Forensic 206

Chapter 1
Directions: Read each of the item below. Then choose the letter of the correct answer from
the given options.
1. _______ is the professional and academic discipline which concerns itself with legal
aspects of medical sciences, medical practice and other health care delivery
problems?
a) Medico-legal practitioner
b) Forensic Medicine
c) General Medicine
d) Legal Medicine
2. Which of the terms below is defined as the application of scientific, technical or

other specialized knowledge to assist courts in resolving questions of fact in civil
and criminal trials?
a) Forensic Medicine
b) Medical Jurisprudence
c) Forensic Pathology
d) Forensic Science
3. Which branch of medicine deals with the application of medical knowledge to the
purposes of law?
b) Medical Jurisprudence
c) Forensic Pathology
d) Forensic Science
4. Who popularized scientific crime detection methods?

a) Sir Arthur Conan Doyle
b) Sir Arthur Conan Boyle
c) Francis Galton
d) Calvin Goddard
5. Who devised a simple procedure for determining the blood type of a dried
bloodstain?
a) Henry Polates
b) Eric Spoon
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c) Leone Lattes
d) Hans Gross
6. Which is the subspecialty of Pathology that focuses on the medico-legal

investigation of sudden or unexpected death?
a) Legal Medicine
b) Forensic Medicine
c) Medical Jurisprudence
d) Forensic Pathology
7. Who serves as expert witness in the court of law, testifying in a variety of civil and
criminal cases involving death or injury?
a) Medical Doctor
b) Forensic pathologist
c) Police officer
d) Forensic Science
8. Which process pertains to put together past events and uses physical evidence on its
analysis?
a) Criminalistics
b) Reconstruction
c) Forensic Science
d) Pathology
9. Which refers to a medical doctor who serves as researched and clinical practitioners
in the areas in which psychiatry is applied to legal issues?
b) Forensic Psychology
c) Forensic Nursing
d) Forensic Psychiatry
10. Which of the terms below is defined as the application of scientific, technical or
other specialized knowledge to assist courts in resolving questions of fact in civil
and criminal trials?
e) Forensic Medicine
f) Medical Jurisprudence
g) Forensic Pathology
h) Forensic Science
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11. Which refers to the study of blood groups?
a) Serology
b) Chemistry
c) Physics
d) Botany
12. The branch of forensic which uses insects as evidence to help reconstruct the
circumstances?
a) Forensic Entomology
b) DNA typing
c) Forensic Science
d) Forensic Chemistry
13. Who are the computer and information scientists/technicians who may be involved
in the recovery and examination of probative information from digital evidence?
a) Forensic Evidence
b) Forensic Nursing
c) Forensic Engineering
d) Forensic Odontology
14. Expertise of a forensic scientist must include the following:

a) Analysis of physical evidence
b) Expert witness
c) Specially Trained Evidence Collection Technicians
d) All of the above
15. The Categories of death are as follows, choose the exception.

a) natural death and accident
b) homicide and suicide
c) undetermined manner of death
d) none of the above
16. Which branch of Forensic Science deals with determining suspects with the process
matching of bitemarks, teeth structure or match a victim to his dental x-rays,
resulting in an identification of an unknown individual?
a) Forensic Odontology
b) Forensic Entomology
c) Forensic Dentology
d) Forensic Analysis
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17. Which is the function of Forensic Scientist that refers to the skilled personnel in
applying the principles and the physical and nature sciences?
a) Witness
b) Analysis of Physical Evidence
c) Collection specialist
d) Evidence
18. Which is the function of Forensic Scientist that possess skill that will aid the court
in determining the truth?
a) Expert Witness
b) Specially Trained Evidence
c) Collection Technicians
d) Analysis of Physical Evidence
19. This is the function of Forensic Scientist trained in proper recognition, collection
and preservation of evidence required so that the medical examiner or coroner can
determine the cause of death in an autopsy.
a) Analysis of Physical Evidence
b) Expert Witness
c) Specially Trained Evidence Collection Technician
d) Computer Analyst
20. Which causes and manner of death falls under the jurisdiction of the local medical
examiner or coroner?
a) Suspicious deaths, sudden/expected deaths or deaths in children/infant
b) Deaths in individuals not under the care of a physician
c) Situations where illicit drugs or alcohol may have contributed to the death
d) All the above
Chapter 2
1. Who to call in case a crime has been committed?
a. DOJ
b. SPSPS
c. LNU
d. PNP
2. What should be done if the offender is present in the crime scene?

a. Study for exam
b. Dance
c. Have some shots
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d. Arrest the offender
3. What to do if the victim is coherent?

a. Ask pertinent questions
b. Watch a movie
c. Call the PNP
d. Arrest the victim
4. What is a Primary Crime Scene?

a. Where the crime initially took place
b. Where you file a complaint
c. Where you file an appeal
d. Where you eat your dinner
5. What is a crime scene team?

a. Where the crime initially took place
b. A group of professional investigators
c. A group of lawyers
d. A group of law students
6. Who is a team leader in a crime scene team?

a. Controls the entire crime scene investigation
b. Prepares evidence recovery log
c. Maintains chain of custody
d. Sketches the crime scene
7. Who is in charge of maintaining the chain of custody?

a. Team leader
b. Photographer & Photographic Log Recorder
c. Sketch Preparer
d. Evidence Recorder/Custodian
8. Who sketches the crime scene?

a. Sketch preparer
b. Evidence Recorder/Custodian
c. Team Leader
d. Specialist
9. It is a group of professional investigators trained in a variety of special discipline to locate and

document all the evidence at the scene
a. Crime scene team
b. Team leader
c. Sketch preparer
d. Evidence recovery team
10. What is a multiple crime scene?

a. Committed at a public place
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b. Crime where it initially took place
c. Anywhere evidence may be located that will help explain the events
d. Two or more physical locations of evidence
11. What is a Physical Evidence?

a. Most important aspect that is more reliable than eyewitness testimony
b. Determines if a crime has been committed
c. Cautious walk-through of the crime scene
d. Sketch of the crime scene
12. What to do upon arrival at the crime scene?

a. Approach in a safe manner
b. Discuss upcoming search with the team
c. Take notes
d. Protect physical evidence
13. Documentation of the crime scene should be?

a. Reliable, accurate and legible
b. Actual, direct and exclusively
c. Extraordinary diligence
d. Ordinary diligence
14. What to do after the final survey of the crime scene?

a. Release of the crime scene
b. Conduct final survey
c. Collect physical evidence
d. Conduct detailed search
15. What should be consider in conducting a final survey?

a. Double check everything
b. Release the crime scene
c. Record physical evidence
d. Document the scene
16. What should be considered in documenting the crime scene?

a. Assume possible evidence that can be found
b. Do not move, touch or alter the pieces of evidence
c. Double check the crime scene
d. Discuss upcoming search with the team
17. What should be the initial response upon arriving at the crime scene?
a. Safety of the officer and other individuals
b. ensure medical attention to the injured
c. release of the crime scene
d. preserve the scene
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18. How to secure and control persons at the scene
a. Limiting the person who enters the crime scene
b. Release the crime scene
c. Record the evidence
d. Document the scene
19. Initial responding officer must provide:

b. Conduct final survey
c. Document the scene
d. Must produce legible and accurate documented information
20. What should the initial responding officer do upon arrival of the investigator
b. Document the scene
c. Release the crime scene
d. Shall provide a detailed crime scene briefing to the investigator
21. What should be prioritized in the collection of evidence?

a. Prevent loss, destruction or contamination
b. Determine the number of personnel needed
c. How responsibilities will be assigned
d. Provide an overview of the entire crime scene
22. It is a process wherein the investigator requires the personnel to follow procedures to ensure
scene safety and evidence integrity
a. Team composition
b. Contamination control
c. Documentation
d. Collection of evidence
23. It is a process wherein the number of personnel is determined and how responsibilities will be
assigned
a. Team composition
b. Contamination control
c. Documentation
d. Collection of evidence
24. The process wherein the investigator compiles the evidence into a case file
a. Final survey of the crime scene
b. Release of the crime scene
c. Documentation of the crime scene
d. Final survey of the crime scene
25. The process that ensures that the evidence has been collected and the scene has been processed
prior to release
a. Final survey of the crime scene
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b. Documentation of the crime scene
c. Preservation of the evidence
d. Contamination control
26. The process that will ensure the safety of the injured
a. Initial response
b. Emergency care
c. Safety procedure
d. Turn over
27. The process wherein the search should be very systematic for the reconstruction of the crime
a. Conduct of a detailed search
b. Documentation of the scene
c. Record and collect physical evidence
d. Final survey of the crime scene
28. A cautious walk through of the crime scene

a. Preparation
b. Basic premise
c. Approaching the scene
d. Preliminary survey of the scene
29. Assume possible evidence that can/will be found

a. Evaluate physical evidence possibilities
b. Preparation
c. Approaching the scene
d. Documentation of the scene
30. The process wherein measurements are taken to measure the distance of objects at the crime
scene
a. Videotaping
b. Photography
c. Release of the crime scene
d. Sketching of the crime scene
CHAPTER 3
1. Webster’s dictionary defines it as “to make impure, corrupt, by contact.”
a. Evidence Pollution c. Inadmissible evidence
b. Contamination d. Invalid evidence.
2. One of the popular phrases that Lieutenant Horatio Caine used in CSI Miami Series is
a. “Bag it and tag it.” c. “Screw evidence”
b. “Tick and tag that.” d. “Don’t touch that bitch.”
3. When two objects come in contact with each other they exchange trace evidence.
a. Loci Rule c. Cabidog’s Doctrine
b. Pomodoro Rule d. Locard’s Rule
4. Statement 1: A contaminated evidence can greatly affect the outcome of the criminal case.
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Statement 2: A contaminated evidence definitely cannot be questioned in court.
a. Only I is correct c. Both statements are correct.
b. Both statements are incorrect. d. Only II is correct.
5. Statement 1: The collection process will usually start with the collection of the most fragile or
most easily lost evidence.
Statement 2: Special consideration can also be given to any evidence or objects which need to be
moved.
c. Only I is correct c. Both statements are correct.
d. Both statements are incorrect. d. Only II is correct.
6. Statement 1: Each time a person enter a crime scene, he not only potentially leave trace evidence
behind, but also take evidence away from the scene.
Statement 2: When two objects come in contact with each other they exchange trace evidence is
known as the Loci Rule.
7. Statement 1: Evidence is packaged to prevent destruction and contamination.
Statement 2: New sterile containers, free of contaminants must be used to package all evidence.
8. Statement 1: Evidence containers must be sealed at the crime scene.
Statement 2: Transportation of the evidence from the scene requires special consideration.
9. Statement 1: Some evidence, particularly biological evidence, may be sensitive to absolute
temperature or fluctuations in temperature.
Statement 2: Provisions must be made to properly store the evidence.
10. Which of the following is not an example of evidence collection?
a. Impression evidence collection.
b. Biological evidence collection.
c. Latent print evidence collection.
d. Expression evidence collection.
11. Statement 1: Select a proper container not based on the characteristics of the evidence.
Statement 2: Ensure evidence is not in proper condition for packaging.
12. Statement 1: Use a secure are for storage of evidence.
Statement 2: Evidence containers must be sealed at the crime scene.
13. Which is not an acceptable practice in obtaining control samples from the secene?
a. Package samples individually.
b. Package samples collectively.
c. Collect control samples.
d. Identify control samples.
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14. Statement 1: Following an explosion, investigation should be aware of the possibility of
secondary explosive device.
Statement 2: Request subject-matter experts to respond to the scene.
15. Statement 1: If dangerous substances such as clandestine laboratory evidence, poisons, or acids
are present, specialized personnel with protective without protective equipment and training
should collect them.
Statement 2: Re-evaluate safety issues on chemical evidence collection.
16. Statement 1: Cases are never lost because of too much evidence had been gathered and preserved.
Statement 2: All items that have been recovered as evidence at the crime scene should be
considered significant and handled properly.
17. Statement 1: Maintain chain of custody for the evidence.
Statement 2: Keep the number of persons involved in the handling of evidence to a minimum.
18. Statement 1: Some evidence, particularly biological evidence, may be sensitive to absolute
Statement 2: Ensure evidence is not in proper condition for packaging
19. Statement 1: When two objects come in contact with each other they exchange trace evidence is
known as the Locard’s Rule.
Statement 2: Cases are never lost because of too much evidence had been gathered and preserved.
20. Statement 1: Following an explosion, investigation should be aware of the possibility of
secondary explosive device.
Statement 2: Some evidence, particularly biological evidence, may be sensitive to absolute
21. Under no circumstances should evidence containing moisture be packaged in plastic paper or
containers for more than
a. 1 hr. c. 3 hrs.
b. 2 hrs d. 4 hrs.
22. Statement 1: Each type of evidence has a specific value in an investigation.
Statement 2: Under no circumstances should evidence containing moisture be packaged in plastic
paper or containers for more than 3hrs.
23. Statement 1: The level of contamination risk to be expected is related to the type of crime scene.
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Statement 2: The level of contamination risk to be expected is related to the corresponding
number of individuals who have access to the scene.
24. Statement 1: Wind can carry contaminants or literally blow away evidence.
Statement 2: Temperature in the extremes can obviously cause problems by the items containing
evidence being “cooked” or “frozen”.
25. Statement 1: Environmental conditions play a major role in the contamination of crime scene
evidence.
Statement 2: Each type of evidence has a specific value in an investigation.
26. Statement 1: Potential contamination of the physical evidence can occur at the crime scene,
during the packaging, collection and transportation of the evidence to a secured facility.
Statement 2:Continuing education and training for law enforcement and forensic specialists is
required to insure the proper handling of evidence from scene to storage.
27. Statement 1: An investigator usually only has one shot at a crime scene, so the most should be
made of it.
Statement 2: Each type of evidence has a specific value in an investigation.
28. Which of the following is not a best practice in the maintenance of scene security throughout
processing and until the scene is release?
a. Identify essential and nonessential personnel.
b. Remove nonessential personnel from the scene.
c. Continue to document entry/exit of persons at the scene.
d. All of the above are best practices.
29. Statement 1: It is impossible to remember the circumstances surrounding the finding of several
items of evidence.
Statement 2: After one has collected the evidence, package each item of evidence separately.
b. Both statements are incorrect. d. Only II is correct
30. Statement 1: A chain of custody records the movement of the evidence.
Statement 2: The chain of custody is the “life history” of the item from the time it was discovered
until it is no longer needed.
b. Both statements are incorrect. d. Only II is correct
Chapter 4
1. This forensic type of examinations that can determine whether bones collected in a
crime scene is significant, whether it is human or animal in origin.
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a.) DNA examinations
b.) Hair examinations
c.) Anthropological examinations
d.) Fiber examinations
2. What does DNA stand for?

a. Deoxyribonucleic Acid
b. Dicloridenucleic Acid
c. Dihydratenucleic Acid
d. Diabolic-nucleic Acid
3. An image analysis examination wherein dimensions can be derived from

photographic images through the use of geometric formulae or on-site comparison.
a.) Photography
b.) Photogrammetry
c.) Radiology
d.) Electro Cardiagram
4. This is useful in determining the height of a suspect(s) in a bank robbery and the
length of the weapon(s) used by the subject(s) depicted in surveillance film.
a.) Video Examinations
b.) Cryptanalysis
c.) Computer Examinations
d.) Photogrammetry
5. This also includes examination of palm prints and bare footprints to determine the
same in the crime scene.
a.) Bite marks examination
b.) Fingerprints examination
c.) Broken fingernails examination
d.) Hairs and fibers examination
6. It is one of the source of DNA used in forensic analyses which typically

analyzed evidence containing blood, semen, saliva, body tissues, and hairs that have
tissue at their root ends.
a.) Mitochondrial DNA
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b.) Nuclear DNA
c.) Hybrid DNA
d.) Molecular DNA
7. It is one of the source of DNA used in forensic analyses which typically

analyzed evidence containing naturally shed hairs, hair fragments, bones, and teeth.
a.) Mitochondrial DNA
b.) Nuclear DNA
c.) Hybrid DNA
d.) Molecular DNA
8. This type of forensic examinations can disclose the presence of drugs and poisons
in biological specimens and food products.
a.) Toxicology examinations
b.) Broad spectrum medicine examinations
c.) Controlled substance examinations
d.) Drug test
9. This type of forensic evidence examinations can establish trace-drug presence,

identity, and quantity.
a.) Abrasives examinations
b.) Drug-testing examinations
c.) Controlled substance examinations
d.) Toxicology examinations
10. A forensic evidence examination that can determine the presence of ignitable liquids
introduced to a fire scene.
a.) Explosives examinations
b.) Explosives Residue examinations
c.) Arson examinations
d.) Cause of Fire examinations
11. This involves the analysis of encoded and enciphered documents used by terrorists,
foreign intelligence agents, violent criminals, street and prison gangs, and organized
crime groups.
a.) Keyword searching
b.) Extraction of information from Computer
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c.) Format conversion analysis
d.) Cryptanalysis
12. The following are volatile compounds, except:

a.) Ethanol
b.) Cyanide
c.) Methanol
d.) Isopropanol
13. Which of the following compounds is considered as heavy metal:

a.) Cyanide
b.) Strychnine
c.) Ethanol
d.) Arsenic
14. These examinations can identify the components used to construct the explosive
device such as switches, batteries, detonators, tapes, wires, and fusing systems.
a.) Explosives residue examinations
b.) Explosives examinations
c.) Electronic devices examinations
d.) Metallurgy examinations
15. The following are the common types of non-genuine signature, except:
a.) Trace signatures are prepared by using a genuine signature as a template or
pattern.
b.) Simulated signatures are prepared by copying or drawing a genuine signature.
c.) Freehand signatures are written in the forger’s normal handwriting with no
attempt to copy another’s writing style.
d.) Simulated signatures are prepared by copying or drawing a simulated signature.
16. Statement I: All hand writings is identifiable to a specific writer.

