Multiplechoice 161029044434 PDF

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PAPER II
Human Resource Management
Labour Welfare
Industrial Relations
(Sub Code: 55)
Prepared By
Manu Melwin Joy
Assistant Professor
Ilahia School of Management Studies
Kerala, India.
Phone – 9744551114
Mail – manu_melwinjoy@yahoo.com
Kindly restrict the use of slides for personal purpose.

Please seek permission to reproduce the same in public forms and presentations.
Contents
1. UGC NET LW/PM/IR June 2016. (Fully solved)
2. UGC NET LW/PM/IR December 2015. (Fully solved)
Contents
1. UGC NET LW/PM/IR Sample paper 1. (Fully solved)
UGC NET
LABOUR WELFARE/PERSONNEL
MANAGEMENT/INDUSTRIAL
RELATION
June 2016
Option 4
Option 3
Option 1
Option 2
Option 2
Option 3
Option 2
Option 4
Option 3
Option 4
Option 3
Option 1
Option 4
Option 4
Option 3
Option 4
Option 1
Option 4
Option 1
Option 3
• The first of May in 1927 was for the first time
celebrated as ‘Labour Day’ at
• (1) Calcutta
• (2) Bombay
• (3) Madras
• (4) Ahmedabad
Madras
• Who started the publication of the Bengali
Weekly, titled ‘Janawani’ in Calcutta ?
• (1) Shapurji Bengalee
• (2) M.N. Roy
• (3) Muzaffar Ahmad
• (4) Diwan Chamanlal
Muzaffar Ahmad
• According to the Second National Commission
on Labour, ‘check-off system’ must be made
compulsory for members of all registered
trade unions in establishments employing :
• (1) 150 workers
• (2) 200 workers
• (3) 250 workers
• (4) 300 workers
300 workers
• Under which type of Union Security, an
employee in the bargaining unit is obliged to pay
dues to the union in return for the collective
bargaining service which it is rendering to him,
although he does not join the union ?
• (1) Preferential union shop
• (2) Closed shop
• (3) Agency shop
• (4) Union shop
Agency shop
• The Ahmedabad Textile Labour Association is
an example of
• (1) Craft Union
• (2) Staff Union
• (3) Industrial Union
• (4) General Union
Industrial Union
• Which of the following is a non-statutory
adhoc body ?
• (1) Central Implementation and Evaluation
Committee
• (2) Central Committee on Labour Research
• (3) Committee on Conventions
• (4) Wage Board
Wage Board
Option 3
Option 3
Option 1
Option 2
Option 2
• Social security provided by a ‘means test’ is
called
• (1) Need based assistance
• (2) Social assistance
• (3) Social assurance
• (4) Mutual assistance
Social assistance
Option 1
Option 4
• An employee working in an organisation
draws a salary of ` 20,000/- per month. What
is the amount of bonus that he shall be paid
at the minimum rate of 8.33% under the
payment of Bonus Act, 1965 ?
• (1) 20,000
• (2) 8,333
• (3) 7,000
• (4) 3,500
7,000
Option 4
Option 4
Option 3
Option 2
Option 1
Option 2
Option 2
• Who among the following viewed
unemployment as outcome of the
disorganization of economic system ?
• (1) Keynes
• (2) Lioneal Edie
• (3) Karls Pribram
• (4) Fairchild
Keynes
Option 3
Option 2
Option 3
Option 2
• The Directive Principles of state policy, as
Contained in the Constitution of India, contains
Articles incorporating provisions for Labour
Welfare. Which among the following Articles does
not contain provisions for Labour Welfare :
• (1) Article 38
• (2) Article 39
• (3) Article 40
• (4) Article 41
Article 40
Option 1
END of Question Paper
UGC NET
RELATION
December 2015
Option 2
Option 4
Option 2
Option 1
Option 2
Option 2
Option 3
Option 3
Option 4
Option 3
Option 4
Option 3
Option 2
Option 4
Option 4
Option 4
Option 4
Option 3
Option 2
Option 1
Option 2
Option 2
Option 2
Option 1
Option 3
Option 1
Option 3
Option 2
Option 2
Option 3
Option 3
Option 2
Option 3
Option 2
Option 3
Option 4
Option 2
Option 3
Option 4
Option 1
Option 4
Option 4
Option 2
Option 3
Option 1
Option 2
Option 4
Option 3
Option 3
Option 3
Option 3
UGC NET
RELATION
December 2014
• Who identified the basic elements of work
known as ‘therbligs’ ?
• (A) Henry L. Gantt
• (B) Frank B. Gilbreth
• (C) F.W. Taylor
• (D) All of the above
Frank B. Gilbreth
• Who among the following concluded that the
factory was a social system and informal groups at
work place play a vital role in industrial affairs ?
• (A) Elton Mayo
• (B) Henry Fayol
• (C) Blake and Mouton
• (D) Herzberg
Elton Mayo
Option A
Option D
• The tendency of people to expend less effort
when working collectively than when working
individually is called
• (A) Social loafing
• (B) Socialising
• (C) Adjourning
• (D) Social action
Social loafing
• Personnel Management is essentially a
• (A) Matrix function
• (B) Line function
• (C) Staff function
• (D) Line & staff function
Line & staff function

• Which of the following comes under the scope of
line and staff relationship ?
• (A) The relationship between works manager and
maintenance engineer
• (B) The relationship between works manager and
personnel manager
• (C) The relationship between personnel manager
and development engineer
• (D) The relationship between the public relation
officer and the public
B and C
• The broad statement of the duties and
responsibilities of a Job or position is called
• (A) Job description
• (B) Job specification
• (C) Job analysis
• (D) Job evaluation
Job description
• The function of attracting, acquiring and
inducting Human Resources in an organisation
is called
• (A) Selection
• (B) Recruitment
• (C) Staffing
• (D) Training and Placement
Staffing
• Wage Boards Fix wages for employees at
• (A) Regional level
• (B) Plant level
• (C) National level
• (D) Industry level
Industry level
• Which of the following is not a Simulation
Technique of development ?
• (A) In-basket
• (B) Case study
• (C) Sensitivity Training
• (D) Management Games
Sensitivity Training
• Match the following Expression with the Ego states
mentioned against them :
• Expression Ego States
• a. Rationality i. Parent
• b. Fantasizing ii. Child
• c. Demonstrating iii. Adult
• Codes :
• abc
• (A) i ii iii
• (B) ii i iii
• (C) iii ii i
• (D) i iii ii
(C) iii ii i
• Selectivity in responding to information that is
in conformity with one’s own feeling, is
because of
• (A) Cognitive Dissonance
• (B) Perceptual Defence
• (C) Filtering
• (D) Mis-perception
Cognitive Dissonance
• When one group’s performance depends on
another group’s performance, it may result
into inter-group conflict. Such dependence is
described as :
• (A) Pooled interdependence
• (B) Classical interdependence
• (C) Reciprocal interdependence
• (D) Sequential interdependence
Sequential interdependence
• The act of an organization which ‘re-examines
its organizational structures, systems and
procedures from time to time, even when the
organisation is successful and has no problems
necessitating such examination’ is known as :
• (A) Performance Appraisal System
• (B) Counteracting system
• (C) Self-renewal system
• (D) Development system
Self-renewal system
• Match the following theories and the scientists who propounded
them :
• List – A (Theories) List – B(Scientists)
• I. Two Factor Theory a. Adolf Alderfer
• II. Achievement Motivation Theory b. Murray
• III. Manifest Need Theory c. Frederic Hertzberg
• IV. ERG Theory d. David McClelland
• Codes :
• I II III IV
• (A) d c b a
• (B) a b c d
• (C) c d b a
• (D) a d c b
(C) c d b a
• Which of the following sequence of group
development process is correct ?
• I. Performing II. Norming
• III. Forming IV. Storming
• V. Adjourning
• Codes :
• (A) V I II IV III
• (B) III IV II I V
• (C) III I II V IV
• (D) I V III II IV
(B) III IV II I V
• Assertion (A) : The content Theories of
Motivation assume a direct relationship between
Job Satisfaction and improved performance.
• Reason (R) : Job satisfaction does not necessarily
lead to work performance.
• (A) (A) is true, (R) is false.
• (B) (A) is false, (R) is true.
• (C) Both(A) and (R) are true. (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A).
• (D) Both (A) and (R) are false. (R) is the correct
explanation of (A).
(C) Both(A) and (R) are true. (R) is not

the correct explanation of (A).
• When people give ‘Cause and Effect
explanation’ to their behaviour, it is called
• (A) Closure
• (B) Stereotyping
• (C) Attribution
• (D) Inference
Attribution
• The term “Blind Spot” in the Johari Window
refers to
• (A) The ‘Public self’ which is known to others as
well as to oneself.
• (B) The ‘self’ which is known to others but not to
oneself.
• (C) The ‘self’ which is neither known to others nor
to oneself.
• (D) The motives, feelings, etc. which are known to
oneself.
(B) The ‘self’ which is known to others

but not to oneself.
• Which approach to industrial relations aims to
combine social stability with adaptability and
freedom ?
• (A) Classical approach
• (B) Neo-classical approach
• (C) Pluralistic approach
• (D) Social action approach
(C) Pluralistic approach

• Which of the following statements about the
Marxist approach to industrial relations is not
correct ?
• (A) It sees industrial conflict as synonymous with
political and social conflicts.
• (B) It considers pluralism as a mere illusion.
• (C) It believes that capitalism cannot continue to
maintain itself only by lowering the standard of
living of the working class.
• (D) It favours transformation of trade unions into
revolutionary organisations.
(C) It believes that capitalism cannot continue to
maintain itself only by lowering the standard of living
of the working class.
• Disputes that arise out of deadlocks in
negotiations for a collective agreement are
popularly known as
• (A) Grievance Disputes
• (B) Interest Disputes
• (C) Recognition Disputes
• (D) Unfair Labour Practice Disputes
Interest Disputes
• In India, strikes in contravention of the
provisions of which section(s) of the Industrial
Disputes Act, are illegal ?
• (A) Section 22
• (B) Section 23
• (C) Section 24
• (D) All the above sections.
All the above sections.

Option C
• Who emphasised that the trade union
movement had emerged as labour’s reaction
to the dominance of the machine in modern
society ?
• (A) G.D.H. Cole
• (B) Selig Perlman
• (C) Karl Marx
• (D) Frank Tannenbaum
Frank Tannenbaum
• Any Union that caters to all employees
working in a variety of industries under one
owner located at the same place is
categorised as
• (A) Primary union of industrial type
• (B) Primary union of general type
• (C) Primary union of craft type
• (D) Region-cum-industrial level union
(B) Primary union of general type

• Arrange the following trade union federations on
the basis of their year of emergence from the
earliest to the latest :
• (a) CITU (b) UTUC (c) AITUC (d) INTUC
• (e) BMS
• Codes :
• (A) c, d, b, e, a
• (B) a, e, b, d, c
• (C) d, c, b, e, a
• (D) c, b, d, a, e
(A) c, d, b, e, a
• Which of the following statements is/are true about
trade unionism in India ?
• a. It had moorings in the freedom struggle.
• b. It had received patronage from employers.
• c. It originated due to workers’ demands.
• d. It originated due to imperatives of tripartite
representation in the ILO.
• Codes :
• (A) Only a
• (B) a and b
• (C) a, c, d
• (D) a, b, d
(C) a, c, d
• The ‘Socialist Manifesto’ for converting
capitalist economy into a mixed economy was
developed by
• (A) Karl Marx
• (B) G.D.H. Cole
• (C) William Baveridge
• (D) Sidney and Beatrice Webbs
Sidney and Beatrice Webbs

• The enactment of the Equal Remuneration
Act, 1976 is associated with which of the
following conventions of the ILO ?
• (A) Convention No. 111, 1958
• (B) Convention No. 100, 1951
• (C) Convention No. 123, 1975
• (D) Convention No. 118, 1964
(B) Convention No. 100, 1951

• The valuation of the assets and liabilities of
the ESI corporation shall have to be made at
an interval of
• (A) Two years
• (B) Five years
• (C) Four years
• (D) Three years
Three years
Option C
Option A
• Under the provisions of the Payment of
Gratuity Act, 1972, employees working in a
seasonal establishment and who have not
been employed throughout the year, the
employers shall be paid gratuity at the rate of
• (A) 10 days of wages for every year
• (B) 10 days of wags for every season
• (C) 15 days of wages for every year
• (D) 7 days of wages for every season
(D) 7 days of wages for every season

• Under the Factories Act, 1948, the spread
over period including rest interval in a day for
an adult worker should not normally exceed
• (A) 10 ½ hours
• (B) 11 hours
• (C) 12 hours
• (D) 11 ½ hou
(A) 10 ½ hours
Option C
• What is the minimum amount of bonus
payable to an adult employee during an
accounting year ?
• (A) ` 1000
• (B) ` 100
• (C) ` 833
• (D) ` 750
(B) ` 100
• What is the maximum amount of fine that can
be imposed on an employee in a wage period
under the Payment of Wags Act, 1936 ?
• (A) Three percent of wage
• (B) Five percent of wage
• (C) Ten percent of wage
• (D) Eight percent of wage
(A) Three percent of wage

(D) Both i and ii
Option D
Option C
Option B
• Match the following principles of labour welfare with the relevant themes :
• Principle Theme
• a. Principle of coordination i. Delegation of authority to the
committees
• b. Principle of association ii. Avoiding procrastination in welfare work.
• c. Principle of responsibility iii. Avoiding piecemeal approach to labour
welfare and adopting a total perspective.
• d. Principle of timeliness iv. Eliciting the participation and
collaboration of workers and their
representatives.
• Codes :
• abcd
• (A) iii iv i ii
• (B) ii iv i iii
• (C) iii ii iv i
• (D) iv ii i iii
(A) iii iv i ii
Option B
• Match the following concepts of labour with the relevant theme :
• Concept of Labour Theme
• a. Commodity concept of Labour i. Labour regarded by the employer largely as
operating organizations in industry.
• b. Machinery concept of Labour ii. Labour has right to be consulted in regard
to the terms and conditions under
which they are supposed to work.
• c. Goodwill concept of Labour iii. Labour is affected by the law of supply and
demand.
• d. Citizenship concept of Labour iv. Paternalistic approach towards labour by
the employers.
• Codes :
• abcd
• (A) iii i iv ii
• (B) ii iv iii i
• (C) iv iii i ii
• (D) i iii ii iv
(A) iii i iv ii
• Which of the following is not a feature of labour
market ?
• (A) It is essentially local in character.
• (B) It is not monopolistic.
• (C) It is less mobile compared to commodity and
capital markets.
• (D) Monospony in the labour market is less
common than monopoly.
(D) Monospony in the labour market

is less common than monopoly.
• Which of the following theories of wages is
called as the ‘Iron Law of Wages’ ?
• (A) Subsistence Theory
• (B) The Standard of Living Theory
• (C) The Wage Fund Theory
• (D) The Residual Claimant Theory
(A) Subsistence Theory

• Which of the following is not a factor that
creates wage differentials ?
• (A) Differences due to existence of non-
competing groups.
• (B) Non-equalizing differences
• (C) Differences in Labour Quality
• (D) Labour Market Perfections
(D) Labour Market Perfections

• On what basis the money wage can be
converted into real wages ?
• (A) Consumer Price Index
• (B) Wholesale Price Index
• (C) Retail Price Index
• (D) Money Exchange Rate
(A) Consumer Price Index

UGC NET
RELATION
June 2014
• Which of the following is/are not a part of
classical approach to management ?
• (A) Scientific Management
• (B) Administrative Management
• (C) Decision Theory
• (D) Bureaucratic Organization
(C) Decision Theory

Option A
• Which of the following is not a barrier to
effective planning ?
• (A) Difficulty of accurate premising.
• (B) Environmental changes.
• (C) Flexibilities in management.
• (D) Time and Cost factors.
(C) Flexibilities in management.

