A 320 Pilot Questionnaire 10221 PDF

2009
A320 Questionnaire ATA

/
Rev0
TRTO
A320 Questionnaire
EEZ-TRTO-042-rev0
A320 Questionnaire
© EEZ TRTO 2009, All Rights Reserved
2009
/
Rev0
TRTO
Foreword
This questionnaire is only a training aid, in case of discrepancy between the
questionnaire and official documents (FCOM), these will govern.
The questionnaire consists of a collection of questions related to ATA’s from

FCOM’s.
Table of Contents
ATA 21 – Air Conditioning/Pressurization/Ventilation
ATA 22 – Auto Flight System
ATA 23 – Communication
ATA 24 – Electrical System
ATA 25 – Equipment
ATA 26 – Fire Protection
ATA 27 – Flight Controls
ATA 28 – Fuel System
ATA 29 – Hydraulic System
ATA 30 – Ice and Rain Protection
ATA 31 – Indicating/Recording System
ATA 32 – Landing Gear
ATA 33 – Lights
ATA 34 – Navigation Systems
ATA 35 – Oxygen
ATA 36 – Pneumatic System
ATA 38 – Water and Waste
ATA 49 – Auxiliary Power Unit
ATA 52 – Doors
ATA 70 – Power Plant
A320 Questionnaire
2009
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Rev0
TRTO
List of Effective pages
ATA Rev N° Pages From/To Date of Issue Date of effectiveness

21 0 1/10 Nov 09 Nov 09
22 0 11/34 Nov 09 Nov 09
23 0 35/40 Nov 09 Nov 09
24 0 41/49 Nov 09 Nov 09
25 0 50/51 Nov 09 Nov 09
26 0 52/58 Nov 09 Nov 09
27 0 59/73 Nov 09 Nov 09
28 0 74/79 Nov 09 Nov 09
29 0 80/90 Nov 09 Nov 09
30 0 91/97 Nov 09 Nov 09
31 0 98/111 Nov 09 Nov 09
32 0 112/119 Nov 09 Nov 09
33 0 120/122 Nov 09 Nov 09
34 0 123/130 Nov 09 Nov 09
35 0 131/133 Nov 09 Nov 09
36 0 134/137 Nov 09 Nov 09
38 0 138/139 Nov 09 Nov 09
45 0 140/143 Nov 09 Nov 09
49 0 144/145 Nov 09 Nov 09
52 0 146/154 Nov 09 Nov 09
70 0 155/162 Nov 09 Nov 09
A320 Questionnaire
A320 Air/Press/Vent ATA
2008
TRTO Questionnaire 21
Rev0
Name: Rank: Date: Score:
1. Following a pressurization SYSTEM 1 fault:
A. Master caution is activated and ECAM actions must be taken by the

crew
B. System 2 must be selected by the crew
C. System 2 takes over automatically without crew action
2. The safety valves are operated:
A. Electrically
B. Hydraulically
C. Pneumatically
3. Conditioned air is distributed to:
A. Cockpit, cargo bays, and cabin

B. Cockpit, forward and aft cabins
C. Cockpit, avionics bay, cabin
4. What is the max negative differential pressure for the cabin?
A. 0 PSI
B. 1 PSI
C. 2 PSI
5. Each one of the trim air valves optimize the temperature by:
A. Adding hot air

B. Adding fresh air
C. Modulation of pack flow
6. What happens when the heating or cooling demand on one zone

cannot be satisfied?
A. Engine thrust must be increased manually

B. The minimum idle is increased automatically
C. In any case, flight idle is sufficient
A320 Air/Press/Vent Questionnaire

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2008
Rev0
7. Is it possible to use simultaneously Packs and LP ground unit

during long stops on a hot day?
A. Yes
B. No
C. Yes, if external temperature is > 50°c
8. When the “ditching” switch is selected ON, a closure signal is

sent to:
A. The outflow valve and the pack flow control valves

B. The ram air inlet and ventilation inlet and extract valves
C. All answers are corrects
9. The cabin zone temperature sensors are situated in the lavatory

extraction circuit and galley ventilation system.
A. True
B. False
10. The RAM air switch should be used:
A. At any time
B. Only when diff press is less than 1 psi
C. When diff press is greater than 1 psi
D. Only after outflow valve is fully opened
11. When the landing elevation is set to AUTO, the landing

elevation is sent to the controller from:
A. FMGC
B. FCU
C. ADIRS
12. The temperature selectors are located in:
A. The cockpit
B. The cabin
C. Both

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13. To see the position of the outflow valve, it is necessary to call

ECAM:
A. COND page
B. BLEED page
C. PRESS page
14. Cabin pressurization starts at:
A. Engine start
B. Take-off thrust application
C. Lift-off
15. In case of Pack Control valve failure:
A. Pack outlet temperature is controlled at fixed temperature

B. The pack is closed automatically
16. The pack flow control valve closes automatically in case of:
A. Pack overheat, engine fire push button released, engine start,

ditching p/b pressed
B. Bleed valve failure, pack outlet pressure increase
C. A and b.
17. The purpose of the safety valve is to avoid:
A. Excessive positive differential pressure

B. Excessive negative differential pressure
C. A and B are correct
18. Temperature regulation is automatic and is controlled by:
A. Zone controller
B. Pack controllers
C. A and B

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19. In case of total zone controller failure:
A. Hot air and trim air valves open and pack1 delivers air at fixed
temperature 15°c
B. Hot air and trim air valves close and pack 2 delivers air at fixed
temperature 15°c
C. Hot air and trim air valves close, packs deliver air at fixed
temperature (pack1 at 20°c and pack 2 at 10°c.)
20. Hot air pressure regulating valve:
A. Regulates the pressure of hot air tapped upstream of the packs

B. Is spring-loaded open in the absence of air
C. Opens automatically in case of duct overheat
21. In automatic control mode, cabin pressurization is optimized

using information from:
A. FMGS cruise level, time to climb and static pressure information

B. Actual cruise level
C. Selected cabin altitude rotary switch and FMGS landing elevation
22. If a pack N 1 controller fails, the pack outlet temperature is

regulated to:
A. 10°C
B. 18°C
C. Between 5°C and 30°C
23. The outflow valve is powered in normal operation (no failure)

by:
A. One out of two electric motors

B. One out of three electric motors
C. Three mechanically linked electric motors
24. RAM air inlet, when set to ON will open:
A. In any case
B. Provided ditching is not selected
C. Provided delta P < 1 PSI and ditching not selected

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25. The safety valves open at:
A. 8.06 PSI
B. 8.6 PSI
C. 9.0 PSI
D. 7.6 PSI
26. In case of pack controller failure, the pack outlet air

temperature is controlled by:
A. Pack by-pass valve

B. Pack anti-ice valve
C. Pack flow control valve
27. Trim air valves are controlled by:
A. The zone controller

B. Anti-ice valve
C. Hot air pressure regulating valve
28. In case of a CPC 1 failure in flight:
A. Manual control has to be used

B. The system transfers automatically to controller 2
C. Controller 2 must be manually selected
D. Landing elevation must be set on the landing elevation knob
29. On ECAM PRESS page, the safety valve indication changes to

amber if:
A. Both safety valves are fully open

B. Either safety valve is not closed
C. Both safety valves are fully closed
30. Once set to ON, the air conditioning packs operate:
A. Automatically and independently of each other

B. Manually and independently of each other
C. Automatically, pack 1 as a master, pack 2 as a slave

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31. When Cabin Pressure Mode Sel is set to manual, the outflow
valve is controlled by signals sent via controller 1 or 2:
A. True
B. False
32. Pack flow may be controlled from:
A. The cockpit
B. The cabin
C. Both
33. Hot air “Fault” light illuminates on the Air Cond panel:
A. The hot air press reg. Valve opens and the trim air valves close
B. The hot air press reg. Valve closes and the trim air valves open
C. The hot air press reg. Valve closes and the trim air valves close
34. When using APU bleed to supply the packs, with the pack flow
selector at LOW, the pack air flow is:
A. 80 % of normal
B. Normal
C. 120 % of normal
35. Pack controllers primary channel failure:
A. The secondary computer operates as a back up mode and regulation

is not optimized
B. The secondary computer takes over
C. Pack is lost
36. Pack flow control valve:
A. Is pneumatically operated and electrically controlled

B. Is electrically operated and pneumatically controlled
C. Opens automatically during engine starting

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37. When bleed air is supplied by the APU, the pack flow is
automatically selected to:
A. High
B. Normal
C. Low
38. On ECAM PRESS page, the outflow valve indicator changes

amber if:
A. Fully closed
B. Fully open in flight
C. Fully open in ground
39. After a primary channel (Zone controller) failure:
A. Cabin zone is at fixed temp 24°c.

B. Packs deliver fixed temp air 15°c.
C. Secondary channel replaces primary channel
40. In normal operation, pressurization is:
A. Fully automatic
B. Manually controlled
C. Both answers are corrects
41. When RAM air p/b is set to “ON”, the outflow valve will fully
open if:
A. Delta P > 1.5 PSI

B. Delta P < 3 PSI
C. Delta P < 1 PSI
42. Which controller generates excess cabin altitude and pressure

output for ECAM indication in manual mode:
A. Both
B. N°1
C. N°2

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43. During ground operation, the outflow valve is:
A. Fully open
B. Fully closed
C. Positioned according to FMGS demands
44. On ECAM Press page, the cabin altitude indication changes to

red when cabin altitude is:
A. 14,000 FT
B. 8,800 FT
C. 9,550 FT
45. Hot air press reg valve has failed in open position:
A. Optimized regulation is lost

B. The temperature stays at the value selected when the failure occurs
C. No effect
46. When APU is supplying the packs, the pack controller sends a
demand signal to increase air flow when a zone temperature
cannot be satisfied:
A. To the pack ram air inlet flap

B. To the APU ECB
C. To the pack flow control valve
47. Pack controller secondary channel failure:
A. No effect on pack regulation, back up mode is lost

B. Pack is lost
C. No effect
48. In case of Trim air system fault, the secondary channel of the
zone controller regulates the zone temperature at:
A. 14°C
B. 24°C
C. 15°C

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49. When the pack flow controller knob is positioned to HI, air
flow is:
A. 80 % OF NORMAL
B. 150 % OF NORMAL
C. 120 % OF NORMAL
50. What is the max normal cabin altitude:
A. 8000'
B. 9550' + 350'
C. 14000'
51. In case of zone controller primary and secondary channels

failure, what temperatures are maintained by pack 1 and 2?
A. 15°c both
B. 25°c both
C. 20°c pack 1 - 10°c pack 2
D. 24°c pack 1 - 15°c pack 2
52. The mixing unit is connected to:
A. Packs, cabin air, emergency ram air inlet and LP ground Connector
B. Packs, emergency ram air inlet and LP ground connector
C. Packs and cabin air

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A320 Air/press/Vent ATA
2008
TRTO Answers 21
Rev0
Questions N° Answers Questions N° Answers

1 C 41 C
2 C 42 B
3 B 43 A
4 B 44 C
5 A 45 C
6 B 46 B
7 B 47 A
8 C 48 B
9 A 49 C
10 B 50 A
11 A 51 C
12 A 52 A
13 C
14 B
15 B
16 A
17 C
18 C
19 C
20 A
21 A
22 C
23 A
24 C
25 B
26 B
27 A
28 B
29 B
30 A
31 B
32 A
33 C
34 C
35 A
36 A
37 A
38 B
39 A
40 A

10
A320 Autoflight ATA
2009
Rev0
1. In which cases are AP/FD, A/THR and landing capacities totally

lost?
A. 2 IRS'S failure or ADR'S failure

B. 2 RA'S failure
C. 2 iLS's failure
D. Both FAC'S failure
2. The LOC P/B on the FCU is pressed to arm the LOC mode. This
mode is used for:
A. Performing a published localizer approach

B. Tracking a VOR beam during an approach
3. The trim function of the FAC is:
A. A pitch trim
B. A rudder trim
C. An aileron trim
D. A pitch trim and a rudder trim
4. In cruise, lateral A/P orders are executed by:
A. Ailerons and spoilers

B. Ailerons and rudder
C. Rudder and spoilers
D. Ailerons, rudder, spoilers
5. What does a triple click mean during an ILS approach?
A. A level 3 warning to the crew

B. Landing capability downgrading warning
C. Flaps are set at 3 and the l/g is not down
6. The expedite mode is active, to disengage it, one of these

statements is correct:
A. Pull the V/S-FPA knob

B. Pull the SPD knob
C. Press again the EXPD p/b to cancel this mode
A320 Autoflight Questionnaire

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A320 Autoflight ATA
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Rev0
7. The mandatory parameter used by alpha floor detection is:
A. A/C minimum speed

B. A/C weight
C. A/C angle of attack
8. The baro correction or reference selected is sent to each ADIRU

via:
A. The MASTER FMGC

B. The FCU
C. The RMPS
D. The DMCS
9. What are the basic modes of AP/FD:
A. V/S and HDG

B. ALT and NAV
C. SPD and HDG
10. The AFS computers are:
A. FMGC and ELAC

B. FMGC and SEC
C. FMGC and FAC
D. ELAC and SEC
11. The continuous cavalry charge audio warning identifies only

one of the following situations:
A. Over speed for the actual a/c configuration

B. Fire or oil low press on one engine
C. Autopilot disengagement
D. Excessive cabin altitude
12. The active FPLN is erased when:
A. The pilot calls the a/c status page

B. The wheels touch the runway at landing
C. The a/c has been on ground for 30 sec following the landing
D. One engine is shut down at parking place

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A320 Autoflight ATA
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13. The FAC computes rudder travel limit:
A. Only when AP is engaged

B. Only at low speed
C. At any time
14. Setting the ATHR levers at idle will disconnect the ATHR mode.
ATHR will reactivate:
A. As soon as thrust levers position is changed when A/THR p/b is

pressed
B. Provided the levers are set in CLB gate A/THR P/b is pressed
C. Provided the levers are removed from idle position
15. After a dual engine generator’s failure, EMER ELEC config

triggered and emergency gen supplies the ACFT:
A. FMGC 1 only is available (nav function only)

B. FMGC 2 only is available
C. Both FMGCS are available
D. No FMGC is available
16. On GND, the engagement (ATHR armed) of the ATHR function:
A. Must be carried out manually by the crew before take-off

B. Is performed automatically upon the second engine start
C. Is performed automatically at the engagement of the take-off modes
17. The flight guidance function are:
A. Autopilot, flight plan, A/THR

B. Autopilot, performance , flight plan
C. Autopilot, flight director, A/THR
D. Flight management, autopilot, A/THR
18. The normal FMGC operation is:
A. Only one FMGC can operate at a time

B. FMGC 1 has priority, FMGC 2 is in STBY
C. FMGC's operate according to master/slave principle
D. FMGC's operate independently

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A320 Autoflight ATA
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19. For ACFT position determination, FMGC uses data from:
A. 3 ADIRS
B. DME, VOR, ILS, GPS
C. Both A & B
20. When the two yaw damper actuators are engaged:
A. Yaw damper 1 has priority, yaw damper actuator 2 is slaved

B. Yaw damper 2 has priority, yaw damper actuator 1 is slaved
C. Yaw damper 1 and 2 are active, the two actuators are pressurized
D. A hydraulic device gives priority to yaw damper 1
21. Thrust levers are in climb detent, ATHR disengages:
A. The engine thrust equals CLB thrust limit

B. Is frozen at the current thrust
C. Corresponds to the thrust levers position
D. Progressively becomes equal to the thrust levers position
22. In flight, ATHR not engaged, thrust levers in CLB detent, if an

alpha floor is detected:
A. A/THR is not engaged because the engines are already in CLB thrust
B. A/THR automatically engages, but is not active
C. A/THR automatically engages and controls the engines with TO/GA
thrust
23. A holding pattern has been entered in the FPLN, speed and
NAV are managed, if you want to leave the hold:
A. Use the CLR key

B. "hold" is automatically cancelled when overflying the fix
C. Activate 'imm exit' prompt
24. The FCU allows:
A. Modification of the flight plan of FM part

B. Selection of FG functions modes
C. Selection of radio-nav frequencies

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A320 Autoflight ATA
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25. In flight, the FM position is updated:
A. Automatically whenever a DME station is selected by the pilot

B. Manually, using data from the selected NDB, VOR or DME stations
C. Automatically, through autotuning of Navaids, or GPS.
26. In flight, AP engaged and ATHR active, the ATHR mode:
A. Can be chosen by the pilot on the FCU

B. Can be chosen by the pilot on the MCDU
C. Depends on the AP vertical mode
27. When T/O mode is engaged:
A. A/THR automatically arms and is active

B. A/THR automatically arms but is not active
C. A/THR does not automatically arm and the engines are controlled by
the thrust levers
28. The engagement of both A/P together is possible:
A. After APPR p/b switch is pressed and illuminates

B. When a/c is stabilized at g/s interception altitude in V/S
C. As soon as the loc has been intercepted and capability of the ACFT is
CAT 1
29. Both A/P’s are not engaged, both FD’s are engaged and ATHR
is active:
A. FMGC 1 controls engine 1, FMGC 2 controls engine 2

B. FMGC 1 controls both engines
C. FMGC 2 controls both engines
D. Flight controls and engines are controlled by only one FMGC
30. ACFT is in clean configuration and normal law. When the FAC
detects a too high AOA:
A. Stall warning is activated

B. THR LK flashes on FMA
C. Alpha floor function operates

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A320 Autoflight ATA
2009
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31. Control of the ACFT can be automatic or manual. Guidance of

the ACFT can be managed or selected. How do you understand
this situation: Managed guidance – manual control – selected
speed:
A. FMGC computes and sends steering orders for navigation purpose.

The pilot flies through the side stick and speed is manually selected
on the FCU
B. The autopilot follows the F-PLN. The pilot sets the necessary data for
lateral and vertical navigation and speed is automatically set from
FMGC
32. Can you display FD bars and FPV at the same time, for cross
checking on different PFD’s:
A. Yes
B. No
33. On GND, when electrical power is initially supplied to the ACFT,

the MCDU will automatically display:
A. Airport page
B. Init a page
C. A/C status page
34. During T/O and G/A, the speed window on the FCU displays:
A. The speed manually inserted by the crew into the FCU and the light
is out
B. The speed manually inserted by the crew into the MCDU and the
light is illuminated
C. Dashes and the light is illuminated
35. The FMGS consists of the following main components:
A. 2 FMGCs - 2 MCDUs - 2 FACs - 2 FCU control panels

B. 2 FMGCs - 2 MCDUs - 2 FACs - 1 FCU control panel
C. 2 FMGCs - 2 MCDUs - 2 FACs - 2 ECAMs
D. 2 FMGCs - 2 MCDUs - 2 ECAMs - 1 FCU control panel

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A320 Autoflight ATA
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36. The position of the ACFT, used in the flight plan is computed
by:
A. FG part of the FMGC

B. FM part of the FMGC
C. The DMC
D. The MCDU
37. The F/D is engaged:
A. By pressing the FD P/B on the FCU

B. Automatically at system power up
C. By selecting a mode on the FCU
D. By selecting the init page on the MCDU
38. The following AP/FD lateral modes are managed:
A. NAV, HDG, APPR, LOC, RWY, RWY TRK

B. HDG, NAV, APPR, LOC, GA TRK
C. NAV, APPR, LOC, RWY, RWYTRK, GA TRK
39. When the A/P is engaged, the rudder is normally controlled by:
A. The FMGC
B. The FAC
C. The ELAC
D. The SEC
40. The FMGC functions are:
A. Flight guidance and flight envelope protection

B. Flight management and flight envelope protection
C. Flight management and flight guidance
D. Flight envelope protection and yaw axis control
41. One of these SRS disengagement conditions is not true:
A. Disengages automatically at FCU selected altitude

B. Disengages automatically at acceleration altitude
C. Disengages manually by pulling the speed knob
D. Disengages by setting a new FCU altitude

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A320 Autoflight ATA
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42. Where is it possible to monitor the Vertical Deviation?
A. On PROG page during descent and approach phases

B. On PFD altitude scale, indicated by a magenta dot
C. Both A and B
43. To which NORTH reference are the wind entries on MCDU

based ?
A. True North
B. Magnetic North
C. True North, except on PERF APP page where the wind is Magnetic
North referenced.
44. In case of failure of one IRS, each FMGC, for position

computation uses :
A. The two remaining IRS

B. The RADIO position and the BIAS vector
C. Onside IRS or IRS 3
45. What does the”TOO STEEP PATH AHEAD” amber message on

MCDU means?
A. The A/C is approaching a descent segment between two constraints

waypoints that are impossible to fly with the planned descent speed
and half speed brake extended.
B. The descent may become too steep and the speed may reach MMO
or VMO.
46. Active and standby DATA BASE on the MCDUs are expired. Is it
possible to fly in NAV mode?
A. No. RAW DATA navigation only is allowable

B. Yes, but every data must be crosschecked as specified in G.B.
47. ATC request you to fly 10 Nm left, parallel of your route. Is it

possible to do it without disengaging NAV mode?
A. No. In this case it’s possible to fly only in HDG/TRK mode.