Statement II: The examination of handwriting characteristics can sometimes
determine the origin or authenticity of questioned writing.
a.) Statement I is false, Statement II is true;
b.) Statement I is true, Statement II is false;
c.) Both Statements are true;
d.) Both Statements are false
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17. Which of the following samples is used in nuclear DNA (nDNA) forensic analysis:
a.) hairs
b.) Sputum
c.) Blood
d.) Skin
18. Which of the following samples is used in mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA) forensic
analysis:
a.) Teeth
b.) Blood
c.) Urine
d.) Bile
19. The examination used in determining the whether a person has, within a limited
time, discharged a firearm.
a.) Gunshot residue on victim’s clothing examination
b.) Gunshot residue on hands examination
c.) Crime scene analysis
d.) Fired bullets comparison
20. Statement I: Race, sex, approximate height and stature, and approximate age at
death can be determined from human remains thru the process of anthropological
examinations.
Statement II: ` Race, sex, approximate height and stature, and approximate age
at death can be determined from human remains thru the process of blood
examinations.
a.) Both statements are true;

b.) Statement I is true, Statement II is false;
c.) Statement I is false, Statement II is true;
d.) Both Statements are false
Chapter 5
1. Which of the following statements is true?
a. Evidence is admissible when it is believed to be in connection with the case
b. Evidence is admissible when it is relevant to the issue and is not excluded by the ROC.
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c. Evidence is admissible even if it is violates certain rights of the person
d. All of the above
2. Which of the following is not a type of evidence?

a. Testimonial Evidence
b. Documentary Evidence
c. Object Evidence
d. Truth Evidence
3. Evidence that tends to make a material fact more or less probable than it would be without the
evidence.
a. Relevant evidence
b. Hearsay evidence
c. Direct evidence
d. Circumstantial evidence
4. Which of the following is NOT a ground for disqualification of witnesses?

a. Persons who can perceive, are perceiving and can make their perception known to
others
b. By reason of mental immaturity
c. By reason of marriage
d. Privileged communication
5. This refers to an evidence consist of writing or any material containing letters, words, numbers,
figures, symbols or other modes of written expression.
a. Object evidence
b. Collateral evidence
c. Documentary evidence
d. Written evidence
6. The act, declaration or omission of a party as to relevant fact may be given in evidence against
him.
a. Compromise of parties
b. Confession of a party
c. Admission of a party
d. None of the above
7. The declaration of an accused acknowledging his guilt of the offense charged.

a. Compromise of parties
b. Confession of a party
c. Admission of a party
8. Which of the following statements is not true about the rule on the opinion of an expert witness?
a. The expert witness may not testify to a reasonable degree of certainty regarding his
opinion, inference, or conclusion
b. He needs to have a special skill, knowledge or experience which has been known to possess,
may be perceived as evidence.
c. An expert witness need not to be present during the incident.
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9. In criminal cases, the degree of evidence needed is:
a. Preponderance of evidence
b. Circumstantial evidence
c. Substantial evidence
d. Proof beyond reasonable doubt
10. Which of the following courts does not belong to Municipal and City Courts?
a. Municipal Circuit Trial Courts
b. Municipal Trial Courts in Cities
c. Metropolitan Trial Courts
11. As a Rule on Evidence, which of the following is not true?

a. Object evidence must be marked Exhibit A, B, etc. for the plaintiff
b. Object evidence must be marked Exhibit A, B, etc. for the defendant
c. The marking of exhibits must be done during the Pre-Trial or its presentation during the trial
d. The marked evidence must be formally offered after the presentation of a party’s testimonial
evidence
12. It is a legal system that has drawn its inspiration largely from the Roma Law heritage and which,
by giving precedence to written law, has resolutely opted for a systematic codification of its
general law.
a. Criminal Law
b. Civil Law
c. Common Law System
d. All of the above
13. Leysam Sports International (LSI) is an athletic association that organizes martial arts matches.
LSI cancels Peter the Puncher’s fight claiming that Peter failed a medical examination. Peter sues
LSI alleging that this was a pretense. LSI calls a doctor to testify as an expert witness that the
results of Peter’s blood test demonstrated that Peter was ill. A nurse who works for a local
hospital conducted the blood test and the expert witness is not associated with the hospital. The
blood test has not been admitted into evidence.
The doctor’s testimony is probably

a. Admissible, provided other doctors would rely on the blood test to determine whether
Peter was fit to fight
b. Admissible, provided the nurse is available to testify as to how she conducted the blood test
c. Inadmissible as hearsay
d. Inadmissible as a legal conclusion
14. Which of the following is not true in Axiom of Admissibility of Evidence?

a. Evidence is generally admissible when it is relevant to the issues and is competent
b. Evidence is said to be relevant if it tends in any reasonable degree to establish the
improbability of a fact in issue.
c. Evidence is said to be relevant if it tends in any reasonable degree to establish the probability
of a fact in issue.
15. Which of the following is not true about the Sandiganbayan?
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a. It is a graft court which has exclusive jurisdiction over violations of RA 3019 or Anti-Graft
and Corrupt Practices Act
b. It covers public officials and employees including those employed in GOCCs.
c. It has exclusive jurisdiction in all cases where the penalty prescribed is more than 12
years of imprisonment and a fine not less than Php 500,000.
d. The decisions of the Sandiganbayan are appealed to the Supreme Court
16. Proof of facts from which, taken collectively, the existence of the particular fact in dispute may
be inferred as a necessary or probable consequence
a. Direct Evidence
b. Indirect Evidence
c. Testimonial Evidence
d. Circumstantial Evidence
17. Evidence which suffices for the proof of a particular fact until contradicted and overcome by
other evidence
a. Direct Evidence
b. Prima Facie Evidence
c. Circumstantial Evidence
18. A witness can testify only to those facts which he knows of his personal knowledge; that is,
which are derived from his own perception, except as otherwise provided in the Rules.
a. Testimonial Knowledge or Hearsay Rule
b. Character Evidence
c. Direct evidence
d. Circumstantial evidence
19. When a witness states that he did not see or know the occurrence of a fact.
a. Denial Evidence
b. Negative Evidence
c. Excluding Evidence
20. As a rule, disqualification by reason of privileged communication includes the following except:
a. Husband or the wife
b. An attorney without the consent of his client
c. A person authorized to practice medicine, surgery or obstetrics cannot in a civil case, without
the consent of the patient, be examined as to any advice or treatment given by him.
21. In criminal cases, the general rule is an offer of compromise is admissible. However, it is
inadmissible under the following cases, except:
a. quasi-offenses (criminal negligence)
b. cases allowed by law to be compromised
c. plea of guilty not withdrawn until rendition of judgment
d. unaccepted offer to plead guilty to a lesser offense
22. The declaration of a dying person, made under the consciousness of an impending death, may be
received in any case wherein his death is the subject of inquiry, as evidence of the cause and
surrounding circumstances of such death is called_____________.
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a. Dying Declaration
b. Declaration against interest
c. Act or declaration against pedigree
d. Parts of the res gestae
23. ______________ is the duty of a party to present evidence on the facts in issue necessary to
establish his claim or defense by the amount of evidence required by law.
a. Testimonial declaration
b. Plea
c. Burden of proof
24. A witness may be impeached by the party against whom he was called by way of ____________.
a. Negative evidence
b. Contradictory evidence
c. Opposing evidence
d. Destructive evidence
25. The Law on Evidence is governed by _______________.

a. New Civil Code of the Philippines
b. Rules of Court
c. 1987 Constitution
d. Statute
26. Which of the following is a CORRECT order of examination of witnesses?

a. Direct Examination; Cross-Examination; Re-Direct Examination; Re-Cross
Examination
b. Direct Examination; Re-Direct Examination; Cross-Examination; Re-Cross Examination
c. Pre-Trial; Trial; Rendition of Judgment
27. According to Professor Thompson, the necessary qualifications for an expert witness are as
follows, except:
a. Knowledge based upon proper training in the subject under review
b. Humility in admitting when there is doubt
c. Courage in desiring to establish the truth
d. None of the Above
28. In administrative cases, the degree of evidence needed is:

a. Preponderance of Evidence
b. Proof beyond reasonable doubt
c. Substantial Evidence
d. Circumstantial Evidence
29. Which party has the burden of proof in a criminal trial?

a. The Government
b. The defendant
c. The plaintiff
d. The respondent
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30. As regards the testimony of a witness, the offer must be made at:
a. The moment the case is filed
b. The period the respondent is called
c. The time the witness is called to testify
Chapter 6
1. As provided by the Court (U.S.) in the Daubert Case, which of the following statements is TRUE
on the role of Judges as Gatekeepers:
a) The trial judge must determine at the outset whether the expert is proposing to testify to
technological knowledge that will assist the trier of fact to understand or determine a fact
in issue
b) The appellate court must determine whether the expert is proposing to testify to scientific
knowledge that will assist the trier of fact to understand or determine a face in issue
c) The trial judge must determine at the outset whether the expert is proposing to
testify to scientific knowledge that will assist the trier of fact to understand or
determine a fact in issue
d) none of the above
2. Which of the following doctrines/tests on admissibility of evidence expanded or broadened the
circle of experts to be subjected to the court’s gatekeeping process?
a) Kuhmo Doctrine
b) Frye Test
c) Frye-Schwartz Test
d) Daubert Standards Test
3. Generally in American Jurisdictions, which of the statements below is TRUE relative to the
application of Daubert Standards to Ballistics Examination:
a) Ballistics generally fails the Daubert standard despite widespread acceptance
b) Ballistics generally fails the Daubert standard because of its lack of widespread acceptance
c) Ballistics is generally valid and passes the Daubert standard because of its widespread
acceptance
d) Ballistics is admissible and conclusive
application of Daubert Standards to Hair Analysis:
a) Daubert has been successfully applied to Hair Analysis Methods for detecting the
past use of drugs
b) Daubert has not been successfully applied to Hair Analysis Methods for detecting the
past use of drugs
c) Daubert has not been successfully applied to Hair Analysis Methods due to controversy
over the qualifications required for a forensic scientist or lab technician as a microanalyst
d) Daubert has not been successfully applied to Hair Analysis Methods to determine filial
relationship
5. Which of the following standards is CONTROLLING in the Philippines relative to admissibility
of evidence?
a) Frye-Schwartz Standard
b) Daubert-Kumho Standard
c) Both A and B
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d) None of the above
6. Under Philippine law and jurisprudence, which of the following is NOT a factor on determining
the admissibility of scientific or technological evidence?
a) Whether a theory of technique can be or has been tested
b) Whether it has been subjected to peer review and publication
c) Whether the theory or technique enjoys general acceptance within a relevant scientific
community
7. Generally in American Jurisdictions, which of the statements below is FALSE relative to the
application of Daubert Standards:
a) Voice Comparison techniques have failed the Daubert test, for the most part
b) Computer Simulation has failed because experts often can’t explain the algorithms
c) DNA is inadmissible under either the Frye or Daubert standard
d) Ballistics generally fails the Daubert standard despite widespread acceptance
8. Under Philippine law and jurisprudence, when is evidence admissible pursuant to Section 3, Rule
128 of the Rules of Court?
a) When it is relevant to the fact in issue
b) When it is not otherwise excluded by stature or Rules of Court
c) Both A and B
application of existing standard/doctrines on admissibility of evidence to DNA Evidence?
e) DNA is inadmissible under either the Frye or Daubert standard
f) DNA is admissible under either the Frye or Daubert standard
g) DNA is inadmissible under the Kumho Doctrine
h) None of the above
10. Which of the following statements is TRUE:
a) American jurisprudence has generally gained acceptance under Philippine jurisprudence
b) American jurisprudence applies suppletorily in our Philippine laws
c) American jurisprudence merely has persuasive effects in Philippine Supreme Court
d) Both A and B are true
application of Daubert Standards to Psychiatric Evidence:
a) Psychiatric Evidence has widely gains acceptance under Daubert
b) Psychological or sociopsychological profiling results are valid for its logical foundation
and strong methodology
c) Testimony regarding mental disorders that go to the matter of mens rea fails the Daubert
test
12. Under the Philippine Rules of Court, which of the following statements is TRUE:
a) The Philippine Courts follow the restrictive tests for admissibility established by Frye-
Schwartz and Daubert-Kumho
b) The Philippine Courts do not follow the restrictive tests for admissibility established
by Frye-Schwartz and Daubert-Kumho
c) The Philippine Trial Courts follow the restrictive tests for admissibility established by
Frye-Schwartz and Daubert-Kumho, but not the Supreme Court because it is not a trier of
facts
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d) The Supreme Court follows the restrictive tests for admissibility established by Frye-
Schwartz and Daubert-Kumho, but not the lower courts because their decisions do not
form part of the legal system of the country
13. In Philippine jurisdiction, which of the following is TRUE:
a) Evidence is admissible when it is relevant to the fact in issue and is not otherwise
excluded by statute or Rules of Court
b) Neither the Frye-Schwartz nor Daubert-Kumho standard is controlling in the Philippines
c) The restrictive tests of admissibility established by Frye Schwartz and Daubert Kumho go
into the weight of evidence
d) All of the above
14. Under the Rules of Courts, when is evidence considered COMPETENT?
a) When it is not excluded by law
b) When it is not excluded by the Rules of Court
c) When it is not gathered from illegal search or seizure
d) All of the above
15. Which of the following doctrines/standards on admissibility of evidence was EXPANDED by the
Kumho Doctrine which included all forms of expert testimony?
a) Frye Standard
b) Frye-Schwartz Standard
c) Daubert Doctrine
d) Poisonous Tree Doctrine
Chapter 7
1. It is the fundamental building block of a person’s entire genetic make-up.
a. Cell c. DNA
b. Protein d. RNA
2. DNA stands for

a. Dioxyribonucleic Acid c. Dihyronucleic Acid
b. Deoxali-nucleic Acid d. Deoxyribonucleic Acid
3. What are the keys to DNA printing?

a. Alleles c. Nitrogen bases
b. Chromosomes d. Genes
4. It refers to the material collected from the scene of the crime or from the victim’s body for the
suspect’s body.
a. Evidence Specimen c. Biological Evidence
b. Evidence Sample d. Biological Sample
5. It refers to the procedure in which the DNA extracted from a biological sample obtained from an
individual is examined.
a. DNA Analysis c. DNA Typing
b. DNA Testing d. DNA Sampling
6. DNA testing may yield three (3) possible results EXCEPT:

a. Exclusion b. Inclusion
b. Inconclusive d. Conclusive
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7. It refers to the DNA test result wherein samples are different and therefore must have originated from
different sources.
8. It refers to the DNA test result wherein it is not possible to ascertain whether the samples have similar
DNA types.
9. It refers to the DNA test result which reveals similar samples and could have originated from similar
sources.
10. Considerations for assessing the probative value of DNA evidence also called the Vallejo Standards
include the following EXCEPT:
a. Transportation c. Collection
b. Handling d. Contamination
11. It refers to the area in a DNA framework that is analyzed during DNA typing
a. DNA bossom c. Polymorphic loci
b. DNA nucleus d. Polymorphic cell
12. The four bases of DNA Chemical Structure are the following EXCEPT:
a. Guanine c. Thymine
b. Arginine d. Cytosine
13-15. Which four (4) statements below are true? (2 pts each)
The DNA in a man’s blood is the same as the DNA in his skin cells and saliva.
DNA can be found in all the cells except the blood cells.
DNA can have forensic value even if it is decades old.
Each person’s DNA is different from that of other individuals.
The right to self-incrimination does not apply in DNA testing.
CHAPTER 8
1. It is the application of forensic science and technology to identify specific objects from the traces
they leave, often at a crime scene.
a. Fingerprint identification
b. Trace evidence identification
c. Forensic identification
d. Firearms identification
2. A Latern term which was introduced in English in the early 19th century literally means “the body
of offense”.
a. Bertillon classification
b. Quetelet classification
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c. Corpus delicti
d. Anthropometry
3. The basis of identification parades but is notoriously unreliable.

a. Handwriting
b. Fingerprints
c. Personal impression (visual identification)
d. Photography
4. The study of automated methods for uniquely recognizing humans based upon one or more
intrinsic physical or behavioural traits.
a. Personal impression
b. Photography
c. Biometrics
d. Facial reconstruction
5. Which are not included in the characteristics of biometric identifiers.

a. Uniqueness
b. Permanence
c. Gait analysis
d. Measurability
6. It is one of the characteristics of biometric identifiers that don’t change over time.
a. Universality
b. Measurability
c. Permanence
d. Uniqueness
7. It is the process of quantification and interpretation of animal including human locomotion.

a. Measurability
b. Pathological gait
c. Gait analysis
d. User friendliness
8. It is one of the study conducted by Lynnerup in the year 2005, surveillance images from bank a
robbery were analyzed and compared with images of a suspect.
a. Earprint
b. Gait analysis
c. Photogrammetry
d. Lip print
9. Which of the following is a characteristics of biometric identifiers that are easy and comfortable
to measure?
a. Gait analysis
b. Lip print
c. User friendliness
d. Earprint
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10. According to Dr. Anil Aggrawal it is the identification of a person means knowing positively who
a given person.
a. Forensic identification
b. Fingerprint identification
c. Criminal identification
d. Firearms identification
11. It is the first rigorously scientific method of identification that was adopted by the Frenchman
Alphonse Bertillion in the year 1853 to 1914.
a. Quetelet Classification
b. Corpus delicti
c. Portrait Parle
d. Handwriting
12. Who is the Belgian statistician that put forward his theory that there was one to four chances of
any two adult persons having the same height?
a. Alphonse Bertillion
b. Dr. Anil Aggrawal
c. Adolph Quetelet
d. Dr. Juzef Wojcikiewics
13. It is an identification of the living in which a person claims that he/she is someone who he/she is
not.
a. Personal Impression
b. Interchange of Babies
c. Impersonation
d. Absconding Shoulder
14. It is more useful in identifying the living and the dead.

a. Handwriting
b. Fingerprints
c. Photography
d. Polygraphy
15. It is unique to every individual.

a. Sex
b. Forensic Odontology
c. DNA
d. Forensic Anthropology
16. What is that pattern of bone ends (epiphysis) to bone shaft (metaphysis) in each bone indicate
age?
a. Ossification Centers
b. Laboratory Test
c. Epiphyseal Fusion
d. Age determination from Skeleton
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17. What technology scan a fingertip and turns the unique pattern therein into an individual number?
a. Artificial nose
b. Biometrics
c. Biocrypt
d. Finger scanning
18. What devise that chemically analyses the unique combination of substances excreted from the
skin of people?
a. Biometrics
b. Biocrypt
c. Artificial nose
d. Heat signature
19. What is one the most touted means of biometric identification during the last several years?
a. Fingerprints
b. Eye Scan
c. DNA Matching
d. Facial Recognition
20. What type of scan reads the outline of the shape of a shadow not the handprint?
a. Facial recognition
b. Eye Scan
c. Hand Geometry
d. Voice recognition
21. It is refers to the same purpose but by looking at semantics, spelling, word choice, syntax, and
phraseology.
a. Hand Geometry
b. Voice recognition
c. Forensic Stylistic
d. Handwriting Analyst
22. It is occur in as many people as possible.

a. Permanence
b. Uniqueness
c. Universality
d. Measurability
23. It is useful only in fetuses and babies.