• Graicuna’s formula suggests that
• (A) the number of subordinates and relations both
increase in arithmetic progression.
• (B) the number of subordinates increases in
geometric progression and number of relations
increases in arithmetic progression.
• (C) The number of subordinates and relations both
increase in geometric progression.
• (D) the number of subordinates increases in
arithmetic progression while the number of
relations increase in geometric progression.
Option D
• The first step in control process is to
• (A) measure actual performance.
• (B) establish objectives and standards.
• (C) compare results with objectives.
• (D) take corrective action.
Option B
• The procedure for determining duties,
responsibilities, working conditions and
reporting relationships is known as
• (A) Job design
• (B) Job description
• (C) Job specification
• (D) Job evaluation
Option B
• In which of the following systems, minimum
wage is guaranteed but beyond a certain
efficiency level, bonus is given in addition to
minimum day wages ?
• (A) Straight piece rate system
• (B) Differential piece rate system
• (C) Gantt task and Bonus system
• (D) Emerson’s Efficiency system
Option D
• In line and staff organization
• (A) lines of authority and instructions are
vertical.
• (B) unity of command is maintained.
• (C) staff specialists advise line managers to
perform their duties.
• (D) Staff decides without consulting line
authority.
Option C
• TAT stands for
• (A) Thematic Application Test
• (B) Thematic Apperception Test
• (C) Training Aptitude Test
• (D) Thematic Attitude Test
Option B
• Which of the following is not a method of Job
Evaluation ?
• (A) Ranking Method
• (B) Grading Method
• (C) Paired Comparison Method
• (D) Point Method
Option C
• Who is the propagator of Human Capital
Approach to Human Resource Development ?
• (A) Lim Teck Ghee
• (B) Lorraine Corner
• (C) T.W. Schultz
• (D) F.D. Lawrence
Option C
• Which of the following statements about
Human Resource Development is not true ?
• (A) It is an enabling process.
• (B) It is a competence building exercise.
• (C) It shall be implemented in an incremental
way with geographical, vertical, functional and
sophisticating phasing.
• (D) It does not cover the global and country level
Human Resource Development practices.
Option D
• Which of the following is not a method of
performance appraisal ?
• (A) Forced Distribution Method
• (B) Factor Comparison Method
• (C) Forced Choice Method
• (D) Critical Incident Method
Option B
• Gagne-Briggs Theory of Training is otherwise
called as
• (A) Instructional Design Theory
• (B) Component Display Theory
• (C) Elaboration Theory
• (D) KSA Theory
Option A
• Assertion (A) : Quality circles in India was an imported idea
from Japan without proper cultural changes in the
organizations.
• Reason (R) : The corporate culture assimilating learning,
empowerment and participation as equals could not be
developed due to absolute mindset of both employers and
employees.
• Codes :
• (A) Assertion is wrong and Reason does not validate the
assertion.
• (B) Both Assertion and Reason are wrong.
• (C) Assertion is right but Reason does not validate the
Assertion.
• (D) Both Assertion and Reason are right and the Reason
validates the Assertion.
Option D
• The aspect of management that is concerned
with the individuals, their roles, the dyads, the
teams and the entire organization is
• (A) Human Resource Management
• (B) Human Resource Development
• (C) Organizational Behaviour
• (D) Organizational Culture
Option C
• Potential effectiveness of a person in both
personal and interpersonal situations while in
performance in a position is known as
• (A) Role effectiveness
• (B) Role efficacy
• (C) Role making
• (D) Role linking
Option B
• The essence of Exchange theory regarding
formation of a group is
• (A) People are attracted to one another on the basis
of exchange of similar attitudes towards common
objects and goals.
• (B) People are attracted to one another interacting
with one another and cooperating to achieve the
goals.
• (C) People are attracted to one another by having
propinquity to each other.
• (D) People are attracted to one another by
interacting through reward-cost outcomes.
Option D
• Being a Manager in an organization, if you are
asked to enrich the job of your subordinate, you
will not consider which of the following ?
• (A) Remove some controls while retaining
accountability.
• (B) Increase the accountability of individuals to their
work.
• (C) Introduce new and more difficult tasks compared
to those handled previously.
• (D) Assign general tasks to people to make them
experts in those tasks.
Option D
Option A
• Who is associated with the radical approach
to industrial relations ?
• (A) Mahatma Gandhi
• (B) John T. Dunlop
• (C) Karl Marx
• (D) Allan Flandevs
Karl Marx
• According to John T. Dunlop, the outputs of an
Industrial Relations System include
• (A) Agreements, customs and traditions of the
work place and work community.
• (B) Awards and orders of Government agencies.
• (C) Regulations and policies of the management
hierarchy.
• (D) All the above.
Option D
• The institutional causes of industrial disputes
do not include
• (A) Technology and Machinery
• (B) Recognition of Unions
• (C) Membership of Unions
• (D) Bargaining Unit
Option A
• Arrange the following in a sequence according to
the years of their establishment from the earliest
to latest
• a. Indian Labour Conference
• b. Central Board of Worker’s Education
• c. Standing Conference on Public Enterprises
• d. Indian National Trade Union Congress
• (A) a, b, c, d (B) a, d, b, c
• (C) d, c, b, a (D) b, d, a, c
Option B
• Assertion (A) : The scope of Industrial Relations is
relative to business environment.
• Reason (R) : It shall be Universal and Perpetual.
• Codes :
• (A) (A) and (R) are right.
• (B) (A) is right and (R) is wrong.
• (C) (A) is wrong and (R) is right.
• (D) (A) is right, but its explanation given in (R) is
wrong.
Option A
Option C
• The Jamshedpur Labour Union is
• (A) a general union.
• (B) an industrial union.
• (C) a craft union.
• (D) an industrial federation.
Option A
• Arrange the following in a sequence according to
the years of their establishment from the earliest
to the latest :
• a. Madras Labour Union
• b. Bombay Mill Hands Association
• c. AITUC
• d. Indian Federation of Labour
• Codes :
• (A) c, d, b, a (B) a, c, d, b
• (C) d, b, c, a (D) b, a, c, d
Option D
• The provision of Unfair Labour Practices is
incorporated under which labour legislation ?
• (A) The Trade Unions Act
• (B) The Industrial Employment
• (Standing Orders) Act
• (C) The Industrial Disputes Act
• (D) The Factories Act
Option C
• Which one of the following is not a manifestation of
inter-union rivalry ?
• (A) A registered union pressurizing the employer to call
it for negotiation on issues which are already agreed
upon with the recognized union.
• (B) A registered union claiming itself to be the majority
union and as such pressurising the employer to accord
the recognition status to it.
• (C) Two rival groups of members emerging within a
union expressing their support to two separate office
bearers of the union.
• (D) The members of two registered unions getting
engaged in a blame game while performing a job that
calls for team work.
Option C
• Which Article of the Indian Constitution deals
with Right to Freedom of Association ?
• (A) Article 15
• (B) Article 17
• (C) Article 19
• (D) Article 23
Option C
• Which of the following conventions of the ILO
has not been ratified by India ?
• (A) Convention relating to Forced Labour.
• (B) Convention relating to Freedom of
Association and Right to Organise.
• (C) Convention relating to Equal Remuneration.
• (D) Convention relating to Discrimination
(Employment/Occupation)
Option B
• Under the Factories Act, it is compulsory for
an employer to appoint a safety officer in his
factory, if the number of workers employedin
factory is
• (A) 400
• (B) 600
• (C) 800
• (D) 1000
Option D
• Which of the following factors is not
responsible for growth of social and labour
legislation ?
• (A) Early industrialisation
• (B) Rise of Unionism
• (C) Establishment of ILO
• (D) Ethnic association
Option D
• The amount of funeral benefit under the
Employees’ State Insurance Act is
• (A) ` 2,500
• (B) ` 3,500
• (C) ` 5,000
• (D) ` 10,000
Option D
• Which of the following is not affected by the
Trade Unions Act ?
• (A) Any agreement between partners as to their
own business.
• (B) Any agreement between an employer and
those employed by him as to such employment.
• (C) Any agreement in consideration on the sale of
the goodwill of business or of instruction in any
profession, trade or handicraft.
• (D) All of these.
Option D
• Chronologically arrange the years of enactments
from earliest to latest of labour legislations
relating to wages and remunerations given below
:
• a. Minimum Wages Act
• b. Payment of Wages Act
• c. Equal Remuneration Act
• d. Payment of Bonus Act
• Codes :
• (A) a, b, c, d (B) a, c, d, b
• (C) b, a, d, c (D) b, a, c, d
Option C
• Which of the following is not considered as
“Wage” under the provisions of Payment of Wages
Act ?
• (A) Any sum paid to the employed person to
defray special expenses entailed by him by the
nature of his employment.
• (B) Any remuneration to which the person is
entitled in respect of overtime work.
• (C) Any sum to which the person employed under
any scheme framed under any law in force.
• (D) All of these.
Option A
• In the landmark judgement by Supreme Court in
case of “Bangalore Water supply and Sewerage
Board Vs. A. Rajappa” which of the following is
not considered as essential requisite for defining
“Industry” ?
• (A) Systematic Activity
• (B) Profit-motive and capital investment
• (C) Co-operation between employer and
employees
• (D) Production and/or distribution of goods and
services scheduled to satisfy human wants and
wishes.
Option B
Option B
• Who spearheaded the Welfare Movement
during the early industrialisation period ?
• (A) Robert Owen
• (B) Robert Katz
• (C) Andrew Ure
• (D) Sheebhom Rowntree
Option A
• Baveridge Plan is associated with
• a. Unemployment
• b. Disability
• c. Loss of livelihood
• d. Retirement benefits
• Codes :
• (A) b, c and d (B) b and d
• (C) c and d (D) a, b, c and d
Option D
• Which of the following statements about CSR
provision in the new Companies Bill passed in
parliament is not true ?
• (A) It is compulsory for a company to spend on
CSR if its net worth is at least ` 500 crore.
• (B) There is provision for minimum turnover of `
800 crore.
• (C) The net profit of at least ` 5 crore in a year is a
condition for compulsory spending on CSR.
• (D) The companies have to spend 2% of its average
profits of three years on corporate social
responsibility.
Option B
• ‘A place for everything and everything in its
place’ is the basic underlying principle of
– (A) Safety
– (B) House-keeping
– (C) Workplace governance
– (D) None of the above
Option B
• Under which legislation, housing is a statutory
provision ?
– (A) The Factories Act
– (B) The Mines Act
– (C) The Plantation Labour Act
– (D) All the above
Option C
‘labour’ is false ?
– (A) Labour is not a commodity.
– (B) Labour is perishable and does not last.
– (C) Labour is inseparable from labourer himself.
– (D) Rapid adjustment of supply of labour to its
demand is possible.
Option D
Option A
Option B
• Which of the following have been devoted to
reduce inter-firm and inter-area wage
differentials in India ?
– (A) Joint Negotiation Committees
– (B) Wage Boards
– (C) Works committee
– (D) Joint Councils
Option B
• Under which of the following incentive plans “a
worker is guaranteed a minimum wage on the
time basis. Then a standard time is fixed for the
completion of every work and if the worker
completes the work in less time, he is given a
bonus of the time actually saved in proportion to
the total time” ?
– (A) Halsey Premium System
– (B) Rowan Premium System
– (C) Barth System
– (D) The Emersion Efficiency System
Option B
UGC NET
RELATION
June 2015
Option 2
• In which year, the book entitled “Principles of
Scientific Management” was published?
• 1901.
• 1903.
• 1911.
• 1912.
Option 3
• Which method of training utilizes equipments
that closely resemble the actual ones used on
the job?
• Role playing.
• Vestibule Training.
• Sensitivity Training.
• Programmed Instruction.
Option 3
Option 3
• Which one of the following is an immediate
product of job analysis?
• Job description.
• Job rotation.
• Job enrichment.
• Job enlargement.
Option 1
Option 3
• Which of the following approaches to
management is a reactive approach instead of
being proactive?
• System approach.
• Quantitative approach.
• Decision theory approach.
• Contingency approach.
Option 4
Option 3
Option 2
Option 3
Option 3
• Which perspective on industrial relations is
based on the notion that the production
system is privately owned and is motivated by
profit?
• Unitary perspective.
• Pluralist perspective.
• Radical perspective.
• Trusteeship perspective.
Option 3
Option 4
Option 3
Option 2
• A strike that is suddenly called, generally
without notice is known as:
• Sit in strike.
• Protest strike.
• Tools down strike.
• Wild cat strike.
Option 4
Option 4
• Who played an instrumental role in the
formulation of code of discipline?
• V V Giri.
• G L Nanda.
• Khandubhai Desai.
• Ravindra Verma.
Option 2
• Which of the following conventions of the ILO
relates to freedom of association?
• Convention No. 87.
Option 1
Option 3
Option 3
• Which of the following methods of forecasting
assumes that group decision making is more
valid than individual judgement?
• Trend analysis.
• Sales force composite method.
• Delphi Method.
• Opinion poll method.
Option 3
• Which of the following represents the general
statements that guide or channel thinking in
decision making?
• Strategies.
• Policies.
• Procedures.
• Programmes.
Option 2
Option 3
Option 2
Option 3
Option 2
• Horizontal clique, vertical clique and random
clique are the examples of:
• Formal group.
• Informal group.
• Out – group.
• In – group.
Option 2
Option 3
Option 3
Option 2
• The term “court” under the industrial Disputes
Act, 1947 refers to which of the following?
• Labour court.
• Court of inquiry.
• High court.
• Civil Court.
Option 2
Option 1
• Under the maternity Benefit act, 1961, a
women employee would get a medical bonus
amounting to:
• 3000
• 3500
• 4000
• 5000
Option 2
• Before the enactment of Workmen’s
(Employee’s) Compensation Act, 1923,
workers suffering a personal injury in course
of employment claimed damages under:
• Economic Law.
• Social Law.
• Common Law.
• Industrial Law.
Option 3
• As per the provisions of the Factories Act,
1948, Week is a period of seven days
beginning at midnight of :
• Sunday.
• Saturday.
• Monday.
• Friday.
Option 2
• What is the minimum number of persons to
be appointed in the Advisory Committee
under the provisions of the Equal
Remuneration Act, 1976?
• Five.
• Fifteen.
• Ten.
• Twelve.
Option 3
• Under the provisions of the Maternity Benefit
Act, 1961, every woman employee after
delivery of a child who returns to duty is to be
provided with nursing breaks till the child
attains the age of:
• Fifteen months.
• Twelve months.
• Eighteen months.
• Ten months.
Option 1
• Under the provisions of the Payment of Bonus
Act, 1965, the gross profits derived by an
employer from an establishment in respect of
any accounting year in case of a banking
company shall be calculated in the manner as
specified under:
• First schedule.
• Second schedule.
• Third Schedule.
• Fourth Schedule.
Option 1
Option 3
Option 1
Option 3
Option 2
Option 3
Option 2
Option 2
Option 1
Option 3
Option 4
Option 4
UGC NET
RELATION
December 2013
Option A
• Which one of the following is not the
characteristic of planning ?
• (A) It deals with future
• (B) It involves selection of particular course of
action
• (C) It is pervasive
• (D) It is not strategic
Option D
• Premature evaluation is a type of
• (A) semantic barrier
• (B) psychological barrier
• (C) organisational barrier
• (D) personal barrier
Option B
• Which of the following is not a feature of
systems approach ?
• (A) A system is a combination of parts
• (B) Parts and sub-parts are related to one
another
• (C) It is not necessary for a system to have a
boundary
• (D) System transforms inputs into outputs
Option C
• Which of the following organisations is a two-
dimensional structure ?
• (A) Functional structure
• (B) Matrix structure
• (C) Line structure
• (D) Divisional structure
Option B
• Job description includes information about
• (A) Job responsibilities, duties and working
conditions.
• (B) Job responsibilities, duties and worth in
terms of wage and salary.
• (C) Job responsibilities and qualifications for
performance.
• (D) Job responsibilities, duties and
qualifications for performance.
Option A
• Differentiation between line and staff
functions is necessary because it helps in
• (A) providing specialized services.
• (B) maintaining adequate checks and balances.
• (C) maintaining accountability.
Option D
• Which of the following refers to analysis of
handwriting to determine writer’s basic
personality traits ?
• (A) Kinesics
• (B) Graphology
• (C) Polygraphy
• (D) Both (B) and (C)
Option B
• The five basic features of Scanlon plan of
incentive payment are
• (A) control, individuality, competence,
involvement and sharing of benefits.
• (B) cooperation, identity, competence,
involvement and sharing of benefits.
• (C) control, individuality, commitment,
involvement , and sharing of benefits.
• (D) cooperation, identity, control, involvement
and sharing of profits.
Option B
• Which of the following is a process of
systematically identifying, assessing and
developing organisational leadership to
enhance performance ?
• (A) Manpower planning
• (B) Career planning
• (C) Succession planning
• (D) Human Resource planning
Option B
• Who is the profounder of the Socio
psychological approach to Human Resource
Development ?
• (A) T.W. Schultz
• (B) Lorraine Corner
• (C) Lim Teck Ghee
• (D) David McClelland
Option D
• Read the following statements on HRD need
analysis. Identify the one which is not true :
• (A) HRD needs can be identified at strategic,
organisational, operational, task and person levels
• (B) HRD needs can be diagnostic, analytic,
compliance oriented and proactive
• (C) competency mapping, performance appraisal
and clarity of career paths identify HRD needs at
task level only
• (D) Task related KSA analysis and training need
analysis are integral part of HRD need analysis
Option C
• Assertion (A) : Performance Appraisal cannot be
error free and unbiased.
• Reason (R) : The Appraisal Methods are covertly
influenced by human judgement which may be
vitiated by inter-personal discriminatory
impulses.
• (A) Assertion (A) is right, Reason (R) is wrong.
• (B) Assertion (A) is wrong, Reason (R) is right.
• (C) Reason (R) does not subscribe to the Assertion
(A).
• (D) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are right,
and Reason (R) validate Assertion (A).
Option D
Option C
• When Human Relations training is given to
managers the method adopted is :
• (A) In-Basket Exercise
• (B) Role-play method
• (C) Managerial Grid Training
• (D) Sensitivity Training
Option D
• When team-building can be attempted by
creating artificial teams in which people get
opportunity to experiment and learn from
their behaviour in a less threatening context,
it is based on :
• (A) Behaviour Modification Approach
• (B) Action Research Approach
• (C) Simulation Approach
• (D) Team Role Approach
Option C
Option C
• Who has extended the Vroom’s Expectancy
Theory of Motivation by suggesting that
motivation is not equal to satisfaction and
performance and by depicting what happens
after performance ?
• (A) Harold Kelly
• (B) Edward Tolman
• (C) Alderfer
• (D) Porter and Lawler
Option D
• Which of the following is an invisible part but
a powerful template that shapes, what
happens at the workplace ?
• (A) Organisational culture
• (B) Organisational climate
• (C) Organisational dynamics
• (D) Organisational structure
Option A
• Match the following :
• Needs Refers to
• a. Intrinsic i. Recognition by boss
• b. Extrinsic ii. Regular salary
• c. Expressed iii. Self initiative
• d. Wanted iv.Expecting others to
• initiate
• Codes :
• abcd
• (A) iv iii i ii
• (B) i iv iii ii
• (C) ii i iv iii
• (D) iii ii iv i
Option A
• The trusteeship approach to industrial
relations was advocated by :
• (A) Karl Marx
• (B) Max Weber
• (C) Allan Flanders
• (D) Mahatma Gandhi
Option D
• Which of the following is a machinery for the
settlement of Industrial Disputes in India ?
• (A) National Commission on Labour
• (B) Wage Board
• (C) Industrial Tribunal
• (D) Standing Labour Committee
Option C
• In which year, the International Institute of
Labour studies was established ?
• (A) 1919
• (B) 1926
• (C) 1950
• (D) 1960
Option D
Option A
• Who advanced the concept of ‘Three tier
institutional structure’ of Industrial Relations
?
• (A) John T. Dunlop
• (B) Allan Flanders
• (C) Kochan, Katz & Mckersie
• (D) Roy Adam
Option C
• Which of the following is not a correct statement
pertaining to the meaning of trade union ?
– (A) It is a continuous association of wage earners for
maintaining or improving the conditions of their
working lives.
– (B) It is a society of individuals in one or more
professions for the purpose of protecting and
advancing, members’ economic interest.
– (C) It is a combination with an objective of regulating
the relation between workmen and workmen,
workmen and employer, employer and employer
– (D) It is any combination, whether temporary or
permanent formed primarily for regulating relations
between the two parties.
Option B
• Who formed the Bombay Millhands
Association ?
• (A) Sorabjee Shaprujee Bengali
• (B) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
• (C) N.M. Lokhande
• (D) V.V. Giri
Option C
• In which country the trade union movement
began with industrial unions ?
• (A) Great Britain
• (B) U.S.A.
• (C) India
• (D) Canada
Option C
• Which one is not a right of a recognized union ?
– (A) A right of ‘Check-off’
– (B) To use notice board on the premises of the
undertaking
– (C) To appear on behalf of the union on domestic
inquiry
– (D) inspecting the undertaking
Option A
• The criteria for recognition of trade union under the code of discipline
are
• (a) union claiming recognition should have been functioning for atleast
one year after
• registration.
• (b) the membership of a union should cover atleast 5% of the workers
in that establishment.
• (c) A union can claim recognition as representative union for an industry
in a local area if it has 25% workers as members in that industry in that
area.
• (d) When a union is recognised there shall be no change in the position
for 5 years.
• (A) All the provisions are correct
• (B) All the provisions are incorrect
• (C) Only (a) and (c) are correct
• (D) Only (d) and (b) are correct
Option C
• Which of the following subjects is not
enumerated in the ‘concurrent list’ of the Indian
constitution ?
• (A) Oil fields
• (B) Trade Unions
• (C) Factories
• (D) Vocational and technical training of labour
Option A
• Which of the following statements relating to the
Employees’ Compensation Act is not correct ?
• (A) This Act has a link with the Workmen’s
Compensation Act
• (B) This act is the outcome of the amendment that
was made to the Workmen’s Compensation Act
• (C) This act does not have any provision relating to
temporary disablement of workmen
• (D) This act has a provision relating to permanent
partial disablement
Option C
• Under the Maternity Benefit Act, a woman
employee would get a medical bonus of :
• (A) ` 3000
• (B) ` 3500
• (C) ` 4000
• (D) ` 4500
Option B
• Which section of the Factories Act deals with
appointment of Welfare Officers ?
• (A) Section 45
• (B) Section 49
• (C) Section 51
• (D) Section 55
Option B
• The Maternity Benefit (Amendment) Act, 1988
provides for extension of the benefits to shops
and commercial establishments employing a
minimum of :
• (A) 7 persons
• (B) 8 persons
• (C) 10 persons
• (D) 20 persons
Option D
• Which of the following is not considered to be a
legal status for a registered union ?
– (A) No power to acquire and hold both movable and
immovable property
– (B) Power to contract with other entities
– (C) Perpetual succession and common seal
– (D) A body corporate by the name under which it is
registered
Option A
Option D
Option B
Option A
Option C
• The ‘New Lanark’ experiment is associated with :
• (A) Human Relations at workplace
• (B) Networking Organisations
• (C) Welfare Movement in Industries
• (D) Behavioural Theory
Option C
• Social security provided by a ‘means test’ is
called :
• (A) Social Insurance
• (B) Mutual Insurance
• (C) Social Assurance
• (D) Social Assistance
Option D
Option D
• In which of the following approaches ‘good will’
is considered as an important goal of labour
welfare work ?
• (A) Placating Theory
• (B) Public Relations Theory
• (C) Fundamental Theory
• (D) Philanthropic Theory
Option B
• For which of the following categories of workers,
there is no provision for welfare fund ?
• (A) The Beedi workers
• (B) Workers working in Mica Mines
• (C) Cine Workers
• (D) Workers working in the Printing Industry
Option D
• Under which segment of the Indian Constitution, the
Labour Policy is designed ?
• a. Preamble
• b. Fundamental Rights
• c. Directive Principles of State
• Policy
• d. Fundamental Duties
• (A) Only c
• (B) a, b and c
• (C) a and c
• (D) a, b, c and d
Option B
• The conversion of the ‘nominal wages’ into ‘Real
Wages’ is done by which of the following indices
?
• (A) Human Development Index
• (B) Poverty Index
• (C) Wholesale Price Index
• (D) Consumer Price Index
Option D
Option C
• Which of the following statements about wage
differentials is not true ?
• (A) Wage differentials can be attributed to
imperfections in employment market.
• (B) Social prejudices do not influence the wage
differentials.
• (C) Inter-industry wage differentials are bound to
occur.
• (D) Geographical wage differentials are a common
phenomenon.
Option B
• Which of the following formulae is used for
determining Minimum wages ?
• (A) Adarkar’s Formula
• (B) Rege Committee’s Formula
• (C) Dr. Aykroid’s Formula
• (D) Royal Commission on Labour’s Formula
Option C
UGC NET
RELATION
June 2013
• Who is regarded as the father of Scientific
Management ?
– (A) Albert Bandura
– (B) Louis D. Brandies
– (C) Frederick Winslow Taylor
– (D) Elton Mayo
Option C
• The Principle of Equifinality operates
• (A) within the internal environment
• (B) within the external environment
• (C) without environment
• (D) hostile environment
Option B
• Max Weber developed a theory of
• (A) Autocratic Management
• (B) Democratic Management
• (C) Bureaucratic Management
• (D) Free Style Management
Option C
• Grapevine is a type of
• (A) Formal Communication
• (B) Written Communication
• (C) Lateral Communication
• (D) Informal Communication
Option D
• Decision-making process is guided by
• (A) Policy
• (B) Procedure
• (C) Programme
• (D) Strategy
Option A
• Ten ‘C’ model of HRM architect was advanced by
• (A) Katz and Kahn
• (B) Alan Price
• (C) Chester I. Bernard
• (D) Max Weber
Option B
• Recruitment means
• (A) Total number of inquiries made
• (B) Total number of applications received
• (C) Total number of persons short listed
• (D) Total number of selectionsmade
Option B
• Arrange the following steps of Job analysis in proper
sequence :
• (a) Prepare the job description report.
• (b) Select the job.
• (c) Find out the requirements for each part of the job.
• (d) Break the job into various parts.
• Codes :
• (A) (b), (a), (d), (c)
• (B) (b), (c), (d), (a)
• (C) (b), (d), (c), (a)
• (D) (d), (c), (b), (a)
Option C
• Which of the following is not a factor for wage
determination ?
• (A) Cost of living
• (B) Prevailing wages
• (C) Purchasing power of people
• (D) Productivity
Option D
• Which of the following is not a part of
disciplinary action ?
• (A) Warning
• (B) Suspension
• (C) Transfer
• (D) Discharge
Option C
• The goal of HRD system is to develop
• (A) the capabilities of each employee as an
individual.
• (B) the capabilities of each individual in relation to
his or her present role.
• (C) the capabilities of each employee in relation to
his or her expected future roles.
• (D) all the above
Option D
• Which one is not a part of HRD system ?
• (A) Career Planning
• (B) Manpower Planning
• (C) Training
• (D) Organizational Development
Option B
• The other name of Sensitivity Training is
• (A) T-Group Training
• (B) Brainstorming
• (C) In-basket Exercise
• (D) Managerial Grid Training
Option A
• A small voluntary group of employees doing
similar or related work who meet regularly to
identify, analyse and solve product quality
problems and to improve general operations is
known as
• (A) Task Group
• (B) Kaizen Groups
• (C) Quality Circles
• (D) Informal Groups
Option C
• Which of the following is not an OD technique ?
• (A) Sensitivity Training
• (B) Delphi Technique
• (C) Survey Feedback
• (D) Grid Training
Option B
Organizational Behaviour is wrong ?
• (A) It is an inter-disciplinary subject.
• (B) It believes that individual, group and
organization are subsystems of OB.
• (C) Its explanation find roots in systems as well as
contingency theories.
• (D) It deals only with prediction of human
behaviour at work.
Option D
Option D
• Cultural Diversity explained by Greet Hofstede
has four components. Which of the following is
not a part of it ?
• (A) Individualism Vs Collectivism
• (B) Power Distance
• (C) Uncertainty Avoidance
• (D) Quality Vs Quantity of Life
Option D
• Arrange the following phases of group formation in
their right sequence :
• (a) forming (b) norming
• (c) performing (d) storming
• (e) adjourning
• Codes :
• (A) (a), (d), (c), (b), (e)
• (B) (a), (d), (b), (c), (e)
• (C) (a), (b), (d), (c), (e)
• (D) (a), (c), (d), (b), (e)
Option B
Option A
• Which of the following is not a field of industrial
relations ?
• (A) Study of workers and their trade unions
• (B) Study of consumers and their associations
• (C) Management and their associations
• (D) State and their institutions
Option B
• Which of the following is not a determinant
factor of industrial relations ?
• (A) Institutional factors
• (B) Economic factors
• (C) Technological factors
• (D) Social stratification factors
Option D
• Which of the following cannot be said to be an
effect of industrial disputes ?
• (A) High Productivity, Peace and Profit
• (B) High Labour Turnover
• (C) Higher rate of Absenteeism
• (D) Higher rate of Man-days lost
Option A
• Which of the following has not been provided
under the Code of Discipline ?
• (A) Unfair Labour Practices
• (B) Recognition of Trade Unions
• (C) Grievance Procedure
• (D) Multinational Companies
Option D
• Who among the following propounded the
theory of industrial democracy ?
• (A) Allan Flanders
• (B) Neil W. Chamberlain
• (C) Sydney & Beatrice Webbs
• (D) John T. Dunlop
Option C
• Which of the following was the first trade union
organised in India ?
• (A) Madras Labour Union
• (B) Textile Labour Association
• (C) Bombay Millhands Association
• (D) Kamgar Hitvardhak Sabha
Option A
• Functional types of trade unions were advocated
by
• (A) Selig Perlman
• (B) Robert F. Hoxie
• (C) G.D.H. Cole
• (D) S.H. Slitcher
Option B
• The Inter-Union Code of Conduct was evolved in
the year
• (A) 1956
• (B) 1957
• (C) 1958
• (D) 1959
Option C
Option A
Option C
• Which of the following is not a type of Labour
Legislation ?
• (A) Regulative Legislation
• (B) Protective Legislation
• (C) Uniformity Legislation
• (D) Social Security Legislation
Option C
• The first Factory Legislation in India was enacted
in
• (A) 1860
• (B) 1881
• (C) 1882
• (D) 1891
Option B
• Which of the following benefits have not been
provided under the Employee’sState Insurance
Act, 1948 ?
• (A) Sickness Benefit
• (B) Unemployment Allowance
• (C) Childrens’ Allowance
• (D) Disablement Benefit
Option C
• Before the enactment of Employees’
Compensation Act, 1923, workers suffering a
personal injury in course of employment claimed
damages under
• (A) Economic Law
• (B) Social Law
• (C) Common Law
• (D) None of the above
Option C
• The Royal Commission on Labour examined
which of the two States’Maternity Benefit Acts
andrecommended enactment of similar laws all
over the country ?
• (A) Bombay and Madhya Pradesh
• (B) Madras and Mysore
• (C) Bihar and Bengal
• (D) Punjab and Assam
Option A
• What will be the minimum number of workers
required for organizing a trade union for
registration accordingto the latest amendment
under the Trade Unions’ Act,1926 ?
• (A) 7 workers
• (B) 10 %
• (C) 100
• (D) 10% or 100 or 7
Option D
• The minimum subscription rate for members of
trade unions of rural workers shall not be less
than
• (A) ` 12 per annum
• (B) ` 3 per annum
• (C) ` 1 per annum
• (D) No such provision
Option C
Option D
• ‘First come last go and last come first go’ is the
principle of
• (A) Lay-off
• (B) Closure
• (C) Retrenchment
• (D) Dismissal
Option C
• Which of the following statements is not true regarding
Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946 ?
• (A) Within 6 months from the date of application of the Act,
the employer shall submit to the Certifying Officer 5 copies
of the draft standing orders.
• (B) There is a schedule which sets out the matters to be
incorporated in the standing orders.
• (C) There is no provision to refer the draft standing orders to
the Unions/Workmen by the Certifying Officer.
• (D) Certifying Officers and appellate authorities shall have
powers of Civil Courts.
Option C
• Which of the following statements with regard to
labour welfare is not correct ?
• (A) Welfare is a social concept.
• (B) Welfare is a relative concept.
• (C) Welfare is a positive concept.
• (D) Welfare is an absolute concept.
Option D
• Which of the following is not an intramural
welfare facility ?
• (A) Canteen
• (B) Workmen safety measures
• (C) Housing facility
• (D) Drinking water facility
Option C
Option B
• “The factory and industrial workplaces provide
ample opportunities for owners and managers of
capital to exploit workers in an unfair manner.
This cannot be allowed to continue” is the
philosophy of which theory of Labour Welfare ?
• (A) Placating Theory
• (B) Functional Theory
• (C) Policing Theory
• (D) Religious Theory
Option C
• “A place for everything and everything in its
place” is the principle that governs
• (A) Placement
• (B) Housekeeping
• (C) Officekeeping
• (D) Floor Management
Option B
• Which of the following is not a peculiarity of
labour market ?
• (A) Labour market is normally local in nature.
• (B) The number of buyers is less than the number
of sellers.
• (C) Labour is less mobile.
• (D) Worker can sell not only his own labour but
also the labour of his fellow workers.
Option D
• Which one of the following is not a characteristic
feature of Indian labour force ?
• (A) High rate of absenteeism and
• labour turnover
• (B) Low degree of unionization rate
• (C) Lack of mobility
• (D) Homogeneous in nature
Option D
• Which of the following is not a type of wage
differentials ?
• (A) Occupational
• (B) Geographical
• (C) Industrial
• (D) Social
Option D
• The Concepts of Wages like Minimum Wage, Fair
Wage and Living Wages were given by
• (A) Royal Commission on Labour
• (B) First National Commission on Labour
• (C) Committee on Fair Wages
• (D) Adarkar Committee
Option C
• Which of the following theories of wages was
propounded by Karl Marx ?
• (A) Subsistence Theory
• (B) Surplus Value Theory
• (C) Wage Fund Theory
• (D) Residual Claimant Theory
Option B
UGC NET
RELATION
December 2012
Option C
• Which of the following is the major element of
planning process ?
• (A) Developing leadership abilities
• (B) Selecting right people
• (C) Perception of opportunities
• (D) Motivating people
Option C
• Which principle of management is violated by
matrix organisation structure ?
• (A) Division of Labour
• (B) Unity of Direction
• (C) Unity of Command
Option C
• Which of the following involves careful analysis
of inputs and corrective actions before operation
is completed ?
• (A) Feed forward control
• (B) Concurrent control
• (C) Feedback control
• (D) All the above
Option A
• Which of the following is not a semantic barrier
of communication ?
• (A) Faulty translation
• (B) Ambiguous words
• (C) Specialist’s language
• (D) Inattention
Option D
• People should be regarded as assets rather than
variable costs was emphasised in
• (A) Personnel Management
• (B) Human Resource Management
• (C) Personnel Administration
• (D) Public Administration
Option B
• The classical theorists favoured organisation
based on
• (A) Civilian model
• (B) Strategic model
• (C) Military model
Option C
• Job analysis includes :
• (A) Job description and job enlargement
• (B) Job enlargement and job enrichment
• (C) Job description and job specification
• (D) All of the above
Option C
• A test which measures, what it is intended to
measure is
• (A) Reliable test
• (B) Standardised test
• (C) Objective test
• (D) Valid test
Option D
• An enquiry that is conducted afresh because of
the objections raised by alleged employee is
called
• (A) Domestic enquiry
• (B) De-novo enquiry
• (C) Ex-parte enquiry
Option B
• The concept of HRD scorecard was introduced in
India by
• (A) Udai Pareek
• (B) Rao and Pareek
• (C) T.V. Rao
• (D) Arun Honappa
Option C
• Performance appraisal by all the following parties
is called 360 performance appraisal :
• (A) Supervisors and Peers
• (B) Subordinates and Employees themselves
• (C) Users of Service and Consultants
Option D
• The following is the right process of training :
• (A) Instructional design, validation, need analysis,
implementation and evaluation
• (B) Need analysis, instructional design, validation,
• (C) Need analysis, validation, instructional design,
• (D) Instructional design, need analysis,
mplementation, validation and evaluation
Option B
• Fish bone analysis as a tool of quality circle was
advanced by
• (A) Edward Deming
• (B) Joseph Juran
• (C) Kouru Ishi Kawa
• (D) Phillip Crosby
Option C
Option B
• Which of the following decreases group
cohesiveness ?
• (A) Agreement on group goals
• (B) Frequency of interaction
• (C) Large group size
Option C
• Managers subscribing to ______ assumptions
attempt to structure, control and closely
supervise their employees.
• (A) Theory ‘X’
• (B) Theory ‘Y’
• (C) Both Theory ‘X’ and Theory ‘Y’
• (D) Neither Theory ‘X’ nor Theory
Option A
• According to Fiedler’s Contingency Model of
Leadership, which one of the following is a
situational variable ?
• (A) Leader – Member relationship
• (B) Organisational System
• (C) Degree of task structure
• (D) Leader’s position power
Option B
• The right sequence of steps in Kurt Lewin’s
change procedure is
• (A) Unfreezing – Moving – Freezing
• (B) Moving – Unfreezing – Freezing
• (C) Unfreezing – Freezing – Moving
• (D) Freezing – Moving – Unfreezing
Option A
• Which of the following is not a traditional
method of organisational development ?
• (A) Survey feedback
• (B) Sensitivity training
• (C) Process consultation
• (D) Managerial grid
Option C
Option D
• Who are not the Actors of Industrial Relations ?
• (A) Workers and their organisations
• (B) Employers and their organisations
• (C) Community and cultural associations
• (D) Government and the role of the State
Option C
• Which of the following is a machinery for
settlement of industrial disputes ?
• (A) Indian Labour Conference
• (B) Joint Management Council
• (C) Industrial Tribunal
• (D) Standing Labour Committees
Option C
Option A
• A Trade Union means “An association of workers
in one or more professions carried on mainly for
the purpose of protecting and advancing the
members’ economic interest in connection with
their daily work”. Identify the author :
• (A) Sidney and Beatrice Webb
• (B) J. Cunnison
• (C) G.D.H. Cole
• (D) Clyde E. Dankert
Option A
• A union may claim recognition for an industry in
a local area, if it has membership of
• (A) 10% of the workers in that industry.
• (B) 15% of the workers in that area.
• (C) 25% of the workers of that industry in that
area.
• (D) 30% of the workers in similar industry.
Option C
• Who among the following advocated the
Trusteeship Theory of Trade Union ?
• (A) N.M. Lokhande
• (B) B.P. Wadia
• (C) G.L. Nanda
• (D) M.K. Gandhi
Option D
• Inter and intra-union rivalry in Trade Unions is
reduced by
• (A) The provisions of the Industrial Disputes Act
1947
• (B) By voluntary tripartite code of inter-union
rivalry – 1957
• (C) By bipartite mutual agreement at the industry
level
• (D) Above all
Option B
Option A
Option B
• Under ESI Act, 1948 a member of the
Corporation, Standing Committee or the Medical
Council shall cease to be a member of the body if
he fails to attend
• (A) two consecutive meetings
• (B) three meetings intermittently
• (C) three consecutive meetings
• (D) four consecutive meetings
Option C
• Under Workmen’s Compensation Act, 1923
• (A) individual manager subordinate to an
employer cannot act as managing agent.
• (B) managing agent includes an individual
manager subordinate to an employer.
• (C) only employer can act as managing agent.
• (D) the appropriate government shall appoint
managing agent.
Option D
• The Workmen’s Compensation Act, 1923, the
Maternity Benefit Act, 1965 and the Employees State
Insurance Act, 1948
• (A) together can be applicable.
• (B) the Maternity Benefit Act and the Employees State
Insurance Act can be applicable at a time.
• (C) the Workmen’s Compensation Act and the
Employees State
• Insurance Act can be applicable at a time.
• (D) if the Workmen’s Compensation Act and the
Maternity Benefit Act are applicable, the Employees
State Insurance Act is not applicable.
Option D
• What is the content of the Schedule I of the ESI
Act, 1948 ?
• (A) List of injuries deemed to result in permanent
total disablement.
• (B) List of injuries deemed to result in permanent
partial disablement.
• (C) List of occupational diseases.
Option D
• A person is qualified to be chosen as a member of
the executive or any other office bearer of the
registered trade union if he attained the age of
• (A) Fifteen years
• (B) Eighteen years
• (C) Twenty one years
• (D) Twenty five years
Option B
• The registered trade union can collect political
fund from its members as a
• (A) general fund
• (B) cannot collect political fund
• (C) separate fund from the interested members
• (D) only from political parties
Option C
• ‘Award’ under Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 is
• (a) not interim determination of labour court
• (b) not arbitration award under Section 10A
• (c) not final determination of labour court
• (d) not final determination of arbitration award under
section 10A
• (A) All statements are true.
• (B) (a) and (d) are true.
• (C) (b) is true.
• (D) All statements are wrong.
Option D
• The ceiling on wage or salary for calculation of
Bonus under the Payment of Bonus Act 1965 is
• (A) ` 2,500
• (B) ` 3,500
• (C) ` 4,500
• (D) ` 6,500
Option B
• “A desirable state of existence comprehending
physical, mental, moral and emotional health or
well being” is the theme of which concept of
Labour Welfare ?
• (A) Social Concept
• (B) Total Concept
• (C) Relative Concept
• (D) Positive Concept
Option B
• Assertion (A) : Labour Welfare is relative to time
and space.
• Reason (R) : It shall be universal and perpetual.
• (A) Assertion and Reason are right.
• (B) Assertion is wrong and Reason is right.
• (C) Both Assertion and Reason are wrong.
• (D) Assertion is right but its explanation given in
Reason is wrong.
Option D
• Minimum conditions of welfare is explained by
• (A) Dr. Aykroid’s formula
• (B) Subsistence Theory
• (C) Both (A) and (B)
Option C
• Which of the following is not a principle of
Labour Welfare ?
• (A) The Principle of Uniformity
• (B) The Principle of Co-ordination and Integration
• (C) The principle of Association
• (D) The Principle of Timeliness
Option A
Option B
• “Labour is not a commodity” – is the assertion
made by
• (A) the Declaration of Philadelphia adopted by
26th session of ILO
• (B) the Magna Carta
• (C) the Constitution of India
• (D) the International Labour Conference
Option A
Option B
• Assertion (A) : Industrial Labour in India has been
migratory.
• Reason (R) : Driving force in migration comes
almost entirely from one end of the channel, that
is the village end.
• (A) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.
• (B) (A) is wrong and (R) is right.
• (C) (A) is right and (R) also is right.
• (D) (A) is right and (R) is wrong.
Option C
Option B
• The “Marginal Discounted Product of Labour” as
a modified version of Marginal Productivity
Theory was advanced by
• (A) Taussig
• (B) Kalecki
• (C) Ricardo
• (D) Adam Smith
Option A
UGC NET
RELATION
June 2012
• Which of the following principles of
management was not given by Fayol ?
• (A) Unity of direction
• (B) Subordination of individual interest to
common interest
• (C) Stability of tenure
• (D) Standardisation
Option D
Option B
• Delphi technique is used in
• (A) Organising
• (B) Operating
• (C) Staffing
• (D) Forecasting
Option D
• Narrow span of control results into
• (A) Tall structure
• (B) Flat structure
• (C) Mechanistic structure
Option A
• Which of the following is correct about
‘Grapevine’ ?
• (A) It tends to exist when members of formal
group know one another well.
• (B) It is the result of social forces at work place.
• (C) It is more common in times of high
organisational excitement.
Option D
• The following concept is developed on
unitarism, individualism, high commitment
and strategic alignment.
• (A) Personnel Management
• (B) Human Resource Management
• (C) Industrial Relations
• (D) Personnel Administration
Option B
• Human Resource Planning include
• (A) Scenario planning
• (B) Action planning
• (C) Demand and Supply forecasts
Option D
• Which one is not a part of recruitment
process ?
• (A) Determining requirements
• (B) Planning recruitment campaign
• (C) Attracting candidates
• (D) Selecting candidates
Option D
• Which one is not a non-quantitative job
evaluation method ?
• (A) Ranking method
• (B) Grading method
• (C) Point rating method
• (D) Job-classification method
Option C
• Consider the following punishments in disciplinary actions
:
• (i) Warning
• (ii) Demotion
• (iii) Censure
• (iv) Dismissal
• Which of the above fall under minor punishment ?
• (A) (i) and (ii)
• (B) (i), (ii) and (iii)
• (C) (i) and (iii)
• (D) (i), (ii) and (iv)
Option C
• Which of the following factors are included in
the calculation of human development index
?
• (A) Life expectancy
• (B) Adult literacy
• (C) Decent standard of living
Option D
• Who is not associated with development of
human development index ?
• (A) Mahabub-ul-Haq
• (B) Manmohan Singh
• (C) Meghnad Desai
• (D) Sudhir Anand
Option B
• The sequence of human resource
development activities according to Leonard
Nadler are
• (A) Education, training and development
• (B) Development, training and education
• (C) Training, education and development
• (D) Training, development and education
Option C
• Who introduced the concept of quality circles
in India ?
• (A) P. V. Rao
• (B) Udai Pareek
• (C) Dharani P. Sinha
• (D) S. R. Udpa
Option D
• Which of the following is the correct
sequence of training evaluation ?
• (A) Reaction, learning, behaviour and results
• (B) Learning, reaction, behaviour and results
• (C) Learning, behaviour, reaction and results
• (D) Reaction, learning, results and behaviour
Option A
• Which of the following is the outcome of job
satisfaction ?
• (A) High employee turnover
• (B) High productivity
• (C) Absenteeism
Option A
• Under Alderfer’s ERG theory, the three core
needs are
• (A) Emotional, Relational, and Growth
• (B) Emotional, Rational and Growth
• (C) Existence, Reliability and Gain
• (D) Existence, Relatedness and Growth
Option D
• The group to which a person would like to
belong is known as
• (A) Primary Group
• (B) Membership Group
• (C) Reference Group
Option C
• The Managerial Grid was given by
• (A) Rensis Likert
• (B) Kurt Lewin
• (C) Hersey Blanchard
• (D) Blake and Mouton
Option D
• Arrange the following stages of group dynamics in
right sequence :
• a. Norming
• b. Performing
• c. Storming
• d. Forming
• (A) d, c, a, b
• (B) a, b, c, d
• (C) d, c, b, a
• (D) c, d, b, a
Option A
• Identify the correct definition of industrial
relations :
• (A) Relations between or among human beings
• (B) Relations between employer and employees
as individuals
• (C) Relations between parties in an employment
context
• (D) Collective relationship between management
and trade unions
Option D
• Who has propounded the system concept of
industrial relations ? Find out from the
following :
• (A) L. N. Allen Flander
• (B) L. N. Flax
• (C) John T. Dunlop
• (D) Neil N. Chamberlein
Option C
• Which is the correct order of settlement of industrial
disputes ?
• a. Industrial Tribunal
• b. National Tribunal
• c. Conciliation
• d. Labour Court
• (A) c, a, d, b
• (B) c, d, a, b
• (C) a, d, c, b
• (D) c, b, d, a
Option B
• Which of the following is not a Tripartite body
?
• (A) Works Committee
• (B) I. L. O
• (C) Indian Labour Conference
• (D) Wage Boards
Option A
• The code of discipline was ratified by the
Indian Labour Conference to ensure discipline
in industry. Identify the year of ratification
out of the following :
• (A) 1957
• (B) 1958
• (C) 1942
• (D) 1962
Option B
• Which of the following is not a characteristics of
Trade Union ?
• (A) Is an association of employers or the
employees or of the independent workers ?
• (B) Is relatively a permanent combination but not
temporary or casual.
• (C) Is an association of workers who are engaged
in not securing economic benefits for their
members.
• (D) Is influenced by a member of ideologies.
Option C
• Recognition of trade union is made by the
provision of
• (A) Trade Unions Act of 1926
• (B) Industrial Dispute Act 1947
• (C) Code of Discipline
• (D) Factories Act of 1948
Option C
• Which is not a structure of Trade Union of
Industrial Organisation ?
• (A) Craft union
• (B) General union
• (C) Industrial union
• (D) Consumers’ union
Option D
• A Trade Union should be registered as per the
law must have
• (A) 20% of the workers
• (B) 150 workmen
• (C) Minimum 17 persons
Option D
• The founder of Ahmedabad Textile Labour
Association was
• (A) V. V. Giri
• (B) M. K. Gandhi
• (C) B. P. Wadia
• (D) N. M. Lokhande
Option B
• If there is wilful removal or disregard by the
workman of any safety guard or other device
which he knew to have been provided for the
purpose of securing safety of workman,
• (A) Employer is liable to pay compensation
• (B) Employer is not liable to pay compensation
• (C) Appropriate government is liable to pay
compensation
• (D) The Trade Union is liable to pay compensation
Option B
Option D
• The maternity leave period with full wage is
• (A) six months
• (B) twelve weeks
• (C) four months
• (D) sixteen weeks
Option A
Option D
• The goal of I LO is
• (A) creation of jobs for men and women
• (B) not just creation of jobs but the creation of
jobs of acceptable quality
• (C) not overcoming under employment
• (D) not to provide freedom of choice in
employment
Option B
• The Payment of Bonus Act, 1965 is applicable
to an employee who draws wage or salary of
• (A) ` 3500 in case of apprentice
• (B) ` 5000 in case of apprentice and employee
• (C) ` 7500 in case of employee only
• (D) ` 10,000 in case of employee only
Option D
• Unfair Labour Practices are listed in
• (A) the Factories Act, 1948.
• (B) the Industrial Employment (Standing
Orders) Act, 1946.
• (C) the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947.
• (D) the Trade Unions Act, 1926.
Option C
• The Minimum Wages Act, 1948 has
• (A) one schedule covering different types of
industries.
• (B) one schedule covering different types of
industries, shops and establishments.
• (C) one schedule covering shops and
establishments.
• (D) two schedules covering industrial
establishments and agriculture.
Option D
• If deduction is made contrary to the provisions of the
Payment of Wages Act, 1936 the aggrieved employee
can write to the inspector appointed under the Act
within the time period given below from the date on
which the deduction from wages was made or the
date on which the payment of wages is due
• (A) two years
• (B) one year
• (C) twelve weeks
• (D) six weeks
Option B
• The maximum daily hours of work in a day
with normal wage allowed in factories is
• (A) 11 hours
• (B) 10 hours
• (C) 9 hours
• (D) 8 hours
Option C
• Assertion (A) : Intra-mural and extramural
welfare are mutually
• complimentary.
• Reason (R) : The work-life balances need to be
ensured in order to get the best output from an
employee.
• (A) Assertion is wrong but Reason is logical.
• (B) Both Assertion and Reason are wrong.
• (C) Assertion and Reason are right.
• (D) The Assertion is right but Reason is wrong.
Option C
• Which of the following statements is not true in
explaining the concept and scope of labour welfare ?
• (A) Labour welfare has no roots in social work.
• (B) Long Arm of the job and social invasion of
workplace’ concepts, explain the mutuality between
intramural and extramural labour welfare
• (C) Labour welfare is a social concept.
• (D) Corporate social responsibility is an extended
concept of welfare.
Option A
• Who is the champion of the ‘Welfare
movement’ propagated in mid 19th century ?
• (A) Frederick Winslow Taylor
• (B) Andrew Ure
• (C) Sheebhom Rownlvee
• (D) Robert Owners
Option D
• Sequence the following developments by their period
of occurrence from earliest to the latest :
• (i) The Labour Investigation Committee
• (ii) The Whitley Commission
• (iii) The Enactment of Factories Act
• (iv) The 1st National Commission on Labour
• (A) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
• (B) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
• (C) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
• (D) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
Option A
• Which of the following statements relating to Welfare
Officer is not true
• (A) The provision of Welfare Officer is given in both the
Factories Act, 1948 and the Mines Act, 1952.
• (B) Welfare Officer’s duties and responsibilities are
defined and prescribed in the legislation.
• (C) Welfare Officer’s appointment is tagged to the
provision of minimum workforce employed in an
organisation
• (D) The Welfare Officer’s role was designed as a ‘Third
force’.
Option B
characteristics of labour is not true ?
• (A) Labour is a perishable commodity.
• (B) Labour cannot be separated from the
person.
• (C) Workers have no reserve price.
• (D) Labour is as flexible and mobile as capital.
Option D
• Which of the following statements about labour
market is not true ?
• (A) Labour market like commodity market is analyzed by
supply, demand and price equilibrium.
• (B) Labour Market is relatively more local than
commodity market.
• (C) Unlike a commodity market, the relationship
between a buyer and seller in a labour market is not
temporary.
• (D) Monopoly in the labour market is high.
Option D
• Money Wage is otherwise called as
• (A) Real wage
• (B) Living wage
• (C) Nominal wage
• (D) Fair wage
Option C
• Wage Boards set right
• (A) Inter-regional differentials
• (B) Inter-sectoral differentials
• (C) Intra-industry differentials
• (D) Inter-industry differentials
Option C
• Which of the following is not a determinant
of wages ?
• (A) Prevailing wages
• (B) Bargaining strength of Unions
• (C) Job Evaluation
• (D) Performance Appraisal
Option D
End of question paper
UGC NET
RELATION
Sample Paper 1
• Type of managed care plan in which health care
service provider fulfills services at competitive
rates to group of employers is classified as
• preferred provider organizations
• defined maintenance organization
• health maintenance organizations
• non preferred provider organization
preferred provider organizations