B. Yes, by updating and activating the SEC FPLN.
C. Yes, by making a lateral revision on the active F PLN at FROM WPT

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A320 Autoflight ATA
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48. The COST index assumed by FMGC to compute alternate trip

fuel time prediction is:
A. A value between 8 and 30, according to FL

B. 0
C. The value inserted on the Perf page
49. If you need to fly in Long range cruise, is it possible to obtain

from FMGC an ECON SPD/MACH?
A. Yes, by inserting a Cost index found on the table in FCOM 4.05.50

B. No, you must use the selected SPD/MACH according to the
performance chart
50. The FM position may be manually updated in flight on PROG

page. When MCDU request you CONFIRM UPDATE AT (sel
waypoint), that means:
A. FMGC requests you to confirm the waypoint chosen for updating.

Automatic updating will be performed over the selected waypoint.
B. When the A/C overflies the selected waypoint you have to depress
the related LSK on MCDU to start the updating of FM.
51. When A/THR is active, thrust levers :
A. Move by themselves according to thrust demands.

B. Move only when pilot moves them.
C. It's impossible to move thrust levers, because A/THR is active.
52. You can disengage the AP by :
A. Moving the sidestick or extending the flaps.

B. Moving the thrust levers or using the speed brakes.
C. Pushing the Take Over p/b on the sidestick, pushing again the AP
p/b on the FCU, or overriding the rudder pedals.
53. To display localizer and glide slope indications on the PFD,

you need:
A. Press the APPR p/b on the FCU.

B. Press the LS p/b on the EFIS control panel.
C. Press the LOC pushbutton on the FCU.

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A320 Autoflight ATA
2009
Questionnaire 22
Rev0
54. To switch from speed to Mach on FCU, you need to :
A. Push the speed knob.

B. Push the Speed/Mach p/b.
C. Push the HDG-V/S / TRK-FPA p/b.
55. MCDU failures are :
A. Announced through the ECAM system.

B. Self contained and reflected via announciators on the unit itself.
C. Displayed as messages on the scratch pad line only.
56. Select the true statement regarding the FMA :
A. Green display an active mode and white display an engaged

system.
B. Cyan display an active mode armed.
C. White display an armed mode.
57. According to these FMA indications :
A. The FD is in SRS and RWY modes. Thrust is at FLEX.

B. The FD is in GA mode with SRS and RWY modes active.
C. The aircraft thrust levers will advance to TOGA in 45 seconds.
58. If requested information such as GW, CRZ FL, and COST INDEX
are not set
A. The FMGC managed speed is not available.

B. You cannot select a speed on the FCU.
C. The FMGC cannot provide guidance commands.

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59. On the MCDU, the PERF FACTOR is :
A. Modifiable by the crew.

B. Not modifiable by the maintenance
C. Not accessible for the maintenance on status page.
60. According to this FMA status:
A. AP1 and A/THR are active, FD1+2 are on.

B. AP1 and A/THR are armed, FD1+2 are on.
C. AP1 and A/THR are armed and active; FD 1+2 are in standby
61. The NAV data base:
A. Has to be loaded at every AIRAC cycle.

B. Can be changed in flight if needed without any effect.
C. Cannot change automatically at every AIRAC cycle.
62. On the MCDU screen, please wait is displayed, according to

these indications:
A. The MCDU went into independent operation.

B. One FMGC has failed and the pilot should select FMGC 3.
C. A re-synchronization is in progress. The pilot should not use the
MCDU until this message disappears.
63. According to the MCDU POSITION MONITOR page, the RADIO,

and MIX IRS positions are slightly different. This is because:
A. The FMGC is malfunctioning.

B. The positions are calculated by the FMGC, by using a blend of IRS
position and RADIO position.
C. The IRS positioning is not accurate without a current update.

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A320 Autoflight ATA
2009
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64. The MIX IRS position is:
A. The FMGC position and the radio position averaged together.

B. An average of the bias and the radio position.
C. The average of the IRS 1, IRS 2 and IRS 3 positions.
65. During descent FMA indicates:
Pilot has to follow radar heading, what will the FMA indicate after
the HDG knob has been pulled ?
66. On the MCDU upper part, FM 1 amber annunciator is lighted, so

FM 1 has failed.
Therefore:
A. Auto tuning of the «1» navaids (VOR1, DME 1, ILS 1, ADF 1) is not
possible.
B. Auto tuning of radio navaids is not possible.
C. Auto tuning of all radio navaids is still available.
67. In order to manually tune the VOR on RMP, the pilot must:
A. Deselect VHF on his RMP.

B. Press the VOR key.
C. Press the NAV key and then press the VOR key.
68. ECON CRZ SPD/MACH, as computed by FMGS, is function of:
A. Gross Weight and Cost Index.

B. Gross weight and CG.
C. Cost Index, Cruise flight level, Gross weight and CG location, wind
and temperature models.

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A320 Autoflight ATA
2009
Rev0
69. The Flight Guidance part of the FMGS controls:
A. Flight Director, Autopilot, Autothrust.

B. Only the FD and cross track information.
C. The flight envelope computation and flight path.
70. The Flight Guidance function displays information on:
A. PFD, ND and ECAM displays.

B. ECAM only.
C. FCU and ECAM.
71. The AP function:
A. Is lost in case of both FM failure.

B. Remains available in case of both FM failure.
C. Remains available in case of both FG failure.
72. You are in cruise. According to this FCU:
A. Speed and lateral guidance are managed.

B. Speed is selected, lateral guidance is managed.
C. Speed and lateral guidance are selected.
73. You are in cruise. According to this FCU:
A. Speed and lateral guidance are managed.

B. Speed is selected, lateral guidance is managed.
C. Speed and lateral guidance are selected.

23
A320 Autoflight ATA
2009
Rev0
74. According to these FMA indications, the A/THR is:
A. Active.
B. Armed and not active.
C. Disconnected and not armed.
75. According to these cockpit indications
A. A/THR, FD1, and AP1 are all On.

B. A/THR and FD1 are On, AP1 is Off.
C. A/THR and both FD are Off, AP1 is On.

24
A320 Autoflight ATA
2009
Rev0
A. Speed is managed. The thrust is set by the computer.

B. Speed is selected. The thrust is set by the computer.
C. Speed is selected and the pilot will have to set the thrust.
A. A/THR, FD1 and AP1 are On, FD2 is not engaged.

B. A/THR and FD1 are On, AP1 is Off.
C. A/THR and FD1 are Off, AP1 is On.

25
A320 Autoflight ATA
2009
Rev0
78. According to these FMA indications
The aircraft is in approach, below 100 ft. According to the FMA:

A. Alpha Floor protection is not available.
B. Alpha Floor protection is available.
C. Alpha Floor protection has been activated.
The aircraft is in flight after takeoff:

The aircraft is in approach, above 100 ft. According to the FMA:


26
A320 Autoflight ATA
2009
Rev0
81. The crew entry of the ZFW and the CG is:
A. Mandatory on INIT B or FUEL PRED pages.

B. Not necessary because defaulted on ground by the WBS.
C. Not necessary because these information’s are sent by FAQ.
82. According to these FMA indications:
A. AP 1 is operational and engaged.

B. Both AP are operational and both AP are engaged.
C. One AP is engaged, but its operational status cannot be determined.
83. According to these indications, if the pilot wishes to continue

using the AP but wants to disengage the LAND MODE, he must:
A. Select a heading on the FCU.

B. Pull the altitude knob on the FCU.
C. Engage GO AROUND by pushing the thrust levers full forward.
84. When performing an autoland, the red AUTO LAND flashing
light means:
A. Autoland status confirmed.

B. Autoland must be engaged.
C. The pilot must execute a GO AROUND.
85. In case of one FMGC failure, the Flight Director (after ECAM
completed):
A. Is lost.
B. Is transferred to the other FMGC by pushing the F/D p/b off then
On.
C. Is automatically transferred to the other FMGEC.

27
A320 Autoflight ATA
2009
Rev0
86. During takeoff, the RUNWAY MODE makes you:
A. Follow the runway heading.

B. Keep the LOC axis.
C. Follow the track of the runway at the time of engagement.
87. The ROLL OUT mode makes you keep the heading of the
runway and:
A. You read ROLL OUT green on FMA.

B. This mode uses the LOC signal to guide the aircraft on the runway
center line.
C. Both answers are correct.
88. Performing a manual ILS approach (AP Off, FD and ATHR On),
the thrust reduction for landing:
A. Is manually performed.
B. Is always automatic.
C. Is automatic with A/THR On.
89. During landing, ATHR RETARD MODE automatically reduces

thrust:
A. When A/THR is engaged.

B. Always during ILS approach.
C. Only during autoland procedure.
90. During ILS app. (FD ON), LAND mode engaged and RA>100ft,
if transmission of the localizer is interrupted; the FD pitch bar:
A. Flashes permanently.
B. Disapears
C. Remains steady
91. You can engage both AP:
A. Anytime during flight.

B. Only when LOC and G/S are engaged or armed or GO AROUND
engaged.
C. As soon as the NAV MODE is engaged, on ground, engines running.

28
A320 Autoflight ATA
2009
Rev0
92. The ALT mode is engaged:
A. When reaching the altitude selected on FCU.

B. By pushing the V/S p/b.
93. During descent, V/S mode has been activated with

AP/FD/ATHR On; with selected speed on FCU, the target of AP
is:
A. V/S.
B. Selected speed.
C. V/S if less than 1000ft/mn.
94. Flying under NAV MODE, the airplane is reaching a flight plan
discontinuity:
A. Lateral guidance reverts to HDG.

B. The AP is disconnected with alarms.
C. The next WPT will be the next flight plan WPT inserted on MCDU.
95. During takeoff, to leave SRS MODE:
A. You have to reach the acceleration altitude inserted in MCDU.

B. You have to select speed on FCU.
96. During approach (AP/FD ON), the APPR p/b is green on FCU:
A. FD intercepts LOC then G/S.

B. AP intercepts LOC then G/S.
97. Below 400 ft during ILS approach, LAND MODE:
A. Can be disengaged by pulling HDG/TRK p/b.

B. Can be disengaged only by performing a GO AROUND procedure.
C. Can be disengaged by pushing APPR p/b

29
A320 Autoflight ATA
2009
Rev0
98. In flight A/THR On, you set the thrust lever to IDLE detent
then to CL detent:
A. A/THR remains active and thrust is selected to CLIMB.

B. A/THR remains active and controls speed.
C. A/THR is disconnected and thrust is selected to CLIMB.
99. In flight A/THR On, Thrust levers in CL detent, pilot

disconnects A/THR by pushing the A/THR p/b on FCU:
A. Thrust remains locked and "THR LK" flashes in the FMA.

B. Thrust increases slowly to CL.
C. Thrust increases rapidly to CL.
100. In flight A/THR ON, thrust levers between CL detent and MCT
detent, pilot disconnects A/THR by FCU p/b or A/THR failure
occurs:
A. Thrust is slowly increasing to CL.

B. Thrust is increasing to thrust corresponding to levers position.
C. Thrust is locked.
101. A/THR is armed:
A. When taking off by setting levers to FLX/MCT or TO/GA detent.

B. Manually by pushing A/THR p/b on FCU.
C. Both anwers are true.
102. When flying with one engine out, A/THR is active between:
A. IDLE-TO/GA.
B. IDLE-FLX/MCT.
C. IDLE-CL.
103. Alpha Floor protection is available:
A. A/THR active or not active, in any thrust levers positions.

B. A/THR active only.
C. Only if A/THR p/b has been armed on FCU.

30
A320 Autoflight ATA
2009
Rev0
104. LVR ASYM on FMA means:
A. Thrust is asymetric.
B. Only one thrust lever is set to FLEX/MCT or CL detent.
C. Abnormal lateral acceleration is detected by ADIRS.
105. The target speed on PFD is blue when:
A. Speed is managed by FMGS.

B. Speed is selected by pilot.
C. Speed is not selectable.
106. When pushing the APPR p/b on FCU:
A. LOC and GS modes are armed when performing ILS.

B. Approach phase is activated.
C. Speed automatically reduces to approach speed .
107. When A/THR is active (Thrust levers in CL detent), pushing

the A/THR p/b on thrust levers:
A. Thrust lock mode is activated.

B. TOGA LOCK mode is activated.
C. N1 is increasing or decreasing to thrust corresponding to thrust
levers angle.
108. During descent in OPEN DES mode, pilot selects an altitude

higher than aircraft altitude:
A. Vertical mode switches to V/S (present V/S of aircraft).

B. Vertical mode switches to OP CLB.
C. Vertical mode remains OPEN DES.
109. After start up, to update weight, pilot uses:
A. INIT B page on MCDU.

B. PROGRESS page on MCDU.
C. FUEL PRED page on MCDU.

31
A320 Autoflight ATA
2009
Rev0
110. DECEL point is:
A. Top of descent point.

B. Calculated point of deceleration to get VAPP at 1000 ft.
C. Start of deceleration to satisfy Speed limit.
111. In clean configuration, if approach phase is activated and

confirmed on PERF page:
A. Speed reduces to 250 kt.

B. ILS capture mode is engaged.
C. Managed speed reduces to Green Dot.
112. Using " Update function " on PROG page, pilot can modify:
A. MIX IRS.
B. Hour. (GMT)
C. FMS position.
113. SPD CSTR is a constraint associated to:
A. An altitude.
B. A waypoint.
C. A constraint inserted manually on PERF page.

32
A320 Autoflight 2009
Questionnaire ATA
22
TRTO Rev0
Answers

1 A 51 B
2 A 52 C
3 B 53 B
4 D 54 B
5 B 55 B
6 A 56 A
7 C 57 A
8 B 58 A
9 A 59 A
10 C 60 A
11 C 61 A
12 C 62 C
13 C 63 B
14 B 64 C
15 A 65 A
16 C 66 C
17 C 67 C
18 C 68 C
19 C 69 A
20 A 70 A
21 B 71 A
22 C 72 B
23 C 73 C
24 B 74 A
25 C 75 C
26 C 76 C
27 B 77 A
28 A 78 A
29 B 79 B
30 C 80 C
31 A 81 A
32 B 82 A
33 C 83 C
34 C 84 C
35 B 85 C
36 B 86 C
37 A 87 C
38 C 88 A
39 B 89 C
40 C 90 C
33
A320 Autoflight 2009
Questionnaire ATA
22
TRTO Rev0
Answers
41 D 91 B
42 C 92 A
43 B 93 A
44 C 94 A
45 A 95 C
46 B 96 C
47 C 97 B
48 B 98 C
49 A 99 A
50 B 100 C
101 C
102 B
103 A
104 B
105 B
106 A
107 C
108 A
109 C
110 B
111 C
112 C
113 B

34
A320 Communication ATA
2009
Rev0
1. Stby nav has been selected by the use of nav key:
A. VHF function is lost on this RMP

B. VHF is still available but only the last frequency selected can be used
C. Nav key has no effect on radio com frequency selection
2. How do you receive ATIS information using the VOR?
A. Selecting “ON VOICE” key on the ACP and VOR reception knob
B. Selecting “ON VOICE” key only
3. If RMP 2 fails:
A. The whole system is inoperative

B. VHF2 and HF2 frequencies cannot be controlled
C. All com systems can be controlled by any other RMP
D. Only VHF2 frequencies cannot be controlled
4. How do you deselect "ON VOICE” green light?
A. By depressing again the "ON VOICE” key

B. By depressing the VOR reception knob
C. A and B
5. In case of dual FMGC failure, selection of radio navigation

frequencies is possible with:
A. RMP 1 only
B. RMP 1 and 2 only
C. RMP 1, 2 and 3
6. If you select VHF 2 on RMP 1, the “SEL” light illuminates on:
A. RMP 1 and RMP 2

B. RMP 1, RMP 2 and RMP 3
C. RMP 1 only
D. RMP 2 only
A320 Communication Questionnaire

35
2009
Rev0
7. You receive a selcal on VHF 2, what happens on your ACP:
A. “CALL” legend flashes amber on VHF 2 key

B. Three green bars come on
C. White selcal appears on VHF 2 p/b and VHF 2 reception selector
illuminates white
8. What is the function of the “RESET” push button on the ACP?
A. To restart system operation

B. To cancel the previous selections
C. To extinguish “CALL”, “MECH”, or “ATT” light.
9. Can you tune VOR 2 with RMP 1 ?
A. Yes
B. No
10. Is stby/nav tuning possible on RMP 3:
A. Yes
B. No
11. On RMP, the “ON/OFF” switch controls:
A. The power supply to the RMP

B. Only the stby nav function of RMP
C. Only the com function of RMP
12. If RMP 1 fails the crew can only use RMP 2 and 3:
A. By switching off RMP 1, then using RMP 2 and 3

B. By using “AUDIO SWITCHING” on the overhead panel : CAPT 3
13. If an RMP fails, the selected receiver is no longer controlled by

this RMP, frequency display disappears and green VHF or HF
lights go out on this RMP :
A. True
B. False

36
2009
Rev0
14. You make a STBY/NAV selection on a pedestal RMP, can you

confirm that selection on MCDU RAD/NAV page?
A. Yes
B. No
15. When you select “CAPT 3” on the audio switching panel:
A. The captain uses headset of 3 rd occupant

B. 3 rd occupant uses captain equipment
C. The captain uses his acoustic equipment and the 3 rd occupant ACP
16. You push “MECH” transmission key on the ACP panel:
A. You can speak to ground MECH through the handset

B. You can speak to ground MECH via ACP “INT” key
C. You are on line with ground MECH via ACP “CAB” key
17. In normal operation, RMP 1 is dedicated to:
A. HF 1 and HF 2
B. VHF 1
C. VHF 2
D. HF 1
18. You want to erase the CVR recording:
A. You push the “CVR ERASE” p/b one time

B. You push the “CVR ERASE” p/b for 2 seconds in flight
C. You push the “CVR ERASE” p/b more than 2 seconds, but “Parking
Brake” has to be ON.
19. Interphone system allows you to speak to:
A. The cabin attendants and the mechanic on the ground

B. All occupants in the cockpit
C. All answers are corrects

37
2009
Rev0
20. To activate the voice recorder before engine start you have to
press:
A. The “CVR ERASE” p/b

B. The “GND CTL” p/b
C. The “CVR TEST” p/b
21. To communicate with ground mechanic at the engine nacelle

position, the crew must use the following audio system
selection:
A. MECH + INT
B. ATT + CAB
C. Any of the above
22. Cockpit voice recorder is energized on GND as soon as ACFT

electrical network is supplied but only for 5 minutes. It starts
again as soon as:
A. GND CTL is on
B. One engine is running
C. A and B
23. What is the main purpose of the RMP:
A. To select radio frequencies

B. To tune navaids when the MCDU has failed
C. A and B
24. Can you transmit on VHF and the PA at the same time:
A. Never
B. Yes by pressing RAD toggle switch and PA key
C. Yes by using stick PTT command and PA key
25. Can you hear the navaid identification tuned through the
STBY/NAV:
A. Yes, by pressing corresponding reception knob