a. Epiphyseal fusion
b. Age determination from Skeleton
c. Ossification Centers
d. Determination of Stature from Bones
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24. What secondary physical characteristics that more useful in Caucasiane than negroid and
mongoloid races?
a. Hair
b. Scars
c. Eyes
d. Tattooing
25. What secondary physical characteristics that seen even if the body is putrefied?
a. Teeth
b. Hair
c. Tattooing
d. Fingerprints
26. What primary physical characteristics that external appearances, internal degenerative disease,
bones, joints?
a. Weight
b. Height or Stature
c. Age
d. Race
27. What method used include photographic enlargement, analysis of ink, analysis of paper?
a. Forensic Identification
b. Photography
c. Handwriting
d. Fingerprints
28. What friction skin of the palms and soles that have a ridge pattern?
a. Handwriting
b. Photography
c. Fingerprints (Dactylography)
d. Forensic Identification
29. What primary physical characteristics that corpse often appears of different build to that in life?
a. Sex
b. Race
c. Weight
d. Height or Stature
30. What secondary physical characteristics that very resistant and bear much useful information?
a. Deformities
b. Jewelry
c. Teeth
d. Scars
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Chapter 9
1. What is Forensic Anthropology?
a. Application of the science of physical anthropology to the legal process
b. Application of the science to the legal process
c. Study of beliefs of human kind
d. Study of primate past and present biology
2. Forensic Anthropology specialize in?
a. Human skeleton
b. Human heart
c. Brain
d. Hands
3. What is the study of primate order, past and present, such as primate biology, skeletal biology, and
human adaption?
a. Physical Anthropology
b. Forensic Anthropology
c. Linguistic Anthropology
d. Forensic Tool
4. What is the study of the aspects of human society and language, past and present?
a. Linguistic Anthropology
b. Forensic Tool
c. Physical Anthropology
5. The study of past cultures via material remains and artifacts is?
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a. Archeology
c. Forensic Tool
d. Physical Anthropology
6. What is the traditional means of identification of unknown remains?
a. Anthropology as a forensic tool
b. Archeology
c. Forensic Anthropology
7. A person who usually holds a doctorate degree ([Ph.D); a Master’s Degree in anthropology?
a. Forensic Anthropologist
b. Forensic Pathologist
c. Physician
d. Medical Technologist
8. A person who perform autopsies in the endeavor to establish the cause of death?
a. Forensic Pathologist
b. Forensic Anthropologist
c. Physician
9. The techniques which physical anthropologist use to discover information about early humans from
their skeletons?
a. Death Investigation
b. Anatomical Position
c. Forensic Anthropologist
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10. Is a ventral view of the body lying on its back or standing with arms at the side with face, palms and
toes oriented forward?
a. Anatomical Person
b. Death Investigation
c. Physical Anthropology
11. Characterized by diminutive size and complete formation of bone, and defined by eruption of the
incomplete deciduous dentition?
a. Infancy
b. Fetal
c. Early Childhood
d. Late Childhood
12. Skeletally characterized by initial ossification of primary centers of ossification and terminated by
birth?
a. Fetal
b. Early Childhood
c. Late childhood
d. Infancy
13. Defined by the period of functional occlusion of the deciduous dentition prior to the eruption of the
first permanent molar?
a. Early Childhood
b. Infancy
c. Fetal
d. Late Childhood
14. Defined by the eruption of the first and second permanent molars?
a. Late Childhood
b. Adolescence
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c. Fetal
d. Infancy
15. The period of final skeletal maturation. The final stages of growth occur and end with complete
fusion of most of the epiphyses?
a. Adolescence
b. Fetal
c. Infancy
d. Late childhood
16. Period of full maturation in life prior to onset of gross skeletal degeneration?
a. Young Adulthood
b. Adolescence
c. Fetal
d. Infancy
17. A scientist working with a large sample of skeletons would be able to distinguished gender groups on
the basis of?
a. Size and Robusticity
b. Age
c. Race
d. Culture
18. The question of racial affiliation is difficult to answer because it based primarily on?
a. Social affiliation
b. Race
c. Culture
d. Age
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19. A useful technique of estimating gender or biological affinity has been to examine cadaver of known
age and background?
a. Discriminant Functions
b. Estimating the Race of the Individual
c. Culture
d. Age
20. Police may also turn to anthropologist for ______, recreating a face from the skeleton to help them
identify the deceased?
a. Facial Reconstruction
c. Body Reconstruction
21. It applies standard scientific techniques developed in physical anthropology to identify human
remains?
a. Forensic Anthropology
b. Facial Reconstruction
c. Body Reconstruction
d. Culture
22. Forensic anthropologist frequently works in conjunction with ______to identify the decedent.
a. Forensic Pathologist
b. Physician
c. Nurse
23. A useful technique f estimating gender or biological affinity has been to examine cadaver of known
age and background?
a. Discriminant Functions
b. Death Investigation
c. All of the above
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24. Forensic anthropologist generally work with forensic pathologist, odontologist, and homicide
investigators to point out evidence of _________?
a. Foul Play
b. Crime
c. All of the above
25. The science of forensic anthropology includes ______?
a. Excavation
b. Examination of hair
c. Insects
d. All of the above
26. If the skeleton shows evidence of prolonged burial or is accompanied by coffin nails or arrow points,
it usually represents an historic or prehistoric burial rather than a recent ___?
a. Death
b. Life
c. All of the above
27. A forensic anthropologist can tell a lot about a person from ____?
a. Bones
b. Tissue
c. Skin
d. All of the above
28. Forensic scientist use formulas to determine height based on the length of leg and arm ___?
a. Bones
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b. Skin
c. Tissue
d. All of the above
29. Age estimate are readily made from dental ___?
a. Eruption
b. Function
c. All of the above
30. Many areas of the older adult skeleton undergo progressive deterioration that serves as useful
indicators of ______?
a. Age
b. Health
c. sex
Chapter 10
1. What is the branch of forensic medicine that deals with the proper examination, handling and
presentation of dental evidence in a court of law?
a. Forensic Sicrenfo
b. Forensic Foreigner
c. Forensic Odontology
d. Forensic Taxation
2. The work of a forensic odontologist covers: (choose the wrong answer)
a. Identification of bite marks on the victims of attack
b. Identification of unknown bodies through dental records
c. Identification of unknown bodies through feelings
d. Age estimation of skeletal remains
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3. What is the most common role of forensic odontologist/dentist?
a. To clean the teeth of the deceased
b. To make a report about the teeth of the deceased
c. Identification of deceased individuals
d. Identification of the relatives of the deceased
4. A dental profile will typically provide information on the deceased’s? Choose the wrong answer.
a. Age
b. Ancestry background
c. Lovelife
d. Sex and socio-economic status
5. Dental tissues are relatively resistant to environmental assaults, such as: (Choose the wrong answer)
a. Incineration
b. Trauma
c. Kissing
d. Decomposition
6. Where can we specifically find the Genomic DNA?
a. In the nuclear plant
b. In the nectar
c. In the nucleus of each cell
d. In the Rules of Court
7. This is the sequence of building blocks of which can be determined to assist in identification of
remains.
a. Hollow blocks
b. Mitosmines DNA
c. Mitochondrial DNA
d. Misoldermihed DNA
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8. The following are some of the physical characteristics of both the bite mark wound and the suspect’s
teeth: choose the wrong answer.
a. The shape of the mouth arch
b. The curves of biting edges
c. Kiss mark
d. Missing teeth
9. What Presidential Decree requires practitioners of dentistry to keep records of their patients?
a. PD No. 1445
b. PD No. 7610
c. PD No. 1575
d. PD No. 7160
10. The physical characteristics of both the bite mark wound and the suspect’s teeth include: (choose the
wrong answer)
a. The distance from cuspid to cuspid
b. The shape of the mouth arch
c. The color of the teeth
d. The evidence of a tooth out of alignment
11. Adults have ____ permanent teeth.
a. 64
b. 256
c. 32
d. 4
12. Bit mark in human tissue must be photographed before ___ days or the tissue will begun to swell.
a. 30
b. 60
c. 7
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d. 1
13. The ___ of a tooth is an excellent source of DNA.
a. Color
b. Smell
c. Pulp
d. Root
14. Teeth are harder than bone and are the last part of the body to be broken down or destroyed. Which
component of the teeth is the hardest substance in the human body?
a. Gum
b. Pulp
c. Enamel
d. Dentin
15. What is a bitten off piece of body?
a. Artemu
b. Arteko
c. Artefact
d. Artenya
16. This technique for dissection/resection involves bilateral incision of the face, beginning at the oral
ommissures and extending posteriorly to the anterior ramus.
a. Facial Disection
b. Mallet and Chisel Method
c. Pruning Shears Method
d. Stryker Autopsy Saw Method
17. This method of jaw resection includes the use of small pruning shears placed within the nares and
forced back into the maxillary sinus.
a. Facial Disection
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18. This method is characterized by the use of a mallet and chisel to induce a “Le Fort” Type I fracture of
the maxilla.
a. Facial Disection
19. The soft tissue and muscle attachments on the lateral aspect of the mandible are dissected away by
incisions which extend through the mucobuccal fold to the lower border of the mandible. What type of
method is this?
a. Facial Disection
20. This system is the most commonly used during dental examination in the country which reflects any
missing dental structure.
a. FDI Numbering System
b. Dental Impressions
c. Universal Numbering System
d. Dental Radiology
21. This system of dental nomenclature is more widely used in developed countries where quadrants are
numbered 1 to 4 and the teeth are numbered from midline to posterior.
a. Universal Numbering System
b. Dental Radiology
c. FDI Numbering System
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d. Dental Impressions
22. These should be collected and considered when bite marks, rugae patterns or other evidence warrant
the procedure.
a. Dental Nomenclature
b. Dental Impressions
c. Dental Radiology
d. Dental Resection
23. These method is required when there is no putative ID, antemortem records have not yet been located
and/or the jaws cannot be retained.
a. Universal Numbering System
b. Dental Radiology
c. FDI Numbering System
d. Dental Impressions
24. The following are agencies or individuals that might provide assistance in locating records to establish
positive ID, EXCEPT:
a. Hospitals
b. Family/Friends
c. Insurance Carriers
25. Which of the following dental features are useful in identification?
a. Crown Morphology
b. Tooth Type
c. Missing Teeth
d. All of the above
26. A comprehensive postmortem radiographic examination might include some of the following views,
EXCEPT:
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a. Periorbital Radiograph
b. Intraoral Radiograph
c. Edentulous Areas
d. Extraoral Radiographs
27. This term signifies that the antemortem and postmortem data match in sufficient detail to establish that
they are from the same individual.
a. Sufficient Evidence
b. Exclusion
c. Positive Identification
d. Possible Identification
28. This term is used when the antemortem and postmortem data are clearly inconsistent.
a. Exclusion
b. Insufficient Evidence
c. Possible Identification
d. Negative identification
29. This term signifies that the antemortem and postmortem data have consistent features, but due to the
quality of either the postmortem remains or the antemortem data, it is not possible to positively establish
dental identification.
a. Positive Identification
b. Possible Identification
c. Insufficient Evidence
d. Exclusion
30. This term is used when the available information is insufficient to form the basis for a conclusion.
a. Positive Identification
b. Possible Identification
c. Insufficient Evidence
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d. Exclusion
Chapter 11
1. What is Forensic Radiology? (4 points)
- It is a specialized are of medical imaging utilizing radiological techniques to assist
physicians and pathologists in matters pertaining to law.
2. Who discovered X-Rays? (4 points)
- Wilhelm Roentgen
3. When was X-Ray discovered? (4 points)
- November 1895
4. What are the uses of forensic radiology? (5 points)
- Potential cause of death or murder
- Analysis of adverse medical events
- Useful evidence in criminal and civil jurisdictions
- Provides evidence for both acute and chronic injury on child abuse
- Assists in screening drug traffickers
- Body identification
- Disease Identification
- Donor Bank Analysis
5. What is Virtopsy? (5 points)
- It is a virtual autopsy which uses computed tomography CT and magnetic resonance
imaging MRI that can provide general pathology and provide details about specific areas
of the body and determines the time of death which aids in giving forensic evidences.
6. What are the 5 goals of Virtopsy? (4 points)
- Achieve minimal invasive autopsy.
- Perform exact forensic-medical reconstruction.
- Apply photogrammetry and 3D surface scanning.
- Producing and validating post-mortem biochemical profile.
- Implementation of technical basis imaging database.
7. What are the benefits of Virtopsy? (4 points)
- Uniform Documentation of Findings
- Increase Understandability
- Scientific Benefits
- Societal Benefits
Chapter 12
1. It is the method of identification using the impressions made by the minute ridge information or
patterns found on the Fingertips.
a. Fingerprint Identification
b. latent prints
c. biometric identification
d. transfer identification
2. It is an impression of the friction ridges of all or any part of the finger.

a. Biometric
b. Fingerprint
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c. Latent
d. Loops
3. It is a raised portion of the epidermis on the palmar (palm and fingers) or plantar (sole and toes)
skin.
a. Friction ridge
b. Loops
c. Arches
d. Whorls
4. The three basic types of fingerprint pattern are:

a. loops, arches and whorls.
b. arches, loops and rings.
c. whorls, accidentals and loops.
d. whorls, arches and accidentals.
5. The Basic Fundamentals in the Science of Fingerprint Identification are:

a. Permanence and Individuality
b. Permanence, Individuality, how long do Fingerprints last on evidence, Are
Fingerprint Inherited… are they more similar between family members than
between strangers, Identical Twins have different fingertips and Genotype Versus
Phenotype
c. Individuality, how long do Fingerprints last on evidence, Are Fingerprint Inherited… are
they more similar between family members than between strangers, Identical Twins have
different fingertips and Genotype Versus Phenotype
d. Permanence, Individuality, how long do Fingerprints last on evidence, Identical Twins
have different fingertips and Genotype Versus Phenotype
6. The art of identification by comparison of fingerprint is called:

a. Dactylography
b. All of the these
c. Dactyloscopy
d. Palmistry
7. Fingerprints that have lines which enter on one side of the finger pad and spiral inward ending in
the centre are called:
a. Composite
b. Arch
c. Whorl
d. Loop
8. The Identification Characteristics are:

a. Ridge ending, Bifurcation and short ridge(dot)
b. Ridge ending
c. Ridge ending and short ridge(dot)
d. Bifurcation and short ridge(dot)
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9. The Special Situations are:
a. Amputations, Bandaged fingers or hands and Scars
b. Bandaged fingers or hands and Bandaged fingers or hands
c. Scars
d. Deformities, Amputations, Bandaged fingers or hands and Scars
10. It exists when an individual has one or more fingers, thumbs or hands missing.
a. Amputations
b. Bandaged fingers
c. Scars
d. Deformities
11. It is existing as a result of an injury, birth defect or disease.

a. Amputations
b. Bandaged fingers
c. Scars
d. Deformities
12. It exists when an individual has permanent tissue damage to finger, thumb or hand and when only
pattern areas that have totally destroyed or the ridge detail appears distorted.
a. Amputations
b. Bandaged fingers
c. Scars
d. Deformities
13. Which of the following statements is not true?

a. Plastic fingerprints involve the deposition of material onto a surface.
b. Plastic fingerprints are three dimensional.
c. Latent fingerprints are invisible to the naked eye
d. Latent fingerprints require development in order to make them visible.
14. Fingerprint ridges are formed during the ____________ of fetal development.
a. First to second month
b. Second to third month
c. Third to fourth month
d. Fourth to fifth month
15. What are the ridges on the hands and feet of all persons?
a. Ridge endings, bifurcations and dots
b. Beginning Ridge, Bifurcations
c. Dots and strange ridge
d. Bifurcations and strange ridge
16. Which of the following statements is not true?

a. Twins has the same fingerprint
b. Fingerprint never change
c. No two fingerprints are alike
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d. No persons have exactly the same arrangement of ridges patterns
17. It is a simple the end of the ridge.

a. Latent
b. Short ridge
c. Long ridge
d. Ridge endings
18. It is a Y-shaped split of one ridge into two.

a. Split ridge
b. Double ridge
c. Middle ridge
d. Bifurcation
19. It is a very short ridge that looks like a dot?

a. Dot ridge
b. Point ridge
c. Middle ridge
d. Latent
20. Which of the following statements is true?

a. Family members has equally the same fingerprint
b. Identical twins have different fingerprints
c. Fingerprint change every month
d. Fingerprint is an impression of the friction atoms of all or any part of the finger.
21. It is a pattern of fingerprint that has no delta or core?

a. Whorl pattern
b. Latent pattern
c. Arch pattern
d. Loop pattern
22. A fingerprint pattern that have to more deltas?

a. Whorl pattern
b. Latent pattern
c. Arch pattern
d. Loop pattern
23. The following are qualifying checklist of fingerprinting except for.

a. If the Fingerprint impression is a loop, are the delta and core present? If the fingerprint
impression is a whorl, are all deltas present?
b. Is the fingerprint impression clear and distinct?
c. Is the fingerprint uniform in tone and not too dark or light?
d. Are the four ridges impression and a thumb impression in the plain impression
block each hand?
24. The two the fingerprint impression types are:
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a. Rolled Impressions and Plain Impressions
b. lateral pocket loop and Accidental
c. Twinned loop and lateral pocket loop
d. Accidental and twined loop
25. Impressions that are used to verify the sequence and accuracy of the rolled impressions.
a. Lateral pocket loop
b. Accidental
c. Twinned loop
d. Plain impressions
26. The following are types of fingerprint patterns except for.

a. Twinned loop
b. Short loop
c. Plain arch
d. Tented arch
27. It is that type of pattern which possesses either an angle, an up thrust or two of the three basic
characteristics of loop.
a. loop
b. Short loop
c. Central pocket loop whorl
d. Tented arch
28. It is that type of pattern in which one or more ridges enter into upon either side, recurve, touch or
pass an imaginary line between delta and core and pass out or tend to pass out upon the same side
ridge entered. a
a. Loop
b. Short loop
d. Tented arch
29. It is consisting at least one recurving ridge, or an obstruction at right angle to the line of flow,
with two deltas, between which, when an imaginary line is drawn, no recurving ridge within the
inner pattern area is cut or touched.
a. Loop
b. Short loop
d. Tented arch
30. It consists of two separate loop formations with two separate and distinct sets of shoulders and
two deltas.
a. Double loop
b. Double loop whorl
c. Double arch
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CHAPTER 14
1. It is known by names including forensic document examination, diplomatics,

handwriting examination, document examination and handwriting analysis
a. Documentation Analysis
b. Questioned Document Analysis
c. Questions Analysis
d. Handwriting Question Analysis
2. It is any signature, handwriting, typewriting, or other marks whose source or

authenticity is in dispute or doubtful.
a. Questioned Reports
b. Questioned Documents
c. Documentary Questions
d. Reports Questions
3. The person who deals with items that form part of a case which may or may not
come before a court of law.
a. Document Examiner
b. Forensic Document Examiner
c. Forensic Examiner
d. Questioned Document Examiner
4. It is the study of handwriting
a. Stenography
b. Graphology
c. Graphanalysis
d. Grammatology
5. It attempts to predict character traits from handwriting examination

a. Grammatology
b. Graphoanalysis
c. Stenography
d. Stenoanalysis
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6. It is used for a variety of physical examinations including determining the presence
of indented writing, deciphering writing, rendering obscured writing visible and
differentiating between inks and papers by their optical properties.
a. Video Spectum Analysis

b. Video Spectral Comparator
c. Video Comparator
d. Video Spectral Analysis
7. It is the art of covered or hidden writing

a. Graphology
b. Stenography
c. Videography
d. Grapahanalysis
8. It is one which the typeface elements are permanently fastened into the machine.
a. Typebar typewriter
b. Spacebar typewriter
c. Typespace typewriter
d. Space typewriter
9. It is examined to determine the brand name and manufacturer of the shoe or tire that
made an impression.
a. Shoeprint and Tire Thread Examination

b. Shoeprinting and Tire Analysis
c. Shoe and Tire Exmaination
d. Shoe and Tire Thread Analysis
10. It is the distance between the front and real axles of a vehicle
a. Wheel apex
b. Wheelbase
c. Wheel track
d. Wheel Barrow
11. The following are vehicle track dimensions except
a. Front Track Width
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b. Turning Diameter
c. Thread Length
d. Tire Circumference
12. It is an instrument that converts sound into a visual graphic representation
a. Spectonometer
b. Spectogram
c. Vidoegraph
d. Stenometer
13. The practice of collecting, analysing and reporting on digital data in a way that is
legally admissible.
a. Computer analysis
b. Computer Examination
c. Computer Forensics
d. Computer Programming
14. Combination of both aural (listening) and spectrographic (instrumental) comparison

of one or more known voices with an unknown voice for the purpose of
identification or elimination.
a. Voice Analysis
b. Voiceprint Analysis
c. Voice Examination
d. Voice Quality Analysis
15. Its presence in a document is important because it can sometimes be used to

establish a date that the document cannot precede.
a. Paper mark
b. Trademark
c. Watermark
d. Documentary stamp
16. It is an instrument that renders indented writing visible and provides a record of the
writing
a. Electron Detecting Apparatus
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b. Electrostatic Detection Apparatus
c. Electron Apparatus
d. Electro Detecting Apparatus
17. This allows a transparency overlay for individual features
a. Magnification
b. Evaluation
c. Examination
d. Determination
18. Persons who are engaged in the comparison of handwritings for the purpose of
determining whether a questioned writing of unknown origin was authored by a
person whose known writings are available as exemplars.
a. Forensic Document Examiners

b. Questioned Document Magnifier
c. Forensic Examiner
d. Document Examiner
19. It is a part of the so called questioned document examination
a. Typewriting
b. Handwriting
c. Computer typing
d. Stenography
20. It is the application of allied sciences and analytical techniques to questions

concerning documents
a. Forensic Science
b. Forensic Technology
c. Forensic Document Examination
d. Medical Forensics
Chapter 13
1. All are evidence that is found at a crime scene in small but measurable amounts except?
a. Hair
b. Gunshot
c. water
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2. Forensic microscopic hair comparisons are founded on the__________?
a. Floor, Buildings
b. soils, botanical materials, gunshot residue, explosive residue, glass, and volatile hydrocarbons
c. precepts of comparative biology, microscopy, zoology, histology, and anthropology
3. The principle that explains how material is left at a crime scene is called?
a. Lonan’s Exchange Principle
b. Howard’s Excahnge Principle
c. Locard’s Exchange Principle
4. Evidence That May be Collected except?

