DBMS D.

easy to secure because information from the database cannot

Q1. The Collection of data, that contains information about one be printed Q12. Software for organizing storage and retrieval of
particular enterprise is known as? information is a(n): A. database
A. DBMS B. database program C. operating system D. data warehouse
B. Database Q13. A collection of information stored in an organized form in
C. Data Dictionary a computer is a(n):
D. Data file A. database
E. Dataware house B. DBMS
Q2. A collection of interrelated files and a set of programs that C. operating system
allow users to access and D. utility
modify these files is known as? A. DBMS Q14. A relational database is composed of one or more: A.
B. Database directories
C. Data Dictionary B. tables
D. Data file C. folders
E. Dataware house D. DBMS
Q3. The data dictionary tells the DBMS Q15. In a database table, a _ is a collection of data
A. what files are in database fields. A. vector
B. what attributes are possessed by data B. query
C. what these file contain C. descriptor
D. All of the above D. record
E. None of these Q16. In a customer database table, all of the information for one
Q4. Data Dictionary contains detail of customer is kept in a: A. field type
A. Data Structure B. field
B. Data flows C. record
C. Data stores D. column
D. All of the above Q17. In a customer database, a customer’s surname would be
E. None of these keyed into a:
Q5. Duplication of Data is known as ? A. row.
A. Data Redundancy B. text field
B. Data Integrity C. record
C. Data Inconsistancy D. computed field
D. Corrupt Data Q18. In a database, a _ field shows results of
E. None of these calculations performed on data in
Q6. Which of the following is not the objective of DBMS? A. other numeric fields. A. configured
reducing DATA REDUNDANCY B. concatenated
B. controlling DATA INCONSISTANCY C. key
C. facilitating sharing of data, ensuring data security and D. computed
standards Q19. The number of newspapers sold on May 30 would be kept
D. maintaining DATA INTEGRITY in a field.
E. All are the objectives of DBMS A. date
Q7. Which of the following is not the level of DATABASE B. numeric
ABSTRACTION? A. Internal Level or Physical Level or Low C. text
Level D. key
B. Conceptual Level Q20. Bringing data from a word processing program into a
C. External Level or View Level database program is known as: A. exporting
D. All are levels of Database Abstraction B. batch processing
Q8. Database programs can do all of the following EXCEPT: A. C. importing
store and organize data.B. create graphics. D. mining
C. communicate data. Q21. _ is perusing data in a database as if looking
D. manage information. through pages in a notebook.
Q9. A(n) is a good comparison to a database. A. A. Browsing
computerized file cabinet B. Mining
B. computerized typewriter C. Scrubbing
C. office desktop D. Cleansing
D. computerized calculator Q22. When looking for a specific patient in a hospital’s
Q10. Database software is an example of a(n): database, is more efficient than browsing.
A. DBA. A. surfing
B. application. B. keying
C. desktop publishing program. D. operating system. C. scrubbing
Q11. Advantages of databases include all of the following D. querying
EXCEPT: A. easy to reorganize data. Q23. Arranging all customer records in customer number order
B. easy to retrieve information. is an example of: A. querying
C. easy to store large amounts of data. B. sorting
C. inquiring
D. filtering Q35. _ processing is used when a large mail-order
Q24. An ordered list of specific records and specific fields company accumulates orders and processes them together in one
printed in an easy-to-read format is large set.
known as a(n): A. query A. Interactive
B. sort B. Group
C. inquiry C. Real-time
D. report D. Batch
Q25. The process of would be used when sending Q36. When making an airline reservation through the Internet,
data from a database to a you use
word processor so that mailing labels could be produced. A. processing.
exporting A. interactive
B. sorting B. group
C. mining C. digitization
D. querying D. batch
Q26. Database queries must be: A. contiguous Q37. Producing invoices once a month is an example of
B. unambiguous processing.
C. contoured A. interactive B. digitization C. real-time
D. batched D. batch
Q27. The following is an example of: Q38. In a typical client/server environment, the client can be
Select Student_ID From Students any of the following EXCEPT a: A. desktop computer
Where Major = Business and Credits >= 46 B. mainframe
A. query language C. PDA
B. BASIC language D. notebook
C. HTML language Q39. In a client/server environment, the server:
D. a spreadsheet formula A. processes a query from a client and then sends the answer
Q28. PIM stands for: back to the client. B. cannot be used to access a corporate data
A. personal information manager warehouse.
B. personal inquiry manager C. must be a CRM system.
C. personalized information management D. must be within 100 meters of all client computers in the
D. program information management network.
Q29. A(n) combines data tables with Q40. _ is connectivity software that hides the
demographic information. A. PIM complex interaction between client
B. intranet and server computers and creates a three-tier design separating
C. SPSS D. GIS actual data from the programming logic used to access it.
Q30. A manipulates data in a large collection A. CRM B. XML
files and cross references those files. C. Middleware
A. DBA D. Firmware
B. GIS C. PIM Q41. Data mining is:
D. DBMS A. batch processing using files stored on a mainframe computer.
Q31. A large corporation would use a _ to keep B. locating trends and patterns in information kept in large
records for many employees and customers along with all of its databases. C. querying databases used by the mining industry.
inventory data. D. creating a database warehouse from many smaller databases.
A. GIS Q42. is a new, powerful data description language
B. spreadsheet program used to construct web pages as well as access and query
C. PIM databases using the Internet.
D. database management system A. SQL B. CRM C. PIM D. XML
Q32. For a customer database, a good choice of key field would Q43. A CRM system organizes and tracks information on:
be: A. consulates
A. address B. computer registers
B. customer ID C. customers
C. phone number D. privacy violations
D. last name Q44. In an object-oriented database, every object is an instance
Q33. A key field must: of a
A. uniquely identify a record. A. table
B. be used to connect two tables in the database. C. be located in B. field
a minimum of three tables. C. class
D. be common and used in many records. D. record
Q34. In a(n) , data from more than one table can Q45. When a person uses language like ordinary English to
be combined. A. key field query a database, it is known as
B. relational database a(n) language query. A. HTML
C. file manager B. object-oriented
D. XML C. natural
D. XML
Q46. The act of accessing data about other people through credit Q58. is a full form of SQL. A. Standard query
card information, credit language
bureau data, and public records and then using that data without B. Sequential query language
permission is known as: A. identity theft C. Structured query language
B. personal theft D. Server side query language
C. data mining Q59. The candidate key is that you choose to identify each row
D. Big Brother crime uniquely is
Q47. An aspect of the USA Patriot Act is the requirement that called . A. Alternet Key
when presented with B. Primary Key
appropriate warrants: C. Foreign Key
A. citizens must submit to lie detector tests upon request. D. None of the above
B. companies must turn over their employees’ military records. Q60. _ is used to determine whether of a table
C. libraries must turn over their patrons’ records. contains duplicate rows. A. Unique predicate
D. foreigners must be fingerprinted when entering the US. Q48. B. Like Predicate
One disadvantage of data mining is that it: C. Null predicate
A. accumulates so much data that it is difficult to use efficiently. D. In predicate
B. bypasses virus checking. Q61. To eliminate duplicate rows ……………… is used
C. generates few results. A. NODUPLICATE B. ELIMINATE
D. produces graphs and reports, no straight-forward data. C. DISTINCT
Q49. DBMS is a collection of that enables user to D. None of these
create and maintain a database. A. Keys Q62. State true or false
B. Translators i) A candidate key is a minimal super key.
C. Program ii) A candidate key can also refer to as surrogate key.
D. Language Activity A. i-true, ii-false
Q50. In a relational schema, each tuple is divided into fields B. i-false, ii-true
called C. i-true, ii-true
A. Relations B. Domains C. Queries D. i-false, ii-false
D. All of the above Q63. DCL stands for
Q51. In an ER model, is described in the database by A. Data Control Language
storing its data. B. Data Console Language
A. Entity C. Data Console Level
B. Attribute D. Data Control Level
C. Relationship Q64. is the process of organizing data into related
D. Notation tables.
Q52. DFD stands for A. Normalization
A. Data Flow Document B. Generalization
B. Data File Diagram C. Data Flow Diagram D. None of the C. Specialization
above D. None of the above
Q53. A top-to-bottom relationship among the items in a database Q65. A Does not have a distinguishing attribute if its
is established by a own and mostly are
A. Hierarchical schema dependent entities, which are part of some another entity.
B. Network schema A. Weak entity
C. Relational Schema B. Strong entity
D. All of the above C. Non attributes entity
Q54. table store information about database or about the D. Dependent entity
system. A. SQL Q66. is the complex search criteria in the where
B. Nested clause.
C. System A. Substring
D. None of these B. Drop Table
Q55. defines the structure of a relation which consists C. Predict
of a fixed set of attribute- domain pairs. D. Predicate
A. Instance Q67. is preferred method for enforcing data integrity.
B. Schema C. Program D. Super Key A. Constraints
Q56. clause is an additional filter that is applied to the B. Stored Procedure
result. A. Select C. Triggers
B. Group-by D. Cursors
C. Having Q68. The number of tuples in a relation is called its
D. Order by While the number of attributes
Q57. A logical schema in a relation is called it’s .