B. Yes, by pressing a LSK on the MCDU

38
2009
Rev0
26. Can you use service interphone system in flight:
A. Yes, after switching “SVCE INT OVRD” ON

B. No
27. If VHF 1 is selected on RMP 2, “SEL” light illuminates white:
A. On RMP 2
B. On RMP 1
C. On RMP 1 and 2

39
2009
TRTO Answers 23
Rev0
Questions N° Answers
1 C
2 A
3 C
4 A
5 B
6 A
7 A
8 C
9 B
10 B
11 A
12 A
13 A
14 B
15 C
16 B
17 B
18 C
19 C
20 B
21 B
22 C
23 C
24 A
25 A
26 A
27 C

40
A320 Electrical ATA
2009
Rev0
1. AC ESS BUS is normally supplied by:
A. AC BUS 1
B. AC BUS 2
C. EMERGENCY GENERATOR
D. STATIC INVERTER
2. The external power has priority over the APU gen:
A. Yes
B. No
3. The static inverter transforms the DC current from battery 1

into :
A. Single phase 115V - 400 HZ ac current

B. Three phases 115/200V - 400 HZ ac current
4. In flight, on batteries only, the AC ESS shed bus and the DC ESS
shed bus are lost :
A. Yes
B. No
5. In normal configuration, how is DC ESS BUS supplied?
A. From TR1
B. From ESS TR
C. From TR2
D. From BAT 2
6. The static inverter works automatically when the ACFT speed is

above 50kts regardless of the BAT switch position:
A. False
B. True
C. Only when one main generator fails
A320 Electrical Questionnaire

41
A320 Electrical ATA
2009
Rev0
7. Normal minimum battery voltage before APU start is:
A. 22 V
B. 25.5 V
C. 27.5 V
D. No minimum
8. In case of flight on BAT only the AC ESS bus is supplied by:
A. Static inverter
B. EMER GEN
C. Both
9. What happens when the gen 1 line p/b is set to "OFF"?
A. AC BUS 1 and 2 are not powered and emergency generator is

automatically connected
B. AC BUS 1 is powered by the gen 2 because the gen 1 is deactivated
C. AC BUS 1 is powered by the gen 2 because the gen 1 line contactor
is opened
D. AC BUS 1 is not powered because the gen 1 line contactor is opened
10. What does an "AVAIL" EXT PWR p/b illumination in green

mean:
A. The EXT PWR is plugged in and external power parameters are

normal
B. The a/c network is supplied
11. The IDG regulates the:
A. Speed of the generator

B. Voltage of the generator
C. Frequency of the generator
12. In case of TR1 and TR2 failure :
A. DC BUS 1, DC BUS 2, DC BAT BUS are lost

B. AC ESS BUS, AC ESS SHED BUS are lost
C. DC ESS BUS is lost

42
A320 Electrical ATA
2009
Rev0
13. What happens during the EMER GEN test when AC normal
buses are supplied?
A. The RAM air turbine (rat) is extended

B. The EMER GEN is driven hydraulically if the blue electric pump is
running and the AC ESS bus and the DC ESS bus are connected to
the emergency generator
C. The green system is pressurized and the emergency generator
comes on line
14. AC ESS BUS is normally supplied by :
A. AC BUS 1
B. AC BUS 2
C. STATIC INVERTER
15. When disconnecting the IDG, the button should be pressed:
A. For no more than 3 secs

B. For longer than 3 secs
C. Until fault light goes out
D. For no more than 5 secs
16. What happens in case of total loss of main generators?
A. The RAT is automatically extended and powers the yellow system

which drives the EMER GEN
B. The RAT is automatically extended and powers the blue system
which drives the EMER GEN
C. The RAT has to be manually extended and mechanically connected
to the EMER GEN
17. In flight, in case of loss of all main generators, emergency

generator running, the DC ESS bus is supplied by the:
A. HOT BUS
B. ESS TR
C. BOTH

43
A320 Electrical ATA
2009
Rev0
18. When is the DC BAT bus supplied by the batteries?
A. APU starting
B. Loss of AC BUS 1 + 2 (speed<100 kts)
C. A and B
19. In case of failure of one TR:
A. The other TR takes over automatically

B. The other TR takes over after pilot’s action
20. Can you reconnect the IDG in flight?
A. Yes
B. No
21. When operating, gen 1 and gen 2 have priority over APU gen:
A. Yes
B. No
22. On the EMER ELEC PWR panel, a fault light illuminates in red
under the <RAT AND EMER GEN> label. What does it mean?
A. RAT is not extended

B. Emergency generator is supplying but AC ESS bus is not powered
C. Emergency generator is not supplying power when AC BUS 1 and 2
are not powered
23. Generators are sometimes connected in parallel:
A. Yes
B. No
24. When APU is available, if one generator fails, the failed

generator is replaced by:
A. The APU
B. The other engine generator

44
A320 Electrical ATA
2009
Rev0
25. In cold aircraft configuration (no ac and no dc supply), where

can the batteries voltage can be checked?
A. On the ECAM ELEC page

B. On the ELEC overhead panel
C. There is no indication
26. Can the ESS TR replace a faulty TR1 or TR2 to power DC ESS?
A. Yes
B. No
27. DC BAT BUS can be supplied by:
A. DC BUS 1 or BATTERIES
B. DC BUS 1, DC BUS 2 or BATTERIES
C. DC BUS 2 or BATTERIES
28. AC BUS tie contactors enable the electrical system:
A. To be connected in parallel
B. To be supplied by any generator or external power
C. To be supplied by APU gen or EXT PWR only
29. Only one generator is operating in flight:
A. Main galley is automatically shed

B. Secondary galley is automatically shed
C. All galleys are shed
30. When gen 1 or gen 2 is selected to "off" position:
A. The gen is de-energized and line contactor is open

B. The gen is still energized and line contactor is open
31. On ground what happens with the <RAT AND EMER GEN MAN
ON>when the p/b is pressed in :
A. The RAT is extended

B. The emergency generator is activated
C. Nothing

45
A320 Electrical ATA
2009
Rev0
32. If AC bus 1 fails the AC ESS bus is supplied by:
A. EMER GEN
B. AC BUS 2
C. STATIC INVERTER
33. The BAT fault light illuminates when:
A. Battery voltage < 25 v

B. Battery p/b set OFF in flight
C. Charging current is outside limits
34. When you want to check battery voltage, you must set the BAT
p/b to:
A. AUTO position
B. OFF position
35. If both batteries voltage is below minimum you have to charge

the batteries. How do you proceed?
A. I only have to switch the batteries to AUTO and they will be

charged.
B. I have to switch the external power to ON and the batteries to AUTO
and the batteries will be charged.
C. I have to call a mechanic because the batteries can only be charged
by maintenance.

46
A320 Electrical ATA
2009
Rev0
36. After having switched the external power to ON, you get the
following indications. How do you interpret the amber
generator parameters and the generator fault lights?
A. A failure has been detected. The generators will not be able to

supply the electrical system after engine start.
B. There is an internal self test in progress. The fault lights and the
amber indications should disappear after 30 seconds.
C. On ground these indications are normal when the engines are not
running.
37. How long does the charging process of the batteries

approximately take?
A. 10 mins
B. 20 mins
C. 1 h
38. What is the order of priority for the different generators on

GND?
A. Engines, external power, APU

B. APU, engines, external power
C. External power, engines, APU
D. APU, external power, engines

47
A320 Electrical ATA
2009
Rev0
39. If after and IDG 2 OVHT, the IDG 2 oil temperature has cooled
down to a ‘green’ value. Can you reconnect the IDG?
A. No. The IDG can only be reconnected on ground.

B. Yes. I have to press the IDG disconnect pushbutton for more than 3
seconds.
C. Yes. I have to press the IDG disconnect pushbutton and the
generator 2 pushbutton simultaneously.
40. Shortly after losing AC Bus 1 + 2, you notice the red FAULT
light on the RAT & EMER GEN pushbutton. How do you interpret
this indication?
A. The EMER GEN is not yet supplying the system.

B. The EMER GEN has failed. You will have to fly on batteries only.
C. The RAT has failed. You will have to fly on batteries only.
D. The FAULT light is always on when you are in ELEC EMER CONFIG.
41. In case of EMER ELEC config, why is the ECAM asking you to
press the BUS TIE p/b to “Off”
A. To separate both sides of the electrical system.

B. To connect both generators directly to the AC ESS BUS
C. To connect both sides of the electrical system.
D. To switch both generators to the opposite side AC BUS.

48
A320 Electrical ATA
2009
TRTO Answers 24
Rev0

1 A 41 A
2 A
3 A
4 A
5 A
6 B
7 B
8 A
9 C
10 A
11 A
12 A
13 B
14 A
15 A
16 B
17 B
18 C
19 A
20 B
21 A
22 C
23 B
24 A
25 B
26 A
27 B
28 B
29 A
30 A
31 A
32 B
33 C
34 B
35 B
36 C
37 B
38 A
39 A
40 A

49
A320 Equipment ATA
2009
Rev0
1. What is the effective time of use of the smoke hood? (New A320
type)
A. 20 minutes
B. 15 minutes
C. 22 minutes
2. What kind of signal and on which frequency does the

emergency radio beacon transmit?
A. Continuous simultaneously on 121,5 MHz, 243 MHz and 406,25 MHz

B. Continuous on 121,5 MHz
C. Continuous on 243 MHz
3. What does a blue indication mean on a pushbutton?
A. Normal operation
B. Normal operation of a system used temporarily
C. Indication during a test
4. Which items are included in the portable oxygen system?
A. Smoke hood, portable oxygen cylinder, cockpit oxygen system

B. Smoke hood, portable oxygen cylinder and continuous flow oxygen
mask
A320 Equipment Questionnaire

50
A320 Equipment 2009
Questionnaire ATA
25
TRTO Rev0
Answers
1 A
2 A
3 B
4 B
A320 Equipment Questionnaire

51
A320 Fire ATA
2009
Rev0
1. Lavatory smoke detectors are situated in each lavatory.
A. True
B. False
2. When engine fire p/b is released out, which valve is affected?
A. LP FUEL SHUT OFF VALVE + HYD + BLEED + PACK + ELEC GEN

B. HYDRAULIC FIRE SHUT OFF VALVE
C. FUEL VALVE
3. What does the engine fire test p/b verifies?
A. The detection system loop circuit integrity

B. The squib circuits and the bottle pressure of extinguishing system
C. Both A and B are correct
4. With 'avionics smoke' warning activated the 'smoke' light

illuminates in the:
A. BUS TIE P/B

B. GEN 1 P/B
C. GEN 1 LINE P/B
5. Where are the engine fire detectors located?
A. On the fan and the turbine

B. On the pylon, the fan and the core
C. On the core and the gear box
6. When the APU fire p/b is released out, the:
A. APU generator is de activated

B. APU generator is disconnected
C. APU generator is energized
7. Lavatory smoke detectors send warnings to:
A. ECAM and nose interphone panel

B. ECAM and CIDS
C. ECAM , EIDS and nose interphone panel
A320 Fire Questionnaire
52
A320 Fire ATA
2009
Rev0
8. The agent p/b is active when :
A. The corresponding 'disch' light is on

B. Engine fire p/b illuminates
C. Engine fire p/b is pressed and released
9. Air conditioning smoke warning is activated if smoke detected

in:
A. Air conditioning duct

B. Hot air manifold
C. No warning system is installed
10. How many fire detectors does the APU fire detector system
comprise:
A. 3
B. 2
C. 1
11. Is it necessary to use the APU shut off p/b on the external
power panel in case of an APU fire auto extinguishing on
ground?
A. Yes
B. No
12. When an eng fire p/b is released out, the squib lights are
illuminated:
A. Yes
B. No
13. Is the extinguishing system of the engines controlled by the

FDU?
A. Yes
B. No

53
A320 Fire ATA
2009
Rev0
14. How is an APU fire on ground normally extinguished?
A. From APU fire panel

B. Automatically
C. From external power panel
15. At activation of 'lavatory smoke' warning, the fire

extinguishing system is automatically discharged:
A. True
B. False
16. The engine and APU fire protection system includes:
A. 1 fire agent bottle for each engine / 1 fire agent bottle for the APU
B. 2 fire agent bottles for the engines / 2 fire agent bottles for the APU
C. 2 fire agent bottles for each engine / 1 fire agent bottle for the APU
17. The avionic bay smoke detector is located in the:
A. Avionics bay
B. Ventilation extract duct
C. Skin heat exchanger
18. Avionics smoke warning is inhibited during take-off from:
A. 80 KTS TO LIFT-OFF
B. 80 KTS TO 1500 FT
C. NOT INHIBITED
19. When the eng fire p/b is released out what aircraft systems
are isolated?
A. Fuel, electricity, air

B. Fuel, hydraulic, air
C. Fuel, air, electricity, hydraulic
20. Which additional external warnings are activated in case of an

APU fire on ground?
A. APU fire light accompanied by an external horn warning

B. An external horn warning
C. A fire bell warning
54
A320 Fire ATA
2009
Rev0
21. How can a thermal discharge of the APU fire bottle be detected
when no electrical power is connected?
A. By the FDU
B. By the ECAM
C. By the red disc indicator
22. Smoke detection systems are installed in:
A. Avionics bay and cargo bay

B. Avionics bay , cargo bay and lavatories
C. As in 2 + the galleys
23. What systems are isolated when APU fire p/b is released out?
A. Fuel, electricity
B. Air, electricity
C. Fuel, air, electricity
24. When engine fire p/b is released out which corresponding

valves are closed?
A. Fuel cross feed valve

B. LP fuel and hydraulic fire valves
C. HP fuel SOV
25. When pressing the cargo smoke test p/b, the smoke detectors
are tested by SDCU, the red smoke light comes on twice
associated with ECAM and the isolation valves close:
A. True
B. False
26. Are the agents p/bs also active when the Engine Fire p/b is IN
and Guarded position?
A. No
B. Yes
C. Yes, but only when engine is actually burning

55
A320 Fire ATA
2009
Rev0
27. How many loops are checked in each engine during a test?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
28. There is a fault in loop A. What happens when loop B reacts to

an overheat condition?
A. The FDU will not initiate a fire warning

B. The FDU will initiate a fire warning
C. The FDU can no longer initiate a fire warning because it must have 2
loops in order to operate
29. The engine and APU fire detection system are controlled by the
FDU.
A. True
B. False
30. Where are the engine fire detectors located?
A. On the pylon, fan and the core section

B. On the core and the gearbox
C. On the fan and the turbine
31. How are the fire extinguishers bottles (APU or engine)

discharged?
A. Electrically
B. Pneumatically
C. Hydraulically
32. You perform an APU fire test with the APU running. How the
APU does react?
A. It just keeps on running

B. It shuts down automatically
C. The test is inhibited when the APU is running

56
A320 Fire ATA
2009
Rev0
33. Batteries ON, APU OFF, EXT ELEC not connected. During the
APU fire test, the APU fire p/b illuminates red, but there is no
master warning and no aural warning. What is the problem?
A. Fire test not satisfactory

B. Fire test OK
C. Call maintenance

57
A320 Fire ATA
2009
TRTO Answers 26
Rev0

1 A
2 A
3 C
4 C
5 B
6 A
7 B
8 C
9 C
10 C
11 B
12 A
13 B
14 B
15 B
16 C
17 B
18 B
19 C
20 A
21 C
22 B
23 C
24 B
25 A
26 A
27 B
28 B
29 A
30 A
31 A
32 A
33 B

58
A320 Flight Controls ATA
2009
Rev0
1. The PITCH DIRECT LAW is:
A. A load factor demand with no protection.

B. A direct side stick to elevator relationship.
C. A direct side stick to elevator relationship with auto trim operation.
2. ELEVATORS, AILERONS, SPOILERS are:
A. Hydraulically actuated and mechanically controlled.

B. Electrically actuated and hydraulically controlled.
C. Hydraulically actuated and Electrically controlled.
3. Rudder Control is Electrical for:
A. Yaw Damping and Trim.

B. Yaw Damping and Roll.
C. Yaw Damping.
4. Which statement is correct?
A. Ground Spoiler function: all Spoilers deploy.

B. Speed Brake Function: Spoilers 1.2.3. deploy.
C. Roll Function: Ailerons + Spoilers 4 and 5 deploy.
5. Which are the limits for manoeuvre protection?
A. + 2,5 G - 1 G FLAPS RETRACTED

B. + 2 G - 0 FLAPS EXTENDED.
C. A and B
6. How can a deactivated STICK be reactivated?
A. By momentary action on take over p/b of the deactivated STICK.

B. By momentary action on take over p/b of the active STICK.
C. A or B above.
A320 Flight Controls Questionnaire

59
2009
Rev0
7. Which signals cause rudder pedal movement?
A. Turn Coordination Signals.

B. Yaw Damping Signals.
C. Rudder Trim Signals.
8. Which surfaces are used as Ground Spoilers?
A. Spoilers 1 to 4.
B. All Spoilers.
C. Spoilers 1 to 3.
9. When both STICKS are moved in the same or opposite direction:
A. Both pilot inputs are algebraically added.

B. The left STICK has a priority.
C. The surface movement is proportional to the last STICK deflected.
10. Slats SYS 1 FAULT on the E/WD means:
A. SFCC 1 has failed.

B. The Slat Channel of one SFCC has failed.
11. In NORMAL LAW, the STALL WARNING is activated:
A. AOA corresponding to STALL WARNING cannot be reached in

NORMAL LAW.
B. When a MAX is reached.
C. When a PROT is reached.
12. The PITCH NORMAL LAW provides
A. Load factor + high angle of attack + high speed + pitch attitude

protections.
B. Load factor protection + pitch att. protection + low speed stability.
C. Load factor + pitch attitude + high speed protections.

60
2009
Rev0
13. Which of the following functions is carried out by the FLIGHT

CONTROL COMPUTERS?
A. Maintaining a safe flight envelope.

B. Simulation of artificial feel for the SIDE Sticks.
C. Conversion of Rudder Pedal inputs into Electrical Control Signals for
the Rudder.
14. What are the different laws in which the FLIGHT CONTROL
COMPUTERS can operate?
A. Normal law, alternate law, back up law.

B. Normal law, alternate law, direct law.
C. Automatic law, ground law, flight law.
15. You initiate a turn by moving the SIDESTICK sideways. Which

control surfaces are affected?
A. Ailerons, Roll spoilers, Rudder and THS.

B. Ailerons, Roll spoilers and Elevators.
C. Ailerons and Roll spoilers.
16. While flying manually in a 25° bank turn, you reduce the
speed. Do you have to trim the aircraft?
A. No, AUTO TRIM will take care of things.

B. Yes. AUTO TRIM is only available when at least one Autopilot is
engaged.
C. No, but a light pitch up input must be applied as long as you are in
the turn.
17. By accident, you hold the SIDESTICK deflected for too long,
and are already at 45° bank. You realise your mistake, and
release the SIDESTICK. What happens next?
A. The aircraft maintains 45° bank.

B. The aircraft reduces the bank angle to 33°.
C. The aircraft reduces the bank angle to 0°.

61
2009
Rev0
18. What do you command in the pitch channel when you deflect
the SIDESTICK in normal flight?
A. Attitude.
B. Load Factor.
C. Pitch Rate.
19. After climbing with climb power set (no A/THR) you LEVEL OFF
but do not reduce power far enough. What happens?
A. On reaching the selected cruising speed, auto thrust engages and

takes over speed control.
B. The Over speed Warning activates. You must take corrective action.
C. High Speed Protection activates at VMO +4 kt. Pitch increases
automatically and VMO is maintained.
20. In NORMAL LAW, the SIDESTICK commands a LOAD FACTOR

demand. In what situation does the SIDESTICK command an
ANGLE OF ATTACK demand?
A. At bank angle > 33°.

B. After the Stall Warning has activated.
C. When the ANGLE OF ATTACK protection activates.
21. In which LAW do you have no active protections?
A. NORMAL LAW.
B. ALT LAW (reduced protections).
C. DIRECT LAW.
22. Which Flight Control Surfaces are available with all flight
control computers failed (MECHANICAL BACK UP)?
A. The right Elevator, the THS and the Ailerons.