• Type of managed care plan in which health care
service providers gives services on prepaid basis
for fixed period of time is classified as
• defined maintenance organization
health maintenance organizations

• Audit of costs and services of all bills of health
care providers is classified as
• productivity review
• profitability review
• utilization review
• wellness review
utilization review
• Types of managed care includes
• both a and c
both a and c
• In controlling health care benefits cost, strategy in
which employees have to pay cost of medical care
and insurance premiums is classified as
• co-payment strategy
• deferred payment strategy
• Keogh vesting strategy
• deferred vesting strategy
co-payment strategy
• Concept in which whole or part of yearly pay
increase is paid as single payment is called
• consumer price index adjustment
• lump sum increase
• cost of living adjustment
• all of above
all of above
• Ratio in which pay level is divided by pay
range midpoint is classified as
• primacy ratio
• regression ratio
• matrix ratio
• compa-ratio
compa-ratio
• Time spent in organization while performing
particular job is classified as
• seniority
• career maturity
• career equity
• non equity
seniority
• Curve which is used to represent relationship
between pay rate and experience is classified
as
• equity curve
• maturity curve
• experience curve
• seniority curve
maturity curve
• If mid-point is 20 and current pay of an
employee is INR25 then compo ratio is
• 75
• 225
• 125
• 25
125
• In an organization, arrangement of duties,
responsibilities and tasks to accomplish
desired results is classified as
• job design
• validation design
• reliability design
• rethinking design
job design
• In an organization, technique of shifting an
individual employee from one job to another
is considered as
• job retooling
• job rethinking
• job redesigning
• job rotation
job rotation
• Group of employees in an organization who
suggests solutions to quality and productivity
problems is classified as
• productivity monitors
• suggestion group
• idea group
• quality circle
quality circle
• Extent to which different tasks are required to
complete work successfully is classified as
• skill variety
• job variety
• design variety
• enrichment variety
skill variety
• Team composed with cluster of assigned tasks,
responsibilities and duties that must be
successfully accomplished is classified as
• provisional managers
• validity team
• self-directed work team
• production cells
self-directed work team

• Elementary way of employee learning in which
employees of an organization copy behaviors
of some one else is classified as
• behavioral modeling
• active modeling
• spaced modeling
• massed modeling
behavioral modeling
• Type of learners who focus on graphics and
process and purpose of training are classified
as
• massed learners
• visual learners
• auditory learners
• tactile learners
visual learners
• Kind of learners who uses training resources
by getting their hands on task are classified as
• massed learners
• visual learners
tactile learners
• Kind of learners who take keen interest in
information told by someone about training
content are classified as
• massed learners
• visual learners
auditory learners
• Completion time of training, cost of resources
and number of trainees are variables that
must be considered in
• selection of employees
• delivery of productivity
• delivery of training
• delivery of performance
delivery of training
• Usage of internet for training employees of an
organization is classified as
• compression training
• e-learning
• outsource learning
• supported learning
e-learning
• Private organizational network which limits
access of information to authorized users is
classified as
• informal network
• wide area network
• extranet
• intranet
intranet
• ost flexible type of training in which employees
are trained while performing tasks and
responsibilities associated with job is classified as
• informal training
• formal training
• on job training
• off job training
on job training
• In employee training, last stage for trainee's
on-the-job training is to
• present information
• prepare learners
• do follow up
• practice of trainees
do follow up
• Account which allows employees to buy
additional benefits by contributing pretax
dollars is classified as
• fixed spending account
• flexible spending account
• contributory spending account
• non contributory spending account
flexible spending account

• Situation in which higher risk employees use
and select special benefits is classified as
• flexible selection
• non contributory plan
• adverse selection
• contributory plan
adverse selection
• ss in which organizational client and job
trainer work together to support business
goals is classified as
• performance and training integration
• performance identification
• performance consulting
• individual interaction
performance consulting
• Systematic procedure in which people contribute
in organizational goals achievement by acquiring
capabilities is classified as
• training
• planning
• staffing
• hiring
training
• Performance appraisals are basically used by
organizations to
• defining needed capabilities
• administered wages and salaries
• recruiting employees
• fulfilling staffing needs
administered wages and salaries

• Employee evaluation, performance
evaluation, performance review and employee
rating are all terms used to define
• criterion appraisal
• employee development appraisal
• performance appraisal
• subjective appraisal
performance appraisal
• Uses of performance appraisals such as
compensation, downsizing, layoffs and
promotion are classified as
• systematic uses
• subjective uses
• development uses
• administrative uses
administrative uses
• If relationship between employee and
manager during performance appraisal then
this type of appraisal is classified as
• systematic appraisal
• administrative appraisal
• subjective appraisal
• administrative appraisal
systematic appraisal
• Uses of performance appraisals such as coaching
and career planning, identifying strengths and
areas for growth are classified as uses of
• systematic uses
• subjective uses
• development uses
• administrative uses
development uses
• Pension plan which is for self-employed
employees and is usually individualized is
classified as
• portability account
• vesting account
• Keogh plan
• individual retirement account
Keogh plan
• Types of pension plans does not includes
• employee retirement income security act
• cash balance plans
• traditional pension plans
• relocation benefits
relocation benefits
• Feature attached to pension plans for employees
through which employees can move their
pension benefit from one employer to an other
employer is called
• portability
• Keogh plan
• vesting
• nesting
portability
• Retirement benefits that are planned and
funded by employees and employers are
called
• pension plans
• defined contribution plan
• non defined contribution
• contributory plan
pension plans
• Compensation which is paid to those
employees seeking for a job and usually paid
for up to 26 weeks is classified as
• worker's compensation
• employment compensation
• unemployment compensation
• severance pay
unemployment compensation
• Type of benefits which are given to those
employees who got injured on job are
classified as
• severance pay
• employment compensation
worker's compensation
• Benefit offered to employee voluntarily by
employers who had lost their jobs is classified
as
• lump sum pay
• severance pay
• unemployment pay
• insurance option
severance pay
• Primary benefits of most organization includes
• severance pay
• all of above
all of above
• Step in recruitment process in which
candidates are shortlisted fulfilling minimum
requirements of job is classified as
• placement screening
• pre-employment screening
• compensatory screening
• affirmative screening
pre-employment screening
• Systematic process through which an accurate
picture of job is given to applicants job is
classified as
• realistic job preview
• realistic job placement
• realistic job criterion
• realistic job administration
realistic job preview

• n predictors combination, approach in which
scores from each predictor is added to
compensate lower score of any of predictor is
classified as
• multiple hurdles
• collective approach
• compensatory approach
• none of above
compensatory approach
• Approach in which minimum point is set off
for each predictor and minimum level must be
achieved is classified as
• placement hurdles
• selection hurdles
• compensatory hurdle
• multiple hurdles
multiple hurdles
• Reduction in turnover rate, rise in production,
change in attitudes and less supervisory needs
are classified as
• post measure variables
• pre-measures variables
• typical costs
• typical benefits
typical benefits
• Concept of four level training evaluation
(reaction, learning, behavior and results) is
given by
• Donald Kirkpatrick
• Robert Mathis
• John (No Suggestions)
• none of above
Donald Kirkpatrick
• In training evaluation, measurement of how
much of concepts, attitudes and theories learned
have made impact on job is classified as
• learning evaluation step
• behavior evaluation step
• reaction evaluation step
• results evaluation step
learning evaluation step

• In training evaluation, measurement of
training effect on performance and
observation of job performance is classified as
• reaction evaluation step
• results evaluation step
• learning evaluation step
• behavior evaluation step
behavior evaluation step

• Expense of training, materials of training,
salary and time of trainees and trainers are
classified as
• typical costs
• typical benefits
• post measure variables
• pre-measures variables
post measure variables

• Online development, coaching, committee
assignments and job rotation are methods for
development approach called
• psychological testing
• succession planning method
• job site methods
• off-site methods
job site methods

• Techniques such as class room courses,
business games, outdoor trainings and
sabbaticals are classified as
• psychological test techniques
• succession planning techniques
• job site techniques
• off-site techniques
off-site techniques
• Process in which immediate supervisors gives
training and feedback to employees is
classified as
• coaching
• job rotation
• job enrichment
• job enlargement
coaching
• In development approaches, procedure of
shifting one employee from one job to
another is classified as
• job enrichment
• job enlargement
• coaching
• job rotation
job rotation
• One of development technique in which
trainees are placed at immediate staff
positions under manager is classified as
• learning organization
• assistant-to positions
• online development
• coaching
assistant-to positions
• Process in which jobs are done through
telecommunication devices or other electronic
computing are classified as
• on go communication
• mobility jobs
• mobile offices
• telecommuting
telecommuting
• Job time scheduling in which work must be
accomplished earlier rather than time
constraint given is classified as
• compressed workweek
• flextime workweek
• affirmative workweek
• shamrock workweek
compressed workweek
• Type of job timing in which employees works
for fix numbers of hours but ending and
starting timings can vary is classified as
• affirmative schedule
• flextime
• compressed time
• compression tasks
flextime
• Second step in positive discipline approach is
• final warning
• discharge
• counseling
• written documentation
written documentation
• hird step in positive discipline approach is
• counseling
• final warning
• discharge
final warning
• Fourth step in positive disciple approach is
• final warning
• discharge
• counseling
discharge
• First step of positive discipline approach is
• counseling
• final warning
• discharge
counseling
• Full time equivalent employees is added into
adjusted profit to calculate
• employee hiring cost
• return on training
• human value added
• turnover cost
human value added

• Number of total employees are added into
employee voluntary separations to calculate
• production turnover rate
• investment turnover rate
• volunteer turnover rate
• employee hiring rate
volunteer turnover rate

• Compensation quartile strategy in which 75% of
employers pays below than market and
remaining 25% pays compensations higher than
market is called
• forth quartile strategy
• third quartile strategy
• second quartile strategy
• first quartile strategy
third quartile strategy

• According to total rewards approach, variable
pay of employee is
• added into base pay
• subtracted from base pay
• multiplied to base pay
• divided to base pay
added into base pay

• Outcomes of competency based system such
as improved and higher employee satisfaction
and commitment are classified as
• quartile strategy based outcome
• organization-related outcomes
• employee-related outcomes
• percentiles strategy outcomes
employee-related outcomes
• According to traditional compensation
approach, perks and bonuses are
• for CEO only
• for all employees
• for executive only
• not for executives
for executive only

• Compensation philosophy according to which
organization increase salary of employees
every year is called
• primacy orientation philosophy
• entitlement orientation philosophy
• performance orientation philosophy
• recency orientation philosophy
entitlement orientation philosophy

• Agreement through which terminated
employees agrees to get benefits in exchange
of not to sue employers is classified as
• separation agreement
• contractual agreement
• statutory agreement
• non separable agreement
separation agreement
• Agreement used to define outlines of
employment details is classified as
• contributory agreement
• controlled agreement
• employment contract
employment contract
• Agreement which stops individual to not to
compete employer in same business for specific
period of time after leaving company is called
• competing agreement
• non compete agreement
• implied contract
• employment contract
non compete agreement

• Rights based on special agreement between
employees and employer are called
• statutory rights
• non statutory rights
• contractual rights
contractual rights
• Obligations that are accountable for actions
are called
• non statutory rights
• statutory rights
• rights
• responsibilities
responsibilities
• Loss of customer contacts, break-in time of
employees and unfamiliarity with products of
organization are classified as
• separation costs
• productivity costs
• training costs
• hiring costs
productivity costs
• Exit interview time, expenses of
unemployment and legal fees of challenged
separations are classified as
• training costs
• hiring costs
separation costs
• Recruiting expense, relocation costs and
employment testing costs are classified as
• training costs
• hiring costs
hiring costs
• Kind of interviews taken place in organizations
to ask about possible reasons leads to job
turnover are classified as
• employee firing interviews
• transfer interviews
• termination interviews
• exit interviews
exit interviews
• Number of employees separation during a
specific period is divided by number of
employees at midmonth and is multiplied to 100
is used to calculate
• absenteeism rate
• satisfaction rate
• turnover rate
• employment rate
turnover rate
• Factors such as earnings level, discretionary
authority and percentage of time spent time in
manual work are factors that must be held to
define
• overtime pay status
• exempt status
• non-exempt status
• distributive status
non-exempt status
• Considering non-exempt status of employees,
employees to whom overtime must be paid
according to FLS act are classified as
• salaried exempt
• salaried non-exempt
• hourly pay employees
• clerical level employees
salaried non-exempt
• Position such as administrative, professionals
and executive are classified as
• exempt employees
• non-exempt employees
• salaried exempt employees
• salaried non exempt employees
exempt employees
• Concept in which pay for jobs that require
similar skills, abilities and knowledge without
taking duties into consideration is called
• pay equity
• pay exemption
• pay primacy
• distributive pay
pay equity
• Buying and selling of products and services
from firms in other countries is called
• importing and exporting
• regional alliances
• national alliances
• international alliances
importing and exporting

• Type of organization which has operating units
in some foreign countries is classified as
• alliance enterprise
• global enterprise
• interdependence enterprise
• multinational enterprise
multinational enterprise
• Factors that affect global human resource
management are
• economic factors
• societal factors
• cultural factors
• all of above
all of above
• Kind of organization which have integrated
worldwide corporate units in different
countries is classified as
• alliance enterprise
• global enterprise
• interdependence enterprise
• multinational enterprise
global enterprise
• All societal forces that affect values, actions
and beliefs of different groups of people are
together called
• expatriation
• repatriation
• culture
• economy
culture
• Procedure which is based on analysis of
present and past data to determine system
effectiveness is classified as
• human resource audit
• human resource research
• human resource assessment
• human staff rating
human resource research

• In an organization, research efforts that are
made to evaluate current structure of human
resource management are classified as
• human resource assessment
• human staff rating
• human resource audit
human resource audit

• Research method which considers data that
has already been published in articles,
journals and books are classified as
• primary research
• secondary research
• ternary research
secondary research
• Situation which results in putting employees
on unpaid absences is classified as
• layoffs
• retirement buyouts
• attribution
• attrition
layoffs
• Support and assistance services given to
displaced employees are classified as
• attrition services
• buyout services
• outplacement services
• attribution services
outplacement services
• Perceived fairness between what person
receives and what person did is classified as
• procedural justice
• distributive justice
• recency justice
• equity
equity
• Key issues related to internal equity are
• primacy justice
• both a and b
both a and b
• Perceived fairness of all procedures and
process that are considered to make decisions
about employees and their pay is called
• primacy justice
• recency justice
procedural justice
• Perceived fairness that must be considered in
outcomes of performance is classified as
• primacy justice
• recency justice
distributive justice
• Process in which organization employer identify
problems, set new standards and taking positive
steps for corrections is classified as
• confirmative action
• reverse action
• affirmative action
• protective action
affirmative action
• Concept which focus on availability of jobs to
all individuals without any discrimination is
classified as
• equal employment opportunity
• non discrimination opportunity
• opportunity of equality
• none of above
equal employment opportunity

• ype of discrimination which occurs when
applicants for a job are refused and prioritizing
protected class individuals is classified as
• individualistic discrimination
• affirmative discrimination
• diversified discrimination
• reverse discrimination
reverse discrimination
UGC NET
RELATION
Sample Paper 2
• Differences among individuals performing jobs
at same workplace are classified as
• diversity
• opportunity
• employment
• cultural unemployment
diversity
• roup of individuals that are provided with
safety under regulation of equal employment
is classified as
• legislative class
• protected class
• affirmative class
• reverse discrimination class
protected class
• Pay plan having a mixture of 75% base [basic]
salary and 25% incentives is classified as
• combination plan
• non commission plan
• competitive plan
• non competitive plan
combination plan
• Adding incentives to job is included in
• intrinsic motivation
• extrinsic motivation
• outsourced motivation
• in-house motivation
extrinsic motivation
• All incentive plans are surely
• pay for performance
• pay for skills
• pay for tenure
• pay for knowledge
pay for performance

• Reward of performance must have some value
for employee is best example of
• expectancy
• instrumentality
• valence
• de-expectancy
valence
• An informal employee-manager refers to
• social recognition program
• performance feedback
• non-financial awards
• financial awards
social recognition program

• New performance appraisal systems and
incentives usage is part of
• mobilize commitment
• consolidation of gains
• creating guiding coalition
• reinforcement of new programs
reinforcement of new programs

• Lewin's process consists of
• unfreezing stage
• moving stage
• refreezing stage
• All of above
All of above
• moving stage' in Lewin's organizational change
process considers
• mobilize commitment
• consolidation of gains
• monitoring and assessing programs
• reinforcement of new programs
• Answer B
consolidation of gains
• 'self-designing organizations' is an example of
• human process intervention
• techno structural interventions
• strategic intervention
• HRM interventions
strategic intervention
• Formulating SMART performance training
objectives are included in
• human process intervention
• techno structural interventions
• strategic intervention
• HRM interventions
human process intervention

• Financial payments above and over a regular
base pay for expartriate employees are
classified as
• ethnocentric allowances
• mobility premiums
• hardship allowances
• foreign service premiums
foreign service premiums

• Lump sum payments given to employees who
move from one assignment to another are
classified as
• Answer B
mobility premiums
• Compensation given to expatriates for
exceptionally hard working and living
conditions at certain locations is classified as
hardship allowances
• Types of appraisal interview are
• 3
• 4
• 5
• 6
4
• Reason involves in employers movement for
performance management is
• total quality
• appraisal issues
• strategic planning
• All of above
All of above
• When person's performance is neither
satisfactory nor correctable is
• satisfactory-promotable interview
• satisfactory-not promotable interview
• unsatisfactory-correctable interview
• unsatisfactory-uncorrectable interview
unsatisfactory-uncorrectable interview
• Performance management is always
• goal oriented
• performance oriented
• sales oriented
• None of above
goal oriented
• Most easiest performance appraisal interview
is
• satisfactory-promotable interview
• satisfactory-not promotable interview
• unsatisfactory-correctable interview
• unsatisfactory-uncorrectable interview
satisfactory-promotable interview
• In traditional focus, providing opportunities
for learning is part of
• training and development
• recruiting and placement
• human resource planning
training and development

• In career development focus, information
about individual interests and preferences is
part of
• human resource planning
human resource planning

• In career development focus, addition of
development plans is part of
• compensation and benefits
• In career development, providing support in
employee's development plans is part of
• individual role
• manager role
• employer role
• line manager
manager role
• In traditional focus, rewards based on
production is part of
• compensation and benefits
compensation and benefits

• If company defines authority &
communication channels for employees, it is
performing
• Staffing function
• Organizing function
• Leading function
• Controlling function
Organizing function
• Company's HR department can create an
'advisory' relationship through
• Line authority
• Staff authority
• Hiring authority
• All of above
Staff authority
• One who assists other managers in HR
functions of management process is
• line manager
• first line supervisor
• staff manager
• All of above
staff manager
• Following [given] factor is not involved in
communication to employees
• Interviewing
• Disciplining
• Counseling
• Compensating
Compensating
• Most of time manager of Human Resource
department is
• Line manager
• Staff manager
• None of above
• Both A and B
Staff manager
• If outside vendors abroad supply services that
are previously done by in-house employees is
• Outsourcing
• off shoring
• alternative staffing
• None of above
off shoring
• Supply of services by outside vendors that are
done previously by in-house employees is
• Outsourcing
• off shoring
• alternative staffing
• None of above
Outsourcing
• Communications and employee participation
is part of
• company's plan
• strategic plan
• vision
• mission
company's plan
• Anchoring jobs and slotting other jobs
accordingly is called
• benchmarking jobs
• evaluating pay scales
• evaluating pay grades
• evaluating internal equity
benchmarking jobs
• Data of benefits like employees insurance and
other fringe benefits can be collected through
• benchmark surveys
• salary surveys
• primary survey
• secondary survey
salary surveys
• “each unit made by worker is paid", is best
classified as
• time based pay
• performance based pay
• promotion
• salary increments
performance based pay

• Concession employees gets in form of
discounts in air ticket and bus fares is an
example of
• incentives
• non direct payments
• direct payments
• salary increments
non direct payments

• When employee's high expectations confront
reality of boring job, it is called
• promotions
• transfers
• reality shock
• formal training
reality shock
• Strategy employees seek for interesting jobs
and greater advancement opportunities is
included in
• promotions
• transfers
• reality shock
• formal training
promotions
• Given a chance for employee's personal
growth is considered in
• promotions
• transfers
• reality shock
• formal training
formal training
• Reassignment of work related to job in
another part of organization at similar
position is called
• promotions
• transfers
• reality shock
• formal training
transfers
• An employer's refusal to provide opportunities
for work is classified as
• grievance procedure
• lock out
• injunction
• strike procedure
lock out
• A combined refusal to use or buy product of
employers by members of union or all
employees is classified as
• boycott
• impasse boycott
• strike
• picketing
boycott
• Situation in which employees carry signs to
depicts their concerns near employer's
business place is classified as
• strike
• picketing
• boycott
• impasse boycott
picketing
• Strike occurs when labor does not agree on
conditions of contract is classified as
• unfair labor practice strike
• economic strike
• sympathy strike
• wildcat strike
economic strike
• Order of court to compel parties either to
desist a certain action or to resume a
particular action is classified as
• grievance procedure
• lockout
• injunction
• strike procedure
injunction
• 'piecework' pay plan is often called
• individual pay plan
• group pay plan
• extrinsic rewards
• intrinsic rewards
individual pay plan

• Pay based on piecework is an example of
• time based pay
• performance based pay
• bonuses
• promotion
performance based pay

• Basic difference between piecework and
standard hour plan is
• percent premium
• proportion premium
• fixed premium
• variable premium
percent premium
• Factors which influence bonuses are
• eligibility
• fund size
• individual performance
• All of above
All of above
• Plans that are designed to motivate
employees short term performance are called
• annual bonus
• annual award
• annual sales promotion
• annual transfer
annual bonus
• Validity test conducted on employees already
on job in your company is called
• concurrent validation
• predictive validation
• criterion validity
• content validity
concurrent validation
• Second step in validating a test is
• analyze job
• choose tests
• administer tests
• Relate test scores
choose tests
• 'expectancy chart' is a graph to show
relationship between
• tasks performed and time utilized
• Test scores and job performance
• Both A and B
• None of above
Test scores and job performance

• Validity test for applicants for a specific job is
called
• concurrent validation
• predictive validation
predictive validation
• 'large inventories' can be best classified as
• Potential opportunities
• Potential Threats
• Potential Strengths
• Potential Weaknesses
Potential Weaknesses
• 'low cost foreign competition' can be best
classified as
Potential Threats
• What our business is' is stated in
• Mission statement
• Strategic goals
• Vision statement
• All of above
Mission statement
• External and internal audit of a company
includes
• Economic trends
• Political trends
• Competitive trends
• All of above
All of above
• 'diversification' can be best classified as
Potential opportunities
• Communicating leadership' is included in
• personal competencies
• interpersonal competencies
• business management
• Both A and C
interpersonal competencies
• Managing tasks effectively' is included in
• Both A and C
personal competencies
• For analyzing identify specific skills needed for
specific job is called
• need analysis competency model
• competency model
• task analysis
• Both A and C
task analysis
• effective negotiation' is included in
• Both A and C
interpersonal competencies
• Verification of deficiencies in performance to
determine training or job rotation is called
• need analysis competency model
• competency model
• task analysis
• performance analysis
performance analysis
• 'coaching of employees' does not include
• planning
• preparation
• follow-up
• compensating employees
compensating employees
• In 'ABC' approach which is used in formulating
hypothesis, "C" stands for
• compensating
• communication
• counseling
• consequences
consequences
• Mentoring by employees dealt with
• longer span of time
• shorter span of time
• resetting salary schedules
• self-managing teams
longer span of time

• In 'ABC' approach, analyzing behaviors means
• measuring aptitudes
• measuring adequacy of tools
• measuring adequacy of training
• All of above
All of above
• In talent management end to end process,
workforce compensation management leads
to
• succession planning
• performance management
• learning management systems
• e-recruiting
performance management
• Professional competence and consistency is
exhibited by
• effective mentors
• performance manager
• appraisal manager
• None of above
effective mentors
• Modifying selection procedures for senior
employees is a step to
• keep retirees
• keep employees
• retirement benefits
• talent management
keep retirees
• Process of attracting, selecting, training and
promoting employees through a particular
firm is called
• phased retirement
• preretirement counseling
• talent management
• modifying selection procedure
talent management
• Assistance to top level management for
strategic plans is provided by
• Transactional HR group
• Corporate HR group
• Embedded HR group
• Center of expertise
Corporate HR group
• Centers of expertise provide special assistance
in
• Updates regarding appraisal
• Production department
• Organizational change
• Long term strategic plan
Organizational change
• An assistance needs to manage localized
human resources which are provided by
• Embedded HR group
• Centers of expertise
Embedded HR group
• Changing and updating benefit plans is
performed by
• Center of expertise
• Embedded HR unit
Transactional HR group
• People do not attract to occupations which
require affective activities is best classified as
• realistic orientation
• investigative orientation
• social orientation
• artistic orientation
investigative orientation
• People chosen clinical psychology as career
are classified as
social orientation
• An occupation of farming is best classified for
personality orientation named is
realistic orientation
• Stage in which an employee decides whether
not or to continue specific field is
• stabilization sub stage
• trial sub stage
• establishment stage
• maintenance stage
trial sub stage

• Period in which many people have lesser
responsibility and power is called
• exploration stage
• growth stage
• midcareer crisis sub stage
• decline stage
decline stage
• A quantitative technique in job evaluation
processes is
• job classification
• alternative ranking method
• aligned reward strategy
• point method
point method
• Second step in 'ranking method' of job
evaluation is to
• combine ratings
• rank jobs
• selecting compensable factors
• grouping jobs
grouping jobs
• Job evaluation process in which raters
categorize jobs into groups is called
• point method
• job grading
• aligned reward strategy
job grading
• 'quantitative process of job evaluation' does
not include
• classifying jobs
• grading jobs
• ranking jobs
• None of above
None of above
• Teaching of current or employees with skills
needed to perform effectively on job is
• training
• negligent training
• Both A and B
• None of above
training
• Formulating SMART performance training
objectives is included in
• need analysis
• instructional design
• implement
• evaluate
instructional design
• First step in training process is
• need analysis
• instructional design
• implement
• evaluate
need analysis
• Providing new employees with basic
information regarding background is
• employee orientation
• employee training
• Both A and B
• None of above
employee orientation
• When an employee harms a third party
because of inadequate employee training it is
called
• training
• negligent training
• Both A and B
• None of above
negligent training
• Company's HR team is responsible for
• training of supervisors
• monitor appraisal system affectivity
• training employees
• All of above
All of above
• Human resource department serves as
• advisory role
• line authority
• hiring department only
• training department only
advisory role
• Ranking of all employees measuring a specific
trait such as communicating is measured in
• graphic rating scale method
• management by objectives
• alternation ranking method
• paired comparison method
alternation ranking method

• Step in which employer and employee discuss
his performance and plans for future is
• defining job
• training session
• feedback session
• interview sessions
feedback session
• A rating scale which enlists traits and
performance values is called
• graphic rating scale method
• management by objectives
• alternation ranking method
• in-house development
graphic rating scale method

• Reason involves in employers movement for
performance management is
• total quality
• appraisal issues
• strategic planning
• All of above
All of above
• Performance management is always
• goal oriented
• performance oriented
• sales oriented
• None of above
goal oriented
• Management guru Edward Deming argues
that employee's performance is result of
• training communication
• quality
• own motivation
• Both A and B
Both A and B
UGC NET
RELATION
Sample Paper 3
• In performance management, main feature of
performance management is to
• increase salary
• planning incentives
• comparing performance with goals
• comparing sales figures from last year
comparing performance with goals

• Enabling employees to link company's and his
own department goals is
• direction sharing
• goal alignment
• ongoing performance monitoring
• ongoing feedback
goal alignment
• Surveying market in a way to know what
others are paying is called
• salary survey
• market survey
• equity survey
• motivation survey
salary survey
• Increments based on performance is a basis of
• direct financial payments
• non direct financial payments
• direct compensation
• bonuses
direct financial payments

• Assigning HR management financial and non-
financial goals to achieve aims and monitor
results
• HR scorecard
• HR digital dashboard
• Both A and B
• None of above
HR scorecard
• A graphical tool used to summarize chain of
activities to get "big picture" of performance
is
• HR scorecard
• HR digital dashboard
• Strategy map
• All of above
Strategy map
• Tool used to present manager with
performance graphs and charts is
• HR scorecard
• Digital dashboard
• Strategy map
• All of above
Digital dashboard
• Relationship between value of job and
average salary paid for this job is called
• wage curve
• salary curve
• job evaluation curve
• job description curve
wage curve
• Salary surveys are used for monitoring and
maintaining
• external equity
• internal equity
• compensating equity
• collective equity
external equity
• Comparison between what salary coworkers
are getting for similar jobs is called
• individual equity
• pay rate equity
• collective equity
• procedural equity
individual equity
• If person finds imbalance between his services
and paid salary, than
• tension is created
• person is more motivated
• person is less motivated
• person is never motivated
tension is created
• Types of third party negotiation is known as
arbitration includes
• non binding arbitration
• interest arbitration
• binding arbitration
• all of above
all of above
• Kind of arbitration used when parties of
agreement no longer use such agreements or
wants to change existing agreement is classified
as
• rights arbitration
interest arbitration
• Types of interventions to overcome effect of
impasse include
• fact finder
• arbitration
• mediation
• all of above
all of above
• Voluntary withdrawal of labor of company is
classified as
• strike
• picketing
• boycott
• impasse boycott
strike
• Kind of arbitration which is also known as
contract interpretation arbitration is
• rights arbitration
rights arbitration
• rocess in which employees take some time off
from job and expect that they will come back
for work is classified as
• mergers
• acquisitions
• layoffs
• downsizing
layoffs
• Formal procedure in which job terminated person
is counseled and trained to secure a job position
by teaching self-appraising techniques is
classified as
• termination interview
• outplacement counseling
• exit interviews
• subordination interviews
outplacement counseling
• Dismissal of employee who violates law of
contractual arrangements stated by employer
is classified as
• descriptive termination
• distributive termination
• wrongful discharge
• wrongful termination
wrongful discharge
• Employees inability to perform assigned task
is classified as
• misconduct
• lack of qualifications
• unsatisfactory satisfaction
• insubordination
lack of qualifications
• Method of disciplining which usually involves
systems of paid decision-making leaves and
oral warnings is classified as
• punitive discipline
• distributive discipline
• descriptive discipline
• no punitive discipline
no punitive discipline
• An equal rating of all employees such as 'good'
is called
• lenient tendency
• strict tendency
• biasing tendency
• central tendency
central tendency
• An employee if rated lower in appraisal rating
because of 'gender' is an example of
• lenient/strict tendency
• bias
• different tendencies
bias
• 'Financial and investment counseling' is an
example of
• phased retirement
• preretirement counseling
• honoring experience
• modifying selection procedure
preretirement counseling
• An employee is rated high in performance
appraisal because of 'religion' is example of
• bias
bias
• Manipulation of appraisal rating on basis of
'age' is an example of
• bias
bias
• Justice and fairness of a result of a decision is
classified as
• descriptive justice
• severance justice
distributive justice
• Document that consists of all ethical standards
that employer expects from employees is
classified as
• ethics code
• descriptive code
• procedural code
• distributive code
ethics code
• Fairness[ An elegance] of process is classified
as
• severance justice
procedural justice
• Standards that are decided to what kind of
conduct employees of organization should
possess are classified as
• ethics
ethics
• Addition of new product lines in company is
• Diversification
• Vertical integration
• Horizontal integration
• Geographic expansion
Diversification
• Types of 'diversification' are
• 2
• 3
• 4
• 5
2
• 'Apple' has opened its own retail stores is a
classic example of
• Horizontal integration
• Consolidation
• Geographic expansion
Vertical integration
• 'corporate strategy' does not include
• Diversification
• Consolidation
• Cost leadership
Cost leadership
• Company marketing and selling current
product aggressively is
• Market penetration
• Market development
• Product development
• Both a & b
Market penetration
• Kind of union security in which organizations
can hire current union members is classified
as
• closed shop
• union shop
• agency shop
• preferential shop
closed shop
• Kind of union security in which union
members were [are] given preference in hiring
is classified as
• closed shop
• union shop
• agency shop
preferential shop
• Term which describes union membership is
not required as a condition of employment is
classified as
• right to proceed
• right to work
• right to get hired
• none of above
right to work
• Types of available union securities are
• agency shop
• closed shop
• all of above
all of above
• Kind of union security in which employees are
not member of union but pay dues of union is
classified as
• closed shop
• union shop
• agency shop
agency shop
• In career development, offering and
discussing variety of paths for career
development is included in
• individual role
• manager role
• employer role
• line manager
employer role
• HR plans of any organization does not include
• personnel plans
• production plans
• compensation plans
• training and development plans
production plans
• A personnel plan requires forecast of
• personnel needs
• supply of inside candidates
• supply of outside candidates
• All of above
All of above
• Relationship between two variables can be
identified with help of
• ratio analysis
• scatter plot
• trend analysis
• All of above
scatter plot
• Process which consists how and what
positions are to be filled is called
• Employment planning
• Human resource planning
• Succession planning
• All of above
All of above
• Study of different employment needs of
company is
• ratio analysis
• scatter plot
• trend analysis
• All of above
trend analysis
• 'structured interview' is also called
• non directive interview
• directive interview
• Both A and B
• None of above
non directive interview

• 'unstructured interview' is also called
• non directive interview
• directive interview
• Both A and B
• None of above
directive interview
• An interview in which you ask a candidates
behavior in given situation is
• situational interview
• situational test
• behavioral tests
• job related questions
situational interview
• n interview in which candidate is asked about
behavior in past for given situation is
• situational interview
• behavioral tests
• job related questions
behavioral tests
• Employees pension plan in which employees
contribute a portion of earning into fund is
classified as
• early retirement window
• deferred profit sharing plan
• savings and thrift plan
savings and thrift plan

• Pension plan in which specific amount of profit is
transferred to employees account that are
payable at time of retirement or death is
classified as
• deferred profit sharing plan
• savings and thrift plan
• early retirement window
deferred profit sharing plan

• Pension plans in which specific percentage of
an employee's pay is contributed by an
employer are classified as
• severance pay plans
• early retirement window plans
• employee stock ownership plans
cash balance plans

• Kind of pension plan in which employers
contribution is specified in employees
retirement savings funds is classified as
• defined benefit pension plan
• defined contribution pension plan
• defined non contributory pension plan
• deferred contribution pension plan
defined contribution pension plan

• Process of instituting policies to enable
employees to get their accumulated pension
plans with ease after leaving organization is
classified as
• compatibility
• durability
• portability
• profitability
portability
• Quantitative measure of employee's turnover
and hours of training per employee is called
• human resource metrics
• evidence based management
• high performance work system
• None of above
human resource metrics

• Promoting organizational effectiveness
through HR policies and practices is known as
• human resource metrics
• evidence based management
• high performance work system
• None of above
high performance work system

• Redesigning a business process for more
efficient and effective results is called
• redesigning jobs of workers
• assigning additional activities to workers
• moving workers from one job to other
• reengineering
reengineering
• 'job enlargement' means
• redesigning jobs for workers
• assigning additional activities for workers
• None of above
assigning additional activities for

workers
• job enrichment' means
• redesigning jobs for workers
• assigning additional activities to workers
• None of above
redesigning jobs for workers

• Competency-based-job-analysis means
defining job in terms of
• measureable competency
• behavioral competency
• observable competency
• All of above
All of above
• A job enrichment is a way to
• motivate employees
• compensate employs
• staffing new employees
• All of above
motivate employees
• People attracted to careers involving
individualistic activities are classified as
personality type of
• enterprising orientation
• conventional orientation
enterprising orientation
• Accountants are classified as personality type
of
conventional orientation
• People favors career in which personal needs
of employees are subordinated to company is
conventional orientation
• Relationships section of job description define
whom would you
• supervise
• report to
• work with
• All of above
All of above
• While writing job description, major functions
or activities are written in
• job summary
• responsibilities and duties
• job identification
• both b and c
job summary
• While writing job description, 'job title' is
written in section of
• job summary
• responsibilities and duties
• job identification
• both b and c
job identification
• HRD maturity level in an organization is
measured in
• 3 dimensions
• 4 dimensions
• 5 dimensions
• 6 dimensions
4 dimensions
• In HRD scorecard scale, '1' represents
• Moderate maturity level
• Least maturity level
• Highest maturity level
• All of above
Least maturity level

• In HRD scorecard scale, '10' represents
• Moderate maturity level
• Least maturity level
• Highest maturity level
• All of above
Highest maturity level

• Scale is used in HRD scorecard consists of
• 5-point scale
• 10-point scale
• 4-point scale
• None of above
10-point scale
• Dimension which measures competency of
company's top management to lower level
employees is
• HRD systems maturity score
• HRD competence score
• The HRD culture
• Employee linkage score
HRD competence score

• Non citizen employees of country in which
they are working is classified as
• expatriates
• subordinates
• coordinates
• none of above
expatriates
• Specific procedure according to which
employees of company has legal rights to take
part in policy designing is classified as
• sub-determination
• sub-ordination
• co-ordination
• codetermination
codetermination
• Corporation orientation in which management
style and evaluation criteria of home country is
superior to anything that host country offers is
called
• polycentric
• geocentric
• ethnocentric
• expat-centric
ethnocentric
• Disadvantage of critical incident method is
• difficult to develop
• cause of disagreements
• time consuming
• difficult to rate
difficult to rate
• Situation in which subordinates collude to rate
high with each other
• logrolling
• dialog rolling
• up rating
logrolling
• Disadvantage of MBO(management by
objectives) method is
• difficult to develop
• cause of disagreements
• time consuming
• difficult to rate
time consuming
• Advantage of 'graphic rating scale method' is
• simple to use
• avoided central tendency and biases
• ended up with predetermined rating figures
• on going basis evaluation
simple to use
• When rating of employee trait biases its
performance on other traits is called
• halo effect
• deja vo effect
• narrow effect
• None of above
halo effect
• Position Analysis Questionnaire (PAQ) for job
analysis is
• Quantitative technique
• Qualitative technique
• Both A and B
• None of above
Quantitative technique
• Interviews can be
• structured only
• unstructured only
• both structured and unstructured
• None of above
both structured and unstructured

• Job analysis information can be collected
through
• Interviews
• Questionnaires
• Both A and B
• None of above
Both A and B
• Basic approach in employee's performance
compares with their current performance to
• set standards
• performance in previous years
• performance in last job
• None of above
set standards
• An aim of performance appraisal is to
• fire employee
• motivate employee
• counsel employee
• hire employee
motivate employee
• An evaluation process of employee's
performance as compared to set standards is
called
• compensation
• counseling
• design of evaluation
• 'performance' appraisal feedback always
include
• assessment of employee performance
• setting work standards
• providing feedback to employees
• All of above
All of above
• First step in validating a test is to
• analyze job
• choose tests
• administer tests
• Relate test scores
analyze job
• A Test's validity can be demonstrated in
• two ways
• three ways
• four ways
• five ways
two ways
UGC NET
RELATION
Sample Paper 4
• Types of 'test validity' consist of
• score validity
• Both A and B
Both A and B
• Through test measuring for Checking what we
intended is known as
• test validity
• reliability
test validity
• Consistency of obtained scores in a test is
measured by
• test validity
• reliability
reliability
• In big five models, 'agreeableness' is tendency
to be
• sociable
• trusting
• compliant
• both b and c
both b and c
• A test in which examinees respond to
situations representing jobs is called
• reasoning test
• video simulation test
• job training
situational test
• Employees training and evaluating
performance before actual job is
• reasoning test
• video simulation test
• miniature job training
miniature job training

• Focus on long-term issues that are hard-to-
reverse are part of
• coaching
• mentoring
• informal training
• formal training
mentoring
• A job analysis consists of
• job description
• job specification
• Both A and B
• None of above
Both A and B
• 'revenue growth' is included in
• short-term of shareholder value
• compensation of company executive
• determination of stocks
• determination of investment
short-term of shareholder value

• Compensation for top executive job is largely
based on
• job complexity
• (employers)ability to pay
• executive's human capital
• All of above
All of above
• Total profit and rate of return is classified as
• employers ability to pay
• employers ability to hire
• employers ability to train employees
• employers ability to grow
employers ability to pay

• Operating profit margin is included in
• short-term of shareholder value
• long-term shareholder value
• economic value added
• managerial job evaluation
short-term of shareholder value

• Focusing on core competencies means
companies have the possibility of generating?
• A.Human capital advantage
• B.Larger profit margins
• C.Better output
• D.New staff
Human capital advantage

• Which of the following are not Central Organisation of
Workers?
• 1. Indian, National Trade Union Congress
• 2. Hind Mazdoor Sabha
• 3. Bhartiya Mazdoor Sangh
• 4. United Trade Union Congress
• 5. SAFTA
• 6. COSEFA
• A.1, 4, 5 and 6
• B.2, 3, 4 and 6
• C.5 and 6 only
• D.1, 2, 3 and 5
5 and 6 only
• Match the following
• List-I (Methods of Wage Payment) List-II (Factor/Base)
• (A) Time wage 1. Hours
• (B) Piece wage 2. Bonus
• (C) Balance wage 3. Production
• (D) Incentive wage plans 4. Minimum wage
• (E) Self-realisation needs 5. Penalty
• A.(A) (B) (C) (D)
• 1 2 3 4
• B.(A) (B) (C) (D)
• 1 3 4 2
• C.(A) (B) (C) (D)
• 3 1 4 2
• D.(A) (B) (C) (D)
• 3 4 2 1
B.(A) (B) (C) (D)

1 3 4 2
• Assertion (A) : Job analysis information provides the
foundations of an organisations human resource
information system.
• Reason (R) : The job analysis information can be
collected through interviews, juries of experts, mail
questionnaires, employee logs, direct observation or
some combination of these techniques.
• A.Assertion (A) and Reason (R) both are true
• B.Assertion (A) and Reason (R) both are untrue
• C.Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) both are untrue
• D.Assertion (A) is untrue, but Reason (R) is true
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) both are

true
• The components of the information systems
should be made up only of information units
which enhance effective
• A.Personnel Management Decision
• B.Project
• C.Human Resources Decision
• D.None of these
Human Resources Decision

• Redressal of employee grievances covers
• A.Equitable wages and salary system
• B.Institutionalising an expeditions machinery
for resolving employees grievances
• C.Positive attitude towards employee
grievances and readiness to help
• D.Both (b) and (c)
Both (b) and (c)

• Top management is interested how human
resource management is contributing to
• A.Value of organisation
• B.Training of employees
• C.Profit making
• D.None of the above
Value of organisation
• Assertion (A) : Organisational policies set to achieve
uniformity, economic, public relations benefits or
other objectives that one sometimes unrelated to
recruiting.
• Reason (R) : Promote from within policies are
intended to give present employees the first
opportunity for job openings.
• B.Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is untrue
• C.Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true
• D.Assertion (A) is true
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) both are

true
• Which is the objectives of training?
• A.To arouse loyalty towards the institution
• B.Awareness of the problems
• C.Increase in employee morale, confidence
skill and productivity
• D.All of the above
All of the above

• "FIRM is a responsibility of all those who manage
people as well as bring a description of the work of
those who are employed as specialists. It is that part
of management which is concerned with people at
work and with their relationships within an
enterprise. It applies not only to industry and
commerce but to all fields of employment." Known as
________.
• A.Performance management
• B.Human resource management
• C.Personnel management
• D.Functional management
Personnel management
• Which is the component of Mechanism of Human
Resource Development?
• 1. Research
• 2. Performance Appraisal
• 3. Potential Appraisal
• 4. Organisation and Development
• 5. Career Planning and Development
• 6. Training and Development
• A.1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
• B.4, 5 and 6
• C.1, 3, 4, 5 and 6
• D.All of these
All of these
• List-I (Component of Human Resource Management) List-II (Function of Human
Resource Management)
• (A) Human resource development 1. Training
• (B) Compensation management 2. Job-evaluation
• (C) Human relations 3. Motivation
• (D) Human resource accounting 4. Human Resource Management
• 5. Knowledge
• A.(A) (B) (C) (D)
• 1 2 3 4
• B.(A) (B) (C) (D)
• 5 4 1 3
• C.(A) (B) (C) (D)
• 4 1 3 2
• D.(A) (B) (C) (D)
• 2 1 3 4
A.(A) (B) (C) (D)

1 2 3 4
• What kinds of practices outlined below are
typically associated with non-standard working
and flexibility?
• A.9-5 working hours
• B.The reduction in distinctions between standard
and unsocial hours or standard and extra hours
• C.Premium rates for unsocial hours
• D.The voluntary agreement of unsocial hours
works
The reduction in distinctions between
standard and unsocial hours or
standard and extra hours
• Which of the following is not machinery for
settlement of ID in India?
• A.Board of conciliation
• B.Labour court
• C.Collective bargaining
• D.National Tribunal
Collective bargaining
• Which statement is true?
• A.Job analysis is a group of positions, that are similar as
to kind and level of work
• B.A promotion is the advancement of an employee to a
better job better in terms of greater responsibilities,
more prestige or status, greater skill and especially,
increase rate of pay or salary
• C.A promotion is the transfer of an employee to a job
that pays more money or that enjoys some preferred
status
All of the above

• Factors which have contributed to the slow
progress of arbitration have identified by the
National Commission on Labour as
• A.Absence of a simplified procedure to be
followed in voluntary arbitration
• B.Absence of recognised unions which could bind
workers to common agreements
• C.The fact that in law on appeal was competent
against an arbitrator's award
Absence of a simplified procedure to

be followed in voluntary arbitration
• Which of the following point is not important for training?
• 1. Reduction in supervision
• 2. Reduction in cost
• 3. Increased stability
• 4. Convenience in co-ordination
• 5. Improvement in industrial relations
• 6. Individual development and growth.
• A.1, 3, 4, 5 and 6
• B.1, 3, 5 and 6
• C.2, 3 and 4
• D.All of these
All of these
• Grievance is affecting one or more individual
workers in respect of their conditions of work
and not disputes over matters of general
applicability to all
• A.Complaint
• B.Claims
• C.Information
• D.Order
Complaint
• Job analysis is a systematic procedure for
securing and reporting information defining a
• A.Specific Product
• B.Specific Job
• C.Specific Goods or Service
• D.All these
Specific Job
• Who Said "collective bargaining is a model of
fixing the term of employment by means of
bargaining between an organised body of
employers and employees and or association of
employees usually acting through organised
agent.
• A.Sydney and Beatrice Webb
• B.Robert Hoxie
• C.John T. Dunlop
• D.Samuel Gompers
Robert Hoxie
• Objects of Trade Unions includes
• A.To strive for better working conditions for the
workers in the form of shorter working hours,
leave with pay, social security benefits and other
welfare facilities
• B. To protect a part of the increased prosperity of
industry for their members in the form of bonus
• C.To secure better wages for the workers in
keeping with the prevailing standard of living and
cost of living in the nation
All of the above

• Given
• 1. Training is required at different levels namely, for unskilled workers,
semiskilled workers. Skilled workers, office staff, supervisory staff and
managerial.
• 2. Semi-skilled workers are selected amongst the unskilled workers who
have made themselves conversant with the handling of the machine.
• 3. Management training has become an essential activity of every firm.
• 4. Training programme should be periodically evaluated to determine its
effectiveness.
• Select the code of correct statement.
• A.1, 2 and 3
• B.1, 2 and 4
• C.1, 3 and 4
• D.1, 2, 3 and 4
1, 2, 3 and 4
• Industrial accident may be traced by
• 1. Fatigue
• 2. Distributed rental state of the worker
• 3. Unsafe practices associated with the job
• 4. Faulty equipment
• 5. Unsafe part of worker
• 6. Uncomfortable working condition.
• A.2, 3 and 4
• B.1, 2, 3 and 4
• C.Only 3
• D.All of these
All of these
• Which is the functions of Industrial
Psychologist?
• A.Consulting
• B.Individual evaluation
• C.Research
All of these
• Job design is affected by
• A.Organisational, environmental and
behavioural fact
• B.Price
• C.Study
• D.Process
Organisational, environmental and

behavioural fact
• Organisation and development consists
• A.Awareness of organisation and development
being along drawn out process, whose benefits
are raped only over a period of time
• B.Involvement of line and operational staff in its
implementation
• C.Top management commitment for the
organisation development process continued
education
All of the above

• Which of the following statement is true?
• 1. The demand for human resource is modified by such employee
actions as retirements, resignations and terminations.
• 2. Human resources forecasts are attempts to predict an
organisation's future demand for employees.
• 3. Expert forecasts are based on the judgment of those who are
knowledgeable of future human resource needs.
• 4. Major organisational decisions affect the demand for human
resources.
• A.1, 2, 3 and 4
• B.2 and 4
• C.2, 3 and 4
• D.1, 3 and 4
1, 2, 3 and 4
• Which is the method of wage payment?
• A.Time wage
• B. Piece wage
• C.Debt wage
• D.All of these
Debt wage
• uman resource planning includes
• A.Creating a climate of opportunity and
professional challenge
• B.Recognition of excellence in performance
• C.Improvement of excellence in performance
All of the above

• List-I (Concepts of HRM) List-II (Factors)
• (A) Job satisfaction 1. Achievement
• (B) Wage and Salary Administration 2. Halsey Plan
• (C) Incentive Plan 3. Halsey Plan
• (D) Motivation 4. X-Theory
• 5. EOQ
• A.(A) (B) (C) (D)
• 1 4 3 2
• B.(A) (B) (C) (D)
• 3 4 1 2
• C.(A) (B) (C) (D)
• 1 2 3 4
• D.(A) (B) (C) (D)
• 1 3 4 2
C.(A) (B) (C) (D)

1 2 3 4
• _________ is a group of position involving
substantially the same duties, skills,
knowledge and responsibilities.
• A.Job
• B.HRM
• C.Product
• D.Personnel
Job
• Human Resource Audit System covers
• A.By examining the structure and content of the
systems to see if the activities are controlling to
the fulfillment of objectives
• B.By recording the component of all the systems
relating to man power in the organisation and see
that all important activities have been covered by
the systems
• C.By examining if the systems are being followed
and identifying the bottlenecks
All of the above

• This insurance scheme provides adequate
insurance coverage of employees for
expenses related to hospitalisation due to
illness, disease or injury or pregnancy
• A.Employee referral scheme
• B.Medi-claim insurance scheme
• C.Maternity & adoption leave
Medi-claim insurance scheme

• ________ means reducing the size of the
organisation. It is restructuring of the
organisation whereby non-core activities are
disposed off. Where there is surplus staff,
trimming will be essential.
• A. Downsizing
• B.Exit Policy
• C.Golden Handshake
• D.All of these
Downsizing
• 1. Annual planning budgeting process includes human resource
needs.
• 2. Managers discuss goals, plant and thus types and numbers of
people needed in the short run.
• 3. The personnel department may contribute of these estimates
through the use of psychological tests, interviews and other
methods of assessment.
• 4. Replacement charts are a visual repre-sentation of who will
replace whom in the event of a job opening.
• A.1, 2 and 3
• B.1, 2, 3 and 4
• C.2, 3 and 4
• D.1, 2 and 4
B.1, 2, 3 and 4
• List-I (Human Relations Training Methods) List-II (Features)
• (A) Role Playing Method 1. Position
• (B) Gaming 2. Simulation
• (C) Lectures 3. Subject Matter Dictation
• (D) Conference Training 4. Presentation
• 5. Power
• A.(A) (B) (C) (D)
• 4 1 3 2
• B.(A) (B) (C) (D)
• 1 4 3 2
• C.(A) (B) (C) (D)
• 1 2 3 4
• D.(A) (B) (C) (D)
• 3 1 4 2
C.(A) (B) (C) (D)

1 2 3 4
• Which of the following is a source of formulating
Human Resource Management Policies?
• A.Organisational policies
• B.Existing practices and experiences in other
organisations of the same nature
• or in the same geographical area or in the entire
nation
• C.Past experience of the organisation
All of the above

• Which of the following need is not fall under needs of
Training and Development?
• 1. Technological advances.
• 2. Organisational complexity
• 3. Organisational tenure
• 4. Performance evaluation
• 5. Human relation movement.
• A.2 and 3
• B.2, 3, 4 and 5
• C.1, 2, 3 and 4
• D.1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
C.1, 2, 3 and 4
• Which of the following challenges faced by
recruiters?
• A.Human Resource Plans
• B.Recruiter habits
• C.Organisational Policies
All of the above

• Personnel Administration includes
• A.Interview and selection
• B.Recruitment
• C.Employment
All of the above

• Training involves
• A.Evaluating the effectiveness of training
programmes
• B.Developing suitable training programmes
• C.Identification of training needs of the
individuals and the company
All of the above

• List-I (Human Relation Policy) List-II (Features)
• (A) Mutual Acceptance 1. Group
• (B) Local Decision 2. Problem
• (C) Employee Participation 3. Profit Sharing
• (D) Common Interest 4. Labour Union
• 5. Noise
• A.(A) (B) (C) (D)
• 1 2 3 4
• B.(A) (B) (C) (D)
• 3 4 2 1
• C.(A) (B) (C) (D)
• 3 1 4 2
• D.(A) (B) (C) (D)
• 1 3 4 2
A.(A) (B) (C) (D)

1 2 3 4
• Which of the following is Central Organisation
of Workers?
• A.United Trade Union Congress
• B.Trade Union Co-ordination Centre
• C.Indian National Trade Union Congress
All of the above

• Which statement is true?
• A.Profit sharing is an agreement freely entered
into by which the employees received a share
fixed in advance of the profit
• B.An experiment in profit sharing on a wide scale
would therefore, be definitely undertaking a
voyage an uncharted seas
• C.Co-partnership implies both profit sharing and
control sharing
All of the above

• List-I (Methods of Collection information for Job analysis) List-II (Features)
• (A) Record Method 1. Recording
• (B) Observation Method 2. Work Table
• (C) Interview Method 3. Ideal
• (D) Questionnaire 4. Survey
• 5. Controlling
• A.(A) (B) (C) (D)
• 1 2 3 4
• B.(A) (B) (C) (D)
• 1 3 4 5
• C.(A) (B) (C) (D)
• 1 3 4 2
• D.(A) (B) (C) (D)
• 4 3 2 1
A.(A) (B) (C) (D)

1 2 3 4
• Which items below are forms of perceptual
errors made during the selection process?
• A.Like-me judgements
• B.A candidate's time-keeping
• C.The interview setting
• D.The time of day
Like-me judgements
• Sensitivity training is known as _________
• A.T group Training
• B.Operative training
• C.Problem solving Training
• D.In basket exercise
T group Training
• Intelligence quotient can be calculated as
• A.Mental Age/Acutal Age x 100
• B.Acutal Age/100 x Mental Age
• C.100/Acutal Age x Mental Age
• D.Acutal Age/Standard Age x 100
Mental Age/Acutal Age x 100

• Which of the following is the benefits of the
training and development?
• A.Creates an appropriate climate for growth
and communication
• B.Improve the morale of the work force
• C.Helps people identify with organisational
goals
All of the above

• Alexander of Leighton enumerative five major determinants of
morale, which are
• 1. Confidence of the individual members in the purpose of the
group.
• 2. Confidence of the different member of the group in the
leadership and the ability of the leadership.
• 3. Confidence of the individual members in their fallen worker
• 4. Organisational efficiency
• 5. Conditions in the group and working conditions
• A.1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
• B.2, 3, 4 and 5
• C.1, 2, 3 and 4
• D.2 and 3
A.1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
• List-I (Authors) List-II (Books)
• (A) James J. Bambrick 1. Guideline for Developing Workable Personnel
Policies
• (B) Peter F. Drucker 2. The Practice of Management
• (C) Urwick and Bambrick 3. The Making of Scientific Management
• (D) Pigors and Myres 4. Personnel Administration
• 5. Planning
• A.(A) (B) (C) (D)
• 1 2 3 4
• B.(A) (B) (C) (D)
• 3 4 1 2
• C.(A) (B) (C) (D)
• 3 1 4 2
• D.(A) (B) (C) (D)
• 4 3 2 1
A.(A) (B) (C) (D)

1 2 3 4
• Human resource Planning is compulsory for
• A.To provide a solid base for recruitment
• B.To make the employee development
programmes effective
• C.Reduction in industrial unrest through
correct planning
All of the above

• 1. Human resource management is a strategic management
function.
• 2. Under Human resource management employee is treated as a
resource.
• 3. Human resource management is the management of employee's
skills talents and abilities.
• 4. Human resource management function is treated as only an
auxiliary.
• A.1, 2, 3 and 4
• B.1, 2 and 3
• C.2, 3 and 4
• D.None of these
B.1, 2 and 3
• Obtaining and using information about the
current operational context that is about
individual difficulties, organisation
deficiencies and so on
• A.Context evaluation
• B.Input evaluation
• C.Outcomes & reaction evaluation
• D.All of these
Context evaluation
• A.The minimum membership fee of a union
should be raised and statutorily goals
• B.The formation centre-cum-industry and national
industrial federations should be encouraged
• C.Industrial disputes refer to difference that affect
groups of employees and employers engaged m
an industry
Industrial disputes refer to difference
that affect groups of employees and
employers engaged m an industry
• List-I (Functions of Personnel Management) List-II (Main Functions)
• (A) Management Function 1. Human Resource Planning
• (B) Advisory Function 2. Advising to the Departmental Officers
• (C) Executive Function 3. Appointment of Labour
• (D) Management Function 4. Personnel Planning
• 5. Controlling
• A.(A) (B) (C) (D)
• 3 1 4 2
• B.(A) (B) (C) (D)
• 1 2 3 4
• C.(A) (B) (C) (D)
• 2 3 1 4
• D.(A) (B) (C) (D)
• 1 3 4 2
B.(A) (B) (C) (D)

1 2 3 4
• Human Resource Audit is an audit of
• A.Human Resource of the Organisation
• B.Cost of Production
• C.Goodwill
• D.Plant
Human Resource of the Organisation

• Which of the following statement about labour
market is not true?
• A.Labour is a like commodity market is analysed
by supply, demands and price equilibrium
• B.Labour market is relatively more local than
commodity
• C.Unlike a commodity market, the relationship
between a buyer and sellar in labour market is not
temporary
• D.Monopoly in the labour market is high.
Monopoly in the labour market is high.

• In the 'matching model' of HRM, what is meant
by 'Cost driven HRM'?
• A.Where a strategic planning process does not
exist, but people are viewed as a resource.
• B.Where a strategic planning process exists, but
people are viewed as a cost.
• C.Where a strategic planning process does not
exist, and people are viewed as a cost.
• D.Where a strategic planning process exists, and
people are viewed as a resource.
Where a strategic planning process

exists, but people are viewed as a cost.
• bjectives of training is
• A.Increased morale
• B.Increased productivity
• C.Favourable reaction to change
All of the above

• ________ of an employee is the process of
evaluating the employee performance of the
job in terms of the requirements of the job.
• A.Merit Rating
• B.Job evaluation
• C.Job analysis
• D.Performance appraisal
Merit Rating
• Wage and Salary Administration consists
• A.Representative Role
• B.Rate Determination
• C.Creation of Post
All of the above

• Organisational elements of job design are
concerned with
• A.Cost Techniques
• B.Organisational Efficiency
• C.Firm
• D.Cost Approach
Organisational Efficiency
• People with a strong desire to satisfy higher
order needs perform their best when placed
on jobs that were high on certain
• A.Dimensions
• B.Circumstances
• C.Issues
• D.Performance
Dimensions
• Which of the following attributes should be
posses by the personnel manager?
• A.Intelligence
• B.Educational skill
• C.Discriminating skill
All of the above

• Training information system included
• A.Training aids
• B.Internal and external faculty
• C.Training resources
• D.Training needs
Training needs
• What is the name of the approach that
suggests that HR strategy should be matched
to business strategy?
• A.Best performance
• B.Best fit
• C.Best approach
• D.Best value
Best fit
• Which is the factors of job satisfaction as per
Hertzberg?
• A.Job security
• B.Recognition
• C.Interpersonal relation with subordinates
All of the above

• Which one of the following does not include
under the functions of human resource
management?
• A.Planning
• B.Recruitment
• C.Organising
• D.Profitability
Profitability
• The Basket Training Method means
• A.Development of decision skilled
• B.Development of Institute
• C.Development of Resources
• D.Development of Production
Development of decision skilled

• The object of employees appraisal is
• A.To help determine promotions and transfers
• B.To identify areas which require further
training
• C.To reduce grievances
All of the above

• The type of transfer includes
• A.Departmental Transfer
• B.Remedial Transfer
• C.Replacement Transfer
All of the above

• What is the focus of performance-based
methods?
• A.Measuring past performance to assess current
performance.
• B.Measuring past performance to predict future
performance.
• C.Measuring current performance to assess past
performance.
• D.Measuring present performance to predict
future performance
Measuring present performance to

predict future performance
• Training control system includes
• A.Annual review of years training plans
• B.Monthly review of budget and plans
• C.Real time review of specific projects
All of the above

• Which of the following is not a type of
interview?
• A.Depth Interview
• B.Interview Rating Firm
• C.Panel Interview
• D.Productive Interview
Interview Rating Firm

• Understudy Training means
• A.Under the Executives
• B.Roundtable Conference/Meetings
• C.Special Meetings
• D.None of these
Special Meetings
• Feedback and counselling involves
• A.Discuss the steps the employee can take for
improvement
• B.Provide support
• C.Give critical and supporting feedback
All of the above

• Which is the Human Relation Policy?
• A.Open communication
• B.Common interest
• C.Mutual acceptance
All of the above

• The internal supply of human resources
consists of present employees who can be
_________ to fill expected opening
• A.Promoted
• B.Demoted
• C.Transferred
• D.All of these
All of the above

• Which is/are Executive Functions of
Personnel/Managers?
• A.Job Description
• B.Job Evaluation
• C.Wages and Salary Administration
All of the above

• Employee services includes
• A.Personal Services
• B.Recreation Services
• C.Medical Services
All of the above

• What is meant by 360 degree appraisal?
• A.A system where a senior manager rates all
line managers simultaneously.
• B.A system where every employee rates
another employee chosen at random.
• C.A system where feedback is obtained from
peers subordinates and supervisors.
• D.A system where the line manager rates
subordinates simultaneously.
A system where feedback is obtained
from peers subordinates and
supervisors.
• What is meant by the 'Veblen effect'?
• A.The practice of giving everyone random
ratings.
• B.The practice of giving everyone low ratings.
• C.The practice of giving everyone high ratings.
• D.The practice of giving everyone average
ratings
The practice of giving everyone

average ratings
• Off the Job Training Method consists
• A.Role Playing Method
• B.Case Study Method
• C.Programmed Training
All of the above

• dvisory Functions of Personnel Managers
includes
• A.Training and Development
• B.Advising to the departmental officers
• C.Advising to the top management
• D.Both (a) and (b)
Both (a) and (b)

• hey stand for professionals who work from an
office such as those who occupy a managerial
or administrative chair.
• A.Brown Collar union
• B.White collar unions
• C.Both a & b
• D.All of these
White collar unions

• Which is the element of an ideal personnel
policy?
• A.Employment Policy
• B.Probation Policy
• C.Review of Progress
All of the above

• Which is the Principles of Human Relations?
• A.Principle of Work Recognition
• B.Principle of Participation
• C.Principle of Motivation
All of the above

• Internal sources of recruitment involves
• A.Lent Services
• B.Extension of Service
• C.Internal Advertisement
All of the above

• he objective of the selection decision is to
choose the individual who can most
successful perform the job from the pool of
• A.Qualified candidates
• B.Qualified correspondent
• C.Unqualified candidates
• D.Non-qualified report
Qualified candidates
• External sources of recruitment consists
• A.Professional Training Institutions
• B.Educational Institutions
• C.Waiting List
• D.Executive Search Agency
Executive Search Agency

• In a recent survey, what was the top
attraction for employees to jobs and
organisations?
• A.Holiday entitlement
• B.Workplace culture
• C.Location of work
• D.Flexible working hours
Location of work
UGC NET
RELATION
Sample Paper 5
• Which of the following challenges are not
faced by recruiters?
• A.Job requirement
• B.Affirmative action plans
• C.Environmental conditions
• D.Product Quality
Product Quality
• Which of the following factors affecting to the
productivity?
• A.The ability of the individual employees
• B.Employee's job performance
• C.Technological development
All of the above

• Which is the step of working procedure of Job
analysis?
• A.Review of the first hand information
• B.To fill in the Job description form
• C.Collection of facts
All of the above

• Which is the type of fatigue?
• A.Muscular or Physiological Fatigue
• B.Industrial fatigue
• C.Nervous fatigue
• D.All of these
All of the above

• Personnel Policy includes
• A.Working conditions
• B.Rules related to security
• C.Joint consultation
All of the above

• Union put more emphasis on insurance
benefits health, education and welfare
measures are called
• A.Uplift Unionism
• B.Business unionism
• C.Both a & b
• D.All of these
Uplift Unionism
• The successive steps in disciplinary action are
• A.Service of the charge sheet
• B.Suspension of the offender in grave cases
• C.Preparing and serving the charge sheet
All of the above

• The main objects of Training Method is
• A.Introduction of New Technology
• B.To earn money
• C.To obtain property
• D.Accounting
Introduction of New Technology

• Methods for training and development
involve various job techniques such as
expanded responsibility, job rotation,
assistant to positions and other
• A.Techniques
• B.Projects
• C.Firms
• D.System
Techniques
• Which is modern training method of human
relation?
• A.Role Playing Method
• B.Gaming
• C.Sensitivity Training
All of the above

• Programmes for development by Company
Training includes
• A.Training through correspondence course
• B.Packaged Training
• C.On the Job Training
All of the above

• Which is not a type of transfer?
• A.Production Transfer
• B.Versatility Transfer
• C.Remedial Transfer
All of the above

• Which is a job satisfaction factor as per
Stagner?
• A.Medical and Health facilities
• B.Pension
• C.Pay
• D.All of these
All of the above

• Job enlargement expands the number of
related tasks in the
• A.Job
• B.Identity
• C.Work
• D.Range
Job
• Which of the following includes under
techniques of Training?
• A.On the job Training Method
• B.Informal Training
• C.Role Playing Method
All of the above

• Human resource audits summarise each
employee's skill and
• A.Abilities
• B.Evidence
• C.Property
• D.Life
Abilities
• Recruiters must be sensitive to the
constraints on the________
• A.Recruitment process
• B.Appointment process
• C.Environment process
• D.Employment process
Recruitment process
• The view that a distinctive set of HR practices
can be applied successfully to all
organisations irrespective of their setting is
referred to as what?
• A.Best philosophy
• B.Best performance
• C.Best practice
• D.Best procedure
Recruitment process
• What is meant by the term 'union density'?
• A.The proportion of workers who are not
members of a trade union.
• B.The number of workers whose pay is set by
collective bargaining.
• C.The proportion of workers who are union
members.
• D.The total number of workers who are union
members.
The total number of workers who are

union members.
• List-I (Thinkers) List-II (Publications)
• (A) Elmar H. Burak 1. Strategies for Human Resource Planning and Programming
• (B) Smith and Walker 2. Business Planning is people planning
• (C) Richard B. Frantzerb 3. Human Resource Planning - Forecasting Human Resource needs
• (D) Gehrman 4. Objective Based Human Resource Planning
• 5. Human Resource
• A.(A) (B) (C) (D)
• 1 3 2 4
• B.(A) (B) (C) (D)
• 1 2 3 4
• C.(A) (B) (C) (D)
• 3 1 2 4
• D.(A) (B) (C) (D)
• 4 2 3 1
B.(A) (B) (C) (D)

1 2 3 4
• Which of the following are the suggestions to strengthen the Union
Movement?
• 1. Measures should be taken on several forms to strengthen forces
building up internal leadership.
• 2. The minimum number required for starting a new union should be
raised.
• 3. Establishing a convention that no union office bearer will concurrently
hold office in a political party.
• 4. Trade unions should not be more fighting organisation of workers, but
should be co-operating bodies to promote the cause of workers.
• A.2, 3 and 4
• B.1, 2 and 3
• C.1, 2, 3
• D.1, 2 and 4
C.1, 2, 3
• Which article lays down that a directive principle
of state policy that "That state shall endeavour
to secure ________ to all workers a living wages,
conditions of work ensuring decent standard of
life, full employment social and cultural
opportunities."
• A.Article 43
• B.Article 70
• C.Article 46
• D.Article 23
Article 43
• _________ is the study of people as
individuals and in groups of the relationship
between individuals and groups.
• A.Financial Management
• B.Wages
• C.Human Resource Planning
• D.None of these
None of these
• List-I (Component of Human Resource Planning) List-II (Their Qualities)
• (A) Demographics 1. Community attitudes also affect the nature of the
• labour market
• (B) Community attitudes 2. The list likely replacements for each job and indicate
• their relative strengths and weaknesses
• (C) Replacement summaries 3. Demographic trends are another long-term development
• that affects the availability of external supply
• (D) Human resource planning 4. The Planning requires considerable time, staff and
• financial resources
• 5. Quality of product
• A.(A) (B) (C) (D)
• 1 2 3 4
• B.(A) (B) (C) (D)
• 3 4 2 1
• C.(A) (B) (C) (D)
• 3 1 2 4
• D.(A) (B) (C) (D)
• 4 3 2 1
C.(A) (B) (C) (D)

3 1 2 4
• On the Job Training Method means
• A.Development of institute
• B.To arrange conference
• C.Providing study matters
• D.To work on the site
To work on the site

• Which statement is/are correct?
• A.The aim of the majority of systems of job evaluation is to
establish, on an agreed logical basis, the relative values of
different jobs in a given plant or industry
• B.Job evaluation is a systematic procedure for measuring
the relative value and importance of occupation on the
basis of their common factor for the purpose of determining
wage and salary differentials
• C.Job evaluation may be defined as an effort to determine
the relative value of every job in a plant and to determine
what the four basic wage for such a job should be
All of the above

• Match the following with List-A to List-B
• List-A List-B
• (A) Job rotation (i) The trainer appraises the performance of the trainee, provides
• feedback information and corrects the trainee
• (B) Job instruction (ii) movement of the trainee from one job to another
• (C) Vestibule training (iii) Simulation of actual work conditions in a class room
• (D) Programmed instruction (iv) The subject matter to be learned is presented in a services of
• carefully planned sequential units
• A.(A) (B) (C) (D)
• (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
• B.(A) (B) (C) (D)
• (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
• C.(A) (B) (C) (D)
• (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
• D.(A) (B) (C) (D)
• (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
A.(A) (B) (C) (D)

(ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
• Why is job analysis so infused with
organizational politics? Is it:
• A.Because it is a process which could lead to
contraction of employees in a department and
therefore diminishing its power base.
• B.A result of interdepartmental rivalry.
• C.Because it is not an objective activity.
• D.Because it is a process through which
companies try to shed labour.
Because it is a process which could lead to contraction
of employees in a department and therefore
diminishing its power base.
• Which one of the following statement is not true?
• A.Organisational need to find ways to tap this potential
and motivate them for improved performance
• B.The introduction and operation of a good
performance appraisal system is among the most
difficult of all organisational process
• C.Initiating Human Resource Development has been a
reactive step for most organisation in our country when
every things else second to fail
• D.Systematic identification of training is not done
through performance appraisal
Systematic identification of training is not done through

• List-I (Types of Test) List-II (Features)
• (A) Aptitude Test 1. I. Q. Test
• (B) Performance Test 2. Job knowledge
• (C) Personality Test 3. Ambition
• (D) Interest Test 4. Hobby
• 5. Planning
• A.(A) (B) (C) (D)
• 1 4 3 2
• B.(A) (B) (C) (D)
• 1 2 3 4
• C.(A) (B) (C) (D)
• 3 1 4 2
• D.(A) (B) (C) (D)
• 4 1 3 2
B.(A) (B) (C) (D)

1 2 3 4
• 205. Match the following
• List-I (Developers) List-II (Ideas)
• (A) Wyatt and Langdon 1. Fatigue and Boredom in Repetitive Work, Industrial Health
Research
• (B) Morse Nancy C. 2. Satisfaction in the white collar job
• (C) Hull, Richard and Kolstad 3. Moral on the job
• (D) Gilmer B. Van. Haller 4. Industrial Psychology
• 5. Human Resource
• A.(A) (B) (C) (D)
• 1 2 3 4
• B.(A) (B) (C) (D)
• 4 1 5 3
• C.(A) (B) (C) (D)
• 3 1 4 2
• D.(A) (B) (C) (D)
• 3 4 1 2
C.(A) (B) (C) (D)

3 1 4 2
• Human Resource Management includes
• A.Motivation, communication and team
building
• B.Human Resource planning
• C.Employee services
All of the above

• List-I (Management Educationist) List-II (Books)
• (A) Bruce H. Johnson, Gegory Moorhead and 1. The empirical dimensionality of the job
• Rick W. Girffin characteristic inventory.
• (B) J. L. Piere and Randall 2. Task Design
• (C) Edward. E. Lawler 3. Job Attitudes and Employee Motivation
• (D) Freedrick Herzberg, Bernard Musner 4. The Motivation to work
• and Barbara Synderman
• 5. Job
• A.(A) (B) (C) (D)
• 2 1 3 4
• B.(A) (B) (C) (D)
• 1 2 3 4
• C.(A) (B) (C) (D)
• 3 1 4 2
• D.(A) (B) (C) (D)
• 5 1 4 3
B.(A) (B) (C) (D)

1 2 3 4
•
Match the following
• List-I (Thinkers) List-II (Publications)
• (A) Breach 1. Personnel: The Management of People at work
• (B) R. P. Calhoon 2. Managing Personnel
• (C) Powel R. 3. Management and Executive Needs
• (D) Hamblin 4. Evaluation and Control of Training
• 5. HRM
• A.(A) (B) (C) (D)
• 1 3 2 4
• B.(A) (B) (C) (D)
• 1 2 3 4
• C.(A) (B) (C) (D)
• 3 4 5 1
• D.(A) (B) (C) (D)
• 1 4 3 2
B.(A) (B) (C) (D)

1 2 3 4
• Recruitment deals with
• A.Identification of existing source of applicants
and developing them
• B.Creation of new sources of applicants
• C.Identification of existing source of applicants
and developing them
All of the above

• The human resource development initiatives have a
significant role to play in terms of
• A.Training and development effort attendant upon
technological changes to upgrade skill and managerial
ability
• B.Rationalisation of organisation and of man, power
along with increase in production, capacity and
investment in new technology
• C.Improvement in work culture as perquisite for
improvements in other areas and to tune up the
organisation for modernisation
All of the above

• List-I (Type of Skill Test) List-II (Sub-type of Test)
• (A) Aptitude Test 1. Skill Test
• (B) Achievement Test 2. Job knowledge Test
• (C) Situational Test 3. Group Discussion
• (D) Personality Test 4. Projective Test
• A.(A) (B) (C) (D)
• 1 2 3 4
• B.(A) (B) (C) (D)
• 3 1 4 5
• C.(A) (B) (C) (D)
• 3 1 4 2
• D.(A) (B) (C) (D)
• 1 4 3 2
A.(A) (B) (C) (D)

1 2 3 4
• Procedures of collection of data for Job
Analysis includes
• A.Maintenance of long record
• B.Direct observations
• C.Interview
All of the above

• The interview is used as a method for
determining?
• A.The personality of the candidate.
• B.The degree of fit between the applicant and
the demands of the job.
• C.His/her age.
• D.Physical attributes.
The degree of fit between the applicant and the

demands of the job.
• Mc-Gehee and Thayer recommend which of the following
three tier approach to determine the training needs?
• 1. Organisational Analysis
• 2. Operational / Task Analysis
• 3. Man Power Analysis
• 4. Assets Value Analysis
• 5. Inventory Analysis
• 6. Skill Analysis
• A.4, 5 and 6
• B.2, 3 and 6
• C.1, 2 and 3
• D.1, 3 and 5
C.1, 2 and 3
• Assertion (A) : A job description defines what the
job is it is a profile of the job.
• Reason (R) : A job specification describes what
the job demands of employees who do it and the
human skills that are required.
• B.Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is not true
• C.Assertion (A) is not true, but Reason (R) is true
• D.Assertion (A) is true only
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) both are true

• What measures are typically involved in the
rationalizing of businesses?
• A.Downsizing and Layering
• B.Expanding and Layering
• C.Downsizing and Delayering
• D.Expanding and Delayering
Downsizing and Delayering

• A.The code of discipline, requiring employers and
workers to utilise the existing machinery for the
settlement of disputes and avoiding direct action,
was evolved at the Indian Labour conference in
1958
• B.In the highest form of discipline, all are self-
regulated and all are free
• C.Industrial relations are as old as industry itself
All of the above

• 1. Jobs cannot be designed by using only those element is that aid
efficiency.
• 2. The acceptability of a job's design is also influenced by the
expectations of society
• 3. Behavioural elements of job design tell personnel specialists to
add more autonomy, variety, task identity, task significance and
feedback.
• 4. A lack of variety may cause boredom.
• A.1, 2 and 3
• B.1, 2, 3 and 4
• C.2, 3 and 4
• D.1, 2 and 3
B.1, 2, 3 and 4
• List-I (Items of HRM) List-II (Features)
• (A) Job 1. Job Standardisation
• (B) Motivation 2. X-Theory
• (C) Selection 3. Test
• (D) Trade Union 4. Hind Mazdoor Sabha
• 5. Personnel
• A.(A) (B) (C) (D)
• 1 3 2 4
• B.(A) (B) (C) (D)
• 1 4 3 2
• C.(A) (B) (C) (D)
• 1 2 3 4
• D.(A) (B) (C) (D)
• 3 4 2 1
C.(A) (B) (C) (D)

1 2 3 4
• 1. The design of a job reflects the organisational, environmental
and behavioural demand placed on it.
• 2. The design of the jobs provides individual employee's full
responsibility for groups of a accounts.
• 3. Poorly designed jobs not only lead to low productivity, but they
can also cause employee turnover, absenteeism, complaints,
sabotage, unionisation, resignations and other problems.
• 4. Organisational elements of job design are concerned with
efficiency.
• A.1, 2, 3 and 4
• B.Only 4
• C.1, 2 and 4
• D.2, 3 and 4
A.1, 2, 3 and 4
• Assertion (A) : Performance appraisal is a critical
activity of personnel management.
• Reason (R) : It goal is to provide an accurate picture of
a past and future employee performance.
•
• B.Assertion (A) and Reason (R) both are false
• C.Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is explanation of
Assertion (A)
• D.Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is not
explanation of Reason (R)
C.Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is explanation of

Assertion (A)
• Assertion (A) : The most important aspects of
the training programme is a correct
assessment of the training needs.
• Reason (R) : This is assessment of training
needs.
• B.Assertion (A) and Reason (R) both are false
• C.Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false
• D.Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true
A.Assertion (A) and Reason (R) both are true

• List-I (Principle of Human Relations) List-II (Features)
• (A) Effective Communication 1. Good environment
• (B) Work Recognition 2. Acceptance
• (C) Giving Preference to Personal Feelings 3. Ideal
• (P) Motivation 4. Promotion
• 5. Post Codes:
• A.(A) (B) (C) (D)
• 3 1 4 2
• B.(A) (B) (C) (D)
• 1 2 3 4
• C.(A) (B) (C) (D)
• 1 3 2 4
• D.(A) (B) (C) (D)
• 1 3 4 2
B.(A) (B) (C) (D)

1 2 3 4
• Methods of securing worker's participation in
management involves
• 1. Co-partnership
• 2. Suggestions scheme
• 3. Joint consultation
• 4. Employee representation on the Board of Directors
• 5. Product Value Code:
• A.2, 3 and 4
• B.1, 2, 3 and 4
• C.1, 2 and 4
• D.1, 3 and 4
D.1, 3 and 4
• ______ is a medium through which both
employees and the company mutually cooperate
to achieve more production through high morale
which after all is economic purpose of all
business and industries.
• A.Job
• B.Human relations
• C.Industrial relations
• D.Executive Development Programme
B.Human relations
• Which of the right sequences of training
evaluation
• A.Reaction, learning, behaviour and result
• B.Learning, reaction, behaviour and result
• C.Reaction, learning, result & behaviour
• D.All of these
A.Reaction, learning, behaviour and result

• List-I (Type of Interview) List-II (Example)
• (A) Patterned Interview 1. Hard Work
• (B) Non-directive Interview 2. Depth
• (C) Exit Interview 3. Supervision Knowledge
• (D) Board Interview 4. Group
• 5. Predictors
• A.(A) (B) (C) (D)
• 1 3 2 4
• B.(A) (B) (C) (D)
• 3 4 2 1
• C.(A) (B) (C) (D)
• 1 2 3 4
• D.(A) (B) (C) (D)
• 1 4 3 2
C.(A) (B) (C) (D)

1 2 3 4
• Statement (A) : Training is for present job.
• Statement (B) : Development is for future jobs.
• Statement (C) : Orientation is not enough for
employee.
• Statement (D) : Training help employees to their
present job.
• A.Statement (A), (B) and (C) are true
• B.Statement (B), (C) and (D) are true
• C.Statement (A), (C) and (D) are true
• D.Statement (A), (B), (C) and (D) are true
D.Statement (A), (B), (C) and (D) are true

• List-I (Act) List-II (Year)
• (A) The Payment of Wages Act 1. 1872
• (B) Minimum Wages Act 2. 1923
• (C) Workmen's Compensation Act 3. 1948
• (D) Indian Contract Act 4. 1936
• 5. 1912
• A.(A) (B) (C) (D)
• 4 3 2 1
• B.(A) (B) (C) (D)
• 1 5 4 3
• C.(A) (B) (C) (D)
• 1 2 3 4
• D.(A) (B) (C) (D)
• 3 1 4 2
A.(A) (B) (C) (D)

4 3 2 1
• List-I (Items of HRM) List-II (Example)
• (A) Wage Administration 1. Interview
• (B) Selection 2. Separation method
• (C) Executive development 3. Wage determination
• (D) Labour Turnover 4. Written materials
• 5. EOQ
• A.(A) (B) (C) (D)
• 3 1 4 2
• B.(A) (B) (C) (D)
• 1 2 3 4
• C.(A) (B) (C) (D)
• 1 3 2 4
• D.(A) (B) (C) (D)
• 1 3 4 5
A.(A) (B) (C) (D)

3 1 4 2
• List-I (Steps of Selection Procedure) List-II (Features)
• (A) Application Form 1. Bio-data
• (B) Preliminary Interview 2. Experience
• (C) Employment Test 3. Aptitude Test
• (D) Appointment Interview 4. Encoding
• 5. Budgeting
• A.(A) (B) (C) (D)
• 1 4 3 2
• B.(A) (B) (C) (D)
• 3 4 2 1
• C.(A) (B) (C) (D)
• 1 2 3 4
• D.(A) (B) (C) (D)
• 1 3 2 4
A.(A) (B) (C) (D)

1 4 3 2
• Recruitment is the process of searching for
prospective employees and stimulating them
to apply for ________ in organisation.
• A.Jobs
• B.Cost
• C.Wage
• D.Product
Jobs
• Which of the following is not the characteristic of
trade union?
• A.Is an association of employers or the employees
or of the independent workers?
• B.Is relatively a permanent combination but not
temporary and casual.
• C.Is an association of workers who are engaged is
not securing economic benefit for their member.
• D.Is influenced by the member of ideologies
C.Is an association of workers who are engaged is not

securing economic benefit for their member.
• List-I (Authors) List-II (Books)
• (A) Dale Yoder and Robert 1. Jobs is Personnel and Employee Relations
• (B) Spriegal, William and Richard 2. Industrial Management
• (C) A. F. Kindall 3. Personnel Administration
• (D) H. H. Carre 4. An Outline of Personnel Activates
• 5. Controlling
• A.(A) (B) (C) (D)
• 1 2 3 4
• B.(A) (B) (C) (D)
• 1 4 3 2
• C.(A) (B) (C) (D)
• 4 1 3 2
• D.(A) (B) (C) (D)
• 3 4 1 2
A.(A) (B) (C) (D)

1 2 3 4
• This training is basically provided to bring the
balance between the theoretical knowledge and
the practical skills required to do the job. This
training is the combined effort of the educational
institutions and business organisations
• A.Internship Training
• B.Twenty key system
• C.Both a & b
• D.None of these
A.Internship Training
• Human Resource Management Policy consists
• A.Enriching employee commitment and role
effectiveness through sharing of information regarding
mutual rights, obligations and the philosophy
underlying man management policies and systems
• B.Ensuring congruence between individual and
organisational goals and objectives and setting high
standard of productivity, efficiency and quality of
working life
• C.Development collaborative and problem solving
approaches in human resources management
D.All of the above

• hich is not a Training Method?
• A.Management Role Playing
• B.Workshop
• C.Multiple Management
• D.Recruitment Method
D.Recruitment Method
• http://www.avatto.com/ugc-net-
exam/management/mcqs/ugc-
net/questions/466/1.html
• Under training and development plan, the
form is to be prepared in ________ form.
• Duplicate
• Structured
• Detailed
• None of the above
Duplicate
• The process of analyzing jobs from which job
descriptions are developed are
called________.
• Job analysis
• Job evaluation
• Job enrichment
• Job enlargement
Job Analysis
• Question
• Correct option
• A. The monitoring stage - 1. The firm identifies and confirms the overall
business direction.
• B. The clarification stage - 2. Investment on the human capital and the
value placed by employees on this investment.
• C. The assessment stage - 3. The firm checks the new system against
strategy.
• D. The design stage - 4. The firm plans the proposed changes into practice.
• The correct order is
• A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4
• A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
• A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4
• A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4

• When effort to earn additional income through
a second job does not bear fruit, such type of
efforts & the consequent results may be called
as
• Red moon lighting
• Blue moon lighting
• Yellow moon lighting
• Silver moon lighting
Blue moon lighting

• Which pay is one of the most crucial pay
given to the employee & also shown in the
pay structure?
• Performance
• Strategic
• Bonus
• Commission
Performance
• Which of the following is (are) the HRD score
card?
• HRD systems maturity score
• Competency score
• HRD competencies systems maturity score
• All of the above
All the above

• 360 -Degree Feedback enhances the quality
of ________ decisions.
• HR
• Management
• HRD
All the above

• In the Grid Seminars, stress is laid on
_______.
• Teaching
• Professionalism
• Training & Development
Teaching
• The three performance counseling phases are
• Rapport building, Exploration, Action planning
• Support building, Exploration, Action planning
• Rapport building, Explanation, Action planning
• Rapport building, Exploration, Accurate
planning
Rapport building, Exploration, Action

planning
• What is that describes the duties of the job,
authority relationship, skills requirement,
conditions of work etc.
• Job analysis
• Job enlargement
• Job enrichment
• Job evaluation
Job analysis
• The whole process of conducting a 360 –
Degree Feedback process in any Organisation
could last about ________.
• 1.5 to 3 months
• 3 to 6 months
• 6 to 9 months
• 9 to 12 months
1.5 to 3 months
• In a re-engineering programme, when a
process changes so does the ________ of the
concerned employee.
• Designation
• Job profile
• Qualification
• Job experience
Job profile
• The process which is continuous and stops
only when the organisation ceases to exist
• Training
• Job evaluation
• Hiring
Hiring
• Union leaders at different levels & at
federations are elected on ________
• democratic principle
• political considerations
• employer’s recommendation
• seniority basis
Democratic principle
• The following factor would be relatively low
if supply of labour is higher than demand.
• production
• labour cost
• wage
• all of the above
Wage
• The nation wide consumer councils formed
by the Government comprise of
representatives of
• Cost account and consumer
• Various ministries
• Manufactures of commerce
All the above

• The following is (are) the option(s) while
planning for surplus
• Reassign the jobs
• Redesign the jobs
• Reduce work hours
All the above

• The following system is simple, less
expensive and less time consuming.
• Paired comparison
• Confidential report system
• Ranking
• Checklist method
Ranking
• The following are the factors which come
under ‘ Work planning’ that is
component systems of HRD
• Contextual analysis
• Role analysis
• Performance appraisal
All the above

• ______ is the simple act of comparison &
learning for organisational improvement
• Benchmarking
• Feedback
• Ranking
• Job evaluation
Bench marking
• -_______ can be defined as a written record
of the duties, responsibilities and conditions
of job.
• Job description
• Job specification
• Job profile
Job description
• The three types of forecasts are
• Economic, employee market, company’s sales
expansion
• Long, Short, Medium
• Production, economic, company’s sales
expansion
• Production, labor, economic
Economic, employee market,

company’s sales expansion
• Under point method, factor(s) generally
considered are
• Skill, effort, Accountability
• Skill, job enrichment, accountability
• Wage, job enrichment, accountability
• Wage effort, accountability
Skill, effort, Accountability

• HRD process variable include
• Role clarity
• Work planning
• Better communication
All the above

• The following is (are) included in salary
survey.
• Average salary
• Inflation indicators
• Salary budget averages
All the above

• The following is (are) the key components of
a business process Re-engineering
programme?
• Product development
• Service delivery
• Customer satisfaction
All the above

• The actual achievements compared with the
objectives of the job is
• Job performance
• Job evaluation
• Job description
Job performance
• The following is (are) concerned with
developing a pool of candidates in line with
the human resources plan
• Development
• Training
• Recruitment
Recruitment
• Majority of the disputes in industries is (are)
related to the problem of
• Wages
• Salaries
• Benefits
All the above

• In an organisation initiating career planning,
the career path model would essentially form
the basis for
• Placement
• Transfer
• Rotation
All the above

• -Section ________ of the Industrial Disputes Act
1947, states that an employer should only
retrench employees who have been most
recently hired
• 24-F
• 24-G
• 25-F
• 25-G
25 G
• Performance development plan is set for the
employee by his _______________.
• Employer
• Department Head
• Immediate boss
• Any of the above
Immediate boss
• The following type of recruitment process is
said to be a costly affair.
• Internal recruitment
• External recruitment
• Cost remains same for both types
External recruitment
• The following is (are) the objective(s) of
inspection.
• Quality product
• Defect free products
• Customer satisfaction
All the above

• Large recruitment ____ problematic and vice-
versa
• Less
• More
Less
• The ________ programme once installed
must be continued on a permanent basis.
• Job evaluation
• Training & Development
• Recruitment
Job evaluation
• The following person has suggested the new
concept which takes into account various key
factors that will tell the overall performance of a
job.
• Elliot Jecques
• Fred Luthas
• Juran
Elliot Jecques
• For closure, every worker is to be
compensated with ________ average pay for
every year of service completed
• 15 days
• 20 days
• 25 days
• 30 days
15 days
• The three important components in aligning business
strategy with HR practice:
• Business Strategy, Human Resource Practices,
Organisational Capabilities
• Marketing Strategy, Human Resource Practices,
Organisational Capabilities
• Business Strategy, Human Resource Practices,
Organisational structure
• Marketing Strategy, Human Resource Practices,
Organisational structure
Business Strategy, Human Resource

Practices, Organisational Capabilities
• The basic managerial skill(s) is(are)
• To supervise
• To stimulate
• To motivate
All the above

• During the lay off period, the employer has to
pay ____ of the basic wages.
• One fourth
• Half
• Three fourth
• One third
Half
UGC NET
RELATION
Sample Paper 6
• -__________ involves a one to one discussion
between the participant and administrator.
• Counselling
• Training
• Motivation
Counselling
• -______ appraisal done separately will
provide feedback on the potential of these
managers.
• Potential
• Managerial
• General
• Administrative
Potential
• Point system and factor comparison methods
are placed under such category
• Non-quantitative job evaluation
• Quantitative job evaluation
Quantitative job evaluation

• -________ system stresses on discipline and
there is simplicity in the form.
• Merit rating
• Point rating
• Both ‘a’ and ‘b’
Merit rating
• Stephen Knauf defined HRA as “the
measurement & ________ of Human
organisational inputs such as recruitment,
training experience & commitment
• Qualification
• Accounting
• Management
Qualification
• A key HR role in the firm will be
multidisciplinary consulting around
• Individual
• Team
• Business unit
All of the above

• Under ______ method, common factors to all
the jobs are identified.
• Point
• Merit
• Ranking
Point method
• The following are the key factors of the new
economic policy.
• Privatization
• Market friendly state
• Liberalisation
All of the above

• During which of the following stage, the firm
plans the proposed changes into practice.
• Clarification
• Monitoring
• Assessment
• Design
Design
• During which of the following stage, the firm
identifies and confirms the overall business
direction
• Clarification
• Monitoring
• Assessment
• Design
Clarification
• The ________ role is to ensure the deserving
managers should get appropriate
opportunities for job Rotation.
• Reviewer
• Assessor
• Administrator
• Employer
Reviewer
• The process of the feedback is made up of __
phases.
• 4
• 5
• 6
• 7
5
• The three phases of recruitment process are
• Planning, Implementing, Evaluating
• Planning, Implementing, Screening
• Planning, Implementing, Enrichment
• Planning, Screening, Evaluating
Planning, Implementing, Evaluating

• The role of the organisation in career
planning is to introduce & strengthen
systems to ensure ________ of employees
• Career progression
• Self development
• Economical Development
• Skill enhancement
Career progression
• 1, The first Factories Act was enacted in
• a)1881
• B)1895
• c)1897
• d)1885
1881
• 2. Who is an adult as per Factories Act, 1948 ?
• a. Who has completed 18 years of age
• b. who is less than 18 years
• c. who is more than 14 years
• d. who is more than 15 years
Who has completed 18 years of age

• A person who has ultimate control over the affairs of
the factory under Factories Act, 1948 is called as
_________
• a. Occupier
• b. Manager
• c. Chairman
• d. Managing Director
Occupier
• The space for every worker employed in the Factory
after the commencement of Factories Act,1948
should be ________ Cubic Meters.
• a. 9.9
• b. 10.2
• c. 14.2
• d. 13.2
14.2
• The provision for cooling water during hot weather
should be made by the organization if it employees
_______ or more employees.
• a. 200
• b. 250
• c. 300
• d. 150
250
• Who is an Adolescent as per Factories Act, 1948 ?
• a. Who has completed 17 years of age
• b. who is less than 18 years
• c. who has completed 15 years but less than 18 years.
• d. None of these
who has completed 15 years but less

than 18 years
• Which one of the following is not a welfare
provision under Factories Act, 1948
• a.Canteen
• b. Creches
• c.First Aid
• d.Drinking water.
Drinking Water
• First Aid Boxes is to be provided for ______ of
persons
• a. 125
• b. 135
• c. 150
• d. 160
150
• Safety Officers are to be appointed if Organisation is
engaging ______ or more employees.
• a. 1000
• b. 2000
• c. 500
• d. 750
1000
• Canteen is to be provided if engaging employees
more than ______ persons.
• a. 250
• b. 230
• c. 300
• d. 275
250
• Leave with wages is allowed for employees if
they work for _______ days in a month.
• a. 15
• b. 25
• c. 20
• d. 28
20
• The Ambulance Room is to be provided if engaging
employees more than______
• a. 400
• b. 350
• c. 500
• d. 450
500
• Creche is to be provided if ______ or more lady
employees are engaged.
• a. 25
• b. 32
• c. 30
• d. 40
30
• An adult worker can upto ____ hrs in a day as
per factories Act, 1948.
• a. 8
• b. 9
• c. 10
• d. 12
9
• Obligations of Workers under the Factories Act
1947 was discussed in section -----
• a) 78
• b) 101
• c) 111
• d) 99
111
• The term Sabbatical is connected with
• a) Paid leave for study
• b) Paternity leave
• c) Maternity leave
• d) Quarantine leave
Paid leave for study

• Section 49 of the Factories Act 1947Says about
• a) Welfare officer
• b) Canteen
• c) Rest room
• d) Crèche
Welfare officer
• Section 2 ( K )of the Factories Act 1947 says
about
• a) Manufacturing Process
• b) Factory
• c) Worker
• d) None of these
Manufacturing Process
• Mention the types of Leave facilities available to a worker
under the Factories Act 1947 ?
• Annual Leave with wages as per Factories Act
• Casual leave as per Standing orders
• National & Festival Holiday
• Maternity leave
• All of them
All of them
• If the factory employs more than 1000workers, they
should appoint qualified------------- to carry out the
prescribed duties
• a) Safety Officer
• b) Welfare officer
• c) Security officer
Safety Officer
• For contravention of provisions of Factories Act or
Rules, the occupier shall liable for punishment up to
• a)2 years or fine up to Rs.1,00,000 or both

•
• b) 6 months or fine upto 10, 000 or both
• c) 3 three years or fine 10, 000 or both
2 years or fine up to Rs.1,00,000 or both

• In case of fatal accident occurred inside the factory , a
separate accident report shall be sent to the District
magistrate in Form No ---- within 12 hours
• a) Form No:16
• b) Form No:18 A
• c) Form No :18 B
• d) Form No:18
Form No:18
• An Accident Report Shall Be Confirmed By The Manager
By Sending A Separate Report In Form No. ____ With
Details Of Number Of Person Killed Or Injured To The
Inspector Of Factory Within ______ Hr Of The Accident.
• a) Form No:16, 12
• b) Form No:18 A, 24
• c) Form No :18 B, 24
• d) Form No:18, 24
Form No:18,24
• The particulars of the accident should be entered in
separate registers kept as-Accident Book- Form No for
ESI office .
• a)Form No 14
• b)Form No 15
• c)From No 21
• d)From No 20
Form No:15
• Annual Return Under Factory Act Shall Be
Submitted On Or Before ______
• a) before 31st January of the following year
• b) before 31st February of the following year
• c) before 31st March of the following year
• d) before 31st April of the following year
before 31st January of the following year

• Half Yearly Return Under Factory Act Shall Be
Submitted On Or Before _____
• a) before 31st July of the year
• b) before 31st June of the year
• c) before 31st March of the year
• d) before 31st December of the year
before 31st July of the year

• Manager of every factory should sent aannual report to the
Inspectorate of factories containing details like numbers of
workers employed , leave with wages, safety officers ,ambulance
room, canteen, shelter, accidents in formno --- on or before 31 st
January
• a) Form No : 22
• b) Form No: 21
• c) Form No: 25 A
• d) Form No: 25 B
Form No : 22
• If any employee found violating the section 20
of Factories Act 1947 shall be fine up to
•
• a)Rs. 10
• b) Rs. 5
• c) Rs. 15
• d) Rs.20
Rs. 5
• Section 41- G of the Factories Act 1948 says
about
• a) Fencing of machineries
• b) Facing of machineries
• c) Work on near machinery in motion
• d) Workers participation in safety mgt.
Workers participation in safety mgt

• Who is responsible for payment to a person
employed by him in a Factory under the Payment of
wages Act 1936
• a) Accounts Manager
• b) HR manager
• c) Manager
• d) Owner
Manager of a factory nominated under the

section 7 (f) of Factories Act
• The applicant / occupier who propose to start
the factory should submit the
• a)Form No- 1
• b)Form No- 2
• c) Form No- 2A
• d) Form No.1A
Form No - 2
• The license fee can be paid to get a license for a
factory maximum upto
•
• a).One Year only
• b).Two Years only
• c).Three Years only
• d)Five years only.
Five years only

• The occupier has to submit the document on or
before------- of every year to renewal of a license
for a factory.
• a) 31st October of every year.
• b) 31st November of every year.
• c) 31st September of every year.
• d) 31st December of every year.
31st October of every year.

• The renewal application for a license submitted after
December 31st of the every year shall paid the fine
amount.
• a) 10 % of the license fee
• b) 20% of the license fee
• c) 30 % of the license fee
• d) none of these.
20% of the license fee

• The Section 20 of the Factories act discusses
about
• a)Drinking Water
• b)Lighting
• c)Spittoons
•
• d) Latrines and Urinals
Spittoons
• The employment of young person on dangerous
machines shall be prohibited under the section --------
of Factories Act.1947.
• a) Section 21
•
• b) Section 22
•
• c) Section 23
•
• d) Section 24
Section 23
• A suitable goggles shall be provided for the protection
of persons employed in anyfactory is discussed inn
the section ----
• a) Section-36
• b) Section-39
• c) Section-40
• d) Section -35
Section 35
• A half yearly return for every half of every calendar year,
in duplicate in Form -------- so as toreach the inspector of
factories on or before ------------- of the year
• a) Form NO 20, 31st July
• b) Form No 21, 31st July
• c) Form No 25, 31st July
• d) Form No 24, 31st June
Form No 21, 31st July

• Section-------- of the Factories Act describes
about the rights of the workers
• a) 111
• b) 111 A
• c) 110
• d) 112
111A
• The occupier shall be punishable with imprisonment
extend to -------- months or fine ---------or both for
using false certificate of fitness.
• a) two months, 1000 rupees

•
• b) one year, 2000 rupees
•
• c) six months, 1000 rupees
•
• d) one month, 5000 rupees
two months, 1000 rupees

• Every worker shall have the right to obtain
information relating to workers’ health and
safety work at work.
• True / False
True
• The occupier fails to take remedial actions
against apprehension of imminent danger to
lives orhealth of the workers (41H), shall liable
for punishment which may extend to an
imprisonment
• a) 5 Years , Rs25,000
• b) 2 Years, Rs.1, 00,000
• c) 7 Years, Rs, 2,00,000
• d) 10 Years, Rs. 1, 00,000
7 Years, Rs, 2,00,000

• In case of employee covered under the ESI,
the accident report shall be sent in Form No -
-------- to Local office of the ESI to which the
company attached
• a) Form No. 18
• b) Form No. 18 A
• c) Form No. 25
• d) From No.16
Form No. 16
• Under the Factories Act 1948, a register of
Adult workers shall be maintained in Form
No-----
• a) From No.25
• b) Form No. 25 A
• c) Form No.12
• d) Form No. 14
Form No. 12
• Under the Factories Act 1948, a register of
Muster roll shall be maintained in Form No. --
--------
• a) Form No.25 B
• b) Form No.15
• c) Form No. 25A
• d) Form No. 25
Form No. 25
• Under the Factories Act 1948, an inspection
book shall be maintained for exemptions
granted or availed in Form No.—
• a) Form No.29
• b) From No.27
• c) From No.28
• d) Form No. 26
Form No. 28
• Under the Chapter II of the Tamil Nadu Shops
and Establishments Act, 1947 ,the Government
of Tamil Nadu exempted the Software Industries
in the State from the rule on opening and
closing hours.
• True / False
True
• Where ------------or more workers are
employed in a factory, then there shall be a
Safety Committee in the factory.
• a) 100 or more workers
• b) 150 or more workers
• c) 200 or more workers
• d) 250 or more workers
250 or more workers

• Section 41 G of the Factories Discuss about
the Workers Participation in Management .
• a) Section 40
• B) Section 41 H
• c) Section 41 G
• d) Section 41 F
Section 41 G
• Section 19 of Factories Act discusses about
the -------------
• a) Drinking Water
• B) Lighting
• c) Latrines and Urinals
• d) Artificial Humidification
Latrines and Urinals

• Section ----- of the Factories Act discusses
about the nomination of the manager of a
factory.
• a) Section 7 ( e )
• b) Section 7 ( f)
• c) Section 7 ( g )
• d) Section 7 ( d)
Section 7 ( f)
• A general manager of a company can be
appointed as a occupier of a company.
• True / False
False
• Section ----------- of the Factories Act says
about the definition for a factory.
• a) Section 2(k)
• b) Section 2 (l)
• c) Section 2( m)
• d) Section 2 ( n)
Section 2( m)
• The Factories employing more than 1000
workers are required to submit their plan for
approval to
• a)Deputy Chief Inspector of Factories
• b)Joint Chief Inspector of Factories
• c) Chief Inspector of Factories
• d) Additional Chief Inspector of Factories.
Chief Inspector of Factories

• The notice of change of manager shall be
intimated in Form No. -------to the inspector
of factories under the Factories Act.
• a) Form -7
• b) Form – 3 A.
• c) Form No. 8
• d) From No. 3
Form – 3 A.
• A particulars of white washing shall be
maintained in form no. ----------- under the
factories act.
• a) Form No-7
• b) Form No. 3
• c) From No. 7 A
• d) From No. 11
Form – 7.
• A weekly holiday was introduced in the
Factories for the first time in the year-------.
• a) 1948
• b) 1931
• c) 1926
• d) 1923
1923
• The expression of “Time card” in Form No.25.
shall be substituted as “Service card” by an
amendment in the Factories Act from the
year.
• a) 1984
• b) 2005
• c) 2004
• d) 1981
2005
• Under the Section 41.A. of the Factories Act ,
the Site Appraisal Committee shall be
constituted once in ---------- year under the
chairmanship of Chief Inspector of Factories.
• a) Once in 5 Year
• b) Once in 2 Year
• c) Once in 3 Year
• d) Once in a Year.
Once in 5 Year
• 40 B. of the Factories Act discusses about the
appointment of --------------
• a) Welfare Officer
• b) Manager
• c) Safety Officer
Safety Officer
• The occupier shall liable for punishment
imprisonment for term of ------------ or fine ----
--------or both for failure to comply with the
provisions of Factories Act.
• a) 2 years, fine Rs. One Lakh.
• b) One Year, fine Rs, 10,000
• c) Six months, fine Rs. 50,000
• d) One year, fine 1, 00,000
2 years, fine Rs. One Lakh.

• The workers shall be provided with minimum
-------- litres of water for every day under the
Factories Act.
• a) 2 litres
• b) 4.5 litres
• c) 3 litres
• d) 5 litres.
4.5 Litres
• The Factories employees ---------- or more
workers the rest room and lunch room shall
be provided under the Act.
• a) 100 Workers
• b) 150 Workers
• c) 200 Workers
• d) 250 Workers
150 Workers
• To close down a factory, the occupier has to
give ------- days notice to the authorities.
• a) 30 Days
• b) 60 Days
• c) 90 Days
• d) 14 Days
60 Days
• If an employee alleges that he was working
for the employer and the employer denies it,
who has to prove this fact?
• a) Employer
• b)Employee
• c) Authority
• d) Employer and Authority.
Employee
• The Notice of period of work for adult
workers under the Factories Act shall be
displace in Form ___
• a) Form No -7
• b) Form No-11
• c) Form No. 12
• d) Form No. 14.
Form No. 14.

• The annual return under the Factories Act
shall be submitted to Inspector of Factories
on or before -----------------------------
• a) 31st January
• b) 31st December
• c) 30th April
• d) 31st March
31st January
• The license fee for the factory employs 500
workers using 250 Horse Power is Rs -------
• a) Rs.12,000
• b) Rs.18,000
• c)Rs. 24,000
• d) Rs.30,000
Rs. 24,000
• The application for amendment of a license
to a factory shall be submitted to ---------------
----
• a) Deputy Chief Inspector of factories
• b) Joint Chief Inspector of factories
• c) Additional Chief Inspector of Factories
• d) Chief Inspector of Factories
Deputy Chief Inspector of factories

• No order is communicated to the applicant
within -------------months from the date on
which it is so sent the permission applied for
in the application shall be deemed to have
been granted Under the Factories Act.
• a) one month
• b) Two months
• c) Three months
• d) Four months
Three months
• Where males are employed , there shall be at
least one latrine seat for every -------- male
workers shall be provided.
• a)20 workers
• b) 50 Workers
• c) 30 Workers
• d) 100 Workers
20 workers
• The walls, ceilings and partitions of every
latrine and urinal shall be white washed or
colour washed at least once in every period
of -------- months
• a) 6 months
• b) 4 months
• c) 12 months
• d) 14 months
4 months
• The occupier of every factory employing ------
-- or more workers shall plant and maintain
trees within the premises of the factory.
• a) 500 workers
• b) 250 Workers
• c) 200 Workers
• d) 100 Workers
100 Workers
• The examination of eye sight of certain
workers under the factories Act shall be done
at least once in every ----- months
• a) 6 months
• b) 12 months
• c) 18 months
• d) 24 months
24 months
• The number of elected workers in the
canteen managing committee shall not be
more than ------ or less than ----------
• a) more than 5 or less than 2
• b) more than 20 or less than 10
• c) more than 15 or less than 10
• d) more than 10 or less than 5
more than 5 or less than 2

• The term of office of the canteen committee
is ------------------ years
• a) one year
• b) two years
• c) three years
• d) Four years
two years
• In a factory where the number of married
women or widows employed was less than -------
-or where the factory works for less than --------
days or where number of children kept in
the crèche was less than -------- in the previous
year , the chief Inspector factories may grant
exemption from the provision of crèche.
• a) 15, 180 days, 5
• b) 20, 240 days, 10,
• c) 30, 240 days , 10,
15, 180 days, 5

• A register of young person workers shall be
maintained in Form No.--------------------
• a) Form No.12
• b) Form No. 13
• c) Form No.14
• d) Form No. 15
Form No.14
• Time allotted for the purpose of washing
is ---------- minutes before the end of days
work .
• a) 5 Minutes
• b) 10 minutes
• c) 15 Minutes
• d) 20 minutes
10 minutes
• The Tamil Nadu safety officers (duties ,
qualification and conditions of service )rules
was enacted in the year .
• a) 2002
• b) 2003
• c) 2004
• d) 2005
2005
• By an Amendment Act of 1987 in Factories
Act 1947, who is to be appointed as an
occupier.
• a) Manager
• b) General Manager
• c) Human Resource Manager
• d) Board of Directors
Board of Directors
• If any time number of worker falls below 500
in a factory, the welfare officer ceases to
have a locus standing.
• True / False
False
• Which of the following is a major contribution
to workplace stress?
• a) Low pay
• b) Poor working conditions
• c) Reasonable work pressures
• d) Social isolation
Social Isolation
• Portfolio working is working which is:
• a) Not attached to a single employer and
contract of employment
• b) An individual who works at home for a
single employer
• c) A person who demonstrates his/her work in
a portfolio
• d) A person who chooses more than one
career
Not attached to a single employer and contract

of employment
• What did the Hawthorne experiments
discover?
• a) That people need to belong to a 'social
group'
• b) That people need heat and good lighting to
work well
• c) Money is a motivator
• d) It makes no difference how you treat
people at work in relation to their behaviour
That people need to belong to a 'social group'

• What is the meaning of 'toxicity'? Is it:
• a) Emotional pain
• b) Physical pain
• c) Psychological pain
• d) A state of well being
Emotional pain
• Post modernist ideas have impacted on our
understanding of the role of rationality in
workplaces by recognizing:
• a) One type of rationality prevails
• b) More than one type of rationality prevails in
work organizations
• c) That managements type of rationality is the
only true one to exist at work
• d) Employees must learn to respect
managements version of rationality at work
More than one type of rationality prevails in

work organizations
• According to Cloke and Goldsmith the biggest
change to the history of management is:
• a) Decline in hierarchy and bureaucracy
• b) The continuation of autocratic
management
• c) Workers directives
• d) Team working
Decline in hierarchy and bureaucracy

• A philosophy of management...
• a) Doesn't exist
• b) Is the assumptions managers make about
people
• c) Is more than a single ingredient
• d) Is a style of management
Is more than a single ingredient

• Treating employees as people or as an
economic resource is:
• a) A choice all managers have to make
• b) Mutually exclusive
• c) A question of balance which will be affected
by the context of each organization
• d) A matter of luck
A question of balance which will be affected by

the context of each organization
• The creation of personnel as a specialist function
dealing with people issues from the latter part of
the twentieth century has been responsible in
part for:
• a) Disenfranchising line managers in dealing with
key aspects of people management.
• b) Reducing the stress and work load of line
managers.
• c) Creating greater workplace efficiency.
• d) Bureaucratising the people function in
workplaces.
Disenfranchising line managers in dealing with

key aspects of people management.
• The origins of Personnel Management was an
outcome of:
• a) Welfare workers
• b) Legislation relating to factory reform
• c) The work of nineteenth century social
reformers and Quaker employers
• d) The government
The work of nineteenth century social reformers

and Quaker employer
• Scientific management contributed to the
development of a more rational approach to
management by developing which
characteristics?
• a) The planning and organization of work based
on scientific principles such as time and motion
studies
• b) Better working conditions
• c) Standardized pay
• d) The encouragement of trade unions
The planning and organization of work based on
scientific principles such as time and motion
studies
• One final development influencing the
practice of Personnel Management in the
1960s was:
• a) The effect of recession
• b) Powerful trade unions
• c) Globalization
• d) Growing importance of training
Growing importance of training

• A distinction can be made between 'hard' and
'soft' types of HRM. Soft HRM can be
characterized by:
• a) Seeing people as organizational assets
• b) A quantitative approach to HRM
• c) A mutual commitment of employees and
employers to the goals of the organization
• d) Being driven by costs
A mutual commitment of employees and

employers to the goals of the organization
• The resource based view of the firm is one
that believes the key human resources are:
• a) Those employees not members of trade
unions
• b) Knowledge workers
• c) Used to create new capabilities that help
achieve organizational success
• d) Those willing to work overtime
Used to create new capabilities that help

achieve organizational success
• SHRM is also about strategic choice, which refers
to:
• a) The processes and decisions that shape the
organization's philosophy towards its employees.
• b) Managerial prerogative in decision making.
• c) Negotiating with trade unions or employee
associations over the direction of the
organization.
• d) Giving employees their 'say' in organizational
concerns
The processes and decisions that shape the
organization's philosophy towards its
employees.
• o HR activities have an effect on employee and
managerial behaviour?
• a) Yes, but these effects can be negative as well
as positive.
• b) HR has limited impact on either employee
behaviour or managerial.
• c) HR impacts on employee behaviour but not on
managerial.
• d) No, it is managerial behaviour which impacts
on HR.
Yes, but these effects can be negative as well as

positive.
• The view that employees are critical to
organizational success is now generally accepted.
Does this mean that:
• a) All employees have the same value or potential
for the organization.
• b) It reflects the unprecedented success of HR
practitioners to deliver.
• c) Good management of people will prevail.
• d) Managing the human resource has become
even more important because it is the one
resource most difficult to replicate.
Managing the human resource has become even
more important because it is the one resource
most difficult to replicate.
• The most common activities performed by HR,
which are often outsourced, are:
• a) Recruitment and selection
• b) Occupational health, payroll, pensions and
training
• c) Human resource planning
• d) Assessment centres
Occupational health, payroll, pensions and

training
• The continuing search by HR for an identity and
status represents, for some, an enduring paradox
that, until resolved or explained will limit HR's
contribution to organizational objectives. A
paradox can be understood as:
• a) A structural feature of all organizations
• b) An inherently human condition
• c) Something which seems difficult to understand
and explain
• d) A feature of the way groups function
Something which seems difficult to understand

and explain
• Moony (2001) argues that the cost of carrying
out HR activities is often found to be inversely
related to their value. This occurs when:
• a) There is a lack of strategic control and
accountability over what HR does
• b) No one in HR is controlling the budget
• c) What HR does isn't really that important
• d) HR is confused about its costs and the value
of the benefits its activities generate
There is a lack of strategic control and

accountability over what HR does
• The strategic importance of an organization's people to
their long term success has become a central tenet of
what has become known as SHRM. This importance is
based on:
• a) They are flexible and will respond positively to what
management wants
• b) The use of rewards to elicit higher levels of
performance
• c) The unique and non replicable nature of human
capabilities
• d) They can be easily controlled by the organization's
structure and culture
The unique and non replicable nature of human

capabilities
• Being strategic, from the perspective of an HR
department, is often the way to be taken
seriously and offered a 'seat at the top table.' But
what does being strategic really mean?
• a) Talking the language of strategy
• b) Seeing everything as strategically important
• c) Being aware of and implementing the latest
'solutions' and leading edge thinking
• d) Having an impact on the things that are most
important to the organization's corporate goals
and objectives
Having an impact on the things that are most
important to the organization's corporate goals
and objectives
• According to Michael Porter, it is important to
distinguish between operational effectiveness and
strategic positioning. The former means performing
similar activities better than competitors, whilst the
latter involves:
• a) Investing more in high value activities
• b) Performing different activities from competitor
organizations or performing similar activities in
different ways
• c) Engaging in 'best practice' HR
• d) HR having a clear route map of activities and
outcomes
Performing different activities from competitor

organizations or performing similar activities in
different ways
• Hammond (2005) offers a stinging critique of HR based
on what he claims is 20 years of 'hopeful rhetoric about
becoming 'strategic partners.'' He argues that HR
people are for the most part are neither strategic nor
leaders. This is because:
• a) They are consumed by their own importance and
rhetoric and are convinced that managers can't see
what an important job they are doing
• b) They lack leadership skills
• c) They don't know what being a strategic partner
means
• d) Many HR people have only ever worked in HR
hey are consumed by their own importance and

rhetoric and are convinced that managers can't
see what an important job they are doing
• Minzberg is a major contributor to the literature
on strategy and strategic management and is
someone who recognizes that the word strategy
can mean different things to different people.
Which of the following conceptualizations is not
associated with his work?
• a) Strategy as a plan
• b) Strategy as a pattern of behaviour
• c) Strategy as agreement on the 'best way' to
operate
• d) Strategy as a position
Strategy as agreement on the 'best way' to

operate
• Hamel and Prahalad (1990, 1993, 1994) present an analysis
of strategy that goes beyond the more conventional
concepts of fit, integration and the effective allocation of
resources. They talk about the importance of organizations
'leveraging' its resources. In the context of human
resources, leveraging means:
• a) Increasing the value they add and their productivity by
finding new and more effective ways of using people
• b) Putting more pressure on people to work harder
• c) Finding out why people are not productive and make it
easier for them to do their jobs
• d) Getting managers to engage more with their
subordinates
Increasing the value they add and their

productivity by finding new and more effective
ways of using people
• Gary Hamel (2009) is another strategy 'guru' who has
influenced the thinking and practice of numerous
executives. His emphasis in particular on organizations
taking a dynamic and forward looking approach to the way
they function suggests that simply doing the same things
better is not necessarily the way forward. He suggests that
organizations in looking into the future need to be:
• a) More aware of the importance and power of rewards
• b) More diverse and promote disadvantaged groups into
managerial positions
• c) Train their managers to be more effective leaders
• d) More adaptable, innovative and engaging places to work
More adaptable, innovative and engaging

places to work
• The importance of integration to organizations has long
been a feature of the literature on strategy. As far as HR is
concerned the search for vertical and horizontal integration
is a key driver in the attempt to become 'more strategic'.
Horizontal integration means:
• a) That different activities and initiatives need to mutually
supportive and designed in a holistic way
• b) That managers and employees need to work more
closely together
• c) That leadership and management need to be brought
closer together
• d) That different management functions need to stop
working in 'silos'
That different activities and initiatives need to

mutually supportive and designed in a holistic
way
• Recruitment and selection must be effective
to ensure it:
• a) Offsets high labour turnover
• b) Delivers the highest calibre of individuals at
optimum most
• c) To have a surplus in case of sickness and
absence
• d) Encourages new blood into the organization
Delivers the highest calibre of individuals at

optimum most
• Can the assessment and selection of
applicants be carried out in such a way that
the 'best' or 'right' person will always be
identified?
• a) Yes
• b) No
• c) If enough money is invested in the process
• d) If managers use their intuition or 'gut
reaction' in making recruitment decisions
No
• The solution to many so-called 'people problems'
is often associated with improving the
effectiveness of the recruitment process by:
• a) Having a robust HR department to carry out
the process
• b) Outsourcing the HR department
• c) Careful selection of the right people for the job
• d) Devolving to line managers
Careful selection of the right people for the job

• he science and engineering sectors reflect
significant under representation of which
group of employees?
• a) Highly skilled operators
• b) Young people
• c) Over 50s
• d) Women
Women
• The concept of stagnation in the context of
recruitment means:
• a) Lack of appropriate selection criteria.
• b) HR staff having very limited experience
outside the HR function.
• c) Over-reliance on the internal labour market
to fill new positions.
• d) Lack of integration of R&S into the wider H
function.
Over-reliance on the internal labour market to

fill new positions.
• Are the best and most productive employees
likely to be:
• a) The least costly in terms of recruitment and
employment costs.
• b) A matter of 'pot luck' in terms of
recruitment decisions.
• c) The most costly to employ.
• d) Have no bearing on recruitment and
selection costs.
The most costly to employ.

• In the CIPD Recruitment, Retention, and
Turnover survey (2009) the estimated costs of
recruitment for a single employee was:
• a) £4,000
• b) £2,000
• c) £8,000
• d) £3,000
£4,000
• Too great a reliance on internal recruitment
can result in:
• a) Reduced job performance
• b) High labour turnover
• c) Internal conflict
• d) Poor group dynamics
Reduced job performance

• What strategies deployed by HR for attracting
potential candidates to apply for vacancies
might be seen to result in indirect
discrimination?
• a) Advert in local press
• b) Word of mouth
• c) Now recruiting banners/notices
• d) Agency or job centre
Word of mouth
• According to O'Leary et al (2002) the most
important property of the assessment
instruments used to measure or assess applicants
against set criteria is their ability to predict what?
• a) Whether a person will be a good team player
• b) Length of service
• c) Future job performance
• d) Time it will take to train the person
Future job performance

• The employment contract provides a set of
rights, responsibilities and obligations that
structure the behaviour of whom?
• a) Both parties
• b) The employee
• c) The employer
• d) Trade unions
Both parties
• What did the Whitely Councils establish? Was
it:
• a) Tripartite employee relations
• b) Collective bargaining framework
• c) Trade unions
• d) Employer associations
Collective bargaining framework

• Substantive rules are those which determine:
• a) Rules governing redundancy
• b) Rules governing discipline and grievance
• c) Trade union recognition
• d) Rates of pay and how levels are determined
Rates of pay and how levels are determined

• Are employers who believe in a unitary
perspective on employment relations likely to:
• a) Encourage trade unions
• b) Exhibit a degree of hostility to unions
• c) Support the used of Collective Bargaining
• d) None committal either way
Exhibit a degree of hostility to unions

• What % of membership does a trade union
have to demonstrate amongst the group it is
wishing to represent before it can apply to the
Central Arbitration Committee (CAC)?
• a) 10%
• b) 40%
• c) 20%
• d) 5%
10%
• If a local collective agreement on pay and
conditions is in place, who benefits?
• a) Only those employees who are members of
the trade union.
• b) All employees regardless of union
membership.
• c) All employees in that industry nationwide.
• d) All employees regardless of union membership
who are in the grade of work covered by the
agreement.
All employees regardless of union membership
who are in the grade of work covered by the
agreement.
• Apart from pay what is the second most
common reason for employees to join a trade
union?
• a) Group solidarity
• b) Friendship groups
• c) Political reasons
• d) Wide range of personal benefits
Wide range of personal benefits

• In organizing industrial action a Union is
encouraging its members to break their
contractual obligation to attend work. Is this
action:
• a) Protected by union immunity
• b) Unlawful
• c) Referred to as a 'wild cat strike'
• d) Such that employers can sue the union for
loss of earnings
Protected by union immunity

• What are the types of industrial action a union
is most likely to engage in?
• a) Unofficial action
• b) Strike action
• c) Action short of a strike
• d) Absence
Action short of a strike

• The psychological contract refers to the
obligations that an employer and an employee
perceive to exist between each other as part of
the employment relationship. As such it will
include:
• a) The loyalty and trust of employees
• b) Pay and working conditions
• c) Managers pay only 'lip service' to consultation
• d) Managers reneges on commitments to
employees
The loyalty and trust of employees

• How does the concept of indulgency help us
understand some of the complexities of employee rule
breaking?
• a) Where managers condone or ignore behaviour that
breaches formal rules they can give such behaviour a
degree of legitimacy which is limited to that informal
context.
• b) It suggests that some managers are soft.
• c) It means that managers don't know what is going on
and are not interested in finding out.
• d) It means that employees know how to subvert
formal rules.
Where managers condone or ignore behaviour that breaches

formal rules they can give such behaviour a degree of legitimacy
which is limited to that informal context.
• The purpose and function of discipline in
contemporary organizations seems at odds
with developments in contemporary
management thinking with its emphasis on:
• a) Tight control
• b) A disciplined workforce
• c) Commitment
• d) Sanctions and punishments
Commitment
• Why is 'procedural justice' important in the
context of the management of misconduct?
• a) It reflects on the integrity of HR
professionals.
• b) To ensure that individuals have a sense that
they have been treated fairly.
• c) It reflects on the values and attitudes of top
management.
• d) To protect line managers.
To ensure that individuals have a sense that they

have been treated fairly.
• What does discipline mean in the context of
the workplace?
• a) Enforcing compliance and order
• b) A system of rules designed to improve and
correct behaviour through teaching or training
• c) Punishment
• d) Exercising control
A system of rules designed to improve and

correct behaviour through teaching or training
• Why can altruism as an approach to discipline
be regarded as an essential element?
• a) It is an essential requirement for survival
• b) To maintain good employee relations
• c) To demonstrate who's boss
• d) To re-establish a welfare approach to HR
It is an essential requirement for survival

• What might be the reason for why HR are not
often informed of incidents that could result in a
disciplinary action being taken?
• a) Those involved often agree to contain the
incident.
• b) Those involved would be concerned about
reprisals.
• c) Due to lenient managers.
• d) It would impact on the relationships between
subordinates and superiors.
Those involved often agree to contain the

incident.
• Which organization provides established
guidelines for disciplinary procedures?
• a) TUC
• b) ACAS
• c) CIPD
• d) Employers
ACAS
• What is the meaning of the term 'gross
misconduct' in the context of a company's
disciplinary procedures?
• a) Breaches of standards and rules that are
serious and unacceptable in any
circumstances
• b) Stealing company property
• c) Being repeatedly late for work
• d) Absence without leave
Breaches of standards and rules that are serious

and unacceptable in any circumstances
• Most formal grievances raised in the
workplace are related to -
• a) Low pay
• b) Harrassment and bullying by managers
• c) Dislike of individual managers
• d) Employees attempting to resist being
managed
Harrassment and bullying by managers

• Is it important to have two managers
responsible for leading a disciplinary
investigation because:
• a) Provides support for each other when
dealing with stressful situations
• b) It ensures a degree of impartiality
• c) It a requirement by tribunals
• d) Provides cover in the event of absence
through ill health
It ensures a degree of impartiality

• Which aspect of employment is fairness in the
management of HR linked to?
• a) Just recruitment and selection
• b) Grievance and discipline
• c) Reward management
• d) All aspects of HR
All aspects of HR
• What expresses the commitment
management have made to embrace the
concepts of equality and diversity?
• a) Investors in people
• b) Strategic HRM
• c) An 'equal opportunity employer'
• d) Diversity management
An 'equal opportunity employer'

• An equal opportunities approach to fairness at
work is essentially about:
• a) Taking a business perspective
• b) Taking a more strategic approach
• c) Having a diverse workforce
• d) Compliance and maintaining minimum
standards
Compliance and maintaining minimum

standards
• A stereotype is a fixed idea or misconception
about an individual or group of people. The basis
of stereotyping is:
• a) Based on objective and rational considerations
• b) Seeing people as a group with similar
characteristics rather than recognising differences
between people
• c) Gut reaction
• d) Formed from personal experience of different
groups of people
Seeing people as a group with similar
characteristics rather than recognising
differences between people
• The first elements in the legal framework for
equal opportunities legislation were
introduced in:
• a) The 1940s
• b) The 1970s
• c) The 1920s
• d) 2000
The 1970s
• Circumstances in which discrimination can be
justified include:
• a) Where the employer prefers to employ
someone of a specific sex.
• b) Where the employer believes the tasks are
more suitable for someone of a specific sex.
• c) Where a person is employed to provide
authenticity such as employing a black person to
play a black role in a play.
• d) Where there has been a tradition of employing
a person of one sex as opposed to the other sex.
Where a person is employed to provide
authenticity such as employing a black person to
play a black role in a play.
• Which of the following is an unreasonable
adjustment in light of a person's disability:
• a) Alterations to a persons working conditions
• b) Acquiring or modifying equipment
• c) Assigning a different place of work
• d) Altering hours of work or duties
• e) Paying them more
Paying them more

• Approximately what % of the UK working
population is classified as disabled?
• a) One in 5 people of working age
• b) 1 in 10 people of working age
• c) 1 in 20 people of working age
• d) 1 in 30 people of working age
One in 5 people of working age

• The CIPD survey of 2005 found that the
impact of poor work-life balance affecting
performance was perceived by what % of
employees?
• a) 60%
• b) 40%
• c) 20%
• d) 5%
60%
• Which of the following is the main reason for
why harassment and bullying need to be taken
seriously at work?
• a) It is costly for the employer.
• b) It can lead to impairment of an employee's
physical and/or mental health.
• c) It impacts on social relations at work.
• d) It could lead to dismissal of the perpetrator.
It can lead to impairment of an employee's

physical and/or mental health.
• IHRM is an area of academic study which
focuses on:
• a) Comparative research
• b) The movement of individuals across
national boundaries
• c) The exchange of ideas and practices
• d) The policies and practices of MNC's
The policies and practices of MNC's

• HR challenges which might be faced by
internal companies include:
• a) The needs for a diverse work-force.
• b) The relative underdevelopment of HR
functions.
• c) Knowledge of national employment law.
• d) Knowledge of cultural norms and values.
The relative underdevelopment of HR functions.

• A global economy means:
• a) Greater convergence of national economic
and social identities
• b) Greater divergence
• c) Unrestricted movement of people across
national boundaries
• d) A global culture
Greater convergence of national economic and

social identities
• Often the reason why expatriate assignments
fail and why some immigrants and migrant
workers in the UK find difficulty in assimilating
into the British way of life is because of:
• a) Cultural differences
• b) Homesickness
• c) Climate
• d) Reduction in remuneration in pay and
conditions
Cultural differences
• Hofstede's five variables: power distance;
individualism, masculinity /femininity;
uncertainty avoidance and long term versus
short term orientation; were terms used to
describe:
• a) Family traits
• b) HR strategy
• c) National differences
• d) globalization
National differences
• Cultural shock which is often the outcome of the
negative experience of moving from a familiar
culture to one that is unfamiliar is important to
understand in the context of internationalization
because:
• a) It can effect soldiers returning form was zones.
• b) It can effect students on 'gap year'
experiences.
• c) It can impact on individuals taking overseas
assignments.
• d) Friends and families reunited.
It can impact on individuals taking overseas

assignments.
• Key to successful management of HR
processes is the ability to?
• a) Travel abroad
• b) Recruit local managers
• c) Identify key skills and competencies
required for working overseas
• d) Having appropriate training systems
Identify key skills and competencies required for

working overseas
• Paul Sparrow (2006) in work commissioned by
the CIPD found:
• a) That certain people have a natural attribute for
cultural awareness.
• b) That the majority of expatriate skills are learnt
through experience.
• c) That it doesn't matter who you are as its all
down to training.
• d) Successful overseas assignment are more a
matter of luck than judgement.
Successful overseas assignment are more a

matter of luck than judgement.
• Research into the developing HR functions in
Asian businesses suggest that they:
• a) Employ better qualified people than UK
companies.
• b) Pay more to their HR professionals.
• c) Have an easier job because the legal
constraints they work under are less restrictive.
• d) They display a different HR mindset; one which
is more creative, business focused and dynamic.
They display a different HR mindset; one which

is more creative, business focused and dynamic.
• n the end of chapter case study, doing
business with people from different cultural
backgrounds depends a great deal on -
• a) Being prepared to pay commission
• b) Earning their trust and acceptance by
building strong relationships based on mutual
respect
• c) Learning to behave as they do
• d) Learning their language
Earning their trust and acceptance by building

strong relationships based on mutual respect
• What was the traditional term used for HRP
and the one often associated with personnel
management?
• a) Gap analysis
• b) Human resource Planning
• c) Employee planning
• d) Manpower planning
Manpower planning
• Human resource planning (HRP) is not simply
about meeting the demand for labour but also
involves:
• a) Redeploying staff
• b) Directing line managers
• c) Costs associated with employing any given
number of people
• d) Making redundancies
Costs associated with employing any given

number of people
• What % of payroll costs did Bob Cotton the
chief executive of the British hospitality
Association estimate as a result of the
increase in the statutory number of holidays
from 20 days to 28 days?
• a) 1.5%
• b) 2.5%
• c) 3.5%
• d) 5%
3.5%
• here is, however, a degree of choice in the way in
which job cuts and employment losses are
implemented, and making the right choice can
minimize the consequences of job losses, preserve the
reputation of the employer and maintain good
employee relations. Who would in the main be
responsible for making such decisions?
• a) Line managers
• b) Senior management
• c) HR specialists
• d) Personnel
HR specialists
• Why is it important to ensure that HR plans are
flexible?
• a) To accommodate changes to senior
management teams.
• b) To adapt to changing skills and qualifications.
• c) To accommodate the rapidly changing
environments in which most organizations
operate.
• d) To ensure a diverse labour force is maintained
at all times.
To accommodate the rapidly changing
environments in which most organizations
operate.
• The prevalent approach to planning an
organization's human resources in the 1970s and
1980s is seen, in retrospect, as having been
overly prescriptive and inflexible (bin Idris and
Eldridge, 1998). Why?
• a) Because it was overly quantitative in direction
• b) Because it was underdeveloped
• c) Because it wasn't necessary as the pace of
change was not so rapid
• d) Because it was not carried out by professionals
Because it was overly quantitative in direction

UGC NET
RELATION
Sample Paper 8
• What is the estimated cost to the UK
businesses of days lost due to sickness?
• a) £5.4 bn
• b) £7.4 bn
• c) £10.4bn
• d) £13.4bn
£13.4bn
• The Bradford absence index is useful because
it:
• a) Penalises those employees who are
absence for long periods of time
• b) Predicts those taking 'sickies'
• c) Calculated the actual costs of any given
level or individual pattern of absence
• d) Gives weightings to the frequency of
absence
Gives weightings to the frequency of absence

• 2004 absence surveys - average recorded days
absence per employee per year in public and
private sectors demonstrates that:
• a) Public sector employees take more absence
than those in the private sector.
• b) Public and private sector employees take
about the same number of days for absence.
• c) That there is no discernable patter.
• d) Public sector employees take less absence than
those in the private sector.
Public sector employees take more absence

than those in the private sector.
• Vitality' is a method of measuring:
• a) The balance of internal promotions versus
external recruitment or loss of employees.
• b) Training and development costs.
• c) Retention of skilled staff.
• d) Levels of apprenticeships.
he balance of internal promotions versus

external recruitment or loss of employees.
• What factor can have a lasting impairment on
a person's motivation to learn?
• a) Learning for work
• b) Learning which is challenging
• c) Learning which is instrumental
• d) A negative experience of learning in
childhood
A negative experience of learning in childhood

• riticisms of training are based on the
understanding that:
• a) Its an outmoded method of providing
learning
• b) Its linked with short-term goals
• c) Disliked by trade unions
• d) The nature of work has changed and
therefore its unsuitable for the type of
employees engaged
The nature of work has changed and therefore
its unsuitable for the type of employees
engaged
• Research carried out by the Adult Learning
Inspectorate and published in its 2004-05
report (Scott, 2005) provides evidence of:
• a) More senior management interest in
training
• b) New thinking and practice in training
• c) Widespread improvements in training
• d) More self awareness and development
amongst employees
Widespread improvements in training

• Training is more likely to be seen as a cost by
those organisations employing what type of
worker?
• a) Those employed in Japanese companies
• b) Those working in the motor industries
• c) Industries employing low skilled workers
• d) Those employing higher skilled employees
Industries employing low skilled workers

• Structured learning refers to learning that is:
• a) Learning that is imposed from above
• b) Planned and associated with specific
outcomes
• c) Is theoretical in nature
• d) Is text book learning
Planned and associated with specific outcomes

• According to Masie e-learning is about:
• a) Computers and computing
• b) Technology-driven
• c) Electronic
• d) Experience
Experience
• he Kolb learning cycle refers to:
• a) The relationship between leaning and
training
• b) The use of e-learning
• c) The training cycle
• d) Insights into the way that people learn
Insights into the way that people learn

• Unplanned and unstructured (informal)
learning can be detrimental to employers
because:
• a) Will not be long lasting
• b) Will result in ineffective learning
• c) It can encouraged bad habits and negative
attitudes
• d) Is based on pragmatic learning only
It can encouraged bad habits and negative

attitudes
• Accelerated learning offers the participant:
• a) A sombre and serious experience
• b) A mechanised and standardized experience
• c) An alternative experience to traditional
approaches
• d) Externally controlled 'one size fits all'
experience
An alternative experience to traditional

approaches
• The three types of energy: cognitive, affective
and physical are associated with which type of
learning:
• a) Accelerated learning
• b) Reflective learning
• c) Traditional learning
• d) The learning triangle
Accelerated learning
• Performance management should be seen as
a process which is a:
• a) Once a year task
• b) Twice a year activity
• c) Ongoing process or cycle
• d) Is engaged in when the appraisals are
carried out
Ongoing process or cycle

• What will make some organizations more
successful, and therefore more likely to
survive and prosper, than others?
• a) Creating cultures and systems in which staff
can use their talents
• b) Creating management systems to ensure
high performance from everyone
• c) Creating superior organizations
• d) Only recruiting talented people
Creating management systems to ensure high

performance from everyone
• Many schemes that reward employees and
managers for something additional to their
normal level of performance fail. Why?
• a) The link between extra pay and
achievement is unclear
• b) They are detrimental to trade union
agreements
• c) PRP is controversial
• d) Everyone should receive the same
The link between extra pay and achievement is

unclear
• As little as 20% of all human performance problems is
attributable to individual employees; as much as 80%
of all such problems is attributable to the work
environments or systems in which employees work. An
example of such problems would be:
• a) Because people are often absent from work
• b) Because people at work don't perform
• c) Because low standards of performance are
legitimised
• d) Because of barriers created to reduce performance
Because of barriers created to reduce

performance
• The timescale for performance appraisals are
usually:
• a) One year
• b) Biannually
• c) 3 monthly
• d) At irregular intervals
One year
• A performance rating system is:
• a) A grade or score relating to overall
performance
• b) Details of the extent to which work
objectives were met
• c) Last years objectives
• d) Achievements during the year
A grade or score relating to overall performance

• Objective-based rating scales are:
• a) Subjectively determined
• b) Based on a points-based system
• c) Measures of performance against objectives
set
• d) Manager-allocated rating scales
Measures of performance against objectives set

• To be effective a points based rating systems
require:
• a) Close management control
• b) Comprehensive, reliable and consistent
information
• c) Objectivity in assessments
• d) 360% assessments
Comprehensive, reliable and consistent

information
• Key performance indicators are used in situations
when:
• a) When objectives can not easily be expressed in
terms of numbers.
• b) When targets might be expressed in terms of
delivery of a project.
• c) When objectives can be established which are
supportive or secondary to the organizations
central objectives.
• d) Objectives that can be quantified using
financial values.
When objectives can be established which are
supportive or secondary to the organizations
central objectives.
• 360degree; feedback involves appraisals by:
– a) Line manager's
– b) Subordinates'
– c) Superiors'
– d) Anyone who is directly in contact with the
appraisee
Anyone who is directly in contact with the

appraisee
• Reward management in the modern era
involves:
• a) Just dealing with issues of pay
• b) A total reward approach
• c) Dealing solely with trade unions
• d) Dealing solely with legal issues
A total reward approach

• How organizations should be rewarding their
employees is:
• a) On best practice
• b) Arbitrary
• c) Based on understanding behavioural
theories
• d) Based on Herzberg theory
Arbitrary
• Herzberg (2003) and Kohn (1993a) have
consistently taken the view that rewards such
as performance related pay fail to deliver
because:
• a) They are viewed as 'hygiene factors'
• b) They are motivators
• c) They are unfair
• d) They are unwelcome by trade unions
They are viewed as 'hygiene factors'
Feedback:
• Circumstances in which rewards normally
impact on behaviour are:
• a) When given a pay increase
• b) When the wage or salary is seriously out of
line with expectations
• c) Will not occur as pay is a 'hygiene factor'
• d) In all cases
When the wage or salary is seriously out of line

with expectations
• The individual most associated with first
recognizing the link between pay and
performance was:
• a) Mayo
• b) F.W Taylor
• c) Herzberg
• d) Kohn
F.W Taylor
• The incentivized level of effort and
performance can only be accessed through
additional financial payments that are
between:
• a) 5 - 10%
• b) 10 - 15%
• c) 25 - 33%
• d) 34 - 40%
25 - 33%
• A set wage or salary is an expression of what
type of reward?
• a) Rewards as rights
• b) Rewards as those which are contingent
• c) Rewards which are discretionary
• d) PRP
Rewards as rights
• aying people a monthly salary would not be
suitable in which circumstances?
• a) When employing people on a part-time
basis
• b) For those on regular fixed incomes
• c) When overtime varies and is a large part of
the remuneration
• d) When employing people on a temporary
basis
When overtime varies and is a large part of the

remuneration
• Annualized hours refers to:
• a) Those individuals who are seasonal workers
• b) Those employees working on shifts
• c) Full-time permanent employees
• d) Calculating working time on an annual
rather than a weekly basis
Calculating working time on an annual rather

than a weekly basis
• he defining feature of incremental payment
systems is:
• a) A fair days pay for a fair days work
• b) Cost of living
• c) Length of service
• d) The quantity of qualifications achieved
Length of service
• ________ are the resources that provide
utility value to all other resources.
• Men
• Material
• Money
• Machinery
Men
• The term procurement stands for
• recruitment and selection
• pay and benefits
• health and safety
recruitment and selection

• The characteristics of human resources are
________ in nature
• homogeneous
• Heterogeneous
• Ductility
heterogeneous
• Identify the managerial function out of the
following functions of HR managers.
• procurement
• Development
• Organizing
organizing
• Which of the following is an example of
operative function of HR managers?
• planning
• Organizing
• Procurement
• controlling
procurement
• The scope of human resource management
includes
• procurement
• Development
• Compensation
All of the above

• Human resource management is normally
________ in nature.
• proactive
• Reactive
• Combative
proactive
• The human resource management functions aim
at
• ensuring that the human resources possess
adequate capital, tool, equipment and material to
perform the job successfully
• helping the organization deal with its employees
in different stages of employment
• improving an organization’s creditworthiness
among financial institutions
helping the organization deal with its
employees in different stages of
employment
• Which of the following aptly describes the role of line managers
and staff advisors, namely HR professionals?
• Staff advisors focus more on developing HR programmes while line
managers are more involved in the implementation of those
programmes.
• Line managers are concerned more about developing HR
programmes whereas staff advisors are more involved in
implementing such programmes.
• Staff advisors are solely responsible for developing, implementing
and evaluating the HR programmes while line managers are not all
involved in any matters concerning HR.
• Line managers alone are responsible for developing, implementing
and evaluating the HR programmes while staff advisors are not all
involved in any matters concerning HR.
Staff advisors focus more on developing HR
programmes while line managers are more
involved in the implementation of those
programmes.
• Which one of the following becomes a
creative factor in production?
• a) Land
• b) Capital
• c) Consumers
• D)Human Resources
Human Resources
• People cast in the role of contributors to
production are called
• a) Capitalist
• b) Land owners
• c) Human Resources
• d) Consumers
Human Resources
• Wide range of abilities and attributes
possessed by people are called as
• a) Management
• b) Human Resources
• c) Entrepreneur
• d) Intreprenuer
Human Resources
• Deployment of which resource is difficult to
master
• a) Human
• b) Land
• c) Capital
• d) Natural
Human
• The focus of Human Resource
Management revolves around
• a) Machine
• b) Motivation
• c) Money
• D) Men
Men
• Quality- oriented organization primary
concern centers around
• a) Coordination
• b) Communication
• c) Human Resources
• d) Discipline
Human Resource
• Demand for human resources and
management is created by
• a) Expansion of industry
• b) Shortage of labor
• c) Abundance of capital
• d) Consumer preferences
Expansion of industry
• Management function arises as a result of
• a) Consumer preferences
• (b) Abundance of capital
• (c) Expansion of industry
• d) Shortage of labor
Shortage of labor
• Union function arises as a result of employees
• a) Problem of communication
• b) Longing for belonging
• c) Dissatisfaction
• d) Change in technology
Dissatisfaction
• Human Resource Management is primarily
concerned with
• a) Sales
• b) Dimensions of people
• (c) External environment
• d) Cost discipline
Dimensions of people
• Human Resource Management aims to
maximize employees as well as organizational
• (a) Effectiveness
• b) Economy
• c) Efficiency
• d) Performativity
Effectiveness
• The difference between human
resource management and personnel
management is
• (a)Insignificant
• b) Marginal
• (c) Narrow
• d) Wide
Wide
• Human Resource Management function
does not involve
• a)Recruitment
• b) Selection
• c) Cost control
• d) Training
Cost control
• Which one is not the specific goal of human
resource management?
• a) Attracting applicants
• b) Separating employees
• c)Retaining employees
• d)Motivating employees
Separating employees
• Identify the top most goal of human resource
management
• a) Legal compliance
• b) Competitive edge
• c) Work force adaptability
• d) Productivity
Productivity
• To achieve goals organizations require
employees
• a)Control
• b) Direction
• c) Commitment
• d) Cooperation
Commitment
• Human resource management helps improve
• a)Production
• b) Productivity
• c) Profits
• d) Power
Productivity
• The amount of quality output for amount of
input means
• a)Productivity
• b) Production
• c) Sales increase
• d) Increase in profits
Productivity
• Responding to employees and involving them
in decision making is referred to as
• a)Quality of work life
• b) Autonomy
• c) Empowerment
• d)Preaction
Quality of work life

• What is meant by the term 'management by
objectives'?
• a. A system of giving the authority to carry out
certain jobs by those lower down the
management hierarchy
b. The system of management that is based on
bringing together experts into a team
• c. The setting of objectives to bring about the
achievement of the corporate goals
• d. The control of the organization by those in the
'head office'
The setting of objectives to bring about

the achievement of the corporate goals
• manager may delegate any of the following
except:
• a. Authority
• b. Workload
• c. Responsibility
• d. attendance at meetings to represent the
department
Responsibility
• Workforce planning involves all of the
following except:
• a. Organising the training of staff
• b. forecasting future personnel requirements
• c. examining production plans in a factory
• d. preparing and maintaining personnel
records
Organising the training of staff

• Maslow, in his triangle of human needs, showed
that
• a. having challenging new tasks is a basic human
need
• b. money always motivates workers
• c. safety and security is a low order human need
• d. workers will not give of their best unless they
have good social events provided by the firm
safety and security is a low order human

need
• Piecework is a payment system where the
worker is”
• a. paid overtime for any hours worked beyond
25 per week
• b. rewarded for good conduct
• c. is paid a minimum of £4.20 per hour
• d. is paid for what he or she achieves
is paid for what he or she achieves

• Which of the following will NOT result following
the introduction of a more decentralised system
of management?
• a. Increased motivation amongst those
empowered to make decisions
• b. Greater consistency in the decisions made
• c. The development of skills amongst the junior
members of the management team
• d. An increase in the speed at which essential
decisions are made
Greater consistency in the decisions made

• An advantage of recruitment from outside
the company is
• a. that it is cheaper than internal recruitment
• b. that there is no need to advertise the
vacancy
• c. that it brings in new experience and skills to
the firm
• d. that it avoids jealousy within the firm
that it brings in new experience and skills

to the firm
• When designing his hierarchy of needs triangle
Maslow did NOT include one of these. Was it?
• a. Good wages and salaries and working
conditions
• b. The need to feel secure at work with adequate
financial rewards such as pensions to assist one
later in life
• c. The need to build a career path
• d. Opportunities for teamworking and social
events that allow a sense of belonging to emerge
The need to build a career path

• When deciding on objectives for management it
is advised that companies should aim to achieve
'SMART' within these. Which of the following is
NOT part of the SMART scheme?
• a. The need to be Specific in the choice of
objectives
• b. The need to make objectives Tangible
• c. All objectives must be Measurable
• d. For personnel to feel capable of reaching
objectives they must be Achievable
The need to make objectives Tangible

• Which of the following is a reason for
introducing a matrix management system?
• a. Because it allows for an easily understood
functional responsibility chart to designed
• b. The management can increase the use of
delegation within the organisation
• c. The senior management wants to develop a
clearly defined set of responsibilities
• d. A more centralised system of control is
required
The senior management wants to develop

a clearly defined set of responsibilities
• What is meant by the term functional management?
• a. A system of business organisation that is based on an
individual having a wide range of skills needed to
administer a business
• b. A type of management that is based more on
personality
• c. A system that groups together various jobs and is
organised by departments, sections or functions
• d. A system that supports a flat form of command
chain
A system that groups together various

jobs and is organised by departments,
sections or functions
• What is meant by the term delegation?
•
A system of management that relies on
consulting employees before making decisions
• a. The process of using goals as the best way of
motivating managers to achieve corporate
targets/objectives
• b. The giving of tasks by a manager to a
subordinate
• c. A style of management supported by FW Taylor
The giving of tasks by a manager to a

subordinate
• Which of the following is a reason for supporting
a wider span of control within an organisation?
• a. The management wants to reduce the
opportunities for delegation
• b. There is a need for tighter control within the
business
• c. The business accepts that within its
management there will be increased contact
between managers and employees
• d. Management wishes to introduce a process of
de-layering
Management wishes to introduce a

process of de-layering
• Which of the following is NOT a characteristic
of a narrow span of control?
• a. There is less opportunity to delegate
• b. This form of span of control creates a
smaller hierarchy within the business
• c. Supervision and control are tighter
• d. The distance between the top and bottom
of the organisation is greater
Supervision and control are tighter

• he effectiveness of wide spans of control will
depend on:
• a. ability of the chosen manager to control
effectively those under their control
• b. Designing a complex set of tasks for less senior
personnel to perform
• c. Employees being treated in a more Theory X
way (McGregor) and not left to supervise their
own working environment
• d. The senior management wishing to encourage
promotion from within its current staff
ability of the chosen manager to control

effectively those under their control
• Which of the following is the best definition of a
centralised management system?
• a. A system that encourages empowerment of
workers
• b. A management structure that concentrates on
developing the skills of junior personnel
• c. A system that involves authority and
responsibility for decision-making being in the
hands of senior managers
• d. A system that encourages faster decision-
making
A system that involves authority and
responsibility for decision-making being in
the hands of senior managers
• Most management teams use 'appraisal' but
what is meant by this term?
a. A system used to improve the performance of
personnel.
• b. The main way in which an employees wages
are determined.
• c. A system of reward points offered by retailers
to attract customer loyalty.
• d. The evaluation of an individual employee's
performance over a given period of time.
The evaluation of an individual
employee's performance over a given
period of time.
• In recent years autonomous working groups have
come to play an important part in many businesses.
What are their essential features?
• a. The group reports directly to the senior
management above them in the hierarchy of the firm.
• b. The creation of teams which have a high level of
autonomy and control over their immediate working
environment.
• c. The bringing together of various individuals who
have a common interest in solving certain problems.
• d. A group of experts brought into research new ways
of producing a product.
The creation of teams which have a high

level of autonomy and control over their
immediate working environment.
• Authoritarian leadership is a term often seen in
textbooks. What does it mean?
• a. A style of leadership where the leader keeps a very
tight control on all information and decision-making
processes.
• b. A system of leadership that allows maximum
participation by all employees.
• c. A chain of command that is flat and allows
considerable personal freedom to make decisions.
• d. The selling of debts to an agency, who take
responsibility for their collection.
A style of leadership where the leader keeps a
very tight control on all information and
decision-making processes.
• Ineffective planning of workforce would be
highlighted by:
• a. Recruitment and selection problems.
• b. The need to out source some of the
production
• c. A need to offer retraining to current
employees.
• d. An opportunity to increase the use of
mechanisation.
Recruitment and selection problems.

• Which of the following is one of the factors that
might influence the style of leadership used by a
firm?
• a. Accepting that employees who agree are
favoured.
• b. Workers should be left to be more in control of
their own working environment.
• c. Offering profit sharing as part of employees
remuneration package.
• d. The skills expected from each employee.
The skills expected from each employee.

• Which of the following will influence the style of
management used by a company?
• a. The desire by the owner to have the workforce treat
him in a fatherly way.
• b. The need to focus discussions on policy as a joint
process between employees and employer / manager.
• c. The culture of the company, the nature of its work
and the preferences of the individual managers.
• d. The use of distinct penalties for poor performance.
The culture of the company, the nature of its

work and the preferences of the individual
managers.
• What is meant by the term empowerment?
• a. A process of giving employees greater
autonomy and decision-making powers.
• b. A system that encourages workers to move
more freely within the workforce.
• c. The opportunity to share in the company's
profits.
• d. A formal system of leadership that relies
greatly on control.
A process of giving employees greater

autonomy and decision-making powers
• Which of the following will influence the
method of recruitment and selection used by
a company?
• a. The state of the economy.
• b. The size of the organisation.
• c. The type of training programmes used by
the company.
• d. The possible expansion of UK business in
Europe.
The size of the organisation.

• Which of the following is an accurate definition
of recruitment?
• a. The process of attempting to fill gaps that exist
in the skills of the current labour force.
• b. The system of following someone around and
noting how they perform their duties.
• c. The process by which companies fill the need
to find new employees.
• d. A statement that enshrines the fundamental
objectives of the company.
The process by which companies fill the need

to find new employees.
• Which of the following is NOT normally a sign
of poor morale amongst a workforce?
• a. High levels of absenteeism.
• b. High levels of turnover.
• c. Increased levels of personal productivity
• d. A poor external image and difficulties
attracting good recruits.
Increased levels of personal productivity

• Which of the following IS one of Herzberg's
'motivational factors'?
• a. Opportunities to achieve some personal
advancement within the organisation.
• b. The application of respected supervision of
employees by those responsible for this role
within the organisation.
• c. Within organisations it is the workings of
groups that influence codes of behaviour.
• d. People are primarily motivated by money and
little else.
Opportunities to achieve some personal

advancement within the organisation.
• Which of the following is one of Herzberg's
'hygiene factors'?
a. Recognition in the workplace.

• b. A reasonable salary.
• c. An opportunity to take some responsibility
in ones place of work.
• d. Developing a sense of achievement in the
working environment.
A reasonable salary
• In strategic human resource management,
HR strategies are generally aligned with
• business strategy
• marketing strategies
• finance strategy
• economic strategy
business strategy
• Which of the following is closely associated
with strategic human resource management?
• efficient utilization of human resources
• attracting the best human resources
• providing the best possible training
All of the above

• Treating employees as precious human
resources is the basis of the _______
approach.
• hard HRM
• soft HRM
• medium HRM
soft HRM
• Strategic human resource management aims
to achieve competitive advantage in the
market through
• price
• Product
• People
• process
People
• Wright and Snell made important
contribution to the growth of
• Strategic fit model
• Strategic labour allocation process model
• Business-oriented model
Business-oriented model
• Strategic management process usually
consists of _______ steps.
• Four
• Five
• Six
• Seven
Five
• One of the components of corporate level
strategy is
• growth strategy
• portfolio strategy
• parenting strategy
All of the above

• Creating an environment that facilitates a
continuous and two-way exchange of
information between the superiors and the
subordinates is the core of
• High involvement management model
• High commitment management model
• High performance management model
High involvement management model

• Which one of the following is not a part of
the external environment of an organization?
• social factors
• political factors
• legal factors
• organizational culture
organizational culture
• Identify the odd one out of the following
factors
• organizational structure
• HR systems
• business strategy
• technology
technology
• The first recorded human resource
management initiative was made during
• the pre-industrial revolution era
• the First World War era
• the Second World War era
the pre-industrial revolution era

UGC NET
RELATION
Sample Paper 9
• What is the most important contribution of the
Hawthorne studies?
• the discovery of the informal relationship and
social groups among employees
• the significance of lighting and ventilation for
performance
• the difference in the performance of male and
female employees
• the relationship between the behaviour and
performance
the discovery of the informal relationship and

social groups among employees
• The term environmental scanning stands for
• gathering data about the organization and its
surroundings
• collecting information about the shareholders
• gathering information relating to the
employees
• none of the above
gathering data about the organization and its

surroundings
• McGregor’s Theory X and Theory Y was
introduced during
• the First World War
• the Industrial revolution
• the Second World War
• the human relations movement
the human relations movement

• One of the important assumptions of the ------
----perspective is that uncertainty in
environment is more of an internal problem
and less of an external problem
• objective environment perspective
• perceived environment perspective
• enacted environment perspective
perceived environment perspective

• When an organization creates its own
environment out of its knowledge of the
environment, it has created a/an
• enacted environment
• perceived environment
• objective environment
enacted environment
• Job analysis is a process of gathering
information about the
• job holder
• Job
• Management
• organization
Job
• The final process of a job analysis is the
preparation of two statements, namely,
• job observation and job description
• job specification and job observation
• job description and job specification
job description and job specification

• Which of the following terms is not
associated with job analysis?
• task
• Duty
• Position
• competitor
competitor
• The process of bringing together different
tasks to build a job is called
• job evaluation
• job design
• job description
job design
• The process of grouping of similar types of
works together is known as
• job design
• job evaluation
• job description
job classification
• The system of ranking jobs in a firm on the
basis of the relevant characteristics, duties,
and responsibilities is known as
• job evaluation
• job design
• job description
job evaluation
• he written statement of the findings of job
analysis is called
• job design
• job description
• job evaluation
job description
• A structured questionnaire method for
collecting data about the personal qualities
of employees is called
• functional job analysis
• management position description
questionnaire
• work profiling system
work profiling system

• The model that aims at measuring the degree
of each essential ability required for
performing the job effectively is known as
• Fleishman Job Analysis System
• common metric questionnaire
• management position description
questionnaire
• functional job analysis
Fleishman Job Analysis System

• The method that depends mainly on the
ability and experience of the supervisors for
gathering relevant information about the job
is called the
• task inventory analysis method
• technical conference method
• diary maintenance method
• critical incident method
technical conference method

• Designing a job according to the worker’s
physical strength and ability is known as
• ergonomics
• task assortment
• job autonomy
ergonomics
• Which of the following is not a component of
job design?
• job enrichment
• job rotation
• job reengineering
• job outsourcing
job outsourcing
• Moving employees from one job to another
in a predetermined way is called
• job rotation
• job reengineering
• work mapping
• job enrichment
job rotation
• The basic purpose of human resource
planning is to
• identify the human resource requirements
• identify the human resource availability
• match the HR requirements with the HR
availability
All of the above

• The primary responsibility for human
resource planning lies with
• HR Manager
• general manager
• trade union leader
• line manager
General Manager
• The plans that necessitate changes in the
existing technology, the organizational
structure, and the employees’ authority and
responsibility are called
• short-term HR plan
• medium-term HR plan
• long-term HR plan
none of the above

• hich of the following is not a forecasting
technique to assess the human resource
requirements of an organization?
• trend analysis
• ratio analysis
• managerial judgment
• replacement charts
replacement charts
• The term bottom-up approach is commonly
associated with
• normal group technique
• Delphi technique
• work study technique
managerial judgment
• The method that requires the line managers
to justify the continuance of each job that
becomes vacant is called
• simulation model
• zero-base forecasting
• human resource allocation approach
zero-base forecasting
• The forecasting based on the subjective views
of the managers on the HR requirements of
an organization is known as
• normal group technique
• work study technique
managerial judgment
• The primary aim of recruitment and selection
process is to
• meet the high labour turnover
• hire the best individuals at optimum cost
• ensure the availability of surplus in the case of
sickness and absence
meet the high labour turnover

• Recruitment is widely viewed as a _______
process.
• positive
• Negative
• both positive and negative
• none of these
positive
• The process of developing an applicants’ pool
for job openings in an organization is called
• hiring
• Recruitment
• Selection
• retention
recruitment
• Recruitment policy usually highlights the
need for establishing
• job analysis
• job description
job specification
• _______ indicates the degree to which a tool
or test measures what it is supposed to
measure.
• validity
• Reliability
• Dependability
• goodness of fit
validity
• Which of the following is the most serious
problem that might arise due to excessive
reliance on internal recruitment?
• reduced job performance
• high labour turnover
• lack of motivation
• internal resistance
internal resistance
• Internal recruitment has the potentiality to
increase the _______ of the employees.
• conflicts
• Misunderstanding
• Income
• morale
misunderstanding
• Advertisements through newspapers, TV,
radio, professional journals and magazines
are _______ methods of recruitment.
• direct
• Indirect
• third-party
indirect
• State employment exchanges are generally
the main agencies of
• private employment
• public employment
• professional employment
public employment
• A prerequisite for a successful and efficient
recruitment programme is to have a(n)
• corporate policy
• HR policy
• recruitment policy
• health and safety policy
HR policy
• Selection is usually considered as a _______
process.
• positive
• Negative
• Neutral
Negative
• The process of eliminating unsuitable
candidates is called
• selection
• Recruitment
• Interview
• induction
selection
• Which of the following helps the managers
with the information required to make good
human resources decisions?
• selection
• industrial relations
• Recruitment
• The process of selection of employees is
usually influenced by
• rules and regulations
• strategies and objectives
• principles and programmes
strategies and objectives

• The purpose of an application blank is to
gather information about the
• company
• Candidate
• questionnaire or interview schedule
• competitors
candidate
• Which of the following is used to measure the
various characteristics of the candidate?
• physical test
• psychological test
• attitude test
• proficiency test
psychological test
• Identify the test that acts as an instrument to
discover the inherent ability of a candidate.
• aptitude test
• attitude test
• proficiency test
• physical test
aptitude test
• When the candidate is put to hardship during
interview, it is called
• patterned interview
• in-depth interview
• stress interview
• preliminary interview
stress interview
• Which of the following orders is followed in a
typical selection process?
• Test and/or interview, application form, reference
check and physical examination
• Application form, test and/or interview, reference
check and physical examination
• Reference check, application form, test and/or
interview and physical examination
• Physical examination, test and/or interview,
application form and reference check
Application form, test and/or interview,

reference check and physical examination
• Biographical inventory questions were
developed by the
• American Psychological Association
• Indian Psychological Association
• French Psychological Association
American Psychological Association

• Which of the following is not an objective of
employee orientation?
• preventing employee alienation
• developing team spirit
• acclimatizing the employees
• raising the salary of the employees
raising the salary of the employees

• The process of finding an appropriate fit
between the people and the positions in an
organization is called
• orientation
• Placement
• Socialization
placement
• The process of introducing or integrating the
new employees into the organizational
culture is known as
• placement
• Socialization
• Orientation
socialization
• The systematic process of offering essential
information to the new employees is usually
called
• orientation
• Socialization
• Placement
orientation
• The values, attitudes and other behaviours
already acquired by the new employees
before their entry into the firm is called
• anticipatory socialization
• organizational socialization
• tournament-oriented socialization
• disjunctive socialization
anticipatory socialization
• When the experienced superiors conduct a
socialization programme for the new
employees before they are placed in the
organization, it is specifically called
• sequential strategy
• investiture strategy
• collective strategy
• contest-oriented strategy
sequential strategy
• Socialization programmes that aim at
reinforcing the values and beliefs brought in
by the new employees is called
• tournament-oriented strategy
• contest-oriented strategy
• investiture strategy
• divestiture strategy
investiture strategy
• Positions held by an individual throughout his
work life are normally referred to as
• job
• Task
• Career
Career
• Which of the following perspectives looks at
the career of an individual from the future
positions he is likely to hold?
• subjective perspective
• objective perspective
• neutral perspective
subjective perspective
• The systematic and deliberate advancement
made by an individual in his career in the
entire work life is known as
• career path
• career goals
• career guidance
• career anchoring
career path
• The factors that influence the selection of
individuals’ career choices are usually
referred to as
• career path
• career goals
• mentoring
career anchoring
• Which of the following is used as a self-
assessment technique by the employees?
• The strength and weakness balance sheet
• The likes and dislikes survey
• The type focus assessment
All of the above

• The career development programme which
enables the employees to gain multi-skills
and diverse experience before being
considered for any promotion in the future is
called
• Dual-skills path
• conventional career path
• lateral career path
• network career path
network career path

• A process in which the manager, supervisors
or an external expert acts as the advisor,
philosopher and guide is called
• career development
• Mentoring
mentoring
• A series of processes aimed at assisting the
employees make informed career decisions is
known as
• career guidance
• Mentoring
• career goals
career guidance
• Which of the following is not true about
training?
• It is a short-duration exercise.
• It is technical in nature.
• It is primarily for managers and executives.
• It is concerned with specific job skills.
It is primarily for managers and executives.

• In which type of analysis are corporate goals
and plans compared with the existing
manpower inventory to determine the
training needs?
• Organization analysis
• Operation analysis
• Individual analysis
Organization analysis
• Training concentrates on
• coaching the members of an organization
how to perform effectively in their current jobs
• expansion of the knowledge and skills of the
members of an organization
• preparing the employees to take on new
responsibilities.
• none of the above.
coaching the members of an organization how

to perform effectively in their current jobs
• The process of enhancing the technical skills
of workers in a short period is called
• training
• Development
• Education
training
• E-learning is all about
• computers and computing
• being technology-driven
• Electronics
• experience
experience
• The planned use of networked information
and communications technology for the
delivery of training is called
• e-learning
• role playing
• case study
• programmed learning
e-learning
• Which one of the following is a source of
assessing training needs?
• performance evaluation
• attitude survey
• advisory panel
• all of the above
all of the above

• Laboratory training is also known by the
name
• sensitivity training
• job instruction training
• apprenticeship training
sensitivity training
• _______ method creates a situation that is as
far as possible a replica of the real situation
for imparting training.
• The programmed learning
• The Simulation
• The case study
• The lecture
The Simulation
• A team of learners working online in a real-
time mode using the Internet is known as
• individualized self-paced e-learning online
• individualized self-paced e-learning offline
• group-based e-learning synchronously
• group-based e-learning asynchronously
group-based e-learning synchronously

• Training need analysis takes place during
which phase of the training process?
• deciding what to teach
• deciding how to maximize participant learning
• choosing appropriate instructional methods
• determining whether training programmes are
effective
deciding what to teach

• Which of the following is not a goal of a management
development programme?
• To make certain that the managers are aware of the latest
and best managerial practices, measurement methods and
work techniques
• To ensure that the attitudes, values and beliefs of the
managers match the core values and strategy of the
organization
• To assist the managers to build on their strengths and work
on their weaknesses
• To ensure that there is no delay in the settlement of
retirement benefits of the managers
To ensure that there is no delay in the settlement

of retirement benefits of the managers
• Teaching by a wise and trusted superior on a
one-to-one basis is called
• In-basket training
• Behaviour modelling
• Mentoring
• Action Learning
Mentoring
• The development technique which educates
the trainees about the need for and the
techniques of prioritizing the situations for
decision-making is called
• In-basket training
• Action learning
• Mentoring
• Executive coaching
In-basket training
• Trainees forming teams and assuming
managerial roles in two or more imaginary
but rival companies is part of the _______
development technique.
• university-based programmes
• external coaching
• in-house development centres
• None of these
None of these
• A programme of one-to-one collaboration
between a certified external expert and a
manager for developing the leadership skills
of the latter is called
• Executive Orientation
• Executive coaching
• Mentoring
• None of these
Executive coaching
• The initial training effort to inform the new
managers about the company, the job, and
the work group is known as
• Action learning
• Behaviour modeling
• Executive coaches
• Executive orientation
Executive orientation
• Which of the following is not a hurdle for an
effective succession management plan?
• Lack of criteria for successor identification
• Improper diagnosis of development
requirements
• Absence of managerial initiative and support
• Absence of strike or lock-out
Absence of strike or lock-out

• Which of the following is the most objective
method of identifying the potential successor
in succession management?
• Performance evaluation
• Peer group suggestion
• Superior’s recommendation
• Management’s preference
Performance evaluation
• Organizational development as an
intervention programme is basically a
_______ approach.
• top-to-bottom
• Horizontal
• bottom-to-top
top-to-bottom
• A scientific approach to study and then
solving organizational issues experienced by
an organization is called
• action research
• applied research
• pure research
action research
• Which one of the following is not a
stakeholder in an organizational
development process?
• Customers
• Suppliers
• Government agencies
None of the above

• Which of the following methods is adopted
when there is a high uncertainty in the
external environment?
• Contingency approach
• System design approach
• Data-driven approach
Contingency approach
• Which of the following is not an
organizational development intervention
programme?
• Team-building
• Survey feedback
• Leadership development
All of the above

• Performance management is viewed as a
process carried out as a(n)
• once-a-year task
• twice-a-year activity
• ongoing process or cycle
ongoing process or cycle

• Performance evaluation can be defined as a
process of evaluating
• past performance
• present performance
• future performance
• past and present performance
past and present performance

• he term performance rating system stands
for
• a grade or score concerning the overall
performance
• the information about the extent to which the
work objectives were met
• the past objectives of the organization
• the achievements for a period of one year
a grade or score concerning the overall

performance
• The 360-degree performance feedback
involves the evaluation of employees by
• HR managers
• Employees
• Supervisors
• all who are directly in contact with the ratee
all who are directly in contact with the ratee

• Which of the following is the most essential
requirement for an effective points-based
rating system?
• Close coordination between the management
and the HR department
• Comprehensive, dependable and consistent
information
• Impartiality in evaluation
Comprehensive, dependable and consistent

information
• When the focus of the evaluation is on facts
and not on traits, it is known as _____
evaluation.
• objective
• Subjective
• Performance
• career
objective
• The purpose of the Behaviourally Anchored
Rating Scale(BARS) is to
• evaluate a good or bad performance
• define a job
• improve inter-personal relationship skills
None of the above

• Which of the following is an essential
prerequisite of MBO?
• Joint goal-setting
• Mid-term review
• Developing reviews
All of the above

UGC NET
RELATION
Sample Paper 10
• The evaluation method that requires the
supervisors to keep a written record of
positive and negative work-related actions of
the employees is called
• Critical incident method
• Essay method
• Work standard method
• Field review method
Critical incident method

• In which of the following methods is the
evaluation done by someone other than the
employee’s own supervisors?
• Essay method
• Critical incident method
• Field review method
Field review method

• ob evaluation is a technique adopted for
determining the _______ of the job.
• internal worth
• external worth
• internal and external worth
internal worth
• When each job is individually compared with
every other in the organization, it is called
• Ranking method
• Paired comparison method
• Point ranking method
• Factor comparison method
Ranking method
• Which of the following is not an analytical
method of job evaluation?
• Factor comparison method
Paired comparison
• Which of the following is an analytical
method of job evaluation?
• Ranking method
• Job grading
Point ranking method

• When jobs are grouped on the basis of the
similarities found in their characteristics and
values, it is called
• Ranking method
• Job grading
Job grading
• Providing equal pay for jobs of equal nature
based on job evaluation ensures _______ in
compensation administration.
• external equity
• internal equity
• Neutrality
external equity
• Payment of cash rewards for the work
extracted from the employee is normally
called
• direct compensation
• indirect compensation
• non-monetary compensation
direct compensation
• Which of the following is the fixed
component in compensation packages?
• Profit-sharing
• Base salary
• Gain-sharing
• Equity stock options
Base salary
• Insurance schemes, retirement benefits and
leave travel concession are examples of
• indirect monetary compensation
• direct monetary compensation
• non-monetary compensation
indirect monetary compensation

• Ensuring a fair balance between an
employee’s contributions to the job and the
rewards received in return from that job is
the essence of
• equity theory
• expectancy theory
• agency theory
• contingency theory
equity theory
• Which of the following theory states that the
employees work hard in the job only when
they are sure of positive outcomes from that
job?
• Equity theory
• Expectancy theory
• Agency theory
• Contingency theory
Expectancy theory
• Managers never own complete responsibility
for the all the decisions made by them since
they are not the owners of the business is the
assumption of
• equity theory
• expectancy theory
• agency theory
• contingency theory
agency theory
• Wages which are usually positioned above
the minimum wages but below the living
wages are described as
• real wages
• fair wages
• minimum wages
• living wages
fair wages
• _______ ensure that the employees get an
income which is sufficient for meeting their
present and future necessities and
contingencies.
• Real wages
• Minimum wages
• Living wages
Living wages
• Wages usually adjusted for the prevailing
rate of inflation is called
• real wages
• fair wages
• minimum wages
• living wages
eal wages
• When there are several pay grades in a pay
structure, it is called
• traditional pay structure
• broad-graded structure
• job family structure
traditional pay structure

• Which of the following factors is not an
external influencing factor in wages and
salary administration?
• Cost of living
• Labour legislations
• Labour market conditions
• Ability to pay
Ability to pay
• Which of the following factors is not an
external influencing factor in wages and
salary administration?
• Capacity of the organization to pay
• Corporate policies and philosophy
• Performance evaluation report
None of the above

executive compensation plans?
• Separating ownership interest and controlling
interest
• Enhancing employee motivation, involvement
and commitment
• Promoting managerial efficiency
• Attracting and retaining the best executives
Separating ownership interest and controlling

interest
• Provision for cars, parking lots and
membership in country club are examples of
• base salary of executives
• short-term incentive plans
• executive perks
executive perks
• Stock option and performance shares are
examples of
• base salary
• short-term incentive plan
• long-term incentive plan
long-term incentive plan

• Performance-based annual bonuses are an
example of
• base salary
• short-term incentive plan
• long-term incentive plan
short-term incentive plan

wage incentive programmes?
• Developing ownership interest
• Improving employee retention
• Reducing labour cost
• Facilitating the separation of employees
Facilitating the separation of employees

• When the same rate of incentives is paid to
the employees for each unit of goods
produced by them, it is called
• Straight piece rate
• Differential piece rate
• Task and time bonuses
Straight piece rate

• When more than one piece rate is offered to
the individuals for goods produced by them,
it is called
• Priestman bonus plan
Differential piece rate

• Which of the following methods discourages
too much speed in the production by the
employees?
Task and time bonuses

• Evaluating the relative worth of the
employees in the organization and then
deciding the awards for them is called
• Merit rating
Merit rating
• Which of following incentive systems
recommends a two-piece rate for wage
determination?
• Merrick multiple piece rate plan
• Taylor’s differential piece rate plan
• Emerson efficiency plan
• Gnatt task and bonus system
Taylor’s differential piece rate plan

• In which of the following methods is the
standard time stated as minutes and points?
• Bedeaux system
• Barth variable incentive plan
• Task and time bonus
Bedeaux system
• Which of the following incentive plans has
the following equation for computing the
earnings of employees? (Actual hours worked
× Time rate) + (Actual time worked /
Standard time) × Time saved × Time rate
• Emerson efficiency plan
• Rowan incentive plan
• Halsey incentive plan
Rowan incentive plan

• Which of the following is not usually a group
incentive plan?
• Rucker incentive plan
• Towne’s incentive plan
Halsey incentive plan

• Achieving cost saving not only on labour cost
but also on overheads is the crux of
• Towne’s incentive plan
• Rucker incentive plan
Rucker incentive plan

• In which method is the standard time
expressed in terms of man-minutes called
“MANT”?
• Hayne’s incentive plan
• Rowan incentive plan
• Bedeaux system
Hayne’s incentive plan

• Which of the following is an example of
fringe benefits?
• Health and accident insurance
• Contribution to superannuation funds
• Leave facilities
All of the above

• The motion of men implicit in the classical
theory lends to generate a kind of employee
psyche, which may be described as:
(a) Self-development oriented
(b) Aggressive
(c) Submissive
(d) Deficiency-oriented
Submissive
• Who described the phenomenon that each
employee engaged in a staff function creates
work for his colleagues:
(a) W. Wilson
(b) Parkinson
(c) D. Waldo
(d) Creep
Parkinson
• Theory is the formulation of universal
principles of organization:
(a) Classical Theory
(b) Human Relation Theory
(c) Bureaucratic Theory
(d) Scientific Management
Classical Theory
• “Grapevine” is a term used in relation to:
(a) Formal communication
(b) Informal communication
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) This term is not used in relation to
communication
Informal communication
• The authoritarian leadership style goes with:
(a) Theory X
(b) Theory Y
(c) Theory Z
(d) None of these
Theory X
• Which of the following will tend to raise the
market rate of interest in the long run?
(a) A fall in the marginal productivity of capital
(b) An increase in the amount of savings by
individuals
(c) A rise in consumers demand and for
present over future consumption
(d) None of the above
A rise in consumers demand and for present

over future consumption
• National income ordinary expressed means:
(a) Net national product at market price
(b) Groups national product as market price
(c) GNP at factor cost
(d) NNP at factor cost
GNP at factor cost

• If the short-run marginal cost of a typical firm in
a competitive industry should fall continuously
over a substantial range of increasing output the
likely consequences is that:
(a) New firms must enter that industry
(b) The profit earned by that typical firm can be
expected to fall
(c) The marginal cost of that firm will exceed its
average cost through the output range in
question
The marginal cost of that firm will exceed its

average cost through the output range in
question
• What happens to a company, If a shareholder
dies?
(a) The company is dissolved
(b) The company is not dissolved
(c) The operations of the company will be
temporarily suspended
(d) The company dissolved subject to the
orders of the court
The company is not dissolved

• Delegation of authority makes the size of the
organization:
(a) Smaller
(b) Larger
(c) Very Big
(d) Dose not affect size
Larger
• Taylor’s differential piece work plan provides
that:
(a) All labourers should be assigned different
amount of work
(b) All labourers should be put in different time-
period
(c) Those who produce above standard should
receive higher wages than those producing below
standard
(d) Payment should be the same on a fixed
standard
All labourers should be assigned different

amount of work
• Taylor whose thoughts go under the name of scientific
management made two assumptions:
1. The application of the methods of science to organizational
problems leads to higher industrial efficiency.
2. The incentive of high wage will promote the mutuality of
interest between workers
and managers which, in its turn, will lead to higher, productivity.
3. The staff members are personally free, observing only the
impersonal duties of their offices.
4. There is a clear hierarchy of offices. Select the correct answer
from the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
1 and 2
• The Delphi techniques uses:
(a) Mathematical models as input to the
decision making process.
(b) A panel of experts making a series of
independent decisions.
(c) A “top down” approach.
(d) None of the above.
A panel of experts making a series of

independent decisions.
• Econometric models include techniques
from:
(a) Economics
(b) Statistics
(c) Mathematics
(d) All of the above
All of the above

• Dorwin Cartwright and Alvin Zander identified
the following two variables;
(1) Employee-oriented
(ii) Production-oriented
(iii) Goal-oriented
(iv) Group-oriented
The Correct Code is:
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (iii) and (iv)
(d) (1) and (iv)
(iii) and (iv)

• The democratic leadership style goes with:
(a) Theory X
(b) Theory Y
(c) Theory Z
(d) None of these
Theory Y
• Taylorism:
(i) Viewed man as an adjunct of man
(ii) Completely neglected the psychological aspects
(iii) Emphasized only a limited number of the
physiological variables
(iv) Under-estimated the meaning of human
motivation
Select the correct answer:
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(b) (iii), (ii) and (iv)
(c) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(d) (1) and (iv)
(i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

• Assertion (A): Delegation of authority does not
reduce the work load of a superior executive.
Reason (R): Authority can be delegated but
responsibility cannot be delegated.
Codes:
(a) Both the statements are correct and second is
a correct explanation of the first.
(b) Both the statements are correct but second is
not a correct explanation of the first.
(c) First statement is correct but second is not.
(d) First statement is wrong but second is correct.
First statement is wrong but second is correct.

• Assertion (A): The top management in an organization
should be mainly concerned with very important and
complex problems and not with routine day to day
problems. Reason (R):This is started by the scalar
principle of organization.
Codes:
(a) Both the statements are correct and second is a
correct explanation of the first.
(b) Both the statements are correct but second is not a
(c) First statement is correct but second is not.
(d) First statement is incorrect but second is correct.
First statement is correct but second is not

• Assertion (A): The span of management at upper
levels of management is generally narrow while at
lower level span is wide.
Reason (R): Tasks allocated to subordinates at lower
levels of management are more specific and precise
and thus making supervision easy and simple.
Codes:
(a) Both the statements are correct and second is a
(b) Both the statements are correct but second is not a
(c) First statements is correct but second is not.
(d) First statement is incorrect but second is correct.
Both the statements are correct and second is a

• Match the following:
List-I List-II
A. To check the quality of work 1. Speed boss
B. To see that work is completed in time 2. Inspector
C. To check absenteeism of workers 3. Instruction and
clerk.
D. To issue instructions regarding method of Work 4. Shop
discipline
Codes:
ABCD
(a) 3 2 1 4
(b) 2 1 4 3
(c) 2 1 3 4
(d) 4 3 1 2
2143
• INTUC – (1)CONGRESS
• AITUC--- (2)CPI
• CITU– (3)CPI(M)
• BMS-(4)BJP
1-2-3-4
• Accent of human relation theory is:
(a) Action-Oriented
(b) Hierarchy-Oriented
(c) Organization-Oriented
Action-Oriented
• Effective supervision is an activity of:
(a) Organization function
(b) Staffing function
(c) Direction function
(d) Control function
Direction function
• it is the value assigned to the expected
benefits for desirable national gains:
(a) Cost price
(b) Shadow price
(c) Real price
(d) Opportunity cost
Shadow price
• Effective leadership behaviour is a result of
following variable:
(a) Structure
(b) Consideration
(c) Environment
(d) All of these
All of these
• Structure variable is synonymous with:
(a) Task
(b) Relations
(b) Style
(d) Attitude
Task
• Consideration is synonymous with:
(a) Task
(b) Relations
(c) Style
(d) Attitude
Relations
• Match the following:
List-I List-II
A. Fayol 1. Economy and Society
B. Taylor 2. General and Industrial Administration
C. Weber 3. Principles of Organization
D. Mooney and Reilley 4. Shop Management
Select the correct code:
ABCD
(a) 3 4 1 2
(b) 2 4 1 3
(c) 1 3 2 4
(d) 4 3 2 1
2413
• The main focus of the Human Relations
Theory is on:
(a) Formal organization
(b) Informal organization
(c) Individual
(d) Participatory decision making
Individual
• Managerial Grid suggests the following as the
best leader-behaviour:
(a) Low structure and low consideration
(b) High concern both for production and
people
(c) Low concern both for production and
people
(d) High structure and high consideration
High concern both for production and people

• Henri Fayol supports the:
(a) Humanistic approach
(b) Mechanistic approach
(c) Organic approach
(d) Scientific approach
Mechanistic approach
• Who is regarded as the Father of Scientific
Social Surveys?
(a) Darwin
(b) Best
(c) Marx
(d) Angels
Best
• F. W. Taylor called “the Military type of
foreman” to:
(a) Span of control
(b) Unity of command
(c) Department
(d) Delegated legislature
Unity of command
• Who is known as father of scientific
management?
(a) Henry Fayol
(b) Herbert Spencer
(c) Hertzberg
(d) F. W. Taylor
F. W. Taylor
• The term job satisfaction refers to:
• A collection of feelings that an individual has
towards his/her job.
• The degree to which an individual identifies
himself/herself with job.
• The degree to which an individual identifies
himself/herself with the, organization.
• None of the above:
A collection of feelings that an individual has

towards his/her job.
• The factor theory propounded by:
• Fredrick Hertzberg
• David McClellanel
• Mc Cardhy
• Philip Rotler
Fredrick Hertzberg
• Mutual cooperation and net working is:
• Win-win strategy
• Networking strategy
• Franchise strategy
• Competitive strategy
Win-win strategy
• A list of Jobs duties, responsibilities,
reporting relationships, and working
conditions is called:
• Job enhancement
• Job specification
• Job description
• Job enlargement
Job description
• One of the following is training provided to
enhance decision making skills:
• On the job training
• Behavioural modeling
• Management games
• Action learning
Management games
• Dramatic reduction of manpower is called:
• Termination
• Retrenchment
• Down sizing
• Right sizing
Retrenchment
• Monitoring employees through a preplanned
series of position is called:
• Promotion
• Job reporting
• Job rotation
Succession planning
• Monitoring employees through a preplanned
series of position is called:
• Promotion
• Job reporting
• Job rotation
Succession planning
• Appointment of Welfare Officer under
Factories Act, 1948 is compulsory
where_______ employees are employed.
• ( (a) 50
• (b) 500
• (c) 1000
• (d) 100)
Option B
• Crèche is mandatory under the Factories Act
where ______________ workers are
employed
• ( (a) 30
• (b) 100
• (c) 30 women
• (d) 250)
Option C
• Any amount due from an employer under
settlement or award can be recovered following
the procedures laid down in ______________
• ( (a) The Standing Orders
• (b) section 15 of the Payment of Wages Act
• (c) Minimum Wages Act
• (d) section 33 (C) of the Industrial Disputes Act.
Option D
• ______________ absolves the employer’s
liability under the Maternity Benefit Act and
Workmen’s Compensation Act.
• ( (a) Employees Provident Fund Act
• (b) Industrial Employment (Standing Order )
Act
• (c) Employees State Insurance Act
• (d) Industrial Disputes Act
Option C
• The wages under the Minimum Wages Act,
1948 shall include ______________
• (a) CTC
• (b) a basic rate of wages and dearness
allowance variable according to cost of living
• (c) basic rate of wages, DA, HRA and CCA
• (d) A consolidated amount decided by the
employer
Option B
• Subsistence Allowance @ __________ shall
be paid if suspension extends to a period
beyond 90 days
• ( (a) 50%
• (b) 75%
• (c) 90%
• (d) 100% )
Option B
• _______________________prohibits
discrimination in fixing salary to men and
women engaged in the work of similar nature
• ( (a) Minimum Wages Act, 1948
• (b) Payment of Wages Act, 1936
• (c) Payment of Subsistence Allowance Act
• (d) Equal Remuneration Act, 1976
Option D
• Continuous Service under major labour
legislations means _______________
• (a) work of 240 days if work is above the
ground and 190 days if work is below the
ground
• (b) work of 240 days
• (c) work of 180 days
• ( d) work of 160 days
Option A
• The minimum no. of workers required to
register a Trade Union under the Trade
Unions Act, 1926 is _________
• ( (a) 10%
• (b) 50%
• (c) 33 %
• (d) 10% or 100 whichever is less
Option D
• Lay off compensation is to be paid @
_________ of average wages
• ( (a) 15 days
• (b) 50%
• (c) 60%
• (d) 75 %
Option B
• Forming of a Works Committee under the
Industrial Disputes Act, is mandatory where
the no. employees is _________
• ( (a) 1000
• (b) 100
• (c) 500
• (d) 250
Option B
• Prior permission from the appropriate Govt
to lay off, retrench or close down an
establishment is required under the
Industrial Disputes Act where there are
________ workers
• (a) 100
• (b) 1000
• (c) 50
• (d) 500
Option A
• Employer’s contribution to Employees’
Deposit Linked Insurance is __________
• (a) 3.67 %
• (b) 1.1 %
• (c) 0.5 %
• (d) 0.05 %
Option C
• Employer’s contribution to Employees Pension
Scheme is _______
• (a) 8.33%
• (b) 12%
• (c) 3.67 %
• (d) 4.75 %
Option A
• Employer’s share of contribution to the
provident fund is ________
• (a) 8.33%
• (b) 12%
• (c) 3.67 %
• (d) 4.75 %
Option C
• Employees’ share of provident fund
contribution is __________
• (a) 12 %
• (b) 8.33%
• (c) 1.75 %
• (d) 4.75%
Option A
• An employee whose salary at the time of
joining does not exceed _________ shall
become a member of the provident fund
under the Act.
• (a) Rs 10000
• (b) Rs 7500
• (c) Rs 6500
• (d) Rs 5000
Option C
• Employees who are getting a daily average
wages up to ________ are exempted from
contributing employees’ share of ESI
contribution.
• (a) Rs 70
• (b) Rs 50
• (c) Rs 100
• (b) Rs 384.60
Option A
• The employer’s share of contribution under
the ESI Act is _____
• (a) 12 %
• (b) 8.33 %
• (c) 1.75 %
• (d) 4.75 %
Option D
• Employees’ share of contribution under the
ESI Act is ________
• (a) 12%
• (b) 8.33%
• (c) 1.75 %
• (d) 4.75%
Option C
• Employees who are drawing salary not more
than __________ are covered under the
Employees State Insurance Act, 1948.
• (a) Rs 10000
• (b) Rs 7500
• (c) Rs 6500
• (d) Rs 3500
Option A
• A news paper employee is eligible for
gratuity if he has ______ years continuous
years of service
• (a) 10
• (b) 5
• (c) 7
• (d) 3
Option D
• Under the Payment of Gratuity Act, the rate
of gratuity is _________ salary for every
completed year of service
• (a) 20 days
• (b) 30 days
• (c) 15 days
• (d) 2 months
Option C
• In order to be eligible for Gratuity under the
Payment of Gratuity Act, 1972, an employee
should have a minimum continuous service
of __________
• (a) 10 years
• (b) 5 years
• (c) 7 years
• (d) 3 years
Option B
• Maximum bonus under the Payment of
Bonus Act is _______
• (a) 8.33%
• (b) 10%
• (c) 24%
• (d) 20%
Option D
• The statutory minimum bonus is ________
• (a) 8.33%
• (b) 10%
• (c) 24%
• (d) 20%
Option A
• An employee whose salary does not exceed
____________ is eligible for Bonus under the
Payment of Bonus Act.
• (a) Rs 3500
• (b) Rs 2500
• (c) Rs 6500
• (d) Rs 10000
Option D
• An employee is eligible to get bonus under
the Payment of Bonus Act, 1965 if he had
worked for not less than ________ days in
the preceding year
• (a) 30
• (b) 240
• (c) 160
• (d) 190
Option A
• Under the Payment of Wages Act, payment of
wages of establishments employing not less
than 1000 employees shall be paid within
__________ of the wage month
• (a) 7th day
• (b) 15th day
• (c) 2nd day
• (d) 10th day
Option D
• Under the Payment of Wages Act, 1936
payment of wages of establishments
employing not more than 1000 employees
shall be paid within _______ of the wage
month
• (a) 10th day
• (b) 7th day
• (c) 2nd day
• (d) 15th day
Option B
• In case of miscarriage, a woman worker shall
be allowed______ weeks leave with wages
• (a) 12
• (b) 6
• (c) 4
• (d) 24
Option B
• Under the Maternity Benefit Act, a woman
worker is eligible for ______ weeks leave
with wages
• (a) 6
• (b) 24
• (c) 15
• (d) 12
Option D
• In order to be eligible for maternity benefit
under the Maternity Benefit Act, 1961, a
woman worker should have worked for not
less than_________ days in the 12 months
immediately preceding the date of delivery
• (a) 160
• (b) 240
• (c) 30
• (d) 150
Option A
• Certification of Standing Orders under the
Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act,
1946 is mandatory where ________ workers
are employed
• ( (a) 500
• (b) 1000
• (c) 250
• (d) 100
Option D
• Repainting or re varnishing under the
Factories Act is required to be carried out in
every ________ years
• (a) 5
• (b) 10
• (c) 3
• (d) 1
Option A
• Under the Factories Act, white washing of the
factory building should be carried out in
every _________ months
• (a) 12
• (b) 24
• (c) 26
• (d) 14
Option D
• An adult worker under the Factories Act is
eligible for leave with wages @ I day for
every________ days worked during the
preceding year
• ( (a) 50
• (b) 20
• (c) 15
• (d) 240
Option B
• Under the Factories Act no worker is
permitted to work for more than _____ hours
in a day
• (a) 8
• (b) 9
• (c) 10
• (d) 24
Option B
• Under Plantation Labour Act, canteen is
compulsory where ________ workers are
working
• (a) 100
• (b) 250
• (c) 500
• (d) 150
Option D
• Under Plantation Labour Act, crèche is to be
set up where ______________ women
workers are employed or the no. of children
of women workers exceeds ________
• (a) 50 and 20
• (b) 30 and 20
• (c) 50 and 30
• (d) 30 and 5
Option A
• Under Plantation Labour Act, 1951 a Welfare
Officer is required to be appointed where the
no. of workers is __________
• ( (a) 100
• (b) 300
• (c) 500
• (d) 1000
Option B
• ________teams consist of employees from
the same hierarchical level, but from
different functional areas of the organization.
• a. Problem-solving teams
• b. Self-managed work teams
• c. Cross-functional teams
• d. Quality circles
Option C
• Which of the following is not essential for
building effective teams?
• a. Providing a supportive environment
• b. Relevant skills and role clarity
• c. Focus on super ordinate goals
• d. Employees benefits
Option D
• _______is a management philosophy that
focuses on customer relationships and tries
to build an environment of trust and
openness.
• a. Team Rewards
• b. Total Quality Management
• c. Task force
• d. Quality Circle
Option B
• Which of the following automobile
companies initiated TQM?
• a. Toyota
• b. Nissan
• c. General Motors
• d. Ford Motor Company
Option D
• How is control exerted in a formal
organization?
• a. Through rewards and punishments
• b. Through norms
• c. Through sanctions
• d. Both b and ac
Option A
• Where is the grapevine most active in the
organization ?
• i. Lunch rooms
• ii. Coffee vending machines
• iii. Near water coolers
• iv. Conferences
• Only I, ii, and iii
• Only I, iii and iv
• Only ii, iii and iv
• I, ii, iii, and iv
Option A
• Though communication spreading along the
grapevine may contain some legitimacy, it
doesn’t contain the entire truth and research
has shown that only about _______ of the
information that spreads through the grapevine
is true.
• a.1/3
• b.1/3
• c. 2/3
• d. ¾
Option D
• ______ is a type of organization grapevine in
which one person randomly spreads the
information to everybody he/she comes in
contact with. Further the flow of information
along this type of network is not very fast
• a. Single Strand
• b. Gossip
• c. Probability
• d. Cluster
Option D
• What does the term ‘Filtration’ refer to?
• a. It is the process by which people, based on their
reasoning, add new details to the original information
and distort it.
• b. It is the process by which an individual retains
complete details of the incident and transmits them to
others in ditto.
• c. It refers to damage caused to a business by the
baseless spread of rumors.
• d. It is the process by which an individual retains a few
basic details of the incident which he/she finds
interesting and transmits only these details to others.
Option D
• _____arise during periods of stress, are
action-oriented in nature, originate without
any planning, and do not involve
forethought.
• a. Spontaneous rumors
• b. Premeditated rumors
• c. Bogy rumors
• d. Wedge rumors
Option A
• Building blocks for designing an
organizational structure consist of six
elements, which of the following alternatives
is not one of these elements?
• a. Departmentalization
• b. Formalization
• c. Span of control
• d. Bureaucracy
Option D
• _______is a process in which jobs are
grouped together for coordination among
organizational tasks.
• a. Departmentalization
• b. Chain of command
• c. Span of control
• d. Formalization
Option A
• ______involves breaking down an
organization into small, independent units
called Strategic Business Units, each of which
produces a particular product or service.
• a. Departmentalization by function
• b. Departmentalization by product
• c. Departmentalization by process
• d. Departmentalization by geography
Option B
• ____________ helps organizations customize
products to suit customer tastes and
preferences, and formulate strategies depending
on the intensity of competition in the region.
Which of the following types of
departmentalization has this inherent
advantage?
• a. Departmentalization by customer
• b. Departmentalization by product
• c. Departmentalization by process
• d. Departmentalization by geography
Option D
• What is decentralization?
• a. It refers to concentration of power and
authority at the topmost level of the organization
• b. It refers to the extent of centralization
implemented in the organization
• c. It is delegation of authority and decision
making power to different levels in the
organization
• d. It is the degree to which rules and procedures
govern roles and responsibilities of employees
Option C
• The degree to which rules and procedures
govern the roles and responsibilities of
employees is referred to as ________
• a. Bureaucracy
• b. Span of control
• c. Formalization
• d. Centralization
Option C
• What are the three most commonly used
organizational designs?
• i. simple structure
• ii. Bureaucracy
• iii. Matrix Structure
• iv. Hierarchy
• Only I, ii, and iii
• Only I, ii and iv
• Only I, iii and iv
• Only ii, iii and iv
Option A
• In what kind of organizational structure is
decision-making power for the entire
organization vested in one person at the top?
• a. Bureaucracy
• b. Simple structure
• c. Matrix structure
• d. None of the above
Option B
• Who among the following formulated the
bureaucratic model of organizations for the
first time?
• a. Fred Luthans
• b. Stephen Robbins
• c. Herbert Simon
• d. Max Weber
Option D
• What are the disadvantages of Division of
Labor?
• a. Decrease in productivity and efficiency of an
organization
• b. Repetition of the same task gives rise to
boredom, fatigue, and stress in employees
• c. Division of labor segregates people into blue
and while collar employees, and widens the gap
between them, both in the organization and the
society.
• d. Both b and c
Option D
• Certain employees are most productive in
mechanistic structures where there is a high degree
of work specialization. Who are these employees?
• a. Employees who prefer tasks that require low level of
skills
• b. Employees who prefer tasks that can be performed
mechanically
• c. Employees who prefer tasks that facilitate personal
growth and give individuals an opportunity to utilize
skills.
• d. Both a and b
Option D
• which of the following structures combines
the features of project design with those of a
functional one ?
• a. tall structure
• b. simple structure
• c. bureaucratic structure
• d. matrix structure
Option D
• ________is popularly used in sectors
characterized by a high degree of specialization
along with emphasis on projects and other
specific goals such as R&D organizations
,consultancies ,advertising ,agencies ,hospitals,
universities, etc…
• a. formalization
• b. matrix structure
• c. tall structure
• d. bureaucratic structure
Option B
• Robert kreitner defines what as” a process of
identifying and choosing alternative courses of
action in a manner appropriate to the demand
of the situation .the act of choosing implies that
alternative courses of action must be weighed
and weeded out”?
• a. divergent thinking
• b. cognitive thinking
• c. brainstorming
• d. decision making
Option D
• In the ________ model of behavioral decision
making that is drawn from psychology
,human emotions and feelings are said to
affect the decision –making process of the
decision makers .
• a. judgmental heuristics and biases
• b. social
• c. simon’s bounded rationality
• d. economic rationality
Option B
• who among the following conducted a
conformity experiment to demonstrate the
impact of social influence over human
behavior and decision-making processes?
• a. Herbert A.simon
• b. fred luthans
• c. Solomon asch
• d. kahneman and Tversky
Option C
• ___________is the inherent propensity of
decision makers to commit resources to a
course of action that is certain to fail.
• a. Escalation of commitment
• b. organizational determinants
• c. cognitive complexity
• d. group polarization
Option A
• the most common traditional participative
technique is the __________.
• a. management science technique
• b. computerized decision support systems
(DSS)
• c. expert systems
• d. Scanlon plan
Option D
• _________is a modern participative decision –
making technique that comprises a group of 10-
12 volunteers who meet regularly to indentify
,analyze, and come up with solutions to quality
related and other problems in their area of
responsibility .
• a. quality circles
• b. self-managed teams
• c. scanlon plan
• d. none of the above
Option A
• according to feldman an individuals ability to
develop innovative ,but relevant responses to
given questions or problems may be referred
to as__________.
• a. convergent thinking
• b. divergent thinking
• c. cognitive complexity
• d. bounded rationality
Option B
• What is Group Polarization?
• a. It refers to the shift in attitudes of members of a group
towards a more extreme state after having a discussion
among themselves when compared to pre-discussion
attitudes.
• b. It is the phenomenon when decisions are made by a
cohesive group of individuals and their motivation to
appraise and appreciate alternative courses of action is
overpowered by their desire for unanimity of decision.
• c. It is a technique that is widely used in the idea
generation phase of a decision-making process and aims at
generating all the possible alternative courses of action.
• d. None of the above
Option A
• Every one intends to discuss a great deal
about issues related to their work
atmosphere. Of the topics mentioned below,
the wish to discuss is minimum with regard
to ________ owing to varied reasons.
• a. Job satisfaction
• b. Job profile
• c. Power issues
• d. Training activities
Option C
• Legitimate power emanates from the
• a. Performance in the organization
• b. Rewards showered
• c. Hierarchical position in the organization
• d. Belief of the subordinates
Option C
• Referent power is dependent of which of the
following attributes?
• a. Position in the organizational hierarchy
• b. Belief of the subordinate
• c. Charisma of the superior and admiration of
the same by the subordinates
• d. It is a derivative of the domain expertise
Option C
• Which of the following is identical to
authority?
• a. Referent power
• b. Expert power
• c. Legitimate power
• d. Reward power
Option C

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UGC NET

Kindly restrict the use of slides for personal purpose.

Line & staff function

(C) Both(A) and (R) are true. (R) is not

(B) The ‘self’ which is known to others

(C) Pluralistic approach

All the above sections.

(B) Primary union of general type

Sidney and Beatrice Webbs

(B) Convention No. 100, 1951

(D) 7 days of wages for every season

(A) Three percent of wage

(D) Monospony in the labour market

(A) Subsistence Theory

(D) Labour Market Perfections

(A) Consumer Price Index

(C) Decision Theory

(C) Flexibilities in management.

preferred provider organizations

health maintenance organizations

self-directed work team

flexible spending account

administered wages and salaries

realistic job preview

learning evaluation step

behavior evaluation step

post measure variables

job site methods

human value added

volunteer turnover rate

third quartile strategy

added into base pay

for executive only

entitlement orientation philosophy

non compete agreement

importing and exporting

human resource research

human resource audit

equal employment opportunity

pay for performance

social recognition program

reinforcement of new programs

human process intervention

foreign service premiums

training and development

human resource planning

compensation and benefits

performance based pay

non direct payments

individual pay plan

performance based pay

Test scores and job performance

longer span of time

trial sub stage

alternation ranking method

graphic rating scale method

comparing performance with goals

direct financial payments

non directive interview

savings and thrift plan

deferred profit sharing plan

cash balance plans