A. is the entire database A. Degree, Cardinality
B. is a standard way of organizing information into accessible B. Cardinality, Degree
parts. C. Describes how data is actually stored on disk. C. Rows, Columns
D. All of the above D. Columns, Rows
Q69. State true or false.
i) Select operator is not a unary operator. B. Force
ii) Project operator chooses subset of attributes or columns of a C. Next
relation. D. Refresh
A. i-True, ii-False Q77. defines rules regarding the values allowed in
B. i-True, ii-True columns and is the standard
C. i-False, ii-True mechanism for enforcing database integrity.
D. i-False, ii-False A. Column
Q70. database is used as template for all databases B. Constraint
created. C. Index
A. Master D. Trigger
B. Model Q78. For like predicate which of the following is true.
C. Tempdb i) % matches zero of more characters.
D. None of the above ii) _ matches exactly one character.
Q71. One aspect that has to be dealt with by the integrity A. i-only
subsystem is to ensure that only B. ii-only
valid values can be assigned to each data items. This is referred C. Both of them
to as D. None of them
A. Data Security B. Domain access C. Data Control Q79. The number of attributes in relation is called as its
D. Domain Integrity .
Q72. operator is basically a join followed by a A. Cardinality
project on the attributes of first B. Degree C. Tuples D. Entity
relation. Q80. The DBMS utility, allows to reconstruct the
A. Join correct state of database from the backup and history of
B. Semi-Join transactions.
C. Full Join A. Backup
D. Inner Join B. Recovery
Q73. Which of the following is not a binary operator in C. Monitoring
relational algebra? D. Data loading
A. Join Q81. In the _ normal form, a composite attribute is
B. Semi-Join converted to individual attributes.
C. Assignment A. First
D. Project B. Second C. Third D. Fourth
Q74. Centralizing the integrity checking directly under the Q82. In RDBMS, Data is presented as a collection of .
DBMS______ Duplication and ensures the consistency and A. Table
validity of the database. B. Attributes
A. Increases C. Relations
B. Skips D. Entities
C. Does not reduce Q83. A normal form normalization will be needed
D. Reduces where all attributes in a
Q75. Which of the following is/are the DDL statements? A. relation tuple are not functionally dependent only on the key
Create attribute. A. First
B. Drop B. Second
C. Alter C. Third
D. All of the above D. Fourth
Q76. In snapshot, clause tells oracle how long to Q84. To select all column from the table the syntax is:
wait between refreshes. A. select all from table_name
A. Complete B. select * from table_name
C. select from table_name C. Union
D. None of the above D. Union join
Q85. If an attribute of a composite key is dependent on an Q91. The reasons leading to popularity of client-server
attribute of the other composite systems are:
key, a normalization called is needed. A. DKNF A. More powerful workstations on LANs
B. BCNF B. Needed for graphical user interfaces of end users.
C. Fourth C. Remove computing load for presentation services from the
D. Third system managing a shared
Q89. Identify the criteria for designing database from the point database resource
of view of user D. All
A. No redundancy Q92. The relational model is based on the concept that data is
B. No inapplicable attributes organized and stored in two-
C. Uniformity in naming & definitions of the data items dimensional tables called . A. Fields
D. All of the above B. Records
Q90. The operator preserves unmatched rows of the C. Relations
relations being joined. A. Inner join D. Keys
B. Outer join
Q93. contains information that defines valid B. ii-only
values that are stored in a column or C. Both of them
data type. A. View D. None of them
B. Rule C. Index D. Default Q95. First proposed the process of normalization.
Q94. Which of the syntax is correct for insert statement? A. Edgar. W
i) insert into <table_name> values <list of values> B. Edgar F. Codd
ii) insert into <table_name> (column list) values <list of
values> A. i-only
C Edward Stephen E. Key Constraints
D. Edward Codd Q100. specifies a search condition for a group or
Q96. For using a specific database command is an aggregate. A. GROUP BY Clause
used. B. HAVING Clause
A. use database C. FROM Clause
B. databasename use D. WHERE Clause
C. Both A &B Q101. Drop Table cannot be used to drop a table referenced by
D. None of them a constraint.
Q97. Which of the following is not comparison operator? A. > A. Local Key
B. < C. =< D. >= B. Primary Key
Q98. An outstanding functionality of SQL is its support for C. Composite Key
automatic to the target D. Foreign Key
data. Q102. joins are SQL server default. A. Outer
A. programming B. Inner
B. functioning C. Equi
C. navigation D. None of the above
D. notification Q103. The is essentially used to search for
Q99. is a special type of integrity constraint that patterns in target string.
relates two relations & maintains A. Like Predicate B. Null Predicate C. In Predicate
consistency across the relations. A. Entity Integrity Constraints D. Out Predicate
B. Referential Integrity Constraints Q104. Which of the following is/are the Database server
C. Domain Integrity Constraints functions?
D. Domain Constraints
i) Data management ii) Transaction Q105. To delete a database _ command is used. A.
management iii) Compile queries iv) delete database database_name
Query optimization B. Delete database_name
A. i, ii, and iv only C. drop database database_name
B. i, ii and iii only C. ii, iii and iv only D. All i, ii, iii, and iv D. drop database_name
Q106. is a combination of two of more attributes used as a primary
key.
A. Composite Key B. Alternate Key C. Candidate Key D. B. Privacy
Foreign Key C. Security
Q107. Which of the following is not the function of client? A. D. None of the above
Compile queries Q110. Some of the utilities of DBMS are .
B. Query optimization i) Loading ii) Backup iii) File organization
C. Receive queries iv) Process Organization
D. Result formatting and presentation A. i, ii, and iv only
Q108. is a special type of stored procedure that is B. i, ii and iii only C. ii, iii and iv only D. All i, ii, iii, and iv
automatically invoked whenever Q111. _ allows individual row operation to be
the data in the table is modified. A. Procedure performed on a given result set or on the generated by a
B. Trigger selected by a selected statement.
C. Curser A. Procedure
D. None of the above B. Trigger
Q109. requires that data should be made available C. Curser
to only authorized users. D. None of above
A. Data integrity Q112. Processed data is called . A. Raw data
B. Information C. Useful data D. Source B. title
Q113. is a utility to capture a continuous record of C. list
server activity and provide auditing capability. D. string
A. SQL server Profile Q115. contains data assisting day to day activities of
B. SQL server service manager the organization. A. Control database
C. SQL server setup B. Operational database
D. SQL server wizard. C. Strategic database
Q114. Data items grouped together for storage purposes are D. Sequential database
called a Q116. approach reduces time and effort
A. record required for design and lesser risk in database management.
A. Single global database A. A database design may be ambiguous.
B. Top-down approach C. Multiple databases D. None of the B. Unrelated data should be in the same table so that updating
above the data will be easy.
Q117. HSAM stands for . C. It should avoid/reduce the redundancy. D. An entity should
A) Hierarchic Sequential Access Method B) Hierarchic not have attributes.
Standard Access Method C) Hierarchic Sequential and Method Q120. Which of the following is not a logical database
D) Hierarchic Standard and Method structure?
Q118. SQL server stores index information in the A. Chain
system table. B. Network
A. systindexes C. Tree
B. systemindexes D. Relational
C. sysind Q121. is a preferred method for enforcing data
D. sysindexes integrity
Q119. The one guideline to be followed while designing the
database is
A. Constraints A. Delete * from table_name
B. Stored procedure B. Delete from table_name
C. Triggers C. Delete table_name
D. Cursors D. all rows cannot be deleted at a time.
Q122. Reflexivity property says that X - Y is true if Y is Q127. Which if the following is not the type of data integrity.
. A. Subset of X A. Key integrity
B. Null set of X C. Super set of Y B. Domain integrity
D. Subset of Y C. Entity integrity
Q123. Anything that affects the database schema is a part of D. Referential integrity
A. DML B. DCL C. DDL Q128. 4NF stands for .
D. All of the above A. Fourth Normal File
Q124. An instance of a relation is a time varying set of B. Fourth Normal Form
. A. Tuples C. Fourth Normal Fraction
B. Rows D. Fourth Negative File
C. Both of them Q129. A allows to make copies of the database
D. None of them periodically to help in the cases of crashes & disasters.
Q125. In the mode any record in the file can be A. Recovery utility
accessed at random B. Backup Utility
A. Sequential access C. Monitoring utility
B. Random access D. Data loading utility
C. Standard access Q130. Allows definitions and query language
D. Source access statements to be entered; query
Q126. Which can be used to delete all the rows if a table?