a. Hair
b. Fiber
c. Dress
d. Glass
5. Trace evidence is useful in crimes except?

a. crimes of violence, Homicide
b. Sexual Assault, Aggravated Assault
c. Rubbery, Theft
d. Where physical contact my have occurred
6. In terms of evidence collection, what does trace mean?

a. Fleeting
b. Small or Minute
c. Transient
d. Invisible
7. Which of the following is considered a type of trace evidence?

a. Fired cartridge casings
b. Blood stain patterns
c. Hairs
d. Shoe or tire tracks
8. Another form of DNA that may be found in a hair sample and may be useful in eliminating some
of the suspects is:
a. Cellular DNA
b. Paternal DNA
c. Nuclear DNA
d. Y-Chromosome DNA
9. Most animals have medullae that are either:

a. Continuous
b. Interrupted
c. A and B
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d. Only A
10 . Methods of collecting Hair evidence except;

a. Collection of Visually observed hairs
b. Vacuuming method
c. None of the above
d. Brushing, scraping or shaking of garments
11. The examination of human hairs in the forensic laboratory is typically conducted through the use
of____________________________?
a. Microscopy
b. Dark Microscopy
c. Light Microscopy
12. Structure of hair are contains the following. Except:
a. Human hair sample is analyzed as a whole and in cross section.
b. Most animal hair have continuous or interrupted medulla.
c. Scale structure is not used to determine species.
d. The Root of the hair contains DNA.
13. This part of hair can tell whether the hair in question has been pulled out or shed naturally.
a. Shaft
b. Tip
c. Root
14. The body area from which a hair originated can be determined
by____________________________?
a. Microscopy
b. X-Ray
c. General morphology
15. It is recommended that a ________________ sample can be obtained as soon as possible after a
crime and should contain at least 25 full-length hairs taken from different areas of the public
region.
a. Animal Hair
b. Root
c. Pubic Hair
d. Tip
16. ____________ is commonly called beard hairs or mustache hairs.

a. Animal Hair
b. Root
c. Pubic Hair
d. Tip
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17. ______________is a smallest unit of a textile material that has a length many times greater than
its diameter.
a. Medulla
b. Fiber
c. Shaft
18. This hair are shorter in length, are-like in shaped and often abraded or tapered at the tips;
a. Fringe Hairs
b. Axillary
c. Limb Hairs
d. Animal Hair
19. ____________originating from areas of the body outside those specifically designated as head or
pubic are generally not suitable for significant comparison purposes.
a. Axillary
b. Limb Hairs
c. Fringe Hairs
d. Animal Hair
20. Common layers of automobile paint except?

a. The first coat is the Micro coat Primer which is bonded to the raw metal. This provides a surface
to which the following layers of paint can bind.
b. The second coat is the Primer surfacer which also helps hide seams and other defects
c. The third layer of paint is the Basecoat. This layer is the layer which gives the vehicle its
color.
d. The final layer of paint is the Clear coat. This layer is not pigmented. The clear coat protects the
underlying layers from scratches and damage from the sun and rain as well as salt and abrasion
from blowing sand.
21. Interpretation of Hair Examination EXCEPT.

a. Hair can provide myriad information
b. None of this evidence can be used as solid evidence of its own.
c. Hair is best used as solid evidence on its own.
d. Hair is best used to back up other forms of evidence.
22. A _____ occurs when a fiber is transferred from a fabric directly onto a victim’s clothing.
a. Secondary Transfer
b. Fiber Transfer
c. Primary transfer
23. A _____ occurs when already transferred fibers on the clothing of a suspect transfer to the
clothing of a victim.
a. Primary Transfer
b. Fiber Transfer
c. Secondary transfer
24. Significance of Fiber Evidence EXCEPT;
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a. Whenever a fiber found on the clothing of a victim matchis the jnown fibers of a suspect’s
clothing.
b. Matching dyed synthetic fibers or dyed natural fiber can be very meaningful.
c. The large volume of fabric will not produce the significance of any fiber association
discovered in a criminal case.
d. The discovery of cross transfers and multiple fiber transfers between the suspect’s clothing and
the victim’s clothing increases the likelihood that these two individuals had physical contact.
25. ______________ is the longest hair found in the human body.

a. Fiber Hair
b. Public Hair
c. Head Hair
d. Facial Hair
26. _____________is commonly called beard hairs or mustache hairs.
a. Fiber Hair
b. Public Hair
c. Facial Hair
d. Head Hair
27. ___________ may reveal chemical or heat treatment indicating head hair.
a. Medulla
b. Fiber
c. Tip
28. All are true EXCEPT;

a. Use in toxicology as hair remains after the flesh has disintegrated.
b. Napolion Bonaparte -One of the Most famous cases of poisoning may have been solved by
modern technology and hair.
c. Hair can be used as solid evidence in its own.
d. The validity and acceptable forensic hair comparison are supported bu guidelines for hair
comparison methodology.
29. Geology/Soil analysis are EXCEPT;

a. Soil includes any disintegrated surface material, both natural and artificial, that lies on or near the
earth’s surface.
b. Soil can be differentiated and distinguished-classified by its appearance.
c. Soil may not provide from the crime scene to the suspect.
d. Soil can be compared using a density-gradient tube technique.
30. ___________ is an inorganic product of fusion which have cooled to a rigid condition without
crystallizing.
a. Paint
b. Soil
c. Glass
Chapter 15
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1. What does forensic mean?
a. a method of procedure that has characterized natural science since the 17th century,
consisting in systematic observation, measurement, and experiment, and the formulation,
testing, and modification of hypotheses
b. (answer) relating to or denoting the application of scientific methods and techniques
to the investigation of crime.
c. a material or mixture prepared according to a particular formula
d. the action of devising or creating something
2. What does serology mean?
a. the study of living organisms, divided into many specialized fields that cover their
morphology, physiology, anatomy, behavior, origin, and distribution
b. (answer) the scientific study or diagnostic examination of blood serum
c. a material or mixture prepared according to a particular formula
d. the action of devising or creating something
3. What year was blood type standardized?
a. 1899
b. 1900
c. (answer) 1901
d. 1902
4. What is one of the function of forensic serologist?
a. cell examination
b. (answer) determine type and characteristics of blood
c. fetus examination
d. blood stain pattern examination
5. Court will qualify someone as an expert in blood stain examination if he or she has met the following
requirements except:
a. Specialized training
b. Has conducted a sufficient number of examinations
c. And has enough reference to demonstrate the basis of their opinions
d. (answer) Has conducted a sufficient number of computer knowledge
6. The following are properties of blood except;
a. plasma
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b. white blood cells
c. (answer) royal blood cells
d. red blood cells
7. The word Serology comes from the ancient Sanskrit, Sara which means?
a. blood
b. fluid
c. (answer) to flow
d to protect
8. There are how many major blood group types?
a. (answer) 4
b. 8
c. 6
d. 10
9. In population distribution of blood types, what type is the most common?
a. (answer) O and A
b. AB
c. A and B
d. O and B
10. What test/technique is used to determine if a sample is blood?
a. (answer) color crystalline test
b. luminol test
c. keratin test
d. gluten test
11. What test/technique is used to determine if a sample of blood is human or animal blood
a. keratin test
b. gluten test
c. color crystalline test
d. (answer) precipitin test
12. What test/technique is used to determine the animal species of the sample blood
a. (answer) precipitin test
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b. color crystalline test
c. keratin test
d. gluten test
13. What test/technique is used to determine the blood type of a normal blood sample
a. (answer) ABO system
c. keratin test
d. gluten test
14. What test/technique is used to determine the blood type of a dried blood sample
a. (answer) absorption elution technique
c. keratin test
d. gluten test
15. The following are proper handling of blood sample except;
a. Wear latex gloves, surgical masks, and full coverage gowns
b. Eye covering is a must when collecting liquid samples
c. (answer) Keeps hands inside of hidden areas
d. Label all blood samples
16. What type of blood is most common in human population?
a. O and A
b. (answer) AB
c. A and B
d. O and B
17. Refrigerated red blood cells have a shelf life of about how many days?
a. 30 days
b. 15 days
c. (answer) 42 days
d. 45 days
18. Refrigerated white blood cells have a shelf life of about?
a. 2 years
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b. 6 months
c. (answer) a year
d. 30 days
19. What test is used to determine invisible blood stains?
a. (answer) luminol test
c. keratin test
d. gluten test
20. Use ______ across all surface when doing visual inspection in the crime scene specially on dark areas
a. powerfull sense of smell
b. (answer) powerful light
c. powerfull third eye
d. powerful electricity
21. What is the next step if nothing is found but there is a high suspicion of blood in the crime scene?
a. spray water
b. leave the area
c. go back to the office
d. (answer) spray luminol
22. What is the effect of luminol to blood?
a. it reacts to blood by making it royal blood
b. (answer) it reacts to blood by making it lumenscent
c. it reacts to blood by making it wet blood
d. it doesn’t have effect on the blood
23. The generic term for any way of determining if something is blood or not is called?
a. keratin test
b. gluten test
c. color crystalline test
d. (answer) presumptive test
24. Precipitin test is used to determine
a. if blood is female or male
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b. if blood is gay or straight
c. if blood is peasant or royal
d. (answer) if blood is human or animal
25. Wet blood has more value than dry blood because?
a. it is fresh
b. it is easier to extract
c. it is color red
d. (answer) more test can be done on wet blood
26. Blood in the crime scene can be in different form except?
a. pools
b. drops
c. smears
d. (answer) squares
27. For how many minutes the blood begins to dry after exposure to the air?
a. 30 - 45 minutes
b. 15 - 20 minutes
c. 10 -15 minutes
d. (answer) 3-5 minutes
28. DNA can be extracted from the following except?
a. blood
b. bone marrow
c. hair
d. (answer) urine
29. What test uses a solution phenolphthalein and hydrogen peroxide on a piece of filter paper and when
blood of any quantity is present, it turns pink?
a. (answer) Kastle – Meyer Color Test
c. keratin test
d. gluten test
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30. What substance is found in the blood that produces anti bodies to fight infection?
a. (answer) antigen
b. plasma
c. water
d. cells
Chapter 16
1. What is the critical investigative role of the Medicolegal Officer (MO) at a crime scene?
a. Examine the body
b. Examine the crime scene
c. Investigate the crime scene
d. All of the above
2. Who decides whether the manner of death was natural, accidental, suicidal, homicidal, or
unknown cause?
a. Enforcement criminalist
b. Medicolegal Officer
c. Crime technicians
d. Police officer
3. It is an important part of a medicolegal examination.

a. Body
b. Evidence
c. Witness
d. Blood spatter
4. It is the examination of the shapes, locations, and distribution patterns of bloodstains, in order to
provide an interpretation of the physical events which gave rise to their origin.
a. Pattern Blood Analysis
b. Stain Pattern Analysis
c. Bloodstain Analysis Pattern
d. Bloodstain Pattern Analysis
5. The following are the value of Bloodstain Pattern Analysis EXCEPT one.
a. Confirm the criminal of the crime scene.
b. Confirm or refute assumptions concerning events and their sequences.
c. Confirm or refute statements made by principals in the case.
d. It can provide information such as the origin of the bloodstain, direction of deposit and
direction of travel after surgery.
6. What is IABPA?
a. International Association of Bloodspatter Pattern Analysts
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b. International Association of Bloodstain Pattern Analysts
c. International Associate of Blood Pattern Analysis
d. International Associate of Blood Parts Analysis
7. It is the acute angle formed between the direction of a blood drop and the plane of the surface it
strikes.
a. Bloodstain
b. Bubble Rings
c. Angle of Impact
d. Angle of crime
8. It is a bloodstain pattern created when blood is released or thrown from a blood-bearing object in
motion.
a. Directionality
b. Bubble rings
c. Back spatter
d. Cast-off pattern
9. It is an evidence that liquid blood has come into contact with a surface.
a. Blood Spatter
b. Blood Pattern
c. Blood Stain
d. Blood clot
10. It is a drop of blood from which a wave, cast-off, or satellite spatter originates.
a. Misting
b. Parent drop
c. Forward spatter
d. Backward spatter
11. It is an absence of stains in an otherwise continuous bloodstain pattern.

a. Void
b. Null
c. Avoidable
d. Target
12. It is a surface upon which blood has been deposited.

a. Victim
b. Crime scene
c. Target
d. Void
13. It is a pointed or elongated stains which radiate away from the central area of a bloodstain.
a. Spine
b. Spin
c. Spoon
d. Escape
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14. It is the point where force encounters a source of blood.
a. Impact place
b. Impact scene
c. Impact site
d. Impact pattern
15. It is when blood travels in the same direction as the source of energy or force which caused the
spatter.
a. Flow pattern
b. Forward pattern
c. Forward spatter
d. Backward spatter
16. The following are the important information that the basic understanding of the principles can
reveal EXCEPT one.
a. Position of the victim
b. Position of the witness
c. The type of weapon that was used
d. The number of shots, blows and stabs
17. It is a tissue that is circulated within the body to assists other parts of the body.
a. Blood
b. Red blood cell
c. White blood cell
d. Cell
18. for a healthy person, approximately 8 % of their total weight is blood. For a 70 kg person, the
volume of his/her blood would be?
a. About 4.5 liters
b. About 6.5 liters
c. About 5.6 liters
d. About 9 liters
19. What is the average blood volume of male and female?

a. 5 to 6 liters, 4 to 5 liters
b. 6 to 7 liters, 5 to 6 liters
c. 7 to 8 liters, 6 to 7 liters
d. 8 to 9 liters, 7 to 8 liters
20. What are the three stain groups?

a. Passive, projected, and drip
b. Projected, passive, and flow
c. Transfer/contact, passive, and drip
d. Passive, projected, and transfer/contact
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21. It is a passive stain created when the force of gravity is acting on it. It’s drops created or formed
by the force of gravity acting alone.
a. Passive pattern
b. Passive drop
c. Passive drip
d. Passive bloodstain
22. It is a change in shape and direction of a bloodstain due to the influence of gravity or movement
of the object.
a. Flow pattern
b. Right pattern
c. Backward pattern
d. Bloodstain pattern
23. When is projected bloodstains are created?

a. When the blood is exposed to gravity.
b. When the blood is exposed to a force.
c. When the blood is moved onto a source in an unstained surface.
d. When the exposed blood is subjected to an action or force.
24. It is a bloodstain pattern created when an object movers through an existing stain, removing
and/or alternating its appearance.
a. Projected bloodstain
b. Wipe pattern
c. Swipe pattern
d. Transfer bloodstain
25. This gap is a result of the velocity classifications having grown out of the blood stains found at
crime scenes that have limited causes.
a. Gap between the medium-speed and high-speed velocities.
b. Gap between the medium-speed and high-speed force.
c. Gap between the low-speed and high-speed velocities.
d. Gap between the low-speed and high-speed force.
26. What stains are produced by an external force less than 5 feet per second (normal gravity)?
a. High velocity stains
b. Medium velocity stains
c. Low velocity stains
27. When a droplet of blood strikes a surface perpendicular (90 degrees) the resulting bloodstain will
be?
a. Circular
b. Perpendicular
c. Tear-drop shape
d. Elongated
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28. What blood spatter is produce when an external force is greater than 100 feet per second and the
stains tend to be less than 1 mm?
a. Large velocity blood spatter
b. Medium velocity blood spatter
c. Low velocity blood spatter
d. High velocity blood spatter
29. It is often found at a crime scene where blunt or sharp instruments were used as the weapons of
attack.
a. Arterial spurts
b. Weapon cast-off
c. Weapon play-off
d. Weapon spurts
30. It is sometimes referred to as a mist.

a. Large velocity blood spatter
b. Medium velocity blood spatter
c. Low velocity blood spatter
d. High velocity blood spatter
Chapter 17
1) DNA finger printing was developed by
a) Francis Crick
b) Khorana
c) Alec Jeffrey
d) James Watson
2) The technique to distinguish the individuals based on their DNA print patterns is called
a) DNA fingerprinting
b) DNA profiling
c) Molecular fingerprinting
d) All of these
3) DNA finger printing relies on

a) Difference in patterns of genes between individuals
b) Difference in order of genes between individuals
c) Difference in junk DNA patterns between individuals
d) All of these
4) Variable Number Tandem Repeats or Minisatellites are

a) 10-40 bp sized short sequences within the genes
b) Short coding repetitive regions on the eukaryotic genome
c) Short Non-coding repetitive sequences present throughout the chromosome
d) Are regions of chromosomes after secondary constriction
5) Each individual has a unique DNA fingerprint as individuals differ in

a) number of minisatellites on chromosome
b) location of minisatellites on chromosome
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c) size of minisatellites on chromosome
d) all of these
6) DNA profiling is used

a) In Forensic studies and in cases of disputed parentage
b) In pedigree analysis and to study migration pattern
c) To confirm cell line identity
d) All of these
7) The DNA fingerprint pattern of a child is

a) Exactly similar to that of both of the parents
b) 100% similar to the father’s DNA print
c) 100% similar to the mother’s DNA print
d) 50% bands similar to father and rest similar to mother
8) DNA fingerprinting relies on identifying specific

a) coding sequences
b) non-coding sequences
c) both a and b
d) promoters
9) Which of the following is true regarding minisatellites

a) a tract of repetitive DNA
b) individuals vary in size, number and location of these minisatellites
c) also called as VNTRs
d) all of these
10) DNA is the short term for

a) Deoxyribonucleic acid
b) Deoxyribonucliec acid
c) Deoxyribonucleic analysis
d) Deoxyribonucliec analysis
11) DNA is the fundamental building block for an individual’s entire genetic make up.
a) True
b) False
12) Fraternal twins have the same DNA composition.

a) True
b) False
13) Identical twins have identical DNA and Fingerprints.

a) True
b) False
14) Genotype is the make-up of the genes, that is, the DNA itself.
a) True
b) False
15) Phenotype Analysis tests based on what is expressed by the DNA.

a) True
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b) False
16) Using DNA testing, experts could tell when the suspect was at the crime scene or for how.
a) True
b) False
17) The father’s sperm contributes to the mitochondrial DNA of the child.
a) True
b) False
18) The nuclear DNA of the child if both from the mother and the father.
a) True
b) False
19) It is one of the original applications of DNA analysis to forensic investigation, this technique is used
to see by what degree homologous DNA varies from one another.
a) VNTR
b) PCR
c) RFLP
d) STR Analysis
20) This is used to make millions of extra copies of DNA.

a) VNTR
b) PCR
c) RFLP
d) STR Analysis
21) This technology is used to evaluate specific regions (loci) within a nuclear DNA
a) VNTR
b) PCR
c) RFLP
d) STR Analysis
22) This is used to examine the DNA from samples that cannot be analyzed by RFLP or STR.
a) Mitochondrial DNA Analysis
b) Y-Chromosome Analysis
c) PCR
d) VNTR
23) Which of the following is not a source of DNA from for evidence?
a) Sweat
b) Saliva
c) Both a and b
24) All mothers have the same mitochondrial DNA as their daughters.
a) True
b) False
25) Which of the following is especially useful for tracing relationships among males or for analyzing
biological evidence involving multiple male contributors.
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a) Mitochondrial DNA Analysis
b) Y-Chromosome Analysis
c) PCR
d) STR
26) Which of the following should not be done to avoid contamination of evidence?
a) Wear gloves
b) Put evidences in plastic bags
c) Use disposable instruments or clean them thoroughly before and after each sample.
d) Avoid talking.
27) This is the study of the chemical substances and vital processes occurring in living organisms.
a) Biology
b) Biochemistry
c) Molecular biology
d) Chemistry
28) This is the field of biology that studies the composition, structure and interactions of cellular
molecules – such as nucleic acids and proteins – that carry out the biological processes essential for
the cell's functions and maintenance.
a) Biology
b) Biochemistry
c) Molecular biology
d) Chemistry
29) CODIS uses how many specific STR regions?

a) 10
b) 19
c) 13
d) 16
30) CODIS is
a) Is an electronic database for DNA profiles
b) Is an electronic database for fingerprints
c) Is a government database for blood evidences
d) Is a government database for physical evidences
Chapter 18
1. _____________ is the application of plant evidence to the resolution of legal questions in a criminal or
civil case.
a. Forensic botany
b. Botany
c. Forensic palynology
d. Forensic limnology
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2. ______________field of forensic botany which is the study of pollen and powdered minerals, their
identification, and when and where they occur to ascertain that a body or other object was in a certain
place at a certain time.
a. Systematics
b. Forensic science
c. Forensic dendrochronology
d. Forensic palynology
3. ______________ is the study of tree rings.