B. All surfaces operated by the Green Hydraulic system.
C. THS and Rudder.

62
2009
Rev0
23. The left SIDESTICK is not reacting anymore. The left red
SIDESTICK priority light is illuminated, what’s going on now?
A. Your SIDESTICK has an electrical fault.

B. The TAKE OVER p/b on the right SIDESTICK is being pressed and
now has priority.
C. An Autopilot is engaged.
24. You are in flight and move the Flaps lever from 0 to 1. Which
Slats/Flaps configuration do you achieve?
A. 1 (slats)
B. 1 + F.
C. 0.(slats)
25. You have forgotten to set the SPEED BRAKE lever to the armed
position for landing. The Ground Spoilers deploy automatically
after landing...
A. ...when ground condition is sensed and all thrust levers are in idle.
B. ...only when at least one thrust lever is in reverse and the others
are in idle.
C. ...They do not deploy automatically.
26. What happens when both pilots move their SIDESTICK in the
same direction?
A. Both inputs are added, up to a maximum deflection.

B. Both inputs are added, without limitation.
C. Nothing.

63
2009
Rev0
27. You are flying manually in level flight. You slowly reduce
thrust. How does the aircraft react?
A. The aircraft maintains altitude, pitch increases and the stabilizer

trims automatically to compensate.
B. The aircraft pitches down, goes into descent and tries to maintain
speed.
28. Which limits are automatically maintained by the Flight Control

Computers?
A. + 3 G to -2 G.
B. +2,0 G to 0 G with Flaps extended.(or +2,5 G to -1 G in clean
config)
C. +1G to 0.5G
29. Can you override the HIGH SPEED PROTECTION by applying

full forward SIDESTICK?(Normal law)
A. Yes, pilot input always has priority.

B. No
C. Yes, if both SlDESTlCKs are moved full forward.
30. You are in manual flight. After descent, you LEVEL OFF, but
leave the power in IDLE. What happens next?
A. The aircraft maintains altitude until reaching V PROT, then goes

automatically into descent.
B. The aircraft maintains altitude (and trims) until it stalls.
C. The aircraft maintains altitude (and trims) until the stick shaker
activates.
31. You want to fly a steep turn (45°) without losing altitude. To
do this, you must...
A. ...deflect the SIDESTICK to the side and simultaneously pull back.

B. ...hold the SIDESTICK to the side only.
C. ...bank to 45° and then release the SIDESTICK to neutral.

64
2009
Rev0
32. When the Two Rudder Trim functions are engaged:
A. Rudder Trim 1 and 2 control their motors together.

B. Rudder Trim 1 controls the single trim motor.
C. Rudder Trim 1 controls its motor; Rudder Trim 2 is in standby.
33. During PF Flight Controls check:
A. PNF checks correct movements of the control surfaces on ECAM

F/CTL page and PFD.
B. PNF checks PF side stick deflections on PF PFD and checks correct
movement of control surfaces on ECAM F/CTL page.
C. PNF checks PF side stick deflections on PFD; PF checks correct
movement of control surfaces on ECAM F/CTL page.
34. α PROTECTION function is active:
A. From lift off to touch down.

B. From lift off to 100 ft RA before landing.
C. From 5 sec after liftoff to 50 ft RA.
35. All flight controls are:
A. Electrically controlled and hydraulically actuated.

B. Electrically controlled with mechanical back up control and
hydraulically actuated.
C. Electrically controlled and hydraulically actuated with mechanical
reversion capability.
36. All flight controls are actuated by hydraulic servos which are
controlled by computers:
A. Or cables.
B. But the THS and rudder trim may also be controlled by cables.
C. But the THS and rudder servo may also be controlled by cables.
37. The sidestick inputs result in adjusting:
A. The pitch and roll only.

B. The pitch and roll and yaw (indirectly through turn coordination).
C. The elevators, ailerons and nosewheel steering (during ground
operation).

65
2009
Rev0
38. The A320 is being hand flown in normal law. It is established

in a 20° left bank turn, to maintain the altitude, the pilot:
A. Must continually apply aft pressure to the sidestick.

B. Does not need to make any additional pitch inputs; the flight
control system will maintain a level flight path.
C. Is required to apply minor forward sticks inputs.
39. The A320 is in a slight climb in normal law; immediately after

the pilot releases the stick to neutral, the flight controls will:
A. Lower the nose to regain a level flight path.

B. Maintain the current flight path.
C. Raise the nose to a steeper flight path.
40. Your A320 is in level flight in normal law, with stick releases
and airspeed slowed by 20 kt, the flight controls will:
A. Raise the nose as necessary to maintain the current flight path.

B. Lower the nose to maintain the current air speed.
C. Maintain the current pitch attitude and allow the aircraft to begin to
sink.
41. THS auto trim function is active:
A. When the A 320 is hand flown.

B. When either AP is engaged.
42. THS auto trim function is neutralized when:
A. AP in engaged.
B. Trim wheel is used in the cockpit, or high speed protection is active.
C. G Load becomes greater than 0.5 g.

66
2009
Rev0
43. On A 320, pitch attitude protection limits pitch attitude of the

aircraft to:
A. 30° nose up (reduced to 25° nose up on low speed) - 20° nose

down.)
B. 25° nose up - 30° nose down.
C. 30° nose up (reduced to 25° nose up on low speed) - 15° nose
down.(in CONF 0 to 3)
44. Your A320 is in a 45° bank turn and has entered high speed
protection; if the stick is released to neutral protection, the
A/C will:
A. Maintain 45° of bank.

B. Roll to 33° of bank.
C. Roll to 0° of bank.
45. You fly your A320 in a high pitch climb (AP OFF); airspeed is
dropping close to alpha max; if you maintain the sidestick in
the full aft position
A. Airspeed will decrease and the aircraft will stall.

B. Airspeed will increase because of alpha floor protection.
C. Airspeed will stabilize and the aircraft will not stall.
46. If alarm " SPEED SPEED SPEED " sounds in the cockpit:
A. High speed protection is active.

B. Thrust is not high enough to fly the A/C on a positive slope.
C. You must reduce speed to idle when landing.
47. You fly your A320 in level flight (AP off) in alternate law; idle
power is selected and sidestick is free:
A. Airspeed decreases and will stabilize at VLS, and A/C will maintain
flight level.
B. A/C will pitch down to maintain speed between VSW and VLS.
C. A/C will stall if the sidestick is not pushed forward

67
2009
Rev0
48. You fly your A320 in descent in alternate law (manual flight);
airspeed becomes greater than VMO/MMO:
A. If the sidestick is held full forward, airspeed will decrease to

VMO/MMO.
B. If the sidestick is released to neutral, the A/C will pitch up
automatically.
C. If the sidestick is released to neutral, airspeed will increase
unchecked.
49. If red message " MAN PITCH TRIM ONLY " appears on PFD:
A. The A/C can be controlled using sidesticks only.

B. The A/C can be controlled using the THS and the rudder
(mechanical back up).
C. The A/C can be controlled only by the THS.(rudder is not available)
50. When the A320 is hand flown, on normal law, with A/THR on
speed mode, high angle of attack protection:
A. Can be overridden by the pilot.

B. Cannot be overriden by the pilot.
C. Is not available.
51. Amber message " USE MAN PITCH TRIM " appears on PFD:
A. The A/C is in alternate law .

B. The A/C is operated in direct law, but reduced high angle of attack is
available.
C. The A/C is operated in direct law, and all flight protections are inoperative.
52. Loss of hydraulic power on one of the spoiler servos will cause
that surface to:
A. Retract.
B. Remain in the position at time of failure or less.
C. Extend fully.
53. Aileron droop occurs:
A. Always on the GND but not in flight when flaps are extended
B. In flight, only when slats are extended.
C. Is not installed on A320.

68
2009
Rev0
54. After an automatic flaps retraction in CONF 1, the flaps will

automatically re-extend when the speed decreases?
A. Yes
B. No
55. What happens if SFCC1 fails?
A. Flaps/Slats are lost.

B. Flaps/Slats operate at half speed.
C. Flaps/Slats operate normally.
56. With yaw damping or turn coordination functions:
A. You can feel the inputs with rudder pedal movement.

B. No feedback to the rudder pedals is provided.
C. Feedback is provided only when the A/P is off.
57. When an hydraulic failure occurs, the associated slats and

flaps:
A. Extend at half speed.

B. Extend normally.
C. Are jammed.
58. When retracting slats from 1 to 0, if A Lock message appears

on EWD ; it means:
A. Slats cannot retract, speed is too slow.

B. Slats retracting normally but alarm appears to set the engines in
TOGA mode .
C. Slats cannot retract and alarm appears to set the engines in TOGA
mode.
59. The sidesticks are used to:
A. Control the A/C in pitch and roll and are spring loaded to the
neutral position.
B. Control the A/C in pitch roll and yaw and are manually returned to
the neutral position.
C. Control the A/C in pitch roll and indirectly yaw and are spring
loaded to the neutral position.

69
2009
Rev0
60. Pushing the " RESET " p/b on the rudder trim control panel:
A. Resets the rudder trim to zero degree.

B. Resets the rudder trim to the value displayed on the position
indicator.
C. Resets the rudder trim to the last position prior to AP activation.
61. The use of the manual trim wheel is:
A. Always possible.
B. Impossible in case of total hydraulic loss.
C. Impossible in case of total electric loss.
62. Amber ECAM message " F/CTL FLAPS LOCKED " means:
A. Further flap operation is not possible.

B. Further slat and flap operation is not possible.
C. Further slat operation is not possible.
63. Pitch control is provided by:
A. 2 independent elevators and a trimmable horizontal stabilizer.

B. 2 interconnected elevators and a trimmable horizontal stabilizer.
C. 2 interconnected elevators with trim tabs and a trimmable
horizontal stabilizer.
64. The ailerons are each actuated by:
A. 2 hydraulic servos, each powered by one of two hydraulic systems.

B. 2 hydraulic servos, each powered by one of three hydraulic
systems.
C. 3 hydraulic servos, each powered by one of two hydraulic systems.
65. The speed brakes surfaces are:
A. Spoilers 1 to 5.
B. Spoilers 2 to 6.
C. Spoilers 2,3,4.

70
2009
Rev0
66. Each ELEVATOR servo jack has:
A. 2 control modes: active and damping.

B. 2 control modes: active and centering.
C. 3 control modes: active, damping and centering.
67. If an active elevator servo jack fails, the damped one becomes
active, what happens to the failed jack?
A. It is automatically switched to damping mode.

B. It is manually switched to damping mode.
C. It is automatically switched to centering mode.
68. If Green hydraulic system is inoperative:
A. The slats flaps are operating at half speed.

B. The wing tip brakes (WTB) are activated and the corresponding
surfaces remain at previous position.
C. The slats flaps are normally operating.
69. Ground spoilers extension at landing must be done:
A. Manually.
B. Automatically.
70. The SIDE STICK PRIORITY signal is flashing green, it means:
A. This side stick has the priority.

B. Both side sticks are not in a neutral position.
C. The other side stick has been “killed”.
71. Speed brakes lever has been set on “Arm” position, during an
aborted T/O above 72 kts. To extend spoilers, the pilot has to:
A. Retard thrust levers to idle.

B. Retard thrust levers to idle and select reverse thrust on at least one
engine.
C. Retard thrust levers to idle and apply wheel brakes.

71
2009
Rev0
72. The pilot forgot to set Speed brakes levers to « Arm » position;
when landing, ground spoilers will:
A. Extend automatically at touchdown.

B. Extend when the pilot selects reverse thrust on 1 Engine (remaining
other engine at idle).
C. Not extend, no matter what the pilot does with the thrust levers.
73. In flight, with FLAP 2 configuration, in order to select FLAPS 3:
A. You must decrease speed below “S” speed.

B. You must decrease speed below " = " symbol.
C. You must decrease speed below “F” speed.
74. If ELAC 1 and 2 have failed
A. Pitch control is provided by the fac's

B. Pitch control can only be achieved from the trim wheel
C. The elevator and pitch trim are controlled by sec 1 or 2
75. In Normal Law, the flight mode change to landing mode when
passing:
A. 50ft.
B. 100ft.

72
2009
TRTO Answers 27
Rev0

1 B 41 C
2 C 42 B
3 A 43 C
4 A 44 C
5 C 45 C
6 C 46 B
7 C 47 B
8 B 48 B
9 A 49 B
10 B 50 B
11 A 51 C
12 A 52 B
13 A 53 C
14 B 54 B
15 A 55 B
16 A 56 B
17 B 57 A
18 B 58 A
19 C 59 C
20 C 60 A
21 C 61 B
22 C 62 A
23 B 63 A
24 A 64 B
25 B 65 C
26 A 66 C
27 A 67 C
28 B 68 A
29 B 69 B
30 A 70 B
31 A 71 A
32 C 72 B
33 A 73 B
34 B 74 C
35 A 75 A
36 C
37 B
38 B
39 B
40 A

73
A320 Fuel ATA
2009
Rev0
1. How many pumps are there in each fuel tank?
A. One fuel pump in each tank

B. Two fuel pumps in each tank
C. There is no fuel pump because tanks are air pressurized
D. Two fuel pumps only for all the tanks
2. An amber fault light illuminates on “MODE SEL” p/b when:
A. The delivery fuel pressure drops

B. Center tank has more than 250 kgs and any wing tank has less than
5000 kgs
C. The two center tank pumps are selected off
3. Where is the Vent surge tank located?
A. Outboard of the outer tank in each wing

B. In the wing tank
4. Suction valves are:
A. Always open regardless of pumps status

B. Normally closed by pumps pressure
C. Open automatically when fuel x-feed is selected on
5. The maximum refueling pressure is:
A. 50 PSI (3,5 BARS)

B. 36 PSI (2,5 BARS)
C. 11 PSI (0,75 BARS)
6. The fuel unbalance is to have an Advisory message is:
A. 1500 KG
B. 1800 KG
C. 2000 KG
A320 Fuel Questionnaire

74
A320 Fuel ATA
2009
Rev0
7. What is the purpose of the pressure relief sequence valves?
A. Allows the transfer from wing tanks to center tank

B. When all pumps are running, center pumps will deliver fuel
preferentially
8. The normal fuel tank filling order is:
A. Wing tanks then center tank

B. Center tank then wing tanks
9. Where is the fuel remaining in the surge tank scavenged:
A. Inner cell
B. Outer cell
10. All fuel pumps switches being in “ON” position, are wing tank
pumps running while center tank is supplying?
A. Yes, wing tank pumps are always running

B. No, only when center tank is empty
C. No, because of center tank pump priority
11. Why has a 2% additional space been provided in each fuel

tank?
A. For cooling purposes

B. In order to avoid spillage in case of fuel expansion
12. What happens to the IDG cooling fuel when the wing tank is
full?
A. Fuel goes directly into the center tank

B. Fuel returns to the engine feeding line
C. The system automatically selects ctr tk pumps to "off", so that fuel
is fed to the engines from the wing tanks.
13. Which type of motor controls the fuel cross-feed:
A. Single
B. Double

75
A320 Fuel ATA
2009
Rev0
14. If opened, when will the transfer valves close again?
A. When the cell is empty

B. At next refuel operation
15. When the center tank is empty (mode auto), center tank
pumps:
A. Must be manually switched off

B. Stop automatically and wing tank pumps start running
C. Stop automatically 5 mn after low level is reached in center tank
16. In normal operation the cross feed valve is:
A. Closed
B. Automatically opened when the center tank has more than 100 Kg
of fuel
C. Opened for take-off
D. Automatically opened by the “MODE SEL” p/b
17. Is gravity feeding from center tank possible?
A. Yes
B. No
18. When Slats are extended, the center tank pumps run on
ground:
A. Always
B. Never
C. Yes, after engine start for 2 minutes
19. In normal operation, each engine is supplied by:
A. One wing tank pump and one center tank pump

B. Two wing tank pumps and two center tank pumps
C. Two wing tank pumps and one center tank pump

76
A320 Fuel ATA
2009
Rev0
20. Where can you normally check the fuel quantity of each tank
(in the cockpit)?
A. On ECAM upper display, on fuel page

B. On fuel page only, on ECAM lower display
C. On ECAM upper display
D. On ECAM upper display, or on refueling control panel
21. The LP fuel valves are controlled to off position by:
A. Engine master switches

B. Engine master switches and fire p/b's
C. Fire p/b's
22. With fuel in all tanks, in flight, fuel is used:
A. From the center tank, then from inner cells down to a predetermined
level
B. From the outer cells and inner cells then from the center tank
C. From the center tank and the outer cells, then from the inner cells
23. APU fuel is supplied by:
A. Engine fuel pump(s) only

B. Apu fuel pump only
C. A or B
24. What does the “MODE SEL” p/b control:
A. Center tank and wing tank pumps

B. Center tank pumps only
C. Wing tank pumps only
25. Amber fault light illuminates on “TK PUMP” p/b when:
A. Pump is not energized

B. P/b at "off" position without any failure
C. The delivery fuel pressure drops
26. How many cells are there in each wing tank?
A. 2
B. 4
77
A320 Fuel ATA
2009
Rev0
27. Are the engines still supplied in case of fuel filter clog:
A. Yes by using the fuel coming from the idg cooling and outer tank
line
B. No
C. Yes, by-passing the fuel filter (by-pass valve )
28. Where are the transfer valves located?
A. In each outer cell

B. In each inner cell
C. On each sealed rib of each wing tank
29. Fob (fuel on board) half-boxed amber on EWD means:
A. The quantity shown is not fully usable

B. Fuel quantity indicator is degraded
30. What is the purpose of the fuel re circulation system?
A. To cool the IDG oil

B. To cool the engine oil
31. Fob (fuel on board) boxed amber on ECAM fuel page means:
A. Both transfer valves fail to open when inner cell is at low level
B. One transfer valve fails to open when inner cell is at low level
C. FQI (fuel quantity indicator) is degraded
32. During take-off, center tank fuel is:
A. Supplying both engines

B. Not supplying while slats are extended
C. Not supplying with the mode select at auto
D. Required to be deselected by the pilot

78
A320 Fuel ATA
2009
TRTO Answers 28
Rev0
1 B
2 B
3 A
4 B
5 A
6 A
7 B
8 A
9 B
10 A
11 B
12 C
13 B
14 B
15 C
16 A
17 B
18 C
19 C
20 B
21 B
22 A
23 C
24 B
25 C
26 A
27 C
28 C
29 A
30 A
31 A
32 B

79
A320 Hydraulic ATA
2008
Rev0
1. The priority valves operate in case of:
A. High hydraulic pressure in the green system

B. Low hydraulic pressure in the green system
C. High hydraulic pressure in the green and yellow systems
2. The yellow system may be powered by:
A. Eng 1 Hyd pump

B. Eng 2 Hyd pump, the yellow elec pump or the PTU
C. Eng 2 Hyd pump, the yellow elec pump, the RAT
3. If the yellow system is lost, the slats are:
A. Normal
B. Slow
C. Lost
4. In case of Blue elec pump failure, when the RAT Man ON P/B is
pressed:
A. The Blue Hyd system is pressurized by the RAT

B. The emergency generator is supplying electrical power
C. The Blue Hyd system is pressurized and the emergency gen is
running
5. In flight when the RAT is automatically extended:
A. The Blue Hyd system is pressurized but the emergency gen is not
running
B. The Green Hyd system is pressurized and the emer gen runs
C. The Blue Hyd system is pressurized and the emer gen runs
6. Can you operate a cargo door when no electrical power is

available?
A. Yes
B. No
A320 Hydraulic Questionnaire

80
A320 Hydraulic ATA
2008
Rev0
7. With a single hydraulic system failure the flight control law is:
A. Normal
B. Alternate
C. Direct
8. In flight the Eng Driven pump fault light illuminates amber in

case of:
A. A reservoir low level or low air pressure

B. A reservoir overheat
C. Both answers are correct
9. When Green Hyd system is lost, the braking system is:
A. Normal
B. Alternate
C. Lost
10. In flight, if Blue Elec pump fails, Blue system:
A. Is lost
B. Can be recovered by RAT
C. Can be recovered by PTU
11. When extended in flight, the RAT pressurizes:
A. The Green system