results are formatted and displayed. A. Schema Processor A. Forms B. Reports C. Queries D. Tables
B. Query Processor Q135. Which filter method lets you filter the records that
C. Terminal Interface match the selected field? A. Filter by form
D. None of the above B. Filter by selection
Q131. The main task carried out in the is to C. Auto filter
remove repeating attributes to D. Advanced filter
separate tables. Q136. Which filter method lets you filter records based on
A. First Normal Form criterion you specify? A. Filter by form
B. Second Normal Form B. Filter by selection
C. Third Normal Form C. Auto filter
D. Fourth Normal Form D. Advanced filter
Q132.Mechanism developed to enforce users to enter data in Q137. You can find Sort & Filter group of commands in
required format is: A. Data validation A. Home ribbon
B. Input mask B. Create ribbon
C. Criteria C. Database tools ribbon
D. Data verification D. Fields ribbon
Q133.The raw facts and figures are: A. Data Q138. Which of the following filter method is not available in
B. Information Access? A. Filter by selection
C. Snapshot B. Filter by form
D. Reports C. Advanced filter
Q134. The feature that database allows to access only certain D. None of above
records in database is:
Q139. By Grouped report you understand C. Type of report that displays data grouped by fields you
A. Type of report generated by the Report Wizard specified
B. Type of report that present records sorted in ascending or D. None of above
descending order as you specify
Q140. The text you typed in Description column in Table Q144. To display associated record from related table in
Design View is displayed on datasheet view you can
A. Description bar in forms A. Double click the record
B. Report Footer when printed B. Apply filter by form command
C. Title bar of MS Access while entering data C. Single click on expand indicator (+) next to the record D.
D. Status bar while entering data Double click on expand indicator (+) next to the record Q145.
Q141. What is the maximum allowed field size for Boolean Arrange according to size
(Yes/No) fields? A. 1 A. Record, field, byte, bit B. Bit, field, byte, record C. Field,
B. 8 byte, record, bit D. Byte, bit, record, field
C. 50 Q146. What type of relationship exists between a Student table
D. 255 and Fees table? A. One to one
Q142. What is the size of Data & Time field type? B. One to many
A. 1 C. Many to many
B. 8 D. One to many and many to many
C. 255 Q147. Identify the relationship between a Movie table and
D. 50 Stars table:
Q143. Which of the following field type can store maximum A. One to one
data? A. Yes/No fields B. One to many C. Many to many D. None of above
B. Date/Time fields Q148. What type of relationship exists between a Teacher
C. Text fields table and Class table?
D. Memo fields
A. One to many B. Many to many C. One to one C. Columnar form
D. Two to two D. Tabular form
Q149. Which of the following relationship type is not possible Q153. What is the best data type for a field that stores mobile
to realize in Access Database directly? numbers? A. Text
A. One to one B. Number
B. One to many C. Many to many D. None of above C. Date/Time
Q150. For which kind of relationship you need a junction table D. Memo
to reflect real world situation? A. One to one Q154. What field type is best to store serial numbers? A.
B. One to many Number
C. Many to many B. AutoNumber
D. None of above C. Text
Q151. What do you need if you should enforce many-to-many D. Memo
relationship between two Q155. Which of the following field type is used to store
tables? photograph of employees? A. Memo
A. Parent table B. Picture
B. Child table C. OLE D. Photo
C. Junction table Q156. Which of the following method can be used to add
D. Many-to-many relationship can't be created in database more tables in a database? A. Design View
Q152. You can display data from multiple tables by using A. B. Table Wizard
Page break C. By Entering Data
B. Sub form D. All of above
Q157. From which version Microsoft introduced Backstage A. A place to store relational information
View for Access Interface? A. Access 2003 B. A database that is related to other databases
B. Access 2007 C. A database to store human relations
C. Access 2010 D. None of above
D. Access does not have Backstage View Q162. The advantage of computerized database over manual
Q158. You can display Backstage View by clicking on database is
A. File menu A. We can get the information our quick
B. Home tab B. We can put in information quick
C. Control box C. Solve the repeated information and consistency problem
D. Quick Access Toolbar D. All of above
Q159. Why do you pin an item in list? A. To mark it to delete Q163. Circular button with Office icon in it is
from list A. Control box
B. To move it up and make it always available B. Office box
C. To make it default database when you open Access C. Company box
D. None of above D. Control menu box
Q160. The options like Save Open Database Print are Q164. Group names in ribbon can be helpful to
available in A. Group the commands so that when you move one, you can
A. Home tab move all of them together
B. Backstage View tab B. Give a name for buttons on ribbon
C. File menu C. Find the required option by inspecting through them
D. Database Tools tab D. All of above
Q161. What is relational database?
Q165. The options like Relationship SQL Server etc are found D. Home tab
in Q166. Navigation pane is placed on
A. External data tab B. Database tools tab C. Create tab
A. The left of Access workspace D. program dependence
B. The right of Access workspace E. all of above
C. Just below the Access workspace Q171. One data dictionery software package is called
D. Just above the status bar A. DB/DC dictionary
Q167. You can filter the display of different Access objects in B. TOTAL
navigation pane from C. ACCESS D. Datapac
A. View tab in ribbon E. Data Manager
B. Drop down menu at the top of navigation pane Q172. The function of a database is . A. to check all
C. Sort & Filter group in Home menu input data
D. Database tab B. to check all spelling
Q168.The ascending order of a data hierarchy is: A. bit-byte- C. to collect and organize input data
record-field-file-database D. to output data
B. byte-bit-field-record-file-database C. bit-byte-field-record- Q173. What is the language used by most of the DBMSs for
file-database D. bit-byte-file-record-field-database helping their users to access data?
Q169. Which of the following is true of a network structure? A. High level language
A. t is a physical representation of the data B. SQL
B. It allows a many-to-many relationship C. Query Language
C. It is conceptually simple D. 4GL
D. It will be dominant data base of the future Q174. The model for a record management system might be
Q170. Which of the following is a problem of file A. handwritten list
management system? A. difficult to update B. a Rolodex card file
B. lack of data independence C. a business form
C. data redundancy
D. all of the above C. increased security
Q175. Primitive operations common to all record management D. program/data independence
system include E. all of the above
A. print Q180. Which of the following contains a complete record of
B. sort all activity that affected the contents of a database during a
C. look-up certain period of time?
D. all of above A. Report Writer
Q176. In a large DBMS B. Query Language
A. each user can "see" only a small part of the entire database C. Data Manipulation Language
B. each subschema contains every field in the logical schema D. Transaction Log
C. each user can access every subschema E. None of the above
Q177. Information can be transferred between the DBMS and Q181. In the DBMS approach, application programs perform
a the
A. spreadsheet program A. Storage function
B. word processor program B. Processing functions
C. graphics program C. Access Control
D. all of the above D. All of the above
Q178. Which of the following fields in a student file can be E. None of the above
used as a primary key? Q182. A set of programs that handle a firm's database
A. class responsibilities is called
B. Social Security Number A. database management system (DBMS)
C. GPA B. database processing system (DBPS) C. data management
D. Major system (DMS)
Q179. Which of the following is not an advantage of the D. all of above
database approach Q183. Which is the make given to the database management
A. Elimination of data redundancy system which is able to handle full text data, image data, audio
B. Ability of associate deleted data and video?
A. full media A. insert B. modify C. lookup
B. graphics media D. none of above
C. multimedia Q186. A transparent DBMS
D. hypertext A. can not hide sensitive information from users
Q184. A record management system B. keeps its logical structure hidden from users
A. can handle many files of information at a time C. keeps its physical structure hidden from users
B. can be used to extract information stored in a computer file D. both b and c
C. always uses a list as its model Q187. A file produced by a spreadsheet
D. both a and b A. is generally stored on disk in an ASCII text format
Q185. A command that lets you change one or more fields in a B. can be used as is by the DBMS
record is C. both a and b
D. none of the above B. printer
Q188. Which of the following is not true of the traditional C. high speed, large capacity disk
approach to information D. plotter
processing E. mouse
A. there is common sharing of data among the various Q190. Generalized database management system do not
applications retrieve data to meet routine request
B. it is file oriented A. true
C. programs are dependent on the file B. false
D. it is inflexible Q191. Batch processing is appropriate if
E. all of the above are true A. large computer system is available
Q189. Which of the following hardware component is the B. only a small computer system is avilbale
most important to the operation of database management C. only a few transactions are involved
system? D. all of the above
A. high resolution video display
E. none of the above B. changing the data in one spot will cause data inconsistency
Q192. Large collection of files are called C. in can be more easily accessed
A. fields D. both and b
B. records C. database D. sectors Q197. An audit trail
Q193. Which of the following is not a relational database? A. A. is used to make backup copies
dBase IV B. is the recorded history of operations performed on a file
B. 4th Dimension C. can be used to restore lost information
C. FoxPro D. none of the above
D. Reflex Q198. The relational database environment has all of the
Q194. In order to use a record management system following components except
A. you need to understand the low level details of how A. users
information is stored B. separate files
B. you need to understand the model the record management C. database
system uses D. query languages
C. bother a and b E. database
D. none of the above Q199. Database management systems are intended to
Q195. Sort/Report generators A. eliminate data redundancy
A. are faster than index/report generators B. establish relationship among records in different files
B. require more disk space than indexed/report generators C. manage file access
C. do not need to sort before generating report D. maintain data integrity
D. both a and b E. all of the above
Q196. If a piece of data is stored in two places in the database, Q200. One approach to standardization storing of data?
then A. MIS
A. storage space is wasted B. structured programming
C. CODASYL specification D. both b and c
D. none of the above Q205. A form defined
Q201. The language used application programs to request data A. where data is placed on the screen
from the DBMS is B. the width of each field
referred to as the C. both a and b
A. DML B. DDL D. none of the above
C. query language Q206. A top-to-bottom relationship among the items in a
D. any of the above database is established by a
E. none of the above A. hierarchical schema
Q202. The highest level in the hierarchy of data organization B. network schema C. relational schema D. all of the above
is called Q207. The management information system (MIS) structure
A. data bank B. data base C. data file with one main computer
D. data record system is called a
Q203. Choose the RDBMS which supports full fledged client A. hierarchical MIS structure B. distributed MIS structure C.
