers View Answer
between the same two routing domains.
Answer: a
7. What does administrative distance rank? Explanation: None.
a) Metrics
b) Sources of routing information 2. In asymmetric key cryptography, the private
c) Router reliability key is kept by
d) Best paths a) sender
View Answer b) receiver
c) sender and receiver
Answer: b d) all the connected devices to the network
Explanation: Sources of routing information is the View Answer
administrative distance rank.
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
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3. Which one of the following algorithm is not a) A5/2 cipher
used in asymmetric-key cryptography? b) b5/4 cipher
a) rsa algorithm c) b5/6 cipher
b) diffie-hellman algorithm d) b5/8 cipher
c) electronic code book algorithm View Answer
Explanation: None
Answer: c
Explanation: None. 9. ElGamal encryption system is
a) symmetric key encryption algorithm
4. In cryptography, the order of the letters in a b) asymmetric key encryption algorithm
message is rearranged by c) not an encryption algorithm
a) transpositional ciphers d) none of the mentioned
b) substitution ciphers View Answer
c) both transpositional ciphers and substitution
ciphers Answer: b
View Answer
10. Cryptographic hash function takes an arbitrary
Answer: a block of data and returns
Explanation: None. a) fixed size bit string
b) variable size bit string
5. What is data encryption standard (DES)? c) both fixed size bit string and variable size bit
a) block cipher string
b) stream cipher d) none of the mentioned
c) bit cipher View Answer
Explanation: None.
Answer: a
Explanation: None. 1. Multiple object can be sent over a TCP
connection between client and server in
6. Cryptanalysis is used a) Persistent HTTP
a) to find some insecurity in a cryptographic b) Ponpersistent HTTP
scheme c) Both Persistent HTTP and Ponpersistent HTTP
b) to increase the speed d) None of the mentioned
c) to encrypt the data View Answer
Explanation: hypertext transfer protocol is used
Answer: a for sending multiple objects over TCP connection.
Explanation: None.
2. HTTP is ________ protocol.
7. Which one of the following is a cryptographic a) Application layer
protocol used to secure HTTP connection? b) Transport layer
a) stream control transmission protocol (SCTP) c) Network layer
b) transport layer security (TSL) d) None of the mentioned
c) explicit congestion notification (ECN) View Answer
d) resource reservation protocol
Explanation: HTTP works on application layer.
Answer: b
Explanation: None. 3. In the network HTTP resources are located by
a) Uniform resource identifier
8. Voice privacy in GSM cellular telephone b) Unique resource locator
protocol is provided by c) Unique resource identifier
277
d) None of the mentioned 8. In which mode FTP, the client initiates both the
View Answer control and data connections.
a) Active mode
Answer: a b) Passive mode
Explanation: HTTP resources are located by c) Both Active mode and Passive mode
uniform resource identifier. d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
4. HTTP client requests by establishing a
__________ connection to a particular port on the Answer: b
server. Explanation: In passive mode the client initiates
a) User datagram protocol both the control and data connections.
b) Transmission control protocol
c) Broader gateway protocol 9. The file transfer protocol is built on
d) None of the mentioned a) Data centric architecture
View Answer b) Service oriented architecture
c) Client server architecture
Explanation:HTTP client requests by establishing View Answer
TCP connection to a particular port on the server.
Answer: c
5. In HTTP pipelining Explanation: FTP is built on client server
a) Multiple HTTP requests are sent on a single architecture.
TCP connection without waiting for the
corresponding responses 10. In file transfer protocol, data transfer can be
b) Multiple HTTP requests cannot be sent on a done in
single TCP connection a) Stream mode
c) Multiple HTTP requests are sent in a queue on b) Block mode
a single TCP connection c) Compressed mode
Answer: a Answer: d
Explanation: Multiple HTTP requests are sent on Explanation: Data transfer can be done in stream,
a single TCP connection without waiting for the block and compressed modes.
corresponding responses in HTTP pipelining.
1. Which methods are commonly used in Server
6. FTP server listens for connection on port Socket class?
number a) Public Output Stream get Output Stream ()
a) 20 b) Public Socket accept ()
b) 21 c) Public synchronized void close ()
c) 22 d) None of the mentioned
d) 23 View Answer
View Answer
Answer: b
Answer: b Explanation: Public Socket accept () used in
Explanation: 21 is the port number of FTP. Server Socket class.
7. In FTP protocol, client contacts server using 2. Which constructor of Datagram Socket class is
_________ as the transport protocol. used to create a datagram socket and binds it with
a) Transmission control protocol the given Port Number?
b) User datagram protocol a) Datagram Socket(int port)
c) Datagram congestion control protocol b) Datagram Socket(int port, Int Address address)
d) Stream control transmission protocol c) Datagram Socket()
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Client contacts server using TCP as Answer: b
the transport protocol. Explanation: Datagram Socket (int port, Int
278
Address address) is use data create a datagram Answer: b
socket. Explanation: The java.net.InetAddress class
represent IP Address.
3. The client in socket programming must know
which information? 8. The flush () method of Print Stream class
a) IP address of Server flushes any un cleared buffers in memory
b) Port number a) True
c) Both IP address of Server & Port number b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Answer: c Explanation: The flush () method of Print Stream
Explanation: The client in socket programming class flushes any un cleared buffers in memory.
must know IP address of Server.
9. Which classes are used for connection-less
4. The URL Connection class can be used to read socket programming?
and write data to the specified resource referred a) Datagram Socket
by the URL b) Datagram Packet
a) True c) Both Datagram Socket & Datagram Packet
b) False d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a Answer: c
Explanation: The URL Connection class can be Explanation: Datagram Socket, Datagram Packet
used to read and write data to the specified are used for connection-less socket programming.
resource referred by the URL.
10. In Int Address class which method returns the
5. Datagram is basically an information but there host name of the IP Address?
is no guarantee of its content, arrival or arrival a) Public String get Hostname()
time. b) Public String getHostAddress()
a) True c) Public static IntAddress get Localhost()
b) False d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a Answer: a
Explanation: Datagram is basically an information Explanation: In Int Address class public String get
but there is no guarantee of its content, arrival or Hostname() method returns the host name of the
arrival time. IP Address.
6. TCP, FTP, Telnet, SMTP, POP etc. are 1. Cookies were originally designed for
examples of? a) Client side programming
a) Socket b) Server side programming
b) IP Address c) Both Client side programming and Server side
c) Protocol programming
d) MAC Address d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c Answer: b
Explanation: TCP, FTP, Telnet, SMTP, POP etc. Explanation: Cookies were originally designed for
are examples of Protocol. server side programming, and at the lowest level,
they are implemented as an extension to the
7. What does the java.net.InetAddress class HTTP protocol.
represent?
a) Socket 2. The Cookie manipulation is done using which
b) IP Address property?
c) Protocol a) cookie
d) MAC Address b) cookies
View Answer c) manipulate
279
d) none of the mentioned d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a Answer: d
Explanation: There are no methods involved: Explanation: The Cookie visibility scope is
cookies are queried, set, and deleted by reading configurable through cookie attributes path and
and Writing the cookie property of the Document domain.
object using specially formatted strings.
7. How can you set a Cookie visibility scope to
3. Which of the following explains Cookies local Storage?
nature? a) /
a) Non Volatile b) %
b) Volatile c) *
c) Intransient d) All of the mentioned
d) Transient View Answer
View Answer
Answer: a
Answer: d Explanation: Setting the path of a cookie to “/”
Explanation: Cookies are transient by default; the gives scoping like that of localStorage and also
values they store last for the duration of the web specifies that the browser must transmit the
browser session but are lost when the user exits cookie name and value to the server whenever it
the browser. requests any web page on the site.
4. Which attribute is used to extend the lifetime of 8. Which of the following is a Boolean cookie
a cookie? attribute?
a) Higherage a) Bool
b) Increaseage b) Secure
c) Maxage c) Lookup
d) Lifetime d) Domain
Answer: c Answer: b
Explanation: If you want a cookie to last beyond a Explanation: The final cookie attribute is a
single browsing session, you must tell the browser boolean attribute named secure that specifies how
how long (in seconds) you would like it to retain cookie values are transmitted over the network.
the cookie by specifying a manage By default, cookies are insecure, which means
attribute. If you specify a lifetime, the browser that they are transmitted over a normal, insecure
will store cookies in a file and delete them only HTTP connection. If a cookie is marked secure,
once they expire. however, it is transmitted only when the browser
and server are connected via HTTPS or another
5. Which of the following defines the Cookie secure protocol.
visibility?
a) Document Path 9. Which of the following function is used as a
b) LocalStorage consequence of not including semicolons,
c) SessionStorage Commas or whitespace in the Cookie value?
d) All of the mentioned a) EncodeURIComponent()
View Answer b) EncodeURI()
c) EncodeComponent()
Explanation: Cookie visibility is scoped by View Answer
document origin as local Storage and session
Storage are, and also by document path. Answer: a
Explanation: Cookie values cannot include
6. Which of the following can be used to semicolons, commas, or whitespace. For this
configure the scope of the Cookie visibility? reason, you may want to use the core JavaScript
a) Path global function encodeURIComponent() to
b) Domain encode the value before storing it in the cookie.
c) Both Path and Domain
280
10. What is the constraint on the data per cookie? Answer: b
a) 2 KB Explanation: DELETE operations should be
b) 1 KB idempotent, means their result will always same
c) 4 KB no matter how many times these operations are
d) 3 KB invoked.
View Answer
5. Which of the following directive of Cache
Answer: c Control Header of HTTP response indicates that
Explanation: Each cookie can hold upto only 4 resource is cachable by only client and server?
KB. In practice, browsers allow many more than a) Public
300 cookies total, but the 4 KB size limit may still b) Private
be enforced by some. c) Nocache/nostore
d) Maxage
1. What REST stands for? View Answer
a) Represent State Transfer
b) Representational State Transfer Answer: b
c) Represent State Transfer Explanation: Private directive indicates that
d) None of the mentioned resource is cachable by only client and server, no
View Answer intermediary can cache the resource.
Answer: b 6. Which of the following HTTP Status code

Explanation: REST stands for Representational means CREATED, when a resource is successful
State Transfer. created using POST or PUT request?
a) 200
2. Which of the following protocol is used by b) 201
Restful web services as a medium of c) 204
communication between client and server? d) 304
a) HTTP View Answer
b) FTP
c) Gopher Answer: b
d) None of the mentioned Explanation: HTTP Status Code 201 means
View Answer CREATED, when a resource is successful created
using POST or PUT request.
Answer: a
Explanation: Restful web services make use of 7. Which of the following annotation of JAX RS
HTTP protocol as a medium of communication API is used to annotate a method used to create
between client and server. resource?
a) @Path
3. Which of the following is a best practice to b) @GET
create a standard URI for a web service? c) @PUT
a) Maintain Backward Compatibility d) @POST
b) Use HTTP Verb View Answer
c) Both of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned Answer: C
View Answer Explanation: @PUT – HTTP Get request, used to
create resource.
Answer: C
Explanation: Both of the above options are 8. Which of the following annotation of JAX RS
correct. API binds the parameter passed to method to a
HTTP matrix parameter in path?
4. Which of the following HTTP method should a) @PathParam
be idempotent in nature? b) @QueryParam
a) OPTIONS c) @MatrixParam
b) DELETE d) @HeaderParam
c) POST View Answer
d) HEAD
Explanation: @MatrixParam – Binds the
281
parameter passed to method to a HTTP matrix Answer: c
parameter in path. Explanation: This method is for creating the
shortest distances.
9. In REST architecture, a REST Server simply
provides access to resources and REST client 4. Several techniques can make size of routing
accesses and presents the resources. table manageable and also handle issues such as
a) False a) Maturity
b) True b) Error reporting
View Answer c) Tunneling
d) Security
Explanation: In REST architecture, a REST
Server simply provides access to resources and Answer: d
REST client accesses and presents the resources. Explanation: To visible only accessing sub
networks.
10. POST operations should be idempotent.
a) True 5. Host-specific routing is used for purposes such
b) False as checking route or providing
View Answer a) Network Measures
b) Security Measures
Answer: b c) Routing Measures
Explanation: POST operation can cause different d) Delivery Measures
result. View Answer
1. Term is used to place packet in its route to its Answer: b

destination is called Explanation: Security measures.
a) Delayed
b) Urgent 6. In Unicast routing, if instability is between
c) Forwarding three nodes, stability cannot be
d) Delivering a) Stable
View Answer b) Reversed
c) Guaranteed
Answer: c d) Forward
Explanation: It is for transforming the message View Answer
from source to destination with forward
technique. Answer: c
Explanation: It is only for unidirectional.
2. A second technique to reduce routing table and
simplify searching process is called 7. In Unicast Routing, Dijkstra algorithm creates a
a) Network-Specific Method shortest path tree from a
b) Network-Specific Motion a) Graph
c) Network-Specific Maintaining b) Tree
d) Network-Specific Membership c) Network
View Answer d) Link
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: It is the before method of the packet Answer: a
switching. Explanation: Graph technique is used for best
node finding technic with shortest path
3. Next-Hop Method is used to reduce contents of algorithms.
a
a) Revolving table 8. In Multicast Routing Protocol, flooding is used
b) Rotating Table to broadcast packets but it creates
c) Routing Table a) Gaps
d) Re-allocate table b) Loops
View Answer c) Holes
d) Links
View Answer
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Answer: b c) frame firewall and packet firewall
Explanation: Loops is for multicast routing. d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
9. RPF stands for
a) Reverse Path Forwarding Answer: a
b) Reverse Path Failure Explanation: None.
c) Reverse Packet Forwarding
d) Reverse Protocol Failure 5. WPA2 is used for security in
View Answer a) ethernet
b) bluetooth
Answer: a c) wi-fi
Explanation: Reverse Path Forwarding. d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
10. LSP stands for
a) Link Stable Packet Answer: c
b) Link State Packet Explanation: None.
c) Link State Protocol
d) Link State Path 6. An attempt to make a computer resource
View Answer unavailable to its intended users is called
a) denial-of-service attack
Answer: b b) virus attack
Explanation: Link State Packet c) worms attack
d) botnet process
1. IPSec is designed to provide the security at the View Answer
a) transport layer
b) network layer Answer: a
c) application layer Explanation: None.
d) session layer
View Answer 7. Extensible authentication protocol is
authentication framework frequently used in
Answer: b a) wired personal area network
Explanation: None. b) wireless networks
c) wired local area network
2. In tunnel mode IPsec protects the d) none of the mentioned
a) Entire IP packet View Answer
b) IP header
c) IP payload Answer: b
d) None of the mentioned Explanation: None.
View Answer
8. Pretty good privacy (PGP) is used in
Answer: a a) browser security
Explanation: None. b) email security
c) FTP security
3. Network layer firewall works as a d) none of the mentioned
a) frame filter View Answer
b) packet filter
c) both frame filter and packet filter Answer: b
View Answer
9. PGP encrypts data by using a block cipher
Answer: b called
Explanation: None. a) international data encryption algorithm
b) private data encryption algorithm
4. Network layer firewall has two sub-categories c) intrenet data encryption algorithm
as d) none of the mentioned
a) stateful firewall and stateless firewall View Answer
b) bit oriented firewall and byte oriented firewall
283
Answer: a 4. In OSPF, which protocol is used to discover
Explanation: None. neighbour routers automatically?
a) Link state protocol
10. When a DNS server accepts and uses incorrect b) Error-correction protocol
information from a host that has no authority c) Routing information protocol
giving that information, then it is called d) Hello protocol
a) DNS lookup View Answer
b) DNS hijacking
c) DNS spoofing Answer: d
d) None of the mentioned Explanation: Hello protocol is used to discover
View Answer neighbour routers automatically.
Answer: c 5. Which of the following is not a type of OSPF

Explanation: None. packet?
a) Hello
1. Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) is also called b) Link-state request
as c) Link-state response
a) Link state protocol d) Link-state ACK
b) Error-correction protocol View Answer
c) Routing information protocol
d) All of the mentioned Answer: c
View Answer Explanation: Five types of OSPF packets are:
Hello, Database description, Link-state request,
Answer: a Link-state update, Link-state ACK.
Explanation: Each OSPF router monitors the cost
of the link to each of its neighbours and then 6. Correct order of the operations of OSPF
floods the link state information to other routers in 1. Hello packets
the network. hence it is called so. 2. Propagation of link-state information and
building of routing tables
2. The computation of the shortest path in OSPF 3. Establishing adjacencies and synchronisation
is usually done by database
a) Bellman-ford algorithm
b) Routing information protocol a) 1-2-3
c) Dijkstra’s algorithm b) 1-3-2
d) Distance vector routing c) 3-2-1
View Answer d) 2-1-3
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Shortest path in OSPF is usually Answer: b
computed by Dijkstra’s algorithm. Explanation: None.
3. Which of the following is false with respect to 7. In OSPF header, which field is used to detect
the features of OSPF errors in the packet?
a) Support for fixed-length sunbathing by a) Type
including the subnet mask in the routing message b) Area ID
b) More flexible link cost than can range from 1 c) Authentication type
to 65535 d) Checksum
c) Use of designated router View Answer
d) Distribution of traffic over multiple paths that
have equal cost to the destination Answer: c
View Answer Explanation: Checksum field is used to detect
errors.
Answer: a
Explanation: Support for variable-length 8. In OSPF database descriptor packet, if more
sunbathing by including the subnet mask in the database descriptor packet flows, ‘M’ field is set
routing message. to
a) 1
b) 0
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c) more d) Floods the LSA to the other routers
d) none View Answer
View Answer
Answer: b
Answer: a Explanation: An OSPF router receives an LSA.
Explanation: M bit is set to 1. The router checks its sequence number and finds
that this number is higher than the sequence
9. In OSPF database descriptor packet, which number Adds it to the database, Floods the LSA
field is used to indicate that the router is master to the other routers.
a) M
b) MS 3. An OSPF router receives an LSA. The router
c) I checks its sequence number and finds that
d) Options this number is lower than the sequence number it
View Answer already has. What does the router do
with the LSA?
Answer: b a) ignores the LSA
Explanation: MS bit is set if the router is master, b) adds it to the database
otherwise slave. c) sends newer LSU update to source router
advertisement d) floods the LSA to the other routers
View Answer
10. In OSPF database descriptor packet, which
field is used to detect a missing packet Answer: c
a) LSA header Explanation: An OSPF router receives an LSA.
b) MS The router checks its sequence number and finds
c) Database descriptor sequence number that this number is lower than the sequence
d) Options number sends newer LSU update to source router.
View Answer
4. Each LSA has its own age timer. By default,
Answer: c how long does an LSA wait before requiring an
Explanation: Sequence number field is used to update?
detect a missing packet. a) 30 seconds
b) 1 minute
1. An OSPF router receives an LSA, the router c) 30 minutes
checks its sequence number, and this d) 1 hour
number matches the sequence number of the LSA View Answer
that the receiving router already has.
What does the receiving router do with the LSA? Answer: c
a) Ignores the LSA Explanation: Each LSA has its own age timer. By
b) Adds it to the database default, 30 minutes does an LSA wait before
c) Sends newer LSU update to source router requiring an update.
d) Floods the LSA to the other routers
View Answer 5. Distance vector protocols use the concept of
split horizon, but link-state routing protocols, such
Answer: a as OSPF, do not.
Explanation: An OSPF router receives an LSA, a) True
the router checks its sequence number, and this b) False
number matches the sequence number of the LSA View Answer
that the receiving router already has Ignores the
LSA. Answer: b
Explanation: Distance vector protocols use the
2. An OSPF router receives an LSA. The router concept of split horizon, but link-state routing
checks its sequence number and finds that protocols, such as OSPF, do not use this.
this number is higher than the sequence number it
already has. Which two tasks does 6. The outcome of Dijkstra’s calculation is used to
the router perform with the LSA? populate the __________
a) Ignores the LSA a) Topology table
b) Adds it to the database b) Routing table
c) Sends newer LSU update to source router c) Neighbor table
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d) Adjacency table b) Loading
View Answer c) Exchange
d) Two-way
Explanation: The outcome of Dijkstra’s
calculation is used to populate the Routing table. Answer: a
Explanation: DBD packets are involved during
7. What is the IP protocol number for OSPF which two states Exstart, Exchange.
packets?
a) 89 12. At which interval does OSPF refresh LSAs?
b) 86 a) 10 seconds
c) 20 b) 30 seconds
d) 76 c) 30 minutes
View Answer d) 1 hour
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: 89 is the IP protocol number for Answer: d
OSPF packets. Explanation: None.
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8. Which packet is NOT an OSPF packet type?
a) LSU 13. Which field is NOT a field within an OSPF
b) LSR packet header?
c) DBD a) Packet length
d) Query b) Router ID
View Answer c) Authentication type
d) Maxage time
Explanation: Query packet is NOT an OSPF
packet type. Answer: d
Explanation: Maxage timeis NOT a field within
9. Which multicast address does the OSPF Hello an OSPF packet header.
protocol use?
a) 224.0.0.5 14. Which two commands are required for basic
b) 224.0.0.6 OSPF configuration?
c) 224.0.0.7 a) Network ip-address mask area area-id
d) 224.0.0.8 b) Network ip-address wildcard-mask area area-id
View Answer c) Router ospf process-id
d) both Network ip-address wildcard-mask area
Answer: a area-id and Router ospf process-id
Explanation: 224.0.0.5 is the multicast address View Answer
does the OSPF Hello protocol use.
Answer: d
10. The Hello protocol sends periodic updates to Explanation: Network ip-address wildcard-mask
ensure that a neighbor relationship is maintained area area-id, Router ospf process-id are required
between adjacent routers. for basic OSPF configuration.
a) True
b) False 15. Which OSPF show command describes a list
View Answer of OSPF adjacencies?
a) Show ipospf interface
Answer: a b) Show ipospf
Explanation: The Hello protocol sends periodic c) Show ip route
updates to ensure that a neighbor relationship is d) Show ipospf neighbor
maintained between adjacent routers. View Answer
11. DBD packets are involved during which two Answer: d

states? Explanation: Show ipospf neighborOSPF show
a) Exstart command describes a list of OSPF adjacencies.
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1. Datagram switching is done at which layer of address and output port to route the packets to
OSI model? their destinations.
a) Network layer
b) Physical layer 6. Which of the following remains same in the
c) Application layer header of the packet in a datagram network during
d) Transport layer the entire journey of the packet?
View Answer a) Destination address
b) Source address
Answer: a c) Checksum
Explanation: Datagram switching is normally d) Padding
done at network layer. View Answer
2. Packets in datagram switching are referred to as Answer: a

a) Switches Explanation: Destination address remains same in
b) Segments the header during the entire journey of the packet.
c) Datagrams
d) Data-packets 7. Which of the following is true with respect to
View Answer the delay in datagram networks?
a) Delay is greater than in a virtual circuit network
Answer: c b) Each packet may experience a wait at a switch
Explanation: As the name suggests, in datagram c) Delay is not uniform for the packets of a
switching packets are called as datagrams. message
3. Datagram networks mainly refers to View Answer
a) Connection oriented networks
b) Connection less networks Answer: d
c) Telephone networks Explanation: All the options are true with respect
d) Internetwork to the delay in datagram networks.
View Answer
8. During datagram switching, the packets are
Answer: b placed in __________ to wait until the given
Explanation: The switch does not keep the transmission line becomes available.
information about the connection state, hence it is a) Stack
connection less. b) Queue
c) Hash
4. Datagrams are routed to their destinations with d) Routing table
the help of View Answer
a) Switch table
b) Segments table Answer: b
c) Datagram table Explanation: Packets are stored in queue during
d) Routing table delay and are served as first in first out.
View Answer
9. The probability of the error in a transmitted
Answer: c block _________ with the length of the block
Explanation: Routing table is used to route the a) Remains same
packets to their destinations. b) Decreases
c) Increases
5. The main contents of the routing table in d) None of the mentioned
datagram networks are View Answer
a) Source and Destination address
b) Destination address and Output port Answer: c
c) Source address and Output port Explanation: Probability of the error in a
d) Input port and Output port transmitted block increases with the length of the
View Answer block.
Answer: b 10. Which of the following is true with respect to