B. The Yellow system and the green system via the PTU
C. The Blue system
12. The Yellow system comprises:
A. One EDP, one Elec pump, one hand pump

B. One EDP, 2 elec pump
C. One EDP, One hand pump and the RAT
13. During the first engine start, the PTU is:
A. Automatically running
B. Tested
C. Inhibited

81
A320 Hydraulic ATA
2008
Rev0
14. The Blue system includes operation of:
A. The flaps
B. The slats
C. The flaps and slats
15. With Green hyd system lost, the Anti skid is:
A. Lost
B. Limited to 2000 PSI brake pressure
C. Operative on the Yellow Hyd system
16. Hyd Green system only remaining, the Autobrake is:
A. Lost
B. Available
C. Alternate
17. With both engines stopped, how can Green system be

pressurized:
A. By the Green engine pump
B. By the Yellow engine pump and the PTU
C. By the Yellow elec pump and the PTU
18. With the Green system lost:
A. The L/G extension is normal

B. The L/G retraction is normal
C. The L/G must be extended by gravity
19. PTU at AUTO, the PTU automatically runs:
A. If the Blue hyd system is lost

B. When a differential pressure between Green and Yellow system is
more than 500 PSI
C. As soon as a differential pressure between Green and Yellow system
is detected

82
A320 Hydraulic ATA
2008
Rev0
20. Hyd Green system only remaining, the A/P function is:
A. Available with AP1

B. Lost
C. Available with AP2
21. On ground the Blue system is pressurized when:
A. The APU is running

B. One engine is running
C. Ext power is available
22. The fire shut off valves shut off:
A. The Blue and yellow systems

B. The yellow and Green systems
C. The Green and Blue systems
23. Engine 2 energizes:
A. The Blue system

B. The Green system
C. The Yellow system pump and the Green system via the PTU if the
Green system pump is failed
24. On GND with Eng 1 stopped; does the Eng 1 pump fault light
illuminates amber due to Green pump low pressure?
A. Yes
B. No
25. The fire shut off valve closes when:
A. The master switch is set to OFF position

B. The fire p/b is released out
C. Automatically if fire is detected
26. In case of single hyd system low pressure:
A. The master warn light illuminates

B. The master caution light illuminates and single chime sounds
C. There is no warning

83
A320 Hydraulic ATA
2008
Rev0
27. The RAT can be extended:
A. Automatically in case of loss of AC bus 1 and AC bus 2

B. Manually from overhead panel
C. Both A & B are correct
28. The RAT is automatically extended in case of:
A. Blue pump failure

B. Loss of AC bus 1 and 2
C. Can only be deployed manually
29. With Green and Yellow hyd system lost, manual pitch trim is:
A. Available
B. Lost
30. If Yellow system is lost, the flaps are:
A. Normal
B. Slow
C. Lost
31. The Yellow system includes operation of:
A. The flaps
B. The flaps and slats
C. The slats
32. With Green hyd system lost:
A. The NWS is lost

B. The NWS is operative
C. The NWS operates on alternate
33. The Eng 2 fire valve is located between the Yellow reservoir
and:
A. The eng 2 hyd pump

B. The Yellow elec pump
C. The Yellow hand pump

84
A320 Hydraulic ATA
2008
Rev0
34. In case of RSVR OVHT, the fault light of the faulty system stays
ON:
A. For 30 secs
B. Continuously
C. As long as the OVHT is detected
35. On ground and before engine start, with Blue pump AUTO and
AC power available, the Blue pump is:
A. Automatically energized
B. Energized when the blue pump OVRD p/b is pressed
36. If Blue system is lost, the flaps are:
A. Normal
B. Slow
C. Lost
37. In flight the RAT is extended:
A. Manually only
B. Manually or automatically
C. Automatically only
38. In case of RSVR LO AIR PR, the affected hyd system is:
A. Definitely lost
B. May be recovered after descending to a lower altitude
39. If the Blue system is lost, the slats are:
A. Normal
B. Slow
C. Lost
40. Is it possible to interchange hydraulic fluid from the Green to

yellow or Yellow to Green system?
A. No
B. Yes by the PTU
C. Yes in case of leakage

85
A320 Hydraulic ATA
2008
Rev0
41. The hydraulic reservoirs are pressurized:
A. From the pneumatic system

B. From the Pack 1 and 2
C. From the engine 1 or the pneumatic system
42. On ground, Blue elec pump p/b at AUTO, the circuit is

energized if:
A. One battery is on AUTO

B. Ground electrical power is ON
C. One engine is running or Blue pump OVRD p/b has been pressed
43. If the Green system is lost, slats operation is:
A. Normal
B. Slow
C. Lost
44. If the Green system is lost, Flaps operation is:
A. Slow
B. Normal
C. Lost
45. What is the pressure delivered by the PTU?
A. Stable at 3000 PSI

B. Fluctuating between 1500 and 2000 PSI
46. Yellow elec pump p/b switch OFF and cargo door manual
selector valve set at open or closed position, the PTU and the
flight controls are:
A. Operative
B. Inhibited
47. Normal hyd power is provided by:

A. Engine driven pumps for all systems
B. Engine driven pumps for Green and Yellow, elec pump for Blue
C. Elec pumps for Blue and Yellow, engine driven pump for Green

86
A320 Hydraulic ATA
2008
Rev0
48. The RAT can be restowed:
A. In flight
B. On ground only
C. On ground and in flight
49. The PTU is:
A. Reversible between Green and Yellow

B. One way between Green and Yellow
C. Reversible between Blue and Yellow
50. The ACFT’s three hyd systems are normally pressurized by:
A. 2 EDP’s and 1 elec pump

B. 2 elec pumps and 1 PTU
C. 2 elec pumps and 2 EDP’s
51. When will the Yellow system electric pump operates?
A. During the second engine start

B. When the first engine master switch is moved to the ON position
C. When the Yellow elec pump p/b is selected to ON or the ground crew
activates a cargo door switch
52. The PTU will activate if:
A. A significant pressure loss occurs in any of the three hydraulic

systems
B. A significant pressure loss occurs in the Green or Yellow hydraulic
system
53. When will normal operation of the Blue system hyd pump
begin?
A. During the first engine start

B. When the first engine master switch is moved to the ON position
C. Only when the RAT is deployed

87
A320 Hydraulic ATA
2008
Rev0
54. After RAT is extended, is it possible to check its position and

status?
A. Check to see if the Blue system elec pump fault light is not
illuminated
B. Yes, by selecting the ECAM elec page
C. Yes, by selecting the ECAM hyd page
55. The RAT is capable of powering a pump which will pressurize:
A. Only the Blue system

B. The Blue and yellow system
C. The Blue and Green system
56. For hyd system malfunctions, when will the RAT deploy?
A. Automatically with the failure of both the Green and Blue hyd
systems
B. Automatically with the failure of both the Green and Yellow hyd
systems
C. Only when the guarded RAT Man ON p/b is pressed by the crew
57. What does the RAT MAN ON switch do?
A. Extends the RAT, pressurizes Blue system, starts emergency

generator
B. Extends the RAT, must push RAT MAN ON again to pressurize Blue
system
C. Extends RAT, pressurizes Blue system, does not start the emergency
gen
58. What is the signification of an amber RAT indicator (ECAM HYD

page)?
A. The RAT is incorrectly stowed

B. The RAT is not stowed
C. Pressure for stowing the RAT has been applied, or the RAT pump is
not available

88
A320 Hydraulic ATA
2008
Rev0
59. On the hydraulic quantity indicator, what does the amber level
indicate?
A. The warning level
B. The reservoir contents
C. The normal filling level
60. Describe the PTU status with a Green system reservoir OVHT,
low air pressure or low fluid level.
A. The PTU will be inhibited

B. The PTU fault light will remain illuminated as long as the problem
exists. The PTU should be selected OFF
C. The crew must select the PTU OFF then ON
61. You get a G RSVR OVHT message. Why does the ECAM
procedure ask you to switch the PTU OFF first?
A. To prevent the hot hydraulic fluid from being transferred to the

yellow system
B. To prevent the Blue system from pressurizing the green system
C. To prevent the PTU from pressurizing the Green system
62. After a G or B or Y RSVR OVHT, is it possible the recover the

HYD system?
A. Not in flight
B. Yes, an ECAM warning will be triggered when the failure disappears
C. Yes, when the fault light on the related Eng Pump is extinguished
63. Which is the normal operating pressure of HYD pumps?
A. 3000 PSI
B. 2000 PSI
C. 500 PSI
64. The PTU comes into action automatically when the differential
pressure between the Green and the Yellow systems is greater
than...
A. 300 PSI
B. 500 PSI
C. 700 PSI

89
A320 Hydraulic ATA
2008
TRTO Answers 29
Rev0

1 B 41 C
2 B 42 C
3 A 43 B
4 A 44 A
5 C 45 A
6 A 46 B
7 A 47 B
8 C 48 B
9 B 49 A
10 B 50 A
11 C 51 C
12 A 52 B
13 C 53 A
14 B 54 C
15 C 55 A
16 B 56 C
17 C 57 C
18 C 58 C
19 B 59 A
20 B 60 B
21 B 61 C
22 B 62 C
23 C 63 A
24 B 64 B
25 B
26 B
27 C
28 B
29 B
30 B
31 A
32 A
33 A
34 C
35 B
36 A
37 B
38 B
39 B
40 A

90
A320 Ice and rain ATA
2009
Rev0
1. In case of Loss of Electrical Power Supply in flight, the Engine

Anti-Ice Valves:
A. Remain in the last selected position.

B. Open automatically.
C. Close automatically.
2. When one engine is started:
A. Window heating comes ON automatically.

B. Window heating comes ON automatically when the second engine is
started.
C. Window heating comes ON when the relative switch is pressed.
3. Pitot Heating operates:
A. At LOW power on ground and normal power in flight.

B. In flight only.
C. On ground above 80 Kt.
4. The WING ANTI-ICE p/b switch ON light comes on:
A. When the anti-ice valves open.

B. When the push button switch is set to ON.
C. When the fault light goes off.
5. Window heating can be selected ON manually at any time:
A. Never, only automatically when the external temperature is 5°C.

B. By the PROBE/WINDOW HEAT push button.
C. Never, only automatically when the external temperature is c 2°C.
6. Electrical Heating is provided for the protection of:
A. PITOTS and AOA.

B. PITOTS and TAT.
C. PITOTS, STATIC PORTS, TAT, AOA
A320 Ice and Rain Questionnaire

91
2009
Rev0
7. What happens when you set the WING ANTI-ICE push button
switch to ON, on the ground?
A. The Wing Anti-Ice Valves open for 30 seconds then CLOSE.

B. The Wing Anti-Ice Valves does not OPEN.
C. The Wing Anti-Ice Valves remain OPEN.
8. The Engine Nacelle is Anti-Iced by:
A. Air bleed from high pressure compressor.

B. Air bleed from low pressure compressor.
C. Electrically.
9. When Engine Anti-Ice is selected ON:
A. Continuous ignition is selected ON.(on some ACFT)

B. The associated pack is closed.
10. When an Engine Anti-Ice Valve is open:
A. The N2 of the associated engine decreases.

B. N1 limit is automatically reduced.
C. There is no change in N1 limit or N2.
11. The Engine Anti-Ice Valve closes in case of:
A. Low Air Pressure.

B. High Air Pressure.
C. Low Air Temperature.
12. How can you check that Engine Anti-Ice has been selected:
A. With the ON light on the associated engine push button + Eng Anti-
Ice on the ECAM MEMO display.
B. With the ON light on the associated engine push button + Engine
Anti-Ice on the ECAM ENGINE page.
13. The Probe Heating (except TAT) starts automatically when the
push button switch is in AUTO position:
A. Not heated on the ground, but heated automatically at Lift Off.

B. In low heat after engine start and then Norm Heat after Lift Off.
C. Operates in Low Heat until manually selected to HIGH.
92
2009
Rev0
14. The WIPERS can operate at different speeds:
A. SLOW speed and FAST speed.

B. Only one speed.
C. LOW, MEDIUM, HIGH speeds.
15. When not used:
A. The WIPERS are out of view.

B. The WIPERS are in view.
C. The WIPERS are out of view when pressed the relevant push button.
16. The Wing Anti-Ice is controlled by:
A. 1 WING ANTI-ICE push button.

B. 2 WING ANTI-ICE push buttons.
C. Automatically.
17. Which air source supplies the engine Anti-Ice System?
A. Bleed Air from the pneumatic System,

B. APU Bleed Air.
C. Compressor Bleed Air from the respective engine.
18. The aircraft is on ground, the engines are off. The

PROBWNDOW HEAT p/b SW is ON. How are the cockpit
windshield heated?
A. With NORM power.

B. With LOW power.
C. Not at all.
19. Which indications show you that the WING A/l System is ON?
A. ECAM BLEED page and ENG 1+2 BLEED p/b SW.

B. WING A/l p/b SW, ECAM BLEED page and Memo Message.
C. ECAM ENG page, WING A/l p/b SW and Memo Message.
20. How does the Engine Anti-Ice Valve react to an electric failure?
A. It opens.
B. It closes.
C. It remains in its momentary position.
93
2009
Rev0
21. What happens when you push the ENG ANTI-ICE p/b?
A. Only the engine intake will be heated.

B. The engine intake is heated, the idle speed increased.
C. Continuous ignition is activated and the Pack Flow increased.
22. In case of suspected significant ice accumulation on non de-

iced parts, increase the VLS by 5 Kt and multiply landing
distance by 1.1 (in config full):
A. True.
B. False.
23. When either Engine Anti-Ice Valve is open, the N1 limit is

automatically reduced.
A. False.
B. True.
24. Wing Anti-Ice. In the event of electrical power supply failure,

the valves:
A. Open.
B. Close
25. When the ice detection system sends the message SEVERE ICE
DETECTED (ice detector is not installed on all ACFT):
A. The engines and wings anti-ice must be selected.

B. The engines and wings anti-ice are automatically selected.
26. If Window Heat Computer 1 (WHC 1) fails:
A. WHC 2 takes over and all windows remain heated.

B. The left side Window Heat is lost.
C. All window heat is lost on right side and it might be recovered.
27. When the ice detection system sends a message SEVERE ICE
DETECTED:
A. The engine anti-ice is automatically selected ON.

B. The engine and wings anti-ice are automatically selected ON.
C. The engine anti-ice and wing A/I must be selected ON.
94
2009
Rev0
28. If the left wing A/I valve fails to open:
A. All slats remain heated.

B. One slat is not heated and you must avoid icing conditions.
C. No slats are heated.
29. A FAULT light comes on in the ENG ANTI ICE p/b:
A. When there is an engine anti-ice valve fault or the valve is in

transit when p/b is pushed.
B. Only when the wing anti-ice valve fails.
C. Only when more than one engine anti-ice valve has failed on
each side.
30. When ENG ANTI ICE p/b are pushed, each engine nacelle is
anti-iced by:
A. Pneumatic system.
B. Electric heat elements.
C. Independent bleed air source from HP compressor.
31. Hot air from the pneumatic system provides wing anti-ice to:
A. Outboard slats and the THS.

B. The three outboard slats.
C. All slats.
32. To switch on Wing anti-ice, pilot uses:
A. One WING ANTI-ICE p/b.

B. Two WING ANTI-ICE p/b.
C. WING ANTI-ICE is synchronized to ENG ANTI-ICE.
33. The window heating system consists of:
A. 1 WHC and 1 p/b.

B. 2 WHC and 2 p/b.
C. 2 WHC and 1 p/b.

95
2009
Rev0
34. Which of the following statements is true:
A. On ground (engines not running), Static ports are heated.

B. On ground TAT probes are not heated.
C. PROBE/WINDOW HEAT p/b On, any probes and windows are
heated.
35. The change over from low level to high level of pitot heating is:
A. Fully automatic.
B. Manually performed.
C. There is no change.
36. Memo message WING A-ICE lights appears when:
A. Wing anti-ice valves are opened.

B. Wing anti ice p/b is On.
C. There is no message when using wing anti-ice.

96
A320 Ice & Rain 2009
Questionnaire ATA
30
TRTO Rev0
Answers
1 B
2 A
3 A
4 B
5 B
6 C
7 A
8 A
9 A
10 B
11 A
12 A
13 B
14 A
15 A
16 A
17 C
18 B
19 B
20 A
21 B
22 A
23 B
24 B
25 A
26 B
27 C
28 C
29 A
30 C
31 B
32 A
33 C
34 B
35 A
36 B
A320 Ice & Rain Questionnaire

97
A320 Indicating and ATA
2009
TRTO Recording Questionnaire 31

Rev0
1. In case of PFD DU failure, the PFD image will be transferred to

the ND DU:
A. Automatically.
B. Either manually or automatically.
C. Manually.
2. What is the Basic Role of the DMCs?
A. Generation of Audio Warnings.

B. Generation of Amber Warnings.
C. Generation of images to be displayed on DUs.
3. Do the CHECK ATT messages appear on both PFDs at the same

time?
A. Yes.
B. No.
4. The Amber Altitude Window appears, flashing:
A. When A/C goes below MDA.

B. When A/C deviates from its selected Altitude or selected FL.
.
5. If the UPPER ECAM DISPLAY is lost, the ENGINE WARNING
DISPLAY is automatically transferred to the LOWER ECAM
DISPLAY; if the system display is required, you must:
A. Switch OFF the corresponding ECAM DISPLAY selector.

B. Press and hold the relevant system push button.
C. It is displayed automatically.
6. The RA gives height on PFD:
A. At the bottom of the Attitude Sphere.

B. On the Altitude Scale.
C. Both indications.
A320 Indicating and Recording Questionnaire

98
2009

Rev0
7. When your FD BARS flash:
A. Reversion to the AFS BASIC MODES has occurred.

B. Loss of LOC or G/S in LAND MODE or loss of LAND MODE.
C. A and B are correct.
8. During TAKE-OFF the FMA shows SRS, what is the order of

horizontal FD BAR?
A. Climb at V2 + 10 KT with both engines running.

B. Climb at V2 with both engines running.
C. Climb at V2 + 10 KT with one engine running.
9. TRK-FPA is the selected mode for AFS, the inertial FPV is

normally on the Horizon Line, and it is....
A. Red.
B. Green.
C. Cyan.
10. Where can you read optional data (WPT or VOR.D, NDB...)?
A. On ROSE VOR.
B. On PLAN, ARC and ROSE NAV.
C. On ROSE ILS.
11. With Radar selected ON, what can you read on ND about
antenna setting?
A. TILT Angle.
B. TILT Angle + Calibration Mode. (If gain is in manual mode)
C. Calibration Mode.
12. Which computer generates the red warnings?
A. FWC.
B. DMC.
C. SDAC.

99
2009

Rev0
13. Which speed does the F/D command after Lift-Off? (in
normal ops)
A. V-STALL.
B. V2
C. V2 + 10.
14. Why would the ND show a Red Circle with MAP NOT AVAIL
message?
A. MCDU failure.
B. A/C position delivered by FMGC is not valid.
C. Engines not running.
15. What is displayed on the ECAM Display Units?
A. PFD and ND information as a BACK-UP

B. The Weather Radar.
C. Engine Parameters, Messages and System Information.
16. ALT on the FMA. How do you explain the Magenta ALT
indication?
A. It indicates that the present altitude is the cruising level.

B. The ALT must still be set to cruising level.
C. It refers to an ALT Constraint.
17. What does the Magenta D in the circle indicate?
A. This symbol indicates where the speed will automatically be

reduced to Green Dot Speed in NAV mode and managed speed.
B. It indicates where the Approach Phase must be activated
manually.
18. What should you do if the T/O MEMO CHECK LIST has not
appeared on the E/WD?
A. Use the Paper Checklist.

B. Push the T.O. CONFIG p/b and the checklist will appear.

100
2009

Rev0
19. These messages appear on co-pilot side ND: SELECT OFF

SIDE RANGE/MODE & MAP NOT AVAILABLE:
A. The IRSs have not reached complete alignment.