server application development centralized MIS structure
A. dBase V D. decentralized MIS structure
B. Oracle 7.1 Q208. DBA stands for:
C. FoxPro 2.1 A. Database associated
D. Ingress B. Database administrator
Q204. Report generators are used to C. Database application
A. store data input by a user D. None of these
B. retrieve information from files Q209. DBMS stands for:
C. answer queries
A. Database associated D. Database management system
B. Database administrator Q210. Which means a place where data can be stored in a
C. Database application structured manner: A. CPU
B. Database C. Memory
C. ALU D. None of these
D. All of these Q215. How many basic operation performed in DBMS: A. 1
Q211. A database is a complex _: A. Data structure B. 2
B. Memory C. 3
C. Both D. 4
D. None Q216. Basic operation performed in DBMS are:
Q212. The set of data available to the user, the so-called: A. A. Management of data in the database
Start-user data B. Management of user associated with database
B. End-user data C. Both
C. Database D. None
D. None of these Q217. is a collection of programs performing all
Q213. How is describing the end-user data: A. Memory necessary action associated with a database:
B. CPU A. Database associated
C. ALU D. Data B. Database administrator
Q214. DBMS is to impose a logical and structured C. Database application
organization on: D. Database management system
A. Register Q218. is a program or set of program that interacts
B. Data with the database at some point
in its execution: Q222. A DBMS provides users with the conceptual
A. A database system representation of: A. Register
B. A database application B. Data
C. Both C. Logical view
D. None D. Physical view
Q219. is a collection of application programs that Q223. Which structure of data clearly is one of the main
interacts with the database along features of the database approach:
with DBMS: A. Logical view B. Physical view C. Both
A. A database system D. None
B. A database application Q224. A _view of data expresses the way a user thinks
C. Both about data
D. None A. Logical view B. Physical view C. Both
Q220. In which services the processes of database D. None
management and data management are complementary: Q225. A physical view of data refers to the way data is
A. Database associated handled at a its storage and
B. Database administrator retrieval:
C. Database application A. High level
D. Database management system B. Low level
Q221. ACID stands for: C. Medium level
A. Atomicity, consistency, isolation, and durability D. All of these
B. Atomicity, command, integrity, and data C. Atomicity, Q226. In logical and physical view of data the set of principles
control, integrated, and direct D. None of these that defines a data model may
be divided into how many parts: A. 1
B. 2 Q230. A data dictionary is a repository that manages : A.
C. 3 Database
D. 4 B. Memory
Q227. In logical and physical view of data the set of principles C. Metadata
that defines a data model may be divided into which part: D. All of these
A. Data definition Q231. Which languages are used to define and query a
B. Data manipulation database: A. Database
C. Data integrity B. Memory
D. All of these C. Metadata
Q228. The overall description of a database is called : A. D. All of these
Data definition Q232. DDL stand for:
B. Data manipulation A. Data definition language
C. Data integrity B. Data description languages
D. Database schema C. Data design languages
Q229. Which is proper subset designed to support ‘views’ D. Database dictionary languages
belonging to different classes of users in order to hid or protect Q233. Which are the not most frequently used DDL
information: statements: A. CREATE
A. Schema B. DROP
B. Subschema C. ALTER
C. Non-schema D. None of these
D. None-subschema Q234. VDL stand for:
A. View data languages
B. View design languages D. View done languages
C. View definition languages Q235. SDL stands for
A. Stand definition languages B. Storage definition languages C. SDL D. VDL
C. Select definition languages D. System definition languages Q240. Which is used to specify the user views and their
Q236. The DDL is used to specify the _: A. Conceptual mappings to the conceptual schema:
schemas A. DDL B. DML C. SDL D. VDL
B. Internal schemas Q241. How many types of DML: A. 1
C. Both B. 2
D. None C. 3
Q237. The SDL is used to specify the _ : A. Conceptual D. 4
schemas Q242. What are the types of DML:
B. Internal schemas A. Low level
C. Both B. High level
D. None C. Procedural DML
Q238. DML stands for: D. All of these
A. Data description languages Q243. Which is requires a user to specify what data is needed
B. Data design languages and how to get it: A. Low level
C. Database dictionary languages B. Procedural DML C. Both
D. Data manipulation languages D. None
Q239. Which is used for data retrieval from the database: A. Q244. Data is manipulated by procedure calls to subroutines
DDL provided by a_ : A. Data
B. DML
B. DBMS C. Register C. 4
D. All of these D. 5
Q245. The programming languages is called: A. Sublanguages Q250. Which are the three levels of abstraction: A. Physical
B. Host languages B. Logical
C. VDL D. DDL C. External
Q246. The DML is called: D. All of these
A. Sublanguages B. Host languages C. VDL Q251. How many types of data independence: A. 1
D. DDL B. 2
Q247. Which command are included in a general purpose C. 3
programming languages? A. DDL D. 4
B. DML Q252.Which are the types of data independence: A. Physical
C. SDL D. VDL B. Logical
Q248. A database management system are very complex : C. Both
A. Art D. All of these
B. Command C. Languages D. System Q253. Which is the transformation of requests and results
Q249. How many levels of abstraction in DBMS: A. 2 between different levels of
B. 3 abstraction: A. Evaluation
B. Mapping C. Both
C. Compiler D. None
D. Precompiler Q258. In which end is really just any application that runs on
Q254. Which mapping exists between the conceptual and top of the DBMS and acts as a
internal levels: A. Conceptual user interface: A. Back end
B. Internal B. Front end
C. Both C. Both
D. None D. None
Q255. Which mapping exists between the external and Q259. Data are stored in as database:
conceptual levels: A. Data files
A. Conceptual B. Data dictionary
B. Internal C. Database
C. Both D. Data administrator
D. None Q260. RAD stands for:
Q256. The related and interconnected software components of A. Rotate application development B. Register application
a DBMS are described by the development C. Related application development D. Rapid
: application development Q261. DA stands for:
A. Logical architecture A. Data administrator
B. Physical architecture B. Database active
C. Both C. Define application
D. None D. All of these
Q257. Which are the types of physical DBMS architecture can Q262. Which is the person responsible for overall control of
be split : A. Back end the database system:
B. Front end
A. DDL C. Both
B. DBMS C. DBA D. SDL D. None
Q263. DBA stands for: Q267. In which the database can be restored up to the last
A. Database maintenance consistent state after the system failure:
B. Database administrator A. Backup
C. Database backup B. Recovery
D. Database designer C. Both
Q264. Transaction is an action used to perform some D. None
manipulation on data stored in the : A. Memory Q268. Which are the not user in End-user: A. Naïve users
B. Record B. Casual users
C. Database C. Sophisticated user
D. All of these D. All of these
Q265. How many features of a DBMS which provide a number Q269. Which are the not features of a DBMS which provide a
of advantages for data management: number of advantages for data management:
A. 1 A. DML B. DDL
B. 3 C. SDL
C. 5 D. None of these
D. 7 Q270. Minimal data redundancy means improved :
Q266. Which is a DBMS keeps back-up copies of the database: A. Data independence
A. Backup B. Data consistency
B. Recovery

C. Data integration
 D. Data sharing A. Data independence
Q271. Who access the database occasionally and have B. Data consistency C. Data integration D. Data sharing
different needs each time: A. Naïve users Q276. Who is requested to carry out various operation, such as
B. Casual users insert, delete, update and retrieval vwiours on the database by
C. Sophisticated user the user:
D. All of these A. DBA
Q272. Who interact with the system without writing a B. DBMS C. DBS
program: A. Naïve users D. DDL
B. Casual users Q277. is a translates into low-level instruction that a
C. Sophisticated user query processor understands: A. DBA
D. All of these B. DBMS
Q273. Who interact with the system by invoking one of the C. DBS D. DDL
permanent application program: A. Naïve users Q278. Retrieval of data is done by using a :
B. Casual users A. Stack
C. Sophisticated user B. Query
D. All of these C. Linked list
Q274. The main interface that a native user uses is a form D. All of these
interface using : A. DDL Q279. DML is a languages by which user accesses or
B. GUI manipulates the : A. Data model
C. OLAP D. DML B. Data consistency
Q275. The provision of is a major objective for
database system:
 D. Data sharing Q284.Which is incorporated to create an appropriate physical
Q280. Which is the central component of the DBMS software database that is transformed by a logical data model:
that can also be termed as the database control system: A. SDL B. VDL
A. Data consistency C. Both
B. Data integration D. None
C. Data sharing Q285. SQL stands for:
D. Data manager A. System query language
Q281. Which is stored information about description of data B. Sequential query language
in the database: A. Data files C. Sets query languages
B. Data dictionary D. None of these
C. Database Q286. CSV stands for:
D. Data administrator A. Command system values
Q282. After conversion of high level queries into low level B. Comma system values
commands for file access and is C. Command separated values
called compiled : A. DDL D. Comma separated values
B. DML Q287. PDF stands for: A. Physical data format
C. SDL D. VDL B. Portable document format
Q283. Which is installs, configures, troubleshoots and C. Physical document format D. Portable data format Q288.