Explanation: Routing table contains destination the datagram networks?
a) Number of flows of packets are not limited
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b) Packets may not be in order at the destination d) Secure point
c) Path is not reserved View Answer
Explanation: A firewall can be a PC, a router, a
Answer: d midrange, a mainframe, a UNIX workstation, or a
Explanation: All are the facts with respect to the combination of these that determines which
datagram networks. information or services can be accessed from the
outside and who is permitted to use the
1. Network layer firewall works as a information and services from outside. Generally,
a) Frame filter a firewall is installed at the point where the secure
b) Packet filter internal network and untrusted external network
c) Both Frame as well as Packet filter meet, which is also known as a chokepoint.
View Answer 4. Which of the following is / are the types of
firewall?
Answer: b a) Packet Filtering Firewall
Explanation: As you know, firewalls are available b) Dual Homed Gateway Firewall
as hardware appliances, as software-only, or a c) Screen Host Firewall
combination of the two. In every case, the purpose d) All of the mentioned
of a firewall is to isolate your trusted internal View Answer
network (or your personal PC) from the dangers
of unknown resources on the Internet and other Answer: a
network connections that may be harmful. The Explanation: A firewall can be a PC, a midrange,
firewall prevents unauthorized access to your a mainframe, a UNIX workstation, a router, or
internal, trusted network from outside threats. combination of these. Depending on the
requirements, a firewall can consist of one or
2. Network layer firewall has two sub-categories more of the following functional components:
as Packet-filtering router
a) State full firewall and stateless firewall
b) Bit oriented firewall and byte oriented firewall 5. A proxy firewall filters at?
c) Frame firewall and packet firewall a) Physical layer
d) None of the mentioned b) Data link layer
View Answer c) Network layer
d) Application layer
Explanation: Most network layer firewalls can
operate as stateful or stateless firewalls, creating Answer: d
two subcategories of the standard network layer Explanation: The application firewall is typically
firewall. Stateful firewalls have the advantage of built to control all network traffic on any layer up
being able to track packets over a period of time to the application layer. It is able to control
for greater analysis and accuracy — but they applications or services specifically, unlike a
require more memory and operate more slowly. stateful network firewall, which is – without
Stateless firewalls do not analyze past traffic and additional software – unable to control network
can be useful for systems where speed is more traffic regarding a specific application. There are
important than security, or for systems that have two primary categories of application firewalls,
very specific and limited needs. For example, a network-based application firewalls and host-
computer that only needs to connect to a based application firewalls.
particular backup server does not need the extra
security of a stateful firewall. 6. A packet filter firewall filters at?
a) Physical layer
3. A firewall is installed at the point where the b) Data link layer
secure internal network and untrusted external c) Network layer or Transport layer
network meet which is also known as __________ d) Application layer
a) Chock point View Answer
b) Meeting point
c) Firewall point Answer: c
Explanation: In computing, a firewall is a network
288
security system that monitors and controls the 1. Complex networks today are made up of
incoming and outgoing network traffic based on hundreds and sometimes thousands of
predetermined security rules.[1] A firewall a) Documents
typically establishes a barrier between a trusted, b) Components
secure internal network and another outside c) Servers
network, such as the Internet, that is assumed not d) Entities
to be secure or trusted.[2] Firewalls are often View Answer
categorized as either network firewalls or host-
based firewalls. Answer: b
Explanation: Complex networks today are made
7. What is one advantage of setting up a DMZ up of hundreds and sometimes thousands of
with two firewalls? components.
a) You can control where traffic goes in three
networks 2. Performance management, is closely related to
b) You can do stateful packet filtering a) Proactive Fault Management
c) You can do load balancing b) Fault management
d) Improved network performance c) Reactive Fault Management
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In a topology with a single firewall Answer: b
serving both internal and external users (LAN and Explanation: Fault management is called the
WAN), it acts as a shared resource for these two performance management.
zones.
3. Configuration management can be divided into
8. What tells a firewall how to reassemble a data two subsystems: reconfiguration and
stream that has been divided into packets? a) Documentation
a) The source routing future b) Information
b) The number in the header’s identification field c) Servers
c) The destination IP address d) Entity
d) The header checksum field in the packet header View Answer
View Answer
Answer: a
Answer: a Explanation: Documentation is the other type of
Explanation: source routing future. configuration management.
9. A stateful firewall maintains a ___________ 4. In Network Management System, a term that

which is a list of active connections? responsible for controlling access to network
a) Routing table based on predefined policy is called
b) Bridging table a) Fault Management
c) State table b) Secured Management
d) Connection table c) Active Management
View Answer d) Security Management
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Routing table with best performance Answer: d
Explanation: In Network Management System, a
10. A firewall needs to be __________ so that it term that responsible for controlling access to
can grow with the network it protects network based on predefined policy is called
a) Robust security management.
b) Expansive
c) Fast 5. Control of users’ access to network resources
d) Scalable through charges are main responsibilities of
View Answer a) Reactive Fault Management
b) Reconfigured Fault Management
Answer: b c) Accounting Management
Explanation: Expansive to block the fake d) Security Management
subscribers. View Answer
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Answer: c b) five broad categories
Explanation: Control of users’ access to network c) seven broad categories
resources through charges are main d) ten broad categories
responsibilities of accounting management. View Answer
6. The physical connection between an end point Answer: b

and a switch or between two switches is Explanation: Five broad categories are
a) Transmission path • Fault Management
b) Virtual path • Configuration Management
c) Virtual circuit • Accounting (Administration)
d) None of the mentioned • Performance Management
View Answer • Security Management.
Answer: a 1. Ping can

Explanation:bThe physical connection between an a) Measure round-trip time
end point and a switch or between two switches is b) Report packet loss
transmission path. c) Report latency
7. Which of the following networks supports View Answer
pipelining effect?
a) Circuit-switched networks Answer: d
b) Message-switched networks Explanation: None.
c) Packet-switched networks
d) None of the mentioned 2. Ping sweep is a part of
View Answer a) Traceroute
b) Nmap
Answer: c c) Route
Explanation: Packet switched network is most d) Ipconfig
preferred for pipelining process. View Answer
8. In Network Management System, maps track Answer: b

each piece of hardware and its connection to the Explanation: A ping sweep is a method that can
a) IP Server establish a range of IP addresses which map to
b) Domain live hosts and are mostly used by network
c) Network scanning tools like nmap.
d) Data
View Answer 3. ICMP is used in
a) Ping
Answer: c b) Traceroute
Explanation: Network is main thing in connecting c) Ifconfig
different entities in a place. d) Both Ping & Traceroute
View Answer
9. MIB is a collection of groups of objects that
can be managed by Answer: d
a) SMTP Explanation: None.
b) UDP
c) SNMP 4. __________ command is used to manipulate
d) TCP/IP TCP/IP routing table.
View Answer a) route
b) Ipconfig
Answer: c c) Ifconfig
Explanation: Simple network management d) Traceroute
controls the group of objects in management View Answer
interface base.
Answer: a
10. A network management system can be divided Explanation: None.
into
a) three categories
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5. If you want to find the number of routers Answer: a
between a source and destination, the utility to be Explanation: None.
used is.
a) route 2. What is stat frame delimeter (SFD) in ethernet
b) Ipconfig frame?
c) Ifconfig a) 10101010
d) Traceroute b) 10101011
View Answer c) 00000000
d) 11111111
Explanation: None.
Answer: b
6. Which of the following is related to ipconfig in Explanation: None.
Microsoft Windows ?
a) Display all current TCP/IP network 3. MAC address is of
configuration values 1) 24 bits
b) Modify DHCP settings b) 36 bits
c) Modify DNS settings c) 42 bits
d) All of the mentioned d) 48 bits
Answer: d Answer: d
7. This allows to check if a domain is available for 4. What is autonegotiation?

registration. a) a procedure by which two connected devices
a) Domain Check choose common transmission parameters
b) Domain Dossier b) a security algorithm
c) Domain Lookup c) a routing algorithm
d) None of the mentioned d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a Answer: a
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5. Ethernet in metropolitan area network (MAN)
8. Choose the wrong statement can be used as
a) Nslookup is used to query a DNS server for a) pure ethernet
DNS data b) ethernet over SDH
b) Ping is used to check connectivity c) ethernet over MPLS
c) Pathping combines the functionality of ping d) all of the mentioned
with that of route View Answer
d) Ifconfig can configure TCP/IP network
interface parameters Answer: d
Answer: c 6. A point-to-point protocol over ethernet is a

Explanation: Pathping combines the functionality network protocol for
of ping with that of traceroute (tracert). a) encapsulating PPP frames inside ethernet
frames
1. Ethernet frame consists of b) encapsulating ehternet framse inside PPP
a) MAC address frames
b) IP address c) for security of ethernet frames
c) both MAC address and IP address d) for security of PPP frames
View Answer
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Answer: a 2. In wireless ad-hoc network
Explanation: None. a) access point is not required
b) access point is must
7. High speed ethernet works on c) nodes are not required
a) coaxial cable d) none of the mentioned
b) twisted pair cable View Answer
c) optical fiber
d) none of the mentioned Answer: a
Answer: c 3. Which multiple access technique is used by

Explanation: None. IEEE 802.11 standard for wireless LAN?
a) CDMA
8. The maximum size of payload field in ethernet b) CSMA/CA
frame is c) ALOHA
a) 1000 bytes d) None of the mentioned
b) 1200 bytes View Answer
c) 1300 bytes
d) 1500 bytes Answer: b
Answer: d 4. In wireless distribution system

Explanation: None. a) multiple access point are inter-connected with
each other
9. What is interframe gap? b) there is no access point
a) idle time between frames c) only one access point exists
b) idle time between frame bits d) none of the mentioned
c) idle time between packets View Answer
Explanation: None.
Answer: a
Explanation: None. 5. A wireless network interface controller can
work in
10. An ethernet frame that is less than the IEEE a) infrastructure mode
802.3 minimum length of 64 octets is called b) ad-hoc mode
a) short frame c) both infrastructure mode and ad-hoc mode
b) run frame d) none of the mentioned
c) mini frame View Answer
d) man frame
Explanation: In infrastructure mode WNIC needs
Answer: b access point but in ad-hoc mode access point is
Explanation: None. not required.
1. What is the access point (AP) in wireless LAN? 6. In wireless network an extended service set is a
a) device that allows wireless devices to connect set of
to a wired network a) connected basic service sets
b) wireless devices itself b) all stations
c) both device that allows wireless devices to c) all access points
connect to a wired network and wireless devices d) none of the mentioned
itself View Answer
Explanation: None.
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
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7. Mostly ________ is used in wireless LAN. d) none of the mentioned
a) time division multiplexing View Answer
b) orthogonal frequency division multiplexing
c) space division multiplexing Answer: c
View Answer
3. Internet access by transmitting digital data over
Answer: b the wires of a local telephone network is provided
Explanation: None. by
a) leased line
8. Which one of the following event is not b) digital subscriber line
possible in wireless LAN. c) digital signal line
a) collision detection d) none of the mentioned
b) acknowledgement of data frames View Answer
c) multi-mode data transmission
Answer: a 4. ISP exchanges internet traffic between their

Explanation: None. networks by
a) internet exchange point
9. What is Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) ? b) subscriber end point
a) security algorithm for ethernet c) isp end point
b) security algorithm for wireless networks d) none of the mentioned
c) security algorithm for usb communication View Answer
Explanation: None.
Answer: b
Explanation: None. 5. Which one of the following protocol is not used
in internet?
10. What is WPA? a) HTTP
a) wi-fi protected access b) DHCP
b) wired protected access c) DNS
c) wired process access d) None of the mentioned
d) wi-fi process access View Answer
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
6. IPv6 addressed have a size of
1. What is internet? a) 32 bits
a) a single network b) 64 bits
b) a vast collection of different networks c) 128 bits
c) interconnection of local area networks d) 265 bits
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: None.
7. Internet works on
2. To join the internet, the computer has to be a) packet switching
connected to a b) circuit switching
a) internet architecture board c) both packet switching and circuit switching
b) internet society d) none of the mentioned
c) internet service provider View Answer
293
Answer: a Answer: c
8. Which one of the following is not an 3. Bluetooth is the wireless technology for
application layer protocol used in internet? a) local area network
a) remote procedure call b) personal area network
b) internet relay chat c) both local area network and personal area
c) resource reservation protocol network
Answer: c Answer: b
9. Which protocol assigns IP address to the client 4. Bluetooth uses

connected in the internet? a) frequency hoping spread spectrum
a) DHCP b) orthogonal frequency division multiplexing
b) IP c) time division multiplexing
c) RPC d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
5. Unauthorised access of information from a
10. Which one of the following is not used in wireless device through a bluetooth connection is
media access control? called
a) ethernet a) bluemaking
b) digital subscriber line b) bluesnarfing
c) fiber distributed data interface c) bluestring
Answer: d Answer: b
1. An interconnected collection of piconet is 6. What is A2DP (advanced audio distribution

called profile)?
a) scatternet a) a bluetooth profile for streaming audio
b) micronet b) a bluetooth profile for streaming video
c) mininet c) a bluetooth profile for security
Answer: a Answer: a
Explanation: Piconet is the basic unit of bluetooth Explanation: None.
system having a master node and upto seven
active slave nodes. 7. In the piconet of bluetooth one master device
a) can not be slave
2. In a piconet, there can be up to ________ b) can be slave in another piconet
parked nodes in the net. c) can be slave in the same piconet
a) 63 d) none of the mentioned
b) 127 View Answer
c) 255
d) 511 Answer: b
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8. Bluetooth transceiver devices operate in c) space division multiplexing
______ band. d) all of the mentioned
a) 2.4 GHz ISM View Answer
b) 2.5 GHz ISM
c) 2.6 GHz ISM Answer: a
d) 2.7 GHz ISM Explanation: None.
View Answer
4. Which one of the following modulation scheme
Answer: a is supported by WiMAX?
Explanation: None. a) binary phase shift keying modulation
b) quadrature phase shift keying modulation
9. The bluetooth supports c) quadrature amplitude modulation
a) point-to-point connections d) all of the mentioned
b) point-to-multipoint connection View Answer
c) both point-to-point connections and point-to-
multipoint connection Answer: d
View Answer
5. WiMAX MAC layer provides an interface
Answer: c between
Explanation: None. a) higher transport layers and physical layer
b) application layer and network layer
10. A scatternet can have maximum c) data link layer and network layer
a) 10 piconets d) none of the mentioned
b) 20 piconets View Answer
c) 30 piconets
d) 40 piconets Answer: a
Answer: a 6. For encryption, WiMAX supports

Explanation: None. a) advanced encryption standard
b) triple data encryption standard
1. WiMAX stands for c) both advanced encryption standard and triple
a) wireless maximum communication data encryption standard
b) worldwide interoperability for microwave d) none of the mentioned
access View Answer
c) worldwide international standard for
microwave access Answer: c
View Answer
7. WiMAX provides
Answer: b a) VoIP services
Explanation: None. b) IPTV services
c) Both VoIP services and IPTV services
2. WiMAX provides d) None of the mentioned
a) simplex communication View Answer
b) half duplex communication
c) full duplex communication Answer: c
View Answer
8. Devices that provide the connectivity to a
Answer: c WiMAX network are known as
Explanation: None. a) subscriber stations
b) base stations
3. WiMAX uses the c) gateway
a) orthogonal frequency division multiplexing d) none of the mentioned
b) time division multiplexing View Answer
295
Answer: a 4. The photonic layer of the SONET is similar to
Explanation: None. the __________ of OSI model.
a) network layer
9. WiMAX is mostly used for b) data link layer
a) local area network c) physical layer
b) metropolitan area network d) none of the mentioned
c) personal area network View Answer
Explanation: None.
Answer: b
Explanation: None. 5. In SONET, each synchronous transfer signal
STS-n is composed of
10. Which one of the following frequency is not a) 2000 frames
used in WiMAX for communication? b) 4000 frames
a) 2.3 GHz c) 8000 frames
b) 2.4 GHz d) 16000 frames
c) 2.5 GHz View Answer
d) 3.5 GHz
Explanation: None.
Answer: b
Explanation: None. 6. Which one of the following is not true about
SONET?
1. SONET stands for a) frames of lower rate can be synchronously
a) synchronous optical network time-division multiplexed into a higher-rate frame
b) synchronous operational network b) multiplexing is synchronous TDM
c) stream optical network c) all clocks in the network are locked to a master
d) shell operational network clock
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
2. In SONET, STS-1 level of electrical signalling
has the data rate of 7. A linear SONET network can be
a) 51.84 Mbps a) point-to-point
b) 155.52 Mbps b) multi-point
c) 466.56 Mbps c) both point-to-point and multi-point
Answer: a Answer: c
3. The path layer of SONET is responsible for the 8. Automatic protection switching in linear
movement of a signal network is defined at the
a) from its optical source to its optical destination a) line layer
b) across a physical line b) section layer
c) across a physical section c) photonic layer
d) none of the mentioned d) path layer
Answer: b Answer: a
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9. A unidirectional path switching ring is a 4. Which protocol provides the synchronization
network with between media streams?
a) one ring a) RTP
b) two rings b) RTCP
c) three rings c) RPC
d) four rings d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b Answer: b
Explanation: One ring is used as the working ring Explanation: None.
and other as the protection ring.
5. An RTP session is established for
10. What is SDH? a) each media stream
a) sdh is similar standard to SONET developed by b) all media streams
ITU-T c) some predefined number of media streams
b) synchronous digital hierarchy d) none of the mentioned
c) both sdh is similar standard to SONET View Answer
developed by ITU-T and synchronous digital
hierarchy Answer: a
View Answer
6. RTP can use
Answer: c a) unprevileleged UDP ports
Explanation: None. b) stream control transmission protocol
c) datagram congestion control protocol
1. Real-time transport protocol (RTP) is mostly d) all of the mentioned
used in View Answer
a) streaming media
b) video teleconference Answer: d
c) television services Explanation: None.
View Answer 7. Which one of the following multimedia formats
can not be supported by RTP?
Answer: d a) MPEG-4
Explanation: None. b) MJPEG
c) MPEG
2. RTP is used to d) None of the mentioned
a) carry the media stream View Answer
b) monitor transmission statistics of streams
c) monitor quality of service of streams Answer: d
View Answer
8. An RTP header has a minimum size of
Answer: a a) 12 bytes
Explanation: None. b) 16 bytes
c) 24 bytes
3. RTP provides the facility of jitter d) 32 bytes
____________ View Answer
a) media stream
b) expansion Answer: a
c) both media stream and expansion Explanation: None.
View Answer 9. Which one of the following is not correct?
a) RTCP provides canonical end-point identifiers
Answer: a to all session participants
Explanation: None. b) RTCP reports are expected to be sent by all
participants
297
c) RTCP itself does not provide any flow c) both its own address space and another address
encryption or authentication methods space
d) None of the mentioned d) none of the mentioned
Answer: d Answer: b
10. Which protocol defines a profile of RTP that 5. RPC works between two processes. These
provides cryptographic services for the transfer of processes must be
payload data? a) on the same computer
a) SRTP b) on different computers connected with a
b) RTCP network
c) RCP c) both on the same computer and on different
d) None of the mentioned computers connected with a network
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None. Answer: c
Explanation: None.
1. An RPC (remote procedure call) is initiated by
the 6. A remote procedure is uniquely identified by
a) server a) program number
b) client b) version number
c) both server and client c) procedure number
d) none of the mentioned d) all of the mentioned
Answer: b Answer: d
2. In RPC, while a server is processing the call, 7. An RPC application requires