B. The F-PLN entered in captain's FMGC has not been transferred
into co-pilot’s FMGC.
C. Single FMGC operation when the two EFIS control panels are not
set at the same RANGE & MODE.
20. Can you read the HDG on the PFD?
A. Yes.
B. No.
21. In ROSE NAV MODE with VOR 1 selected, the ND displays:
A. Deviation Bar, Selected Course and the Bearing Pointer

B. Bearing Pointer only.
C. Deviation Bar and Selected Course only.
22. In ROSE ILS MODE, what ILS information does the ND

display?
A. G/S and LOC SCALES.

B. Deviation Bar and Selected Course.
C. Deviation Bar, Selected Course, G/S and LOC Scales
23. Which electrical bus should supply the clock?
A. DC BAT BUS.
B. DC ESS BUS or BAT HOT BUS
C. AC1 BUS.
24. Why is it important to check the clock?
A. Both pilots must have the exact time.

B. The clock is the time base for several systems.
C. Time is sent to CFDIU.

101
2009

Rev0
25. How many levels of warning/cautions have been defined?
A. Three levels.
B. Two levels.
C. One level.
26. Can we hear a FWC generated message trough the

loudspeakers even if they are switched OFF?
A. No
B. Yes
27. At extremes latitudes, ADIRUs may change the heading

display:
A. Automatically.
B. In all cases only after pushing North REF p/b.
C. The heading display cannot be changed.
28. ILS 1 is displayed:
A. Only on PFD 1.
B. On PFD 2 and ND 1.
C. On PFD 1 and ND 2
29. MORA is displayed on ND:
A. Option not installed.

B. Only when CSTR p/b is selected and Range selector is at or
above 40 NM.
C. If above 2000 ft.
30. Aural alerts and synthetic voice messages are generated:
A. Whatever the loudspeaker's volume setting.

B. Only if loudspeakers are selected ON.
C. Only in flight after 1500 ft and before 800 ft (take-off and
landing inhibit)

102
2009

Rev0
31. On EW/D, the LANDING Memo is displayed:
A. When established on final in landing configuration.

B. If approach phase is activated on MCDU.
C. Below 2000 ft.
32. When approaching FCU selected altitude, altitude alert:
A. Is always operating 750 ft before altitude.

B. Aural warning is triggered, only if AP is not engaged.
C. Cannot be stopped
33. VLS (Lowest Selectable Speed) is computed:
A. With different margins from 1.13 to 1.28 VS depending on

configuration.
B. Is displayed as long as LS key is selected.
C. Always with the same margin 1.23 VS.
34. In clean configuration, the pilot has to fly:
A. At or Above VLS
B. Below VLS and above Green Dot.
C. Minimum at 210 kt.
35. Mach number is displayed on PFD:
A. When the aircraft is above FL 100.

B. As long as Mach number > 0.5 (if LS key not selected).
C. During the flight if LS key is not selected.
36. The Overspeed protection is active when:
A. Speed is over VMO/ MMO.

B. Speed is over VMO + 4 kts or MMO + .006.
C. Slats are extended.
37. On ECP, the EMER CANC key:
A. Cancels all aural warnings and caution alarms.

B. Cancels only caution alarms.
C. Can be used normally to cut off all warnings.
103
2009

Rev0
38. On PFD, the yellow Speed Trend indicates:
A. The indicated air speed that will be reached within 10 seconds.

B. Only the intensity of the acceleration with no value.
C. The vertical speed.
39. Before T/O, when T.O. CONFIG test is depressed; aircraft

configuration is checked, before takeoff power is applied:
A. Pitch trim and slats flaps not in range generate an alarm.

B. Park brakes ON and FLEX TEMP not set, generate on alarm.
C. Both answers are right.
40. The cruise page on SD is automatically displayed but can be

manually selected:
A. It is true.
B. It is wrong.
C. It depends on the pilot on duty.
41. When the advisory mode is active:
A. An ECAM check-list has to be waited for.

B. Crew must refer to QRH.
C. When the pilot is advised, he may clear the SD page.
42. In case of F/O PFD display unit failure:
A. The pilot has to rotate the EFIS DMC selector to position 3 or

1.
B. The PFD data are automatically transferred on ND display unit.
C. All screens will be available after using proper EFIS DMC
selector.
43. In case of E/WD and SD failure:
A. E/WD is automatically transferred to another display unit.

B. E/WD can be restored by rotating ECAM ND switching selector.
C. SD data are definitely lost

104
2009

Rev0
44. To restore the captain's PFD and ND displayed black with a

white diagonal on each:
A. EFIS DMC 3 takes over automatically and restores the display.

B. They cannot be restored; the data are definitively lost for the
flight.
C. Captain has to rotate the DMC selector to position 3.
45. Which action must be performed in case of DMC 1 fault?
A. Nothing, the transfer to the other DMC is automatic.

B. Transfer to DMC 3.
C. Transfer to DMC 2.
46. In case of ECAM control panel failure:
A. All keys are unusable.

B. All keys are still usable because directly connected to EIS.
C. Only CLR, STS, RECALL, ALL and EMERGENCY CANCEL are still
usable.
47. Which statement is true about the use of the " ALL " key on
the ECP:
A. When you press the "ALL" key, all the systems pages are
displayed in sequence.
B. When you press the "ALL" key, you cannot stop at a particular
system page until all have been displayed.
C. The "ALL" key is not operable in case of failure of the ECP.
48. During normal operations:
A. An ECAM page is automatically displayed for the corresponding

flight phase.
B. You need to press a key on the ECP to display the ECAM page
for that flight phase.
C. You need to press the ENG key to display the engine during an
engine start.

105
2009

Rev0
49. When will you see the F/CTL ECAM page?
A. During engine start.

B. Only when you push the F/CTL p/b on the ECP.
C. Automatically during the flight control check when the side-
stick or rudder are moved or if a failure occurs on the FLT CTL
system or selected manually on the ECP.
50. A red E/WD message reading " ENGINE 2 FIRE " indicates:
A. Immediate action is require (above 400 ft AAL).

B. This failure does not require immediate action.
C. This failure will not require any action on your part.
51. Which type of information is displayed on the lower right

part of the E/WD?
A. Memo messages.
B. Permanent data.
C. FOB and slats/ flaps position.
52. An amber E/WD message reading "APU AUTO SHUT DOWN”

indicates:
A. You need to take immediate action.

B. This failure does not require immediate action.
C. This failure will not require any action on your part.
53. An amber PFD flag reading " CHECK ATT " indicates:
A. An attitude discrepancy between the two PFDs.

B. Attitude data is not available.
C. A failure of this PFD attitude data only.
54. A red PFD flag reading " WINDSHEAR " indicates windshear
is detected ; it is available:
A. Any time.
B. During take-off until 1300 ft, during landing from 1300 ft to 50 ft.
C. During take-off until 1300 ft, during landing from 1300 ft to 50 ft and not
in clean configuration .

106
2009

Rev0
55. A green ND flag reading MODE CHANGE indicates:
A. There is a discrepancy between the ND mode displayed and

the mode chosen on the EFIS control panel.
B. There is a discrepancy between data received by the DMC and
data being displayed.
C. All ND information are lost
56. An amber PFD or ND flag reading " CHECK HDG " indicates:
A. There is a discrepancy between the ND mode displayed and

the mode chosen on the EFIS control panel.
B. The FWC has detected a difference between the Captain's and
First Officer's heading information.
C. All ND information are lost.
57. A red flag "G/S" on PFD or ND indicates:
A. There is a discrepancy between the Captain's and First

Officer's glide slope indications.
B. There is a discrepancy between PFD and ND glide slope
indications.
C. Failure of the glide slope receiver.
58. On ND screen, the word "TRUE" appears above the scale of

heading:
A. To advise that the aircraft will be changed from MAGNETIC to TRUE

reference.
B. When you push the NORTH REF p/b to TRUE or automatically at
extremes latitudes.
C. Never, this option is not installed on A320
59. The FMA displays:
A. Status about FMGS operations.

B. Status about flight controls.
C. Invalid data warning on PFD.

107
2009

Rev0
60. The airspeed scale contains:
A. Only data shown on a conventional airspeed indicator.

B. Data on a conventional airspeed plus speed limits and target
speed.
C. Only limit protections and target speeds.
61. In electrical emergency configuration on batteries only:
A. CAPT's PFD is available.

B. CAPT's PFD and ND are available.
C. CAPT's PFD and F/O's ND are available.
62. In case of a Display Unit failure:
A. The information can be transferred to another DU.

B. ECAM data cannot be transferred to another DU. The data is
lost.
C. ND and PFD data cannot be transferred to another DU. The
data is lost.
63. Aural alerts and voice messages are transmitted:
A. Through the loudspeakers even if the speakers are switched

off.
B. Through the loudspeakers only if the speakers are switched
on.
C. Only through the pilots headsets.
64. What is the function of the System Data Acquisition

Concentrators (SDAC)?
A. To generate all visual and aural warnings.

B. To acquire data and generate signals sent to the FWC for
warning activation and to the DMC to generate displays of
system pages.
C. To generate displays to be sent to the various display units.

108
2009

Rev0
65. In normal operation:
A. DMC 1 and DMC 2 supply information to PFDs, NDs and ECAM.

B. DMC 3 supply information to upper and lower ECAM.
C. DMC 1 and DMC 2 supply information to PFDs only, DMC 3 is
in STBY.
66. Which one of the following statements is true?
A. 3 Display Management Computers (DMC) generate the alert

messages and red warnings.
B. 3 DMC generate images to be displayed on Cathodic Ray
Tubes (CRT).
C. 3 DMC are used to collect aircraft data sensors information.
67. The Flight Warning Computers (FWC) acquire data to

generate:
A. Alert messages, aural alerts, red warnings and amber

cautions, synthetic voice messages.
B. The display on System pages and E/WD.
C. Only red warnings.
68. ECAM caution " NAV : GPWS FAULT ", following automatic
call outs warning are lost:
A. “TOO LOW FLAPS” and " TOO LOW GEAR ".

B. "TERRAIN, TERRAIN" and RA call out.
C. All GPWS warnings.
69. ECAM caution " NAV : HDG DISCREPANCY " means:
A. Difference more than 7° between heading on CAPT ND and

FCU selected HDG.
B. Difference more than 5° between HDG on the CAPT and F/O
displays.
C. Difference more than 7° between true and magnetic HDG.

109
2009

Rev0
70. Is a NORTH REF p/b installed on our ACFT (A320):
A. Yes
B. No
C. On some ACFT’s
71. How is a VOR manually selected shown on ND display?
A. By an “M" letter.
B. By a “R" letter.
C. Nothing special.

110
A320 Indicating & 2009
Recording Questionnaire ATA
31
TRTO Rev0
Answers

1 A 41 B
2 C 42 B
3 A 43 B
4 B 44 C
5 B 45 B
6 C 46 C
7 C 47 A
8 A 48 A
9 B 49 C
10 B 50 A
11 B 51 A
12 A 52 B
13 C 53 A
14 B 54 C
15 C 55 A
16 C 56 B
17 A 57 C
18 B 58 C
19 C 59 A
20 A 60 B
21 B 61 A
22 C 62 A
23 B 63 A
24 B 64 B
25 A 65 A
26 B 66 B
27 C 67 A
28 C 68 C
29 A 69 B
30 A 70 B
31 C 71 A
32 B
33 A
34 A
35 B
36 B
37 A
38 A
39 A
40 B
A320 Indicating & Recording Questionnaire
111
A320 Landing Gear ATA
2008
Rev0
1. In case of one LGCIU failure, is the landing gear system

affected?
A. Yes.
B. No.
C. It depends which LGCIU is concerned.
2. In case of GREEN hydraulic system loss, what is the correct

statement?
A. Gear extension is done using the BLUE hydraulic system, Nose

Wheel Steering is lost.
B. Gear extension is done by gravity, Nose Wheel Steering is lost but
braking is performed using Yellow HYD system.
C. Gear extension is done by gravity; Nose Wheel Steering and
braking are unaffected.
3. Which hydraulic system powers the landing gear normal

operation?
A. BLUE.
B. GREEN.
C. YELLOW.
4. The red arrow on the landing gear indicator panel illuminates:
A. If the landing gear is not locked in selected position.

B. During transit.
C. If the landing gear is not downlocked in landing configuration.
5. When gear is selected down the ECAM wheel page indicates 1

red triangle and one green triangle. Is the gear safe is use?
A. Yes; one green triangle is sufficient

B. No
C. Yes but only if a visual check of the gear is performed.
A320 Landing Gear Questionnaire

112
2008
Rev0
6. Input orders to the Nose Wheel Steering are available from:
A. The steering hand wheels only.

B. The steering hand wheels, the rudder pedals, the A/P.
C. The captain's side only.
7. During landing, Nose Wheel Steering via rudder is available:
A. At any speed on ground.

B. Below 130 kts.
C. Below 70 kts.
8. When depressing the pedal disconnect p/b on a steering hand

wheel:
A. Rudder and steering hand wheel inputs to nose wheel are

deactivated.
B. Hydraulic isolation valve to Nose Wheel Steering is closed.
C. Rudder pedal orders to nose wheel are deactivated.
9. When A/SKID & N/W STRG switch is set on "OFF":
A. Steering is not energized but A/SKID is working when A/C is

moving on ground.
B. Both N/W STRG and A/SKID are deactivated.
C. A/C uses alternate brakes and A/SKID is available.
10. There are two braking systems available, the normal and the
alternate system:
A. Each system is powered by a different hydraulic system.

B. Each system is equipped with its own accumulator.
C. The accumulators are part of the normal braking system.
11. Braking commands:
A. Are given by the pilots only.

B. Are generated by the FMGS.
C. Come from the pilots, or from the autobrake system.

113
2008
Rev0
12. The purpose of the Antiskid is to:
A. Reduce the braking delay in the event of a rejected take-off.

B. Prevent wheel skid to improve braking efficiency.
C. Establish and maintain a selected deceleration during landing.
13. Autobrake system is disarmed by:
A. Depressing both pedals.

B. Depressing at least one pedal.
C. Depressing the rudder pedal disconnect p/b.
14. The crew may arm the autobrake system provided all following
conditions are met:
A. GREEN pressure available, Antiskid deactivated and no failure in the

braking system.
B. BLUE pressure available, Antiskid electrically powered and no failure
in the braking system.
C. GREEN pressure available, Antiskid electrically powered, no failure
in the braking system, at least one ADIRS functioning.
15. Information on main landing gear panel are provided by:
A. LGCIU 2.
B. LGCIU 1.
C. BSCU.
16. IAS > 260 kt - Landing gear selector is set on " down "
position:
A. Landing gear extends but it is over VLE, a check has to be

performed after landing.
B. Landing gear extends but landing gear doors stay open.
C. Landing gear does not extend because safety valve remains closed.

114
2008
Rev0
17. When a L/G gravity extension is performed, which of the

following statement is correct?
A. Both main landing gear and nose gear doors stay open and Nose
Wheel Steering is inoperative.
B. Both main landing gear and nose gear doors stay open and Nose
Wheel Steering is operative.
C. All landing gear extend, all doors close, but Nose Wheel Steering is
inoperative.
18. Parking brake requires:
A. GREEN hydraulic pressure.

B. YELLOW hydraulic pressure.
C. GREEN hydraulic pressure for normal use; BLUE hydraulic pressure
for alternate.
19. Engines are running but Yellow HYD pressure or Yellow HYD
ACCU pressure is not available. Which braking modes are still
operative after having set Park Brake Selector to "On":
A. Normal braking.
B. Alternate braking.
C. All braking systems.
20. Anti-skid is available:
A. With GREEN hydraulic pressure only.

B. With GREEN or YELLOW hydraulic pressure.
C. With BLUE hydraulic pressure only.
21. If GREEN hydraulic pressure is not available:
A. Both automatic braking and antiskid are operative.

B. Automatic braking is inoperative and antiskid is operative.
C. Automatic braking is operative and antiskid is inoperative.
22. If Brake and Steering Control Unit (BSCU) channel 1 and 2 are
inoperative:
A. Normal and alternate braking are lost.

B. Alternate braking and antiskid are still available.
C. Alternate braking is available; antiskid is unavailable.

115
2008
Rev0
23. What does ECAM memo N/W STRG DISC means?
A. RUDDER PEDAL DISC p/b is being pushed.

B. BSCU is inoperative.
C. Nose Wheel Steering selector on nose gear is on "Towing "position.
24. Alternate braking mode with anti-skid is available:
A. In case of GREEN hydraulic low pressure.

B. If A/SKID and N/W STRG switch is set to off position.
C. When pushing on the rudder pedals.
25. A green arc overhead wheel temperature on ECAM WHEEL page

indicates:
A. Brake temperature is greater than 300°c.

B. Normal braking is inoperative.
C. This wheel is the hottest and brake temperature is over 100°C.
26. If both pilots turn their steering hand wheels at the same time:
A. Inputs are algebraically added.

B. Inputs are algebraically added only if both hand wheels are turned
in the same direction.
C. Priority is given to the first pilot to turn its hand wheel.
27. The Brake and Steering Control Unit (BSCU) enables:
A. Normal and alternate braking.

B. Normal and alternate braking + Antiskid + Autobrake.
C. Normal and alternate braking + Antiskid + Autobrake + Brakes
temperature monitoring.
28. What do green indications “III” on ECAM SD WHEEL page

means?
A. After landing, this indication appears each time brakes are released
by the antiskid system.
B. In flight, when landing gear is down and locked, Antiskid is
available.

116
2008
Rev0
29. When normal braking is available, braking pressure may be

checked:
A. On ECAM SD WHEEL page.

B. May not be checked.
C. On the BRAKE and ACCU PRESS indicator.
30. In flight, when L/G is down and locked, green indication

« III » on ECAM WHEEL page mean?
A. BSCU is inoperative.
B. Antiskid function is ready.
C. Antiskid is inoperative.
31. In flight, landing gear down and locked may be visually

checked:
A. Thanks to little windows at the cabin floor.

B. Cannot be visually checked.
C. Thanks to little signs on the wings.
32. Brake pressure from the Hydraulic Accumulator is available:
A. In NORMAL (with Anti-skid).

B. Always.
C. In ALTERNATE (without Anti-skid).
33. The principle of the Anti-skid is:
A. Comparing the speed difference between the four wheels.

B. Comparing wheel speed with A/C reference speed.
C. Comparing wheel speeds between left and right Landing Gear.
34. With the GREEN Hydraulic System available, you find the
A/SKID and NW/STRG switch in OFF position:
A. Braking is NORMAL, Nose Wheel Steering lost.

B. Braking is ALTERNATE, Nose Wheel Steering normal.
C. Braking is ALTERNATE without Anti-skid, Nose Wheel Steering lost.

117
2008
Rev0
35. Nose Wheel Steering by Rudder Pedals is limited to a max of:
A. 6° under all circumstances,

B. 6° , decreasing as groundspeed increases.

118
A320 Landing Gear 2008
Questionnaire ATA
32
TRTO Rev0
Answers
1 B
2 B
3 B
4 C
5 A
6 B
7 B
8 C
9 B
10 A
11 C
12 B
13 B
14 C
15 B
16 C
17 A
18 B
19 A
20 B
21 B
22 C
23 C
24 A
25 C
26 A
27 C
28 C
29 B
30 B
31 B
32 B
33 B
34 C
35 B

119
A320 Lights ATA
2009
Rev0
1. RWY TURN OFF Lights are located:
A. On the nose gear and automatically extinguish at gear retraction.

B. On fuselage at wing root and must be turned on or off by switch.
C. On the main gear and automatically extinguish at gear retraction.
2. With STROBE switch set on AUTO, strobe lights will come on:
A. When take-off power is set.

B. When take-off speed is above 40 kts.
C. When the main gear strut is not compressed.
3. Emergency lighting using the internal batteries will provide

lighting for:
A. 30 MN
B. 24 MN
C. 60 MN
D. 12 MN
4. EXIT signs automatically come on when:
A. NO SMOKING selector is ON.