A. Biology
B. Dendrochronology
C. Systematics
D. Tree systematics
4. ______________ is a principle which states that criminal always leaves something at the crime scene or
takes something away.
a. Contact Traces principle
b. Investigative Forensics Principle
c. Linking Evidence Principle
d. Botanical Evidence Principle
5. _______________ is a discipline that concerns the study of inland waters.

a. Immunology
b. Toxicology
c. Limnology
d. Dendrochronology
6. _______________ case marked the first time plant DNA has been admitted into evidence in a criminal
court in the US.
a. Dendrona Case
b. Maricopa Case
c. Bascon Case
d. Mandalo Case
7. ________________ is a branch of science which deals with nature, effects and detection of poisons.
a. Toxicology
b. Limnology
c. Coniumology
d. Venomology
8. ________________ pollen grains and spores that fall on a particular site.

a. Pollen rain
b. Sporain
c. Fallen Pollen
d. Falling grain
9. ________________these plants are also called self-pollinating plants.

a. Zoogamous
b. Autogamous
c. Heterogamous
d. Hernogamous
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10. ________________these plants are also called animal-pollinated plants.
a. Zoogamous
b. Heterogamous
c. Hernogamous
d. Autogamous
(5 points)
Choose 5 among the 9 given sub disciplines of plant science which Forensic Botany encompasses?
a. Palynology
b. Astronomy
c. dendrochronology
d. limnology
e. Systematics
f. molecular biology
g. Astrophysics
h. Meteorology
i. Metaphysics
(3 points)
Choose at least 3 correct uses of plant evidence in forensic botany in the given choices:
a. destroy an alibi
b. help determine time since death
c. Help determine when was the suspect born
d. tell where someone or something has been
e. Tell the intent of the suspect
1. Toxicology is the branch of science which deals with the nature, effects and detection of poisons.
a. True
b. False
c. Neither true nor false
2. Pollens can never be used as evidence in a criminal or civil case.
a. True
b. False
3. Plant evidence is always not admissible in court as evidence.
a. True
b. False
4. Treecology is the study of tree rings.
a. True
b. False
5. Contact Traces Principle is a principle which states that criminal always leaves something at the crime
scene or takes something away.
a. True
b. False
6. Palynology is the study of plants.
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a. True
b. False
7. Techniques in forensic botany can establish relationship or lack of one between victim, suspect and crime
scene.
a. True
b. False
8. Hair, dirt and mud can be source of pollen evidence.
a. True
b. False
9. Knowledge on plant succession can help investigators identify hidden graves.
a. True
b. False
10. Limnology is the study of inland waters.
a. True
b. False
Which among the choices are the correct definition of forensic botany.
Choose 2.
a. Forensic botany is the use of plants or plant matter to assist investigators with solving
crime.
b. Forensic botany is the non-scientific use of plant materials to help solve crimes.
c. Forensic botany is the study of plant life in order to gain information regarding possible
crimes.
Chapter 19
1. Define Forensic Entomology.
2. Give an example of its legal Investigation.
3. What are the three areas of Forensic Entomology?
4. What area in forensic entomology that focuses on violent crimes?
5. Other term of determination of the time?
6. Discuss Urban Entomology.
7. Stored Product Insects commonly found in what?
8. The year when the field of medicocriminal Entomology was professionalized.
9. In what centuries where forensic history had played a part in some very major cases?
10. Give two (2) main ways of using insects to determine elapsed time since death.
11. What is the principal role played by medicolegal or Medicocriminal Entomologists?
12. How does Entomological evidence can show attempt to conceal or moving the body?
13. How does Entomological evidence show the environmental temperature or condition?
14. How does entomological evidence can show if the victim was poisoned before death?
15. In using insect evidence what other presence being determined?
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16. How entomology evidence can help recover and identify the blood meals taken by blood feeding
insects?
17. What are the three (3) crimes in which Entomological Evidence can help determine
circumstances surrounding the crime committed?
18. In what crime does the does the first report where an examination of the maggot fauna on a
person illustrated?
19. What are the two main insect groups on bodies?
20. In collection Entomological evidence, what is the first thing to be supposedly conducted?
21. Why adult flies and beetles are the insects that should be collected from the body at the scene?
22. What are maggots?
23. Flies can be found as what?
24. What are the first group of insects that usually arrive within 24 hours of death?
25. What is the primary purpose of forensic Entomology today?
26. He demonstrated knowledge of blow fly activity on bodies relative to those orifices infested, and
who wrote a book entitled “The washing away of wrongs” in which forensic science was known
at that time.
27. In what country does Forensic Entomology is now a board specialty?
28. What important thing that must be placed in every collected specimen?
29. What is the very important factor in limitations of forensic entomology?
30. What are the three ways in disposing body which may exclude insects?
Answers:
1. A branch of science that deals with the study of insects.

2. The time of death.
3. Medicocriminal, Urban and stored product insects.
4. Medicolegal or Medicocriminal Forensic Entomology.
5. (PMI) Post Mortem Interval
6. Branch of forensic Entomology that deals with the legal proceeding involving insects and related
animals that affects manmade structures.
7. Foodstuffs
8. 1996
9. 19th and 20th centuries
10. Using successional waves of insects/Using Maggots age and development
11. Identifying Arthropods accurately
12. When some flies prefer specific habitat such as a distinct preference for laying their eggs in
outdoor or indoor environment
13. When freezing and wrapping the body
14. When the voracious appetite of the insects on corpse can quickly skeletonized the remains
15. The presence of drugs
16. With the use of DNA technology
17. Sexual assault and Rape, Child abuse, and abuse of elderly
18. Child abuse or neglect crime
19. Flies (diptera) and beetles (Coleoptora)
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20. Scene observation and weather data
21. Because these insects are fast moving and can leave the crime scene rapidly once disturbed
22. An insect that looks like a small worn and that is a young form of a fly
23. Eggs; pupae and or empty pupal cases
24. Calliphoridae (blowflies) and Muscidae (houseflies)
25. Is to determine elapsed time since death
26. Sung Tzu
27. United States of America
28. Label
29. The temperature
30. By freezing, burial, and wrapping
Chapter 20
1. Which of the following pertains to the investigation of materials, products, structures or

components that fail or do not operate/function as intended?
A. Forensic Engineering C. Research Analysis
B. DNA Testing D. Data Processing
2. All except one is TRUE about Forensic Engineering. Which statement is it?
A. It only involves preparation of engineering reports and testimony at hearings.
B. It is the application of the art and science of engineering in the jurisprudence system.
C. Its main purpose is the determination of persons liable for a crime.
D. Any legally qualified professional can be a Forensic Engineer.
3. What professional organization is formed in 1982, the purpose of which is to advance the art and
skill of engineers who serve as engineering consultants to members of the legal profession and as
expert witnesses in courts of law, arbitration proceedings and administrative adjudication
proceedings?
A. National Bureau of Investigation
B. Forensic Engineering Association
C. National Academy of Forensic Engineers
D. Academy of Forensic Engineering Scholars
4. In which aspect is Forensic Engineering applicable?

A. Fire and arson
B. Accident reconstructions
C. Injuries resulting from transportation accidents
D. All of the above
5. In what respect does forensic engineering and forensic investigation share a common ground?
A. Scene of the crime and scene of accident analysis
B. Integrity of the evidence and court appearances
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A nor B
6. Which is NOT true about the correlation that exist between forensic engineering and forensic
investigation?
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A. Both disciplines makes extensive use of optical and scanning electron microscopes.
B. They share common use of spectroscopy to examine critical evidence.
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A nor B
7. Upon the other hand, which statement effectively distinguishes the two disciplines?
A. Forensic Engineering makes use of infrared, ultraviolet and nuclear magnetic resonance;
Forensic Investigation, simple hand lens suffices.
B. Forensic Engineering is associated with civil courts; Forensic Investigation, criminal courts.
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A nor B
8. Why is there an increased emphasis on investigating the cause of failure of consumer items?
A. The firms are being sued more frequently about allegedly defective products.
B. Certain consumer items are the cause fires, explosions, air and rail crashes and other
important accidents or possible crimes.
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A nor B
9. Why do insurance companies employ the services of forensic engineers?

A. To prove liability or alternatively non liability
B. Most engineering disasters under an insurance policy are subject to investigation
C. Train derailments, aircraft crashes and some automobile accidents are investigated by
Forensic Engineers
D. All of the above
10. What does full services Forensic Engineering include?

A. Preparation of engineering reports and service as an expert witness in matters of
litigation
B. Analysis of suspected component failure in matters involving train derailments, aircraft
crashes, etc.
C. Objective investigation of conditions related to material, equipment or construction failures
and accidents
D. All of the above
11. In the civil engineering field, what does forensic engineers evaluate?
A. Structural and geotechnical failures
B. Construction defects
C. Vehicular accidents
D. All of the above
12. Which of the following are among the common areas of Forensic Science?
A. Crash Investigation and Reconstruction
B. Emissions, Air Transport and Chemistry Medical Services
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A nor B
13. Which sequence of early forensic engineering methods is arranged in chronological order?
I. Careful analysis of the service record of the component
II. Review of the loads carried
III. Record of temperatures suffered
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IV. Analysis of the microstructure of material used
V. Assessment of witness evidence
A. I, II, III, IV, V C. II, III, I, IV, V

B. V, IV, III, II, I D. III, I, IV, V, II
14. What method pertains to analysis of loads applied to bodies containing cracks?
A. Biomechanics C. Injury Causation
B. Fracture Mechanics D. Human Factors Engineering
15. When did fracture mechanics came to existence?

A. 1920s C. 1940s
B. 1930s D. 1950s
16. Who started it?

A. Griffith C. Griffin
B. Goff D. Adkins
17. What is the formula for fracture mechanics?

A. KJc = QȖfv\
B. KJc = fracture roughness x a function of material
C. KJc = fracture softness x function of material
D. None of the above
18. What does Q stand for in the formula?

A. Geometrical factor C. Quality
B. Quantity D. None of the above
19. How are fracture surfaces analyzed?

A. At magnifications of thousands to determine modes of failure, as well as the chemical
composition of key components of the microstructure
B. Through commercial scanning microscopes
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A nor B
20. When did commercial scanning electron microscopes become available?

A. 1950s C. 1970s
B. 1960s D. 1980s
21. Which of the following is an advantage of using commercial scanning electron microscopes?
A. Magnification from the 1-2000 of the optical microscope to 40-50000 and increased depth of
focus by a factor of about 300
B. Possibility to look at fracture surfaces, which will be too rough for optical examination
C. Examine polished sections at magnifications of more than 1000
D. All of the above
22. How does the scanning electron microscope operate?

A. By focusing a beam of electrons on a specimen, the point of focus being scanned line by
line over the specimen
B. By focusing the lens on the specimen, it becomes magnified
C. Both A and B
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D. Neither A nor B
23. Which of the following pertains to the determination by numerical mathematics of stresses,
temperature at all positions within a body, rather than analytical solution of simplified shapes?
A. Finite Element Analysis C. Scanning Electron Microscopes
B. Fracture Mechanics D. Forensic Engineering
24. Which method depends on dividing up of a body into discrete elements whivh may be triangles,
squares or other defined shapes?
B. Fracture Mechanics D. Forensic Engineering
25. When was the term “finite element” first used?

A. 1950s C. 1970s
B. 1960s D. 1980s
26. What method implies the use of numerical mathematics to determine effects of fluids on
components or structures?
B. Fracture Mechanics D. Computational Fluid Dynamics
27. Which method is based on breaking up a component or structure into a set of control volumes?
B. Fracture Mechanics D. Computational Fluid Dynamics
28. Which method pertains to the use of numerical and analytical codes and models to determine the
behavior of structures when hit by fast-moving projectiles?
A. Finite Element Analysis C. Impact Dynamics
B. Accident Reconstruction D. Scanning Electron Microscopes
29. Which method pertains to careful experimentation and reconstruction?

A. Finite Element Analysis C. Impact Dynamics
B. Accident Reconstruction D. Scanning Electron Microscopes
30. Which of the following are considered vital since experimental work in these areas can tend to be
difficult, expensive, or in some cases, illegal?
A. Modelling of Impact Events C. Scanning Electron Microscopes
B. Accident Reconstruction D. Impact Dynamics
Chapter 21
1. What are the three main types of firearms the crime scene investigator may be recovered?
Answer: Handguns, rifles, and machine guns are the three main types of
firearms.
2. What is a firearm?
Answer: It is a weapon that fires either single or multiple projectiles propelled at
high velocity by the gases produced through rapid, confined burning of a
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propellant.
3. What is deflagration?
Answer: It is the process of rapid, confined burning of a propellant.
4. What are the three common types of handguns?

Answer: The three common types of handguns are single-shot pistols, revolvers,
and semi-automatic pistols.
5. It has a single fixed firing chamber and a removable magazine so it can be used to fire several
shots, what is it?
Answer: Semi-automatic pistols
6. What is the difference between automatic pistol and automatic firearm?

Answer: An automatic pistol fires one shot per trigger pull, while an automatic
firearm such as a machine gun, fires as long as the trigger is held down.
7. Distinguish a revolver between a single-shot pistol.
8. It is also known as the cigarette gun, what is it?
9. Define a machine pistol.
10. Distinguish a long gun between a handgun.
11. What firearm is commonly used for hunting and often times used to defend a home or place of
business?
12. What firearm is the most common automatic rifle used by the Armed Forces of the Philippines?
Answer: M16 rifles
13. What are the four principal versions of M16 rifle?
14. It is an automatic firearm used almost exclusively by the military and often mounted on vehicles
or helicopters?
15. What is an ammunition?
16. In a forensic ballistic examination, what are the two important parts of a cartridge?
Answer: Casing and bullets are the two important parts of a cartridge.
17. The modern cartridge is made up of how many components? What are those components?
18. What is a bullet?
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Answer: It is a solid projectile propelled by a firearm and is normally made from
metal. It does not contain explosives, and damages its target by
imparting its kinetic energy upon impact.
19. What is a casing or brass?

Answer: It is the part of a cartridge that contains the gunpowder charge, the
primer, and the bullet.
20. What is a gunpowder?

Answer: It is a substance that burns very rapidly, releasing gases that acts as a
propellant in firearms.
21. What us a percussion cap or primer?

Answer: It is needed to make firearms that could fire in any weather. It is small,
disposable copper or brass cup, 4 to 6 mm in diameter.
22. What are the types of bullets?

Answer: Full metal jacket bullet, hollow point bullet, and 0.338 lapua bullet.
23. What bullet is a specialized rimless centerfire cartridge developed for sniper rifles and is used for
long-range shooting?
Answer: 0.338 Lapua
24. It is an ammunition storage and feeding device within or attached to a firearm, what is it?
Answer: Magazine or “mag”
25. Why is the force and momentum delivered to the target cannot be any more than that on the
shooter?
Answer: Because the force and momentum on the bullet is equal to that on the
gun-shooter system.
26. What does the law of conversion of momentum states?

Answer: It states that a force on the bullet is equal to that on the gun-shooter
assuming the gun and the shooter are at rest.
27. What is the formula for the velocity of the gun/shooter?

Answer: V = mv/M, where V is the velocity, m is the mass of the bullet, v is the
velocity of bullet, and M is the combined mass of the gun and shooter.
28. The ratio of the energy is the same as the ratio of the masses. True or false.
Answer: True
29. What is used to prevent a bullet from penetrating into the body?
Answer: Bulletproof vest
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30. What is the study of the behavior of a projectile when it hits its target and is a sub-field of
ballistics?
Answer: Terminal Ballistics
CHAPTERS 22
1. Refers to the science of the travel of a projectile in flight; and the flight path of a
bullet includes the travel down the barrel, the path through the air, and the path
through the target. It is the science or art of designing and hurling projectiles so as
to achieve a desired performance.
a. paraffin wax test c. ballistics
b. paraffin examination d. forensic science
2. Ballistics is the science that deals with the motion, behavior, and effects of
projectiles, especially to:
a. bullets c. rockets
b. gravity bombs d. all the above
3. A ballistic body is a body which is free to move, behave, and be modified in

appearance, contour, or texture by ambient conditions, substances, or forces, as by
the pressure of gases in a gun, by any of the following, except:
a. rifling in a barrel c. by temperature
b. by rain drops d. by air particles
4. Separate from ballistics information, these examinations involve analyzing firearm,

ammunition, and tool mark evidence in order to establish whether a certain firearm
or tool was used in the commission of a crime.
a. paraffin examinations c. firearm and weapons examinations
b. ballistics mark examinations d. firearm and tool mark examinations
5. The areas of ballistics include the following, except:

a. temporary ballistics c. transition ballistics
b. external ballistics d. initial or internal ballistics
6. These are the actions of the projectile within a gun. It is the study of the processes
originally accelerating the projecticle, for example the passage of a bullet through
the barrel of a rifle:
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a. terminal ballistics c. transition ballistics
7. These are the actions of the projectile in the air. It is the study of the passage of the
projectile through space or the air:
a. terminal ballistics c. transition ballistics
8. It is the force behind the bullet which accelerates it forward, and the quantity and
type of this affects the initial energy of the projectile.
a. pellets c. gunpowder
b. bullets d. gun residue
9. These are typically low-energy weapons with muzzle velocities less than 1400 feet
per second:
a. handguns c. rifles
b. shotguns d. none of the above
10. The most frequently used handguns (firearms) in gunshot injuries, except one, are
of three basic types as follows:
a. single-shot pistols c. semiautomatics
b. revolvers d. rifles
11. These weapons fire a missile which consists of a fuse of hundreds of pellets with
muzzle velocities of 1,000 to 1,500 feet per second:
a. handguns c. rifles
b. shotguns d. none of the above
12. An example of a handgun is:

a. .45 caliber c. M16
b. .20 gauge d. AK47
13. An example of a rifle is:

a. .38 caliber c. M16
b. .20 gauge d. 9 mm
14. Procedures used to detect and evaluate Gunshot Residue (GSR) on a suspect’s hand
have become more sensitive and sophisticated, able to detect minute traces of the
compounds in GSR, such as:
a. antimony c. lead
b. barium d. all of the above
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15. The Detection of Primer Residues which is presently the most common method used
to test for residue on the suspect by swabbing the individual’s hand, has the
following major methods, except:
a. neutron activation analysis (NAA)
b. atomic absorption spectrophotometry (AAS)
c. scanning electron microscopy with energy dispersive analysis (SEM-EDA)
d. none of the above
16. This has become an excellent method for detection of gunshot residue from among
the three methods of the Detection of Primer Residues:
a. neutron activation analysis (NAA)
b. atomic absorption spectrophotometry (AAS)
c. scanning electron microscopy with energy dispersive analysis (SEM-EDA)
17. When a rifled weapon is discharged, the rifling produces marks on the bullet as it
passes down the barrel. Some markings have the so-called “class characteristics”
indicative of the make and model of the firearm. Which of the following is not a
class characteristic?
a. diameter of land and grooves
b. imperfections of lands (most pronounced in jacketed bullets)
c. number of land and grooves
d. depth of grooves
18. When a rifled weapon is discharged, the rifling produces marks on the bullet as it
passes down the barrel. Some markings have the so-called “individual
characteristics” which reflect imperfections peculiar to a particular firearm and may
allow its specific identification. Which of the following is not an individual
characteristic?
a. diameter of lands and grooves
b. imperfections of lands (most pronounced in jacketed bullets)
c. imperfections of grooves (most pronounced in lead bullets)
d. type of breech blocking marking.
19. This is another type of examination used to identify gun oils in targets, and is very
sensitive with stored specimens:
a. ferrozine spray c. latent fingerprints
b. gas chromatography d. laboratory examination
20. Which among the list below is not among the twelve (12) parameters used by a
system that has also been described for identification of jacketed sporting rifle
bullets?
a. identification number
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b. manufacturer
c. cartridge
d. bullet base
Chapter 23
1. Which is not part of the newly discovered pieces of evidence that were not available during the
2nd trial in the double murder case of late Sen. Aquino and Rolando Galman?
a. Independent forensic evidence uncovering the false forensic claims
b. Key defense eye witness to the actual killing
c. All of the above
2. In the same case, all are grave violations of the due process, except:
a. insufficient legal assistance of counsel
b. lack of evidence from forensic examination
c. right to counsel of choice
3. in the same case, all are prayers of the petitioners, except:
a. annulling and setting aside Resolution dated July 23, 1991 and Sept 10, 1991.
b. Ordering the reopening of the case
c. Ordering the Sandiganbayan to not allow the reception of additional defense evidence.
4. A new trial or reconsideration is granted except:
a. At any time before the judgement of a conviction becomes final
b. On motion of the accused
c. The court’s own instance but with the consent of the accused
d. After the judgement has become final and executory
5. The court has repeatedly held that before a new trial may be granted on he ground of newly
discovered evidence it must show, except:
a. Evidence was discovered after trial
b. Such evidence could not have been discovered or produced at the trial even with the exercise
of reasonable diligence
c. That it is immaterial, commulative and corroborative
d. Evidence of such weight it could probably change the judgement if admitted
6. Courts are generally reluctant in granting motions for new trialon the grpund of newly discovered
evidence because
a. It is presumed that the moving party has had ample opportunity to prepare his caseand
secure all necessary evidence
b. It is time consuming and requires much effort and resources
c. The judgement is already final and executory
7. Grounds for granting a new trial, except:
a. Errors of law or irregularities during trial
b. Newly discovered evidence
8. What was the motion filed by the petitioners in the double murder case of Sen. Aquino and
Galman?
a. Motion to quash
b. Motion to reopen case with leave of court
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9. The threshold question in resolving a motion for new trial based on newly discovered evidence is
whether:
a. The evidence is acceptable and recognized by the court
b. Newly discovered evidence which could not have been discovered by due diligence
c. Newly discovered evidence follows the terms and condition set forth by the court
10. The question of whether the evidence is newly discovered has two aspects, except:
a. Temporal one
b. Predictive one
c. Elective one
11. Below are components of due diligence except:

a. Time component
b. Venue component
c. Good faith component
12. Due diligence is equated to:

a. Meticulous screening of the newly discovered evidence
b. Reasonable promptness to avoid prejudice to the defendant
c. Completeness of the newly found evidence
13. In the double murder case of Aquino and Galman, the report of the forensic group may not be
considered as newly discovered evidence:
a. Petitioners failed to show that it was impossible for them to secure an independent
forensic study
b. Petitioners failed to present the new evidence in a timely manner
c. Petitioners failed to carefully differentiate the newly discovered evidence from the evidence
of the previous trials
14. – 15. Below are the materials and methods used in the double murder case if Aquino and Galman
except:
a. Court records of the case
b. Gun and live ammunitions
c. Statement of the media
d. Results of forensic experiment
e. Review of forensic exhibit
f. X-ray of the skull of Kris Aquino
16. What caused the fracture of the occipital bone, temporal and parietal bone of the late Sen.
Benigno Aquino Jr. when he was shot?
a) Gravitational Force
b) Frictional Force
c) Kinetic Force
d) Potential Force
17. According to Dr. Solis what was the bullet trajectory that caused Sen. Benigno Aquino Jr.’s
death?
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a) Downward
b) Upward
c) Horizontal
d) Vertical Midline
18. Radiation of Forces produces what is known as the __________________ which goes to
different parts of the body.
a) Deformed Hoop Fracture
b) Indented Fracture
c) Penetrating Fracture
d) Spider Web Linear Fracture
19. The flight path of a Projectile

a) Low Velocity
b) Caliber of a Bullet
c) Force
d) Trajectory
20. Which of the following does ballistics NOT help explain?

a) No. of bullets fired
b) Caliber of the bullet
c) Location of the shooter
d) The angle of the bullet’s impact on a target
21. What is the study of bullets and firearms?

a) Gun Shot Analysis
b) Ballistics
c) Paraffin Test
d) DNA Analysis
22. This moves only under the influence of gravity and possibly atmospheric friction.
a) Ballistic Missile
b) Ballistic Resistance
c) Ballistic Testing
d) Ballistic Trajectory
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23. The type of firearm used in a crime can usually be identified by the bullet or by the casings
left at the scene.
a) False
b) True
c) Only for revolvers
d) Only for shotguns
24. Unique set of markings on a bullet fired from a weapon.

a) Striations
b) External Ballistics
c) Gunshot Powder
d) Gunshot Residue
25. Which of the following will cause the highest degree of damage at an entry site?
a) High caliber bullet
b) Low caliber bullet
c) Low velocity bullet
d) High velocity bullet
26. Which of the following is NOT necessary to know to determine the location of a shooter at a
crime scene?
a) Height of the shooter
b) Height of the victim
c) Angle of impact
d) Distance of the shooter
27. Tool used to compare striations of fired bullets.

a) Scanning Electron microscope
b) Compound Microscope
c) Comparison Microscope
d) Transmission Electron Microscope
28. Which of the following would external ballistics be most likely to study?
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a) Striation Markings
b) Powder Tattoo Patterns
c) Extractor Markings
d) Bullet Trajectory
29. The single most important tool for a firearm examiner is :

a) Gun Range
b) Gun Powder
c) Microscopes
d) Computerized Imaging
30. A new trial will only be allowed if :

a) the New Evidence is Cumulative
b) the New Evidence is Corroborative
c) the New Evidence is Recently Sought
d) the Evidence is Newly Discovered
Chapter 24
1. It is a scientific test that collects physiological data from a person with a purpose of detecting
reactions associated with dishonesty?
a. Polygraph Examinations
b. Minigraph Examinations
c. Monograph Examinations
d. All of the above
2. At least how many systems in the human body are recoded during polygraph examinations?
a. At least three
b. Atleast two
c. Atleast one
d. All of the Above
3. According to Wikipedia, what is the other term for polygraph test?
a. Physiological Detection of Deception

b. Psychological Detection of Perception
c. Physiological Protection of Perception
d. All of the above
4. A device use to measure the records several physiological variables such as blood pressures, heart
rate, respiration and skin conductivity, while a series of questions are being ask?
a. Polygraph
b. Minigraph
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c. Monograph
d. All of the above
5. How many phases are conducted during the conduct of the professional polygraph test?
a. 3 phases
b. 2 phases
c. 4 phases
d. None of the choices
6. Physiological Variables that are being recorded in the conduct of polygraph examinations?
a. Heart Rate
b. Blood pressure
c. Either a or b
7. In what phase in the polygraph examinations the examiner will complete the required paperwork
and discuss the test questions so that the examine fully understand each questions in advance in
taking the polygraph?
a. Pretest Phase
b. In test
c. Post Test
8. Other term of chart collection Phase?

a. In Test Phase
b. Pre test
c. Post test
9. This is being attached to the persons being ask by the polygraph examiners during the questioning
of yes or no that are previously discuss?
a. Sensors
b. Eyeglass
c. BP Kit
10. What other conventional instruments the polygraph examiners may use aside from sensors?
a. Analog Instruments and computerized Polygraph Instruments
b. Computerized polygraph instruments
c. Both a or b
11. This third phase, the examiners will analyze the chart and will render the opinion as to the
truthfulness of the persons taking the test?
a. Post test
b. In test
c. Pre test
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12. What is the principal use of the polygraph examinations?

a. To protect the public by verifying the truth
b. To determine the deceptions
c. A and b
13. Common uses of polygraph examinations?

a. Criminal matter
b. Civil Matter
c. Administrative Matter
d. Both a or b
14. This is the examiners trying to establish a baseline for a known lie?
a. Control Questions
b. Uncontrolled questions
c. Intimidating questions
15. This means that insufficient Data is available for the examiner to render the definitive opinion of
deception or no deceptions?
a. Inclusive
b. No Opinion
c. A and b
16. When the false positive does occurs?

a. When the truthful examinee is reported as truthful
b. When the truthful examinee is reported as lie
c. A or b
17. Errors are usually referred to?

a. False Positive
b. False Negative
c. All of the above
18. In a specific issue during the polygraph examination, where does the relevant questions focused?
a. Focused on the particular act of investigations
b. Questions can be varied
c. All of the above
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19. This institutions had been contesting almost from the start of this polygraph or lie detecting devise
and found out that most of the polygraph research are low quality?
a. National Academy of Sciences
b. National Science Institute
c. Institute of National Academy
d. Science of National Academy
20. Does the personal and intrusive question be allowed during the conduct of polygraph examinations?
a. NO
b. Yes
c. Either a or b
d. Both a or b
21. Areas wherein examiners are not allowed to inquire during pre-employment and periodic
employment examinations?
a. Religious beliefs
b. Affiliations Regarding Racial Matters
c. A and b
22. In a law enforcement, pre-employment polygraph examinations, where does the questions focused?
a. On Job Related Inquiries
b. Any issues
c. All of the above
23. What are the usual cause of the polygraph errors?

a. Misreading Of the physiological data on the polygraph chart
b. Incompetent examiners
c. All of the above
24. In most of the research conducted using polygraph test, which usually occurs frequently?
a. False Negative
b. False Positive
c. True Negative
d. True Positive
25. Test involve in the polygraph examinations?

a. Pretest
b. In Test
c. Post Test
d. All of the above
26. In the polygraph test examinations, how is the elecrodemal test is being recorded?
a. By placing the two small attachment to the fingers of the hand
b. By placing the stethoscope in the chest
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c. By placing the small attachment in the head
27. What is the other term for elecrodermal?

a. Sweat Gland
b. Salivary Gland
c. Endocrine gland
28. The other term for polygraph test?

a. Lie Detector Test
b. Truth Detector test
c. Lie Detractor Test
d. Truth Detractor Test
29. In polygraph examination, how is respiratory activity being monitored?

a. By placing a rubber tube across the examinees chest
b. By placing the small attachment in the head
c. By placing the stethoscope in the chest
30. In the polygraph examinations, how is the cardio vascular activity collected?
a. By Blood pressures cuff or similar devise
b. By placing the stethoscope in the chest
c. By Paling the small attachment in the chest
Chapter 25
1. It refers to the public gathering places in Rome where judicial process took place in
form of debates.
a) Forensis
b) Forensic
c) Foreign
d) Forensia
2. It is the application of psychological principles and knowledge to questions and issues

relating to law and various legal activities.
a) Forensic Psychology
b) Forensic Science
c) Forensic Psychiatry
d) Forensic Criminology
3. Key tasks undertaken by forensic psychologists include the following except

a) Interrogate criminal suspects
b) Modifying offender behavior
c) Reducing stress for staff and prisoners
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d) Advising parole boards
4. The term forensic psychology is also used to refer investigative and criminal
psychology. The following are aspects of criminal psychology except
a) Training of police officers
b) Applying psychological theory to criminal investigation
c) Understanding psychological problems associated with criminal behavior
d) Treatment of criminals
5. Forensic psychologists can be employed in a variety of settings including the

following except
a) Law practice
b) Prisons
c) College
d) Rehabilitation centers
6. The following are qualifications of practitioners in forensic psychiatry except

a) Law degree
b) General psychiatry residency training
c) One to three years fellowship training in forensic psychiatry
d) MD License
7. In the treatment of offenders, forensic psychologists are responsible for the

development of appropriate programs for rehabilitation. The following are trainings
and activities they may recommend except
a) Fellowship training
b) Social and cognitive skills training
c) Treatment for drug/and or alcohol addiction
d) Anger management
8. This is refers to the defendant’s mental capacity to understand the charges against him
and assist his attorney in his defense
a) Competency to Stand Trial
b) Competency to Stay in Trial
c) Fitness to Stay True
d) Fitness to Stay in Court
9. In the civil law area, forensic psychologists often provide assessments of whether
someone has been harmed by some event. Which of the following illustrates this
statement?
a) In injury suits, they assess emotional injuries suffered by someone who has been
injured in an accident
b) Help courts decide sex-offenders are likely to re-offend
c) Provide analysis of intentions, motivations and personality characteristics of the
accused
d) Offer counseling to juveniles on probation
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10. What incidents of psychotherapy and counseling to families are referred to
psychologists and psychiatrists by the court?
a) Parent-child family counseling
b) Parenting skills training
c) Anger management
d) All of the above
11. Opinion of the forensic psychiatrist that determines whether a defendant was able at
the time of the crime, to understand what he was doing.
a) Mental State Opinion
b) Expert Opinion
c) Expert Witness Testimony
d) False Testimony
12. What are the two major areas of criminal evaluations that psychologists and
psychiatrists useful for?
a) Competency to Stand Trial (CST) & Mental State at the Time of the Offense
(MSO)
b) Domestic Violence & Deviant Behavior
c) Criminal Behavior & Criminal Desistance
d) Addiction & Rehabilitation
13. Psychiatrists who assist prosecutors, defenders, and law enforcement investigators in
understanding a range of normal and criminal behaviors are also referred to as
a) Criminal Minds
b) Criminal Profilers
c) Criminal Masters
d) Criminal Machine
14. The DSM IV is a manual published by the American Psychiatric Association and is
typically considered the “bible” for any professional who makes psychiatric
diagnoses. What does DSM stand for?
a) Diagnostic and Statistical Manual
b) Diagnostic and Standards Manual
c) Diagnostic and Status Manual
d) Diagnostic and Stimulus Manual
15. The DSM uses a multiaxial or multidimensional approach to diagnosing a person’s

mental health. Which of the following is not one of the five dimensions assessed by
the DSM?
a) Clinical Syndromes
b) Developmental Disorders and Personality
c) Physical Conditions
d) Severity of Psychosocial Stressors
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16. What does the forensic psychologists or psychiatricts assess about when they are
called upon in a Family Court?
a) The “best interests” of children whose parents are divorcing
b) The “emotional stress” of children whose parents are divorcing
c) The anxiety and depression of children
d) All of the above
17. A potential outcome in trials where the intent to do a criminal act and the
understanding that it was a criminal act by the defendant bear on the final
disposition of the case.
a) Not guilty by reason of insanity
b) Insanity plea
c) Both a) & b)
18. The following are true of psychologists in the family law arena as in family courts in
the Philippines except
a) They are appointed as “special masters” by the Court, and are charged with
making both recommendations and orders for the case of children in disputed
custody situations
b) They serves as a mediator between divorced parents who remain in disoute about
the needs and interests of their children.
c) They involve in making recommendations to a Court with respect to child custody
arrangements
d) All of the above
19. Psychologists and psychiatrists provide work with criminal courts. They are
involved in the processing of a crime scene in the following cases except
a) Assessment of the extent of emotional injuries suffered by someone who has been
injured in an accident or who witnessed a traumatic event
b) Analysis of intentions, motivations, and personality characteristics of the accused
in death penalty cases
c) Give opinion or report relevant to questions of criminal insanity and trial
competence
d) Provide recommendations on sentencing, probation grants and formulation of
parole conditions
20. The following are examples of psychological stressors in a person’s life that has
impact on his mental health except
a) Social phobia
b) Death of a loved one
c) Starting a new career
d) Marriage
21. The word “forensic” comes from the Latin word “forensis” which means
a) Of the forum
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b) Of the board
c) Of the mind
d) Of the attitude
22. How do psychologists provide forensic services?

a) When one provides a report for the court, regarding the extent of the trauma, and
assesses the psychological damage incurred.
b) When one treats an individual who was emotionally traumatized by an accident.
c) When one is devoted to psychological aspects of legal processes in courts.
d) When one interrogates criminal suspects and solves crimes.
23. In Civil Court cases, psychologists or psychiatrists also provide psychotherapy and
counseling to individuals for the following problems, except:
a) Juvenile Waiver Evaluations
b) Post Traumatic Stress Disorder
c) Desensitization
d) Anger Management
24. How many dimensions of a person’s mental health are assessed in diagnosis
according to the DSM IV?
a) 5
b) 4
c) 3
d) 6
25. This is the final axis in the multiaxial approach to diagnosing mental health where
the clinician rates the person’s level of functioning both at the present time and the
highest level within the previous year.
a) Highest Level of Functioning
b) Clinical Syndromes
c) Physical Conditions
d) Severity of Psychosocial Stressors
26. Clinical syndromes which have a more long lasting symptoms and encompass the
individual’s way of interacting with the world
a) Personality Disorders
b) Development Disorders
c) Clinical Syndromes
d) Anxiety
27. They are appointed as “special masters” by the Court and are charged with making
both recommendations and orders for the case of children in disputed custody
situations.
a) Forensic psychologist or psychiatrists
b) Therapists
c) Educational psychologists
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d) Clinical psychiatrist
28. In support of prison staff, the following services are provided by forensic
psychologists except
a) Anger management
b) How to cope and understand bullying
c) Techniques hostage negotiation
d) Stress management
29. Forensic psychiatrists work with courts in the following aspects except
a) Defining various crimes and corresponding penalties
b) Evaluating an individual’s competence to stand trial
c) Assessing an individual’s insanity defense
d) Making sentencing recommendations
30. Disorders that are typically first evident in chilhood such as Autism and Mental
retardation.
a) Personality Disorders
b) Development Disorders
c) Clinical Syndromes
d) Anxiety
Chapter 26
1. It is a class of mental disorders that are characterized by long-lasting rigid patterns of thought
and behavior.
a. Personality Disorder b. Mental disorder
c. Psychological Disorder d. Behavioral disorder
2. Patterns, such as these can cause serious problems and impairment of persons who are afflicted
with these disorder.
a. Inflexibility and pervasiveness b. Impatience and paranoia
c. Obsessive and Compulsive d. None of the above
3. It tend to be an integral part of a person, and therefore, are difficult to treat or cure.
4. It is a disorder that cannot be diagnosed until the age of 18.

5. Which of these cluster does paranoid personality disorder belongs?

a. Odd or eccentric disorder b. Dramatic, emotional, or erratic disorders
c. Anxious or fearful disorder d. None of the above
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6. Which of these cluster does schizoid personality disorder belongs?
7. Which of these cluster does schizotypal personality disorder belongs?

8. Which of these cluster does antisocial personality disorder belongs?

a. Dramatic, emotional, or erratic b. Odd or eccentric disorder
disorders
9. Which of these cluster does borderline personality disorder belongs?

disorders
10. Which of these cluster does Historic personality disorder belongs?

disorders
11. Which of these cluster does Narcissistic personality disorder belongs?

disorders
12. Which of these cluster does Avoidant personality disorder belongs?

a. Anxious or fearful disorder b. Odd or eccentric disorder
c. Dramatic, emotional, or erratic disorders d. None of the above
13. Which of these cluster does Dependent personality disorder belongs?