maintains a database system: XML stands for:
A. DBA B. DDL C. DML D. SDL A. Xtensible markup languages
B. Xtensible memory languages D. None of these
C. Both Q293. In which circumstances not variable-length record
D. None occur: A. Mixed files
Q289. BLOB stands for: B. Repeating field
A. Binary languages Objects C. Both
B. Bit large Objects D. None
C. Binary low objects Q294.The block containing the record is the unit of data
D. Binary large objects transferred between the _ : A. Main memory and The
Q290. Which is refers to the collection of related data values disk
or items called fields: B. Data and Memory
A. Record C. Data and Disk
B. Record blocking D. All of these
C. Fixed-length record Q295. Who is the unit of data transferred: A. The memory
D. Variable-length record B. The data
Q291. Every record in the same size in bytes the file is C. The user
constituted of : A. Record D. The block
B. Record blocking Q296. is a collection of all occurrences of similar types
C. Fixed-length record of records: A. Data
D. Variable-length record B. Data item
Q292. is the records in the file are of different C. File
sizes: D. All of these
A. Record blocking Q297. How many types of recodes in a file-based system:
B. Fixed-length record A. 2
C. Variable-length record B. 4
C. 6 A. File blocks
D. 8 B. File operations
Q298. Which are is not type of recodes in a file-based system: C. File headers
A. Logical records B. Physical records C. Both D. File organization
D. None Q303. New records are placed at the end of the file it is
Q299. Which contain information about a file needed by referred to as : A. Heap file
system programs for accessing file records: B. Pile file
A. File blocks C. Both
B. File operations D. None
C. File headers Q304. The field which is used to order the file is referred to as
D. None of these :
Q300. The file operations can be divided into how many A. Sorted field
categories: A. 1 B. Ordering field
B. 2 C. Both
C. 3 D. None
D. 4 Q305. Binary search accesses blocks: A. Log(b)
Q301. take into account only such records that are valid: B. Log2(b) C. 2log(b)
A. Algorithm D. Log(2b)
B. Searching algorithm Q306. Which provides precise partition between abstract
C. Flow chart characteristics of the data type and its implementation
D. All of these specifications:
Q302. file organization is vital for ensuring the most
efficient access of files and records:
A. Data
B. Data item
C. File
D. Data abstraction
Q307. ODBS stands for:
A. Off data base connection
B. Open data base connection
C. Oriented data base connection
D. All of these
Q308. DDL stands for:
A. Decode data languages
B. Data define languages
C. Database define languages
D. Define data languages
Q309. SOA stands for:
A. Services oriented abstraction
B. System oriented abstraction
C. Services oriented architecture
D. All of these
Q310. ADSL stands for:
A. Acquired data system line
B. Asymmetric digital subscribe line
C. Asymmetric digital subscribe languages
D. Acquired data system languages
Q311. Which services are insulated by abstraction from the
fundamental physical data:
A. DDL B. ODBC C. SOA
D. ADSL
Q312. EII stand for:
A. Enterprise information integration
B. End information integration C. Enterprise input information
D. None of these
Q313. is another name given to data integration when
use in the management context:
A. EII B. IEI C. GUI D. SUI
Q314. LAV stands for: A. Logical as view
B. Local as view
C. Land as view
D. Last as view
Q315. GAV stands for: A. Global as view
B. Global as verify D. Computer data information
C. Both Q320. How many structure used in ontology based on
D. None data integration application are explained:
Q316. ETL stands for: A. 1
A. End transforming and loudening B. 2
B. Extracting transforming and loading C. 3
C. Extracting transforming and languages D. 4
D. End transforming and languages Q321. is the commercial application of data
Q317. GSM stands for: integration: A. EII
A. Global source mapping B. IEI C. GUI D. SUI
B. Global system map Q322. ANSI stands for:
C. Global system master A. Analyst national system institute
D. Global system mode B. Analog national system institute
Q318. Which are the accepted ways for modeling such C. Analyst national standards institute
correspondence: A. LAV D. American national standards institute
B. GAV Q323. SPARC stands for:
C. Both A. System planning and requirements
D. None B. Standards planning and requirements
Q319. CDI stands for: C. Both
A. Computer data input D. None
B. Code data input Q324. Which can choose from several approaches to
C. Computer data integration manage data: A. DBMS
B. DDL C. SDL D. CDL B. 2
Q325. Which provides mechanisms to structure data in the C. 3
data base being modeled: A. DBMS D. 4
B. DDL Q330. Which are the types of record based logical models: A.
C. SDL D. CDL Relational
Q326. E-R stands for: B. Network
A. Entry relationship B. Entity relationship C. Both C. Hierarchical
D. None D. All of these
Q327. Which models a collection of various concepts that are Q331. E-R model entities and their relationship are
use to describe the structure of a data base: corresponded as dimensional tables:
A. Data base A. 2
B. Data model B. 4
C. Data C. 5
D. Recorded D. 6
Q328. Data at the conceptual level and view level can be Q332. Which are the not properties of a relation are: A. Row
describe with the help of _: A. Data model order are insignificant
B. Relation model B. Column order are insignificant
C. Record based logical model C. The values are atomic
D. All of these D. None of these
Q329. How many types of record based logical models: Q333. Which is the various key: A. Super key
A. 1
B. Primary key C. 3
C. Secondary key D. Alternate key E. Candidate key F. D. 4
Foreign key Q338. Which components are use in make up the
G. Concatenated key relational model: A. Structural
H. All of these B. Manipulative
I. None of these C. Integrity
Q334. Which is a primary domain: D. All of these
A. Domain Q339. Who is represent a data base as a collection of
B. Data relation value: A. Data model
C. Register B. Relation model
D. Models C. Record based logical model
Q335. In which year the relational model introduced: A. D. All of these
1969 Q340. The heading of a relation is also referred to as
B. 1970 : A. Relation schema
C. 1971 B. Intension
D. 1972 C. Both
Q336. In which person introduced the relational model: D. None
A. E.F. codd B. F.F. codd C. E.E. codd Q341. In relational model the body of the relation is
D. None of these referred to as :
Q337. How many components in relational model: A. 1 A. Extension
B. 2 B. Criterion
C. Relation B. 3
D. None of these C. 4
Q342. Which is the set of defined atomic values for an D. 5
attribute: Q348. In a SQL schema may be defined as which types:
A. Domain A. VIEWS
B. Data B. BASE RELATION C. BOTH
C. Register D. NONE
D. Models Q349. CAD stands for:
Q343. Which is the name of role played by a domain in the A. Computer aided design
relation: A. Relational schema B. Computer aided data
B. Domain C. Attribute D. Relation C. Computer aided database
Q345. Which is made up of relation name and a list of D. None of these
attributes: Q350. Which is refers to knowledge about the meaning of
A. Relational schema data:
B. Domain C. Attribute D. Relation A. Data types
Q346. A is defined as the subset of the subset of the B. Base relation
Cartesian product of domains: A. Extension C. Semantic knowledge
B. Criterion D. All of these
C. Relation Q351. In which is do not fully support the domain concept:
D. None of these A. DBMS
Q347. SQL schema is how many types of relation schema B. DBS
may be defined: A. 2 C. RDBMS
D. All of these A. DATA
Q352. Which is used for searching and retrieving records from B. RELTION C. PCR
the database: A. DBS D. All of these
B. DBMS C. DDL Q357. Which is a database model used to represent objects and
D. DML the relationship among these objects:
Q353. How many types of data structures used in hierarchical A. Data model
model: A. 2 B. Relation model
B. 3 C. Hierarchical model
C. 4 D. Network model
D. 5 Q358. RDBMS stands for:
Q354. PCR stands for: A. Relational database management system
A. Primary child relationship B. Relational database management structured
B. Parent child relationship C. Relational database management search
C. Both D. Relational database management sum
D. None Q359. Which algebra is widely used in computer science:
Q355. Which types of data structures used in Hierarchical A. Arithmetic algebra B. Relational algebra C. Both
model: A. PCR D. None
B. Records Q360. algebra has similar power of expression as
C. Both relational calculus and first order logic:
D. None A. Arithmetic algebra
Q356. it is an1:N relationship between two different B. Relational algebra
record types:
C. Both H. None of these
D. None Q364. Which is a unary operation:
Q361. In relation algebra a new term was defined by A. Selection operation B. Primitive operation C.