B. EMER EXIT LT selector is ARM.
C. Cabin Altitude is below 9500 ft.
5. When SEAT BELTS selector is set to AUTO, FASTEN SEAT BELT

signs:
A. Are automatically lighted ON when main landing gear is extended.

B. Are automatically lighted ON when slats are extended.
6. The NO SMOKING, FASTEN SEAT BELT, RETURN TO SEAT and

EXIT signs come ON when:
A. The appropriate switches are ON and/or Excessive Cabin Altitude is

detected.
B. The appropriate switches are OFF and Excessive Cabin Altitude is
detected.
C. All of the above.
A320 Lights Questionnaire
120
A320 Lights ATA
2009
Rev0
7. With the EMER EXIT LT selector in the ARM position, Cabin

Overhead Emergency Lights automatically come on when:
A. AC BUS 1 or DC SHED ESSENTIAL BUS fails.

B. AC BUS 2 fails.
C. AC ESSENTIAL BUS fails
8. RWY TURN OFF lights on, NOSE light in T.O.; after Take-Off, you
forget to switch these lights off. What happens?
A. RWY TURN OFF lights and NOSE lights extinguish automatically

when the Landing Gear is retracted.
B. NOSE lights extinguish automatically. RWY TURN OFF lights remain
on during the whole flight.
C. RWY TURN OFF and NOSE switches are magnetically held and
return automatically to OFF when aircraft is airborne.

121
A320 Lights 2009
Questionnaire ATA
33
TRTO Rev0
Answers
1 A
2 C
3 D
4 A
5 C
6 C
7 A
8 A

122
A320 Navigation ATA
2009
Rev0
1. In normal operation ADIRU 1 supplies data to:
A. The captain's PFD and the first officer's ND

B. The captain's ND and the first officer's PFD
C. The captain's PFD and ND
D. The first officer's PFD and ND
2. Which ILS information is displayed on ND in ROSE ILS mode:
A. G/S and loc scales

B. Deviation bar, selected course, G/S and loc scales
C. Deviation bar, selected course and G/S scale
3. In ROSE VOR mode, in the event of VOR receiver failure:
A. The VOR information and the course pointer become red

B. The VOR information becomes red and the course pointer disappears
C. The VOR information and the course pointer disappear
D. The VOR information flashes and the course pointer disappears
4. Can you read the HDG on the PFD?
A. Yes
B. No
5. The messages appears on F/O ND: “Select Offside range/mode”

& “MAP not available”:
A. The IRS'S have not reached complete alignment

B. The F-PLN entered in captain's FMGC has not been transferred into
copilot's FMGC
C. Single FMGC operation and the two EFIS control panels are not set
at the same range & the FMGC has delivered an invalid Aircraft
position
6. If ADIRU 2 fails, the correct action is:
A. Set ATT HDG and air data selectors to CAPT/3

B. Set ATT HDG and air data selectors to F/O/3
C. Set ATT HDG selectors to CAPT/3, air data selector to F/O/3
D. Set ATT HDG selectors to F/O/3, air data selector to CAPT/3
A320 Navigation Questionnaire
123
A320 Navigation ATA
2009
Rev0
7. Each ADIRU receives 2 analogue inputs. They are:
A. Angle of attack (AOA) and total air temperature (TAT)

B. Angle of attack (AOA) and baro correction or reference
C. Total air temperature (TAT) and baro correction or reference
D. FMGC status and baro correction or reference
8. The ALIGN light flashes:
A. Within 5 mn of NAV mode selection when present position has not

been entered
B. During the alignment phase in case of IRS alignment error
C. When alignment is completed
9. What does the ADR fault light steady illumination on the ADIRS
CDU means?
A. A fault is detected in air data reference part

B. No present position entry after 10 mn
C. Alignment has been completed
10. You press “Align IRS” prompt on the INIT A page, on the
ADIRS CDU the ALIGN light flashes but no message is displayed
on the CDU:
A. The system can only be used in ATT mode

B. The system is unable to enter NAV mode to compute coordinates :
switch it off
C. Do make a second ' present position ' entry
11. In case of failure of both FMGC’s:
A. VOR, ILS and ADF receivers 1 and 2 can be tuned through RMP 1
B. VOR, ILS and ADF receivers 1 can be tuned through RMP 1
C. RMP 1 controls VOR1, ILS and ADF receivers 1 / RMP2 controls
VOR2, ILS and ADF receivers 2

124
A320 Navigation ATA
2009
Rev0
12. In the event of no ADF 1 reception, with ADF1 selected on ND:
A. The bearing pointer goes out of view and ADF flag is displayed
B. The bearing pointer goes out of view and station id is replaced by
red crosses
C. The bearing pointer goes out of view and station id is replaced by
frequency
13. In ROSE NAV mode with VOR 1 selected, what VOR information
is displayed on the left hand ND if no course has been selected?
A. Deviation bar, selected course and the bearing pointer

B. Bearing pointer only
C. Deviation bar and selected course only
14. In flight, following a manual position update of the FMGC:
A. It is also necessary to up-date the IRS position

B. An IRS cannot be up-dated during A/C motion
15. ADIRU 3 can supply information to:
A. DMC 1, DMC 2 and DMC 3

B. DMC 1 and DMC 3 ONLY
C. DMC 2 and DMC 3 ONLY
16. Air data modules (ADM) supply pressure information to the

ADIRU’s from:
A. All pitot probes and static ports

B. The pitot probes only
C. The static ports only
D. The captain and first officer pitot probes and static ports only
17. On the pedestal switching panel, the ATT HDG and air data
selectors are at normal, the meaning being:
A. ADIRU 1 supplies data to PFD 1, ND 1 / ADIRU 2 supplies data to

PFD 2, ND 2
B. ADIRU 1 supplies data TO PFD 1, ND 1 and DDRMI / ADIRU 2
supplies data to PFD 2, ND 2
C. ADIRU 1 supplies data to PFD 1 / ADIRU 2 supplies data to PFD 2

125
A320 Navigation ATA
2009
Rev0
18. Tuning of VOR/DME and ILS is provided by:
A. Automatic tuning / manual tuning / back up tuning

B. Automatic tuning / manual tuning
C. Automatic tuning / back up tuning
19. ACFT on RWY centreline, ready for T/O, to preset a HDG of

233°:
A. Pull hdg knob to disarm nav mode / set 233° and press hdg knob to
engage
B. Turn hdg knob, set 233° and pull to engage
C. Turn hdg knob, set 233° / pull hdg knob when ATC clears to turn to
233°
20. In approach, “LAND” illuminates on FMA when radio altitude

is:
A. 700 feet
B. 400 feet
C. 1000 feet
D. 200 feet
21. ADIR 3 receives information from:
A. The captain's TAT sensor

B. The first officer's TAT sensor
C. The captain and first officer's TAT sensors
D. The stand-by TAT sensor
22. On ATC (transponder) panel, the fault light comes ON if:
A. Selected transponder fails

B. System 1 has been manually selected OFF
23. In normal operation, the NAVAIDS are tuned:
A. Manually through the Radio Management Panel.

B. Manually through the RAD NAV page.
C. Automatically by FMGEC.

126
A320 Navigation ATA
2009
Rev0
24. ADIRU 3 includes:
A. ADR 1 and IR 2.
B. ADR 2 and IR 1.
C. ADR 3 and IR 3.
25. Ground dependant position determining systems such as VOR,

DME, ILS:
A. Are used only as a back-up to the independent position determining

systems such as ADIRS.
B. Provide information which overrides information supplied by ADIRS.
C. Cross check and refine position computed by independent systems
such as ADIRS.
26. ADIRU provides navigation information:
A. By using ground stations signals.

B. By using satellites signals.
C. On an independent basis, without reference to ground stations or
satellites.
27. Which of the following is true about GPWS warnings?
A. You cannot inhibit GPWS warnings.

B. Even loudspeakers off, aural GPWS warnings are available.
C. GPWS warnings generate Master Caution lights and ECAM
messages.
28. Pushing the GPWS-G/S or PULLUP-GPWS p/b (located near the

PFD) on ground will:
A. Inhibit the DON'T SINK warning after takeoff.

B. Inhibit all GPWS warnings.
C. Test the GPWS.
29. If the IR 1 fault light is flashing in the ADIRS panel:
A. IR 1 is lost.
B. The attitude and heading information may be recovered in ATT
mode.
C. Only attitude information may be available in ATT mode.

127
A320 Navigation ATA
2009
Rev0
30. If the IR 1 fault light is steady on ADIRS panel:
A. IR 1 is lost.
B. The attitude and heading information may be recovered in ATT
mode.
C. Only attitude information may be available in ATT mode.
31. In case of troubles on PITOT STBY and STATIC STBY probes:
A. Stand-by Altitude and speed information’s are wrong.

B. ADIRU 3 receives wrong information’s.
32. Inertial data (TRK, PPOS, WIND, HDG) are available if ADIRS
selector is on:
A. ATT only.
B. NAV only.
C. NAV or ATT.
33. By switching ADIRS selector on ATT, available data are:
A. Attitude information.
B. Attitude and heading information.
C. Attitude, heading and wind information.
34. On ADR 1 p/b, fault light means:
A. ADR1 is faulty.
B. ADIRU 1 is faulty.
C. ADR 1 is faulty; ADR 3 is switching automatically its information.
35. In case of both FMGC failure, ILS may be tuned :
A. By any RMP.
B. By RMP 1 or 2.
C. By RMP 1 only.
36. If an ILS DME is tuned via the RMP, will the DME be displayed
on the PFD?
A. Yes
B. No
128
A320 Navigation ATA
2009
Rev0
37. In case of both FMGC failure, VOR 2 may be tuned :
A. By any RMP.
B. By RMP 1 or 2.
C. By RMP 2 only.
38. Performing an ILS approach, ILS amber message is flashing on

lower right part of the PFD:
A. The ILS approach has not been selected in FMGS.

B. The APP p/b has not been selected on the FCU.
C. The APPR mode is armed but ILS display has not been selected.

129
A320 Navigation 2009
Questionnaire ATA
34
TRTO Rev0
Answers

1 C
2 B
3 A
4 A
5 C
6 B
7 A
8 B
9 A
10 C
11 C
12 C
13 B
14 B
15 A
16 A
17 B
18 A
19 C
20 B
21 A
22 A
23 C
24 C
25 C
26 C
27 B
28 C
29 B
30 A
31 C
32 B
33 B
34 A
35 B
36 B
37 C
38 C

130
A320 Oxygen ATA
2009
Rev0
1. When cockpit oxygen pressure is displayed in a half amber box

on Door/Oxy Ecam page :
A. The CREW SUPPLY p/b has to be pushed.

B. The oxygen bottle manual isolation valve has to be opened.
C. Minimum value must be checked.
2. When the oxygen full face mask is applied, if smoke or

condensation is appearing in the mask :
A. There is no mean to evacuate this.

B. The EMERGENCY Pressure selector on the mask must be pushed.
C. The N/100% selector on the oxy compartment must be pushed.
3. What happens when the Mask is used with the selector at 100%
position?
A. Mask is supplied with diluted oxygen on demand.

B. Mask is supplied with undiluted oxygen on demand.
C. Mask is supplied with undiluted oxygen continuous flow.
4. A overpressure of the crew oxygen bottle is indicated by:
A. An OVER PRESSURE message on ECAM.

B. The Green Overboard Disch indicator missing.
C. The Red Overboard Disch Indicator missing.
5. If the cabin altitude rises above 14.000 Ft, passenger oxygen

masks will drop out:
A. Only by actuation of a switch on the cockpit overhead panel.

B. Automatically and/or by Cabin Attendant action.
C. Automatically and/or by Flight Crew action.
6. Where does the oxygen for the cabin oxygen system come
from?
A. It is produced by chemical generators.

B. It is contained in a high pressure composite cylinder.
A320 Oxygen Questionnaire

131
A320 Oxygen ATA
2009
Rev0
7. How are the cabin masks deployed?
A. Only manual deployment from the cockpit is possible.

B. Automatically, when the Cabin Altitude reaches 14000 Ft or
manually from the cockpit.
C. Automatically only, when Cabin Altitude reaches 14000 Ft.
8. OXY indication on Door/Oxy page, normally green, becomes

amber when:
A. Pressure below 400 psi.

B. OXY CREW SUPPLY p/b is OFF.
C. All above are correct.
9. The first item of EMERGENCY DESCENT is:
A. CREW OXY MASKS ....................... ON

B. THR LEVERS ............................... IDLE
10. Once activated the cabin oxygen system provides :
A. Oxygen to all PAX for 5 mins.

B. Oxygen to 20 PAX for 30 mins
C. Oxygen to all PAX for 13 mins.

132
A320 Oxygen 2009
Questionnaire ATA
35
TRTO Rev0
Answers
1 C
2 B
3 B
4 B
5 C
6 A
7 B
8 C
9 A
10 C

133
A320 Pneumatic ATA
2009
Rev0
1. Temperature regulation is achieved by a precooler which

regulates approximately the temperature at:
A. 150° C
B. 85° C
C. 200° C
2. Air bleed from the engine is:
A. Not cooled prior to being used by the systems

B. Cooled air-to-air heat exchanger that uses cooling air bleed from the
engine fan
C. Cooled by using ambient air
D. Only cooled in air conditioning part
3. Which source operates the bleed valve?
A. Pneumatic
B. Electric
C. Both
4. High pressure air is supplied from:
A. Engine 1 and 2 bleed system, APU load compressor, hp ground

connection
B. Engine 1 and 2 bleed system
C. Engine 1 and 2 bleed system and APU load compressor
5. To provide external air for eng start, the following switching is

required:
A. Pneumatic x bleed auto

B. Engine bleed switches OFF
C. APU bleed switch ON
6. The crossbleed valve is controlled by 2 electrical motors:
A. 1 for the automatic mode, the other one for the manual mode
B. 2 for the automatic mode
C. 2 for the manual mode
A320 Pneumatic Questionnaire

134
A320 Pneumatic ATA
2009
Rev0
7. Engine bleed air systems are controlled and monitored by:
A. 1 bleed monitoring computer

B. 2 bleed valve computers
C. 2 bleed monitoring computers
8. Which source controls the crossbleed valve?
A. Pneumatic
B. Electric
9. Can you control the HP valve position on the air bleed cockpit
overhead panel?
A. Yes
B. No
10. If the bleed valve closes, the hp valve:
A. Opens automatically
B. Closes automatically
11. What happens when the pressure and temperature are not
sufficient to supply the corresponding engine bleed valve?
A. IP valve closes
B. HP valve opens, IP check valve closes
C. HP valve opens, IP stage remains in the same configuration
12. With engines and APU running and APU bleed selected ON,
select the correct statement:
A. Engines bleed valves open, x bleed valve opens, APU bleed valve
closes
B. Engines bleed valves close, x bleed valve opens, APU bleed valve
opens
C. Engines bleed valves open, x bleed valve closes, APU bleed valve
opens
D. Engines bleed valves close, x bleed valve closes, APU bleed valve
opens

135
A320 Pneumatic ATA
2009
Rev0
13. The pneumatic system supplies high pressure air:
A. Only for air conditioning, engine starting, and wing anti-ice.

B. Only for the hydraulic and water reservoir pressurization.
C. For air conditioning, engine starting, wing anti-ice, as well as for
hydraulic and water reservoir pressurization
14. Bleed air supply from the APU:
A. Is not available in flight.

B. Is not available for air conditioning.
C. Is controlled by APU Bleed Valve and is available on ground and in
flight.
15. If an engine bleed pylon leak is detected, the bleed valve on

the same side close, the X-Bleed valve receives a closure
signal, and:
A. A FAULT light appears only in the ENG BLEED p/b associated with
the pylon leak and wing anti-ice must not be selected.
B. OFF light appears in the ENG BLEED p/b associated with the closed
Engine Bleed Valve.
C. Wing anti-ice may be selected.
16. In case of APU leak signal:
A. The X-Bleed Valve must be closed manually as soon as possible.

B. The APU Bleed Valve closes automatically.
C. The APU Bleed Valve must be closed manually as soon as possible.
17. In flight, with wing A/I ON, if there is a wing leak detection:
A. The Wing anti-ice is automatically stopped.

B. Only one wing will be anti-iced.
C. The X-Bleed Valve opens automatically to allow normal de-icing.
18. What happens in case of one BMC failure?
A. The other BMC takes over most of the monitoring functions.

B. Pneumatic system is lost.

136
A320 Pneumatic 2009
Questionnaire ATA
36
TRTO Rev0
Answers
1 C
2 B
3 A
4 A
5 B
6 A
7 C
8 B
9 B
10 B
11 B
12 B
13 C
14 C
15 A
16 B
17 B
18 A

137
A320 Water and Waste ATA
2009
Rev0
1. Portable water is piped to washbasins and toilets boils. If a

water leak occurs, valves can isolate them from the water
system by:
A. Manual shutoff valves situated under toilet boils or washbasins

B. Electrical shutoff valves on the forward attendant panel
C. Automatic shutoff valves
2. In case of electrical failure of the flush valve (newer A320):
A. Cabin crew can use a manual flush control under the toilet boil
B. Cabin crew can reset the system by pressing the water waste P/b on
the forward attendant panel
C. Cabin crew can reset it via CIDS
3. To check the potable water level:
A. Water tank level cannot be checked

B. Indicators on the forward attendant panel and the aft service Panel
show how much water the water tank contains
C. Ground service staff deliver a load sheet about water
A320 Water and Waste Questionnaire

138
A320 Water and Waste 2009
Questionnaire ATA
38
TRTO Rev0
Answers
1 A
2 A
3 B
A320 Water and Waste Questionnaire

139
A320 APU ATA
2009
Rev0
1. APU may be used:
A. On ground and in flight

B. On ground and for take off
C. Only on ground
2. APU master sw p/b is lighted in amber, ECAM shows APU auto

shut down, it means:
A. An automatic APU shut down for a reason other than fire

B. APU fault without auto shutdown
C. APU is running while ground power unit is connected to the aircraft
3. APU fuel pump is used:
A. For an APU start up using the aircraft batteries only

B. When tank pump pressure is not available
C. A and B
4. In case of an APU fire on ground:
A. APU can be stopped from the cockpit

B. Fire extinguisher bottle can be operated from the external power
panel
C. APU shut down and extinguishing agent discharge are fully
automatic
5. Avail light illuminates on start pb when:
A. External power is disconnected

B. APU n reaches 95%
C. APU electric power is used
6. On ground, APU can provide:
A. Elec power + hydraulic power

B. Elec power + bleed air
A320 APU Questionnaire

140
A320 APU ATA
2009
Rev0
7. When APU master sw is released, APU normally stops:
A. With no delay
B. With a delay
C. After a cooling period if APU bleed air was used
8. When APU is running, APU fuel pump:
A. Runs when tank pump pressure is not sufficient

B. Runs all the time
C. Runs only in flight
9. Air bleed extraction for wing anti-ice:
A. Is permitted
B. Is not permitted
10. Can you start the APU using the a/c batteries only:
A. Yes
B. No
11. APU N indication becomes amber on ECAM sd, when:
A. N equal or above 107%

B. N equal or above 102%
C. N less than 99%
12. The APU is supplied from the:
A. Right fuel feed line

B. Left fuel feed line
13. APU bleed air is controlled:
A. By ECB (n% adjustement)

B. Not controlled
C. By APU bleed valve which operates as shut off valve

141
A320 APU ATA
2009
Rev0
14. Normal electrical power being available, APU may be started

up:
A. 25000 ft or lower
B. 10000 ft or lower
C. Throughout the normal flight envelope
15. What determines the APU speed in accordance with air bleed
demand:
A. Electronic control box

B. Air conditioning system
C. Air intake system
16. APU start up is available:
A. On aircraft batteries
B. On normal electric system
C. A and B
17. What does "avail" light mean?
A. ECB self test is completed

B. APU n is above 99,5% or 2 sec after n reaches 95%
C. APU may be started up
18. APU start up is bound to:
A. Master switch on and flap open

B. Master switch on and start p/b on
C. Master switch on, start p/b on and flap open
19. When the APU master switch is released, a normal APU shut
down occurs:
A. With a delay if the bleed air was in use

B. Without delay, in all cases
C. With a delay, in all cases

142
A320 APU ATA
2009
TRTO Answers 49
Rev0
1 A
2 A
3 C
4 C
5 B
6 B
7 C
8 A
9 B
10 A
11 B
12 B
13 A
14 C
15 A
16 C
17 B
18 C
19 A

143
A320 Doors ATA
2009
Rev0
1. The aircraft is fitted with emergency evacuation slides at:
A. The 4 entry doors

B. The overwing exits
C. A and B
2. If a slide fails to inflate automatically:
A. It must be inflated by manual activation

B. It may be used as a manually held escape slide
C. Both answers are corrects
3. When opened in emergency the passenger entry doors:
A. Are pneumatically assisted in open position

B. Will need two flight attendant to push them open
C. Are assisted to the open position by slide inflation
4. Can you open the FWD Cargo door in case of (Y) hydraulic
system electric pump failure?
A. No, door has to be considered U/S

B. Yes, but only after maintenance action
C. Yes, with the hand pump
5. You arrive at the gate, slides still armed, and the gate agent
opens the 1L door from outside:
A. The slide inflates

B. The slide automatically disarmed
C. The door cannot be opened from outside with the slide armed
A320 Doors Questionnaire

144
A320 Doors ATA
2009
TRTO Answers 52
Rev0
1 A
2 C
3 A
4 C
5 B
A320 Doors Questionnaire

145
A320 Power Plant ATA
2009
Rev0
1. Which of the following statement is true:
A. Both engines are controlled by a computer called Full Authority

Digital Engine Control (FADEC).
B. Each engine and its sensors are controlled by a computer called
FADEC normally powered by the aircraft electrical network.
C. Each engine and its sensors are controlled by a computer called
FADEC normally powered by its own internal generator.
2. When a LVR asymmetry does appear on FMA?
A. When one thrust lever is set out of CLB detent with ATHR active and
both engine running.
B. When both thrust levers are set out of CLB detent with ATHR active
and both engine running.
C. When, in manual thrust, TLA is different.
3. The Full Authority Digital Engine Control (FADEC) provides

engine protections:
A. Through the start phase of operation only.