the client is blocked a) specific protocol for client server
a) unless the client sends an asynchronous request communication
to the server b) a client program
b) unless the call processing is complete c) a server program
c) for the complete duration of the connection d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None.
8. RPC is used to
3. Remote procedure calls is a) establish a server on remote machine that can
a) inter-process communication respond to queries
b) a single process b) retrieve information by calling a query
c) a single thread c) both establish a server on remote machine that
d) none of the mentioned can respond to queries and retrieve information by
View Answer calling a query
Explanation: None.
Answer: c
4. RPC allows a computer program to cause a Explanation: None.
subroutine to execute in
a) its own address space 9. RPC is a
b) another address space a) synchronous operation
298
b) asynchronous operation relation to the firewall is the most productive
c) time independent operation placement?
d) none of the mentioned a) Inside the firewall
View Answer b) Outside the firewall
c) Both inside and outside the firewall
Answer: a d) Neither inside the firewall nor outside the
Explanation: None. firewall.
View Answer
10. The local operating system on the server
machine passes the incoming packets to the Answer: a
a) server stub Explanation: There are legitimate political,
b) client stub budgetary and research reasons to want to see all
c) client operating system the “attacks” against your connection, but given
d) none of the mentioned the care and feeding any IDS requires, do yourself
View Answer a favor and keep your NIDS sensors on the inside
of the firewall.
Answer: a
Explanation: None. 4. What is the purpose of a shadow honeypot?
a) To flag attacks against known vulnerabilities
1. Which of the following is an advantage of b) To help reduce false positives in a signature-
anomaly detection? based IDS
a) Rules are easy to define c) To randomly check suspicious traffic identified
b) Custom protocols can be easily analyzed by an anomaly detection system
c) The engine can scale as the rule set grows d) To enhance the accuracy of a traditional
d) Malicious activity that falls within normal honeypot
usage patterns is detected View Answer
View Answer
Answer: c
Answer: c Explanation: “Shadow honeypots,” as researchers
Explanation: Once a protocol has been built and a call them, share all the same characteristics of
behavior defined, the engine can scale more protected applications running on both the server
quickly and easily than the signature-based model and client side of a network and operate in
because a new signature does not have to be conjunction with an ADS.
created for every attack and potential variant.
5. At which two traffic layers do most commercial
2. A false positive can be defined as… IDSes generate signatures?
a) An alert that indicates nefarious activity on a a) Application layer
system that, upon further inspection, turns out to b) Network layer
represent legitimate network traffic or behavior c) Transport layer
b) An alert that indicates nefarious activity on a d) both Transport layer and Network layer
system that is not running on the network View Answer
c) The lack of an alert for nefarious activity
d) Both An alert that indicates nefarious activity Answer: d
on a system that, upon further inspection, turns Explanation: Most commercial IDSes generate
out to represent legitimate network traffic or signatures at the network and transport layers.
behavior and An alert that indicates nefarious
activity on a system that is not running on the 6. An IDS follows a two-step process consisting
network of a passive component and an active component.
View Answer Which of the following is part of the active
component?
Answer: d a) Inspection of password files to detect
Explanation: A false positive is any alert that inadvisable passwords
indicates nefarious activity on a system that, upon b) Mechanisms put in place to reenact known
further inspection, turns out to represent methods of attack and record system responses
legitimate network traffic or behavior. c) Inspection of system to detect policy violations
d) Inspection of configuration files to detect
3. One of the most obvious places to put an IDS inadvisable settings
sensor is near the firewall. Where exactly in View Answer
299
Answer: b Answer: d
Explanation: Second component of mechanisms Explanation: They are constantly updated with
are set in place to reenact known methods of attack-definition files (signatures) that describe
attack and to record system responses. each type of known malicious activity. They then
scan network traffic for packets that match the
7. When discussing IDS/IPS, what is a signature? signatures, and then raise alerts to security
a) An electronic signature used to authenticate the administrators.
identity of a user on the network
b) Attack-definition file 1. Both HDLC and PPP both are Data link layer
c) It refers to “normal,” baseline network behavior protocols.
d) None of the above a) True
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: IDSes work in a manner similar to Answer: a
modern antivirus technology. They are constantly Explanation: Both HDLC and PPP both are Data
updated with attack-definition files (signatures) link layer protocol.
that describe each type of known malicious
activity. 2. Which protocol does the PPP protocol provide
for handling the capabilities of the connection/link
8. “Semantics-aware” signatures automatically on the network?
generated by Nemean are based on traffic at a) LCP
which two layers? b) NCP
a) Application layer c) Both LCP and NCP
b) Network layer d) TCP
c) Session layer View Answer
d) both Application layer and Session layer
Explanation: LCP and NCP are the PPP protocol
Answer: d provide for handling the capabilities of the
Explanation: Nemean automatically generates connection/link on the network.
“semantics-aware” signatures based on traffic at
the session and application layers. 3. The PPP protocol
a) Is designed for simple links which transport
9. Which of the following is used to provide a packets between two peers
baseline measure for comparison of IDSes? b) Is one of the protocols for making an Internet
a) Crossover error rate connection over a phone line
b) False negative rate c) Both Is designed for simple links which
c) False positive rate transport packets between two peers & Is one of
d) Bit error rate the protocols for making an Internet connection
View Answer over a phone line
Explanation: As the sensitivity of systems may
cause the false positive/negative rates to vary, it’s Answer: c
critical to have some common measure that may Explanation: The PPP protocolis designed for
be applied across the board. simple links which transport packets between two
peers and one of the protocols for making an
10. Which of the following is true of signature- Internet connection over a phone line.
based IDSes?
a) They alert administrators to deviations from 4. PPP provides the _______ layer in the TCP/IP
“normal” traffic behavior suite.
b) They identify previously unknown attacks a) Link
c) The technology is mature and reliable enough b) Network
to use on production networks c) Transport
d) They scan network traffic or packets to identify d) Application
matches with attack-definition files View Answer
View Answer
300
Answer: a Answer: b
Explanation: PPP provides thelinklayer in the Explanation: A family of network control
TCP/IP suite. protocols (NCPs)are a series of independently-
defined protocols that encapsulate.
5. PPP consists of ________components
a) Three (encapsulating, the Domain Name 9. Choose one from the following
system) a) PPP can terminate the link at any time
b) Three ( encapsulating, a link control protocol, b) PPP can terminate the link only during the link
NCP ) establishment phase
c) Two ( a link control protocol, Simple Network c) PPP can terminate the link during the
Control protocol) authentication phase
Answer: b Answer: a
Explanation: PPP consists of three (encapsulating, Explanation: PPP can terminate the link at any
a link control protocol, NCP) time because it works on the data link layer
Components. protocol.
6. The PPP encapsulation 10. The link necessarily begins and ends with this
a) Provides for multiplexing of different network- phase. During this phase, the LCP automata will
layer protocols be in INITIAL or STARTING states
b) Requires framing to indicate the beginning and a) Link-termination phase
end of the encapsulation b) Link establishment phase
c) Establishing, configuring and testing the data- c) Authentication phase
link connection d) Link dead phase
View Answer
Answer: d
Answer: a Explanation: The link necessarily begins and ends
Explanation: The PPP encapsulationprovides for with this phase. During this phase, the LCP
multiplexing of different network-layer protocols. automata will be in INITIAL or STARTING
states link dead phase.
7. A Link Control Protocol (LCP) is used for
a) Establishing, configuring and testing the data- 1. EIGRP is a routing Protocol design by Cisco.
link connection (Yes/No)?
b) Establishing and configuring different network- a) Yes
layer protocols b) No
c) Testing the different network-layer protocols View Answer
Explanation: EIGRP is a routing Protocol design
Answer: a by Cisco.
Explanation: A Link Control Protocol (LCP) is
used for establishing, configuring and testing the 2. EIGRP metric is ________
data-link connection. a) K-values
b) Bandwidth only
8. A family of network control protocols (NCPs) c) Hop Count
a) Are a series of independently defined protocols d) Delay only
that provide a dynamic View Answer
b) Are a series of independently-defined protocols
that encapsulate Answer: a
c) Are a series of independently defined protocols Explanation: EIGRP metric is K-values.
that provide transparent
d) The same as NFS 3. EIGRP can support ____________
View Answer a) VLSM/subnetting
b) Auto summary
c) Unequal cast load balancing
301
d) All od the above b) 170
View Answer c) 110
d) 100
Explanation: VLSM/subnetting, Auto summary,
Unequal cast load balancing. Answer: b
Explanation: Administrative distance for external
4. EIGRP send the hello message after every EIGRP route is 170.
___________ seconds
a) 5 seconds (LAN), 60 seconds (WAN) 9. EIGRP uses the ____________ algorithm for
b) 5 seconds (LAN), 5 seconds (WAN) finding shortest path.
c) 15s a) SPF
d) 180s b) DUAL
View Answer c) Linkstat
d) Dikstraalgo
Explanation: EIGRP send the hello message after
every5 seconds (LAN), 60 seconds (WAN). Answer: b
Explanation: EIGRP uses the DUAL algorithm
5. Administrative distance for internal EIGRP is for finding shortest path.
______
a) 90 10. In EIGRP best path is known as the successor,
b) 170 where as backup path is known as __________
c) 110 a) Feasible successor
d) 91 b) Back-up route
View Answer c) Default route
d) There is no backup route in EIGRP
Explanation: Administrative distance for internal
EIGRP is 90. Answer: a
Explanation: Feasible successor is the backup
6. The EIGRP metric values include: path.
a) Delay
b) Bandwidth 1. _____________ allows LAN users to share
c) MTU computer programs and data.
d) All of the above a) Communication server
View Answer b) Print server
c) File server
Answer: d d) Network
Explanation: The EIGRP metric values are Delay, View Answer
Bandwidth, and MTU.
Answer: c
7. For default gateway you will use which of Explanation: File server allows LAN users to
following command on Cisco router? share computer programs and data.
a) IP default network
b) IP default gateway 2. STP stands for
c) IP default route a) Shielded twisted pair cable
d) Default network b) Spanning tree protocol
View Answer c) Static transport protocol
Explanation: IP default network command used in
default gateway in Cisco router. Answer: a
Explanation: STP stands for Shielded twisted pair
8. Administrative distance for external EIGRP cable.
route is _______
a) 90
302
3. A standalone program that has been modified to Answer: c
work on a LAN by including concurrency controls Explanation: RJ-45 is used for STP cable.
such as file and record locking is an example of
___________ 8. What is the central device in star topology?
a) LAN intrinsic software a) STP server
b) LAN aware software b) Hub/switch
c) Groupware c) PDC
d) LAN ignorant software d) Router
Answer: a Answer: b
Explanation: A standalone program that has been Explanation: Hub/switch is the central device in
modified to work on a LAN by including star topology.
concurrency controls such as file and record
locking is an example of LAN intrinsic software. 9. What is max data capacity for optical fiber
cable?
4. The __________ portion of LAN management a) 10 mbps
software restricts access, records user activities b) 100 mbps
and audit data etc. c) 1000 mbps
a) Configuration management d) 10000 mbps
b) Security management View Answer
c) Performance management
d) None of the mentioned Answer: c
View Answer Explanation: 1000 mbps is max data capacity for
optical fiber cable.
Answer: b
Explanation: The Security management portion of 10. Which of the following architecture uses
LAN management software restricts access, CSMA/CD access method?
records user activities and audit data etc. a) ARC net
b) Ethernet
5. What is the max cable length of STP? c) Router
a) 100 ft d) STP server
b) 200 ft View Answer
c) 100 m
d) 200 m Answer: b
View Answer Explanation: Ethernet uses CSMA/CD access
method.
Answer: d
Explanation: 200m is the max cable length of
STP.
6. What is the max data capacity of STP? Database Management System:

a) 10 mbps
b) 100 mbps 1. A relational database consists of a collection of
c) 1000 mbps a) Tables
d) 10000 mbps b) Fields
View Answer c) Records
d) Keys
Explanation: 100 mbps is the max data capacity of
STP. Answer: a
Explanation: Fields are the column of the relation
7. Which connector STP uses? or tables. Records are each row in a relation. Keys
a) BNC are the constraints in a relation.
b) RJ-11
c) RJ-45 2. A ________ in a table represents a relationship
d) RJ-69 among a set of values.
View Answer
303
a) Column Answer: d
b) Key Explanation: Instance is an instance of time and
c) Row schema is a representation.
d) Entry
View Answer 7. Course(course_id,sec_id,semester)
Here the course_id,sec_id and semester are
Answer: c __________ and course is a _________
Explanation: Column has only one set of values. a) Relations, Attribute
Keys are constraints and row is one whole set of b) Attributes, Relation
attributes. Entry is just a piece of data. c) Tuple, Relation
d) Tuple, Attributes
3. The term _______ is used to refer to a row. View Answer
a) Attribute
b) Tuple Answer: b
c) Field Explanation: The relation course has a set of
d) Instance attributes course_id,sec_id,semester .
Answer: b 8. Department (dept name, building, budget) and

Explanation: Tuple is one entry of the relation Employee (employee_id, name, dept name,
with several attributes which are fields. salary)
Here the dept_name attribute appears in both the
4. The term attribute refers to a ___________ of a relations. Here using common attributes in
table. relation schema is one way of relating
a) Record ___________ relations.
b) Column a) Attributes of common
c) Tuple b) Tuple of common
d) Key c) Tuple of distinct
View Answer d) Attributes of distinct
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Attribute is a specific domain in the Answer: c
relation which has entries of all tuples. Explanation: Here the relations are connected by
the common attributes.
5. For each attribute of a relation, there is a set of
permitted values, called the ________ of that 9. A domain is atomic if elements of the domain
attribute. are considered to be ____________ units.
a) Domain a) Different
b) Relation b) Indivisbile
c) Set c) Constant
d) Schema d) Divisible
Answer: a Answer: b
Explanation: The values of the attribute should be Explanation: None.
present in the domain. Domain is a set of values
permitted. 10. The tuples of the relations can be of ________
order.
6. Database __________ which is the logical a) Any
design of the database, and the database _______ b) Same
which is a snapshot of the data in the database at a c) Sorted
given instant in time. d) Constant
a) Instance, Schema View Answer
b) Relation, Schema
c) Relation, Domain Answer: a
d) Schema, Instance Explanation: The values only count. The order of
View Answer the tuples does not matter.
304
1. Which one of the following is a set of one or d) Department
more attributes taken collectively to uniquely View Answer
identify a record?
a) Candidate key Answer: c
b) Sub key Explanation: The attributes name, street and
c) Super key department can repeat for some tuples. But the id
d) Foreign key attribute has to be unique. So it forms a primary
View Answer key.
Answer: c 6. Which one of the following cannot be taken as

Explanation: Super key is the superset of all the a primary key?
keys in a relation. a) Id
b) Register number
2. Consider attributes ID, CITY and NAME. c) Dept_id
Which one of this can be considered as a super d) Street
key? View Answer
a) NAME
b) ID Answer: d
c) CITY Explanation: Street is the only attribute which can
d) CITY, ID occur more than once.
View Answer
7. An attribute in a relation is a foreign key if the
Answer: b _______ key from one relation is used as an
Explanation: Here the id is the only attribute attribute in that relation.
which can be taken as a key. Other attributes are a) Candidate
not uniquely identified. b) Primary
c) Super
3. The subset of a super key is a candidate key d) Sub
under what condition? View Answer
a) No proper subset is a super key
b) All subsets are super keys Answer: b
c) Subset is a super key Explanation: The primary key has to be referred
d) Each subset is a super key in the other relation to form a foreign key in that
View Answer relation.
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Answer: a
Explanation: The subset of a set cannot be the 8. The relation with the attribute which is the
same set. Candidate key is a set from a super key primary key is referenced in another relation. The
which cannot be the whole of the super set. relation which has the attribute as a primary key is
called
4. A _____ is a property of the entire relation, a) Referential relation
rather than of the individual tuples in which each b) Referencing relation
tuple is unique. c) Referenced relation
a) Rows d) Referred relation
b) Key View Answer
c) Attribute
d) Fields Answer: b
Answer: b 9. The ______ is the one in which the primary key

Explanation: Key is the constraint which specifies of one relation is used as a normal attribute in
uniqueness. another relation.
a) Referential relation
5. Which one of the following attribute can be b) Referencing relation
taken as a primary key? c) Referenced relation
a) Name d) Referred relation
b) Street View Answer
c) Id
305
Answer: c calculus are non-procedural language. Query
Explanation: None. language is a method through which database
entries can be accessed.
10. A _________ integrity constraint requires that
the values appearing in specified attributes of any 4. The_____ operation allows the combining of
tuple in the referencing relation also appear in two relations by merging pairs of tuples, one from
specified attributes of at least one tuple in the each relation, into a single tuple.
referenced relation. a) Select
a) Referential b) Join
b) Referencing c) Union
c) Specific d) Intersection
d) Primary View Answer
View Answer
Answer: b
Answer: a Explanation: Join finds the common tuple in the
Explanation: A relation, say r1, may include relations and combines it.
among its attributes the primary key of another
relation, say r2. This attribute is called a foreign 5. The result which operation contains all pairs of
key from r1, referencing r2. The relation r1 is also tuples from the two relations, regardless of
called the referencing relation of the foreign key whether their attribute values match.
dependency, and r2 is called the referenced a) Join
relation of the foreign key. b) Cartesian product
c) Intersection
1. Using which language can a user request d) Set difference
information from a database? View Answer
a) Query
b) Relational Answer: b
c) Structural Explanation: Cartesian product is the
d) Compiler multiplication of all the values in the attributes.
View Answer
6. The _______operation performs a set union of
Answer: a two “similarly structured” tables
Explanation: Query language is a method through a) Union
which the database entries can be accessed. b) Join
c) Product
2. Student(ID, name, dept name, tot_cred) d) Intersect
In this query which attributes form the primary View Answer
key?
a) Name Answer: a
b) Dept Explanation: Union just combines all the values of
c) Tot_cred relations of same attributes.
d) ID
View Answer 7. The most commonly used operation in
relational algebra for projecting a set of tuple
Answer: d from a relation is
Explanation: The attributes name, dept and a) Join
tot_cred can have same values unlike ID. b) Projection
c) Select
3. Which one of the following is a procedural d) Union
language? View Answer
a) Domain relational calculus
b) Tuple relational calculus Answer: c
c) Relational algebra Explanation: Select is used to view the tuples of
d) Query language the relation with or without some constraints.
Answer: c 8. The _______ operator takes the results of two

Explanation: Domain and Tuple relational queries and returns only rows that appear in both
306
result sets. c) Query
a) Union d) Relational Schema
b) Intersect View Answer
c) Difference
d) Projection Answer: a
View Answer Explanation: DML performs the change in the
values of the relation.
Answer: b
Explanation: The union operator gives the result 3.
which is the union of two queries and difference is
the one where query which is not a part of second CREATE TABLE employee (name VARCHAR,
query. id INTEGER)
9. A ________ is a pictorial depiction of the What type of statement is this?

schema of a database that shows the relations in a) DML
the database, their attributes, and primary keys b) DDL
and foreign keys. c) View
a) Schema diagram d) Integrity constraint
b) Relational algebra View Answer
c) Database diagram
d) Schema flow Answer: b
View Answer Explanation: Data Definition language is the
language which performs all the operation in
Answer: a defining structure of relation.
Explanation: None.
4.
10. The _________ provides a set of operations
that take one or more relations as input and return SELECT * FROM employee
a relation as an output.
a) Schematic representation What type of statement is this?
b) Relational algebra a) DML
c) Scheme diagram b) DDL
d) Relation flow c) View
View Answer d) Integrity constraint
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Select operation just shows the
1. Which one of the following is used to define required fields of the relation. So it forms a DML.
the structure of the relation, deleting relations and
relating schemas? 5. The basic data type char(n) is a _____ length
a) DML(Data Manipulation Langauge) character string and varchar(n) is _____ length
b) DDL(Data Definition Langauge) character.
c) Query a) Fixed, equal
d) Relational Schema b) Equal, variable
View Answer c) Fixed, variable
d) Variable, equal
Explanation: Data Definition language is the
language which performs all the operation in Answer: c
defining structure of relation. Explanation: Varchar changes its length
accordingly whereas char has a specific length
2. Which one of the following provides the ability which has to be filled by either letters or spaces.
to query information from the database and to
insert tuples into, delete tuples from, and modify 6. An attribute A of datatype varchar(20) has the
tuples in the database? value “Avi”. The attribute B of datatype char(20)
a) DML(Data Manipulation Langauge) has value ”Reed”. Here attribute A has ____
b) DDL(Data Definition Langauge)
307
spaces and attribute B has ____ spaces. 10. Updates that violate __________ are
a) 3, 20 disallowed.
b) 20, 4 a) Integrity constraints
c) 20, 20 b) Transaction control
d) 3, 4 c) Authorization
View Answer d) DDL constraints
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Varchar changes its length Answer: a
accordingly whereas char has a specific length Explanation: Integrity constraint has to be
which has to be filled by either letters or spaces. maintained in the entries of the relation.
7. To remove a relation from an SQL database, we 1.

use the ______ command.
a) Delete Name
b) Purge
Annie
c) Remove
d) Drop table Bob
View Answer Callie
Derek
Answer: d
Explanation: Drop table deletes the whole Which of these query will display the the table
structure of the relation .purge removes the table given above ?
which cannot be obtained again. a) Select employee from name
b) Select name
8. c) Select name from employee
d) Select employee
DELETE FROM r; //r - relation
Answer: c
Explanation: The field to be displayed is included
This command performs which of the following in select and the table is included in the from
action? clause.
a) Remove relation
b) Clear relation entries
2. Here which of the following displays the
c) Delete fields
unique values of the column?
d) Delete rows
View Answer
SELECT ________ dept_name
FROM instructor;
Answer: b
Explanation: Delete command removes the entries
in the table. a) All
b) From
c) Distinct
9.
d) Name
View Answer
INSERT INTO instructor VALUES (10211,
’Smith’, ’Biology’, 66000);
Answer: c
Explanation: Distinct keyword selects only the
What type of statement is this? entries that are unique.
a) Query
b) DML
3. The ______ clause allows us to select only
c) Relational
those rows in the result relation of the ____ clause
d) DDL
that satisfy a specified predicate.
View Answer
a) Where, from
b) From, select
Answer: b c) Select, from
Explanation: The values are manipulated. So it is
a DML.
308
d) From, where 7.
View Answer
SELECT * FROM employee WHERE
Answer: a salary>10000 AND dept_id=101;
Explanation: Where selects the rows on a
particular condition. From gives the relation Which of the following fields are displayed as
which involves the operation. output?
a) Salary, dept_id
4. The query given below will not give an error. b) Employee
Which one of the following has to be replaced to c) Salary
get the desired output? d) All the field of employee relation
View Answer
SELECT ID, name, dept name, salary * 1.1
WHERE instructor; Answer: d
Explanation: Here * is used to select all the fields
a) Salary*1.1 of the relation.
b) ID
c) Where 8.
d) Instructor
View Answer Employee_id Name Salary
1001 Annie 6000
Answer: c
Explanation: Where selects the rows on a 1009 Ross 4500
particular condition. From gives the relation 1018 Zeith 7000
which involves the operation. Since Instructor is a
relation it has to have from clause. This is Employee table.
Which of the following employee_id will be
5. The ________ clause is used to list the displayed for the given query?
attributes desired in the result of a query.
a) Where SELECT * FROM employee WHERE
b) Select employee_id>1009;
c) From
d) Distinct a) 1009, 1001, 1018
View Answer b) 1009, 1018
c) 1001
Answer: b d) 1018
Explanation: None View Answer
6. This Query can be replaced by which one of the Answer: d

following? Explanation: Greater than symbol does not
include the given value unlike >=.
SELECT name, course_id
FROM instructor, teaches 9. Which of the following statements contains an
WHERE instructor_ID= teaches_ID; error?
a) Select * from emp where empid = 10003;
a) Select name,course_id from teaches,instructor b) Select empid from emp where empid = 10006;
where instructor_id=course_id; c) Select empid from emp;
b) Select name, course_id from instructor natural d) Select empid where empid = 1009 and
join teaches; lastname = ‘GELLER’;
c) Select name, course_id from instructor; View Answer
d) Select course_id from instructor join teaches;
Explanation: This query do not have from clause
Answer: b which specifies the relation from which the values
Explanation: Join clause joins two tables by has to be selected.
matching the common column.
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309
10. In the given query which of the keyword has Which one of the following has to be added into
to be inserted? the blank to select the dept_name which has
Computer Science as its ending string?
INSERT INTO employee _____ a) %
(1002,Joey,2000); b) _
c) ||
a) Table d) $
b) Values View Answer
c) Relation
d) Field Answer: a
View Answer Explanation: The % character matches any
substring.
Answer: b
Explanation: Value keyword has to be used to 4. ’_ _ _ ’ matches any string of ______ three
insert the values into the table. characters. ’_ _ _ %’ matches any string of at
______ three characters.
1. a) Atleast, Exactly
b) Exactly, Atleast
SELECT name ____ instructor name, course id c) Atleast, All
FROM instructor, teaches d) All, Exactly
WHERE instructor.ID= teaches.ID; View Answer
Which keyword must be used here to rename the Answer: b

field name? Explanation: None.
a) From
b) Rename 5.
c) As
d) Join SELECT name
View Answer FROM instructor
WHERE dept name = ’Physics’
Answer: c ORDER BY name;
Explanation: As keyword is used to rename.
By default, the order by clause lists items in
2. ______ order.
a) Descending
SELECT * FROM employee WHERE b) Any
dept_name="Comp Sci"; c) Same
d) Ascending
In the SQL given above there is an error . Identify View Answer
the error.
a) Dept_name Answer: d
b) Employee Explanation: Specification of descending order is
c) “Comp Sci” essential but it not for ascending.
d) From
View Answer 6.
Answer: c SELECT *
Explanation: For any string operations single FROM instructor
quoted(‘) must be used to enclose. ORDER BY salary ____, name ___;
3. To display the salary from greater to smaller and

name in ascending order which of the following
SELECT emp_name options should be used?
FROM department a) Ascending, Descending
WHERE dept_name LIKE ’ _____ Computer b) Asc, Desc
Science’; c) Desc, Asc
310
d) Descending, Ascending selected
View Answer b) All attributes of instructor are selected on the
given condition
Answer: c c) All attributes of teaches are selected on given
Explanation: None. condition
d) Only the some attributes from instructed and
7. teaches are selected
View Answer
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Answer: b
SELECT name Explanation: The asterisk symbol “ * ” can be
FROM instructor usedin the select clause to denote “all attributes.”
WHERE salary <= 100000 AND salary >=
90000; 9. In SQL the spaces at the end of the string are
removed by _______ function.
This query can be replaced by which of the a) Upper
following ? b) String
a) c) Trim
d) Lower
SELECT name View Answer
FROM instructor
WHERE salary BETWEEN 90000 AND 100000; Answer: c
Explanation: The syntax of trim is Trim(s); where
b) s-string.
SELECT name 10. _____ operator is used for appending two

FROM employee strings.
WHERE salary <= 90000 AND salary>=100000; a) &
b) %
c) c) ||
d) _
SELECT name View Answer
FROM employee
WHERE salary BETWEEN 90000 AND 100000; Answer: c
Explanation: || is the concatenation operator.
d)
1. The union operation is represented by
SELECT name a) ∩
FROM instructor b) U
WHERE salary BETWEEN 100000 AND 90000; c) –
View Answer d) *
Explanation: SQL includes a between comparison
operator to simplify where clauses that specify Answer: b
that a value be less than or equal to some value Explanation: Union operator combines the
and greater than or equal to some other value. relations.
2. The intersection operator is used to get the

_____ tuples.
8. a) Different
b) Common
SELECT instructor.* c) All
FROM instructor, teaches d) Repeating
WHERE instructor.ID= teaches.ID; View Answer
This query does which of the following operation? Answer: b

a) All attributes of instructor and teaches are Explanation: Intersection operator ignores unique
tuples and takes only common ones.
311
3. The union operation automatically __________ d) None of the mentioned
unlike the select clause. View Answer
a) Adds tuples
b) Eliminates unique tuples Answer: a
c) Adds common tuples Explanation:% is used with like and _ is used to
d) Eliminates duplicate fill in the character.
Answer: d 7. The number of attributes in relation is called as

Explanation: None. its
a) Cardinality
4. If we want to retain all duplicates, we must b) Degree
write ________ in place of union. c) Tuples
a) Union all d) Entity
b) Union some View Answer
c) Intersect all
d) Intersect some Answer: b
Answer: a 8. _____ clause is an additional filter that is