14. Which of these cluster does Obsessive – compulsive personality disorder belongs?
15. It is a pattern of negative attitudes and passive resistance in interpersonal situations.

a. Passive- Aggressive Personality b. Self- Defeating Personality Disorder
Disorder
c. Dependent personality Disorder d. None of the above
16. It is a personality disorder that is characterized by behavior that consequently undermines the
person’s pleasure and goals.
a. Self-Defeating Personality Disorder b. Passive-Aggressive Personality Disorder
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c. Dependent personality disorder d. None of the above
17. This personality disorder is characterized by a long-standing pattern of a disregard for other
people’s right, often crossing the line and violating those rights.
a. Antisocial Personality Disorder b. Avoidant Personality Disorder
c. Narcissistic Personality Disorder d. None of the above
18. This personality disorder is characterized by a long-standing and complex pattern of feelings of
inadequacy, extreme sensitivity to what other people think about them, and social inhibition.
a. Avoidant Personality Disorder b. Borderline Personality Disorder
c. Antisocial Personality Disorder d. None of the above
19. It is a personality disorder with a pervasive pattern of instability in interpersonal relationships,

self-image and emotions.
a. Borderline Personality Disorder b. Avoidant Personality Disorder
c. Antisocial Personality Disorder d. None of the above
20. It is a personality disorder that is characterized by a long-standing need for the person to be
taken care of and a fear of being abandoned or separated from important individuals in his or
her life.
a. Dependent Personality Disorder b. Histrionic Personality Disorder
c. Paranoid Personality Disorder d. None of the above
21. It is a personality disorder that has pervasive pattern of grandiosity ( in fantasy or behavior),
need for admiration, and lack of empathy, beginning by early adulthood and present in variety
of contexts.
a. Narcissistic Personality Disorder b. Paranoid Personality Disorder
c. Borderline Personality Disorder d. None of the above
22. It is a personality disorder that is pervasive in pattern of preoccupation with orderliness,

perfectionism, and mental and interpersonal control, at the expense of flexibility, openness, and
efficiency, beginning by early adulthood and present in a variety of context.
a. Obsessive – Compulsive Personality b. Narcissistic Personality Disorder
Disorder
23. It is a personality disorder that is pervasive in distrust and suspiciousness of others such that
their motives are interpreted as malevolent.
a. Paranoid Personality Disorder b. Narcissistic Personality Disorder
24. It is a personality disorder that has a pervasive pattern of detachment from social relationships
and a restricted range of expression of emotions in interpersonal settings.
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a. Schizoid Personality Disorder b. Schizotypal Personality Disorder
25. It is a personality disorder that has a pervasive pattern of social and interpersonal deficits
marked by acute discomfort with, and reduced capacity for, close relationships as well as by
cognitive or perceptual distortions and eccentricities of behavior.
a. Schizotypal Personality Disorder b. Schizoid Personality Disorder
26. It is a generic label for clients whose diagnostic category and reputation are difficult to treat
a. Borderline b. Antisocial
c. Avoidant d. None of the above
27. An antisocial personality disorder that is indicated by being indifferent to or rationalizing

having hurt, mistreated, or stolen from another.
a. Lack of remorse b. Reckless disregard
c. Deceitfulness d. None of the above
28. It is an antisocial personality disorder that is indicated by repeated lying, use of aliases, or
conning others for personal profit or pleasures.
a. Deceitfulness b. impulsivity
c. lack of remorse d. None of the above
29. It is an antisocial personality disorder that is indicated by repeated physical fights or assaults.
a. Irritability and aggressiveness b. Deceitfulness
c. Lack of remorse d. None of the above
30. Persons with this kind of personality disorder manifest unwillingness to get involved with
people unless certain of being liked.
a. Avoidant Personality Disorder b. Antisocial Personality Disorder
Chapter 27
1. It is an abnormal mental condition or disorder associated with significant distress and/or dysfunction.
a. mental illness
b. anxiety disorder
c. posttraumatic stress disorder
d. stressor
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2. A condition often characterized by the development of emotional or behavioral symptoms in response
to an identifiable stressor/stressors occurring within 3 months of the onset of the stressor.
a. anxiety disorder
b. mental illness
c. adjustment disorder
d. social phobia
3. The person experienced, witnessed, or was confronted with an event or events that involved actual or
threatened death or serious injury, or a threat to the physical integrity of self or others. The person’s
response involved intense fear, helplessness, or horror. The foregoing situations are present in this
disorder.
a. panic disorder
b. acute stress disorder
c. obsessive-compulsive disorder
4. When a person’s heart pounds and he feels sweaty, weak, faint, or dizzy, he could be suffering
.
a. social phobia
b. specific phobia
c. panic disorder
d. generalized anxiety disorder
5. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of obsessions?

a. Recurrent and persistent thoughts, impulses, or images that are experienced at some time.
b. The thoughts, impulses, or images are not simply excessive worries about real-life situations.
c. The person recognizes that the obsessional thoughts, impulses, or images are a not a product of
his own mind.
6. It is a repetitive behavior or mental act that the person feels driven to perform in response to an
obsession, or according to rules that must be applied rigidly.
a. compulsion
b. obsession
c. anxiety
d. social phobia
7. The following are specific symptoms of post-traumatic stress disorder EXCEPT ONE.
a. Recurrent and intrusive distressing recollections of the event, including images, thoughts, or
perceptions.
b. Persistent concern about having additional attacks.
c. Intense psychological distress at exposure to internal or external cues that symbolize or resemble
an aspect of the traumatic event.
d. None of the above.
8. A disorder that is more than the normal anxiety people experience day to day and is chronic and
exaggerated worry and tension, even though nothing seems to provoke it.
a. generalized anxiety disorder
b. post-traumatic stress disorder
c. obsessive-compulsive disorder
d. panic disorder
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9. The following are eating disorders EXCEPT ONE.
a. anorexia nervosa
b. agoraphobia
c. binge eating
d. bulimia nervosa
10. A person suffering from this disorder is typically characterized by his refusal to maintain a body
weight which is consistent with their build, age, and height.
a. agoraphobia
b. anorexia nervosa
c. bulimia nervosa
11. A person overeating from time to time and feels that he needs to eat more frequently more than he
should is suffering from .
a. binge eating
b. panic disorder
c. bulimia nervosa
12. The following are behaviors or feelings of a person suffering from binge eating EXCEPT ONE.
a. Eating much more rapidly than usual.
b. Eating uncomfortably full.
c. Eating small amounts of food.
d. Eating alone out of embarrassment, even when not physically hungry.
13. Which of the following is NOT a mood disorder?

a. major depressive disorder
b. bipolar disorder
c. cyclothymic disorder
d. acute stress disorder
14. It is sometimes referred to as clinical depression.

b. bipolar disorder
d. acute stress disorder
15. This condition is also known as “manic depression” and is often not recognized by the patient,
relatives, friends, or even physicians.
b. bipolar disorder
d. dysthymic disorder
16. It is a recurrent pulling out of one’s hair resulting in noticeable hair loss.
a. trichotillomania
b. dysthymic disorder
c. bipolar disorder
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17. The following are cognitive disorders EXCEPT ONE.
a. delirium
b. dementia
c. amnestic disorder
18. Which of the following is NOT a symptom of dysthymic disorder?

a. poor appetite or overeating
b. insomnia or hypersomnia
c. low energy or fatigue
d. lack of control over eating
19. Impaired ability to learn new information or to recall previously learned information is a
manifestation of this cognitive disorder.
a. dementia associated with alcoholism
b. dementia of the Alzheimer’s type
c. delirium
d. amnestic disorders
20. Schizophrenia is characterized by at least two of the following symptoms, for at least one month
EXCEPT ONE.
a. hallucinations
b. delusions
c. disorganized speech
d. insomnia
21. This type of schizophrenia is manifested by a person who is withdrawn, mute, negative and often
assumes very unusual postures.
a. disorganized
b. catatonic
c. paranoid
d. residual
22. This disorder is characterized by the presence of non-bizarre delusions which have persisted for at
least one month.
a. brief psychotic disorder
b. delusional disorder
c. shared psychotic disorder
d. schizoaffective disorder
23. This cognitive disturbance is often characterized by a person’s failure to recognize or identify objects
despite intact sensory function.
a. agnosia
b. schizophrenia
c. delusion
d. delirium
24. This disorder occurs for at least one day but less than one month with eventual full return to previous
level of functioning.
a. delusional disorder
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b. schizophreniform disorder
c. brief psychotic disorder
d. shared psychotic disorder
25. Delusions that another person, usually of higher status, is in love with the individual.
a. erotomanic type
b. grandiose type
c. jealous type
d. persecutory type
26. Delusions that a person, or someone to whom the person is close, is being malevolently treated in
some way.
a. erotomanic type
b. grandiose type
c. jealous type
d. persecutory type
27. A delusion develops to an individual in the context of a close relationship with another person who
has already established delusion.
a. delusional disorder
b. brief psychotic disorder
c. shared psychotic disorder
28. Having this disorder means always anticipating disaster, often worrying about health, money, family,
or work.
a. generalized anxiety
b. post-traumatic stress
c. panic
29. A state in which the person shows a high level of energy, excessive moodiness or irritability, and
impulsive or reckless behavior.
a. hypomania
b. dysthymia
c. hypervigilance
30. A type of schizophrenia in which a person is often incoherent but may not have delusions.
a. disorganized
b. paranoid
c. residual
d. catatonic
Chapter 28
1. What is the unit at the Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI) Academy in Quantico, Virginia
historically attributed with the development of criminal profiling over the past decades?
a. Sociology and Anthropology Unit
b. Behavioral Science Unit
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c. Social Science Unit
d. Psychological Unit
2. What is the step in FBI’s crime analysis that involves collection and assessment of all data
relating to a specific case?
a. Decision Process Models
b. Criminal Profile
c. Crime Assessment
d. Profiling Inputs
3. What is the step in FBI’s crime analysis that involves arranging of all information gathered into
a logical and coherent pattern?
b. Criminal Profile
c. Crime Assessment
d. Profiling Inputs
4. One of the following is not involved in FBI’s crime analysis, which one?
b. Profiling Inputs
c. Victimology
d. Criminal Profile
5. What is the step in FBI’s crime analysis that involves the reconstruction of the sequence of
events and specific behaviors both of the victim and the perpetrator?
a. Profiling Inputs
b. Decision Process Models
c. Crime Assessment
d. Criminal Profile
6. What is the step in FBI’s crime analysis that provides a list of background, physical and
behavioral characteristics of the perpetrator?
a. Crime Assessment
b. Criminal Profile
c. Profiling Inputs
d. Decision Process Model
7. What is the step in FBI’s crime analysis where the actual profile is provided to requesting
agencies and is incorporated to their investigation?
a. Investigation
b. Apprehension
c. Decision Process Model
d. Criminal Profile
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8. What happens when no suspects are generated or new evidence comes to light during the
investigation stage of the FBI’s crime analysis?
a. Profile is reassessed
b. Charges are filed
c. Case is dismissed
d. Forgive and forget
9. One of which is not a part of the five-factor model developed by David Canter, which one?
a. The Significance of Time and Place
b. Interpersonal Coherence
c. Criminal Career
d. Forensic Analysis
10. What is the method developed by David Canter similar with that employed by FBI which is
used with application of some methods of environmental psychology to criminal investigation?
a. All-Factor Principle
b. Five-Factor Model
c. Three-Way Method
d. Single Approach Model
11. What step in the Five-Factor Model refers to whether a variation in criminal activity will relate
to variations in the way which the offender deals with other people in non-criminal situations?
a. Interpersonal Coherence
b. Forensic Awareness
c. Criminal Characteristics
d. Forensic Awareness
12. What step in the Five-Factor Model provides the analyst with information about offender
mobility, thereby leading to inferences about offender’s likely residential location?
a. Interpersonal Coherence
b. Significance of Time and Place
c. Forensic Awareness
d. Criminal Characteristics
13. What step in the Five-Factor Model allows researchers to develop subsystems for the
classification of offender groups, thereby providing investigators the characteristics likely to be
possessed by the perpetrator in the current crime?
a. Criminal Characteristics
c. Forensic Awareness
d. Criminal Career
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14. What step in the Five-Factor Model refers to the assessment that is made to determine whether
the offender may have engaged in criminal activity in the past and what kind of activity is mostly
to have been?
a. Criminal Characteristics
c. Criminal Career
d. Forensic Awareness
15. What step in the Five-Factor Model collects any evidence that an offender has knowledge of,
or may be privy to, police techniques and procedures relating to evidence collection?
a. Forensic Awareness
b. Criminal Characteristics
c. Criminal Career
d. Interpersonal Coherence
16. What is the model developed directly from environmental psychology by David Canter which
focuses on offender behavior?
a. Square Model
b. Pyramid Concept
c. Line Principle
d. Circle Theory
17. What model of offender behavior assumes that offender will “strike out” from their home base
in the commission of their crimes?
a. Marauder Model
b. Austin Model
c. Dunham Model
d. Commuter Model
18. What model of offender behavior assumes that offender will travel a distance from their home
base before engaging in criminal activity?
a. Marauder Model
b. Handsor Model
c. Dunham Model
d. Commuter Model
19. All of the following are involved in Behavioral Evidence Analysis (BEA) except __________
a. Equivocal Forensic Analysis
b. Perpetratorology
c. Offender Characteristics
d. Victimology
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20. What step in the Behavioral Evidence Analysis (BEA) has the main purpose of assessing the
most likely meaning of the evidence?
a. Offender Characteristics
b. Crime Scene Characteristics
c. Crime Investigation
d. Equivocal Forensic Analysis
21. Which of the following could be a source of evidence for Equivocal Forensic Analysis?
a. Investigators report
b. Map of the victims travel prior to death
c. Background of the victim
d. All of the above
22. What step in the Behavioral Evidence Analysis (BEA) involves an in-depth analysis of the
victim?
a. Victimology
b. Victimniasis
c. Victimonology
d. Victimist
23. What step in the Behavioral Evidence Analysis (BEA) involves analysis of the distinguishing
feature of a crime scene as evidence by an offender’s behavioral decisions regarding the victim
and the offense location, and their subsequent meaning to the offender?
a. Victimology
b. Equivocal Forensic Analysis
c. Crime Scene Characteristics
d. Offender Characteristics
24. What is the last step in Behavioral Evidence Analysis (BEA) containing the offender’s
behavioral and personality characteristics derived from and informed by the three preceding steps?
a. Offender Characteristics
b. Equivocal Forensic Analysis
c. Crime Scene Characteristics
d. Victimology
25. Which of the following in not an information needed to determine offender characteristics?
a. Aggressiveness
b. Medical history
c. Race
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26. What is one of the broad phases during which core assumptions of Behavioral Evidence
Analysis (BEA) are useful and is also referred to as “the unknown offender for the known crime”
phase?
a. Honeymoon Phase
b. Riddle Phase
c. Investigative Phase
d. Interrogative Phase
27. Which of the following is one of the main purposes why an Investigative Phase is conducted?
a. Help keep overall investigation on track and undistracted
b. Assist in the linkage of potentially related crimes by identifying common crime scene
indicators and behavior patterns
c. Provide investigators with investigatively irrelevant leads and strategies
d. Assist in assessing the potential for escalation of nuisance criminal behavior to less
serious or less violent crime
28. What is one of the broad phases during which core assumptions of Behavioral Evidence
Analysis (BEA) are useful and is also referred to as “the known offender for the known crime”
phase?
a. Trial Phase
b. Actual Phase
c. End Phase
d. Discovery Phase
29. Which of the following is one of the main purposes why a Trial Phase is conducted?
a. Help develop and gain insight into victim’s fantasy and motivations
b. Help gain insight into offender state of mind only before commission of a crime
c. Help suggest a crime scene linkage by virtue of modus operandi
d. Provide investigators with investigatively irrelevant leads and strategies
30. Who developed the Five-Factor Model?

a. David Canter
b. Harry Canter
c. David Hunter
d. Dudley Canter
Chapter 29
1. It is the study and practice of application of toxicology to the purpose of the law?
a. Medical Toxicology c. Medical Investigation
b. Forensic Toxicology d. Forensic Investigation
2. Professionals that uses toxicology to aid in medico-legal investigation of death and

poisoning?
105 | P a g e
a. Medical Investigator c. Forensic Investigator
b. Forensic Toxicologist d. Medical Toxicologist
3. The profession of Forensic Toxicology were bounded by the supreme principle and
doctrine of:
a. glorified honor as a legal assistants profession
b. work in the interests of truth, justice, and public good
c. for the high compensation
d. for the prestige being privileged few professionals in the field
4. An organized body in the field Forensics that supervised and control the legal practice and
profession of Toxicology?
a. Bureau of Food and Drugs c. World Health Organization
Administration (BFAD) (WHO)
b. Society of Forensic Toxicology d. Department of Health
(SOFT) (DOH)
5. Since toxic substances do not produce characteristic lesions, so if suspected toxic reactions
occur, site a way a good toxicologist or investigator shall consider in the crime scene the
best?
a. take note the weather condition at the crime scene
b. collect at the narrow search any trace residues, powders, pill bottles
c. take note any possible eyewitness
d. secure concurrent medical or death certificate
6. The General Objective or Purpose of the Forensic Toxicology?

a. to glorified the Forensic Toxicology profession
b. to obtain analytical data on poisons and to apply the information
obtained to understanding episode of intoxication
c. to categorize the type of poison that causes the death
d. to contribute education and data to the profession
7. It is one of the specific objectives of the applied science of forensic toxicology?