codd as _: Projection operation D. Generalized selection
A. Relation Q365. Relational calculus can be divided into how many
B. Relation completeness calculi: A. 2
C. Relation operation B. 3
D. Relation selection C. 4
Q362. How many primitive operators of relation algebra D. 5
as proposed by codd: A. 2 Q366. Which is relation calculus: A. Tuple relation
B. 3 calculus
C. 4 B. Domain relational calculus
D. 6 C. Both
Q363. Which are the primitive operators of relation D. None
algebra as proposed by codd: Q367. Which calculus is based on specifying a number
A. Selection of tuple variables: A. Tuple relation calculus
B. Projection B. Domain relational calculus
C. Cartesian product C. Both
D. Set union D. None
E. Set difference Q368. SQL is used for interacting with : A. DBMS
F. Rename B. RDBMS
G. All of these C. DDL D. SDL
Q369. SQL is a languages: A. Database languages B. Column
B. Declarative languages C. Tablespace
C. Both D. Result set
D. None Q374. How many forms of SQL: A. 2
Q370. ISO stands for: B. 4
A. Input standards organization C. 6
B. Interrupt standard organization D. None of these
C. International standards organization Q375. Which are form of SQL: A. Interactive
D. None of these B. Embedded
Q371. Which is a collection of a defined group of database C. Both
object like tables, indexes, tablespace: D. None
A. Database Q376. In SQL which operators on a data base to produce
B. Record output for user demand: A. Interactive
C. Memory B. Embedded
D. All of these C. Both
Q372. A is a single non-decomposable data element in a D. None
table: A. View Q377. In SQL which command can be put inside a program
B. Column written in some other languages like C,C++:
C. Tablespace A. Interactive
D. None of these B. Embedded
Q373. SQL outputs a single table known as the : C. Both
A. View
D. None C. Data control
Q378. Data is passed to a program environment through D. All of these
: A. DBMS Q383. How many interfaces provided by oracle:
B. SQL C. DDL A. 1
D. SDL B. 2
Q379. DQL stands for: A. Data query line C. 3
B. Data query languages D. 4
C. Data query land Q384. In which are interface provided by oracle: A. SQL
D. Direct query languages *PLUS
Q380. TCL stands for: B. SQL*PLUS command line interface
A. Transaction control languages C. SQL Plus Worksheet(introduced in ORACLE8i) D. SQL
B. Transaction command languages *PLUS(introduced in ORACLE9i)
C. Transaction connect languages E. All of these
D. None of these F. None of these
Q381. Which is that part of SQL that allows a database user Q385. SQL has how many main commands for DDL: A. 1
to create and restructure data base objects: B. 2
A. DBMS C. 3
B. SQL C. DDL D. SDL D. 4
Q382. _ commands in SQL allow controlling access to Q386. Which are main commands for DDL in SQL: A.
data within database: A. Database CREATE
B. Data
B. ALTER C. DROP B. Oracle 8i
D. All of these C. Pre-oracle 9i
Q387. How many data types in oracle: A. 2 D. Pre-oracle 8i
B. 3 Q392. Oracle-9i is supported by the syntax:
C. 4 A. ANSI SQL-96
D. 5 B. ANSI SQL-97
Q388. In which are the data types in oracle: C. ANSI SQL-98
A. ANSI standard data types B. Oracle defined data D. ANSI SQL-99
types C. Both Q393. How many join types in join condition: A. 2
D. None B. 3
Q389. A is a query that retrieves rows from more C. 4
than one table or view: A. Start D. 5
B. End Q394. Which are the join types in join condition: A.
C. Join Cross join
D. All of these B. Natural join
Q390. A condition is referred to as : C. Join with USING clause
A. Join in SQL D. Outer join
B. Join condition E. Join with ON clause
C. Both F. All of these
D. None Q395. How many tables in a join query have no join
Q391. Which oracle is the join condition is specified condition:
using the WHERE clause: A. Oracle 9i
A. 2 C. Write key
B. 3 D. None of these
C. 4 Q400. Which constraint that requires that the column contain a
D. None of these value when it is initially inserted into the table:
Q396. Which product is returned in a join query have no join A. IS NULL
condition: A. Equijoins B. NOT NULL C. UNIQUE
B. Cartesian D. None
C. Both Q401. Which constraint that identifies a column or
D. None combination of columns as a unique key: A. IS NULL
Q397. Which is a join condition contains an equality operator: B. NOT NULL C. UNIQUE
A. Equijoins D. None
B. Cartesian Q402. Which command is use for removing a table and all its
C. Both data from the database: A. Create command
D. None B. Drop table command
Q398. Which command defines its columns, integrity C. Alter table command
constraint in create table: A. Create command D. All of these
B. Drop table command Q403. Which command that allows the removal of all rows
C. Alter table command from a table but flushes a table more efficiently since no
D. All of these rollback information is retained:
Q399. It refers to set of one or more columns that designates A. TRUNCATE command
the key in a referential integrity constraint: B. Create command
A. Select key C. Drop table command
B. Foreign key
D. Alter table command B. 2
Q404. Which join refers to join records from the write table C. 3
that have no matching key in the left table are include in the D. 4
result set: Q409. In precedence of set operators the expression is
A. Left outer join evaluated from : A. Left to Left
B. Right outer join C. Full outer join D. Half outer join B. Right to Right
Q405. How many set operations supports the oracle SQL: A. 2 C. Left to Right
B. 3 D. Right to Left
C. 4 Q410. View in SQL a view may be defined as a : A. Stored
D. 5 query
Q406. Which are the set operations supports the oracle SQL: B. Virtual table
A. UNION C. Both
B. UNION ALL C. INTERSECT D. MINUS D. None
E. All of these Q411. Which views is using in several advantages: A.
Q407. _ operator merges the result sets of two component Simplicity
queries: B. Security
A. UNION C. User reports D. Data integrity E. All of these
B. UNION ALL C. INTERSECT D. MINUS Q412. How many types of views in SQL: A. 1
Q408. How many component queries are combined using the
set operators: A. 1
B. 2 D. None of these
C. 3 Q417. Which view that contains more than one table in the top-
D. 4 level FROM clause of the
Q413. Which are the types of views in SQL: A. Inline view SELECT statement: A. Join view
B. Database view B. Datable join view
C. Materialized view C. Updatable join view
D. All of these D. All of these
Q414. Which operation are allowed in a join view: Q418. Which option is used to create a view as a constrained
A. UPDATE B. INSERT C. DELETE view and prohibit specific insert
D. All of these and update operations with the view: A. DATABASE
Q415. The materialized view was introduced by: A. Oracle 6 B. WITH CHECK OPTION C. WITH WRITE OPTION D.
B. Oracle 7 WITH OPTION
C. Oracle 8 Q419. Which command is used to add the views to the
D. Oracle 9 database: A. DATABASE VIEW
Q416. We can delete from join view provided there is B. CREATE VIEW
key preserved table in the C. CREATE OPTION D. None of these
join: Q420. Which option is used with the WHERE clause: A.
A. One and Only One DATABASE
B. One and Two B. WITH CHECK OPTION
C. Two and One C. WITH WRITE OPTION D. WITH OPTION
Q421. Which option may be used to create the inline view as published by: A. Codds
a constrained view: A. DATABASE B. F.F. codd
B. WITH CHECK OPTION C. E.E. codd
C. WITH WRITE OPTION D. WITH OPTION D. None of these
Q422. In which year ORACLE, an SQL product was Q426. Which is an ANSI standard and has many different
released: versions:
A. 1976 A. IBM B. SQL
B. 1977 C. RDBMS
C. 1978 D. ORACLE
D. 1979 Q427. Which is used for interfacing with RDBMS: A. IBM
Q423. The prototype for SQL was originally developed by: B. SQL
A. INTEL C. ANSI
B. APPLE D. ORACLE
C. IBM Q428. Which is the basis for SQL and also for all other
D. All of these contemporary database system like
Q424. In which year relational algebra became prominent MS SQL Server, IBM DB2, Oracle, My SQL and
after the relational model of MICROSOFT Access: A. DDL
database was published: A. 1969 B. SDL
B. 1970 C. RDBMS
C. 1971 D. None of these
D. 1972 Q429. FD stands for:
Q425. Relational algebra became prominent after the A. Functional dependency
relational model of database was B. Facilitate dependency
C. Functional data Q434. Which is very essential as no single set has a specific sot
D. Facilitate data order for its elements: A. Rows
Q430. In which model of database data is stored in tables: B. Columns
A. Network model C. Tables
B. Relational model D. All of these
C. Hierarchical model Q435. How many types of keys in relation database design: A.
D. None of these Primary key
Q431. The relational database model and after that by a B. Candidate key
researcher at : A. IBM C. Foreign key
B. Apple D. All of these
C. Intel Q436. Which keys are used that are a column in the table: A.
D. All of these Primary key
Q432. The database containing tables related to each other that B. Candidate key
help in the smooth processing C. Foreign key
of data is called : A. Service database D. All of these
B. Relation database Q437. Which key is referencing a primary key in a table: A.
C. Related database Primary key
D. None of these B. Candidate key
Q433. A table can be defined as a set of : C. Foreign key
A. Rows D. All of these
B. Columns Q438. Which key is used to fined the customer from the table:
C. Both A. Primary key
D. None B. Candidate key
C. Foreign key Q443. In relationships how many different ways in which
D. All of these two tables may be related: A. 1
Q439. Which key have a common meaning: B. 2
A. Foreign key B. Primary key C. Both C. 3
D. None D. 4
Q440. A domain is a collection of values from where the Q444. In which ways two tables may be related:
columns are : A. Deleted A. One-one
B. Created B. One-many C. Many-many D. All of these
C. Maintained Q445. Which rules are defined in relational models they
D. All of these from as an essential part of any relation database:
Q441. Which access provides a partial support to domains: A. Integrity rules
A. Microsoft B. Database C. Record D. Memory
B. Microprocessor C. Microcomputer D. Memory Q446. How many types of integrity rules: A. 1
Q442. Which database relationship is considered only B. 2
between pairs of tables: A. Service database C. 3
B. Relational database D. 4
C. Related database Q447. Which are the types of integrity rule:
D. None of these A. General
B. Database specific
C. Both B. Referential integrity rule
D. None C. General integrity rule
Q448. How many general rules in a relational model and D. Database specific integrity rule
being general rules these are Q452. Which has support for specification of global rule
applicable to all database: A. 2 applicable to the whole table:
B. 3 A. Microsoft access1.0
C. 4 B. Microsoft access1.5
D. 5 C. Microsoft access2.0
Q449. Which rules are know as ’entity integrity’ and D. Microsoft access2.5
‘referential integrity’: Q453. In creating a table a row contains: A. Memory
A. General B. Record
B. Database specific C. Field
C. Both D. None
D. None Q454. In creating a table a column contains:
Q450. _ states that primary keys should not be null: A. Memory B. Record C. Field