Explanation: Union all will combine all the tuples applied to the result.
including duplicates. a) Select
b) Group-by
5. c) Having
d) Order by
(SELECT course id View Answer
FROM SECTION
WHERE semester = ’Fall’ AND YEAR= 2009) Answer: c
EXCEPT Explanation: Having is used to provide additional
(SELECT course id aggregate filtration to the query.
FROM SECTION
WHERE semester = ’Spring’ AND YEAR= 9. _________ joins are SQL server default
2010); a) Outer
b) Inner
This query displays c) Equi
a) Only tuples from second part d) None of the mentioned
b) Only tuples from the first part which has the View Answer
tuples from second part
c) Tuples from both the parts Answer: b
d) Tuples from first part which do not have Explanation: It is optional to give the inner
second part keyword with the join as it is default.
View Answer
10. The _____________ is essentially used to
Answer: d search for patterns in target string.
Explanation: Except keyword is used to ignore the a) Like Predicate
values. b) Null Predicate
c) In Predicate
6. For like predicate which of the following is d) Out Predicate
true. View Answer
i) % matches zero OF more characters. Answer: a

ii) _ matches exactly one CHARACTER. Explanation: Like predicate matches the string in
the given pattern.
a) i-only
b) ii-only 1. A _____ indicates an absent value that may
c) i & ii exist but be unknown or that may not exist at all.
a) Empty tuple
312
b) New value c) Unique
c) Null value d) Distinct
d) Old value View Answer
View Answer
Answer: b
Answer: c Explanation: Not null constraint removes the
Explanation: None. tuples of null values.
2. If the attribute phone number is included in the 6. Using the ______ clause retains only one copy
relation all the values need not be entered into the of such identical tuples.
phone number column. This type of entry is given a) Null
as b) Unique
a) 0 c) Not null
b) – d) Distinct
c) Null View Answer
d) Empty space
Explanation: Unique is a constraint.
Answer: c
Explanation: Null is used to represent the absence 7.
of a value.
CREATE TABLE employee (id INTEGER,name
3. The predicate in a where clause can involve VARCHAR(20),salary NOT NULL);
Boolean operations such as and. The result of true INSERT INTO employee VALUES
and unknown is_______ false and unknown is (1005,Rach,0);
_____ while unknown and unknown is _____ INSERT INTO employee VALUES (1007,Ross,
a) Unknown, unknown, false );
b) True, false, unknown INSERT INTO employee VALUES
c) True, unknown, unknown (1002,Joey,335);
d) Unknown, false, unknown
View Answer Some of these insert statements will produce an
error. Identify the statement.
Answer: d a) Insert into employee values (1005,Rach,0);
Explanation: None. b) Insert into employee values (1002,Joey,335);
c) Insert into employee values (1007,Ross, );
4. d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
SELECT name
FROM instructor Answer: c
WHERE salary IS NOT NULL; Explanation: Not null constraint is specified
Selects which means sone value (can include 0 also)
should be given.
a) Tuples with null value
b) Tuples with no null values 8. The primary key must be
c) Tuples with any salary a) Unique
d) All of the mentioned b) Not null
View Answer c) Both Unique and Not null
d) Either Unique or Not null
Explanation: Not null constraint removes the
tpules of null values. Answer: c
Explanation: Primary key must satisfy unique and
5. In an employee table to include the attributes not null condition for sure.
whose value always have some value which of the advertisement
following constraint must be used?
a) Null 9. You attempt to query the database with this
b) Not null command:
313
SELECT nvl (100 / quantity, NONE) Answer: b
FROM inventory; Explanation: Avg() is used to find the mean of the
values.
Why does this statement cause an error when
QUANTITY values are null? 3.
a) The expression attempts to divide by a null
value SELECT COUNT (____ ID)
b) The data types in the conversion function are FROM teaches
incompatible WHERE semester = ’Spring’ AND YEAR =
c) The character string none should be enclosed in 2010;
single quotes (‘ ‘)
d) A null value used in an expression cannot be If we do want to eliminate duplicates, we use the
converted to an actual value keyword ______in the aggregate expression.
View Answer a) Distinct
b) Count
Answer: a c) Avg
Explanation: The expression attempts to divide by d) Primary key
a null value is erroneous in sql. View Answer
10. The result of _____unknown is unknown. Answer: a

a) Xor Explanation: Distinct keyword is used to select
b) Or only unique items from the relation.
c) And
d) Not 4. All aggregate functions except _____ ignore
View Answer null values in their input collection.
a) Count(attribute)
Answer: d b) Count(*)
Explanation: Since unknown does not hold any c) Avg
value the value cannot have a reverse value. d) Sum
View Answer
1. Aggregate functions are functions that take a
___________ as input and return a single value. Answer: b
a) Collection of values Explanation: * is used to select all values
b) Single value including null.
c) Aggregate value
d) Both Collection of values & Single value 5. A Boolean data type that can take values true,
View Answer false, and________
a) 1
Answer: a b) 0
Explanation: None. c) Null
d) Unknown
2. View Answer
SELECT __________ Answer: d

FROM instructor Explanation: Unknown values do not take null
WHERE dept name= ’Comp. Sci.’; value but it is not known.
Which of the following should be used to find the 6. The ____ connective tests for set membership,
mean of the salary ? where the set is a collection of values produced by
a) Mean(salary) a select clause. The ____ connective tests for the
b) Avg(salary) absence of set membership.
c) Sum(salary) a) Or, in
d) Count(salary) b) Not in, in
View Answer c) In, not in
d) In, or
View Answer
314
Answer: c 9. Which of the following is used to find all
Explanation: In checks, if the query has the value courses taught in both the Fall 2009 semester and
but not in checks if it does not have the value. in the Spring 2010 semester .
a)
7. Which of the following should be used to find
all the courses taught in the Fall 2009 semester SELECT course id
but not in the Spring 2010 semester . FROM SECTION AS S
a) WHERE semester = ’Fall’ AND YEAR= 2009
AND
SELECT DISTINCT course id EXISTS (SELECT *
FROM SECTION FROM SECTION AS T
WHERE semester = ’Fall’ AND YEAR= 2009 WHERE semester = ’Spring’ AND YEAR= 2010
AND AND
course id NOT IN (SELECT course id S.course id= T.course id);
FROM SECTION
WHERE semester = ’Spring’ AND YEAR= b)
2010);
SELECT name
b) FROM instructor
WHERE salary > SOME (SELECT salary
SELECT DISTINCT course_id FROM instructor
FROM instructor WHERE dept name = ’Biology’);
WHERE name NOT IN (’Fall’, ’Spring’);
c)
c)
SELECT COUNT (DISTINCT ID)
(SELECT course id FROM takes
FROM SECTION WHERE (course id, sec id, semester, YEAR) IN
WHERE semester = ’Spring’ AND YEAR= 2010) (SELECT course id, sec id, semester, YEAR
FROM teaches
d) WHERE teaches.ID= 10101);
advertisement d)
SELECT COUNT (DISTINCT ID) (SELECT course id

FROM takes FROM SECTION
WHERE (course id, sec id, semester, YEAR) IN WHERE semester = ’Spring’ AND YEAR= 2010)
(SELECT course id, sec id, semester, YEAR View Answer
FROM teaches Answer: a
WHERE teaches.ID= 10101); Explanation: None.
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: None.
10. We can test for the nonexistence of tuples in a
subquery by using the _____ construct.
a) Not exist
8. The phrase “greater than at least one” is b) Not exists
represented in SQL by _____ c) Exists
a) < all d) Exist
b) < some View Answer
c) > all
d) > some Answer: b
View Answer Explanation: Exists is used to check for the
existence of tuples.
Answer: d
Explanation: >some takes atlest one value above 1.
it .
315
SELECT dept_name, ID, avg (salary) Eg : SELECT name, salary, avg salary
FROM instructor FROM instructor I1, lateral (SELECT
GROUP BY dept_name; avg(salary) AS avg salary
This statement IS erroneous because FROM instructor I2
WHERE I2.dept name= I1.dept name);
a) Avg(salary) should not be selected
b) Dept_id should not be used in group by clause Without the lateral clause, the subquery cannot
c) Misplaced group by clause access the correlation variable
d) Group by clause is not valid in this query I1 from the outer query.
View Answer
5. Which of the following creates a temporary
Answer: b relation for the query on which it is defined?
Explanation: Any attribute that is not present in a) With
the group by clause must appear only inside an b) From
aggregate function if it appears in the select c) Where
clause, otherwise the query is treated as d) Select
erroneous. View Answer
2. SQL applies predicates in the _______ clause Answer: a

after groups have been formed, so aggregate Explanation: The with clause provides a way of
functions may be used. defining a temporary relation whose definition is
a) Group by available only to the query in which the with
b) With clause occurs.
c) Where
d) Having 6.
View Answer
WITH max_budget (VALUE) AS
Answer: b (SELECT MAX(budget)
Explanation: The with clause provides away of FROM department)
defining a temporary relation whose definition is SELECT budget
available only to the query in which the with FROM department, max_budget
clause occurs. WHERE department.budget = MAX
budget.value;
3. Aggregate functions can be used in the select
list or the_______clause of a select statement or In the query given above which one of the
subquery. They cannot be used in a ______ following is a temporary relation?
clause. a) Budget
a) Where, having b) Department
b) Having, where c) Value
c) Group by, having d) Max_budget
d) Group by, where View Answer
View Answer
Answer: d
Answer: b Explanation: With clause creates a temporary
Explanation: To include aggregate functions relation.
having clause must be included after where. advertisement
4. The ________ keyword is used to access 7. Subqueries cannot:

attributes of preceding tables or subqueries in the a) Use group by or group functions
from clause. b) Retrieve data from a table different from the
a) In one in the outer query
b) Lateral c) Join tables
c) Having d) Appear in select, update, delete, insert
d) With statements.
Answer: b Answer: c
Explanation: Explanation: None.
316
8. Which of the following is not an aggregate Answer: a
function? Explanation: Here P gives the condition for
a) Avg deleting specific rows.
b) Sum
c) With 3. Which one of the following deletes all the
d) Min entries but keeps the structure of the relation.
View Answer a) Delete from r where P;
b) Delete from instructor where dept name=
Answer: c ’Finance’;
Explanation: With is used to create temporary c) Delete from instructor where salary between
relation and its not an aggregate function. 13000 and 15000;
d) Delete from instructor;
9. The EXISTS keyword will be true if: View Answer
a) Any row in the subquery meets the condition
only Answer: d
b) All rows in the subquery fail the condition only Explanation: Absence of condition deletes all
c) Both of these two conditions are met rows.
d) Neither of these two conditions is met
View Answer 4. Which of the following is used to insert a tuple
from another relation?
Answer: a a)
Explanation: EXISTS keyword checks for
existance of a condition. INSERT INTO course (course id, title, dept
name, credits)
10. How can you find rows that do not match VALUES (’CS-437’, ’DATABASE Systems’,
some specified condition? ’Comp. Sci.’, 4);
a) EXISTS
b) Double use of NOT EXISTS b)
c) NOT EXISTS
d) None of the mentioned INSERT INTO instructor
View Answer SELECT ID, name, dept name, 18000
FROM student
Answer: b WHERE dept name = ’Music’ AND tot cred >
Explanation: None. 144;
1. A Delete command operates on ______ c)

relation.
a) One INSERT INTO course VALUES (’CS-437’,
b) Two ’DATABASE Systems’, ’Comp. Sci.’, 4);
c) Several
d) Null d) Not possible
Answer: a Answer: b
Explanation: Delete can delete from only one Explanation: Using select statement in insert will
table at a time. include rows which are the result of the selection.
2. 5. Which of the following deletes all tuples in the

instructor relation for those instructors associated
Delete from r where P; with a department located in the Watson building
which is in department relation.
The above command a)
a) Deletes a particular tuple from the relation
b) Deletes the relation DELETE FROM instructor
c) Clears all entries from the relation WHERE dept_name IN 'Watson';
View Answer b)
317
DELETE FROM department Answer: c
WHERE building='Watson'; Explanation: The case statements can add the
order of updating tuples.
c)
9. Which of the following is the correct format for
DELETE FROM instructor case statements.
WHERE dept_name IN (SELECT dept name a)
FROM department
WHERE building = ’Watson’); CASE
WHEN pred1 ... result1
d) None of the mentioned WHEN pred2 ... result2
View Answer ...
WHEN predn ... resultn
Answer: c ELSE result0
Explanation: The query must include END
building=watson condition to filter the tuples.
advertisement b)
6. CASE
WHEN pred1 THEN result1
UPDATE instructor WHEN pred2 THEN result2
_____ salary= salary * 1.05; ...
WHEN predn THEN resultn
Fill in with correct keyword to update the ELSE result0
instructor relation. END
a) Where
b) Set c)
c) In
d) Select CASE
View Answer WHEN pred1 THEN result1
WHEN pred2 THEN result2
Answer: b ...
Explanation: Set is used to update the particular WHEN predn THEN resultn
value. ELSE result0
7. _________ are useful in SQL update d) All of the mentioned

statements, where they can be used in the set View Answer
clause.
a) Multiple queries Answer: b
b) Sub queries Explanation: None.
c) Update
d) Scalar subqueries 10. Which of the following relation updates all
View Answer instructors with salary over $100,000 receive a 3
percent raise, whereas all others receive a 5
Answer: d percent raise.
Explanation: None. a)
8. The problem of ordering the update in multiple UPDATE instructor

updates is avoided using SET salary = salary * 1.03
a) Set WHERE salary > 100000;
b) Where UPDATE instructor
c) Case SET salary = salary * 1.05
d) When WHERE salary <= 100000;
View Answer
b)
UPDATE instructor
318
SET salary = salary * 1.05 SELECT *
WHERE salary < (SELECT avg (salary) FROM student INNER JOIN takes USING
FROM instructor); (ID);
c) b)
UPDATE instructor SELECT *

SET salary = CASE FROM student OUTER JOIN takes USING
WHEN salary <= 100000 THEN salary * 1.03 (ID);
ELSE salary * 1.05
END c)
d) None of the mentioned SELECT *

View Answer FROM student LEFT OUTER JOIN takes
USING (ID);
Answer: a
Explanation: The order of the two update d) None of the mentioned
statements is important. If we changed the order View Answer
of the two statements, an instructor with a salary
just under $100,000 would receive an over 8 Answer: a
percent raise. SQL provides a case construct that Explanation: Join can be replaced by inner join.
we can use to perform both the updates with a
single update statement, avoiding the problem 4. What type of join is needed when you wish to
with the order of updates. include rows that do not have matching values?
a) Equi-join
1. The____condition allows a general predicate b) Natural join
over the relations being joined. c) Outer join
a) On d) All of the mentioned
b) Using View Answer
c) Set
d) Where Answer: c
View Answer Explanation: An outer join does not require each
record in the two joined tables to have a matching
Answer: a record..
Explanation: On gives the condition for the join advertisement
expression.
5. How many tables may be included with a join?
2. Which of the join operations do not preserve a) One
non matched tuples? b) Two
a) Left outer join c) Three
b) Right outer join d) All of the mentioned
c) Inner join View Answer
d) Natural join
Explanation: Join can combine multiple tables.
Answer: c
Explanation: INNER JOIN: Returns all rows 6. Which are the join types in join condition:
when there is at least one match in BOTH tables. a) Cross join
b) Natural join
3. c) Join with USING clause
SELECT * View Answer
FROM student JOIN takes USING (ID);
Answer: d
The above query is equivalent to Explanation: There are totally four join types in
a) SQL.
319
7. How many join types in join condition: the logical model, but is made visible to a user as
a) 2 a virtual relation, is called a view.
b) 3
c) 4 2. Which of the following is the syntax for views
d) 5 where v is view name?
View Answer a) Create view v as “query name”;
b) Create “query expression” as view;
Answer: d c) Create view v as “query expression”;
Explanation: Types are inner join, left outer join, d) Create view “query expression”;
right outer join, full join, cross join. View Answer
8. Which join refers to join records from the right Answer: c

table that have no matching key in the left table Explanation: <query expression> is any legal
are include in the result set: query expression. The view name is represented
a) Left outer join by v.
b) Right outer join
c) Full outer join 3.
d) Half outer join
View Answer SELECT course_id
FROM physics_fall_2009
Answer: b WHERE building= ’Watson’;
Explanation: RIGHT OUTER JOIN: Return all
rows from the right table and the matched rows Here the tuples are selected from the view.Which
from the left table. one denotes the view.
a) Course_id
9. The operation which is not considered a basic b) Watson
operation of relational algebra is c) Building
a) Join d) physics_fall_2009
b) Selection View Answer
c) Union
d) Cross product Answer: c
View Answer Explanation: View names may appear in a query
any place where a relation name may appear.
Answer: a
Explanation: None. 4. Materialised views make sure that
a) View definition is kept stable
10. In SQL the statement select * from R, S is b) View definition is kept up-to-date
equivalent to c) View definition is verified for error
a) Select * from R natural join S d) View is deleted after specified time
b) Select * from R cross join S View Answer
c) Select * from R union join S
d) Select * from R inner join S Answer: b
Answer: b 5. Updating the value of the view

Explanation: None. a) Will affect the relation from which it is defined
b) Will not change the view definition
1. Which of the following creates a virtual relation c) Will not affect the relation from which it is
for storing the query? defined
a) Function d) Cannot determine
b) View View Answer
c) Procedure
d) None of the mentioned Answer: a
Answer: b 6. SQL view is said to be updatable (that is,

Explanation: Any such relation that is not part of inserts, updates or deletes can be applied on the
320
view) if which of the following conditions are WHERE instructor.dept name= department.dept
satisfied by the query defining the view? name;
a) The from clause has only one database relation
b) The query does not have a group by or having b)
clause
c) The select clause contains only attribute names CREATE VIEW instructor_info
of the relation and does not have any expressions, SELECT ID, name, building
aggregates, or distinct specification FROM instructor, department;
View Answer c)
Answer: d CREATE VIEW instructor_info AS

Explanation: All of the conditions must be SELECT ID, name, building
satisfied to update the view in sql. FROM instructor;
7. Which of the following is used at the end of the d)

view to reject the tuples which do not satisfy the
condition in where clause? advertisement
a) With
b) Check CREATE VIEW instructor_info AS
c) With check SELECT ID, name, building
d) All of the mentioned FROM department;
Answer: a
Explanation: Views can be defined with a with
check option clause at the end of the view
definition; then, if a tuple inserted into the view
does not satisfy the view’s where clause 9. For the view Create view instructor_info as
condition, the insertion is rejected by the database
system. SELECT ID, name, building
FROM instructor, department
8. Consider the two relations instructor and WHERE instructor.dept name=
department department.dept name;
Instructor:
If we insert tuple into the view as insert into
ID Name Dept_name Salary instructor info values (’69987’, ’White’,
1001 Ted Finance 10000 ’Taylor’);
1002 Bob Music 20000 What will be the values of the other attributes in
instructor and department relations?
1003 Ron Physics 50000 a) Default value
b) Null
Department: c) Error statement
d) 0
Dept_name Building Budget View Answer
Biology Watson 40000
Answer: b
Chemistry Painter 30000 Explanation: The values take null if there is no
Music Taylor 50000 constraint in the attribute else it is an Erroneous
statement.
Which of the following is used to create view for
these relations together? 10.
a)
CREATE VIEW faculty AS
CREATE VIEW instructor_info AS SELECT ID, name, dept name
SELECT ID, name, building FROM instructor;
FROM instructor, department
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Find the error in this query. b) Clears all transactions
a) Instructor c) Redoes the transactions before commit
b) Select d) No action
c) View …as View Answer
Explanation: Once a transaction has executed
Answer: d commit work, its effects can no longer be undone
Explanation: Syntax is – create view v as <query by rollback work.
expression>;.
5. In case of any shut down during transaction
1. A _________ consists of a sequence of query before commit which of the following statement is
and/or update statements. done automatically?
a) Transaction a) View
b) Commit b) Commit
c) Rollback c) Rollback
d) Flashback d) Flashback
Answer: a Answer: c
Explanation: Transaction is a set of operation until Explanation: Once a transaction has executed
commit. commit work, its effects can no longer be undone
by rollback work.
2. Which of the following makes the transaction
permanent in the database? 6. In order to maintain the consistency during
a) View transactions, database provides
b) Commit a) Commit
c) Rollback b) Atomic
d) Flashback c) Flashback
View Answer d) Retain
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Commit work commits the current Answer: b
transaction. Explanation: By atomic, either all the effects of
the transaction are reflected in the database, or
3. In order to undo the work of transaction after none are (after rollback).
last commit which one should be used?
a) View 7. Transaction processing is associated with
b) Commit everything below except
c) Rollback a) Conforming an action or triggering a response
d) Flashback b) Producing detail summary or exception report
View Answer c) Recording a business activity
d) Maintaining a data
Explanation: Rollback work causes the current
transaction to be rolled back; that is, it undoes all Answer: a
the updates performed by the SQL statements in Explanation: None.
the transaction.
8. A transaction completes its execution is said to
4. Consider the following action: be
a) Committed
TRANSACTION..... b) Aborted
Commit; c) Rolled back
ROLLBACK; d) Failed
View Answer
What does Rollback do?
a) Undoes the transactions before commit
322
Answer: a VARCHAR(20), Salary NUMERIC
Explanation: A complete transaction always UNIQUE(Emp_id,Name));
commits. INSERT INTO Employee VALUES(1002, Ross,
advertisement CSE, 10000)
INSERT INTO Employee
9. Which of the following is used to get back all VALUES(1006,Ted,Finance, );
the transactions back after rollback? INSERT INTO Employee
a) Commit VALUES(1002,Rita,Sales,20000);
b) Rollback
c) Flashback What will be the result of the query?
d) Redo a) All statements executed
View Answer b) Error in create statement
c) Error in insert into Employee
Answer: c values(1006,Ted,Finance, );
Explanation: None. d) Error in insert into Employee
values(1008,Ross,Sales,20000);
10. ______ will undo all statements up to View Answer
commit?
a) Transaction Answer: d
b) Flashback Explanation: The not null specification prohibits
c) Rollback the insertion of a null value for the attribute.
d) Abort The unique specification says that no two tuples
View Answer in the relation can be equal on all the listed
attributes.
Answer: c
Explanation: Flashback will undo all the 4.
statements and Abort will terminate the operation.
CREATE TABLE Manager(ID NUMERIC,Name
1. To include integrity constraint in an existing VARCHAR(20),budget NUMERIC,Details
relation use : VARCHAR(30));
a) Create table
b) Modify table Inorder to ensure that the value of budget is non-
c) Alter table negative which of the following should be used?
d) Drop table a) Check(budget>0)
View Answer b) Check(budget<0)
c) Alter(budget>0)
Answer: c d) Alter(budget<0)
Explanation: SYNTAX – alter table table-name View Answer
add constraint, where constraint can be any
constraint on the relation. Answer: a
Explanation: A common use of the check clause is
2. Which of the following is not an integrity to ensure that attribute values satisfy specified
constraint? conditions, in effect creating a powerful type
a) Not null system.
b) Positive
c) Unique 5. Foreign key is the one in which the ________
d) Check ‘predicate’ of one relation is referenced in another relation.
View Answer a) Foreign key
b) Primary key
Answer: b c) References
Explanation: Positive is a value and not a d) Check constraint
constraint. View Answer
3. Answer: b
Explanation: The foreign-key declaration
CREATE TABLE Employee(Emp_id NUMERIC specifies that for each course tuple, the
NOT NULL, Name VARCHAR(20) , dept_name department name specified in the tuple must exist
in the department relation.
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6. in the table
View Answer
CREATE TABLE course
(... Answer: c
FOREIGN KEY (dept name) REFERENCES Explanation: None.
department
. . . ); 10. Which of the following can be addressed by
enforcing a referential integrity constraint?
Which of the following is used to delete the a) All phone numbers must include the area code
entries in the referenced table when the tuple is b) Certain fields are required (such as the email
deleted in course table? address, or phone number) before the record is
a) Delete accepted
b) Delete cascade c) Information on the customer must be known
c) Set null before anything can be sold to that customer
d) All of the mentioned d) When entering an order quantity, the user must
View Answer input a number and not some text (i.e., 12 rather
than ‘a dozen’)
Explanation: The delete “cascades” to the course
relation, deletes the tuple that refers to the Answer: c
department that was deleted. Explanation: The information can be referred to
advertisement and obtained.
7. Domain constraints, functional dependency and 1. Dates must be specified in the format
referential integrity are special forms of a) mm/dd/yy
_________ b) yyyy/mm/dd
a) Foreign key c) dd/mm/yy
b) Primary key d) yy/dd/mm
c) Assertion View Answer
d) Referential constraint
Explanation: yyyy/mm/dd is the default format in
Answer: c sql.
Explanation: An assertion is a predicate
expressing a condition we wish the database to 2. A ________ on an attribute of a relation is a
always satisfy. data structure that allows the database system to
find those tuples in the relation that have a
8. Which of the following is the right syntax for specified value for that attribute efficiently,
the assertion? without scanning through all the tuples of the
a) Create assertion ‘assertion-name’ check relation.
‘predicate’; a) Index
b) Create assertion check ‘predicate’ ‘assertion- b) Reference
name’; c) Assertion
c) Create assertions ‘predicates’; d) Timestamp
d) All of the mentioned View Answer
View Answer
Answer: a
Answer: a Explanation: Index is the reference to the tuples in
Explanation: None. a relation.
9. Data integrity constraints are used to: 3.

a) Control who is allowed access to the data
b) Ensure that duplicate records are not entered Create index studentID_index on student(ID);
into the table
c) Improve the quality of data entered for a Here which one denotes the relation for which
specific property (i.e., table column) index is created?
d) Prevent users from changing the values stored a) StudentID_index
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b) ID In order to ensure that an instructor’s salary
c) StudentID domain allows only values greater than a specified
d) Student value use:
View Answer a) Value>=30000.00
b) Not null;
Answer: d c) Check(value >= 29000.00);
Explanation: The statement creates an index d) Check(value)
named studentID index on the attribute ID of the View Answer
relation student.
Answer: c
4. Which of the following is used to store movie Explanation: Check(value ‘condition’) is the
and image files? syntax.
a) Clob
b) Blob 8. Which of the following closely resembles
c) Binary Create view?
d) Image a) Create table . . .like
View Answer b) Create table . . . as
c) With data
Answer: b d) Create view as
Explanation: SQL therefore provides large-object View Answer
data types for character data (clob) and binary
data (blob). The letters “lob” in these data types Answer: b
stand for “Large OBject”. Explanation: The ‘create table . . . as’ statement
closely resembles the create view statement and
5. The user defined data type can be created using both are defined by using queries. The main
a) Create datatype difference is that the contents of the table are set
b) Create data when the table is created, whereas the contents of
c) Create definetype a view always reflect the current query result.
d) Create type advertisement
View Answer
9. In contemporary databases, the top level of the
Answer: d hierarchy consists of ______ each of which can
Explanation: The create type clause can be used to contain _____
define new types.Syntax : create type Dollars as a) Catalogs, schemas
numeric(12,2) final; . b) Schemas, catalogs
c) Environment, schemas
6. Values of one type can be converted to another d) Schemas, Environment
domain using which of the following? View Answer
a) Cast
b) Drop type Answer: a
c) Alter type Explanation: None.
d) Convert
View Answer 10. Which of the following statements creates a
new table temp instructor that has the same
Answer: a schema as an instructor.
Explanation: Example of cast :cast a) create table temp_instructor;
(department.budget to numeric(12,2)). SQL b) Create table temp_instructor like instructor;
provides drop type and alter type clauses to drop c) Create Table as temp_instructor;
or modify types that have been created earlier. d) Create table like temp_instructor;
View Answer
7.
Answer: b
CREATE DOMAIN YearlySalary Explanation: None.
NUMERIC(8,2)
CONSTRAINT salary VALUE test __________; 1. The database administrator who authorizes all
the new users, modifies the database and takes
grants privilege is
a) Super user
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b) Administrator b) Revoke update on employee from Amir
c) Operator of operating system c) Delete select on department from Raj
d) All of the mentioned d) Grant update on employee from Amir
Answer: d Answer: b
Explanation: The authorizations provided by the Explanation: revoke on from ;
administrator to the user is a privilege.
5. Which of the following is used to provide
2. Which of the following is a basic form of grant delete authorization to instructor?
statement? a)
a)
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GRANT 'privilege list'
ON 'relation name or view name' CREATE ROLE instructor ;
TO 'user/role list'; GRANT DELETE TO instructor;
b) b)
GRANT 'privilege list' CREATE ROLE instructor;

ON 'user/role list' GRANT SELECT ON takes
TO 'relation name or view name'; TO instructor;
c) c)
GRANT 'privilege list' CREATE ROLE instructor;

TO 'user/role list' GRANT DELETE ON takes
TO instructor;
d)
GRANT 'privilege list' View Answer
ON 'relation name or view name'
ON 'user/role list'; Answer: c
View Answer Explanation: The role is first created and the
Answer: a authorization is given on relation takes to the role.
Explanation: The privilege list allows the granting
of several privileges in one command . 6. Which of the following is true regarding views?
a) The user who creates a view cannot be given
update authorization on a view without having
update authorization on the relations used to
3. Which of the following is used to provide define the view
privilege to only a particular attribute? b) The user who creates a view cannot be given
a) Grant select on employee to Amit update authorization on a view without having
b) Grant update(budget) on department to Raj update authorization on the relations used to
c) Grant update(budget,salary,Rate) on define the view
department to Raj c) If a user creates a view on which no
d) Grant delete to Amit authorization can be granted, the system will
View Answer allow the view creation request
d) A user who creates a view receives all
Answer: b privileges on that view
Explanation: This grant statement gives user Raj View Answer
update authorization on the budget attribute of the
department relation. Answer: c
Explanation: A user who creates a view does not
4. Which of the following statement is used to necessarily receive all privileges on that view.
remove the privilege from the user Amir?
a) Remove update on department from Amir
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7. If we wish to grant a privilege and to allow the Answer: a
recipient to pass the privilege on to other users, Explanation: The current role associated with a
we append the __________ clause to the session can be set by executing set role name. The
appropriate grant command. specified role must have been granted to the user,
a) With grant else the set role statement fails.
b) Grant user
c) Grant pass privelege 1. Which of the following is used to access the
d) With grant option database server at the time of executing the
View Answer program and get the data from the server
accordingly?
Answer: d a) Embedded SQL
Explanation: None. b) Dynamic SQL
c) SQL declarations
8. In authorization graph, if DBA provides d) SQL data analysis
authorization to u1 which inturn gives to u2 which View Answer
of the following is correct?
a) If DBA revokes authorization from u1 then u2 Answer: b
authorization is also revoked Explanation: Embedded SQL, the SQL statements
b) If u1 revokes authorization from u2 then u2 are identified at compile time using a
authorization is revoked preprocessor. The preprocessor submits the SQL
c) If DBA & u1 revokes authorization from u1 statements to the database system for
then u2 authorization is also revoked precompilation and optimization; then it replaces
d) If u2 revokes authorization then u1 the SQL statements in the application program
authorization is revoked with appropriate code and function calls before
View Answer invoking the programming-language compiler.
Answer: c 2. Which of the following header must be

Explanation: A user has an authorization if and included in java program to establish database
only if there is a path from the root of the connectivity using JDBC ?
authorization graph down to the node representing a) Import java.sql.*;
the user. b) Import java.sql.odbc.jdbc.*;
c) Import java.jdbc.*;
9. Which of the following is used to avoid d) Import java.sql.jdbc.*;
cascading of authorizations from the user? View Answer
a) Granted by current role
b) Revoke select on department from Amit, Answer: a
Satoshi restrict; Explanation: The Java program must import
c) Revoke grant option for select on department java.sql.*, which contains the interface definitions
from Amit; for the functionality provided by JDBC.
d) Revoke select on department from Amit,
Satoshi cascade; 3. DriverManager.getConnection(_______ ,
View Answer ______ , ______)
What are the two parameters that are included?
Answer: b a) URL or machine name where server runs,
Explanation: The revoke statement may specify Password, User ID
restrict in order to prevent cascading revocation. b) URL or machine name where server runs, User
The keyword cascade can be used instead of ID, Password
restrict to indicate that revocation should cascade. c) User ID, Password, URL or machine name
where server runs
10. The granting and revoking of roles by the user d) Password, URL or machine name where server
may cause some confusions when that user role is runs, User ID
revoked. To overcome the above situation View Answer
a) The privilege must be granted only by roles
b) The privilege is granted by roles and users Answer: b
c) The user role cannot be removed once given Explanation: The database must be opened first in
d) By restricting the user access to the roles order to perform any operations for which this get
View Answer connection method is used.
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4. Which of the following invokes functions in 8. Which of the following is used to distinguish
sql? the variables in SQL from the host language
a) Prepared Statements variables?
b) Connection statement a) .
c) Callable statements b) –
d) All of the mentioned c) :
View Answer d) ,
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: JDBC provides a Callable Statement Answer: b
interface that allows invocation of SQL stored Explanation:
procedures and functions. EXEC SQL
DECLARE c cursor FOR
5. Which of the following function is used to find SELECT ID, name
the column count of the particular resultset? FROM student
a) getMetaData() WHERE tot cred > :credit amount;
b) Metadata()
c) getColumn() .
d) get Count()
Answer: a 9. The update statement can be executed in host

Explanation: The interface ResultSet language using
has a method, getMetaData(), that returns a a) EXEC SQL update c;
ResultSetMetaData object that contains metadata b) EXEC SQL update c into :si, :sn;
about the result set. ResultSetMetaData, in turn, c)
has methods to find metadata information, such as
the number of columns in the result, the name of a EXEC SQL
specified column, or the type of a specified UPDATE instructor
column. SET salary = salary + 100
WHERE CURRENT OF c;
6. Which of the following is a following statement
is a prepared statements? d) EXEC SQL update END-SQL
a) Insert into department values(?,?,?) View Answer
b) Insert into department values(x,x,x)
c) SQLSetConnectOption(conn, SQL Answer: c
AUTOCOMMIT, 0) Explanation: The SQL can be terminated by ; to
d) SQLTransact(conn, SQL ROLLBACK) terminate the sentence.
View Answer
10. Which of the following is used to access large
Answer: a objects from a database ?
Explanation:? is used as a placeholder whose a) setBlob()
value can be provided later. b) getBlob()
c) getClob()
7. Which of the following is used as the d) all of the mentioned
embedded SQL in COBOL? View Answer
a) EXEC SQL <embedded SQL statement >;
b) EXEC SQL <embedded SQL statement > Answer: d
END-EXEC Explanation: None.
c) EXEC SQL <embedded SQL statement >
d) EXEC SQL <embedded SQL statement > END 1.
EXEC;
View Answer
Create function dept count(dept_name
varchar(20))
Answer: b begin
Explanation: EXEC SQL <embedded SQL declare d count integer;
statement >; is normally in C. select count(*) into d count
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from instructor Answer: d
where instructor.dept_name= dept_name Explanation: Create procedure dept count proc(in
return d count; dept name varchar(20), out d count integer). Here
end in and out refers to input and result of procedure.
Find the error in the the above statement. 4.

a) Return type missing
b) Dept_name is mismatched Create procedure dept_count proc(in dept name
c) Reference relation is not mentioned varchar(20),
d) All of the mentioned out d count integer)
View Answer begin
select count(*) into d count
Answer: a from instructor
Explanation: Return integer should be given after where instructor.dept name= dept count proc.dept
create function for this particular function. name
end
2. For the function created in Question 1, which of
the following is a proper select statement ? Which of the following is used to call the
a) procedure given above ?
a)
SELECT dept name, budget
FROM instructor Declare d_count integer;
WHERE dept COUNT() > 12;
b)
b)
Declare d_count integer;
SELECT dept name, budget call dept_count proc(’Physics’, d_count);
FROM instructor
WHERE dept COUNT(dept name) > 12; c)
c) Declare d_count integer;

call dept_count proc(’Physics’);
SELECT dept name, budget
WHERE dept COUNT(dept name) > 12; d)
d) Declare d_count;
call dept_count proc(’Physics’, d_count);
SELECT dept name, budget View Answer
FROM instructor Answer: b
WHERE dept COUNT(budget) > 12; Explanation: Here the ‘Physics’ is in variable and
View Answer d_count is out variable.
Answer: b
Explanation: The count of the dept_name must be
checked for the displaying from instructor
relation. 5. The format for compound statement is
a) Begin ……. end
b) Begin atomic……. end
c) Begin ……. repeat
3. Which of the following is used to input the d) Both Begin ……. end and Begin atomic…….
entry and give the result in a variable in a end
procedure? View Answer
a) Put and get
b) Get and put Answer: d
c) Out and In Explanation: A compound statement is of the
d) In and out form begin . . . end, and it may contain multiple
View Answer SQL statements between the begin and the end.A
compound statement of the form begin atomic . . .
329
end ensures that all the statements contained end if
within it are executed as a single transaction. View Answer
advertisement Answer: a
Explanation: The conditional statements
6. supported by SQL include if-then-else statements
by using this syntax. elif and elsif are not allowed.
Repeat
sequence of statements;
__________________
end repeat 8. A stored procedure in SQL is a___________
a) Block of functions
Fill in the correct option : b) Group of Transact-SQL statements compiled
a) While Condition into a single execution plan.
b) Until variable c) Group of distinct SQL statements.
c) Until boolean expression d) None of the mentioned
d) Until 0 View Answer
View Answer
Answer: b
Answer: c Explanation: If it an atomic statement then the
Explanation: None. statements are in single transaction.
7. Which of the following is the correct format for 9. Temporary stored procedures are stored in
if statement? _________ database.
a) a) Master
b) Model
If boolean expression c) User specific
then statement or compound statement d) Tempdb
elseif boolean expression View Answer
then statement or compound statement
else statement or compound statement Answer: d
end if Explanation: None.
b) 10. Declare out of classroom seats condition
If boolean expression DECLARE exit handler FOR OUT OF classroom

then statement or compound statement seats
elsif boolean expression BEGIN
then statement or compound statement SEQUENCE OF statements
else statement or compound statement END
end if
The above statements are used for
c) a) Calling procedures
b) Handling Exception
If boolean expression c) Handling procedures
then statement or compound statement d) All of the mentioned
elif boolean expression View Answer
then statement or compound statement
else statement or compound statement Answer: b
end if Explanation: The SQL procedural language also
supports the signaling of exception conditions,
d) and declaring of handlers that can handle the
exception, as in this code.
If boolean expression
then statement or compound statement 1. A __________ is a special kind of a store
else procedure that executes in response to certain
statement or compound statement action on the table like insertion, deletion or
else statement or compound statement updation of data.
a) Procedures
330
b) Triggers Answer: b
c) Functions Explanation: Example : declare @empid int;
d) None of the mentioned where empid is the variable.
View Answer
6. The default extension for an Oracle SQL*Plus
Answer: b file is:
Explanation: Triggers are automatically generated a) .txt
when a particular operation takes place. b) .pls
c) .ora
2. Triggers are supported in d) .sql
a) Delete View Answer
b) Update
c) Views Answer: d
d) All of the mentioned Explanation: Example :None.
View Answer
7. Which of the following is NOT an Oracle-
Answer: c supported trigger?
Explanation: The triggers run after an insert, a) BEFORE
update or delete on a table. They are not b) DURING
supported for views. c) AFTER
d) INSTEAD OF
3. The CREATE TRIGGER statement is used to View Answer
create the trigger. THE _____ clause specifies the
table name on which the trigger is to be attached. Answer: b
The ______ specifies that this is an AFTER Explanation: Example: During trigger is not
INSERT trigger. possible in any database.
a) for insert, on advertisement
b) On, for insert
c) For, insert 8. What are the different in triggers?
d) None of the mentioned a) Define, Create
View Answer b) Drop, Comment
c) Insert, Update, Delete
Answer: b d) All of the mentioned
Explanation: The triggers run after an insert, View Answer
update or delete on a table. They are not
supported for views. Answer: c
Explanation: Triggers are not possible for create,
4. What are the after triggers? drop.
a) Triggers generated after a particular operation
b) These triggers run after an insert, update or 9. Triggers ________ enabled or disabled
delete on a table a) Can be
c) These triggers run after an insert, views, update b) Cannot be
or delete on a table c) Ought to be
d) All of the mentioned d) Always
Answer: b Answer: a
Explanation: AFTER TRIGGERS can be Explanation: Triggers can be manipulated.
classified further into three types as: AFTER
INSERT Trigger, AFTER UPDATE Trigger, 10. Which prefixes are available to Oracle
AFTER DELETE Trigger. triggers?
a) : new only
5. The variables in the triggers are declared using b) : old only
a) – c) Both :new and : old
b) @ d) Neither :new nor : old
c) / View Answer
d) /@
View Answer
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Answer: c SELECT ID, GPA
Explanation: None. FROM student grades
ORDER BY GPA
1. Any recursive view must be defined as the ____________;
union of two subqueries: a _______ query that is
nonrecursive and a __________ query. Inorder to give only 10 rank on the whole we
a) Base, recursive should use
b) Recursive, Base a) Limit 10
c) Base, Redundant b) Upto 10
d) View, Base c) Only 10
View Answer d) Max 10
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: First compute the base query and Answer: a
add all the resultant tuples to the recursively Explanation: However, the limit clause does not
defined view relation. support partitioning, so we cannot get the top n
within each partition without performing ranking;
2. Ranking of queries is done by which of the further, if more than one student gets the same
following? GPA, it is possible that one is included in the top
a) Group by 10, while another is excluded.
b) Order by
c) Having 6. If there are n tuples in the partition and the rank
d) Both Group by and Order by of the tuple is r, then its ________ is defined as (r
View Answer −1)/(n−1).
a) Ntil()
Answer: b b) Cum_rank
Explanation: Order by clause arranges the values c) Percent_rank
in ascending or descending order where a default d) rank()
is ascending order. View Answer
3. In rank() function if one value is shared by two Answer: c

tuples then Explanation: Percent rank of a tuple gives the
a) The rank order continues as counting numbers rank of the tuple as a fraction.
b) The rank order continues by leaving one rank
in the middle 7. Inorder to simplify the null value confusion in
c) The user specifies the order the rank function we can specify
d) The order does not change a) Not Null
View Answer b) Nulls last
c) Nulls first
Answer: b d) Either Nulls last or first
Explanation: Example. rank() over (order by View Answer
(GPA) desc).
Answer: d
4. The __________ function that does not create Explanation: select ID, rank () over (order by
gaps in the ordering. GPA desc nulls last) as s rank from student
a) Intense_rank() grades;.
b) Continue_rank()
c) Default_rank() 8. Suppose we are given a view tot credits (year,
d) Dense_rank() num credits) giving the total number of credits
View Answer taken by students in each year. The query that
computes averages over the 3 preceding tuples in
Answer: d the specified sort order is
Explanation: For dense_rank() the tuples with the a)
second highest value all get rank 2, and tuples
with the third highest value get rank 3, and so on. SELECT YEAR, avg(num credits)
OVER (ORDER BY YEAR ROWS 3 preceding)
5. AS avg total credits
FROM tot credits;
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b) 2. Data that can be modeled as dimension
attributes and measure attributes are called
advertisement _______ data.
a) Multidimensional
SELECT YEAR, avg(num credits) b) Singledimensional
OVER (ORDER BY YEAR ROWS 3 unbounded c) Measured
preceding) d) Dimensional
AS avg total credits View Answer
FROM tot credits;
Answer: a
c) All of the mentioned Explanation: Given a relation used for data
d) None of the mentioned analysis, we can identify some of its attributes as
View Answer measure attributes, since they measure some
value, and can be aggregated upon.Dimension
Answer: a attribute define the dimensions on which measure
Explanation: Suppose that instead of going back a attributes, and summaries of measure attributes,
fixed number of tuples, we want the window to are viewed.
consist of all prior years we use rows unbounded
preceding. 3. The generalization of cross-tab which is
represented visually is ____________ which is
9. The functions which construct histograms and also called as data cube.
use buckets for ranking is a) Two dimensional cube
a) Rank() b) Multidimensional cube
b) Newtil() c) N-dimensional cube
c) Ntil() d) Cuboid
View Answer
Answer: a
Answer: c Explanation: Each cell in the cube is identified for
Explanation: For each tuple, ntile(n) then gives the values for the three dimensional attributes.
the number of the bucket in which it is placed,
with bucket numbers starting with 1. 4. The process of viewing the cross-tab (Single
dimensional) with a fixed value of one attribute is
10. The command ________________ such tables a) Slicing
are available only within the transaction executing b) Dicing
the query and are dropped when the transaction c) Pivoting
finishes. d) Both Slicing and Dicing
a) Create table View Answer
b) Create temporary table
c) Create view Answer: a
d) Create label view Explanation: The slice operation selects one
View Answer particular dimension from a given cube and
provides a new sub-cube. Dice selects two or
Answer: b more dimensions from a given cube and provides
Explanation: None. a new sub-cube.
1. OLAP stands for 5. The operation of moving from finer-granularity

a) Online analytical processing data to a coarser granularity (by means of
b) Online analysis processing aggregation) is called a ________
c) Online transaction processing a) Rollup
d) Online aggregate processing b) Drill down
View Answer c) Dicing
d) Pivoting
Explanation: OLAP is the manipulation of
information to support decision making. Answer: a
Explanation: The opposite operation—that of
333
moving fromcoarser-granularity data to finer- Answer: b
granularity data—is called a drill down. Explanation: { (item name, color, clothes size),
(item name, color), (item name), () }.
6. In SQL the cross-tabs are created using
a) Slice 10. Which one of the following is the right syntax
b) Dice for DECODE?
c) Pivot a) DECODE (search, expression, result [, search,
d) All of the mentioned result]… [, default])
View Answer b) DECODE (expression, result [, search,
result]… [, default], search)
Answer: a c) DECODE (search, result [, search, result]… [,
Explanation: Pivot (sum(quantity) for color in default], expression)
(’dark’,’pastel’,’white’)). d) DECODE (expression, search, result [, search,
result]… [, default])
7. View Answer
{ (item name, color, clothes size), (item name, Answer: d

color), (item name, clothes size), (color, clothes Explanation: None
size), (item name), (color), (clothes size), () }
1. Relational Algebra is a __________ query
This can be achieved by using which of the language that takes two relations as input and
following ? produces another relation as an output of the
a) group by rollup query.
b) group by cubic a) Relational
c) group by b) Structural
d) none of the mentioned c) Procedural
View Answer d) Fundamental
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: ‘Group by cube’ is used . Answer: c
Explanation: This language has fundamental and
8. What do data warehouses support? other operations which are used on relations.
a) OLAP
b) OLTP 2. Which of the following is a fundamental
c) OLAP and OLTP operation in relational algebra?
d) Operational databases a) Set intersection
View Answer b) Natural join
c) Assignment
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Answer: d
9. Explanation: The fundamental operations are
select, project, union, set difference, Cartesian
SELECT item name, color, clothes SIZE, product, and rename.
SUM(quantity)
FROM sales 3. Which of the following is used to denote the
GROUP BY rollup(item name, color, clothes selection operation in relational algebra?
SIZE); a) Pi (Greek)
b) Sigma (Greek)
How many grouping is possible in this rollup? c) Lambda (Greek)
a) 8 d) Omega (Greek)
b) 4 View Answer
c) 2
d) 1 Answer: b
View Answer Explanation: The select operation selects tuples
that satisfy a given predicate.
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4. For select operation the ________ appear in the Answer: b
subscript and the ___________ argument appears Explanation: The expression is evaluated from left
in the paranthesis after the sigma. to right according to the precedence.
a) Predicates, relation
b) Relation, Predicates 9. Which of the following is not outer join?
c) Operation, Predicates a) Left outer join
d) Relation, Operation b) Right outer join
View Answer c) Full outer join
Explanation: None.
Answer: d
5. The ___________ operation, denoted by −, Explanation: The FULL OUTER JOIN keyword
allows us to find tuples that are in one relation but combines the result of both LEFT and RIGHT
are not in another. joins.
a) Union
b) Set-difference 10. The assignment operator is denoted by
c) Difference a) ->
d) Intersection b) <-
View Answer c) =
d) ==
Explanation: The expression r − s produces a
relation containing those tuples in r but not in s. Answer: b
Explanation: The result of the expression to the
6. Which is a unary operation: right of the ← is assigned to the relation variable
a) Selection operation on the left of the ←.
b) Primitive operation
c) Projection operation 1. Find the ID, name, dept name, salary for
d) Generalized selection instructors whose salary is greater than $80,000 .
View Answer a) {t | t ε instructor ∧ t[salary] > 80000}
b) Э t ∈ r (Q(t))
Answer: d c) {t | Э s ε instructor (t[ID] = s[ID]∧ s[salary] >
Explanation: Generalization Selection takes only 80000)}
one argument for operation. d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
7. Which is a join condition contains an equality
operator: Answer: a
a) Equijoins Explanation: This expression is in tuple relational
b) Cartesian format.
c) Natural
d) Left 2. A query in the tuple relational calculus is
View Answer expressed as:
a) {t | P() | t}
Answer: a b) {P(t) | t }
Explanation: None. c) {t | P(t)}
advertisement d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
8. In precedence of set operators, the expression is
evaluated from Answer: c
a) Left to left Explanation: The tuple relational calculus, is a
b) Left to right nonprocedural query language. It describes the
c) Right to left desired information without giving a specific
d) From user specification procedure for obtaining that information.
View Answer
3.
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{t | Э s ε instructor (t[name] = s[name] a) {P(x1, x2, . . . , xn) | < x1, x2, . . . , xn > }
∧ Э u ε department (u[dept name] = s[dept name] b) {x1, x2, . . . , xn | < x1, x2, . . . , xn > }
∧ u[building] = “Watson”))} c) { x1, x2, . . . , xn | x1, x2, . . . , xn}
d) {< x1, x2, . . . , xn > | P(x1, x2, . . . , xn)}
Which of the following best describes the query? View Answer
a) Finds the names of all instructors whose
department is in the Watson building Answer: d
b) Finds the names of all department is in the Explanation: Here x1, x2, . . . , xn represent
Watson building domain variables. P represents a formula
c) Finds the name of the dapartment whose composed of atoms, as was the case in the tuple
instructor and building is Watson relational calculus.
d) Returns the building name of all the
departments 8. Find the names of all instructors in the Physics
View Answer department together with the course id of all
courses they teach:
Answer: a a)
Explanation: This query has two “there exists”
clauses in our tuple-relational-calculus expression, {< c > | Э s (< c, a, s, y, b, r, t >ε section
connected by and (∧). ∧s = “Fall” ∧ y = “2009”
∨Эu (< c, a, s, y, b, r, t >ε section
4. Which of the following symbol is used in the ∧s = “Spring” ∧ y = “2010”
place of except?
a) ^ b)
b) V
c) ¬ {< n, c > | Э i, a (< i, c, a, s, y > ε teaches
d) ~ ∧ Э d, s (< i, n, d, s > ε instructor ∧ d =
View Answer “Physics”))}
Answer: c c)
Explanation: The query ¬P negates the value of P.
{< n > | Э i, d, s (< i, n, d, s > ε instructor ∧ s >
5. “Find all students who have taken all courses 80000)}
offered in the Biology department.” The
expressions that matches this sentence is : d)
a) Э t ε r (Q(t))
b) ∀ t ε r (Q(t))
{< i, n, d, s > | < i, n, d, s > ε instructor ∧ s >
c) ¬ t ε r (Q(t))
80000}
d) ~ t ε r (Q(t))
View Answer
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: None.
Answer: b
Explanation: ∀ is used denote “for all” in SQL.
6. Which of the following is the comparison 9. In domain relaional calculus “there exist” can
operator in tuple relational calculus be expressed as
a) ⇒ a) (P1(x))
b) = b) (P1(x)) Э x
c) ε c) V x (P1(x))
d) All of the mentioned d) Э x (P1(x))
Answer: b Answer: d
Explanation: The comparison operators are (<, ≤, Explanation:Э is used to denote “some” values in
=, =, >, ≥). relational calculus.
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7. An expression in the domain relational calculus
is of the form
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10. A set of possible data values is called 5. The attribute name could be structured as an
a) Attribute attribute consisting of first name, middle initial,
b) Degree and last name. This type of attribute is called
c) Tuple a) Simple attribute
d) Domain b) Composite attribute
View Answer c) Multivalued attribute
d) Derived attribute
Explanation: None.
Answer: b
1. An ________ is a set of entities of the same Explanation: Composite attributes can be divided
type that share the same properties, or attributes. into subparts (that is, other attributes).
a) Entity set
b) Attribute set 6. The attribute AGE is calculated from
c) Relation set DATE_OF_BIRTH. The attribute AGE is
d) Entity model a) Single valued
View Answer b) Multi valued
c) Composite
Answer: a d) Derived
Explanation: An entity is a “thing” or “object” in View Answer
the real world that is distinguishable from all
other objects. Answer: d
Explanation: The value for this type of attribute
2. Entity is a _________ can be derived from the values of other related
a) Object of relation attributes or entities.
b) Present working model
c) Thing in real world 7. Not applicable condition can be represented in
d) Model of relation relation entry as
View Answer a) NA
b) 0
Answer: c c) NULL
Explanation: For example, each person in a d) Blank Space
university is an entity. View Answer
3. The descriptive property possessed by each Answer: c

entity set is _________ Explanation: NULL always represents that the
a) Entity value is not present.
b) Attribute
c) Relation 8. Which of the following can be a multivalued
d) Model attribute?
View Answer a) Phone_number
b) Name
Answer: b c) Date_of_birth
Explanation: Possible attributes of the instructor d) All of the mentioned
entity set are ID, name, dept name, and salary. View Answer
4. The function that an entity plays in a Answer: a

relationship is called that entity’s _____________ Explanation: Name and Date_of_birth cannot hold
a) Participation more than 1 value.
b) Position
c) Role 9. Which of the following is a single valued
d) Instance attribute
View Answer a) Register_number
b) Address
Answer: c c) SUBJECT_TAKEN
Explanation: A relationship is an association d) Reference
among several entities. View Answer
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Answer: a 4. Data integrity constraints are used to:
Explanation: None. a) Control who is allowed access to the data
b) Ensure that duplicate records are not entered
10. In a relation between the entities the type and into the table
condition of the relation should be specified. That c) Improve the quality of data entered for a
is called as______attribute. specific property
a) Desciptive d) Prevent users from changing the values stored
b) Derived in the table
c) Recursive View Answer
d) Relative
Explanation: The data entered will be in a
Answer: a particular cell (i.e., table column).
Explanation: Consider the entity sets student and
section, which participate in a relationship set 5. Establishing limits on allowable property
takes. We may wish to store a descriptive attribute values, and specifying a set of acceptable,
grade with the relationship to record the grade that predefined options that can be assigned to a
a student got in the class. property are examples of:
a) Attributes
1. _____________ express the number of entities b) Data integrity constraints
to which another entity can be associated via a c) Method constraints
relationship set. d) Referential integrity constraints
a) Mapping Cardinality View Answer
b) Relational Cardinality
c) Participation Constraints Answer: b
d) None of the mentioned Explanation: Only particular value satisfying the
View Answer constraints are entered in the column.
Answer: a 6. Which of the following can be addressed by

Explanation: Mapping cardinality is also called as enforcing a referential integrity constraint?
cardinality ratio. a) All phone numbers must include the area code
b) Certain fields are required (such as the email
2. An entity in A is associated with at most one address, or phone number) before the record is
entity in B, and an entity in B is associated with at accepted
most one entity in A.This is called as c) Information on the customer must be known
a) One-to-many before anything can be sold to that customer
b) One-to-one d) Then entering an order quantity, the user must
c) Many-to-many input a number and not some text (i.e., 12 rather
d) Many-to-one than ‘a dozen’)
Answer: b Answer: c
Explanation: Here one entity in one set is related Explanation: None.
to one one entity in other set.
7. ______ is a special type of integrity constraint
3. An entity in A is associated with at most one that relates two relations & maintains consistency
entity in B. An entity in B, however, can be across the relations.
associated with any number (zero or more) of a) Entity Integrity Constraints
entities in A. b) Referential Integrity Constraints
a) One-to-many c) Domain Integrity Constraints
b) One-to-one d) Domain Constraints
c) Many-to-many View Answer
d) Many-to-one
Explanation: None.
Answer: d advertisement
Explanation: Here more than one entity in one set
is related to one one entity in other set.
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8. Which one of the following uniquely identifies Answer: d
the elements in the relation? Explanation: Dashed lines link attributes of a
a) Secondary Key relationship set to the relationship set.
b) Primary key
c) Foreign key 3. The Rectangles divided into two parts
d) Composite key represents
View Answer a) Entity set
b) Relationship set
Answer: b c) Attributes of a relationship set
Explanation: Primary key checks for not null and d) Primary key
uniqueness constraint. View Answer
9. Drop Table cannot be used to drop a table Answer: a

referenced by a _________ constraint. Explanation: The first part of the rectangle,
a) Local Key contains the name of the entity set. The second
b) Primary Key part contains the names of all the attributes of the
c) Composite Key entity set.
d) Foreign Key
View Answer 4. Consider a directed line(->) from the
relationship set advisor to both entity sets
Answer: d instructor and student. This indicates _________
Explanation: Foreign key is used when primary cardinality
key of one relation is used in another relation. a) One to many
b) One to one
10. ____________ is preferred method for c) Many to many
enforcing data integrity d) Many to one
a) Constraints View Answer
b) Stored Procedure
c) Triggers Answer: b
d) Cursors Explanation: This indicates that an instructor may
View Answer advise at most one student, and a student may
have at most one advisor.
Answer: a
Explanation: Constraints are specified to restrict 5. We indicate roles in E-R diagrams by labeling
entries in the relation. the lines that connect ___________ to
__________
1. Which of the following gives a logical structure a) Diamond , diamond
of the database graphically? b) Rectangle, diamond
a) Entity-relationship diagram c) Rectangle, rectangle
b) Entity diagram d) Diamond, rectangle
c) Database diagram View Answer
d) Architectural representation
Explanation: Diamond represents a relationship
Answer: a set and rectangle represents a entity set.
Explanation: E-R diagrams are simple and clear—
qualities that may well account in large part for 6. An entity set that does not have sufficient
the widespread use of the E-R model. attributes to form a primary key is termed a
__________
2. The entity relationship set is represented in E-R a) Strong entity set
diagram as b) Variant set
a) Double diamonds c) Weak entity set
b) Undivided rectangles d) Variable set
c) Dashed lines View Answer
d) Diamond
Explanation: An entity set that has a primary key
is termed a strong entity set.
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7. For a weak entity set to be meaningful, it must 1. Which one of the following can be treated as a
be associated with another entity set, called the primary key in teaches relation?
a) Identifying set a) Id
b) Owner set b) Semester
c) Neighbour set c) Sec_id
d) Strong entity set d) Year
Answer: a Answer: a
Explanation: Every weak entity must be Explanation: Here Id is the only attribute that has
associated with an identifying entity; that is, the to have a unique entry.
weak entity set is said to be existence dependent
on the identifying entity set. The identifying entity 2. The primary key in the section relation is
set is said to own the weak entity set that it a) Course_id
identifies. It is also called as owner entity set. b) Sec_id
advertisement c) Both Course_id and Sec_id
d) All the attributes
8. Weak entity set is represented as View Answer
a) Underline
b) Double line Answer: c
c) Double diamond Explanation: Both the entries has unique entry.
d) Double rectangle
View Answer 3.
Answer: c SELECT * FROM teaches WHERE Sec_id =

Explanation: An entity set that has a primary key 'CS-101';
is termed a strong entity set.
Which of the following Id is selected for the
9. If you were collecting and storing information following query?
about your music collection, an album would be a) 1003
considered a(n) _____ b) 1001
a) Relation c) None
b) Entity d) Error message appears
c) Instance View Answer
d) Attribute
Explanation: The value CS-101 matches the
Answer: b Course_id but not Id.
Explanation: An entity set is a logical container
for instances of an entity type and instances of any 4.
type derived from that entity type.
SELECT Id, Course_id, Building FROM
10. What term is used to refer to a specific record SECTION s AND teaches t WHERE t.year=2009;
in your music database; for instance; information
stored about a specific album? Which of the following Id are displayed?
a) Relation a) 1003
b) Instance b) 1001
c) Table c) Both 1003 and 1001
d) Column d) Error message appears
Answer: b Answer: c
Explanation: The environment of database is said Explanation: Two rows are select in the above
to be an instance. A database instance or an query.
‘instance’ is made up of the background processes
needed by the database.
5. The query which selects the Course_id ‘CS-
101’ from the section relation is
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a) Select Course_id from section where Building b) Delete from teaches;
= ‘Richard’; c) Purge table teaches;
b) Select Course_id from section where Year = d) Delete from teaches where Id =’Null’;
‘2009’; View Answer
c) Select Course_id from teaches where Building
= ‘Packyard’; Answer: b
d) Select Course_id from section where Sec_id = Explanation: Delete table cleans the entry from
‘3’; the table.
View Answer
9. In the above teaches relation ” Select * from
Answer: b teaches where Year = ‘2010’” displays how many
Explanation: The year ‘2009’ should be selected rows?
from the section relation. a) 2
b) 4
6. c) 5
d) 1
CREATE TABLE SECTION Answer: a

(Course_id VARCHAR (8), Explanation: There are two tuples with the year is
Sec_id VARCHAR (8), 2009.
Semester VARCHAR (6),
YEAR NUMERIC (4,0), 10. The relation changes can be got back using
Building NUMERIC (15), ________ command
PRIMARY KEY (course id, sec id, semester, a) Flashback
YEAR), b) Purge
FOREIGN KEY (course id) REFERENCES c) Delete
course); d) Getback
View Answer
Which of the following has an error in the above
create table for the relation section Answer: a
a) Primary key (course id, sec id, semester, year) Explanation: Purge deletes the table and delete
b) Foreign key (course id) references course cleans the table entry.
c) Year numeric (4,0)
d) Building numeric (15) 1. Let us consider phone_number ,which can take
View Answer single or several values . Treating
phone_numberas an _________ permits
Answer: d instructors to have several phone numbers
Explanation: It should be replaced by Year (including zero) associated with them.
Building varchar (15). a) Entity
b) Attribute
7. The relation with primary key can be created c) Relation
using d) Value
a) Create table instructor (Id, Name) View Answer
b) Create table instructor (Id, Name, primary
key(name)) Answer: a
c) Create table instructor (Id, Name, primary key Explanation: Treating a phone as an attribute
(Id)) phone_number implies that instructors have
d) Create table instructor ( Id unique, Name ) precisely one phone number each.
View Answer
2. The total participation by entities is represented
Answer: c in E-R diagram as
Explanation: The value Name cannot be a primary a) Dashed line
key. b) Double line
c) Double rectangle
8. How can the values in the relation teaches be d) Circle
deleted? View Answer
a) Drop table teaches;
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Answer: b 7. Which of the following is a low level operator?
Explanation: It is used to represent the relation a) Insert
between several attributes. b) Update
c) Delete
3. Given the basic ER and relational models, d) Directory
which of the following is INCORRECT? View Answer
a) An attribute of an entity can have more than
one value Answer: d
b) An attribute of an entity can be composite Explanation: Directory is a low level to word on
c) In a row of a relational table, an attribute can in file system.
have more than one value advertisement
d) In a row of a relational table, an attribute can
have exactly one value or a NULL value 8. Key to represent relationship between tables is
View Answer called
a) Primary key
Answer: c b) Secondary Key
Explanation: It is possible to have several values c) Foreign Key
for a single attribute provide it is a multi-valued d) None of the mentioned
attribute. View Answer
4. Which of the following indicates the maximum Answer: c

number of entities that can be involved in a Explanation: Primary key of one relation used as
relationship? an attribute in another relation is called foreign
a) Minimum cardinality key.
b) Maximum cardinality
c) ERD 9. A window into a portion of a database is
d) Greater Entity Count a) Schema
View Answer b) View
c) Query
Answer: b d) Data dictionary
Explanation: In SQL (Structured Query View Answer
Language), the term cardinality refers to the
uniqueness of data values contained in a particular Answer: b
column (attribute) of a database table. Explanation: View is a logical portion of a
database which is needed by some users.
5. In E-R diagram generalization is represented by
a) Ellipse 10. A primary key is combined with a foreign key
b) Dashed ellipse creates
c) Rectangle a) Parent-Child relation ship between the tables
d) Triangle that connect them
View Answer b) Many to many relationship between the tables
that connect them
Answer: d c) Network model between the tables that connect
Explanation: Ellipse represents attributes, them
rectangle represents entity. d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
6. What is a relationship called when it is
maintained between two entities? Answer: a
a) Unary Explanation: Using the two relationships mother
b) Binary and father provides us a record of a child’s
c) Ternary mother, even if we are not aware of the father’s
d) Quaternary identity; a null value would be required if the
View Answer ternary relationship parent is used. Using binary
relationship sets is preferable in this case.
Answer: b
Explanation: Binary word usually represents two 1. The entity set person is classified as student and
attributes. employee. This process is called _________
a) Generalization
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b) Specialization 5. If an entity set is a lower-level entity set in
c) Inheritance more than one ISA relationship, then the entity set
d) Constraint generalization has
View Answer a) Hierarchy
b) Multilevel inheritance
Answer: b c) Single inheritance
Explanation: The process of designating d) Multiple inheritance
subgroupings within an entity set is called View Answer
specialization.
Answer: d
2. Which relationship is used to represent a Explanation: The attributes of the higher-level
specialization entity? entity sets are said to be inherited by the lower-
a) ISA level entity sets.
b) AIS
c) ONIS 6. A _____________ constraint requires that an
d) WHOIS entity belong to no more than one lower-level
View Answer entity set.
a) Disjointness
Answer: a b) Uniqueness
Explanation: In terms of an E-R diagram, c) Special
specialization is depicted by a hollow arrow-head d) Relational
pointing from the specialized entity to the other View Answer
entity.
Answer: a
3. The refinement from an initial entity set into Explanation: For example, student entity can
successive levels of entity subgroupings satisfy only one condition for the student type
represents a ________ design process in which attribute; an entity can be either a graduate student
distinctions are made explicit. or an undergraduate student, but cannot be both.
a) Hierarchy
b) Bottom-up 7. Consider the employee work-team example,
c) Top-down and assume that certain employees participate in
d) Radical more than one work team. A given employee may
View Answer therefore appear in more than one of the team
entity sets that are lower level entity sets of
Answer: c employee. Thus, the generalization is
Explanation: The design process may also _____________
proceed in a bottom-up manner, in which multiple a) Overlapping
entity sets are synthesized into a higher-level b) Disjointness
entity set on the basis of common features. c) Uniqueness
d) Relational
4. There are similarities between the instructor View Answer
entity set and the secretary entity set in the sense
that they have several attributes that are Answer: a
conceptually the same across the two entity sets: Explanation: In overlapping generalizations, the
namely, the identifier, name, and salary attributes. same entity may belong to more than one lower-
This process is called level entity set within a single generalization.
a) Commonality advertisement
b) Specialization
c) Generalization 8. The completeness constraint may be one of the
d) Similarity following: Total generalization or specialization,
View Answer Partial generalization or specialization. Which is
the default?
Answer: c a) Total
Explanation: Generalization is used to emphasize b) Partial
the similarities among lower-level entity sets and c) Should be specified
to hide the differences. d) Cannot be determined
View Answer
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Answer: b d) Have all non key fields depend on the whole
Explanation: Partial generalization or primary key
specialization – Some higher-level entities may View Answer
not belong to any lower-level entity set.
Answer: a
9. Functional dependencies are a generalization of Explanation: The relation in second normal form
a) Key dependencies is also in first normal form and no partial
b) Relation dependencies dependencies on any column in primary key.
c) Database dependencies
d) None of the mentioned 4. Which-one ofthe following statements about
View Answer normal forms is FALSE?
a) BCNF is stricter than 3 NF
Answer: a b) Lossless, dependency -preserving
Explanation: The subclasses are combined to form decomposition into 3 NF is always possible
the superclass. c) Loss less, dependency – preserving
decomposition into BCNF is always possible
10. Which of the following is another name for a d) Any relation with two attributes is BCNF
weak entity? View Answer
a) Child
b) Owner Answer: c
c) Dominant Explanation: We say that the decomposition is a
d) All of the mentioned lossless decomposition if there is no loss of
View Answer information by replacing r (R) with two relation
schemas r1(R1) andr2(R2).
Answer: a
Explanation: A parent may be called as a strong 5. Functional Dependencies are the types of
entity. constraints that are based on______
a) Key
1. In the __________ normal form, a composite b) Key revisited
attribute is converted to individual attributes. c) Superset key
a) First d) None of the mentioned
b) Second View Answer
c) Third
d) Fourth Answer: a
View Answer Explanation: Key is the basic element needed for
the constraints.
Answer: a
Explanation: The first normal form is used to 6. Which is a bottom-up approach to database
eliminate the duplicate information. design that design by examining the relationship
between attributes:
2. A table on the many side of a one to many or a) Functional dependency
many to many relationship must: b) Database modeling
a) Be in Second Normal Form (2NF) c) Normalization
b) Be in Third Normal Form (3NF) d) Decomposition
c) Have a single attribute key View Answer
d) Have a composite key
Explanation: Normalisation is the process of
Answer: d removing redundancy and unwanted data.
Explanation: The relation in second normal form
is also in first normal form and no partial 7. Which forms simplifies and ensures that there
dependencies on any column in primary key. are minimal data aggregates and repetitive groups:
a) 1NF
3. Tables in second normal form (2NF): b) 2NF
a) Eliminate all hidden dependencies c) 3NF
b) Eliminate the possibility of a insertion d) All of the mentioned
anomalies View Answer
c) Have a composite key
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Answer: c c) BCNF
Explanation: The first normal form is used to d) 1NF
eliminate the duplicate information. View Answer
8. Which forms has a relation that possesses data Answer: b

about an individual entity: Explanation: A relation is in 3 NF if an attribute
a) 2NF of a composite key is dependent on an attribute of
b) 3NF other composite key. (If an attribute of a
c) 4NF composite key is dependent on an attribute of
d) 5NF other composite key then the relation is not in
View Answer BCNF, hence it has to be decomposed.).
Answer: c 2. What are the desirable properties of a

Explanation: A Table is in 4NF if and only if, for decomposition
every one of its non-trivial multivalued a) Partition constraint
dependencies X \twoheadrightarrow Y, X is a b) Dependency preservation
superkey—that is, X is either a candidate key or a c) Redundancy
superset thereof. d) Security
View Answer
9. Which forms are based on the concept of
functional dependency: Answer: b
a) 1NF Explanation: Lossless join and dependency
b) 2NF preserving are the two goals of the decomposition.
c) 3NF
d) 4NF 3. R (A,B,C,D) is a relation. Which of the
View Answer following does not have a lossless join
dependency preserving BCNF decomposition?
Answer: c a) A->B, B->CD
Explanation: The table is in 3NF if every non- b) A->B, B->C, C->D
prime attribute of R is non-transitively dependent c) AB->C, C->AD
(i.e. directly dependent) on every superkey of R. d) A->BCD
View Answer
10.
Answer: d
Empdt1(empcode, name, street, city, state, Explanation: This relation gives a relation without
pincode). any loss in the values.
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4.
For any pincode, there is only one city and state.
Also, for given street, city and state, there is just Class (course id, title, dept name, credits, sec id,
one pincode. In normalization terms, empdt1 is a semester, YEAR, building, room NUMBER,
relation in capacity, TIME slot id)
a) 1 NF only The SET OF functional dependencies that we
b) 2 NF and hence also in 1 NF require TO hold ON class are:
c) 3NF and hence also in 2NF and 1NF course id->title, dept name, credits
d) BCNF and hence also in 3NF, 2NF and 1NF building, room number->capacity
View Answer course id, sec id, semester, year->building, room
NUMBER, TIME slot id
Answer: b A candidate KEY FOR this schema IS {course id,
Explanation: The relation in second normal form sec id, semester, YEAR}
is also in first normal form and no partial
dependencies on any column in primary key. Consider the above conditions. Which of the
following relation holds?
1. A relation is in ____________ if an attribute of a) Course id-> title, dept name, credits
a composite key is dependent on an attribute of b) Title-> dept name, credits
other composite key. c) Dept name-> credits
a) 2NF d) Cannot be determined
b) 3NF View Answer
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Answer: a Answer: b
Explanation: Here course id is not a superkey. Explanation: Redundancy in BCNF is low when
Thus, class is not in BCNF. compared to 3NF. For more details on BCNF.
5. The algorithm that takes a set of dependencies 9. A table has fields F1, F2, F3, F4, and F5, with
and adds one schema at a time, instead of the following functional dependencies:
decomposing the initial schema repeatedly is
a) BCNF algorithm F1->F3
b) 2NF algorithm F2->F4
c) 3NF synthesis algorithm (F1,F2)->F5
d) 1NF algorithm
View Answer in terms of normalization, this table is in
a) 1NF
Answer: c b) 2NF
Explanation: The result is not uniquely defined, c) 3NF
since a set of functional dependencies can have d) None of the mentioned
more than one canonical cover, and, further, in View Answer
some cases, the result of the algorithm depends on
the order in which it considers the dependencies Answer: a
in Fc. Explanation: Since the primary key is not given
we have to derive the primary key of the table.
6. The functional dependency can be tested easily Using the closure set of attributes we get the
on the materialized view, using the constraints primary key as (F1, F2). From functional
____________. dependencies, “F1->F3, F2->F4”, we can see that
a) Primary key there is partial functional dependency therefore it
b) Null is not in 1NF. Hence the table is in 1NF.
c) Unique advertisement
d) Both Null and Unique
View Answer 10. Let R(A,B,C,D,E,P,G) be a relational schema
in which the following FDs are known to hold:
Answer: d
Explanation: Primary key contains both unique AB->CD
and not null constraints. DE->P
C->E
7. Which normal form is considered adequate for P->C
normal relational database design? B->G
a) 2NF
b) 5NF The relation schema R is
c) 4NF a) in BCNF
d) 3NF b) in 3NF, but not in BCNF
View Answer c) in 2NF, but not in 3NF
d) not in 2NF
Explanation: A relational database table is often
described as “normalized” if it is in the Third Answer: d
Normal Form because most of the 3NF tables are Explanation: From the closure set of attributes we
free of insertion, update, and deletion anomalies. can see that the key for the relation is AB. The FD
B->G is a partial dependency, hence it is not in
8. Relation R with an associated set of functional 2NF.
dependencies, F, is decomposed into BCNF. The
redundancy (arising out of functional 1. The normal form which satisfies multivalued
dependencies) in the resulting set of relations is dependencies and which is in BCNF is
a) Zero a) 4 NF
b) More than zero but less than that of an b) 3 NF
equivalent 3NF decomposition c) 2 NF
c) Proportional to the size of F+ d) All of the mentioned
d) Indeterminate View Answer
View Answer
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Answer: a superkey—that is, X is either a candidate key or a
Explanation: Fourth normal form is more superset thereof.
restrictive than BCNF.
6. If a multivalued dependency holds and is not
2. Which of the following is a tuple-generating implied by the corresponding functional
dependencies? dependency, it usually arises from one of the
a) Functional dependency following sources.
b) Equality-generating dependencies a) A many-to-many relationship set
c) Multivalued dependencies b) A multivalued attribute of an entity set
d) Non-functional dependency c) A one-to-many relationship set
View Answer d) Both A many-to-many relationship set and A
multivalued attribute of an entity set
Explanation: Multivalued dependencies, do not
rule out the existence of certain tuples. Instead, Answer: d
they require that other tuples of a certain form be Explanation: For a many-to-many relationship set
present in the relation. each related entity set has its own schema and
there is an additional schema for the relationship
3. The main task carried out in the __________ is set. For a multivalued attribute, a separate schema
to remove repeating attributes to separate tables. is created consisting of that attribute and the
a) First Normal Form primary key of the entity set.
b) Second Normal Form
c) Third Normal Form 7. Which of the following has each related entity
d) Fourth Normal Form set has its own schema and there is an additional
View Answer schema for the relationship set?
a) A many-to-many relationship set
Answer: a b) A multivalued attribute of an entity set
Explanation: Multivalued dependencies, do not c) A one-to-many relationship set
rule out the existence of certain tuples. Instead, d) None of the mentioned
they require that other tuples of a certain form be View Answer
present in the relation.
Answer: a
4. Which of the normal form is based on Explanation: If a multivalued dependency holds
multivalued dependencies? and is not implied by the corresponding functional
a) First dependency, it usually arises from this source.
b) Second advertisement
c) Third
d) Fourth 8. In which of the following, a separate schema is
View Answer created consisting of that attribute and the primary
key of the entity set.
Answer: d a) A many-to-many relationship set
Explanation: Multivalued dependencies, do not b) A multivalued attribute of an entity set
rule out the existence of certain tuples. Instead, c) A one-to-many relationship set
they require that other tuples of a certain form be d) None of the mentioned
present in the relation. View Answer
5. Which forms has a relation that possesses data Answer: b

about an individual entity? Explanation: If a multivalued dependency holds
a) 2NF and is not implied by the corresponding functional
b) 3NF dependency, it usually arises from this source.
c) 4NF
d) 5NF 9. Fifth Normal form is concerned with
View Answer a) Functional dependency
b) Multivalued dependency
Answer: c c) Join dependency
Explanation: A Table is in 4NF if and only if, for d) Domain-key
every one of its non-trivial multivalued View Answer
dependencies X \twoheadrightarrow Y, X is a
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Answer: c Answer: a
Explanation: If a multivalued dependency holds Explanation: If a multivalued dependency holds
and is not implied by the corresponding functional and is not implied by the corresponding functional
dependency, it usually arises from this source. dependency, it usually arises from this source.
10. In 2NF 4. In which of the following, a separate schema is

a) No functional dependencies (FDs) exist created consisting of that attribute and the primary
b) No multivalued dependencies (MVDs) exist key of the entity set.
c) No partial FDs exist a) A many-to-many relationship set
d) No partial MVDs exist b) A multivalued attribute of an entity set
View Answer c) A one-to-many relationship set
Explanation: If a multivalued dependency holds
and is not implied by the corresponding functional Answer: b
dependency, it usually arises from this source. Explanation: If a multivalued dependency holds
and is not implied by the corresponding functional
1. _____________ can help us detect poor E-R dependency, it usually arises from this source.
design.
a) Database Design Process 5. Suppose the user finds the usage of room
b) E-R Design Process number and phone number in a relational schema
c) Relational scheme there is confusion.This is reduced by
d) Functional dependencies a) Unique-role assumption
View Answer b) Unique-key assignment
c) Role intergral assignment
Explanation: For eg.,Suppose an instructor entity View Answer
set had attributes dept name and dept address, and
there is a functional dependency dept name -> Answer: a
dept address. Explanation: A desirable feature of a database
design is the unique-role assumption, which
2. If a multivalued dependency holds and is not means that each attribute name has a unique
implied by the corresponding functional meaning in the database.
dependency, it usually arises from one of the
following sources. 6. What is the best way to represent the attributes
a) A many-to-many relationship set in a large database?
b) A multivalued attribute of an entity set a) Relational-and
c) A one-to-many relationship set b) Concatenation
d) Both A many-to-many relationship set and A c) Dot representation
multivalued attribute of an entity set d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d Answer: b
Explanation: For a many-to-many relationship set Explanation: Example inst sec and student sec.
each related entity set has its own schema and
there is an additional schema for the relationship 7. Designers use which of the following to tune
set. For a multivalued attribute, a separate schema the performance of systems to support time-
is created consisting of that attribute and the critical operations?
primary key of the entity set. a) Denormalization
b) Redundant optimization
3. Which of the following has each related entity c) Optimization
set has its own schema and there is an additional d) Realization
schema for the relationship set. View Answer
a) A many-to-many relationship set
b) A multivalued attribute of an entity set Answer: a
c) A one-to-many relationship set Explanation: The process of taking a normalized
d) All of the mentioned schema and making it nonnormalized is called
View Answer denormalization.
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8. In the schema (dept name, size) we have 1. An approach to website design with the
relations total inst 2007, total inst 2008. Which emphasis on converting visitors to outcomes
dependency have lead to this relation ? required by the owner is referred to as:
a) Dept name, year->size a) Web usability
b) Year->size b) Persuasion
c) Dept name->size c) Web accessibility
d) Size->year d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a Answer: b
Explanation: The process of taking a normalized Explanation: In computing, graphical user
schema and making it nonnormalized is called interface is a type of user interface that allows
denormalization. users to interact with electronic devices.
9. Relation dept year(dept name, total inst 2007, 2. A method of modelling and describing user
total inst 2008, total inst 2009). Here the only tasks for an interactive application is referred to
functional dependencies are from dept name to the as:
other attributes. This relation is in a) Customer journey
a) Fourth NF b) Primary persona
b) BCNF c) Use case
c) Third NF d) Web design persona
d) Second NF View Answer
View Answer
Answer: c
Answer: b Explanation: The actions in GUI are usually
Explanation: BCNF has only one normal form. performed through direct manipulation of the
graphical elements.
10. Thus a _______ of course data gives the
values of all attributes, such as title and 3. Information architecture influences:
department, of all courses at a particular point in a) Answer choice
time. b) Site structure
a) Instance c) Labeling
b) Snapshot d) Navigation design
c) Both Instance and Snapshot View Answer
Explanation: The actions in GUI are usually
Answer: b performed through direct manipulation of the
Explanation: We use the term snapshot of data to graphical elements.
mean the value of the data at a particular point in
time. 4. Also known as schematics, a way of illustrating
advertisement the layout of an individual webpage is a:
a) Wireframe
11. Representations such as the in the dept year b) Sitemap
relation, with one column for each value of an c) Card sorting
attribute, are called _______ they are widely used d) Blueprint
in spreadsheets and reports and in data analysis View Answer
tools.
a) Cross-tabs Answer: a
b) Snapshot Explanation: An application programming
c) Both Cross-tabs and Snapshot interface specifies how some software
d) All of the mentioned components should interact with each other.
View Answer
5. A graphical or text depiction of the relationship
Answer: a between different groups of content on a website
Explanation: SQL includes features to convert is referred to as a:
data from a normal relational representation to a a) Wireframe
crosstab. b) Blueprint
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c) Sitemap 9. A graphical or text depiction of the relationship
d) Card sorting between different groups of content on a website
View Answer is a:
a) Page template
Answer: c b) Wireframe
Explanation: An application programming c) Site map
interface specifies how some software d) Cascading style sheet (CSS)
components should interact with each other. View Answer
6. Blueprints are intended to: Answer: c

a) Prototype of the screen layout showing Explanation: In computing, graphical user
navigation and main design elements interface is a type of user interface that allows
b) Show the grouping of pages and user journeys users to interact with electronic devices.
c) Indicate the structure of a site during site design
and as a user feature 10. Which of the following is a description of
d) Prototype typical customer journeys or information organization schemes?
clickstreams through a website a) Minimising the number of clicks needed to
View Answer access relevant content
b) Providing an overall design to a site consistent
Answer: c with the positioning of the products and services
Explanation: A blueprint is a reproduction of a c) The menu options chosen to group and
technical drawing, documenting an architecture or categorize information
an engineering design, using a contact print d) Providing specific content and services
process. appropriate to different audience members
View Answer
7. Storyboards are intended to:
a) Indicate the structure of a site during site design Answer: c
and as a user feature Explanation: In computing, graphical user
b) Prototype of the screen layout showing interface is a type of user interface that allows
navigation and main design elements users to interact with electronic devices.
c) Integrate consistently available components on
the webpage (e.g. navigation, search boxes) 1. Which of the following is a valid uniform
d) Prototype typical customer journeys or click resource locator?
streams through a website a) http://www.acm.org/sigmod
View Answer b) www.google.com
c) www.ann.in
Answer: d d) http:/www.acm.org/sigmod/
Explanation: An application programming View Answer
interface specifies how some software
components should interact with each other. Answer: a
advertisement Explanation: A uniform resource locator (URL) is
a globally unique name for each document that
8. Which of the following occupies boot record of can be accessed on the Web.
hard and floppy disks and activated during
computer startup? 2. http://www.google.com/search?q=silberschatz
a) Worm In the above URL which one is the argument
b) Boot sector virus which is used for processing of the URL?
c) Macro virus a) google
d) Virus b) google.com
View Answer c) search
d) q=silberschatz
Explanation: A blueprint is a reproduction of a
technical drawing, documenting an architecture or Answer: d
an engineering design, using a contact print Explanation: Argument is always placed after ?
process. symbol.
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3. HTTP defines two ways in which values Answer: a
entered by a user at the browser can be sent to the Explanation: A cookie is simply a small piece of
Web server. The _____ method encodes the text containing identifying information and with
values as part of the URL. an associated name.
a) Post
b) Get 7. Which of the following is not true about HTML
c) Read ?
d) Argument a) <meta>…</meta>
View Answer b) <meta…./>
c) <metadata>…</metadata>
Answer: b d) <metadata name=”” />
Explanation: For example, if the Google search View Answer
page used a form with an input parameter
named q with the get method, and the user typed Answer: b
in the string “silberschatz” and submitted the Explanation: Meta data is the data about data
form, the browser would request the following which is included in the meta data tag.
URL from the Web server: advertisement
http://www.google.com/search?q=silberschatz.
8. Html code contains:
4. A __________ is a program running on the a) Tags
server machine, which accepts requests from a b) Attributes
Web browser and sends back results in the form c) Elements
of HTML documents. d) All of the mentioned
a) HTML View Answer
b) HTTP
c) Web Server Answer: d
d) Web browser Explanation: <> are tags,size is a attribute.
View Answer
9. Html document must always be saved with:
Answer: c a) .html
Explanation: The browser and Web server b) .htm
communicate via HTTP. Web servers provide c) .doc
powerful features, beyond the simple transfer of d) Both .html & .htm
documents. View Answer
5. The application program typically Answer: d

communicates with a database server, through Explanation: .doc is used only for the word
___________ or other protocols, in order to get or document format.
store data.
a) JDBC 10. How many levels of headings are in html:
b) ODBC a) 2
c) All of the mentioned b) 7
d) None of the mentioned c) 6
View Answer d) 4
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The common gateway interface Answer: c
(CGI) standard defines how the Web server Explanation: The heading levels are
communicates with application programs. h1,h2,h3,h4,h5,h6.
6. This extra information is usually maintained in 1. The Java __________ specification defines an
the form of a _________ at the client. application programming interface for
a) Cookie communication between the Web server and the
b) History application program.
c) Remainder a) Servlet
d) None of the mentioned b) Server
View Answer c) Program
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d) Randomize Answer: c
View Answer Explanation: A surrogate key in a database is a
unique identifier for either an entity in the
Answer: a modeled world or an object in the database.
Explanation: Servlets are commonly used to
generate dynamic responses to HTTP requests. 6. A JSP is transformed into a(n):
a) Java applet
2. The doGet() method in the example extracts b) Java servlet
values of the parameter’s type and number by c) Either 1 or 2 above
using __________ d) Neither 1 nor 2 above
a) request.getParameter() View Answer
b) request.setParameter()
c) responce.getParameter() Answer: b
d) responce.getAttribute() Explanation: Servlets are commonly used to
View Answer generate dynamic responses to HTTP requests.
Answer: a 7. Which JDBC driver Type(s) is(are) the JDBC-

Explanation: These methods uses these values to ODBC bridge?
run a query against a database. a) Type 1
b) Type 2
3. How many JDBC driver types does Sun define? c) Type 3
a) One d) Type 4
b) Two View Answer
c) Three
d) Four Answer: a
View Answer Explanation: In a Type 1 driver, a JDBC bridge is
used to access ODBC drivers installed on each
Answer: d client machine.
Explanation: advertisement
JBDB.DriverManager.getConnection() is used to
get the connection to the database. 8. What programming language(s) or scripting
language(s) does Java Server Pages (JSP)
4. Which JDBC driver Type(s) can be used in support?
either applet or servlet code? a) VBScript only
a) Both Type 1 and Type 2 b) Jscript only
b) Both Type 1 and Type 3 c) Java only
c) Both Type 3 and Type 4 d) All of the mentioned
d) Type 4 only View Answer
View Answer
Answer: c
Answer: c Explanation: JSP primarily uses Java for certain
Explanation: In a Type 3 driver, a three-tier codes.
approach is used to accessing databases. The
JDBC clients use standard network sockets to 9. What is bytecode?
communicate with an middleware application a) Machine-specific code
server. In a Type 4 driver, a pure Java-based b) Java code
driver that communicates directly with vendor’s c) Machine-independent code
database through socket connection. d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
5. What MySQL property is used to create a
surrogate key in MySQL? Answer: c
a) UNIQUE Explanation: Java bytecode is the form of
b) SEQUENCE instructions that the Java virtual machine
c) AUTO_INCREMENT executes. Each bytecode opcode is one byte in
d) None of the mentioned length, although some require parameters,
View Answer resulting in some multi-byte instructions.
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10. Where is metadata stored in MySQL? Answer: b
a) In the MySQL database metadata Explanation: The single application may have
b) In the MySQL database metasql several different versions of this layer,
c) In the MySQL database mysql corresponding to distinct kinds of interfaces such
d) None of the mentioned as Web browsers, and user interfaces of mobile
View Answer phones, which have much smaller screens.
Answer: c 5. The _____________ layer, which provides a

Explanation: Metadata contains data about other high-level view of data and actions on data.
data which is given in the <meta>…</meta> tags. a) Business logic
b) Presentation
1. Which of the following is true for Seeheim c) User interaction
model? d) Data access
a) Presentation is abstracted from dialogue and View Answer
Application
b) Presentation and Dialogue is abstracted from Answer: a
Application Explanation: The single application may have
c) Presentation and Application is abstracted from several different versions of this layer,
Dialogue corresponding to distinct kinds of interfaces such
d) None of the mentioned as Web browsers, and user interfaces of mobile
View Answer phones, which have much smaller screens.
Answer: a 6. The ______________ layer, which provides the

Explanation: Presentation is abstracted from interface between the business-logic layer and the
dialogue and application. underlying database.
a) Business logic
2. Which of the unit operation is used in Model b) Presentation
view controller? c) User interaction
a) Is a Decomposition d) Data access
b) Part Whole Decomposition View Answer
c) All of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned Answer: d
View Answer Explanation: Many applications use an object-
oriented language to code the business-logic layer,
Answer: b and use an object-oriented model of data, while
Explanation: Part whole decomposition is applied the underlying database is a relational database.
to MVC.
7. The _____________ system is widely used for
3. Memory address refers to the successive mapping from Java objects to relations.
memory words and the machine is called as a) Hibernate
_______________ b) Object oriented
a) word addressable c) Objective
b) byte addressable d) None of the mentioned
c) bit addressable View Answer
d) Terra byte addressable
Explanation: In Hibernate, the mapping from each
Answer: a Java class to one or more relations is specified in
Explanation: Part whole decomposition is applied a mapping file.
to MVC. advertisement
4. Which layer deals which deals with user 8. Which among the following are the functions
interaction is called _____________ layer. that any system with a user interface must
a) Business logic provide?
b) Presentation a) Presentation
c) User interaction b) Dialogue
d) Data access c) All of the mentioned
View Answer
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d) None of the mentioned 3. Which of the following object types below
View Answer cannot be replicated?
a) Data
Answer: a b) Trigger
Explanation: Presentation and Application are the c) View
functions that any system with a user interface d) Sequence
must provide. View Answer
9. Which of the following is the main task Answer: d

accomplished by the user? Explanation: Sequence is a series of items which
a) Compose a document is like a unique index.
b) Create a spread sheet
c) Send mail 4. How to force a log switch?
d) All of the mentioned a) By using ALTER SYSTEM LOG
View Answer b) By using ALTER SYSTEM SWITCH
LOGFILE
Answer: d c) By using ALTER SYSTEM SWITCH LOGS
Explanation: All of the mentioned are the main d) By using ALTER SYS LOGFILES
task accomplished by the user. View Answer
10. What are the portability concerns founded in Answer: b

Seeheim model? Explanation: ALTER SYSTEM ARCHIVE LOG
a) Replacing the presentation toolkit CURRENT is the best practice for production
b) Replacing the application toolkit backup scripts with RMAN. .
c) Replacing the dialogue toolkit
d) Replacing the presentation & application 5. In the following query, which expression is
toolkit evaluated first?
View Answer
SELECT id_number, (quantity - 100 / 0.15 - 35 *
Answer: d 20) FROM inventory
Explanation: The portability concerns founded in
Seeheim model are- Replacing the presentation a) 100 / 0.15
toolkit and Replacing the application toolkit. b) quantity – 100
c) 35*20
1. Which schema object instructs Oracle to d) 0.15-35
connect to a remotely access an object of a View Answer
database?
a) Sequence Answer: a
b) Remote link Explanation: According to the precedence of
c) Database link expression as in BODMAS the expression
d) Data link evaluated.
View Answer
6. The ORDER BY clause can only be used in
Answer: d a) SELECT queries
Explanation: A database link (DBlink) is a b) INSERT queries
definition of how to establish a connection from c) GROUP BY queries
one Oracle database to another. d) HAVING queries
View Answer
2. DML changes are
a) Insert Answer: a
b) Update Explanation: SELECT
c) Create column_name,column_name
d) Both Insert and Update FROM table_name
View Answer ORDER BY column_name,column_name
ASC|DESC;.
Answer: d
Explanation: Create is a DDL operation.
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7. Which of the following rule below are 1. ___________ is widely used today for
categories of an index? protecting data in transit in a variety of
a) Column and Functional applications such as data transfer on the Internet,
b) Multiple Column and functional and on cellular phone networks.
c) Column, Multiple Column and functional a) Encryption
d) None of the mentioned b) Data mining
View Answer c) Internet Security
d) Architectural security
Explanation: The CREATE INDEX statement is
used to create indexes in tables. Answer: a
Explanation: Encryption is also used to carry out
8. What is the purpose of SMON background other tasks, such as authentication.
process?
a) Performs crash recovery when a failed instance 2. In a database where the encryption is applied
starts up again the data is cannot be handled by the unauthorised
b) Performs recovery when a user process fails user without
c) Writes redo log entries to disk a) Encryption key
d) None of the mentioned b) Decryption key
View Answer c) Primary key
d) Authorised key
Explanation: SMON (System MONitor) is an
Oracle background process created when you start Answer: b
a database instance. Explanation: Even if the message is intercepted by
advertisement an enemy, the enemy, not knowing the key, will
not be able to decrypt and understand the
9. Which of the following queries are legal? message.
a) SELECT deptno, count(deptno) FROM emp
GROUP BY ename; 3. Which of the following is not a property of
b) SELECT deptno, count(deptno), job FROM good encryption technique?
emp GROUP BY deptno; a) Relatively simple for authorized users to
c) SELECT deptno, avg(sal) FROM emp; encrypt and decrypt data
d) SELECT deptno, avg(sal) FROM emp GROUP b) Decryption key is extremely difficult for an
BY deptno; intruder to determine
View Answer c) Encryption depends on a parameter of the
algorithm called the encryption key
Explanation: For aggregate functions group by View Answer
clause is necessary.
Answer: d
10. Which of the following queries displays the Explanation: Here a, b and c are the properties
sum of all employee salaries for those employees have to be present in a good design of an
not making commission, for each job, including encryption technique.
only those sums greater than 2500?
a) select job, sum(sal) from emp where sum(sal) > 4. In which of the following encryption key is
2500 and comm is null; used to encrypt and decrypt the data?
b) select job, sum(sal) from emp where comm is a) Public key
null group by job having sum(sal) > 2500; b) Private key
c) select job, sum(sal) from emp where sum(sal) > c) Symmetric key
2500 and comm is null group by job; d) Asymmetric key
d) select job, sum(sal) from emp group by job View Answer
having sum(sal) > 2500 and comm is not null;
Explanation: In public-key (also known as
Answer: b asymmetric-key) encryption techniques, there are
Explanation: For aggregate functions group by two different keys, the public key and the private
clause is necessary. key, used to encrypt and decrypt the data.
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5. Encryption of small values, such as identifiers for decryption which identifies the Private Key
or names, is made complicated by the possibility View Answer
of __________
a) Dictionary attacks Answer: b
b) Database attacks Explanation: An one-way function is a function
c) Minor attacks which a computer can calculate quickly, but
d) Random attacks whose reversal would last months or years. An
View Answer one-way function with back door can be reversed
with the help of a couple of additional information
Answer: a (the back door), but scarcely without this
Explanation: This happens when particularly if information. The information for the back door is
the encryption key is publicly available. contained in the private Key.
6. Which one of the following uses a 128bit round 9. Which is the largest disadvantage of symmetric
key to encrypt the data using XOR and use it in Encryption?
reverse to decrypt it? a) More complex and therefore more time-
a) Round key algorithm consuming calculations
b) Public key algorithm b) Problem of the secure transmission of the
c) Advanced Encryption Standard Secret Key
d) Asymmetric key algorithm c) Less secure encryption function
View Answer d) Isn’t used any more
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The standard is based on the Answer: b
Rijndael algorithm. Explanation: As there is only one key in the
symmetrical encryption, this must be known by
7. Which of the following requires no password both sender and recipient and this key is sufficient
travel across the internet? to decrypt the secret message. Therefore it must
a) Readable system be exchanged between sender and receiver in such
b) Manipulation system a manner that an unauthorized person can in no
c) Challenge–response system case take possession of it.
d) Response system
View Answer 10. Which is the principle of the encryption using
a key?
Answer: c a) The key indicates which function is used for
Explanation: The database system sends a encryption. Thereby it is more difficult to decrypt
challenge string to the user. The user encrypts the an intercepted message as the function is
challenge string using a secret password as unknown
encryption key and then returns the result. The b) The key contains the secret function for
database system can verify the authenticity of the encryption including parameters. Only a password
user by decrypting the string with the same secret can activate the key
password and checking the result with the original c) All functions are public, only the key is secret.
challenge string. It contains the parameters used for the encryption
advertisement resp. decryption
d) The key prevents the user of having to reinstall
8. Assymmetric Encryption: Why can a message the software at each change in technology or in
encrypted with the Public Key only be decrypted the functions for encryption
with the receiver’s appropriate Private Key? View Answer
a) Not true, the message can also be decrypted
with the Public Key Answer: b
b) A so called “one way function with back door” Explanation: The encoding of a message is
is applied for the encryption calculated by an algorithm. If always the same
c) The Public Key contains a special function algorithm would be used, it would be easy to
which is used to encrypt the message and which crack intercepted messages. However, it isn’t
can only be reversed by the appropriate Private possible to invent a new algorithm whenever the
Key old one was cracked, therefore the possibility to
d) The encrypted message contains the function parameterize algorithms is needed and this is the
assignment of the key.
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1. Which of the following is a physical storage a) Flash memory
media? b) Disk
a) Tape Storage c) Main memory
b) Optical Storage d) Secondary memory
c) Flash memory View Answer
Explanation: Flash memory is of two types –
Answer: d NAND and NOR.
Explanation: The storage media are classified by
the speed with which data can be accessed, by the 6. Which is the cheapest memory device in terms
cost per unit of data to buy the medium, and by of costs/ bit?
the medium’s reliability. a) Semiconductor memory
b) Magnetic disks
2. The _________ is the fastest and most costly c) Compact disks
form of storage, which is relatively small; its use d) Magnetic tapes
is managed by the computer system hardware. View Answer
a) Cache
b) Disk Answer: c
c) Main memory Explanation: Compact disk is used for easy
d) Flash memory storage at lower cost.
View Answer
7. The primary medium for the long-term online
Answer: a storage of data is the __________ where the entire
Explanation: Cache storage is easy to access database is stored on magnetic disk.
because it is closer to the processor. a) Semiconductor memory
b) Magnetic disks
3. Which of the following stores several gigabytes c) Compact disks
of data but usually lost when power failure? d) Magnetic tapes
a) Flash memory View Answer
b) Disk
c) Main memory Answer: b
d) Secondary memory Explanation: The system must move the data from
View Answer disk to main memory so that they can be accessed.
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Answer: c
Explanation: The contents of main memory are 8. Optical disk _______ systems contain a few
usually lost if a power failure or system crash drives and numerous disks that can be loaded into
occurs. one of the drives automatically (by a robot arm)
on demand.
4. The flash memory storage used are a) Tape Storage
a) NOR Flash b) Jukebox
b) OR Flash c) Flash memory
c) AND Flash d) All of the mentioned
d) All of the mentioned View Answer
View Answer
Answer: b
Answer: a Explanation: The most popular form of optical
Explanation: NAND flash has a much higher disks are CD and DVD.
storage capacity for a given cost, and is widely
used for data storage in devices such as cameras, 9. There are “record-once” versions of the
music players, and cell phones. compact disk and digital video disk, which can be
written only once; such disks are also called
5. __________ is increasingly being used in __________ disks.
server systems to improve performance by a) Write-once, read-many (WORM)
caching frequently used data, since it provides b) CD-R
faster access than disk, with larger storage c) DVD-W
capacity than main memory.
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d) CD-ROM Answer: b
View Answer Explanation: Each side of a platter of a disk has a
read–write head that moves across the platter to
Answer: a access different tracks.
Explanation: There are also “multiple-write”
versions of compact disk (called CD-RW) and 4. The disk controller uses ________ at each
digital video disk (DVD-RW, DVD+RW, and sector to ensure that the data is not corrupted on
DVD-RAM), which can be written multiple times. data retrieval.
a) Checksum
10. Tape storage is referred to as __________ b) Unit drive
storage. c) Read disk
a) Direct-access d) Readsum
b) Random-access View Answer
c) Sequential-access
d) All of the mentioned Answer: a
View Answer Explanation: A disk controller interfaces between
the computer system and the actual hardware of
Answer: c the disk drive.
Explanation: Tape storage is used primarily for
backup and archival data. 5. _________ is the time from when a read or
write request is issued to when data transfer
1. In magnetic disk ________ stores information begins.
on a sector magnetically as reversals of the a) Access time
direction of magnetization of the magnetic b) Average seek time
material. c) Seek time
a) Read–write head d) Rotational latency time
b) Read-assemble head View Answer
c) Head–disk assemblies
d) Disk arm Answer: a
View Answer Explanation: To access (that is, to read or write)
data on a given sector of a disk, the arm first must
Answer: d move so that it is positioned over the correct
Explanation: Each side of a platter of a disk has a track, and then must wait for the sector to appear
read–write head that moves across the platter to under it as the disk rotates.
access different tracks.
6. The time for repositioning the arm is called the
2. A __________ is the smallest unit of ________ and it increases with the distance that
information that can be read from or written to the the arm must move.
disk. a) Access time
a) Track b) Average seek time
b) Spindle c) Seek time
c) Sector d) Rotational latency time
d) Platter View Answer
View Answer
Answer: c
Answer: c Explanation: Typical seek times range from 2 to
Explanation: The disk surface is logically divided 30 milliseconds, depending on how far the track is
into tracks, which are subdivided into sectors. from the initial arm position.
3. The disk platters mounted on a spindle and the 7. _________ is around one-half of the maximum
heads mounted on a disk arm are together known seek time.
as ___________ a) Access time
a) Read-disk assemblies b) Average seek time
b) Head–disk assemblies c) Seek time
c) Head-write assemblies d) Rotational latency time
d) Read-read assemblies View Answer
View Answer
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Answer: b b) RAID level 2
Explanation: Average seek times currently range c) RAID level 0
between 4 and 10 milliseconds, depending on the d) RAID level 3
disk model. View Answer
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Answer: a
8. Once the head has reached the desired track, the Explanation: RAID level 1 refers to disk
time spent waiting for the sector to be accessed to mirroring with block striping.
appear under the head is called the
_______________ 2. Optical disk technology uses
a) Access time a) Helical scanning
b) Average seek time b) DAT
c) Seek time c) A laser beam
d) Rotational latency time d) RAID
Answer: d Answer: d
Explanation: Rotational speeds of disks today Explanation: Redundant Array of Inexpensive
range from 5400 rotations per minute (90 Disks.
rotations per second) up to 15,000 rotations per
minute (250 rotations per second), or, 3. With multiple disks, we can improve the
equivalently, 4 milliseconds to 11.1 milliseconds transfer rate as well by ___________ data across
per rotation. multiple disks.
a) Striping
9. In Flash memory, the erase operation can be b) Dividing
performed on a number of pages, called an c) Mirroring
_______ at once, and takes about 1 to 2 d) Dividing
milliseconds. View Answer
a) Delete block
b) Erase block Answer: a
c) Flash block Explanation: Data striping consists of splitting the
d) Read block bits of each byte across multiple disks; such
View Answer striping is called bitlevel striping.
Answer: b 4. Which one of the following is a Stripping

Explanation: The size of an erase block (often technique?
referred to as just “block” in flash literature) is a) Byte level stripping
usually significantly larger than the block size of b) Raid level stripping
the storage system. c) Disk level stripping
d) Block level stripping
10. Hybrid disk drives are hard-disk systems that View Answer
combine magnetic storage with a smaller amount
of flash memory, which is used as a cache for Answer: d
frequently accessed data. Explanation: Block-level striping stripes blocks
a) Hybrid drivers across multiple disks. It treats the array of disks as
b) Disk drivers a single large disk, and it gives blocks logical
c) Hybrid disk drivers numbers.
View Answer 5. The RAID level which mirroring is done along
with stripping is
Answer: b a) RAID 1+0
Explanation: Frequently accessed data that are b) RAID 0
rarely updated are ideal for caching in flash c) RAID 2
memory. d) Both RAID 1+0 and RAID 0
View Answer
1. Which level of RAID refers to disk mirroring
with block striping? Answer: d
a) RAID level 1 Explanation: Mirroring without striping can also
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be used with arrays of disks, to give the Answer: a
appearance of a single large, reliable disk. Explanation: RAID level 1 refers to disk
mirroring with block striping.
6. Where performance and reliability are both
important, RAID level ____ is used. 10. ______________ which increases the number
a) 0 of I/O operations needed to write a single logical
b) 1 block, pays a significant time penalty in terms of
c) 2 write performance.
d) 0+1 a) RAID level 1
View Answer b) RAID level 2
c) RAID level 5
Answer: d d) RAID level 3
Explanation: Mirroring without striping can also View Answer
be used with arrays of disks, to give the
appearance of a single large, reliable disk. Answer: a
Explanation: In level 5, all disks can participate in
7. ______________ partitions data and parity satisfying read requests, unlike RAID level 4,
among all N+1 disks, instead of storing data in N- where the parity disk cannot participate, so level 5
disks and parity in one disk. increases the total number of requests that can be
a) Block interleaved parity met in a given amount of time.
b) Block interleaved distributed parity
c) Bit parity 1. Which level of RAID refers to disk mirroring
d) Bit interleaved parity with block striping?
View Answer a) RAID level 1
b) RAID level 2
Answer: b c) RAID level 0
Explanation: In level 5, all disks can participate in d) RAID level 3
satisfying read requests, unlike RAID level 4, View Answer
where the parity disk cannot participate, so level 5
increases the total number of requests that can be Answer: a
met in a given amount of time. Explanation: RAID (redundant array of
advertisement independent disks) is a way of storing the same
data in different places (thus, redundantly) on
8. Hardware RAID implementations permit multiple hard disks.
_________ that is, faulty disks can be removed
and replaced by new ones without turning power 2. A unit of storage that can store one or more
off. records in a hash file organization is denoted as
a) Scrapping a) Buckets
b) Swapping b) Disk pages
c) Hot swapping c) Blocks
d) None of the mentioned d) Nodes
Answer: c Answer: a
Explanation: Hot Explanation: A unit of storage that can store one
swapping reduces the mean time to repair since or more records in a hash file organization is
replacement of a disk does not have to wait until a denoted as buckets.
time when the system can be shut down.
3. The file organization which allows us to read
9. ___________ is popular for applications such records that would satisfy the join condition by
as storage of log files in a database system since it using one block read is
offers the best write performance. a) Heap file organization
a) RAID level 1 b) Sequential file organization
b) RAID level 2 c) Clustering file organization
c) RAID level 0 d) Hash file organization
d) RAID level 3 View Answer
View Answer
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Answer: c representing information using parent/child
Explanation: All systems in the cluster share a relationships.
common file structure via NFS, but not all disks advertisement
are mounted on all other systems.
8. Choose the RDBMS which supports full
4. What are the correct features of a distributed fledged client server application development
database? a) dBase V
a) Is always connected to the internet b) Oracle 7.1
b) Always requires more than three machines c) FoxPro 2.1
c) Users see the data in one global schema. d) Ingress
d) Have to specify the physical location of the View Answer
data when an update is done
Explanation: RDBMS is Relational Database
Answer: c Management System.
Explanation: Users see the data in one global
schema. 9. One approach to standardization storing of
data?
5. Each tablespace in an Oracle database consists a) MIS
of one or more files called b) Structured programming
a) Files c) CODASYL specification
b) name space d) None of the mentioned
c) datafiles View Answer
d) PFILE
Explanation: CODASYL is an acronym for
Answer: c “Conference on Data Systems Languages”.
Explanation: A data file is a computer file which
stores data to use by a computer application or 10. The highest level in the hierarchy of data
system. organization is called
a) Data bank
6. The management information system (MIS) b) Data base
structure with one main computer system is called c) Data file
a d) Data record
a) Hierarchical MIS structure View Answer
b) Distributed MIS structure
c) Centralized MIS structure Answer: b
d) Decentralized MIS structure Explanation: Database is a collection of all tables
View Answer which contains the data in form of fields.
Answer: c 1. If a piece of data is stored in two places in the

Explanation: Structure of MIS may be understood database, then
by looking at the physical components of the a) Storage space is wasted
information system in an organization. b) Changing the data in one spot will cause data
inconsistency
7. A top-to-bottom relationship among the items c) In can be more easily accessed
in a database is established by a d) Storage space is wasted & Changing the data in
a) Hierarchical schema one spot will cause data inconsistency
b) Network schema View Answer
c) Relational schema
d) All of the mentioned Answer: d
View Answer Explanation: The database is always consistent
and so there is no duplication.
Answer: a
Explanation: A hierarchical database model is a 2. An audit trail ___________
data model in which the data is organized into a a) Is used to make backup copies
tree-like structure. The structure allows b) Is the recorded history of operations performed
on a file
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c) Can be used to restore lost information Answer: d
d) None of the mentioned Explanation: The data are traversed using several
View Answer algorithms.
Answer: b 7. Which of these data models is an extension of

Explanation: This is more useful for all recovery the relational data model?
actions. a) Object-oriented data model
b) Object-relational data model
3. Large collection of files are called c) Semi structured data model
____________ d) None of the mentioned
a) Fields View Answer
b) Records
c) Database Answer: b
d) Sectors Explanation: All the data are stored in form of
View Answer memory in the disk.
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Answer: c
Explanation: The operator tree has a tree like 8. The information about data in a database is
format where the evaluation starts from root of the called _______
tree . a) Metadata
b) Hyper data
4. Which of the following hardware component is c) Tera data
the most important to the operation of a database d) None of the mentioned
management system? View Answer
a) High resolution video display
b) Printer Answer: a
c) High speed, large capacity disk Explanation: Metadata is information about a
d) Mouse data.
View Answer
9. A data dictionary is a special file that contains?
Answer: c a) The names of all fields in all files
Explanation: All the data are stored in form of b) The data types of all fields in all files
memory in the disk. c) The widths of all fields in all files
5. Which of the following is not true of the View Answer
traditional approach to information processing
a) There is common sharing of data among the Answer: d
various applications Explanation: The data dictionary is structured in
b) It is file oriented tables and views, just like other database data.
c) Programs are dependent on the file
d) It is inflexible 10. The DBMS acts as an interface between what
View Answer two components of an enterprise-class database
system?
Answer: a a) Database application and the database
Explanation: All the data are stored in form of b) Data and the database
memory in the disk. c) The user and the database application
d) Database application and SQL
6. Which of these is not a feature of Hierarchical View Answer
model?
a) Organizes the data in tree-like structure Answer: a
b) Parent node can have any number of child Explanation: Database application is the interface
nodes with the user to access the database.
c) Root node does not have any parent
d) Child node can have any number of parent 1. A relational database system needs to maintain
nodes data about the relations, such as the schema of the
View Answer relations. This is called
a) Metadata
b) Catalog
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c) Log Answer: b
d) Dictionary Explanation: Segment names are used in create
View Answer table and create index commands to place tables
or indexes on specific database devices.
Answer: a
Explanation: Each side of a platter of a disk has a 6. __________ is a contiguous group of blocks
read–write head that moves across the platter to allocated for use as part of a table, index, and so
access different tracks. forth.
a) Tablespace
2. Relational schemas and other metadata about b) Segment
relations are stored in a structure called the c) Extent
____________ d) Block
a) Metadata View Answer
b) Catalog
c) Log Answer: c
d) Data Dictionary Explanation: An extent is a set of contiguous
View Answer blocks allocated in a database.
Answer: d 7. ________ is the smallest unit of allocation in an

Explanation: Data dictionary is also called as Oracle database.
system catalog. a) Database
b) Instance
3. ___________ is the collection of memory c) Tablespace
structures and Oracle background processes that d) Database Block
operates against an Oracle database. View Answer
a) Database
b) Instance Answer: d
c) Tablespace Explanation: Data block is a form of database
d) Segment space allocation.
Answer: b 8. An Oracle __________ is a set of tables and

Explanation: Instance is a snapshot of database at views that are used as a read-only reference about
any point of time. the database.
a) Database dictionary
4. A ________ is a logical grouping of database b) Dictionary table
objects, usually to facilitate security, performance, c) Data dictionary
or the availability of database objects such as d) Dictionary
tables and indexes. View Answer
a) Tablespace
b) Segments Answer: c
c) Extents Explanation: Data dictionary is also called as
d) Blocks system catalog.
View Answer
9. A data dictionary is created when a
Answer: a __________ created.
Explanation: A tablespace is a storage location a) Instance
where the actual data underlying database objects b) Segment
can be kept. c) Database
d) Dictionary
5. A tablespace is further broken down into View Answer
________
a) Tablespace Answer: c
b) Segments Explanation: Data dictionary is also called as
c) Extents system catalog.
d) Blocks
View Answer 10. An Oracle object type has two parts the
_________ and__________
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a) Instance and body a) Wait-die
b) Segment and blocks b) Wait-wound
c) Specification and body c) Wound-wait
d) Body and segment d) Wait
Answer: c Answer: a
Explanation: Segment names are used in create Explanation: The wait–die scheme is a non-
table and create index commands to place tables preemptive technique.
or indexes on specific database devices. An extent
is a set of contiguous blocks allocated in a 5. When transaction Ti requests a data item
database. currently held by Tj, Ti is allowed to wait only if
it has a timestamp larger than that of Tj (that is, Ti
1. A system is in a ______ state if there exists a is younger than Tj ). Otherwise, Tj is rolled back
set of transactions such that every transaction in (Tj is wounded by Ti). This is
the set is waiting for another transaction in the set. a) Wait-die
a) Idle b) Wait-wound
b) Waiting c) Wound-wait
c) Deadlock d) Wait
d) Ready View Answer
View Answer
Answer: c
Answer: c Explanation: The wound–wait scheme is a
Explanation: When one data item is waiting for preemptive technique. It is a counterpart to the
another data item in a transaction then system is in wait–die scheme.
deadlock.
6. The situation where the lock waits only for a
2. The deadlock state can be changed back to specified amount of time for another lock to be
stable state by using _____________ statement. released is
a) Commit a) Lock timeout
b) Rollback b) Wait-wound
c) Savepoint c) Timeout
d) Deadlock d) Wait
Answer: b Answer: a
Explanation: Rollback is used to rollback to the Explanation: The timeout scheme is particularly
point before lock is obtained. easy to implement, and works well if transactions
are short and if longwaits are likely to be due to
3. What are the ways of dealing with deadlock? deadlocks.
a) Deadlock prevention
b) Deadlock recovery 7. The deadlock in a set of a transaction can be
c) Deadlock detection determined by
d) All of the mentioned a) Read-only graph
View Answer b) Wait graph
c) Wait-for graph
Answer: d d) All of the mentioned
Explanation: Deadlock prevention is also called as View Answer
deadlock recovery. Prevention is commonly used
if the probability that the system would enter a Answer: a
deadlock state is relatively high; otherwise, Explanation: Each transaction involved in the
detection and recovery are more efficient. cycle is said to be deadlocked.
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4. When transaction Ti requests a data item
currently held by Tj, Ti is allowed to wait only if 8. A deadlock exists in the system if and only if
it has a timestamp smaller than that of Tj (that is, the wait-for graph contains a ___________
Ti is older than Tj). Otherwise, Ti is rolled back a) Cycle
(dies). This is b) Direction
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c) Bi-direction
d) Rotation
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Each transaction involved in the
cycle is said to be deadlocked.
9. Selecting the victim to be rollbacked to the

previous state is determined by the minimum cost.
The factors determining cost of rollback is
a) How long the transaction has computed, and
how much longer the transaction will compute
before it completes its designated task
b) How many data items the transaction has used
c) How many more data items the transaction
needs for it to complete
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: We should roll back those
transactions that will incur the minimum cost.
10. __________ rollback requires the system to

maintain additional information about the state of
all the running transactions.
a) Total
b) Partial
c) Time
d) Commit
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In total rollback abort the transaction
and then restart it.
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Sanfoundry:

What is a pivot table?

1. Which unit is responsible for converting the a) Byte

Answer: b 5. Which of the following describes the correct

7. What does the COMPUTER stand for?

8. 1 yottabyte = ______________ 1. The process of producing useful information

10. PCI stands for _________

2. Saving data and instructions to make them Answer: a

Answer: a 5. Which of the following is non-volatile storage?

6. Which of the following is used in main

8. Number of bits in ALU is _________ 2. Which of the following is not a characteristic of

2. How is the number 5 represented in non- 6. The 2’s complement of 5 is ______________

3. The binary equivalent of the decimal number

0 2 2 4 = Therefore, the hexadecimal equivalent is (B01)16.

Therefore, the hexadecimal equivalent is (D5A)16.

Answer: a 6. The weights used in Binary coded decimal code

7. What is the default value of accumulator in Answer: a

5. >> operator is used to denote _________ Answer: a

Answer: b 9. 7’s complement of 432 is _________________

6. The subtraction using 1’s complement of 110 – Answer: c

Answer: b 4. The general form for calculating the number of

Answer: b 1. The terms in SOP are called ___________

8. The minterm of any expression is denoted by Answer: b

Answer: c 4. The _________ holds the contents of the

Answer: b 9. The number of sign bits in a 32-bit IEEE format

Answer: d 5. Size of the ________ memory mainly depends

7. __________________ is the amount of data 1. ________________ is used for writing/reading

3. The technology used in optical disks is ______

4. The storage capacity of an optical disk is given

Answer: d 5. A device similar to a flash drive

9. What is the full form of SAMPA? 3. ____________ refer to renewing or changing

Answer: d 1. The software designed to perform a specific

Answer: a 2. Word processing software is a type of

2. Middleware has enabled the production of Answer: a

Answer: a 9. What is the other name for object middleware?

Answer: b 2. Terminals are represented by diagonals in a

Answer: a 8. What type of a structure is this?

5. The action performed by a ___________

6. The following symbol denotes: 9. A _______ is a connector showing the

Answer: a 2. Binary code comprises of digits from 0 to 9.

8. Semicolon is used after : Answer: b

Answer: a 6. An approach that designs test cases by looking

4. Executables might be called ________ Answer: a

Answer: d 9. A valid variable declaration in FORTRAN is

Answer: c 10. In FORTRAN, the declarations of variables

Answer: a 5. D in COBOL stands for _________

Answer: a 6. Comment in COBOL is denoted by ________

Answer: d 8. Which is not a data type in COBOL?

Answer: a 7. A process to determine how the actual testing is

8. ‘set args ‘ without arguments can ___________ Answer: a

1. STD stands for ____________ Answer: a

Answer: a 6. ____________ provide the detailed, specific

Answer: a 8. A technique that allows more than one program

5. The wait fraction is represented by __________ Answer: a

10. The technique that increases the system’s Answer: b

3. A single sequential flow of control within a Answer: b

10. _______ searches for smallest block. The Answer: d

7. A process selects a replacement frame from the Answer: c

5. In text documents, a structure which stays the Answer: d

Answer: b 3. A numeric data analysis tool that allows us to

8. The cell that is in use.

5. Producing graphical representations for 9. GKS stands for?

3. PDA stands for? Answer: b

7. __ is the amount of data 1. is used for writing/reading