a. to carve a name in the rising demand of the profession
b. to produce information of a factual nature (Forensic Toxicology)
c. to categorically classify which substance were toxic in nature
d. to glorified the profession as of utmost importance
8. The other specific objective in the 2-fold aim of the forensic toxicology?
a. to help secure the medical or death certificate
b. to represent opinion
c. to brought lawsuit to an individual or corporation in occupational breach
d. secure a name to the history of Forensic Toxicology
9. The best known rare case of poisoning by arsenic (1840) which gave way into the
arena of criminal court?
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a. John F Kennedy c. Paul McCartney
b. Madame Lafarge d. Ferdinand E Marcos
10. A branch of Forensic Toxicology that determines the absence or presence of drugs and
their metabolites, such as CO2 and other gases, metals, and toxic chemicals in human fluids
and tissues, and evaluates their role as a determinant or contibutory factor in the cause or
manner of death?
a. Blood Testing c. Drug Testing
b. Post Mortem Forensic Toxicology d. Post Mortem Examination
11. A branch of Forensic Toxicology that determines the absence or presence of ethanol and
other drugs and chemicals in the blood, breath, or other appropriate specimen (s), and
evaluates their role in modifying human performance and behaviour?
a. Breath Analyzer Test c. Human-Performance Forensic
Toxicology
b. Blood Test d. Neuro-Psychiatric Test
12. A branch of Forensic Toxicology that determines the absence or presence of drugs and
their metabolites in urine to demonstrate prior use or abuse?
a. Urinalysis c. Forensic Urine Drug Testing
b. Litmus Paper Test d. Reagent Salt Test
13. The commonly used body fluid that is being utilized for the toxicology testing because of
quick and easy to be tapped from a live subject?
a. blood c. urine
b. semen d. saliva
14. The commonly abused drug or substance that is a source of toxic TetraHydraCannabinol
(THC) that is subjected to toxicology testing?
a. methamphetamine c. marijuana
b. lysergic acid (LSD) d. ecstacy
15. In the heavy users of marijuana, what are the chances following use, that the presence of
TetrahydraCannabinol (THC) can still be detected in their urine sample?
a. 1 month c. 10 days
b. 10 week d. 1 year
16. A body fluid that pose a good profile of a substance for a sufficient, comprehensive, and
ideal sample to screen and confirm most common toxic substance?
a. urine c. blood
b. semen d. saliva
17. A body outgrowth that can be capable of recording medium to long-term or

high dosage substance abused by getting drugs accumulation estimates
through its follicles and it’s cross sectional dimensions?
a. nails c. hair
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b. corn callous d. warts
18. It is the approximate growth of hair in one (1) month, on which at such rate, a
feasible forensic study for any drugs accumulated on each strands through the blood
stream, is a viable to the forensic study?
a. 20-25 cm c. 1-1.5 cm
b. 30-50 cm d. 5-10 cm
19. Organisms that may have ingested by the subject matter that may have ingested
any toxic substance within it and which can be used for toxicology testing?
a. mosquitoes c. bacteria and maggots
c. flies d. cockroaches
20. A commonly used body fluids, particularly collected during the autopsy that may
provide a good sample in detecting undigested pills or liquids which was
ingested prior to death?
a. blood c. gastric contents
b. urine d. semen
21. In the highly decomposed body, a sample or part of the cadaver which might be
the best substitute for toxicology testing ?
a. vitreous humor of the eye c. bone cartilage
b. teeth d. fingernails
22. The most viable part of the body for examination specimen because it is
protected at best by the skull and sockets against trauma and adulteration?
a. eye b. ear drum
b. nasal cavity d. tonsil
23. It is a method of detection and classification of toxin using a particular examining

gas, or substances that can be heated to produce gas?
a. Gas Chromatography c. Oxidation
b. Carbon Cryogenics d. Gaseous Sublimation
24. A typical volatile organic compound fall under the category of Gas
Chromotography?
a. Ethanol c. Water
b. Sulfuric Acid d. Sodium Hydroxide
25. It is a traditional method in detecting metal toxins wherein the compound

suspected containing toxic metal is separated by organic matrix?
a. thermal/chemical oxidation c. cryogenics
b. bleaching d. filtration
26. A test conducted in metal toxin analysis to identify and quantified the organic
residues leaves behind by the chemical oxidation process?
108 | P a g e
a. Reinsch Test c. Love Bug Test
b. Summative Analysis d. Kaleidoscopy
27. One of the screening method used in toxin analysis in non-volatile Organic
substances?
a. Thin-layer Chromatography c. Urinalysis
b. Activated Carbon Oxidation d. Solitaire Test
28. A typical non-volatile organic substance that can cause toxin ingestion to human that may
be subjected for thin-layered chromatography?
a. Drugs (prescribed or illegal) c. alcoholic drinks
b. Sweetened beverages d. calcium fluoride
29. The most practical means of detecting toxins and measuring this highly potent and difficult
to isolate substance such as venoms and other toxic mixture proteins?
a. Immunoassays c. Lithmus Paper test
b. Psychoanalytic Test d. Freudan Assestment
30. The pioneer health service provider in the Philippine that had already had full pledge
Clinical Toxicology Unit to cater the toxin medication and aligned with the legal profession for
forensic experts?
a. Philippine General Hospital (PGH) c. Hospital ng Maynila (HM)
b. Eastern Visayas Reg’l Med Center d. San Lazaro Hospital (SLH)
(EVRMC)
Chapter 30
1. Any material exerting a life threatening effect upon a living organism is called.
a. Parasite b. virus c. toxin d. drugs
2. A subgroup of toxins that enters the body in a single massive dose, or accumulate
to a massive dose over time.
a. Muriatic acid b. potassium chloride c. acids d. poison
3. Method which damages the tissues by a chemical agent is called?

a. Addiction
b. Poisoning
c. excessive alcohol drinking
d. sex
109 | P a g e
4. A sample extracted for toxicological analysis that is up to 30ml taken by suprapubic
puncture with a long needle or through an incision in the bladder.
a. Urine b. blood c. semen d. mucus
5. A sample extracted for toxicological analysis that at least 250ml needed to be

collected. The stomach is opened fully and any capsule, tablets or powder is picked
off.
a. Food
b. stomach contents
c. feces
d. stomach acids.
6. A sample extracted for toxicological analysis that the intact gut is sent to the
laboratory in the case of suspected heavy metals poisoning (arsenic or antimony)
a. Stomach contents b. bile c. urine d. intestinal contents
7. A sample extracted for toxicological analysis that can be useful for morphine and
chlorpromazine analyses because these substances are concentrated by the liver and
extracted into the gall bladder and is collected directly through a bottle.
a. Bile b. urine c. semen d. blood
8. Which of the following choices are common poisons and drugs.

a. Medical substances d. insulin
b. analgesics e. all of the above
c. paracetamol
9. A type of poison that are strong mineral acids, organic acids, alakalis, household
bleaches, detergents and vinegars.
a. Analgesics c. insulin
b. corrosive poisons d. drugs
10. A poisonous substance that was popular with murders in the past such as Madeleine
Smith in 1857 who killed her lover and Mary Blandy who murdered her own father.
110 | P a g e
a. Rock b. Heavy Metal c. OPM d. RNB
11. A rat poison that acutely produces abdominal pains and vomiting then appear
confusion, muscle pain and sleep disturbances. Death occurs because of
degeneration of various organs of the body that can be seen in autopsy.
a. Mercury b. Iron c. Potassium d. Thallium
12. A term usually in a case of poisoning with a medicinal drug the autopsy findings are
unhelpful because the substances are rarely corrosive and no local lesions are likely
to be found.
a. Overdose c. Mercury
b. Medical Substances d. Vitamins
13. Officially developed as insecticides in World War II. Used also as a basis of “nerve
gas”, extremely toxic and blocks neuromuscular conduction by inhibiting
cholinesterase.
a. Organic Sugar c. organic fertilizers
b. Organic Phosphates d. Iron
14. Extremely poisonous, potassium and sodium cyanides need to be mixed with water
or gastric acid before releasing the poison that acts as a cytochrome oxidase
inhibitor. Causes rapid death.
a. Cyanides
b. Opiate drugs
c. sodium chloride
d. muriatic
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15. An industrial poison but previously it was used in treatment of syphilis, as
aprotection from rheumatism and as a diuretic.
a. Iron b. lead c. mercury d. cyanides
16. Best known for cases of acute poisoning in children who eat ferrous sulphate.
Gastrointestinal symptoms occur soon after ingestion. Happens due to liver damage
and acidosis from its release.
a. Potassium chloride b. mercury c. arsenic d. iron
17. Kind of drug dependence that have a strong stimulating effect but can lead to
hyperpyrexia and hypertension that may precipitate a cerebral hemorrhage and
cardiac arrhythmias.
a. Cocaine b. Amphetamines c. opiate drugs d. shabu
18. Kind of drug dependence that produces hypertension that may lead to cerebral
bleeding, dilated pupils and hyperpyrexia; the death may occur as a respiratory
depression or arrhythmia.
a. Opiate drugs b. Shabu c. Cocaine d. Amphetamines
19. Heroin, morphine, methadone and dihydrocodeine are also called as.
a. Opiate drugs b. Shabu c. Cocaine d. Amphetamines
20. The most common method of self-destruction is.

a. Death by hanging
b. Death by Jumping off a tall building
c. Death Suicidal Poison
d. Death by over sex
Chapter 31
1. Generally characterized by maladaptive pattern of alcohol or substance use leading
to significant impairment or distress.
a. Abuse of alcohol or b. lack of sleep
substance c. over sex
112 | P a g e
d. stress eating e. all of the above
2. A process to determine drug use.

a. Saliva d. Blood
b. Urine e. all of the above
c. Drug Testing
3. Which of the following are common types of drug test.

a. Urine Drug Screening d. Sweat Drug Screen
b. Hair Drug Screening e. All of the above
c. Saliva/ Oral based screening
4. Which of the following are types of testing purposes.

a. Pre-employment Drug Testing d. A and B only
b. Random Drug Testing e. All of the above
c. Post-Incident Drug Testing
5. A term used for a kind of popular street drug used for incapacitating rape victims.
a. Viagra
b. Sexual enhancers
c. Date rape drugs
d. Shabu
e. all of the above
6. Which of the following are considered as date rape drugs.

a. Ecstacy d. Rohypnol/Roofies
b. GHB/GBL e. all of the above
c. Ketamine
7. A strong sedative which is similar to the drug valium but is 10 times stronger than
valium.
a. Ecstacy
b. GHB/GBL
c. Ketamine
d. Rohypnol/Roofies
e. all of the above
113 | P a g e
8. Also known as MDMA, a combination of speed and mescaline that can produce
psychedelic effects, intensifies sexual contact, also known as “love drug”.
c. Ketamine
9. A central nervous system depressant which was studied for use with narcolepsy
patients to help them sleep, causes euphoria, hallucinations and deep sleep.
c. Ketamine
10. Used legally by veterinarians, known as “rich kids’ drug”. Classified as a

dissociate anesthetic drug and is closely related to PCP.
c. Ketamine
11. Which of the following are substance related disorders.

a. Alcohol Dependence
b. Amphetamine Dependence
c. Cannabis Dependence
d. Sedative Dependence
e. all of the above
12. Which of the following are substance related disorders.

a. Cocaine Dependence
b. Hallucinogen Dependence
c. Inhalant dependence
d. Nicotine Dependence
e. all of the above.
13. Is defined as a need for markedly increased amount of the alcohol or substance to
achieve intoxication or desired effect.
a. Tolerance
b. addiction
c. obsession
114 | P a g e
d. desire
e. all of the above
14. Is defined as markedly diminished effect with continued use of the same amount
of the alcohol or substance.
a. addiction d. desire
b. obsession e. all of the above
c. tolerance
15. A process which is often painful physical and psychological symptoms that
follows a discontinuance of an addicting substance or alcohol.
a. denial d. addiction
b. withdrawal e. all of the above
c. acceptance
16. Which of the following are symptoms of withdrawal?

a. Sweating d. insomnia
b. rapid pulse e. all of the above
c. increased hand tremor
17. Which of the following are symptoms of withdrawal?

a. Nausea or Vomiting
b. physical agitation
c. happiness
d. only A and B
e. all of the above
115 | P a g e
18. Marijuana and Hashish intake can be detected in saliva test immediately upon
use.
a. 1hr after ingestion, up to 14 hours

b. from time of ingestion for 48 to 72 hours
c. 1hr after ingestion, up to 24 hours
d. from time of ingestion for 48 to 96 hours
e. cannot be detected
19. Cocaine intake can be detected in saliva test immediately upon use.
d. cannot be detected
20. Opiates intake can be detected in saliva test immediately upon use.
d. cannot be detected
Chapter 32
1. This kind of drinker drinks some form of alcoholic beverage occasionally or regularly
in moderation, within sensible limits.
a. Heavy drinker c. Social drinker
b. Problem drinker d. Dependent drinker
2. Stages of Intoxication, except one;
a. Love stage c. Physical clues
b. Stupor d. Excitement
3. This kind of drinker has subjective awareness of compulsion to drink; exhibits
prominent drink-seeking behavior, becomes tolerant to alcohol.
a. Alcoholic c. Heavy drinker
b. Binge drinker d. Social drinker
4. This kind of drinker continues to drink in spite of developing difficulties.
a. Problem drinker
b. Dependent drinker
c. Social drinker
d. Heavy drinker
5. Choose the correct Widmark equation:
a. 70 kg male, peak BAC= (10x100), (70x0.68)= 21 mg%
b. 50 kg female, peak BAC= (10x100), (50x0.55)= 36 mg%
116 | P a g e
c. Peak BAC= Weight of alcohol ingested (g) x 100, divided by Body Weight (kg)x
Widmark Factor
d. All of the above.
6. In this stage of intoxication, the drinker has the tendency to lose emotional restraint,
to forget animosities, to be less critical, converse with abandon and to lose control
over one’s moral integrity.
a. Confusion c. Excitement
b. Stupor d. Hangover
7. In this stage the drinker tends to anesthetic and unfeeling to injury and may lie with
his face flushed, dribbling from the lips and snoring loudly and can only be aroused
by strong stimuli.
a. Hangover c. Confusion
b. Stupor d. Physical clues
8. The drinker has a tendency to come to grief over longer words owing to slight
incoordination, to slur speech, to lose control over finer movements. This stage of
Intoxication exists over any problem requiring clear thinking and concentration.
a. Physical clues c. Excitement
b. Confusion d. Stupor
9. This is a rare condition which may occur while the individual is still drinking heavily
or upon stopping drinking. The main clinical features are vivid and persistent
unpleasant auditory or visual hallucinations occurring in a setting of clear
consciousness.
a. Alcohol withdrawal c. Insanity
b. Korsakoff Psychosis d. Alcoholic hallucinosis
10. Mr. Jose dela Cruz and his friend Mr. Juan Pakulkog decided to drink and have fun at
a very famous bar in Brgy. Liku-liko di Matagpuan City. Mr. Jose dela Cruz. The next
day they were not able to report to the office where they work because both of them
were in jail because the car which was driven by Mr. Pakulkog crashed causing the
death of a pregnant woman. This situation is an example why _______________ is
needed.
a. Criteria for alcohol dependence
b. Addictive process
c. Legal intervention
d. Alcohol abuse
11. Medical Treatment for Alcohol intoxication, except one;
a. Encourage another round of drink
b. Do unscheduled blood test
c. Encourage exercise
d. Teach the disease model of addiction
12. Mr. Smith is alcoholic, his wife decided to get him treated and send him to a
residential center which gives psychosocial treatment through emotional support.
Where should Mrs. Smith send her alcoholic husband?
a. Barangay Health Post c. Mental Hospital
b. Halfway houses d. Rural Health Centers
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13. This therapy teaches the alcoholic other ways to reduce anxiety. This is coupled with
relaxation training and assertiveness training. What kind of alcoholic therapy is this?
a. Behavior Therapy c. Massage therapy
b. Psychosocial therapy d. Physical therapy
14. Mr. Raj lose his wife 3 years ago, due to his love for her, he drinks 5 bottles of red
horse every day so that he may be able to sleep. What kind of drinker is Mr. Raj?
a. Addicted drinker c. Social drinker
b. Heavy drinker d. Binge drinker
15. Ms. Cruz is always present during parties, during parties she drinks alcoholic
beverages with moderation. What kind of drinker is Ms. Cruz?
a. Social drinker c. Heavy drinker
b. Binge drinker d. Addicted drinker
16. Why is alcohol abuse a medical problem?
a. Overpopulation is evident because of alcohol abuse.
b. Because it causes accident that makes the hospital crowded.
c. Because alcohol just like love is addictive.
d. Because alcohol can be toxic to the brain.
17. Mr. Chang is working far from home, very time that he comes home his wife throw a
party and this leads to drinking session with Mr. Chang’s friends. They drink until
every one of them can no longer remember their names. What kind of drinker is Mr.
Chang?
a. Dependent drinker c. Heavy drinker
b. Binge drinker d. Social drinker
18. This is a rare condition characterized by a marked change in behavior occurring
within a few minutes of drinking a small amount of alcohol, one which would not
produce intoxication in most people. Behavior is often aggressive.
a. Alcohol dependence
b. Pathological intoxication
c. Alcohol abuse
d. Addictive intoxication
19. Mr. Oh a gambler and an aggressive drinker has been to the jail many times because
of causing havoc when he is drunk. Despite all this, he continues to drink spite of
developing difficulties. What kind of drinker is Mr. Oh?
a. Heavy drinker
b. Alcohol Abuser
c. Social drinker
d. Addicted drinker
20. A group of organic liquids which have a particular chemical grouping (OH).
a. Glutathione c. Propanol
b. Ethanol d. Alcohol
21. Alcohol is eliminated through ______________.
a. Urine
b. Breath
c. Liver enzymes
d. All bodily routes of excretion.
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22. This is a kind of medical treatment where alcoholic substances is removed from the
abuser’s home.
a. Teaching the disease model of addiction
b. Restricting access to addicting substances
c. Unscheduled alcohol blood test
d. Treating associated psychiatric problems
23. Why must the therapist involve the family and friends of the abuser in treating his
alcoholic problems?
a. Patients who are encouraged by family members remain in treatment
b. Because family/ friends of the abuser can influence the alcoholic to stop drinking
alcohol
c. Because the family/friends does not pressure the abuser to go to therapy.
d. Because they’re alcoholics too.
24. Is it true that drinking alcohol can be beneficial?
a. Yes, because if you do vices you’ll be more accepted by the society.
b. Yes, because it gives you courage to say something which you can’t say while
sober.
c. Yes, because there is no beer and vodka inn heaven so you should enjoy it now.
d. Yes, according to Ng Po, moderate use of alcohol is socially acceptable and
medically beneficial.
25. How much intake of alcohol is recommended for men?
a. 21-50 units/week c. 3-4 units /day
b. 50 units/week d. 14-35 units/ week
26. How much intake of alcohol is recommended for women?
a. 2-3 units /day c. 14-35 units/week
b. 35 units/ week d. 59 units/week
27. The following are alcohol dependence recovery in three phases, except one;
a. Drying out period 1-10 days
b. Personality recovery takes months or years
c. Hangover
d. Physical rehabilitation over 10 days to 2 months.
28. The following are causes of death in alcoholics except one;

a. Beautiful trauma c. Acute intoxication
b. Trauma d. Hypothermia
29. What is the meaning of BAC?
a. Blood alcohol concentration d. Basic antenna connection
b. Baby aegyo concert
c. Breath alcohol concentration
30. This is the standard treatment regime for alcohol withdrawal for severe alcoholics. It
is imperative to supplement this with thiamine 100 mg and folic acid 1 mg- both
orally four times daily for at least two weeks.
a. Disulfram
b. Chlordiazepoxide
c. Multivitamin
d. Myra-e
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Chapter 1

2. Which of the terms below is defined as the application of scientific, technical or

4. Who popularized scientific crime detection methods?

6. Which is the subspecialty of Pathology that focuses on the medico-legal

14. Expertise of a forensic scientist must include the following:

15. The Categories of death are as follows, choose the exception.

2. What should be done if the offender is present in the crime scene?

3. What to do if the victim is coherent?

4. What is a Primary Crime Scene?

5. What is a crime scene team?

6. Who is a team leader in a crime scene team?

7. Who is in charge of maintaining the chain of custody?

8. Who sketches the crime scene?

9. It is a group of professional investigators trained in a variety of special discipline to locate and

10. What is a multiple crime scene?

11. What is a Physical Evidence?

12. What to do upon arrival at the crime scene?

13. Documentation of the crime scene should be?

14. What to do after the final survey of the crime scene?

15. What should be consider in conducting a final survey?

16. What should be considered in documenting the crime scene?

19. Initial responding officer must provide:

21. What should be prioritized in the collection of evidence?

28. A cautious walk through of the crime scene

29. Assume possible evidence that can/will be found

2. What does DNA stand for?

3. An image analysis examination wherein dimensions can be derived from

6. It is one of the source of DNA used in forensic analyses which typically

7. It is one of the source of DNA used in forensic analyses which typically

9. This type of forensic evidence examinations can establish trace-drug presence,

12. The following are volatile compounds, except:

13. Which of the following compounds is considered as heavy metal:

16. Statement I: All hand writings is identifiable to a specific writer.

a.) Both statements are true;

2. Which of the following is not a type of evidence?

4. Which of the following is NOT a ground for disqualification of witnesses?

7. The declaration of an accused acknowledging his guilt of the offense charged.

11. As a Rule on Evidence, which of the following is not true?

The doctor’s testimony is probably

14. Which of the following is not true in Axiom of Admissibility of Evidence?

15. Which of the following is not true about the Sandiganbayan?

25. The Law on Evidence is governed by _______________.

26. Which of the following is a CORRECT order of examination of witnesses?

28. In administrative cases, the degree of evidence needed is:

29. Which party has the burden of proof in a criminal trial?

2. DNA stands for

3. What are the keys to DNA printing?

6. DNA testing may yield three (3) possible results EXCEPT:

3. The basis of identification parades but is notoriously unreliable.

5. Which are not included in the characteristics of biometric identifiers.

7. It is the process of quantification and interpretation of animal including human locomotion.

14. It is more useful in identifying the living and the dead.

15. It is unique to every individual.

22. It is occur in as many people as possible.

23. It is useful only in fetuses and babies.

1. What is Forensic Anthropology?

a. Application of the science of physical anthropology to the legal process

b. Application of the science to the legal process

c. Study of beliefs of human kind

d. Study of primate past and present biology

2. Forensic Anthropology specialize in?

6. What is the traditional means of identification of unknown remains?