A. Entity integrity D. None
B. Referential integrity Q455. Which have not have client/server architecture: A.
C. Both DBS
D. None B. DBMS C. RDBMS
Q451. Integrity constraints that do not fall under the D. All of these
preceding two integrity rules are Q456. Which command creates database objects like
referred to as : A. Entity integrity rule tables views and indexes: A. Create command
B. Update command Q460. Which relationship model provides a starting point
C. Both for identifying schemas and integrity constraints:
D. None A. Entity
Q457. Which command enables alteration the data stored in B. Referential
existing records: A. Create command C. Both
B. Update command D. None
C. Deletion command Q461. FD stands for: A. Formal dependency
D. All of these B. Functional dependency
Q458. Which query joins many dimension of tables to a fact C. Fact dependency
table which contains large D. Superset dependency
amount of rows and uses aggregate: A. IBM Q462. Which is derived from mathematical theory:
B. SQL C. ANSI A. IBM B. SQL C. ANSI D. FD
D. ORACLE Q463. Which are dependent on the information of what can
Q459. Which valued facts formalize the concept of be stored in the relation and serve as integrity constraints:
functional dependency: A. Single-valued A. IBM
B. Double-valued B. SQL C. ANSI D. FD
C. Both Q464. A relation state r of R that satisfies the functional
D. None dependency constraints is
called of R:
A. Legal relation state C. FD
B. Unlegal relation state
D. All of these B. Database
Q465. How many various types of dependencies: A. 1 C. Database design
B. 2 D. All of these
C. 3 Q470. Which is primarily the result of a thorough
D. 4 understanding of information about an enterprise:
Q466. Which are the dependencies types: A. Full functional A. Data
dependency B. Database
B. Partial dependency C. Database design
C. Trivial functional dependency D. Data modeling
D. All of these Q471. McFadden has defined normalization in his which
Q467. FDs are the types of constraints that are based on book : A. Database modern management
_: A. Key B. Management database of modern
B. Key revisited C. Modern database management
C. Superset key D. Database management
D. None of these Q472. The database design prevents some data from being
Q468. What is a super key: A. Key represented due to :
B. Key revisited A. Deletion anomalies B. Insertion anomalies C. Update
C. Superset key anomaly
D. None of these D. None of these
Q469. Which s essential a business problem not a data Q473. How many types of insertion anomalies: A. 1
problem: B. 2
A. Data C. 3
D. 4 A. Functional dependency
Q474. Who developed the normalization process: A. E.F. codd B. Database modeling
B. F.F. codd C. Normalization
C. E.E. codd D. Decomposition
D. None of these Q479. In decomposition technique of splitting a relation into
Q475. E.F.Codd developed the normalization process in the relation: A. ONE or MORE
which early: A. 1969 B. TWO or MORE
B. 1970 C .THREE or MORE D. FOUR or MORE
C. 1971 Q480. Codd suggested how many forms in normalization
D. 1972 process:
Q476. Which is a bottom-up approach to database design that A. 1
design by examining the relationship between attributes: B. 2
A. Functional dependency C. 3
B. Database modeling D. 4
C. Normalization Q481. Consequently R.Boyce-Codd jointly launched powerful
D. Decomposition definition for the thired normal form called :
Q477. Which is the process of breaking a relation into A. Boyce-Codd normal form
multiple relations: A. Functional dependency B. First normal form
B. Database modeling C. Second normal form
C. Normalization D. All of these
D. Decomposition Q482. BCNF stands for:
Q478. Which formal method that locates and analyses relation
schemas on the basis of their primary, candidate keys, and the
FD’s that are present among the attributes of these schemas:
A. Basic -Codd normal form B. Build -Codd normal form C. Q487. PJNF stands form:
Boyce-Codd normal form D. None of these A. Practically –join normal form
Q483. Which forms simplifies and ensures that there is B. Project –join normal form
minimal data aggregates and repetitive groups: C. Pages –join normal form
A. 1NF B. 2NF D. Programming –join normal form
C. 3NF Q488. Which forms are based on the concept of functional
D. All of these dependency: A. 1NF
Q484. Which forms every non-prime attribute is fully B. 2NF C. 3NF D. 4NF
dependent functionally on the candidate key of a relational Q489. Which one is based on multi-valued dependency: A.
schema: First
A. 1NF B. Second
B. 2NF C. 3NF D. 5NF C. Third
Q485. Which forms is required when although NF is present D. Fourth
more normalization is required: A. 1NF Q490. Which is one of the major important components of the
B. 2NF relational database: A. Query execution
C. 3NF D. 4NF B. Query process
Q486. Which forms has a relation that possesses data about an C. Query optimizer
individual entity: D. Query transaction
A. 2NF B. 3NF C. 4NF D. 5NF
Q491. Which is refers to the process of restoring the data that B. Index intersection
has been stored in a compter: A. Retrieve C. Index joins
B. Backup D. Parallel queries
C. Recovery Q496. Which Microsoft SQL server makes selection of the
D. Deadlock most appropriate index every table even if there are many
Q492. Query processing refers to technique of maintaining predicates in the query:
managing and manipulating data A. Microsoft SQL server6.0
stored with in the computer system by using queries: A. B. Microsoft SQL server6.5
DBMS C. Microsoft SQL server7.0
B. RDBMS D. Microsoft SQL server7.5
C. SQL Q497. Which is implement it to the index intersection in index
D. None of these joins: A. SQL server6.0
Q493. How many major stages of query processing: A. 1 B. SQL server6.5
B. 2 C. SQL server7.0
C. 3 D. SQL server7.5
D. 4 Q498. Which server can joins the indexes when only multiple
Q494. Which are the major stages of query processing: A. indexes combined can cover the
Query execution query: A. SQL
B. Query optimizer B. DBMS
C. Both C. RDBMS
D. None D. All of these
Q495. In query processor which ordering is related to hash joins Q499. How many types of disk I/O:
by SQL server 7.0: A. 1
A. Interesting ordering B. 2
C. 3 D. Query transaction
D. 4 Q504. Which can be defined as the method in which the
Q500. In which is types of I/O disk: selected plan is executed at the query
A. Random I/O optimization stages: A. Query execution B. Query process
B. Sequential I/O C. Both C. Query optimizer
D. None D. Query transaction
Q501. Choosing for large and non-indexed tables, specifically Q505. Which refers to technique of maintaining, managing and
for intermediate results can be termed as : manipulating data store
A. Hashing within the computer system by using SQL queries: A. Query
B. Parallelism execution
C. Disk B. Query processing C. Query optimizer D. Query transaction
D. Deadlock Q506. Which is the method of processing the plan selected
Q502. SMP stands for: throughout query optimization: A. Query execution
A. System multi-processing B. Query process
B. Server multi-processing C. Query optimizer
C. Symmetric multi-processing D. Query transaction
D. Securing multi-processing Q507. Which refers to a property of computer to run several
Q503. Which in the database which is a software component in operation simultaneously and possible as computers await
the RDBMS that carries out response of each other:
analysis of SQL statement for finding the best way for its A. Concurrency
execution: A. Query execution B. Deadlock
B. Query process C. Backup
C. Query optimizer
D. Recovery Q512. Optimization basically related to the Rewrite module is
Q508. Which is refers to a stalemate situation due to which no termed as :
further progress is possible as computer await response of each A. Semantic query optimization
other: B. Global query optimization
A. Concurrency C. Both
B. Deadlock C. Backup D. Recovery D. None
Q509. Which is a duplicate copy of a file program that is Q513. Database security helps organizations to protect data
stored on a different storage media than the original location: from : A. Internal users
A. Concurrency B. External users
B. Deadlock C. Backup D. Recovery C. Non-external users
Q510. Which is duplication of computer operations and D. Non internal users
routine backups to combat any unforeseen problems: Q514. Copying files to secondary or specific devices is known
A. Concurrency as :
B. Deadlock C. Backup D. Recovery A. Retrieve B. Backup C. Recovery D. Deadlock
Q511. Optimization that is basically related to the rewriter Q515. How many types of recovery control techniques: A. 2
module is termed as : A. Semantic query B. 3
optimization C. 4
B. Global query optimization D. 5
C. Both Q516. Which are types of recovery control techniques: A.
D. None Deferred update
B. Immediate update D. Data analysis
C. Both Q521. A conceptual data model defines the structure of the data
D. None and method or processes that use:
Q517. Analysis of an existing system starts when a customer A. File
request either for computerizing B. Data
his : C. Operation
A. Non-computerized operations D. Testing
B. Computerized operations Q522. CDA stands for:
C. Relational operation A. Confirmatory data analysis
D. Database operation Q523. EDA stands for:
Q518. Which is done by developers is centered on input and A. Exploratory data analysis
output expected by the customer: A. Requires interaction Q524. WWW stands for: A. World wide web
B. Analysis of starting C. Analysis of existing D. None of these Q525. Which is the forerunner of data analysis having close
Q519. What dose a system design include: A. I/O devices link with data visualization and
B. CPU data dissemination:
C. Storage unit A. Data analysis model
D. All of these B. Data structure
Q520. Which are used by developers to extrapolate C. Data analysis
complexities of real world into a computer based model: D. Data integration
A. Data analysis techniques Q526. In preliminary and final designs the design of physical
B. Data analysis model database focuses the way data is
C. Data structure physically : A. Delete
B. Start C. Stored D. Read D. Testing
Q527. Primary steps for converting a logical data model to Q532. Which refers to the process of executing new and
preliminary physical data model are: revised programs to check whether the process and running
A. Converting entities into file properly:
B. Converting relationship for accessing paths using keys A. Maintenance
C. Adding B. Analysis of starting
D. De-normalization C. Implementation
E. Tuning D. Testing
F. Converting Q533. Which refers to the proper upkeep of data, hardware,
G. Reduction of chain length software and in general of the entire system:
H. All of these A. Tuning
I. None of these B. Analysis of starting
Q528. JPEG stands for: C. Implementation
A. Joint photographic experts group D. Maintenance
Q529. MPEG stands for: Q534. Which refers to the use of various techniques for the
A. Moving pictures experts group adjustments and change made to help the system work
Q530 . DVI stands for: efficiently:
A. Digital video interactive A. Tuning
Q531. Which refers to the process of installing B. Analysis of starting
programs/software in a system of information system: C. Implementation
A. Requires interaction D. All of these
B. Analysis of starting Q535. Files that require immediate access, must be stored on
C. Implementation : A. Slow devices
B. Faster devices D. 4
C. Medium devices Q540. Which are the not a type of maintenance:
D. All of these A. Corrective B. Adaptive C. Perfective
Q536. The batch accesses may be stored on slow devices such D. None of these
as : A. Optical disk Q541. Which is conducted for assessing the quality of the
B. Tape system produced by developer for customer:
C. Both A. Maintenance
D. None B. Analysis of starting
Q537. How many types of changeover methods: C. Implementation
A. 1 D. Testing
B. 2 Q542. Which is basically an RDBMS in which object oriented
C. 3 features are implemented: A. Java
D. 4 B. C++
Q538 .Which the types of changeover methods: A. Direct C. Oracle
B. Parallel D. DBMS
C. Pilot Q543. Which was the first commercial RDBMS:
D. Staged or phased A. MS SQL B. DB2
E. All of these C. MY SQL
Q539. How many types of maintenance: A. 1 D. ORACLE
B. 2 Q544. In which year RSI introduced oracle V2:
C. 3
 A. 44 row, backup and recovery: A. Oracle V6
B. 1979 B. Oracle V5
C. 1980 C. Oracle V3
D. 1981 D. Oracle V4
Q545. Which version of oracle, released in 1983: A. V1 Q550. Oracle 8 is an object relational database that was
B. V2 released in:
C. V3 A. 1977
D. V4 B. 1979
Q546. Which version of oracle supported multi-version read C. 1983
consistency: A. V1 D. 1985
B. V2 Q551. V6 of oracle also included the first version for : A.
C. V3 PL
D. V4 B. SQL
Q547. In which year oracle v5 was released: A. 1977 C. Both
B. 1979 D. None
C. 1983 Q552. Which was introduced stored procedures and triggers
D. 1985 in PL/SQL:
Q548. Which version of oracle entered the market with more A. Oracle V6
features: A. V2 B. Oracle V5
B. V3 C. Oracle V3
C. V5 D. Oracle V7
D. V6 Q553. Version 8i entered the market in :
Q549. Which has enhancements in the input/output operation
of disk, scalability, locking of
 A. 45 called : A. SGA
B. 1989 B. PGA
C. 1999 C. Both
D. None of these D. None
Q554. RAC stands for: Q560. Tables and indexes that are data of logical database
A. Real application cluster structure that are stored
Q555. Which version included RAC that enable multiple physically in the form of : A. Data files
instances for accessing a database simultaneously: B. Control files
A. V2i C. Online redo log files
B. V4i C. V6i D. V9i D. All of these
Q556. Oracle 9i was introduced in: Q561. Which files has metadata that specifies database
A. 1999 structure that includes database name along with database files
B. 2000 names and locations:
C. 2001 A. Data files
D. 2002 B. Control files
Q557. ASM stands for: C. Online redo log files
A. Automatic storage management D. All of these
Q558. Oracle database 11g was released in : A. 2001 Q562. Which is also known as redo records, recording
B. 2002 whatever changes are made to data: A. Data files
C. 2006 B. Control files
D. 2007 C. Online redo log files
Q559. The server process contains memory for a private session
which is its own and is
D. All of these Q567. SOA stands for:
Q563. The data in oracle database is stored in blocks known as A. Service- oriented architecture
: A. Data blocks Q568. SOAP stands for:
B. Extents A. Simple object access protocol
C. Segments Q569. WSDL stands for:
D. Tablespaces A. Web services description language
Q564. Which contains many extents: A. Data blocks Q570. ONS stands for: A. Oracle net services Q571. OLTP
B. Extents stands for:
C. Segments A. Online transaction processing
D. Tablespaces Q572. OLAP stands for:
Q565. _ shows a specified number of data blocks that are A. Online analytical processing
logically contiguous and keeps a particular type of information Q573. Which refers to a software that can be executed on two
in its storage: or more kinds of computer containing two or more kinds of
A. Data blocks operating system:
B. Extents A. Data blocks
C. Segments B. Extents
D. Tablespaces C. Segments
Q566. Which are logical storage units contained in a database D. Portable
and a logical container for some segment: Q574. Which refers to independent events of the main program
A. Data blocks flow of the systems that lacks concurrency:
B. Extents A. RDBMS
C. Segments B. Portable
D. Tablespaces C. Asynchronously
D. None of these C. Memory
Q575. Which is a method provided by an operating system, D. None of these
running in a sequence of steps: A. Storage Q580. MIS stands for:
B. Process A. Management Information Server B. Management
C. Computing Information Service C. Management Information System D.
D. None of these Master Information System
Q576. How many interfaces provided by oracle: A. 1 Q581. Which is the false statement:
B. 2 A. A database is ordered collection of data.
C. 3 B. A database is systematic compilation of records in a
D. 4 computer.
Q577. Which interface provided by oracle: A. SQL*PLUS C. DBMS manages the database
B. SQL*PLUS command line interface D. Data helps in making decisions. Q582. Which is the data
C. SQLPlus Worksheet model
D. iSQL*PLUS A. Relational
E. All of these B. Object-Relational
Q578. refers to the basic facts and entities, such as C. Network
names and numbers. A. Data D. All of these
B. Information Q583. Which is not the feature of database: A. Data
C. Input redundancy
D. Output B. Independence
Q579. Information is processed from A. Output C. Flexibility
B. Data
D. Data Integrity Q588. Which person is responsible for overall activities
Q584. Which is the type of data independence: A. for database: A. Database designer
Physical data independence B. Database analyst
B. Logical data independence C. Database Administrator
C. Both D. Database manager
D. None of these Q589. Which level of database is viewed by user: A.
Q585. Which is the feature of database: A. Query Internal level
Language B. External Level
B. Multi user access C. Conceptual Level
C. Data Dictionary D. All of these
D. All of these Q590. Internal level has:
Q586. Which is the advantage of database: A. Prevents A. Individual Users View of the database
Data redundancy B. Community view of the database
B. Restricts unauthorized access C. Physical Representation of the database
C. Persistent storage D. All of these
D. Backup and recovery Q591. Which is the component of database management
E. Integrity Constraints system: A. Query Language
F. All of these B. Database Manager
Q587. Which is the database language: C. File manager
A. C D. All of these
B. C++ C. SQL Q592. is the structure of the database.
D. None of these A. Table
B. Relation
C. Schema B. Relational Model
D. None of these C. Hierarchical Model
Q593. Schema is usually stored in . D. Object Oriented
A. Tables Q598. Which is the schema object:
B. Data Dictionary A. Database links and clusters
C. Both B. Packages and Indexes
D. None of these C. Procedures and functions
Q594. Schema is defined by: A. DML D. All of these
B. DDL C. DCL D. DQL Q599. In database records are called: A. Attributes
Q595. DML language is used to: B. Entity
A. Define schema C. Tuples
B. Define internal level D. Relations
C. Access Data Q600. An entity has a set of that describe
D. All of these it.
Q596. DBMS is the bridge between operating system A. Attributes
and . A. User B. Entity
B. Database administrator C. Tuples
C. Application program D. Relations
D. None of these Q601. In ER model rectangle represents: A. Attributes
Q597. Which is the most popular database model: A. B. Entity set
Network Model C. Relationships
D. None of these
Q602. Date is the type of attribute: A. Simple
B. Composite
C. Single values
D. Multi valued
Q603. is the attribute or group of attributes that
uniquely identify occurrence of each entity.
A. Foreign key
B. Super Key
C. Primary Key
D. All of these
Q604. _ is the real world object, such as a person,
place etc.
A. Attribute
B. Entity
C. Records
D. All of these
Q605. Grant and revoke is the type of command: A. DDL
B. DML C. DCL
D. DQL
Q606. A user that manages the files of application in DBMS is
called: A. Administrator
B. Database analyst
C. File Manager
D. None of these
Q607. is the information about data.
A. Data
B. Meta-Data
C. Entity
D. Relations