B. Only at high thrust settings.
C. For over speed limits (N1 and N2) in all flight phases and EGT
monitoring during start phase only.
4. The FADEC displays its engine parameters and information on:
A. Engine Warning Display (Upper ECAM only).

B. Engine Warning Display (Upper ECAM) and Cruise and Engine page
(lower ECAM).
C. Lower ECAM engine page only.
5. The Idle modes provided by FADEC are:
A. Flight Idle and Reverse Idle.

B. Modulated Idle, Approach Idle and Reverse Idle.
C. Ground Idle and Flight Idle.
A320 Power Plant Questionnaire

146
2009
Rev0
6. When pilot reads "A/THR" blue on FMA, that means:
A. Autothrust is armed and not active.

B. Autothrust is active.
C. There is a disagreement between the A/THR p/b on FCU and the
FMA mode.
7. The CLB thrust limit mode indication is displayed on EW/D

when:
A. The thrust levers are set above the CLB position.

B. At least one thrust lever is in CLB position with the other between
Idle and CLB.
C. At least one thrust lever is in CLB position with the other above CLB
position.
8. How many consecutive engine start cycle can you perform?
A. 2 consecutive cycles.
B. 4 consecutive cycles then at least 15 min cooling periods.
C. 4 consecutive cycles then at least 30 min cooling periods.
9. The ENG MODE selector is turned to CRANK position:
A. Auto start is available.

B. The start is operational via the MAN START p/b and engine start is
possible.
C. The start valve is armed and operational via the MAN START p/b
and engine start is not possible.
10. On ground, when a pilot turns the ENG MODE selector to

IGN/START:
A. The pack valves will close in half open position.

B. The pack valves will remain open.
C. The pack valves will close.

147
2009
Rev0
11. When the ENG mode selector is on IGN/START and ENG

MASTER is not switched "On", within 30 sec:
A. The pack valves will reopen.

B. There is an alarm that advises the pilot to start the engine
immediately.
C. The pack valves stays in previous position, because there is no
linkage between this command and packs.
12. If the first start fails:
A. The pilot proceeds to a new start resetting ENG MASTER switch and
ENG START knob.
B. FADEC performs a new start using the other igniter.
C. FADEC performs a new start selecting the two igniters.
13. When starting one engine in flight:
A. Igniter A comes on.

B. Igniter A or B comes on.
C. Igniters A and B come on.
14. In CLEAN CONFIG (Flaps 0), pilot reads " IDLE " on EW/D; it
means:
A. N1 reaches a fixed value.

B. N1 depends only on altitude.
C. N1 depends on: bleed system demand.
15. During manual start up sequence, the ignition is performed by:
A. Igniter A.
B. Alternatively Igniter A or B.
C. Simultaneously Igniters A and B.
16. Engines running, thrust levers set between IDLE and CLIMB,
the FADEC calculated N1 is equal to TLA and N1 is limited to:
A. N1 CLB.
B. N1 FLEX/MCT.
C. N1 TO/GA.

148
2009
Rev0
17. The upper ECAM EW/D displays the engine's primary

parameters permanently:
A. The lower ECAM SD displays the secondary parameters when they

are selected by the system.
B. The lower ECAM SD displays the secondary parameters when they
are selected manually by the flight crew.
18. The ENG MASTER switch on pedestal controls:
A. Only the HP Fuel Valve.

B. Only the LP Fuel Valve.
C. Both HP and LP Fuel Valves.
19. Each engine fuel system has LP and HP Fuel Valves:
A. ENG MASTER Switch controls LP fuel valve and HP fuel valve, the
FIRE p/b controls LP fuel valve.
B. ENG MASTER Switch controls HP fuel valve, the FIRE p/b controls LP
fuel valve and HP fuel valve.
C. ENG MASTER Switch controls HP fuel valve, the FIRE p/b controls LP
fuel valve.
20. The oil system lubricates the engine components, the oil is
cooled:
A. By fuel using a heat exchanger.

B. By air using cold air from outside, via an air exchanger.
C. By circulating air during flight.
21. Other than for feeding the engines, what else is the fuel used
for?
A. To cool the IDG oil.

B. To cool the ENGINE oil.
C. A and B.

149
2009
Rev0
22. After takeoff with FD, when the thrust levers are in FLEX
detent:
A. A/THR is active between O and MCT.

B. A/THR will become active by pressing A/THR p/b on FCU.
C. A/THR will become active when thrust levers are moved back to CL.
23. The A/THR is active when:
A. A/THR is armed.
B. Thrust levers are between IDLE and CL or IDLE and MCT flying (N -
1).
C. Both conditions are respected.
24. After take-off A/THR becomes active:
A. By pressing the A/THR p/b on FCU.

B. Moving thrust levers back to CL.
C. Automatically 10 seconds after airborne.
25. "LVR MCT" is flashing on FMA if the thrust levers are not set in
MCT detent:
A. After engine failure, when speed is greater than Green Dot.

B. After slats and flaps retraction.
C. After engine failure regardless of speed relation.
26. If pilot disconnects A/THR by pressing:
A. A/THR p/b on FCU, there is a fault message on EW/D.

B. A/THR p/b on thrust levers, there is a MEMO message on EW/D.
27. After take-off, thrust levers are still in FLEX/MCT detent, so:
A. A/THR is active between O and MCT.

B. A/THR is not active.
C. A/THR will be active by pressing A/THR p/b on FCU.

150
2009
Rev0
28. In case of take-off without FD using FLEX thrust:
A. A/THR is normally activated.

B. A/THR becomes active when the thrust levers are moved to CL
detent.
C. A/THR is activated by pressing A/THR p/b on FCU and thrust levers
in CLB position
29. After an engine failure during T/O using FLEX thrust, to

activate A/THR and to get MCT, pilot:
A. Has to move thrust levers out of MCT detent, then back to MCT.
B. Has to let thrust levers in FLEX detent.
C. Has to push A/THR p/b on FCU.
30. On ground, the start sequence is automatically aborted:
A. Only in case of Hot Start or Hung Start.

B. Only in case of no Light Up.
C. In case of Hot Start, Hung Start, or no Light Up.
31. The FADEC is electrically supplied by:
A. An aircraft Electrical System only.

B. Batteries if A/C Electrical Power fails.
C. Aircraft Electrical Circuit below a certain N2 and self powered above
a certain N2
32. What is the minimum Take Off Oil Temperature?
A. -40°C.
B. - 10°C.
C. +50°C.
33. What it the minimum Oil Quantity (ECAM Indications)?
A. 5 Qts + estimated consumption (0.6 Qts/h).

B. 9.5 Qts + estimated consumption (0.5 Qts/h).
C. 11 Qts + estimated consumption before engine start or 5 Qts +
estimated consumption at idle power.

151
2009
Rev0
34. Reduced thrust is not permitted:
A. If outside air temp is lower than flex temp.

B. On contaminated runway.
C. If outside air temp is higher than ref. (ISA + 15°C).
35. The FADEC automatically selects continuous ignition in the

following cases:
A. Wing Anti-Ice ON and ENGINE FLAME OUT.

B. In Flight Restart or ENGINE FLAME OUT or EIU failure.
C. ENGINE FLAME OUT or EIU FAILURE
36. In Auto thrust Mode the thrust computed by the FMGC is

limited:
A. By the ECU [with the thrust lever position (TLA)].

B. By the mode engaged on the FCU.
C. By the FMGC itself.
37. REV appears in green on the N1 Indicator when:
A. The Thrust Levers are set to Full Reverse Sector.

B. The Reverse Doors are fully deployed.
C. The Thrust Lever position is in the IDLE Reverse Sector.
38. Which of the following statements is correct?
A. When one of the transmitting channels for the TLA fails, a standby
channel is activated.
B. If the FADEC receives two differential TLA signals, it interpolates
between the two values.
C. If the FADEC receives two differential TLA signals, it utilizes the
higher of the two values (MAN THR).
39. After an unsuccessful restart attempt in flight, you wait 30

seconds before making a new attempt.
A. So that the batteries can be recharged.

B. The FADEC needs time to cool off.
C. To ventilate the engine.

152
2009
Rev0
40. Other than for feeding the engines, what else is the fuel used
for?
A. To cool the IDG oil.

B. To cool the ENGINE oil.
C. A and B.
41. TAKE OFF! You set T.O. thrust. Which page is displayed on the
ECAM System Display?
A. The WHEEL page stays until GEAR UP.

B. Obviously, for Take Off, the F/CTL page will appear.
C. The ENG page.
42. When is approach idle is selected?
A. In flight when the Flaps are extended

B. When Approach Phase is activated.
43. What device provides direct closure of the HP Shut-Off Valves?
A. The MASTER switch at OFF position.

B. The ECU.
C. HMU.
44. In Manual Thrust mode, when the Thrust Levers are positioned
between the Climb detent and Idle:
A. Each position of the Levers corresponds to an N1 value.

B. Thrust rating limit is MCT.
C. Thrust rating limit is Idle.
45. CRANKING may be manually selected by setting:
A. The ENG MODE selector to CRANK and the MASTER switch to ON.
B. ENG MASTER switch to OFF, ENG MODE selector to CRANK and ENG
MAN Start push button to ON.
C. Same as B with ENG MASTER switch ON.

153
A320 Power Plant 2009
Questionnaire ATA
70
TRTO Rev0
Answers

1 C 41 C
2 A 42 A
3 C 43 A
4 B 44 A
5 B 45 B
6 A
7 B
8 B
9 C
10 C
11 A
12 C
13 C
14 C
15 C
16 A
17 C
18 C
19 A
20 A
21 C
22 C
23 C
24 B
25 A
26 C
27 B
28 C
29 A
30 C
31 C
32 B
33 B
34 B
35 C
36 A
37 B
38 C
39 C
40 C
154
A320 Limitations ATA
2009
TRTO Questionnaire /
Rev0
1. What is the difference between MTOW and Max taxi weight on

the A320?
A. 400kg
B. 900kg
C. 500kg
2. What are the flight manoeuvring load limitations in clean

configuration?
A. 0g / 2g
B. -1g / 2.5g
C. -1g / 2g
3. What are the flight manoeuvring load limitations flaps/slats

extended?
A. 0g / 2g
B. -1g / 2.5g
C. -1g / 2g
4. What is the maximum tail wind limitation (except I-EEZP) ?
A. 15kts
B. 12kts
C. 10kts
5. What is the maximum wind for passenger door operation?
A. 40kts
B. 55kts
C. 65kts
6. What is the nominal runway width?
A. 45m
B. 30m
C. 60m
A320 Limitations Questionnaire

155
2009
Rev0
7. What is the Vmo/Mmo of the A320?
A. 330kts/M0.86
B. 350kts/M0.82
C. 340kts/M0.82
8. What is the maximum speed for config 1+F?
A. 230kts
B. 240kts
C. 215kts
9. What is the maximum speed for config 1 (no slats)?
A. 230kts
B. 240kts
C. 215kts
10. What is the maximum speed for flaps 2?
A. 196kts
B. 205kts
C. 200kts
11. What is the maximum speed for flaps full?
A. 180kts
B. 177kts
C. 185kts
12. What is the VLE?
A. 280kts/M.67
B. 250kts
C. 220kts
13. What is the VLO extension?
A. 280kts/M.67
B. 250kts
C. 220kts

156
2009
Rev0
14. What is the VLO retraction?
A. 280kts/M.67
B. 250kts
C. 220kts
15. What is the maximum altitude at which the gear may be

extended?
A. 25000ft
B. 20000ft
C. 30000ft
16. What is the maximum tires speed?
A. 205kts
B. 195kts
C. 190kts
17. What is the maximum speed for the use of the windshield
wipers?
A. 230kts
B. 200kts
C. 195kts
18. What is the maximum taxi speed during a turn when the ACFT
weight is at/above 76000kg?
A. There is no limitations
B. 30kts
C. 20kts
19. What is the maximum positive differential cabin pressure

(safety valve opening)?
A. 8.8PSI
B. 8.6PSI
C. 8.2PSI

157
2009
Rev0
20. What is the minimum height for use of the A/P with SRS
mode?
A. 100ft AGL (or 5 sec after liftoff)

B. 150ft AGL (or 5 sec after liftoff)
C. 50ft AGL (or 2sec after liftoff)
21. What is the minimum height for the use of the A/P during an
ILS approach when CAT2 or CAT3 is not displayed on FMA?
A. 160ft MSL
B. DH-50ft
C. 160ft AGL
22. Is it allowed to perform a CAT III single approach when in one

engine out condition in configuration 3?
A. Yes
B. No
23. What is the alert height of the A320?
A. 100ft
B. 200ft
C. 400ft
24. What is the maximum continuous load on a TR?
A. 100A
B. 200A
C. 300A
25. What is the maximum operating altitude for the use of the
flaps/slats?
A. 25000ft
B. 29000ft
C. 20000ft

158
2009
Rev0
26. What is the maximum fuel unbalance between the outer tanks?
A. 530kg
B. 750kg
C. No limitation
27. What is the normal hydraulic nominal pressure?
A. 3000PSI+/-100
B. 3000PSI+/-200
C. 3000PSI
28. What is the maximum brakes temperature for T/O (brake fans
OFF)?
A. 300°
B. 150°
C. No limitation as long as the gear is kept down after T/O for 5
minutes
29. What is the maximum speed during a turn when one tire is
deflated?
A. 10kts
B. 15kts
C. 7kts
30. If the cockpit oxygen bottle has a normal nominal pressure, for
how long are the cockpit occupants protected when the cockpit
oxygen masks are used in 100% position (smoke case) at a
cabin altitude of 8000ft?
A. 15minutes
B. 13minutes
C. 20minutes
31. After 2 APU consecutive start attempts, a cooling period of 60

minutes must be respected before a third APU start attempt can
be made..
A. True
B. False

159
2009
Rev0
32. What is the maximum ACFT altitude for APU start on batteries?
A. 22500ft
B. 39000ft
C. 25000ft
33. What is the minimum engine oil temperature for T/O (CFM56)?
A. -10°C
B. -40°C
C. 10°C
34. What is the minimum engine starting temperature?
A. -10°C
B. -40°C
C. 10°C
35. What is the maximum time allowed with engine power in T/O
mode in one engine out condition?
A. 10 minutes
B. 5 minutes
C. No limitations
36. How many consecutive engines starts attempts are allowed

without applying a cooling period (CFM56)?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
37. What is the time used for a cooling period during engine start
(CFM56)?
A. 15 minutes
B. 20 minutes
C. 10 minutes

160
2009
Rev0
38. What is the max TFLEX during T/O (CFM56)?
A. ISA + 53°
B. ISA + 45°
C. ISA + 50°
39. Is it allowed to use the APU bleed for wing anti icing?
A. Yes
B. No
40. Is it allowed to start the APU when the ECAM LOW OIL LEVEL
advisory has just appeared?
A. Yes
B. No

161
2009
TRTO Answers /
Rev0

1 A
2 B
3 A
4 C
5 C
6 A
7 B
8 C
9 A
10 C
11 B
12 A
13 B
14 C
15 A
16 B
17 A
18 C
19 B
20 A
21 C
22 B
23 A
24 B
25 C
26 A
27 B
28 A
29 C
30 A
31 B
32 C
33 A
34 B
35 A
36 B
37 A
38 A
39 B
40 A

162

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2009

A320 Questionnaire ATA

The questionnaire consists of a collection of questions related to ATA’s from

List of Effective pages

ATA Rev N° Pages From/To Date of Issue Date of effectiveness

Name: Rank: Date: Score:

1. Following a pressurization SYSTEM 1 fault:

A. Master caution is activated and ECAM actions must be taken by the

2. The safety valves are operated:

3. Conditioned air is distributed to:

A. Cockpit, cargo bays, and cabin

4. What is the max negative differential pressure for the cabin?

A. Adding hot air

6. What happens when the heating or cooling demand on one zone

A. Engine thrust must be increased manually

A320 Air/Press/Vent Questionnaire

7. Is it possible to use simultaneously Packs and LP ground unit

8. When the “ditching” switch is selected ON, a closure signal is

A. The outflow valve and the pack flow control valves

9. The cabin zone temperature sensors are situated in the lavatory

10. The RAM air switch should be used:

11. When the landing elevation is set to AUTO, the landing

12. The temperature selectors are located in:

A320 Air/Press/Vent Questionnaire

13. To see the position of the outflow valve, it is necessary to call

14. Cabin pressurization starts at:

15. In case of Pack Control valve failure:

A. Pack outlet temperature is controlled at fixed temperature

A. Pack overheat, engine fire push button released, engine start,

17. The purpose of the safety valve is to avoid:

A. Excessive positive differential pressure

18. Temperature regulation is automatic and is controlled by:

A320 Air/Press/Vent Questionnaire

19. In case of total zone controller failure:

20. Hot air pressure regulating valve:

A. Regulates the pressure of hot air tapped upstream of the packs

21. In automatic control mode, cabin pressurization is optimized

A. FMGS cruise level, time to climb and static pressure information

22. If a pack N 1 controller fails, the pack outlet temperature is

23. The outflow valve is powered in normal operation (no failure)

A. One out of two electric motors

24. RAM air inlet, when set to ON will open:

A320 Air/Press/Vent Questionnaire

25. The safety valves open at:

26. In case of pack controller failure, the pack outlet air

A. Pack by-pass valve

27. Trim air valves are controlled by:

A. The zone controller

28. In case of a CPC 1 failure in flight:

A. Manual control has to be used

29. On ECAM PRESS page, the safety valve indication changes to

A. Both safety valves are fully open

30. Once set to ON, the air conditioning packs operate:

A. Automatically and independently of each other

A320 Air/Press/Vent Questionnaire

32. Pack flow may be controlled from:

35. Pack controllers primary channel failure:

A. The secondary computer operates as a back up mode and regulation

36. Pack flow control valve:

A. Is pneumatically operated and electrically controlled

A320 Air/Press/Vent Questionnaire

38. On ECAM PRESS page, the outflow valve indicator changes

39. After a primary channel (Zone controller) failure: